REVISION 3

Both papers recent

recalls

Dr/Ahmed Gad
www.newpetc.com
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Dr. Ahmed Gad

1- Which medication is known to significantly affect the effectiveness of combined oral

contraceptives (COCs)?
a) Aspirin
b) Rifampin
c) Valproate
d) Ibuprofen

2- Which of the following conditions is commonly associated with an increase in alkaline

phosphatase (ALP) levels?
a) Iron deficiency anaemia.
b) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
c) Osteoporosis
d) Liver disease

3- In thin-layer chromatography (TLC), the adsorbent is called

a) Mobile phase
b) Detector
c) Stationary phase
d) Analyzer

4- Which of the following drugs contains a ketone group in its structure?

a) Diazepam
b) Phenobarbitone
c) Paracetamol
d) Aspirin

5- Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) is released by which gland in the body?

a) Anterior Pituitary gland
b) Thyroid gland
c) Adrenal gland
d) Pancreas

6- BHA (butylated hydroxy anisole) is:

a) A synthetic antioxidant commonly used in food and cosmetic products.
b) A hormone produced by the thyroid gland.
c) An antiviral medication used to treat influenza.
d) A type of beta-blocker is used to treat high blood pressure.

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7- Nosocomial means:
a) A type of viral infection
b) Infection caused by contaminated food.
c) A medical facility related infection.
d) An infection transmitted through the nose.

8- Tamoxifen does not act as an agonist in which tissue?

a) Breast tissue
b) Ovarian tissue
c) Uterine tissue
d) Bone tissue

9- Alcohol withdrawal and dependence are related to the deficiency of which vitamin?
a) Vitamin A
b) Thiamine
c) Ascorbic acid
d) Pyridoxine

10- Tolnaftate is:

a) An antiviral medication used to treat influenza.
b) An antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections.
c) An antifungal medication used to treat fungal skin infections.
d) Antihistamine is used to relieve allergy symptoms.

11- The most specific or unique organism that clarithromycin is effective against, then the answer
would be:
a) Legionella
b) Staphylococcus aureus
c) Streptococcus pneumoniae
d) Helicobacter pylori

12- What is the treatment of choice for infections caused by Pseudomonas jiroveci?
a) Ciprofloxacin
b) Vancomycin
c) Clindamycin
d) Cotrimoxazole

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13- Which of the following is a potential side effect of enoxaparin?

a) Nausea and vomiting
b) Increased blood pressure
c) Liver toxicity
d) Renal impairment

14- What is the onset of action of formoterol, a long-acting beta-agonist bronchodilator?

a) 2-3 minutes
b) 15 minutes
c) 1 hour
d) 4 hours

15- What is the usual dose of glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) used for the management of angina and acute
chest pain?
a) 0.3 -0.6 mg sublingual tab
b) 2.5 mg sublingual tab
c) 5 mg spray
d) 10 mg sublingual tab

16- Which of the following factors affects the Beer-Lambert law?

a) Temperature of the solution
b) Concentration of the solvent
c) Length of the sample container
d) Particle size of the solute

17- Which is not used in overactive bladder:

a) Darifenacin,
b) Botulinum toxin,
c) Mirtazapine
d) Desmopressin

18- Which increase gas anesthesia efficacy?

a) Partial Pressure of the gas in the tissues
b) Partial Pressure of the gas in the blood
c) Potency of the drug
d) Difference in partial pressure between the blood and the tissues.

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19- Not symptoms of allergic rhinitis:

a) Rhinorrhea
b) Sinus pain
c) Conjunctival swelling
d) Itchy throat.

20- What best describes isomers?

a) Molecules with different molecular formulas but identical structures.
b) Molecules with different molecular formulas and different structures.
c) Molecules with the same molecular formula but exist differently in space.
d) Molecules with the same molecular formula and the same structures.

21- What is the most appropriate description of dystonia caused by antipsychotics?

a) The symptoms happen after a few weeks of taking the medication.
b) Dystonia is reversible after stopping the medication.
c) The symptoms occur immediately after taking the medication.
d) Dystonia is not related to antipsychotic use.

22- How would you describe the interaction between Bromocriptine and levodopa?
a) Pharmacodynamic
b) Physio-chemical
c) Pharmacokinetic
d) Physiological

23- Buprenorphine is a partial agonist, and a brand name combination between buprenorphine and
naloxone is known as Suboxone, with a ratio of 4:1. Suboxone is used for:
a) Treating acute pain in patients with opioid addiction.
b) Managing withdrawal symptoms in opioid-addicted individuals.
c) Inducing anesthesia during surgical procedures.
d) Treating chronic pain in patients with opioid tolerance.

24- Why is Na (sodium) added to EDTA?

a) To increase its acidity
b) To enhance its stability as a chelating agent
c) To decrease its solubility
d) To reduce its chemical reactivity

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25- Infant body (what’s correct)?

a) Less water than adult
b) Fats decrease till reaching childhood.
c) Kidney develops slowly so longer half-life for drugs.
d) Drugs binds more to plasma protein.

26- What is the primary purpose of COVID-19 vaccines?

a) Fully protect individuals from getting infected with the virus.
b) Protect individuals from life-threatening infections caused by the virus.
c) Prevent the spread of the virus within the community.
d) Provide immunity against all variants of the virus.

27- Which of the following bacteria is a common cause of cellulitis?

a) Staphylococcus saprophyticus
b) Escherichia coli (E. coli)
c) Streptococcus pyogenes
d) Staphylococcus viridans (S. viridans)

28- The following is the structure of Alpha amino acid.

a)

b)

c)

d)

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29-32: (case study) 29-A patient have pyelonephritis and type II diabetes mellites, answer the
following questions:
Which of the following antidiabetic drugs leads to weight gain?
a) Metformin
b) Liraglutide
c) Gliclazide
d) Pramlintide

(case study) 30- A patient have pyelonephritis and type II diabetes mellites, answer the following
questions:
Who is at risk factor of pyelonephritis?
a) Hypertensive patient
b) Diabetes mellites
c) Obesity
d) Liver cirrhosis

(case study) 31- A patient have pyelonephritis and type II diabetes mellites, answer the following
questions:
What is the causative organism of pyelonephritis?
a) Klebsiella
b) Streptococcus pneumonia
c) Bacteroides fragilis
d) E. coli

(case study) 32- A patient have pyelonephritis and type II diabetes mellites, answer the following
questions:
All the following can be used to treat pyelonephritis except:
a) Gentamycin
b) Sulfamethoxazole + trimethoprim
c) Ciprofloxacin
d) Nitrofurantoin

33- The following structure is:

a) Fluroquinolone
b) Flucloxacillin
c) Fluro butyrophenone
d) Fluthiazine

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34- The structure of Amphetamine is related to which class:

a) Phenyl ethyl amine
b) Butyrophenone
c) Ethanol amine
d) Catechol amine

35- Dexamethasone in CINAV used for:

a) Immunosuppressant agent
b) Treatment of some types of solid cancer
c) Treatment of delayed nausea & vomiting
d) Antagonize the 5HT3 receptor.

36- Which of the following is a long-acting NSAIDs?

a) Ibuprofen
b) Celecoxib
c) Diclofenac
d) Indomethacin

37- Splitting in tablet due to the defect in manufacturing process called as:
a) Capping
b) Cracking,
c) Crushing,
d) Molting.

38- Which of the following is a common side effect of beta-blockers?

a) Headache
b) Diarrhea
c) Cold extremities
d) Insomnia

39- Which antiepileptic medication is least preferred due to its hepatic metabolism?
a) Carbamazepine (CBZ)
b) Gabapentin
c) Levetiracetam
d) Phenytoin

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40- Which statement is incorrect about alkaloids?

a) Soluble in alcohol
b) Insoluble in water
c) Pka lower than 7
d) All the above are correct.

41- What contributes to the long duration of action of Omeprazole in the inhibition of gastric acid
secretion?
a) Omeprazole has a long half-life.
b) Irreversible inhibition of H+/K+ pump
c) Rapid metabolism in the liver
d) Binds selectively to histamine receptors.

42- Which is less addictive?

a) Nicotine
b) Codeine
c) Morphine
d) Cocaine

43- What is the primary purpose of Tandem Mass Spectrometry (MS/MS)?

a) Determining molecular weight
b) Identifying and quantifying molecules
c) Measuring radioactivity
d) Visualizing molecular structures

44- The following structure is.

a) Ceftriaxone
b) Meropenem
c) Piperacillin
d) Aztreonam

45- Which of the following is NOT typically an adverse effect of Hydrochlorothiazide?

a) Hypokalemia
b) Hyperkalemia
c) Hyperuricemia
d) Hyperglycemia

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46- Which of the following is NOT typically an adverse effect of Fluoxetine?

a) Insomnia
b) Weight Gain
c) Sexual Dysfunction
d) Hypertension

47- What is the primary function of restriction endonucleases?

a) DNA Replication
b) DNA Repair
c) DNA Restriction
d) DNA Cleavage at Specific Sites

48- What cellular structure is often found on the Endoplasmic Reticulum (ER)?
a) Ribosomes
b) Golgi Apparatus
c) Lysosomes
d) Peroxisomes

49- What is the most common cause of urinary urgency?

a) Overactive bladder
b) Vaginal infection
c) Enlarged prostate.
d) Interstitial cystitis

50- What is the primary use of Praziquantel in medical treatment?

a) Antiprotozoal
b) Antimalarial
c) Anthelmintic
d) Antifungal

51- Which of the following conditions is contraindicated with the use of Betaxolol?
a) Hypertension
b) Asthma
c) Diabetes
d) Migraine headaches

52- Penicillins cephalosporin cross sensitivity

a) 4-10%
b) 10-20%
c) 20-30%
d) 100%

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53- Which drug is metabolized by both phase I & phase II and excreted as glucuronide
a) Diazepam
b) Glimepiride
c) Paracetamol
d) Digoxin

54- 2 g KCl in 500 ml infusion with infusion rate of 100 ml/hr., How many mEq/ min? (Mwt of KCl =
74.5)
a) 0.089 mEq/min
b) 0.0053 mEq/min
c) 0.026 mEq/min
d) 0.04 mEq/min

55- Compensation of respiratory acidosis

a) Hypoventilation
b) Increase bicarbonate excretion.
c) Increase reabsorption of bicarbonate
d) Hyperventilation

56- Treatment of renal artery stenosis:

a) Methyl dopa
b) Tamsulosin
c) Ramipril
d) Nitroglycerin

57- In asthma:
a) ↑ airway passage resistance
b) ↓ airway passage resistance
c) The alveoli in the lungs become permanently enlarged and damaged.
d) An inflammation of the airways

58- Which of the following should not be crushed?

a) Cyproheptadine tab
b) Omeprazole enteric coated tab
c) Abacavir tab
d) Ascorbic acid effervescent tab

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59- Calculate the daily dose (3 times/day) for 2 years old child, 12 kg in weight receive 120 mg/5ml
bottle of paracetamol:
a) 50 ml
b) 75 ml
c) 22.5 ml
d) 7.5 ml

60- If the patient must take low Na⁺ salt, then change to:
a) AlCl3
b) KCl
c) KI
d) CaCl2

61- Pilocarpine cause:

a) Mydriasis
b) Miosis
c) Mythenia gravis.
d) Glaucoma

62- Which of the following is wrong?

a) Monitor with INR for warfarin therapy.
b) Monitor with anti Xa factor for apixaban.
c) Idarucizumab reverses the action of dabigatran.
d) Rivaroxaban is given to patients with CrCl <15 ml/minute.

63- Which drug is not used for the treatment of tenosynovitis?

a) Azathioprine
b) Ibuprofen
c) Ceftriaxone
d) Dexamethasone

64- For left AV valve, which is wrong?

a) Closed when ventricular ejection.
b) Opened when ventricular filling.
c) Opened when atrial filling.
d) Closed when atrial filling.

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65- Vaccine that should be taken every year for 65y male
a) Hepatitis B vaccine.
b) Pneumococcal vaccine.
c) Varicella zoster vaccine.
d) Influenza vaccine.

66- Which vaccine is a live virus vaccine?

a) Inactivated polio vaccine
b) Mumps vaccine
c) Hepatitis B vaccine
d) Hemophilus influenzae type B (Hib) vaccine

67- A vaccine which is not taken in immunocompromised patients

a) Rabies vaccine.
b) Flu vaccine.
c) Yellow fever vaccine.
d) Pneumococcal vaccine.

68- Colchicine:
a) Cause constipation.
b) Colchicine + simvastatin → cause myopathy.
c) Colchicine is an inducer to CYP2C19 and P-glycoprotein.
d) Colchicine cause dose independent side effect.

69- Which ring is present in digoxin:

a) Steroidal ring
b) Pyrrole ring
c) Naphthalene ring
d) Anthracene ring

70- Which of the following is predominately excreted as an unchanged drug

a) Propoxyphene
b) Phenytoin
c) Acamprosate calcium
d) Codeine

71-Most of the phenytoin excreted through:

a) Liver
b) Kidney
c) Skin
d) Lung

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72-Which of the following drugs is known to increase the serum level of rivaroxaban?
a) Aspirin
b) Simvastatin
c) Amiodarone
d) Metformin

73-The recommended regimen for uncomplicated gonococcal infection of the cervix, urethra, or
rectum among adults and adolescents is:
a) Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM in a single dose + doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily for 7 days
b) Cefixime 800 mg orally in a single dose + azithromycin 1 g orally in a single dose
c) Spectinomycin 2 g IM in a single dose +doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily for 7 days
d) Gentamicin 240 mg IM in a single dose + azithromycin 2 g orally in a single dose

From 74-79: A 35-year-old man who weighs 70 kg and has normal renal function needs an
intravenous infusion of the antibiotic Carbenicillin. The desired steady state plasma drug
concentration is 15 mg/dL. The physician wants the antibiotic to be infused into the patient for 10
hrs. Carbenicillin has an elimination half-life (t½) of 1 hrs and an apparent volume distribution (VD) of
9 L in this patient.

74- Assuming that no loading dose was given, what rate of intravenous infusion is recommended for
this patient?
a) 93.6 mg/hr.
b) 135.0 mg/hr.
c) 468.0 mg/hr.
d) 936.0 mg/hr.

75- Assuming that no loading intravenous dose was given, how long after the initiation of the
intravenous infusion would the plasma drug concentration reach 95% of the theoretic steady-state
drug concentration?
a) 1 hrs
b) 3.3 hrs
c) 4.3 hrs
d) 6.6 hrs

76- What is the recommended loading dose?

a) 135.0 mg
b) 468.0 mg
c) 936.0 mg
d) 1350.0 mg

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77- To infuse the antibiotic as a solution containing 10g drug in 500 mL 5% dextrose, how many
milliliters per hour of the solution would be infused into the patient?
a) 10.0 mL/hr.
b) 46.8 mL/hr.
c) 100.0 mL/hr.
d) 936.0 mL/hr.

78- What is the total body clearance rate for Carbenicillin in this patient?
a) 100 mL/hr.
b) 936 mL/hr.
c) 4862 mL/hr.
d) 6237 mL/hr.

79- If the patient’s renal clearance for Carbenicillin is 86 mL/min, what is the hepatic clearance for
Carbenicillin?
a) 108 mL/hr.
b) 1077 mL/hr.
c) 3840 mL/hr.
d) 5160 mL/h

From 80-82: A new cardiac glycoside is developed for oral and intravenous administration. The drug
has an elimination half-life (t½) of 24 hrs and an apparent volume of distribution (VD) of 3 L/kg. The
effective drug concentration is 1.5 ng/ml. Toxic effects of the drug are observed at drug
concentrations>4 ng/ml. The drug is bound to plasma proteins at approximately 25%. The drug is
75% bioavailable after an oral dose.

80- What is the oral maintenance dose, if given once a day, for a 68-year-old man who weighs 65 kg
and has congestive heart failure (CHF) and normal renal function?
a) 0.125 mg
b) 0.180 mg
c) 0.203 mg
d) 0.270 mg

81- What is the loading dose (DL) for this patient?

a) 0.270 mg
b) 0.293 mg
c) 0.450 mg
d) 0.540 mg

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82- If the drug is available in tablets of 0.125 mg and 0.250 mg, what is the patient’s plasma drug
concentration if he has a dosage regimen of 0.125 mg every 12 hrs?
a) 1.39 ng/mL
b) 1.85 ng/mL
c) 2.78 ng/mL
d) 3.18 ng/mL

83- The rate of potassium chloride infusion:

a) 100 mEq/hr.
b) 200 mEq/hr.
c) 40 mEq/hr.
d) 10 mEq/hr.

84- Definition of molarity:

a) Number of moles of solute in ml of solution.
b) The number of moles of solute present in one litre of solution.
c) Number of equivalences of solute in one litre of solution.
d) Number of milliosmoles of solute present in one litre of solution.

85- Which of the following is not a rare side effect of aspirin?

a) Agranulocytosis
b) Erythema multiforme
c) Urticaria
d) Hemorrhagic vasculitis

86- The class of dipyridamole is.

a) Anti-epileptic.
b) Antiplatelets
c) Anticoagulant
d) Antihyperlipidemic.

87- Which disease is not initiated by inflammation of synovial fluid?

a) RA.
b) OA.
c) MS.
d) Gout.

88- Which of the following is the least appropriate statement about phenol?
a) Phenol is a hydroxyl group attached to a benzene ring.
b) Phenol is prone to dehydration.
c) Phenol has a pka of about 10.
d) Phenol can form hydrogen bonds with water.

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89- Women who have heart failure, hypertension and incontinence need to treat for HF
a) Captopril.
b) Furosemide.
c) Nifedipine.
d) Atenolol.

90- All are risk factors of atherosclerosis except:

a) Smoking
b) Family history
c) HTN and Hyperlipidemia
d) Rheumatic fever

91- Purified water USP may not be used in

a) Syrups
b) Topical preparations
c) Parenteral preparations
d) Elixirs

92- All are causing photosensitivity except:

a) Amiodarone
b) Sulphonamide
c) Azathioprine
d) Thiazides

93- Acarbose maximum daily dose:

a) 600 mg daily
b) 50-100 mg daily
c) 300 mg daily on divided doses
d) 60 mg daily

94- Exposure to 220-250nm wavelength leads to what?

a) DNA damage
b) Cell lysis
c) Impair protein synthesis.
d) Electrolyte imbalance

95- Roxithromycin maximum dose:

a) 150 once daily
b) 300 mg twice daily
c) 150 mg twice daily
d) 150 mg three times daily

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96- The layer of skin that has the greatest effect on percutaneous absorption of drugs is
a) Subcutaneous layer
b) Stratum germinatum
c) Dermis
d) Stratum corneum

97- All are true about penciclovir except:

a) Oral penciclovir is more effective than topical.
b) It is an active metabolite of Famciclovir.
c) Used in the treatment of cold sores.
d) Patients should apply the cream every 2 hrs while awake for 4 days.

98- The structure present is for.

a) Aniline.
b) Naphthalene.
c) Phenylethylamine.
d) Aminobenzene.

99- A 51-year-old woman with symptoms of major depression also has angle-closure glaucoma.
Which of the following antidepressants should be avoided in this patient?
a) Amitriptyline.
b) Sertraline.
c) Bupropion.
d) Mirtazapine.

100- Best action for barbiturate toxicity:

a) Vit C for urinary elimination.
b) Ipecac alkaloid.
c) Flumazenil.
d) Support respiration.

101- CYP450 are in?

a) Endoplasmic reticulum.
b) Nucleus.
c) Mitochondria.
d) Golgi Apparatus.

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102- Which of the following agents is considered a first-line treatment for narcolepsy?
a) Atomoxetine.
b) Clonidine.
c) Temazepam.
d) Modafinil.

103- Erythromycin activity is due to:

a) Lactone ring.
b) Pyran ring.
c) Amino group.
d) Hydroxyl groups.

104-Which of the following is the most appropriate initial oral agent for management of type 2
diabetes in patients with no other comorbid conditions?
a) Glipizide.
b) Insulin.
c) Metformin.
d) Pioglitazone.

105- Permethrin 5% used for:

a) Head louse.
b) Scabies
c) Urticaria
d) Acne

106- Which of the following is a weakest acid:

a) Boric acid pka 9.24
b) Acetic acid pka 4.76
c) salicylic acid pka 2.98
d) formic acid pka 3.75

107- To prepare a buffer system of PH 4 use

a) Boric acid pka 9.24
b) lactic acid, pka=3.86
c) Acetic acid pka 4.76
d) phosphoric acid pka 2.16

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108- All are symptoms of Cushing syndrome except:

a) Weight loss
b) Fatty deposits around the base of the neck
c) Purple stretch mark
d) Thinning skin

109- Pagett’s disease can be treated by all except:

a) Alendronate
b) Calcitonin
c) Ibandronate
d) Pyridoxine

110- Bromhexine not used as

a) Antitussive
b) Mucolytic agent
c) For chronic asthma and bronchitis
d) Productive cough

111- The bond between alcohol and water is:

a) Covalent bond
b) Hydrogen bond
c) Ionic bond
d) Coordinate bond.

112- The most appropriate counseling for a female taking oral contraceptive and Doxycycline:
a) Use a second method of contraception while taking Doxycycline.
b) Increase the dose of Doxycycline.
c) Change the oral contraceptive to another method.
d) Take Doxycycline with milk to increase its absorption.

113- Huntington's disease leads to:

a) Increase excitatory neurotransmitter.
b) Decrease of GABA release
c) Decrease acetyl choline production.
d) Decrease dopamine release.

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114- If the pka of a weakly acidic drug equals the pH of the medium, then according to Henderson-
Hasselbalch equation the amount of ionized and nonionized species will be:
a) 50 % ionized and 50 % nonionized.
b) 40 % nonionized and 60 % ionized.
c) 40 % ionized and 60 % nonionized.
d) 70 % nonionized and 30 % ionized.

115- Interaction between lithium and NSAIDs, NSAIDs will cause:

a) ↓Reabsorption of lithium.
b) ↑Excretion of lithium.
c) ↓ Blood flow to kidney leading to accumulation of lithium.
d) ↓ Lithium level due to ↑ its reabsorption.

116- The excretion of Ibuprofen is:

a) Excreted unchanged in the urine.
b) Excreted unchanged in bile.
c) Excreted as glucuronide conjugate in urine.
d) Is 90% excreted as a free drug in urine.

117- The decrease in kidney perfusion is due to:

a) Decrease efferent.
b) Increase afferent.
c) Decrease afferent.
d) No change.

118- Which of the following requires a loading dose?

a) Phenytoin.
b) Morphine
c) Ibuprofen
d) Paracetamol

119- Valproate exposure in pregnancy has also been associated with a risk of:
a) Hepatotoxicity
b) Abortion
c) Spina bifida
d) Alopecia

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120- In diabetic ketoacidosis

a) Increase ketone consumption.
b) Increase ketone absorption.
c) Increase breakdown of fats
d) Increase ketone breakdown.

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❖ Transdermal patches:

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❖ Common medications and their antidotes

❖ Some drugs associated with hepatic failure:

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❖ Some drugs associated with renal failure:

❖ Some drugs associated with folic acid deficiency:

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❖ Drug of choice for hypertension with coexisting conditions

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❖ Important drug doses

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Answers

1 B 26 B 51 B 76 D 101 A
2 D 27 C 52 A 77 B 102 D
3 C 28 A 53 A 78 D 103 A
4 B 29 C 54 A 79 B 104 C
5 A 30 B 55 C 80 D 105 B
6 A 31 D 56 C 81 D 106 A
7 C 32 D 57 A 82 A 107 B
8 A 33 C 58 B 83 C 108 A
9 B 34 A 59 C 84 B 109 D
10 C 35 C 60 B 85 C 110 A
11 D 36 B 61 B 86 B 111 B
12 D 37 A 62 D 87 C 112 A
13 D 38 C 63 A 88 B 113 B
14 A 39 A 64 C 89 D 114 A
15 A 40 C 65 D 90 D 115 C
16 C 41 B 66 B 91 C 116 C
17 C 42 A 67 C 92 C 117 C
18 D 43 B 68 B 93 A 118 A
19 B 44 C 69 A 94 A 119 C
20 C 45 B 70 C 95 C 120 C
21 C 46 D 71 B 96 D
22 A 47 D 72 C 97 A
23 B 48 A 73 A 98 C
24 B 49 A 74 D 99 A
25 C 50 C 75 C 100 D

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