REVISION 1

Paper 1 recent recalls

Dr/Ahmed Gad
www.newpetc.com
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Dr. Ahmed Gad

1- What is the mechanism of action of Quinolones in bacterial cells?

a) Ribosomes
b) Cell wall synthesis
c) DNA gyrase/topoisomerase II and topoisomerase IV
d) RNA polymerase

2- Which antiepileptic medication is associated with Less risk of causing sexual dysfunction in some
patients?
a) Carbamazepine
b) Valproic acid
c) Lamotrigine
d) Pregabalin

3- Which medication is known to cause thyrotoxicosis as a potential side effect?

a) Ibuprofen
b) Amiodarone
c) Acetaminophen
d) Omeprazole

4- Which of the following is not a conjugate vaccine?

a) Hib vaccine
b) Meningococcal vaccine
c) Influenza vaccine
d) Pneumococcal vaccine

5- Which of the following side effects are associated with the use of quinolone antibiotics?
a) Nausea and vomiting
b) Headache and dizziness
c) Tendonitis
d) Phototoxicity

6- What can happen when aspirin and warfarin are taken together?
a) The effectiveness of both medications increases, providing stronger anticoagulation.
b) The combination may lead to increased risk of bleeding due to additive anticoagulant effects.
c) The medications may cancel out each other's anticoagulant effects, reducing their efficacy.
d) There are no significant interactions, and they can be safely used together.

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7- Which of the following is a pyrrole ring?

a) c)

b) d)

8- What happens to Para-Amino salicylic Acid (PASA) in an acidic medium?

a) PASA remains unchanged and stable.
b) PASA is decarboxylated in acidic medium.
c) PASA undergoes hydrolysis into its constituent molecules.
d) PASA becomes insoluble and precipitates.

9- Which anticancer drug is known to be associated with the development of painful mouth ulcers as
a common side effect?
a) Methotrexate
b) Paclitaxel
c) Doxorubicin
d) 5-Fluorouracil (5FU)

10- Which of the following medications is not known to cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels)?
a) Furosemide
b) Hydrochlorothiazide
c) Digoxin
d) Albuterol

11- Which of the following medications is generally considered safe to use during breastfeeding?
a) Ibuprofen
b) Codeine
c) Carbamazepine (CBZ)
d) Warfarin

12- What is a stereoselective reaction?

a) A reaction that produces a mixture of stereoisomers in equal amounts.
b) A reaction that proceeds with equal rates in all stereoisomeric forms.
c) A reaction that produces a specific stereoisomer or a predominant stereoisomer in higher amounts.
d) A reaction that forms a racemic mixture of enantiomers.

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13- Which substance is fully absorbed from the renal tubule back into the bloodstream?
a) Urea
b) Creatinine
c) Sodium chloride
d) Glucose

14- Which is appropriate for adrenaline auto injection?

a) Used with patients having sneezing, watery eyes due to seasonal allergy.
b) Not to give full dose
c) Should be given completely.
d) Injected intravenously.

15- Which of the following is a chelating agent?

a) Paracetamol
b) Ibuprofen
c) Penicillin
d) EDTA

16- What happens when the gallbladder is removed?

a) Fats and oils are not emulsified.
b) Bile production increases, leading to improved fat digestion.
c) The liver stops producing bile altogether.
d) The risk of gallstones formation increases.

17- Which of the following NSAIDs contains sulfonamide moiety?

a) Asprin
b) Ibuprofen
c) Celecoxib
d) Naproxen

18- Which antibiotic can withstand temperatures of 121 degrees Celsius (250 degrees Fahrenheit)
without losing its potency?
a) Penicillin
b) Ciprofloxacin
c) Kanamycin
d) Clindamycin

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19- A patient has 70 liters of a drug in their body, and they have heart failure with only 0.05 drug
excretion. What is the most likely reason for the reduced drug excretion?
a) Impaired renal function
b) Increased drug metabolism
c) Drug interactions
d) Liver dysfunction

20- Which antibiotic is considered acid-labile and requires protection from stomach acid to maintain
its effectiveness?
a) Ciprofloxacin
b) Methicillin
c) Erythromycin
d) Doxycycline

21- What is the average true elimination half-life of amiodarone after long-term oral therapy?
a) 15 to 40 days
b) 40 to 60 days
c) 60 to 142 days
d) 142 to 200 days

22- Which drug is commonly used in the treatment of Hodgkin's lymphoma?

a) Rituximab
b) Imatinib
c) Paclitaxel
d) Vincristine

23- For ion trapping, which statement is incorrect?

a) Ion trapping involves the movement of a drug across a membrane in different ionized forms.
b) The process of ion trapping is influenced by the pH gradient across the membrane.
c) Ion trapping is more likely to occur for lipophilic drugs.
d) Ion trapping enhances drug excretion by facilitating reabsorption in the renal tubules.

24- Diphtheria is caused by which bacterium?

a) Streptococcus pneumoniae
b) Haemophilus influenzae
c) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
d) Neisseria meningitidis

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25- Which antibiotic is NOT recommended for the treatment of Bacteroides fragilis infections?
a) Cefalexin
b) Metronidazole
c) Clindamycin
d) Piperacillin-tazobactam

26- What is the primary mechanism of action of mebendazole as an anthelmintic drug?

a) Inhibition of cholinesterase enzymes
b) Blockade of neuromuscular transmission
c) Inhibition of microtubule formation and glucose uptake in parasites
d) Disruption of parasite cell membranes

27- Which drug is known to cause hypomagnesemia?

a) Esomeprazole
b) Acetaminophen
c) Ibuprofen
d) Metformin

28- Which benzodiazepine (BZD) has the longest duration of action?

a) Alprazolam
b) Diazepam
c) Lorazepam
d) Clonazepam

29- What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of Prostacyclin (PGI2)?

a) Inhibits cyclooxygenase enzymes.
b) Activates thromboxane receptors.
c) Stimulates platelet aggregation.
d) Vasodilation and inhibition of platelet aggregation

30- Apixaban is an anticoagulant medication used to prevent blood clots. What can apixaban cause
as a side effect?
a) Increased risk of bleeding
b) Increased blood pressure
c) Liver toxicity
d) Hypoglycemia

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31- Which medication is known to be associated with tinnitus (ringing in the ears) as a side effect?
a) Ibuprofen
b) Paracetamol
c) Asprin
d) Naproxen

32- Which side effect is commonly associated with the use of Quetiapine?
a) Dry mouth
b) Increased energy levels
c) Weight gain
d) Insomnia

33- Which of the following is a disaccharide?

a) Glucose
b) Fructose
c) Sucrose
d) Galactose

34- What is the mechanism of action of pralidoxime as an antidote in organophosphorus poisoning?

a) It directly neutralizes the toxic effects of organophosphorus compounds.
b) It inhibits the activity of acetylcholinesterase, preventing the breakdown of acetylcholine.
c) It binds to organophosphorus compounds, forming non-toxic complexes.
d) It enhances the production of new acetylcholinesterase enzymes.

35- Which statement is correct about famciclovir?

a) Famciclovir is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections.
b) Famciclovir is an antifungal medication used to treat fungal infections.
c) Famciclovir is a prodrug that is converted into its active form in the body.
d) Famciclovir is a corticosteroid used to reduce inflammation.

36- Which of the following solvents is the most polar?

a) Water
b) Ethanol
c) Hexane
d) Chloroform

37- Which of the following is an example of an SGLT2 inhibitor?

a) Metformin
b) Insulin
c) Glipizide
d) Canagliflozin

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38- What are the common side effect of nicotinic blockers?

a) Increased heart rate
b) Dry mouth
c) Hypersalivation
d) Bronchodilation

39- What is a covalent bond?

a) A bond formed between two ions with opposite charges.
b) A bond formed by the sharing of electrons between two atoms.
c) A bond that involves the transfer of electrons from one atom to another.
d) A bond formed between two atoms of the same element.

40- The chemical interaction between methylcellulose and PABA is primarily characterized by:
a) Hydrolyses
b) Oxydation
c) Complexation
d) Esterification

41- Hyperreflexia is a side effect associated with the use of which class of medications?
a) Beta-blockers
b) Antidepressants
c) Calcium channel blockers
d) Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)

42- Which of the following is a common antibiotic used in the treatment of acute cystitis?
a) Cefalexin
b) Trimethoprim
c) Norfloxacin
d) Amoxicillin-clavulanic

43- What is the typical duration of treatment with norfloxacin for uncomplicated urinary tract
infections?
a) 3 days
b) 5 days
c) 7 days
d) 10 days

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44- Mebendazole exerts its mechanism of action by:

a) Inhibition of DNA synthesis
b) Disruption of cell membrane integrity
c) Inhibition of microtubule formation
d) Altering bacterial cell wall synthesis

45- In the conversion from morphine to codeine, which cytochrome enzyme is primarily involved?
a) CYP1A2
b) CYP2C9
c) CYP2D6
d) CYP3A4

46- What is the primary mechanism of action of the following structure?

a) Inhibition of cyclooxygenase
b) Blockade of sodium channels
c) Enhancement of GABA activity
d) Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase

47- Which of the following is not a benefit of Low Molecular Weight Heparin (LMWH)?
a) S.C. administration
b) Improved bioavailability
c) Reduced risk of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia
d) IM administration

48- Which part of the ear is primarily responsible for maintaining equilibrium?
a) Inner ear
b) Ossicles
c) External ear
d) Middle ear

49- Which hormones are involved in spermatogenesis?

a) Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
b) Luteinizing Hormone (LH)
c) Both FSH and LH
d) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG)

50- Which part of the nephron is primarily responsible for controlling extracellular potassium levels?
a) Proximal Convulated Tubule (PCT)
b) Distal Convulated Tubule (DCT)
c) Loop of Henle (LOH)
d) Collecting Duct (CD)

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51- Which of the following drugs does NOT directly affect beta adrenoreceptors?
a) Salbutamol
b) B-blocker
c) Phentolamine
d) Dobutamine

52- Which medication is considered relatively safe for use during pregnancy?
a) Ibuprofen
b) Codeine
c) CBZ (Carbamazepine)
d) Warfarin

53- When does the nadir typically occur in the context of chemotherapy?
a) Before the start of chemotherapy
b) During the initial days of chemotherapy
c) After the completion of chemotherapy
d) At the lowest point of blood cell counts during chemotherapy

54- What is the typical pattern of anemia associated with chronic kidney disease (CKD)?
a) Microcytic hypochromic
b) Macrocytic normochromic
c) Normocytic normochromic
d) Microcytic normochromic

55- Which of the following does NOT typically cause protein denaturation?
a) Exposure to ultraviolet (UV) light
b) Vigorous shaking
c) Change in temperature.
d) Maintaining a constant pH

56- Which of the following nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) is NOT considered Cox-
selective?
a) Meloxicam
b) Celecoxib
c) Piroxicam
d) Paracetamol

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57- Which adverse effects are associated with the co-administration of azathioprine and a decreased
level of deoxythymidine triphosphate (dTMP)?
a) Hepatotoxicity and Peripheral Neuropathy
b) Interstitial Nephritis and Myelosuppression
c) Cardiovascular Events and Gastrointestinal Bleeding
d) Osteoporosis and Pancreatitis

58- What is the primary source of energy for the brain?

a) Fatty Acids
b) Amino Acids
c) Glucose
d) Ketones

59- What is the primary effect of prostanol on smooth muscle?

a) Contraction of smooth muscle
b) Inhibition of smooth muscle activity
c) Relaxation of smooth muscle
d) Stimulation of smooth muscle growth

60-Which cannot be measured by immunoassay?

a) Vitamins
b) Hormones
c) Electrolytes
d) Viral infection

61- Acamprosate duration of therapy:

a) At least three months
b) Only two weeks
c) For one year
d) For six weeks

62- Which is not present in the phospholipid bilayer?

a) Phosphatidylcholine
b) Phosphatidylethanolamine
c) Sphingomyelin
d) Glucose

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63- Which drug produces hyponatremia?

a) Amphotericin B
b) Glucocorticoids
c) Fludrocortisone
d) Indomethacin

64- Which doesn’t cause hyperglycemia

a) HCTZ
b) Mefloquine
c) Prednisolone
d) Levofloxacin

65- Monitoring of clozapine for

a) WBCs
b) RBCs
c) Platelets
d) INR

66- Ferrous gluconate contains:

a) 33% elemental iron
b) 26% elemental iron
c) 11.6% elemental iron
d) 7.5% elemental iron

67- Not a symptom of Parkinson’s:

a) Bradykinesia
b) Tremor
c) Dyskinesia
d) Akinesia

68- Chlorpromazine doesn't cause:

a) Parkinsonism
b) Tardive dyskinesia
c) Dry mouth
d) Hypoprolactinemia

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69- Which is not used as preventative in acute exacerbation of asthma:

a) Formeterol
b) Salbutamol
c) Budesonide
d) Theophylline

70- Cholinergic chrisis occurs in:

a) A patient with Parkinson’s
b) A patient with Mythenia gravis
c) A patient with Alzheimer
d) A patient with psychosis

71- Not a side effect of dabigatran:

a) Cough
b) Bleeding
c) Gastrointestinal hemorrhage
d) Diarrhea

72- Mg citrate is:

a) Surface active agent
b) Lubricant
c) Osmotic laxative
d) Emulsifying agent

73- Which of the following does not require loading dose?

a) Digoxin.
b) Morphine.
c) Haloperidol.
d) Colchicine.

74- Which drug does not contraindicated with sildenafil?

a) Nitrofurantoin
b) Tamsulosin
c) Mifepristone
d) Isosorbide dinitrate

75- A side effect of mRNA vaccine:

a) Hypertension.
b) Secondary infection.
c) Pericarditis.
d) Diarrhea.

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76- Structure of stearic acid:

a) C18H36O2

b) C3H6O2

c) C18H32O2

d) C20H32O2

77- Celecoxib structure contain:

a) Pyrazine ring
b) Pyrazole ring
c) Pyrrole ring
d) Imidazole ring

78- Which of the following increase Succinyl choline action

a) Administration of Atropine
b) The deficiency of pseudocholinesterase enzyme
c) Competition with Ach at neuromuscular junction
d) The deficiency of monoamine oxidase enzyme

79- Anti-epileptic not C/I in pregnancy:

a) Valproic acid
b) carbamazepine
c) phenytoin
d) lamotrigine

80- What is the mechanism of action of Finasteride?

a) Inhibition of alpha-adrenergic receptors
b) Activation of androgen receptors
c) Inhibition of 5-alpha reductase enzyme
d) Stimulation of hair follicle growth

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81- What is the difference between penicillinase resistance and beta-lactamase resistance in
bacteria?
a) Penicillinase resistance is mediated by an enzyme that breaks down all types of beta-lactam antibiotics.
b) Penicillinase resistance and beta-lactamase resistance are synonymous terms for the same mechanism
of antibiotic resistance.
c) Beta-lactamase resistance is mediated by an enzyme that modifies the structure of the ring to make it
resistant to the antibiotic.
d) Penicillinase resistance is mediated by an enzyme that modifies the structure of the beta-lactam ring of
penicillin.

82- All the following are concentration-dependent antibiotics except

a) Gentamicin
b) Daptomycin
c) Penicillin G
d) Ciprofloxacin

83-Which of the following drugs does NOT need TDM?

a) Cyclosporine
b) Lithium
c) Warfarin
d) Gentamycin

84-The solubility of alcohol decreases with which changes in the structure.

a) Increase in the number of carbons atoms.
b) Increase in the number of oxygens atoms.
c) Increase in the number of hydrogens atoms.
d) Increase branching.

85-What is the most common way that bacteria enter the bloodstream and cause endocarditis in
children?
a) Dental work
b) Central venous access line
c) Skin infection
d) Urinary tract infection

86-Which immunoglobulin is not in the plasma?

a) IgG
b) IgS
c) IgM
d) IgE

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87- Butterfly flushing is a characteristic symptom associated with which medical condition?
a) Migraines
b) Rosacea
c) Psoriasis
d) Asthma

88- Among the following chemotherapy drugs, which is known to be one of the most common
causes of nausea?
a) Methotrexate
b) Paclitaxel
c) Doxorubicin
d) Cisplatin

89- Conversion from NE to EP is:

a) An Oxidation.
b) Demethylation.
c) Methylation.
d) Hydrolysis.

90- What is colchicine's primary mechanism of action in treating an acute attack?

a) Inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis
b) Activation of opioid receptors
c) Inhibition of microtubule polymerization
d) Stimulation of histamine release

91- Which of the following statements accurately describes a difference between spironolactone and
eplerenone?
a) Spironolactone is a selective aldosterone receptor antagonist, while eplerenone is a nonselective
aldosterone receptor antagonist.
b) Spironolactone is primarily used to treat hypertension, while eplerenone is primarily used to treat heart
failure.
c) Spironolactone has a higher risk of gynecomastia as a side effect compared to eplerenone.
d) Spironolactone is a more potent diuretic than eplerenone.

92- Formoterol, a medication commonly used for the treatment of asthma and chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease (COPD), exerts its therapeutic effects by:
a) Blocking histamine receptors
b) Inhibiting leukotriene synthesis
c) Stimulating beta-2 adrenergic receptors
d) Inhibiting cholinergic receptors

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93- Which of the following drugs can reduce the effectiveness of spironolactone in treating acne?
a) Ibuprofen
b) Meloxicam
c) Paracetamol
d) Aspirin

94- Not a side effect of isotretinoin:

a) Headache
b) Hypoglycemia
c) Dry mouth
d) Back pain

95- After constant intravenous infusion, plasma steady-state concentration depends on:
a) t½
b) Volume of distribution
c) Clearance rate
d) Dose

96- What is the maximum daily dose of imipramine for adults?

a) 50 mg
b) 100 mg
c) 200 mg
d) 300 mg

97- Bradykinin pharmacological effect:

a) Decreased vascular permeability.
b) Intestinal smooth muscle relaxation
c) Vascular smooth muscle contraction
d) Vascular smooth muscle relaxation

98-Dose of phenytoin in epilepsy

a) 200-500 mg daily once or in divided doses
b) 100 mg once daily
c) 15-20 mg/kg daily
d) 50 mg once daily

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99-Dose of paracetamol for 20 kg child:

a) 150 mg twice daily
b) 15 mg/kg once daily
c) 300 mg from 4-6 times per day
d) 150 mg every 8 hours

100- Cyanosis is:

a) Happened due to obstruction of the colon.
b) Deficiency of cyanocobalamin
c) Cyanide toxicity due to sod. nitroprusside
d) Bluish discoloration of the skin, nails, and mucous membrane.

101- Ultraviolet spectrum is:

a) 100-300 nm
b) 200-400 nm
c) 150-250 nm
d) 440-880 nm

102-Mode of action of cyclosporine is:

a) An inhibition of the production of cytokines involved in the regulation of T-cell activation.
b) Increasing interleukin-2 which is the primary stimulus to T-lymphocytes.
c) It stimulates the activation of T-cells.
d) It stimulates the transcription of cytokines gene.

103-Q fever is an infection caused by:

a) Water pollution
b) Inhalation of Coxiella burnetii microorganism
c) Contact with animals carrying Brucella.
d) Organism called Yersinia pestis.

104- A 58-year-old male is receiving chronic cyclosporine for his kidney transplant. He was recently
diagnosed with an acute gout flare and elevated uric acid. The long-term plan is to manage
chronic hyperuricemia with allopurinol.
a) There is no interaction between both drugs.
b) We should increase the dose of cyclosporine.
c) Allopurinol has been reported to potentially lead to higher levels of cyclosporine.
d) Cyclosporine will decrease the level of Allopurinol.

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105-Tobacco is an inducer for:

a) CYP3A4
b) CYP1A2
c) CYP2C9
d) CYP2C19

106-Warfarin is a substrate of:

a) CYP3A4
b) CYP1A2
c) CYP2C9
d) CYP2C19

107-Methyl paraben is:

a) Para- hydroxybenzoic acid
b) Para-amino benzoic acid
c) Para-methyl salicylic acid
d) Para- chloro methyl benzoate

108-What is the most appropriate with S-isomers:

a) Is a mirror image of R-isomer.
b) Rotate polarized light to left.
c) Rotate polarized light to the right.
d) More effective than R-isomer

109-Which is not an aromatase inhibitor:

a) Anastrozole
b) Nilutammide
c) Letrozole
d) Exemestane

110-Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is a disease that has edema in:

a) Ilium
b) Stomach
c) Oseophygous
d) pancreas

111-Blocking canal of Schlemm leads to:

a) Increase aqueous humor drainage.
b) Increase tears secretion.
c) Glaucoma
d) Perforation of ear drum

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112-Calcitriol is:
a) Active form of vitamin D3
b) Inactive form of vitamin D3
c) Decreases blood (Ca2+) level.
d) 25-hydroxycholcalciferol

113-Phenytoin is a substrate of:

a) CYP3A4
b) CYP2C9
c) CYP2D6
d) CYP1A2

114- If you know that 90 % of gentamicin and 5% of chloramphenicol are excreted in the urine, so for
renal impaired patients what is the most appropriate action is:
a) Decrease in the dose of both drugs.
b) Only decrease the dose of gentamicin
c) The dose of gentamicin will be once daily.
d) No change in the doses of both drugs

115-Which topical steroids have highest potency:

a) Hydrocortisone
b) Triamcinolone acetate
c) Betamethasone dipropionate
d) Fluticasone propionate

116- Mechanism of action of Emtricitabine:

a) Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor.
b) Non-Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor.
c) Protease inhibitor
d) Fusion inhibitor

117-All the following drug are used for anaerobic microorganisms except:
a) Clindamycin
b) Metronidazole
c) Moxifloxacin
d) Gentamicin

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118-All are true about St. john’s wort except:

a) Cause fatigue
b) May cause sexual dysfunction.
c) Induce asthma.
d) Cause stomach upsets

119-Acid stable penicillin:

a) Phenoxymethylpenicillin
b) Benzylpenicillin
c) Piperacillin
d) Carbenicillin

120-The following drug is:

a) Flucloxacillin
b) Tetracycline
c) Vitamin B3
d) Fluoxetine

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Answers

1 C 26 C 51 C 76 A 101 B
2 D 27 A 52 C 77 B 102 A
3 B 28 B 53 D 78 B 103 B
4 C 29 D 54 C 79 D 104 C
5 C 30 A 55 D 80 C 105 B
6 B 31 C 56 C 81 C 106 C
7 A 32 C 57 B 82 C 107 A
8 B 33 C 58 C 83 C 108 A
9 D 34 C 59 C 84 A 109 B
10 C 35 C 60 C 85 A 110 D
11 A 36 A 61 A 86 B 111 C
12 C 37 D 62 D 87 B 112 A
13 D 38 B 63 A 88 D 113 B
14 C 39 B 64 B 89 C 114 C
15 D 40 C 65 A 90 C 115 C
16 A 41 D 66 C 91 C 116 A
17 C 42 B 67 C 92 C 117 D
18 C 43 A 68 D 93 B 118 C
19 A 44 C 69 D 94 B 119 A
20 B 45 C 70 B 95 C 120 A
21 C 46 B 71 A 96 D
22 D 47 D 72 C 97 D
23 D 48 A 73 B 98 A
24 C 49 C 74 A 99 C
25 A 50 D 75 C 100 D

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REVISION 1 DR/AHMED GAD