I variant of tetsts about cardiocaskular deaseses drug

1. All of the following are normally involved in the pathogenesis of heart failure EXCEPT:
a) A cardiac lesion that impairs cardiac output
b) An increase in peripheral vascular resistance
c) A decrease in preload
d) An increase in sodium and water retention

2. The non-glycoside positive inotropic drug is:

a) Digoxin
b) Strophantin K
c) Dobutamine
d) Digitoxin

3. All of the following statements regarding cardiac glycosides are true EXCEPT:
a) They inhibit the Na+/K+-ATPase and thereby increase intracellular Ca++ in myocardial cells
b) They cause a decrease in vagal tone
c) Children tolerate higher doses of digitalis than do adults
d) The most frequent cause of digitalis intoxication is concurrent administration of diuretics that deplete
K+

4. Digoxin is thought to increase intracellular concentrations of calcium in myocardial cells by indirectly

slowing the action of the sodium-calcium exchanger. This consideration is:
a) True
b) False

5. The most cardiac manifestation of glycosides intoxication is:

a) Atrioventricular junctional rhythm
b) Second-degree atrioventricular blockade
c) Ventricular tachycardia
d) All the above

6. For digitalis-induced arrhythmias the following drug is favored:

a) Verapamil
b) Amiodarone
c) Lidocaine
d) Propanolol
7 . All of the following statements regarding cardiac glycoside-induced ventricular tachyarrhythmias are true EXCEPT:

a) Lidocaine is a drug of choice in treatment

b) Digibind should be used in life-threatening cases

c) They occur more frequently in patients with hyperkalemia than in those with hypokalemia

d) They are more likely to occur in patients with a severely damaged heart

8. All of the following statements regarding inhibitors of type III phosphodiesterase are true EXCEPT:
a) They raise cAMP concentrations in cardiac myocytes
b) They reduce afterload
c) They show significant cross-tolerance with beta-receptor agonists

d) They are associated with a significant risk for cardiac arrhythmias

9. Drugs most commonly used in chronic heart failure are:

a) Cardiac glycosides
b) Diuretics
c) Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors
d) All the above

10. This drug is a Class IA antiarrhythmic drug:

a) Sotalol
b) Propranolol
c) Verapamil
d) Quinidine

11. This drug is a Class III antiarrhythmic drug:

a) Flecainide
b) Sotalol
c) Lidocaine
d) Verapamil

12. This drug is associated with Torsades de pointes.

a) Flecainide
b) Sotalol
c) Lidocaine

d) Verapamil

13. The calcium channel blockers have direct negative inotropic effects because they reduce the inward
movement of calcium during the action potential. Thic consideration is:
a) True
b) False

1
14. Verapamil is a more potent vasodilator than nifedipine. This statement is:
a) True
b) False

15. This drug has a little or no direct effect on chronotropy and dromotropy at normal doses
a) Nifedipine
b) Diltiazem
c) Verapamil
d) All of the above

16. All of the following calcium channel blockers are useful in the treatment of cardiac arrhythmias EXCEPT:
a) Bepridil
b) Diltiazem
c) Verapamil

d) Nifedipine

17. Which of the following nitrates and nitrite drugs is a short-acting drug?
a) Nitroglycerin, 2% ointment (Nitrol)
b) Nitroglycerin, oral sustained-release (Nitrong)
c) Amyl nitrite, inhalant (Aspirols, Vaporole)
d) Sustac

18. Duration of nitroglycerin action (sublingual) is:

a) 10-30 minutes
b) 6-8 hours
c) 3-5 minutes
d) 1.5-2 hours

19. Main clinical use of calcium channel blockers is:

a) Angina pectoris
b) Hypertension
c) Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias

d) All of the above

20. Which of the following statements concerning beta-adrenoceptor-blocking drugs are true:
a) These agents decrease transmembrane calcium current associated in a smooth muscle with long-
lasting relaxation and in a cardiac muscle with a reduction in contractility
 b) These agents has a moderate reflex and vascular dilative action caused by the stimulation of
sensitive nerve endings
c) Beneficial effects of these agents are related primarily to their hemodynamic effects –
decreased heart rate,blood pressure, and contractility – which decrease myocardial oxygen
requirements at rest and during exercise
d) These agents increase the permeability of K channels, probably ATP-dependent K channels,
that results in stabilizing the membrane potential of excitable cells near the resting potential

21`. Which of the following antianginal agents is a potassium channel opener:

a) Dipyridamole
b) Validol
c) Atenolol
d) Minoxidil

22. This drug reduces blood pressure by acting on vasomotor centers in the CNS:
a) Labetalol
b) Clonidine
c) Enalapril
d) Nifedipine

23. A ganglioblocking drug for hypertension treatment is:

a) Hydralazine
b) Tubocurarine
c) Trimethaphan
d) Metoprolol

24. Pick out the drug – an alpha and beta adrenoreceptors blocker:
a) Labetalol
b) Verapamil
c) Nifedipine
d) Metoprolol

25. This drug is an inhibitor of renin synthesis:

a) Propranolol
b) Enalapril
c) Diazoxide
d) Losartan

26. This drug is a potassium channel activator:

a) Nifedipine
 b) Saralasin
c) Diazoxide
d) Losartan

27. This drug is contraindicated in patients with bronchial asthma:

a) Propranolol
b) Clonidine
c) Enalapril
d) Nifedipine

28. All of the following statements regarding verapamil are true EXCEPT:
a) It blocks L-type calcium channels
b) It increases heart rate
c) It relaxes coronary artery smooth muscle
d) It depresses cardiac contractility

29. Tick the diuretic agent – aldosterone antagonist:

a) Furosemide
b) Spironolactone
c) Dichlothiazide
d) Captopril

30. Choice a correct answer:

a) Thiazides (eg, hydrochlorothiazide) are after adequate for mild and moderated hypertension;

b) Loop diuretics (eg, furosemide) are usually required for mild hypertension;

c) Thiazides are useed only parenterally;

d) Furosemide is given orally in malignant hypertension (severe hypertension with rapidly progressing organ
damage).

31. Choice a correct answer:

a) Thiazides (eg, hydrochlorothiazide) are after adequate for mild and moderated hypertension;

b) Loop diuretics (eg, furosemide) are usually required for mild hypertension;

c) Thiazides are useed only parenterally;

d) Furosemide is given orally in malignant hypertension (severe hypertension with rapidly progressing organ
damage).

32. Clonidine:
a) Has minimal toxicity, but sudden cessation may cause severe rebound hypertension;

b) The toxicity includer agitation and tachycardia;

c) Usually decreases baroreflex sensitivity;

d) May cause hemolytic anemia.

33. Toxicities for guanethidine includes:

a) Urinary retention;

b) Constipation;

c) Nasal stuffines;

d) Blurred vision.

34. Drugs with some vasodilaying action include:

a) Esmolol;

b) Carvedilol;

c) Oxprendolol;

d) Pindolol;

e) Metoprolol.

35. B-blockers does not induce:

a) asthma;

b) Bradicardia;

c) atrioventricular (AV) blokade;

d) Heart failure;

e) Hyperglycaemia.

36. Mechanism of vasodilatatory action of nitroprusside:

a) Opening of potassium channels and hyperpolarization;

b) Release of nitric oxide;

c) Block of L-type calcium channels;

d) Block of T-type calcium channels.

37. Which drug causes hirsutism and this has been exploited in a hair-restoring lotion preparation:
a) Diltiazem;

b) Verapamil;

c) Minoxidol;

d) Hydralazine;

e) Nifedipine.

38.Parenteral drugs for hypertensive emergencies include:

a) Nitroprusside;

b) Minoxidil;

c) Diltiazem;

d) Verapamil E

39. Phosphodiesterase inhibitors:

a) Inhibit phosphodiesterase (PDE) and thereby decrease the amount of cAMP in cardiac tissue and vessels;

b) Are occasionally used parenterally in chronic heart failure;

c) Are used parenterally for acute decompensation in heart failure;

d) Amrininone and milrinone unlike theophylline and aminophylline can cause seizures.

40. The duration of action of nitro prusside is:

a) a few seconds and a constant intravenous infusion in required;

b) a few hours;

c) 6-8 hours;

d) 24 hours.

41. Angiotensin – converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors:

a) Inhibit breakdown of bradykinin;

b) May be given 4-times daily;

c) Are useful only in severe hypertension;

d) Bradykinin receptor antagonist – icatibant increases the blood pressure – lowering effect of ACE
inhibitors.

42. Digoxin:
a) Used primarily for heart failure activates Na+K+-ATP-ase increases intracellular sodium;

b) The decreased outside /inside sodium gradient results in less expulsion of calcium from the cell and
increased calcium stores in the sarcoplasmic reticulum;

c) Digoxin half-life is 4-6 hours;

d) Digoxin is available only in intravenous preparation.

43. Vasodilators:

a) Reduce afterload (decreasing ejection fraction);

b) Reduce preload (reducing myocardial oxygen requirement);

c) Often can cause bradycardia;

d) Have not any effect on preload or afterload.

44. Group I of antiarrhytmic drugs act as:

a) Sodium channel blockers;

b) B-adrenoceptor blockers;

c) Pottassium IK channel blockers;

d) L-type calcium channel blockers.

45. Choice right answer:

a) Group I A of antiarrhytmic drugs slow intraventricular conduction (increased QRS duration) and increase
duration of the ventricular action potential (increase QT interval);

b) Group I B drugs are highly selective for abnormal tissue and have significant effect on normal sinus
rhythm-ECG;

c) Group I C drugs decreased QRS duration;

d) Group II drugs have not any effect on AV conduction velocity.

46. Amiodarone:

a) Prolong the ventricular action potential and increase the QT interval;

b) Acts as L-type calcium channel blockers;

c) Acts as sodium channel blockers;

d) Is selective α-adrenoceptor blocking agent.

47. Amiodarone toxicities includs the following symptoms, except:

a) Corneal and skin deposits;

b) Thyroid dysfunction;

c) Pulmonary fibrosis;

d) Convulsions

48. Quinidine toxicities includs the following symptoms, except:

a) Cinchonism;

b) Thrombocytopenia;

c) Torsade arrhythmia;

d) Lupus (reversible).

49. Adenosine (Miscellaneous) half-life is:

a) 3 seconds;

b) 6 hours;

c) 20 hours;

d) 24 hours.

50. Amiodarone half of life is:

a) 10 minutes;

b) 1-10 weeks;

c) 6-8 hours;

d) 12 hours
 Answers ot tetsts of I variant card.

1 C 25 a 49 a
2 c 26 c 50 b
3 b 27 a
4 a 28 b
5 d 29 b
6 c 30 a
7 c 31 a
8 c 32 a
9 d 33 c
10 d 34 b
11 b 35 e
12 b 36 b
13 a 37 c
14 b 38 e
15 a 39 c
16 d 40 a
17 c 41 a
18 a 42 b
19 d 43 b
20 c 44 b
21 b 45 a
22 b 46 a
23 c 47 d
24 a 48 a