Botany 2023

Botany
PART A
1. Movement and accumulation of ions across a membrane against their concentration gradient can
be explained by
(1) Facilitated Diffusion
(2) Passive Transport
(3) Active Transport
(4) Osmosis
2. Among ‘The Evil Quartet’, which one is considered the most important cause driving extinction
of species ?
(1) Over exploitation for economic gain
(2) Alien species invasions
(3) Co-extinctions
(4) Habitat loss and fragmentation
3. Identify the pair of heterosporous pteridophytes among the following :

(1) Selaginella and Salvinia
(2) Psilotum and Salvinia
(3) Equisetum and Salvinia
(4) Lycopodium and Selaginella
4. Frequency of recombination between gene pairs on same chromosome as a measure of the

distance between genes to map their position on chromosome, was used for the first time by
(1) Sutton and Boveri
(2) Alfred Sturtevant
(3) Henking
(4) Thomas Hunt Morgan
5. What is the function of tassels in the corn cob ?

(1) To trap pollen grains
(2) To disperse pollen grains
(3) To protect seeds
(4) To attract insects
6. Identify the correct statements :

A. Detrivores perform fragmentation.
B. The humus is further degraded by some microbes during mineralization.
C. Water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil and get precipitated by a process called
leaching.
D. The detritus food chain begins with living organisms.
E. Earthworms break down detritus into smaller particles by a process called catabolism.
Choose the correct answer from the option given below :
(1) B, C, D only
(2) C, D, E only
(3) D, E, A only
(4) A, B, C only
7. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R:
Assertion A : Late wood has fewer xylary elements with narrow vessels.
Reason R : Cambium is less active in winters.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(2) A is true but R is false.
(3) A is false but R is true.
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
8. The process of appearance of recombination nodules occurs at which sub stage of prophase I in
meiosis ?
(1) Pachytene
(2) Diplotene
(3) Diakinesis
(4) Zygotene
9. Which of the following stages of meiosis involves division of centromere ?

(1) Metaphase II
(2) Anaphase II
(3) Telophase
(4) Metaphase I
10. During the purification process for recombinant DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol
precipitates out
(1) DNA
(2) Histones
(3) Polysaccharides
(4) RNA
11. Family Fabaceae differs from Solanaceae and Liliaceae. With respect to the stamens, pick out
the characteristics specific to family. Fabaceae but not found in Solanaceae or Liliaceae.
(1) Polyadelphous and epipetalous stamens
(2) Monoadelphous and Monothecous anthers
(3) Epiphyllous and Dithecous anthers
(4) Diadelphous and Dithecous anthers
12. Large, colourful, fragrant flowers with nectar are seen in:
(1) bird pollinated plants
(2) bat pollinated plants
(3) wind pollinated plants
(4) insect pollinated plants
13. Spraying of which of the following phytohormone on juvenile conifers helps in hastening the
maturity period, that leads to early seed production ?
(1) Gibberellic Acid
(2) Zeatin
(3) Abscisic Acid
(4) Indole-3-butyric Acid
14. Axile placentation is observed in
(1) China rose, Beans and Lupin
(2) Tomato, Dianthus and Pea
(3) China rose, Petunia and Lemon
(4) Mustard, Cucumber and Primrose
15. Among eukaryotes, replication of DNA takes place in -

(1) S phase
(2) G1 phase
(3) G2 phase
(4) M phase
16. How many ATP and NADPH2 are required for the synthesis of one molecule of Glucose during
Calvin cycle?
(1) 18 ATP and 12 NADPH2
17. In gene gun method used to introduce alien DNA into host cells, microparticles of _______ metal
are used.
(1) Zinc
(2) Tungsten or gold
(3) Silver
(4) Copper
18. The thickness of ozone in a column of air in the atmosphere is measured in terms of :
(1) Decibels
(2) Decameter
(3) Kilobase
(4) Dobson units
19. Unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material was first proposed by
(1) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase
(2) Avery, Macleoid and McCarthy
(3) Wilkins and Franklin
(4) Frederick Griffith
20.What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the process of transcription in Eukaryotes ?
(1) Transcription of tRNA, 5 srRNA and snRNA
(2) Transcription of precursor of mRNA
(3) Transcription of only snRNAs
(4) Transcription of rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S)
21. In the equation

GPP – R = NPP
GPP is Gross Primary Productivity
NPP is Net Primary Productivity
R here is ____.
(1) Respiratory quotient
(2) Respiratory loss
(3) Reproductive allocation
(4) Photosynthetically active radiation
22. Which micronutrient is required for splitting of water molecule during photosynthesis ?
(1) molybdenum
(2) magnesium
(3) copper
(4) manganese
23. In angiosperm, the haploid, diploid and triploid structures of a fertilized embryo sac
sequentially are:
(1) Antipodals, synergids, and primary endosperm nucleus
(2) Synergids, Zygote and Primary endosperm nucleus
(3) Synergids, antipodals and Polar nuclei
(4) Synergids, Primary endosperm nucleus and zygote
24. The phenomenon of pleiotropism refers to

(1) presence of two alleles, each of the two genes controlling a single trait.
(2) a single gene affecting multiple phenotypic expression.
(3) more than two genes affecting a single character.
(4) presence of several alleles of a single gene controlling a single crossover.
Reason R:
Assertion A : ATP is used at two steps in glycolysis.
Reason R : First ATP is used in converting glucose into glucose-6-phosphate and second ATP is used
in conversion of fructose-6-phosphate into fructose-1-6-diphosphate.
26. Cellulose does not form blue colour with Iodine because
(1) It is a helical molecule.
(2) It does not contain complex helices and hence cannot hold iodine molecules.
(3) It breakes down when iodine reacts with it.
(4) It is a disaccharide.
27. Which hormone promotes internode/petiole elongation in deep water rice?

(1) Kinetin
(2) Ethylene
(3) 2, 4–D
(4) GA3
28. Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) refers to

(1) All genes that are expressed as proteins.
(2) All genes whether expressed or unexpressed.
(3) Certain important expressed genes.
(4) All genes that are expressed as RNA.
29. Given below are two statements :

Statement I : The forces generated by transpiration can lift a xylem-sized column of water over 130
meters height.
Statement II : Transpiration cools leaf surfaces sometimes 10 to 15 degrees, by evaporative cooling.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
30. Upon exposure to UV radiation, DNA stained with ethidium bromide will show
(1) Bright blue colour
(2) Bright yellow colour
(3) Bright orange colour
(4) Bright red colour
31. The historic Convention on Biological Diversity, 'The Earth Summit' was held in Rio de Janeiro
in the year:
(1) 1992
(2) 1986
(3) 2002
(4) 1985
32. The reaction centre in PS II has an absorption maxima at

(1) 700 nm
(2) 660 nm
(3) 780 nm
(4) 680 nm
Reason R :
Assertion A : The first stage of gametophyte in the life cycle of moss is protonema stage.
Reason R : Protonema develops directly from spores produced in capsule.
below:
(1) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(2) A is correct but R is not correct.
(3) A is not correct but R is correct.
(4) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
34. In tissue culture experiments, leaf mesophyll cells are put in a culture medium to form callus.
This phenomenon may be called as:
(1) Dedifferentiation
(2) Development
(3) Senescence
(4) Differentiation
35. Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Endarch and exarch are the terms often used for describing the position of secondary
xylem in the plant body.
Statement II : Exarch condition is the most common feature of the root system.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below;
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
SECTION : B
36. Identify the correct statements:

A. Lenticels are the lens-shaped openings permitting the exchange of gases.
B. Bark formed early in the season is called hard bark.
C. Bark is a technical term that refers to all tissues exterior to vascular cambium.
D. Bark refers to periderm and secondary phloem.
E. Phellogen is single-layered in thickness.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A and D only
(2) A, B and D only
(3) B and C only
(4) B, C and E only
37. Match List I with List II :

List I List II
A. Cohesion I. More attraction in liquid phase
B. Adhesion II. Mutual attraction among water molecules
C. Surface tension III. Water loss in liquid phase
D. Guttation IV. Attraction towards polar surfaces
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
38. Match List I with List II:

List I List II
A. M Phase I. Proteins are synthesized
B. G2 Phase II. Inactive phase
C. Quiescent stage III. Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication
D. G1 Phase IV. Equational division
(1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
39. Which of the following statements are correct about Klinefelter's Syndrome?
A. This disorder was first described by Langdon Down (1866).
B. Such an individual has overall masculine development. However, the feminine development is
also expressed.
C. The affected individual is short statured.
D. Physical, psychomotor and mental development is retarded.
E. Such individuals are sterile.
(1) C and D only
(2) B and E only
(3) A and E only
(4) A and B only
Statement I : Gause's 'Competitive Exclusion Principle' states that two closely related species
competing for the same resources cannot co-exist indefinitely and competitively inferior one will be
eliminated eventually.
Statement II : In general, carnivores are more adversely affected by competition than herbivores.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
41. How many different proteins does the ribosome consist of?
(1) 60
(2) 40
(3) 20
(4) 80
42. Which of the following combinations is required for chemiosmosis?

(1) membrane, proton pump, proton gradient, NADP synthase
(2) proton pump, electron gradient, ATP synthase
(3) proton pump, electron gradient, NADP synthase
(4) membrane, proton pump, proton gradient, ATP synthase
43. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

(1) Algal blooms caused by excess of organic matter in water improve water quality and promote
fisheries.
(2) Water hyacinth grows abundantly in eutrophic water bodies and leads to an imbalance in the
ecosystem dynamics of the water body.
(3) The amount of some toxic substances of industrial waste water increases in the organisms at
successive trophic levels.
(4) The micro-organisms involved in biodegradation of organic matter in a sewage polluted water
body consume a lot of oxygen causing the death of aquatic organisms.

List I List II
(Interaction) (Species A and B)
A. Mutualism I. +(A), O(B)
B. Commensalism II. –(A), O(B)
C. Amensalism III. +(A), –(B)
D. Parasitism IV. +(A), +(B)
(1) A–IV, B–I, C–II, D–III
(2) A–IV, B–III, C–I, D–II
(3) A–III, B–I, C–IV, D–II
(4) A–IV, B–II, C–I, D–III
45. Main steps in the formation of Recombinant DNA are given below. Arrange these steps in a
correct sequence.
A. Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host cell.
B. Cutting of DNA at specific location by restriction enzyme.
C. Isolation of desired DNA fragment.
D. Amplification of gene of interest using PCR.
(1) C, A, B, D
(2) C, B, D, A
(3) B, D, A, C
(4) B, C, D, A

List I List II
A. Iron I. Synthesis of auxin
B. Zinc II. Component of nitrate reductase
C. Boron III. Activator of catalase
D. Molybdenum IV. Cell elongation and differentiation
(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

List I List II
A. Oxidative decarboxylation I. Citrate synthase
B. Glycolysis II. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
C. Oxidative phosphorylation III. Electron transport sytem
D. Tricarboxylic acid cycle IV.EMP pathway
(2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Reason R.
Assertion A : In gymnosperms the pollen grains are released from the microsporangium and carried
by air currents.
Reason R : Air currents carry the pollen grains to the mouth of the archegonia where the male
gametes are discharged and pollen tube is not formed.
(3) A is false but R is true
Reason R.
Assertion A : A flower is defined as modified shoot wherein the shoot apical meristem changes to
floral meristem.
Reason R : Internode of the shoot gets condensed to produce different floral appendages laterally at
successive nodes instead of leaves.
50. Melonate inhibits the growth of pathogenic bacteria by inhibiting the activity of
(1) Amylase
(2) Lipase
(3) Dinitrogenase
(4) Succinic dehydrogenase
Zoology
PART : A

Statement I : A protein is imagined as a line, the left end represented by first amino acid (C-
terminal) and the right end represented by last amino acid (N-terminal).
Statement II : Adult human haemoglobin, consists of 4 subunits (two subunits of  type and two
subunits  type.)
(1) Both statement I and Statement II are false.
(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(4) Both statement I and Statement II are true.
52. Radial symmetry is NOT found in adults of phylum _________.

(1) Hemichordata
(2) Coelenterata
(3) Echinodermata
(4) Ctenophora
53. Which of the following statements are correct regarding female reproductive cycle ?
A. In non-primate mammals cyclical changes during reproduction are called oestrus cycle.
B. First menstrual cycle begins at puberty and is called menopause.
C. Lack of menstruation may be indicative of pregnancy.
D. Cyclic menstruation extends between menarche and menopause.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) A and B only
(2) A, B and C only
(3) A, C and D only
(4) A and D only
54. Given below are statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : Nephrons are of two types : Cortical & Juxta medullary, based on their relative
position in cortex and medulla.
Reason R : Juxta medullary nephrons have short loop of Henle whereas, cortical nephrons have
longer loop of Henle.
55. Match List I with List II with respect to human eye.

List I List II
A. Fovea I. Visible coloured portion of eye that regulates diameter of pupil.
B. Iris II. External layer of eye formed of dense connective tissue.
C. Blind spot III. Point of greatest visual acuity or resolution.
D. Sclera IV. Point where optic nerve leaves the eyeball and photoreceptor
cells are absent.
(2) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
(3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
56. Which of the following are NOT considered as the part of endomembrane system ?
A. Mitochondria
B. Endoplasmic Reticulum
C. Chloroplasts
D. Golgi complex
E. Peroxisomes
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) A, C and E only
(2) A and D only
(3) A, D and E only
(4) B and D only
57. Broad palm with single palm crease is visible in a person suffering from -
(1) Turner's syndrome
(2) Klinefelter's syndrome
(3) Thalassemia
(4) Down's syndrome
58. Match List I with List II.

List I List II
A. P – wave I. Beginning of systole
B. Q – wave II. Repolarisation of ventricles
C. QRS complex III. Depolarisation of atria
D. T - wave IV. Depolarisation of ventricles
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
59. Which one of the following common sexually transmitted diseases is completely curable when
detected early and treated properly ?
(1) Gonorrhoea
(2) Hepatitis-B
(3) HIV Infection
(4) Genital herpes

List I List II
(Cells) (Secretion)
A. Peptic cells I. Mucus
B. Goblet cells II. Bile juice
C. Oxyntic cells III. Proenzyme pepsinogen
D. Hepatic cells IV. HCl and intrinsic factor for absorption of vitamin B12
61. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A : Endometrium is necessary for implantation of blastocyst.
Reason R : In the absence of fertilization, the corpus luteum degenerates that causes disintegration
of endometrium.
62. Which of the following is not a cloning vector ?

(1) YAC
(2) pBR322
(3) Probe
(4) BAC

List I List II
A. Taenia I. Nephridia
B. Paramoecium II. Contractile vacuole
C. Periplaneta III. Flame cells
D. Pheretima IV. Urecose gland
Choose the correct answer from the options give below :
(1) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

Statement I : Ligaments are dense irregular tissue.
Statement II : Cartilage is dense regular tissue.
65. Which of the following functions is carried out by cytoskeleton in a cell ?

(1) Protein synthesis
(2) Motility
(3) Transportation
(4) Nuclear division

List I List II
A. Gene 'a' I. -galactosidase
B. Gene 'y' II. Transacetylase
C. Gene 'i' III. Permease
D. Gene 'z' IV. Repressor protein
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
67. Which of the following statements is correct ?

(1) Biomagnification refers to increase in concentration of the toxicant at successive trophic levels.
(2) Presence of large amount of nutrients in water restricts 'Algal Bloom'
(3) Algal Bloom decreases fish mortality
(4) Eutrophication refers to increase in domestic sewage and waste water in lakes.
68. Which one of the following symbols represents mating between relatives in human pedigree
analysis?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
69. Once the undigested and unabsorbed substances enter the caecum, their backflow is prevented
by -
(1) Ileo - caecal valve
(2) Gastro - oesophageal sphincter
(3) Pyloric sphincter
(4) Sphincter of Oddi
70. Which one of the following techniques does not serve the purpose of early diagnosis of a disease
for its early treatment ?
(1) Serum and Urine analysis
(2) Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) technique
(3) Enzyme Linked Immuno-Sorbent Assay (ELISA) technique
(4) Recombinant DNA Technology

Statement I : Low temperature preserves the enzyme in a temporarily inactive state whereas high
temperature destroys enzymatic activity because proteins are denatured by heat.
Statement II : When the inhibitor closely resembles the substrate in its molecular structure and
inhibits the activity of the enzyme, it is known as competitive inhibitor.
List I List II
(Type of Joint) (Found between)
A. Cartilaginous Joint I. Between flat skull bones
B. Ball and Socket Joint II. Between adjacent vertebrae in vertebral column
C. Fibrous Joint III. Between carpal and metacarpal of thumb
D. Saddle Joint IV. Between Humerus and Pectoral girdle
(2) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
(4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

Statement I : Vas deferens receives a duct from seminal vesicle and opens into urethra as the
ejaculatory duct.
Statement II : The cavity of the cervix is called cervical canal which along with vagina forms birth
canal.
(3) Statement I incorrect but Statement II is true.
74. In which blood corpuscles, the HIV undergoes replication and produces progeny viruses ?
(1) B-lymphocytes
(2) Basophils
(3) Eosinophils
(4) TH cells

List I List II
A. Heroin I. Effect on cardiovascular system
B. Marijuana II. Slow down body function
C. Cocaine III. Painkiller
D. Morphine IV. Interfere with transport of dopamine
76. Vital capacity of lung is______ .
(1) IRV + ERV + TV + RV
(2) IRV + ERV + TV - RV
(3) IRV + ERV + TV
(4) IRV + ERV
77. Select the correct group/set of Australian Marsupials exhibiting adaptive radiation.
(1) Numbat, Spotted cuscus, Flying phalanger
(2) Mole, Flying squirrel, Tasmanian tiger cat
(3) Lemur, Anteater, Wolf
(4) Tasmanian wolf, Bobcat, Marsupial mole

List I List II
(A) CCK (I) Kidney
(B) GIP (II) Heart
(C) ANF (III) Gastric gland
(D) ADH (IV) Pancreas
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
79. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A : Amniocentesis for sex determination is one of the strategies of Reproductive and Child
Health Care Programme.
Reason R : Ban on amniocentesis checks increasing menace of female foeticide.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Statement I : RNA mutates at a faster rate.
Statement II : Viruses having RNA genome and shorter life span mutate and evolve faster.
(3) Statement I false but Statement II is true.
List I List II
A. Vasectomy I. Oral method
B. Coitus interruptus II. Barrier method
C. Cervical caps III. Surgical method
D. Saheli IV. Natural method
(2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

Statement I : Electrostatic precipitator is most widely used in thermal power plant.
Statement II : Electrostatic precipitator in thermal power plant removes ionising radiations
below :
(3) Statement I incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Statement I : In prokaryotes, the positively charged DNA is held with some negatively charged
proteins in a region called nucleoid.
Statement II : In eukaryotes, the negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the positively charged
histone octamer to form nucleosome.
(3) Statement I incorrect but Statement II is true.

List I List II
A. Ringworm I. Haemophilus influenzae
B. Filariasis II. Trichophyton
C. Malaria III. Wuchereria bancrofti
D. Pneumonia IV. Plasmodium vivax
(2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

List I List II
(Interacting species) (Name of Interaction)
A. A Leopard and a Lion in a I. Competition
forest/grassland
B. A Cuckoo laying II. Brood parasitism
egg in a Crow's nest
C. Fungi and root of a III. Mutualism
higher plant in Mycorrtizae
D. A cattle egret and IV. Commensalism
a Cattle in a field
SECTION :B
86. Which of the following statements are correct ?

A. Basophils are most abundant cells of the total WBCs
B. Basophils secrete histamine, serotonin and heparin
C. Basophils are involved in inflammatory response
D. Basophils have kidney shaped nucleus
E. Basophils are agranulocytes
(1) C and E only
(2) B and C only
(3) A and B only
(4) D and E only

List I List II
A. Mast cells I. Ciliated epithelium
B. Inner surface of bronchiole II. Areolar connective tissue
C. Blood III. Cuboidal epithelium
D. Tubular parts of nephron IV. specialised connective tissue
Choose the correct answer from the options give below :
88. Select the correct statements.

A. Tetrad formation is seen during Leptotene.
B. During Anaphase, the centromeres split and chromatids separate.
C. Terminalization takes place during Pachytene.
D. Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER are reformed during Telophase.
E. Crossing over takes place between sister chromatids of homologous chromosome.
(1) B and D only
(2) A, C and E only
(3) B and E only
(4) A and C only
89. In cockroach, excretion is brought about by-

A. Phallic gland
B. Urecose gland
C. Nephrocytes
D. Fat body
E. Collaterial glands
(1) A, B and E only
(2) B, C and D only
(3) B and D only
(4) A and E only

Statement I : During G0 phase of cell cycle, the cell is metabolically inactive.
Statement II : The centrosome undergoes duplication during S phase of interphase.
below :
(3) Statement I incorrect but Statement II is correct.
91. Select the correct statements with reference to chordates.

A. Presence of mid-dorsal, solid and double nerve cord.
B. Presence of closed circulatory system
C. Presence of paired pharyngeal gillslits
D. Presence of dorsal heart
E. Triploblastic pseudocoelomate animals
(1) B and C only
(2) B, D and E only
(3) C, D and E only
(4) A, C and D only

List I List II
A. Logistic growth I. Unlimited resource availability condition
B. Exponential growth II. Limited resource availability condition
C. Expanding age pyramid III. The percent individuals of pre-reproductive age is largest
followed by reproductive and post reproductive age groups
D. Stable age pyramid IV. The percent individuals of pre- reproductives and reproductive
age group are same
93. Which one of the following is the sequence on corresponding coding strand, if the sequence on
mRNA formed is as follows 5' AUCGAUCGAUCGAUCGAUCG AUCG AUCG 3'?
(1) 3' UAGCUAGCUAGCUAGCUA GCUAGCUAGC 5'
(2) 5' ATCGATCGATCGATCGATCG ATCGATCG 3'
(3) 3' ATCGATCGATCGATCGATCG ATCGATCG 5'
(4) 5' UAGCUAGCUAGCUAGCUAGC UAGC UAGC 3'
94. Which of the following is characteristic feature of cockroach regarding sexual dimorphism?
(1) Presence of anal styles
(2) Presence of sclerites
(3) Presence of anal cerci
(4) Dark brown body colour and anal cerci
95. Which of the following statements are correct regarding skeletal muscle ?
A. Muscle bundles are held together by collagenous connective tissue layer called fascicle.
B. Sarcoplasmic reticulum of muscle fibre is a store house of calcium ions.
C. Striated appearance of skeletal muscle fibre is due to distribution pattern of actin and myosin
proteins.
D. M line is considered as functional unit of contraction called sarcomere.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) B and C only
(2) A, C and D only
(3) C and D only
(4) A, B and C only
96. The unique mammalian characteristics are :

(1) hairs, pinna and mammary glands
(2) hairs, pinna and indirect development
(3) pinna, monocondylic skull and mammary glands
(4) hairs, tympanic membrane and mammary glands
97. Which one of the following is NOT an advantage of inbreeding?

(1) It exposes harmful recessive genes that are eliminated by selection.
(2) Elimination of less desirable genes and accumulation of superior genes takes place due to it.
(3) It decreases the productivity of inbred population, after continuous inbreeding.
(4) It decreases homozygosity.
98. The parts of human brain that helps in regulation of sexual behaviour, expression of excitement,
pleasure, rage, fear etc. are :
(1) Corpora quadrigemina & hippocampus
(2) Brain stem & epithalamus
(3) Corpus callosum and thalamus
(4) Limbic system & hypothalamus
99. Which of the following statements are correct?

A. An excessive loss of body fluid from the body switches off osmoreceptors.
B. ADH facilitates water reabsorption to prevent diuresis.
C. ANF causes vasodilation.
D. ADH causes increase in blood pressure.
E. ADH is responsible for decrease in GFR.
(1) B, C and D only
(2) A, B and E only
(3) C, D and E only
(4) A and B only
100. Which of the following are NOT under the control of thyroid hormone?
A. Maintenance of water and electrolyte balance
B. Regulation of basal metabolic rate
C. Normal rhythm of sleep-wake cycle
D. Development of immune system
E. Support the process of R.B.Cs formation
(1) B and C only
(2) C and D only
(3) D and E only
(4) A and D only
Solutions
Botany
1(3)
In active transport, Movement and accumulation of ions occur across a membrane against their
concentration gradient.
2(4) Among these four reasons, habitat loss and fragmentation is the most important cause of the
extinction of plants and animals.
3(1)
1. The vascular free-sporing plants known as pteridophytes (ferns and lycophytes) have
alternating, free-living gametophyte and sporophyte stages that, when they reach maturity,
are independent of one another.
2. The roots, stems, and leaves in the sporophyte's body are clearly distinct.
3. Megaspores, which are female, and microspores, which are male, are produced by
heterosporous plants.
4. This circumstance is seen as a stage in the evolution of terrestrial plants.
5. For the first time, heterospory in Pteridophytes was documented.
6. As heterosporous organisms, Selaginella and Salvinia create two distinct types of spores.
Because it signified the beginning of the sporophyte's independence and the gametophyte's entire
dependence on it, heterospory has enormous biological significance
4(2)
Alfred Sturtevant explained, the frequency of recombination between gene pairs on the same
chromosome is a measure of the distance between the genes. The distance between the genes is
inversely proportional to the frequency of recombination
5(1) Male flower of maize plant posses tassles.
6(4)
Detrivores perform fragmentation - Correct statement
The humus is further degraded by some microbes during mineralization - Correct statement
Water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil and get precipitated by a process called
leaching. - Correct statement
Dertritus food chain begins with dead organic matter
Earthworm break down detritus into smaller particles by a process called fragmentation.
7(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
8(1) Crossing over occurs in pachytene stage. It is aided by recombination nodule which is
composed of enzymes like recombinase.
9(2)
The type of cell division that reduces the chromosome number by half resulting in the production of
haploid daughter cells is known as meiosis. It occurs during the formation of gametes in diploid
organisms. It involves two cycles of nuclear and cytoplasmic division called Meiosis I and meiosis II.
Metaphase I is a substage of meiosis I. It is marked by the alignment of homologous chromosomes
at the equatorial plate.
The microtubules from the opposite poles of the spindle attach to the pair of homologous
chromosomes.
Metaphase II, Anaphase II and Telophase II are substages of meiosis II.

Metaphase II - Chromosomes align at the equator and the microtubules from opposite poles of the
spindle get attached to the kinetochores of sister chromatids.
Anaphase II - Splitting of the centromere of each chromosome, that hold the sister chromatids
together, allowing them to move toward opposite poles of the cell.
Telophase II - Last phase of meiosis. Two groups of chromosomes get enclosed by a nuclear
envelope.
10(1) Purified DNA in the process of recombinant DNA technology precipitate out after the
addition of chilled ethanol.
11(4) Stamens in fabaceae shows diadephaous condition.
12(4)
Insect pollinated plants posses flowers with following conditions:
Large flowers
Colourful
Fragrant
Nector rich
13(1)
Spraying juvenile conifers with gibberellins hastens their maturity period, thus leading to early
seed production.
14(3) In Axile placentation placenta is located at the Axis of the ovary e.g. China rose, Petunia,
Lemon, tomato.
15(1)
Interphase has a long duration and during this phase the cell prepares to divide by undergoing cell
growth and DNA replication. Interphase is further divided into G1 , S and G2 phases.
DNA replication (duplication of DNA) occurs during the S phase of the cell cycle. The total content of
DNA doubles and gets equally distributed in the daughter cells after cell division.
16(1)
For the synthesis of one glucose molecule during calvin cycle in chloroplast, 18 ATP & 12 NADPH+
H+ are required.
17(2)
Biolistic method or gene gun method is a direct or vectorless method of introducing DNA into cells
that involves bombardment of cells with high-velocity microprojectiles coated with DNA. In biolistic
method, tungsten or gold particles, coated with foreign DNA are bombarded into target at a very
high velocity.
18(4) The thickness of the ozone layer in a column of air from the ground to the top of the
atmosphere is measured in terms of Dobson Units (DU). Light year is a unit of astronomical
distance equivalent to the distance that light travels in one year, which is
9.4607×1012 km. The Richter magnitude scale was developed in 1935 by Charles F. Richter of the
California Institute of Technology as a mathematical device to compare the magnitudes of
earthquakes. The decibel (abbreviated dB) is the unit used to represent the intensity of sound.
19(1) The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material came from the experiments
performed by Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase. They worked with bacteriophages (virus that
infects bacteria).
20(1)
In eukaryote cells, RNA polymerase III (also called Pol III) is a protein that transcribes DNA to
synthesize ribosomal 5S rRNA, tRNA, and other small RNAs.
Role of RNA polymerase III :
1. The main function of the third polymerase, Pol III, is the duplication of the chromosomal DNA.
2. DNA polymerases are involved mostly in DNA repair and translation DNA synthesis.
3. Together with a DNA helicase and a primase, Pol III HE participates in the replicative apparatus
that acts at the replication fork.
21 (2) GPP stands for Gross Primary Productivity, NPP for Net Primary Productivity and R for
Respiration loss.
22(4) Photolysis of water requires manganses and chlorine.
23(2)
In angiosperm, the haploid, diploid and triploid structures of a fertilized embryo sac sequentially
are Synergids, Zygote and Primary endosperm nucleus
24(2) If a single gene affects the phenotypic expression of more than one gene then this
phenomenon is known as pleiotropism.
25(1)
ATP in glycolysis is used at two steps of conversion that are
Glucose → Glucose-6-phosphate
Fructose-6-phosphate → Fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate
The reason of the utilisation of ATP is for phosphorylation the substrates
26(2) cellulose does not contain complex helices and hence cannot hold iodine molecules.
27(2) Ethylene promotes internode or petiole elongation in deep water plants like rice.
28(4)
Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) are DNA sequences (genes) that are expressed as mRNA for
protein synthesis. These are used in the human genome project for gene mapping.
29(1) Statement I is correct as measurements reveal that the forces generated by transpiration can
create pressures sufficient to lift a xylem sized column of water up to 130 meters high.
Statement II is also correct as transpiration cools leaf surfaces, sometimes 10 to 15 degrees, by
evaporative cooling.
30(3) Ethidium bromide intercalates into the DNA double helix and becomes fluorescent under UV
light. The emitted fluorescence appears as a bright orange color, not red, blue, or yellow.
31(1) The United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), also known as
the Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit, the Rio Summit, the Rio Conference, and the Earth Summit
(Portuguese: ECO 92),was a major United Nations conference held in Rio de Janeiro from 3 to 14
June 1992. More than 100 heads of states met in Rio de Janeiro in Brazil. Earth Summit was created
as a response for Member States to cooperate together internationally on development issues after
the Cold War.
32(4) In PS-I, the reaction centre chlorophyll a has an absorption peak at 700 nm, while in PS-II,
reaction centre has an absorption maxima at 680 nm.
33(4)
Spores are released from the moss capsule and when they land in a suitable environment, they
germinate and give rise to a thread-like structure called protonema. This protonema stage
eventually develops into the mature gametophyte structure.
34(1) Leaf mesophyll cells in the culture firstly gets dedifferentiated to regain the property of cell
division and eventually it leads to the formation of callus.
35(3) Endarch and exarch are the terms often used for describing the position of primary xylem in
the plant body.
Primary xylem is of two types protoxylem and metaxylem. On the basis of relative position of
protoxylem and metaxylem in the organ the arrangement of primary xylem can be endarch or
exarch. Exarch type of primary xylem is seen in roots. Therefore, Statement I is false and Statement
II is true.
36(1) Lenticels are lens shaped opening permitting exchange of gases between the outer
atmosphere and internal tissue of the stem.
Bark that is formed early in the season is called early or soft bark. Towards the end of the season
late or hard bark is formed.
Bark is non-technical term that refer to all tissues exterior to vascular cambium.
Bark refers to a number of tissue types, viz periderm and secondary phloem.
Phellogen is couple of layers thick
37(4) Cohesion - Mutual attraction among water

Adhesion - Attraction towards polar surfaces
Surface tension - More attraction in liquid phase
Guttation - Water loss in liquid phase
38(2)
Mitosis (Mphase) - Equational division
G0 (Quiescent stage) - Inactive phase because cells in G0 phase do not proliferate
G1 - Proteins
G2 - Occurs between S-phase of M-Phase
39(2) Klinefelter's syndrome is caused due to the presence of an additional copy of X-chromosome
resulting into a karyotype of 47, XXY. Such an individual has overall masculine development,
however, the feminine development is also expressed. Such individuals are sterile. Thus, statement
B and E are correct regarding Klinefelter's syndrome
40(2)
Gause's 'Competitive Exclusion Principle' states that two closely related species competing for the
same resources cannot co-exist indefinitely and the competitively inferior one will be eliminated
eventaully. Thus, statement I is correct.
Statement II is incorrect as in general, herbivores and plants appear to be more adversely affected
by competition than carnivores
41(4)
The ribosome is composed of approximately 80 different proteins, along with ribosomal RNA
(rRNA) molecules.
42(4)
Chemiosmosis requires- Intact Membrane Proton pump ATP synthetase proton gradient.
43(1)
Algal blooms caused by excess of organic matter in water improve water quality and promote
fisherises.
44(1)
A. Mutualism - IV. +(A), +(B)
B. Commensalism - I. +(A), O(B)
C. Amensalism - II. –(A), O(B)
D. Parasitism - III. +(A), –(B)
45(4)
1. Cutting of DNA at specific locations by restriction enzyme (B).
2. Isolation of the desired DNA fragment (C).
3. Amplification of the gene of interest using PCR (D).
4. Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host cell (A).
46(2)
A. Iron - III. Activator of catalase
B. Zinc - I. Synthesis of auxin
C. Boron - IV. Cell elongation and differentiation
D. Molybdenum - II. Component of nitrate reductase
47(3)
A. Oxidative decarboxylation - Pyruvate dehydrogenase In link reaction
B. Glycolysis - EMP pathway
C. Oxidative phosphorylation - Electron transport system
D. TCA cycle - Citrate synthase catalyse the formation of citrate
48(2)
Assertion A is true. Gymnosperms do release their pollen grains from the microsporangia, and these
pollen grains are often carried by air currents for pollination.
However, Reason R is incorrect. Air currents do play a role in carrying pollen grains, but the pollen
grains are not carried to the mouth of the archegonia. In gymnosperms, the male gametes are
indeed discharged from the pollen tube, which grows from the pollen grain towards the archegonia.
The pollen tube delivers the male gametes to the vicinity of the ovule, allowing fertilization to occur.
49(4) A flower is a modified shoot wherein the shoot apical meristem changes to floral meristem.
Internodes do not elongate and the axis gets condensed. The apex produces different kinds of floral
appendages laterally at the successive nodes instead of leaves.
50(1)
Inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate occurs due to close resemblance of malonate
with substrate succinate in structure. Competitive inhibitors are often used in the control of
bacterial pathogens.
Zoology
51(3)
A protein is imagined as a line left end represented by first amino acid (N-terminal) and the right
and represented by last amino acid (C-terminal). Adult human haemoglobin consists of 4 subunits
(2a and 2β).
52(1)
Radial symmetry is a characteristic feature found in animals that exhibit symmetry around a central
axis, like spokes on a wheel. In adults of phyla such as Coelenterata (Cnidaria), Echinodermata, and
Ctenophora, radial symmetry is commonly observed.
Hemichordates, on the other hand, are more complex and generally exhibit bilateral symmetry as
adults.
53(c) first menstrual cycle that begins at puberty is called menarche.

Cyclic menstruation is an indicator of normal reproductive phase and extends between menarche
and menopause.
In primates, cyclical changes during reproduction are called menstrual cycle.
54(2) Henle loop of cortical nephron is small in comparison to loop of juxta medullary nephrons,
which is longer.
55(4)
The correct match between List I and List II is:
A. Fovea - III. Point of greatest visual acuity or resolution
B. Iris - I. Visible coloured portion of the eye that regulates diameter of the pupil
C. Blind spot - IV. Point where the optic nerve leaves the eyeball and photoreceptor cells
are absent
D. Sclera - II. External layer of the eye formed of dense connective tissue
56(1)
The Endomembrane system is a membranous component of the eukaryotic cell. The cytoplasm of
the cell contains a system of membranous organelles that are suspended in it. The organelles are
termed as a system even though they have different structures and functions as they are essential
to the working of the cell. All these organelles work in coordination and they include the cell
membrane, vacuoles, the nuclear membrane, lysosomes, Golgi complex, vesicles and the
endoplasmic reticulum (ER).
57(4) A broad palm with a single palm crease (also known as a "simian crease") is a characteristic
physical feature commonly associated with individuals who have Down's syndrome (also known as
Trisomy 21). Down's syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by the presence of an extra copy of
chromosome 21.
58(4)
A. P – wave III. Depolarisation of atria
B. Q – wave I. Beginning of systole
C. QRS complex IV. Depolarisation of ventricles
D. T - wave II. Repolarisation of ventricles
59(1) for hepatitis-B, genital herpes and HIV infection other STIs are completely curable if detected
early and treated properly. Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted infection (STI), also known as a
sexually transmitted disease (STD). Gonorrhea is caused by a bacterium that infects both males and
females. Gonorrhea most often affects the urethra, rectum or throat.
Symptoms :
genital symptoms such as discharge, burning during urination, unusual sores, or rash.
60(2)
A. Peptic cells - III. Proenzyme pepsinogen
B. Goblet cells - I. Mucus
C. Oxyntic cells - IV. HCl and intrinsic factor for absorption of vitamin B12
D. Hepatic cells - II. Bile juice
61(1)
 Assertion A is true: The endometrium is indeed necessary for the implantation of the
blastocyst, which is the early stage of embryo development.
 Reason R is also true: In the absence of fertilization, the corpus luteum, which forms from
the ovarian follicle after ovulation, degenerates. This leads to a decrease in the levels of
progesterone, which is essential to maintain the endometrial lining. Without sufficient
progesterone, the endometrial lining undergoes disintegration and is shed during
menstruation.
While both statements A and R are true, Reason R does not directly explain why the endometrium is
necessary for implantation of the blastocyst.
62(3) single stranded DNA or RNA tagged with a radioactive molecule is called a probe and it helps
in the detection of mutated gene.
YAC, BAC, pBR322 are vectors
63(4)
Taenia : Flame cells are specialized excretory cells found in freshwater invertebrates
including flatworms like Taenia
Paramoecium : The contractile vacuole complex is a membrane-bound osmoregulatory organelle of

fresh water protozoa such as Paramecium.
Periplaneta : Uricose gland is a system which is involved in the excretory system of MALE
COCKROACH.( Periplaneta)
Pheretima : Pheretima is a genus of earthworms having clitellum which is a brand of glandular
tissue present on segments. It is a long, elongated, cylindrical narrow body that is bilaterally
symmetrical. Nephridia are coiled tubular duct-like organs, filter and remove waste from the
earthworm's body.
64(1)
Statement I is false - Ligaments are not dense irregular tissue. Ligaments are dense regular
connective tissue that connects bone to bone and provides strength and stability to joints.
Statement II is false - Cartilage is not dense regular tissue. Cartilage is a type of connective tissue
that is more flexible than bone and provides structural support to various body parts.
65(2) The cytoskeleton carries out functions such as mechanical support, motility and maintenance
of the shape of the cell.
66(1)
The correct matching of the genes with their corresponding products in List II is as follows:
(a) Gene ‘a’ - (ii) Transacetylase
(b) Gene ‘y’ - (iii) Permease
(c) Gene ‘i’ - (iv) Repressor protein
(d) Gene ‘z’ - (i) β-galactosidase
67(1) Biomagnification is the process through which certain substances, such as toxins or
pollutants, become more concentrated as they move up the food chain. This results in higher
concentrations of these substances in organisms at higher trophic levels.
Presence of a large amount of nutrients in water, often caused by excessive nutrient runoff, can
actually promote algal bloom, not restrict it.
Algal blooms can lead to fish mortality due to a decrease in oxygen levels as the algae die and
decompose. This process can create "dead zones" in water bodies.
Eutrophication refers to the excessive nutrient enrichment of water bodies, often from sources like
agricultural runoff or sewage, leading to increased plant growth (algae and other aquatic plants).
This excessive growth can disrupt the balance of the ecosystem and lead to issues like oxygen
depletion.
68(1)
Represent mating between close relatives.
69(1)
The ileo-cecal valve is located between the small intestine (ileum) and the large intestine (cecum).
It prevents the backflow of undigested and unabsorbed substances from the large intestine (cecum)
back into the small intestine (ileum), thus helping to maintain the flow of digestion and absorption
in the correct direction.
70(1) Conventional methods are ineffective for early disease diagnosis and detection.
Early detection techniques:
 RDT
 ELISA
 PCR
71(4)
Low temperature - temporary inactive enzyme activity High temperature - enzyme denaturation
because enzymes are proteins. Competitive inhibition - Inhibitor resemble to substrate, inhibitor
inhibit enzyme activity Enzyme have common binding site for substrate and inhibitor.
72(A)
Cartilaginous Joint is present in between adjacent vertebrae in vertebral column
Ball and Socket Joint is present in Between Humerus and Pectoral girdle
Fibrous Joint is present in between flat skull bones
Saddle Joint is present in between carpal and metacarpal of thumb
73(4) both statement are correct

Vas deferens receives a duct from seminal vesicle and opens into urethra as the ejaculatory duct.
The cavity of the cervix is called cervical canal which along with vagina forms birth canal.
74(4) HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus) primarily targets and infects T-helper cells (also
known as CD4+ T cells), which are a type of immune cell. The virus replicates within these cells and
produces progeny viruses, eventually leading to the destruction of the immune system over time.
75(4)
A. Heroine - Slow down body function
B. Marijuana - Effect on cardiovascular system
C. Cocaine - Interfere with transport of dopamine.
D. Morphine - Painkiller, obtained from latex of poppy plant.
76(3)
The vital capacity is the total of the tidal volume, inspiratory reserve volume and expiratory reserve
volume.
77(1) Adaptive radiation refers to the diversification of a single ancestral species into a variety of
different forms to exploit different ecological niches. In this case, the marsupials Numbat, Spotted
cuscus, and Flying phalanger are examples of Australian marsupials that have undergone adaptive
radiation. The other options do not consist of marsupials or species that underwent significant
adaptive radiation in Australia.
78(4)
List I List II
A. CCK I. Pancreas
B. GIP II. Gastric gland
C. ANF III. Heart
D. ADH IV. Kidney
79(3) Amniocentesis examines cases of female foeticide and is not used to determine sex.
80(4) RNA being unstable, mutate at a faster rate. Consequently, viruses having RNA genome and
having shorter life span mutate and evolve faster.
81(1)
A. Vasectomy - III. Surgical method
B. Coitus interruptus - IV. Natural method
C. Cervical caps - II. Barrier method
D. Saheli - I. Oral method
82(2) Electrostatic precipitator is most widely used in thermal power plants.

It can remove over 99 percent particulate matter present in the exhaust from a thermal power
plant.
83(3)
Statement I is incorrect. In prokaryotes, there is no well-defined nucleus or nucleosomes as found
in eukaryotes. The DNA in prokaryotes is located in a region called the nucleoid, but it is not
associated with histones or proteins in the same way as eukaryotic DNA.
Statement II is true. In eukaryotes, the negatively charged DNA is indeed wrapped around the
positively charged histone octamer to form nucleosomes, which are the basic units of chromatin
organization.
84(4)
(1) Ringworm is a fungal infection that causes rashes on the skin and nails. The most common
causative agents are Trichophyton, Microsporum, and Epidermophyton
(2) Filariasis : Lymphatic filariasis is caused by infection with parasites classified as nematodes
(roundworms) of the family Filariodidea. There are 3 types of these thread-like filarial worms:
 Wuchereria bancrofti, which is responsible for 90% of the cases
 Brugia malayi, which causes most of the remainder of the cases
 Brugia timori, which also causes the disease.
(3) Malaria : Malaria is caused by protozoan parasite Plasmodium. Four diff erent species of
Plasmodium namely, Plasmodium vivax, Plasmodium malariae, Plasmodium falciparum and
Plasmodium ovale cause malaria.
(4) Pneumonia : The typical bacteria which cause pneumonia are Streptococcus pneumoniae,
Staphylococcus aureus, Group A Streptococcus, Klebsiella pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae,
Moraxella catarrhalis, anaerobes, and gram-negative organisms.
85(4)
(1) A leopard and a lion in a forest/grassland exemplify competition where both the species are
competing for the same resources.
(2) A Cuckoo laying egg in a Crow's nest is brood parasitism where cuckoo is the parasite bird that
lays its egg in the nest of cow(host bird)
(3) Fungi and root of a higher plant in mycorrhizae exemplify mutualism where both the species
are benefitted. The fungi help the plant in the absorption of essential nutrients from the soil while
the plant in turn provides the fungi with energy yielding carbohydrates
(4) A cattle egret and a cattle in a field exemplify commensalism where one species benefits and the
other remains unaffected.
86(2)
Basophils are actually one of the least abundant types of white blood cells.
Basophils typically have a multilobed nucleus, similar to other granulocytes.
Basophils are granulocytes, a type of white blood cell characterized by the presence of granules in
their cytoplasm.
87(2)
A. Mast cells - II. Areolar connective tissue
Mast cells are a type of immune cells found in areolar connective tissue, where they play a role in
allergic reactions and immune responses.
B. Inner surface of bronchiole - I. Ciliated epithelium

The inner surface of the bronchioles in the respiratory tract is lined with ciliated epithelium, which
helps move mucus and trapped particles out of the airways.
C. Blood - IV. Specialized connective tissue

Blood is considered a specialized connective tissue with distinct characteristics, including a liquid
matrix (plasma) and various cell types (red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets).
D. Tubular parts of nephron - III. Cuboidal epithelium

The tubular parts of the nephron in the kidney, such as the proximal convoluted tubule and the
distal convoluted tubule, are lined with cuboidal epithelium.
88(1)
Tetrad formation is visible in pachytene. Terminalization of chiasmata occurs in diakinesis.
Crossing over occurs between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.
89(2)
B. Urecose gland - In cockroaches, the urecose gland is responsible for excretion. It is a type of
excretory gland that helps in the elimination of waste products.
C. Nephrocytes - Nephrocytes are specialized cells in the cockroach's Malpighian tubules that play a
crucial role in excretion. Malpighian tubules are the primary excretory organs in insects.
D. Fat body - While the fat body in insects has various functions, including energy storage, it is not
directly involved in excretion.
90(3)
Statement I: During G0 phase of the cell cycle, the cell is metabolically inactive.
This statement is incorrect - While the G0 phase is considered a quiescent phase where cells are
not actively dividing, many cells in G0 are still metabolically active and can carry out essential
functions. Some cells in G0 are even more metabolically active than cells in other phases of the cell
cycle.
Statement II: The centrosome undergoes duplication during S phase of interphase. The centrosome
does indeed undergo duplication during the S phase of interphase, specifically in preparation for
cell division.
91(1)
In chordates:
(I) Notochord present
(II) Central nervous system is dorsal hollow and single
(III) Pharynx preforated by gill slits
(IV) Heart is ventral
(V) A post-anal part (tail) is present
(VI) Coelomate
92(4)
A. Logistic growth - II. Limited resource availability condition
Logistic growth occurs when a population's growth is limited by available resources. As resources
become limited, the population growth rate slows down.
B. Exponential growth - I. Unlimited resource availability condition

Exponential growth occurs when a population has access to abundant resources, leading to rapid
and continuous growth without resource limitations.
C. Expanding age pyramid - III. The percent pyramid individuals of pre-reproductive age is largest
followed by reproductive and post-reproductive age groups
An expanding age pyramid has a broad base, indicating a large proportion of young individuals
(pre-reproductive age) and a smaller proportion of older individuals (reproductive and post-
reproductive age).
D. Stable age pyramid - IV. The percent individuals of pre-reproductives and reproductive age
group are the same
A stable age pyramid has roughly equal proportions of individuals in each age group, indicating a
balanced population structure with relatively stable birth and death rates across age groups.
93(2)
The sequence on the mRNA strand is read from the 5' end to the 3' end, and it forms a
complementary sequence to the template DNA strand. To find the corresponding coding strand, you
need to match the base pairs according to the rules of complementary base pairing:
mRNA: 5' AUCGAUCGAUCGAUCGAUCGAUCGAUCG 3'
DNA: 3' TAGCTAGCTAGCTAGCTAGCTAGCTAGC 5'
The coding strand is complementary to the template DNA strand. So, the correct sequence on the
coding strand is:
5' ATCGATCGATCGATCGATCGATCGATCG 3'
94(1)
anal styles are present in male cockroaches and absent in female cockroaches.
Others option are not the correct answers because sclerites, anal cerci and dark brown body colour
are common features of both male and female cockroaches
95(1)
Sarcoplasmic reticulum of muscle fiber is a storehouse of calcium ions.
This statement is correct - The sarcoplasmic reticulum is a specialized type of endoplasmic
reticulum found in muscle cells. It stores and releases calcium ions, which are crucial for muscle
contraction.
Striated appearance of skeletal muscle fiber is due to the distribution pattern of actin and myosin
proteins.
This statement is correct - The striated appearance of skeletal muscle fibers is due to the
repeating arrangement of actin and myosin filaments, which create alternating dark (A bands) and
light (I bands) bands along the length of the muscle fiber.
96(1)
The unique mammalian characteristic is the presence of mammary gland, hair and external ear or
pinnae.
97(3)
Inbreeding can lead to a reduction in genetic diversity, which can result in decreased fitness and
productivity over generations due to increased expression of harmful recessive alleles and reduced
ability to adapt to changing environments.
98(4)
limbic system along with hypothalamus regulate the sexual
behaviour, expression of excitement, pleasure, rage, fear, etc.
other option are not correct because corpora quadrigemina is a part of the midbrain and
consists of four round swellings. Corpus callosum is a tract of nerve fibres that connects right and
left cerebral hemispheres. Thalamus is a major coordinating centre in the forebrain for sensory and
motor signalling. Midbrain, pons and medulla oblongata together form the brain stem.
99(1)
A. An excessive loss of fluid from the body can activate osmoreceptors which stimulate
hypothalamus to release ADH.
B. ADH facilitates water reabsorption to prevent diuresis.
C. ANF causes vasodilation.
D. ADH causes increase in blood pressure.
E. ADH affect the kidney function by constrictory effect on blood vessels which causes increase in
blood pressure, hence increase glomerular blood flow and thereby GFR.
100(2)
Normal rhythm of sleep-wake cycle :
The sleep-wake cycle is primarily regulated by the hormone melatonin, which is produced by the
pineal gland, not the thyroid gland.
Development of immune system :

The development and regulation of the immune system involve various factors, including immune
cells, cytokines, and other immune-related molecules. The thyroid hormone itself does not have a
direct role in the development of the immune system.

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Botany

3. Identify the pair of heterosporous pteridophytes among the following :

4. Frequency of recombination between gene pairs on same chromosome as a measure of the

5. What is the function of tassels in the corn cob ?

6. Identify the correct statements :

9. Which of the following stages of meiosis involves division of centromere ?

15. Among eukaryotes, replication of DNA takes place in -

21. In the equation

24. The phenomenon of pleiotropism refers to

27. Which hormone promotes internode/petiole elongation in deep water rice?

28. Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) refers to

29. Given below are two statements :

32. The reaction centre in PS II has an absorption maxima at

36. Identify the correct statements:

37. Match List I with List II :

38. Match List I with List II:

42. Which of the following combinations is required for chemiosmosis?

43. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

44. Match List I with List II :

46. Match List I with List II :

47. Match List I with List II :

51. Given below are two statements :

52. Radial symmetry is NOT found in adults of phylum _________.

55. Match List I with List II with respect to human eye.

58. Match List I with List II.

60. Match List I with List II.

62. Which of the following is not a cloning vector ?

63. Match List I with List II.

64. Given below are two statements :

65. Which of the following functions is carried out by cytoskeleton in a cell ?

66. Match List I with List II.

67. Which of the following statements is correct ?

71. Given below are two statements :

73. Given below are two statements :

75. Match List I with List II.

78. Match List I with List II.

80. Given below are two statements:

82. Given below are two statements:

83. Given below are two statements:

84. Match List I with List II.

85. Match List I with List II.

86. Which of the following statements are correct ?

87. Match List I with List II.

88. Select the correct statements.

89. In cockroach, excretion is brought about by-

90. Given below are two statements:

91. Select the correct statements with reference to chordates.

92. Match List I with List II.

96. The unique mammalian characteristics are :

97. Which one of the following is NOT an advantage of inbreeding?

99. Which of the following statements are correct?

5(1) Male flower of maize plant posses tassles.

Dertritus food chain begins with dead organic matter

Metaphase II, Anaphase II and Telophase II are substages of meiosis II.

11(4) Stamens in fabaceae shows diadephaous condition.

22(4) Photolysis of water requires manganses and chlorine.

37(4) Cohesion - Mutual attraction among water

53(c) first menstrual cycle that begins at puberty is called menarche.

Paramoecium : The contractile vacuole complex is a membrane-bound osmoregulatory organelle of

73(4) both statement are correct