Practice Test Paper - 2

1. Given below are two statements :

Statement I : The decomposers are fungi-bacteria and flagellates especially abundant in
bottom of pond.
Statement II : The solar input, the cycle of temperature, day length and other climatic
condition regulate the rate of function of entire pond.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both, Statement I and Statement II are correct
2. Stratification is :
(1) Parallel distribution of different species occupying different levels
(2) Horizontal distribution of different species occupying different levels
(3) Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels.
(4) Vertical distribution of different species occupying same level.
3. The annual net primary productivity (dry weight) of the whole biosphere is approximately :
(1) 150 million tons (2) 150 billion tons (3) 170 million tons (4) 170 billion tons.
4. Formula of NPP is :
(1) NPP = GPP – R (2) NPP = GPP + R (3) NPP = GDP + R (4) NPP = GDP – R
5. Net primary productivity is known as the:
(1) Available biomass for the consumption of heterotrophs
(2) Synthesis of food material by algae
(3) Available biomass for the consumption of herbivores only
(4) Available biomass for the consumption of decomposers only
6. Leaching causes :
(1) Going down of organic and inorganic nutrients in the soil
(2) Going down of water soluble inorganic nutrients into the soil and getting precipitated
as unavailable salt
(3) Excessive calcium accumulation in soil
(4) Going down of water insoluble inorganic nutrients into the soil and getting precipitated as
unavailable salt
7. Bacterial and fungal enzymes degrade detritus into simple inorganic substance. This process
is called: (1) Leaching (2) Anabolism (3) Catabolism (4) Humification.
8. Humus in degraded to release inorganic nutrients. This process is called :
(1) Catabolism (2) Leaching (3) Mineralisation (4) Fragmentation.
9. Decomposition rate is fast if detritus is rich in :
(1) Lignin (2) Nitrogen (3) Sugar (4) Both 2 and 3
10. For photosynthesis plants capture :
(1) 2-5% of PAR (2) 5-10% PAR (3) 2-10% of PAR (4) 50% of the incident solar radiation
11. Phytoplanktons form :
(1) First trophic level
(2) Second trophic level
(3) Third trophic level
(4) Forth trophic level
12. When a sparrow eats an insect it is :
(1) Primary consumer (2) Secondary consumer
(3) Tertiary consumer (4) Quartenary consumer

13. Trophic level represents a :

(1) Species (2) Functional level
(3) Genus (4) Functional level and species level as such
14. Which is a correct statement :
(1) In most ecosystems all the pyramids, of number of energy and biomass are upright
(2) Pyramid of energy is inverted in a tree ecosystem
(3) Pyramid of number is generally inverted in sea
(4) All are correct
15. Pyramid of biomass in a sea is generally inverted because:
(1) Biomass of fishes in far less than phytoplankton
(2) Biomass of fishes exceeds that of phytoplankton
(3) Due to buoyancy in sea the mass of fishes becomes less
(4) Pyramid of biomass in sea in always upright
16. Find the incorrect statements (s)
(a) Standing state does not vary as per season.
(b) Rate of release of nutrients into the atmosphere is regulated by soil and moisture only.
(c) Biomass of a species is expressed in terms of fresh weight only.
(d) For calculation of energy content at a trophic level all organisms belonging to that trophic
level are not included
(1) d (2) b, d (3) c, d (4) a, b, c, d
17. What is correct :
(1) A given species may occupy more than one trophic level in the same ecosystem
(2) A given species may occupy only one trophic level in the same ecosystem
(3) A given species occupies minimum two trophic levels in the same ecosystem
(4) A given species occupies maximum two trophic levels in the given ecosystem
18. Stability is more in :
(1) Food chain (2) Food web
(3) Equal in both (4) Tropic level
19. The second most important trophic level in a lake is :
(1) Large fishes (2) Zooplankton
(3) Benthos (4) Fishes
20. Which statement is not correct :
(1) Primary consumer is first order consumer
(2) Secondary consumer is primary carnivores
(3) Tertiary consumer is secondary carnivores
(4) Top carnivores can be eaten by secondary carnivores
21. Choose odd one out w.r.t functional aspects of ecosystem :
(1) Energy flow (2) Decomposition
(3) Species composition (4) Nutrient cycling
22. Raw material for decomposition represented by dead organic matter is ............:
(1) Detritus (2) Only roots (3) Minerals (4) Humus
23. Which one of the following animals may occupy more than one trophic levels in the same
ecosystem at the same time :
(1) Human (2) Frog (3) Sparrow (4) Both 1 and 3
24. If bamboo plant is growing in a far forest then what will be its trophic level:
(1) First (2) Second (3) Third (4) Fourth
25. A plant being eaten by a herbivorous which in turn is eaten by a carnivorous makes:
(1) Food chain (2) Food web (3) Omnivorous (4) Interdependent
26. Which of the following acts as "nature's scavengers"
(1) Man (2) Animals (3) Insects (4) Micro-organisms
27. If we completely remove the decomposers from an ecosystem, its functioning will be
adversely affected, because :
(1) Mineral movement will be blocked
(2) The rate of decomposition will be very high
(3) Energy flow will be blocked
(4) Herbivores will not receive solar energy
28. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Rate of decomposition is controlled by chemical composition of detritus and
climatic factor.
Reason (R) : Warm and moist environment favour decomposition and in lignin and chitin rich
detritus decomposition rate is faster.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
29. Given below are two statements :
Statement I : In pyramid of energy the base of a pyramid is broad and it narrows down at the
apex.
Statement II : The species that induces a bare area called pioneer species.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both, Statement I and Statement II are correct
30. Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Vertical distribution of species occupying different levels is called stratification.
Statement II : Forest, river grassland and estuary are some example of terrestrial ecosystems.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both, Statement I and Statement II are correct
31. The mass of living material at a trophic level at a particular time is called
(1) Net primary productivity
(2) Standing crop
(3) Gross primary productivity
(4) Standing state.
32. Which of the following microbe is made up of protein only?
 (1) Virus (2) Bacteria
(3) Viroids (4) Prions
33. Microbial colonies
(1) Can be grown on nutritive media (2) Can be seen by naked eyes
(3) Are useful in study of microbes (4) More than one option is correct
34. What is the beneficial role of LAB in our stomach?
(1) Causes souring of milk by decreasing nutritional quality
(2) Increases the amount of vitamin-D
(3) Checks disease causing microbes
(4) It produces alkali which coagulate and partially digest the milk proteins
35. Which of the following is traditional drink of some parts of southern India, made by
fermenting sap from palms?
(1) Tea (2) Toddy (3) Beer (4) Wine
36. Production of beverages at industrial scale requires growing microbes in very large
containers known as
(1) Digesters (2) Fermentors (3) Dough (4) Concrete Tank
37. Find the odd one w.r.t. distilled alcoholic beverages
(1) Rum (2) Beer (3) Brandy (4) Whisky
38. Which of the following microbe is the source of first antibiotic?
(1) Penicillium notatum (2) Staphylococci
(3) Aspergillus niger (4) Bacillus brevis
39. The first antibiotic was discovered accidently by __A__ while working on __B__.
(1) A-Waksman ; B-Streptococcus (2) A-Waksman; B-Bacillus brevis
(3) A-Fleming; B-Penicillium notatum (4) A-Fleming; B-Staphylococci
40. ________ are used in detergent formulations and are helpful in removing oily stains from
laundry.
(1) Ligases (2) Proteases
(3) Lipases (4) Pectinases
41. Select the microbe which is the source of ‘clot buster’ enzyme.
(1) Bacterium; Lactobacillus (2) Fungi; Aspergillus niger
(3) Fungi; Penicillium notatum (4) Bacterium; Streptococcus
42. Treatment of waste-water is done by the
(1) Photoautotrophic microbes, naturally present in sewage
(2) Chemoautotrophic microbes, naturally present in sewage
(3) Heterotrophic microbes naturally present in sewage
(4) Heterotrophic microbes inoculated in the sewage from outside only
43. In a sewage treatment plant, primary treatment is
(1) Physical process which involves sedimentation only
(2) Physical process which involves both filtration and sedimentation
(3) Biological process which involves formation of primary sludge and effluent
(4) Biological process which involves both filtration and sedimentation
44. What are flocs?
(1) Masses of anaerobic bacteria
(2) Masses of aerobic fungi only
(3) Masses of anaerobic bacteria and fungi
(4) Masses of aerobic bacteria associated with fungal filaments
45. What happens to activated sludge?
(1) It is generally released into natural water bodies like rivers and streams
 (2) It is completely pumped back into aeration tank to serve as inoculum
(3) The major part of the sludge is pumped into large tanks called anaerobic sludge
digesters
(4) It undergoes sequential filtration
46. What is the composition of the biogas?
(1) Methane, carbon dioxide, oxygen etc.
(2) Methane, carbon dioxide, hydrogen, nitrogen dioxide etc.
(3) Methane, carbon dioxide, hydrogen etc.
(4) Methane, carbon dioxide, sulphur dioxide etc.
47. The technology of biogas production was developed in India mainly due to the efforts of
(1) IPM (2) IARI and KVIC (3) IRRI (4) ICAR
48. The ladybird beetle and dragonflies are useful to get rid of _____ and _____ respectively
(1) Caterpillars and mosquitoes
(2) Mosquitoes and fruit borer
(3) Aphids and mosquitoes
(4) Mosquitoes and aphids
49. Biofertilisers
(1) Increase dependence on chemical fertilisers
(2) Are organisms that enrich the nutrient quality of soil
(3) Include potash, phosphatic and nitrogenous organic and chemical compounds
(4) Are used regularly in the fields to deplete soil nutrients
50. The main sources of biofertilisers are
(a) Bacteria (b) Cyanobacteria (c) Fungi (d) Protists
(1) (a), (b), (c) (2) (a), (b), (d)
(3) (b), (c), (d) (4) (a), (c), (d)
51. In paddy fields, _______ serves as an important biofertiliser.
(1) Rhizobium (2) BGA
(3) Glomus (4) Frankia
52. Read the following four statements (A – D) about certain mistakes in two of them :
(A) Dough, which is used for making foods such as dosa and idli is fermented by fungi and
algae
(B) Toddy, a traditional drink of southern India is made by fermenting sap from palms.
(C) Large hole in 'Swiss cheese' are due to production of large amount of methane by
Propionibacterium sharmanii
(D) In our stomach, lactic acid bacteria play very beneficial role in checking disease - causing
microbes Which are the two statements having mistakes?
(1) Statements (A) & (C)
(2) Statements (B) & (C)
(3) Statements (A) & (B)
(4) Statements (C) & (D)
53. Brewer’s yeast is used for ___A___ of malted cereals and fruit juices to produce ___B___.
(1) A - Distillation; B - CO2
(2) A - Fermentation; B - Alcohol
(3) A - Fermentation; B - CO
(4) A - Distillation; B - organic acid
54. Identify the correct statements w.r.t. antibiotics
(i) Fleming, Chain and Florey were awarded the Nobel prize in 1945
(ii) Antibiotics have greatly improved our capacity to treat deadly diseases
 (iii) Penicillin was used to treat American soldiers wounded in World War I

(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (i) and (iii)

(3) (ii) and (iii) (4) All are correct

55. The bottled juices are clarified by the use of

(1) Pectinases (2) Proteases (3) Lipases (4) Both (1) & (2)
56. Trichoderma polysporum is a source of
(1) Cyclosporin-A (2) Streptokinase (3) Statins (4) Clot buster
57. The greater BOD of waste water relates
(1) Increases oxygen content of water
(2) The decrease of temperature of water
(3) Decreases oxygen content of water
(4) All of these
58. The Ministry of Environment and Forest has initiated Ganga action plan and Yamuna action
plan
(i) To save these major rivers of our country from pollution
(ii) It is proposed to build a large number of sewage treatment plants
(iii) Under these plans, only treated sewage may be discharged in the river
(1) (i) and (ii) are correct
(2) (i) and (iii) are correct
(3) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(4) All are correct
59. Secondary treatment of sewage
(1) Removes grit and large pieces of organic matter
(2) Involves shredding, churning, filtration and sedimentation
(3) Does not require aeration
(4) Involves microbial digestion of organic matter
60. The removal of floating and suspended solids from sewage through filtration and
sedimentation is the part of
(1) Primary treatment (2) Secondary treatment
(3) Tertiary treatment (4) Biological treatment
61. Biogas contains
(1) 30% – 40% Methane (2) 50% – 70% CO2
(3) 50% – 70% Methane (4) 20% Methane
62. First step in biogas production is carried out with the help of
(1) Obligate aerobes (2) Decomposers (3) Methanogens (4) Parasites
63. Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t. biogas plant
(1) It consists of a concrete tank, 10-15 feet deep in which bio-wastes are collected and a
slurry of dung is fed
(2) A floating cover is placed over the slurry, which keeps on rising as the gas is consumed
in the tank
(3) It has an outlet, which is connected to pipe to supply biogas to nearby houses
(4) The spent slurry is removed and may be used as fertiliser
64. Which of the following statement for sewage is correct?
(1) Municipal waste-water, whose major component is human excreta
(2) Contains large amount of organic matter and non-pathogenic microbes
(3) Can be discharged directly into natural water bodies like rivers and streams
 (4) It is generated in less quantities in cities and villages as compared to towns
65. Baculoviruses are/have
(1) Pathogens that attack insects and other arthropods Viruses, bacteria and fungi only
(2) Members of genus Nucleopolyhedrovirus that are never used as biocontrol
(3) Species-specific, broad spectrum insecticides
(4) Few negative impacts on plants, mammals, birds, fishes or even on non-target insects
66. Identify the incorrect statement.
(i) Bacillus thuringiensis are available in sachets as dried spores which are mixed with
kerosine and sprayed on to vulnerable plants
(ii) B. thuringiensis are used to control butterfly caterpillars, but leave other insects
unharmed
(iii) The toxin of B. thuringiensis is released in the blood of larvae and the larvae get
killed
(iv) By the development of methods of genetic engineering B. thuringiensis toxin genes
have been introduced into plants

(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii) (3) (i) and (iii) (4) (ii) and (iv)

67. Which of the following is not the belief of an organic farmer?

(1) The more variety a landscape has, the more sustainable it is
(2) The insects that are sometimes called pests are not eradicated, but instead are kept at
manageable levels by a complex system of checks and balances within a living and vibrant
ecosystem
(3) For controlling plant diseases and pests, chemicals like insecticides and pesticides
should be used extensively
(4) Eradication of the pests is undesirable because they act as food or hosts for beneficial
predatory and parasitic insects
68. Concept of sustainable agriculture lies in
(1) Minimizing biopesticides
(2) A greater dependance on new crops
(3) Least use of biofertilizers
(4) Using spores of Bacillus thuringiensis for pest control
69. What gases are produced in anaerobic sludge digesters?
(1) Methane and CO2 only
(2) Methane, Hydrogen sulphide and CO2
(3) Methane, Hydrogen sulphide and O2
(4) Hydrogen sulphide and CO2
70. The domestic sewage in large cities
(1) Has a high BOD as it containing both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria
(2) Is processed by aerobic and then anaerobic bacteria in the secondary treatment in
Sewage Treatment Plants (STPs)
(3) When treated in STPs does not really require the aeration step as the sewage contains
adequate oxygen
(4) Has very high amounts of suspended solids and dissolved salts.
71. Monascus purpureus is a yeast used commercially in the production of
(1) Blood cholesterol lowering statins
(2) Ethanol
(3) Streptokinase for removing clots from the blood vessels
(4) Citric acid
72. The variation shown by the medicinal plant Rauwolfia vomitoria growing in different
Himalayan ranges represents
(1) Genetic diversity (2) Species diversity (3) Ecological diversity (4) Community
diversity
73. Insects are the most numerous with estimate of
(1) 7 out of 10 invertebrates
(2) 4 out of 10 invertebrates
(3) 7 out of 10 animals
(4) 4 out of 10 animals
74. In global biodiversity of plants, the
(1) Angiosperms represent maximum number (2) Algae represent the minimum number
(3) Fungi represent the minimum number (4) Mosses represent the maximum number
75. Conventional taxonomic methods are not suitable for identifying
(1) Amphibian species (2) Insect species
(3) Microbial species (4) Gymnospermic species
76. Species-area relationships among very large areas like the entire continents the Z values in
the range of
(1) 0.1 to 0.2 (2) 1.15 (3) 0.3 to 0.6 (4) 0.6 to 1.2
77. Colonisation of tropical pacific Islands by humans have resulted in extinction of more than
_______ species of native birds.
(1) 2000 (2) 7000 (3) 784 (4) 15000
78. Loss of biodiversity in a region may lead to all of the following, except
(1) Decline in plant production
(2) Lowered resistance to environment perturbations
(3) Increased variability in certain ecosystem processes
(4) Increased endemism
79. Presently A % of all mammal species and B 103 % of all gymnosperm species in the world
face threat of extinction.
(1) A– 32, B– 12 (2) A– 22, B– 31 (3) A– 23, B– 31 (4) A– 31, B– 23
80. Which of the following is the most important cause driving animals and plants to extinction?
(1) Alien species invasions
(2) Co-extinctions
(3) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(4) Over-exploitation
81. Which of the following organisms are badly affected when large habitats are broken up into
small fragments due to various human activities?
(1) Mammals requiring small territories (2) Planktons showing diapause
(3) Animals with migratory habits (4) Birds requiring small territories
82. Bio-prospecting is exploring molecular, genetic and species level diversity for products of
(1) Ecosystem services
(2) Economic benefits
(3) Aesthetic pleasures
(4) Both (1) & (3)
83. “When we conserve and protect the whole ecosystem, its biodiversity at all levels is
protected.”
This approach includes all of the following, except
(1) Biosphere reserves
(2) Seed Bank
 (3) National parks
(4) Sanctuaries
84. A : Tropics have more biodiversity.
R : Climate of tropical region is more seasonal.
Option 3
85. A:Western ghats are included among the hot spots of biodiversity.
R:Western ghats have greater amphibian diversity than eastern ghats.
Option 2
86. A: A stable community should show much variation in year to year productivity.
R: It must not be resilient to occasional disturbance.
Option 4
87. A : Statins are product of fermentation activity of yeast.
R : Statins and mevalonate compete for same active site on enzyme involved in cholesterol
synthesis.
Option 2
88. A : Wine and beer are produced by distillation of the fermented broth.
R : Different types of alcoholic drinks are obtained only by fermentation, always followed by
distillation process.
Option 4
89. A : The chief component of biogas is CH4.
R : Biogas plants are prepared on the foreign technology.
Option 3
90. A : Cyclosporin A is an immunosuppressive medicine.
R : It stimulates activation of T-cells and prevents rejections.
Option 3