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Classroom Contact Programme: JEE (Main+ Advanced) ENTHUSIAST COURSE Phase - Advance Paper

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CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME

JEE (Main+ Advanced) ENTHUSIAST COURSE


PHASE - ADVANCE
PAPER
TEST DATE : 09-06-2024
Important Instructions
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.

1.

2.

3. 3 hours

4. 90 300.

5. three Physics Chemistry Mathematics 30 questions


correct

6. One Fourth section-I & section-II Section-II contains


10 Numerical Type questions out of which only 5 questions are to be answred.

7. Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only Side–1 Side–2

Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.

8.

9.

10. However,
the candidate are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

11. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in JEE (Advanced) 2025




 7/3, Near Gokuldas Hospital, Shreeram nagar


South Tukoganj, Indore (MP) - 452001 +91-731-4728500
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME
JEE (Main+ Advanced) ENTHUSIAST COURSE
PHASE - ADVANCE
PAPER
PART-1 : PHYSICS

SECTION-I : (Maximum Marks: 80) 3. The electric field due to a uniformly charged non-
This section contains 20 questions. Each question has conducting sphere of radius R as a function of the
4 options for correct answer. Multiple-Choice distance from its centre is represented graphically
Questions (MCQs) Only one option is correct. For by
each question, marks will be awarded as follows:
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected. (A) (B)
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected.
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected.
1. A wire of resistance R is stretched to double its
length. Its new resistance is (C) (D)
(A) R (B) R/2
(C) 4R (D) R/4
2. The variation of electric field between the two 4. The amount of charge flown from the switch S
charges q1 and q2 along the line joining the charges when it is closed will be (both are conducting
is plotted against distance from q1 (taking shells)
rightward direction of electric field as positive) as
shown in the figure. Then the correct statement is :-

(A) 3q (B) 4q
(C) 0 (D) 2q
5. Calculate energy needed for moving a mass of 4kg
(A) q1 and q2 are positive and q1 < q2
from the centre of the earth to its surface. If radius
(B) q1 and q2 are positive and q1 > q2 of the earth is 6400 km and acceleration due to
(C) q1 is positive and q2 is negative and q1 < q2 gravity at the surface of the earth is g = 10 m/sec2
(D) q1 and q2 are negative and q1 < q2 (A) 1.28 × 108 J (B) 1.28 × 106 J
(C) 2.56 × 108 J (D) 2.56 × 1010 J
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6. In the ladder network shown, current through the 9. Two stars of mass m and 3m separated by distance
resistor 3 Ω is 0.25 A. The input voltage V is equal r are moving in circular path about their centre of
to mass due to mutual gravitation force. The angular
velocity of any star will be
(A)
√ Gm
4r3
(B)
√ 2Gm
r3
(A) 10 V (B) 20 V (C)
√ 4Gm
(C) 5 V (D) 15 r3
V
2
(D)
7. Equivalent resistance of series combination - √ Gm
2r3
(A) is equals to mean of individual resistors 10. In the given network, the batteries getting charged
(B) is less than the lesser one are :
(C) is in between the smaller and bigger resistors
(D) is sum of individual resistors
8. A solid sphere having uniform charge density ρ
and radius R is shown in figure. A spherical cavity
of radius R
is made in it. What is the potential at (A) 1 and 3 (B) 1, 3 and 5
2
point O ? (C) 1 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 5
11. Two wires each of radius of cross-section r but
of different materials are connected together end
to end (in series). If the densities of charge carriers
in the two wires are in the ratio 1: 4, the drift
velocity of electrons in the two wires will be in the
ratio :
(A) 11R2 ρ (B) 5R2 ρ
24 ε 0 12 ε 0 (A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1
(C) 7 ρ R2 (D) 3R2 ρ (C) 4 : 1 (D) 1 : 4
12 ε 0 2ε0

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12. Charge 2q is uniformly distributed on non 14. In the network shown, points A, B and C are
conducting shell of radius r/2 a point charge q is potentials of 70 V, zero and 10 V respectively
placed at distance r from the centre of the shell as which one is incorrect
shown. Find the electric field intensity at point P in
given diagram.

(A) Point D is at a potential of 40 V


(B) The currents in the sections AD, DB, DC are
in the ratio 3: 2: 1
(C) The currents in the sections AD, DB, DC are
(A) zero in the ratio 1: 2: 3

(B)  ⎧
⎪ ⎫

 Kq 2 ⎪ ⎪

2
(D) The network draws a total power of 200 W.

) + ⎨K ⎬
2q
(

⎩ ( r − d) ⎪

15. Which of the following relations is incorrect, while
⎷ r ⎪ ⎪
2 2
2 all the symbols have their usual meaning
(C) Kq (B) ρℓ
(A) v = iR R=
r2 + d 2 A
(D) 2q (C) σ = jE (D) j = nevd
K 2
( 2r − d) 16. A and B are two concentric metallic hollow
13. Kepler’s third law can be stated that T2 = kR3. The spheres. If A is given a charge q while B is earthed
value of k (const) is not same for as shown in figure, then
(A) Planet Mars and planet Venus
(B) Planet Neptune and planet Earth
(C) Planet Earth and its moon
(A) charge density of A and B are same
(D) The two moons of Mars
(B) field inside and outside A is zero
(C) field between A and B is not zero
(D) field inside and outside B is zero

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17. The resistance of all the wires between any two 20. A small electric dipole is placed at origin with its
adjacent dots is R. Then equivalent resistance axis being directed along the positive x-axis. The
between A and B as shown in figure is : direction of electric field due to the dipole at a
point (1m, √2m, 0) is along the :
(A) z-axis (B) y-axis
(C) x-axis (D) line y = x
SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 40)
This section contains 10 questions Candidates have to
attempt any 5 questions out of 10. If more than 5
(A) 7 (B) 7 questions are attempted, then only first 5 attempted
R R
3 6
questions will be evaluated.
(C) 14 (D) None of these
R The answer to each question is a Numerical Value.
8
18. Three point charges +q, – 2q and +q are placed at Answer to each question will be evaluated according to
points (x = 0, y = a, z = 0), (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and the following marking scheme:
(x = a, y = 0, z = 0) respectively. The magnitude Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is entered.
and direction of resultant dipole moment can be Zero Marks : 0 If the question is unanswered.
best represented by qa ( α ^i + β ^j ). Find α + β . Negative Marks : –1 If wrong answer is entered.
1. In the following circuit, the current through the
(A) 2 (B) 3
resistor R (= 2 Ω ) is I Amperes. The value of I is :
(C) 4 (D) 5
19. The value of RAB is :

(A) 2R
3
(B) 3R
5 2. There are 8.4 × 10 22 free electrons per cm 3
(C) 5R in copper. The current in the wire is 0.21 A
3 (e = 1.6 x 10 -19 C). Then the drifts velocity
(D) None of these of electrons in a copper wire of 1 mm 2 cross
section is n × 10 -5 m/s. Find n.
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3. A satellite is moving along circular orbit having 7. A satellite in circular orbit is moving at speed v. In
K.E.. 9 MJ then how much energy (in MJ) is order to 'free' it from orbit and gravitational field
required to escape this satellite from orbit ? (make it unbounded). Its speed has to be changed
by a minimum magnitude of (√n − 1)v. Find n.
4. Two concentric uniformly charged spheres of
radius 10 cm & 20 cm are arranged as shown in 8. Consider two concentric non-conducting uniformly
the figure. Potential difference between the charged spherical shells of radius 3m and 6m
spheres is x × 1011 V. The value of x is :- having charges 10µC and 200µC respectively. Find
the interaction potential energy between two
spheres in joules.
9. Three charged small spheres are suspended from
point O with help of strings of length ℓ as shown. All
three charges are in equilibrium. Tension in string is
x
N . Find x (m = 20 gm;) Take g = 10 m/s2
10

5. An infinite long uniformly charged wire is kept


along axis of a uniformly charged semi circular
ring as shown. Linear charge density of ring and
wire are respectively λ 1 and λ 2. Net electrostatic
4k λ 1 λ 2
force on wire due to ring is value of n is
Rn−1

10. A particle of mass m is moving in circular motion


of radius r with constant speed v in influence of
two fixed particles of mass M. Plane of circular
6. In the figure given, the equivalent motion is perpendicular to line joining fixed
resistance between A and B is particles as shown. Speed of particle is given as
v=√
GM
find value of n (a = r√3)
nr

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PART-2 : CHEMISTRY

SECTION-I : (Maximum Marks: 80) 5. S1 : Na2O2 < MgO < ZnO < P4O10 : Acidic
This section contains 20 questions. Each question has property.
4 options for correct answer. Multiple-Choice S2 : Na < Si > Mg < Al : First ionisation
Questions (MCQs) Only one option is correct. For potential.
each question, marks will be awarded as follows: S3 : F > Cl > Br : Election affinity.
S4 : Te – 2 > I¯ > Cs+ > Ba2+ : Ionic size.
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected. (A) TTTT (B) TTFT
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected. (C) TFFT (D) TFTT
1. Number of lone pairs of electrons in the central 6. Which of the following is an outer orbital complex ?
atom of SCl2, O3, ClF3 and SF6, respectively, are :
(A) [Fe(CN)6]4⊝ (B) [Mn(CN)6]4⊝
(A) 0, 1, 2 and 2 (B) 2, 1, 2 and 0
(C) [Cr(NH3)6]3 ⊕ (D) [Ni(NH3)6]2 ⊕
(C) 1, 2, 2 and 0 (D) 2, 1, 2 and 0
7.
2. Which of the following ion is colourless :
(A) Mn2+ (B) Cu+
(C) Cr3+ (D) Fe2+
3. For an element ‘A’.
IE1 IE2 IE3 In the above sequence of reactions,
A −−
→ A+ −−
→ A2+ −−
→ A3+ →
A and D respectively, are :-
The IE1 and IE3 values are 27 kJ/mole and 51 kJ/mole
respectively. Then the value of IE2 is _______ (A) KIO3 and MnO2 (B) KI and K2MnO4
kJ/mole. (C) MnO2 and KIO3 (D) KI and KMnO4
(A) 21 (B) 33 8. For a d4 metal ion in an octahedral field, the correct
(C) 59 (D) 63 electronic configuration is :
4. Electronic configuration of the Vanadium in the (A) t42g e0g when Δ 0 < P
compound where it produces spin magnetic (B) e3g t22g when Δ 0 < P
moment of 1.73 B.M. is
(C) t32g e1g when Δ 0 < P
(A) [Ar] 4s23d3 (B) [Ar] 4s23d0
(D) t32g e1g when Δ 0 > P
(C) [Ar] 4s03d1 (D) [Ar] 4s03d3

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9. Zeigler natta catalyst is : 12.
(A) Pt/PtO
(B) Al(C2H5)3 + TiCl4
(C) K(PtCl3( η 2 – C2H4)]
(D) Pt/Rh Order of rate of electrophilic addition reaction with
HBr will be :
10. Among the following the pair of paramagnetic
(A) IV> I > III > II (B) I > II > III > IV
complex is :-
(A) K3[Fe(CN)6] , [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 (C) I > III > II > IV (D) IV > I > II > III
13. Which of the following will not produce ethane-
(B) O2[AsF6] , [Cu(NH3)4]SO4
(A) Reduction of CH3COOH with HI/red P
(C) [Ni(CO)4] , [Fe(CO)5]
(B) Reduction of CH3COCH3 with HI/red P
(D) K3[FeCl6] , K4[Fe(CN)6]
(C) Decarboxylation of sodium propionate with
11. What is the end product of following reaction
soda lime
(D) Hydrogenation of ethene in the presence of Ni.
14. 2-Methylbutane on reacting with bromine in the
presence of sunlight gives mainly
(A)
(A) 2 – bromo-2 – methylbutane
(B)
(B) 1 – bromo-2 – methylbutane
(C) 1 – bromo-3 – methylbutane
(C)
(D) 2 – bromo-3 – methylbutane
15. The one giving maximum number of isomeric
(D) CH4
alkenes on dehydrohalogenation reaction is
(excluding rearrangement)
(A) 1-Bromo-2-methylbutane
(B) 2-Bromopropane
(C) 2-Bromopentane
(D) 2-Bromo-3,3-dimethylpentane

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16. 19. If two gases A (Molar mass = MA gm/mole) and B
(Molar mass = MB gm/mole) at temperature. TA &
TB respectively have identical maxwell plots then
which one of the following statement is incorrect.
(A) TA T
= B
MA MB
Hydrogenation of the above compound in the
(B) Gases A and B may be O2 and SO2 at 27°C
presence of poisoned palladium catalyst gives
and 327°C respectively.
(A) An optically active compound
(C) Both gases have same root mean square speed
(B) An optically inactive compound
(D) Both gases have same molar kinetic energy
(C) A racemic mixture
20. Count the number of correct formulae/equation for
(D) A diastereomeric mixture vander waal's gas -
17.
an2
(i) (P − ) (V − nb) = nRT
V
(ii) TC = a 2
27b
(A) Only (R,R) product (B) Only (S,S) product (iii) VC = 3b
(C) Meso compound (D) Racemic mixture (iv) Z = P V
nRT
(v) PM = dRT
18. Given : a
(vi) Boyle's temp =
Rb
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5

He gas present in compartment A and compartment


B as shown. The pressure in compartment A after
opening the valve is -
(Given : Neglect the volume of connecting pipe)
(A) 1.6 atm (B) 1.17 atm
(C) 0.285 atm (D) 1.75 atm
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SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 40) 6. Total number of stereoisomer in :
This section contains 10 questions Candidates have to
attempt any 5 questions out of 10. If more than 5
questions are attempted, then only first 5 attempted 7.
questions will be evaluated.
The answer to each question is a Numerical Value.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to Number of hydrocarbon products formed ?
the following marking scheme: 8. Find the total number of monocarboxylic acid
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is entered. which can form n-butane on heating with
Zero Marks : 0 If the question is unanswered. (NaOH + CaO) / Δ ?
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong answer is entered.
9. The vander Waal’s constants for a gas are a = 3.6
1. Determine total number of optically active isomers atm L2 mol – 2, b = 0.6 L mol – 1. If R = 0.08L atm
of [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl. K – 1 mol – 1. If the Boyle’s temperature (K) is TB
2. Among the following complexes, how many have TB
of this gas, then what is the value of ?
'spin only' magnetic moment of 2.83 B.M.? 15
[Ni(CO)4], [Ni(CN)4]2 – , [Ni(NH3)6]2+, [NiCl4]2 – , 10. The time taken for a certain volume of gas to
[NiF6]4 – diffuse through a small hole was 2 min. Under
similar conditions an equal volume of oxygen took
3. Find the number of compound(s) which are green
5.65 min to pass. The molecular mass of the gas in
colour.
amu is (use 4√2 = 5.65) :
MnO2, K2MnO4, Cr2O3, Cr2(SO4)3, CuO,
CuCO3.Cu(OH)2, FeSO4.7H2O
4. The element having atomic number 46 belongs to
which period of periodic table ?
5. How many optically active compounds are possible
in the following reaction ?

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PART-3 : MATHEMATICS

SECTION-I : (Maximum Marks: 80) 4. If g(x) = x2 + x – 1 and (gof)(x) = 4x2 – 10x + 5,


This section contains 20 questions. Each question has then f( 5 ) is equal to
4
4 options for correct answer. Multiple-Choice
(A) 3 (B) 1
Questions (MCQs) Only one option is correct. For −
2 2
each question, marks will be awarded as follows: (C) 3 (D) 1
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected. −
2 2
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected. 5. Let f(x) be a function such that f(x + y) = f(x) · f(y)
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected. n
for all x, y ∈ N. If f(1) = 3 and ∑ f(k) = 3279,
1. Let A = {x ∈ R : |x + 1| < 2} and k=1

B = {x ∈ R : |x − 1| ⩾ 2} Then which one of the then the value of n is


following statements is NOT true ? (A) 6 (B) 8
(A) A − B = (−1, 1) (C) 7 (D) 9
(B) B − A = R − (−3, 1) 6. Let f : (0, ∞ ) → (1, ∞ ) be a function such that
(C) A ∩ B = (−3, −1] 3
f(x) = 1 + √x and
g(x) is inverse of ƒ(x) then the
2
(D) A ∪ B = R − [1, 3) point where f(x) and g(x) intersect is
(A) 1 1
2. Let R be a relation on N × N defined by (a, b) R (c, d) ( , ) (B) (4, 2)
4 4
if and only if ad(b – c) = bc(a – d). Then R is
(C) (4, 4) (D) Does not exist
(A) symmetric but neither reflexive nor transitive
7. √log (x − 1)
5
(B) transitive but neither reflexive nor symmetric The domain of the function f(x) =
√4x + 5 − x2
(C) reflexive and symmetric but not transitive is
(D) symmetric and transitive but not reflexive (A) x ∈ [2, 5) (B) x ∈ (1, 5)
3. 1−x 2x (C) x ∈ ( – 1, 5) (D) x ∈ [4, 5)
If f(x) = loge ( ) , |x| < 1, then f( )
1+x 1 + x2
is equal to : 8. If ƒ : [0, 3] → [0, 5] is a bijective function defined
by ƒ(x) = ax2 + bx + 5 (where a, b ∈ R), then ƒ(3)
(A) 2ƒ(x) (B) 2ƒ(x2)
equals
(C) (ƒ(x))2 (D) – 2ƒ(x)
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 0

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9. 2π 7π 3π 14.
sin−1 (sin ) + cos−1 (cos ) + tan−1 (tan )
√1 + 3x − √1 − 3x
3 6 4 The value of lim is
x→0 x
is equal to :
(A) 7 (B) 3
(A) 11 π (B) 17 π
12 12
(C) 6 (D) Does not exist
(C) 31 π (D) 3π 15. 5x3 − 6
− The value of x→−
lim is
12 4 ∞ √9 + 4x6
10. 3 5
The value of tan(2tan−1 ( ) + sin−1 ( )) is (A) 5/3 (B) – 2
5 13
equal to : (C) – 5/2 (D) 5/2
(A) −181 (B) 220 16. If for x ∈ (0, π ), log10sinx + log10cosx = – 1 and
69 21 2
(C) −291 (D) 151 log10(sinx + cosx) = 1 (log10n – 1), n > 0, then the
2
76 63 value of n is equal to :
11. If S is the sum of the first 10 terms of the series
1 1 1 1 (A) 20 (B) 12
tan−1 ( ) + tan−1 ( ) + tan−1 ( ) + tan−1 ( ) +. . . ,
3 7 13 21
(C) 9 (D) 16
then tan(S) is equal to :
17. 3 5
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 10 (D) 5 If cos( α + β ) = , sin( α − β ) = and
− 5 13
11 5 11 6 π
0 < α, β < , then tan(2 α ) is equal to :
12. The sum of possible values of x for tan – 1 (x + 1) + 4
1 8 (A) 21 (B) 63 (C) 33 (D) 63
cot – 1 ( ) = tan−1 ( ) is :
16 52 52 16
x−1 31
(A) 32 (B) 31 18. ⎡ sin4 θ −1 − sin2 θ ⎤
− − = α I + β M −1 ,
⎣ 1 + cos2 θ ⎦
4 4
Let M =
cos4 θ
(C) 30 (D) 33
− − where α = α(θ) and β = β(θ) are real number, and I is
4 4
13. (x2 − 1)(x + 2)
the 2 × 2 identity matrix. If
lim is equal to α* is the minimum of the set {α(θ) : θ ∈ [0, 2π)}
x→1 (x − 1)
(A) 5 (B) 7 and
β* is the minimum of the set {β(θ) : θ ∈ [0, 2π)},
(C) 6 (D) 11
then the value of α* + β* is
(A) 37 (B) 29
− −
16 16
(C) 31 (D) 17
− −
16 16

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19. ⎛ [x + 1] [x + 2] [x + 3] ⎞ 2. Number of solutions of 11 sin x = x is :
⎜ ⎟
Let A=⎜
⎜ [x] [x + 3] [x + 3] ⎟
⎟, where [t] 3. √5x − 4 − √x
⎜ ⎟ If L = lim , then the value of 3L is
⎝ [x] [x + 4] ⎠
x→1 x3 − 1
[x + 2]
denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to t. 4. Value of cos( 1 cos−1 ( 1 )) is
2 8
If det(A) = 192, then the set of values of x is the
interval: 5. Number of solution(s) of the equation
cos – 1 (cosx) = x 2 is
(A) [68, 69) (B) [62, 63)
(C) [65, 66) (D) [60, 61)
6. If cot−1 ( n ) > π , where n∈N then the
π 6
maximum value of n is
20. Let a, b, c ∈ R be all non-zero and satisfy a3 + b3 + c3 = 2.
7. The number of solution of the equations
⎛a b c⎞
⎜ ⎟
2[x] = x + 1 + {x} is / are:
If the matrix A = ⎜
⎜b a⎟
⎟ satisfies A A = I, then a
T
⎜ ⎟
c
8. Let ƒ : R → R and ƒ(x) = x3 + x2 + x – 36, then
⎝c b⎠
a solution for x of equation ƒ(x) = ƒ – 1(x), is
value of abc can be :
9. x 1
(A) 2 (B) −
1 Let A = [ ],x∈ R and A4 = [aij]. If a11 = 109,
3 3 1 0
(D) 1 then a22 is equal to _______ .
(C) 3
3 10. If the system of equations
SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 40) x – 2y + 3z = 9
This section contains 10 questions Candidates have to 2x + y + z = b
attempt any 5 questions out of 10. If more than 5 x – 7y + az = 24,
questions are attempted, then only first 5 attempted has infinitely many solutions, then a – b is equal to
questions will be evaluated. ________.
The answer to each question is a Numerical Value.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to
the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is entered.
Zero Marks : 0 If the question is unanswered.
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong answer is entered.
1. √2 sin α
If =
1
and √ 1 − cos 2 β =
1
, α,
√1 + cos 2 α 7 2 √10
β ∈ (0, π ), then tan(α + 2β) is equal to _____.
2
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