CDI QUESTION AND ANSWER

1. Which of the following is a strong oxidizing organic compound which releases oxygen
readily?
A. organic peroxide C. corrosive liquid
B. blasting agent D. combustible fiber
2. What is the enclosed space of passage that extends from floor to floor as well as from the
base to the top of the building?
A. vertical shaft C. standpipe
B. sprinkler system D. flash point
3. What is a piece of metal or an electrical conductor used to bypass a safety device in an electrical
system?
A. magnet C. brace
B. jumper D. wire
4. Conduction is heat transfer through:
A. solid materials C. electromagnetic waves
B. smoke D. air motion
5. The most common motive for arson is
A. jealousy C. profit
B. spite D. revenge
6. What is the process of raising the temperature to separate the non- volatile from the less volatile
parts and then cooling and condensing the resulting vapor so as to produce a nearly purified
substance?
A. Combustion C. evaporation
B. distillation D. condensation
7. What is the minimum temperature at which any material gives off vapor in sufficient concentration to
form an ignitable mixture with air?
A. evaporating point C. boiling point
B. ignition point D. flash point
8. Which of the following is “prima facie” existence of arson?
A. inflammable substance found in the premises
B. simultaneous fire in more than one part of the building
C. building insurance
D. any of these
9. Fire can leapfrog across wide malls and shopping centers through electromagnetic waves. This
heat transfer is:
A. Conduction C. combustion
B. radiation D. convection
10. What is a vertical panel of non- combustible or fire resistant materials attached to and
extending below the bottom chord of roof trusses to divide the underside of the roof into
separate compartments so that heat and smoke will be directed upwards to a roof vent?
A. fire door C. fire trap
B. electric arc D. curtain board
11. What is the instrument used to open and close a fire hydrant?
A. hydrant key C. key board

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 B. fire hose D. jumper
12. How many percent of air is needed to sustain combustion?
A. 20 C. 30
B. 10 D. 15
13. What equipment is made of trussed or solid beam where rungs are connected horizontally to the
beam forming ascent or descent?
A. Rope C. hydrant
B. Ladder D. nozzle
14. What are the cross numbers between the beam and used in climbing the ladder called?
A. Hangar C. beams
B. rungs D. braces
15. What is the constant temperature at which the vapor pressure of the liquid is equal to the
atmospheric pressure?
A. vapor density C. fire point
B. boiling point D. vapor pressure
16. What is an act which removes or neutralizes a fire hazard?
A. Distillation C. allotment
B. abatement D. combustion
17. The ratio of the weight of a solid or liquid substance to the weight of an equal volume of water.
A. vapor density C. specific gravity
B. molecular weight D. vapor pressure
18. The transfer of heat from one material to another by direct contact is called
A. oxidation C. convection
B. conduction D. radiation
19. Aware of the common modus operandi of arson cases in our midst, which of the following
facilities should you check?
A. Gift-wrapped packages C. Telephones
B. Electric switch system D. All of these
20. What is the measure of the degree of thermal agitation of molecules?
A. Ignition point C. Temperature
B. Flash point D. Boiling point
21. To cut a hole in the concrete floor for a cellar type, the cutting operation should start .
A. At the thickest point of the concrete flooring
B. In the center of the concrete flooring between the floor beams
C. Close to the floor beams
D. None of these
22. What is a material that easily yields oxygen in quantities sufficient to stimulate or support
combustion?
A. Smoke C. carbon
B. oxidizing material D. ember
23. The cause of the majority of fire deaths is .

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 A. Infection C. shock
B. Burns D. asphyxiation
24. In a combustion process, which event comes first?
A. fire point C. none of these
B. ignition temperature D. flash point
25. The lowest section of an extension ladder is known as:
A. Heel C. butt
B. bed ladder D. fly ladder
26. What specific offence has been committed? Who committed it? When it was committed? Where it
was committed? Why it was committed? And how it was committed?
This are called of criminal investigation.
A. Cardinal Points C. Golden Rule
B. Three I’s D Bridges burn
27. One of the stages of criminal investigation is the identification of criminals, which can be done in any
or a combination of the following, except.
A. By confession or admission by the criminal C. By corpus delicti
B. By circumstantial evidence D. By eyewitness
28. Coerced and uncounselled statements are considered involuntary or forced confession which are
usually a/ and .
A. Judicial C. Prosecutorial
B. Extra judicial D. Admission
29. After apprising him of his rights under Republic Act 7438, Lauro Galit who was invited and
interrogated for the crime of murder executed an extra-judicial confession acknowledging his guilt to
the crime charged. What is the effect of such confession to his case?
A. It can be used as evidence against him
B. He will be convicted for the crime of murder
C. He waived his rights to prove his innocence
D. His case will prosper
30. may be in sensory, written or physical forms which can be obtained from regular, cultivated
or grapevine sources.
A. Information C. Data
B. Evidence D. Proof
31. An act or declaration made in the presence and within the hearing or observation of a party who does
or says nothing, when the act or declaration naturally calls for action if comment is not true.
A. Admission by Silence C. Admission
B. Res inter alios acta D. Negative pregnant
32. In this process, written confession of the accused is used as a script in describing events of the
crime. This strengthens the prosecutor’s case and serves to convince the judge that the accused
was not maltreated nor affected by sinister psychological influence.
A. Mental reconstruction C. Reconstruction
B. Crime reenactment D. Physical reconstruction

33. Statement no. 1. Confession is a voluntary statement, either oral or written, made by a person
charged with the commission of a crime which he admits participation in, or commission of, the
criminal act. It cannot be implied, it should be direct and positive acknowledgment of guilt. Statement
no. 2 Admission is a statement by the accused regarding facts pertinent to the crime. It tends, in
connection with the proof of other facts, to prove the suspect’s guilt. It can be implied.
A. Statement No. 1 is true while statement no. 2 is false
B. Statement No. 1 is false while statement no. 2 is true

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34. Which of the following need not be present in order to prove the guilt of the accused by means of
confession or admission?
A. Confession must be supported by corroborative evidence
B. Corpus delicti must be established separately
C. Confession must be voluntarily and freely given
D. Confession must be ratified by the judge or the fiscal
35. Assume that you are an investigator who investigates a murder case perpetrated by an unknown
suspect. A person in the name of Ruel, a call center agent, saw the crime and he is willing to identify
the suspect. Which of the following methods will you not utilize to establish the identity of the suspect?
A. Verbal Description (Portrait Parle) and Rogue’s Gallery (Photographic Files)
B. General Photographs and Cartographic Sketch (Artist’s Assistance) [Composite Artist]
C. Police Line-up
D. Systematic interview that may lead to the identity of a known criminals
36. You are an investigator, investigating a suspected rape-slaying case which was allegedly witnessed by
a certain person who volunteered to identify and testify against the perpetrator. What are the factors
that you should not consider to determine the accuracy of his identification of the suspect?
A. His ability to observe and remember the distinct appearance of the suspect
B. The prevailing conditions of visibility and observation when the crime was committed
C. His state of mind when he witnessed the commission of the crime
D. The lapse of time between the criminal event and when identification was made
37. Circumstantial Evidence is an evidence that indirectly proves a fact in issue through an inference which
fact-finder draws from the evidence presented. It is sufficient to produce the conviction of the accused if
1. There are more than one circumstances present
2. The facts from which the inferences derived are proven
3. The combination of all the circumstances is such as to produce a conviction beyond reasonable
doubt
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 D. Only 3
38. You are an investigator who investigates an alleged robbery with homicide case perpetrated by an
unknown suspects. Since there are no witnesses to the crime the following may give you a hint to identify
the suspect, except one.
A. Motive and opportunity
B. Declaration and acts indicative of guilt, preparation for a commission of crime and possession
of fruits of a crime of the perpetrator
C. Modus Operandi, associative evidence and criminal potentiality
D. Knowledge, skills, tools or facilities that could easily be adopted to criminal use by the suspect
39. Circumstantial Evidence is an evidence that indirectly proves a fact in issue through an inference which
fact-finder draws from the evidence presented. It is sufficient to produce the conviction of the accused if:
1. There are more than one circumstances present
2. The facts from which the inferences derived are proven
3. The circumstances presented should be supported by testimonial evidence
4. The combination of all the circumstances is such as to produce a conviction beyond
reasonable doubt
A. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 4 D. 1, 2 and 4
40. Person who by social or professional position possesses or has access to information of continuing
interest, and who willingly provides information to the police either in response to a specific request or
his own initiative.
A. Incidental informant C. Automatic informant

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B. Casual informant D. Recruited informant

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41. Covert observation of a person, place, or things by human or technical means to acquire information.
A. Surveillance ` C. Mobile
B. Stationary surveillance D. Technical
42. In this method of shadowing, operatives are station at a fixed point assuming that subject followed the
same general route each day.
A. ABC Method C. Combined Foot- Auto Surveillance
B. Leap Frog Method D. Fixed surveillance
43. Sometimes called “roping”. An investigation technique whereby the operative conceals his true identity
and adopts an assumed role to obtain information or accomplish a specific mission.
A. Undercover assignment C. Work assignment and social assignment
B. Dwelling assignment D. Personal contact assignment
44. You are one of the police operatives tasked to trace a fugitive. Which of the following information
for his capture will you consider?
1. His full name, known aliases, description and distinctive marks, modus operandi, motive and associates
2. His habits, hangouts, criminal record, residence, employment, relatives and close friends
3. His physical condition, LTO records check, SSS number, selective service history and handwriting
specimen
A. 1 and 2 C. 1 and 3
B. 12 and 3 D. 1, 2, and 3
45. You were an investigator who tries to reconstruct the crime scene. What are the components of
the crime scene situation which you would analyzed?
1. Suspect’s arrival at the scene
2. Place of entry
3. Movement of suspect from point of entry and his contact with the victim
4. Place of exit
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 4
B. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 3 and 4
46. SPO2 Florenz Santos is examining a crime scene, which a dead victim sustained a gunshot wound in the
head with a handgun near his hand. He was informed that the victim had a painful terminal illness. SPO2
Santos concluded that the wound is self inflicted. This is an example which the investigator use what kind of
reasoning?
E. Deductive C. Reasonable
F. Logical D. Inductive
47. The covert observation of a person, place, or things by human or technical means to acquire information.
A. Surveillance C. Stationary surveillance
B. Mobile D. Technical
48. Rough tailing or shadowing is the one that.
A. General impression about the target is needed C. So much precaution is needed
B. The target is aware that he is being tailed D. None of them
49. Statement no. 1. In Physical of reconstruction, the physical appearance of the crime scene is reconstructed
from the description, of the witnesses and the indication of the physical evidence. Statement no. 2. In mental
reconstruction after physical reconstruction, conclusions are made about the consistency of the accounts of the
various witnesses. No assumption is made without supporting evidence.
G. Statement no. 1 is correct
H. Statement no. 2 is incorrect
I. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both correct
J. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both incorrect
50. Identification of a dead body through examination of the teeth:
A. Forensic pathology C.Forensic odontology
B. Forensic chemistry D. Forensic medicine
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 51. This is known as the Anti-Plunder Act:
A. RA 7080 C. RA 7610
B. RA 10054 D. RA 3019
52. Which of the following is not a crime against persons?
A. Physical injury C. Abduction
B. Mutilation D. Parricide
53. This is known as the Anti-Hazing Law:
C. RA 8049 C. RA 3553
D. RA 4200 D. RA 7877
54. The notion, which declares that human behavior tends to repeat itself, can serve as basis of
the investigator in determining:
A. Criminal behavior C. Nature of the crime
B. Modus operandi D. Criminal intent
55. What is the first act that a police officer must do upon his arrival at the scene of the crime?
A. Secure the crime scene C. Interview of witness
B. Taking a picture D. Attend to emergency
56. It refers to the forcible expulsion of a fetus from the mother’s womb.
A. Infanticide C. Abortion
B. Parricide D. Murder
57. Rigor mortis is the stiffening of the body, which is always to occur in case of death. What is
that condition characterized by spontaneous stiffening of certain group of muscles.
A. heat stiffening C. livo r mortis
B. cold stiffening D. cadaveric spasm
58. It is a change of the color of the body after death when blood accumulates in the dependent
portion of the body.
C. Rigor mortis C. algor mortis
D. livor mortis D. none of the above
59. If post-mortem rigidity would suggest approximate time of death, cadaveric spasm will suggest:
A. duration of death C. cause of death
B. age of the victim D. none of the above
60. A wound resulting form instinctive reaction of self protection is what special type of wound?
A. defense C. self inflicted wound
B. offensive D. patterned
61. What type of an instrument will cause an incised wound?
A. blunt C. sharp edge
B. sharp edge and sharp pointed D. sharp pointed instrument
62. One important characteristic of the gunshot wound of exit is .
A. That the edge is everted
B. That the edge is inverted
C. That the size is smaller than the missile.
63. Republic Act 8750 is .
A. Clean Air Act C. Seatbelt Law
B. Philippine Land Transportation Code D. Anti-Carnapping Law
64. If the driver is involved in a traffic accident, he must report to the nearest police station:
A Within 48 hours C. After 3 hours
B. Within 72 hours D. At once
65. Detection, apprehension and penalization of traffic violators.
A. Traffic Engineering C. Traffic Economy
B. Traffic Enforcement D. Traffic Ecology

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66. Maintenance and construction of roads, traffic ways and other traffic facilities by the
DPWH, City Engineer’s Office, City or Municipal Council’s, etc.
A. Traffic Engineering C. Traffic Enforcement
B. Traffic Education D. Traffic Economy
67. Poor control measures as a major cause of traffic congestion is characterized by:
1. Narrow bridges and absence of catwalk to control pedestrians
2. Lack of traffic enforcers along intersections
3. Insufficient mechanical control devices and ineffective traffic officers
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 D. Only 1
68. Human errors as one of the cause of traffic congestion is best characterized by, except:
A. Poor legislative activities
B. Slow drivers or bad driving habit
C. Lack of foresight on the part of pedestrians
D. Presence of traffic officers
69. The entire width between boundary lines of every way or place of which any part is open to the
use of the public for purposes of vehicular traffic as a matter of right or custom.
A. Traffic way C. Traffic units
B. Road way D. Subway
70. Known as Clean Air Act is .
A. RA 8749 C. RA 8750
B. LOI No. 22 D. PPD 1181
71. Separation of traffic units in a vehicular accident is referred to
A. final position C. hazards
B. disengagement D. stopping
72. You are a police officer who wants to determine whether a driver is authorized to drive. What is the
evidence that you will ask him to show to prove that he is allowed by the Land Transportation
Office (LTO) to operate a vehicle on public highways?
A. driver’s ID C. driver’s license
B. franchise D. operator’s license
73. How should a driver approach an intersection?
A. Be at the right of way C. Be at the full stop
B. Give a signal D. Overtake other vehicles
74. The first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from collision course or otherwise avoid hazard.
A. Start of evasive action C. Point of no escape
B. Point of possible perception D. Final position
75. A device mounted on a portable support where a message is conveyed by means of words or
symbols, officially erected or installed for the purpose of regulating warning or guiding traffic.
A. Center line C. Refuge Island
B. Stop line D. Traffic Signs
76. Motor vehicle accident occurs at a place other than on a highway:
A. Motor vehicle non-traffic accident C. Motor vehicle traffic accident
B. Non-motor vehicle traffic accident D. Motor vehicle accident
77. Friction mark on a pavement made by a tire, which is both rotating a slipping is called:
A. Centrifugal skid C. Scuff mark
B. Centrifugal force D. Skid mark
78. A motor vehicular accident resulting to the death of a puppy.
A. Fatal accident C. Property damage
B. Non-fatal accident D. Vehicular accident
79. What the chronological arrangement of the color of the traffic lights from the top?
A. Yellow, red, green C. Red, yellow, green

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B. Green, red, yellow D. Green, yellow, red

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80. The Philippine Center on Transnational Crime which is created by virtue of Executive Order No. 62, is
under what office or agency?
A. Office of the President C. DOJ
B. DILG D. PNP
81. What is the primary mandate of the Philippine Center on Transnational Crime?
A. To formulate and implement a concerted program of action of all law enforcement, intelligence
and other government agencies for the prevention and control of transnational crime.
B. To establish through the use of modern information and telecommunication a shared central data
base among government agencies for information on criminals, methodologies, arrest and
convictions on transnational crimes.
C. To establish a center for strategic research on the structure and dynamics of transnational crimes
in all its forms, and predict trends and analyze relationships of given factors for the formulation of
individual and collective strategies for the prevention and detection of transnational and organized
crime and for the apprehension of the criminals involved.
D. None of them
82. Conceptualized in the 1920's and had its initial headquarters in Vienna. This organization was
established to promote international criminal police cooperation.
A. International Police
B. International Criminal Police Organization
C. International Association of the Chiefs of Police
D. Asian National Police
83. Three Core Services of the INTERPOL, except:
A. Unique global police communication system
B. Range of criminal data bases and analytical services
C. Proactive support for police operations throughout the world.
D. Arrest of international terrorist
84. INTERPOL'S rules in fighting Terrorism is/are:
1. Prevent acts of international terrorism
2. If terrorist acts are carried out, ensure that the perpetrators are brought to justice which could be
achieved by exchanging information with its member countries through its source messaging system
and by arranging meetings of expert to address the subject.
3. Arrest the terrorist
A. 1 and 2 C. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 3 D. 1, 2 and 3
85. INTERPOL’s notice on planned terrorist attack to one of its member-countries.
A. Blue Notice C. Yellow Notice
B. Green Notice D. Orange Notice
86. Red Notice is INTERPOL’s Notice System:
A. To seek information on the identity of persons or on their illegal activities related to criminal
matters
B. To provide warning and criminal intelligence about persons who have committed criminal
offenses and who are likely to repeat these crimes in other countries.
C. To locate missing persons
D. To seek the arrest and extradition of suspects
87. Black is INTERPOL’s notice to .
A. Determine the identity of deceased person
B. Provide information on modus operandi, objects, devices and concealment methods used
by criminals.
C. Individuals and entities that are subject to UN sanctions.
D. Any of the above

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88. An operation launch by the Philippine National Police- Special Action Force Commandos that led to the
killing of the international terrorist Zulkifli bin Hir at the Mamasapano, Maguindanao.
A. Oplan Wolverine C. Oplan Neptune Spear
B. Oplan Terminator D. Oplan Exodus
89. Terrorist group lead by Abu Bakr al-Baghdadi, whose aim is to establish an Islamic state in the world.
A. Al Qaeda C. Islamic State
B. Abu Sayyaf D. Jemaah Islamiyah
90. The most intractable safe havens of terrorist groups worldwide.
A. Internet
B. Global media
C. Regions where ineffective governance allows their presence
D. Those created by electronic infrastructure
91. Core elements of trafficking, except-
A. Recruitment, transportation, transfer, harboring or receipt of trafficked person
B. Entry of the victims to the country of destination
C. Threat of or the use of force, deception, coercion, abuse of power or position of vulnerability
D. Exploitation
92. Investigation, prosecution and trial of the crime of trafficking in person is done in-
A. Open and public C. Closed-door
B. Personal D. Official capacity
93. When does the government lost its power to prosecute persons engaged in syndicated or
large scale human trafficking?
A. 10 years C. 15 years
B. 20 years D. 40 years
94. In the investigation of cybercrime, “VES” approach is used. VES literally means,
except one.
A. Victim C. Evidence
B. Violation D. Suspect
95. What is the name of the operation launched by US Navy Seals that killed Osama Bin Laden?
A. Operation Geronimo C. Operation Neptune Spear
B. Operation Jabbidah D. Operation Merdeka
96. Injection, inhalation, ingestion or other means, of dangerous drug to the body by one person to another
A. Drug use C. Taking
B. Administer D. Addict
97. Pedro is a drug addict. Realizing that drug use will bring him elsewhere he ceased
from using it. Pedro’s act is called:
A. Abstinence C. Self medication
B. Rehabilitation D. Dependence
98. Selling, distributing, supplying or transporting of legitimately imported, in-transit, manufactured or
procured controlled precursors and essential chemicals, by the manufacturer of medicine to the
drug trafficker is called:
E. Drug trafficking C. Chemical diversion
F. Sale D. Chemical smuggling
99. Facility used for the illegal manufacture of dangerous drugs is called:
G. drug den C. laboratory equipment
H. drug laboratory D. clandestine laboratory
100. Drug trafficking, according to Comprehensive Drug Act of 2002, except:
I. Cultivation, culture and delivery,
J. Administration, dispensation, manufacture, sale and trading,
K. Use, consumption, addiction and tolerance
L. Transportation, distribution, importation, exportation and possession

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