STATIC (30Q)

1) Match the following European powers with their first arrival location in India:

European Powers Arrival Locations in India:

1. Portuguese A. Surat
2. Dutch B. Pondicherry
3. British C. Masulipatam
4. Danes D. Tranquebar
5. French E. Calicut

Options:

A. 1-E, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D, 5-B

B. 1-E, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A, 5-D

C. 1-E, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B, 5-C

D. 1-E, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A, 5-D

Answer: A

Explanation:

 Portuguese (1-E): First arrived in Calicut, Kerala in 1498.

 Dutch (2-C): Their arrival was in Masulipatam, Andhra Pradesh in 1602.

 British (3-A): Established their presence in Surat, Gujarat in 1608.

 Danes (4-D): Entered India through Tranquebar, Tamil Nadu in 1616.

 French (5-B): Arrived in Pondicherry in 1664.

2) Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Afonso de Albuquerque, with support from the Vijayanagar Empire, captured Goa
from the Bijapur Sultanate in 1510.

Statement-II: After its capture, Goa became the central hub of Portuguese India and the
residence of the viceroy.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation
for Statement-I.
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct
explanation for Statement-I.
C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

Answer: B

Explanation:
  Statement-I is correct. Afonso de Albuquerque did indeed capture Goa from the Bijapur
Sultanate in 1510, with the support of the Vijayanagar Empire. This event marked a
significant expansion of Portuguese colonial influence in India.

 Statement-II is also correct. Following its capture, Goa did become the central hub for
Portuguese activities in India and the residence of the viceroy. This established Goa as a
crucial administrative and trading center for the Portuguese in the region.

However, Statement-II is not a direct explanation for Statement-I. While it is true that the capture
of Goa led to its becoming the center of Portuguese India, Statement-II does not explain the
military and political circumstances of Albuquerque's capture of Goa described in Statement-I.
Instead, it describes the consequences of that capture in terms of administrative importance.
Therefore, the two statements, although related, do not have a cause-and-effect relationship
where one explains the other.

3) Which of the following was NOT a main place where the Dutch established their factories
during their colonization of India?
A. Surat
B. Karaikal
C. Bimlipatnam
D. Madras

Answer: D

Explanation:

The Dutch East India Company established its factories in several places across India as part of
their colonization efforts. Key locations included Surat, Cochin, Bimlipatnam, Karaikal, and
Chinsura. These areas were strategically chosen for trade and commerce purposes. However,
Madras was not among the main places where the Dutch established their factories, as it was
primarily under the influence of the British, particularly the English East India Company.
Therefore, option (d) Madras is the correct answer as it was not a primary location for Dutch
colonial factories in India.

4) Consider the following statements:

1. Francisco de Almeida's 'Blue Water Policy' was aimed at establishing Portuguese territorial
control in India.

2. The policy was focused on maritime dominance by controlling key sea routes and ports.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B.

 Statement 1 is incorrect as the 'Blue Water Policy' introduced by Francisco de Almeida was
focused on maritime dominance, not land dominance.
  Statement 2 is correct, as this policy aimed at establishing Portuguese control over sea
routes and ports, thereby asserting their naval supremacy in the region.

5) Consider the following statements regarding the causes of the Battle of Plassey:

1. The Battle of Plassey was primarily caused by the misuse of trade privileges granted to the
British East India Company by the Nawab of Bengal.

2. The British East India Company's workers did not pay taxes and duties, contributing to the
conflict.

3. The British fortified Calcutta without the permission of the Nawab, escalating tensions.

4. The British East India Company provided asylum to Nawab's enemy Krishna Das, further
aggravating the situation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2, and 3 only
C. 2, 3, and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: (d) All the provided statements are correct.

Explanation:

 Statement 1: The Battle of Plassey, which took place in 1757, was significantly influenced
by the misuse of trade privileges by the British East India Company, granted by the
Nawab of Bengal. This misuse led to a loss of revenue for the Nawab and strained
relations.

 Statement 2: The non-payment of taxes and duties by the workers of the British East
India Company further contributed to the conflict. This non-compliance led to financial
tensions and disputes with the Nawab of Bengal.

 Statement 3: The unauthorized fortification of Calcutta by the British was a direct

challenge to the authority of the Nawab and a significant factor leading to the battle.
This action was seen as an act of aggression and defiance.

 Statement 4: The British providing asylum to Krishna Das, who was an enemy of the
Nawab, was another contributing factor to the Battle of Plassey. This act of sheltering an
adversary was perceived as a hostile move by the Nawab.

Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

6) Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Battle of Plassey in 1757 marked the initiation of British dominance in India.

Statement-II: The British East India Company's victory in this battle enabled them to control
Bengal's revenues, thereby significantly strengthening their position in India.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

 A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation
for Statement-I.
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct
explanation for Statement-I.
C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

Answer: A

Explanation:

 Statement-I is correct. The Battle of Plassey in 1757 was indeed a crucial event that marked
the beginning of British dominance in India. This battle, which saw the British East India
Company defeat the Nawab of Bengal, Siraj ud-Daulah, was a turning point that paved the
way for British control over large parts of India.

 Statement-II is also correct. The victory at Plassey allowed the British East India Company to
assume control over the revenues of Bengal, which was one of the most prosperous regions
in India at the time. This control over Bengal's revenues significantly enhanced the
Company's financial and military capabilities, allowing it to consolidate and extend its power
in India.

 Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I because the control over Bengal's
revenues following the Battle of Plassey was a key factor in enabling the British East India
Company to establish and expand its dominance in India. The financial and military strength
gained from this revenue control directly contributed to the Company's ability to exert
political and military influence over other regions of India, thus initiating a period of British
dominance.

7) Consider the following statements regarding the Treaty of Allahabad:

1. The Treaty was signed between the Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II and the East India
Company following the Battle of Plassey.

2. Under the Treaty, Shah Alam II was forced to live in Surat.

3. This agreement also granted the East India Company the Diwani rights over Bengal, Bihar,
and Orissa.

4. The East India Company agreed to pay Rs 53 lakh annually to the Emperor for carrying out
nizamat functions in Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa.

How many of the above statements are correct?

A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None

Answer: B

Explanation:
  Statement 1 is incorrect. The Treaty of Allahabad was signed after the Battle of Buxar in
1764, not the Battle of Plassey.

 Statement 2 is incorrect. The Treaty resulted in Shah Alam II being forced to live in Allahabad
and

 Statement 3 is correct: The East India Company being granted the Diwani rights of Bengal,
Bihar, and Orissa.

 Statement 3 is partially correct. The East India Company did assume nizamat functions, but
they agreed to pay an amount of Rs 26 lakh annually to the Emperor, not Rs 53 lakh. The Rs
53 lakh figure pertains to the amount they charged the Emperor for their nizamat functions.

8) Consider the following statements:

1. The First Carnatic War concluded in 1748 with the signing of the Treaty of Aix-La Chapelle,
which also marked the end of the Austrian War of Succession.

2. As per the Treaty of Aix-La Chapelle, Madras was returned to the English, while the French
received compensatory territories in South America.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct as it accurately details the conclusion of the First

Carnatic War and the Austrian War of Succession with the Treaty of Aix-La Chapelle in 1748.
However, Statement 2 is incorrect; while Madras was indeed returned to the English, the
French received territories in North America, not South America, as part of the treaty's
terms.

9) Consider the following pairs of historical events and the treaties that concluded them:

1. First Carnatic War - Treaty of Pondicherry

2. Second Carnatic War - Treaty of Aix-La Chapelle

3. Battle of Wandiwash - Treaty of Peace of Paris

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None

Answer: A

Explanation:
 1. First Carnatic War (1740-48) - Treaty of Aix-La Chapelle: The Treaty of Aix-La Chapelle ended
the First Carnatic War, part of the larger War of Austrian Succession, and led to the
restoration of Madras to the British in exchange for Louisbourg. So first statement is incorrect

2. Second Carnatic War (1749-54) - Treaty of Pondicherry: This treaty concluded the Second
Carnatic War, restoring territories to their pre-war status and reaffirming the status quo
between the British and French. So second statement is incorrect

3. Battle of Wandiwash - Treaty of Peace of Paris (1763): The Treaty of Peace of Paris ended
the Third Carnatic War (part of the global Seven Years' War), following the decisive British
victory at the Battle of Wandiwash. This treaty marked the end of French dominance in India.

10) Consider the following statements regarding Subsidiary Alliance system:

1. Indian rulers under the Subsidiary Alliance were allowed to conduct their foreign affairs
without British interference.

2. The Subsidiary Alliance required Indian states to station British troops within their territories
and bear the costs for their maintenance.

3. Under the Subsidiary Alliance, Indian rulers were allowed to employ Europeans in their
service without seeking approval from the British.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None

Answer: B

Explanation:

1. Freedom in Foreign Affairs: This statement is incorrect. Indian rulers under the Subsidiary
Alliance were not allowed to conduct their foreign affairs without British interference. They
were required to consult the British Governor-General before engaging in any foreign
diplomacy.

2. Stationing British Troops and Bearing Costs: This statement is correct. One of the key terms
of the Subsidiary Alliance was that Indian states had to station British troops within their
territories and bear the cost of their maintenance.

3. Employing Europeans without British Approval: This statement is incorrect. Another

condition of the Subsidiary Alliance was that Indian rulers could not employ Europeans
without the prior approval of the British authorities.

11) Consider the following statements:

1. Lord Dalhousie initiated the paramountcy policy in British India.

2. This policy positioned the East India Company as the dominant force, legitimizing the
annexation of Indian territories.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation:

1. Lord Warren Hastings, during his tenure in British India, introduced the policy of
paramountcy, which recognized the East India Company as the supreme legal authority.

2. The policy of paramountcy was used to justify the annexation of Indian kingdoms under the
pretext of protecting the interests of the East India Company.

12) In which of the following battle during the Anglo-Sikh Wars were the Sikhs not defeated by the
British army?
A. Battle of Firozpur
B. Battle of Baddowal
C. Battle of Aliwal
D. Battle of Sobraon

Answer: B

Explanation:

The Battle of Baddowal, fought on January 21, 1846, was a significant engagement during the
Anglo-Sikh Wars where the Sikh army, under the command of Ranjit Singh Majithia, achieved a
victory against the British forces. This battle contrasts with the outcomes of the other mentioned
battles – Firozpur, Aliwal, and Sobraon – in which the Sikhs were defeated by the British. The
Battle of Firozpur (December 21, 1845), Battle of Aliwal (January 28, 1846), and Battle of Sobraon
(February 10, 1846) saw the British forces gaining upper hand, culminating in the decisive defeat
of the Sikhs at Sobraon. The Battle of Baddowal stands out as an instance where the Sikh army
demonstrated effective resistance and tactical success against the British. Therefore, option (B)
Battle of Baddowal is the correct answer.

13) Consider the following statements regarding significant events during the period of Lord
Dalhousie as Governor-General of India:

1. The Widow Remarriage Act was passed in 1856.

2. Woods Despatch, which focused on education in India, was issued in 1844.

3. The first railway line in India, connecting Bombay to Thane, was established in 1855.

4. Pegu (Lower Burma) was annexed to the British Empire in 1852.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 4 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2, and 4 only
D. 1, 3, and 4 only

Answer: A
 Explanation:

 Statement 1: The Widow Remarriage Act of 1856, which allowed Hindu widows to
remarry, is correct. It was a significant social reform of the time.

 Statement 2: Woods Despatch was issued in 1854, not 1844. It is incorrect as per the
given option.

 Statement 3: The first railway line in India, from Bombay to Thane, was inaugurated
in 1853, not 1855. This statement is incorrect.

 Statement 4: Pegu (Lower Burma) was indeed annexed to the British Empire in 1852,
as part of British expansion in Asia.

Therefore, the correct answer is option (A), which includes only the correct statements 1 and
4.

14) Consider the following statements about the features of a Charter Act 1813 during the British
rule in India:

1. It authorized local governments to impose taxes on individuals under the jurisdiction of the
Supreme Court.

2. The dividend of the East India Company was set at 20%.

3. The Act enhanced the courts' authority in India over European British subjects.

4. The Act allowed missionaries to engage in proselytization in India and facilitated the
appointment of a Bishop in Calcutta.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2, and 4 only
D. 1, 3, and 4 only

Answer: D

Explanation:

 Statement 1: The Act empowering local governments to tax people under the jurisdiction of
the Supreme Court is correct. It represented a significant shift in the fiscal policy of the
British in India.

 Statement 2: The specific percentage of the East India Company's dividend is 10.5%

 Statement 3: Enhancing the courts' authority over European British subjects in India is
correct. It was a part of British efforts to strengthen legal control in India.

 Statement 4: The permission granted to missionaries for proselytization and the

appointment of a Bishop in Calcutta is correct. This move was part of the British strategy to
extend their cultural and religious influence in India.
 Therefore, the correct answer is option (D), which includes the correct statements 1, 3, and
4.

15) In which of the following year was a Law Commission appointed under Lord Macaulay?
A. 1823
B. 1833
C. 1843
D. 1853

Answer: B

Explanation:

The Law Commission, under the chairmanship of Lord Macaulay, was appointed in the year
1833. This commission was established as a result of concerted efforts by key figures in the
British administration who recognized the need for comprehensive legal reform in India. Lord
Macaulay's appointment to head this commission was significant in the context of codifying
and standardizing laws in colonial India. The work of this commission laid the foundation for
many legal principles and frameworks that would later shape the Indian legal system.
Therefore, option (B) 1833 is the correct answer.

16) The Battle of Karnal was fought between which of the following two powers?
A. The Mughal Empire and the British East India Company
B. The Mughal Empire and Nadir Shah of Persia
C. The Maratha Empire and the Mughal Empire
D. The Sikh Empire and the British East India Company

Answer: B

Explanation:

The Battle of Karnal, fought in 1739, was a significant military engagement between the
Mughal Empire and Nadir Shah of Persia. In this battle, the Mughal forces were decisively
defeated by the Persian army led by Nadir Shah. The defeat had far-reaching consequences
for the Mughal Empire, leading to the capture of Delhi by Nadir Shah, and marked a turning
point in the decline of Mughal power in the Indian subcontinent. The battle is notable for
demonstrating the weakened state of the Mughal military and the rising influence of external
powers in the region. Therefore, option (b) The Mughal Empire and Nadir Shah of Persia is
the correct answer.

17) Consider the following statements about the status of education in historical India:

1. Chatuspathis, also known as Tols in Bihar and Bengal, were primarily centers of higher
education for Persian and Arabic studies.

2. Kasi (Varanasi), Tirhut (Mithila), Nadia, and Utkala were renowned centers for Sanskrit
education.

3. Azimabad (Patna) was a well-known center for higher education in Sanskrit during historical
times.

How many of the above statements are correct?

A. Only one
 B. Only two
C. All three
D. None

Answer: A

Explanation:

1. Chatuspathis/Tols for Persian and Arabic Studies: This statement is incorrect. Chatuspathis
or Tols in Bihar and Bengal were not centers for Persian and Arabic studies. Instead, they
were renowned centers of higher education primarily focused on Sanskrit studies,
particularly in the fields of philosophy, scriptures, law, and astrology.

2. Centers for Sanskrit Education: This statement is correct. Kasi (Varanasi), Tirhut (Mithila),
Nadia, and Utkala were famous centers for Sanskrit education. These places were known for
their advanced studies in various Sanskrit disciplines and attracted scholars from different
parts of the country.

3. Azimabad (Patna) for Sanskrit Education: This statement is incorrect. Azimabad (Patna) was
not famous for Sanskrit education but was a notable center for higher learning in Persian.
Madrasahs in Azimabad provided education primarily in Persian and Arabic.

18) Who among the following one conferred the title of 'Raja' to Ram Mohan Roy?
A. Bahadur Shah I
B. Warren hastings
C. Akbar II
D. Dalhousie

Answer: C

Explanation:

Akbar II, a Mughal emperor, bestowed the honorary title of 'Raja' to Ram Mohan Roy, a
prominent social and educational reformer in India. This title was given in recognition of Ram
Mohan Roy's efforts and contributions, particularly in the field of social reform and his
advocacy for modern education. Ram Mohan Roy's engagement with the Mughal court and
his efforts in representing the emperor's interests in Britain were also factors that led to this
honor. Therefore, option (c) Akbar II is the correct answer.

19) The Battle of Plassey was fought During the reign of which of the following Mughal ruler?
A. Aurangzeb
B. Bahadur Shah I
C. Alamgir II
D. Shah Alam II

Answer: C

Explanation:

The Battle of Plassey was fought in 1757 during the reign of Mughal Emperor Alamgir II. This
battle was a significant event in Indian history, marking the beginning of British colonial rule
in India. The British East India Company, led by Robert Clive, defeated the Nawab of Bengal,
Siraj-ud-Daulah, in this battle. The victory at Plassey allowed the British East India Company
to establish its supremacy in Bengal and eventually led to its dominance over much of India.
 The Battle of Plassey is often cited as a turning point that paved the way for the expansion of
British influence in the Indian subcontinent. Therefore, option (c) Alamgir II is the correct
answer.

20) Consider the following statements regarding India's trade and industry during 18 th century:

1. India was primarily known as an exporter of precious metals.

2. From the Persian Gulf Region, India imported items like pearls, raw silk, wool, dates, dried
fruits, and rose water.

3. Major exports from India included cotton textiles, raw silk and silk fabrics, indigo, saltpetre,
opium, and spices.

How many of the above statements are correct?

A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None

Answer: B

Explanation:

1. India as an Exporter of Precious Metals: This statement is incorrect. Historically, India was
not primarily known as an exporter but rather as a 'sink' of precious metals, meaning that it
was a major destination where precious metals like gold and silver flowed from various parts
of the world, particularly in exchange for its various exports.

2. Imports from the Persian Gulf Region: This statement is correct. India imported various
items from the Persian Gulf Region, including pearls, raw silk, wool, dates, dried fruits, and
rose water. These imports reflect the diverse nature of India's trade relations and the variety
of goods that were in demand.

3. Major Indian Exports: This statement is correct. India was historically known for its rich
exports, which included a wide range of products such as cotton textiles, raw silk and silk
fabrics, indigo, saltpetre, opium, rice, wheat, sugar, pepper, other spices, precious stones,
and drugs. These exports made India an integral part of global trade networks.

Since statements 2 and 3 are correct, and statement 1 is incorrect, the correct answer is option
(b) Only two.

21) Which of the following specific places was NOT known for its shipbuilding industry in India
during the 18th century?
A. Calicut
B. Quilon
C. Chittagong
D. Pondicherry

Answer: D

Explanation:
 In the 18th century, shipbuilding was a prominent industry in various coastal regions of India.
Specific places known for their shipbuilding prowess included Calicut and Quilon in Kerala, and
Chittagong, which was part of Bengal during that period. These locations were significant centers
for constructing ships, contributing to maritime trade and naval strength. On the other hand,
Jaipur, located in the landlocked state of Rajasthan, was not involved in shipbuilding due to its
geographical position. Jaipur's historical significance lies in different areas, such as architecture,
arts, and crafts, but not in maritime activities or shipbuilding. Therefore, option (d) Jaipur is the
correct answer.

22) Sawai Jai Singh built five astronomical observatories, Which of the following are the locations
of these five observatories?
A. Delhi, Jaipur, Benares (Varanasi), Mathura, Ujjain
B. Delhi, Jaipur, Ujjain, Mathura, Agra
C. Delhi, Jaipur, Ujjain, Mumbai, Kolkata
D. Delhi, Jaipur, Benares (Varanasi), Mathura, Patna

Answer: A

Explanation:

Sawai Jai Singh, a notable ruler and scholar, established five astronomical observatories, known
as Jantar Mantars, in various locations across India. These observatories were built in Delhi,
Jaipur, Benares (Varanasi), Mathura, and Ujjain. Each Jantar Mantar houses a collection of
architectural astronomical instruments, reflecting the advanced scientific knowledge and interest
in astronomy during Jai Singh's time. These observatories are a testament to the scientific and
architectural achievements of the period and hold significant historical and astronomical value.
Therefore, option (a) Delhi, Jaipur, Benares (Varanasi), Mathura, Ujjain is the correct answer.

23) Match the following poets with their respective literary works and languages:

Poets Literary Language

1. Kanchan Nambiar A. Punjabi literature

2. Thayumanavar B. Noted for Malayalam poetry

3. Waris Shah C. Sindhi literature

4. Shah Abdul Latif D. Sittar poetry

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A. 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C

B. 1-D, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A

C. 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B

D. 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D

Answer: A

Explanation:

 Kanchan Nambiar (1-B): Known for his contributions to Malayalam literature.

  Thayumanavar (2-D): A significant figure in Tamil literature, particularly noted for his Sittar
poetry that protested against temple abuses and the caste system.

 Waris Shah (3-A): Authored 'Heer Ranjha', a notable work in Punjabi literature.

 Shah Abdul Latif (4-C): Renowned in Sindhi literature for his collection of poems, 'Risalo'.

24) Consider the following pairs of wars and the treaties that concluded them:

1. First Anglo-Mysore War (1767-69) - Treaty of Seringapatam

2. Second Anglo-Mysore War (1780-84) - Treaty of Madras

3. Third Anglo-Mysore War - Treaty of Mangalore

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None

Answer: D

Explanation:

1. First Anglo-Mysore War (1767-69) - Treaty of Madras: The First Anglo-Mysore War ended
with the Treaty of Madras in 1769. This treaty restored peace between the British East India
Company and Hyder Ali, the ruler of Mysore, and led to a mutual restoration of territories
captured during the war.

2. Second Anglo-Mysore War (1780-84) - Treaty of Mangalore: The Second Anglo-Mysore War
concluded with the Treaty of Mangalore in 1784. This treaty was signed between Tipu Sultan,
Hyder Ali's son and successor, and the British East India Company. It was one of the few
instances where the British made peace terms with an Indian ruler on equal footing.

3. Third Anglo-Mysore War - Treaty of Seringapatam: The Third Anglo-Mysore War ended with
the Treaty of Seringapatam in 1792. This treaty was a significant setback for Mysore as it lost
a substantial amount of territory and had to pay a large indemnity to the British.

since all pairs are incorrectly matched, the correct answer is option D.

25) Consider the following statements regarding the developments in Mysore after Tipu Sultan:

1. Wellesley offered Soonda and Harponelly districts of the Mysore Kingdom to the Marathas,
they refused.

2. The Nizam received the districts of Gooty and Gurramkonda.

3. The British took control of Kanara, Wynad, Coimbatore, Dwaraporam, and Seringapatam.

4. Lord Ripon restored the Mysore kingdom to its ruler in 1881.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

 A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1, 2, and 4 only
C. 2, 3, and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: D

Explanation:

 Statement 1: The refusal of the Marathas to accept the offer of Soonda and Harponelly
districts from Wellesley is a historical fact.

 Statement 2: The Nizam's acquisition of Gooty and Gurramkonda as part of the territorial
rearrangements following Tipu Sultan's defeat is correct.

 Statement 3: The British gaining control of Kanara, Wynad, Coimbatore, Dwaraporam, and
Seringapatam represents the territorial gains they made after the fall of Tipu Sultan.

 Statement 4: Lord Ripon's restoration of the Mysore kingdom to its ruler in 1881 marks a
significant event in the history of Mysore.

Hence, all the statements (1, 2, 3, and 4) provided in the question are correct.

26) Consider the following statements:

1. The Treaty of Salbai (1782) ended the first phase of the Anglo-Maratha conflict.

2. Warren Hastings rejected the Treaty of Wadgaon.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation:

1. The Treaty of Salbai, concluded in 1782, marked the end of the first phase of the struggle
between the Maratha Empire and the British East India Company.

2. Warren Hastings, as the Governor-General, rejected the Treaty of Wadgaon and led military
campaigns, including the capture of Ahmedabad and Bassein, before the Treaty of Salbai was
signed.

27) Consider the following statements regarding the Doctrine of Lapse:

1. The Doctrine of Lapse stated that an adopted son could inherit the private property of his
foster father but not the rulership of the state.

2. The Doctrine of Lapse was introduced by Lord Dalhousie

 3. Awadh was annexed using this doctrine.

How many of the above statements are correct?

A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None

Answer: B

Explanation:

1. Inheritance of Private Property but not Rulership: This statement is correct. The Doctrine of
Lapse, as applied by the British in India, stipulated that an adopted son of a ruler could
inherit the ruler's private property, but he was not entitled to inherit the rulership of the
state. Instead, the British would decide whether to annex the state or allow the adopted son
to succeed to the throne.

4. Lord Dalhousie as the Originator: This statement is correct. The Doctrine of Lapse was
introduced by Lord DalhousieAlthough the Doctrine of Lapse is strongly associated with Lord
Dalhousie, who was the Governor-General of India from 1848 to 1856, he was not its
originator.

2. Annexation of States under the Doctrine of Lapse: This statement is incorrect. States such as
Satara (1848), Jhansi, Nagpur (both in 1854), Jaitpur, Sambhalpur, and Baghat were indeed
annexed under the Doctrine of Lapse. However, Awadh was annexed in 1856, not under the
Doctrine of Lapse, but on the pretext of misgovernance. Therefore, this part of the statement
is incorrect.

28) Consider the following statements about the Tripartite Treaty of 1838:

1. The Treaty involved British military support for enthroning Shah Shuja, while the Sikhs
offered financial assistance.

2. Shah Shuja was to manage foreign affairs independently under the Treaty, without the advice
of the British or Sikhs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D.

Explanation:

Both statements are incorrect. Under the Treaty, Shah Shuja was to be enthroned with Sikh
military support and British financial backing, not the reverse. Additionally, Shah Shuja's
management of foreign affairs was to be advised by both the Sikhs and the British.

29) Who among the following Viceroys of India created the North-West Frontier Province (NWFP),
directly under the Government of India?
 A. Lord Curzon
B. Lord Ripon
C. Lord Lytton
D. Lord Mountbatten

Answer: A

Explanation:

Lord Curzon, who served as the Viceroy of India from 1899 to 1905, is credited with the creation
of the North-West Frontier Province (NWFP). This was part of his policy of withdrawal and
concentration aimed at securing and consolidating the north-western boundaries of British India.
The establishment of the NWFP under the direct administration of the Government of India was
significant in the strategic management and control of this sensitive border area. Lord Curzon's
tenure as Viceroy is noted for several such administrative reorganizations and reforms.
Therefore, option (A) Lord Curzon is the correct answer.

30) Consider the following statements regarding John Lawrence's Policy of Masterly Inactivity:

1. John Lawrence's policy of Masterly Inactivity was contingent on maintaining peace at the
frontier and avoiding any foreign intervention in civil conflicts.

2. The policy stipulated active British intervention in frontier disputes and civil wars to prevent
any foreign influence.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A.

Explanation:

 Statement 1 is correct. John Lawrence's policy of Masterly Inactivity was based on the
conditions of preserving peace at the frontier and ensuring that no party in a civil conflict
sought foreign assistance.
 Statement 2 is incorrect as the policy actually advocated for non-intervention and a passive
stance in frontier matters, contrary to active British involvement.

CA (10Q)

31) Consider the following statements regarding the Vaibhav Fellowship Scheme:

1. The Vaibhav Fellowship Scheme was targeting only for the Indian Diaspora abroad.

2. The primary objective of the fellowship is to improve the infrastructure and quality of sports
coaching in India.
 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct, as the Vaibhav Fellowship Scheme was indeed launched by Dr. Jitendra
Singh for the Indian Diaspora to enhance the research ecosystem in Indian higher education
institutions. However, Statement 2 is incorrect, as the scheme's focus is on research in higher
education, not on sports infrastructure or coaching.

32) Consider the following statements about the Prime Minister’s Citizen Assistance and Relief in
Emergency Situations (PM-CARES) Fund:

1. PM-CARES Fund was established to address emergencies and distress situations such as the
Covid-19 pandemic.

2. The Health Minister is the Chairman of the PM-CARES Fund trust.

3. The PM-CARES Fund provides a corpus of Rs. 20 lakh to each child affected by emergencies.

How many of the above statements are correct?

A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None

Answer: B

Explanation:

1. Purpose of PM-CARES Fund: This statement is correct. The PM-CARES Fund was set up by
the government of India to provide relief during emergency situations like the Covid-19
pandemic. It is aimed at strengthening disaster management capacities and encouraging
research on protecting citizens.

2. Prime Minister as Chairman: This statement is incorrect. The PM-CARES Fund is a public
charitable trust, and the Prime Minister of India is its ex-officio Chairman. Other members of
the trust include the Minister of Defense, Minister of Home Affairs, and Minister of Finance.

3. Corpus to Each Child: This statement is incorrect. While the PM-CARES Fund does provide
support to children affected by emergencies like the Covid-19 pandemic, the specific corpus
amount mentioned in the statement (Rs.20lakh) is incorrect. The actual scheme offers a
different amount (e.g., Rs. 10 lakh) to support each child.

33) Consider the following statements about the High Seas:

 1. The High Seas are parts of the sea included in the territorial waters or internal waters of a
country.

2. The High Seas extend beyond a country's Exclusive Economic Zone.

3. Countries are responsible for the management and protection of resources on the High Seas.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None

Answer: B

Explanation:

1. Inclusion in Territorial Waters: This statement is incorrect. According to the 1958

Geneva Convention on the High Seas, the High Seas are parts of the sea that are not
included in the territorial waters or internal waters of a country. They are international
waters where no single country has jurisdiction.

2. Extent Beyond Exclusive Economic Zone: This statement is correct. The High Seas begin
where a country’s Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) ends. The EEZ extends up to 200
nautical miles (370 km) from a country’s coastline, and beyond this limit lies the area
known as the High Seas.

3. Management and Protection of Resources: This statement is incorrect. No single

country is responsible for the management and protection of resources on the High
Seas. This area is governed by international law, and the resources are accessible to all
nations, but not owned by any single nation.

Since statements 2 is correct and statements 1 and 3 are incorrect, the correct answer is option
(B) Only two.

34) Which of the following organizations released the "Women, Business, and the Law 2023"
report?
A. United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
B. International Monetary Fund (IMF)
C. World Bank
D. World Economic Forum (WEF)

Answer: C

Explanation:

The "Women, Business, and the Law 2023" report, according to its 9th edition, was released by
the World Bank. This report is a significant publication that assesses laws and regulations
affecting women's economic inclusion in 190 economies. It provides a comprehensive analysis of
legal barriers and challenges faced by women in the business and work environment and offers
insights into how legal reforms can promote gender equality in economic participation. The
World Bank's ongoing efforts in producing this report highlight its commitment to addressing
gender disparities in the global economy. Therefore, option (c) World Bank is the correct answer.
35) Consider the following statements about cryogenic engines:

1. Cryogenic engines use Liquid Oxygen (LOX) and Liquid Hydrogen (LH2) as propellants.

2. A cryogenic engine is typically used in the initial stages of space launch vehicles.

3. Cryogenic engines are considered economical due to the high energy per unit mass released.

How many of the above statements are correct?

A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None

Answer: B

Explanation:

1. Use of LOX and LH2 as Propellants: This statement is correct. Cryogenic engines make use of
Liquid Oxygen (LOX) and Liquid Hydrogen (LH2) as propellants. The combination of these two
elements is highly efficient and provides a greater thrust compared to other types of rocket
fuels.

2. Use in Initial Stages of Space Launch Vehicles: This statement is incorrect. Cryogenic engines
or cryogenic stages are typically used in the last stage of space launch vehicles, not in the
initial stages. They are crucial for placing satellites into their intended orbits, especially for
geosynchronous and interplanetary missions.

3. Economical Due to High Energy Release: This statement is correct. Cryogenic engines are
considered economical due to the high energy per unit mass that is released from the
combustion of liquid hydrogen and liquid oxygen. This efficiency makes them a preferred
choice for the upper stages of rockets.

Since statements 1 and 3 are correct, and statement 2 is incorrect, the correct answer is option
(b) Only two.

36) Consider the following statements:

1. National Science Day is observed annually across India on February 28.

2. CV Raman was awarded the Nobel Prize in Chemistry in 1930 for the discovery of the Raman
Effect.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A.

Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct. National Science Day is observed in India on February 28 each year in
commemoration of the discovery of the Raman Effect by Indian scientist Sir Chandrasekhara
Venkata Raman on February 28, 1928. CV Raman was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1930
for his work on the scattering of light and for the discovery of the effect named after him, the
Raman Effect, making Statement 2 incorrect as the Nobel was in Physics, not Chemistry.

37) Which of the following international agreement between governments aims to ensure that
international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants?
A. Paris Agreement
B. Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)
C. CITES
D. Ramsar Convention

Answer: C

Explanation:

The Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) is a
key international agreement between governments. Its primary aim is to ensure that
international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants does not threaten their survival. By
regulating and monitoring this trade, CITES plays a critical role in the conservation of biodiversity
and the protection of endangered species. This agreement is instrumental in fostering
international cooperation to safeguard various species from extinction due to over-exploitation
through international trade. Therefore, option (c) Convention on International Trade in
Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) is the correct answer.

38) Consider the following statements about seagrasses:

1. Seagrasses are a type of algae that grow in deep oceanic waters.

2. Like terrestrial plants, seagrasses perform photosynthesis, producing their own food and
releasing oxygen.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation:

 Statement 1 is incorrect, as seagrasses are not algae but flowering plants that grow
submerged in shallow marine waters such as bays and lagoons.
 Statement 2 is correct. Like terrestrial plants, seagrasses require sunlight for
photosynthesis, through which they manufacture their own food and release oxygen.
This process is similar to that observed in land plants, despite their aquatic environment.

39) Recently, smartphones have started using LTPO display technology. In this context, what does
LTPO stand for?
A. Low Temperature Polycrystalline Oxide
 B. Light Transmissive Polymer Optics
C. Low Thermal Pixel Output
D. Luminous Transistor Pixel Operation

Answer: A

Explanation:

LTPO stands for Low Temperature Polycrystalline Oxide, a type of display technology increasingly
used in smartphones. LTPO technology combines low-temperature polysilicon (LTPS) with oxide
TFTs (thin-film transistors). This combination allows for more efficient power consumption,
particularly in high-resolution displays. LTPO technology is known for its ability to dynamically
adjust the refresh rate of the screen, which helps in saving battery life while maintaining high
display performance. This makes it particularly suitable for devices where power efficiency and
high-quality display are essential. Therefore, option (A) Low Temperature Polycrystalline Oxide is
the correct answer.

40) Which of the following country recently launched the ZX 26 satellite?

A. South Korea
B. China
C. Japan
D. Taiwan

Answer: B

Explanation:

The ZX 26 satellite, also known as Zhongxing 26 or ChinaSat 26, is a communication satellite

launched by China. This satellite is part of China's expanding efforts to develop its space
technology and enhance its capabilities in telecommunications and satellite communications.
The launch of ZX 26 signifies China's continued advancement in space technology and its
ambition to maintain and expand its presence in space-based communication networks.
Therefore, option (B) China is the correct answer.

CSAT (10Q)

41) In an election, there were three candidates: A, B and C. 5% of the eligible voters did not vote.
Out of those who voted, 50% voted for A, 20% voted for B and the remaining 25% voted for C.
35% of the votes polled for A and 25% of the votes polled for B were later deemed invalid,
 while all the votes polled for C were deemed valid . If A got 700 more valid votes than B did,
how many valid votes did C receive?
A. 750
B. 800
C. 1100
D.1000
Answer: D

42) The monthly salary of a person was Rs.1, 80,000. He used to spend on three heads – Personal
and Family expenses (P), Taxes (T) and Education loan (E). The rest were his savings. P was 60%
of the income, E was 25 % of P and T was 20% of E. When his salary got raised by 40%, he
maintained the percentage level of P but E became 30% of P and T became 25% of E. The sum
of the two savings (in Rs.)
A. 83,400
B. 83,700
C. 44,100
D.39,600
Answer: B
43) The population of a country has been growing at a rate of 6% every decade. If the projected
population of the country in 2040 is given as 6,103,957 what was the population of the
country in 2010?
A. 5125000
B. 7225000
C. 6345000
D.6125000
Answer: A
44) In an election there were only two candidates. One of the candidates secured 45 % of votes
and is defeated by the other candidate by 235 votes. The total number of votes polled is ___
A. 3450
B. 2350
C. 3250
D. 5230
Answer: B

45) The number of girls appearing for an admission test is thrice the number of boys. 60% of the
girls and 20% of the boys get admission, the percentage of candidates who do not get
admission is ___
A. 20%
B. 50%
C. 40%
D.45%
Answer: B
46) Out of the three annual examinations, each with a total of 600 marks, a student secured
average marks of 55% and 65% in the first and second annual examinations. To have an overall
average of 70%, how many marks does the student need to secure in the third annual
examination?
A. 450
B. 540
C. 550
D.380
Answer: B
47) Arun, Avesh and Ajay are friends, being looked after by a matron Farah, Arun weighs 50% more
than Avesh and Ajay weighs 20% less than Arun. Farah weighs a third of the combined weight
of the three boys. All four together weigh 245 kg. The correct arrangement of the persons in
the ascending order of their weights, is :
A. Ajay, Avesh, Farah, Arun
B. Ajay, Avesh, Arun, Farah
C. Avesh, Ajay, Arun, Farah
D.Avesh, Ajay, Farah, Arun
Answer: D

48) Anurag gets (x+24) % in an examination and fails by 24 marks while Bharat scored (x+38) % and
get 32 marks more than the necessary for passing the examination. Sagar got 62 marks and
Kamal got 10 more marks than Bharat. Find the marks got by Kamal if Sagar had just passed?
A. 108
B. 104
C. 106
 D.107
Answer: B
Bharath’ score =pass +32
Sagar scored just passing mark that’s 62
implies
Pass mark is 62
Kamal scored Bharath +10 marks
Kamal =62+32+10
Therefore the required score is 104.

49) Candidates in a competitive examination consisted of 70% men and remaining are women.
60% men and 40% women cleared the qualifying test and entered the final test where 80%
men and 70% women were successful. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Success rate is higher for women.
B. Overall success rate is below 50%.
C. More women cleared the examination than men.
D.Overall success rate is above 50%.
Answer: B

50) A student needs to score 50% marks to pass a test. Suppose he scores 40 marks and fails by 20
marks, then what is the total marks of the test?
A. 80
B. 100
C. 120
D. 140
Answer: C