Insta CSP23T3S Subject

Total Marks : 200
Test-3: GS Subject
( Insta Prelims Test Series 2023 )
1. Arrange the following historical events as per chronology

1. EIC established factory at Surat
2. Farrukhsiyar Farman
3. Portuguese captures Goa
4. Battle of bidara
A. 3 -1-2-4
B. 3-2-1-4
C. 2-1-3-4
D. 3-4 -1-2
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Correct chronological order of historical events is as follows:-
1510 :- Alfonso Albuquerque, the Portuguese governor, captures Goa from Bijapur
1613 : A permanent factory of East India Company is established at Surat
1717 : The Mughal emperor Farrukhsiyar issues a Farman, called the Magna Carta of the
Company, giving the Company a large number of trade concessions.
1759 :Battle of Bidara :-The English defeated the Dutch.
2. Which of the following is / are reasons for the decline of Portuguese power in India .
1. Diversion of Portuguese colonising ambitions towards south east Asia.
2. Emergence of powerful dynasties in north India.
3. Missionary activities.
Which of the statement mentioned above is /are correct ?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : C
Portuguese Rule in India :-
Portuguese were 1st colonial power to establish trade relations with India . Vasco Da Gama
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arrived in India in 1498. Later they established factories at Calicut , Cochin , Cannanore ,etc.
Factors for Decline of the Portuguese in India
(a) Emergence of powerful dynasties in Egypt, Persia, and north India and the appearance of
the Marathas as neighbours; Hence statement 2 is correct .
(b) political fears aroused by the activities of Jesuit missionaries, and hatred of persecution
(such as inquisition) that caused reaction against Portuguese spiritual pressure; Hence
statement 3 is correct .
(c) rise of the English and Dutch commercial ambitions challenging the Portuguese supremacy;
(d) rampant corruption, greed, and selfishness along with piracy and clandestine trade
practices of the Portuguese administration in India;
(e) diversion of Portuguese colonising ambitions towards the West due to the discovery of
Brazil. Hence statement 1 is incorrect .
3. Which of the following colonial power established their principal settlement at

Serampore near Calcutta.
A. British
B. French
C. Dutch
D. Danish
Correct Answer : D
Analysis:- The Danes
The Danish East India Company was established in 1616, and in 1620, they founded a factory at
Tranquebar near Tanjore, on the eastern coast of India. Their principal settlement was at
Serampore near Calcutta. The Danes are better known for their missionary activities than for
commerce.
4. He was the first European to interfere in the internal politics of India . He was in fact,
the originator of the practice of subsidiary alliance in India.He was appointed as
Governor General of Pondicherry. Later, he was recalled in 1754 due to the initial
defeat of the French army in the Second Carnatic War .
Above description is related to which of the following important personality regarding
the colonial history of India ?
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A. Joseph Francis Dupleix

B. Alfonso de Albuquerque
C. Robert Clive
D. Lord Cornwallis.
Correct Answer : A
Analysis:- Joseph Francis Dupleix
1. Joseph Francis Dupleix, born in 1697, was the son of a wealthy Farmer-General of
Taxes and Director-General of the Company of the Indies. In 1741, he was appointed as
the Director-General of French colonies in India.
2. According to historians, Dupleix possessed qualities of an administrator, a diplomat, and a
leader besides having political insight with a broad vision.
3. Dupleix in the Role of Administrator In 1741, Dupleix became the Governor, General of
Pondicherry.
4. Dupleix was recalled in 1754 due to the initial defeat of the French army in the Second
Carnatic War and the heavy cost incurred by the company due to Dupleix’s political
decisions.
5. Dupleix was the first European to interfere in the internal politics of the Indian rulers. He
supported Muzzaffar Jang for Hyderabad and Chanda Sahib for Carnatic, and his
candidates emerged successful and, in return, gave great concessions to Dupleix.
6. Dupleix was, in fact, the originator of the practice of subsidiary alliance in India. He placed
a French army at Hyderabad at the expense of the subahdar.
5. Nadir shah invaded India during the reign of which of the following Mughal ruler :-
A. Jahandar shah
B. Alamgir ll
C. Muhammad Shah
D. Shah Alam ll
Correct Answer : C
Analysis :- Muhammad Shah
Muhammad Shah ruled during period 1719–48 .

Nadir Shah, the Persian emperor, attacked India in 1738–39, conquered Lahore,
and defeated the Mughal army at Karnal on February 13, 1739 and
later imprisoned Muhammad Shah and annexed areas west of the Indus into the
Persian empire.
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6. In the context of the modern history of India , the Black Hole tragedy is related to
which of the following rulers
A. Murshid Kuki khan

B. Sarfaraz khan
C. Siraj-ud-Daulah
D. Shujauddin
Correct Answer : C
Analysis :- ‘Black Hole Tragedy’
Siraj-ud-Daulah succeeded as Nawab of Bengal in 1756 after the death of Alivardi khan.
Siraj-ud-Daulah is believed to have imprisoned 146 English persons, who were lodged in a
very tiny room due to which 123 of them died of suffocation.
This event is recognised by historians as a black hole tragedy.
7. Consider the following statements regarding the result of Battle of Plassey.

1. Mir Kasim became the Nawab of Bengal.
2. The sovereignty of the English over Calcutta was recognised.
3. British acquired zamindari of 24 Parganas to the English.
4. Mir Jafar shifted the capital from Murshidabad to Munger .
Which of the above statements is / are correct ?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 4 only
D. 2 and 4 only
Correct Answer : B
Analysis :- Battle of Plassey 1757
It was a battle fought between Siraj-ud- Daulah and Robert Clive. The Battle of Plassey had
political significance, for it laid the foundation of the British empire in India; it has been rightly
regarded as the starting point of British rule in India.
Significance of Battle of Plassey :-
1. As a result of this victory, Mir Jafar became the Nawab of Bengal. Hence statement 1 is
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incorrect.
2. He gave large sums of money plus the zamindari of 24 Parganas to the English. Hence
statement 3 is correct.
3. The sovereignty of the English over Calcutta was recognised, and the English posted a
resident at the nawab’s court . Hence statement 2 is correct.
4. Mir Kasim was the ablest nawab among the successors of Alivardi Khan. After assuming
power, Mir Kasim shifted the capital from Murshidabad to Munger in Bihar. Hence
statement 4 is incorrect.
8. Consider the following statements regarding the treaty of Allahabad 1765.

1. Treaty was concluded between Robert Clive and Mughal ruler Shah Alam ll .
2. Nawab of Awadh surrendered Allahabad and Kara to Emperor Shah Alam ll .
3. Robert Clive annexed Awadh .
4. Mughal ruler granted diwani of only Bengal and Bihar region to the East India company.
Which of the above statements is /are true ?

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer : B
Analysis :- The Treaty of Allahabad 1765
A.Robert Clive concluded two important treaties at Allahabad in August 1765—one with the
Nawab of Awadh and the other with the Mughal Emperor, Shah Alam II. Hence statement 1 is
correct
Nawab Shuja-ud-Daula agreed to surrender Allahabad and Kara to Emperor Shah Alam II;
Hence statement 2 is correct
Shah Alam II agreed to issue a farman granting the diwani of Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa to
the East India Company in lieu of an annual payment of Rs 26 lakh; Hence statement 4
is incorrect.
B. Clive did not want to annex Awadh because it would have placed the Company under
an obligation to protect an extensive land frontier from the Afghan and the Maratha invasions.
The treaty made the Nawab a firm friend of the Company, and turned Awadh into a buffer state.
Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
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9. He was the commander of the British forces during the American War of Independence
and the Governor General of Bengal when the Permanent Settlement was introduced
there .
Above description is related to which of the following personality regarding modern
history of India ?
A. John shore
B. Lord Wellesley
C. Charles Cornwallis
D. Warren Hasting
Correct Answer : C
Charles Cornwallis (1738-1805),
He was the commander of the British forces during the American War of
Independence and the Governor General of Bengal when the Permanent Settlement
was introduced there in 1793.
10. Consider the following statements regarding the Dual government of Bengal
1. It is introduced by Warren Hasting .
2. The Company exercised Diwani rights as the diwan and the nizamat rights through its right to
nominate the deputy subahdar.
3. Lord Cornwallis did away with the dual system of Bengal.
Which of the above statement is / are not correct ?

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : B
Analysis :-Dual government of Bengal
Robert Clive introduced the dual system of government, i.e., the rule of the two—the
Company and the Nawab—in Bengal in which both the diwani, i.e., collecting revenues,
and nizamat, i.e., police and judicial functions, came under the control of the Company.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
The Company exercised diwani rights as the diwan and the nizamat rights through its
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right to nominate the deputy subahdar. Hence statement 2 is correct.

The dual system led to an administrative breakdown and proved disastrous for the people
of Bengal. Neither the Company nor the Nawab cared for administration and public
welfare.
Therefore Warren Hastings did away with the dual system in 1772. Hence statement 3
is incorrect.
11. Consider the following statements regarding the modern history of India
1. Haider Ali took the help of the Portuguese to set up Dindigul arms factory.
2. Treaty of Mangalore was signed after the first Anglo-Mysore war.
Which of the statement is/ are correct ?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2 .
Correct Answer : D
Analysis:- Haider Ali.
Haider Ali was the ruler of Mysore kingdom. He was involved in constant warfare with the
British and so was his son Tipu Sultan.
Haidar Ali took the help of the French to set up an arms factory at Dindigul (now in Tamil
Nadu), Hence statement 1 is incorrect
During the 2nd Anglo Mysore war , Haidar Ali died of cancer on December 7, 1782. Now
his son, Tipu Sultan, carried on the war for one year without any positive outcome. Fed up
with an inconclusive war, both sides opted for peace, negotiating the Treaty of Mangalore
(March, 1784) under which each party gave back the territories it had taken from the
other. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
12. Consider the following statements regarding colonial history of India.

1. Lord Wellesley imposed subsidiary alliance on Mysore .
2. William Bentick took control of Mysore on grounds of misgovernance .
3. Lord Ripon restored the kingdom to Mysore ruler .
Which of the above statements is / are incorrect ?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. None of the above
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Correct Answer : D
Analysis :- Mysore After Tipu
Tipu Sultan was born in November 1750 to Haidar Ali and Fatima. A well-educated man, he
could freely converse in Arabic, Persian, Kanarese, and Urdu.Tipu was a great warrior (he was
known as the ‘Tiger of Mysore’).
In 4 th Anglo Mysore war Tipu laid down his life fighting bravely .
Mysore after Tipu .
● Lord Wellesley handed over the new state of Mysore to the old Hindu dynasty (Wodeyars)
under a minor ruler Krishnaraja III, who accepted the subsidiary alliance. Hence statement 1
is correct
● In 1831, William Bentinck took control of Mysore on grounds of misgovernance.
Hence statement 2 is correct
● In 1881, Lord Ripon restored the kingdom to its ruler. Hence statement 3 is correct.
13. Policy of Ring Fence followed by which of the following personality during colonial
history of India .
A. Warren Hastings
B. Lord Wellesley
C. Joseph Francis Dupleix
D. Alfonso de Albuquerque
Correct Answer : A
Analysis :- The Policy of Ring-Fence
Warren Hastings took charge as the governor-general at a critical period of British rule when the
British were to encounter the powerful combination of the Marathas,Mysore, and Hyderabad.
He followed a policy of ring-fence which aimed at creating buffer zones to defend the
Company’s frontiers. Broadly speaking, it was the policy of defence of their neighbours’
frontiers for safeguarding their own territories.
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This policy of Warren Hastings was reflected in his war against the Marathas and Mysore.
14. Consider the following features regarding the system of subsidiary alliance in India .
1. British resident in court of Indian ruler
2. Prior consultation with the company before appointing any foreign employee.
3. Permanent stationing of British force within the territory of Indian ruler
4. British to pay maintenance cost for it’s force ,
Which of the above statement is / are correct ?

A. 1 and 4 only
B. 1 , 2 and 3 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 2 and 4 only
Correct Answer : B
Analysis :- subsidiary alliance in India
It was introduced by Lord Wellesley .
Following were the key features of subsidiary alliance system
1. Indian state’s ruler was compelled to accept the permanent stationing of a British force
within his territory . Hence statement 3 is correct
2. Indian ruler asked to pay a subsidy for its maintenance. Hence statement 4 is
incorrect
3. The Indian ruler had to agree to the posting of a British resident in his court. Hence
statement 1 is correct
4. The Indian ruler could not employ any European in his service without the prior
consultation with the Company. Nor could he go to war or negotiate with any other Indian
ruler without consulting the governor general. Hence statement 2 is correct.
5. In return for all this, the British would defend the ruler from his enemies and adopt a
policy of noninterference in the internal matters of the allied state.
15. Doctrine of lapse was used during the colonial history of India . Consider the
following statements regarding that
1. Adopted son could be the heir of state but not the private property of his foster father .
2. By using the doctrine of lapse Dalhousie annexed only eight states during his tenure .
3. Dalhousie annexed Awadh by applying the doctrine of lapse .
Which of the above statement is / are true ?

A. 2 only
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B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 only
Correct Answer : A
Analysis :-Doctrine of Lapse
In simple terms, the doctrine stated that the adopted son could be the heir to his foster
father’s private property, but not the state; it was for the paramount power (the British) to
decide whether to bestow the state on the adopted son or to annex it. Hence statement
1 is incorrect
Dalhousie annexed eight states during his eight year tenure (1848–56) as governor
general. Hence statement 2 is correct.
In these eight years, he annexed some quarter million square miles of the territory of
India. His reign almost completed the process of expansion of British power in India, which
began with the victory over Siraj-ud-Daulah at Plassey in 1757.
Lord Dalhousie annexed Awadh in 1856 after deposing Nawab Wajid Ali Shah on grounds
of misgovernment. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
16. Consider the following statements regarding Anglo - Nepalese relations

1. William Bentick concluded the Treaty of Sagauli with the Gorkhas .
2. With this agreement British got better facilities for trade with Central Asia .
Which of the above statement is/ are incorrect ?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : A
Analysis :- Anglo-Nepalese Relations
Background :-
The Gorkhas wrested control of Nepal from the successors of Ranjit Malla of Bhatgaon in
1760.
They began to expand their dominion beyond the mountains. They found it easier to
expand in the southern direction, as the north was well defended by the Chinese.
In 1801, the English annexed Gorakhpur, which brought the Gorkhas’ boundary and the
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Company’s boundary together.

The conflict started due to the Gorkhas’ capture of Butwal and Sheoraj in the period of
Lord Hastings (1813–23). The war ended in the Treaty of Sagauli in 1816, which
was in favour of the British. Hence statement 1 is incorrect
This agreement brought many advantages to the British:
1. the British empire now reached the Himalayas;

2. it got better facilities for trade with Central Asia; Hence statement 2 is correct.
17. Consider the following statements regarding foreign relations of British rule in India .
1. Commercial need was the main reason for the second Burma war .
2. It was concluded with the Treaty of Yandabo by Lord Dalhousie.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : A
Analysis :- Second Burma War (1852)
1 .The second war was the result of the British commercial need and the imperialist policy of
Lord Dalhousie. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The British merchants were keen to get hold of timber resources of upper Burma and also
sought further inroads into the Burmese market.
2. After the first Burmese war ( 1824-26 )Peace was established in 1826 with the Treaty of
Yandabo . Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
18. Consider following pairs

Foreign policy Governer General / Viceroy
1. Forward policy. A.Lord Amherst
2. Policy of masterly inactivity B.John Lawrence
3. Policy of proud reserve C.Lord Ripon
Which of the above pairs is / are correct ?
A. Only one pair is correct

B. Only two pairs are correct
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C. All pairs are correct

D. None of the above is correct
Correct Answer : A
Analysis :-
1.Forward Policy of Auckland, who came to India as the governor general in 1836, advocated a
forward policy. Hence pair 1 is incorrect
This implied that the Company government in India itself had to take initiatives to protect the
boundary of British India from a probable Russian attack. This objective was to be achieved
either through treaties with the neighbouring countries or by annexing them completely.
2.John Lawrence (1864–69) started a policy of masterly inactivity,
which was a reaction to the disasters of the First Afghan War and an outcome of practical
common sense and an intimate knowledge of the frontier problem and of Afghan passion for
independence. Hence pair 2 is correct
3. Lytton, a nominee of the Conservative government under Benjamin Disraeli (1874–80),

became the Viceroy of India in 1876.
He started a new foreign policy of ‘proud reserve’, which was aimed at having scientific
frontiers and safeguarding ‘spheres of influence’. According to Lytton, the relations with
Afghanistan could no longer be left ambiguous. Hence pair 3 is incorrect.
19. Consider the following statements regarding the Colonial history of India.
1. Treaty of Salbai guaranteed peace between British and Maratha for 20 years
2. British annexed Sindh from the perspective of saving India from possible Russian invasion .
Which of the above statement is/ are correct ?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2.
Correct Answer : C
Analysis :- Treaty of Salbai (1782)
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A.the Treaty of Salbai was signed in May 1782; it was ratified by Hastings in June 1782 and by
Phadnavis in February 1783.
The treaty guaranteed peace between the two sides for twenty years. Hence statement 1 is
correct.
B.Lord Auckland and Sindh :-
Lord Auckland, who became the Governor General in 1836, looked at Sindh from the
perspective of saving India from a possible Russian invasion and wished to obtain a
counteracting influence over the Afghans.
In 1843, under Governor General Ellenborough, Sindh was merged into the British Empire and
Charles Napier was appointed its first governor. Hence statement 2 is correct.
20. In the context of Modern history of India “Kundara Proclamation” is related to
Which of the above option is correct ?

A. 1857 revolt
B. Diwan Velu Thampi’s revolt
C. Poligars revolt
D. Swadeshi movement
Correct Answer : B
Analysis :- Diwan Velu Thampi’s Revolt (1808–09)
1. The state of Travancore agreed to a subsidiary alliance arrangement under Wellesley in

1805, caused deep resentment in the region.
The ruler was not able to pay the subsidy and fell in arrears. The British resident of
Travancore was meddling in the internal affairs of the state.
The highhanded attitude of the Company compelled Prime Minister (or Dalawa) Velu
Thampi to rise against the Company, assisted by the Nair troops.
Velu Thampi addressed a gathering in Kundara, openly calling for taking up
arms against the British to oust them from the native soil. This was later known
as the Kundara Proclamation.
There was large-scale rebellion against the British as a result. A large military operation
had to be undertaken to restore peace. The Maharaja of Travancore had not wholly
supported the rebellion and defected to the side of the Company. Velu Thampi killed
himself to avoid capture. The rebellion petered out.
21. Consider the following statements regarding the Economic history of India .
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1. Extortion by company servants

2. Home charges
3. Duty free trade provided to British
4. Purchasing goods out of revenues and exporting to England
5. Remittances and other incomes by officials send to England .
Which of the above features was / were constituents drain of wealth ?

A. 2 and 5 only
B. 1 , 2 and 3 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. All of the above
Correct Answer : D
Analysis :- Drain of wealth theory refers to a portion of national product of India which was not
available for consumption of its own people .
Constituents of drain of wealth :
Extortion by company servants

Home charges
Duty free trade provided to British
Purchasing goods out of revenues and exporting to England
Remittances and other incomes by officials send to England .
Hefty interest were paid to British investors.
22. Consider the following statements regarding regulating Act of 1773.

1. Governor General and a council consisting of 15 members were to be carried out administration
in Bengal.
2. Company director were required to submit all correspondence regarding revenue affairs and
civil and military administration to the government
Which of the above statement is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : B
Analysis :- The Regulating Act of 1773
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● The 1773 Regulating Act brought about the British government’s involvement in Indian affairs
in the effort to control and regulate the functioning of the East India Company.
Following were the provisions of act :-
● The directors of the Company were required to submit all correspondence regarding revenue
affairs and civil and military administration to the government. Hence statement 2 is
correct.
● In Bengal, the administration was to be carried out by the governor general and a council
consisting of four members, representing the civil and military government.
Warren Hastings and four others were named in the act, later ones were to be appointed by the
Company. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
23. Consider the following statements regarding Pitt’s India Act 1784
1. Company became a subordinate department of the state .
2. The company's territories in India were termed British possessions .
Which of the above statement is / are correct.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Analysis :- Pitt’s India Act of 1784
The Pitt’s India Act gave the British government a large measure of control over the
Company’s affairs.
In fact, the Company became a subordinate department of the State.
The Company’s territories in India were termed ‘British possessions’.
24. Consider the following statement regarding the Colonial history of India
1. The charter Act of 1793 led to the disappearing of the Maal Adalats .
2. Maal adalat were revenue court presided by collectors.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
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D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Analysis :- Maal Adalats
Maal Adalats were revenue courts in each district which exclusively dealt with revenue
matters.
This court was presided by the Collector who decided cases related to revenue as he was
in charge of revenue matters.
The Charter Act of 1793
● The act renewed the Company’s commercial privileges for the next 20 years.
● The revenue administration was separated from the judiciary functions, and this led to
disappearing of the Maal Adalats.
25. Consider the following statements regarding Charter Act 1813

1. The Company's monopoly over trade in India ended .
2. Christian missionaries were permitted in India .
3. A fund was created for promoting literature and science among natives of India.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. All of the above
D. 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : C
Analysis :- Charter Act 1813 .
Provisions of charter act 1813 :-
● The Company’s monopoly over trade in India ended, but the Company retained the trade with
China and the trade in tea.
● A sum of one lakh rupees was to be set aside for the revival, promotion, and encouragement
of literature, learning, and science among the natives of India, every year. (This was an
important statement from the point of State’s responsibility for education.)
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● Christian missionaries were also permitted to come to India and preach their religion.
26. In the context of colonial history of India ,Woodhead commission was appointed as
A. Irrigation commission
B. Famine inspection commission
C. Education commission
D. Police commission
Correct Answer : B
Analysis :-
The Famine Inquiry Commission, also known as the Woodhead Commission, was appointed by
the Government of British India in 1944 to investigate the 1943 Bengal famine.
27. Consider the following statements regarding Economic policies of British rule in India.
1. Mahalwari system was introduced in the Madras region by William Bentick and Holt Mackenzie .
2. The land revenue settlement was made permanent in the mahalwari region.
Which of the above statement is/ are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : D
Mahalwari System
Mahal, a Hindi word denoting a house or by extension an estate, was the basis of revenue
assessment in this system; in the mahalwari system, a mahal could be a village or a
group of villages and was considered as the unit for assessment of tax.
The adoption of mahalwari system in parts of Northern India and north west provinces of
India began to be considered in 1819 .
It was introduced by William Bentick and Holt when Holt Mackenzie, the secretary to the
board of commissioners, recommended this form of the settlement of land revenue.
In the mahalwari regions, the land revenue was revised periodically.
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28. In the context of the colonial history of India, which of the following was / were
Nationalist critique of colonial economy .
1. Dadabhai Naoroji
2. Romesh Chandra Dutt
3. Gopal Ganesh Agarkar
4. G. Subramania Iyer
5. Surendranath Banerjee
6. Mahadev Govind Ranade
Which of the above option is / are correct.

A. 1 , 2 and 5 only
B. 1, 2 ,4 and 6 only
C. 3 ,5 and 6 only
D. 2 , 4 and 6 only
Correct Answer : B
Analysis :- Nationalist critique of colonial economy .
The foremost among economic analysts was
Dadabhai Naoroji, the ‘Grand Old Man of India’, who after a brilliant analysis of the
colonial economy put forward the theory of economic drain in Poverty and UnBritish Rule
in India.
Other economic analysts included
1. Justice Mahadev Govind Ranade,
2. Romesh Chandra Dutt (The Economic History of India),
3. Gopal Krishna Gokhale,
4. G. Subramania Iyer, and
5. Prithwishchandra Ray.
29. In the context of colonial history of India, Lottery committee was related to
A. Land revenue
B. Labour reforms
C. Town planning
D. Local government
Correct Answer : C
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Analysis :- Lottery Committee (1817)
Earlier in colonial India ,the work of town planning was carried on by the Lottery
Committee (1817) with the help of the government.
The Lottery Committee was so named because funds for town improvement were raised
through public lotteries.
In other words, in the early decades of the nineteenth century raising funds for the city
was still thought to be the responsibility of public- minded citizens and not exclusively
that of the government.
30. British government established several hill station due to which of following reasons
1. To protect army from epidemics .
2. Guarding frontiers
3. Development of sanitariums.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2only
D. All of the above
Correct Answer : D
Analysis :- Hill stations
Hill stations were a distinctive feature of colonial urban development. The founding and
settling of hill stations was initially connected with the needs of the British army.
Hill stations became strategic places for billeting troops, guarding frontiers and launching
campaigns against enemy rulers. Hence statement 2 is correct.
The temperate and cool climate of the Indian hills was seen as an advantage, particularly
since the British associated hot weather with epidemics. Cholera and malaria were
particularly feared and attempts were made to protect the army from these diseases.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
These hill stations were also developed as sanitariums, i.e., places where soldiers could
be sent for rest and recovery from illnesses. Hence statement 3 is correct.
31. Consider the following statement regarding the effects of colonial economic policies.
1. India’s share of world manufacturing exports fell to less than 3 % under British rule.
2. Promoted indigenous industries.
3. Commercialisation of Indian agriculture.

A. 1 only
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Test-3: GS Subject
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 only
Correct Answer : B
Analysis :- Economic Impact of British Rule in India
1.Reduction of trade share :- According to historians, at the beginning of the 18th century, India
had some 23 per cent of the world economy. This share came down to some 3 per cent when
India got independence. Hence statement 1 is correct
[India’s share of world manufacturing exports fell from 27 per cent to 2 per cent under British
rule.
—Shashi Tharoor in An Era of Darkness]
2.Commercialisation of Indian Agriculture:-
So far, agriculture had been a way of life rather than a business enterprise.
Now Commercial crops like cotton, jute, groundnut, oilseeds,sugarcane etc were grown on large
scale . Hence statement 3 is correct.
3. Colonial policies led to destruction of indigenous textile , ship building and steel industry . It
was mainly due to discriminatory policies like one way trade , import of final goods etc. Hence
statement 2 is incorrect
4. It was only in the second half of the 19th century that modern machine-based industries
started coming up in India. The first cotton textile mill was set up in 1853 in Bombay by
Cowasjee Nanabhoy and the first jute mill came up in 1855 in Rishra (Bengal). But most of the
modern industries were foreign-owned and controlled by British managing agencies.
32. Consider the following statements regarding colonial history of India

1. Battle of St. Thome was fought during second Carnatic war
2. It revealed importance of naval forces to colonial powers in India.
Which of the following statements is/ are correct ?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
20
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Test-3: GS Subject
Correct Answer : B
Analysis :- Battle of St. Thome
The First Carnatic War ( 1740–48) is remembered for the Battle of St. Thome (in Madras)
. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
It was fought between the French forces and the forces of Anwaruddin, the Nawab of
Carnatic, to whom the English appealed for help.
A small French army under Captain Paradise defeated the strong Indian army under
Mahfuz Khan at St. Thome on the banks of the River Adyar.
This was an eye-opener for the Europeans in India: it revealed that even a small
disciplined army could easily defeat a much larger Indian army.
Further, this war adequately brought out the importance of naval force in the Anglo-
French conflict in the Deccan. Hence statement 2 is correct.
33. In the context of colonial history of India, which of the following considered as
reasons for the English success over other colonial powers in India
1. Use of debt market by French , Portuguese and other colonial powers
2. The English East India Company was largely owned by the state and shareholders had little
interest in issues of company .

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : D
Analysis :- England emerged as the most powerful and successful by the end of the 18th
century.
The major factors which can be attributed for the success:-
Structure and Nature of the Trading Companies:-

1. The English East India company was controlled by a board of directors whose members
were elected annually. The shareholders of the company exercised considerable
influence, as the votes could be bought and sold through the purchase of shares.
2. The trading companies of France and Portugal were largely owned by the State, and their
nature was in many ways feudalistic. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
3. In the French company,The shareholders took very little interest in promoting the
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Test-3: GS Subject
prosperity of the company, because the State guaranteed a dividend to the shareholders.
Use of Debt Market:- One of the major and innovative reasons why Britain succeeded
between the mid-18th century and the mid-19th century, while other European nations
fell, was that it used the debt markets to fund its wars. Hence statement 1 is
incorrect.
34. Consider the following events from colonial history of India .

1. British defeated Dutch in battle of bedara.
2. Nadir shah invaded India
3. At Lucknow, Asaf-ud-Daula built the Bara Imambara
4. Death of Aurangzeb
Arrange the above events as per chronology.

A. 2-1-3-4
B. 4-2-1-3
C. 4-1-2-3
D. 3-2-1-4
Correct Answer : B
Analysis :-
Correct chronology of historical event is as follows ;-
1707 :- Death of Aurangzeb

1738-39:- Nadir Shah, the Persian emperor, attacked India
1759 :- Battle of Bidara The English defeated the Dutch
1784 :-Asaf-ud-Daula built the Bara Imambara at lucknow .
35. Consider the following pairs regarding the modern history of India
Portuguese governors. Achievement
1. Francisco de Almeida A. Blue water policy
2. Alfonso de Albuquerque. B. Shifted capital from Cochin to Goa
3. Nino da Cunha. C. Captured Goa from Bijapur
Which of the above pairs is/ are correct?

A. only one pair is correct
B. Only two pairs are correct
C. All pairs are correct
Correct Answer : A
Total Marks : 200
Test-3: GS Subject
Analysis
1. Francisco de Almeida (1505–09):- First governor, initiated the blue water policy (cartaze
system). Hence pair 1 is correct.
2. Alfonso de Albuquerque (1509–1515):- captured Goa from Bijapur .
3. Nino da Cunha (1529–38) shifted the capital from Cochin to Goa in 1530.
36. Consider the following statements regarding famine’s during colonial period.
1. Uneven rainfall was the only reason for famines during the colonial period
2. Diversion of food resources for the military was one of the reasons for the Bengal famine .
3. Strachey commission was appointed by Lord Ripon for developing famine strategy.

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : C
Analysis :- Famines during the colonial era:
India was hit by recurrent famine from 1760 AD to till 1943 AD. As per British sources,
there were more than 85 million Indians died in these famines which were in reality
genocides done by the British Raj.
The famines were a product both of uneven rainfall and British economic and
administrative policies.Colonial policies implicated include rack-renting, levies for war,
free trade policies, the expansion of export agriculture, and neglect of agricultural
investment. Hence statement 1 is incorrect
During the Bengal famine 1943 :- The government prioritised military and defense needs
over those of the rural poor, allocating medical care and food immensely in the favour of
the military, labourers in military industries, and civil servants. Hence statement 2 is
correct
Richard Strachey Commission of 1880 was created to develop a general strategy and
principles to deal with the famines. It was the first Famine commission and was
constituted during the period of Lord Lytton. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
37. Consider the following statements regarding foreign policies of colonial government
in India .
1. Durand commission was set up by lord Lansdowne to define the borderline between India and
Afghanistan.
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Test-3: GS Subject
2. Lord Curzon send Younghusband mission to Nepal.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Analysis
Lord Lansdowne 1888–94 :- Set up of Durand Commission (1893) to define the Durand
Line between India and Afghanistan (now between Pakistan and Afghanistan; a small
portion of the line touches India in Pakistan-occupied Kashmir).
Lord Curzon 1899–1905 :- Send Younghusband’s Mission to Tibet (1904).
38. Consider the following statements regarding the modern history of India.
1. Boundary between Tibet and British India was named after Henry McMahon .
2. North west frontier province was created by Lord Curzon .
Which of the above statement is/ are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Analysis :-
The British instead of recognising Tibet as an independent state, invited representatives

of China and Tibet to a tripartite conference in Shimla in 1913, and decided to draw a
boundary between Tibet and British India which is named after Henry McMahon.
Lord Curzon, the Governor-General (1899-1905) carved out a new province known as
North-Western Frontier Province for administrative efficiency and effective control .
39. Consider the following statements regarding permanent settlement

1. System was introduced by Lord Cornwallis
2. It led to improvement of land productivity
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Test-3: GS Subject
3. It was introduced in western India.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : A
Analysis :- PERMANENT SETTLEMENT:
Permanent settlement system was introduced by Lord Cornwallis .Hence statement 1 is

correct .
Objectives:
1.ensure predictable and steady flow of revenue and
2. improve revenue base by encouraging landlords to improve land productivity.
But the result was not as intended by the Britishers.
Under settlement, they could retain it for a long duration provided they paid rental. Since
rental was fixed but not tax that could be taken from tenants, they could resort to rack
renting and extract maximum for their pocket. Instead of improving land productivity,
they exploited farmers by arbitrarily keeping high taxes. Hence statement 2 is
incorrect .
Permanent settlement was introduced in UP, Bihar, West Bengal, and Odisha which
happens to be among the poorest states in India. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
40. In the context of the colonial history of India , Non- Regulation system was related to
A. Land revenue management

B. Administration of newly acquired territories
C. Military administration
D. Border management
Correct Answer : B
Analysis :- Non- Regulation system
Total Marks : 200
Test-3: GS Subject
1. It was introduced by Lord Dalhousie. It was the system of centralised control in the newly
acquired territories.
2. under this system commissioners were appointed for administration .
3. They were made responsible to the Governor-General in the Council. He handed over all
other powers relating to justice, police, and land revenue to the District Magistrates.
41. Consider the following statements regarding Murshid Quli Khan:

1. Aurangzeb had appointed him as the diwan (collector of revenue) of Bengal.
2. In 1710, Bahadur Shah appointed him as Nizam of Bengal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : A
The province or the subah of Bengal gradually became independent of Mughal control
after Murshid Quli Khan became the governor in 1717.
Initially, Aurangzeb had appointed him the diwan (collector of revenue) of
Bengal to streamline the revenue administration of the province.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Then in 1710 Bahadur Shah reappointed him in this position after a short break
of two years
When Farruksiyar became the emperor, he confirmed Murshid Quli in his
position and also appointed him the deputy governor of Bengal and governor of
Orissa.
Later in 1717 when he was appointed the governor or Nizam of Bengal, he was
given the unprecedented privilege of holding the two offices of Nizam and
diwan simultaneously.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
42. The Battle of Colachel was fought between:
A. The British East India Company and Tipu Sultan

B. The British East India Company and Haider Ali
C. The Dutch East India Company and Martanda Varma
D. The Dutch East India Company any Haider Ali
Total Marks : 200
Test-3: GS Subject
Correct Answer : C
Indian kingdom of Travancore and the Dutch East India Company. During the
Travancore-Dutch War, King Marthanda Varma's forces defeated the Dutch East India
Company's forces led by Admiral Eustachius De Lannoy on 10 August 1741.
Hence, option(c) is correct.
43. With reference to the military administration of Chhatrapati Shivaji, which one of the
following is the correct sequence in ascending order in terms of rank?
A. Havildar- Hazari- Jamaladar

B. Jamaladar- Havildar- Hazari
C. Havildar- Jamaladar- Hazari
D. Hazari- Jamaladar-Havildar
Correct Answer : C
Shivaji organized a standing army. The army consisted of four divisions:
infantry, cavalry, elephant corps and artillery.
The infantry was divided into regiments, brigades and divisions. The smallest
unit with nine soldiers was headed by a Naik (corporal).
Each unit with 25 horsemen was placed under one havildar (equivalent to the
rank of a sergeant).
Over five havildars were placed under one jamaladar and over ten jamaladars
under one hazari.
Sari Naubat was the supreme commander of the cavalry.
Hence, option (c) is correct.
44. Consider the following statements regarding King Serfoji II:

1. He established the Saraswati Mahal Library.
2. He established Dhanvantari Mahal, a research institution that produced herbal medicine for
humans and animals.
3. He introduced western musical instruments like clarinet, and violin in Carnatic music.
Total Marks : 200
Test-3: GS Subject
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : B
Serfoji II Bhonsle was the last ruler of the Bhonsle dynasty of the Maratha principality of
Tanjore to exercise absolute sovereignty over his dominions.
Serfoji’s modernising projects included the establishment of a printing press

(the first press for Marathi and Sanskrit) and enrichment of the Saraswati
Mahal Library.
The Saraswati Mahal library, built by the Nayak rulers and enriched by Serfoji II
contains a record of the day-to-day proceedings of the Maratha court - as Modi
documents, French-Maratha correspondence of the 18th century. Modi was the script used
to write the Marathi language.
Serfoji’s most striking initiative was the founding and management of free elementary
and secondary schools for orphans and the poor in Thanjavur city and other adjacent
places.
Serfoji II established Dhanvantari Mahal, a research institution that produced herbal
medicine for humans and animals. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Serfoji II was a patron of traditional Indian arts like dance and music. He authored
Kumarasambhava Champu, Devendra Kuravanji, and Mudra rakshaschaya.
He introduced western musical instruments like clarinet, and violin in Carnatic
music. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
He is also credited with popularising the unique Thanjavur style of painting.
45. Arrange the following events in chronological order from earliest to latest:
1. Vellore Mutiny
2. Barrackpore mutiny
3. Sepoy mutiny
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1-2-3
B. 2-1-3
C. 3-2-1
D. 3-1-2
Total Marks : 200
Test-3: GS Subject
Correct Answer : A
The Vellore mutiny, or Vellore Revolution, occurred on 10 July 1806 and was the
first instance of a large-scale and violent mutiny by Indian sepoys against the
East India Company.
The Barrackpore mutiny was a rising of native Indian sepoys against their
British officers in Barrackpore in November 1824.
The Indian Rebellion of 1857 or Sepoy mutiny was a major uprising in India in
1857–58 against the rule of the British East India Company, which functioned as
a sovereign power on behalf of the British Crown.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
46. Consider the following statements:

1. William Carey was instrumental in establishing the Serampore Mission
2. Joshua Marshman supported Raja Rammohun Roy’s idea of Unitarianism.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : A
In 1793 two English missionaries, William Carey and John Thomas, both
Baptists, set out to India with the intention of starting a mission. In view of the
ban on missionary activity, they settled down in the Danish Colony of Serampore, north of
Calcutta. Carey, along with two other missionaries, Joshua Marshman and William
Ward established the Serampore Mission in 1799.
Joshua Marshman was an accomplished scholar, linguist, and theologian and was a prolific
author and polemicist. After learning Bengali and Sanskrit, Carey and Marshman
published—through the Serampore Press—the Bengali form of The Ramayana of
Valmeeki, which Ward would have seen to completion. Marshman also has the honor
of being the first to have translated the Bible into Chinese. In 1821, the
Serampore Press published the first translation of the Bible into Chinese, the
work on which Marshman had spent fifteen years. In the early 1820s, Marshman engaged
in a polemical debate with Rammohum Roy concerning the deity of Jesus and the
Christian doctrines of the atonement and the Trinity. The debate focused on Roy's
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Test-3: GS Subject
Unitarianism, which Marshman and the other Serampore missionaries strongly

disagreed. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Carey, Marshman, and Ward worked cooperatively, and came to have the name
"the Serampore Trio."
47. Consider the following statements regarding the contribution of James Thomason:
1. He established an Engineering college at Roorkee.
2. He vehemently opposed the vernacular system of education at the elementary level.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : A
James Thomason was a British administrator of the East India
Company and Lieutenant-Governor of the North-Western Provinces between 1843
and 1853.
By 1853 he had also established a system of 897 locally supported elementary
schools in centrally located villages that provided a vernacular education for
children throughout the region. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
The Roorkee College was established in 1847 AD as the First Engineering
College in the British Empire. The College was renamed The Thomason College
of Civil Engineering in 1854. It was established by the then lieutenant governor, Sir
James Thomason, and was given university status in 1949. Hence, statement 1 is
correct.
48. Consider the following statements regarding Wood’s despatch

1. It recommended English as the medium of instruction from school level to higher studies.
2. It recommended a system of grants-in-aid to encourage private schools
3. It asked the government of India to assume responsibility for the education of the masses

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Correct Answer : B
Total Marks : 200
Test-3: GS Subject
In 1854, Charles Wood prepared a despatch on an educational system for India. Considered the
“Magna Carta of English Education in India”, this document was the first comprehensive plan for
the spread of education in India.
1. It asked the government of India to assume responsibility for the education of the
masses, thus repudiating the ‘downward filtration theory’, at least on paper.
2. It systematised the hierarchy from vernacular primary schools in villages at bottom, followed
by Anglo-Vernacular High Schools and an affiliated college at the district level, and affiliating
universities in the presidency towns of Calcutta, Bombay and Madras.
3. It recommended English as the medium of instruction for higher studies and

vernaculars at the school level.
4. It laid stress on female and vocational education, and on teachers’ training.
5. It laid down that the education imparted in government institutions should be secular.
6. It recommended a system of grants-in-aid to encourage private enterprise.
49. Consider the following statements regarding the Hunter Education Commission
(1882-83):
1. It recommended the transfer of control of primary education to district and municipal boards.
2. It recommended to have vocational training at the high school level.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Both the statements given above are correct.
Hunter Education Commission (1882-83)
Total Marks : 200
Test-3: GS Subject
Earlier schemes had neglected primary and secondary education. When education was shifted
to provinces in 1870, primary and secondary education further suffered because the provinces
already had limited resources at their disposal. In 1882, the Government appointed a
commission under the chairmanship of W.W. Hunter to review the progress of
education in the country since the Despatch of 1854. The Hunter Commission mostly confined
its recommendations to primary and secondary education. The commission—
(i) emphasised that state’s special care is required for extension and improvement of primary
education, and that primary education should be imparted through vernacular.
(ii) recommended the transfer of control of primary education to newly set up district
and municipal boards.
(iii) recommended that secondary (High School) education should have two
divisions—
● literary—leading up to university.
● vocational—for commercial careers.
(iv) drew attention to inadequate facilities for female education, especially outside presidency
towns and made recommendations for its spread.
The next two decades saw rapid growth and expansion of secondary and collegiate education
with the participation of Indians. Also, more teaching-cum-examining universities
were set up like the Punjab University (1882) and the Allahabad University (1887).

1. Keshub Sen founded the Indian Association for the Cultivation of Science
2. William Ward established the 'Society for the Acquisition of General Knowledge'

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : D
None of the statements given is correct.
Mahendralal Sarkar CIE was a Bengali medical doctor, the second MD graduated
Total Marks : 200
Test-3: GS Subject
from the Calcutta Medical College, social reformer, and propagator of scientific
studies in nineteenth-century India. He was the founder of the Indian
Association for the Cultivation of Science.
In 1828 Derozio founded with his students the 'Academic Association', which
organised debates on various subjects. Derozio's students read the writings of
Voltaire, Hume, Locke, Tom Paine and others and quoted them freely in their
debates. Another organisation of the Young Bengal was the 'Society for the
Acquisition of General Knowledge' founded in 1838. Tarachand Chakravarty was
the president of the society and secretaries were Peary Chand Mitra and Ramtanu Lahiri.
51. Alluri Sitarama Raju was associated with:
A. Manyam Rebellion
B. Munda Rebellion
C. Sanyasi Rebellion
D. Indigo Revolt
Correct Answer : A
The Rampa Rebellion of 1922, also known as the Manyam Rebellion, was a tribal
uprising led by Alluri Sitarama Raju in Godavari Agency of Madras Presidency, British
India. It began in August 1922 and lasted until the capture and killing of Raju in May
1924.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
52. Consider the following pairs:

Newspapers/Magazines Founders
1. Somaprakasha Debendranath Tagore
2. Rast Goftar Dadabhai Naoroji
3. Bangadarshana Dwarakanath Vidyabhusan
How many of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

A. Only one pair
B. Only two pairs
C. All three pairs
D. No pair
Correct Answer : A
Total Marks : 200
Test-3: GS Subject
Somprakash a weekly newspaper started on 15 November 1858, (1 Agrahayan

1265 BS) by Dwarakanath Vidyabhusan. Dwarakanath (1819-1886) was a professor
at Sanskrit college in Calcutta. Somprakash was the first Bangla newspaper to
indulge in political discussions. Social and political issues regularly featured in it.
Hence, pair 1 is incorrectly matched.
Rast Goftar was an Anglo-Gujarati paper operating in Bombay that was started
in 1854 by Dadabhai Naoroji and Kharshedji Cama and championed social reform
among Parsis in Western India. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.
Bangadarshan was a Bengali literary magazine, founded by Bankim Chandra
Chattopadhyay in 1872, and resuscitated in 1901 under the editorship of Rabindranath
Tagore. The magazine had a defining influence on the emergence of a Bengali
identity and the genesis of nationalism in Bengal. Hence, pair 3 is incorrectly
matched.
53. Consider the following personalities.

1. William Bentick
2. Henry Lawrence
3. Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah
Who among the above personalities is/are associated with the Battle of Chinhat?
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 only
Correct Answer : C
Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah was one of the many maulvis who played an important part
in the revolt of 1857. Educated in Hyderabad, he became a preacher when young. In 1857,
he was jailed in Faizabad. When released, he was elected by the mutinous 22nd Native Infantry
as their leader. He fought in the famous Battle of Chinhat in which the British forces
under Henry Lawrence were defeated.
54. In the context of the freedom struggle, the Azamgarh proclamation was associated
with?
A. Battle of Buxar
B. Revolt of 1857
C. Battle of Plassey
D. Vellore Mutiny
Total Marks : 200
Test-3: GS Subject
Correct Answer : B
The Azamgarh proclamation was published in the Delhi Gazette in the midst of the
“Great Mutiny” of 1857. The author was most probably Firoz Shah, a grandson of the
Mughal emperor Bahadur Shah Zafar, whose restoration to full power was a main aim of
the rebels.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
55. Who among the following leaders founded the Madras Hindu Social Reforms
Association?
A. G. Subramania Iyer
B. Kandukuri Veresalingam Pantulu
C. E.V. Ramasamy Naicker
D. Anandacharlu
Correct Answer : B
The Madras Hindu Social Reforms Association was founded by Kandukuri

Veresalingam Pantulu in 1892 at Madras. According to him, without the liberation of
women, there would be no real freedom and no progress of the country
Hence, option (b) is correct.
About Kandukuri Veeresalingam :
Kandukuri Veeresalingam (16 April 1848 – 27 May 1919) was a social reformer and
writer from the Madras Presidency, British India.
He is considered as the father of the Telugu Renaissance movement.
He was one of the early social reformers who encouraged the education of women and
the remarriage of widows (which was not supported by society during his time).
He also fought against child marriage and the dowry system.
He started a school in Dowlaiswaram in 1874, constructed the 'Brahmo Mandir' in
1887 and built the 'Hithakarini School' in 1908 in Andhra Pradesh.
His novel Rajasekhara Charitramu is considered to be the first novel in Telugu
literature.
56. Consider the following statements regarding the William Adam Report on Education:
1. He found that there were over 1 lakh pathshalas in Bengal and Bihar
Total Marks : 200
Test-3: GS Subject
2. In many cases, the school fee was depended on the income of the parents
3. In many instances, classes were not held during harvest time.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
All the statements given above are correct.
In the 1830s, William Adam, a Scottish missionary, toured the districts of Bengal and Bihar. He
had been asked by the Company to report on the progress of education in vernacular
schools. The report Adam produced is interesting.
Adam found that there were over 1 lakh pathshalas in Bengal and Bihar. These
were small institutions with no more than 20 students each. But the total number of
children being taught in these pathshalas was considerable – over 20 lakh. These
institutions were set up by wealthy people, or the local community. At times
they were started by a teacher (guru).
The system of education was flexible. Few things that you associate with
schools today were present in the pathshalas at the time. There were no fixed
fee, no printed books, no separate school building, no benches or chairs, no
blackboards, no system of separate classes, no rollcall registers, no annual examinations,
and no regular time-table. In some places classes were held under a banyan tree, in other
places in the corner of a village shop or temple, or at the guru’s home. Fee depended
on the income of parents: the rich had to pay more than the poor. Teaching was
oral, and the guru decided what to teach, in accordance with the needs of the
students. Students were not separated out into different classes: all of them
sat together in one place. The guru interacted separately with groups of
children with different levels of learning.
Adam discovered that this flexible system was suited to local needs. For
instance, classes were not held during harvest time when rural children often
worked in the fields. The pathshala started once again when the crops had been
cut and stored. This meant that even children of peasant families could study.

1. Prarthana samaj encouraged the education of women.
Total Marks : 200
Test-3: GS Subject
2. The Veda Samaj was established by Dayanand Saraswati.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : A
The Prarthana Samaj was established in 1867 at Bombay, which sought to
remove caste restrictions, abolish child marriage, encourage the education of
women, and end the ban on widow remarriage. Its religious meetings drew upon Hindu,
Buddhist and Christian texts.
Established in Madras (Chennai) in 1864, the Veda Samaj was inspired by the
Brahmo Samaj. It worked to abolish caste distinctions and promote widow
remarriage and women’s education. Its members believed in one God. They
condemned the superstitions and rituals of orthodox Hinduism.
Veda Samaj was established by Keshab Chandra Sen and K. Sridharalu Naidu when the
former visited Madras in 1864. K. Sridharalu Naidu later visited Calcutta to study the
Brahmo Samaj movement and when he returned, he renamed the Veda Samaj as Brahmo
Samaj of Southern India in 1871.

1. Bharat Stree Mahamandal was established by Sarojini Naidu
2. B.M. Malabari founded the Nishkam Karma Math (Social Service Society)

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : D
None of the statements given above is correct.
Total Marks : 200
Test-3: GS Subject
Bharat Stree Mahamandal was a women's organisation in India founded by

Sarala Devi Chaudhurani in Allahabad in 1910. One of the primary goals of the
organisation was to promote female education, which at that time was not well
developed.
Dhondo Keshav Karve:
Dhondo Keshav Karve, popularly known as Maharshi Karve, was a social

reformer in India in the field of women's welfare.
He advocated widow remarriage and he himself married a widow.
Karve was a pioneer in promoting widows' education.
He founded the first women's university in India - SNDT Women's University.
In 1907, he founded the Mahila Vidyalaya (Mahila Vidyalaya) (School for Women).
He founded the Nishkam Karma Math (Social Service Society) in 1908 to train
workers for the widows' home and Mahila Vidyalaya.
59. Consider the following statements regarding Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar:

1. He was the author of the book called “Sanskrit-Vyakaran Upakramonika”.
2. To support women education, he organized a fund called Nari Shiksha Bhandar
3. He supported Drinkwater Bethune to establish the first permanent girls’ school in India, the
Bethune School.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
All the statements given above are correct.
Revered as a Bengali icon, Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar was a Bengali Sanskrit pundit, educator,
social reformer, writer and philanthropist.
Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar (1820-1891) was one of the pillars of the Bengal renaissance who
managed to continue the social reforms movement that was started by Raja Rammohan Roy in
the early 1800s.
Widow Remarriage:
The focus of his social reform was women — and he spent his life’s energies trying to
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Test-3: GS Subject
ensure an end to the practice of child marriage and initiate widow remarriage.
He followed in the great reformist tradition of Raja Ram Mohun Roy (1772-1833), and
argued, on the basis of scriptures and old commentaries, in favour of the remarriage of
widows in the same way as Roy did for the abolition of Sati.
Vidyasagar wrote two volumes on the mistreatment of widows, which set the tone for
major social reform in the state.
His earliest effort at social reform, however, came in the second half of 1850 when, in a
paper on the evils of child marriage.
He launched a powerful attack on the practice of marrying off girls aged 10 or even
younger, pointing to social, ethical, and hygiene issues, and rejecting the validity of the
Dharma Shastras that advocated it.
He showed that there was no prohibition on widows remarrying in the entire body of
‘Smriti’ literature (the Sutras and the Shastras).
Educational Reforms:
Vidyasagar is credited with the role of thoroughly remodelling medieval scholastic system
prevailing in Sanskrit College and bring about modern insights into the education system.
The first change that Vidyasagar made when he came back to the Sanskrit College as a
Professor was to include English and Bengali as the medium of learning, besides Sanskrit.
He introduced courses of European History, Philosophy and Science alongside Vedic
scriptures. He encouraged students to pursue these subjects and take away the best from
both worlds.
He also changed the rules of admission for students in Sanskrit College allowing non-
Brahmin students to enroll in the prestigious institution.
He wrote two books ‘Sanskrit-Vyakaran Upakramonika’ and ‘Byakaran
Koumudi’, interpreting complex notions of Sanskrit grammar in easy legible Bengali
language.
He introduced the concepts of Admission fee and tuition fee for the first time in Calcutta.
He set up the Normal School for training teachers enabling uniformity in teaching
methods. Through his contacts at the deputy magistrate’s office he would help his
students get jobs in government offices.
Campaign against polygamy:
Alongside the campaign for widow remarriage, he campaigned against polygamy.

In 1857, a petition for the prohibition of polygamy among Kulin Brahmins was presented
to the government with 25,000 signatures, led by the Maharaja of Burdwan.
The mutiny of the sepoys resulted in the postponement of action on this petition, but in
1866, Vidyasagar inspired another petition, this time with 21,000 signatures.
In the 1870s, the great rationalist, wrote two brilliant critiques of polygamy, arguing to
the government that since polygamy was not sanctioned by the sacred texts, there could
be no objection to suppressing it by legislation.
Women’s education:
He was a keen advocate of education for women. He rightly viewed education as the
primary way for women to emancipate themselves from all the social oppression they had
Total Marks : 200
Test-3: GS Subject
to face at the time.

He went door to door, asking family heads to allow their daughters to be enrolled in
schools. Across Bengal, he opened 35 women’s schools and succeeded in enrolling 1300
students.
To support women education, he organized a fund called Nari Shiksha Bhandar.
He supported Drinkwater Bethune to establish the first permanent girls’ school
in India, the Bethune School.
Vidyasagar spent the last 18 years of his life living among Santhal tribals in present day
Jharkhand, where he started what is possibly India’s first school for Santhal girls.
He expressed his ideas through regular articles he wrote for periodicals and newspapers.
He was associated with prestigious journalistic publications like ‘Tattwabodhini Patrika’,
‘Somprakash’, ‘Sarbashubhankari Patrika’ and ‘Hindu Patriot’.
Other literary works:
Vidyasagar’s Barna Parichay (an introduction to the Bengali alphabet) is still the first
book a Bengali child is handed more than 160 years after it was written.
His contribution to the alphabet, translation of several Sanskrit books, including Kalidas’s
Shankuntala, has helped Bengali literature.
He wrote two books which interpreted complex notions of Sanskrit Grammar in Bengali
language viz. Upakaramonika and Byakaran Koumudi.
He established the Sanskrit Press with an aim to produce printed books at affordable
prices so that common people could buy them
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/05/06/rstv-in-depth-ishwar-chandra-vidyasagar/

1. Tarabai Shinde set up ‘Balhatya Pratibandhak Griha’ to prevent female infanticide.
2. Savitribai Phule authored the book called “ Stri Purush Tulana”
3. Ramabai Ranade established Seva Sadan for the rehabilitation of distressed women

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : B
Savitribai Phule (1831-1897)
She was the country’s first female teacher who went on to establish several schools for
women of all castes.
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Test-3: GS Subject
Along with her husband Jyoti Rao Phule, Savitibai campaigned to abolish caste and
gender discrimination and set up ‘Balhatya Pratibandhak Griha’ to prevent
female infanticide. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
She worked with other women to uplift the victims of rape and prevent killings of widows.
Tarabai Shinde (1850-1910)
A feminist activist and an associate of Savitribai, Tarabai Shinde’s thoughts and opinions
remain controversial to date because of their progressive and non-conformist nature.
While she shared the same views on gender and caste-based discrimination as
Savitribai’s, she also believed that women all around the world are similarly oppressed.
Her first published work was her Marathi book named “Stri Purush Tulana”
(Comparison of men and women) which is frequently cited among the Indian feminist
circuit to date as it is deemed as one of the first modern feminism texts in India. Hence,
statement 2 is incorrect.
Ramabai Ranade (1863-1924)
Social reformer Ramabai Ranade is considered a pioneer of the women`s movement in

India.
She started ’Hindu Ladies Social Club’ also established Seva Sadan for the
rehabilitation of distressed women. This pioneering effort allowed women to become
self-reliant. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

1. Kumbalathuparambu Ayyappan gave the famous slogan “one caste, one religion, one god for
humankind”
2. Jyotirao Phule dedicated his book “Gulamgiri” to all those Americans who had fought to free
slaves.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : B
Shri Narayana Guru
In what is present-day Kerala, a guru from Ezhava caste, Shri Narayana Guru, proclaimed
the ideals of unity for his people. He argued against treating people unequally on the
basis of caste differences.
According to him, all humankind belonged to the same caste. One of his famous
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Test-3: GS Subject
statements was: “oru jati, oru matam, oru daivam manushyanu” (one caste,
one religion, one god for humankind).
K. Ayyappan gave the famous slogan: “No Caste, No Religion, No God for Mankind”
Jyotirao Phule
One of the most vocal amongst the “low-caste” leaders was Jyotirao Phule. Born in 1827,
he studied in schools set up by Christian missionaries.
On growing up he developed his own ideas about the injustices of caste society.
The Satyashodhak Samaj, an association Phule founded, propagated caste equality.
In 1873, Phule wrote a book named Gulamgiri, meaning slavery.
Some ten years before this, the American Civil War had been fought, leading to the end of
slavery in America. Phule dedicated his book to all those Americans who had
fought to free slaves, thus establishing a link between the conditions of the
“lower” castes in India and the black slaves in America. Hence, statement 2 is
correct.
62. The Satnami movement was founded by:
A. Ghasidas
B. Ravidas
C. Narayan Deo
D. Bhawani Pathak
Correct Answer : A
The Satnami movement in Central India was founded by Ghasidas who worked among the
leatherworkers and organised a movement to improve their social status.
In eastern Bengal, Haridas Thakur’s Matua sect worked among Chandala cultivators.
Haridas questioned Brahmanical texts that supported the caste system.
63. Consider the following statements regarding Balshastri Jambhekar:

1. He founded the Bombay Native General Library
2. He started Digdarshan which published articles on scientific subjects as well as history

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
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Test-3: GS Subject
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Balshastri Jambhekar:
Balshastri Jambhekar (1812-1846) was a pioneer of social reform through journalism in

Bombay; he attacked Brahminical orthodoxy and tried to reform popular Hinduism.
He started the newspaper Darpan in 1832.
Known as the father of Marathi journalism, Jambhekar used the Darpan to awaken the
people to awareness of social reforms, such as widow remarriage, and to instill in the
masses a scientific approach to life.
In 1840, he started Digdarshan which published articles on scientific subjects
as well as history.
Jambhekar founded the Bombay Native General Library and started the Native
Improvement Society of which an offshoot was the Students Literary and
Scientific Library.
He was the first professor of Hindi at the Elphinston College, besides being a director of
the Colaba Observatory.
64. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Councils Act, 1892
1. The members of the legislatures were now entitled to express their views upon financial
statements.
2. The universities, district boards, municipalities, zamindars, trade bodies and chambers of
commerce were empowered to recommend members to the provincial councils

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Indian Councils Act, 1892
● In 1885, the Indian National Congress was founded. The Congress saw reform of the councils
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as the “root of all other reforms”. It was in response to the Congress demand that the
legislative councils be expanded that the number of non-official members was increased both in
the central (Imperial) and provincial legislative councils by the Indian Councils Act, 1892.
● The Legislative Council of the Governor-General (or the Indian Legislative Council, as it came
to be known) was enlarged.
● The universities, district boards, municipalities, zamindars, trade bodies and

chambers of commerce were empowered to recommend members to the provincial
councils. Thus was introduced the principle of representation.
● Though the term ‘election’ was firmly avoided in the Act, an element of indirect election was
accepted in the selection of some of the non-official members.
● The members of the legislatures were now entitled to express their views upon
financial statements which were henceforth to be made on the floor of the
legislatures.
● They could also put questions within certain limits to the executive on matters of public
interest after giving six days’ notice.
65. Consider the following statements regarding Pandita Ramabai:

1. She started the Sharada Sadan (shelter for the homeless) for the destitute widows
2. She started the Arya Mahila Samaj

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Pandita Ramabai:
Pandita Ramabai was foremost among the Indian leaders who worked for the
emancipation of women. She came from a learned family and was a great
scholar of Sanskrit and addressed many learned groups in different parts of the
country.
She was given the title of “Pandita” and “Saraswati” for her deep knowledge of Sanskrit.
In 1880 she married a Bengali belonging to a family of lower social status. Thus, even at
that time she was bold enough to marry a man of a different caste and different
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Test-3: GS Subject
language.
After the death of her husband two years later she returned to Poona and started the Arya
Mahila Samaj with the help of leaders like Ranade and Bhandarkar.
Ramabai started the Sharada Sadan (shelter for homeless) for the destitute
widows with the help of Ranade and Bhandarkar. But soon she was accused of
converting Hindu women to Christianity and hence had to shift her activities to
Khedgoan near Poona.
She established a Mukti Sadan (freedom house) there. Soon there were 2000 children and
women in the house. Vocational training was given make them self-reliant.
66. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Councils Act, 1861
1. It provided for portfolio system
2. It took away the legislative powers to the provinces of Madras and Bombay

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : A
Indian Councils Act, 1861
● The 1861 Act marked an advance in that the principle of representatives of non-officials in
legislative bodies became accepted; laws were to be made after due deliberation, and as pieces
of legislation they could be changed only by the same deliberative process. Law-making was
thus no longer seen as the exclusive business of the executive.
● The portfolio system introduced by Lord Canning laid the foundations of cabinet
government in India, each branch of the administration having its official head and
spokesman in the government, who was responsible for its administration. Hence,
statement 1 is correct.
● The Act, returned the legislative powers to provinces of Madras and Bombay which
had been taken away in 1833.
However, the legislative councils established by the Act of 1861 possessed no real powers
and had many weaknesses.
The councils could not discuss important matters and no financial matters at all without
previous approval of government. They had no control over budget. They could not
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Test-3: GS Subject
discuss executive action. Final passing of the bill needed viceroy’s approval. Even if
approved by the viceroy, the secretary of state could disallow a legislation.
Indians associated as non-officials were members of elite sections only.
67. Which of the following was/were the provisions of the Indian Factory Act, 1881
1. It prohibited employment of children under ten years.
2. It provided weekly holiday for all.
Select the correct answer using the code given below

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : D
None of the statements given above is correct.
The Indian Factory Act, 1881 dealt primarily with the problem of child labour (between 7 and
12 years of age).
Its significant provisions were:
● employment of children under 7 years of age prohibited,
● working hours restricted to 9 hours per day for children,
● children to get four holidays in a month,
● hazardous machinery to be properly fenced off.
The Indian Factory Act, 1891
● increased the minimum age (from 7 to 9 years) and the maximum (from 12 to 14
years) for children,
● reduced maximum working hours for children to 7 hours a day,
● fixed maximum working hours for women at 11 hours per day with an one-and-a-
half hour interval (working hours for men were left unregulated),
● provided weekly holiday for all.
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Test-3: GS Subject
68. Consider the following pairs of organizations and their headquarters:

Organizations: Headquarters:
1. Indian Reform Association Calcutta
2. Indian National Social Conference Bombay
3. Deva Samaj Lahore
How many of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

A. Only one pair
B. Only two pairs
C. All three pairs
D. None of the above pairs
Correct Answer : C
All three pairs are correctly matched.
The Indian Reform Association was formed on 29 October 1870 at Calcutta with
Keshub Chunder Sen as president. It represented the secular side of the Brahmo
Samaj and included many who did not belong to the Brahmo Samaj.
Indian National Social Conference, founded by M.G. Ranade and Raghunath
Rao at Bombay, was the social reform cell of the Indian National Congress. It launched
the famous “Pledge Movement” to inspire people to take an oath to prohibit
child marriage.
Deva Samaj was founded in 1887 at Lahore by Shiv Narain Agnihotri, an erstwhile
follower of Brahmo Samaj.
69. Who among the following freedom fighters was arrested for writing about the
Saligram idol case?
A. Mahatma Gandhi
B. M.G. Ranade
C. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
D. Surendranth Banerjea.
Correct Answer : D
Surendranath Banerjea, one of the founding fathers of the Indian national
movement, was the first Indian to go to jail in performance of his duty as a
journalist.
A dispute concerning a family idol, a saligram, had come up before Justice Norris of
the Calcutta High Court. To decide the age of the idol, Norris ordered it to be brought to
the Court and pronounced that it could not be a hundred years old. This action deeply
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Test-3: GS Subject
hurt the sentiments of the Bengali Hindus.

Banerjea wrote an angry editorial in the Bengalee of 2 April 1883. Comparing Norris with
the notorious Jeffreys and Seroggs (British judges in the 17th century,
notorious for infamous conduct as judges), he said that Norris had done enough ‘to show how
unworthy he is of his high office.’
Immediately, the High Court hauled him up for contempt of court before a
bench of five judges, four of them Europeans. With the Indian judge, Romesh
Chandra Mitra, dissenting, the bench convicted and sentenced him to two
months imprisonment.
70. Consider the following pairs of social reform movements and leaders associated with
them:
Social Reform Movements: Leaders Associated:
1. Aravippuram Movement Shri Narayana Guru
2. Self-Respect Movement E. V. Ramaswami Naicker
3. Nair Movement C.V. Raman Pillai
How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

A. Only one pair
B. Only two pairs
C. All three pairs
D. None of the above pairs
Correct Answer : C
All three pairs are correctly matched.
Sri Narayana Guru:
Social reform movements:
He led a reform movement in Kerala, rejected casteism, and promoted new values of
spiritual freedom and social equality.
He stressed the need for the spiritual and social upliftment of the downtrodden by their
own efforts through the establishment of temples and educational institutions.
In the process, he denounced the superstitions that clouded the fundamental Hindu
cultural convention of caste.
He preached the ‘oneness’ of humanity, crossing the boundaries of caste and creed.
In 1888, he installed an idol of siva at Aravippuram in Kerala in his effort to show
that the consecration of god’s image was not a monopoly of the brahmins. This is
popularly known as Aravippuram movement.
In one temple he consecrated at Kalavancode, he kept mirrors instead of idols. This
symbolised his message that the divine was within each individual.
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Test-3: GS Subject
He also founded an Advaita Ashram in Kalady.

He also lent his support to the Vaikkom Satyagraha which was aimed at temple entry
in Travancore for the lower castes. Mahatma Gandhi met Guru during this time.
Important literary works:
He contributed many important literary works, the most influential being Atmopadesa
Satakam which he composed in 1897
The Self-Respect Movement or Dravidian Movement:
It was founded in 1925 by E. V. Ramasamy Naicker or Periyar with the aim of achieving a
society where backward sections have equal human rights, and encouraging backward
sections to have self-respect. Periyar wrote several articles on women’s rights, on atheism and
against the caste system. He represented alternative political traditions in the age when the
Indian national congress was attempting to establish a unitary ideal of nationalism against
colonialism.
Nair Movement:
Nair Movement was started in 1861 under the leadership of Rama Krishna Pillai, C.V.
Raman Pillai, K. and M. Padmanabha Pillai in the state of Travancore.
It was a reaction to the Nambudri Brahmins’ socio-political dominance over the non-
Malayali Brahmins (Tamil and Maratha).
71. Consider the following statements

1. China shares border with Afghanistan
2. Thailand shares border with Malaysia
3. Russia shares border with North Korea
Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Total Marks : 200
Test-3: GS Subject
Total Marks : 200
Test-3: GS Subject
72. Consider the following statements regarding MGNREGA

1. Gram Sabha and the Gram Panchayat which approves the shelf of works under MGNREGA.
2. It provides both skilled and unskilled labour.
3. It provides employment in rural areas only.
4. Both citizen and non-citizen of India can apply for the job under this scheme

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer : A
About MGNREGA:
The scheme was introduced as a social measure that guarantees “the right to work”. The
key tenet of this social measure and labour law is that the local government will have to legally
provide at least 100 days of wage employment in rural India to enhance their quality
of life.
Key objectives:
1. Generation of paid rural employment of not less than 100 days for each worker who
volunteers for unskilled labour.
2. Proactively ensuring social inclusion by strengthening livelihood base of rural poor.
3. Creation of durable assets in rural areas such as wells, ponds, roads and canals.
4. Reduce urban migration from rural areas.
5. Create rural infrastructure by using untapped rural labour.
The following are the eligibility criteria for receiving the benefits under MGNREGA
scheme:
1. Must be Citizen of India to seek NREGA benefits. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

2. Job seeker has completed 18 years of age at the time of application.
1. The applicant must be part of a local household (i.e., application must be made with
local Gram Panchayat).
2. Applicant must volunteer for unskilled labour. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
Key facts related to the scheme:
1. The Ministry of Rural Development (MRD), Govt of India is monitoring the entire
implementation of this scheme in association with state governments.
2. Individual beneficiary-oriented works can be taken up on the cards of Scheduled
Castes and Scheduled Tribes, small or marginal farmers or beneficiaries of land reforms or
Total Marks : 200
Test-3: GS Subject
beneficiaries under the Indira Awaas Yojana of the Government of India.

3. Within 15 days of submitting the application or from the day work is demanded, wage
employment will be provided to the applicant.
4. Right to get unemployment allowance in case employment is not provided within
fifteen days of submitting the application or from the date when work is sought.
5. Social Audit of MGNREGA works is mandatory, which lends to accountability and
transparency.
6. The Gram Sabha is the principal forum for wage seekers to raise their voices and make
demands.
7. It is the Gram Sabha and the Gram Panchayat which approves the shelf of works under
MGNREGA and fix their priority.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/03/18/mahatma-gandhi-national-rural-employment-guara
ntee-act-mgnrega-3/
http://www.arthapedia.in/index.php/Mahatma_Gandhi_National_Rural_Employment_Guarantee_
Act_(MGNREGA)_of_2005
73. Consider the following statements regarding Global Depository receipt/ Depository
receipt (DRs)
1. In India any company - whether private limited or public limited or listed or unlisted - can issue
DRs.
2. ADR /GDR issues based on shares of a company are considered as part of Foreign Direct
Investment (FDI) in India.
3. Listed DRs enjoy some tax benefits in India.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
All the above statements are correct.
As per the Companies Act, 2013 "Global Depository receipt" means any instrument in the form
of a depository receipt created by a foreign depository outside India and authorised by a
company making an issue of such depository receipts while the "Indian Depository Receipt”
means any instrument in the form of a depository receipt created by a domestic depository in
India and authorised by a company incorporated outside India;
Total Marks : 200
Test-3: GS Subject
In India any company - whether private limited or public limited or listed or unlisted -
can issue DRs. However listed DRs enjoy some tax benefits.
ADR /GDR issues based on shares of a company are considered as part of Foreign
Direct Investment (FDI) in India, though it is an indirect way of holding shares. As per
a Cabinet decision dated 16 July 2015, DRs having underlying of instruments which can be
issued under Schedule 5 of FEMA Regulations, being in the nature of debt, will not be treated as
foreign investment. However, any equity holding by a person resident outside India resulting
from conversion of any debt instrument under any arrangement will be reckoned as foreign
investment.
https://arthapedia.in/index.php/Depository_Receipts
74. Snake Island, sometime seen in the news, is located in
A. Sea of Azov
B. Black Sea
C. Sea of Marmara
D. Mediterranean Sea
Correct Answer : B
Snake Island, also known as Serpent Island or Zmiinyi Island, is an island belonging
to Ukraine located in the Black Sea, near the Danube Delta, with an important role in
delimiting Ukrainian territorial waters. The island has been known since classical antiquity, and
during that era hosted a Greek temple to Achilles
Total Marks : 200
Test-3: GS Subject
https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/russia-says-missile-strike-hit-and-killed-ukrainian-
troops-on-snake-island/article65613249.ece

1. Moldova is a landlocked country.
2. Romania shares border with Mediterranean Sea
3. Belarus shares border with Poland and Russia.

A. 2 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : C
Total Marks : 200
Test-3: GS Subject
https://www.washingtonpost.com/world/2022/02/17/ukraine-russia-map/
76. Juvenile Justice Board is constituted by
A. District Magistrate
B. State Government
C. Central Government
D. Local Government
Correct Answer : B
Juvenile Justice Board – Constitution and Members
Total Marks : 200
Test-3: GS Subject
(1) Notwithstanding anything contained in the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974),
the State Government shall, constitute for every district, one or more Juvenile Justice
Boards for exercising the powers and discharging its functions relating to children in
conflict with law under this Act. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
(2) A Board shall consist of a Metropolitan Magistrate or a Judicial Magistrate of First Class not
being Chief Metropolitan Magistrate or Chief Judicial Magistrate (hereinafter referred to as
Principal Magistrate) with at least three years experience and two social workers selected in
such manner as may be prescribed, of whom at least one shall be a woman, forming a Bench
and every such Bench shall have the powers conferred by the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
(2 of 1974) on a Metropolitan Magistrate or, as the case may be, a Judicial Magistrate of First
Class.
(3) No social worker shall be appointed as a member of the Board unless such person has been
actively involved in health, education, or welfare activities pertaining to children for atleast
seven years or a practicing professional with a degree in child psychology, psychiatry, sociology
or law.
https://www.indiacode.nic.in/show-data?actid=AC_CEN_13_14_000010_201602_1517807328168
&orderno=4
77. Bonab, Arak, Bushehr, Fordo, Parchin are the locations sometime seen in the news
related to
A. Nuclear Installations of Iran

B. Drought hit areas of Northern Africa
C. Terrorist infected areas of Afghanistan
D. Hot Springs located in Central Asia
Correct Answer : A
The Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPOA) is a detailed, 159-page agreement with five
annexes reached by Iran and the P5+1 (China, France, Germany, Russia, the United Kingdom,
and the United States) on July 14, 2015. The nuclear deal was endorsed by UN Security Council
Resolution 2231, adopted on July 20, 2015.
Iran’s compliance with the nuclear-related provisions of the JCPOA is verified by the
International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) according to certain requirements set forth in the
agreement.
Total Marks : 200
Test-3: GS Subject
https://www.armscontrol.org/factsheets/JCPOA-at-a-glance
https://www.theguardian.com/world/2022/jun/09/removal-of-cameras-at-iran-nuclear-sites-may-
be-fatal-blow-warns-un-watchdog
78. Which of the following states are major producers of Millets in India?
1. Rajasthan
2. Uttar Pradesh
3. Haryana
4. Tamil Nadu
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1 and 4 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer : D
Millets in India: jowar (sorghum), bajra (pearl millet) and ragi (finger millet) and
varieties of small millets like kodo, kutki, chenna and sanwa.
Major producers: Rajasthan, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Karnataka, Tamil
Nadu, Maharashtra, Gujarat and Haryana.
Superfood: Millets are low cost and are rich in iron, calcium, magnesium, and
antioxidants ( e.g. Ragi is known to have the highest calcium content) among all the food
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Test-3: GS Subject
grains.
Climate Resilient: They are also harder and drought-resistant crops with a short growing
season and lower water requirement.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/06/24/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-sum
mary-24-june-2022/
79. Which of the following country is a member of the European Union but not a member
of the NATO alliance?
A. Austria
B. Poland
C. Turkey
D. Romania
Correct Answer : A
European Union
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Test-3: GS Subject
NATO Members
80. Consider the following pairs of festivals and associated tribes with them:
Festival Tribe
1. Dree Festival Khasi
2. Losoong Festival Bhutia
3. Nongkrem Dance Festival Apatani
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 3 only
Correct Answer : B
The Apatanis, who inhabit a tranquil pine clad valley called Ziro at the core of Lower
Subansiri District of Arunachal Pradesh, are famous for their unique practice of wet
rice cultivation. They are also known for their sustainable agricultural practices and the
agricultural cycles that govern their everyday lives. The agricultural festival of Dree is the
Total Marks : 200
Test-3: GS Subject
highlight of this cycle.
Losoong also called Namsoong by the Lepchas is the Sikkimese New Year. The
festival of Lossong is mostly celebrated in the month of December every year with
traditional gaiety and colour both by the Lepchas and Bhutias. Certain competitions are
also held in traditional skills, such as, archery and bouts of merry-making go on for days.
Total Marks : 200
Test-3: GS Subject
The annual Nongkrem Dance Festival will be celebrated in Meghalaya with young
Khasi men and women swaying to traditional folk music to appease goddess Ka Blei
Synshar, in the hope of a rich bumper harvest.
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Test-3: GS Subject
81. Electoral College of Vice President consists of

1. Elected members of Rajya Sabha.
2. Nominated members of Lok Sabha
3. Nominated members of Rajya Sabha

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Total Marks : 200
Test-3: GS Subject
Correct Answer : D
The Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of members of both Houses of

Parliament, in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the
single transferable vote and the voting in such election is by secret ballot.
The Electoral College to elect a person to the office of the Vice-President consists of
all members of both Houses of Parliament.
Article 324 of the Constitution read with the Presidential and Vice-Presidential
Elections Act, 1952 and the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Rules,
1974, vests the superintendence, direction and control of the conduct of election to the
office of the Vice-President of India in the Election Commission of India.
The notification for election shall be issued on or after the sixtieth day before the
expiration of the term of office of the outgoing Vice-President.
As per Article 66 of the Constitution of India, the Vice-President is elected by the
members of the Electoral College.
Electoral College consists of:
1. Elected members of Rajya Sabha.
2. Nominated members of both Rajya Sabha & Lok Sabha.
3. Elected members of Lok Sabha.
Since all the electors are members of both Houses of Parliament, the value of the vote of
each Member of Parliament would be the same.
Total Marks : 200
Test-3: GS Subject
http://164.100.47.5/Chairman-Rajyasabha/VPElection.htm

1. The election of the next Vice-President is to be held within 90 days of the expiry of the term of
office of the outgoing Vice-President.
2. A candidate seeking election as Vice-President is required to make a security deposit of
Rs.50,000
3. All doubts and disputes arising in connection with the election of the Election Commission are
enquired into and decided by the Supreme Court of India whose decision is final.
Which of the statements given above are not correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
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Test-3: GS Subject
Correct Answer : A
Election of the Vice-President
The Election Commission of India conducts the election to the office of the Vice-President.
Important Provisions relating to the Election of the Vice-President:
1. The election of the next Vice-President is to be held within 60 days of the expiry of the
term of office of the outgoing Vice-President.
2. The Returning Officer usually appointed to conduct the Vice-Presidential elections is the Secretary-
General of either House of the Parliament, by rotation. The Returning Officer issues a public notice of
the intended election in a prescribed form, inviting the nomination of candidates and specifying the
place where the nomination papers are to be delivered.
Any person qualified to be elected and intending to stand for election as Vice-President is required to
be nominated by at least 20 MPs as proposers and at least 20 MPs as seconders.
Nomination papers are to be presented to the Returning Officer at the place and upto the time and
date, specified in the public notice. A maximum of 4 nomination papers by, or on behalf of, any
candidate may be presented to, or accepted by, the Returning Officer.
3. A candidate seeking election as Vice-President is required to make a security deposit

of Rs.15,000/-. This is the only amount that is required to be deposited by a candidate irrespective
of the number of nomination papers filed on his behalf.
Disputes regarding Election of the Vice-President:
1. All doubts and disputes arising in connection with the election of the Vice-President
are enquired into and decided by the Supreme Court of India whose decision is final.
2. A petition challenging the election of the Vice-President is heard by a five-judge bench of the
Supreme Court of India.
http://164.100.47.5/Chairman-Rajyasabha/VPElection.htm
83. Consider the following statements regarding Chairman of Rajya Sabha

1. The Chairman nominates members of the Rajya Sabha on various bodies such as the Courts of
Banaras Hindu University, and Jawaharlal Nehru University.
2. Under the Press Council Act, 1978, the Chairman is one of the members of the Committee which
nominates the Chairman of the Press Council.

A. 1 only
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Test-3: GS Subject
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Both the statements are correct.
Duties conferred on the Chairman Some statutes also confer duties on the Chairman. For
instance, rules made under the Salary, Allowances and Pension of Members of Parliament Act,
1954, do not take effect until they are approved and confirmed by the Chairman and the
Speaker.
Under the Judges (inquiry) Act, 1968, the Chairman has to constitute a Committee, upon receipt
of a motion for the removal of a Judge of the Supreme Court or of a High Court, for an
investigation into the grounds on which the removal of a Judge is prayed for.
The rules made under that Act are also required to be approved and confirmed by the Chairman
and the Speaker.
Under the Press Council Act, 1978, the Chairman is one of the members of the
Committee which nominates the Chairman of the Press Council.
The Chairman nominates members of the Rajya Sabha on various bodies such as
Courts of Banaras Hindu University, Jawaharlal Nehru University, North-Eastern Hill
University, Pondicherry University, University of Hyderabad, Anjuman (Court) of
Jamia Millia Islamia University, Haj Committee, Press Council of India, Samsad (Court)
of Visva Bharati, National Council for Teachers Education, etc. set up under the
relevant statutes.
The Chairman also nominates members of the Rajya Sabha on other bodies like the General
Assembly of the Indian Council for Cultural Relations, General Body of the Central Social Welfare
Board, General Council of the School of Planning and Architecture, Hindi Shiksha Samiti,
Institute of Constitutional and Parliamentary Studies, etc.
The Chairman may also, if there is a general consensus in the House, make an inquiry into a
matter which was raised on the floor of the House or appoint a Committee of the House in
respect thereof.
https://cms.rajyasabha.nic.in//careers_documents/1611148009510.78_Power-Functions-CR.pdf
84. Consider the following statements regarding Green Hydrogen

1. Hydrogen is the most abundant chemical element in nature.
2. Green hydrogen is a clean energy source that only emits water vapour and leaves no residue in
Total Marks : 200
Test-3: GS Subject
the air
3. Hydrogen can undergo a fusion reaction.
4. Green hydrogen can be transformed into electricity or synthetic gas.
5. Extensive safety measures are not largely required to operate hydrogen-based industries.

A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 5 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer : D
HYDROGEN AS CLEAN ENERGY
Hydrogen is the most abundant chemical element in nature. As noted by the IEA, the
global demand for hydrogen for use as a fuel has tripled since 1975 and reached 70 million
tonnes a year in 2018. In addition, green hydrogen is a clean energy source that only emits
water vapour and leaves no residue in the air, unlike coal and oil.
ADVANTAGES AND DISADVANTAGES OF GREEN HYDROGEN
This energy source has pros and cons that we must be aware of. Let's go over some of its most
important good points:
100 % sustainable: green hydrogen does not emit polluting gases either during
combustion or during production.
Storable: hydrogen is easy to store, which allows it to be used subsequently for other
purposes and at times other than immediately after its production.
Versatile: green hydrogen can be transformed into electricity or synthetic gas and used
for commercial, industrial or mobility purposes.
However, green hydrogen also has negative aspects that should be borne in mind:
High cost: energy from renewable sources, which are key to generating green hydrogen
through electrolysis, is more expensive to generate, which in turn makes hydrogen more
expensive to obtain.
High energy consumption: the production of hydrogen in general and green hydrogen
in particular requires more energy than other fuels.
Safety issues: hydrogen is a highly volatile and flammable element and
extensive safety measures are therefore required to prevent leakage and
explosions. Hence Statement 5 is incorrect.
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Test-3: GS Subject
https://www.iberdrola.com/sustainability/green-hydrogen
85. The Global Initiative on Reducing Land Degradation and Enhancing Conservation of
Terrestrial Habitats, sometimes seen in the news, is an initiative of
A. World Bank
B. G-20
C. UNEP
D. World Economic Forum
Correct Answer : B
The G20 is a multilateral platform that connects the world’s major developed and emerging
economies. Together the G20 countries represent more than 80 per cent of world GDP, 75 per
cent of international trade and 60 per cent of the world’s population.
In November 2020, the G20 launched The Global Initiative on Reducing Land
Degradation and Enhancing Conservation of Terrestrial Habitats. The goal of this
initiative is to prevent, halt and reverse land degradation and reduce degraded land
by 50 per cent by 2040.
This initiative shows an unprecedented resolve by the world’s largest economies to conserve
the terrestrial environment. It also focuses on capacity building as well as engaging the private
sector and civil society.
The initiative has three interrelated objectives:
Conserving land and halting habitat loss, fragmentation and land degradation
through:
sharing knowledge and best practices on conservation incentives

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Test-3: GS Subject
enhancing land conservation

promoting sustainable land management practices
promoting active fire management
Promoting integrated, sustainable, and resilient land and landscape management

through:
nature-based solutions or ecosystem-based approaches

financing mechanisms
urban and land use planning processes at different levels and scales
stronger implementation of international agreements and local environmental governance
and laws
the empowerment of Indigenous Peoples and Local Communities (including women,
youth, and smallholders) in land management
secure land tenure, property and land-use rights in accordance with national legislation,
as well as support sustainable land and water management policies and sustainable
agricultural practices, including traditional practices, in order to maintain and enhance
ecosystem functionality
Restoring degraded land through:
sustainable and locally or regionally appropriate reforestation, afforestation

natural regeneration/revegetation, restoration of ecosystem services, sustainable
agricultural practices, and deployment of nature-based solutions or ecosystem-based
approaches for biodiversity conservation
https://www.unccd.int/our-work/G20-Initiative
86. Consider the following statements regarding Fiber Optics
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Test-3: GS Subject
1. Optical fiber carries more information than conventional copper wire.

2. Optical fibers are less susceptible to interference.
3. Copper wire is costlier than fiber optics.
4. Fiber optic cables are stronger than copper wire cables but heavier than copper wires.
5. Copper wires can be submerged in water to transmit data.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Correct Answer : A
Fiber optics vs. copper cables
Copper wire cables were the traditional choice for telecommunication, networking and cable
connections for years. Over time, however, fiber optics became a common alternative. Most
telephone company long-distance lines are now made of fiber optic cables.
Optical fiber carries more information than conventional copper wire, due to its
higher bandwidth and faster speeds. Because glass does not conduct electricity, fiber
optics is not subject to electromagnetic interference, and signal losses are minimized.
Advantages and disadvantages of fiber optics
Fiber optic cables are used mainly for their advantages over copper cables. Advantages include
the following:
They support higher bandwidth capacities.

Light can travel further without needing as much of a signal boost.
They are less susceptible to interference, such as electromagnetic interference.
They can be submerged in water.
Fiber optic cables are stronger, thinner and lighter than copper wire cables.
They do not need to be maintained or replaced as frequently.
However, it is important to note that fiber optics do have disadvantages users should know
about. These disadvantages include the following:
Copper wire is often cheaper than fiber optics.

Glass fiber requires more protection within an outer cable than copper.
Installing new cabling is labor-intensive.
Fiber optic cables are often more fragile. For example, the fibers can be broken or a signal
can be lost if the cable is bent or curved around a radius of a few centimeters
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Test-3: GS Subject
https://www.techtarget.com/searchnetworking/definition/fiber-optics-optical-fiber
87. Which of the following forest types is naturally found in Tamil Nadu?
1. Tropical wet evergreen
2. Montane wet temperate
3. Littoral and swamp
4. Tropical thorn

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer : D
In Tamil Nadu, Forest vegetation is divided into 3 major groups according to temperature zones
namely Tropical Forests, Montane Subtropical Forests and Montane Temperate Forests, which
are sub divided into nine type groups based on moisture and physiognomic variation. They are
S.No Major Forest Type group

1 Tropical wet evergreen
2 Tropical semi evergreen
3 Tropical moist deciduous
4 Littoral and swamp
5 Tropical dry deciduous
6 Tropical thorn
7 Tropical dry evergreen
8 Sub-Tropical Broad-leaved hill
9 Montane wet temperate
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/video/environment/this-tamil-nadu-man-turned-100-acres-of-ba
rren-land-to-an-indigenous-forest-83160
https://www.forests.tn.gov.in/pages/view/tn-forest-types
88. India’s largest floating 100-MW solar power project is recently operationalised in
A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Ladakh
C. Gujarat
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Test-3: GS Subject
D. Telangana
Correct Answer : D
India’s largest floating 100-MW solar power project is now fully operational in
Telangana
It is powered with advanced technology and environment-friendly features. The project spreads
over 500 acres of its reservoir, with the presence of floating solar panels, the evaporation rate
from water bodies is reduced, thus helping in water conservation.
What are floating solar plants?
Solar plants or solar farms can be either ground-mounted or set up on the surface of
waterbodies. Though these floating farms are a bit more expensive than the traditional ones
mounted on land surfaces, there are advantages as well.
At a time when large tracts of land are unavailable, floating farms do not require land to be
acquired for the installation of photovoltaic panels. They are more efficient as the presence of
water underneath helps them keep cool. They also reduce water evaporation, thereby saving
more water for hydropower generation.
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/telangana-floating-solar-plant-environment-ntpc-exp
lained-8005585/
89. Leading producing state of Wind Energy in India is
A. Gujarat
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B. Tamil Nadu
C. Rajasthan
D. Karnataka
Correct Answer : B
Wind power generation capacity in India has significantly increased in recent years. As of 31
May 2022, the total installed wind power capacity was 40.71 GW, the fourth largest installed
wind power capacity in the world. Wind power capacity is mainly spread across the Southern,
Western and Northern Western regions.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wind_power_in_India
90. Micro-RNA: miR444, sometime seen in the news, is related to
A. Plant Nutrient Absorption

B. Assimilation in Intestine
C. Reproduction in Bacteria
Total Marks : 200
Test-3: GS Subject
Correct Answer : A
The micro-RNA-switch controls a gene that regulates nitrate absorption, root

development, stress tolerance
Researchers led by those from the National Centre of Biological Sciences, Tata Institute of
Fundamental Research, Bengaluru (NCBS-TIFR), have found a new pathway that regulates
nitrate absorption in plants.
The gene MADS27, which regulates nitrate absorption, root development and stress
tolerance, is activated by the micro-RNA, miR444, therefore offers a way to control
these properties of the plant.
The researchers studied this mechanism in both rice (monocot) and tobacco (dicot) plants. The
research is published in Journal of Experimental Botany.
Nitrogen is one of the most important macronutrients needed for the development of a plant. It
is a part of chlorophyll, amino acids and nucleic acids, among others. It is mostly sourced from
the soil where it is mainly absorbed in the form of nitrates and ammonium by the roots. Nitrates
also play a role in controlling genome-wide gene expression that in turn regulates root system
architecture, flowering time, leaf development, etc.
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/new-pathway-to-regulate-nitrate-absorption-in-plant
s/article65590908.ece
Total Marks : 200
Test-3: GS Subject
91. Which of the following particles is/are Elementary Particles?

1. Protons
2. Neutrons
3. Electrons

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Elementary particles are the most fundamental components of matter and cannot be further
subdivided into smaller constituents.
• Elementary particles include quarks (the constituents of protons and neutrons),

leptons (electrons, muons, taus, and neutrinos), gauge bosons (photons, gluons, and
W and Z bosons) and the Higgs boson.
• The fundamental forces that act on elementary particles are the electromagnetic force, the
strong force, the weak force, and gravity.
• Characteristics of elementary particles include mass, spin, and charge.
• To each kind of elementary particle there corresponds an antiparticle, or conjugate particle,

which has the same mass and spin, but has the opposite value of charge and⁄or flavor quantum
number.
• The standard model of particle physics classifies and describes the behavior of all known
elementary particles.
https://www.accessscience.com/media/EST/media/227700PV0002.pdf
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/10-years-of-higgs-boson-how-the-particle-could-unlo
ck-new-physics-beyond-the-standard-model/article65592066.ece
Total Marks : 200
Test-3: GS Subject
92. Consider the following statements regarding Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
1. MRI uses a strong magnetic field and X-rays to create detailed images of the organs and tissues
within the body.
2. MRI scans require minimum four hours to analyze any part of the body.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : D
MRI uses a strong magnetic field and radio waves to create detailed images of the
organs and tissues within the body.
An MRI scanner is a large tube that contains powerful magnets.
An MRI scan can be used to examine almost any part of the body, including the:
brain and spinal cord

bones and joints
Total Marks : 200
Test-3: GS Subject
breasts
heart and blood vessels
internal organs, such as the liver, womb or prostate gland
How does an MRI scan work?
Most of the human body is made up of water molecules, which consist of hydrogen and
oxygen atoms.
At the centre of each hydrogen atom is an even smaller particle called a proton. Protons
are like tiny magnets and are very sensitive to magnetic fields.
When you lie under the powerful scanner magnets, the protons in your body line up in the
same direction, in the same way that a magnet can pull the needle of a compass.
Short bursts of radio waves are then sent to certain areas of the body, knocking the
protons out of alignment.
When the radio waves are turned off, the protons realign. This sends out radio signals,
which are picked up by receivers.
These signals provide information about the exact location of the protons in the body.
They also help to distinguish between the various types of tissue in the body, because the
protons in different types of tissue realign at different speeds and produce distinct signals.
MRI scans require 20 minutes to one hour to analyze any part of the body.
In the same way that millions of pixels on a computer screen can create complex pictures, the
signals from the millions of protons in the body are combined to create a detailed image of the
inside of the body.
Hence, both statement 1 and 2 are incorrect.
https://www.nhs.uk/conditions/mri-scan/
https://www.medicalnewstoday.com/articles/146309#preparation
https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Hyderabad/long-wait-for-mri-scan-at-telanganas-gandhi-h
ospital-ends/article65447297.ece
93. Consider the following statements regarding Corals in India

1. There are about 500 species of hard corals found in India
2. Almost 90% of them are found in the waters surrounding Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Total Marks : 200
Test-3: GS Subject
Correct Answer : C
Scientists have recorded four species of azooxanthellate corals for the first time from Indian
waters. These new corals were found from the waters of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
Azooxanthellate corals are a group of corals that do not contain zooxanthellae and derive
nourishment not from the sun but from capturing different forms of plankton. These groups of
corals are deep-sea representatives, with the majority of species reporting from between 200 m
to 1000 m. Their occurrences are also reported from shallow coastal waters.
There are about 570 species of hard corals found in India and almost 90% of them
are found in the waters surrounding Andaman and Nicobar Islands. The pristine and
oldest ecosystem of corals share less than 1% of the earth’s surface but they provide
a home to nearly 25% of marine life.
Four species of azooxanthellate corals were recorded for the first time from the waters of the
Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/four-new-corals-recorded-from-indian-waters/article
65553530.ece
94. The world’s largest recorded freshwater fish, a giant stingray, has been caught in
A. Amazon River
B. Mekong River
C. Yangtze River
Correct Answer : B
The world’s largest recorded freshwater fish, a giant stingray, has been caught in
the Mekong River in Cambodia, according to scientists from the Southeast Asian
nation and the United States. Hence, option (b) is correct.
The stingray, captured on June 13, measured almost four meters (13 feet) from snout to tail and
weighed slightly under 300 kilograms (660 pounds), according to a statement on Monday by
Wonders of the Mekong, a joint Cambodian-U.S. research project.
The previous record for a freshwater fish was a 293-kilogram (646-pound) Mekong giant catfish,
discovered in Thailand in 2005, the group said.
Total Marks : 200
Test-3: GS Subject
The stingray was snagged by a local fisherman south of Stung Treng in northeastern Cambodia.
The fisherman alerted a nearby team of scientists from the Wonders of the Mekong project,
which has publicised its conservation work in communities along the river.
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/worlds-largest-freshwater-fish-found-in-cambodia/art
icle65546964.ece
95. Consider the following statements regarding Belle-II Experiment

1. Belle-II experiment is designed to study violations of the Standard Model and dark matter.
2. Belle-II will indirectly probe new physics using intense electron-positron beams and a sensitive
detector.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Total Marks : 200
Test-3: GS Subject
Belle II is an upgraded detector to allow the experiment to record the enormous numbers of
particle processes that are produced by the Super KEKB accelerator.
This experiment is designed to study violations of the Standard Model and dark
matter.
The Belle II experiment will accumulate 50 times more data than the previous
experiment, Belle, and pursue violations of the symmetry between particles and anti-
particles as well as new laws of physics. It is a grand collaboration of 700 scientists from
23 countries.
Complementary to the direct search experiments being carried out at the Large Hadron
Collider in CERN, Belle-II will indirectly probe new physics using intense electron-
positron beams and a sensitive detector.
96. Kurinji, Mullai, Marutham, Neithal and Paalai, sometime seen in the news, is related
to
A. Ancient ports of Coromandel Coast

B. Ayurvedic herbs found in Western Ghats
C. Mountain ranges located in Western Ghats
Correct Answer : D
The rich cultural history of the Tamils will be featured in a project relating to the new Parliament
being constructed by the Union government in New Delhi.
Soil samples from five ecological regions mentioned in ancient Tamil Sangam
literature — Kurinji, Mullai, Marutham, Neithal and Paalai — have been collected and
sent to the capital recently.
Total Marks : 200
Test-3: GS Subject
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/tn-sends-soil-samples-for-project-relating-t
o-new-parliament-building/article65599930.ece
97. Madhya Pradesh is bounded by which of the following states?

1. Bihar
2. Jharkhand
3. Haryana
4. Rajasthan
5. Gujarat

A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 2, 4 and 5 only
C. 4 and 5 only
D. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
Correct Answer : C
Total Marks : 200
Test-3: GS Subject
98. Consider the following pairs

Habitat Located in
1. Banni Grasslands Rajasthan
2. Selbalgre Hoolock Gibbon Reserve Tripura
3. Ramgarh- Vishdhari Gujarat
4. Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuary Kerala
How many pairs given above is/are matched correctly?

A. Only one pair
Total Marks : 200
Test-3: GS Subject
B. Only two pairs

C. Only three pairs
D. None of the pairs
Correct Answer : A
Banni Grasslands Reserve or Banni grasslands form a belt of arid grassland ecosystem on
the outer southern edge of the desert of the marshy salt flats of Rann of Kutch in Kutch
District, Gujarat State, India. They are known for rich wildlife and biodiversity and are
spread across an area of 3,847 square kilometres.
Selbagre Hoolock Gibbon Reserve, a small area protected by the community is home to the
Hoolock Gibbons, the only ape species found in India. The sacred grove in the reserve is the
pride of the village and the community. The Garos never kill or hunt the Hoolock Gibbon
as it is a traditional belief among them that if a Hoolock Gibbon is killed, a famine or a curse
would befall the entire village.
Ramgarh Vishdhari Wildlife Sanctuary (Rajasthan) acts like a buffer for Ranthambore
National Park, one of the most famous wildlife sanctuaries in India. It is located almost 45
kilometers on Bundi-Nainwa Road and covers an area of 252 square kilometers approx. It is rich
in biodiversity & is home to various kinds of wild animals.
Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuary is a protected area in the Western Ghats, India, located in
Kollam district of Kerala and comes under the control of Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve. It
was established on 25 August 1984 and comprises 172.403 square kilometres.
99. Which of the following are east flowing rivers of India?

1. Penner
2. Palar
3. Periyar
4. Kalinadi
Select the correct answer using the code given below

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 4 only
Correct Answer : A
Total Marks : 200
Test-3: GS Subject
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_rivers_of_Kerala
100. Consider the following statements regarding Industrial Revolutions

1. The First Industrial Revolution: The revolution was about emergence of railways and Steel
industry.
2. The Third Industrial Revolution: Electric engine, Heavy chemicals, automobiles and consumer
durables made their presence felt during this period.
3. The Fourth Industrial Revolution: The digital revolution.

A. 1 only
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : D
The main Features of these industrial revolutions are as follows:
1. The First Industrial Revolution: 1760 – 1840. It was a period which witnessed
84
Total Marks : 200
Test-3: GS Subject
the emergence of steam engine, textile industry and mechanical engineering.

Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
2. The Second Industrial Revolution: 1870 – 1914. The revolution was about emergence of
railways and Steel industry.
3. The Third Industrial Revolution: 1969 – 2000. Electric engine, Heavy chemicals,
automobiles and consumer durables made their presence felt during this period.
4. The Fourth Industrial Revolution: The digital revolution, since 2000 or a few decades prior.
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volution/article65592778.ece
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Total Marks : 200

1. Arrange the following historical events as per chronology

Correct chronological order of historical events is as follows:-

1613 : A permanent factory of East India Company is established at Surat

1759 :Battle of Bidara :-The English defeated the Dutch.

Which of the statement mentioned above is /are correct ?

Portuguese Rule in India :-

Factors for Decline of the Portuguese in India

3. Which of the following colonial power established their principal settlement at

Analysis:- The Danes

A. Joseph Francis Dupleix

Analysis:- Joseph Francis Dupleix

Analysis :- Muhammad Shah

Muhammad Shah ruled during period 1719–48 .

A. Murshid Kuki khan

Analysis :- ‘Black Hole Tragedy’

7. Consider the following statements regarding the result of Battle of Plassey.

Which of the above statements is / are correct ?

Analysis :- Battle of Plassey 1757

Significance of Battle of Plassey :-

8. Consider the following statements regarding the treaty of Allahabad 1765.

Which of the above statements is /are true ?

Analysis :- The Treaty of Allahabad 1765

Charles Cornwallis (1738-1805),

Which of the above statement is / are not correct ?

Analysis :-Dual government of Bengal

right to nominate the deputy subahdar. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Which of the statement is/ are correct ?

Analysis:- Haider Ali.

12. Consider the following statements regarding colonial history of India.

Which of the above statements is / are incorrect ?

Analysis :- Mysore After Tipu

Mysore after Tipu .

● In 1831, William Bentinck took control of Mysore on grounds of misgovernance.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Analysis :- The Policy of Ring-Fence

Which of the above statement is / are correct ?

Analysis :- subsidiary alliance in India

It was introduced by Lord Wellesley .

Following were the key features of subsidiary alliance system

Which of the above statement is / are true ?

Analysis :-Doctrine of Lapse

16. Consider the following statements regarding Anglo - Nepalese relations

Which of the above statement is/ are incorrect ?

Analysis :- Anglo-Nepalese Relations

Company’s boundary together.

This agreement brought many advantages to the British:

1. the British empire now reached the Himalayas;

Which of the above statement is / are correct ?

Analysis :- Second Burma War (1852)

18. Consider following pairs

Which of the above pairs is / are correct ?

A. Only one pair is correct

C. All pairs are correct

2.John Lawrence (1864–69) started a policy of masterly inactivity,

3. Lytton, a nominee of the Conservative government under Benjamin Disraeli (1874–80),

Which of the above statement is/ are correct ?

Analysis :- Treaty of Salbai (1782)