NDA MOCK TEST (GAT) - 2

No of Questions: 150 Time:2 ½Hours

PART – A

SYNONYMS

Directions: Each of item in this section consists of a sentence with an underline word/words followed by four
words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underline word/words and mark your response in your
answer sheet accordingly.

1. He kept his eyes peeled and his ears pricked for c) experimenters
some important clue. d) those who inflict capital punishment
a) hint b) inkling 6. Please do not interfere with my work.
c) intimation d) signal a) meddle b) help
2. His forthright behaviour shows that he is honest c) object d) copy
but he seems rude to some people. 7. It needs an expert to decipher the secret message
a) courteous b) straightforward sent to the Army Officers during war
c) tactful d) correct time.
3. The old man manifested his greed at the sight of a) swindle b) decode
a huge amount of money. c) make up d) defy
a) displayed b) concealed 8. she is not seen even smiling these days, she is
c) suppressed d) marked rather pensive.
4. I can no longer be satisfied with fictitious good a) sad b) thoughtful
conduct. c) gloomy d) black
a) based on facts 9. Being a sociable bird she was conspicuous by her
b) based on imagination absence in the club last evening.
c) based on works of fiction a) important b) prominent
d) based on feudal ties c) ignorant d) apparent
5. The two executioners approached the tree 10. The communal politics has done imponderable
with a red-mark on its side. loss to the unity in India.
a) executive engineers a) incalculable b) invaluable
b) explorers c) irreparable d) invulnerable

ANTONYMS

Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select
the option that is opposite in the meaning to the underline word/words and mark your response in answer sheet accordingly.

11. I was upset by his hostile attitude. 13. It was a baseless rumour that triggered riots
a) friendly b) positive and arson at an unprecedented scale throughout
c) negative d) inimical the country.
12. Everybody called it a lavish party. a) choked b) tapered off
a) big b) wasteful c) diluted d) ignited
c) frugal d) expensive 14. The fallen trees blocked our passage to
freedom from the wood.
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a) facilitated b) started c) reject d) accept

c) checked d) promoted 18. They approached the stranger warily.
15. Kapil's bowling yesterday proved very costly. a) suspiciously b) cautiously
a) economical b) frugal c) carefully d) carelessly
19. She was Overstrung before the performance.
c) thrifty d) expensive
a) excited b) calm
16. I am still dubious about that plan.
c) enthusiastic d) cheerful
a) certain b) doubtful
20. There are no permanent adversaries in politics.
c) docile d) faithful a) associates b) allies
17. He will never turn down your request. c) collaborators d) partners
a) turn up b) turn over

SPOTTING ERRORS

Direction : each item in this section has a sentence has three underline parts labelled (a) , (b) and (c). Read each sentence
to find out whether there is any error in any part and indicate your response in the Answer sheet against the corresponding
letter. i.e. (a) or (b) or (c) If you find no error, your response should be indicate as (d)

21. One of the questions (a)/ he asked me was (b)/ b) in the self-financing colleges
"Who did you travel with (c) ?" /No error (d) c) attract many students
a) One of the questions d) No error
b) he asked me was 24. It is better (a)/to keep one s head in the face of
c) "Who did you travel with danger than(b)/losing one s courage (c) /No error
d) No error (d)
22. I know (a)/a doctor (b)/you are referring to a) It is better
(c)/No error (d) b) to keep one s head in the face of danger than
a) I know c) losing one s courage
b) a doctor d) No error
c) you are referring to 25. The short story (a)/should not exceed (b)/more
d) No error than two hundred words (c)/No error (d)
23. The introduction of job-oriented courses (a)/in a) The short story
the self-financing colleges (b)/ attract many b) should not exceed
students (c)/ No error (d) c) more than two hundred words
a) The introduction of job-oriented courses d) No error

COMPREHENSION

DIRECTIONS : In this section you have few short passage . After each passage you will find item based on the
passage. First, read a passage and answer the item based on it. You are required to select answer based on the
contents of the passage and opinion of the author only.

Child psychology is certainly not a strong point pursuits distorted to prize acquisition capitalist
with most Indian schools why else would they fascist communist enfoldment Compassion
inflict a double trauma on a student forming badly integrity secondary Education (CBSE) has stepped
in the pre-boards by banning her from taking the in and put the brakes on this discriminatory
board exams. Often with fatal results as evidenced practice ruling that no student can be barred from
by reports of student suicides in the rural-up to the Boards without prior clearance from the CBSE.
the boards. Now the Central Board of Second This is good news for parents and students many

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of whom have had to live with the threat of c) Teacher s lack of knowledge of child
performance-linked department. While the psychology.
school s logic is that in order to attract talented d) Attracting talented students
students, they need to maintain their 30. According to the passage parents had to live with
performance records at high levels. Chances are the threat of
that a student faring poorly at the pre-boards will a) falling grades of their wards.
replicate this at the boards is faulty. Chances are b) not getting their wards admitted in the
that the student will be spurred to work doubly quality schools.
hard. On the other hand, the threat of debarment c) schools not treating their wards with the
will almost certainly impact adversely on his/her attitude of counsellor.
performance. Of course, linking pre-boards to the d) linking performance of their wards in pre-
boards is only one of the problems with our school boards to the debarment
system.
26. Which is the good news for parents according to All of us have enormous capabilities. In many of us
the passage? however our achievements fail to correlate with
a) School will take the responsibility of our potential because of lack of self-discipline-the
preparing students for the board. effort needed to channel our energy for
b) School will provide study facilities to the poor productive uses. To maximise your effectiveness
student. you must "learn to put your nose to the
c) Schools will enforce discipline to ensure grindstone work against boredom and learn to
higher attendance of students. take the long hard way in life rather than the short
d) No students can be barred from the Boards easy way”. Here are a few suggestions that focus
without prior clearance from the CBSE. on "How to do what you want to do." Take risks.
27. What is the ruling of the CBSE ? It is important to realise that nothing in life is
a) Students must pass the pre-board exam achieved unless you risk something. That s how
before appearing for the Board exam. self-confidence develops. Every chance you take
b) Schools should follow the practice of offers you valuable spinoffs in terms of learning.
performance linked debarment. Earn a reward. Sometime back I had to face the
c) Schools should maintain the performance rather unenviable task of preparing for two
record of students at high level. examinations simultaneously. I had to be ruthless
d) Schools must motivate students to work in driving myself from one goal to another.
hard. Hardnosed attitude saw me sail through the
28. What is the faulty assumption of schools courses. I rewarded myself at the end of it
according to the passage? indulging in my favourite pastime and taking a
a) Students who do not do well at pre-boards short holiday.
will be motivated to work hard. 31. Why do our achievements fail to correlate with
b) Pre-boards are generally easy and therefore our potential?
students take them lightly a) Because of lack of intelligence.
c) Students who fare poorly at the pre-board b) Because of lack of discipline.
will fail at the boards. c) Because of lack of external help.
d) Learning by note is a better method of d) Because of lack of self-discipline.
learning. 32. How does one s self-confidence develop?
29. Which of the following according to the passage a) By taking risks.
is the problem with our school system ? b) By always meeting with success.
a) Providing study facilities to the students. c) By being cautious.
b) Linking pre-board performance of students d) By being garrulous.
to the boards. 33. What does every chance in our life teach us?

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a) It helps us to become philosophical. d) By thanking God.

b) It helps us to become idealistic. 35. What does the author try to convey?
c) It helps us to learn a) One has to be complacent about his present
d) It shows us our limitation. self.
34. How does the author reward him after his b) One has to work hard and learn at least from
success? failures.
a) By taking a short holiday. c) Only inborn genius brings success in life.
b) By doing more work. d) One has to believe in luck.
c) By visiting friends.

FILL IN THE BLANK

Direction : Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words
given after the sentences. Select he word or group of words consider most appropriate for the blank space and
indicate your response on the Answer sheet accordingly.

36. Last year our company made a ________ of a) suffering b) experiencing

several lakhs of rupees c) complaining d) afflicting
a) profit b) gain 39. A good teacher should ________ responses from
c) rise d) raise the students
37. The food that an average Indian eats have been a) elicit b) provoke
found to be deficient ________ vitamins and c) command d) infer
proteins 40. Had he taken his degree five years ago he
a) of b) from ________ got a promotion by now
c) with d) in a) might b) would have
38. The patient is ________ of stomach ache c) will be d) was

IDOM / PHRASE

DIRECTIONS : Given below are some idioms/phrase followed by four alternative meaning to each. Choose the response (a) ,
(b) ,(c),or (d) which is the most appropriate expression.

41. Hobson’s choice : b) To spend a lot of money on the unkeep of

a) Feeling of insecurity domestic hogs
b) Accept or leave the other c) To waste monkey over trifles
c) Feeling of strength d) To offer to a person a thing which he cannot
d) Excellent choice appreciate
42. To take the bull by the horns : 44. To take people by storm :
a) To punish a person severly for his arrogance a) To put people in utter surprise
b) To grapple courageously with difficulty that b) To captivate them unexpectedly
lies in our way c) To exploit people’s agitation
c) To handle it by fierce attack d) To bring out something sensational attracting
d) To bypass the legal process and take action people’s attention
according to one’s own whims 45. To read between the lines :
43. To cast pearls before a swine : a) To concentrate
a) To spend recklessly b) To read carefully
c) To suspect

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d) To grasp the hidden meaning

REORDERING STATEMENT:

Direction : In this section each item consists of six sentences of passage. The first and sixth sentence are given in
the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q , R and S.
you are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly the
answer sheet.

46. S1: Gopal worked as a labourer at the building P: When I came sufficiently near, he moved
site. back and the barrier was lifted.
S6: He unscrewed the lid and found a valuable Q: I slowed down and found a man coming
collection of old silver in it. forward with pencil and book in hand.
P: But Gopal made a bid and he got the box. R: I told uncle that the man had taken down the
Q: There was no key to it and it seemed useless number of the car, adding that it was a
but Gopal took it home. routine practice.
R: Once while returning from his work Gopal S: As I approached it, I saw the barrier coming
stopped at an auction sale. down slowly.
S: No one seemed to want a rough old box Which one of the following is the correct
when it was put up for sale. Which one of the sequence?
following is the correct sequence? a) RQPS b) QRPS
a) SPRQ b) SRPQ c) SQPR d) RSPQ
c) RSPQ d) RPQS 49. S1: My journey was to last for thirty-six hours.
47. S1: The ancestors of whales, it is said, lived on S6: In the steel trunk under the seat, there was a
land, for they still have slight traces of hind- bag containing two hundred rupees that did
legs. not belong to me.
S6: He has flippers on his sides to keep him P: Every mile of the country through which the
balanced and layers of fat or oil under the train was running, was interesting.
skin which furnish heat and make the huge Q: Yet I was not happy. R : I had the carriage for
body light and buoyant. myself.
P: But ages ago, whales changed their home— S: The train would stop for breakfast, lunch and
moving from the land to the sea. dinner.
Q: He is shaped like a submarine boat, with a tail Which one of the following is the correct
turned into a power paddle. sequence?
R: The whale is suited to live in water. a) RSPQ b) SQPR
S: They are warm-blooded animals and feed c) PQSR d) RPQS
their babies as land mammals do. 50. S1: The life of early men had advantages and
Which one of the following is the correct disadvantages.
sequence? S6: On the whole, there was friendship and amity
a) PRSQ b) SPRQ within the tribes.
c) RQPS d) QPRS P: Then, they had enough physical exercise
48. S1: There was a check-post for passing vehicles which made them healthy and active.
at a village called Gobindapur, a short Q: They could roam for months without fear of
distance from where the road to Dhanbad meeting a stranger.
branched off from the Grand Trunk Road. R: One of the advantages was that they were
S6: He asked me more than once if I was sure not overcrowded.
that the man had noted the number down.

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S: They lived in small tribes where everybody sequence?

knew everybody else. a) QSRP b) RQPS
Which one of the following is the correct c) SPRQ d) PRQS

PART – B

1. Consider the following statements: An external d) the table on the earth

pressure p0 is applied to the surface of a liquid in 6. When a moving bus suddenly applies brakes, the
a container. Then, passengers sitting in it fall in the forward
1. the pressure on all side-wells increases by p0 direction. This can be explained by
2. the pressure on the bottom wall increases by a) the theory of relativity
p0. b) Newton’s first law
3. The pressure at all points inside the liquid c) Newton’s second law
increases by p0 . d) Newton’s third law
Which of the statements given above is/are 7. A body attached to a spring balance weighs 10 kg
correct? on the Earth. The body attached to the same
a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 and 2 only spring balance is taken to a planet where gravity
c) 1 and 3 only d) 2 and 3 only is half that of the Earth. The balance will read
2. A liquid rises to a certain length in a capillary a) 20 kg b) 10 kg
tube. The tube is inclined to an angle of 45°. The c) 5 kg d) 2.5 kg
length of the liquid column will 8. If an object undergoes a uniform circular motion,
a) increase then its
b) decrease a) acceleration remains uniform
c) remain unchanged b) velocity changes
d) first decrease and then increase c) speed changes
3. A mass m1 is moving on a plane surface along a d) velocity remains uniform
straight path under the action of a force F. 9. Why do two ice blocks join to form one block
Another mass m2 is added on to m1 and the when pressed together?
acceleration drops to 1/5 of the earlier value of a) Melting point of ice is lowered with increase
the acceleration. Assuming that F remains in pressure
constant, what is the ratio m1 : m2 ? b) Melting point of ice increases with increase in
(a) 1/6 pressure
(b) 1/5 c) Melting point of ice remains unchanged with
(c) ¼ increase in pressure
(d) 4/5 d) Melting point of ice is 0°C
4. A rubber ball dropped from 24 m height loses its 10. In a pressure cooker, cooking is faster because
kinetic energy by 25%. What is the height to the increases in vapour pressure
which it rebounds? a) increases the specific heat
a) 6 m b) 12 m b) decreases the specific heat
c) 18 m d) 24 m c) decreases the boiling point
5. A book is kept on the surface of a table. If the d) increases the boiling point
gravitational pull of the earth on the book is the 11. The turntable of a gramophone is rotated at a
force of action, then the force of reaction is constant speed of x revolutions/minute. Which
exerted by one of the following values of the revolutions per
a) the book on the table minute is not used?
b) the book on the earth a) 78 r.p.m. b) 56 r.p.m.
c) the table on the book c) 45 r.p.m. d) 33 r.p.m
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12. Microwave oven consumes less power due to 17. Which one of the following statements is
a) small frequency of radiation correct? The space surrounding a charge in
b) short wavelength of radiation uniform motion has
c) large frequency as well as wavelength of a) only an electric field
radiation b) only a magnetic field
d) small frequency as well as wavelength of c) both electric and magnetic fields
radiation d) neither an electric field nor a magnetic field
13. Consider the following statements: 18. Which one of the following is correct? One unit
1. The focal length of the objective of a of electric power is consumed when
microscope is less than the focal length of the a) 1 A of current flows for 1 sec at 220 V
eyepiece. b) 1 A of current flows for 1 sec at 10 V
2. The minimum distance between an object c) 100 A of current flows for 1 sec at 10 V
and its real image formed by a convex lens of d) 10 A of current flows for 1 hour at 100 V
focal length f is equal to 4 f. 19. Non-conductors, whose polarization is caused by
a) 1 only b) 2 only an electric field, are known as
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 a) Semi-conductors
14. The ratio of the focal length of the objective to b) Super-conductors
the focal length of the eyepiece is greater than c) Dielectrics
one for d) Resistive conductors
a) a microscope 20. If a heater coil is cut into two equal parts and
b) a telescope only one part is used in the heater, the heat
c) both microscope and telescope generated will be
d) neither microscope nor telescope a) doubled b) four times
15. Which one of the following four glass lenses is a c) one-fourth d) halved
diverging lens? 21. A hollow metal ball carrying an electric charge
produces no electric field at points
a) outside the sphere
a) b) b) on its surface
c) inside the sphere
d) only at the centre
22. Two metallic wires A and B are of same material
c) d) and have equal length. If the cross-sectional area
of B is double that of A, then which one among
the following is the electrical resistance of B?
a) Twice that of A b) 4 times that of A
16. Yellow colour light is used as fog light because c) 1/4 that of A d) 1/2 that of A
yellow colour 23. This question consist of two statements, one
a) light is most scattered by fog labelled as the Assertion (A) and the other as
b) has the longest wavelength among all colours 'Reason (R), You are to examine these two
c) has the longest wavelength among all colours statements carefully and select the answers to
except red and orange but the red colour is these items using the codes given below:
already used for brake light and stop light Assertion(A): If the filament of a light bulb is not
whereas orange colour is avoided due to its uniform horizontal its life is shortened.
similarity with red Reason(R): Resistance of glowing light bulb is less
d) has the shortest wavelength among all than that of bulb at room temperature.
colours not already reserved for other a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the
purpose correct explanation of A

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b) Both A and R are individually true but R is black cupric oxide on heating is a physical change.
NOT the correct explanation of A Statement II: A change in which chemical
c) A is true but R is false composition does not change is called physical
d) A is false but R is true change.
24. Which one of the following is the unit of activity a) Both the statements individually true and
of a radioactive source? Statement II is the correct explanation of
a) Lux b) Becquerel Statement I.
c) Tesla d) Siemens b) Both the statements are individually true but
25. This question consist of two statements, one Statement II is not correct explanation of
labelled as the Assertion (A) and the other as Statement I.
'Reason (R), You are to examine these two c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
statements carefully and select the answers to d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
these items using the codes given below: 30. A student by chance mixed acetone with alcohol.
Assertion (A): Radio does not work in a moving This mixture of acetone and alcohol can be
train unless aerial is put outside the window. separated by
Reason (R): The train compartment acts as a a) filtration
hollow cylinder and charge is centred which does b) separating funnel
not allow radio to work. c) fractional crystallization
a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the d) fractional distillation
correct explanation of A 31. Which of the following is not a nitrogenous
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is fertilizer?
NOT the correct explanation of A a) Ca(CN)2 b) CaCN2
c) A is true but R is false c) NH4NO3 d) Urea
d) A is false but R is true 32. Which of the following represent a chemical
26. What is the weight of one atom of Hydrogen in change?
grams? 1. Magnetization of iron
a) 6.023 × 10-23 b) 1.66 × 10-24 2. Condensation of liquid
c) 6.62 × 10-24 d) None of these 3. Burning of fuel
27. In which one of the following situations a 4. Rusting of iron
chemical reaction does not occur? Select the correct answer using the code given
a) Common salt is exposed to air below:
b) Coal is burnt in air a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3
c) Sodium is placed in water c) 3 and 4 d) 1 and 4
d) Iron is kept in moist air 33. The metal constituent of chlorophyll is
28. Which one among the following most correctly a) Iron b) Potassium
determines the atomic number of an element? c) Manganese d) Magnesium
a) Number of protons 34. A glass of water does not turn into ice as it
b) Number of protons and electrons reaches 0 °C. It is because
c) Number of ions a) water does not solidify at 0°C
d) Number of nucleons b) a certain amount of heat must be supplied to
29. This question consists of two statements, the glass of water so as to solidify
Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine c) a certain amount of heat must be taken out
these two statements carefully and select the from the glass of water so as to solidify
answer to these items using the codes given d) water solidifies at 0K only
below. 35. Which one of the following acids is used for
Statement I: Conversion of blue copper sulphate etching glass?
to a) H2SO4 b) HNO3

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c) HF d) HCl b) Some cells have changing shapes

36. Which substance is used to retard the setting c) Each cell has its own capacity to perform
action of cement? d) Same type of cells are present in all body
a) CaO b) Al2O3 tissues
c) CaSO4, 2H2O d) Na2O + K2O 44. Which of the following statements about sexual
37. Which of the statements about glass are reproduction in flowering plants are correct?
correct? 1. Stamen is present in the centre of a flower.
1. glass is a super-cooled liquid having infinite 2. Stamen produces pollen grains in the ovary.
viscosity. 3. The swollen bottom part of carpel is the
2. violet coloured glass is obtained by adding ovary.
MnO2. 4. The fusion of germ cells gives rise to zygote.
3. glass is a man-made silicate. Select the correct answer using the
4. glass is a crystalline substance. code given below.
Select the correct answer using the codes given a) 2, 3 and 4 only b) 2 and 4 only
below. c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
a) 1, 2 and 4 b) 2, 3 and 4 45. Which one of the following statements is
c) 1, 2 and 3 d) 1 and 3 correct? Cretinism is a human disorder which is
38. Which one of the following is the correct order of due to the under secretion of:
oxidation number of Iodine(I) in I2 , HI, HIO4 and a) Adrenalin hormone
ICI? b) Cortisone hormone
a) HIO4 < HI < ICI < I2 c) Glucagon hormone
b) HI < I2 < ICI < HIO4 d) Thyroxin hormone
c) I2 < ICI< HIO4 < HI 46. In human body which one among the following is
d) ICI < HIO4 < HI < I2 the largest in size?
39. In KMnO4 molecule, the oxidation states of the a) Thyroid b) Liver
elements Potassium (K), Manganese (Mn) and c) Pancreas d) Spleen
Oxygen (O) are respectively 47. Which one of the following glands in human
a) +1, +5, – 2 b) +1, +7, – 2 body is enlarge due to goiter?
c) 0, 0, 0 d) +1, +7, 0 a) Adrenal cortex b) Adrenal medulla
40. Let us assume that air density(0.0013g/ cm3 ) c) Pituitary d) Thyroid
remains constant as we go up in the atmosphere. 48. The wounds of face bleed profusely because
In such a hypothetical case, what is the a) of its rich vascularity
approximate height of atmosphere to have 1 b) it is close to the heart
atmospheric pressure? c) its skin is soft
a) 4 km b) 8 km d) of fast contraction of facial muscle
c) 40 km d) 80 km. 49. Food wrapped in newspaper is likely to get
41. In plants, which one of the following tissues is contaminated with
dead? a) lead b) aluminium
a) Parenchyma b) Collenchyma c) iron d) magnesium
c) Sclerenchyma d) Phloem 50. Carbohydrates are stored in plants and animals
42. The natural dye present in turmeric is known as in the form of
a) Cinnamin b) Phenolphthalein a) cellulose and glucose respectively
c) Methyl orange d) Curcumin b) starch and glycogen respectively
43. Which one among the following statements c) starch and glucose respectively
regarding cell is not correct? d) cellulose and glycogen respectively
a) Shape and size of cells are related to specific 50. Which of the following statements is/are
function correct?

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1. Ligaments are highly flexible. a) Indian Councils Act, 1861

2. Ligaments connect muscles and bones. b) Indian Councils Act, 1892
3. Ligaments contain very little matrix. Select c) Indian Councils Act, 1909
the correct answer using the code given d) Government of India Act, 1935
below: 56. Who among the following was a founder of the
Code: Swaraj Party?
a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 and 3 only a) Vallabbhai Patel b) Rajendra Prasad
c) 2 and 3 only d) 1 only c) C. R. Das d) Narendra Dev
51. Which one among the following statements 57. Who was the first Foreign Minister of free India?
about a healthy diet is correct? a) Jawaharlal Nehru
a) Regular eating of high-energy snacks b) Gulzari Lal Nanda
between meals is healthy since it provides c) Lal Bahadur Shastri
energy and vitamins in plenty. d) John Mathai
b) Fruits and vegetables make a good choice 58. Consider the following statements with
because their energy content is high. regard to Champaran Satyagraha
c) A balanced diet must contain plenty of fat 1. The Champaran Satyagraha marked
and protein with little carbohydrates and Mahatma Gandhi’s first appearance in Indian
fibre. politics as a leader of the masses.
d) An optimal quantity of fat, protein 2. Young nationalists like Rajendra Prasad and J.
carbohydrate with adequate amount of B. Kriplani and worked with Mahatma Gandhi
water and fibre makes a healthy diet. at Champaran.
52. Among the following who was the earliest 3. It was during this movement that Mahatma
visitor to India? Gandhi formulated his philosophy of
a) Alberuni b) Fa-Hien Satyagraha.
c) Hiuen-Tsang d) Megasthanes Which of the statements given above is/are
53. Which one among the following statements is correct?
not correct? a) 3 only b) 1 and 2
a) Gandhara School of Arts owed its origin to c) 2 and 3 d) 1 and 3
the IndoGreek rulers but the real patrons of 59. Consider the following statements relating to
the school were the Kushans, especially Jawaharlal Nehru's attitude towards science and
Kanishka technology.
b) Rich carving, elaborate ornamentations and I. Nehru was convinced that science and
complex symbolism were not the main technology were crucial to the solution of
features of the Gandhara sculpture India's problems relating to
c) The Graeco-Roman architectural impact underdevelopment and poverty
modified the structure of the Buddhist II. To emphasize the importance of science and
Stupas scientific research, Nehru himself became
d) The artists of the Amravati School of Arts the Chairman of the Council of Scientific and
mainly used white marble Industrial Research
54. Who among the following Sultans of Delhi was Which of the statements given above is/are
the first to have paid to his soldiers in cash? correct?
a) Iltutmish a) I only b) II only
b) Alauddin Khalji c) Both I and II d) Neither I nor II
c) Muhammad bin Tughlaq 60. Which among the following statements with
d) Feroz Tughlaq regard to Raja Rammohan Roy are correct?
55. Which one of the following Acts introduced I. He started the Atmiya Sabha
communal electorate in India? II. He wrote the Gift of Monotheist

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III. He published the Precepts of Jesus d) Calvin Coolidg

IV. He founded the Brahmo Sabha Select the 65. Which among the following is/are the
correct answer using the code given below impact/ impacts of industrial revolution in
a) II, III and IV only b) I, II, and III only England?
c) I, III and IV only d) I, II, III and IV 1. Cottage industry was replaced by the factory
61. Which one among the following was the major system of production using machines.
demand of the Bardauli Satyagraha organised 2. It led to the overpopulation of villages.
under the leadership of Sardar Vallabh Bhai 3. It led to the emergence of working class
Patel? movements. Select the correct answer using
a) Land to the Tiller the code given below:
b) Increase in the rates of labour wage a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 and 3 only
c) Rollback of newly enhanced revenue rate c) 1 only d) 2 and 3 only
d) Supply of agricultural inputs to the farmers at 66. Consider the following statements:
subsidised rate 1. The Labrador current is a cold current in the
62. Which one among the following statements North Atlantic Ocean.
relating to the Home Rule movement is not 2. The Falkland current is a warm current that
correct? flows along the Chile coast of South Pacific
a) The movement, instead of going forward Ocean.
after its great advance in 1917, gradually Which of the statements given above is/are
declined in 1918 correct?
b) Annie Besant, the leader of the movement a) Only 1 b) Only 2
did not oppose the entry of Extremists c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
c) The movement became weaker and weaker 67. Mount Merapi is located on which one of the
because of the continuous differences of islands?
opinion a) Java b) Sumatra
among the nationalist leaders c) Borneo d) Celebes
d) The movement was again revived by 68. Which one of the following is produced by rain
Mahatma Gandhi water action?
63. Consider the following statement No Indian a) Gorge b) Cliff
could have started the Indian National congress.. c) Gully d) Dome
If the founder of the congress had not been a 69. Detroit is famous for which one of the following
great Englishman and a distinguished ex-official, industries?
such was the distrust of political agitation in a) Textile b) Food Processing
those days that the authority would have at once c) Automobiles d) Locomotive
found some way or the other to suppress the 70. Which one of the following is the correct order in
movement. Who among the following gave the which the gases from the atmosphere disappear
statement on the establishment of Indian as one moves away from the surface of the
National Congress? earth?
a) W. Wedderburn a) Carbon dioxide–Oxygen–Nitrogen
b) G.K Gokhale b) Oxygen–Nitrogen–Carbon dioxide
c) R. Palme Dutt c) Carbon dioxide–Nitrogen–Oxygen
d) Allan Octavian Hume d) Nitrogen–Oxygen–Carbon dioxide
64. Who authored the Declaration of Independence 71. Which one of the following is generally found in
(USA)? sedimentary rocks?
a) George Washington a) Basalt b) Silica
b) Benjamin Franklin c) Shale d) Magnesium
c) Thomas Jefferson

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72. Consider the following statements about Statement II: United Kingdom, Norway, the
rocks Netherlands and Denmark are located on the
I. Shale becomes slate through metamorphosis coast.
II. Shale is converted to slate when it is a) Both the statements are individually true and
subjected to tremendous pressure and high Statement II is the correct explanation of
temperature Statement I.
Which of the statements given above is/are b) Both the statements ‘are individually true but
correct? Statement II is not the correct explanation of
a) I only b) II only Statement I.
c) Both I and II d) Neither I nor II c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
73. Which one of the following is the correct d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
sequence of the four stages of water movement 78. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly
in a hydrological cycle? matched? Town River
a) Evaporation-Condensation Precipitation a) Bharuch Narmada
Infiltration b) Surat Tapi
b) Evaporation-Precipitation-Condensation c) Vijaywada Krishna
Infiltration d) Vishakhapatnam Godavari
c) Infiltration-Evaporation-Condensation 79. Sandstone is a
Precipitation a) Extrusive igneous rock
d) Condensation-Precipitation-Evaporation b) Intrusive igneous rock
Infiltration c) Metamorphic rock
74. Which of the following is/are the chief d) Sedimentary rock
characteristics of commercial grain farming of 80. The Tropic of Cancer passes through which one
the middle latitude grasslands? of the following?
1. The size of farms are generally large. a) Assam b) Manipur
2. Cultivation is highly mechanized. c) Mizoram d) Nagaland
3. It is a type of extensive farming. Select the 81. Consider the following rivers:
correct 1. Betwa 2. Kosi
answer using the code given below: 3. Gandak Which of the above join(s) Yamuna
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 only river?
c) 1, 2 and 3 d) 1 and 3 only a) 1 only b) 1 and 2
75. Which one among the following agricultural c) 1 and 3 d) 2 and 3
crops/groups of crops may be grown in abundant 82. Iron ore from Kudremukh is most likely to be
in lowlands and river deltas of fertile alluvial soil exported through
where there is high summer temperature and a) Goa b) Kochi
rainfall varies from 180 cm to 250 cm? c) Mangalore d) Ennore
a) Wheat and sugarcane 83. Identify from the following states of India
b) Cotton through which the Tropic of Cancer passes and
c) Maize and coarse crops arrange them from East to West.
d) Rice, jute and tea 1. Gujarat 2. West Bengal
76. The grassland region of South Africa is known as 3. Uttar Pradesh 4. Jharkhand
a) Selvas b) Downs 5. Madhya Pradesh6. Bihar
c) Veldt d) Llanos 7. Chhattisgarh Select the correct answer using
77. Statement I: Temperatures of countries like the
United Kingdom, Norway, the Netherlands and codes given below.
Denmark are higher as compared to places a) 2-5-7-4-1 b) 2-4-7-5-1
located on similar latitudes during the winter. c) 3-2-6-7-5 d) 3-7-4-6-2

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84. Match List I with List II and select the correct a) 42nd b) 44th
answer using the code given below the Lists: c) 73rd d) 86th
List I List II (Himalayan Peak) (State) 89. The Government Bill means a bill introduced by a
A. K2→ 1. Uttarakhand a) Member of the Treasury bench in the Lok
B. Nanda Devi →2. Jammu & Kashmir Sabha
C. Tara Pahar → 3. Sikkim b) Member of the Parliament who is not a
D. Kanchenjunga →4. Himachal Pradesh Minister
Code: A B C D c) Minister in the Lok Sabha
a) 2 4 1 3 b) 2 1 4 3 d) Minister in any House of the Parliament.
c) 3 1 4 2 d) 3 4 1 2 90. Vice-President of India is elected by an electoral
85. Assertion (A): Narmada and Tapti rivers do not college consisting of
form deltas. a) members of both Houses of Parliament
Reason (R): These rivers form estuaries. b) members of Rajya Sabha only
a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the c) elected members of both Houses of
correct explanation of A Parliament
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is d) elected members of Lok Sabha only
NOT the correct explanation of A 91. Which Five-Year Plan had an objective of “Rapid
c) A is true but R is false Industrialization with particular emphasis on
d) A is false but R is true development of basic and heavy industries?
86. The following four items consist of two a) First b) Second
statements, Statement I and Statement c) Third d) Fourth
II. You are to examine these two statements 92. Which of the following regarding Revised Macro
carefully and select the answers to these items Management of Agriculture Scheme (2008-2009)
using the code given below: is/are correct?
Statement-I: The semi-arid tracts of India 1. Allocate funds to States and Union Territories
stretching from eastern Rajasthan in the north to on a criterion based on gross cropped area
south central Tamil Nadu are agriculturally less and area under small and marginal holdings.
productive. 2. The assistance is provided to the States and
Statement II: The semi-arid tracts are homeland Union Territories as 100% grant. Select the
to a large number of central Indian Scheduled correct answer using the code given below
Tribes population. Codes:
a) Both the statements individually true and a) 1 only b) 2 only
Statement II is the correct explanation of c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Statement I. 93. Where is Baikonur Cosmodrome located?
b) Both the statements are individually true but a) Belarus b) Kazakhstan
Statement II is not correct explanation of c) Russia d) Ukraine
Statement I. 94. Match List I with List II and select the correct
c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. answer using the codes given below the Lists:
d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true. 1. List-I List-II (U N Bodies) (Headquarters)
87. Which one of the following Amendments of the A. International →1. Geneva Court of Justice
Constitution of India deals with the issue of B. Food and Agriculture →2. Rome
strengthening of the Panchayati Raj? Organization
a) 42nd b) 44th C. UNESCO →3. Washington
c) 73rd d) 86th D. WHO → 4. The Hague5. Paris
87. Which one of the following Amendments of the Codes: ABCD A B C D
Constitution of India deals with the issue of a) 2 3 5 4 b) 1 2 3 5
strengthening of the Panchayati Raj? c) 3 4 1 5 d) 4 2 5 1

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95. Where is the headquarters of the International followed by a comedy act, accompanied by the
Bank of Reconstruction and Development background music of the Chenda and the
located? Maddale, and a tala (cymbals) played by a team
a) Geneva b) Washington DC of three. The narrator, who is also a part of the
c) London d) Paris team is called Bhagavata, and is the producer,
96. Which one of the following is the international the director, and the head of the ceremony. His
aircraft identification mark (registration prefix) primary task involves the narration of the story
for India? through songs, introduction of the characters,
a) AT b) VT and occasionally conversing with them. Another
c) IX d) VX unique feature of it is the totally unrehearsed
97. Consider the following paragraph and identify and unwritten use of dialogues. which makes it
with the help of the code given below the writer so special Code
referred to therein: She is the winner of the a) Cheraw b) Yakshagana
Sahitya Akademi Award, the Jnanpith Award and c) Devarattam d) Jatra
is also India’s first Principal Prince Claus laureate. 99. Which amongst the following statements is/are
One of the most celebrated writers of correct about the INS Arihant?
contemporary Indian literature, she is noted for I. It is India's first nuclear submarine.
her novels which include The Moth-Eaten II. It is India's first aircraft carrier.
Howdah of the Tusker, Pages Stained with Blood III. It has been indigenously built in India.
and The Man from Chinnamasta. a) I only b) II and III only
Code: c) I and III only d) II only
a) Anita Desai b) Indira Goswami 100. Match List I with List II and select the correct
c) Mahasweta Devi d) Chitra Mudgal answer using the code given below the Lists: List-
98. Consider the following passage and identify the I List- II (World Heritage Site) (State)
form of dance theatre referred thereto using the A. Brihadisvara Temple →1. Maharashtra
code given below. This is a uniquely traditional B. Ellora Caves → 2. Karnataka
form of dance theatre of India with a formidable C. Hampi→ 3. Tamil Nadu
classical background. The main essence of this D. Mahabodhi Temple → 4. Bihar
form of dance drama is its attachment with Code: A B C D
religion, which provides the most common a) 4 1 2 3 b) 4 2 1 3
theme for its plays. The performance begins with c) 3 2 1 4 d) 3 1 2 4
a prayer offering to the Lord Ganesha, which is

❖❖❖

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ANSWER KEY

PART – I

1.a 11.a 21.d 31.d 41.b

2.b 12.c 22.b 32.a 42.b
3.b 13.b 23.c 33.c 43.d
4.b 14.a 24.c 34.a 44.b
5.d 15.a 25.c 35.b 45.d
6.a 16.a 26.d 36.a 46.d
7.b 17.d 27.a 37.d 47.b
8.b 18.b 28.c 38.c 48.a
9.b 19.b 29.d 39.a 49.c
10.a 20.b 30.d 40.b 50.b

PART – B

1.a 21.c 41.c 61.c 81.a

2.a 22.d 42.d 62.d 82.c
3.c 23.c 43.d 63.d 83.b
4.c 24.b 44.c 64.c 84.b
5.c 25.c 45.d 65.a 85.c
6.b 26.b 46.b 66.a 86.b
7.b 27.a 47.d 67.c 87.c
8.b 28.a 48.a 68.c 88.c
9.a 29.d 49.a 69.a 89.d
10.c 30.d 50.b 70.b 90.a
11.b 31.a 51.d 71.c 91.b
12.b 32.c 52.d 72.c 92.c
13.c 33ed 53.c 73.a 93.b
14.b 34.c 54.b 74.c 94.d
15.a 35.c 55.c 75.d 95.b
16.c 36.c 56.c 76.c 96.b
17.c 37.d 57.a 77.a 97.b
18.d 38.b 58.b 78.d 98.b
19.c 39.b 59.c 79.d 99.c
20.a 40.b 60.d 80.c 100.d

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