Practice Test: Order Your Manuals Now
Practice Test: Order Your Manuals Now
Practice Test: Order Your Manuals Now
Practice Test
PRACTICE TEST QUESTIONS & ANSWERS - Order your manuals now
1) Female Pelvic Medicine: A 33-year-old multigravida patient presents complaining of dyspareunia and “feeling loose”
during intercourse. Obstetrical history includes that of an episiotomy with a 4th-degree extension during her last delivery
several years ago. Review of Systems include rare symptoms of stress urinary incontinence, but no complaints of fecal
incontinence. Pelvic examination is significant for a widened genital hiatus, scarred posterior fourchette, positive dovetail
sign and a tender perineal body that is <0.3cm. The most likely reason that the patient has no symptoms of fecal
incontinence is:
2) REI: A 17-year-old G0 presents to your office with secondary amenorrhea. She menstruated for 4 years, but her last
menses was 11 months ago. History and physical exam are otherwise unremarkable. Laboratory testing reveals:
A. hyperprolactinemia
B. hypogonadotropic hypogonadism
C. Mullerian Agenesis
D. ovarian failure
E. subclinical hypothyroidism
3) Obstetrics: What is the most likely cause of infertility in a couple with normal HSG and monthly menses?
A. anovulation
B. luteal phase defect
C. male factor
D. tubal factor
4) Obstetrics: A 27-year-old G1P0 presents for her first prenatal visit. She is overall healthy and is an avid exerciser.
She is worried about which activities and exercises she should avoid in pregnancy. You inform her that she should avoid
all of the following activities in pregnancy except:
A. Basketball
B. Horseback riding
C. Hot yoga
D. Running or jogging
E. All of the above
5) Obstetrics: Trisomy results most often as a result of nondisjunction during which phase of the cell cycle?
A. Maternal meiosis I
B. Maternal meiosis II
C. Mitosis
D. Paternal meiosis I
7) OFFICE: A 40-year-old African-American female presents for an annual exam with a blood pressure of 145/90. The
patient returns the next week with a blood pressure of 155/95. What is the best management choice?
8) GYN: A 22-year-old patient has an 8 cm myoma. Which is the least reason to operate?
9) Urogyn: A patient presents with pelvic pain associated with a change in her bowel habits. Which of the following
characteristics meet the criteria to diagnose irritable bowel syndrome?
A. Pain for at least 3 days monthly with constipation and relief with defecation
B. Pain for less than a month which onset with constipation, but no change in the form of stool
C. Pain for 2 months which onset with constipation and increases with defecation
D. Pain for over 6 months which onset with increased stool frequency and pain increases with laxatives
10) Gynecologic Oncology and Surgery: Which tumor marker is characteristic of a granulosa cell tumor?
A. AFP
B. CA 19-9
C. CA 125
D. Inhibin
E. LDH
11) Gynecologic Oncology and Surgery: ONC: What genetic mutation has the highest risk of breast cancer?
A. BRCA-1
B. BRCA-2
C. FAP (Familial adenomatous polyposis)
D. HNPCC
E. Li Fraumeni
12) Gynecologic Oncology and Surgery: A 32-year-old patient comes in complaining of nipple discharge. A light
green nipple discharge is elicited on exam. No mass is palpated. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Breast abscess
B. Ductal carcinoma in situ
C. Ductal ectasia
D. Intraductal papilloma
E. Prolactinoma
13) Gynecologic Oncology and Surgery: A 68-year-old complains of vulvar pruritis. Colposcopy reveals several .5-1
cm lesions. Biopsy reveals vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN) 3. The best treatment is:
A. Laser vaporization
B. Radical vulvectomy
C. Skinning vulvectomy
D. Topical 5-FU
E. Wide local excision
14) Gynecologic Oncology and Surgery: A 38-year-old G2P2 is BRCA-1 positive. What is the best way for her to lower
her risk of cancer?
Answer Key:
A Round ligaments
B Broad ligaments
C Cardinal ligaments
D Uterosacral ligaments
Ans=c
Question 2. Which nerve provides sensation to the skin over the suprapubic area?
B Iliohypogastric nerve
C Ilioinguinal nerve
D Pudendal nerve
E Femoral nerve
Answ=B
A Abdominal bloating
B Weight loss
C Constipation
D Anxiety
E Breast tenderness
Ans=B
A Hypothalamus
B Anterior pituitary
C Posterior pituitary
D Ovaries
E Endometrium
A Oral contraceptives
B Endometrial ablation
C Office hysteroscopy
E Endometrial biopsy
A Methotrexate 30 mg/m2 intramuscularly
B Methotrexate 50 mg/m2 intramuscularly
C Culdocentesis
D Laparoscopic salpingostomy
B Transvaginal sonogram
C Laparoscopic salpingostomy
Question 9. A 48-year-old woman presents to the office with a several year history of low
pelvic pain. Which of the following is the LEAST likely cause
A Interstitial cystitis
B Adenomyosis
C Ectopic pregnancy
D Herniated disc
Question 10. A patient presents with vulvar irritation and pruritis. Speculum examination
reveals a hyperemic, edematous, vaginal vault with odorless discharge. The pH is 4.0. What is
the MOST likely diagnosis?
B Candidiasis
C Trichomoniasis
D Gonococcal vaginitis
E Hydradenitis suppurativa
Question 1
What dose of anti D immunoglobulin should she receive immediately after the procedure?
A. 250 IU
B. 500IU
C. 1000IU
D. 1500IU
E. 2000IU
Question 2
You have just examined a 28-year-old primigravida in spontaneous labour. Examination findings
are 0/5 palpable per abdomen, cervix is 7 cm dilated, cephalic presentation, -1 station, anterior
fontanelle palpable with orbital ridges and nasal bridge felt anteriorly.
Question 3
A 21-year-old woman, who is known to have beta thalassemia major, attends the clinic for
preconception counselling.
What is the most relevant initial pre-pregnancy investigation to predict maternal complications
of pregnancy?
A. Cardiac MRI
B. Chest X-Ray
C. ECG
D. Echocardiogram
E. Pulmonary function tests
Question 4
A 34-year-old woman attends for her booking in her third pregnancy. She had a caesarean
section in her first pregnancy 4 years ago and has had a successful vaginal birth after caesarean
section (VBAC) 2 years ago. She has a BMI OF 26.
Question 5
You are asked to see a 21-year-old woman for preconceptual care. She was diagnosed with
generalised tonic-clonic epilepsy four years ago. This is poorly controlled. She is currently on
sodium valproate and levetiracetam.
Question 6
A 28-year-old woman attends the mental health antenatal clinic at 12 weeks for a booking
assessment. This is her first baby.
A. Anorexia nervosa
B. Bipolar affective disorder
C. Moderate depression
D. Obsessive compulsive disorder
E. Recurrent anxiety
Question 7
A woman has had a recent uncomplicated vaginal delivery but has developed a significant post-
partum pyrexia and tachycardia. She is thought to be allergic to penicillin. You suspect
puerperal sepsis and are keen to commence treatment prior to the investigations coming back.
A. Cefuroxime
B. Clindamycin
C. Co-amoxiclav
D. Erythromycin
E. Metronidazole
Question 8
In order to help plan the capacity required for providing future maternity services you are asked
to design a study to establish the incidence of vaginal birth following previous caesarean
section. The study will require establishing the mode of delivery in women who have either had
only vaginal delivery or have had a caesarean section in at least one previous pregnancy. You
review the epidemiological study methods that may be appropriate for this type of study.
Question 9
A woman has an instrumental delivery of a baby weighing 3950 g in her first pregnancy. A
Grade 3C tear of the anal sphincter is identified. An appropriate overlapping repair using 3/0
PDS is performed. Prior to discharge, she asks about the long-term risk of faecal or flatal
incontinence.
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 40%
E. 50%
Question 10
A couple, both aged 32, wish to start a family. They have stopped using contraception and are
having regular sexual intercourse.
A. 70-74%
B. 75-79%
C. 80-84%
D. 85-89%
E. 90-94%
Obstetrics
the procedure?
A. 250 IU
B. 500IU
C. 1000IU
D. 1500IU
E. 2000IU
Correct Response: A
presentation, -1 station, anterior fontanelle palpable with orbital ridges and nasal
A. Mentovertical
B. Occipitofrontal
C. Submentobregmatic
D. Suboccipitobregmatic
E. Suboccipitofrontal
Correct Response: A
is mentovertical (13.5-14cm)
A 21-year-old woman, who is known to have beta thalassemia major, attends the clinic
A. Cardiac MRI
B. Chest X-Ray
C. ECG
D. Echocardiogram
E. Pulmonary function tests
Correct Response: D
A 34-year-old woman attends for her booking in her third pregnancy. She had a
caesarean section in her first pregnancy 4 years ago and has had a successful vaginal
birth after caesarean section (VBAC) 2 years ago. She has a BMI OF 26.
Correct Response: C
Guideline 45,2007
You are asked to see a 21-year-old woman for preconceptual care. She was diagnosed
with generalised tonic-clonic epilepsy four years ago. This is poorly controlled. She is
B. Arrange an EEG
C. Commence aspirin 75 mg
E. Review medication
Correct Response: E
Comments: Reference: The Epilepsies: women of childbearing age with epilepsy. Nice CG
Comments: Consider the risk of adverse effects of anti epileptics and use
the lowest effective dose for each AED, avoiding polytherapy if possible
A 28-year-old woman attends the mental health antenatal clinic at 12 weeks for a
A. Anorexia nervosa
C. Moderate depression
E. Recurrent anxiety
Correct Response: B
A woman has had a recent uncomplicated vaginal delivery but has developed a
penicillin. You suspect puerperal sepsis and are keen to commence treatment prior to
A. Cefuroxime
B. Clindamycin
C. Co-amoxiclav
D. Erythromycin
E. Metronidazole
Correct Response: A
In order to help plan the capacity required for providing future maternity services you
are asked to design a study to establish the incidence of vaginal birth following
previous caesarean section. The study will require establishing the mode of delivery in
women who have either had only vaginal delivery or have had a caesarean section in at
least one previous pregnancy. You review the epidemiological study methods that may
A. Case control
B. Cohort
C. Cross sectional
D. Ecological
E. Survey
Correct Response: B
Comments: Any comments or feedback: The answer is cohort study. Cohort studies are
characteristic over time. The groups are then compared e.g. for the
BMJ 2000;325:S97
overlapping repair using 3/0 PDS is performed. Prior to discharge, she asks about the
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 40%
E. 50%
Correct Response: D
Comments: Reference: Obstetric pelvic floor and anal sphincter injuries. TOG 2012, vol
14, no: 4
10
A couple, both aged 32, wish to start a family. They have stopped using contraception
A. 70-74%
B. 75-79%
C. 80-84%
D. 85-89%
E. 90-94%
Correct Response: D
1. The colour of amniotic fluid is___
B) Dark colour
C) Yellow colour
D) None
A) Polysynthesis
B) Hydrosynthesis
C) Amniocentesis
D) None
A) Funis
B) Follopian tube
C) U-cord
D) Placenta
A) White coat
B) Milky patch
C) Vernix caseosa
D) None
5. The appearance of violet blue discoloration of the vaginal membrane after conception is
known as___
A) Hegar's sign
B) Osiander's sign
C) Quickening
D) Jacquemier's sign
6. The pregnant woman complains of numbness and "Pins and needles" in her fingers and
hands. the condition is called as?
B) Vericosites
C) Pica
D) Heart burn
7. Pueperium period is
A) Uterus
B) Vagina
C) Overy
A) Venous thrombosis
B) Htpertension
A) IgG
B) IgM
C) IgA
1. Which one of the following factors does NOT put a woman at increased risk of obstetric
complications?
(b) Screening for infections implicated in preterm labour, e.g. Chlamydia and bacterial vaginosis,
are offered routinely.
(c) Best screening for chromosomal abnormalities includes AFP, oestriol and â-hCG as part of
the combined test.
(a) A screening test is performed on women with a ‘high risk’ to confirm or refute the possibility
of a disorder
(b) A diagnostic test is available for all and gives a measure of the risk of being affected by a
particular disorder
(c) Specificity is the probability that a subject who is negative will not have the condition.
(d) Sensitivity is the proportion of subjects with the condition classified as screen positive for
the condition.
5. Which of the following is the Structural abnormalities identifiable as part of antenatal care:
(a) Preconceptual folic acid supplementation for 3 months (0.4 mg/day) reduces the incidence
of neural tube defects and should be taken by all women considering pregnancy.
(b) Diaphragmatic hernias rarely result in the fetus having pulmonary hypoplasia.
(a) Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) can only be present if the fetus is small for dates
(c) By definition, 10% of babies are below the tenth centile and 3% below the third, for a
particular gestation.
(a) All twins should have serial ultrasound scans, as a minimum at 28, 32 and 36 weeks
(b) In twin–twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS) the ‘donor’ twin gets volume overload.
(c) In TTTS, the ‘recipient’ twin is volume depleted and develops anaemia, IUGR and
oligohydramnios
(c) Menstruation is usually delayed by lactation, but occurs at about 6 weeks if the woman is
not lactating.
(a) Prolactin from the posterior pituitary gland stimulates milk secretion
(b) Rapid declines in oestrogen and progesterone levels occur after birth.
(c) Oxytocin from the anterior pituitary gland stimulates ejection in response to nipple sucking
(a) Maternal death is death of a woman during pregnancy or within 42 days of its cessation,
from any cause related to or aggravated by pregnancy or its management, but not from
accidental or incidental causes.
(b) Late maternal death is when a woman dies from similar causes, but specifically in the third
trimester
(c) ‘Direct’ deaths result from obstetric complications
(d) ‘Incidental’ deaths are those that would have occurred irrespective of pregnancy
12. Consent and confidentiality: which three of the following are true?
(a) Minor risks need not be discussed. Major risks must be discussed even if they are rare
(b) The doctor has a moral, professional, contractual and legal duty to maintain patient
confidentiality.
(c) Details can be disclosed to a close relative, without the patients consent.
(d) Confidentiality can be breached in exceptional circumstances where the health and safety of
others would otherwise be at risk.
(a) Cu-7
(d) progestasert
14. The protective effects of breast milk are known to be associated with
(b) Lysozyme
(a) to prevent the risk of subsequent septic abortion and preterm labour
(a) Nuchal translucency (the space between skin and soft tissue overlying the cervical spine),
measured between 11 and 13+6 weeks, is a screening test for chromosomal abnormalities such
as trisomy 21
(b) When the fetus has an open neural tube defect (NTD), maternal serum AFP levels are
usually raised. As such, this can be used as a diagnostic test for NTD.
17. The following are the changes that occurs in the uterus during pregnancy except
(d) during braxton Hicks contraction, there is stagnation of blood in the intervillus space
(a) 4 times
(b) 8 times
(c) 12 times
(d) 16 times
(c) ballottement
(a) 400mg
(b) 600mg
(c) 800mg
(d) 1000mg
24. The process by which a viable product of conception is expelled by the mother is called
(a) Labour
(b) Presentation
(c) Attitude
(d) denominator
25. The following are the physilogic changes during late pregnancy except
(a) 300ml
(b) 500ml
(c) 700ml
(d) 1000ml
29. The amniotic fluid is completely changed and replaced in every
(a) 2 hours
(b) 3 hours
(c) 4 hours
(d) 5 hours
30. The peak level of serum beta HCG in normal pregnancy is found between
(a) Hydramnios
33. Study of fetal parts in first trimester is best done with least radiation hazard
(a) X- ra
(d) Ultrasound
(a) 2500kcal
(b) 3000kcal
(c) 3500kcal
(d) 4000kcal
36. The moment in pregnancy when the pregnant woman starts to feel or perceive fetal
movements is called
(a) Lightening
(b) Quickening
(c) Flexion
(d) attitude
(a) Rubella
(b) Measles
(c) mumps
(a) Anecephaly
(b) spina fida
(d) hypothyroidism
(a) a sinusoidal FHR pattern is almost always associated with fetal hypoxia
(b) fetuses with congenital abnormalities always exhibit abnormal FHR patterns
(a) 46XX
(b) 46XY
(c) 47XXY
(d) 45XO
42. The best period of gestation to catty out chorion villous biopsy for prenatal diagnosis is
44. Which of the following is the investigation of choice in a pregnant lady at 18 weeks of
gestation with past history of delivering baby with down’s syndrome ?
(b) amniocentesis
(d) ultrsonography
46. The first step to be done when head of the baby is delivered
47. The average blood volume loss during normal delivery is approximately
(a) 700ml
(b) 500ml
(c) 250ml
(d) 100ml
48. When the maximum diameter of the head stretches the vulval outlet without any recession
of the head even after the contraction is over is called
(a) Quickening
(b) Crowning
(c) lightnening
(d) descending