OBGYN/ Oath Batch Final Exam

Q1- Chronic endometritis can cause all of the following Except?

A- Abnormal uterine bleeding
B- Excessive vaginal discharge (in the exam you couldn’t click on this and they said ignore the Q)
C- Fever
D- Dyspareunia
E- Pelvic pain
Answer: I think it’s a bonus

Q2. A primigravida admitted with rhythmic uterine contractions every 3 minutes Cervix was 5cm
dilated, which phase of labor she’s in?
A- Second stage or labor
B- Late first stage of labor
C- Latent phase of labor
D- Active phase of labor
E- Not in labour
Answer: C or D because different resources give diff answer

Q3. All of the following are benefits of ultrasound in pregnancy except?

A- Diagnose septate uterus
B- Assess the amount of amniotic fluid
C- Diagnose NTD
D- Confirmation of gestational age in early gestation
E- Placenta localization
Answer: B

Q4. Regarding Endometriosis, all of the following are correct Except?

A- Hysterectomy with Bilateral Oophorectomy is advices in elderly women with endometriosis
B- The diagnosis is concluded haematologically by identifying imprints containing endometrial glands
and….
C- Serum Ca125 can be elevated in endometriosis
D- Secondary dysmenorrhea is common presentation
E- Imaging modalities have high sensitivities for endometriosis diagnosis
Answer: E
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Q5. Regarding endometrial carcinoma, all of the following are correct except?
A- Type 2 carcinoma is not Estrogen dependent (not sure)
B- Often present with vaginal bleeding
C- The incidence is decreasing worldwide
D- Endometroid type tend to be well differentiated
E- Pelvic pain is a late symptom in the disease process
Answer: C

Q6. Regarding Granulosa cell tumors of the ovary: All are correct Except?
A- cause precocious puberty in young girls
B- Are the most common type of sex cord stromal tumor
C- The majority of patients are diagnosed at early stage and have a relatively favourable prognosis
D- Extremely radiosensitive
E- May lead to coexistent endometrial carcinoma
Answer: C?

Q7. Complication of Dilation and curettage include all of the following except?
A- Cervical ectropion
B- Uterine perforation
C- Intrauterine adhesions
D- Bleeding
E- Cervical trauma
Answer: A

Q8. Regarding cefuroxime 250mg, Which FDA category does this drug belong to?
A- B
B- A
C- C
D- X
E- D
Answer: A

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Q9. Risk factors for uterine rupture include one of the following:
A- Augmentation of labor with oxytocin
B- Polyhydramnios
C- Primigravida
D- Atonic uterus
E- Previous salpingectomy
Answer: A

Q10. Regarding cholestasis in pregnancy, all are correct Except:

A- Pregnancy should be terminated if presented at term
B- Is associated with increased risk of IUFD
C- Is a diagnosis of exclusion
D- Important investigations include Bile salt level
E- Patient typically present with itching in the whole body
Answer: E (Palms and sole of feet)

Q11. Regarding the second stage of labor, all the following are correct Except:
A- Midline episiotomy is associated with higher risk of sphincter injury
B- Episiotomy should be offered for all primigravida
C- The patient should be offered one hour without pushing if reassuring CTG
D- Fetal heartbeat should be assessed every 5 minutes in low risk patients
E- Most multigravida delivery within 30 minutes of full dilation
Answer: D

Q12. Which of the following is abnormal finding during routine assessment of Primigravida at 28
week of gestation?
A- Glycosuria +1 at urine dipstick
B- Mild edema of lower limbs
C- Symphysis fundal height of 30 weeks
D- +1 proteinuria at urine dipstick
E- Breech presentation
Answer: D

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Q13. 42 years old multiparous with regular period, none lactating, and not using contraceptives. Her
LMP was on 20/1/2022. What is her EDD?
A- 20/9/2022
B- 20/10/22
C- 27/10/2022
D- Could not be calculated as she is above 40 years’ old
E- 4/11/2022
Answer: C

Q14. Regarding missed miscarriages, one is correct:

A- Risk of DIC increases after 3 weeks of fetal retention
B- Is diagnosed if ultrasound showed CRL < 4mm with no fetal heart activity
C- Most common presentation is mild vaginal bleeding
D- Dilation and curettage is a management option if the gestational age is 10 weeks
E- PGE2 is the drug of choice in termination of pregnancy
Answer: D

Q15. A nulligravida is a woman who is?

A- Has never been pregnant before
B- Is currently pregnant
C- Has delivered a liveborn baby
D- Has had one miscarriage
E- Has had previous ectopic pregnancy
Answer: A

Q16. The most common ovarian tumor during pregnancy is?

A- Serous cystadenoma
B- Endometrioma
C- Corpus luteal cyst
D- Granulosa cell tumors
E- Immature teratoma
Answer: C

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Q17. Regarding diabetes in pregnancy, one of the following is correct:
A- HGA1C is the best indicator of short term glycaemic control in pregnancy
B- Serial ophthalmic assessment is mandatory asymptomatic young female having gestational DM
C- BMI of less than 25 is risk factor
D- Women diagnosed with gestation DM are advised to have OGTT 6 weeks after delivery
E- Sacral agenesis is the most frequently encountered structural anomaly
Answer: D

Q18. Regarding uterine inversion, one is correct:

A- Surgical replacement is the best management
B- Abdominal examination shows contracted uterus
C- Oxytocin infusion should be started before replacement of the uterus
D- The majority of cases occur during the 2nd stage of labor
E- The patient may present with neurogenic shock
Answer: E?

Q19. Regarding drugs in pregnancy and lactation, one of the following is correct?
A- The FDA drug classifications is fixed during all trimesters
B- The FDA drug classifications is fixed for all doses
C- The transplacental drug transfer decrease with advancing in the gestational age
D- Weakly basics drugs are transferred easier than acidic drugs in the breast milk
E- Ranitidine is currently the best available drug used for gastric ulcers in pregnancy
Answer: D

Q20. Regarding progesterone only oral contraceptives (POP), all are correct Except?
A- it’s contraindicated with breast cancer patients
B- Must be used continuously
C- Most common side effect is menorrhagia
D- Fertility return immediately after its discontinuation
E- Suitable for patient with history of DVT
Answer: C

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Q21. Regarding normal menstrual cycle, all of the following statements are correct Except?
A- Regular menstrual cycles usually indicate lactation
B- The LH surge occur 36 hrs before Ovulation
C- Menstrual blood loss of 70ml is considered normal
D- Regular menstrual cycle should come every 28 days
E- The length of the luteal phase is constant
Answer: D

Q22. 4 weeks after IVF embryo transfer, asymptomatic women come for check-up, Her HCG level
was (1600) I think and Progesterone level was 6 (I think) Which is correct?
A- Diagnostic laparotomy is indicated for this case
B- The recommended management is to wait and review after 48 hours
C- The HCG levels were suggesting a healthy pregnancy
D- The progesterone level is suggesting a healthy pregnancy
E- Methotrexate administration is in acceptable way of management
Answer: E?

Q23. Regarding Cupper IUCD, all are correct Except?

A- Contraceptive effectiveness continues for 10 years
B- MOA include spermicidal effect
C- Produce no systemic side effects
D- Absolute contraindication include undiagnosed Vaginal bleeding
E- Uterine perforation occur in 5% of patients
Answer: C? Not sure

Q24. Regarding placental abruption, one of the following is correct:

A- It’s a preventable disorder
B- Its always managed by CS
C- Smoking reduces the like hood of it occurrence
D- Its diagnosed by ultrasound
E- It’s a risk factor for PPH
Answer: E

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Q25. Causes of recurrent miscarriages include all of the following Except?
A- Thyroid disorders
B- Antithrombin III deficiency
C- Anticardiolipin syndrome
D- Cervical incompetence
E- Subserous Fibrous
Answer: E

Q26. All of the following reduces the incidence of cervical cancer Except?
A- Contraceptive Diaphragm
B- Pap smear
C- Quitting smoking
D- Mirena contraception
E- Bivalent HPV vaccine
Answer: A or D

Q27. A 39 years old P1 patient present with stress incontinence without any other urinary symptoms.
All of the following is correct regarding management Except?
A- Pelvic floor muscle training
B- Anticholinergic drugs
C- Pelvic floor electromyography (biofeedback)
D- Electric stimulation
E- Urodynamic studies
Answer: B

Q28. Regarding post-partum hemorrhage, one of the following is correct:

A- Defined as any amount of vaginal bleeding in the first 24 hours
B- uterine atony is a common cause of secondary post-partum hemorrhage
C- bleeding during the CS is not considered post-partum hemorrhage
D- DIC is the commonest cause of primary post-partum hemorrhage
E- Fours units of blood should always be ready
Answer: E

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Q29. Regarding urinary incontinence, all of the following is correct Except?
A- The most common cause for overflow incontinence in women is bladder outlet obstruction
B- Bladder stone could cause urgency and urge incontinence
C- Anti-muscarinic drugs are the most commonly used medication in treating urge incontinence
D- Vaginal pessary may be used for women with stress incontinence
E- Activation of alpha receptors in the bladder increases urethral tone and promotes urethral …..
(contraction?)
Answer: A most probably (It is most common for men)

Q30. One of the following is contraindicated to epidural analgesia in labour?

A- Varicose vein
B- increased intracranial pressure
C- Twin pregnancy
D- During the second stage of labor
E- Last Clexane (Enoxaparin) dose was 48 hours ago
Answer: B

Q31. Regarding parental opioids, all the following are correct except
A- Can be given by continuous infusion

B- Naloxone is a narcotic antagonist

C- Cross placental barrier
D- Vomiting is a recognized side effect
E- Morphine cannot be used in labour
Answer: E

Q32. Regarding uterine fibroids, all the following are correct except
A- Most fibroids are diagnosed by ultrasound

B- hysterectomy is the best treatment option for patient who completed her family
C- myomectomy is indicated in young patients with menorrhagia
D- medical treatment is indicated for fibroids associated with infertility
E- rapidly growing fibroid could be a manifestation of leiomyosarcoma
Answer: D? (surgery)

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Q33. All the following are indications of delivery for premature rupture of membranes at 32 weeks
except
A- gestational DM
B- cord prolapse
C- chorioamnionitis
D- decelerations in CTG
E- placental abruption
Answer: A

Q34. Regarding ectopic pregnancy, all of the following are correct except
A- Methotrexate is a good choice of management if beta hCG 8000
B- In normal pregnancy with HCG values above 2000, an intrauterine sac should be seen by transvaginal
ultrasound
C- Common side effects after methotrexate therapy are stomatitis and GI upset
D- A rise in bhcg levels of 66% in 2 days is consistent with healthy pregnancy
E- At day 7 after methotrexate injection, a 50% drop in bhcg level indicate a successful management
Answer: A, D? (numbers not specific)

Q35. Regarding Rokitansky syndrome, all are correct except

A- The patient needs HRT
B- Has short vagina
C- The patient has normal female secondary sexual characteristics
D- Karyotyping is mandatory in the diagnosis
E- Ovaries are present and normal
Answer: A

Q36. Regarding drugs in pregnancy the most important determinant factor of trans-placental drugs
A- Fetal weight

B- Protein binding ability

C- pH of the drug
D- Fetal plasma drugs concentration
E- Maternal plasma drugs concentration
Answer: E

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Q37. A pregnant lady at 32 weeks gestation, the uterine size is 37 weeks, all of the following are
possible except
A- Uterine fibroid

B- Wrong date
C- Gestational diabetes
D- Twins
E- Transverse lie
Answer: E

Q38. The milk ejection during breast-feeding is the effect of which hormone
A- Progesterone

B- Oxytocin
C- Prolactin
D- Estrogen
E- LH
Answer: B

Q39. All the following are uses for combined oral contraceptive pills except
A- Treatment of endometrial hyperplasia
B- Treatment of PCOS
C- Treatment of menorrhagia
D- Regulate the cycle
E- Treatment of endometriosis
Answer: A

Q40. Regarding malpresentation, all the following statements is correct except

A- Polyhydramnios is a risk factor for breech presentation
B- The use of forceps is contraindicated in face presentation
C- Persistent brow presentation in the second stage is an indication for CS
D- In face presentation with mentoposterior position, CS is indicated
E- Anencephaly is a risk factor for malpresentation
Answer: B?

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Q41. Regarding cervical cancer, all the following are correct except
A- Chemoradiotherapy are preferred and patient with stage III disease
B- Cervical cancer is less common in sexual partners of circumcised males
C- Stage 1a disease could be treated with subtotal hysterectomy
D- About 70% of cervical cancer is squamous cell carcinoma
E- There is no stromal invasion in cervical intraepithelial neoplasia 3 (CIN3)
Answer: C

Q42. The following are recognized causes of secondary amenorrhea except

A- Kallmann syndrome
B- Aschermann syndrome
C- Premature ovarian failure
D- PCOS
E- Sheehan’s syndrome
Answer: A

Q43. Regarding management of active heavy antepartum hemorrhage at 32 weeks in the latent phase
A- Emergency caesarean section is recommended
B- Nifedipine is recommended as a tocolytic
C- Epidural analgesia is the preferred method
D- Steroids administration and expectant management for 40 hours is the management of..
E- MgSO4 as recommended for fetal Neuro protection
Answer:

Q44. Regarding polycystic ovarian syndrome all the following are correct except
A- Is diagnosed by Rotterdam criteria
B- Insulin resistant is the underlying mechanism
C- COCP is used in the management hirsutism
D- LH:FSH ratio is 1:3
E- Ultrasound picture include antral follicles count of more than 12
Answer: D

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Q45. Regarding follicle-stimulating hormone only one of the following is correct
A- Is best measured day 14 of the cycle
B- Is raised in Turner syndrome
C- Is necessary for the initial stages of embryo development
D- It is responsible for progesterone release and 2nd half of cycle
E- Starts rising following ovulation
Answer: C?

Q46. Regarding glucose metabolism in pregnancy, one of the following is correct

A-Physiologically, insulin levels rise during pregnancy
B- Human Placental Lactogen levels are high in the 1st half of pregnancy then the 2nd health
C- Post-partum sugar readings are the higher in lactating women than in non-lactating mothers
D- Physiologically, fasting sugar readings are expected to rise during pregnancy
E- Postprandial readings are expected to be lower than in non-pregnant woman
Answer: A? Not sure

Q47. High dose (5 mg) folic acid is indicated in all the following except
A- Multiple gestation
B- Use of anti-hypertensive
C- Use of anti-epileptic
D- History of neural tube defect
E- Diabetes mellitus
Answer: B

Q48. Regarding placental previa, one of the following is correct

A- Grade 3 previa with mild vaginal bleeding at 37 weeks, should have cesarean section
B- Vagina ultrasound is contraindicated
C- It is commoner are in Primigravida woman than multiparous
D- Asymptomatic grade one previa should have caesarean section
E- It is associated with macrosomia
Answer: A

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Q49. One of the following is considered contraindication for breast-feeding
A- Postpartum blues
B- COVID-19 infection
C- HIV mother
D- Hepatitis C
E- Enalapril treatment
Answer: C

Q50. All the following are considered normal vagina delivery except
A- CTG monitoring was used in the first and second stage labor
B- PGE2 is used for induction of labor
C- The gestational age of the fetus was 39 weeks
D- When episiotomy was used
E- The estimated blood loss in the 3rd stage was 300 ml
Answer: B most probable, but D is suspicious

Q51. Regarding cervical cancer, all the following are correct except
A- HPV 16 and 18 are found in over 70% of all cervical cancers

B- The 5-year survival rate for stage 1a is about 95%

C- Stage 1b3 can be treated with trachelectomy
D- Compared with surgery, chemoradiation is associated with a higher incidence of sexual dysfunction
E- The prevalence of cervical cancer is higher among women with history of sexual transmitted disease
Answer: C

Q52. Polyhydramnios can be caused by all the following except:

A- Neural tube defect
B- Diabetes Mellitus
C- Cleft palate
D- Paro virus infection
E- Severe PET
Answer: C

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Q53. Which of the following heart conditions carries the worst prognosis during pregnancy:
A- Mitral stenosis
B- Aortic stenosis
C- Eisenmenger syndrome
D- VSD
E- Coarctation of aorta
Answer: C

Q54. Long term consequences of PCOS include all of the following except:
A- Cardiovascular disease
B- Endometrial cancer
C- Type 2 diabetes
D- Hyperlipidaemia
E- Ovarian cancer
Answer: E

Q55. The long relationship between the long axis of the fetus to the long axis of the mother is
A- Fetal attitude
B- Fetal Position
C- Fetal lie
D- Fetal presentation
E- Fetal engagement
Answer: C

Q56. All the following parameters of semen fluid analysis FA considered normal according to the
latest WHO criteria except:

A- Progressive sperm motility of 20%

B- Volume of 2 mL
C- Morphology of 4%
D- Total motility 45%
E- Sperm concentration of 25 million/mL
Answer: A

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Q57. Solid unilateral ovarian mass on ultrasound with elevated LDH level, negative AFP and HCG:

A- Endodermal sinus tumour

B- Choriocarcinoma
C- Endodermal sinus tumour
D- Immature teratoma
E- Dysgerminoma
Answer: E

Q58: AFP is a tumour marker for

A- Endodermal Sinus Tumor
B- Choriocarcinoma
C- Dysgerminoma
Answer: A

Q59. The diameter in brow presentation is

A- Occipto frontal
B- Sub occipto frontal
C- Mento vertical
D- Sub occupito bregmatic
Answer: C

Q60. Which of the following is correct regarding bacterial vaginosis

A- Grey discharge and fishy odour
B- Causes itching
C- It’s sexually transmitted
D- pH 5-6
E- Usually symptomatic
Answer: A

Q61. Which of the following is a Mismatch

A- Vertex- position
B- Transverse- Lie
Answer: B

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Q62. Regarding post term pregnancies, all the following are correct except:
A- Is associated with an increase in perinatal mortality and morbidity
B- Anencephaly is associated with higher risk of post term pregnancy
C- In uncomplicated post-date pregnancy, the patient should deliver at 42 weeks
D- It is associated with an increase in the risk of shoulder dystocia
E- Meconium passage in post term pregnancy could be normal
Answer: E or C (according to resident)

Q63. 10 weeks’ gestation pregnant woman who presented with mild bleeding, normal fetal heart beat
on ultrasound, what is correct
A- This pregnancy will be at a higher risk of antepartum haemorrhage
B- HCG level is mandatory in the management of this patient
C- It is expected that in 20% of the similar case, this pregnancy will be terminated
D- Cervical cerclage is the best treatment option
E- The fundal height is expected to be felt abdominally
Answer: C

Q64. In cephalic presentation, which of the following is true regarding pulse

A- Below umbilicus at the site of fetal back
B- Below umbilicus in the opposite site of fetal back
C- Above umbilicus in the side of fetal back
D- Above umbilicus in the opposite of fetal back
E- At the umbilicus
Answer: A

Q65. In adhenolysis, all are false except

A- Foley’s catheter can be inserted after surgery
B- Aschermann’s syndrome is best diagnosed by MRI
C- Estrogen should be given 2 weeks before surgery
D- Ovarian cystectomy can be a cause of Aschermann’s
Answer: A maybe (resident answer)

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Q66. Regarding trophoblastic disease, all are correct except
A- In cases of partial mole, the fetus survives to term
B- The most common chromosomal pattern of partial mole is 69XYY
C- Embryonic
D- Best management is suction curettage
E- Lungs are the most common site of metastasis
Answer: B

Q67. All of the following are indication to give Anti-D for a pregnant woman with negative blood
group except:
A- Asymptomatic pregnant 28 weeks
B- External cephalic version
C- Missed miscarriage managed by D/C at 8 weeks
D- Threatened miscarriage at 14 weeks admitted for observation
E- Delivery of RH –ve baby
Answer: E?

Q68. Regarding induction of labour, all the following are correct except:
A- Induction of labour is contraindicated if the fetus has intermediate growth restriction
B- The most common indication for induction for labour is postdate pregnancy
C- The success rate of induction is lower among nulliparous woman compared with multiparous
D- The use of vaginal prostaglandins is not recommended for women with one previous CS
E- Induction of labour is contraindicated in women with previous classical CS
Answer: A

Q69. Signs of impending uterine rupture include the following except:

A- Early decelerations
B- Tetanic contractions
C- Loss of engagement
D- Bandl’s ring
E- Early felt fetal parts
Answer: A

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Q70. Regarding Depot Medroxy Progesterone Acetate, all are correct except:
A- It is taken as IM injection
B- Failure rate is 4%
C- Suitable for handicap patients
D- Side effects include delayed return of fertility after discontinuation
E- It causes thickening of cervical mucus
Answer: B

Q71. With respect to postmenopausal bleeding, all are correct except:

A- Endometrial cancer is the most common serious cause
B- Carcinoma of the cervix is a recognized cause
C- The incidence is higher with increasing age
D- May be due to haemorrhoids
E- Endometrial thickness should be less than 0.2cm
Answer: E? (0.4)

Q72. All are characteristics of reactive CTG except:

A- 170 baseline
B- 110 baseline
C- No decelerations
D- 2 accelerations
E- Variability 5-25
Answer: A

Q73. Which of the following is the most common cause of postmenopausal bleeding
A- Atrophic vaginitis
B- DUB
C- Endometritis
Answer: A

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Q74. Question about what is incorrect in anemia in pregnancy
A- Less than 10 μg/l
B- Vit C with Iron supplements
C- More in multiparous and multiple gestations
D- Risk factor for preterm delivery and low birth weight
E- Physiologic dilutional anemia
Answer: C or D??
*not multiparity? But multiple gestation is 100% risk factor
*preterm? But 100% LBW

Q75. 30 years old multiparous woman with 4cm simple cyst, what is the management
A- Observe for 3 months
B- Lap and Cystectomy
C- Aspiration
D- Unilateral salpingo-oophrectomy
E- Hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophrectomy
Answer: A

Q76. Endometriosis deposits in all excepts

A- Brain
B- Surgical scar
C- Peritoneum
D- Uterosacral ligament
E- Pelvis
Answer: A

Q77. Correct about antepartum haemorrhage

A- Can occur in 2nd stage of labour
B- Leading cause of death in developed countries
C- It is defined as more than 500mL bleeding in vaginal delivery
D- It can happen in first trimester
Answer: A

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Q78. Regarding breastfeeding, all are correct except
A- Warfarin is contraindicated in breastfeeding
B- LMWH should be continued 10 weeks post
C- Delivery if DVT was present 2 weeks pre-delivery
D- LMWH should not be given labour
Answer: A

Q79. All the following are parameters of partogram except:

A- Medications used in labour
B- Uterine contractions
C- Colour of liquor
D- Maternal heart rate
E- Fetal birth weight
Answer: E

Q80. All the following are true changes in pregnancy except:

A- Decrease urea creatinine
B- Glycosuria could be normal
C- Decrease systemic peripheral vascular resistance
D- Increase substance clearance
E- Decrease serum triglyceride
Answer: E

Q81. 4 week pregnant female came with mild painless vaginal bleeding, her HCG 700, after 48 hours
it her HCG is 900, her progesterone level 5, empty geatational sac by ultrasound, what’s is the
management (not sure how the question was but smth similar to this)
A- Normal HCG level
B- Normal doubling
C- Monitor after 48 hours
D- Give Methotrexate
E- Progesterone indicates healthy pregnancy
Answer:

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Q82. False about induction of labour
A- Syntocinon is more effective than ergometrine
B- PGE2 is a potent oxytocic drug
C- IUGR is contraindicated for induction
Answer: C

The End

Done by: Abdulelah Alkayed,

Shirean YH, Hadeel Dawahrea

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