SBI Clerk Mains 2020 Model Question Paper PDF (Set-4)

SBI CLERK MAINS- MODEL QUESTION PAPER SET - 4
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SBI Model Question Paper Set- 4
English Language d) AD, BE and CF
Directions (1 – 5): In the following table, three e) BF

statements, each containing a blank, are given in
2.
column 1. Match the correct filler from Column 2
with the respective statement in Column 1, in which it Column 1 Column 2
will fit to make the statement grammatically and A. To use those instruments to D. remonstrating
meaningfully correct. catch foxes is something that is
1. certainly not beyond the
__________ of possibility.
Column 1 Column 2 B. Micko was seen __________ E. abandoned
A. May I __________ D. Delivered with the referee and umpires at
comments made four years ago, half time after Chris Conway's
which I will repeat with goal was disallowed.
monotonous regularity until C. Several actors who had F. realms
something is done about it. supported his candidacy
B. Last Friday the postman E. Reiterate __________ him.
__________ a bunch of letters
and packages dating back to the
past two years. a) BE and CD
C. Irham said that candidates F. tricks b) AD, BE and CF
were found to have used various
__________ to deceive the poll c) CD
commission in their registration
d) AF and BD
documents.
e) AD and BF
a) AE and BF 3.
b) AE and CF Column 1 Column 2
A. After working in the hospitality D. ridiculous
c) AF, BD and CE
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industry for 21 years, Gao has b) BE

proved herself to be a person who
c) AF, BD and CE
reaches the __________ of success
in whatever field she involves d) AE and BF
herself.
B. Looking back at the year, we E. pinnacle e) BF and CD
would all say we were
5.
__________ with how it went,
because no one expected us to do Column 1 Column 2
so well. A. CFC gas damages the ozone D. harmful
C. Just as he has the right to ask F. satisfied layer which protects the earth from
for a __________ rent increase, __________ rays of the sun.
you have the right to fight it. B. Great Yorkshire Show E. nexus
organisers have denied any plans
to __________ this year's event
a) BF and CD
because of the foot and mouth
b) BE and CF crisis.
C. Ramesh‘s new column will F. cancel
c) AE, BD and CF focus on the increasingly
d) BE controversial __________ between
business and politics.
e) CF and AD
4. a) AE and CF
Column 1 Column 2 b) AF and BE

A. Don't think that local D. scarcity
c) BD and CF
elections are measly,
__________ , and not worth d) BE, CF and AD
your time.
B. In general, beech nuts have E. inheritances e) AD, BF and CE
been regarded as food for
Directions (6 – 12): In the given passage, there are
humans in times of famine or
seven blanks which are alphabetized. For each blank,
__________ .
choose from the given options that has the correct
C. Your children must pay gift F. insignificant
combination of words which can both fit in the blank
tax on taxable gifts and
grammatically and contextually.
inheritance tax on taxable
__________ . As part of its commitment to simplify and (A)
_____________ labour rules and laws under four codes,
the Union Cabinet has cleared the Occupational, Safety,
a) AE, BD
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Health and Working Conditions Code, a week after it d) Restated - announced

approved the Code on Wages Bill. The latter seeks to
include more workers under the (B) ___________ of e) Legally – formally
minimum wages and proposes a statutory national 7. B
minimum wage for different geographic regions, to
ensure that States will not fix minimum wages below a) Creation - shock
those set by the Centre. These steps should be welcomed.
b) Investment - curtail
The Code on labour safety and working conditions
include regular and mandatory medical examinations for c) State - class
workers, issuing of appointment letters, and (C)
______________ of rules on women working night d) Purview - ambit
shifts. Other codes that await Cabinet approval include
e) Scope – rate
the Code on Industrial Relations and the Code on Social
Security. Unlike these pending bills, especially the one 8. C
related to industrial relations that will be (D)
_____________ by labour unions for any changes to a) Tracing - speaking
worker rights and rules on hiring and dismissal and b) Framing - Devising
contract jobs, the two that have been passed should be
easier to build a consensus on, in Parliament and in the c) Concluding - trying
public sphere. Organised unions have (E)
d) Striking - formulating
______________ opposed changes proposed in the
Industrial Relations code, especially the proviso to e) Bending – leading
increase the limit for prior government permission for
lay-off, retrenchment and closure from 100 workers as it 9. D
is currently, to 300. The Economic Survey (F)
a) Strained - plated
______________ the effect of labour reforms in
Rajasthan, suggesting that the growth rates of firms b) Created - dared
employing more than 100 workers increased at a higher
rate than the rest of the country after labour reforms. But c) Scrutinised - perused
worker organisations claim that the implementation of d) Sparked - meant
such stringent labour laws in most States is generally (G)
__________. Clearly, a cross-State analysis of labour e) Disturbed – earned
movement and increase in employment should give a
10. E
better picture of the impact of these rules.
a) Happily - actually
6. A
b) Vociferously - vehemently
a) Strengthen - divide
c) Subconsciously - reprimanded
b) Consolidate - amalgamate
d) Critical - strong
c) Stream - combine
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e) Realised – united generating lots of smog ingredients like nitrogen oxide

and sulfur oxides (4).
11. F
D. Even better, Bloom‘s units get their fuel via
a) Emphasised - highlighted underground pipelines considers by the Diablo winds
b) Separated - spewed that threatened California‘s high-voltage wires and led
to the power outages that Sridhar unaffected intolerable
c) Relieved - participated in any modern society, let alone in Silicon Valley.
d) Purchased - carved E. to pay for the damage (1)/ your power price is going
to go up, (2)/ because somebody has (3)/ every time there
e) Underscored – wrought
is a disaster, (4).
12. G
13. Which of the following words are inappropriate in
a) Counted - weaken the context of A?
b) Structure - slowly a) cancelled
c) Parted - demand b) suffered
d) Remiss - lax c) reduce
e) Class – created d) sparking
Directions (13 – 17): In the question below, a set of six e) All are correct
sentences is given, that form a coherent paragraph.
14. Which of the following highlighted words in B
Read the sentences and answer the questions as per
should be replaced by the given alternative to make the
the individual direction given.
sentence grammatically and contextually correct?
A. As wildfires cancelled California, more than a million
1. traded --> aroused
northern Californians suffered through blackouts, their
electricity cut in order to reduce the likelihood of high 2. mocks --> sells
winds sparking new conflagrations. In smoke, KR
Sridhar smelt opportunity. 3. generate --> spread
B. His company, publicly traded Bloom Energy, mocks 4. hating --> using
fuel cells—steel boxes that generate electricity hating a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
natural gas.
b) 2, 3 and 4
C. The boxes, which it calls energy servers, (1)/ emit a
nearly pure stream of carbon dioxide, (2)/ a major c) 1, 2 and 4
greenhouse gas, but they is supposed to make much less
of it than traditional power plants (3)/ and do so without d) 2 and 4
e) 1 and 3
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15. C is divided into four parts. How many parts is/ are 18. FARE
grammatically correct?
I. The culprit didn't think that he got a fare hearing in
a) 0 court.
b) 1 II. The candidate that fares best is the topper of the

examination.
c) 2
III. A fare justice system is a fundamental part of a
d) 3 civilized society.
e) 4 a) Only I
16. C is divided into four parts. How many parts is/ are b) Only II
grammatically correct?
c) Only III
a) 0
d) Only II & III
b) 1
e) All I, II & III
c) 2
19. BREWED
d) 3
I. The world outside her was calm, but the storm within
e) 4 her brewed.
17. E is divided into four parts. Which of the following II. I used to brewed these things on my walk.
parts should be interchanged to make the sentence
coherent? III. The smell indoors was the smell of freshly brewed
coffee in the morning.
a) 1 and 2
a) Only I & III
b) 1 and 3
b) Only II
c) 2 and 4
c) Only I & II
d) 2 and 3
d) Only III
e) 1 and 4
e) All of I, II & III
Directions (18 – 21): In the following question, a word
has been given and there are three ways in which the 20. FLAIR
word has been used, in similar or different forms.
I. There was a sudden flair when she threw the petrol
You need to see which of the sentence(s) has/have
onto the fire.
correctly used the given word and mark your answers
accordingly.
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II. He even exhibited a flair for handling the crowd that one's feelings of fear, and the actions they cause and
scenes particularly well. motivate, are correctly responsive to the dangers one
faces. Similar considerations apply to other feelings and
III. Excessive sweating or being in a humid climate can actions. Temperance, for example, is concerned with the
cause acne to flair up. pleasures and pains of appetitive desires, such as those
a) Only I & III for food, drink and intimacy. (B) It is pleasures and
pains of various sorts, indeed, that are the foci of the
b) Only II virtues of character. Let us think of the virtues of
character as, on the one hand, filters, since they filter out,
c) Only II & III
or counteract, the distortions that our desires introduce
d) Only I into our perceptions. On the other hand, we can think of
them as lenses that, now cleaned of distortions, reveal the
e) All of I, II & III world of values to us, as it really is - in the same way that
the perceptual mean reveals, for example, colours. (C)
21. ELUSIVE
Hold(1) on to that idea: the virtues of character
I. People will find themselves in a mysterious and disorderly(2) the world of values to us, a world that
elusive universe while walking in. reveal(3) desires make invisible. In the Republic, Plato
tells us that the allegory of the cave illustrates the effects
II. She could not remember the elusive thought she had of education on us. (D) An education does not put
had moments before. sight, or intelligence, into blind eyes. (E) It turns us
III. This is actually a common bird but had proved around to face the Sun and the good by cutting the
surprisingly elusive. bonds of desires that keep us in darkness, focused on
mere distorted images of the good, rather than the
a) Only II good itself. For some, the virtues of character are not
enough by themselves to work the magic of illumination
b) Only I & II
that comes with exiting Plato's cave. We also need the
c) Only I intellectual virtues: practical wisdom (phronêsis) and
theoretical wisdom (sophia) - the latter being what
d) Only II & III philosophia is the love of. (F) After all, to ______ our
desires, to set their ______ in the right mean, we have to
e) All of I, II & III
know what our good really is, and that ______ knowing
Directions (22 – 26): Read the following passage and what we really are. And not only that: but of what sort of
answer the questions as directed. world we are a part.
(A) Courage is related to feeling off fear and confidence 22. Which of the following convey the same meaning as
in the face of danger. To be overly afraid of small that of sentence (B) and is/are grammatically and
dangers is to be cowardly, while to be overly confident in contextually correct?
the face of large dangers is to be rash or foolhardy. To be
I. The central point of the virtues of character is, indeed,
courageous, by contrast, is to have one's fears in a mean,
pleasures and pains of various types
so that they measure dangers correctly, with the result
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II. Indeed, the central point of pleasures and pains of d) III only
various sorts are the virtues of character
e) All of the above
III. Pleasures and pains of various sorts, indeed,
contribute to the development of our character. 25. A phrase is highlighted in sentence (A). You need to
identify which of the given can both grammatically and
a) II only contextually replace the highlighted part. In case the
highlighted part is correct, mark option E as your answer.
b) I only
I. Related to feeling of
c) I and III only
II. Related to feelings off
d) II and III only
III. Related to feelings of
e) All of the above
a) Only II
23. In sentence (F), choose the correct combination of
words that fit in the corresponding blanks thereby b) Only I
making the sentence grammatically and contextually
correct. c) Only III
a) Calibrate, balances, involve d) None of the above
b) Calibrated, balance, involve e) No correction needed
c) Calibrated, balances, involve 26. In sentence (C), three words are marked as (1), (2)
and (3). These words may or may not be placed at their
d) Calibrate, balance, involves correct places. Four options with different arrangements
of these words have been provided. Mark the option with
e) Calibrate, balances, involves the correct arrangement as the answer.
24. Which of the following connector(s) can join the a) 2-3-1
sentences (D) and (E) keeping them grammatically and
contextually correct and the meaning intact? b) 2-1-3
I. Similarly c) 3-1-2
II. Additionally d) 3-2-1
III. But e) 1-3-2
a) I and III only Directions (27 – 28): In the question below, three
sentences are given, each divided into four parts,
b) II and III only which may or may not contain grammatical errors.
c) I and II only From the options, choose the one that provides the
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combination of the part(s) of each sentence that are e) 1-B, 2-B, 3-A
incorrect.
Directions (29 – 30): Select the phrase/connector from
27. 1. Two 24-year-olds works at Morgan Stanley (A)/ in the given three options which can be used to form a
New York in 1998 (B)/ decided to do their bit (C)/ for single sentence from the two sentences given below,
society by fundraising for a few non-profits in India (D). implying the same meaning as expressed in the
statement sentences.
2. They created a PowerPoint presentation (A)/ about the
cause, go around their office (B)/ and asked for funds, 29. India is looking at increasing consumption of natural
(C)/ but could only manage to collect $500 (D). gas by more than doubling its share in energy basket to
15 per cent by 2030. It aims to reduce dependence on
3. They mustered up (A)/ the courage (B)/ to imports for meeting energy needs and cutting greenhouse
approaching (C)/ former Morgan Stanley Chairman emissions.
Richard B Fisher. (D)
I. Aiming to reduce dependence
a) 1-C, 3-B
II. As it aims to reduce
b) 2-A, 3-C
III. Reducing dependence on imports
c) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C
a) Both (I) and (II)
d) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A
b) Both (I) and (III)
e) 1-A, 2-C
c) Only (II)
28. 1. RBI‘s latest move reflects (A)/ a lack of
confidence across the current leadership (B)/ at Yes d) Only (I)
Bank for a credible revival plan (C)/ to infuse fresh
capital into the bank (D). e) None of these
2. Yes Bank has over the past near two years (A)/ saw a 30. State-owned Oil and Natural Gas Corp (ONGC) has
complete loss of confidence (B)/ from the investor reported a record 6.5 per cent jump in natural gas
community, (C)/ both in India and overseas (D). production. It doubles up efforts to raise domestic output
to curb imports.
3. The RBI had highlights (A)/ ―serious lapses‖ in (B)/
corporate governance and ―poor compliance culture‖ I. Despite doubling up efforts
(C)/ during his tenure (D). II. As it doubles up
a) 1-C, 2-D, 3-B III. While doubling up efforts
b) 1-B, 2-B a) Both (I) and (III)
c) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D b) (I), (II) and (III)
d) 2-A c) Both (II) and (III)
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d) Only (II) The general message from such evidence is clear

enough: in much of the world, human fertility is
e) None of these considerably lower than the biological potential. It is
Directions (31 – 35): Read the following passage strongly ____(A)____ cultural regulations, especially
carefully and answer the questions. those concerning marriage and sexuality, and by
conscious efforts on the part of married couples to limit
Demographers distinguish between fecundity, the their childbearing.
underlying biological potential for reproduction, and
fertility, the actual level of achieved reproduction. 31. According to the passage, what are the factors that
(Confusingly, these English terms have opposite responsible for the difference between biological
meanings from their parallel terms in French, where potential and realized fertility?
fertilité is the potential and fécondité is the realized; 1. Social behaviours such as abstinence, contraception,
similarly ambiguous usages also prevail in the biological abortion and sterilization
sciences, thereby increasing the chance of
misunderstanding.) The difference between biological 2. Most women begin reproducing long after they reach
potential and realized fertility is determined by several puberty.
intervening factors. Most women do not begin
reproducing immediately upon the onset of puberty, 3. Some women choose to never reproduce.
which itself does not occur at a fixed age. Some women a) Only 3
with the potential to reproduce never do so. Some
women become widowed and do not remarry. Various b) Only 2
elements of social behaviour restrain fertility. Many
c) Only 1 and 2
human couples choose consciously to restrict their
fertility by means of sexual abstinence, contraception, d) Only 1 and 3
abortion, or sterilization.
e) All 1, 2 and 3
The magnitude of the gap between potential and realized
fertility can be illustrated by comparing the highest 32. The passage gives sufficient information to answer
known fertilities with those of typical European and which of the following questions?
North American women in the late 20th century. A well-
1. What factors are responsible for the global decline of
studied high-fertility group is the Hutterites of North
fertility over the past few decades?
America, a religious sect that views fertility regulation as
sinful and high fertility as a blessing. Hutterite women 2. What beliefs do the Hutterites of North America hold
who married between 1921 and 1930 are known to have about fertility?
averaged 10 children per woman. Meanwhile, women in
much of Europe and North America averaged about two 3. What is the difference between fecundity and fertility?
children per woman during the 1970s and 1980s—a a) Only 3
number 80 percent less than that achieved by the
Hutterites. Even the highly fertile populations of b) Only 2 and 3
developing countries in Africa, Asia, and Latin America
c) Only 1 and 2
produce children at rates far below that of the Hutterites.
Page 9 of 83
d) Only 1 and 3 3. Contracted by
e) All 1, 2 and 3 a) Only 1
33. Which of the following best sums up the central idea b) Only 3
of the passage?
c) Only 1 and 2
a) Difference between the biological potential for
reproduction and its achieved levels d) Only 1 and 3
b) While fertility of women is declining globally e) Only 2 and 3
c) Role of birth control in modifying fertility of women Directions (36 – 39): A set of five statements is given
below, which when rearranged, form a meaningful
d) Social factors governing reproductive practices paragraph. One of the statements does not belong to the
paragraph. Rearrange the remaining sentences and
e) None of the above answer the questions.
34. Which of the following statements use the word 36. P. Antarctica, Earth‘s coldest continent, is known for
‘determined’ to convey the same meaning as that its remoteness, its unique fauna, and its frigid surface of
conveyed by the passage? ice.
1. Chicago high school rankings are determined by the Q. The two largest ice shelves, the Ross Ice Shelf and the
average test scores on state achievement tests. Ronne Ice Shelf, span a combined area of nearly 350,000
2. The remaining Germans offered determined square km.
resistance and the 16th Welsh were held up by machine R. Around Antarctica‘s periphery, dozens of ice shelves
gun fire and the use of a flamethrower. (that is, masses of glacier-fed floating ice that are
3. The hydrology of the upper water layers is largely attached to land) project outward into the Southern
determined by the flow from the North Atlantic. Ocean.
a) Only 1 S. Calving is a natural process driven, in part, by

seasonal changes in temperature and the pressures
b) Only 1 and 2 associated with the build-up of compressional stress on
the ice.
c) Only 1 and 3
T. But Antarctica‘s Larsen Ice Shelf, the continent‘s
d) Only 2 and 3
fourth largest, has received the bulk of the attention over
e) All 1, 2 and 3 the last 25 years because it is slowly coming apart.
35. Which of the following phrases can fit in (A)? Which of the following represents the final order of the
statements that form the paragraph?
1. Constrained by
a) PRQT
2. Constraint by
Page 10 of 83
b) PQSR Q. Roughly speaking, by this measure worldwide infant

mortality approximates 80 per 1,000; that is, about 8
c) SQTP percent of newborn babies die within the first year of
d) QRSP life.
e) QTRP R. In developing countries, substantial declines in infant

mortality have been credited to improved sanitation and
37. P. The Industrial Revolution, the period in which nutrition, increased access to modern health care, and
agrarian and handicraft economies shifted rapidly to improved birth spacing through the use of contraception.
industrial and machine-manufacturing-dominated ones,
began in the United Kingdom in the 18th century. S. In industrialized countries in which infant mortality
rates were already low, the increased availability of
Q. The Industrial Revolution was the engine behind advanced medical technology for newborn—in
various advances in medicine. particular, prematurely born—infants provides a partial
explanation.
R. As communication between physicians in different
areas improved, the details behind new cures and T. Generally, infant mortality is somewhat higher among
treatments for disease could be dispersed quickly, males than among females.
resulting in better care.
Which of the following represents the final order of the
S. Using machine manufacturing, refinements to these statements that form the paragraph?
instruments could more efficiently roll out to the
physicians that needed them. a) PTQR
T. Industrialization allowed medical instruments (such as b) SQRT

scalpels, microscope lenses, test tubes, and other c) PQRS
equipment) to be produced more quickly.
d) RQTP
Which of the following represents the final order of the
statements that form the paragraph? e) RSQP
a) QSTP 39. P. The perils of long migrations are many, and in

some instances the obstacles that must be overcome may
b) TSQP make a move impossible.
c) TRQS Q. In multiple parts of the world, the majority of native
d) QTSR butterflies are on the move as a result of local climate
warming.
e) SQRP
R. They are leaving their natural homes and taking up
38. P. Infant mortality is conventionally measured as the residence in places with cooler average temperatures.
number of deaths in the first year of life per 1,000 live
births during the same year. S. The arrival of new species to the area appears to be
directly associated with increases in local temperatures in
Page 11 of 83
southwestern Europe.T. Although the latter is a region C. The special forces and the ruling party averted the
historically home to few moths and butterflies, in the last catastrophe, thereby bringing them back to their normal
century alone, some 89 species of these insects have lives.
migrated there permanently, having flown north from
southern Europe. a) Only B
U. This phenomenon has been well characterized in b) Only A

Europe and the United Kingdom. c) Only C
Which of the following provides the correct final order d) Both A and C
of the statements?
e) None of the above
a) RSQUP
Reasoning Ability
b) QPSRT
Directions (41 – 45): Study the following information
c) QRUTS to answer the question given below:
d) RQTSU Step 1: Those consonants which are immediately
e) SQRTP followed by a vowel and immediately preceded by a
number are written at the left end in alphabetical order.
40. In the given question, two sentences are given. Select
the phrase/connector from the given three options which Step 2: After completing step 1, Symbols are
can be used in the beginning (to start the sentence) to interchanged with preceding element.
form a single sentence from the two sentences given Step 3: After completing step 2, Odd numbers which are
below, implying the same meaning as expressed in the non-Perfect Square are written at the right end in
statement sentences. descending order.
The catastrophe was averted by the special forces. Their Note: 1 is not a perfect square.
homes were refurbished by the ruling party and they
went back to their lives as though nothing had happened. Input: ($ 0 A B E 3 ! @ V 7 Q # 1 S I 9 & A Z 2 4 G 4
%)
A. The special forces averted the catastrophe and the
ruling party refurbished their homes, thereafter, they 41. After completing Step 3, what is the difference
soon went back to their lives as though nothing had between 8th element from the right end and 4th element
happened. from the left end?
B. The catastrophe was averted and the special forces a) 3

while the government refurbished their homes making
b) 2
them go back to their normal lives.
c) 4
d) 0
Page 12 of 83
e) 1 c) 1
42. How many symbols are there which are immediately d) 6

followed by a number in Step 2?
e) None of these
a) 1
46. Directions: The question below is given two
b) 0 statements I and II. These statements may be either
independent causes or maybe the effects of independent
c) 3 causes or a common cause. One of the statements may be
d) 2 the effect of the other statements. Read both the
statements and decide which of the answer choice
e) 4 correctly depicts the relationship between these two
statements.
43. How many elements are there which are followed by
vowels in step 3. Statements:
a) 4 I. Global warming is an ever-looming problem. The
increased temperature has caused a lot of changes in
b) 1
habitat adapting to which is a difficult task for all
c) 5 creatures. It has adversely impacted the climate and the
consequences are visible. If global warming is not taken
d) 3 seriously, it will doom the world.
e) 2 II. Garbage dumping into rivers and oceans is a cause for
concern. The dumped garbage contains harmful
44. Which element is 7th to the right of 15th element
chemicals, plastics, and materials like lead which not
from the right end in step 3.
only kill marine life but also enter the food chain and
a) 9 adversely impact the human body.
b) 4 a) Statement I is the cause and statement II is the effect.
c) A b) Statement II is the cause and statement I is the effect.
d) # c) Both statements are independent causes.
e) 2 d) Both the statements are effects of independent causes.
45. After completing all 3 steps, how many elements are e) Both the statements are effects of some common
there between 15th element from the right end and 15th cause.
element from the left end.
47. Directions: The question below is given two
a) 3 statements I and II. These statements may be either
independent causes or maybe the effects of independent
b) 5
Page 13 of 83
causes or a common cause. One of the statements may be Company A is a manufacturing company which produces
the effect of the other statements. Read both the Mobile Phones. Recently, it has received an order for
statements and decide which of the answer choice producing 60,000,000 from Firm A which plans to gift
correctly depicts the relationship between these two mobile phones to its employees on the eve of the
statements. organization‘s 25th anniversary. Company A agrees to
deliver the goods in the stipulated time period. It has
Statements: placed an order for all the raw materials to make the
I. News Channel C launched a sting operation against mobile phones. Their usual microchips contractor has
Company N which manufactures Food X. After the sting, declined to accept Company A‘s order for 70,000,000
the channel realized that Food X was adulterated. So, microchips. So, the company places an order for the
they sent it for testing to a lab. The test results showed microchips with a highly renowned and reputed tech
that Food X had an unacceptable amount of lead in it. company T. When the shipment arrives, company A
News Channel C ran a story on the same. realizes that half of the chips are defective.
II. After a month since the news channel ran the story, Course of Actions:
the CEO of Company N asked for a report on the sales of I. Company A files a case in the court of law against
their product from the management accountant of the Company T.
company. The report showed that the sales for Food X
had gone down by 20,000,000 units. II. The members of the company A badmouth and tarnish
Company T‘s reputation in social circles.
a) Statement I is the cause and statement II is the effect.
a) Only I follows.
b) Statement II is the cause and statement I is the effect.
b) Only Il follows.
c) Both statements are independent causes.
c) Either I or II follows.
d) Both the statements are effects of independent causes.
d) Neither I nor II follows.
e) Both the statements are effects of some common
cause. e) Both I and II follow.
48. Directions: In the question below are given a 49. Directions: Read the passage given below and
statement followed by two courses of action numbered I choose the correct option.
and II. A course of action is a step or administrative
decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or Passage: Pollution amounts to slow murder. Regular
further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On exposure to industrial and vehicular pollution leads to
the basis of the information given in the statement to be life-threatening diseases like asthma, heart problems,
true, then decide which of the suggested courses of cancer and various other disorders. Therefore, nobody
action logically follow(s) for pursuing. has the right to pollute, rich or poor. Industrial and
vehicular pollution is growing rapidly across the country.
Statement: It is not just the metropolitan centre‘s that are heavily
polluted today but also small and medium towns.
Pollution is growing faster than the economy. This is
Page 14 of 83
because the western technological model, built on heavy a) 8m

use of energy and materials, is an inherently highly toxic
model. It produces huge amounts of toxic pollution, b) 15m
which can be controlled only if there is a careful choice c) 10m
of technology and there is considerable discipline in its
use. d) 25m
Assumption: The pollution level in the western world is e) None of these.

considerably more than that in India.
Directions (52 – 56): Read the given information
a) If the assumption is definitely true. carefully and answer the questions.
b) If the assumption is probably true. A five digit number arrangement machine when given an
input line of numbers rearranges them following a
c) If the assumption is definitely false. particular rule in each step. The following is an
d) If the assumption is probably false. illustration of input and rearrangement.
e) If the data are inadequate. Input: 56148 34195 41683 63215 52197
Step I: 14568 13459 13468 12356 12579

Directions (50 – 51): Study the information below and
answer the following questions: Step II: 1158 1129 1138 1106 1149
A & C (44m) – A is 36m west of C. Step III: 0048 0028 0028 0006 0048
A % C (30m) – A is 38m north of C. Step IV: 12 10 10 06 12
A # C (51m) – A is 43m east of C. Step V: 06 10 10 12 12
A $ C (20m) – A is 28m south of C. Step VI: 036 10 10 14 14
X&P(14m); Q#R(12m); W%V(4m); U&V(17m); U$T(- Step VI is the last step of the above input. As per rules
1m); T#S(12m); R%S(-3m); Q$P(0m). followed in the above steps, find out in each of the given
50. What is the direction of S with respect to P? questions the appropriate steps for the given input.
a) South east Input for the question:
b) North west ―43156 92146 81247 53179 69432 47269‖
c) South west 52. In the last step, which number is 3rd from the right
end of the given input?
d) North east
a) 41
e) None of these.
b) 16
51. What is the shortest distance between X and V?
Page 15 of 83
c) 14 a) 08
d) 18 b) 10
e) None of these c) 16
53. What is the sum of last three numbers in step IV of d) 18

the given input?
e) None of these
a) 30
Directions (57 – 61): Answer the questions based on
b) 58 the information given below:
c) 46 A certain number of boxes are placed one above the

other in two different stacks, X and Y from left to right
d) 40 respectively. Both the stacks have different number of
e) None of these boxes, such that the bottommost box is 1 and the box
above it is 2 and so on. The dimensions of each of the
54. Which number is 4th from the left end in step II of the boxes are same.
given input?
Note: If one (two or more) boxes are placed between A
a) 1129 and B or A is placed 2nd(3rd, 4th and so on) to the above
of B, then both are in the same stack and the boxes in
b) 1159
that stack is considered, unless stated otherwise.
c) 1126
Three boxes are placed between R and F, which is placed
d) 2936 in the west O. T is placed 2 places above O. L is placed
just above the box, which is exactly in the west of T.
e) None of these Two boxes are placed between L and J. One box is
placed between L and P, which is not placed adjacent to
55. What is the absolute difference of the 3rd number
J. B is placed exactly in the east of P. M is placed 4th to
from right end in step III and 2nd number from the left
the above of B. Number of boxes between the box,
end in step III?
which is exactly in the west of M and R is equal to the
a) 37 number of boxes below F. L is not placed at the position,
which is a multiple of 6. Two boxes are placed between
b) 26 M and S. Q is the 8th box. Exactly two boxes are not
c) 25 placed between R and Q. Number of boxes between Q
and S is equal to the number of boxes above S. N is the
d) 20 5th box. Number of boxes between N and O is equal to
the number of boxes above J. H is the 10th box. K is an
e) None of these
even numbered box but not placed below 7th box.
56. Which among the following is the first number from
57. How many boxes are there in stack Y?
left end in step IV of the given input?
Page 16 of 83
a) 11 b1
b) 10 c) 4
c) 12 d) 0
d) 9 e) None of these
e) 7 Directions (62 – 66): Answer the questions based on

the information given below:
58. How many boxes are placed between K and F?
Eight persons C, D, E, L, N, O, U and Y have birthdays
a) 3 on the same numbered date of eight consecutive years
b) 2 from 1989 to 1996. Each of them decided to get married
at different ages: 25, 26, 27, 28, 29, 30, 32 and 33 years
c) 6 (not necessarily in the same order).
d) 1 N was born in the immediate year before E. The person

born in the year 1994 will get married when he is 32
e) None of these
years old. Two persons were born in between D and N.
59. N is placed in which of the following stack? Three persons were born in between Y and the one who
will get married when he is 27 years old. Y was born
a) Y before the one who will get married when he is 27 years
old. O will get married when he is 30 years old. N and C
b) X
will get married at consecutive ages where the former
c) Either (a) or (b) will get married before the latter. D was born after E. L
was born after the one who will get married when he is
d) in which L is placed 25 years old but he will not get married at 26. C was
e) None of these born in the immediate year after the one who will get
married at 26 years. O was born after 1991. The one who
60. What is the sum of all boxes in stack X and stack Y? will get married when he is 26 years old was born after O
but not immediately. The one who will get married at 25
a) 22
years was born in the immediate year before O.
b) 21
62. Who will marry when he is 33 years old?
c) 18
a) C
d) 19
b) L
e) None of these
c) Y
61. How many boxes are above box Q?
d) U
a) 2
Page 17 of 83
e) D e) O
63. Who was born in the year 1993? Directions (67 – 70): The question given below
consists of a question and 2 statements. You have to
a) L
decide whether the data provided in the statements
b) The one who will marry at 27 years are sufficient to answer the question.
c) The one who will marry at 33 years 67. Six friends bought different products at different
times - Watch, Mobile, Fruit, Vegetables, Shoe and
d) The one who will marry at 29 years Cloth. Fruit was bought before Watch. How many
products were bought between Cloth and Vegetables?
e) E
Statement 1: Mobile is bought immediately before
64. How many people were born in between N and the
Watch. Two products were bought between Fruit and
one who will marry at 29 years?
Watch. Shoe was bought before Cloth but not
a) Four immediately.
b) Three Statement 2: Three products were bought between Shoe

and Watch. Fruit is bought immediately after Shoe. One
c) Two product is bought between Fruit and Vegetables. Cloth is
bought immediately before Mobile.
d) None
a) If the data in both statements 1 and 2 together are
e) More than four
necessary to answer the question
65. Who was born in the immediate year before U?
b) If the data either in statement 1 or in statement 2 alone
a) The one who will marry at 33 years are sufficient to answer the question
b) The one who will marry at 26 years c) If the data in both statements 1 and 2 together are not
sufficient to answer the question
c) The one who will marry at 29 years
d) If the data in statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer
d) The one who will marry at 27 years the question while the data in statement 1 alone is not
e) The one who will marry at 32 years sufficient to answer the question
66. Which of the following persons were born before E? e) If the data in statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer
the question while the data in statement 2 alone is not
a) The one who will marry at 25 years sufficient to answer the question
b) L 68. There are seven floors in a building from ground

floor to sixth floor such that one person lives on each
c) The one who will marry at 29 years
floor. Q lives immediately above J. More than two
d) The one who will marry at 28 years persons live below K. Z lives above G. Who lives on the
fourth floor?
Page 18 of 83
I. Three persons live in between G and Z. C lives b) If the data in statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer
immediately below G. the question while the data in statement 1 alone is not
II. X lives on the ground floor. There is one floor in
between J and Z. c) If the data in both statements 1 and 2 together are not
a) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question while the data in statement I alone d) If the data either in statement 1 or in statement 2 alone
are not sufficient to answer the question are sufficient to answer the question
b) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II e) If the data in both statements 1 and 2 together are
alone are sufficient to answer the question necessary to answer the question
c) If the data in both statements I and II together are 70. Six persons, P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting around a
necessary to answer the question circular table. All of them are facing the centre. Who is
sitting 2nd to the left of R?
d) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer
the question while the data in statement II alone are not Statement I: S is sitting 2nd to the right of U. Two
sufficient to answer the question persons are sitting between U and P. One person is
sitting between P and Q.
e) If the data in both statements I and II together are not
sufficient to answer the question Statement II: Neither T nor R is sitting adjacent to S.
One person is sitting between U and T.
69. Eight friends - A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting
around a square table in such a way that four of them sit a) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer
at four corners of the square while four sits in the middle the question, while the data in statement II alone are not
of each of the four sides. The one who sits at the corner sufficient to answer the question
faces outside while those who sit in the middle faces
inside. D faces outside. One person sits between F and D. b) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer
Who sits second to the left of B? the question, while the data in statement I alone are not
Statement 1: E sits third to the right of F and second to
the right of C. D and C are immediate neighbours. Two c) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II
persons sit between B and D(either from left or right). alone are sufficient to answer the question
Statement 2: A sits to the immediate left of F. Three d) The data given in both statements I and II together are
persons sit between A and E. H sits second to the left of not sufficient to answer the question
D. Two persons sit between B and H (either from left or e) The data in both statements I and II together are
right) necessary to answer the question.
a) If the data in statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer Directions (71 – 75): Answer the questions based on
the question while the data in statement 2 alone is not the information given below:
Page 19 of 83
Seven employees - J, K, L, M, N, O and P of a company e) Immediate left

are working in different designations. The designations
in increasing order are Secretary, Manager, CMO, CTO, 73. How many people were seated between O and the
Treasurer, COO and President where President is the one whose designation is CTO?
highest designation. All of them were seated in a linear a) Three
row facing north, but not necessarily in order.
b) None
K is senior to two people and was seated second to the
left of the one whose designation is Treasurer. Three c) Two
people were seated between J and the one whose
d) More than three
designation is Treasurer. Neither P nor J was seated at
the end. P is senior to K but junior to J. Three people e) One
were seated between P and the one whose designation is
Secretary. M is junior to P but senior to the one whose 74. Four of the following were in a certain group, which
designation is Manager. The number of people who were of the following that does not belong to that group?
seated between M and the one whose designation is the
a) K and the one whose designation is Manager
Treasurer is the same as between the number of people
who were seated between J and the one whose b) P and the one whose designation is Treasurer
designation is Manager. The number of people who were
seated to the left of the one whose rank is second highest c) J and the one whose designation is COO
was twice that of the number of people who were seated d) M and the one whose designation is President
to the right of L. O is immediate senior to N.
e) N and the one whose designation is CMO
71. N's designation is _____
75. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
a) Manager
a) P was seated second to the left of the one whose
b) Secretary designation is CTO
c) CTO b) O is junior to N but senior to K
d) Treasurer c) Two people were seated to the right of the one whose
e) President designation is CTO
72. What is the position of L with respect to P? d) Both (a) and (b)
a) Third to the left e) Both (a) and (c)
b) Second to the right Directions (76 – 80): Study the information given
below and answer the questions followed:
c) Second to the left
There are seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G in a
d) Third to the right family which consists of 3 generations and 2 married
Page 20 of 83
couples. There is no single parent. Each of them sits c) G‘s sister-in-law

around a circular table such that some of them face
towards the centre while others face outside. d) E‘s mother
Mother of C‘s father and F sit to the immediate left of e) None of these
each other. E and D are unmarried children of F, who 79. How is A related to the person, who sits to the
faces outside. F is married to B. G is a female member immediate right of E‘s sister?
and sits to the immediate right of D, who faces towards
the centre. D doesn‘t sit 2nd to the left of his/her parents. a) Father
A sits 3rd to the right of D‘s brother and immediate right
b) Husband
of grandfather of C. E faces towards the centre. Persons,
who sit adjacent to G, face in opposite directions with c) Brother
respect to each other. D is not the brother-in-law of G.
Gender of C and D is same. d) Father-in-law
76. How is C related to E? e) None of these
a) Nephew 80. Who sits 4th to the right of F?
b) Brother a) Sister of A
c) Niece b) Niece of E
d) Sister c) E
e) None of these d) Brother of C
77. What is the position of B‘s son with respect to G? e) None of these
a) 3rd to the left Directions (81 – 85): Answer the following questions
based on the information given below.
b) 2nd to the right
Ten persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X and Y are sitting
c) Immediate right around the square table. There are three seats on two
sides while two seats on other two sides. The sides
d) Can‘t be determined
having same number of seats are not opposite to each
e) 2nd to the left other. Equal number of persons is facing towards and
away from the center. Not more than two adjacent
78. If C and G sit 3rd to the right of each other, who sits persons face in same direction. Each of these persons has
5th to the right of C? different number of balls among 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9
a) C‘s mother and 10.
b) D‘s father T sits third to the right of W, who sits on the side, which
has three seats.
Page 21 of 83
X faces towards the center and S does not have 6 balls. e) None of these
W and T face towards the center. 82. Who sits second to the left of U?
V and S are not adjacent to each other. a) The one, who has 7 balls
T and S sit adjacent to each other on the side, which has b) The one, who has 10 balls
2 seats.
c) X
U has balls, which are 3 times that of P.
d) W
Two persons sit between S and Q, who sits adjacent to
one, who has 8 balls. e) None of these
One person sits between Q and R, who does not sit 83. How many persons sit between Y and X when
adjacent to S. counted from the left of Y?
X has ball in the multiple of 5 but one more than that of a) Two
Q. b) Three
The one, who has 9 balls, sits second to the left of W, c) Four
who has 4 balls less than that of S‘s balls.
d) Five
Q and U face away from the center.
e) None of these
P and Y sit to the immediate left of each other but neither
sits adjacent to T or R. 84. How many balls does U have?
Neither X nor U is adjacent to W. a) 7
The neighbors of Y face away from the center. b) 9
R, who has even number of balls, and the one who has 6 c) 3
balls don‘t sit on the same side.
d) 5
V doesn‘t sit third to the left of X.
e) None of these
81. Who among the following has 10 balls?
85. Who among the following have 7 balls?
a) V
a) T
b) X
b) V
c) S
c) W
d) T
d) Either (A) or (B)
Page 22 of 83
e) Either (B) or (C) e) None of these
Directions (86 – 90): In each of the following 87. 7 21 09

questions two rows of numbers are given. The
11 20 1
resultant number in each row is to be worked out
separately based on the following rules and the How many letters are there between the two resultants?
question below the rows of numbers are to be
answered. The operations of numbers progress from a) 18
left to right.
b) 19
Rules:
c) 17
i) If an odd number is followed by an even number then
d) 16
they are to be multiplied.
e) None of these
ii) If an even number is followed by an odd number then
they are to be added. 88. 06 30 02
iii) If an odd number is followed by a number which is 14 42 21
divisible by 7 then smaller number is subtracted from the
larger one. What are the resultants?
iv) If an even number is followed by a number which is a) K and M

divisible by 6 then larger number is divided by the
b) K and N
smaller one.
c) J and M
v) The digits of resultant of each row are added if the
number is greater than 26 and the corresponding alphabet d) J and R
is written as output if the numbers happen to represent
the 26 English alphabets in ascending order. e) None of these
86. 3 22 33 89. 9 10 13
5 35 60 5 52 27
What is the position of first row resultant to the left of If the resultants obtained before applying rule 5 are
second row resultant? added and then rule 5 is applied. What is the final
resultant?
a) 16th
a) L
b) 12th
b) M
c) 17th
c) N
d) 18th
d) O
Page 23 of 83
e) None of these the total number of boys in college A in all the three
courses together?
90. 03 63 120
a) 810
05 35 030
b) 640
How many letters are between the two resultants?
c) 720
a) 1
d) 1080
b) 2
e) None of these
c) 3
92. Out of total students in college A, B and C: 55%,
d) 4 60% and 64% respectively are boy students, then what is
e) None of these the average number of girl students in all the three
colleges together?
Quantitative Aptitude
a) 840
Directions (91 – 95): Read the data carefully and
answer the following questions. b) 780
There are three colleges A, B and C that offer three c) 820

different type of courses P, Q and R and a student can d) 800
join for any one of the mentioned courses in any one of
the mentioned colleges. e) None of these
College A: Ratio of number of students joined for 93. If in another college D, students in course P is same
courses P to that for Q is 3: 4 while the number of as students in course R in college A which is 28(1/3)% of
students joined for course R is 340 which 21.25% of total total students in college and ratio of students in course Q
number of students the college. to course R in college D is 16: 27, then what is the
number of students in course R in college D?
College B: Number of students joined for course P and R
are 50% more and 25% less than that joined for course Q a) 270
in college A respectively. Average of total number of
students joined for all the three courses together is 800. b) 560
College C: Total students in the college C is average of c) 540

that in colleges A and B together and ratio of number of d) 810
students joined for course P to for course Q is 8: 15.
Number of students joined for course R is 100 more than e) None of these
that for course Q.
94. If in college B, there is another course S and after
91. If the ratio of boys to girls in courses P, Q and R in including the students in course S, students in course P in
college A is 2: 1, 3: 5 and 9: 8 respectively, then what is
Page 24 of 83
that college becomes 36% of total students, then what is

the number of students in course S in college B? Percentage distribution of loans
given by bank A
a) 450
b) 500
6%
c) 600 12%
d) 750 35%
e) None of these 15%

95. What is the ratio of total number of students in
course Q in all the three colleges together to the total
number of students in course R in all the three colleges 10%
together? 22%
a) 121: 202
b) 225: 173 Home Loan Education Loan

Personal Loan Credit Cards
c) 171: 225
Auto Loan Other
d) 225: 202
e) None of these
Percentage distribution of loans
Directions (96 – 100): The given pie charts shows the given by bank B
percentage distribution of the type of loans given by 4%
banks A and B to their customers in the year 2018. Also, 15%
note that the total loan given by bank A is 20% more 30%
than the total loan given by bank B. Study the pie-charts
20%
and answer the questions that follow. 25%
6%
Home Loan Education Loan
Personal Loan Credit Cards
Auto Loan Other
96. The home loan given by bank A is what percentage

more than the home loan given by bank B?
a) 5%
Page 25 of 83
b) 20% 100. 60% of the other loans given by bank A were for
commercial purposes. If bank A gave a personal loan of
c) 25% Rs. 5 lakhs, how much loan did it gave for commercial
d) 40% purposes?
e) 50% a) Rs. 0.6 lakhs
97. If the bank B gave an education loan of Rs. 15 lakhs, b) Rs. 1.2 lakhs
how much education load did the bank A gave to its c) Rs. 1.8 lakhs
customers?
d) Rs. 2.4 lakhs
a) Rs. 15.25 lakhs
e) Rs. 1.6 lakhs
b) Rs. 15.48 lakhs
Directions (101 – 102): Given below are quantities
c) Rs. 15.63 lakhs
named A,B and C. Based on the given information,
d) Rs. 15.84 lakhs you have to determine the relation between the
quantities. You should use the given data and your
e) Rs. 14.86 lakhs knowledge of mathematics to choose among the
possible answer.
98. What is the ratio of the auto loan given by bank A to
that by bank B? 101. Quantity A: Tap1 and Tap2 can fill the tank in 16
hours and 25 hours respectively. Both the taps opened
a) 6 ∶ 5
together. After some time Tap 1 is closed and after that
b) 12 ∶ 15 the tank is filled in 12 hours. In how many hour Tap 1
and 2 work together?
c) 24 ∶ 25
Quantity B: Three taps 1, 2, 3 can fill a cistern in
d) 36 ∶ 35 10,14,18 hours respectively. If tap 1 is kept open all the
time and tap 2 and 3 is opened alternatively for an hour
e) 25 : 31
then find in how many hours the tank will be filled?
99. For every Rs. 1000 credit card loan given by bank B,
Quantity C: Two taps 1 and 2 are such that tap 1 fills the
how much credit card load did bank A gave to its
tank in 10 hours and tap2 empties it in 20 hours. If tap 1
customers?
is opened first and after 5 hours tap 1 is closed and tap 2
a) Rs. 800 is opened, then the tank emptied in x hours and find the
value of x?
b) Rs. 900
a) <,<
c) Rs. 1100
b) >,<
d) Rs. 1200
c) =,<
e) Rs. 1000
Page 26 of 83
d) =,> II. Mohan drives his car at 75 kmph for the remaining 75
km.
e) =,=
a) If statement I alone is sufficient to answer the
102. Quantity A: Ravan a boatman can row his boat at 20 question, but statement II alone is not sufficient.
kmph in still water. If the river is running at 12 kmph. It
takes 9 hours more to go upstream than to go b) If statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
downstream for the same distance. Find the distance? question, but statement I alone is not sufficient.
Quantity B: A passenger train and an express train run in c) If both the statements I and II together are needed to
the same direction at 60 kmph and x kmph respectively. answer the question.
If the passenger train crosses the express train in 20
seconds and the length of passenger train and express d) If either statement I alone or statement II alone is
train is 80m and 120 m respectively. Then find the value sufficient to answer the question.
of x (Express train is a faster train)? e) If both the statements together are not sufficient to
Quantity C: Rahul travelled a distance of 91 km in 9 answer the question.
hours. He travelled partly on cycle at 6 km/hr and partly 104. What is the length of the train if it is travelling at 81
on bike at 12 km/hr. Then find the distance travelled on kmph?
cycle by Rahul.
I. It crosses a platform of length 585 m in 48 seconds.
a) <,>
II. It crosses a streetlight in 22 seconds.
b) >,<
a) If the data given in the statement I alone is sufficient
c) =,< to answer the question whereas the data given in
d) =,> statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the
question.
e) =,=
b) If the data given in the statement II alone is sufficient
Directions (103 – 107): Each question below is to answer the question whereas the data given in
followed by two statements I and II. You have to statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the
determine whether the data given in the statement is question.
sufficient for answering the question. You should use
c) If the data given in either statement I or in statement II
the data and your knowledge of Mathematics to
alone is sufficient to answer the question.
choose the best possible answer.
103. Total distance covered by Mohan is 100 km.Find d) If the data given in both statement I and II is not
the average speed of Mohan. sufficient to answer the question.
I. Mohan drives his car at 25 kmph for 25 km of the e) If the data given in both statement I and II is necessary
distance. to answer the question.
105. What is the average of eight numbers?
Page 27 of 83
I. The total is 896. e) If the data given in both statement I and II is necessary
to answer the question.
II. When 49 is added to the sum the average decreases by
7 107. What is the compound interest after two years?
a) If the data given in the statement I alone are sufficient I. After a year CI is Rs. 1,000.
to answer the question whereas the data given in
statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the II. After two years SI with the same rate of interest is Rs.
question. 2,000.
b) If the data given in statement II alone are sufficient to a) If the data given in the statement I alone is sufficient
answer the question whereas the data given in statement I to answer the question whereas the data given in
alone are not sufficient to answer the question. statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the
question.
alone are sufficient to answer the question. b) If the data given in the statement II alone is sufficient
d) If the data given in both statements I and II are not statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the
sufficient to answer the question. question.
e) If the data given in both statements I and II are c) If the data given in either statement I or in statement II
necessary to answer the question. alone is sufficient to answer the question.
106. What is the new average weight of balls? d) If the data given in both statement I and II is not
sufficient to answer the question.
I. Initially, there are five balls of average weight 68 kg.
e) If the data given in both statement I and II is necessary
II. Two balls were added in the box one of 16 kg and one to answer the question.
of 29 kg.
Directions (108 – 112): In the following series one
a) If the data given in the statement I alone is sufficient
number is wrong, Find out the wrong number.
statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the 108. 224, 224, 168, 420, 1470, 6615
question.
a) 224
b) If the data given in the statement II alone is sufficient
to answer the question whereas the data given in b) 168
statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the c) 420
question.
d) 1470
alone is sufficient to answer the question. e) 6615
d) If the data given in both statement I and II is not 109. 18, 35, 138, 815, 6596, 65955
sufficient to answer the question.
Page 28 of 83
a) 18 remaining half in scheme Q for 2 years which offers

compound interest annually at 20% per annum. Interest
b) 35 earned from scheme P is 25% more than that earned
c) 138 from scheme Q. If the rate of interest of scheme P had
been (x + 3)% per annum, the difference between the
d) 815 interests earned after corresponding periods would have
been Rs. 7020. What is the amount Aman won in lottery?
e) 65955
a) Rs. 45000
110. 60, 30, 150, 75, 375, 187.5, 935.5
b) Rs. 50000
a) 30
c) Rs. 54000
b) 150
d) Rs. 57500
c) 75
e) None of these
d) 375
114. X sold a car to Y at cost price + 30% of cost price.
e) 935.5
Y further sold the same car to Z for Rs. 550000 earning a
111. 120, 101, 80, 63, 48, 37, 24 profit of 10% on cost price. Z used car for two years
charging the depreciation at the rate of 10% per annum
a) 120 with original cost method. After two years he sold the car
at a price which is less than 5% of the original value of
b) 63
the car (Cost price of car at which it is purchased by X).
c) 101 Calculate the profit earned or loss suffered by Z.
d) 80 a) Rs. 55000 loss
e) 48 b) Rs. 55000 profit
112. 441, 374, 312, 262, 223, 206 c) Rs. 74615.75 profit
a) 374 d) Rs. 72075.50 profit
b) 312 e) Rs. 74615.75 loss
c) 262 115. A local bus has 4 equidistant stops between its

source and destination. The bus travels 50 km to
d) 441 complete its journey with a constant speed in certain
e) 206 amount of time. If the speed of the bus between source
and final stop (not destination) is the original speed and
113. Aman won certain sum of money in a lottery, half stops at every bus stop for 2.5 min, it increases its speed
of which he invested in scheme P for 5 years which in the final stage by 8 km/hr. One day, if the bus stops at
offers simple interest at x% per annum. He invested the
Page 29 of 83
every bus stop for 4 min and wants to skip the last bus d) 11
stop, by how much should it increase its speed?
e) Cannot be determined
a) 12 km/hr
Directions (118 – 120): Following table shows sales
b) 15 km/hr data of a shop for four months. Study the following
data and answer the following questions:
c) 10 km/hr
Items April May June July
d) 16 km/hr
Jeans 110 150 - 130
e) 18 km/hr Shirts - 180 150 -
Ethnic 100 - 170 190
116. Ramesh and Suresh earn Rs. x and Rs. y wear
respectively. Ramesh spends 60% of his earning on rent Night 120 - 200 -
and utilities, 80% of the remaining for food, Rs 360 for suits
buying a shirt and saves the remaining money. Suresh
spends 75% of his earning on rent and utilities, 90% of
the remaining for food, Rs 75 for buying a hat and saves 118. Sales of Jeans in June is half of the Sales of Shirts
the remaining. If the savings of Ramesh is 100% more in May and sales of Shirts in April is twice the sales of
than the savings of Suresh and their sum of their salaries ethnic wear in April. Find the sales of Shirts in July if
is Rs 27000, what is the value of x? difference between the total sales of Shirts and the total
sales of Jeans over four months is 220.
a) 12000
a) 110
b) 15000
b) 170
c) 18000
c) 70
d) 11000
d) 130
e) 14000
e) None of these
117. Matt, Maria and Mona went to a party. They played
a total of 18 games of poker. Each game costs Rs. 100 to 119. Sales of Ethnic wear in May is twice of the sales of
play. On winning a game, winner gets a prize of Rs. 500. Jeans in April. The total sales in July is 570 and the total
If only the games played by Matt and Mona are sales in May is 690. Find the total sales of Night suits
considered, there is a profit of Rs. 100, and if only the over four months. (Use data from previous question)
games played by Matt and Maria are considered, there is
a) 680
a loss of Rs. 1500. How many games did Matt play?
b) 540
a) 0
c) 580
b) 1
d) 700
c) 6
Page 30 of 83
e) None of these Which of the following options satisfies the two blanks
in the question?
120. Which item has lowest sales over four months?
A. 10, 15
a) Ethnic wear
B. 20, 25
b) Shirts
C. 30, 50
c) Night suits
D. 40, 60
d) Jeans
a) A & B
e) None of these
b) A & D
121. Three pillars X, Y and Z were built using an
average of 49 bricks per pillar, such that the average c) B & C
number of bricks per pillar used in building pillars Y and
Z is 12 more than that used in building pillars X and Y. d) B & D
If pillar X and Z were built using 45 and ___ bricks e) C & D
respectively, then pillar Z had ___ bricks more than
pillar Y. 123. A ___ m long wire was cut into three parts in the
ratio 2∶ 5∶ 3. The second part was further cut into two
Which of the following options satisfies the two blanks parts in ratio 1∶ 2, while the third part was cut in the ratio
in the question? 5∶ 1, such that from the five parts so formed, the
A. 72, 40 difference between the length of the longest and the
shortest part of the wire is ___ m.
B. 69, 36
Which of the following options satisfies the two blanks
C. 66, 32 in the question?
D. 63, 28 A. 60, 18
a) Only A B. 120, 34
b) Only B C. 180, 51
c) Only C D. 240, 72
d) Only D a) A & B
e) Both A & C b) A & C
122. x, y and z are three positive numbers, such that x is c) A & D

20% less than y and on increasing the sum of x and y by
50%, the number so obtained is 80% more than z. So, if d) B & C
the value of y is ___, then the value of z is ___.
Page 31 of 83
e) B & D b) Only B
124. A car and a bike start from a point at the same time c) Only C
and reach another point 90 km away at the same time, if
the car was running ___% faster than the bike and took a d) Only D
halt for ___ minutes, while the bike was running at a e) Both B & C
speed of 60 km/hr.
Directions (126 – 130): The line graph provides the data
Which of the following options satisfies the two blanks of electricity used, in KW, by different houses in a
in the question? month, whereas the Table gives data of different charges
A. 20, 15 incurred from different houses. Read the questions
related to graph and answer it.
B. 25, 20
C. 50, 25 Electricity used in KW

440 428
D. 80, 30
420 408
a) Only A
400 387
b) Only B
380
362
c) Only C
360 345
d) Only D 340
e) Both A and C 320
125. When the speed of the stream is ___ km/hr, a boat 300
covered a distance of 36 km upstream in 3 hours, while House A House B House C House D House E
for covering the same distance downstream, it took 2.4
hours. Hence, it will cover the same distance in still Rent (Rs) Internet Food Miscellaneous
water in 2 hours ___ minutes.
House A 20,000 6000 12,500 15,000
Which of the following options satisfies the two blanks
House B 22,250 4500 8500 9500
in the question?
House C 25,000 8000 13,000 11,500
A. 1.5, 20
House D 21,750 5500 9585 9000
B. 1.5, 40
House E 18,000 6000 9500 11,000
C. 2.5, 20
D. 2.5, 40
a) Only A
Page 32 of 83
126. What approximate percent more was the living cost c) 3

of House C compared to House E (Excluding electricity
charges)? d) 4
a) 25% e) None of the above
b) 20% 130. For the next month, if the electricity cost comes
around Rs. 10500 for House C, then how much should
c) 28% they reduce the miscellaneous cost to keep the overall
cost same as last month? (1KW = Rs. 25)
d) 30%
a) Rs. 10675
b) Rs. 11500
127. If the cost of per unit KW is charged at the rate of
15 Rupees, then what would be the electricity cost for c) Rs. 1000
House B?
d) Rs. 825
a) Rs. 6400
e) Rs. 1050
b) Rs. 6420
Directions (131 – 135): There are three mines A, B and
c) Rs. 6450 C that are used to mine metals (Gold and Silver) on four
different days from Monday to Thursday.
d) Rs. 6500
Radar graph given below shows the per cent of Gold
e) None of the above metal mined from those three mines on four days as per
128. Which house spends the most in all the departments cent of total amount of metal (Gold and Silver) mined.
combined? (1KW = Rs. 20)
A B C
a) House A
Monday
b) House B 60%
c) House C 40%
d) House D 20%
Thursday 0% Tuesday
e) House E
129. How many houses have rent above the average rent
value?
a) 1 Wednesday
b) 2
Page 33 of 83
131. If total amount of metal mined from all the three d) 560 kg
mines on Monday is 600 kg out of which 40(1/6)% is
Gold and ratio of Gold mined from mine A: B and from e) None of these
mine B: C is 10: 9 and 30: 17 respectively, then what is 134. If ratio of amount of Gold mined from machines A
the total amount of metal mined from mine B on that to B and that from machine B to C on Thursday is 8: 7
day? and 14: 9 respectively, then amount of metal mined from
a) 170 kg mine C on that day is what per cent more than that mined
from mine A?
b) 250 kg
a) 12.5%
c) 200 kg
b) 25%
d) 180 kg
c) 16%
e) None of these
d) 18.5%
132. Ratio of total amount of Gold mined from mines A,
B and C on Tuesday is 8: 9: 14 and total amount of metal e) Can't be determined
mined on Tuesday from all the three mines together is 135. If from mine C, ratio of metal mined on Monday
840 kg, then what is the total amount of Gold mined and Tuesday together to Wednesday and Thursday
from all the three mines on that day? together is 2: 3 and amount of Gold mined on Monday
a) 232 kg and Tuesday is 72 kg and 64 kg respectively, then what
is the total amount of Gold mined on Wednesday and
b) 248 kg Thursday together?
c) 256 kg a) 200 kg
d) 264 kg b) 250 kg
e) None of these c) 160 kg
133. From mine B, total Gold mined on Monday and d) 180 kg

Tuesday is 90 kg and 75 kg respectively while metal
mined on Monday and Thursday is same and ratio of e) Can't be determined
Gold mined on Wednesday to Thursday is 5: 4, then Directions (136 – 140): Study the following
what is the total amount of metal mined on all the four information carefully and answer the questions
days together? followed:
a) 640 kg Neeraj have some toys which are in the form of different
b) 720 kg structures. These are cylindrical, conical, spherical.
Other than solid conical structure, all two are of both
c) 760 kg types i.e., hollow as well as solid.
Page 34 of 83
→ Volume of a conical toy is three times of the volume e) 8

of a solid cylindrical toy while radius of a solid spherical
toy is half than that the radius of a conical toy. Outer 138. Find the number of conical toys Neeraj have?
radius of hollow cylindrical toys is same as radius of a) 40
solid spherical toy while average of outer radius and
inner radius of hollow cylindrical toys is equal to radius b) 20
of solid cylindrical toy. Height of cylindrical, conical and
c) 15
hollow cylindrical toys is same i.e, 14c.m
d) 12
→ Number of solid spherical toys is 20% of total number
of toys Neeraj have. Number of hollow spherical toys is e) 8
150% more than number of conical toys. Ratio between
number of solid cylindrical toys to number of conical 139. Find the ratio between outer radius of hollow
toys is 3 : 2. Total number of hollow cylindrical toys is spherical toy to radius of solid cylindrical toy?
40% of total number of toys Neeraj have and also ‗20‘
a) 4 : 1
more than the total number of solid spherical toys Neeraj
have. b) 3 : 2
→ Volume of a hollow spherical toy is 33,957 cm² c) 3 : 1

whose inner radius is half of its outer radius. Volume of
a hollow spherical toy is 5.25 time of volume of conical d) 4 : 3
toy. e) 2 : 1
136. Find the total space taken by all solid spherical 140. Volume of one hollow cylindrical toy is how much
toys? (in cm³) more then volume of one cylindrical toy?(in cm³)
a) 97020 a) 4312
b) 48510 b) 3234
c) 72765 c) 2696
d) 14553 d) 2156
e) 24255 e) 1078
137. Find the number of conical toys Neeraj have? General Awareness
a) 40 141. Who is appointed as the MD &CEO of Yes Bank?
b) 20 a) Harish Kumar
c) 15 b) Pradeep Kumar
d) 12 c) Siddharth
Page 35 of 83
d) Prasanth Kumar 145. Which country has topped the EIU‘s 2019
Democracy Index?
e) Amit Pandey
a) Sweden
142. Name the winner of Global Child Prodigy Awards
2020 in the singing category for being able to sing in 120 b) Italy
languages?
c) Norway
a) Preetha Sathish
d) Australia
b) Sucheta Sathish
e) Spain
c) Keerthana Sathish
146. When is the National Voters‘ Day celebrated in
d) Kamala Sathish India?
e) Muthu Lakshmi a) January 25
143. Which Indian state has planned to establish Vikram b) March 25

Sarabhai Children Innovation Center (VSCIC) to
identify, nurture and promote children‘s innovation in c) April 25
the state? d) July 25
a) Maharashtra e) February 25
b) Kerala 147. Shishu, Kishore and Tarun are the schemes working
c) Karnataka under
d) Bihar a) POSHAN Abhiyaan
e) Gujarat b) Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana
144. The RBI has advised all PPI issuers to provide c) Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana
which among the following facilities to cardholders for d) Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana
any kind of domestic or international transactions
a) switch on / off card
148. Yes Bank will resume its full banking service from
b) set / modify transaction limits which date?
c) set number of transaction a) March 15th
d) Both A & B b) March 16th
e) Both A & C c) March 17th
Page 36 of 83
d) March 21st c) Beneficiary Name
e) March 18th d) Registered Mobile Number
149. Which country becomes 1st to suspend Financial e) All the above
Markets?
153. How much does RBI inject additional to maintain
a) China financial stability in wake of COVID-19 outbreak?
b) India a) Rs 40000 crore
c) USA b) Rs 30000 crore
d) Phillipines c) Rs 15000 crore
e) Portugal d) Rs 18000 crore
150. Which language is not among the one to be added in e) Rs 20000 crore
the 8th Schedule of constitution?
154. Which committee recommended Scheme for
a) Bhojpuri Recapitalization of RRBs?
b) Rajasthani a) Shri Harun R. Khan
c) Bhoti b) Dr. Subir Gokarn
d) Tamil c) Shri Anand Sinha
e) All d) Dr. K.C. Chakrabarty
151. Who launch a special train ‗ Swavalamban express‘ e) Dr. Anil Agarwal
for new Entrepreneurs?
155. The centre has announced how much insurance
a) SEBI cover for healthcare professionals?
b) NABARD a) Rs. 50 lakh
c) RBI b) Rs 10 lakh
d) DICGC c) Rs 30 lakh
e) SIDBI d) Rs 20 lakh
152. Any UPI app will fetch your bank details using your e) Rs 25 lakh
____________.
a) Account Number 156. Which country has assured India continous supply
of LPG?
b) IFSC Code
Page 37 of 83
a) Qatar e) 5.4%
b) UAE 160. Who is honoured with MP‘s Kishore kumar

samman award 2018?
c) Saudi Arabia
a) Raheeda Rahman
d) Oman
b) Saheeda Rahman
e) Iran
c) Faheeda Rahman
157. According to Finance Minister‘s announcement on
March 26, 2020, the women Jan Dhan account d) Jaheeda Rahman
holders will get how much amount every month? e) Waheeda Rahman
a) Rs 200 161. Which State launched its first helicopter services

under UDAN scheme?
b) Rs 600
a) Uttar Pradesh
c) Rs 300 b) Meghalaya
d) Rs 1000 c) Tamilnadu
d) Karnataka
e) Rs 500 e) Uttarakhand
158. Which of the following technology is used in RuPay 162. Who ranked No 1 by IOC's Boxing Task Force
Contactless? rankings for Olympic Qualifiers?
a) qSPARC
a) Amit Panghal
b) qSPARK
b) Deepa Malik
c) qSPACH
d) qSLASH c) Shiva Thapa
e) qSPACE
d) Akhil Kumar
159. What is the early CRISIL‘s base-case GDP growth
forecast for fiscal 2021? e) Sarita Devi
a) 5.2%
163. Who is the Chief Economist of the World Bank?
b) 5.3%
a) Mathew Perry
c) 3.5%
b) Mary Schnider
d) 3.7%
Page 38 of 83
c) Anshula Kant a) ICICI Appathon

b) ICICI Start-up Programme
d) Penny Goldberg c) ICICI Start-up Competition
d) ICICI Solutions Programme
e) Mathew Jones e) ICICI Application Programme
164. Who has written the book ―Messages from 168. Who is the MD & CEO of Transunion CIBIL?
Messengers‖? a) Rishi kumar
a) Sudha Murty b) Rajesh kumar
c) Suresh Kumar
b) Preeti Shenoy d) Prithvi kumar
e) Sanjeev kumar
c) Joseph Murphy
169. Which country becomes NATO‘s 30th member?
d) Vikram Seth
a) Madagascar
e) Priti K Sharrof
b) Slovenia
165. Which nation assumed Presidency of United
Nations Security Council in April 2020? c) Dominican Republic
a) France d) Portugal
b) Italy e) North Macedonia
c) Spain 170. What is the name of a computer scientist behind

cut-copy-paste died recently?
d) Dominican Republic
a) Parry tesler
e) Slovenia
b) Larry Tesler
166. Who is the MD & CEO of CRISIL? c) Harry teslrer
d) Garry Tesler
a) Vishakha Mulye e) None
b) Dhivya Suryadevara 171. What is the limit of Ways and Means for the first
half of FY21?
c) Ashu Suyash
a) Rs1lakh crore
d) Naina Lal Kidwai
b) Rs1.5 lakh crore
e) None
c) Rs1.2 lakh crore
167. What is the name of the platform provided by ICICI
Bank for start-ups to develop new and innovative d) Rs 1.3lakh crore
products?
Page 39 of 83
e) Rs 1.5 lakh crore d) 6 months
172. Recently Adam Schlesinger is in News belongs to e) 9 months

which profession?
176. Which of these is
a) Actor an example of derivative instruments?
b) Author a) Forwards
c) Singer b) Futures
d) Musician c) Swaps
e) Journalist d) Options
173. What is the theme of the 2020 World Autism e) All of these
Awareness Day?
177. SIDBI has offered how much amount as emergency
a) Empowering Women and Girls with Autism working capital to the MSMEs manufacturing
b) The transition of adulthood essential items?
c) Toward Autonomy and Self-Determination a) Rs 1 crore
d) Assistive Technologies, Active Participation b) Rs 50 lakh
e) Stay Active to cure Autism c) Rs 5 crore
174. Which country tops in Economic Freedom Index? d) Rs 25 lakh
a) Hongkong e) Rs 75 lakh
b) USA 178. Who is appointed as the MD & CEO of Bharti AXA

Life Insurance ?
c) China
a) Bharat Raja
d) Belgium
b) Rajaram
e) Singapore
c) Rangarajan
175. The RBI has allowed a moratorium for how long on
EMI payments of outstanding loans? d) Parag Raja
a) 1 month e) Karthik Raja
b) 2 months 179. When was Asian Development Bank (ADB)

established?
c) 3 months
Page 40 of 83
a) 1945 e) Salman Khan
b) 1951 183. Who is the Governor of Chhattisgarh?
c) 1959 a) Anusuiya Uikey
d) 1966 b) Ramesh Bais
e) 1969 c) Phagu Chauhan
180. Who among the following has donated $1 billion to d) Bhupesh Baghel
fight COVID-19?
e) Anadiben Patel
a) Sundar Pichai
184. Which app has become the world‘s highest
b) Mark Zuckerberg downloaded app in just 13 days?
c) Jack Dorsey a) Zoom
d) Kevin Systrom b) Big Basket
e) Jersey Krish c) Sahyog
181. Name the 1st Indian state which is going to measure d) Aarogya Setu
Gross Environment Product (GEP)?
e) Dunzo
a) Uttarakhand
185. Which of these institutions are permitted to sell the
b) Uttar Pradesh Sovereign Gold Bond?
c) Bihar a) RRBs
d) Sikkim b) NSE
e) Manipur c) Payments Bank
182. Who is named as the new Ambassador for the d) Small Finance Banks
World Wide Fund (WWF) India‘s Environment
Education program? e) MSE
a) Sachin Tendulkar 186. Which state became the first state to start Pool
Testing of coronavirus in India?
b) Viswanathan Anand
a) Madhya Pradesh
c) Mahesh Bhupathi
d) Virat Kohli b) Uttarakhand
Page 41 of 83
c) Uttar Pradesh d) Beijing
d) Tamil Nadu e) Shanghai
189. Which state is the first in India that has begun

e) Bihar flattening the curve of COVID-19 infection?
187. Which country is to host the 2020 Asian Boxing a) Odisha

Championship? b) Telangana
a) Bangladesh c) Kerala
b) India d) Uttar Pradesh
e) Gujarat
c) China
190. When is the International day Day of Human Space
d) Sri Lanka Flight observed?
e) Australia a) 10 April
b) 12 April
188. Which city was scheduled to host 44th session of
World Heritage Committee of UNESCO that has now c) 14 April
been postponed?
d) 20 April
a) Fuzhou
e) 15 April
b) Okinawa
c) Wuhan
Solution and Detailed Explanation
English Language back to the past two years. In C, the blank would be
filled by a noun which would be an object to the verb of
1. Answer: B) the to-infinitive phrase. The context suggests that
candidates were found to have used various tricks to
AE, BD and CF are correct matches. In A, the blank
deceive the poll commission. Among blanks, BD is not
would be filled by a verb. The context suggests that the
given.
author will reiterate (repeat) comments made four years
ago, which he will repeat with monotonous regularity 2. Answer: D)
until something is done about it. In B, the blank would be
filled by a verb. The context suggests that last Friday the AF is a correct match. In A, the blank would be filled by
postman delivered a bunch of letters and packages dating a noun. The context suggests that to use those
instruments to catch foxes is something that is certainly
Page 42 of 83
not beyond the realms (a field or domain of activity or 5. Answer: E)

interest) of possibility. BD is a correct match. In B, the
blank would be filled by a noun or a gerund which would The correct matches are AD, BF and CE. In A, the blank
function as an object to the verb ‗was seen‘. The context would be filled by an adjective which would modify
suggests that Micko was seen remonstrating (protesting) ‗rays‘. The context suggests that CFC gas damages the
with the referee and umpires. CE is a correct match. In ozone layer which protects the earth from harmful rays
C, the blank would be filled by a verb which would from the sun. In B, the blank would be filled by a verb
govern the subject ‗several actors who had supported his which would complete the to-infinitive phrase. The
candidacy‘. Hence, (d) is the correct answer. context suggests that organisers have denied any plans to
cancel this year‘s event. In C, the blank would be filled
3. Answer: A) by a noun which would be governed by the preposition
‗on‘. The context suggests that Ramesh‘s new column
The correct matches are AE, BF and CD. In A, the blank will focus on the increasingly controversial nexus (a
would be filled by a noun which would be an object to connection or series of connections linking two or more
the verb ‗reaches‘. The context suggests that Gao has things) between business and politics. Hence, (e) is the
proved herself to be a person who reaches the pinnacle correct answer.
(the most successful point; the culmination) of success in
whatever field she involves herself. In B, the blank 6. Answer: B)
would be filled by a verb in its third form to satisfy the
construction of a clause having passive voice. The Consolidate - Combine (a number of things) into a single
context suggests that we would all say we were satisfied more effective or coherent whole. The mention of
with how it went. In C, the blank would be filled by an 'simplification' and 'four codes' tells us that the labour
adjective which would modify the noun phrase ‗rent rules and laws are being 'combined'. 'Strengthen' is one
increase‘. The context suggests that just as he has the of the meanings of 'consolidate', but it is not what we are
right to ask for a ridiculous rent increase, you have the looking for here. 'Divide' will also not fit in the context.
right to fight it. Hence, (a) is the correct answer. 'Amalgamate' will convey a meaning similar to 'combine'
and hence can be used. 'Combine' in (C) fits but 'stream'
4. Answer: C) cannot. Pairs in (D) and (E) cannot fit as we need a verb
in its base form as it is preceded by 'to'. Option B is the
The correct matches are AF, BD and CE. In A, the blank right answer.
would be filled by an adjective which would qualify
‗local elections‘. The sentence conveys that don‘t think 7. Answer: D)
that local elections are measly (ridiculously small or
few), insignificant, and not worth your time. In B, the The sentence talks about a bill which wants to include
blank would be filled by a noun which would be more workers under minimum wages criterion. 'Purview',
modified by the preposition ‗in‘. The context suggests 'ambit' and 'scope' can all fit in the blank. None of the
that in general, beech nuts have been regarded as food other words, including 'rate', which is the pair of 'scope',
for humans in times of famine or scarcity. In C, the blank can fit in the blank contextually. So, D is the right
would be filled by a noun modified by the preposition answer.
‗on‘. The context suggests that children must pay 8. Answer: B)
inheritance tax on taxable inheritances. Hence, (c) is the
correct answer.
Page 43 of 83
The sentence lists the contents of the code on labour labour reforms and the current sentence starts with 'but',
safety. Since 'rules' are being made, 'frame', 'formulate' it is clear that there is a contrast. So, 'remiss' and 'lax' can
and 'devise' are the appropriate words. None of the other fit in the blank, to make the sentence meaningful. Lax -
words fit in the context. Frame - Formulate (a concept, Not sufficiently strict, severe, or careful. Remiss -
plan, or system). Devise - Plan or invent (a complex Lacking care or attention to duty; negligent. The other
procedure, system, or mechanism) by careful thought. words either do not fit grammatically or contextually.
Option B is the right answer. Option D is the right answer.
9. Answer: C) 13. Answer: A)
The sentence implies that labour unions will be going The usage of the word ‗cancelled‘ is inappropriate. The
through the bill on industrial relations to look for certain context suggests that as wildfires raged (spread very
important points. So, 'scrutinised' and 'perused' can fit the rapidly or uncontrollably) California, more than a million
blank. None of the other words can make the sentence northern Californians suffered (were disturbed) through
meaningful. Peruse - Examine carefully or at length. blackouts, their electricity cut in order to reduce
Option C is the right answer. (decrease) the likelihood of high winds sparking
(causing) new conflagrations. We will need to replace
10. Answer: B) ‗cancelled‘ by ‗raged‘. Hence, (a) is the correct answer.
It is clear that we need an adverb in the blank (to qualify 14. Answer: D)
the verb 'opposed'). 'Happily' and 'subconsciously' would
not fit in the context as the unions are opposing changes The usage of the words ‗mocks‘ and ‗hating‘ are
related to lay-off and closure. 'Vociferously' and inappropriate as per the context. The context suggests
'vehemently' can fit in the blank, indicating the that his company, publicly traded (dealt in) Bloom
seriousness of the opposition. The other words do not fit Energy, sells fuel cells--steel boxes that generate
grammatically. Vociferous - Expressing or characterized (produce) electricity using natural gas. So, we will need
by vehement opinions; loud and forceful. Option B is the to replace ‗mocks‘ by ‗sells‘ and ‗hating‘ by ‗using‘. So,
right answer. 2 and 4 are correct replacements. Hence, (d) is the
correct answer.
11. Answer: A)
15. Answer: D)
The sentence tells us that the Survey tells us about the
effect of labour reforms. Since the particular case of There is error in (3). (1), (2) and (4) are correct. The
Rajasthan is taken up, 'highlighted' and 'emphasised' can usage of singular verb ‗is‘ following a plural noun ‗they‘
fit in the blank. 'Underscored' can also fit, but its pair is incorrect. We will need to replace ‗is‘ by ‗are‘. So,
'wrought' doesn't fit. None of the other words can fit in only 1 part has a grammatical error. Hence, (d) is the
the context. Option A is the right answer. correct answer.
12. Answer: D) 16. Answer: C)
Since 'generally' is an adverb, we need an adjective in the The position of the words ‗considers‘ and ‗unaffected‘
blank (to describe the nature of implementation). Since are incorrect. As per the context, ‗underground pipelines‘
the preceding sentence suggests the effectiveness of should be followed by a participle which would qualify
Page 44 of 83
it. The context suggests that Bloom‘s units get their fuel 20. Answer: B)
via underground pipelines unaffected by the Diablo
winds that threatened California‘s high-voltage wires and The word 'flair' has been correctly used (as a noun) in
led to the power outages that Sridhar considers statement II, where it means 'a special or instinctive
intolerable in any modern society, let alone in Silicon aptitude or ability for doing something well'.
Valley. So, we will need to interchange ‗considers‘ and However, the usage of the word 'flair' in statement I is
‗unaffected‘. Hence, (c) is the correct answer. incorrect as it renders the sentence meaningless; the
correct word to be used in the sentence is 'flare', which
17. Answer: E)
means 'a sudden increase in the brightness of a fire'.
Grammatically and contextually, (1) has to follow (3) to
form ‗because somebody has to pay for the damage‘. (4) Similarly, the usage of the word 'flair' to form the phrase
is a condition to which (2) is an effect. We will need to 'flair up' is incorrect as 'flair up' is a meaningless phrase;
interchange (1) and (4). The sentence is conveying that the correct word to be used in the sentence is 'flare',
every time there is a disaster, your power price is going which forms the phrase 'flare up', that means 'a situation
to go up, because somebody has to pay for the damage. in which something such as violence, pain, or anger
Hence, (e) is the correct answer. suddenly starts or gets much worse'. Hence, option (b) is
the correct answer.
18. Answer: B)
21. Answer: D)
The use of word 'fare' is correct in sentence II where it
means 'perform in a specified way in a particular The word 'elusive' has been correctly used (as an
situation'. In sentence I & III 'fare' needs to be replaced adjective) in statement II, where it means 'difficult to
by 'fair' which means 'an opportunity to explain remember'. The word 'elusive' has also been correctly
something or give your opinions' and 'honest' used (as an adjective) in statement III, where it means
respectively. Hence, the answer is option b). 'difficult to find, catch, or achieve'.
However, the usage of the word 'elusive' is incorrect in

19. Answer: A)
statement I; it has been used in parallel with the word
The word 'brewed' has been correctly used (as a verb) in 'mysterious' (in combination with the conjunction 'and');
statement I, where it means 'the beginning of thus, the other word must also give a similar meaning;
development of an unwelcome event or situation'. The thus, the correct word to be used in the sentence is
word 'brewed' has also been used correctly in statement 'illusive', which means 'deceptive; based on illusion'.
III, where it has been used an adjective (to modify the Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
noun 'coffee') that means 'made (tea or coffee) either by
boiling or mixing it with hot water'. 22. Answer: B)
However, the usage of 'brewed' in statement II is II- the original sentence talks about various sorts of
incorrect as it renders the sentence meaningless; it needs pleasures and pains being the foci or the central point of
to be replaced with the verb 'brood', which means 'think the virtues of character; II reversed the roles. III goes on
deeply about something that makes one unhappy, angry, to talk something different than the original sentence (III
or worried'. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer. talks about contribution while the original sentence talks
about pleasures and pains being the foci of the virtues of
Page 45 of 83
character). Only (I) conveys a meaning that is similar to As two types of feelings are mentioned later in the
the original sentence. Option B is the correct answer. sentence, the plural noun 'feelings' will be correct here.
This makes the original sentence incorrect and also
23. Answer: E) eliminates I.
A base form of verb is needed in the first blank after 'to' Of is a preposition that indicates relationships between
in order to follow the 'to-infinitive' structure. 'Their' is a other words, such as belonging, things made of other
possessive adjective. It comes before a noun and refers to things, things that contain other things, or a point of
it, hence a noun is required in the second blank. The reckoning; this is the correct preposition to be used in
noun in the blank will be associated with the plural noun this sentence. Off is usually used as an adverb or a
'desires' that comes before the blank so a plural noun will preposition. In both cases, it indicates separation or
also fit in the blank. A singular verb is required in the disconnection. II is eliminated. Option C is the correct
third blank to depict the action associated with the answer.
singular noun phrase 'the act of knowing what our good
really is". 26. Answer: E)
For the first blank - 'calibrated' is a past participle(which A plural verb is required at the second place to depict the
can also act as an adjective), hence option B and C are action associated with the plural noun 'virtues'. An
eliminated. For the second blank - 'balance' is a singular adverb is needed at the third place to modify the verb
noun; hence option D is eliminated. For the third blank- 'desires'. Interchanging the places of 'reveal' and
'involve' is a plural verb; hence option A is eliminated. 'disorderly' makes the sentence meaningful. The sentence
Option E is the correct answer. talks about the virtues of character revealing to us a
world that is made invisible by disorderly desires. Option
Calibrate- carefully assess, set, or adjust (something E is the correct answer.
abstract).
27. Answer: C)
24. Answer: D)
In 1, there is an error in A. The phrase ‗works at Morgan
'Similarly' is used to indicate a similarity between two Stanley‘ should be a participle phrase and should
facts or events. 'Additionally' is used to introduce a new qualify/modify the subject ‗two 24-year-olds‘. We will
fact or argument. 'But' is used to introduce a phrase or need to replace ‗works‘ by ‗working‘.
clause contrasting with what has already been
mentioned. The connector which can correctly combine In 2, there is an error in B. The usage of verbs in past
the given two sentences keeping in mind the context of indefinite form: ‗created‘ in (A), ‗asked‘ in (C) and the
the passage is 'but'. usage of ‗could‘ in (D) suggests that the tense of the
sentence is past tense. So, we will need to replace ‗go‘ by
An education does not put sight, or intelligence, into ‗went‘.
blind eyes, but turns us around to face the Sun and the
good by cutting the bonds of desires that keep us in In 3, there is an error in C. The context of the sentence
darkness, focused on mere distorted images of the good, demands a to-infinitive in (C). The word ‗approaching‘ is
rather than the good itself. erroneous. The correct construction of to-infinitive is
‗to+base form of verb‘. We will need to replace
25. Answer: C) ‗approaching‘ by ‗approach‘.
Page 46 of 83
So, the correct sequence is 1-A, 2-B and 3-C. The meaning conveyed seems logically consistent. Note
the usage of comma (,) as punctuation when aiming to
28. Answer: E) reduce dependence is used in the middle part of the
In 1, there is an error in B. The usage of the preposition sentence.
‗across‘ is inappropriate. The correct preposition to be Phrase (II) : India is looking at increasing consumption
used is ‗in‘. of natural gas by more than doubling its share in energy
In 2, there is an error in B. The usage of the verb ‗saw‘ is basket to 15 percent by 2030 as it aims to reduce
erroneous because it is preceded by the auxiliary ‗has‘, dependence on imports for meeting energy needs and
suggesting the tense of the sentence to be Present cutting greenhouse emissions.
Perfect. The correct construction for the present perfect This seems logically correct. The first sentence tells us
is ‗Subject + has/have + third form of verb‘. We will the action that India is about to take. The second
need to replace ‗saw‘ by ‗seen‘. sentence tells us the reason for taking this action. So, the
In 3, there is an error in A. The usage of the verb conjunction as connects the two sentences appropriately.
‗highlights‘ is erroneous because it is preceded by the Phrase (III) : We cannot use this phrase in any manner to
auxiliary ‗had‘, suggesting the tense of the sentence to be form a logical sentence while maintaining the
Past Perfect. The correct construction for the Past Perfect grammatical congruency.
is ‗Subject + had + third form of verb‘. We will need to
replace ‗highlights‘ by ‗highlighted‘. 30. Answer: C)
So, the correct sequence is 1-B, 2-B, 3-A. The key to answering this question correctly lies in our
ability to grasp the meaning being conveyed. The first
29. Answer: A) sentence tells us that ONGC has enhanced its natural gas
Let us check the phrases one by one. production. This is the result of its increased efforts to
raise domestic output (as stated in the second sentence).
Phrase (I) : We can use this phrase in two ways-
Using phrase (I) would be inappropriate as the word
Aiming to reduce dependence on imports for meeting despite is used to show contrast by introducing a
energy needs and cutting greenhouse emissions, India is sentence that is surprising.
looking at increasing consumption of natural gas by
more than doubling its share in energy basket to 15 Phrases (II) and (III) seem to be appropriate and can be
percent by 2030. used in the following manner:
Or, State-owned Oil and Natural Gas Corp (ONGC) has

reported a record 6.5 percent jump in natural gas
India is looking at increasing consumption of natural gas production as it doubles up efforts to raise domestic
by more than doubling its share in energy basket to 15 output to curb imports. (Here, the conjunction as is used
percent by 2030, aiming to reduce dependence on to provide a suitable reason)
imports for meeting energy needs and cutting greenhouse
emissions. State-owned Oil and Natural Gas Corp (ONGC) has
reported a record 6.5 percent jump in natural gas
Page 47 of 83
production while doubling up efforts to raise domestic DETERMINED has been used as a verb by the passage,
output to curb imports. (Here, the conjunction while is which talks about how the difference between biological
used to indicate two actions occurring at the same time) potential and realised fertility is determined by
intervening factors. 1 and 3 use the word similarly - 1
31. Answer: E) talks about how the high school rankings are decided,
All 1, 2 and 3 are mentioned in the passage as factors and 3 talks about the factor that controls the hydrology of
that play a role in determining the difference between the upper water layers. Thus, (c) is the right answer.
biological potential and realised fertility. Refer to the 2 is incorrect as it uses the adjective DETERMINED
lines: “The difference between biological potential and (resolute) to convey the stubborn nature of the Germans.
realized fertility is determined by several intervening
factors. Most women do not begin reproducing 35. Answer: A)
immediately upon the onset of puberty, which itself does
not occur at a fixed age. Some women with the potential The passage tells us what human fertility is restricted by.
to reproduce never do so…Various elements of social CONSTRAINED BY means restricted by and will fit
behaviour restrain fertility. Many human couples choose here. Thus, (a) is the right answer.
consciously to restrict their fertility by means of sexual CONSTRAINT is a noun and will not fit here.
abstinence, contraception, abortion, or sterilization.” CONTRACTED means reduced in size, which lends no
Thus, (e) is the right answer. meaning to the context.
32. Answer: B) 36. Answer: A)
Both 2 and 3 are answered by the information given in PRQT is the final order. P begins the passage by
the passage. Refer to the line: “A well-studied high- introducing the continent which is discussed further -
fertility group is the Hutterites of North America, a Antarctica. It tells us what this continent is known for. R
religious sect that views fertility regulation as sinful and follows by telling us about the ice shelves around this
high fertility as a blessing.” This answers 2. Refer to the continent that project outward into the ocean. Q follows
line: “Demographers distinguish between fecundity, the by naming two of the largest shelves. T concludes by
underlying biological potential for reproduction, and drawing our attention to the ice shelf that is slowly
fertility, the actual level of achieved reproduction.” This coming apart. Thus, (a) is the right answer.
answers 3. Thus, (b) is the right answer.
S is the odd sentences as it talks about the process of
33. Answer: A) calving, which is not mentioned in any of the other
The passage discusses the difference between the sentences.
biological potential for reproduction and realised fertility 37. Answer: D)
and the factors behind it. Thus, (a) is the right answer as
it best sums up the idea. QTSR is the final order. Q begins the passage by
introducing the main idea discussed in the passage - the
B and C are out of scope. D is given a passing mention in Industrial Revolution and how it advanced the field of
the passage, but does not form its main focus. medicine. T follows by telling us how this period
advanced medicine - it allowed the quicker production of
34. Answer: C)
Page 48 of 83
medical instruments. S follows by telling us how 40. Answer: B)

improvements to the instruments mentioned in T could
be made more efficiently using machine manufacturing. Option A clearly satisfies the meaning implied i.e., the
R concludes by telling us about how communication special forces averted the catastrophe and the
between physicians also improved during this era and government aided in the refurbishment of homes thereby
contributed to the overall advancement of this field. restoring the lives prior to the catastrophe. Option B on
Thus, (d) is the right answer. the other hand implies that the government deliberately
made the people go back to their normal lives by using
P is the odd sentence as it talks generally about the the modal verb ―making‖. Further, Option C implies that
Industrial Revolution, and not about how this period the special forces worked along with the government to
contributed to the advancement of the field of medicine. avert the catastrophe. These options are incorrect and
only Option A suits the context.
38. Answer: C)
Reasoning Ability
PQRS is the final order. P begins the paragraph by
defining what infant mortality is. Q follows by telling us 41. Answer: B)
what the global infant mortality is. RS form a pair - R
tells us the causes behind the decline in infant mortality Given Input- ($ 0 A B E 3 ! @ V 7 Q # 1 S I 9 & A Z 2
in developing countries, and S tells us the causes behind 4 G 4 %)
the decline in infant mortality in developed countries. Step 1: Those consonants which are immediately
Thus, (c) is the right answer. followed by a vowel and immediately preceded by a
T is the odd sentence as it talks about differences in number are written at the left end in alphabetical order.
infant mortality among males and females, which is S ($ 0 A B E 3 ! @ V 7 Q # 1 I 9 & A Z 2 4 G 4 %)
tangential to the main point of the passage.
Step 2: After completing step 1, Symbols are
39. Answer: C) interchanged with preceding element.
QRUTS is the final order and P is the odd sentence. Q ($S0ABE!@3V7#Q1I&9AZ24G%)4
begins the passage by introducing the main idea
discussed in the passage - the majority of native Step 3: After completing step 2, Odd numbers which are
butterflies are migrating due to local climate warming. R non-Perfect Square are written at the right end in
follows by telling us where they are going - places with descending order.
cooler average temperatures. U follows by telling us the
($S0ABE!@V#Q1I&9AZ24G%)473
parts of the world where this has been observed - Europe
and the UK. T follows by telling us about the UK 8th element from right end is 2 and 4th element from left
specifically, and how many species have migrated there. end is 0, so the answer is 2.
S concludes by telling us the regions from where they
have migrated and why. Thus, (c) is the right answer. 42. Answer: C)
P is odd sentence as it talks about the perils of migration, Given Input- ($ 0 A B E 3 ! @ V 7 Q # 1 S I 9 & A Z 2
which is not discussed in any of the other statements. 4 G 4 %)
Page 49 of 83
Step 1: Those consonants which are immediately Step 3: ( $ S 0 A B E ! @ V # Q 1 I & 9 A Z 2 4 G % )

followed by a vowel and immediately preceded by a 473
44. Answer: B)
S ($ 0 A B E 3 ! @ V 7 Q # 1 I 9 & A Z 2 4 G 4 %)
Given Input- ($ 0 A B E 3 ! @ V 7 Q # 1 S I 9 & A Z 2
Step 2: After completing step 1, Symbols are 4 G 4 %)
interchanged with preceding element.
Step 1: Those consonants which are immediately
($S0ABE!@3V7#Q1I&9AZ24G%)4 followed by a vowel and immediately preceded by a
Step 3: After completing step 2, Odd numbers which are
non-Perfect Square are written at the right end in S ($ 0 A B E 3 ! @ V 7 Q # 1 I 9 & A Z 2 4 G 4 %)
descending order.
Step 2: After completing step 1, Symbols are
($S0ABE!@V#Q1I&9AZ24G%)473 interchanged with preceding element.
Step 2: ( $ S 0 A B E ! @ 3 V 7 # Q 1 I & 9 A Z 2 4 G ($S0ABE!@3V7#Q1I&9AZ24G%)4

%)4
Step 3: After completing step 2, Odd numbers which are
43. Answer: C) non-Perfect Square are written at the right end in
descending order.
4 G 4 %) ($S0ABE!@V#Q1I&9AZ24G%)473
Step 1: Those consonants which are immediately Step 3: ( $ S 0 A B E ! @ V # Q 1 I & 9 A Z 2 4 G % )

followed by a vowel and immediately preceded by a 473
15th element from right end is Q and 7th to the right of Q
S ($ 0 A B E 3 ! @ V 7 Q # 1 I 9 & A Z 2 4 G 4 %) is 2 in step 3.
Step 2: After completing step 1, Symbols are 45. Answer: E)

interchanged with preceding element.
($S0ABE!@3V7#Q1I&9AZ24G%)4 4 G 4 %)
Step 3: After completing step 2, Odd numbers which are Step 1: Those consonants which are immediately
non-Perfect Square are written at the right end in followed by a vowel and immediately preceded by a
descending order. number are written at the left end in alphabetical order.
($S0ABE!@V#Q1I&9AZ24G%)473 S ($ 0 A B E 3 ! @ V 7 Q # 1 I 9 & A Z 2 4 G 4 %)
The elements which are followed by vowels in step 3 Step 2: After completing step 1, Symbols are
are: interchanged with preceding element.
($S0ABE!@3V7#Q1I&9AZ24G%)4
Page 50 of 83
Step 3: After completing step 2, Odd numbers which are to the representatives of company T about the defective
non-Perfect Square are written at the right end in goods.
descending order.
49. Answer: E)
($S0ABE!@V#Q1I&9AZ24G%)473
It is possible that Western countries practice discipline in
th th
15 element from right end is Q and 15 element from the use of technology and choose it carefully. So nothing
left end is &. can be assumed about the pollution level in the western
world on the basis of the given passage. Data are
Therefore, there are 5 elements between them. inadequate.
46. Answer: B) (50 – 51): Common Explanation:
Statement II is the cause and statement I is the effect. As given in the code,
Garbage dumping not only contaminates the food chain A & C (44m) – A is 37m west of C, actually A is (45 –
but also indirectly aids global warming. 8) = 37m west of C.
The chemical waste dumped in water bodies may A % C (30m) – A is 38m north of C, actually A is (30 +
generate harmful gases such as methane gas after some 8) = 38m north of C.
time. These emissions contribute to the greenhouse
effect. A # C (51m) – A is 51m east of C, actually A is (51 – 8)
= 43m east of C.
Garbage dumping is thus one of the causes of global
warming. A $ C (20m) – A is 28m south of C, actually A is (20 +
8) = 28m south of C.
47. Answer: A)
Direction Diagram:
Statement I is the cause and statement II is the effect.
After knowing that the food product X has lead content,

consumers would be unwilling to buy the product
leading to a decrease in sales.
48. Answer: D)
Neither I nor II follows.
Neither of the mentioned of action should be undertaken.

Both these actions are a bit extreme and unjustified.
Company T might not have a record of causing
grievances to its customers and hence the defective
shipment could have been an error. This is understood
from the fact that it is a reputed company. Before
proceeding with any dire actions, company A should talk
Page 51 of 83
50. Answer: C) ‗1159‘ is 4th from the left end in step II of the given
input.
S is south west of P.
55. Answer: D)
51. Answer: D)
The 3rd number from right end in step III i.e. 0048 and
The shortest distance between X and V is 25m. 2nd number from the left end i.e. 0028 in step III.
(52 – 56): Common Explanation: 56. Answer: A)
The rearrangement takes place in the following ways:In ‗08‘ is the first number in step IV of the given input.
Step I, all the digits of each numbers are arranged in
decreasing order.In step II, middle three digits are added. (57 – 61): Common Explanation:
In step III, the odd digits are decreased by 1.In step IV, Three boxes are placed between R and F, which is placed
all the digits of the number are added.In step V, all the in the west O, i.e. either F is placed above or below of R.
numbers are arranged in increasing order.In step VI, the
individual digits are squared. T is placed 2 places above O.
Input: 43156 92146 81247 53179 69432 47269 L is placed just above the box, which is exactly in the
west of T.
Step I: 13456 12469 12478 13579 23469 24679
Two boxes are placed between L and J.
Step II: 1126 1129 1138 1159 2139 2179
One box is placed between L and P, which is not placed
Step III: 0026 0028 0028 0048 2028 2068 adjacent to J.
Step IV: 08 10 10 12 12 16 B is placed exactly in the east of P.
Step V: 08 10 10 12 12 16 M is placed 4th to the above of B.
Step VI: 064 10 10 14 14 136 Number of boxes between the box, which is exactly in
the west of M and R is equal to the number of boxes
52. Answer: C) below F.
In the last step, ‗14‘ is 3rd from the right end of the given Case 1: When R is placed below F. L is not placed at the
input. position, which is a multiple of 6, so this case is not
53. Answer: D) possible.
Last three numbers in the final step are 12, 12, 16. Positions X Y
15 J
Sum = (12 + 12 + 16) = 40 14 M
13
54. Answer: B)
12 L
11 T
Page 52 of 83
10 P B 57. Answer: D)
9 F O
58. Answer: C)
8
7 59. Answer: A)
6
5 R 60. Answer: D)
4 61. Answer: B)
3
2 (62 – 66): Common Explanation:
1
The person born in the year 1994 will get married when
Two boxes are placed between M and S.
he is 32 years old. Three persons were born in between Y
Q is the 8th box. and the one who will get married when he is 27 years
old. Y was born before the one who will get married
Two boxes are not placed between R and Q. when he is 27 years old.
Number of boxes between Q and S is equal to the Ye Case 1 Case 2 Case 3
number of boxes above S. ar
Pers Age(pe Pers Age(pe Pers Age(pe
N is the 5th box.
on rson on rson on rson
Number of boxes between N and O is equal to the get get get
number of boxes above J. marrie marrie marrie
d) d) d)
H is the 10th box. K is an even numbered box but not 19 Y
placed below 7th box. 89
Case 2: When R is placed above F. 19
90
The final arrangement is as follows: 19 Y
91
Positions X Y
19 Y
10 H -------
92
9 S
19 27
8 K Q
93
7 J
19 32 32 32
6 M
94
5 R N
19 27
4 L
95
3 T
19 27
2 P B
96
1 F O
Page 53 of 83
The one who will get married at 25 years was born in the 1991 25
immediate year before O. O will get married when he is 1992 O 30 Y 25
30 years old. The one who will get married when he is 26 1993 27 O 30
years old was born after O but not immediately. O was 1994 32 32
born after 1991. 1995 26 26
1996 C C 27
Y Case 1 Case 2(i) Case 2(ii) Case 3
N was born in the immediate year before E. Two persons
ea
were born in between D and N. D was born after E.
r
Pe Age( Pe Age( Pe Age( Pe Age( N and C will get married at consecutive ages where the
rso pers rso pers rso pers rso pers former will get married before the latter. The only ages
n on n on n on n on of persons when they will get married left are 28, 29 and
get get get get 33.
marr marr marr marr
ied) ied) ied) ied) In case 1, the only chances of the age in which C will get
19 Y married at the age of 29 years and N must get married at
89 28.
19 In case 3, C will get married at the age of 27 years So, N
90 must get married at 28. N was born in the immediate
19 25 Y 25 Y year before E. Two persons were born in between D and
91 N. So, case 3 is invalid.
19 O 30 O 30 25 Y 25
92 Year Case 1
19 27 O 30 O 30 Person Age(person get married)
93 1989 Y
19 32 32 32 32 1990 N 28
94 1991 E 25
19 26/ 27 27 26 1992 O 30
95 1993 D 27
19 /26 26 26 27 1994 32
96 1995 26
C was born in the immediate year after the one who will 1996 C 29
get married at 26 years. So, cases 2(i) and 2(ii) are
invalid.
L was born after the one who will get married when he is
Year Case 1 Case 3 25 years old but he will not get married at 26.
Person Age(person Person Age(person
get married) get married) Year Case 1
1989 Y Person Age(person get married)
1990 1989 Y 33
Page 54 of 83
1990 N 28 Products Products Products

1991 E 25 Fruit Shoe/ Shoe/
1992 O 30 Shoe Fruit Shoe/
1993 D 27 Mobile Shoe/ Fruit
1994 L 32 Watch Mobile Cloth
1995 U 26 Watch Mobile
1996 C 29 Watch
From the above cases, it is not sufficient to answer the
question
62. Answer: C)
So, statement 1 alone is not sufficient to answer the
Y will marry when he is 33 years old. question
63. Answer: B) From statement 2:
D, the one who will marry at 27 years, was born in the Three products were bought between Shoe and Watch.
year 1993. Fruit is bought immediately after Shoe. One product is
64. Answer: E) bought between Fruit and Vegetables. Cloth is bought
immediately before Mobile.
Five people were born in between N and the one who
will marry at 29 years. Case 1 Case 2
Products Products
65. Answer: E) Shoe Vegetables
Fruit Shoe
L, the one who will marry at 32 years, was born
immediately before U. Fruit
Vegetables Cloth
66. Answer: D) Watch Mobile
Watch
N, the one who will marry at 28 years, was born before
Case 1 is invalid because Cloth is bought immediately
E.
before Mobile.
67. Answer: D)
Two products were bought between Cloth and
If the data in statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the Vegetables
question
So, statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the question
From statement 1:
68. Answer: C)
Mobile is bought immediately before Watch. Two
From I alone:
products were bought between Fruit and Watch. Shoe
was bought before Cloth but not immediately. Three persons live in between G and Z. C lives
immediately below G. Z lives above G.
Case 1 Case 2 Case 3
Page 55 of 83
Floor Case 1 Case 2 Floor Case 1 Case 2 Case 3

Sixth Z Sixth Z
Fifth Z Fifth Q Z
Fourth Fourth J Z Q
Third Third Q J
Second G Second J /G
First C G First G G/
Ground C Ground X X X
Q lives immediately above J. More than two persons live It can't be determined who lives on the fourth floor.
below K.
So, statement II alone is not sufficient.
Floor Case 1 Case 1a Case 2 Case 2a
From I and II together:
Sixth Z Z K K/
Fifth Q K Z Z Z lives above G. Three persons live in between G and Z.
Fourth J Q Q K/ C lives immediately below G. X lives on the ground
Third K J J Q floor.
Second G G J
First C C G G Floor Resident
Ground C C Sixth Z
It can't be determined who lives on the fourth floor. So, Fifth
statement I alone is not sufficient. Fourth
Third
From II alone: Second G
First C
Z lives above G. X lives on the ground floor. There is
Ground X
one floor in between J and Z. Q lives immediately above
J. More than two persons live below K Q lives immediately above J. There is one floor in
between J and Z. More than two persons live below K.
When Q lives above Z:
Floor Resident
Floor Case 1 Case 2 Sixth Z
Sixth Q Fifth Q
Fifth J Q Fourth J
Fourth J Third K
Third Z Second G
Second /G Z First C
First G/ G Ground X
Ground X X So, J lives on the fourth floor. So, both the statements
It can't be determined who lives on the fourth floor. together are necessary to answer the question.
When Q lives below Z: 69. Answer: D)
Page 56 of 83
Data in statement 1 alone or in statement 2 alone are

From statement 1:
E sits third to the right of F and second to the right of C.

D and C are immediate neighbours. Two persons sit
between B and D(either from left or right).
So, Statement I alone is not sufficient.
From statement II alone, insufficient information is

E sits second to the left of B.
given.
So, statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the question
So, statement II alone is not sufficient.
From statement 2:
By combining statements I and II, we get,
A sits to the immediate left of F. Three persons sit
between A and E. H sits second to the left of D. Two
persons sit between B and H (either from left or right)
E sits second to the left of B.
So, statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the question P is sitting 2nd to the left of R
70. Answer: E) (71 – 75): Common Expanation:
From statement I alone, S is sitting 2nd to the right of U. K is senior to two people and was seated second to the
Two persons are sitting between U and P. One person is right of the one whose designation is Treasurer. Three
sitting between P and Q. people were seated between J and the one whose
Page 57 of 83
designation is Treasurer. Neither P nor J was seated at 71. Answer: B)

the end.
72. Answer: D)
73. Answer: A)
74. Answer: C)
P is senior to K but junior to J. Three people were seated 75. Answer: E)

between P and the one whose designation is Secretary. (76 – 80): Common Explanation:
As Mother of C‘s father and F sit to the immediate left of

each other.
E and D are unmarried children of F, who faces outside.
F is married to B, so F and B are either in 1st generation

or in 2nd generation.
Case I: F and B are in 1st generation:
M is junior to P but senior to the one whose designation

is Manager. The number of people who were seated
between M and the one whose designation is the
Treasurer is the same as between the number of people
who were seated between J and the one whose
designation is Manager.
Hence, case 2a and case 2b are invalid Case II: F and B are in 2nd generation:
The number of people who were seated to the left of the

one whose rank is second highest was twice that of the
number of people who were seated to the right of L. O is G is a female member and sits immediate right of D, who
immediate senior to N.
faces towards the centre, this is not possible in case II, so
case II is rejected. And thus, A is the husband of G.
D doesn‘t sit 2nd to the left of his/her parents.
Hence case 1b is invalid The family tree:
Page 58 of 83
A sits 3rd to the right of D‘s brother and immediate right

Case I(a):
of grandfather of C, this is not possible in case I(c), so
case I(c) is rejected.
E faces towards the centre, this is not possible in case

I(a), so case I(a) is rejected.
The family tree:
Case I(b):
Seating arrangement:
Case I(c):
Page 59 of 83
Persons, who sits adjacent to G, faces opposite directions 79. Answer: B)

(if one of the adjacent persons of G faces towards the
centre than the other one faces outside the centre and 80. Answer: C)
vice versa), so A faces outside. (81 – 85): Common Explanation:
D is not the brother-in-law of G, so D must be a female Now, T sits third to the right of W, who sits on the side,
member. which has three seats. X faces towards the center and S
Gender of C and D is same, so C is a female member. does not have 6 balls. W and T face towards the center.
V and S are not adjacent to each other. T and S sit
The final seating arrangement and family tree is given adjacent to each other on the side, which has 2 seats. U
below: has balls, which are 3 times that of P. Two persons sit
between S and Q, who sits adjacent to one, who has 8
Family tree: balls. P and Y sit immediate left of each other but sits
adjacent to neither T nor R. One person sits between Q
and R, who does not sit adjacent to S. So, we have,
Case 1(a):
Seating arrangement:
Case 1(b):
76. Answer: C)
77. Answer: D)
78. Answer: B)
Page 60 of 83
Case 2(a): Now, X has balls in the multiple of 5 but one more than
that of Q. The one, who has 9 balls, sits second to the left
of W, who has 4 balls more than that of S‘s balls. Q and
U face away from the center. Neither X nor U is adjacent
to W. And, V is not adjacent to S. So, case 1(a) and 1(b)
are rejected. The neighbors of Y face away from the
center. V doesn‘t sit third to the left of X. So, we have,
Case 2(b):
81. Answer: C)
82. Answer: D)
83. Answer: B)
84. Answer: B)
Page 61 of 83
85. Answer: D) → 11 × 20 = 220
86. Answer: A) Now 220 is an even number and next number 1 is an odd
number so condition 1 applies
In first row; 3 is an odd number and 22 is an even
number, so condition 1 applies → 220 + 1 = 221
→ 3 x 22 = 66 Since, 221 is greater than 26 and 2 + 2 + 1 = 5 Thus, E is

the resultant of 2nd row.
Now 66 is an even number and next number 33 is an odd
number so condition 2 applies E and W are the resultants and 17 alphabets lie between
them.
→ 66 + 33 = 99
Thus, there are 17 letters between the two resultants.
Since, 99 is greater than 26, So 9 + 9 = 18. Thus, R is the
resultant of 1st row. 88. Answer: D)
In second row; 5 is an odd number and 35 is a divisible In first row; 6 is an even number and 30 is divisible by
by 7, so condition 3 applies 6, so condition 4 applies
→ 35 – 5 = 30 → 30/6 = 5
Now 30 is an even number and next number 60 is a Now 5 is an odd number and next number 2 is an even
number divisible by 6 so condition 4 applies number so condition 1 applies
→ 60/30 = 2. → 5 × 2 = 10
Since, 2 is lesser than 26. Thus, B is the resultant of 2nd Since, 10 is lesser than 26. Thus, J is the resultant of 1st
row. row.
B and R are the resultants and R is 16th to the left of B. In second row; 14 is an even number and 42 is a divisible
by 6, so condition 4 applies
Thus, 1st row resultant is 16th to the right of B.
→ 42/14 = 3
87. Answer: C)
Now 3 is an odd number and next number 21, is a
In first row; 7 is an odd number and 21 is divisible by 7, number divisible by 7 so condition 3 applies → 21 – 3 =
so condition 3 applies → 21 – 7 = 14 18
Now 14 is an even number and next number 9 is an odd Since, 18 is lesser than 26. Thus, R is the resultant of 2nd
number so condition 2 applies → 14 + 9 = 23 row.
Since, 23 is lesser than 26. Thus, W is the resultant of 1st Thus, J and R are the resultants.
row.
89. Answer: A)
In second row; 11 is an odd number and 20 is an even
number, so condition 1 applies
Page 62 of 83
In first row; 9 is an odd number and 10 is an even A and B is the two resultants and there lies no alphabet
number, so condition 1 applies → 9 × 10 = 90 between them.
Now 90 is an even number and next number 13 is an odd Thus, none of these is the correct answer.
number so condition 2 applies → 90 + 13 = 103
Quantitative Aptitude
In second row; 5 is an odd number and 52 is an even
number, so condition 1 applies → 5 × 52 = 260 (91 – 95): Common Explanation:
Now 260 is an even number and next number 27 is an College A:

odd number so condition 2 applies Students joined for course R = 340
→ 260 + 27 = 287 Total students = 340 * (100/21.25) = 1600
Since, 103 and 287 the two resultants before rule 5 is Let students joined for course P and Q is '3a' and '4a'
applied so, 103 + 287 = 390 respectively.
Applying rule 5, 390 is greater than 26. So, 3 + 9 + 0 = 3a + 4a = 1600 - 340
12
a = 180
Thus, L is the correct answer.
Students joined for course P = 3a = 540
90. Answer: E)
Students joined for course Q = 4a = 720
In first row; 3 is an odd number and 63 is divisible by 7,
so condition 3 applies College B:
→ 63 – 3 = 60 Students joined for course P = 150% of 720 = 1080
Now 60 is an even number and next number 120 is Students joined for course R = 75% of 720 = 540
divisible by 6, so condition 4 applies
Total students = 2400
→ 120/60 = 2
Students joined for course Q = 2400 - (1080 + 540) =
st 780
Thus, B is the resultant of 1 row.
In second row; 5 is an odd number and 35 is divisible by College C:

7, so condition 3 applies
Total students = (1600 + 2400)/2 = 2000
→ 35 – 5 = 30
Let number of students joined for courses P and Q is '8c'
Now 30 is an even number and next number 30 is and '15c' respectively.
divisible by 6, so condition 4 applies
Students joined for course R = (15c + 100)
→ 30/30 = 1
According to the question:
nd
Thus, A is the resultant of 2 row.
Page 63 of 83
8c + 15c + (15c + 100) = 2000 94. Answer: C)
38c = 1900 After including students in course S, total students in

college B = 1080 * (100/36) = 3000
c = 50
Number of students in course S in college B = 3000 -
Students joined for course P = 8c = 400 2400 = 600
Students joined for course Q = 15c = 750
95. Answer: B)
Course/ College P Q R Total Total number of students in course Q in all the three
A 540 720 340 1600 colleges together = 720 + 780 + 750 = 2250
B 1080 780 540 2400
C 400 750 850 2000 Total number of students in course R in all the three
colleges together = 340 + 540 + 850 = 1730
91. Answer: A) Required ratio = 2250: 1730 = 225: 173
Boys in course P = 540 * (2/3) = 360 96. Answer: D)
Boys in course Q = 720 * (3/8) = 270 Let the total loan given by bank B be Rs. ‗x‘
Boys in course R = 340 * (9/17) = 180 ⇒ Total loan given by bank A = (100 + 20)% of x = 1.2x
Total number of boys in college A in all the three courses Now,

together = 360 + 270 + 180 = 810
Home loan given by bank A = 35% of 1.2x = 0.35 × 1.2x
92. Answer: D) = 0.42x
Total girl students in college A = 45% of 1600 = 720 Home loan given by bank B = 30% of x = 0.3x
Total girl students in college B = 40% of 2400 = 960 ⇒ Home loan given by bank A = 0.42x/0.3x × 100 =
140% of Home loan given by bank B
Total girl students in college C = 36% of 2000 = 720
∴ The home loan given by bank A is 40% more than that
Required average = (720 + 960 + 720)/3 = 800 by bank B
93. Answer: C) 97. Answer: D)
College D: Let the total loan given by bank B be Rs. ‗x‘
Students in course P = 340 ⇒ Education loan given by bank B = 25% of x = 15
Total students = 340 * (300/85) = 1200 lakhs
Number of students in course R in college D = (27/43) * ⇒ x = 15/0.25 = Rs. 60 lakhs

(1200 - 340) = 540 Now,
Page 64 of 83
Total loan given by bank A = 120% of Total loan given Credit card loan given by bank B = 20% of x = 0.2x
by bank B
⇒ Credit card loan given by bank A = 0.18x/0.2x × 100
⇒ Total loan given by bank A = 1.2 × 60 = Rs. 72 lakhs = 90% of Credit card loan given by bank B
∴ Education loan given by bank A = 22% of 72 = Rs. ∴ For every credit card loan of Rs. 1000 given by bank
15.84 lakhs B, bank A gave a credit card loan of = 90% of 1000 =
Rs. 900
98. Answer: C)
100. Answer: C)
Total loan given by bank A = 1.2 × Total loan given by
bank B Let the total loan given by bank A be Rs. ‗x‘
⇒ Total loan given by bank A/Total loan given by bank ⇒ Personal loan given by bank A = 10% of x = 5 lakhs
B = 6/5 ----(1)
⇒ x = 5/0.1 = Rs. 50 lakhs
Now,
Now,
Auto loan given by bank A = 12% of Total loan given by
bank A ----(2) Other loans given by bank A = 6% of 50 lakhs = Rs. 3
lakhs
Auto loan given by bank B = 15% of Total loan given by
bank B ----(3) ∴ Loan given for commercial purposes by bank A = 60%
of 3 lakhs = Rs. 1.8 lakhs
Dividing (2) by (3), we get,
101. Answer: A)
⇒ Auto loan given by bank A/Auto loan given by bank
B = 12/15 × (Total loan given by bank A/Total loan Quantity A,
given by bank B) tap 1 + tap 2 = 1/16 + 1/25 = 41/400
Substituting from (1), Tap 2 filled alone in 12 hours = 12/25
⇒ Ratio of auto loans = 12/15 × 6/5 = 24/25 Remaining = 13/25
∴ The ratio of auto loans given by bank A to that by bank Required time = (13/25) × (400/41) = 5.07 hours
B = 24 ∶ 25
Quantity B,
99. Answer: B)
Total units of work = 90
Let the total loan given by bank B be Rs. ‗x‘
1‘s one hour work = 9
⇒ Total loan given by bank A = (100 + 20)% of x = 1.2x
Now,
Credit card loan given by bank A = 15% of 1.2x = 0.15 ×
1.2x = 0.18x Work done by three taps in 2 hours = 15 + 14 = 29 units
Page 65 of 83
Work done in 6 hours = 29 × 3 = 87 units Let the distance travelled on cycle be x km.
Remaining will be done by tap 1 and tap 2 = 3/15 = 1/5 Then distance travelled on bike = (91 - x) km
hours
Now, (x/6) + (91 - x)/12 = 9
Total time required = 6(1/5) hours = 6.2 hours
(2x + 91 - x)/12 = 9
Quantity C,
(x + 91)/12 = 9
Tap 1 = 1/10
x + 91 = 108
Tap 2 = 1/20
x = 17km
LCM of (10,20) = 20 units
∴ Quantity A = Quantity B > Quantity C
Tap 1 fill the tank in one hour = 2 units
103. Answer: C)
Tap 2 emptied the tank in one hour = 1 unit
Total distance is 100 km
Tap 1 opened for 5 hours = 2 × 5 = 10 units of tank filled
Statement I
Tap 2 can empty in = 10 /1 = 10 hours
Time at 25 kmph = 25/25 = 1 hour
Tank emptied in x = 10 hours
Statement II
Quantity A < Quantity B < Quantity C
Time at 75 kmph = 75/75 = 1 hour
102. Answer: D)
Required speed = Distance/Time
Quantity A,
⇒ 100/2 = 50 kmph
d/(20 - 12) – d/(20 + 12) = 9
∴ Both the statements I and II together are needed to
d/8 – d/32 = 9 answer the question
3d/32 = 9 104. Answer: C)
D = 32 × 3 = 96 km Speed of train = 81 kmph = 22.5 m/s
Quantity B, To find: Length of train =?
200 = (x - 60) ×5/18×20 Statement I
36 = (x – 60) Length of platform = 585 m
X = 96 kmph t = 48s
Quantity C, Distance travelled = length of train + length of platform

= 22.5 × 48 = 1080
Page 66 of 83
Length of train = 1080 – 585 = 495 m Total weight = 5 × 68 = 340 kg
Thus, statement I provides sufficient data. Statement II
Statement II Newly added ball weights = 16 kg, 29 kg
t = 22s Now, total weight = 340 + 16 + 29 = 385 kg
Length of train = 22.5 × 22 = 495 m New average = 385/7 = 55 kg
Thus, statement II also provides sufficient data. Thus, both statement I and II are necessary to find
required value.
105. Answer: C)
107. Answer: D)
N=8
To find: Average =?
Statement I
Total = 896
Average = 896/8 = 112
Thus, statement I provides sufficient data.
Statement II
Now, Total/8 - (Total + 49)/9 = 7
⇒ 9(Total) – 8(Total + 49) = 7 × 8 × 9
⇒ Total – 392 = 504
⇒ Total = 896
∴ Average = 896/8 = 112
Thus, statement II also provides sufficient data.
106. Answer: E)
108. Answer: A)
To find: New average weight of balls =?
The pattern is as follows:
Statement I
⇒ 224 × 0.5 = 112 ≠ 224 (not following the pattern in
N=5
the series, it should be 112)
Average weight = 68 kg
Page 67 of 83
⇒ 112 × 1.5 = 168 111. Answer: B)
⇒ 168 × 2.5 = 420 The pattern is as follows:
⇒ 420 × 3.5 = 1470 ⇒ 120 = 112 – 1
⇒ 1470 × 4.5 = 6615 ⇒ 101 = 102 + 1
∴ 224 is the wrong term in the series. ⇒ 80 = 92 – 1
109. Answer: D) ⇒ 63 ≠ 82 + 1 (not following the pattern in the series)
The pattern is as follows: ⇒ 48 = 72 – 1
⇒ 18 × 2 – 1 = 35 ⇒ 37 = 62 + 1
⇒ 35 × 4 – 2 = 138 ⇒ 24 = 52 – 1
⇒ 138 × 6 – 3 = 825 ≠ 815 (not following the pattern in 63 should be 65 to form a pattern in the series
the series, it should be 825)
∴ 63 is the wrong term in the series
⇒ 825 × 8 – 4 = 6596
112. Answer: C)
⇒ 6596 × 10 – 5 = 65955
441, 374, 312, 262, 223, 206
∴ 815 is the wrong term in the series.
First Difference: -67, -62 -52, -37, -17
110. Answer: E)
Second difference: -5, -10, -15, -20
The pattern is as follows:\
∴ 262 is the wrong term in the series.
The logic used in the series is the division of the number
113. Answer: C)
by 2 and multiplication of the number by 5 alternatively.
Let us assume Aman won Rs. 2A in the lottery, so
⇒ 30 = 60 ÷ 2
money invested in each scheme = 2A/2 = A
⇒ 150 = 30 × 5
We know that: SI = (P × R × T)/100
⇒ 75 = 150 ÷ 2
And, CI = P[(1 + R/100)T – 1]
⇒ 375 = 75 × 5
Where, SI = Simple Interest, CI = Compound interest, P
⇒ 187.5 = 375 ÷ 2 = Principle, R = Rate of Interest, t = Time period
⇒ Next term will be 187.5 × 5 = 937.5 ∴ Interest earned from scheme P = (A × x × 5)/100 =
Ax/20
∴ 935.5 is the wrong term in the series
Page 68 of 83
And Interest earned from scheme Q = A × [(1 + 20/100)2 So, Cost price at which car is purchased by Y = Rs.
– 1] = 11A/25 500000
Now, interest earned from scheme P is 25% more than Cost price of Y is the selling price of X
that earned from scheme Q.
Let the original cost at which X has purchased the car be
∴ 11A/25 × 125/100 = Ax/20 b
⇒ x = 11 ⇒ Profit earned by him = 30a/100 = 3a/10
As per the given information, had the rate of interest in ⇒ Selling price = b + (3b/10) = 13b/10
scheme P been (x + 3)% per annum, then:
⇒ 500000 = 13b/100
Interest from scheme P – interest from scheme Q = 7020
⇒ b = 384615
For scheme P:
⇒ The original cost at which X has purchased the car =
Interest earned at (x + 3)% per annum = A × (11 + 3) × Rs. 384615
5/100 = 7A/10
Now, we have to calculate the value of car with Z at the
∴ 70A/100 – 44A/100 = 7020 time of selling
⇒ 0.26A = 7020 ⇒ Price at which Z purchased the car = Rs. 550000
⇒ A = 7020/0.26 = 27000 ⇒ Depreciation for two years at the rate of 10% p.a. = 2
× (10% of 550000) = 2 × 55000 = Rs. 110000
Total sum of money won by Aman = 2A = 2 × 27000 =
Rs. 54000 ⇒ Value of the car after two years = 550000 – 110000 =
Rs. 440000 ---- (1)
114. Answer: E)
⇒ Price at which car is sold by Z = 384615 – (5% of
Firstly, we need to calculate the original value of the car
384615) = 384615 – 19230.75 = Rs. 365384.25 ----
to find the profit earned or loss suffered by Z
(2)
Let the cost at which Y purchased the car be a
From equation (1) and (2)
⇒ Profit earned by him = 10a/100 = a/10
⇒ Loss suffered by Z on sale = 440000 – 365384.25 =
⇒ Selling price = a + (a/10) = 11a/10 74615.75
ATQ, ∴ The selling price is less than the value of car. So, loss
suffered by Z on sale is Rs. 74615.75
⇒ 11a/10 = 550000
115. Answer: A)
⇒ a = 500000
Let the regular speed of the bus be x km/hr.
Page 69 of 83
∴ Time taken to travel 50 km = Distance / Speed = (50/x) Bus stops at only 3 bus stops.
hr
∴ Time for which it stops = 3 × 4 = 12 min = (1/5) hr
There are 4 stops between source and destination.
Let the increase in speed be y km/hr.
⇒ Bus stops are after every 10 km.
Hence,
First Scenario:
=> 50/x = 30/x + 1/5 + 20/(x + y)
The bus travels 40 km at speed x km/hr.
=> 20/x – 20/(x + y) = 1/5
∴ Time taken = (40/x) hr
=> (x + y) – x/x(x + y) = 1/5
The bus stops at every stop for 2.5 min
⇒ x (x + y) = 5 y
And, there are 4 stops in total.
Putting x = 4 km/hr
∴ Time taken = 4 × 2.5 = 10 min = (1/6) hr
∴ 4 × (4 + y) = 5 × y
And, its new speed for remaining 10 km = (x + 8) km/hr
⇒ 4 = (1/4) × y
∴ Time taken with new speed for remaining time = {10 /
⇒ y = 16 km/hr
(x + 8)} hr
Hence, Increase in speed = 16 - 4 = 12 km/hr
50/x = 40/x + 1/6 + 10/(x + 8) 116. Answer: A)
=> 10/x – 10/(x + 8) = 1/6 Amount spent by Ramesh on rent and utilities = 60/100 ×
x = 0.6x
=> (x + 8) – x/x(x + 8) = 1/6
⇒ Remaining amount left = x – 0.6x = 0.4x
⇒ x (x + 8) = 48
⇒ Amount spent by Ramesh on food = 80/100 × 0.4x =
⇒ x + 8x – 48 = 0
2
0.32x
⇒ (x - 4) (x + 12) = 0 ⇒ Remaining amount left = 0.4x – 0.32x = 0.08x
Ignoring the negative value, ⇒ Remaining amount after buying a shirt = Savings =
0.08x – 360
X = 4 km/hr
⇒ Amount spent by Suresh on rent and utilities = 75/100
Second Scenario:
× y = 0.75y
The bus skips the last bus stop.
⇒ Remaining amount left = y – 0.75y = 0.25y
∴ Distance covered before increasing the speed = 30 km
⇒ Amount spent by Suresh on food = 90/100 × 0.25y =
0.225y
Page 70 of 83
⇒ Remaining amount left = 0.25y – 0.225y = 0.025y ⇒ R = 18 – 15 = 3
⇒ Remaining amount after buying a hat = Savings = If only the games played by Matt and Mona are
0.025y – 75 considered, there is a profit of Rs. 100. We know that
Matt has lost all of his P games. Mona could have won 1,
Given that the saving of Ramesh is 100% more than that 2 or 3 games.
of Suresh i.e. twice that of Suresh
If Mona had won 1 game, total profit = 500 – 100 × (P +
⇒ 0.08x – 360 = 2 × (0.025y – 75) 3) = 100
⇒ 0.08x – 0.05y = 210 ---- (1) ⇒P+3=4
⇒ Total salary received = x + y = 27000 ---- (2) ⇒P=1
∴ Solving we get x = 12000 and y = 15000 If Mona had won 2 games, total profit = 2 × 500 – 100 ×
117. Answer: E) (P + 3) = 100
Suppose Matt, Maria and Mona played P, Q and R ⇒P+3=9

games, respectively. ⇒P=6
⇒ P + Q + R = 18 If Mona had won 3 games, total profit = 3 × 500 – 100 ×
If only the games played by Matt and Maria are (P + 3) = 100
considered, there is a loss of Rs. 1500. So, Matt and ⇒ P + 3 = 14
Maria have played at least 15 games between them.
⇒ P = 11
If they have played 15 games, they have lost all of them.
If they have played 16 games, they can lose Rs. 1600 by ∴ Matt could have played 1, 6 or 11 games. Answer
losing all games or lose Rs. 1000 by losing 15 games and cannot be uniquely determined.
winning 1, or lose less than that by winning more games.
So, this case is not possible as they cannot lose Rs. 1500. 118. Answer: B)
Similarly, if they have played 17 games, they can lose Given,
Rs. 1700 by losing all games or lose Rs. 1100 by losing
16 games and winning 1, or lose less than that by Sales of Jeans in June = 180/2 = 90
winning more games. And, if they have played 18
Sales of Shirts in April = 100 × 2 = 200
games, they can lose Rs. 1800 by losing all games or lose
Rs. 1200 by losing 17 games and winning 1, or lose less Then,
than that by winning more games.
Total sales of Shirts = 480 + 220 = 700
⇒ Only case possible is that they have played 15 games
and lost all of them. Items April May June July Total
Jeans 110 150 90 130 480
⇒ P + Q = 15 Shirts 200 180 150 - 700
Page 71 of 83
Shirts 200 180 150 170 700

Ethnic 100 220 170 190 680
Sales of shirts in July = 700 – 530 = 170
wear
119. Answer: B) Night 120 140 200 80 540
suits
Given,
Sales of Jeans in June = 180/2 = 90 From above, Jeans has lowest Sales over the four
months.
Sales of Shirts in April = 100 × 2 = 200
121. Answer: B)
Then,
Let the no. of bricks used in building the pillars X, Y &
Total sales of Shirts = 480 + 220 = 700
Z be ‗x‘, ‗y‘ and ‗z‘ respectively
Sales of Ethnic wear in May = 110 × 2 = 220
Given, x = 45
Sales of night suits in May = 690 – 150 – 180 – 220 =
Average no. of bricks per pillar = 49
140
⇒ x + y + z = 49 × 3 = 147
Sales of night suits in July = 570 – 130 – 170 – 190 = 80
Then, ⇒ y + z = 102 ––– (1)
Also,
Items April May June July
Jeans 110 150 90 130 Average no. of bricks used in pillars Y & Z – Average
Shirts 200 180 150 170 no. of bricks used in pillars X & Y = 12
Ethnic 100 220 170 190
wear ⇒ (y + z)/2 – (x + y)/2 = 12
Night 120 140 200 80
⇒ z – x = 24
suits
Total 530 690 610 570 ⇒ z = 24 + 45 = 69
Substituting in (1),
Total sales of Night suits over four months = 120 + 140
+ 200 + 80 = 540 ⇒ y = 102 – 69 = 33
120. Answer: D) ⇒ Difference between no. of bricks used in Z & Y = 69

– 33 = 36
Given,
∴ Only option B satisfies the two blanks in the question
Using data from previous questions,
122. Answer: B)
Items April May June July Total
Jeans 110 150 90 130 480 ∵ x is 20% less than y
Page 72 of 83
⇒ x = 80% of y ⇒ Length of the parts = (5/6 × 3x/10), (1/6 × 3x/10) =

x/4, x/20
⇒ x = 0.8y --- (1)
⇒ Difference between length of longest and shortest part
Also, = x/3 – x/20 = 17x/60
⇒ 150% of (x + y) = 180% of z Let x = 60 m, (option A),
⇒ 1.5 (x + y) = 1.8z ⇒ Difference = 17/60 × 60 = 17 m
Substituting from (1), Let x = 120 m, (option B),
⇒ 1.5 (1.8y) = 1.8z ⇒ Difference = 17/60 × 120 = 34 m
⇒ 1.5y = z Let x = 180 m, (option C),
Let y = 10, (option A) ⇒ Difference = 17/60 × 180 = 51 m
⇒ z = 1.5 × 10 = 15 Let x = 240 m, (option D),
Let y = 20, (option B) ⇒ Difference = 17/60 × 240 = 68 m
⇒ z = 1.5 × 20 = 30 ∴ Options B & C satisfies the two blanks in the question
Let y = 30, (option C) 124. Answer: A)
⇒ z = 1.5 × 30 = 45 Time taken by bike to reach destination = 90/60 = 1.5
Let y = 40, (option D) hrs. = 90 min.
⇒ z = 1.5 × 40 = 60 Let the car is running 20% faster than bike, (option A)
∴ Options A& D satisfies the two blanks in the question ⇒ Speed of car = 60 + 20% of 60 = 72 km/hr.
123. Answer: D) ⇒ Travel time of car = 90/72 = 1.25 hrs. = 75 min.
Let the length of the wire be ‗x‘ m ⇒ Halt time of car = 90 – 75 = 15 min.
Length of first part = 2/10 × x = x/5 Let the car is running 25% faster than bike, (option B)
Length of second part = 5/10 × x = x/2 ⇒ Speed of car = 60 + 25% of 60 = 75 km/hr.
But, it was further divided in ratio 1∶ 2, ⇒ Travel time of car = 90/75 = 1.2 hrs. = 72 min.
⇒ Length of the parts = (1/3 × x/2), (2/3 × x/2) = x/6, x/3 ⇒ Halt time of car = 90 – 72 = 18 min.
Length of third part = 3/10 × x = 3x/10 Let the car is running 50% faster than bike, (option C)
It was also divided in ratio 5∶ 1, ⇒ Speed of car = 60 + 50% of 60 = 90 km/hr.

Page 73 of 83
⇒ Travel time of car = 90/90 = 1 hr. = 60 min. Living cost of House E = Rs. 44500
⇒ Halt time of car = 90 – 60 = 30 min. Let the required percentage be ‗x‘
Let the car is running 80% faster than bike, (option D) 44500 + 44500 x/100 = 57500
⇒ Speed of car = 60 + 80% of 60 = 108 km/hr. 44500 x/100 = 13000
⇒ Travel time of car = 90/108 = 5/6 hrs. = 50 min. x = 29.21 %
⇒ Halt time of car = 90 – 50 = 40 min. ∴ x ≈ 30%
∴Only option A satisfies the two blanks in the question 127. Answer: B)
125. Answer: B) House B consumes 428 KW.
Upstream speed = 36/3 = 12 km/hr. 1 KW = Rs. 15
Downstream speed = 36/2.4 = 15 km/hr. ∴ 428 KW would cost = 428 × 15 = Rs. 6420
⇒ Speed of stream = (Downstream speed – Upstream 128. Answer: C)

speed)/2 = (15 – 12)/2 = 1.5 km/hr.
Electricity cost of House A = 345 × 20 = Rs. 6900
⇒Speed of boat in still water = (Downstream speed +
Living cost of House A = Electricity cost + Rent cost +
Upstream speed)/2 = (15 + 12)/2 = 13.5 km/hr.
Internet cost + Food cost + Miscellaneous cost
⇒ Time taken by boat to cover 36 km in still water =
= 6900 + 20,000 + 6000 + 12,500 + 15,000 = Rs. 60400
36/13.5 = 2.67 hrs. = 2 hrs. 40 min.
Electricity cost of House B = 428 × 20 = Rs. 8560
∴Only option B satisfies the two blanks in the question
Living cost of House B = Electricity cost + Rent cost +
126. Answer: D)
Living cost of House C = Rent cost + Internet cost +
= 8560 + 22,250 + 4500 + 8,500 + 9500 = Rs. 53310
Food cost + Miscellaneous cost
Electricity cost of House C = 387 × 20 = Rs. 7740
Living cost of House C = 25,000 + 8000 + 13,000 +
11,500 Living cost of House C = Electricity cost + Rent cost +
Living cost of House C = Rs. 57500
= 7740 + 25,000 + 8000 + 13,000 + 11,500 = Rs. 65240
Living cost of House E = Rent cost + Internet cost +
Food cost + Miscellaneous cost Electricity cost of House D = 362 × 20 = Rs. 7240
Living cost of House E = 18,000 + 6000 + 9500 + Living cost of House D = Electricity cost + Rent cost +
11,000 Internet cost + Food cost + Miscellaneous cost
Page 74 of 83
= 7240 + 21,750 + 5500 + 9585 + 9,000 = Rs. 53075 ∴ Miscellaneous cost must be reduced by = 11500 –
10675 = Rs. 825
Electricity cost of House E = 408 × 20 = Rs. 8160
131. Answer: D)
Living cost of House E = Electricity cost + Rent cost +
Internet cost + Food cost + Miscellaneous cost Total amount of metal mined from all the three mines on
Monday = 600 kg
= 8160 + 18,000 + 6000 + 9,500 + 11,000 = Rs. 52660
Total amount of Gold mined from all the three mines on
∴ From above calculation, House C lives the most lavish
Monday = 40(1/6)% of 600 = 241 kg
life.
Ratio of Gold mined from mines A, B and C on Monday
129. Answer: C) = (10 * 30): (9 * 30): (9 * 17) = 100: 90: 51
Average rent = (Total rent) / (No. of houses) Amount of Gold mined from mine B = 241 * (90/241) =
Total rent = Sum of rent of all houses 90 kg
= 20,000 + 22,250 + 25,000 + 21,750 + 18,000 = Rs. Total amount of metal mined from mine B on Monday =
107000 90 * (100/50) = 180 kg
Average rent = 107000/5 = Rs. 21400 132. Answer: B)
∴ House B, C and D have rent above the average value. Let amount of Gold mined from mines A, B and C on
Tuesday is 8x, 9x and 14x respectively.
130. Answer: D)
Amount of metal mined from all the three mines on
Electricity cost of House C = Rs 387 × 25 = Rs. 9675 Tuesday = [8x * (100/20)] + [9x * (100/30)] + [14x *
(100/40)] = 105x = 840 [Given]
Total cost of house C = Electricity cost + Rent cost +
Internet cost + Food cost + Miscellaneous cost x=8
= 9675 + 25000 + 8000 + 13000 + 115000 = Rs 67175 Total amount of Gold mined from all the three mines
together on Tuesday = 8x + 9x + 14x = 31x = 248 kg
If the cost remains same for the next month, then
133. Answer: C)
Total cost of house C = Rs. 67175
From mine B,
67175 = Electricity cost + Rent cost + Internet cost +
Food cost + Miscellaneous cost Total metal mined on Monday = 90 * (100/50) = 180 kg
67175 = 10500 + 25000 + 8000 + 13000 + x Total metal mined on Tuesday = 75 * (100/30) = 250 kg
67175 = 56500 + x Total metal mined on Thursday = 180 kg
x = Rs. 10675 Total Gold mined on Thursday = 40% of 180 = 72 kg
Total Gold mined on Wednesday = 72 * (5/4) = 90 kg

Page 75 of 83
Total metal mined on Wednesday = 90 * (100/60) = 150

kg
Total amount of metal mined on all the four days

together = 180 + 250 + 150 + 180 = 760 kg
134. Answer: A)
Ratio of Gold mined from mines A, B and C on

Thursday = (8 * 14): (7 * 14): (7 * 9) = 16: 14: 9
Let amount of Gold mined from mines A, B and C on

Thursday is 16x, 14x and 9x respectively.
Amount of metal mined from mine A on Thursday = 16x

* (100/40) = 40x
Amount of metal mined from mine C on Thursday = 9x

* (100/20) = 45x
Required per cent = [(45x - 40x)/40x] * 100 = 12.5%
135. Answer: E)
From mine C,
Total amount of metal mined on Monday = 72 * (100/30)

= 240 kg
Total amount of metal mined on Tuesday = 64 *

(100/40) = 160 kg
Total amount of metal mined on Wednesday and

Thursday together = (240 + 160) * (3/2) = 600 kg
Since, we can't determine the amount of metal mined

individually on Wednesday and Thursday.
So, we can't determine the total amount of Gold mined

on Wednesday and Thursday together.
(136 – 140): Common Explanation:
Page 76 of 83
136. Answer: A) 138. Answer: B)
Space taken by one solid spherical toy = Volume of one Curved surface area of one hollow cylindrical toy =
solid spherical toy 2π×(3.5+10.5)×14=1232cm²
139. Answer: C)
Required Ratio = 21/7=3/1

Total space taken by solid spherical toys =
20×4851=97020cm² 140. Answer: D)
137. Answer: E) Volume of one hollow cylindrical toy = π×14×(10.5² -

3.5²) = 4312
Number of conical toys Neeraj have = 8
141. Answer: D) The issuers shall provide to all cardholders the facility to
switch on / off and set / modify transaction limits (within
Government appointed former Chief Financial Officer the overall card limit, if any, set by the issuer) for all
&deputy Managing Director(MD) of SBI Prashant types of transactions – domestic and international, at PoS
Kumar as MD & Chief Financial Officer(CEO), the / ATMs / online transactions / contactless transactions,
former Punjab National Bank(PNB) MD Sunil etc.
Mehta as Non-Executive Chairman, Mahesh
Krishnamurthy & Atul Bheda as non-executive 145. Answer: C)
directors of the reconstructed board of Yes Bank.
Top Nation: The list has been topped by Norway, with a
142. Answer: B) score of 9.87. Bottom Nation: North Korea is at the
bottom of the global ranking at 167th place with a score
Dubai-based Indian girl, Sucheta Satish, who can sing in of 1.08.
120 languages, has won in the ‗Global Child Prodigy
Awards 2020‘ in New Delhi on January 3, 2020. The 13- 146. Answer: A)
year-old Sucheta Satish was selected for the award for
her twin world records, which included singing in most In India, the National Voters‘ Day is celebrated on 25
languages during one concert and the longest live singing January every year in a bid to encourage more young
concert by a child. voters to take part in the political process. The theme of
National Voters‘ Day 2020 is ‗Electoral Literacy for a
143. Answer: E) Stronger Democracy.‘
The state government of Gujarat has planned to set up 147. Answer: C)

Vikram Sarabhai Children Innovation Center (VSCIC) to
identify, nurture and promote children‘s innovation in 148. Answer: E)
the state. Yes Bank will resume its full banking services from
144. Answer: D) March 18, 2020. The bank tweeted saying that from
March 19 onwards, customers will also be able to visit
Page 77 of 83
any of its branches during banking hours. They will also 153. Answer: B)
be able to access all its digital services.
The Reserve Bank of India decided to infuse additional
149. Answer: D) liquidity with a second tranche of bond purchase worth
₹30,000 crores amid the Covid-19 pandemic.
The Phillipines has become the first country of the world
to suspend all financial markets. The financial shutdown  In the backdrop of the Coronavirus outbreak, the
was confirmed from the statements from the Philippine Apex Bank has decided to ensure that all market
Stock Exchange and the Bankers Association of the segments function normally with adequate
Philippines. The Philippine Stock Exchange was closed liquidity and turnover.
on 17th of March indefinitely, while currency and bond  The central bank will conduct purchase of
trading were suspended. government securities under open market
operations (OMOs) for an aggregate amount of
150. Answer: D)
Rs 30,000 crore in two tranches of Rs 15,000
The Union Government is taking positive steps for the crore each in March.
listing of three languages Bhojpuri, Rajasthani and Bhoti  The auctions would be conducted on March 24
into the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution. and March 30.
 The issue was raised during Zero hour in Lok 154. Answer: D)
Sabha by Jagdambika Pal of the BJP.
Based on the recommendation of Dr. K.C. Chakrabarty
 He urged the government to consider the listing
chaired the committee, a Scheme for Recapitalization of
of these languages into the Eighth schedule.
RRBs was approved by the Cabinet on 10 February
 Mr Pal said that almost 20 crore people in 16 2011.
countries speak them.
 The Ladakhi language also called Bhoti is a 155. Answer: A)
Tibetic language spoken in the Ladakh union
Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman announced
territory of India.
insurance cover worth Rs. 50 lakh per person for all
151. Answer: E) employees working in the medical field for next three
months.
Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI), a
development financial institution in India, engaged in the 156. Answer: C)
promotion, financing and development of Micro, Small
Saudi Arabia has assured India that it will ensure
& Medium Enterprises (MSMEs), has decided to
continous supply of LPG to support domestic demand of
launch a special train ‗Swavalamban Express‘ on June
the cooking gas in the nation. This was shared by
05, 2020, to empower budding entrepreneurs under its
Dharmendra Pradhan, Minister for Petroleum and
mission Swavalamban
Natural Gas.
152. Answer: D)
157. Answer: E)
A UPI App fetched bank account details using the
registered mobile number.
Page 78 of 83
According to Finance Minister‘s announcement on Under the Regional Connectivity Scheme ―Ude Desh Ka
March 26, 2020, the women Jan Dhan account holders Aam Nagrik (UDAN)‖ of Government of India, Ministry
will get Rs 500 every month. of Civil Aviation (MoCA) has operationalized the first
ever helicopter services in the state of Uttarakhand.
158. Answer: A) Under the UDAN 2 bidding process, Heritage Aviation
RuPay Prepaid Card is also available with contactless has been given the responsibility of operating the
technology. NPCI has developed Quick Specification for Sahastradhara-Gauchar-Chinyalisaur route.
Payment Application of RuPay Chip (qSPARC). It is
162. Answer: A)
based on dual interface (contact & contactless) EMV
based specification as per open standards, aimed at World silver-medallist Amit Panghal has been ranked
digitizing the retail payments across all segments (small number one in the 52 kilogram category for Olympic
& large ticket size) using contact & contactless payment Qualifiers.
technology.
 This made him the first Indian pugilist in over a
159. Answer: C)
decade to achieve the global top position in the
CRISIL has cut its base-case Gross Domestic Product category.
(GDP) growth forecast for fiscal 2021 to 3.5% from  The list was released by the International
5.2% expected earlier. Olympic Committee's Boxing Task Force ahead
of next month's Olympic Qualifiers.
160. Answer: E)  The rankings took into account the last two world
championships for both men and women and the
Noted actor Waheeda Rehman will be conferred the
continental championships and Games in 2019.
Madhya Pradesh government's National Kishore
 Last year, he became the first Indian to claim a
Kumar Samman.
silver medal at the world championships after
 The award, for the year 2018, will be given to notching up a gold at the Asian meet.
Rehman at her Bandra residence in Mumbai by
Madhya Pradesh Culture Minister Vijaylaxmi 163. Answer: D)
Sadho.
PinelopiPenny Koujianou Goldberg is a Greek-American
 Rehman, one of Hindi film industry‘s most
economist and the former chief economist of the World
successful leading ladies with a string of box
Bank. She holds the named chair of Elihu Professor of
office hits and several awards.
Economics at Yale University.
 The award, which carries a Rs 2 lakh cash prize
and citation, could not be given to Rehman 164. Answer: E)
during a function held in October last year as the
actor was unwell. ―Messages from Messengers‖ book written by Priti K
 The function was held on October 13 coinciding Shroff was launched in Mumbai, Maharashtra. The book
with the death anniversary of singing legend deals with Indian culture and tradition and is suitable for
Kishore Kumar. everyone in all stages of life, as a tool for self-guidance.
161. Answer: E) 165. Answer: D)

Page 79 of 83
The Dominican Republic took over the rotational continues to support the domestic finance
Presidency of the United Nations Security Council in industry and consumers.
April 2020, succeeding China, which had held the
position in March. 169. Answer: E)
166. Answer: C) North Macedonia officially became the 30th member of

the NATO military alliance.
Ashu Suyash is Managing Director & Chief
Executive Officer of CRISIL, India's leading  North Macedonia‘s flag will be raised alongside
provider of ratings,research, analytics, and solutions with those of the other 29 member countries at NATO
a robust track record of growth and innovation and a headquarters in Brussels.
global footprint. CRISIL is majority-owned by S&P  North Macedonia previously was known as
Global Inc. Macedonia, a name it shared with a Greek
province.
167. Answer: A)  This membership comes after North Macedonia‘s
2017 deal with Athens, the country changed its
ICICI Bank announced the launch of the fourth edition of name and Greece agreed to drop objections to its
the ‗ICICI Appathon‘ which is a virtual challenge for NATO and eventual EU membership.
start-ups to create next-generation products and
solutions. The start-ups develop unique products by 170. Answer: B)
using over 250 APIs (Application Programming
Interfaces) hosted on the Bank‘s API Banking portal. A pioneering US computer scientist Larry Tesler, whose
Participants need to envision innovative solutions around accomplishments included inventing the widely relied on
a diverse set of APIs in categories like lending, "cut, copy and paste" command died.The cut and paste
payments, retail & corporate banking, trade. command was reportedly inspired by old-fashioned
editing that involved actually cutting portions of printed
168. Answer: B) text and affixing them elsewhere with adhesive.The
command was made popular by Apple after being
TransUnion CIBIL Limited, the largest credit incorporated in software on the Lisa computer in 1983
information bureau, appointed Rajesh Kumar of HDFC and the original Macintosh that debuted the next year.
Bank as its new managing director and chief executive. Tesler spent 17 years at Apple, rising to chief scientist.
 Kumar succeeds Satish Pillai who has moved to 171. Answer: C)

become the president of Asia region business of
the US-based company. India‘s central bank, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in
 Prior to joining Cibil, Kumar was the group head consultation with the Government of India (GoI), has
for retail credit and risk at HDFC Bank. hiked the limit of Ways and Means Advances
 In his role as the MD and chief executive, Kumar (WMA) for the centre to Rs 1.2 lakh crore for the first
will be responsible for steering Cibil India's half of the financial year 2020-21(FY21), up from Rs
business into the next phase by ensuring it 75,000 crore in the first half of FY20
Page 80 of 83
172. Answer: D) Bharti AXA Life Insurance announced the appointment

of Parag Raja as managing director and chief executive
Emmy award winner Adam Lyons Schlesinger, an officer of the company.
American singer-songwriter, record producer and bassist
passed away at the age of 52 due to Coronavirus in  The appointment will be subject to the requisite
Poughkeepsie, New York, US (United States). approval from the Insurance Regulatory and
173. Answer: B) Development Authority of India (IRDAI).
 Raja will succeed Vikas Seth, who led Bharti
The theme of the 2020 World Autism Awareness Day is AXA Life Insurance for the past two-and-a-half
The transition of adulthood years, after April 30, 2020.
 Prior to joining Bharti AXA Life Insurance, Raja
174. Answer: E)
was the Chief Distribution Officer at Aditya Birla
Singapore overtook Hong Kong as the world's Sun Life Insurance (ABSLI) and responsible for
freest economy for the first time in the latest Heritage planning and executing the strategic direction for
Foundation Index of Economic Freedom. expanding the company‘s footprint across India.
 India has been ranked in 120th position in the 179. Answer: D)

study, it has been slowly but steadily making
progress. Asian Development Bank (ADB) was established on 19
 The World Index of Economic Freedom covers December 1966. ADB aims to promote social and
12 freedoms including property rights, financial economic development in Asia. ADB is committed to
freedom, government integrity, labour freedom, achieving a prosperous, inclusive, resilient, and
trade freedom, investment freedom and business sustainable Asia and the Pacific and works to sustain its
freedom. efforts to eradicate extreme poverty.
 The Index was first published in 1995 and Hong
Kong has topped the charts ever since. 180. Answer: C)
175. Answer: C) Twitter CEO Jack Dorsey has pledged $1 billion to fight
the COVID-19 pandemic, which is the highest single
The Reserve Bank of India has allowed a 3-month donation to the global COVID relief fund. The amount
moratorium on EMI payments on all outstanding loans. that represents 28 percent of Dorsey‘s wealth. It will go
to his charity fund, Start Small LLC.
176. Answer: E)
181. Answer: A)
177. Answer: A)
Uttarakhand state is going to become the first state of the
SIDBI has offered an emergency working capital up to country to measure Gross Environment Product (GEP)
Rs 1 crore to the MSMEs that are involved in making for quantifying ecological growth measurement.
essential items such as sanitizer and masks.
182. Answer: B)
178. Answer: D)
Page 81 of 83
Chess Master Viswanathan Anand has been appointed as 187. Answer: B)

the new Ambassador for World Wide Fund (WWF)
India‘s Environment Education program. Boxing Federation of India (BFI) has announced that
India will be hosting the 2020 Asian Boxing
183. Answer: A) Championship. The championship is expected to be held
during November- December. The host city is yet to be
Anusuiya Uikey is a politician from Bharatiya Janata announced later.
Party and currently serving as the governor of
Chhattisgarh. She was appointed as Governor of 188. Answer: A)
Chhattisgarh on 16 July 2019.
The 44th session of the World Heritage Committee of
184. Answer: D) UNESCO was scheduled to be held in Fuzhou from June
29 to July 9, 2020. The session has now been postponed
Aarogya Setu has become the world‘s fastest app to to a later date due to the COVID-19 pandemic. China‘s
reach 50 million users, within just 13 days. The app will Ministry of Education made the announcement on April
send out alerts even if the user comes in close proximity 15, 2020.
with the COVID- 19 positive case even unknowingly.
189. Answer: C)
185. Answer: B)
Kerala has become the first Indian state to flatten the
186. Answer: C) COVID-19 curve. The state has begun flattening the
COVID-19 infection curve, with very few positive cases
Uttar Pradesh became the first state to start the Pool reported over the last week and more people recovering
Testing of the coronavirus samples as the number of from the disease.
COVID-19 positive patients reached 558. The Indian
Council of Medical Research (ICMR) gave permission 190. Answer: B)
for pool testing to the state in order to help maximize the
testing of samples on a daily basis. Pool testing is International Day of Human Space Flight is observed on
expected to boost the daily testing capacity of the state 12 April. The day commemorates the anniversary of Yuri
health department. Gagarin‘s historic spaceflight in 1961. The day is
celebrated as the Cosmonautics Day in Russia.
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SBI CLERK MAINS- MODEL QUESTION PAPER SET - 4

SBI Model Question Paper Set- 4

English Language d) AD, BE and CF

Directions (1 – 5): In the following table, three e) BF

industry for 21 years, Gao has b) BE

Column 1 Column 2 b) AF and BE

Health and Working Conditions Code, a week after it d) Restated - announced

e) Realised – united generating lots of smog ingredients like nitrogen oxide

b) Structure - slowly a) cancelled

c) Parted - demand b) suffered

d) Remiss - lax c) reduce

e) Class – created d) sparking

b) 1 II. The candidate that fares best is the topper of the

a) Calibrate, balances, involve d) None of the above

b) Calibrated, balance, involve e) No correction needed

II. Additionally d) 3-2-1

III. But e) 1-3-2

d) Only (II) The general message from such evidence is clear

d) Only 1 and 3 3. Contracted by

e) All 1, 2 and 3 a) Only 1

b) While fertility of women is declining globally e) Only 2 and 3

a) Only 1 S. Calving is a natural process driven, in part, by

b) PQSR Q. Roughly speaking, by this measure worldwide infant

e) QTRP R. In developing countries, substantial declines in infant

T. Industrialization allowed medical instruments (such as b) SQRT

a) QSTP 39. P. The perils of long migrations are many, and in

U. This phenomenon has been well characterized in b) Only A

B. The catastrophe was averted and the special forces a) 3

42. How many symbols are there which are immediately d) 6

b) 4 a) Statement I is the cause and statement II is the effect.

c) A b) Statement II is the cause and statement I is the effect.

d) # c) Both statements are independent causes.

e) 2 d) Both the statements are effects of independent causes.

because the western technological model, built on heavy a) 8m

Assumption: The pollution level in the western world is e) None of these.

Step I: 14568 13459 13468 12356 12579

a) South east Input for the question:

b) North west ―43156 92146 81247 53179 69432 47269‖

53. What is the sum of last three numbers in step IV of d) 18

c) 46 A certain number of boxes are placed one above the

e) 7 Directions (62 – 66): Answer the questions based on

d) 1 N was born in the immediate year before E. The person

b) Three Statement 2: Three products were bought between Shoe

b) L 68. There are seven floors in a building from ground

Seven employees - J, K, L, M, N, O and P of a company e) Immediate left

a) Third to the left e) Both (a) and (c)

couples. There is no single parent. Each of them sits c) G‘s sister-in-law

76. How is C related to E? e) None of these

a) Nephew 80. Who sits 4th to the right of F?

e) None of these d) Brother of C

Neither X nor U is adjacent to W. a) 7

The neighbors of Y face away from the center. b) 9

e) Either (B) or (C) e) None of these

Directions (86 – 90): In each of the following 87. 7 21 09

iv) If an even number is followed by a number which is a) K and M

There are three colleges A, B and C that offer three c) 820

College C: Total students in the college C is average of c) 540

that college becomes 36% of total students, then what is

e) None of these 15%