Test ID : 868

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.MOCK TEST – I. SET - A

Std : Long Term Max. Marks : 720

Test Date : 18.04.2024 Time : 3.20 Hrs.
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.

Important Instructions :
1) This test is 3 hours 20 min duration and Maximum mark is 720.
2) This test booklet contains 200 questions. There are four parts in the question paper, consisting
Physics, Chemistry, Botany and Zoology. Each part consists of 50 questions.
3) Each part consists of two sections, Section - A and Section - B.
4) Section - A of each subject consists of 35 questions and Section - B consists of 15
questions. Candidates have to answer for all the 35 questions from Section - A and only 10
questions out of 15 questions from Section - B.
5) Candidates are allowed to answer maximum of 180 questions only from all four parts.
6) There will be only one correct choice in the given four choices for each question. For each
question 4 marks will be awarded for correct choice, 1 mark will be deduced for incorrect choice
and zero mark will be awarded for unattempted question.
7) Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
8) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
9) Dark only one circle for each question. Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
10) Any textual, printed or written material, mobile phones, calculator etc. is not allowed for the
students appearing for the test.
11) On completion of the test, the candidate must handover the Answer Sheet to the invigilator before
leaving the Room / Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
12) The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray
marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified
space in the Test Booklet / Answer Sheet.
13) Use of white fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet.
14) No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave
his/her seat.

Stay Cool … Think Twice … Analyse Well … Confirm the Answer …

Success is Assured !

Name of the Candidate : ___________________________________

Section : ___________________________________
 1 Test ID : 868 [A]

PHYSICS
SECTION – A (35 questions)
(Answer all the questions)
1. Two objects A and B are moving each with B) The energy of EM wave is divided equally
velocities 10 m/s. A is moving towards east between electric and magnetic fields.
and B is moving towards north from the same C) Both electric and magnetic fields are
point. Velocity of A relative to B parallel to each other and perpendicular to
1) 10 2 SE 2) 10 2 NW the propagation of wave.
3) 10 2 SW 4) 10 NE D) The electric field, magnetic field and
2. One end of a thermally insulated rod is kept at direction of propagation of wave must be
a temperature T1 and other at T2. The rod is perpendicular to each other.
composed of two sections of lengths l1 and l2 E) The ratio of amplitude of magnetic field to
and thermal conductivities k1 and k2 as shown the amplitude of electric field is equal to
in figure. The temperature at the interface of speed of light.
two sections is (T1 > T2)
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below.
1) D only
2) B and D only
k l T + k 2 l2T2 k l T +k lT
1) 1 1 1 2) 2 2 1 1 1 2 3) B, C and E only
k1l1 + k 2l2 k1l1 + k 2l2
4) A, B and E only
k lT +k l T k l T + k 2 l1T2
3) 2 1 1 1 2 2 4) 1 2 1 5. In a nuclear fission process, a high mass
k 2 l1 + k1l2 k1l2 + k 2 l1
nuclide (A ≈ 236) with binding energy 7.6
3. Three charges Q, +q and +q are placed at the
MeV/ nucleon dissociated into middle mass
three vertices of an equilateral triangle of side
nuclei (A ≈ 118), having binding energy of 8.6
‘a’. If the net electrostatic potential energy of
configuration is zero, value of Q is MeV/ nucleon. The energy released in the
process would be
q q
1) + 2) − 1) 118 MeV 2) 236 MeV
2 2
q q 3) 59 MeV 4) 200 MeV
3) + 4) − 6. A thin prism of angle 15o made of glass of
3 3
4. Identify the correct statement from the refractive index µ = 1.5 is combined with
following descriptions of various properties of another prism of glass of refractive index
EM waves. (µ2 = 1.75). The combination of prism
A) In a plane EM wave electric and magnetic produces dispersion without deviation. The
field must be perpendicular to each other angle of second prism should be
and direction of propagation of wave 1) 7o 2) 10o
should be along electric field or magnetic
3) 12o 4) 5o
field.
 2 Test ID : 868 [A]
7. The amplitude of a pendulum executing 11. In the figure shown, a uniform magnetic field
1 | B | = 0.5 T is perpendicular to the plane of the
damped oscillation fall to rd of the original
3 circuit. The sliding rod of length l = 0.25 m
value after 100 oscillations. The amplitude moves uniformly with constant speed v = 4
becomes ‘x’ times the original value after 200
m/s. If the resistance of the slider is 2 Ω, then
oscillations, where ‘x’ is
the current flowing through the rod is
1 1
1) 2)
9 2
2 1
3) 4)
3 6
8. Eddy currents are produced when
1) A metal is kept in varying magnetic field 1) 0.1 A 2) 0.17 A
2) A metal is kept in a steady magnetic field 3) 0.08 A 4) 0.03 A
3) A circular coil is placed in magnetic field 12. Impedance of the R-C circuit as shown in the
4) Through a circular coil current is flowing figure is

9. Which of the following physical quantities

b
represent the dimensions of in the relation
a
x2 − b
P= , where P = power, x = distance, t =
at 1) 20 Ω 2) 25 Ω
time 3) 30 Ω 4) 40 Ω
1) Power 2) Energy 13. Spectral lines of hydrogen atoms are given
3) Tortional constant 4) Force below. Which of the following is correct for
10. If W1, W2 and W3 represent the work done in spectral lines A, B and C
moving a particle from A to B along three n=
different paths 1, 2 and 3 respectively (as n=5
shown) in the gravitational field of a point
n=4
mass ‘m’, then the correct relation between C n=3
W1, W2 and W3 is
B n=2

A n=1
1) Series limit of lyman, 3rd line of Balmer, 2nd
line of Paschen
1) W1 > W2 > W3 2) W1 = W2 = W3
2) Series limit of lyman, 2nd line of Balmer,
3) W1 < W2 < W3 4) W2 > W1 > W3 2nd line of Paschen
 3 Test ID : 868 [A]
3) 2nd line of Lyman, 3rd line of Balmer, 2nd 1) a – g, b – h, c – e, d - f
line of Paschen 2) a – e, b – h, c – g, d - f
rd rd
4) Series limit of lyman, 3 line of Balmer, 3 3) a – h, b – g, c – e, d - f
line of Paschen 4) a – f, b – e, c – g, d - h
-8
14. Two opposite and equal charges 2 x 10 17. For a particle executing simple harmonic
coulomb when placed 2 x 10-2 cm away, form motion the amplitude A and time period T.
a dipole. If this dipole is placed in an external The maximum speed will be
electric field 4 x 108 N/C, then the value of 2A
maximum torque and the workdone in rotating 1) 4 AT 2)
T
it through 180o will be
A 2πA
1) 16 x 10-4 Nm, 32 x 10-4 J 3) 2π 4)
T T
2) 32 x 10-4 Nm, 32 x 10-4 J
18. A small block of mass ‘m’ rests on a smooth
3) 32 x 10-4 Nm, 64 x 10-4 J
edge of angle θ. With what horizontal
4) 64 x 10-4 Nm, 32 x 10-4 J acceleration ‘a’ should the wedge be pulled, as
15. If an electron is launched vertically upwards shown, so that the block just falls freely?
perpendicular to the surface of earth it will get
deflected towards
1) north 2) south
3) east 4) west
16. Match the following : List – I and List – II
1) g cos θ 2) g sin θ
List – I List - II
3) g cot θ 4) g tan θ
a) Hooke’s law e) Law of
19. If the speed of rotation of earth about its axis
conservation
increases, then the weight of the body at the
of energy
equator will be
b) Equation of f) Viscous force 1) Decreases
continuity on spherical
2) Increases
object moving
3) May increase or decrease
through fluids
4) Neither increase nor decrease
c) Bernoullie’s g) Law of
20. The rms speed of oxygen molecules at a
theorem conservation
certain temperature T is V. If the temperature
of mass
is doubled and oxygen gas dissociates into
d) Stoke’s formula h) Stress is atomic oxygen, then the rms speed
directly 1) remain same
proportional
2) becomes double
to strain
3) increases by a factor of
4) none of these
 4 Test ID : 868 [A]
21. A conductor has a non-uniform section as 25. Which of the following is the right way to
shown in the figure. A steady current is obtain half deflection in a given
flowing through it. Then the drift speed of the galvanometer?
electrons. 1) EMF of the source battery is varied
2) Resistance of the load resistance is
increased
3) A shunt resistance of suitable value is
applied parallel to galvanometer
1) Is constant throughout the wire 4) Resistance of galvanometer is increased
2) Varies unpredictably 26. If the input frequency is 50 Hz, then the output
3) Decreases from P to Q frequency in full wave and half wave
4) Increase from P to Q rectification are
22. Figure shows a diode connected to an external 1) 50 Hz, 50 Hz
resistance and an emf. Assuming that the 2) 50 Hz, 100 Hz
barrier potential developed in diode is 0.5V. 3) 50 Hz, 25 Hz
Then the value of current in the circuit is
4)100 Hz, 50 Hz
27. A bar magnet of magnetic moment M1 is cut
into two pieces along its axis. The pieces are
kept perpendicular to each other with their
unlike poles in contact. The magnetic moment
M
1) 45 mA 2) 40 mA of the arrangement is M2. The ratio 1 is
M2
3) 45 µA 4) 40 µA
23. If the de-Broglie wavelength associated with a 1) 1 : 2 2) 1 : 1
proton and an α - particle are equal, then ratio 1
3) 2 :1 4) :1
of velocities of proton and α-particle will be 2
1) 1 : 2 2) 2 : 1 28. A parallel plate capacitor has uniform electric
3) 1 : 4 4) 4 : 1 field E in between plates of area A and
24. In a YDSE, if there is no initial phase separated by a distance ‘d’, the energy stored
difference between the light waves from the in the capacitor is
two slits, a point on the screen corresponding 1
to third minimum has path difference of 1) ε0 E 2 2) ε0Ad
2
3λ
1) 2) 3λ 1 E 2 Ad
2 3) ε0 E 2 Ad 4)
2 ε0
5λ
3) 4) 5λ
2
 5 Test ID : 868 [A]
29. The equation of standing wave in a stretched 1
1) 2) 12 π
 πx  12 π
string is given by y = 5 sin   cos (40 πt),
 3  1 1
3) 4)
where x and y are in cm and ‘t’ in second. The 4π 6π
separation between two consecutive nodes in
32. A quantity of heat Q is supplied to a
(in cm)
monoatomic ideal gas which expands at
1) 1.5 2) 3 constant pressure. The fraction of heat that
3) 6 4) 4
W
30. The resistance between points A and B in the goes into work done by the gas   is
Q
circuit shown in the following figure is
2 3
1) 2)
5 5
2
3) 4) 1
3
33. Two capillary tubes of radii 0.1 cm and 0.2 cm
are dipped in the same liquid. The ratio of
heights through which liquid will rise in the
tubes is
1) 1 : 2 2) 2 : 1
3) 1 : 4 4) 4 : 1
34. The position of moving particle with respect to
1) 4 Ω 2) 6 Ω time ‘t’ seconds is given by x = 3t2 – 8t + 5,
3) 10 Ω 4) 8 Ω the body will stop after
31. Two blocks of mass 2 kg and 4 kg are 3
1) 1 s 2) s
connected by a metal wire going over a 4
smooth pulley as shown in figure. The radius 4
3) s 4) 4s
of wire is 4 x 10-5 m and Young’s modulus of 3
the metal is 2 x 1011 N/m2. The longitudinal 35. Theorem of parallel axis
strain developed in the wire is (g = 10 m/sec2) 1) applicable to body of any shape
2) needs moment of inertia about an axis
passing through centre of mass and
parallel to the axis about which we want to
know the moment of inertia of the same
body
3) Both 1 and 2 are correct
4) Both 1 and 2 are incorrect
 6 Test ID : 868 [A]
SECTION – B (15 questions)
Section – B consists of 15 questions. Candidates are allowed to answer any 10 questions only out of 15 questions
given. In case if candidates attempts more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted questions only considered for
marking.
36. The dimensional formula of angular 1) 2 :1 2) 3:3
momentum, latent heat and capacitance
3) 3: 2 4) 1 : 2
respectively
1) ML2T1A2 L2T-2 M-1L-2T2 40. A particle located at x = 0, at time t = 0, starts
moving along the positive x-direction with a
2) ML2T-2 L2T2 M-1L-2T4A2
3) ML2T-1 L2T-2 ML2TA2 velocity that varies as v = p x , here p is
4) ML2T-1 L2T-2 M-1L-2T4A2 constant. The displacement of the particle
varies with time as
37. Two electric dipoles of charges of magnitude
‘q’ are placed at an angle θ with each other 1) t3 2) t2
inside a cube. The total electric flux coming 3) t 4) t1/2
out of the cube will be 41. In the medium a transverse progressive wave
8q 16q is travelling, the phase difference between two
1) 2) π
ε0 ε0 points with separation of 1.25 cm is . If the
4
q
3) 4) zero frequency of wave is 1000 Hz. The wave
ε0
velocity will be
38. Consider the following statements with respect 1) 104 m/s 2) 125 m/s
to LCR circuit. 3) 100 m/s 4) 10 m/s
Statement A : Instantaneous values of voltage 42. A stone of mass 1 kg is tied with a string and
across various components of series LCR it is whirled in a vertical circle of radius 1 m.
circuit with AC follows kirchoff’s voltage law. If the tension at highest point is 14 N, then its
Statement B : RMS values of voltage across velocity at lowest point will be
various components of series LCR circuit with 1) 3 m/s 2) 4 m/s
AC follows kirchoff’s voltage law.
3) 6 m/s 4) 8 m/s
Which of the above statement (s) is / are
43. If the charge on a capacitor is increased by an
correct?
amount of 2C, the energy stored in it increases
1) A only by 21%. The initial charge on the capacitor is
2) B only 1) 1 C 2) 5 C
3) A & B both 3) 10 C 4) 20 C
4) None of them 44. Three uniform solid spheres each of mass M
39. Two photons of energies twice and thrice the and radius R are touching each other. The
work function of a metal surface then the ratio magnitude of force of attraction on one due to
of maximum velocities of the photoelectrons other two is
emitted in the two cases respectively is
 7 Test ID : 868 [A]

3 GM 2 2 GM 2
1) 2)
4R 2 3R 2
3GM 2 GM 2
3) 4)
2R 2 R2
45. Light from a point source in air falls on a
convex curved surface of radius 20 cm and
refractive index 1.5. If the source is located at V
100 cm from the convex surface, the image 1) V 2)
2
will be formed at _____ cm from the object. V 2V
1) 50 cm 2) 100 cm 3) 4)
3 3
3) 150 m 4) 200 m 49. A bullet of mass ‘m’ is fired up making an
46. A closely wound solenoid of length 40 cm has angle of 60o with horizontal. Its angular
a magnetic field of 8 π x 10-4 Tesla in central momentum with respect to point of projection,
part, current through solenoid is 2A. Find while it is at its highest position
number of turns in 30 cm length of solenoid 2mu 3 2mu 3
(assume solenoid ideal) 1) 2)
5g 9g
1) 100 2) 200
3mu 3 3mu 3
3) 300 4) 400 3) 4)
8g 16g
47. The magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic
50. A block of mass ‘m’ is released from a rough
wave is given by
fixed inclined plane of inclination θ as shown
By = (2 x 10-7T) sin (0.5 x 103x + 1.5 x 1011t)
in figure. If θ < tan-1(µ), then net force applied
Write the expression for the electric field.
by inclined plane on the object is (µ is the
1) Ey = 60 NC-1 sin (0.5 x 103x + 1.5 x 1011t)
coefficient of friction)
2) Ex = 60 NC-1 sin (0.5 x 103x + 1.5 x 1011t)
3) Ez = 60 NC-1 sin (0.5 x 103x + 1.5 x 1011t)
4) Ez = 80 NC-1 sin (0.5 x 103x + 1.5 x 1011t)
48. In the given circuit, with steady current, the
potential drop across the capacitor must be
1) µ mg cos θ 2) mg sin θ
3) mg cos θ 4) mg
 8 Test ID : 868 [A]

CHEMISTRY
SECTION – A (35 questions)
(Answer all the questions)
51. Which of the following compound turns blue 1) +250 cal 2) 0
Litmus to red and does not produce 3) –200 cal 4) 400 cal
efferevescence with NaHCO3 56. Which of the following alkane cannot be
1) Aniline 2) Acetic acid synthesized by Wurtz reaction in good yield?
3) Benzoic acid 4) Phenol A) CH3CH2CH2CH3
52. Assertion (A) : Pure water becomes slightly B) CH3CH2C(CH3)2CH2CH3
acidic as temperature increases. C) (CH3)2CH – CH2 – CH2 – CH(CH3)2
Reason (R) : Ionization of water increases D) (CH3)2CHCH2CH(CH3)2
with increase of temperature 1) A and B 2) C and B
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) is a 3) B and D 4) A
correct explanation of the (A)
57. Which of the following reactions will lead to
2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a the formation of two chiral centres in the
correct explanation of the (A) product?
3) (A) is true but the (R) is false CCl
4
1) CH3CH = CHCH3 + Br2  →
4) (A) is false but (R) is true
4 CCl
53. Incorrect match among the following is 2) CH3CH2CH = CH2 + Br2  →

1) Chloro ethane and bromo ethane – ideal 3) CH2 = CH2 + HBr →

solution 4) CH3CH = CHCH3 + HBr →
2) Carbon disulphide and acetone – non ideal 58. Match the following
with positive deviation Column – I Column – II
3) Phenol and aniline – non ideal with (Reaction) (Product)
negative deviation Br
4) HNO3 and H2O – azeotropic mixture with
minimum boiling point A) I)
54. Ethyl amine can be prepared by the action of
bromine and caustic potash on
NO2
1) Acetamide 2) Propionamide
3) Formamide 4) Methyl cyanide
B) II)
55. Consider the following reaction
3A(g) + B(g) → 3C(g) + 2D(g)
If enthalpies of formation of A, B, C and D are
100, –200, 400 and –50 cal mol–1 respectively,
C) III)
then ∆U of the reaction at 27oC is
 9 Test ID : 868 [A]
Reason (R) : An elementary reaction takes
D) IV) place by one step mechanism and generally for
it molecularity is equal to order of the reaction.
1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV 1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV correct explanation of (A)
3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III 2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III correct explanation of (A)
59. Reduction potential of ions are given below 3) (A) is true but (R) is false
4) Both (A) and (R) are false
ion ClO −4 IO −4 BrO −4
63. A complex PtCl4.2HCl does not produce
E o
RP
1.19 V 1.65 V 1.74 V AgCl precipitate when treated with AgNO3
solution. The secondary valency and oxidation
The correct order of their oxidizing power is
state of ‘Pt’ in given complex respectively are
1) ClO −4 > IO −4 > BrO 4−
1) 4, +2 2) 4, +4
− − −
2) BrO > IO > ClO
4 4 4 3) 6, +2 4) 6, +4
3) BrO −4 > ClO −4 > IO 4− 64. Match the following
Column – I Column – II
4) IO −4 > BrO 4− > ClO 4−
Complex ion Hybridization and
60. How many number of electrons required to number of unpaired electrons
carry 9.65 x 104 amp current in one sec?
23 19
A) [Co(C2O4)3]3– 1) sp3d2, 2
1) 6.023 x 10 2) 1.602 x 10
4
B) [Ni(NH3)6]2+ 2) dsp2, 0
3) 96500 4) 10 NA
C) [Co(CN)4]2– 3) d2sp3, 0
61. 2A + B → products
D) [Ni(CN)4]2– 4) dsp2, 1
[A] [B] Initial rate 5) sp3, 3
Experi –1
(in mol (in mol (in mol L 1) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
ment
L–1) L–1) min–1)
2) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
1 0.10 0.20 6.93 x 10–3 3) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
–3
2 0.10 0.25 6.93 x 10 4) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
–2
3 0.20 0.30 1.386 x 10 65. Which of the following is/are the product(s)
Based on above results, rate constant of the when acetaldehyde on reaction with
reaction is semicarbazide?
1) 6.93 x 10–4 2) 6.93 x 10–2 O
||
3) 0.693 4) 6.93 x 10–3 1) CH 3 − CH = N − NH − C − NH 2
62. Assertion (A) : Order of reaction can never be O
fractional for an elementary reaction. ||
2) CH 3 − CH = N − C − NH − NH 2
 10 Test ID : 868 [A]
O 69. The correct IUPAC name of [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] is
||
3) CH 2 = N − NH − C − NH 2 1) Diamminedichloridoplatinate(II)
2) Diamminedichloridoplatinate(IV)
4) No reaction between acetaldehyde and
3) Dichloridodiamminoplatinum(0)
semicarbazide
4) Diamminedichloridoplatinum(II)
70. Which of the following sets of quantum
numbers are not possible?
66.
n l ml ms
1
The product ‘B’ in the above reaction is a) 0 0 0 +
2
1) Cyclohexanal 2) Cyclohexanol
1
3) Cyclohexene 4) Cyclohexane b) 1 0 0 −
2
67. Incorrect reaction in the following is
1
1) HI c) 1 1 0 +
CH2 O CH2I + OH 2
1
d) 2 1 0 −
2) 2
1
e) 3 3 –3 +
2
3) CH 3 − O − CH 2 − CH 3 
excess / HI
∆
→
1
f) 3 2 0 +
CH 3I + CH 3 − CH 2 I + H 2 O 2
1) a, d, e 2) a, c, e
4) 3) a, b, c 4) a, c, f
71. General electronic configuration of outermost
68. Match the following and penultimate shell of an atom is (n-1)s2
Column – I Column – II (n-1)p6 (n-1)dx ns2 if n = 4 and x = 5, the
(Name of the compound) (pKa) number of protons in the nucleus is
A) m-Nitrophenol p) 10.2 1) > 25 2) < 24
B) 2,4,6-trinitrophenol q) 8.3 3) 25 4) 30
C) p-cresol r) 7.2 72. Which one of the following is not a redox
D) Ethanol s) 0.3 reaction?
E) o-Nitrophenol t) 15.9 1
1) Na + Cl2 → NaCl
2
1) A-p, B-q, C-r, D-s, E-t
2) Ca + H2 → CaH2
2) A-q, B-s, C-r, D-t, E-p
3) Fe2O3 + 2Al → Al2O3 + 2Fe
3) A-q, B-s, C-p, D-t, E-r
4) CaCO3 → CaO + CO2
4) A-r, B-s, C-q, D-t, E-p
 11 Test ID : 868 [A]
73. Excess of KI reacts with CuSO4 solution, and 77. Match list I with list II and select the correct
then Na2S2O3 solution is added to it. Which of answer from the given codes
the following statements is incorrect for the List – I List – II
above titration (Vitamin) (Name of vitamin)
1) Na2S2O3 is oxidized A) B1 i) Riboflavin
2) CuI2 is formed
B) B6 ii) Pyridoxine
3) Cu2I2 is formed
C) C iii) Thiamine
4) Evolved I2 is reduced
74. Statement I : The brown ring test for nitrates D) B2 iv) Ascorbic acid
depends on the ability of Fe2+ to reduce 1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
nitrates to nitric oxide. 2) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
Statement II : Nitric oxide reduces Fe2+ into 3) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i
Fe+1 and itself oxidise into NO+ to form the 4) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii
brown ring. 78. Which of the following does not undergo
1) Both statements I and II are correct Cannizzaro’s reaction?
2) Both statements I and II are incorrect
3) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect 1)
4) Statement I is incorrect, II is correct
75. Assertion (A) : Actinides show a large 2) Ph − C − C − Ph
number of oxidation states whereas lanthanides || ||
show a limited number of oxidation states. O O
Reason (R) : Energy gap between 5f, 6d and 3) (CH3)3C – CHO
7s subshells is large. 4) Both (1) and (3)
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the 79. With the comparable molecular masses, which
correct explanation of the (A) of the following statement(s) is/are correct
2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the 1) Boiling point of carboxylic acids is greater
correct explanation of (A) than aldehydes and ketones
3) (A) is true but (R) is false 2) Boiling point of carboxylic acids is greater
4) Both (A) and (R) are false than alcohols
76. Which of the following statement is incorrect 3) Carboxylic acids exist as dimer is
1) Copper liberates hydrogen from acids vapourphase (or) in polar aprotic solvents
2) In its highest oxidation state manganese 4) All of these
forms stable compound with oxygen 80. Phenolphthalein can’t used in the titration of
+3 +3
3) Mn and Co are oxidizing agents in 1) H2SO4 with KOH
aqueous solution 2) CH3COOH with KOH
+2 +2
4) Ti and Cr are reducing agents in 3) HCN with NaOH
aqueous solutions 4) CH3COOH with NH4OH
 12 Test ID : 868 [A]
81. Type – A : Positive or in phase overlapping.
Type – B : Out of phase due to different
direction of approach. Q)
Which of the following is incorrect match?

1) ⇒ Type – A

2) ⇒ Type – A

R)

3) ⇒ Type – B

4) ⇒ Type – B f orward rate

S) Rate
backward rate

82. Let P, Q, R and S are the excited states of Progress of reaction (Time)
central atom in CH4, PCl5, XeF2 and SF4 1) P & Q only 2) P, Q, R only
molecules respectively. Find P, Q, R and S?
3) P, Q, S only 4) P, Q, R, S
1) 1, 1, 1, 1 2) 1, 2, 1, 1
84. The hydroxyl ion concentration of a solution is
3) 1, 1, 2, 1 4) 2, 1, 1, 2 4 x 10–3, the pH of the solution at 298K is
83. Correct possible graphs for the attainment of 1) 2.4 2) 11.6
equilibrium : A ⇌ B is 3) 3.6 4) 10.4
85. In the detection of phosphorous present in the
given organic compound
[A]
X Y
Conc. Organic → PO −4 3 → H 3 PO 4 Z
→(NH 4 )3 PO 4 .12MoO3
P) [B] compound

X, Y and Z are in the following sequence

Progress of reaction (Time) 1) (NH4)2MoO4, Na2O2, HNO3
2) Na2O2, HNO3, (NH4)2MoO4
3) HNO3, Na2O2, (NH4)2MoO4
4) HNO3, (NH4)2MoO4, Na2O2
 13 Test ID : 868 [A]
SECTION – B (15 questions)
Section – B consists of 15 questions. Candidates are allowed to answer any 10 questions only out of 15 questions
given. In case if candidates attempts more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted questions only considered for
marking.
86. Statement – I : ∆G corresponds to energy 1) Both Statement-I and II are true
available for doing useful work. 2) Both Statement-I and II are false
Statement – II : Gibbs energy can be used to 3) Statement-I is true and Statement-II is false
explain non expansion work. 4) Statement-I is false and Statement-II is true
1) Both Statement-I and II are true 89. The structure of the major product formed in
2) Both Statement-I and II are false the following reaction
3) Statement-I is true and Statement-II is false
4) Statement-I is false and Statement-II is true
87. Match the term’s mentioned in column I with
the terms in column II
Column – I
i) Carbocation
Cl OH
ii) Nucleophile
OH I
iii) Hyperconjugation
iv) Isomers 1) 2)
v) Electrophile
Column – II NO2 NO2
a) Cyclohexane and 1-hexene
b) Conjugation of electrons of C – H σ bond
with empty p-orbital present at adjacent
positively charged carbon 3) 4)

c) sp2 hybridized carbon with empty p-orbital

d) Species that can receive a pair of electrons
e) Species that can supply a pair of electrons 90. Assertion (A) : Fluoro alkanes are obtained
1) i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a, v-e by Finkelstein reaction
2) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d, v-e Reason (R) : In Swarts reaction SbF3, AgF,
Hg2F2 are used.
3) i-c, ii-e, iii-b, iv-a, v-d
1) Both A, R are true and R is the correct
4) i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a, v-e
explanation of A
88. Statement – I : n-Pentylalcohol and neopentyl
2) Both A, R are true but R is not the correct
alcohol are chain isomers.
explanation for A
Statement – II : Both n-pentyl alcohol and 3) A is true but R is false
neopentyl alcohol are primary alcohols.
4) A is false, but R is true
 14 Test ID : 868 [A]
95. Wave function of an orbital is plotted against
91.
the distance from nucleus.

Major product of the above esterification

reaction is

1)

The given graphical representation is belongs

2) to
1) 1s 2) 2s
3) 3s 4) 2p
3) 96. Assertion (A) : Sn is oxidised to Sn+4 while
+2

Pb+4 is reduced to Pb+2.

Reason (R) : Sn+2 acts as reducing agent
while Pb+2 acts as oxidizing agent.
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) is a
4) correct explanation of the (A)
92. Glucose and mannose are the examples of 2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a
1) C2 – epimers 2) C3 – epimers correct explanation of the (A)
3) C4 – epimers 4) Anomers 3) (A) is true but the (R) is false
93. 16gm of a gas SOx occupied same volume as 4) Both (A) and (R) are false
20g SO3 at STP. How many atoms of ‘O’ are 97. For which of the following hydrides, formation
present in given amount of SOx? enthalpies are negative?
1) 12.046 x 1023 2) 3.015 x 1023 1) H2O, H2S 2) H2S, H2Se
3) 18.046 x 1023 4) 6.023 x 1023 3) H2Se, H2Te 4) H2O, H2Te
94. A carbohydrate containing C, H and O has 98. Consider the dissolution of MX(s). Calculate
atomic ratio of H and O as 2 : 1. When heated the enthalpy of solution of MX(s) from the
in absence of air, 155g of it gave 62g carbon. following
Calculate its molecular formula, if 0.167 mole
M +(g ) + X (g)
−
→ MX (s) ---∆H = –800 kJ mol–1
of it contains 2.0g of hydrogen [General
formula of carbohydrate is Cx(H2O)y] M +(g) + X (g
− + −
) → M (aq) + X (aq)

1) C6H12O6 2) C3H6O3 ---∆H = –740 kJ mol–1

3) CH2O 4) C4H8O4
 15 Test ID : 868 [A]
1) +60 kJ mol–1 2) –1540 kJ mol–1 100. ‘x’is the number of antibonding electrons in
–1 –1 Li2, ‘y’ is the number of bonding electrons in
3) –740 kJ mol 4) +740 kJ mol
99. The Van’t Hoff factor of 0.008M HCOOH C2. The molecule ‘A2’ contains total number
solution is 1.25 then the ionization constant of of electrons equal to (x + y). The bond order
HCOOH is and number of σ bonds in A2 respectively.
1) 6.6 x 10–4 2) 2.5 x 10–3 1) 1, 0 2) 1.5, 0
3) 2 x 10–3 4) 2.5 x 10–4 3) 1, 1 4) 1.5, 1

BOTANY
SECTION – A (35 questions)
(Answer all the questions)
101. Assertion (A) : Archaebacteria are able to 105. Cellular respiration can be found in
survive in harsh habitats. I) Animal cells
Reason (R) : Archaebacteria contain II) Plant cells
peptidoglycan as a chief cell wall material.
III) Prokaryotic cells
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
1) I and II 2) II and III
correct explanation of (A)
3) I and III 4) I, II and III
2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
106. Themost common and favourable respiratory
correct explanation of (A)
substrates in living organisms are
3) (A) is true but (R) is false
1) Proteins 2) Lipids
4) (A) is false but (R) is true
3) Nucleic acids 4) Carbohydrates
102. The average duplication period of E.coli cell is
107. The region, further away from the apex i.e
20 minutes. How much time will two E.coli
cells take to becomes 64 cells? proximal to the phase of elongation, undergoes
1) 60 minutes 2) 80 minutes 1) Cell division 2) Enlargement
3) 100 minutes 4) 40 minutes 3) Both (1) and (2) 4) Maturation
108. Identifythe incorrect statement from the
103. Which among the following statements is
incorrect w.r.t drupe? following.
1) Develops from multicarpellary superior 1) Chlamydomonas has chloroplast with
ovary pyrenoids
2) Single seeded fruit 2) Marchantia reproduce sexually through
gemma cups
3) Mesocarp is fibrous in coconut
3) Equisetum has true roots
4) Fleshy mesocarp is edible in mango
4) Pinus is a monoecious heterosporous plant
104. For the synthesis of one molecule of sucrose,
109. Which labeled part of the diagram given
how many ATP and NADPH2 are required?
below belongs to the dominant plant body?
1) 15 and 10 2) 12 and 18
3) 36 and 24 4) 12 and 6
 16 Test ID : 868 [A]
113. Assertion(A) : Animal cells have the ability
to adopt a variety of shapes.
Reason (R) : They consists of cytoskeleton
made up of microtubules, microfilaments and
intermediate filaments.
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
1) A only 2) A and D 3) (A) is true but (R) is false
3) B only 4) C and B 4) (A) is false but (R) is true
110. Matchcolumn-I with column-II related to 114. Match column-I with column-II and choose
taxonomic categories the correct option.
Column I Column II
Column I Column II
A Muscidae I Angiospermae
Amoeboid
B Triticum II Diptera A I Paramoecium
protozoans
C Hominidae III Mammalia Ciliated
B II Plasmodium
D Anacardiaceae IV Sapindales protozoans
1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I Flagellated
2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III C III Amoeba
protozoans
3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
D Sporozoans IV Trypanosoma
4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
A B C D
111. Statement I : Pteridophytes exhibit external
fertilization. 1) IV III II I
Statement II : All pteridophytes are 2) I II IV III
homosporous. 3) III I IV II
1) Both statements I and II are correct
4) I II III IV
2) Both statements I and II are incorrect
115. The use of stirrer in a bioreactor is
3) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect
4) Statement I is incorrect, II is correct 1) Proper mixing of nutrients
112. Whose publication was referred to as 2) Availability of oxygen
Webster’s of plant biology? 3) Control pH
1) G.J. Mendel 2) Katherine Esau 4) Both (1) and (2)
3) Aristotle 4) J.C. Bose 116. Thecritical research areas of biotechnology
includes
 17 Test ID : 868 [A]
1) Providing the best catalyst 120. Which of the following is the smallest region
2) Creating optimum conditions for the of the root?
catalyst 1) Root cap
3) Downstream processing 2) Region of elongation
4) All of the above 3) Region of meristem
117. The applications of biotechnology include
4) Region of maturation
I) Therapeutics
121. Pick out an incorrect statement from the
II) Bioremediation
following
III) Waste water treatment
1) Untranslated regions are present between
IV) Processed foods
two structural genes in bacteria.
1) I only 2) I and IV
2) Introns are removed by splicing
3) I and III 4) I, II, III and IV
3) DNA can directly code for the synthesis of
118. Which of the following correctly representing
central dogma of molecular biology? proteins
1) Genetic information flows from DNA to 4) Physical form of bacteria is changed in
protein via RNA Griffith’s experiment due to transformation
2) Genetic information flows from DNA to 122. The DNA is found in
RNA via protein I) Mitochondrion
3) Genetic information flows from RNA to II) Chloroplast
DNA via protein III) Ribosomes
4) Genetic information flows from RNA to IV) Nucleus
protein via DNA 1) All except I 2) All except II
119. Match column-I with column-II and choose 3) All except III 4) All except IV
the correct option. 123. Chromosomes generally have two arms,
Column I Column II except
Living 1) Metacentric chromosome
A I Parenchyma
mechanical tissue 2) Submetacentric chromosome
Dead mechanical 3) Acrocentric chromosome
B II Sclerenchyma
tissue 4) Telocentric chromosome
Fundamental 124. The range of molecular weight of
C III Collenchyma
tissue biomolecules present in acid soluble fraction
Dead conducting is
D IV Xylem
tissue 1) Less than 10 daltons
A B C D 2) More than 10,000 daltons
1) IV III II I 3) Between 1000 to 10,000 daltons
2) IV III I II
4) Between 18 to 800 daltons
3) III II I IV
4) II I III IV
 18 Test ID : 868 [A]
125. Assertion (A) : The multiplication of any 130. The ultimate aim of a rDNA technologist is
alien piece of DNA in an organism needs to be 1) To produce a conventional protein
a part of the vector. 2) To produce a recombinant protein
Reason (R) : Vector has a specific DNA 3) To grow host cells on antibiotic containing
sequence called the origin of replication. medium
1) Both A and R correct and R is the correct 4) To prevent contamination from unknown
explanation of A microbes
2) Both A and R correct and R is not the 131. Statement I : Fibrous root system is present
correct explanation of A in monocotyledons.
3) A is true but R is false Statement II : Fibrous roots originate from
4) Both A and R are false the base of the stem.
126. Allthe following amino acids are aromatic, 1) Both statements I and II are correct
except 2) Both statements I and II are incorrect
1) Tyrosine 2) Phenylalanine 3) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect
4) Statement I is incorrect, II is correct
3) Tryptophan 4) Glycine
132. In cell cycle, DNA replication takes place in
127. Assertion(A) : Chromosomal number will be
1) S phase 2) G1 phase
doubled during anaphase.
3) M phase 4) G2 phase
Reason (R) : Splitting of centromere occurs at
133. During the cell division, spindle fibres attach
this phase.
to the chromosome at a region called
1) Both A and R correct and R is the correct
explanation of A 1) Secondary constriction
2) Telomeres
2) Both A and R correct and R is not the
correct explanation of A 3) Chromatids
3) A is true but R is false 4) Kinetochores
134. Which of the following experimental material
4) Both A and R are false
is used by Van Niel to demonstrate
128. Increased vacuolation, cell enlargement and
photosynthesis?
new cell wall deposition are the characteristic
features of cells in 1) Chlorella
2) Cladophora
1) Meristematic zone
3) Purple and green bacteria
2) Elongation zone
4) Blue green algae
3) Maturation zone
135. Generally bioreactors are equipped with steam
4) Root cap
sterilizers. The use of steam sterilizers is
129. Inner wall of pollen grain is made up of
1) To maintain useful microbes in the medium
1) Lignin and Cellulose
2) To keep the medium free from
2) Suberin and Lignin contamination
3) Sporopollenin and Cellulose 3) To keep the cells at log phase
4) Pectin and Cellulose 4) To remove the foam
 19 Test ID : 868 [A]

SECTION – B (15 questions)

Section – B consists of 15 questions. Candidates are allowed to answer any 10 questions only out of 15 questions
given. In case if candidates attempts more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted questions only considered for
marking.
136. Assertion (A) : The number of seeds in a fruit 140. Allthe following statements are true regarding
is less than (or) equal to the number of ovules the modern cell theory, except
in a ovary. 1) Cell is the basic structural and functional
Reason (R) : Ovule converts into seed after unit of life
the fertilization. 2) All cells arise de novo from abiotic material
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the 3) All living organisms are made up of cells
correct explanation of (A) 4) New cells arise from pre-existing cells
2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the 141. Duplication of semi-autonomous cell
correct explanation of (A) organelles occurs mainly in
3) (A) is true but (R) is false 1) G1 phase 2) S phase
4) (A) is false but (R) is true
3) G2 phase 4) M phase
137. Identify the incorrect statement from the
142. Which of the following option is showing the
following
descending order of the elements with respect
1) Morgan conducted experiments on
to their percentage of weight in human body?
Drosophila melanogaster
1) C > H > O 2) C > O > N
2) Fruit fly can be grown on simple synthetic
3) O > N > C 4) O > C > H
medium
3) Fruit fly completes its life cycle in about 143. 2H2A + CO2 
light
chl
→ 2A + CH2O + H2
two weeks In the above equation H2A represents
4) Male and female flies are not easily 1) a suitable reducible compound
distinguishable 2) a suitable oxidizable compound
138. What is the length of B-DNA, if it contains 3) both (1) and (2)
250 hydrogen bonds with 50 thymines? 4) a neutralizing buffer
1) 36.4 nm 2) 34.0 nm 144. Growth at cellular level is principally the
3) 17.0 nm 4) 20.4 nm consequence of
139. Identitythe statement that explains about 1) Increase in the size of the nucleus
collenchyma. 2) Increase in the amount of protoplasm
1) Cells are never photosynthetic 3) Increase in the amount cell wall material
2) Cell walls are lignocellulosic 4) Increase in the perinuclear space
3) These are present in the hypodermis of the 145. How many of the given statements are correct
monocot stem regarding curd?
4) Simple tissue found in dicots and absent in A) It has probiotics and enriched with vit B12
monocots
 20 Test ID : 868 [A]
B) It plays beneficial role in checking disease 148. In the Hershey and Chase experiment
causing microbes in stomach. radioactivity is detected in cells or sediment. It
C) It is nutritionally better than milk. indicates
D) It is a product of coagulation of milk. 1) DNA is labelled with 32P
1) Two 2) One 2) DNA is labelled with 35S
3) Four 4) Three 3) Protein is labelled with 32S
his classic experiment on Pisum sativum,
146. In 4) Protein is labelled with 35P
which of the following character Mendel did 149. Identify
recombinant proteins which are used
not use? in medical practice
1) Pod shape 2) Seed colour A) Insulin B) ADA
3) Pod length 4) Pod colour C) α-1-antitrypsin D) α-lactalbumin
147. Mark the wrongly matched pair from the 1) A, B and C 2) B, C and D
following. 3) A, C and D 4) A, B, C and D
1) Cleistogamy – Oxalis 150. Asexual reproduction preserves the genetic
2) Anemophily − Maize information because
3) Entomophily – Amorphophallus 1) It does not involve gametic fusion
4) Hydrophily – Water hyacinth 2) It does not involve meiosis
3) It involves mitosis
4) All of these
ZOOLOGY
SECTION – A (35 questions)
(Answer all the questions)
151. By how many planes, body of annelids and 2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
arthropods can be divided into identical left explanation of A
and right halves? 3) A is true but R is false
1) 4 2) 1 4) A is false but R is true
3) 2 4) many 153. Observe the following figure and find the

152. Assertion(A): In resting state, the edges of the alphabet which denotes notochord.
thin filaments on either side of the thick
filaments partially overlap the free ends of the
thick filaments.
Reason (R): The central part of thick
filament, not overlapped by thin filaments is
called ‘H’ zone.
1) Both A and R are true and R is not the
1) A 2) B
correct explanation of A
3) C 4) D
 21 Test ID : 868 [A]
154. A group of similar cells along with 1) Both Statements I and II are correct
intercellular substances perform a specific 2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
function, such an organization is called incorrect
1) organ 2) tissue 3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is
3) organ system 4) organism correct
155. Matchthe following columns and choose the 4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
correct option w.r.t frog. 159. Which
of the following is not related to
Column - I Column - II smooth muscles?
p) Balancing and 1) Located in hollow visceral organs
A) Eyes
hearing 2) Do not show striations
B) Ears q) Smell 3) Not controlled by nervous system
C) Nasal epithelium r) Conus arteriosus voluntarily
D) Ventricle s) Orbits 4) Show branching network
1) A- r, B - s, C - p, D - q 160. Statement-I:The neural organisation is very
2) A- q, B - p, C - s, D - r simple in lower vertebrates.
3) A- s, B - p, C - q, D - r Statement-II: The neural system is better
4) A- p, B - q, C - r, D - s organised in Hydra, where a brain is present
156. Inspiration is initiated by
along with a network of neurons.
1) contraction of internal inter-costal muscles 1) Both Statements I and II are correct
2) relaxation of internal inter-costal muscles 2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
3) contraction of diaphragm incorrect
4) both 1 and 2 3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is
157. Assertion(A): The rate of diffusion of carbon correct
dioxide is much higher compared to that of O2. 4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
Reason (R): It is due to higher solubility of 161. Theneurotransmitters filled synaptic vesicles
CO2 than that of oxygen. are found in
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 1) post synaptic membranes
explanation of A
2) axonal terminals
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the
correct explanation of A 3) tips of dendrites
3) A is true but R is false 4) cell body
4) A is false but R is true 162. Statement-I: Pons has very convoluted surface
158. Statement-I: Nephrons are the functional units in order to provide the additional space for many
of kidneys. more neurons.
Statement-II: The nature of nitrogenous Statement-II: Cerebellum consists of fibre
wastes formed and their excretion, mainly tracts that interconnect different regions of the
depends on the habitat of organisms. brain.
 22 Test ID : 868 [A]
1) Both Statements I and II are correct 1) A - iv, B - ii, C - i, D - iii
2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is 2) A - iv, B - iii, C - i, D - ii
incorrect 3) A - iv, B - i, C - ii, D - iii
3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is 4) A - ii, B - iii, C - i, D - iv
correct 166. Which of the following hormones is/are
4) Both statements I and II are incorrect involved in parturition?
163. The hormone that can regulate gene 1) Cortisol 2) Estrogen
expression or chromosome function by the 3) Oxytocin 4) all the above
interaction of hormone - receptor complex 167. Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI)
with the genome is Lucknow, developed a contraceptive with less
1) FSH side effects belongs to the category ____
2) epinephrine 1) OCPs (pills) 2) IUDs
3) thyroxine 3) Barriers 4) Implants
4) LH 168. Themost dangerous infection among STIs
164. Assertion(A): Sperm formation continues even which becomes major cause of death in
in old men. humans is
Reason (R): Spermatogenesis starts at the age 1) Hepatitis B 2) AIDS
of puberty. 3) Genital herpes 4) Syphilis
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 169. Match the following.
explanation of A
List - I List - II
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the
correct explanation of A i) Spermatozoa do not reach
A) ICSI
urethra
3) A is true but R is false
4) A is false but R is true ii) Sperm is introduced into
B) AI
the ovum
165. Match the following major features of
embryonic development in column-I at various iii) Semen is introduced into
C) Vasectomy
months of pregnancy in column-II. the vagina

Column - I Column - II iv) Semen is introduced into

D) IUI
the uterus
A) Heart beat i) End of sixth month
1) A - ii, B - iii, C - i, D - iv
B) First movement of
ii) End of first trimester 2) A - i, B - ii, C - iv, D - iii
foetus
3) A - iv, B - ii, C - iii, D - i
C) Eye lids separate iii) During fifth month
4) A - iii, B - iv, C - ii, D – i
D) Limbs and external
genitalia are well iv) After one month
developed
 23 Test ID : 868 [A]
170. Which one of the following option represents 175. Statement-I: Vaccines generate memory B and
the given figure? T cells that recognize the pathogen quickly on
subsequent exposure.
Statement-II: Memory B-cells overwhelm the
invaders with a massive production of
antibodies on subsequent exposure.
1) Both Statements I and II are correct
2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
1) AGA 2) GTG
incorrect
TCT CAC
3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is
3) GAG 4) TCT
correct
CTC AGA
4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
171. Which one of the following disorders is
176. The period between _____ years of age may
characterized by the overall masculine
be thought of as adolescence period.
development and gynaecomastia?
1) 10 - 15 2) 12 - 18
1) Phenylketonuria
3) 18 - 25 4) 15 - 20
2) Haemophilia
177. A) Modern day life style has resulted in
3) Down’s Syndrome
lowering of immunity and more sensitivity
4) Klinefelter’s Syndrome to allergens.
172. Origin of life is unique event in the history of B) Increased health facilities along with better
_____ living conditions had an explosive impact
1) earth 2) stars on the growth of population
3) universe 4) life C) Immune system is unique in the sense that
173. The given diagrams are not the examples of it recognizes foreign antigens
In the above statements
1) A and B incorrect
2) A, B and C correct
3) B and C incorrect
4) A, B and C incorrect
1) homology 2) analogy 178. Excessive dosage of coke / crack causes
3) divergent evolution 4) both 1 and 3 1) a feeling of nausea
174. Braincapacity of the hominid whose fossils 2) a feeling of vomiting
discovered in Java in 1891 was ___ 3) hallucinations
1) 1350 cc 2) 1400 cc 4) sleeplessness
3) 900 cc 4) 650 - 800 cc
 24 Test ID : 868 [A]
179. Which of the following abiotic factors is the 184. Which of the following statements are correct
most important ecologically relevant related to biodiversity conservation?
environmental factor? a) Protection of all the biodiversity hotspots on
1) Light 2) Soil earth could reduce the ongoing mass
3) Temperature 4) Pressure extinctions by almost 30 percent
180. Which of the following sign is used for
b) All the trees and wildlife within sacred
detrimental and neutral in population
groves were venerated and given total
interactions respectively?
protection.
1) - and + 2) - and 0
c) In Meghalaya, the sacred groves are the last
3) 0 and - 4) + and 0
refuges for a large number of rare and
181. Vertical distribution of different species
threatened plants
occupying different levels is called
d) Biodiversity at all levels is protected in off
1) standing crop 2) trophic level
site conservation
3) stratification 4) food chain
182. A certain mass of living material at a
1) a, b and d
particular time in each trophic level is called 2) b, c and d
1) standing crop 2) entropy 3) a, b and c
3) NPP 4) Biomass 4) a, c and d
183. Assertion(A): Tropical environments promote 185. Statement-I: Biodiversity knows no political
niche specialization and lead to a greater species boundaries.
diversity.
Statement-II: Conservation of biodiversity is
Reason (R): Tropical environments are less
a collective responsibility of all nations.
seasonal, relatively more constant and
predictable. 1) Both Statements I and II are correct
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
explanation of A incorrect
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the 3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is
correct explanation of A correct
3) A is true but R is false 4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
4) A is false but R is true
SECTION – B (15 questions)
Section – B consists of 15 questions. Candidates are allowed to answer any 10 questions only out of 15 questions
given. In case if candidates attempts more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted questions only considered for
marking.
186. a) Repere b) Reptum Which among the above words represent
c) Annulus d) Arthros creeping or crawling mode of locomotion in
e) Poda f) Skin cast reptiles?
1) a and d 2) b and c
3) a and b 4) e and f
 25 Test ID : 868 [A]
187. Match the following. E. Neutrophils are short lived
Column - I Column - II 1) A and B only 2) D and E only
i) Internal 3) B and C only 4) C and D only
A) Parapodia 191. Whichof the following is vasoconstrictor and
fertilization
vasodilator respectively?
B) Hairs ii) Exoskeleton
1) ANF and Aldosterone
C) Scales iii) Respiration
2) Angiotensin II and ANF
iv) Unique
D) Claspers 3) Renin and Angiotensin II
mammalian character
4) ANF and Angiotensin II
1) A-ii, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv 192. Matchthe following columns and choose the
2) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i correct option.
3) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
Column - I Column - II
4) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
A) Floating ribs i) 11th and 12th pairs
188. Exchange of gases occurs in cockroach at
ii) 8th, 9th and 10th
1) trachea by diffusion B) False ribs
pairs
2) tracheoles by active transport
C) True ribs iii) 1st to 7th pairs
3) tracheoles by simple diffusion
4) sclerites by diffusion 1) A - i, B - ii, C - iii 2) A - ii, B - iii, C - i
189. Statement-I:All invertebrates possess a 3) A - iii, B - ii, C - i 4) A - ii, B - i, C - iii
muscular chambered heart. 193. Lossof glucose through urine and formation
Statement-II: In fishes the heart receives of harmful compounds like ketone bodies is an
deoxygenated blood and pumps oxygenated indicative of a complex disorder called
blood. 1) diabetes insipidus
1) Both Statements I and II are correct 2) Addison’s disease
2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is 3) diabetes mellitus
incorrect 4) Grave’s disease
3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is Corpus luteum secretes large
194. Statement-I:
correct amount of progesterone.
4) Both statements I and II are incorrect Statement-II: Progesterone is essential for
190. Which of the following statements are maintenance of endometrium.
correct? 1) Both Statements I and II are correct
A. Neutrophils are the least abundant cells of 2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
WBC incorrect
B. Neutrophils have bilobed nucleus 3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is
C. Neutrophils are agranulocytes correct
D. Neutrophils are phagocytic cells 4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
 26 Test ID : 868 [A]
195. Statement-I: MTPs are considered relatively 1) A belongs to common cold
safe during second trimester. 2) B belongs to pneumonia
Statement-II: Misuse of amniocentesis to 3) C belongs to typhoid
determine the sex of the unborn child is one of 4) A, B belong to malaria
the reasons for increasing MTPs. 199. Assertion(A): The number of fish caught per
1) Both Statements I and II are correct trap is good enough measure of its population
2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is density in the lake.
incorrect Reason (R): For certain ecological
3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is investigations, there is no need to know the
correct absolute population densities, relative
4) Both statements I and II are incorrect densities serve the purpose equally well.
196. Which of the following genotype/s is/are 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
responsible for the intermediate skin colour in explanation of A
humans? 2) Both A and R are true and R is the not
1) AaBbCc 2) AABBCC correct explanation of A
3) AABbcc 4) both 1 and 3 3) A is true but R is false
197. A population of 1000 individuals in Hardy - 4) A is false but R is true
Weinberg equilibrium, the genotypic 200. Readthe following and choose the incorrect
frequency of recessive individuals is 0.16. statement.
Then what is the number of homozygous 1) Rauwolfia vomitoria shows genetic
dominant individuals in population? variation in terms of the potency and
1) 160 2) 480 concentration of reserpine
3) 360 4) 420 2) Eastern ghats have a greater amphibian
198. A) Fever, chills, cough, headache, stomach pain species diversity than Western ghats
B) Sore throat, hoarseness, cough, constipation 3) India has more than 50,000 genetically
C) Loss of appetite, constipation, sustained different strains of rice
high fever 4) India has a greater ecosystem diversity than
From the symptoms given above a Scandinavian country like Norway
***All The Best***