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Đề 43-100 - Key

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Keys – practice 43

PART I PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three in the following question
1. A. exchange B. technology C. mischievious D. challenge
2. A. finished B. declared C. linked D. developed
3. A. accept B. succeed C. account D. accident
4. A. compulsory B. curriculum C. substantial D. supportive
5. A. committed B. daunted C. confided D. installed
6. A. much B. autumn C. sunny D. summer
7. A. dedicated B. hatched C. stopped D. influenced
8. A. spectrum B. special C. species D. specify
9. A. wrong B. two C. windy D. wrist
10. A. picked B. naked C. booked D. worked
PART II. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (35pts)
I. Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct answer among four options (A, B, C or D). (15pts: 1pt/item)
1. He's really shy _______ girl.
A. by B. at C. for D. with
2. The teacher _______ her to improve her drawing.
A. insisted B. encouraged C. made D. persisted
3. I couldn't quite ______ what they were doing because they were so far away.
A. bear out B. make out C. think out D. try out
4. The meal Mary cooked tastes_______.
A. well B. nice C. good D. worse
5. ______ at the party, we saw Ruth standing alone.
A. Arriving B. We arrived C. Arrived D. We were arriving
6. The people who______ the survey said that they had examined over 1,000 accidents.
A. gave B. proceed C. set D. conducted
7. The judge found him ______ of stealing and sent him to prison.
A. evil B. innocent C. guilty D. wicked
8. The house we have rented is______. So we will have to buy some beds, chairs, tables, etc.
A. unrestored B. unrepaired C. unfurnished D. undecorated
9. He was turned down for the job because he is ________.
A. qualified B. qualifying C. unqualified D. qualification
10. The trouble started only______ the other man came into the room.
A. when B. until C. and then D. too soon
11. _______, the disaster would not have happened.
A. Had you have obeyed the orders B. You had obeyed the orders
C. You obeyed the orders D. Had you obeyed the orders
12. _______ had booked in advance were allowed in.
A. Only who B. Only those who
C. Only who were those D. Only were those who
13. Traveling alone to a jungle is adventurous, ________.
A. if not impossible B. if it not impossible
C. when not impossible D. when it not impossible
14. I ______ the hot weather in the south.
A. use to B. used to C. am use to D. am used to
15. The meat looked very _______ to the dog.
A. invited B. invite C. inviting D. invitingly
II. Use the correct form of each word on the right to complete the numbered spaces provided in the passage. Write your answers
on your answer sheet. (10pts: 1pt/item)
The mysteries of the skies
Three hundred and fifty years before the first men looked down on the amazingly
beautiful surface of the moon from close quarters, Galileo’s newly built telescope (1)
1
enabled __ him to look at the edge of the hitherto mysterious sphere. He saw that the 1. ABLE
apparently (2) lifeless ___ surface was not divinely smooth and round, but bumpy and 2. LIVE
imperfect. He realized that although the moon might appear (3) inactive ____, resembling
a still life painted by the hand of a cosmic (4) artist ____, it was a real world, perhaps not 3. ACT
very different from our own. This amounted to a great (5) achievement _____ hardly to be 4. ART
expected in his day and age, although nowadays his (6) conclusion ____ may appear to some 5. ACHIEVE
to be trivial and (7) insignificant _____. 6. CONCLUDE
Not long after Galileo lunar’s observations, the skies which had previously been so (8) 7. SIGNIFY
elusive ____ revealed more of their extraordinary mysteries. Casting around for further
wonders, Galileo focused his lens on the (9) striking _____ planet of Jupiter. Nestling next 8. ELUDE
to it, he saw four little points of light circling the distant planet. Our moon it appeared, 9. STRIKE
perhaps (10) unfortunately _____ in the eyes of those fearful of what the discovery might
mean, was not alone! 10. FORTUNE

III. In the following passage, some numbered lines contain a word that shouldn’t be there. Tick (√) the sentences that are correct
and write the words that shouldn’t be there in the numbered space.
KEEPING YOUR DISTANCE (10pts: 1pt/item)
Personal space is a term that refers to the distance we like to keep 0 ___√___
between ourselves and other people. When someone we do not know well gets 00 someone
too close that we usually begin to feel uncomfortable. If such a business 1________
colleague comes closer than 1.2 meters, the most common response is to move 2 ________
away. Some interesting studies have been done in libraries. If strangers will 3 __√____
come too close, many people get up and leave the building, others use to 4 ________
different methods such as turning their back on the intruder. Living in cities has 5 ________
made people to develop new skills for dealing with situations where they are 6 ________
very close to strangers. Most people on so crowded trains try not to look at 7 ___√___
strangers; they avoid skin contract, and apologize if hands touch by a mistake. 8 ________
People use newspapers as a barrier between themselves and other people, and 9 ________
if they do not have one, they stare into the distance, making sure they are not 10 __√___
looking into anyone’s eyes.

PART III. READING


I. Complete the following passage by choosing A, B, C or D to fill in each blank. (10pts: 1pt/item)
In recent years, there has been a remarkable increase into happiness. The researchers have come up a
number of factors which contribute to a definition of happiness.
First of all, there is, in some people, a moderate genetic predisposition to be happy, in other words,
happiness (1)_______ in families. And happiness seems to correlate quite strongly with the main dimensions of
personalities: extroverts are generally happier, neurotics are less so.
Second, people often report good social relations as a reason for their happiness. In particular, friends are a
great (2) ______ of joy, partly because of the agreeable things they do together, partly because of the way friends
use positive non-verbal (3) ______ such as caressing and touching, to affirm their friendship. Marriage and similar
(4) ______ relationships can also form the basis of lasting happiness.
Third, job satisfaction undoubtedly (5) ______ overall satisfaction, and vice versa - perhaps this is why some
people are happy in boring jobs: it (6) ______ both ways. Job satisfaction is caused not only by the essential nature
of the work, but (7)_____ by social interactions with co-workers. Unemployment, on the contrary, can be a serious
cause of unhappiness.
Fourth, leisure is important because it is more under individual (8) ______ than most other causes of happiness.
Activities (9) _____ sport and music, and participation in voluntary work and social clubs of various kinds, can give great joy.
This is partly because of the (10) ______themselves, but also because of the social support of other group members – it is very
strong in the case of religious groups.
1. A. runs B. arrives C. goes D. descends

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2. A. source B. origin C. base D. meaning
3. A. movements B. signals C. slogans D. motions
4. A. near B. tight C. close D. heavy
5. A. consists of B. applies to C. counts on D. contributes to
6. A. works B. effects C. makes D. turns
7. A. too B. as well C. also D. plus
8. A. check B. power C. choice D. control
9. A. so B. such C. like D. thus
10. A. facilities B. activities C. exercises D. amenities

II. Read the passage carefully, then choose the correct option (marked A, B, C or D) to answer the questions. (5pts: 1pt/item)
Scientists have established that influenza viruses taken from man can cause disease in animals. In addition, man can
catch the disease from animals. In fact, a greater numbers of wild birds seem to carry the virus without showing any evidences
of illness. Some scientists conclude that a large family of influenza virus may have evolved in the bird kingdom, a group that
has been on earth 100 million years and is able to carry the virus without contracting the disease. There is even convincing
evidence to show that virus strain are transmitted from place to place and from continent to continent by migrating birds.
It is known that two influenza viruses can recombine when both are present in an animal at the same time. The result
of such recombination is a great variety of strains containing different H and N spikes. This raises the possibility that a human
influenza virus can recombine with an influenza virus from a lower animal to produce an entirely new spike. Research is
underway to determine if that is the way major new strains come into being. Another possibility is that two animal influenza
strains may recombine in a pig, for example, to produce a new strain which is transmitted to man.
1. According to the passage, scientists have discovered that influenza viruses ______.
A. cause ill health in wild animals B. do not always cause symptoms in birds
C. are rarely present in wild birds D. change when transmitted from animals to man
2. What is known about the influenza virus?
A. It was first found in a group of very old birds. B. All the different strains can be found in wild birds.
C. It existed over 100 million years ago. D. It can survive in many different places.
3. According to the passage, a great variety of influenza strains can appear when______.
A. H and N spikes are produced B. animal and bird viruses are combined
C. dissimilar types of viruses recombine D. two viruses of the same type are contracted
4. New strains of viruses are transmitted to man by_______.
A. a type of wild pig B. diseased lower animals
C. a group of migrating birds D. a variety of means
5. It can be inferred from the passage that all of the following are ways of producing new strains of influenza
EXCEPT_______.
A. two influenza viruses in the same animal recombining B. animal viruses recombining with human viruses
C. two animal viruses recombining D. two animal viruses recombining in a human

III. Read the passage and choose the best answer from the four options marked A, B, C or D in the following questions. Identify
your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet. (5pts: 1pt/item)
Several hundred million years ago, plants similar to modern ferns covered vast stretches of the land. Some were as
large as trees, with giant fronds bunched at the top of trunks as straight as pillars. Others were the size of bushes and formed
thickets of undergrowth. Still others lived in the shade of giant club mosses and horsetails along the edges of swampy lagoons
where giant amphibians swam.
A great number of these plants were true ferns, reproducing themselves without fruits or seeds. Others had only the
appearance of ferns. Their leaves had organs of sexual reproduction and produced seeds. Although their “flowers” did not
have corollas, these false ferns (today completely extinct) ushered in the era of flowering plants. Traces of these floras of the
earliest times have been preserved in the form of fossils. Such traces are most commonly found in shale and sandstone rocks
wedged between coal beds.
Today only tropical forests bear living proof of the ancient greatness of ferns. The species that grow there are no
longer those of the Carboniferous period, but their variety and vast numbers, and the great size of some, remind us of the
time when ferns ruled the plant kingdom.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Plant reproduction B. How to locate fossils
C. An ancient form of plant life D. Tropical plant life

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2. The word “Others” refers to _________.
A. plants B. pillars C. trees D. fronds
3. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a characteristic of the plants described in the passage?
A. They once spread over large areas of land.
B. They varied greatly in size.
C. They coexisted with amphibians, mosses, and horsetails.
D. They clung to tree trunks and bushes for support.
4. The word “true” is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. accurate B. genuine C. straight D. dependable
5. The author states that fossils of early plant life are usually found in rocks located between deposits of _______. A. coal
B. shale C. sandstone D. corollas
IV. Read the passage carefully then fill in the blank a suitable word. (10pts: 1pt/item)
As swimming became a popular recreation in England during the 1860s and 1870s, several (1) water _ sports
developed, roughly patterned after land sports. (2) Among __ them were water football (or soccer), water rugby, water
handball, and water polo, in which players rode on floating barrels, painted to look (3) like __ horses, and struck the ball with
a stick.
Water rugby became most popular of these sports, but somehow the water polo name became attached to it, and it's
been attached (4) ever __ since.
As played in England, the object of the sport was for a player to touch the ball, with both (5) hands __, at the goal end
of the pool. The goaltender stood on the pool deck, ready to dive on any opponent who was about to score.
Water polo quickly became a very rough sport, filled (6) with __ underwater fights away from the ball, and it wasn't
unusual for players to pass out for lack of air.
In 1877, the sport was tamed in Scotland by the addiction of goalposts. The Scots also replaced (7) the _ original small,
hard rubber ball with a soccer ball and adopted (8) rules __ that prohibited taking the ball under the surface or, "tackling" a
player unless he had the ball.
The Scottish game, which emphasized swimming speed, passing, and (9) team __ work, spread to England during the
early 1880s, to Hungary in 1889, to Austria and Germany in 1894, to France in 1895, and (10) to __ Belgium in 1900.
Water polo was the first team sport added to the Olympic program, in 1900.

PART IV: WRITING


I. Write the new sentences using the given word. Do not change the word given in any way. (10 pts: 1pt/item)
1. They have discovered some interesting new information. (LIGHT)
Some interesting new information has come to light.
2. They suspended Jack for the next two matches. (BANNED)
Jack was banned from playing in the next two matches.
3. I really want to see her again. (DYING)
I'm dying to see her again.
4. She was so beautiful that I couldn't stop looking at her. (EYES)
She was so beautiful that I couldn't take my eyes off her.
5. We are looking forward to watching the program. (WAIT)
We can't wait to watch the program.
II. Rewrite each of the following sentences so that it has a similar meaning to the original one. (10 pts: 1pt/item)
1. If you changed your mind, you would be welcomed to join our class.
→ Were you to change your mind, you would be welcomed to join our class.
2. I'd rather not go out this afternoon.
→ I do not feel like going out this afternoon.
3. Adeles tries hard, but she doesn't get anywhere.
→ However hard Adeles tries, she doesn't get anywhere/gets nowhere.
4. It is thought that the boss is considering raising wages.
→ The boss is thought to be considering raising wages.
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5. His disabilities did not prevent him from sailing around the world.
→ Despite the fact that he was disabled, he sailed/managed to sail around the world.
6. I didn't arrive in time to see her.
→ I wasn't early enough to see her.
7. I'd prefer you not to smoke.
→ I'd rather you didn't smoke.
8. The mother smiled happily. She took the baby in her arms.
→ Smiling happily, the mother took the baby in her arms.
9. The noise next door did not stop until after midnight.
→ It was not until after midnight that the noise next door stopped.
10. You can ring this number whenever there is any difficulty.
→ Should there is any difficulty, you can ring this number.

-------------------------------THE END---------------------------------

5
Keys – practice 44
PART A PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three in the following question
1. A. plays B. works C. lives D. buys
2. A. frogs B. villagers C. fields D. insects
3. A. page B. village C. damage D. luggage
4. A. safety B. ready C. entry D. occupy
5. A. league B. equal C. creature D. menace
6. A. food B. school C. root D. wood
7. A. facility B. society C. necessity D. economy
8. A. stamped B. indulged C. accomplished D. practised
9. A. friends B. clubs C. tunes D. stamps
10. A. nowadays B. ruins C. pesticides D. dykes
PART B: LEXICO – GRAMMAR: 2.5 point
I. 10 pts: 1 pt/item
1. A 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. B 6. B 7. A 8. D 9. D 10. C
II. 10pts: 1pt/ item
1. introduction 3. attention 5. failure 7. mistaken 9. punishments
2. successful 4. unreadable 6. revision 8. absences 10. gifted
III. 15 pts: 1pt/item
1. the 4. one 7. any 10. a 13. the
2. the 5. a 8. of 11. √ 14. √
3. √ 6. √ 9. √ 12. √ 15. the
PART C. READING
I. 15 point: 1 pt/item
1.A 4. C 7. B 10. D 13. A
2. B 5.B 8. A 11. C 14. B
3. D 6. D 9. C 12. B 15. D
II. 5 points: 1 pt/ item
1. C 2. A 3. D 4. A 5. B
III. 5 points: 1 pt /item
1. A 2. C 3. B 4. C 5. B
PART D.
I. 5 points: 1pt/ item
1. Watch thieves if you go to that part of town.
2. Please make yourself at home.
3. I built this on my own.
4. I’m not really keen on this kind of music.
5 Most university students depend on the financial support of their parents.
II. 20 points
The candidate’s essay should include the following points:
- The writing passage should be well-organized: introduction, body and ending of the passage: 2.5 pts
- The ideas should be clarified with relevant and specific examples: 12.5 pts
- The writing passage is supposed to be free of grammatical and spelling errors: 5.0 pts

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Keys – practice 45
SECTION I: Phonetics (10 POINTS)
I. A. (1p for 1 correct answer X 5 = 5 points)
1. B 2. C 3. C 4. A 5. D

B. (1p for 1 correct answer X 5 = 5 points)


1.A 2.D 3.B 4.C 5.A
SECTION II: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (40 POINTS)
I . (1p for 1 correct answer X 10 = 10 points)
5. A
1.A 2. B 3. C 4. B

10. B
6. D 7. C 8. C 9. C
II .( 1p for 1 correct answer X 10 = 10 points)
1. didn’t arrive/ knew/ hadn’t missed
2. tells/ haven’t been listening/ have said
3. hadn’t received/ spoke
4. feel/ will bring
III .( 1p for 1 correct answer X 10 = 10 points)
1. hardened 6. eduacational
2. survivors 7. attendances
3. advisory 8. computerize
4. Installation 9. unexpected
5. socially 10. dependent
IV .( 1p for 1 correct answer X 10 = 10 points)
1. On 6. on
2. for 7. for
3. to 8. at
4. from 9. from
5. with 10. out
SECTION III.reading (25 POINTS)
I.(10 points): 2 pts/ each correct answer.
1. Because the United States is a place where the previous identities of each immigrant group are melted down to create
an intergrated, uniform society.
2. Because it better represents the diverse multicultural society of the United States.
3.It means a picture create by assembling many small stones or tiles.
4. They have established communities alongside those populated by the descendants of European immigrants.
5. They are Vietnamese Americans and Korean Americans.
II. (10 points): 1 pts/ each correct answer.
1.C 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. A
10. D
6. D 7. B 8. D 9. B
III.(5 points): 1 pts/ each correct answer.
1. D 2. C 3. B 4. C 5. C
SECTION IV : WRITING (25 POINTS)
I.( 1p for 1 correct answer X 5 = 5 points)
1. If it hadn’t been for your unsuspected talents as a mechanic, we would have been stranded there for hours.
2. He suggested inviting the Browns to the party on Sunday.
3. Had it not been for the death of the Prime Minister, the bill would have been passed.
4. That commentator, whose name I’ve forgotten, is very well-known.
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5. Not until he came into the light did I recognise him.
II.( 1p for 1 correct answer X 5 = 5 points)
1. It’s worth asking George to help.
2. I haven’t seen him since I lived in London.
3. I am not used to going into town by car.
4. He plays this piece more beautifully than anybody/ anyone else.
5. I was prevented from going to work by transport strike.
III.( 1p for 1 correct answer X 5 = 5 points)
1.Teacher’s day in Vietnam falls on the twentieth of November each year.
2. Generally/ In general, it is meant for schoolchildren to show their appreciation to their teachers who have guided them
in their studies.
3. It is a time to forget the bad experiences students may have of their teachers scolding and punishing them.
4. Students give their teachers flowers and small gifts.
5. Small parties are held and there is an atmosphere of fun and amazenment in the school.
II.10 points
Gợi ý cách cho điểm:
1. Form: an essay (2points)
+ Easy to read
+ Coherent
2. Content: ( 4 points)
+Successful fulfillment of the task.
3. Language: ( 4 points)
+ Appropriate vocabulary (1 point )
+ Suitable connectors (0.5 point )
+ Correct grammar (2 points )
+ Punctuating/ Spelling (0.5 point)

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KEYS – PRACTICE 46
I. (5pts) 1 pt/correct answer. II. (5pts) 1 pt/correct answer.
1. C 2. D 3. C 4. D 5. A 6. D 7. C 8. D 9. B 10. A

III. (10pts) 1 pt/correct answer.


11. only had it 14. good/ use grumbling/ 17. frightened/ scared to
12. had been complaining about 18. rumbling
13. did him no/ did not 15. people parking 19. under the
(seem to) do him any 16. without 20. afford to have them

IV. (5pts) 1 pt/correct answer.


21. C 22. D 23. B 24. D 25. D

V. (10pts) 1 pt/correct answer.


26. advertisement 28. surprisingly 30. twice 32. linguistically 34. dreadful
27. seaside 29. standby 31. poorly 33. farther/ further 35. useless

VI. (10pts) 1 pt/correct answer.


36. B 37. D 38. C 39. B 40. B 41. A 42. B 43. C 44. B 45. C

VII. (10pts) 1 pt/correct answer.


46. A 47. B 48. D 49. D 50. A 51. C 52. B 53. B 54. C 55. C

VIII. (10pts) 1 pt/correct answer.


56. wrong 58. other/ some 60. example/ instance 62. of 64. Thanks
57. which 59. by 61. fact 63. out 65. whether/ if

IX. (10pts) 1 pt/correct answer.


66. A 67. C 68. C 69. B 70. B 71. D 72. D 73. B 74. B 75. B

X. (5pts) 1 point/correct answer.


76. → You should take the price into consideration before you decide whether to buy it or not.
77. → There isn’t much call for cars with large engines any more.
78. → The coal produced in this region has been halved in the 20 years.
79. → The likelihood is small of the PM calling an early general election.
80. → The policeman’s prompt action averted an accident.

XI. (5pts) 1 point/correct answer.


81. → If it hadn’t been for my father’s money, we could not have managed.
82. → There has been a dramatic rise/increase in the house prices this year.
83. → They stole everything except for/but/apart from the television.
84. → He tried in vain to search for the stolen car.
85. → No sooner had the guests left than she started to clean up the house.

XII. (15pts) Students’ own answers


Content: accounts for 50% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 50% for the content,
the candidates should provide all main ideas and details as appropriate.
Language: accounts for 30% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 30% for language,
the candidates should use variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of
English language high school students.
Presentation: accounts for 20% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 20% for
presentation, the candidates should write with coherence, cohesion and can use appropriate
styles and linking devices

9
Keys – practice 47
I. (5pts) 1 point/correct answer. II. (5pts) 1 point/correct answer.
1. B 2. A 3. C 4. C 5. B 6. D 7. B 8. A 9. A 10. D

III. (20pts) 1 point/correct answer.


11. B 12. B 13. A 14. A 15. D 16. A 17. C 18. D 19. D 20. C
21. A 22. C 23. B 24. D 25. C 26. A 27. D 28. B 29. B 30. A

IV. (10pts) 1 point/correct answer.


31. valuable 33. length 35. tightened 37. lowered 39. embarrassment
32. frightened 34. worldwide 36. terrified 38. repeatedly 40. heights

V. (10pts) 1 point/correct answer.


41. acquired 43. a few 45. to 47. as 49. certain
42. explicitly 44. to 46. vocational 48. assume 50. intended

VI. (10pts) 1 point/correct answer.


51. B 52. C 53. C 54. A 55. D 56. C 57. D 58. B 59. A 60. D

VII. (20pts) 2 points/correct answer.


61. A 62. B 63. C 64. D 65. C 66. A 67. C 68. B 69. D 70. B

VIII. (20pts) 2 points/correct answer.


71. → An increased number of travelers is being stopped by customs officials this week.
72. → Rather than disturb the meeting, I left without saying goodbye.
73. → The moment I decided to get up to dance, the band decided to stop playing.
74. → At no time did he suspect that the bicycle had been stolen.
75. → Other than to offer to lend her some money, how could I help?
IX. 76. → To this day his achievements are unsurpassed in the field of technology.
77. → Peter pulled a face as he swallowed the foul-tasting medicine.
78. → The construction of the building will take longer than originally planned, which is unfortunate.
→ What he told me whetted my appetite for the rest of the story.
79. → They chose not to drive for fear of too much snow.
80.

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Keys – practice 48
I. (5pts) 1 point/correct answer. II. (5pts) 1 point/correct answer.
1. B 2. C 3. B 4. D 5. D 6. D 7. C 8. D 9. C 10. D

III. (10pts) 1 point/correct answer.


11. D 12. B 13. B 14. B 15. A 16. D 17. C 18. D 19. C 20. A

IV. (10pts) 1 point/correct answer.


21. to the first 23. diligently 25. Time passes 27. had the plane 29. am trying
22. has 24. them pulled 26. pulled 28. waste of time 30. by myself

V. (10pts) 1 point/correct answer.


31. from 33. against 35. from 37. over 39. of
32. at/by 34. about 36. at 38. for 40. off

VI. (10pts) 1 point/correct answer.


41. Adaptation 43. worrisome 45. immobilize 47. determination 49. rearrange
42. passers-by 44. respectful 46. disapproval 48. reasonably 50. inactive

VII. (10pts) 1 point/correct answer.


51. B 52. C 53. D 54. D 55. D 56. B 57. A 58. D 59. C 60. A

VIII. (10pts) 1 point/correct answer.


61. named/called 63. pair 65. to/until 67. as 69. for
62. on 64. but/ except 66. from 68. own 70. or

IX. (10pts) 1 point/correct answer.


71. C 72. D 73. A 74. D 75. A 76. C 77. A 78. C 79. B 80. B

X. (5pts) 1 point/correct answer.


81. → Hard as/ though she works, she never seems to succeed.
82. → Let all the washing be done.
83. → I wish I had gone to the airport to say good bye to him.
84. → Mick was under the impression that we were married
85. → But for his command of the local dialect, we could have been put into prison/ jail.
XI. (15pts) Students’ own answers
Content: accounts for 50% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 50% for the content,
the candidates should provide all main ideas and details as appropriate.
Language: accounts for 30% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 30% for language,
the candidates should use variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of
English language high school students.
Presentation: accounts for 20% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 20% for
presentation, the candidates should write with coherence, cohesion and can use appropriate
styles and linking devices

11
KEYS- PRACTICE 49
A. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
I. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the best answer in each of the following questions. (15 pts)
01: They had meals together in the school______.
A. café B. restaurant C. canteen D. bar
02: You should______ your pounds for dollars before going to New York.
A. change B. convert C. turn D. exchange
03: Who is the______ of this company?
A. top B. head C. leader D. minister
04: His sister's marriage has been arranged by her family. She is marrying a man______.
A. she hardly knows him B. whom she hardly know
C. she hardly knows D. that she hardly know
05: Instead of ______ about the good news, Peter seemed to be indifferent.
A. exciting B. being excited C. to excite D. to be excited
06: She nearly lost her own life______ attempting to save the child from drowning.
A. at B. with C. in D. for
07: If I could speak German, I______ next year studying in Berlin.
A. will spend B. had spent C. would spend D. would have spent
08: There are several means of mass communication. The newspaper is one. Television is______.
A. another B. other C. the another D. the other
09: The police are______ an incident which took place this afternoon.
A. inspecting B. searching C. looking out D. investigating
10: Someone wanted to______ Belle Vue Hotel to us.
A. introduce B. direct C. recommend D. tell
11: Tony never comes to class on time and______.
A. neither does Pedro B. so does Pedro C. so doesn’t Pedro D. neither doesn’t Pedro
12: Tom: “Thank you for your help.” ~ Mary: “____________.”
A. With all my heart B. It’s my pleasure C. Never mind me D. No problem
13: We______ won the game if we’d had a few more minutes.
A. have B. will C. had D. could have
14: Mr. Ba is intelligent but he______ common sense.
A. fails B. lacks C. misses D. wants
15: We’ll play tennis and______ we’ll have lunch.
A. after B. then C. so D. immediately

II: Use the word in capitals at the end of these sentences to form a word that fits in the blank space. (5 pts)
1. How much does_ membership_ of this club cost?(MEMBER) MEMBERSHIP
2. She is extremely__ knowledgeable _ about the history of art.(KNOW) KNOWLEDGEABLE
3. Traveling in big cities is becoming more and more_ troublesome__ every day. (TROUBLE)
4. He is completely_ unemployable _! Not only is he lazy but he is dishonest too.(EMPLOY)
5. His boss told him off because he had behaved _irresponsibly__. (RESPONSIIBLE) IRRESPONSIBLY

III: Complete each sentence with one of the idiomatic phrases given. Use each phrase once only. (6 pts)
1. gave me the cold shoulder 3. had a lump in her throat 5. lost her head
2. made her blood boil 4. took her breath away 6. jumped out of her skin
1. Pauline completely ignored me this morning. She______.
2. It really______ to see her friend copy a poem she had written and then present it to her boyfriend as one that she had
written for him.
3. Saying goodbye to her son was a very emotional occasion for her and she______ as she watched him get on the train.
4. The view from the top of the mountain was absolutely fantastic. It really______.
5. Susan panicked when the fire broke out. She______.
6. When I dropped that tray behind her, she got a shock. She almost______.

IV: Put each verb given in brackets into an appropriate tense or form. (14 pts)
1. Mr. Pike, who is supposed__ to have witnessed _ (witness) the accident, has left the town.
12
2. At this time next week they_ will be sitting __ (sit) in the train on their way to Paris.
3. He said that he watered the plants every day. He_ couldn’t have watered _ (water) them. If he had, they wouldn’t have
died.
4. No sooner the announcement_ had …. been made _ (make) than everyone started complaining.
5. They said they never_ had never been made __ (make) to do anything they didn’t want to before.
6. We_ had been watching _ (watch) the play for nearly thirty minutes when he came.
7. The pop star who_ has taken __ (take) part in over 25 films always avoids_ being recognised _ (recognize) by wearing
dark glasses.
8. There’s no point in_ trying _ (try) to get Tim_ to lend __ (lend) you his car.
9. Not until John_(had) received __ (receive) the offer of promotion in writing he_ did he celebrate _ (celebrate)
10. He__ has had _ (have) trouble with the second-hand car since he bought it. He wishes he_ hadn’t bought _ (not / buy)
it.

V. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that need correction in each
of the following questions. (5 pts)
01: She asked why did I look so embarrassed when I saw her.
A B C D
02: There was a very interesting news on the radio this morning about the earthquake in Mexico.
A B C D
03: Could you mind telling me the way to the nearest post office?
A B C D
04: The children were playing last night outdoors when it began to rain very hard.
A B C D
05: I’d prefer to do it on myself, because other people make me nervous.
A B C D

B. READING
I: Read the text below and choose the correct word for each space. For each question, circle letter A, B, C or D next to the
answer you choose. (10 pts)
If you’re an environmentalist, plastic is a word you tend to say with a sneer or a snarl. It has become a symbol of our
wasteful, throw-way society. But there seems little (1)______ it is here to stay, and the truth is, of course, that plastic has
brought enormous (2)______ even environmental ones. It’s not really the plastics themselves that are the environmental
(3)______ – it’s the way society choose to use and abuse them.
Almost all the 50 or so different kinds of modern plastic are made from oil, gas or coal – non-renewable natural
(4)______. We import well over three million tons of the stuff in Britain each year and, sooner or later, most of it is thrown
away. A high proportion of our annual consumption is in the (5)______ of packaging, and this (6)______ about seven per
cent by weight of our domestic refuse. Almost all of it could be recycled, but very little of it is, though the plastic recycling
(7)______ is growing fast.
The plastics themselves are extremely energy-rich – they have a higher calorific (8)______ than coal and one
(9)______ of ‘recovery’ strongly favored by the plastic manufacturers is the (10)______ of waste plastic into a fuel.
1. A. evidence B. concern C. doubt D. likelihood
2. A. pleasures B. benefits C. savings D. profits
3. A. poison B. disaster C. disadvantage D. evil
4. A. resources B. processes C. products D. fuels
5. A. way B. kind C form D. type
6. A. takes B. makes C. carries D. constitutes
7. A. manufacture B. plant C. factory D. industry
8. A. degree B. value C. demand D. effect
9. A. measure B. mechanism C. method D. medium
10. A. conversion B. melting C. change D. replacement

II: Read the following text and then fill in each gap with ONE suitable word. (10 pts)
I was reading an article last week in (1)_ which _ the writer described how her children has changed as they grow up.
When they were small she had to (2)_put__ up with noisy games in the house, or join in interminable games of football in
the garden which wore her out. If the house went quiet, she wondered what the monsters were getting up to, or what crisis

13
she would have to (3)_deal_ with next. She dreaded the fact that they might took after her husband, who admitted having
(4)_been_ an uncontrollable child who (5)_spent__ most of the time showing off to his friends by breaking things or getting
into fights. What was worse was that (6)_everyone__ else thought he was a sweet child, and he got away with the most
terrible things! However, she had experienced an even greater shocked with her children. They had (7)_grown__ out of all
their naughty behavior, and taken up serious hobbies (8)_such__ as chess and playing the piano. They never did anything
without (9)__taking__ it over first, and coming to a serious decision. She had to face up to the fact that they made her feel
rather childish as they got (10)_older__, and that in some ways she preferred them when they were young and noisy.

III. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer
to each of the questions. (10 pts)
Today’s cars are smaller, safer, cleaner, and more economical than their predecessors, but the car of the future will
be far more pollution-free than those on the road today. Several new types of automobile engines have already been
developed than run on alternative sources of power, such as electricity, compressed natural gas, methanol, steam,
hydrogen, and propane. Electricity, however, is the only zero-emission option presently available.
Although electric vehicles will not be truly practical until a powerful, compact battery or other dependable source
of current is available, transport experts foresee a new assortment of electric vehicles entering everyday life: shorter-
range commuter electric cars, three-wheeled neighborhood cars, electric delivery vans, bikes and trolleys.
As automakers work to develop practical electrical vehicles, urban planners and utility engineers are focusing on
infrastructure systems to support and make the best use of the new cars. Public charging facilities will need to be
as common as today’s gas stations. Public parking spots on the street or in commercial lots will need to be equipped
with devices that allow drivers to charge their batteries while they stop, dine, or attend a concert. To encourage the
use of electric vehicles, the most convenient parking in transportation centres might be reserved for electric cars.
Planners foresee electric shuttle buses, trains, buses and neighborhood vehicles all meeting at transit centres that
would have facilities for charging and renting. Commuters will be able to rent a variety of electric cars to suit their
needs: light trucks, one-person three-wheelers, small cars, or electric/gasoline hybrid cars for longer trips, which
will no doubt take place on automated freeways capable of handling five times the number of vehicles that can be
carried by freeway today.
01: The author’s purpose in the passage is to______.
A. criticize conventional vehicles C. narrate a story about alternative energy vehicles
B. support the invention of electric cars D. describe the possibilities for transportation in the future
02: The following electrical vehicles are all mentioned in the passage EXCEPT______.
A. planes B. trolleys C. vans D. trains
03: The passage would most likely be followed by details about______.
A. the neighborhood of the fixture C. electric shuttle buses
B. automated freeways D. pollution restrictions in the future
04: The word ‘compact’ in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to______.
A. squared B. long-range C. inexpensive D. concentrated
05: In the second paragraph, the author implies that______.
A. everyday life will stay much the same in our fixture.
B. a single electric vehicle will eventually replace several modes of transportation
C. a dependable source of electric energy will eventually be developed.
D. electric vehicles are not practical for the future
06: According to the passage, public parking lots of the future will be______.
A. much larger than they are today C. common as today’s gas stations
B. more convenient than they are today D. equipped with charging devices
07: The word ‘charging’ in this passage refers to______.
A. aggression B. lightning C. electricity D. credit cards
08: The word ‘foresee’ in this passage could best be replaced with______.
A. imagine B. count on C. rely on D. invent
09: The word ‘commuters’ in paragraph 4 refers to______.
A. visitors B. cab drivers C. shoppers D. daily travelers
10: The word ‘hybrid' in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to______.
A. hazardous B. futuristic C. automated D. combination

C. WRITING
14
I: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. (5
pts)
1. Immediately after his appointment to the post, the new editor fell ill.
Scarcely had he been appointed to the post when the new editor fell ill.
2. I left without saying goodbye as I didn’t want to disturb the meeting.
Rather than disturb the meeting, I left without saying goodbye.
3. The value of sterling has fallen considerably in the past week.
There has been a considerable fall in the value of sterling in the past week.
4. The only reason the party was a success was that a famous film star attended.
Had it not been for the attendance of a famous film star the party would not have been a success.
5. Harriet was upset because she saw Peter with another woman.
It was because she saw Peter with another woman that Harriet was upset / that upset Harriet.

II: Topic: Media are said to affect us different ways. Discuss the matter in a composition. (20 pts)
I think the media pay too much attention to the private lives of famous people. Television, newspapers,
magazines and web sites dig up all kinds of past bad actions. They say that these are true reflections of a person's
character. This may be true if they occurred only a few years before, but some of these are things people did as
teenagers. People in their forties are expected to explain something they did when they were fifteen. If they killed
someone, obviously that's more than a youthful mistake. Usually, though, these incidents involve experiments with
drugs or being reckless in a car. They're not something that the public needs to know.
The media love to say that the public has a right to know. That's not true. We don't need to know if a movie
star or politician has had an extramarital affair. That is something of concern only to the people involved. We do
need to know if someone we're electing to public office has been involved in shady business deals, but we don't need
to know if he or she defaulted on a loan twenty years ago.
It seems the media dig up these facts without giving thoughtful consideration to what might happen. It has
an effect on the celebrity's family, especially the children. A celebrity's good name and credibility may be ruined
before he or she can prove that rumors are false. If a case goes to court, paying a lawyer can use up all their money.
Even if it doesn't come to that, they may find their career ruined.
When are we, the public, going to make it clear to the media that we're tired of having to watch this kind of
thing on the news? Wouldn't it be better if they would concentrate on more important issues?

15
KEYS – PRACTICE 50
I. (5pts) 1 point/correct answer. II. (5pts) 1 point/correct answer.
1. C 2. A 3. A 4. C 5. D 6. B 7. B 8. A 9. A 10. C

III. (10pts) 1 point/correct answer.


11. losed → lost 15. on → in 19. produce → produced
12. are → is 16. nature → natural 20. by → in
13. endanger → endangering 17. With → Without
14. so → such 18. Not → No

IV. (10pts) 1 point/correct answer.


21. B 22. D 23. D 24. D 25. D 26. C 27. D 28. B 29. C 30. C

V. (10pts) 1.5 point/correct answer.


31. C 32. B 33. C 34. A 35. B

VI. (10pts) 1 point/correct answer.


36. characteristic 39. racism 42. heritage 44. perception
37. separately 40. loyalty 43. disappearance 45. relative
38. unfamiliar 41. appreciation

VII. (15pts) 1 point/correct answer.


46. D 47. B 48. A 49. D 50. B 51. B 52. C 53. C 54. A 55. D

VIII. (10pts) 1 point/correct answer.


56. the 58. to 60. tip 62. have 64. while
57. which 59. into 61. of 63. the 65. those/ones

IX. (10pts) 1 point/correct answer.


66. D 67. B 68. B 69. D 70. A

X. (10pts) 2 points/correct answer.


71. → Not until John (had) received the offer of promotion in writing did he celebrate.
72. → Much as I admire her achievements, I don’t really like her.
73. → The accident is thought/ believed to have been caused by human error.
74. → There has been a dramatic increase in (the) house prices this year.
75. → This affair is no concern/business of yours.
76. → The final date for you to submit articles for the magazine is June 18th.
77. → Despite his (superior) strength Jimmy was (soon) overpowered by his attacker.
78. → Fancy seeing you here.
79. → I have no intention of apologizing to either of them.
80. → Not until (after) I (had) left home did I realize how much my father meant to me.
XI. (15pts) Students’ own answers
Content: accounts for 50% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 50% for the content,
the candidates should provide all main ideas and details as appropriate.
Language: accounts for 30% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 30% for language,
the candidates should use variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of
English language high school students.
Presentation: accounts for 20% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 20% for
presentation, the candidates should write with coherence, cohesion and can use appropriate
styles and linking devices
________THE END________

16
KEYS – PRACTICE 51
PART I: PRONUNCIATION
Mark the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation
1. A. forged B. appalled C.composed D. noticed
2. A. resort B. aisle C. hesitate D. desert
3. A. rough B. tough C. cough D. though
4: A. amuses B. purses C. blouses D. pleases
5. A. theatre B. bathing C. breathe D. southern
6. A. break B. meant C. breakfast D. head
7. A. admission B. decision C. revision D. provision
8. A. change B. hungry C. stronger D. Single
9.A. intention B. material C. mature D. Intensity
10. A. birthday B. mouth C. athletics D. gather
Mark the the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress
1. A. reasonable B. cigarette C. comfortable D. implement
2. A. validity B. tremendous C. flexible D. commercial
3. A. purchase B. ignorant C. tuition D. vigorous
4. A. overlook B. influential C. furniture D. oceanic
5: A. Success B. conflict C. author D. figure
6: A. surpass B. moment C. exchange D. Persuade
7. A. argumentative B. Psychological C. Contributory D. hypersensitive
8. A. sandals B. dental C. canal D. rental
9. A. familiar B. impatient C. uncertain D. arrogant
10. A. forgettable B. philosophy C. humanism D. objectively
PART I: LISTENING. (1,0 point; 0,1 point a correct answer)
You will hear a conversation at the customs in Gatwick Airport. As you listen, fill in the form below. (write
your answers in capital letters)
1. BUTCHER 2. ANTHONY 3. MALE 4. A STUDENT 5. 14 APRIL 1966
6. ITALIAN 7. TO STUDY 8. A BROTHER 9. 35 10. LONDON
ENGLISH

PART II: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR.


I. Choose the best option to complete each of the sentences. (2,0 points; 0,1 point a correct answer)
1. A 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. A 6. D 7. B 8. B 9. B 10. C
11. A 12. C 13. B 14. B 15. A 16. B 17. C 18. D 19. D 20. A

II. Read the passage below. Use the word given in bold to form a word that fits in the numbered gap. (1,0 point; 0,1 point
a correct answer)
1. misconception 2. venomous 3. comparison 4. fatalities 5. solitary
6. occurences 7. unpleasant 8. underestimated 9. precautions 10. resistant

III. Complete each sentence with the correct form of ONE of the two-word verbs. (1,0 point; 0,1 point a correct answer)
1. hung over 2. slow down 3. grew up 4. run for 5. doing up
6. go with 7. saving up 8. brought out 9. dress up 10. mixed up

IV. The passage below contains TEN mistakes. Underline them and write the correct forms in the numbered boxes. (1,0
point; 0,1 point a correct answer)
1. inhabit  inhabiting/which(that) inhabit 6. rise  to rise
2. hot  heat 7. degree  degrees
3. constantly  constant 8. unusual  unusually
4. try  trying 9. a  an
5. what  which 10. absorb  absorbed

PART III: READING COMPREHENSION.


I. Read the passage and fill in each of the blanks with ONE suitable word. (1,0 point; 0,1 point a correct answer)
1. into 2. might/may/can 3. terms 4. 5. at
regardless/irrespective
17
6. Being 7. rather 8. let 9. that/this 10. how

II. Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to each question. Write your answer in the
numbered box. (1,0 point; 0,1 point a correct answer)
1. A 2. D 3. A 4. A 5. C 6. B 7. A 8. D 9. D 10. B

PART IV. WRITING.


I. Complete each of the sentences so that it has similar meaning to the given one, using the words given (0,5
point; 0,1 point a correct answer)
1. We find it difficult to make ends meet these days.
2. Only when Alice and Charles had their second child, did they decide to move to a bigger house.
3. They accidentally cut off our water supplying while mending the road.
4. He needn't have brought the umbrella along (because it didn't rain anyway).
5. Despite my strong disapproval of your behaviour/ the fact that I strongly disapprove of your behaviour, I will
help you this time.

II. Use the word given in brackets and make any necessary additions to write a new sentence in such a way that
it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do NOT change the form of the given word(s).(1,0
point; 0,1 point a correct answer)
1. While I was driving, I realized that there was something wrong with the car.
2. Sandra said that she didn’t mind working late.
3. They acted as if they were enjoying themselves, but they weren’t really.
4. I can't lift this table unless you help me/ someone helps me.
5. It is believed that the coins were buried for safe-keeping.

III. Writing a topic. (1,0 point)


Correct form of essay - Contents: a provision of all main reasons and appropriate supporting ideas
writing and relevant examples (0,2 point)
(0,6 point) - Language: a variety of vocabulary and appropriate structures (0,2 point)
- Presentation: coherence, cohesion, and appropriate style (0,2 point)
Incorrect form of essay - Contents: a provision of all main reasons and appropriate supporting ideas
writing and relevant examples (0,2 point)
(0,4 point) - Language: a variety of vocabulary and appropriate structures (0,1 point)
- Presentation: coherence, cohesion, and appropriate style (0,2 point)

--------------------------HẾT--------------------------

18
KEYS – PRACTICE 52

PART A: PHONETICS (5 điểm – Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)


1.D 2.B 3.B 4.A 5.D
PART B: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR (45 điểm)
( Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm, riêng bài sửa lỗi, nếu tìm được lỗi mà sửa không đúng thì cho 0.5
điểm)
Question I.

6.B 7.C 8.A 9.C 10.D


11.D 12.B 13.D 14.B 15.B
16.A 17.A 18.C 19.D 20.C
Question II.
MISTAKES CORRECTIONS MISTAKES CORRECTIONS
21. had gone went 26. isn’t wasn’t
22. wants wanted 27. have broken had broken
23. has had 28. I she
24. what that 29. am was
25. your her 30. at about
Question III
31. be taught/ should be taught 36. will have moved
32. would not be. 37. did
33. being allowed 38. has not been upgraded
34. should have prepared 39 never thought
35. wounded 40. were going to bring/would bring

Question IV

41. uselessness 42. publicity 43. forerunners 44. deaden 45. centenarian
46. expectancy 47.decontaminating 48. overweight 49. satisfactory 50. romantically

PART C: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)


( Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
Question I

19
51.B 52.B 53.C 54.A 55.C
56.C 57.A 58.B 59.A 60.D
Question II.
61. how 62. put 63. deal 64. take 65. been
66. spent 67. a 68. grown 69. without 70. older
Question III.
71.A 72.C 73.A 74.C 75.D
76.B 77.A 78.C 79.C 80.C

PART D: WRITING (20 pts)


Question I (5 điểm- Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
81. You had better not tell anybody about the discovery.
82. The Prime Minister is thought to be considering raising taxes.
83. What really annoyed me was his refusal to listen to reason.
84. The company’s recruitment policy has been under review for the last three months.
85. Much as I like her voice, I don’t like her choice of songs.
Question II (5 điểm- Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
86. I am telling you this for fear that you might make a mistake.
87. It would be better if you didn't stay long at the party.
88. I've changed my mind about this matter.
89. I intend to make a written complaint to the council.
90. She came up to their expectations.
Question III. Essay: (10 điểm)
Marking criteria:
+ Task completion (4 điểm)
Tuỳ theo khả năng hoàn thành về bố cục và những yêu cầu nội dung cho mỗi phần ( mở bài,thân
bài,kết luận) giám khảo có thể chấm từ 1-4 điểm.
+ Grammatical accuracy and spelling 3 điểm: bài viết không có lỗi chính tả và từ ba lỗi ngữ
pháp trở xuống được cho 3 điểm tối đa. Cứ 4 lỗi chính tả hoặc ngữ pháp trừ 1 điểm (Trừ không quá
3 điểm).
- Coherence and cohesion (tính mạch lạc và sự liên kết câu, đoạn) – 3 điểm:
Tùy mức độ mạch lạc, liên kết câu, liên kết đoạn của bài viết, giám khảo có thể chấm 1-3 điểm.
B- HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM:
Bài thi chấm theo thang điểm: 20
Điểm bài thi làm tròn đến 0,25
Tổng số point thí sinh làm đúng
Điểm bài thi = ---------------------------------------
5
20
KEYS ENGLISH PRACTICE 53
PART I – PRONUNCIATION
Mark the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation
1. A. purpose B. consumer C. comprise D. collapse
2. A. battle B. magic C. nag D. dismayed
3. A. sound B. doubt C. Count D. Would
4. A. honest B. home C. vehicles D. heiress
5. A. apple B. absent C. applicant D. Any
6: A. confine B. conceal C. convention D. concentrate
7. A. four B. journey C. pour D. Your
8 A. fool B. bamboo C. food D. flood
9. A. worked B. laughed C. hoped D. naked
10: A. measure B. pleasure C. ensure D. leisure
Mark the the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress
1. A. Commit B. index C. preview D. open
2. A. enrichment B. advantage C. sovereignty. D. edition
3: A. innocent B. nevertheless C. contents D. supermarket
4. A. forgettable B. philosophy C. humanism D. objectively
5: A. inaccurate B. pupivorous C. profitable D. reiterate
6: A. bibliophile B. inheritance C. illustrate D. judicature
7. A. dangerous B. conspicuous C. marvelous D. numerous
8. A. pioneer B. engineer C. reindeer D. referee
9: A. sociable B. vacancy C. opponent D. habitat
10: A. discourage B. document C. general D. politics

PART III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (25 POINTS)


I. Read the sentences carefully and choose the best answers to make complete ones. (10pts)
1.A 2. C 3. D 4. B 5. C
6. B 7. B 8. C 9. B 10. C
11. B 12. D 13. A 14. C 15. B
16. D 17. C 18. B 19. A 20. A

II. Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word. (10 pts)
1. breathtaking 2. settlers 3. 4. consistent 5. legendary
lifetime

6. reality 7. 8. unparalleled 9. caring 10. committed


picturesque

III. Complete the following sentences with one appropriate preposition for each blank. (5pts)
1. in 2. under 3. to 4. out 5. on
6. out 7. at 8. in 9. off 10. for

PART IV. READING (30POINTS)


I. Read the text & decide which word best fits each space by choosing A, B, C or D. (10pts)
1. A 2. C 3. D 4. B 5. A
6. B 7. A 8. A 9. C. 10. F
In any order from question 8 to 10
II. Fill in each blank space with an appropriate word. (10pts)

1. edge 2. sound 3. by 4. with 5. but


6. least 7. satisfy/meet 8. together/along 9. well 10. place

III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer. (10pts)
21
1. B 2. A 3. D 4. D 5. C
6.C 7. A 8. D 9. D 10. B

PART V. WRITING (25 POINTS)


I. Finish each of the sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. (5 pts)
1. I wish I had ability to speak French.
2. The rain was coming down in torrents.
3. You should have asked me/ for permission….
4. This record used to be a favourite of mine when I was younger.
5. It’s difficult for my sister to put up with commuting every day.
6. The North Sea is nothing like as warm as the Mediterranean.
7. Christ insisted on having a mushroom topping when he ate a pizza.
8. My father talked me into learning another language.
9. Hard as/ though Sam tried, he couldn’t bring her round (to his way of thinking.
10. On his arrival at the airport, he was given a warm welcome by his family
II. Write an essay to give your opinion on the following topic. (20 points)
Some people believe that history has little to tell us. Other people believe that people must have knowledge of history in
order to understand the present.
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience.
Write at least 250 words.

The impression mark given is based on the following scheme:


1. Content: 50% of total mark: a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate
2. Language: 30% of total mark: a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language
gifted upper-secondary school students
3. Presentation: 20% of total mark: coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level of English language gifted
upper-secondary school students.

22
KEYS – PRACTICE 54

Total mark: 20
The mark given is based on the following scheme:
PART ANSWERS MARK
PART I: Choose the word 1. C 0.1 p
PHONETICS: whose stress pattern 2. A 0.1 p
(1,0 point) is different from that 3. B 0.1 p
of the other words in 4. A 0.1 p
the same group. 5. B 0.1 p
6. A 0.1 p
7. A 0.1 p
8. A 0.1 p
9. B 0.1 p
10. C 0.1 p
PART II: I. Choose the best 1. A 0.1 p
LEXICO- answer to fill in each 2. C 0.1 p
GRAMMAR gap. (1,0 point) 3. C 0.1 p
(7,5 points) 4. B 0.1 p
5. C 0.1 p
6. C 0.1 p
7. D 0.1 p
8. B 0.1 p
9. A 0.1 p
10. D 0.1 p
II. Give the correct 1. to be awarded 0.1 p
tenses 2. Convinced 0.1 p
of the verbs in 3. have … been doing 0.1 p
brackets. (1,0 point) 4. inviting/having invited 0.1 p
5. would have got/would have gotten 0.1 p
III. Put the correct 1. completely 0.2 p
form of the words in 2. noticeable 0.2 p
brackets. (2,0 points) 3. unexpected 0.2 p
4. hardship 0.2 p
5. hurtful 0.2 p
6. realistic 0.2 p
7. accordance 0.2 p
8. extraordinary 0.2 p
9. inaccuracies 0.2 p
10. inexperienced 0.2 p
IV. Find out and 1. B  given to 0.2 p
correct the mistake 2. C  have been working 0.2 p
in each sentence. 3. C  was made 0.2 p
(2,0 points) 4. D  broken into 0.2 p
5. B  our son on 0.2 p
6. D  looking for 0.2 p
7. A  Now that/Because/As/Since 0.2 p
8. D  hearing 0.2 p
23
9. A  As much as 0.2 p
10. C  associated with 0.2 p
V. Complete these 1. got on/gets on 0.2 p
sentences with 2. came down 0.2 p
proper prepositions. 3. was brought up 0.2 p
(2,0 points) 4. went out/had gone out 0.2 p
5. makes up 0.2 p
6. caring for 0.2 p
7. fell through 0.2 p
8. put off 0.2 p
9. laid off 0.2 p
10. draw up 0.2 p
PART III: I. Read the passage 1. D 0.2 p
READING: (6,0 below 2. B 0.2 p
points) and decide which 3. A 0.2 p
answer (A, B, C 4. C 0.2 p
or D) best fits each 5. D 0.2 p
gap. (2,0 points) 6. B 0.2 p
7. C 0.2 p
8. A 0.2 p
9. D 0.2 p
10. B 0.2 p
II. Read the passage, 1. C 0.2 p
then choose the 2. D 0.2 p
correct options. (2,0 3. D 0.2 p
points) 4. C 0.2 p
5. D 0.2 p
6. C 0.2 p
7. C 0.2 p
8. C 0.2 p
9. C 0.2 p
10. B 0.1 p
III. Read the 1. obeying 0.2 p
passage and fill in 2. adults/people 0.2 p
each blank with 3. after 0.2 p
ONE suitable 4. teaching/instructing 0.2 p
word. (2,0 points) 5. ride 0.2 p
6. road 0.2 p
7. include 0.2 p
8. always 0.2 p
9. reduce 0.2 p
10. helmets 0.2 p
PART IV: I. Rewrite each 1. Don't forget to check for spelling mistakes before you 0.2 p
WRITING: (5,5 of the sentences hand in your composition.
points) without changing its 2. Jack’s success has turned him into a confident person. 0.2 p
meaning, using the 3. There will be a meeting organized by Green Peace at 0.2 p
the Town Hall next Tuesday.
cue given. (2,0
4. You are better at describing people than I am. 0.2 p
points)
5. I wasn't early enough to see her. 0.2 p
6. All dogs are thought to have evolved from wolves. 0.2 p

24
7. I hadn’t expected him to be so easy to talk to. 0.2 p
8. Everyone enjoyed the party apart from/except 0.2 p
(for)/with the exception of Adrian
9. At no time were they aware that something was 0.2 p
wrong.
10. Is it usual for shops to stay open so late in this 0.2 p
country?
II. Rewrite each 1. I don’t know how you can put up with getting up so 0.2 p
of the sentences early to go to the pool.
without changing its 2. There is / are hardly any difference(s) between these 0.2 p
two makes of computer.
meanings. (1,0 point)
3. Do you think climate has/can have an/some influence 0.2 p
on people’s personalities?
4. He never has/doesn’t have trouble earning money. 0.2 p
5. I’ve finally got round to sorting out my postcard 0.2 p
collection.
III. Write an essay 1. Content: 1.0 p
(250 - 300 words) to a. Providing main ideas and details. (summarizing the
express your information, reporting the main features, and make
opinion. (2,5 points) comparisons where relevant)
b. Communicating intentions sufficiently and effectively.
2. Organization and presentation:
a. Ideas are well-organized and presented with 0.5 p
coherence, cohesion, and clarity.
b. The paragraph is well-structured.
3. Language:
a. Variety of appropriate vocabulary and structures. 0.75 p
b. Good use of grammatical structures.
4. Handwriting, punctuation, and spelling:
a. Intelligible handwriting. 0.25 p
b. Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes.
Markers should discuss the suggested answers and the marking scale thoroughly
and add more answers possible before marking the papers.

25
26
KEYS – PRACTICE 55
ANSWER KEY

I. Câu 01-05: Chọn từ (ứng với A, B, C hoặc D) có phần gạch dưới được phát âm khác với những từ còn lại
trong mỗi câu.

01. A. eliminate B. equal C. elaborate D. ejection


02. A. carriage B. dosage C. massage D. voyage
03. A. suit B. bruise C. suite D. fruit
04. A. calculate B. populate C. contemplate D. fortunate
05. A. apprehension B. division C. precision D. measure

II. Câu 06-10: Chọn từ (ứng với A, B, C hoặc D) có trọng âm chính nhấn vào âm tiết có vị trí khác với những
từ còn lại trong mỗi câu.

06. A. ignorant B. decisive C. horizon D. museum


07. A. suffice B. product C nuclear D. province
08. A. neurosis B. nocturnal C nominate D. nostalgia
09. A. psychological B. contributory C argumentative D. hypersensitive
10. A. crescendo B. attorney C. compromise D. endeavor

III. Câu 11-20: Đọc đoạn văn sau và chọn phướng án đúng nhất (ứng với A, B, C hoặc D) cho mỗi câu hỏi.

(1) On the night of September 2, 1666, a fire broke out in a baker's shop near Fish Street Hill in London. Before the
flames were finally extinguished, nearty the entreaty had been reduced to ashes. Over thirteen thousand homes, fifty
churches and numerous public buildings and hospitals were lost in the blaze. For all practical purposes, London was
destroyed.
(5) The Great Fire was not seen as a total tragedy, however. The deplorable conditions of the city had been attacked
by physicians and humanitarians for years before the fire; thus, with the opportunity dearly presented to create a
shining new dty, artists and craftsmen from all over England hurried to submit their designs for the rebuilding of
London.
Among those who submitted plans was Sir Christopher Wren, one of England's leading architects and the
(10) Surveyor of London. The task of rebuilding the city was given to him. Wren realized that the Great Fire would
not have been so damaging if the city had been better laid out: broader streets were needed to replace the crooked,
narrow alleys overhung with dilapidated wooden houses and shops. He also felt that redesigning the main
thoroughfares of London would result in increased and more effective transportation within the city.
Shortly after Wren began working on his first drafts for the rebuilding. King Charles I issued a proclamation (15)
prohibiting the construction of any house or shop within the city limits until after the plans were completed. When
the plans were unveiled to the citizens of London, however, they were overwhelmingly rejected. The most vocal
leaders of the opposition were the landlords, who feared that such a drastic widening of the streets would reduce the
amount of land available for development.
(20) Winter was approaching; consequently, it was necessary for the rebuilding to proceed at once. Permission was,
therefore, granted for the townspeople and landlords to commence reconstruction of their houses and shops at the
sites where they had been before the fire. Had the need for immediate action not been so pressing, some kind of
compromise could likely have been reached. This was not to be, however, and the ideas that could (25) have made
London one of the world's most beautiful cities never came to pass.

11 The probable meaning of “reduced to ashes” (line 2) is ..........


A. made unbearably hot B. discolored by the fire and smote
C. covered with ashes D. destroyed by fire
12. Which of the followings was probably among the deplorable conditions of the city?
A. lack of adequate lightning
B. the rough streets and alleys
C. the run-down condition of many houses and shops
27
D. all of the above
13. What did Sir Christopher Wren describe as the reason for the damage of the city?
A. the configuration B. the construction C. the landscape D. the pathway
14. The word thoroughfares (line 13) refers to..........
A. public buildings B. streets C. alleys D. houses and shops
15. The word proclamation (line 14) refers to..........
A. promulgation B. speech C. request D. law
16. The word unveiled (line 16) refers to..........
A. concealed B. disclosed C. obscured D. edipsed
17. What became of the plans for the rebuilding of London?
A. Nothing - they were never finished.
B. They were adopted in modified form.
C. They were followed and London was rebuilt at once.
D. Nothing - London was rebuilt as it had been before the fire.
18. To whom or what does they (line 23) refer to..........?
A. the original building sites B. the townspeople
C. the burned-down houses and shops D. the landlords
19. Which of the following describes the author's probable attitude toward Sir Christopher Wren's plans?
A. He feels it would have been a mistake to rebuild London according to Wren's designs.
B. He feels it was a mistake for London not to have been rebuilt according to Wren's designs.
C. He feels that someone rather than Wren should have been chosen to plan the rebuilding.
D. He feels that Wren's ideas had much more influence than commonly acknowledged.
20. Which of the following would be an appropriate title for the passage?
A. "The Life and Times of Sir Christopher Wren"
B. "The Rebuilding of London"
C. "The Holocaust of Fish Street Hill"
D. "The London That Might Have Been"

IV. Câu 21-30: Đọc đoạn văn sau và chọn phương án đúng nhất (ứng với A, B, C hoặc D) cho mỗi chỗ trống.
Smart Shoes

Smart shoes that adjust their size throughout the day could soon be available. A prototype has already been
produced and a commercial (21).....may be in production within a few years. The shoe contains sensors that
constantly check the amount of room left in it. If the foot has become too large, a tiny valve opens and the shoe
(22).....slightly. The entire control system is about 5mm square and is located inside the shoe. This radical shoe
(23).....a need because the volume of the (24)...... foot can change by as much as 8% during the course of the day.
The system is able to learn about the wearer's feet and (25)......up a picture of the size of his or her feet throughout
the day. It will allow the shoes to change in size by up to 8% so that they always fit (26)....... They are obviously
more comfortable and less likely to cause blisters. From an athlete's point of view, they can help improve (27)......a
little, and that is why the first (28).....for the system is likely to be in a sports shoe. Eventually, this system will find
a (29)......In many other household items, from beds that automatically change to fit the person sleeping in them, to
power tools that (30)......themselves to the user's hand for better grip.

21. A. assortment B. version C. style D. variety


22. A. amplifies B. develops C. expands D. increases
23. A. detects B. finds C. meets D. faces
24. A. average B. general C. usual D. medium
25. A. build B. pick C. grow D. set
26. A. exactly B. absolutely C. completely D. totally
27. A. achievement B. performance C. success D. winning
28. A. purpose B. exercise C. use D. operation
29. A. function B. part C. way D. place
30. A. shape B. change C. respond D. convert

28
V. Câu 31-40: Chọn từ/ cụm từ thích hợp nhất (ứng với A, B, C hoặc D) để hoàn thành mỗi câu sau.

31. Save your money. Don't.......it too quickly.


A. go through B. die down C. hold on D. touch on
32. They all have to follow the rules, and none of them is.......the law.
A. over B. beyond C. above D. onto
33. They.......the aid of the United States but did not receive it.
A. asked B. found C. sought D. obtained
34. The police spokesman said he was.......to believe that the arrested man was the serial killer they had been looking
for.
A. inclined B. seemed C. suspected D. supposed
35. I'm.......my brother is.
A. nowhere near as ambitious as B. nothing near as ambitious as
C. nowhere like so ambitious as D. nothing as ambitious as
36. He says he might come, but I........
A. doubt B. doubt it C. doubt so D. doubt about it
37. I'm sure your bank manager will lend you a.......ear when you explain the situation to him.
A. merciful B. sympathetic C. pitiful D. compassionate
38. Have you seen the girl.......?
A. that I told B. I told you of C. whom I told you D. I told you of her
39. Children usually.......a flu much more quickly than adults.
A. pick up B. pick at C. pick on D. pick out
40. The accident.......was the mistake of the driver.
A. causing many people to die B. caused great human loss
C. to cause many people die D. which causes many people to die

VI. Câu 41-50: Sử dụng từ trong ngoặc ở dạng thích hợp nhất để điền vào các chỗ trống.

Shadow puppetry is a traditional art form that often goes (41. appreciate).......in modem times. A large part of the
(42. appealable).......of puppet shows is the (43. craft).......behind the creation of the actual puppets. In shadow
puppetry, on the other hand, the puppets remain (44. see)......., so the real artistry is in the presentation. The
combination of the puppets’ shape, the background screen, and the light itself creates the overall effect of the shadow
puppet show. The task of the director is to ensure these elements are working together (45. harmony).......in order
to produce the optimal experience for the audience. The screen is the medium through which the audience
experiences the performance, so selecting the best screen is among great (46. essential)........ One unique challenge
for the director is that the presentation is two-dimensional. The screen is flat, so puppets can only move forwards
and backwards. Having chosen a screen and designed the set, the next step is to determine the light that will be used.
There are several factors to be considered: (47. intense)......., spread, and angle. Therefore, finding the optimal (48.
combine).......of light, shadow involves careful (49. plan)......and scrupulous design. Every detail must be controlled
in relation to others, making shadow puppetry an art of (50. precise).......
41. appreciated 42. appeal 43. craftiness 44. unseen 45. harmoniously
46. essentials 47. intensity 48. combination 49. planning 50. precision

VII. Câu 51-60: Tìm từ thích hợp nhất để điền vào chỗ trống trong đoạn văn. Mỗi chỗ trống chỉ điền MỘT
từ.

Son Doong Cave is in the heart of Phong Nha Ke Bang National Park in Quang Binh province of Central Vietnam.
Only recently (51).........in 2009-2010 by the British Cave Research Association, the cave has only been open to the
(52).........since 2013.
Fewer people have seen the inside of Son Doong Cave than have stood on the summit of Mount Everest. Join us
on this otherworldly expedition and become one of the lucky few (53)......... have had the life changing experience
29
of exploring the world's largest cave.
Imagine trekking straight into the (54).........of the world's largest cave on an expedition unlike any other. A cave
is (55).........massive that a Boeing 747 could fly through its largest cavern. Foreign landscapes found (56) .........
else, enormous stalagmites rising from the ground and statuesque stalactites hanging from the celling like an alien
species. Jungles emerge (57).........the cave itself, which is so surreal that it's worth seeing once. Misty clouds envelop
the whole scene, a result of the cave's own localised weather system. Passages adorned (58).........ancient fossils offer
evidence of the millions of years that have passed on this Earth.
As you approach the Jungle just outside the entrance, the (59) .......... of cool wind that cascades out brings to life
everything inside of you. Hazy, cold and exhilarating, it is apparent that there's (60)..........magical waiting just
beyond the opening to the cave.
51. discovered 52. public 53. that / who 54. heart /centre 55. so 56. nowhere
57. outside 58. with 59. current / blowing 60. more

VIII Câu 61-70: Sử dụng từ cho sẵn trong ngoặc và các từ khác để hoàn thành câu thứ hai sao cho ý nghĩa
của nó tương tự như câu thứ nhất. Chỉ được viết từ 2 đến 5 từ vào Phiếu Trả Lời và không được thay đổi
dạng thức của từ cho sẵn.

61. Mary cried her eyes out just after she was told she'd been rejected for the Job. (broke)
Mary...............................as soon as she heard she'd been rejected for the job. broke down
62. I never thought that I would win the lottery. (occurred)
It never.................................................that I would win the lottery. occurred to me
63. I failed to make him understand that I didnt want to see him anymore. (across)
I failed........................................that I didnt want to see him anymore. put it across
64. Would you give us your answer as soon as possible? (convenience)
Please reply................................................................... at your convenience
65. I'm so sorry, I didn't realise it was so late. (track)
Sorry, I..................................................................time. didn’t follow the track of (time)
66. Everyone who spoke to the victim is a suspect. (under)
Everyone who spoke to the victim................................................... is under suspicion
67. She will probably be chosen for the beauty contest. (stands)
She.........................................................chosen for the beauty contest. stands a chance of being
68. "Can you tell me what happened yesterday, John?" She asked (account)
She asked John.....................................what had happened the day before. to account for
69. Those two makes of car are practically the same. (hardly)
There are...................................................those two makes of car. hardly any differences between
70. There is no way that I can meet you tomorrow. (question)
Meeting you tomorrow........................................................... is out of the question

IX. Câu 71-80: Viết lại các câu theo gợi ý (kể cả những từ bắt đầu câu cho sẵn) vào Phiếu Trả Lời sao cho ý
nghĩa ban đầu của câu không thay đổi.

71. It's sad, but the crime rate is unlikely to go down this year.
Sad as it is, the crime rate is unlikely to go down this year.
72. You must concentrate on your study more.
You must apply yourself with your study.
73. It has been nearly one year since they stopped subscribing to that magazine.
They cancelled subscribing to that magazine nearly a year ago.
74. I don't feel like going to the party.
I am not in the mood for going to the party.
75. "Please don't run so fast!" Suzy begged her friend.
Suzy pleaded with her friend not to run so fast.
76. You should not only balance your diet but also do sports.
In addition to balancing your diet, you should do sports.
77. Immediately after their arrival, the meeting was delayed.
30
Barely had they arrived when the meeting was delayed.
78. If you don’t pay on time, your booking will be cancelled.
Failure to pay on time will cancel your booking.
79. David is proud of the fact that he is never late.
David prides himself on being never late.
80. It’s nobody's fault that the meeting was cancelled.
Nobody is to blame for the meeting being cancelled / for the cancel of the meeting.

X. Câu 81: Viết một ĐOẠN VĂN khoảng 120 - 150 từ, sử dụng lập luận và dẫn chứng cụ thể để bình luận về
chủ đề sau.

To be admitted to university, using the result of study during high school years is better than that of the university
entrance examination. Do you agree or disagree?

The End

31
KEYS – PRACTICE 56
I. (5pts) 1 point/correct answer.
1. B 2. B 3. D 4. B 5. D

II. 15pts: 1pt/ item


6. B 7. A 8. B 9. A 10. C 11. D 12. A 13. A 14. C 15. A
16. D 17. D 18. A 19. B 20. C

III. 10pts: 1 point/correct answer.


21. biosphere 23. countless 25. consumption 27. biodiversity 29. totally
22. stabilization 24. dwellers 26. infrastructure 28. hardwood 30. Remainder

IV. 5pts: 1 point/correct answer.


31. D 32. B 33. D 34. D 35. D

V. 10pts: 1 point/correct answer.


36. Is → Does 39. most → more 42. is → are 44. Made → Make
37. feeling → feel 40. possibly → possible 43. confidently → 45. opportunities →
38. real → really 41. provides → provide confident opportunity

VI. 15pts: 1 point/correct answer.


46. C 47. D 48. A 49. B 50. A 51. B 52. C 53. C 54. D 55. A

VII. 15pts: 1 point/correct answer.


56. channel 58. areas 60. broadcast 62. mixture 64. music
57. born 59. began/ started 61. audience 63. English 65. called

VIII. 15pts: 1 point/correct answer.


66. B 67. A 68. C 69. A 70. D 71. C 72. B 73. B 74. A 75. B

IX. (10pts) 1 point/correct answer.


71. → Rather than disturb the meeting, I left without saying goodbye.
72. → In few other books would one see this problem so well- explained.
73. → I object to people criticizing me unfairly.
74. → Robert now wishes (that) he had taken/accepted the job.
75. → If I hadn’t lost my passport last week, I wouldn’t have been having so much trouble now.
→ The police caught him (as he was) climbing over the garden wall.
76. → Sad though/as it is, unemployment is unlikely to go down this year.
77. → The man is believed to have escaped in a stolen car.
78. → Having nothing else to do, we decided to go for a walk.
79. → She flatly refused to sleep in that haunted house.
80.
(15pts) Students’ own answers
X.
Content: accounts for 50% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 50% for the content,
the candidates should provide all main ideas and details as appropriate.
Language: accounts for 30% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 30% for language,
the candidates should use variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of
English language high school students.
Presentation: accounts for 20% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 20% for
presentation, the candidates should write with coherence, cohesion and can use appropriate
styles and linking devices
________THE END________

32
KEYS – PRACTICE 57
Mỗi câu đúng = 1 điểm
Part A
I. 1A, 2A, 3C, 4C, 5B
II. 1D, 2C, 3B,4A , 5C
Part B
I. 1D 2B 3B 4A 5D 6D 7A 8B 9C 10B11C12C13B14A15A
II.
1. hasn’t finished 6. be sent/ should be sent
2. is 7. having been appointed (being appointed)
3. will be interviewing 8. will have finished
4. should have prepared 9. hadn’t left
5. would have been 10. arrives
III.
1. breathlessly 2. boredom 3. unpolluted 4. exceptionally 5. speech
6. alive 7. enjoyably 8. acquaintances 9. economically 10. unaccompanied
IV. (tìm ra lỗi được 0.5đ, sửa lại đúng được 0.5 đ)
1. too – so 2. knew – had known 3. found – founded
4. experience – experienced 5. interested - been interested
6. calmly – calm 7. that – what 8. at – on
9. putting – put 10. pay – paid
Part C
I. 1B 2C 3A 4B 5D 6A 7B 8B 9C 10A
II. 1 from 2 on 3 make 4 only/just 5 the
6 or 7 call 8 other 9 of 10like
III. 1A 2C 3D 4D 5B 6D 7D 8D 9D 10C
Part D
1. Not only did he fail in his exam but (he) also had a road accident
2. It was such an interesting book that people couldn’t put it down
3. No sooner had they left home than it started to rain
4. It’s about time you had your hair cut/ a haircut/ you had someone cut your hair
5. Not until he came into light did I recognize him
6. Had it not been for the attendance of a famous film star, the party would not have been a success
7. I was the last person to know/ hear about the accident
8. I’d rather you left your shoes outside
9. The rail workers have no intention of calling off their strike.
10. One of our windows was found to have been broken
II. 1. I have difficulty (in) reading his handwriting
2. The flood prevented me from going to work
3. I don’t believe whatever he says
4. He’d rather drink tea than (drink) coffee
5. This/ It is the most sarcastic essay that I have ever read

33
KEY – PRACTICE 58
I. (5pts) 1 pt/correct answer. II. (5pts) 1 pt/correct answer.
1. C 2. D 3. C 4. D 5. A 6. D 7. C 8. D 9. B 10. A

III. (10pts) 1 pt/correct answer.


11. only had it 14. good/ use grumbling/ 17. frightened/ scared to
12. had been complaining about 18. rumbling
13. did him no/ did not 15. people parking 19. under the
(seem to) do him any 16. without 20. afford to have them

IV. (5pts) 1 pt/correct answer.


21. C 22. D 23. B 24. D 25. D

V. (10pts) 1 pt/correct answer.


26. advertisement 28. surprisingly 30. twice 32. linguistically 34. dreadful
27. seaside 29. standby 31. poorly 33. farther/ further 35. useless

VI. (10pts) 1 pt/correct answer.


36. B 37. D 38. C 39. B 40. B 41. A 42. B 43. C 44. B 45. C

VII. (10pts) 1 pt/correct answer.


46. A 47. B 48. D 49. D 50. A 51. C 52. B 53. B 54. C 55. C

VIII. (10pts) 1 pt/correct answer.


56. wrong 58. other/ some 60. example/ instance 62. of 64. Thanks
57. which 59. by 61. fact 63. out 65. whether/ if

IX. (10pts) 1 pt/correct answer.


66. A 67. C 68. C 69. B 70. B 71. D 72. D 73. B 74. B 75. B

X. (5pts) 1 point/correct answer.


76. → You should take the price into consideration before you decide whether to buy it or not.
77. → There isn’t much call for cars with large engines any more.
78. → The coal produced in this region has been halved in the 20 years.
79. → The likelihood is small of the PM calling an early general election.
80. → The policeman’s prompt action averted an accident.

XI. (5pts) 1 point/correct answer.


81. → If it hadn’t been for my father’s money, we could not have managed.
82. → There has been a dramatic rise/increase in the house prices this year.
83. → They stole everything except for/but/apart from the television.
84. → He tried in vain to search for the stolen car.
85. → No sooner had the guests left than she started to clean up the house.

XII. (15pts) Students’ own answers


Content: accounts for 50% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 50% for the content,
the candidates should provide all main ideas and details as appropriate.
Language: accounts for 30% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 30% for language,
the candidates should use variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of
English language high school students.
Presentation: accounts for 20% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 20% for
presentation, the candidates should write with coherence, cohesion and can use appropriate
styles and linking devices
___________THE END__________

34
KEYS - ENGLISH PRACTICE 59

I. (5pts) 1 point/correct answer. II. (5pts) 1 point/correct answer.


1. C 2. A 3. A 4. C 5. D 6. B 7. B 8. A 9. A 10. C

III. (10pts) 1 point/correct answer.


11. losed → lost 15. on → in 19. produce → produced
12. are → is 16. nature → natural 20. by → in
13. endanger → endangering 17. With → Without
14. so → such 18. Not → No

IV. (10pts) 1 point/correct answer.


21. B 22. D 23. D 24. D 25. D 26. C 27. D 28. B 29. C 30. C

V. (10pts) 1.5 point/correct answer.


31. C 32. B 33. C 34. A 35. B

VI. (10pts) 1 point/correct answer.


36. characteristic 39. racism 42. heritage 44. perception
37. separately 40. loyalty 43. disappearance 45. relative
38. unfamiliar 41. appreciation

VII. (15pts) 1 point/correct answer.


46. D 47. B 48. A 49. D 50. B 51. B 52. C 53. C 54. A 55. D

VIII. (10pts) 1 point/correct answer.


56. the 58. to 60. tip 62. have 64. while
57. which 59. into 61. of 63. the 65. those/ones

IX. (10pts) 1 point/correct answer.


66. D 67. B 68. B 69. D 70. A

X. (10pts) 2 points/correct answer.


71. → Not until John (had) received the offer of promotion in writing did he celebrate.
72. → Much as I admire her achievements, I don’t really like her.
73. → The accident is thought/ believed to have been caused by human error.
74. → There has been a dramatic increase in (the) house prices this year.
75. → This affair is no concern/business of yours.
76. → The final date for you to submit articles for the magazine is June 18th.
77. → Despite his (superior) strength Jimmy was (soon) overpowered by his attacker.
78. → Fancy seeing you here.
79. → I have no intention of apologizing to either of them.
80. → Not until (after) I (had) left home did I realize how much my father meant to me.
XI. (15pts) Students’ own answers
Content: accounts for 50% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 50% for the content,
the candidates should provide all main ideas and details as appropriate.
Language: accounts for 30% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 30% for language,
the candidates should use variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of
English language high school students.
Presentation: accounts for 20% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 20% for
presentation, the candidates should write with coherence, cohesion and can use appropriate
styles and linking devices
________THE END________

35
KEYS - ENGLISH PRACTICE 60
I. (5pts) 1 point/correct answer.
1. B 2. B 3. D 4. B 5. D

II. 15pts: 1pt/ item


6. B 7. A 8. B 9. A 10. C 11. D 12. A 13. A 14. C 15. A
16. D 17. D 18. A 19. B 20. C

III. 10pts: 1 point/correct answer.


21. biosphere 23. countless 25. consumption 27. biodiversity 29. totally
22. stabilization 24. dwellers 26. infrastructure 28. hardwood 30. Remainder

IV. 5pts: 1 point/correct answer.


31. D 32. B 33. D 34. D 35. D

V. 10pts: 1 point/correct answer.


36. Is → Does 39. most → more 42. is → are 44. Made → Make
37. feeling → feel 40. possibly → possible 43. confidently → 45. opportunities →
38. real → really 41. provides → provide confident opportunity

VI. 15pts: 1 point/correct answer.


46. C 47. D 48. A 49. B 50. A 51. B 52. C 53. C 54. D 55. A

VII. 15pts: 1 point/correct answer.


56. channel 58. areas 60. broadcast 62. mixture 64. music
57. born 59. began/ started 61. audience 63. English 65. called

VIII. 15pts: 1 point/correct answer.


66. B 67. A 68. C 69. A 70. D 71. C 72. B 73. B 74. A 75. B

IX. (10pts) 1 point/correct answer.


71. → Rather than disturb the meeting, I left without saying goodbye.
72. → In few other books would one see this problem so well- explained.
73. → I object to people criticizing me unfairly.
74. → Robert now wishes (that) he had taken/accepted the job.
75. → If I hadn’t lost my passport last week, I wouldn’t have been having so much trouble now.
→ The police caught him (as he was) climbing over the garden wall.
76. → Sad though/as it is, unemployment is unlikely to go down this year.
77. → The man is believed to have escaped in a stolen car.
78. → Having nothing else to do, we decided to go for a walk.
79. → She flatly refused to sleep in that haunted house.
80.
(15pts) Students’ own answers
X.
Content: accounts for 50% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 50% for the content,
the candidates should provide all main ideas and details as appropriate.
Language: accounts for 30% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 30% for language,
the candidates should use variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of
English language high school students.
Presentation: accounts for 20% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 20% for
presentation, the candidates should write with coherence, cohesion and can use appropriate
styles and linking devices
________THE END________

36
KEYS – PRACTICE 61
A. PHONETICS (1.0 point)
Question I. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others by
circling A, B, C or D. (0.5 p)
1. A. breathe B. with C. southern D. thorough
2. A. naked B. coughed C. hatred D. sacred
3. A. . cease B. chase C. increase D. raise
4. A. pleasure B. desert C. resort D. position
5. A. negotiation B. think C. invent D. enlarge

Question II. Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling A, B, C or D.
(0.5 p)
1. A. assassinated B. international C. preferential D. differentiate
2. A. repudiate B. habitual C. entrench D. hormone
3. A. discipline B. commodity C. affectionate D. behave
4. A. certificate B. appreciate C. apologize D. classify
5. A. strategies B. positively C. anonymity D. neighborhood

B. GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURES


Question I: Choose the best word from A, B, C, and D that fits each blank. (2p)
1. You look tired. Are you …………the weather?
A. on B. in C. under D. off
2. I showed the painting to an expert who …… it at about £500.
A. cost B. estimated C. assigned D. valued
3. He is very ill, and the doctors are not sure whether he will …… it through the night.
A. last B. survive C. endure D. make
4. She .......... modern art. She visits all the local exhibitions.
A. looks down on B. goes in for C. fixes up with D. comes up against
5. He did not share his secrets with many people, but he__________ in her.
A. confessed B. concealed C. consented D. confided
6. Of course I’ll play the piano at the party but I’m a little _______.
A. out of use B. out of reach C. out of turn D. out of practice
7 This museum has more visitors than ________ any other in the world.
A. really B. practically C. actually D. utterly
8. Her married name is Dawson, but Graham is her............. name.
A. maiden B. childish C. girlish D. virgin
9. The case for an increase in spending on education has been proved beyond the ________of doubt.
A. shadow B. hesitation C. suspicion D. shade
10. Her article on diet ______ many people into changing their eating habits.
A. surprised B. amazed C. startled D. shocked
11. This cloth ______ very thin.
A. feels B. touches C. holds D. handles
12. The upper levels of the Sun’s atmosphere are of very low ..................heats the gases there to be very high temperatures.
A. dense and solar B. density, solar activity
C. density, but solar activity D. density and activity of the Sun is
13. I don’t want to burden my daughter with my problems; she’s got too much ………………..
A. up her sleeve B. in her mind C. in effect D. on her plate (choáng thời gian, công sức)
14. My English is progressing …………………………
A. leaps and bounds B. bounds and leaps C. odds and ends D. ends and odds
15. When John was arrested for drunken driving, he expected to lose his driving license, but he was …………with a fine.
A. let through B. let off C. let out D. let down
16. She relies ……………………on her parents for financial support.

37
A. profusely B. amply C. heavily D. severely
17. It goes ………………saying that you’ll be paid for all this extra time you’re spending on the project.
A. for B. like C. with C. without
18. Unfortunately, I might have to leave for Boston …………….
A. for short notice B. under short notice C. at short notice D. to short notice
19. In spite of the fact that there is much written about Charlemagne, ……………………..
A. his character and personality are hard to visualize
B. is difficult to discover his character and personality
C. picturing his personality and character are hard things
D. you can’t figure out his personality and character
20. it’s all the same …………..me whether we go to Nha Trang or Vung Tau.
A. for B. on C. to D. as
Question II: Give the correct tense and form of the verb to fit each gap. (1points)
1. Everyone’s future depends on the whole world ………being concerned……….. (concern) about the ozone layer.
2. The sunlight …COMING……( come ) through the window ……WAKES……( wake ) me up early every morning.
3. His personal problems seem …TO HAVE BEEN DISTRACTING………….( distract ) him from his work lately.
4. He suggested that a final decision …BE MADE…………..( make )
5. It is necessary that the train …BE…………( be ) on time.
6. The eaten breakfast was still on the table. She ………MUST HAVE BEEN CALLED…….( call) away in a hurry.
7. His …………BEING TAKEN…………….(take) ill was quite unexpected.
8. She was breathing fast and deep, s if she ……HAD BEEN RUNNING……………………….(RUN).
9. According to yesterday’s newspapers, astronomers in Australia ………HAVE
DISCOVERED…………………..(discover) a planet in a galaxy close to our own.

Your answers:
1……………… 2…………….. 3…………… 4……………..5……………..

6……………… 7……………… 8…………… 9………….. 10……………

Question III: Use the correct form of the word in capitals to fit each gap. (1 points)

38
1. It was thanks to the ……DEDICATION……………..of the medical staff that she recovered from her injuries.
(DEDICATE)
2. …ALARMINGLY………………the hole in the ozone layer has doubled in size this year. ( ALARM )
3. It’s ……HEARTWARMING……………..to see the friendship and enthusiasm these kids display on the sports field. (
HEART )
4. The fans’ bad behavior has resulted in the ……DISQUALIFICATION……of their football teem from the championship.(
QUALITY )
5 John works completely independently – he is ……ANSWERABLE………..to nobody but himself. ( ANSWER )
6. She runs so …EFFORTLESSLY…………as if it’s the easiest things in the world. ( EFFORT )
7. Thanks to the operation my ……SIGHT………..has improved considerably. I hope that after the next one I won’t have to
wear glasses at all. ( SEE )
8. The English term café, borrowed from French, is ultimately a ……DERIVATION…………….of the Turkish kahve,
meaning coffee. ( DERIVE )
9. Cats are not considered to be social animals in the sense that they have never …HABITUALLY……………..travelled in
packs or adopted leaders. ( HABIT )
10. I was overcome with great ……BITTERNESS………………….when my invitation was rejected by most of my friends.
( BITTER )

Your answers:
1……………… 2…………….. 3…………… 4……………..5…………….

6……………… 7……………… 8…………… 9………….. 10…………..


Question IV: There are ten errors in the passage. Find and correct them. The first one has done as an example.
(1 points)

The big majority of students who make well in the 1. …vast…


Cambridge Proficiency Examination have learnt to use a 2. do well………
Good monolingual dictionary effectively. Such
Dictionaries provide informations, not just about the 3. …information………
Missings for the words but about their pronunciation and 4. …learns …………
grammar as well. A student who studies how to use a
dictionary effectively will be able to work independently 5. …into……..
for much of the time, and will gain considerable insight 6. … confirm…………
to the workings of the English language. He or she will
be able to confirm to the meanings for the words in a text 7. …… meanings of
where contextual clues are insufficient, pronounce words 8. ……phonetic……..
accurately by studying the phonological transcriptions,
9. ……make room for……
And use words accurately both when speaking and
Writing. Make sure you make the room for at least one 10. ……on……..
Good monolingual dictionary on your bookshelf- and
then make sure you use it at a regular basis!

B. READING
Question I: Read the following passage and circle the letter preceding the correct answer (A, B, C, or D)
which best fits each gap. (1pt)
In this age of ( 1) ................telephone networks and electronic mail, it seems that fewer and even fewer people are
taking time to sit down and write letters (2) .................friends and relatives. For hundreds of years, letters were the only way
to keep (3) ..................people who were any distance away and letter-writing was seen as an important skill for all learned
people (4) .................
Gradually, (5) ................., the importance of writing letters is decreasing to a point that majority of us have to
(6).....................a special effort to turn out something worthwhile when we apply for a job or make a complaint. In business
circles the tendency is for routine communications to become shorter. (7) ....................clients may appreciate a detailed letter,
an employee who sends out long letters is often regarded as (8) ................... Many people prefer the telephone in all
circumstances and its speed is essential in many situations but (9) ......................have you put the telephone down, dissatisfied
with what you have managed to say? I don’t think I’ll throw my (10) ...................away yet.

39
1. A. progressive B. advanced C. highly-developed D. all are correct
2. A. to B. from C. for D. with
3. A. in step with B. in contact with C. in good terms with D. in favour of
4. A. to be mastered B. mastering C. to master D. mastered
5. A. therefore B. however C. in short D. for example
6. A. make B. do C. cause D. create
7. A. even though B. as though C. despite D. however
8. A. unimportant B. inefficient C. unusual D. impossible
9. A. how often B. how long C. how much D. how about
10. A. letter B. telephone C. pen D. effort
Question II: Read the text below and choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D). (1 points)
The adage that “a woman’s place is in the home” no longer applies to the dauntless ladies in space. The first woman
in space was a Soviet who orbited the earth with a male companion in 1963 and landed unscathed after a three-day
sojourn aboard a spacecraft. Seemingly, it was inevitable that another Soviet woman would repeat her feat. The
second woman in space was Svetlana Savitskaya, a parachutist and test pilot, who served as researcher aboard Soviet
Soyuz T-7, which had a rendezvous with Salyut 7, the space station in which the longest manned orbital flight was
completed.
Ms. Savitskaya’s aptitude for space travel was patent in her past experience in aviation. Holder of several women’s
records in aviation, she had flown sundry types of aircraft and made over 500 parachute jumps. Her father was a
Soviet Air Force Marshal, and her husband a pilot. Without a qualm she boarded the spacecraft with her commander,
Lieutenant Colonel Leonid Popov, and another rookie astronaut who was the flight engineer.
Soviet authorities announced that they were looking forward to gaining further information about “weaker sex” ,
so-called in the Soviet newspaper Tass, under the stressful conditions of space travel. Sex, however, is not considered
n impediment but rather a benefit in space, for the Soviet have lauded women for their precision and accuracy in
carrying out experiments.
As planned, the American put their first woman in space in mid-1983. Sally Ride was their choice. Ms. Ride joined
the NASA program with five other women and thirty men to train as astronauts in the space shuttle program. She
faces an epoch when space travel will no longer be a glamorous adventure but rather a commonplace day’s work.
1. The word “rookie” is closest in meaning to
A. well-known B. novice C. experienced D. practicing
2. You can infer that women have been included in the space program as a result of
A. public outcry B. their husbands
C. their qualifications D. their ability of working under stress
3. Soviet authorities apparently think that men and women are
A. equal B. different C. weaker D. inevitable
4. The Soviet Salyut 7 was
A. joined by Solyut T-7 B. manned by a woman
C. an experiment D. a training craft
5. Ms. Savitskaya was chosen to travel into space because
A. her father was in the Soviet Air Force and her husband was a pilot
B. She was dauntless
C. her ability to endure stress and her precision in doing experiments
D. She was experienced in aviation
6. How did you know whether the statement “Ms. Savitskaya showed no fear of space travel” is true or false?
A. It was stated B. It was implied C. No information was given D. It was invented
7. From the use of the term “weaker sex”, you can infer that the Soviets
A. think that Soviet women are not strong
B. entertain a bias against women
C. think that Soviet men are better than women
D. question the women’s movement
8. The word “lauded” is closest in meaning to
A. recruited B. promoted C. evaluated D. praised
9. An American woman has traveled
A. to the moon B. to NASA C. in the space shuttle D. with the Soviets
10. Space travel will soon be
A. glamorous B. adventuresome C. an everyday experience D. a lot of work

40
Question III. Read the passage and choose the best answer from the four options marked A, B, C or D in the following
questions. Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet. (1 pts)
Birds that feed in flocks commonly retire together into roosts. The reasons for roosting communally are not always
obvious, but there are some likely benefits. In winter especially, it is important for birds to keep warm at night and
conserve precious food reserves. One way to do this is to find a sheltered roost. Solitary roosters shelter in dense vegetation
or enter a cavity – horned larks dig holes in the ground and ptarmigan burrow into snow banks – but the effect of sheltering
is magnified by several birds huddling together in the roosts, as wrens, swifts, brown creepers, bluebirds, and anis do.
Body contact reduces the surface area exposed to the cold air, so the birds keep each other warm. Two kinglets huddling
together were found to reduce their heat losses by a quarter, and three together saved a third of their heat.
The second possible benefit of communal roosts is that they act as "information centers." During the day, parties of
birds will have spread out to forage over a very large area. When they return in the evening some will have fed well, but
others may have found little to eat. Some investigators have observed that when the birds set out again next morning,
those birds that did not feed well on the previous day appear to follow those that did. The behavior of common and lesser
kestrels may illustrate different feeding behaviors of similar birds with different roosting habits. The common kestrel
hunts vertebrate animals in a small, familiar hunting ground, whereas the very similar lesser kestrel feeds on insects over
a large area. The common kestrel roosts and hunts alone, but the lesser kestrel roosts and hunts in flocks, possibly so one
bird can learn from others where to find insect swarms.
Finally, there is safety in numbers at communal roosts since there will always be a few birds awake at any given
moment to give the alarm. But this increased protection is partially counteracted by the fact that mass roosts attract
predators and are especially vulnerable if they are on the ground. Even those in trees can be attacked by birds of prey. The
birds on the edge are at greatest risk since predators find it easier to catch small birds perching at the margins of the roost.

11. What does the passage mainly discuss?


A. How birds find and store food B. How birds maintain body heat in the winter
C. Why birds need to establish territory D. Why some species of birds nest together
12. The word "conserve" in line 3 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. retain B. watch C. locate D. share
13. Ptarmigan keep warm in the winter by ________.
A. huddling together on the ground with other birds B. building nests in trees
C. burrowing into dense patches of vegetation D. digging tunnels into the snow
14. The word "magnified" in line 6 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. caused B. modified C. intensified D. combined
15. The author mentions kinglets in line 9 as an example of birds that
A. protect themselves by nesting in holes B. nest with other species of birds
C. nest together for warmth D. usually feed and nest in pairs
16. The word "forage" in line 12 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. fly B. assemble C. feed D. rest
17. Which of the following statements about lesser and common kestrels is true?
A. The lesser kestrel and the common kestrel have similar diets.
B. The lesser kestrel feeds sociably but the common kestrel does not.
C. The common kestrel nests in larger flocks than does the lesser kestrel.
D. The common kestrel nests in trees; the lesser kestrel nests on the ground.
18. The word "counteracted" in line 23 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. suggested B. negated C. measured D. shielded
19. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as an advantage derived by birds that huddle together while
sleeping?
A. Some members of the flock warn others of impending dangers.
B. Staying together provides a greater amount of heat for the whole flock.
C. Some birds in the flock function as information centers for others who are looking for food.
D. Several members of the flock care for the young.
20. Which of the following is a disadvantage of communal roosts that is mentioned in the passage?
A. Diseases easily spread among the birds.
B. Groups are more attractive to predators than individual birds are.
C. Food supplies are quickly depleted.
D. Some birds in the group will attack the others.

C. WRITING
Question I: Rewrite these sentences so that the new one has a similar meaning as the sentence preceded. (3 points)
1. There is nobody in this office that will offer a different opinion to the one I gave you.

41
 Whoever …YOU ASK IN THIS OFFICE WILL SAY THE SAME AS I DID…………
2. Further progress was impossible because of the floods.
 The floods …MADE FURTHER PROGRESS IMPOSSIBLE…………
3. Helen won’t be happy till she gets a full refund.
Nothing ………OTHER THAN A FULL REFUND WILL SATISFY HELEN……………………….
4. We were elated by the bird of our first grandchild.
We ……WERE OVER THE MOON WHEN OUR FIRST GRANDCHILD WAS BORN…………..
5. Being her only niece, Ann is very precious to her. APPLE
…… Being her only niece , ANN IS THE APPLE OF HER EYE……
6. Mary got the wrong end of the stick.
Mary ………MISUNDERSTOOD SOMETHING……………….
7. It was assumed that Roy would marry that old rich lady.
 People took ……IT FOR GRANTED THAT ROY WOULD MARRY THAT OLD RICH LADY……….
8. The sole survivor of the plane crash was Mary peters.
 Mary Peters was ……THE ONLY PASSENGER NOT KILLED IN THE PLANE CRASH………….
9. The number of people who understand his ideas exceeds his expectations.
 More ……PEOPLE UNDERSTAND HIM THAN HE EXPECTS……
10. The truth only came out on the publication of the general’s personal diaries.
 Only when ……THE GENERAL’S PERSONAL DIARIES WERE PUBLISHED DID THE TRUTH COME OUT
Question II: Do not change the given word, use it to write each of the following sentences so that each has a similar
meaning as the original one. (3 points)
1. The young actress was very nervous before the audition. (BUTTERFLIES)
 ……THE YOUNG ACTRESS HAD BUTTERFLIES IN HER STOMACH BEFORE THE AUDITION.
2. She has become a famous novelist. ( NAME )
 …SHE MADE A NAME FOR HERSELF AS A NOVELIST…………
3. Not a word came out of her mouth. ( LOST )
 …SHE WAS LOST FOR WORDS………………………………
4. Your attitude will have to change if you want to succeed. ( LEAF )
 …YOU’LL HAVE TO TURN OVER A NEW LEAF IF YOU WANT TO SUCCEED………
5. Could you come on Saturday? SUIT
How ……DOES COMING ON SATURDAY SUIT YOU?…………………..
6. We really loved to have a chance to visit the Colosseum but we couldn’t. (FOOT)
 We would sooner ……HAVE HAD A CHANCE TO SET FOOT ON/ IN THE Colosseum ………..
7. The committee had a long discussion but they could not make up their mind. (REACH)
 Lengthy ……AS/THOUGH THEIR DISCUSSION WAS / MIGHT BE, THE COMMITTEE COULDN’T REACH
ANY/A DECISION………………….
8. The best solution was thought of by Peter. ( CAME )
 ……PETER CAME UP WITH THE BEST SOLUTION………………………
9. I think you misunderstood, Kevin. ( STICK )
 I think you must ………HAVE GOT THE WRONG END OF THE STICK, KEVIN………
10. I hardly think she will agree to giving you a pay rise. ( LIKELIHOOD )
 ……THERE’S LITTLE LIKELIHOOD OF HER GIVING/ THAT SHE WILL AGREE TO GIVE YOU A PAY
RISE………..
42
THE END

43
KEYS - ENGLISH PRACTICE 62

I. PRONUNCIATION
Mark the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation
1. A. malaria B. eradicate C. character D. Spectacular
2: A. particular B. superstar C. part D. harvest
3: A. thread B. breath C. break D. Tread
4: A. shown B. flown C. grown D. crown
5. A. complexion B. examination C. exaggerate D. exhibit
6. A. bushes B. wishes C. researches D. headaches
7. A. debt B. climbing C. timber D. lamb
8. A. break B. steak C. great D. bread
9 .A. confusion B. tension C. seizure D. measure
10. A. Foot B. school C. book D. good
Mark the the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress
1: A. Innocent B. nevertheless C. contents D. supermarket
2. A. consignation B. abnormality C. supplementary D. confidence
3: A. obligatory B. geographical C. international D. undergraduate
4. A. consignation B. abnormality C. supplementary D. confidence
5: A. institution B. university C. preferential D. indicative
6: A. colloquial B. however C. collision D. fellowship
7. A. salamander B. sanatorium C. sanitarium D. saturation
8. A. refugee B. decisive C. catastrophe D. committee
9. A. Magazine B. returnee C. misfortune D. monomania
10. A. purview B. promptitude C. property D. profound

II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (25 pts)


Exercise 1. (10pts: 0.5 pt/each correct answer)
1. C 2. B 3. B 4. C 5. D
6. B 7. A 8. D 9. A 10. A
11. C 12. A 13. B 14. A 15. B
16. B 17. A 18. C 19. C 20. C

Exercise 2. Each sentence below contains 1 mistake. IDENTIFY the mistakes and WRITE THEIR CORRECT
FORMS. (10pts: 0.5 pt/each correct finding + 0.5 pt/each correction)
1. the second → a second 6. signature → signing
2. and (intricate) → an (intricate) 7. to investigate → investigating
3. is functioned → functions 8. for → in
4. presenter → representative 9. reciprocates → reciprocate
5. promised → promising 10. personnel → personal

Exercise 3. (5 pts: 0.5 pt/each correct answer)


1. beneficial 2. presentation 3. noticeable 4. speech 5. orally
6. professional 7. impression 8. responses 9. revisit 10. unease

III. READING (30pts)


44
Exercise 1. (10pts: 1 pt/each correct answer)
1. B 2. C 3. C 4. A 5. D
6. C 7. D 8. B 9. A 10. D

Exercise 2. (10pts: 1 pt/each correct answer)


1. wrong 2. which 3. others/ some 4. by 5. example/ instance
6. fact 7. of 8. out 9. Thanks 10. whether/ if

Exercise 3. (10pts: 1 pt/each correct answer)


1.B 2.C 3. B 4. B 5. C
6. A 7. A 8. B 9. D 10. B

IV. WRITING (25 pts)


Exercise 1. (10pts: 1 pt/each correct answer)
1. Should you have any complaint about the product, return it to the shop.
2. I cancelled my subscription/ subscibing to that magazine nine months ago.
3. Never had she expected she was so successful.
4. The more proficient he was at the game, the more he was fond of it.
5. The operation left Simon feeling weaker than he (had) expected.
6. He must have recognized us at the airport.
7. Not until the journalists arrived at the airport did they hear about the changes to the wedding plans.
8. Helen’s boss criticized her for not doing her work more carefully.
9. It has been suggested that the parking fees (should) be raised.
10. The blue dress is three times as much/ expensive as that one.

Exercise 2. (15 pts)


Sometimes tourists may damage tourist sites.
Explain what some of the negative effects may be. Suggest some solutions to this problem.
Marking scheme
The impression mark given is based on the following scheme:
Task achievement (25 % of total mark)
Coherence and cohesion (25 % of total mark)
Grammar range and Accuracy (25 % of total mark)
Lexical resource (25 % of total mark)

45
KEYS – PRACTICE 63

PART I. PHONETICS
Choose the word whose stress pattern is differently from those of the other words. (5pts)
1. D 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. C

PART II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR


I. Read the sentences carefully and choose the best answers to make complete ones. (10pts)
1. B 2. D 3. B 4. B 5. C
6. D 7. C 8. D 9. B 10. A

II. The passage below contains 5 errors. IDENTIFY and CORRECT them. (0) has been done as an example. (5pts)
1. visiting --> to visit 2. no --> not 3. their --> its
4. had swept --> had been swept 5. previous --> previously

III. Fill in each blank with a suitable PREPOSITION or PARTICLE. (5pts)


1. off 2. from 3. of 4. to 5. into

IV. Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word. (5pts)


1. chaotic 2. indispensable 3. disregarding 4. underestimated 5. differentiate

PART III. READING


I. Fill in each blank space with an appropriate word. (15pts)
1. who 2. what 3. at 4. in 5. with
6. ability 7. to 8. on 9. overcome 10. his

II. Read the following text carefully and choose the answer which best fits each space. (5pts)
1. A 2. C 3. B 4. D 5. A

III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer. (10pts)
1. D 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. A
6. B 7. D 8. D 9. B 10. A

PART IV. WRITING


I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. (5pts)
1. was robbed of her hand bag.
2. is based on a true story.
3. your test completed/ finished and you can go home.
4. a full bonus would satisfy the employee.
5. denied causing/having caused harm to anybody.

II. There is a fact that a number of parents now increasingly desire to send their children to study overseas. What are
the reasons for this trend? You should write a paragraph of about 100 words on this topic. (15pt)
Marking scheme
The impression mark given is based on the following scheme:
4. Content: 50% of total mark: a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate.
5. Language: 30% of total mark: a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language
gifted upper-secondary school students.
6. Presentation: 20% of total mark: coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level of English language gifted
upper-secondary school students.

------THE END ------

46
KEYS – PRACTICE 64
Question 1:
a. 1.A 2.D 3.B
b. 4.B 5.D

Question 2:
1.B 2.D 3. B 4. C 5.D 6. B 7. D
8.D 9. A 10.C 11. B 12.C 13.A 14. B 15.B

Question 3:
1. are always grumbling 5. borrowing, had asked
2.have reached 6. has been called off
3.convinced, were trying 7. will have been digging
4. needn't have borrowed 8. to be left (being left)

Question 4:
1. spacious 6. impersonal
2. comparatively 7.advertising
3.payment 8. outspoken
4.commemorates 9.unexpectedly
5.loan 10. provincialism

Question 5:
1.C 2. D 3A 4. B 5.D
6. B 7. A 8. B 9.A 10.C
Question 6:
1.of 2. after 3. becomes 4. perform 5.easily
6. at 7. unless 8. difficulty 9. which 10. lose

Question 7:
1.A 2.C 3.B 4.A 5.B
6.C 7.C 8.A 9.D 10.B
Question 8:
1. at -> to 6.wiper-> wipers
2. thief -> theft 7. to apologize -> apologizing
3. left -> leaving 8. itself -> himself
4. brought -> had been brought 9. car -> cars
5.common -> usual 10.anything ->something

Question 9:
a.
1. After these young men had been trained for five years, they became engineers
2. The last thing you should do is to phone the police.
3. Had it not been for the goalkeeper, we would have lost the match.
4. There is no quicker way than this to get into the city.
5. The soup powder just needs boiling water added to it according to the instructions
b.
1. She has always dreamt of writing a successful novel.
2. I met her during my stay in Paris last summer
3. If you had followed my instructions,you wouldn't have got lost.
4. I won't tip the waiter unless he's quick.
5. Our neighbour says he is definitely keeping the ball.

47
Question 10:
- Đảm bảo cấu trúc viết Writing Argument Essay

Structures

Introduction:
- Introducing the topic.
- Giving background information and Narrowing the topic.
- Giving your point of view and mentioning the main areas covered in the essay.
Body:
- Reason 1 (with 2 supporting ideas).
- Reason 2 (with 2 supporting ideas).
- Reason 3 (with 2 supporting ideas).
Conclusion:
- Restate your point of view.
- Summary is required.

Vì bài viết chỉ yêu cầu viết khoảng 200 từ nên ta chỉ lấy ý chính để viết. Còn dưới đây là bài viết chi tiết.

A. INTRODUCTION:
*Introducing the topic
- Đầu tiên, chúng ta cần xác định Chủ đề của đề bài là gì? Theo đàu bài “The changes computers have on
our lives”. Như vậy, câu đầu tiên ta có thể viết:

 The changes computers have on our lives has become a source of controversy over the years.
 Without a doubt, computers have changed the way people live.

* Giving background information and Narrowing the topic


- Ở đây, bạn giới hạn lại topic đã đưa ra (The changes computers have on our lives). Hướng giới hạn ở đây
ta dựa vào đề bài: This change has improved the way people live. Đó là sự đánh giá (tốt, xấu, tích cực, tiêu cực)
về những thay đổi mà máy tính tạo nên cho đời sống con người. Như vậy, đề bài sẽ được giới hạn về vấn
đề “Evaluating the quality of those changes”

Từ đó, câu văn tiếp theo có thể là:

 Evaluating the quality of those changes is less clear and is subject to individual opinions and attitudes.
 People have many different ways of evaluationg these changes.

* Giving your point of view and mentioning the main areas covered in the essay
Ở đây, đưa ra quan điểm của mình, tức là hoặc đồng ý, hoặc không đồng ý, hoặc chỉ một phần đồng ý. Ở đây có
lẽ cách chọn khôn ngoan nhất là “partly agree/disagree”. Tức là chỉ đồng ý/không đồng ý một phần, vì rõ ràng tác
động của máy tính lên đời sống con người vừa có những mặt tích cực vừa có những mặt tiêu cực.

48
Với đề bài này, ta sẽ chọn cách tiếp cận đó là: Sự tác động của máy tính chủ yếu là tích cực; tuy nhiên cũng có
một số vấn đề đáng quan tâm. Từ đó, câu văn cuối cùng của mở bài có thể là:

“Based on my experiences and observations, I think that, on the balance, computers have improved most
people’s lives; however, the benefits should be seen in light of a few substantial problems”
Tuy nhiên, nếu bạn chọn hướng thứ hai: Máy tính chủ yếu tác động tiêu cực lên cuộc sống con người; tuy
nhiên, cũng có những tác động tích cực cần chú ý, ta có thể viết:

“Based on my experiences and observations, I think that, on the balance, computers have harm most people’s
lives; however, the drawbacks should be seen in light of a few substantial benefit”

- Linking words: on the balance, however.

- Expressions for giving your point of view: Based on my experiences and observations, I think that.

- Cautious language: should be seen.

- Synonyms: problems and drawbacks.

- Antonyms: improve and harm.

- Phrases like “in light of”

Như vậy, ta đã có một mở bài hoàn chỉnh:

Without a doubt, computers have changed the way people live. Evaluating the quality of those changes is less
clear and is subject to individual opinions and attitudes. Based on my experiences and observations, I think
that, on the balance, computers have improved most people’s lives; however, the benefits should be seen in
light of a few substantial problems.

B. BODY:

Sau đây là ba đoạn văn trong phần thân bài. Đoạn một và hai nói về những tác động tích cực, đoạn ba nói về tác
động tiêu cực.

First Body Paragraph:


(Topic sentence) To begin with, computers have substantially improved people’s lives. (Supporting Idea
1)Needless to say, increased access to information is one of the most evident ways computers have changed the
way we live. (Example: From work, to hobbies, to learning about world events and scientific advancements, the
Internet has given people immediate access to information that was previously difficult or even impossible to get).
(Expanding: With more and better information, we can make smarter decisions.) (Supporting Idea 2)
Another beneficial change to people’s lives that can be directly attributed to computers is that of better
communication technologies. (Example: These include the most personal exchanges carried out via email or
instant messaging, to the most complex communication satellite systems that allow us to watch a World Cup game
live from the other side of the world.)

Second Body Paragraph:

49
(Topic sentence) Moreover, on top of these advances in our ability to obtain information and communicate,
computers facilitate everyday business, transactions and government conferencing. (Expanding 1: People
nowadays can do business online, which saves them a lot of time and money.) (Example 1: Online systems allow
people to do their banking, pay the bills, and even buy a new wardrobe without having to leave home or even
putting pen to paper).(Expanding 2: Similarly, goverment conferencing can take place online with no need to travel
long distances to attend meetings). (Example 2: This form of meeting is becoming more and more popular in many
countries.) (Concluding) Thus, since the advent of computers, people’s lives have changed a lot in a positive way.

Third body paragraph:


(Topic sentence) Some observers might say this all sounds great, yet there are downsides to the computer
revolution that lessen some of the appeal of these benefits, if only slightly. (Supporting idea 1) The most prominent
is physical problems. (Expanding 1: If people spend so much time at their computers, they do not get enough
exercise, which can lead to numerous health problems). (Supporting idea 2) Psychollogically , with too much time
spent sitting in front of computers, they do not develop healthy interpersonal skills. (Example 2: Increases
in depression and violence are two visible effects of this problem.)

C. CONCLUSION:
(Summary) It is far from clear where the changes computers have brought to our lives will eventually take us. Like
all new technology, computers bring mixed blessings to peole’s everyday lives. (Opinion) At present, I believe the
benefitsoutweigh the negative consequences.

50
KEYS – PRACTICE 65
I. PHONETICS: 1/20 points
Part 1: (5 x 0.1 = 0.5)
1. B 2. A 3. C 4. C 5. B
Part 2: (5 x 0.1 = 0.5)
6. D 7. B 8. A 9. A 10. D
II. LEXICO – GRAMMAR: 6/20 points
Part 1: (20 x 0.05 = 1)
11. B 12. B 13. A 14. A 15. D
16. A 17. C 18. D 19. D 20. C
21. A 22. C 23. B 24. D 25. C
26. A 27. D 28. B 29. B 30. A
Part 2: (10 x 0.1 = 1)
31. value → valuable 36. terror → terrified
32. fright → frightened 37. low → lowered
33. long → length 38. repeat → repeatedly
34. world – worldwide 39. embarrass → embarrassment
35. tight → tightened 40. high → heights
Part 3: (10 x 0.1 = 1)
41. acquiring → acquired 46. vocation → vocational
42. explicitness → explicitly 47. like → as
43. few → a few 48. assumption → assume
44. and → to 49. certainly → certain
45. but → to 50. intention → intended
Part 4: (10 x 0.1 = 1)
51. up 52. in 53. out 54. off 55. in
56. on 57. against 58. in 59. out 60. up
Part 5: (10 x 0.1 = 1)
61. get by 62. going through 63. take after 64. slip up 65. turned down
66. put out 67. carry on 68. get down 69. try out 70. look up
Part 6: (10 x 0.1 = 1)
71. a 72. the 73. a 74. the 75. the
76. a 77. an 78. a 79. the 80. Ø
III. READING COMPREHENSION: 4/20 points
Part 1: (10 x 0.1 = 1)
81. B 82. C 83. C 84. A 85. D
86. C 87. D 88. B 89. A 90. D
Part 2: (10 x 0.1 = 1)
91. whether 92. put 93. in 94. union 95. free
96. but 97. enable 98. most 99. make 100. of
Part 3: (10 x 0.2 = 2)
101. A 102. B 103. C 104. D 105. C
106. A 107. C 108. B 109. D 110. B
IV. WRITING: 6/20 points
Part 1: (5 x 0.2 = 1)
111. An increased number of travellers is being stopped by customs officials this week.
112. Rather than disturb the meeting, I left without saying goodbye.
113. The moment I decided to get up to dance, the band decided to stop playing.
114. At no time did he suspect that the bicycle had been stolen.
115. Other than to offer to lend her some money, how could I help?
Part 2: (5 x 0.2 = 1)
116. his achievements are unsurpassed. 117. pulled a face as he swallowed.
118. will take longer than originally planned, which is. 119. whetted my appetite for the rest of.
120. not to drive for fear of.

51
KEYS – PRACTICE 66
Question 1: a- Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others: (5 pts)
1. A. health B. bread C. appear D. heavy
2. A. sugar B. since C. storm D. symptom
3. A. arrived B. experienced C. failed D. discovered
4. A. pronounce B. round C. sound D. pour
5. A. walls B. rewards C. sticks D. spectators
b- Choose the words with the different stress pattern from the others: (5 pts)
1. A. basketball B. wonderful C. education D. trustworthy
2. A. surround B. restrict C. remove D. manual
3. A. planet B. affect C. annoy D. excuse
4. A. famous B. climate C. language D. attend
5. A. extensive B. decorate C. distinguish D. acquaintance
Question 2: Put the verbs given in brackets into their appropriate tense or form; (10 pts)
1. It is imperative that the letter (send)_ be sent _ at once.
2. By this time tomorrow, we (travel) will have traveled __ to Nha Trang.
3. Up to now , we (complete)_ have completed _ four tests.
4. The students (punish)_ punished __ yesterday is my brother .
5. I think the play (perform)_ is being performed __ now.
6. I didn’t do the test well. I (prepare)_ should have prepared_ it very carefully at home.
7. It has been suggested that the government (assist) _ assist_the poor in improving their
living condition.
8. By the time he__became__ (become) heavy weight boxing champion, he __ had won (win) over thirty fights.
9. He looked frightened as if he _ had seen_ (see) a ghost.
Question 3: Supply the correct forms of the words in the capital letters (10 pts)
1. Their _ friendship _has lasted a life time. FRIEND
2. Everyone has a number of __accquaintances__but none has many true friends. ACCQUAINT
3. Cats are supposed to have nice _lives_. LIVE
4. The evening was __ enjoyably _spent playing and talking . ENJOY
5. The cost of _ carriage __must be paid by the buyer . CARRY
6. After his illness , he started worrying that he was _underweight__. WEIGH
7. He lives in an attractive_ residential __ part of Sydney RESIDE
8. We must learn about keeping the environment _unpolluted_. POLLUTE
9. He finds it difficult to accept _ criticism _from others. CRITICISE
10. The film is entertaining but full of historical__ inaccuracies __. ACCURATE
Question 4: fill in the blank with a suitable preposition (10 pts)
1. He has been ill __with_ flu for a week .
2. I’m __ against _ any having more meetings.
3. She will remain here __for_ the rest of the day.
4. A good friend always stand for you when you are __in_ trouble.
5. Jim managed to climb into the house __by_ means _of_ a ladder he found.
6. I’d like to thank you, ___on__ behalf _of__ everyone who was rescued .
7. Julia has nothing _in_ common _with__ Bill, they are quite different.
Question 5 :Fill in each numbered blank one missing word. (10 pts)
Speech is one of the most important __1 ways __ of communicating. It consists of far more than just making noises. To
talk and also to be __2 understood _ by other people, we have to speak a language, that is , we have to use combinations of
__3 sounds _ that everyone agrees stand for particular object or idea. Communication would be impossible if everyone
made up their own language.
Learning a language properly is very __4 important _ The basic __5 vocabulary _ of English is not very large, and only
about 2000 words are needed to speak it quite __6 well _ But the more words you know, the more idea you can_7 express
__ and the more precise you can be about their exact meaning.
Words are the __8 main__ thing we use in communicating what we want to say. The way we _9 say__ the words is also
very important. Our tone of voice can express many emotions
and _10 show__ whether we are pleased or angry, for instance.
Question 6: Choose the most suitable word given for each space in the text. (15 pts)
Have you ever asked yourself what you are working for? If you have ever had the time to (1)_ __ this taboo question,
or put it to others in moment of weakness or confidentiality, you (2)_ _ well have heard some or all of the (3)_ __ It’s the
52
money of course, some say with a smile, as if explaining something to a small child. Or it’s the satisfaction of (4)_ _ well done,
the sense of achievement behind the clinching of an important (5)_ _. I worked as a bus conductor once, and I can’t say I (6)_
__ the same as I staggered along the swaying gangway trying to (7)____ out tickets without falling over into someone’s lap.
It’s the company of other people perhaps, but if that is the (8)____ , what about farmers? it is the conservation in the
farmyard that keeps them captivated by the job? Work is power and a sense of status say those (9)____ have either attained
these elusive goals, or feel aggrieved that nobody has yet recognized their leadership (10)____ Or we can blame it all on
someone else, the family or the taxman. I suspect, and say this under my (11)_____., that most of us work rather as Mr.
Micawber lived, hoping for something to (12)___ up. We’ll win the pools, and tell the boss what we really think. We’ll scrape
together the (13)____ and open that little shop we always dreamed of, or go (14)____ the world, or spend more time in the
garden. Once day we’ll get that (15)____ we deserve, but until then at least we have something to do. And we are so busy
doing it that we won’t have time to wonder why.
1. A. propose B. meditate C. consider D. launch
2. A. might B. can C. will D. should
3. A. below B. rest C. following D. latter
4. A. a work B. a job C. a task D. an effort
5. A. deal B. position C. job D. engagement
6. A. enjoyed B. wished C. hoped D. felt
7. A. make B. turn C. issue D. give
8. A. one B. case C. question D. former
9. A. people B. must C. who D. to
10. A. qualities B. status C. property D. requirements
11. A. oath B. suspicion C. breath D. pressure
12. A. move B. turn C. ease D. end
13. A. resources B. opportunities C. rest D. money
14. A. round B. over C. into D. to
15. A. ambition B. station C. vocation D. promotion
Question 7: Fill each space with a suitable phrase from the list (a-k) below. (10 pts)
(The first is done for you: 1-b)
Linda: I want to go to a sports club. Black’s is good __1 b. would you like to_ come too? __2- d. Do you like_ sports?
Julia: Oh yes, __3- f. I like _ squash, for example. But really, __4- e. I prefer_ sports which you can do
outdoors. What about you, __5- a. do you like_ outdoor sports?
Linda: I__6- j. enjoy _ most sports, but __7- g. my favorite is _ tennis.
Julia: What sports can we do at Black’s ?
Linda: They offer a good range. And there is a swimming pool .But it’s rather far away.
Julia: What about Forest’s? That’s nearer. And they have lots of tennis courts.
Linda: __8- h. I’d rather _ go to a club with a swimming pool.
Julia : But we’d have to catch a bus to Black’s.
Kida: Well, __9_ c. what do you want to do _?
Julia: (10)_ i. I’m not sure_.You decide.
Linda: OK, __10__ to go to Black’s . But _11- k. I’d prefer _ to pay your bus fare!
Question 8: Read the passage carefully then choose the best answer (A, B, C or D). (5 pts)
During the last 400 years, most scientists have relied on mathematics for the development of their inventions or
discoveries. However, one great British scientist, Michael Faraday, did not make use of mathematics. Faraday, the son of a
poor blacksmith, was born in London in 1791 and had no education beyond reading and writing.
In 1812, Faraday was hired as a bottle washer by the great chemist Humphrey Davy. Later, Faraday became a
greater scientist than Davy, making the last years of Davy’s life embittered with jealousy.
Faraday made the first electric motor in 1821, a device that used electricity to produce movement. Then Faraday
became interested in the relationship between electricity and magnetism. In 1831, he discovered that when a magnet is
moved near a wire, electricity flows in the wire. With this discovery, he produced a machine for making electricity called
dynamo. Faraday then went on to show how electricity affects chemical substances. Because Faraday believed that money
should be given to the poor, when he grew old, he was very poor. However, Queen Victoria rewarded him for his
discoveries by giving him a stipend and a house. He died in 1867.
1. Which of the following statements is not true about Faraday?
A. He didn’t make use of mathematics to develop his inventions B. he just knew how to read and write.
C. He was born in a rich family. D. His father was a blacksmith.
2. Humphrey Davy hired Faraday to work as a _________.
A. chemist B. bottle washer C. scientist D. professor
53
3. All of the following are mentioned as Faraday’s achievements except _____.
A. his invention of dynamo B. his discovery of the effects of electricity on chemical substances
C. his invention of electric motor in 1821. D. his discovery of magnetism
4. Faraday got a stipend and a house as a reward from_____.
A. Humphrey Davy B. his father C. Queen Victoria D. his friend
5. Faraday died in _________.
A. 1867 B. 1831 C. 1812 D. 1821
Question 9: Sentence transformation - a. Finish each of the following sentences in such away that it means exactly the
same as the sentence printed before it. (5 pts)
1. I assumed that she would learn how to take shorthand after this course.
 I took it for granted that she would learn how to take shorthand after this course.
2. When the Minister was asked about the strike, he decline to comment.
 On being asked about the strike, the Minister declined to comment.
3. Someone rang the alarm as soon as the burglars left the building.
 No sooner had the burglars left the building than someone rang the alarm.
4. We regret to inform you that your application has not been successful.
 Much to our regret, we have to / must inform you that your application hasn’t been successful.
5. I left without saying goodbye as I didn’t want to disturb the meeting.
 Rather than disturb the meeting, I left without saying goodbye.
b. For each of the sentences below, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence, using
the words given in block letters. The words must not be changed in any way. (5 pts)
1. Jenny didn’t feel like going to the party. MOOD
Jenny wasn’t in the mood for going to the party / to go to the party
2. Did Pamela say why she was so late? REASON
Did Pamela give any reason for being so late?
3. The firm is going to raise everybody’s salary. GIVEN
Everybody is going to be given a raise / rise
4. This contract is not binding until we both sign it BOUND
Neither of us is bound by this contract until we both sign it.
5. As far as I know he is still working in Bristol. KNOWLEDGE
To (the best of) my knowledge, he is still working in Bristol.
Question 10: a. Change the direct speech in these sentences into reported speech. (5 pts)
1. “Why don’t you go and push a baby-carriage?” the taxi-driver said to the other driver angrily. “You’re not fit to drive a car.”
 The taxi driver asked the other driver angrily why he didn’t go and push a baby- carriage. He was not fit to drive a car.
2. Harry said to his wife, “ I’m gong to see my mother this evening if I can get away from the office a little earlier. Have you
any massages for her?”  Harry told his wife that he was going to see his mother that evening if he could get away from the
office a little earlier. He asked her if she had any messages for his mother.
3. “Let me help you with that suitcase,” Timothy said to the pretty girl at the station. “It looks a lot too heavy for you”. 
Timothy asked the pretty girl at the station to let him help her with that / her suitcase. It looked a lot too heavy for her.
4. “If you really think I said that about you,” said Charles, “I’m not surprised that you’re angry with me. But I assure you I did
not.”  Charles said that if I/ she (etc.) really thought he had said that about me / her, he was not surprised that I / she was
angry with him. But he assured me/ her that he had not.
5. “We’d better bring some warmer clothes with us next time we come here,” said my father. “It gets a lot colder in winter
than I realized.”  My father said we’d better bring/ take some warmer clothes with us next time we come/ go here / there.
It gets a lot colder in winter than he had realized.
b. Rearrange the order of words in these sentences in such a way that each of them becomes a correctly expressed
question. (5 pts)
1. lottery/buy /if /what /you /would /a /you /won/?  What would you buy if you won a lottery?
2. light /please /off /won’t /turn /the /you /the hall /in/?  Won’t you please turn off the light in the hall?
3. this /holiday /our /summer /for /we /go /shall /where/?  Where shall we go for our holiday this summer?
4. one /that /I /shall /dress /or /buy /this/? Shall I buy this dress or that one?
5. milk /should /buy /how /tins /of /think /you /many /do /we/?  How many tins of milk do you think we should buy?

THE END

54
KEYS – PRACTICE 67
PART B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR
I. Complete each of the following sentences with the correct answer (A, B, C or D). (15 pts)
1. The traffic problem has improved _____, out of the blue, really.
A. gradually B. factually C. unexpectedly D. respectably
2. This picture book, the few pages _____ are missing, is my favorite.
A. for which B. of that C. to which D. of which
3. It was felt that he lacked the _______ to pursue a difficult task to very end.
A. persuasion B. commitment C. engagement D. obligation
4. Your decision will ______ a great strain on our relationship.
A. impose B. propose C. expose D. suppose
5. We shouldn’t give the children everything they ask for; they will become completely _____.
A. spoilt B. wounded C. damaged D. destroyed
6. The completion of the tunnel has been _______ owing to a strike.
A. held up B. held off C. held on D. held over
7. It is with ________ regret that we have to inform you that your scholarship has been withdrawn.
A. heavy B. deep C. somber D. high
8. _______ of all modern domestic poultry is the red jungle fowl is widely believed.
A. The ancestor B. The ancestor is C. How the ancestor D. That the ancestor
9. Art critics do not all agree on what _______ a painting great.
A. qualities to make B. are the qualities for making C. qualities make D. do the qualities that
make
10. Farmers supply crops with phosphorus in areas ________ have removed it from the soil.
A. because of long years of cultivation B. where long years of cultivation
C. with long years of cultivation D. by long years of cultivation
11. Sarah congratulated _____ passing my driving test.
A. me B. for C. me on D. on me
12. Had it not been for the intolerable heat in the hall, they _____ much longer.
A. will stay B. would stay C. would be staying D. would have stayed
13. I can’t quite _____ out what the sign says.
A. read B. get C. carry D. make
14. One _____ of the scheme is the very high cost.
A. advantage B. shortage C. drawback D. shortcoming
15. In a new culture, many embarrassing situations occur _____ a misunderstanding.
A. because of B. of C. for D. because
II. Choose a word or phrase in each of the following sentences that needs correcting. (10 pts)
1. Paris has been well-known about its famous monuments, beautiful music, and wonderful restaurants for over 100 years.
A B C D
2. In France people drive on the left, so making sure you go on the right side.
A B C D
3. Up to now he wrote five novels and over sixteen short stories.
A B C D
4. The new bridge makes it possibly to cross the river easily and quickly.
A B C D
5. If you are working with young children in a primary school, you will find that teaching lively songs and rhymes are very
popular.
A B C D
III. Use the correct form of the word in bracket to complete each of the following sentences. (10 pts)
1. He is unhappy because of his __ deafness __. (deaf)
2. The __drainage__ of the swamps will destroy the mosquitoes’ breeding places. (drain)
3. He has made a great ___contribution__to the development of the country. (contribute)
4. We will hire new staff when the ____necessity___arises. (necessary)
5. His repeated ___absence___ from school is unacceptable. (absent)
6. The teacher’s words are a great __ encouragement ___ to him. (encourage)
7. They are very ___supportive___ of one another. (support)

55
8. Her interests are very __ diverse __. (diversity)
9. I can’t stand his ___rudeness__. (rude)
10. The holiday was beyond all ___ expectations __. (expect)
PART C: READING
I. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each space. (15 pts)
Around the age of eighteen, you must make one of the biggest decisions of your life. "Do I stay on at school and
hopefully go on to university (1)_later__? Do I leave and start work or begin (2) _a_ training course?".
The decision is yours, but it may be (3)_ worth _ remembering two things: there is more unemployment among people
(4)_who__ haven't been to university, and people who have the right (5)__skills_ will have a big advantage in the competition
for jobs. If you decide to go straight into a job, there are many opportunities (6)_for_ training. Getting qualifications will
(7)_help_ you to get on more quickly in many careers, and evening classes allow you to learn (8)_while _ you earn. Starting
work and taking a break to study when you are older is (9)_ another __ possibility. This way, you can save up money for your
student days, as well as (10)_getting_ practical work experience.
II. Choose the best answer from the four options marked A, B, C or D to complete each numbered gap in the passage below.
(10 pts)
If you (1)_____ to be walking in your local park tomorrow and you find an abandoned book with a label inside
(2)_____ 'Read and Release me', don't just treat it as a joke. You've probably come (3)_____ an example of 'book-crossing',
a book-sharing movement started in 2001 by American software developer Ron Hornbaker, whose stated aim is to 'make the
(4)_____ world a library'. Book-crossers 'release' books (5)_____ by passing them on to friends, or else by leaving them in
public places for others to pick up, or 'catch', and then read, before they (6)_____ turn release them back 'into the wild'.
(7)_____ a book has been 'caught', the person finding it is encouraged to record the event by logging on to the book-crossing
website and entering the book's ID number written on the label. That (8)_____ , both the original owner and subsequent
readers of the book can keep track of its progress. Over half a million people worldwide participate in book-crossing,
'releasing' books in a (9)_____ range of locations including cafés, airports, bus stations, telephone boxes and even
underwater in public fountains. Often a book is left in a place (10)_____ is relevant to its title or content: Agatha Christie's
Murder on the Orient Express on a train, for example, or an archeology book in a museum.
1. A. occur B. happen C. pass D. arise
2. A. telling B. saying C. talking D. answering
3. A. away B. along C. across D. aside
4. A. full B. absolute C. quite D. whole
5. A. either B. but C. or D. neither
6. A. at B. to C. in D. for
7. A. Soon B. Since C. Once D. While
8. A. way B. time C. place D. manner
9. A. deep B. long C. high D. wide
10. A. what B. which C. who D. where
III. Read the text then answer the questions by choosing A, B, C or D. (20 pts)
To date, Canada has produced only one classic children’s tale to rank with Alice’s Adventures in wonderland and the
works of Mark Twain; this was Lucy Maud Montgomery’s Anne of Green Gables. Lucy Maud Montgomery was born in Clinton,
Prince Edward Island. Her mother died soon after her birth, and when her father went to Saskatchewan to assume a business
position, she moved in with her grandparents in Cavendish, Prince Edward Island. There she went to school and later qualified
to be a teacher.
Montgomery wrote the Anne books while living in Cavendish and helping her grandmother at the post office. The first
of the books, Anne of Green Gabbles, was published in 1908, and in the next three years she wrote two sequels. Like
Montgomery, the heroine of the book is taken in by an elderly couple who lives in the fictional town of Avonlea, and
Montgomery incorporated many events from her life in Cavendish into the Anne books.
In 1911, Montgomery married Evan Macdonald and the couple soon moved to Ontario, where she wrote many other
books. However, it was her first efforts that secured her prominence, and the Anne books are still read all around the world.
Her novels have helped create a warm picture of Prince Edward Island’s special character. Several movies, a television series,
and a musical play have been based on her tales, and today visitors scour the Island for locations described in the book.
1. The main purpose of this passage is to ____. A. show the similarities between Montgomery’s life and that of her
fictional character Anne.
B. contrast Canadian children’s literature with that of other countries.
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C. provide a brief introduction to Prince Edward Island. D. introduce Montgomery and her Anne books.
2. According to the passage, Montgomery was raised primarily____.
A. by her grandparents B. in an orphanage C. by her mother D. by her father
3. Approximately when did Lucy Maud Montgomery write the two sequels to her book Anne of Green Gables?
A. From 1874 to 1908 B. From 1911 to 1913 C. From 1908 to 1911 D. From 1913 to 1918
4. The word “elderly” in line 8 is closest in meaning to____.
A. kindly B. old C. friendly D. sly
5. In the Anne books, the main character lives in____.
A. the town of Cavendish B. the town of Avonlea C. Saskatchewan D. Ontario
6. Which of the following can be concluded from the passage about Anne books?
A. They were not as successful as Montgomery’s later works. B. They were influenced by the works of Mark Twain.
C. They were at least partially autobiographical. D. They were not popular until after Montgomery had
died.
7. Ontario was the place where ____. A. Montgomery wrote other books B. Montgomery got married
C. Montgomery wrote two sequels D. Montgomery became famous
8. The word “prominence” in line 11 is closest in meaning to____.
A. excellence B. reputation C. effort D. permanence
9. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “character” in line 12?
A. a person in a novel B. nature C. a written symbol D. location
10. All of the following have been based on the Anne books EXCEPT____.
A. a television series B. movies C. a play D. a ballet
PART D: WRITING
I. Complete the second sentence so that it has the similar meaning to the first sentence. Write your answer on your answer
sheet. (10 pts)
1. “You’d better not lend her any more money, Paul,” said Tom.  Tom advised Paul not to lend her any more
money.
2. Although the traffic was bad, Peter arrived on time.  In spite of the bad traffic/the fact that the traffic was bad, Peter
arrived on time.
3. The last time I saw Mary was in 2009.  I haven’t seen Mary since 2009.
4. The plumber repaired the leak this morning.  They had the plumber repair the leak this
morning
5. They had a bad crop because the storm swept through the region.  If the storm hadn’t swept through the region,
they wouldn’t have had a bad crop
II: Complete the second sentence so that it has the similar meaning to the first sentence. Use the word given. Do not
change the word. Write your answer on your answer sheet. (10 pts)
1. It's possible that someone stole your purse when we were in the restaurant. (might)  Someone might have stolen
your purse / Your purse might have been stolen when we were in the restaurant
2. ‘Me? No, I didn’t take Sue’s calculator,’ said Bob. (denied)  Bob denied taking/ having taken Sue’s calculator.
3. They said that an electrical failure was the cause of the fire. (blamed)  They blamed the fire on an electrical failure/ an
electrical failure for the fire.
4. She apologized to the host for having to go so early, and left. (apologies) She made/offered her apologies to the host
and left early.
5. Peter was the first person I asked for advice. (whose)  Peter was the first person whose advice I asked for.

57
KEYS – PRACTICE 68
PART I: PHONETICS. (1, 0 POINT).
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other words in the same group. Write your answer in
the numbered box.
1. A. exposure 2 B. Terminal1 C. utterance1 D. discipline 1
2. A. Economy2 B. Elaborate2 C. Assassinate2 D. Fascinate1
3. A. mountain1 B. sustain2 C. contain2 D. retain
4. A. fulltime2 B. farmhand1 C. bookshop1 D. tradesman
5. A. Metropolitan3 B. Entrepreneurial4 C. Hippopotamus3 D. curiosity
6. A. company1 B. comfortable 1 C. together2 D. business
7. A. Associate2 B. Formal1 C. Movement1 D. militant
8. A. Important2 B. Cigarette3 C. Protection2 D. informal
9. A. introduce3 B. conversation3 C. independent D. welcome1
10. A. expect B. alone2 C. liquor1 D. invite2
PART II: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR. (8, 0 POINTS).
I. Choose the best answer to fill in each gap. Write your answer in the numbered box. (1, 5 point).
1. In the ___of security, personnel must wear their identity badges at all times.
A. requirement B. interests C. demands D. assistance
2. ___ how angry he was he would never resort to violence.
A. No matter B. No problem C. Although D. Because
3. We played the game ___ the rules.
A. on account of B. ahead of C. according to D. apart from
4. ___ to get through to Jackie for days now. Either she’s away or her phone’s out of order.
A. I’ve been trying B. I had tried C. I’m trying D. I tried
5. This is ___ the most difficult job I have ever tackled.
A. by rights B. by all means C. by far D. by the way
6. She ___till the early hours listening to pop music.
A. took me up B. kept me up C. caught me up D. held me up
7. Please don’t ___yourself out. A sandwich will do.
A. let B. put C. leave D. take
8. The chairman requested that ___
A. the members studied more carefully the problem. B. the problem was more carefully studied.
C. with more carefulness the problem could be studied. D. the members study the problem more carefully.
9. Smoking is ___ in many companies in our country.
A. permitted B. taught C. banned D. stopped
10. After the battle, the ___ soldiers were helped by those who could walk.
A. injured B. wounded C. broken D. killed
11. I don’t think this strange new fashion will …………
A. turn up B. care for C. show off D. catch on
12. Their house is ___ near the Cathedral.
A. whereabouts B. anywhere C. somewhere D. any place
13. This young tree could not have been damaged by accident. I believe it was done ___
A. in fact B. on purpose C. by appointment D. by plan
14. There was hardly ___ money left in my bank account.
A. more B. no C. some D. any
15. It is wrongly believed that natural resources will never be used ___.
A. off B. out C. away D. up
II. Give the correct tenses of the verbs in brackets. Write your answer in the box. (1,5 point)
1. If he _ had not drunk _ (1. not drink) too much last night, he _ would not be _ (2. not - be) tired now.
2. I’m sure he must __ have been _ (3. be) at home last night because the door was open when I _ came _ (4. come).
3. At this time next week, they _ will be sitting (5. sit) in the train on their way to Paris.
4. It’s raining. I would rather you _ closed __ (6. close) the window.
5. I don’t know what’s the matter with him. He __ has acted/has been acting _ funny since you _ were _ (8. be) away.
6. On the first of next month, he _ will have been _ (9. be) in prison for five years.
7. His personal problems seem _ to have been distracting _ (10. distract) him from his work lately.
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8. He suggested that a final decision _ should be made/be made __ (11. make).
9. I don’t know why you _ are always making _ (12. always - make) noise in class, Tom.
10. _ did you visit _ (13. you/visit) many museums when you were in Paris?
11. The car looks very clean. _ have you washed __ (14. you/wash) it?
12. My best friend, James, was no longer there. He __ had gone _ (15. go) away.
III. Put the correct form of the words in brackets. Write your answer in the box. (2,0 points) AUTUMN COLORS
A new term is rapidly gaining recognition in the American language - a 'leaf peeper' is someone who, in autumn, is
on the __ outlook _ (1. LOOK) for areas where the leaves of deciduous trees have changed colour. In New England, in the
USA, 'leaf peeping' is big business, generating millions of dollars annually. The first report that leaves are changing colour
sets off an __ invasion _ (2. INVADE) of 'peepers' thus causing serious obstruction on some roads. Thousands of people log
on to websites in their _ eagerness _ (3. EAGER) to find the location of the trees that have foliage in the most __ glorious _
(4. GLORY) colours. The popularity of 'leaf tourism' is well established in New England, and the changing colours of autumn
provide an annual _ talking _ (5. TALK) point. The colours vary from year to year since the _ intensity _ (6. INTENSE) of the
colour is __ dependent (7. DEPEND) on the chemical composition of the dying leaves. After a long dry summer, leaves often
turn bright red, while cloudy autumn days will produce less spectacular yellows. If climate change leads to _ increasingly _
(8. INCREASE) hot, dry summers in the northern hemisphere, then countries in Europe can expect summers not _ unlike _
(9. LIKE) those across the Atlantic. They will then enjoy a kaleidoscope of _ seasonal __ (10. SEASON) colour to rival the deep
reds and blazing oranges seen in New England.
IV. Find out and correct the mistake in each sentence. Write your answer in the box. (2,0 points)
Example: Thirty hours a week are a heavy work schedule. Answer: B  is
A B C D
1. A persimmon tastes best when it is such ripe that it looks wrinkled and almost spoiled.
A B so C D
2. American pioneers did water systems from logs with holes bored through their centers.
A made B C D
3. The pituitary gland is a small endocrine gland at the base of the brain that releases many hormones and regulates
another endocrine glands. A B C D other
4. In America, the Indians used crude oil for fuel and medicine hundreds of years before the first white settlers arrive.
A B C D arrived
5. When radio programs became popular, approximately around 1925, many people stopped attending movies.
A B C bỏ D
6. Musical comedies, as an American form of entertainment, often take its subjects from America’s present or past.
A B C their D
7. Of all seashore plants, seaweeds are best able to tolerate long periods out of water, followed by long periods covering
by water. A B C D covered
8. The fruit of the plantain looks much like a banana, and it is not so sweet or so pleasing in flavor.
A B but C D
9. The viceroy butterfly, an insect that birds like to eat, has a color pattern similar to that of the monarch butterfly, whom
birds do not like to eat. A B C D which
10. Behavior therapy uses rewards and punishments to encourage patients to act in a way healthier.
A B C D healthier way
V. Complete these sentences with proper prepositions or adverbs. Write your answers in the numbered box. (1,0 point)
1. Don't use pencils. Please write the letter _ in _ ink.
2. My father made _ up _ his mind to settle in the South.
3. Minh couldn’t start his motor engine. I think it ran _ out of __ fuel.
4. Time is off now. Please hand _ in _ your papers.
5. We invited 40 people to the party but only 23 turned _ up __
6. That fish of yours has been in the fridge for weeks. It must have gone _ off _ by now.
7. He needed a model, someone to look _ up / up to _
8. Uncle Tom is an idiot, but I only have to put _ up with __ him once a year.
9. I don’t like to make friends with the person who always runs __ down _ his old friends.
10. These two men’s farms are adjacent _ to _ each other.
PART III: READING COMPREHENSION. (6,0 POINTS)
I. Read the passage below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. Write your answer in the numbered
box. (2,0 points)

59
It is now extremely popular to take a gap year between school and university or university and work and to spend it
traveling. There are plenty of reasons to recommend it - travel broadens the mind, you’re (1) __ only _ young once, life isn’t
a rehearsal and so on. And if you don’t do it, you may always regret that you didn’t take the (2) _ chance __. In the end,
there’s only one response: well, why not?
The idea may have its roots in the 18th century Grand tour once (3) _ undertaken __ by the young, rich and noble,
but it is the middle classes who have turned it (4) _ into __ something that 200,000 British youngsters do every year. (5) _
Travel __ has never been so easy and cheap, with more places open to tourists than ever. Also, the gap year is now (6) _
accepted __ by many employers and universities.
The States, the Far East and Australia were among the original (7) _ destinations __ and although these remain in
the top five, young explorers are now going even further. The most far-flung corners of the world are (8) __ growing _ in
popularity year by year. About $700 will buy a student ticket (9) _ valid __ for six months that will take you from London to
Calcutta, Singapore, Bangkok, Perth, Sydney, Auckland, Fiji, Tahiti, Los Angeles and (10) __ back _ again.
1. A. merely B. only C. slightly D. simply
2. A. occasion B. moment C. chance D. luck
3. A. undertaken B. gone C. done D. given
4. A. up B. out C. over D. into
5. A. Voyage B. Travel C. Excursion D. Tour
6. A. received B. stood C. accepted D. admitted
7. A. destinations B. endings C. landings D. terminals
8. A. spreading B. expanding C. enlarging D. growing
9. A. genuine B. valid C. effective D. legal
10. A. now B. here C. back D. then
II. Read the passage and fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answer in the numbered box. (2,0 points)
THE LEGEND OF THE ROOT
Ginseng is one of the great mysteries of the east. Often referred to as the “elixir of life”, its widespread use in oriental
medicine has led to many myths and legends building up around this remarkable plant. Ginseng has featured (1) _ as __ an
active ingredient in oriental medical literature for over 5,000 years. Its beneficial effects were, at one time, (2) _ so _ widely
recognized and praised that the root was said to be worth its weight in gold.
(3) _ despite _ the long history of ginseng, no one fully knows how it works. The active part of the _ plant __ (4) is
the root. Its full name is Panax Ginseng – the word Panax, (5) _ like _ the word panacea, coming from the Greek for “all
healing”. There is growing interest by western scientists in the study of ginseng. It is today believed that this remarkable plant
may (6) _ have/cause/produce __ beneficial effects in the treatment of many diseases which are difficult to treat with
synthetic drug.
Today, ginseng is (7) _ no _ longer a myth or a legend. Throughout the world it is becoming widely recognized that
this ancient herb holds the answer to relieving the stresses and ailments of modern living. It is widely used for the treatment
of various ailments (8) _ such _ as arthritis, diabetes, insomnia, hepatitis and anemia. However, the truth behind (9) _ how _
ginseng works still remains a mystery. Yet its widespread effectiveness shows that the remarkable properties are (10) __
more _ than just a legend.
III. Read the passage, then choose the correct options. Write your answer in the box. (2,0 points)
One of the 7 wonders of the ancient world, the great pyramid of Giza was a monument of wisdom and prophecy built
as a tomb for Pharaoh Cheop in 1720 BC. Despite its antiquity, certain aspects of this construction makes it truly one of the
truly great wonders of the world. The thirteen – acre structure near the Nile river is a solid mass of stone blocks covered with
limestone. Inside are a number of hidden passageways and the burial chamber for the pharaoh. It is the largest single
structure in the world. The 4 sides of the pyramid are aligned almost exactly on true north, south, east and west – an
incredible engineering feat. The ancient Egyptians were sun worshipers and great astronomers, so computations for the great
pyramid were based on astronomical observations.
Explorations and detailed examinations of the base of the structure reveal many intersecting lines. Further scientific
study indicates that these represent type of timeline of events – past, present and future. Many of the events have been
interpreted and found to coincide with known facts of the past. Others are prophesied for future generations and currently
under investigation. Many believe that pyramids have supernatural powers, and this one is no exception. Some researchers
even associate with its extraterrestrial being of the ancient past.
Was it superstructure made by ordinary beings, or one built by a race far superior to any known today.
1. What has research of the base reveal?
A. There are racks in the foundation. B. Tomb robbers have stolen pharaoh’s body.
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C. The lines represent important events. D. A superior race of people built it.
2. Extraterrestrial beings are ____
A. very strong workers. B. astronomers in the ancient times.
C. researchers in Egyptology. D. living beings from other planets.
3. What was the most probable reason for providing so many hidden passages?
A. To allow the weight of the pyramid to settle evenly.
B. To permit the high priests to pray at night.
C. To enable the pharaoh’s family to bring food for his journey to the afterlife.
D. To keep grave robbers from finding the tomb and the treasure buried with the pharaoh.
4. The word “intersecting” in line 9 is nearest in meaning to ____
A. crossing B. coming C. observing D. cutting
5. What do the intersecting lines in the base symbolize?
A. Architect’s plans for the hidden passage. B. Pathways of the great solar body.
C. Astrological computation. D. Dates of important events taking place throughout time.
6. The word “prophesied” in line 12 is closest in meaning to ____
A. said B. armed C. terminated D. foretold
7. What is the best title for the passage?
A. Symbolism of the Great pyramid. B. Problems with the construction of great pyramid.
C. Wonders of the Great pyramid of Giza. D. Exploration of the burial chamber of Cheop.
8. On what did the ancient Egyptians based their calculation?
A. Observation of the celestial bodies. B. Advanced technology.
C. Advanced tools of measurements. D. Knowledge of the earth’s surface.
9. Why was the Great pyramid constructed?
A. As a solar observatory. B. As a religious temple.
C. As a tomb for the pharaoh. D. As an engineering feat.
10. Why is the Great pyramid of Giza considered one of the seven wonders of the world?
A. It is perfectly aligned with the 4 cardinal points of the compass and contains many prophecies.
B. It was selected as the tomb of the pharaoh Cheop. C. It was built a super race. D. It is very old.
PART IV: WRITING. (5,0 POINTS)
I. Rewrite each of the sentences without changing its meaning, using the cue given. (1,0 point)
1. We couldn’t have managed without my father’s money.
 If it hadn’t ...... been for my father’s money, we could not have managed.....
2. House prices have risen dramatically this year.
 There has .... been a dramatic rise/increase in the house prices this year.
3. The only thing they didn’t steal was the television.
 They stole ........ everything except for/but/apart from the television...
4. He didn’t succeeded in searching for the stolen car.
 He tried in vain ...... to search for the stolen car.
5. She started to clean up the house just after the guests had left.
 No sooner ....... had the guests left than she started to clean up the house.
6. The boy was about to cry when he was reprimanded by his mother.
→ The boy was on ....... the point of crying when he was reprimanded by his mother.
7. People believe that the Chinese invented paper in 105 A.D.
→ Paper....... is believed to have been invented by the Chinese in 105 A.D.
8. As people use a lot of wood-pulp, many trees are cut down.
→ The more ........ wood-pulp is used, the more trees are cut down..........
9. It takes six hours to drive from here to London.
→ It is ........ a six-hour-drive from here to London..
10. He got so angry that no one dared to say anything.
→ So ...... angry did he get that no one dared to say anything.
II. Rewrite each of the sentences without changing its meanings, using the word given. (1,0 point)
1. If you want to see me, come here by six a.m. (PROVIDED)
→ .......... Provided (that) you want to see me, come here by 6 a.m..................
2. He won’t let anyone touch his records. (OBJECTS)
→ ...... He objects to anyone (else) touching his records.................
3. He didn’t think much of the musical show yesterday. (OPINION)
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→ ........ He had a low opinion of the musical show yesterday...............
4. The concert was not as good as he had hoped. (EXPECTATIONS)
→ ....... The concert failed to come/live up to his expectations/The concert didn’t come/live up to .......
5. We missed the beginning of the concert because we had overslept. (CONSEQUENCE)
→ ... We missed the beginning of the concert as a consequence of (our) oversleeping/We had overslept. As a
consequence, we missed the beginning....
III. Write an essay (3, 0 points).
Face book dominates the free-time for too many people especially the students. It can have negative effect on their
study and the physical development.
Do you agree or disagree? Write an essay (250 - 300 words) to express your opinion.
Write an essay (250 - 300 words) to express your opinion. (3, 0 points).
1. Content:
a. Providing main ideas and details.
b. Communicating intentions sufficiently and effectively.
2. Organization and presentation:
a. Ideas are well-organized and presented with coherence, cohesion, and clarity.
b. The paragraph is well-structured.
3. Language:
a. Variety of appropriate vocabulary and structures.
b. Good use of grammatical structures.
4. Handwriting, punctuation, and spelling:
a. Intelligible handwriting.
b. Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes.
Markers should discuss the suggested answers and the marking scale thoroughly
and add more answers possible before marking the papers.

THE END

62
KEYS – PRACTICE 69
B. PHONETICS (5 points) (1 point for each correct answer)
16. D 17. A 18. B 19. C 20. B
C. GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY.
I. 10 points (1.0 point for each correct answer)
21. B 22. B 23. D 24. C 25. A
26. D 27. C 28. D 29. A 30. C
31. A 32. B 33. C 34. B 35. A
II. 10 points (1.0 point for each correct word)
36. impoverished 37. underestimated 38. multiracial 39. breathtaking 40. suspiciously
41. observant 42. fury 43. validated 44. attendance 45. pronouncement
III. 5 points (1.0 point for each correct answer)
46. D 47. B 48. C 49. A 50. B
D. READING
I. 10 points (1.0 point for each correct answer)
51. C 52. A 53. D 54. C 55. B
56. A 57. D 58. B 59. C 60. D
II. 5 points (1.0 point for each correct answer)
61. D 62. B 63. G 64. A 65. F
III. 10 points (1.0 points for each correct answer)
66. C 67. A 68. C 69. D 70. A
71. C 72. C 73. B 74. C 75. B
E. WRITING
I. 5 points ( 0.5 point for each correct answer)
76. Unlike other languages, Esperanto has no irregular verbs.
77. Had Mr. Smith known something / more / a little more / some more about the Internet, he would have invested into
some computer companies.
78. The Board of Directors had a long discussion on / about the business, but come to / reached / made no decision.
79. On her arrival at the party, everyone was dancing and singing.
80. Not only does Barbara run a successful company, but she also manages to look after her five children.
, but she manages to look after her five children (as well)
, she also manages to look after her five children.
81. If I were you I would spend more time practicing English.
82. The famous actor had very little money when he died, which surprised everyone.
, which made everyone surprised
83. The more qualifications you are able to / can amass, the more successful you become / are in the academic field.
, the more success you can / will make / have in the academic field.
84. The woman threatened to shoot the strange man if he did not get out of her house.
85. Man is mainly distinguished from other animals by the power of speech.
II. 10 points
Bài viết cần phù hợp về hình thức, ngôn ngữ và nội dung.
Gợi ý cho điểm:
1. Form: - Form of the letter: Formal letter (1 point)
2. Content: (4 points)
- the reasons for writing (1 point)
- the problems the writer has encountered (2 points)
- suggestions for solutions (1 point)
3. Language: (4p)
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- Appropriate vocabulary (1 point)
- Correct grammar (2 points)
- Punctuating/ Spelling (1 point)

III. 10 points
Bài viết cần phù hợp về hình thức, ngôn ngữ và nội dung.
Gợi ý cho điểm:
1. Form: passage (2 points)
- Easy to follow
- Coherent
2. Content: (4 points)
+Successful fulfillment of the task.
3. Language: (4 points)
+ Appropriate vocabulary (1 point)
+ Suitable connectors (0.5 point)
+ Correct grammar (2 points)
+ Punctuating / Spelling (0.5 point)

64
KEYS – PRACTICE 70
SECTION A: PHONETICS (10 POINTS)
I. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. (5 pts)
1. A. opponent B. compose C. podium D. advocate
2. A. reserve B. domestic C. optimistic D. nursery
3. A. both B. cloth C. ghost D. sold
4. A. examine B. determine C. famine D. dine
5. A. sacred B. decided C. contaminated D. watered
II. Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from the others. (5 pts)
1. A. counterpart B. precede C. nursery D. compliment
2. A. bewilder B. audience C. benefit D. dedicate
3. A. pessimistic B. university C. epidemic D. particular
4. A. tsunami B. terrorist C. involvement D. disaster
5. A. processor B. windsurfing C. semester D. challenger
SECTION B: GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY (40 POINTS)
I. Choose the best answer to complete the sentences. (10 pts)
1. According to the boss, John is the most ______ for the position of executive secretary.
A. supportive B. caring C. suitable D. comfortable
2. The children went _______ with excitement.
A. wild B. wildly C. wilderness D. wildlife
3. The sudden resignation of the financial director put the company in a very _______ position.
A. weak B. unsteady C. vulnerable D. collapsed
4. David: Would you like fish or meat? Mary: I _______ fish, please.
A. would rather B. would prefer C. suppose D. believe
5. Many teenagers show signs of anxiety and _______ when being asked about their future.
A. depress B. depression C. depressed D. depressing
6. There was a huge decline _______ the number of tigers.
A. in B. for C. of D. out
7. I’d rather you _______ anything about the garden until the weather improves.
A. don’t make B. didn’t do C. don’t do D. didn’t make
8. A part – time job gives me the freedom to _______ my own interests.
A. pursue B. chase C. seek D. catch
9. The new road currently under _______ will solve the traffic problems in the town.
A. design B. progress C. construction D. work
10. - Daisy: “What a lovely house you have!” - Mary: “______.”
A. Lovely, I think so B. Thank you. Hope you will drop in
C. Of course not, it’s not costly D. No problem
II. Complete the following sentences with the correct form of the verbs in brackets. (10 pts)
1. Bi Rain, together with 58 members of the South Korean National Military Symphony
Orchestra and 17 traditional musicians, (come) to Vietnam since yesterday.  has come
2. Up to now, nothing (do) to solve their problem.  has been done
3. He suggested that his son (be) on time for the interview.  (should) be
4. Tom will come home as soon as he (finish) his test.  has finished
5. ASEAN (found) in 1967 in Bangkok, Thai land.  was founded
6. In times of war, the Red Cross (dedicate) to reducing the sufferings of wounded  is dedicated
soldiers, civilians, and prisoners of war.
7. Hardly our teacher (enter) the classroom when it started to rain.  had our teacher entered
8. In a few minutes' time, when the clock strikes six, I (wait) for you here.  will be waiting
9-10. Living in a fast-paced and mobile society (create) family stresses that (not  has created
imagine) by our great grandparents.  couldn’t have been imagined
III. Give the correct form of the words in brackets. (10pts)
1. The main goals of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations are to promote peace and _____ stability
____ in the region. (STABLE)
2. On my salary, we have to live as ____ economically ___ as possible. (ECONOMY)
3. Different conservation efforts have been made in order to save ___ endangered ___ species. (DANGER)
4. The security of the earth can be threatened by ___ terrorist ___ groups. (TERROR)
5. It is reported that humans are the main reason for most species' declines and habitat ___ destruction . (DESTROY)
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6. He resigned for a ____ variety___ of reasons. (VARIOUS)
7. I don’t care if you had had too much to drink. Your behaviour last night was __ indefensible _. (DEFEND)
8. Her son is always mischievous and ___ disobedient__, which annoys her very much. (OBEY)
9. The Americans are much more concerned than the Indians and the Chinese with physical _
attractiveness __ when choosing a wife or a husband. (ATTRACT)
10. You can never be sure what my sister is going to do. She is so __ unpredictable _. (PREDICT)
IV. Find one mistake in each sentence below by choosing the letter A, B, C or D. (10 pts)
1. Although to some people reading is a favourite way to spend time, but others just do not like reading.
A B C D
2. If a species does not have the natural genetic protection against particular diseases, an introduced disease can
A B C
have severely effects on that species.
D
3. I believe that only very self-confident, knowledge and attentive students will prefer 100% of eye contact time.
A B C D
4. It is likely that all people in Hanoi live in skyscrapers by 2050.
A B C D
5. In 1961, America’s first manned spacecraft launched.
A B C D
6. Do you really think that candidate is qualify to be President?
A B C D
7. Of the more than 1,300 volcanoes in the world, only about 600 can classify as active.
A B C D
8. It is important that cancer is diagnosed and treated as early as possible in order to assure a successful cure.
A B C D
9. It took us quite a long time to get here. It was a three-hours journey.
A B C D
10. Married women are twice so likely as married men to be depressed.
A B C D
SECTION C: READING (30 POINTS)
I. Fill in each numbered space with ONE appropriate word. (10 pts)
Kim Jong-il (16th February 1941 – 17th December 2011) was the supreme leader of North Korea (1) _ from _ 1994 to 2011.
Kim Jong-il died (2) _of__a suspected heart (3) _ attack _on 17th December 2011 while traveling by train to an area
outside Pyongyang. He was succeeded by his youngest son Kim Jong-un, (4) _who_was considered by the Korean Central
News Agency (5) __as_the "Great Successor". The Korean Central News Agency reported that during his death, a fierce
snowstorm paused and the sky glowed red above the sacred Mount Paektu. The ice on a famous lake also cracked so loud,
it seemed to shake the Heavens and the Earth.
Kim Jong-il's funeral took (6) __place_on December 28th in Pyongyang, with a mourning period lasting until the (7) _
following/ next__day. South Korea's military was immediately put on alert after the announcement. Asian stock markets fell
soon after the announcement, due to similar concerns.
(8) _on_January 12th, 2012 North Korea called Kim Jong-il the "eternal leader" and announced that his (9) _body_will be
preserved and displayed at Pyongyang's Kumsusan Memorial Palace. Officials will also install statues, portraits, and "towers to his
immortality" across the country. His (10) __ birthday _of February 16th has been declared "the greatest auspicious holiday of the
nation", and has been named the Day of the Shining Star.
II. Read the passage below and then choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. (15pts)
Do you ever wish you were more optimistic, someone who always (1) ______ to be successful? Having someone around
who always (2) ______ the worst isn’t really a lot of (3) ______ – we all know someone who sees a single cloud on a sunny
day and says, ‘It looks (4) ______ rain.’ But if you catch yourself thinking such things, it’s important to do something (5)
______ it.
You can change your view of life, (6) ______ to psychologists. It only takes a little effort, and you will find life more
rewarding as a (7) ______. Optimism, they say, is partly about self-respect and confidence, but it’s also a more positive way
of looking at life and all it has to (8) ______. Optimists are more (9) ______ to start new projects and are generally more
prepared to take risks.
Upbringing is obviously very important in forming your (10) ______ to the world. Some people are brought up to (11)
______ too much on others and grow up forever blaming other people when anything (12) ______ wrong. Most optimists,
on the (13) ______ hand, have been brought up not to (14) ______ failure as the end of the world- they just (15) ______ with
their lives.
1. A. counted B. expected C. felt D. waited
2. A. worries B. cares C. fears D. doubts
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3. A. amusement B. play C. enjoyment D. fun
4. A. so B. to C. for D. like
5. A. with B. against C. about D. over
6. A. judging B. according C. concerning D. following
7. A. result B. reason C. purpose D. product
8. A. supply B. suggest C. offer D. propose
9. A. possible B. likely C. hopeful D. welcome
10. A. opinion B. attitude C. view D. position
11. A. trust B. believe C. depend D. hope
12. A. goes B. fails C. comes D. turns
13. A. opposite B. next C. other D. far
14. A. regard B. respect C. suppose D. think
15. A. get up B. get on C. get out D. get over
III. Read the passage below and then choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. (5pts)
In the second half of each year, many powerful storms are born in the tropical Atlantic and Caribbean seas. Of these,
only about half a dozen become the strong, circling winds of 74 miles per hour or more that are called hurricanes, and several
usually make their way to the coast. There they cause millions of dollars of damage, and bring death to large numbers of
people.
The great storms that hit the coast start as soft circling wind hundreds - even thousands - of miles out to sea. As they
travel aimlessly over water warmed by the summer sun, they are carried westward by the southeast winds. When conditions
are just right, warm moist air flows in at the bottom of such a wind, moves upward through it and comes out at the top. In
the process, the moisture in this warm air produces rain, and with it, the heat is changed to energy in the form of strong
winds. As the heat increases, the young hurricane begins to move counter clockwise motion.
The life of a hurricane is only about nine days, but it contains almost more power than we can imagine. The energy in the
heat released by a hurricane’s rainfall in a single day would satisfy the entire electrical needs of the United States for more
than six months. Water, not wind, is the main source of death and destruction in a hurricane. A typical hurricane brings 6 to
12 inches downpour, causing sudden floods. Worst of all is the powerful movement of the sea – the mountains of water
moving toward the hurricane center. The water level rises as much as 15 feet above normal as it moves toward shore.
1. When is an ordinary tropical storm called a hurricane?
A. When it begins in the Atlantic and Caribbean seas. B. When its winds reach 74 miles per hour.
C. When it is more than 74 miles wide. D. When it hits the Coastline.
2. What is the worst thing about hurricanes?
A. The terrible effects of water. B. The heat they give off.
C. That they last about nine days. D. Their strong winds.
3. Here the underlined word “downpour” means______
A. heavy rainfall B. dangerous waves
C. the progress of water to the hurricane center D. the increasing heat
4. Which of the following statements about a hurricane is NOT true?
A. It travels more than 75 miles per hour. B. It usually stays about nine days.
C. It usually causes 6 to 12 inches downpour. D. It sometimes brings the sea water level to the height of 15 feet.
5. Hurricanes often cause ______?
A. a lot of damage B. sudden floods
C. death to large numbers of people D. All are correct
SECTION D: WRITING (20 POINTS)
I. Finish the second sentence so that it means the same as the first one. (10 pts)
1. We couldn’t relax until all the guests had gone home.
 Only after/ when all the guests had gone (home) could we/ were we able to relax
2. House prices have risen sharply this year.
 There has been a sharp increase/ rise in (the) house prices this year
3. The only reason the party was a success was that a famous film star attended.
 Had it not been for the attendance / presence/ appearance of a famous film star the party would not have been a success/
would have been a failure
4. Would you mind not smoking in my house?
 I’d rather you didn’t smoke in my house
5. His second attempt on the world record was successful.
 He broke the world record at/ on his second attempt
6. I write to him almost every day.
 Hardly a day passes/ goes by without me/ my writing to him/ but I write to him/ when I don’t write to him
7. Experts think that all dogs evolved from wolves.  All dogs are thought to have evolved from wolves
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8. Don’t go to lunch until you have typed all these letters.
 Make sure you finish (typing) all these letters before going/ you go to lunch
9. The northwest of Britain has more rain each year than the southeast.
 The annual rainfall in/ for the northwest of Britain is higher/ greater than (that in) the southeast
10. Henry regretted buying the second-hand car.  Henry wishes (that) he hadn’t bought the second - hand car
II. Use the given word to write the second sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original
sentence. Do not change the form of the given word. (5pts)
1. The two theories appear to be completely different. COMMON
 The two theories (appear to) have (got) nothing in common
2. His rude behaviour is too much for me. PUT
 I can’t/ won’t put up with his rude behaviour
3. I find his handwriting very hard to read. DIFFICULTY
 I have (considerable) difficulty (in) reading his hand writing
4. He doesn’t have money to go on holiday. He doesn’t have time, either. NEITHER
 He has neither money nor time to go on holiday
5. You’d feel better if you had a quiet holiday. DO
 A quiet holiday would do you good
III. Complete the following sentences, using the words given. (5 pts)
1. Mother/ take/ responsibility/ run/ household.
My mother takes the responsibility for running the household
2. ASEAN / have/ population/ 575.5 million/ account/ 8.7 %/ the world’s population.
ASEAN has a population of 575.5 million, accounting for (about) 8.7 % of the world’s population
3. It/ not/ until/ Einstein/ eight/ he/ can/ speak.
It was not until Einstein was eight that he could speak
4. Defensive players / not/ allow/ interfere/ opponent’s movements/ unless/ player/ hold/ ball. Defensive players aren’t
allowed to interfere with the opponent’s movements unless the (that) player is holding the ball.
5. Never/ stop/ try/ you/ get/ right solution/ problem.
Never stop trying until/ till you get the right solution to the problem

ENGLISH PRACTICE 71
SECTION A: PHONETICS (10 POINTS)
I. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. (5 pts)
1. A. resume B. statistics C. position D. designer
2. A. criteria B. initiate C. certificate D. interactive
3. A. ginger B. gesture C. gymnasium D. ghost
4. A. teammate B. reading C. seaside D. creating
5. A. crooked B. naked C. masked D. needed
II. Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from the others. (5 pts)
1. A. oceanic B. argument C. temperature D. valuable
2. A. incredible B. fortunately C. astronomy D. evaporate
3. A. committee B. expensive C. guarantee D. successful
4. A. vocabulary B. assistance C. develop D. evidence
5. A. applicant B. recognize C. yesterday D. curriculum
SECTION B: GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY (40 POINTS)
I. Complete the following sentences with the correct form of the verbs in brackets. (10 pts)
1- 2- 3. My father (work) …………………… in Canada for the last year, so by the time he (return) …………………… the month after
next, I (not see) …………………… ………… him for fourteen months.
4. We looked out of the window and saw it (rain) ……………………, so we stayed in.
5. TV chat shows (increase) …………………… in number all the time.
6. The camera (disappear) …………………… when we came in.
7. The woman (accuse) …………………… of the killing said that she was at the cinema at the time.
8 - 9. Not until we (arrive) …………………… at his house we (discover) that he was on holiday.
10. After (take) …………………… to the hospital, the injured victim felt much better yesterday.
II. Choose the best answer to complete the sentences. (10 pts)
1. There is a rumour that the National Bank is going to ______ the company I am working for.
A. take on B. take out of C. take off D. take over

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2. It would be lovely if the children could see and, ______, touch the animals.
A. eventually B. if possible C. at last D. finally
3. ______ he failed in the entrance exam caused his family much sadness.
A. Which B. That C. The thing D. What
4. Unless you return money immediately, you will risk being charged ______ theft and getting into serous trouble
A. on B. with C. of D. for
5. The old woman came in, ______ by a young man.
A. accompany B. to be accompanied C. accompanying D. accompanied
6. I’ve applied for the job I saw ______ in the newspaper last month.
A. advertised B. advertising C. be advertised D. being advertised
7. No, I didn’t know his number; ______ I’d have phoned him.
A. otherwise B. so C. therefore D. unless
8. ______ the two sisters, Mary is _______.
A. Of/ the prettier B. Between/ the prettiest C. Of/ prettier D. Between/ the prettier
9. A: Do you think it will rain tonight? B: ______. I am attending the evening class.
A. I don’t hope so B. I hope so C. I hope not D. I am not hoping
10. Ninety ______ the maximum length of time allowed for entrance exams to this school.
A. minute is B. minutes are C. minute are D. minutes is
III. Read the text below. Give the correct form of the words in brackets. (10pts)
JUDO
Judo is a sport that has achieved great popularity in many parts of the world. It was (1. origin) ……………………
developed in Japan in the late 19th century based on ancient methods of self-defence. There are two (2. fight) ……………………
Although they use physical (3. violent) …………………… against each other, they are respectful to their (4. oppose) ……………………
and bow to each other before and after each contest. Judo is an (5. expense) …………………… sport to take up because the only
equipment you need is the special loose-fitting suit. It is very suitable for (6. young) …………………… if they join a club where
the (7. instruct) …………………… are properly qualified and pay enough attention to safety. Although Judo is a physically (8.
demand) …………………… sport which requires a lot of (9. strong) …………………… practice, and skill, there are many people who
find it (10. enjoy) …………………… as a means of relaxation in their spare time.
IV. Find one mistake in each sentence below by choosing the letter A, B, C or D. (10 pts)
1. Joel giving up smoking has caused him to gain weight and become irritable with his acquaintances.
A B C D
2. There are many different ways of comparing the economy of one nation with those of another.
A B C D
3. George won’t lend you any money as long as you promise to pay him back.
A B C D
4. Having worked hard during the summer, his result was very successful in the entrance examination
A B C D
5. Society will be having to change radically to keep pace with the technology available.
A B C D
6. It is necessary that he goes to see a doctor as soon as he returns from taking the exam.
A B C D
7. The lion has long been a symbol of strength, power, and it is very cruel.
A B C D
8. The Nobel Prize winning candidate, together with his wife and children, are staying in Sweden after
the presentation. A B C D
9. My brother composes not only the music, but also sings the songs for the major Broadway musicals.
A B C D
10. After driving for twenty miles, he suddenly realized that he has been driving in the wrong direction.
A B C D
SECTION C: READING (30 POINTS)
I. Fill in each numbered space with ONE appropriate word. (10 pts)
TSUNAMI IN JAPAN
Japan's most powerful earthquake since records began has struck the north-east coast, triggering a massive tsunami.
Cars, ships and buildings were (1) …………………… away by a wall of water after the 8.9 - magnitude tremor, which struck about
400 kms (250 miles) north-east of Tokyo. A state of emergency has been declared at a nuclear power plant, (2) ……………………
pressure has exceeded normal levels. Officials say more than 10,000 people are dead and about 7,000 (3) …………………… but
it is feared the final death toll will be (4) …………………… higher. In one ward alone in Sendai, a port city in Miyagi prefecture,
200 to 300 bodies were found. “The quake has been the fifth-largest in the world (5) …………………… 1900 and nearly 8,000 (6)
…………………… stronger than the one which devastated Christchurch, New Zealand, last month”, said scientists. Thousands of
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people (7) …………………… near the Fukushima nuclear power plant have been ordered to evacuate. Japanese nuclear officials
said that pressure inside a boiling water reactor at the plant was running much higher than normal after the cooling system
failed. Officials said they might need to deliberately (8) …………………… some radioactive steam to relieve pressure, but that
there would be no health risk. US Secretary of State Hillary Clinton had earlier said the US Air Force had flown emergency
coolant to the site. But US officials later said (9) …………………… coolant had been handed over because the Japanese had
decided to handle the situation (10) ……………………
The UN's nuclear agency said four nuclear power plants had been shut down safely.
II. Read the passage below and then choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. (10pts)
Women nowadays have more (1) ______ than those in the past. For example, our great grandmothers were not
allowed to go to school or to work to earn their own living. (2) ______, they had to depend on their husbands financially.
Modern women, on the contrary, can get good education, have their own careers, and (3) ______ their interests. They can
even take good positions in politics if they are competent (4) ______ it. However, women living in our modern society have
their (5) ______ too. Today women work harder than their great grandmothers so that they can gain the (6) ______ between
working life and family life. Many people predict that by 2032, most (7) ______ positions at work will be taken by women.
Then, it is possible that women will have more (8) ______ life because, (9) ______ in a very modern society, the women can’t
(10) ______ their role in the family.
1. A. advances B. advantages C. benefits D. conveniences
2. A. Therefore B. However C. As a result D. Although
3. A. pursue B. support C. promote D. stimulate
4. A. to B. at C. with D. of
5. A. obstacles B. disputes C. profits D. problems
6. A. equality B. stables C. balance D. steadiness
7. A. senior B. junior C. inferior D. superior
8. A. sheltered B. healthy C. strenuous D. active
9. A. though B. even C. ever D. never
10. A. perform B. adopt C. fulfill D. neglect
III. Read the passage below and then choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. (10 pts)
Walt Disney was born in 1901 in Chicago, but soon moved to a small farm near Marceline, Missouri. From this rural
and rather humble beginning, he later became one of the most famous and beloved motion-picture producers in history.
Although he died in 1966, his name and artistic legacy continue to influence the lives of millions of people throughout the
world.
After several years of barely making ends meet as a cartoon artist operating from his Los Angeles garage, Disney had
his first success in 1928, with his release of a Mickey Mouse cartoon. Throughout the next decade, he continued to produce
a number of cartoons, and develop more of his highly profitable and enduring creations, such as Donald Duck and Pluto. In
the late 1930s, he issued a full-length cartoon film. Snow White became an instant commercial and critical success. This was
only the first of many films, both animated and not, produced by Disney and his studio.
But as renowned as Disney name is for cartoons and movies, it is probably best known for a string of spectacular
amusement and theme parks. Starting with California’s Disneyland in 1955 and culminating with the fantastically successful
Disney World and EPCOT Center in Florida, Disney became a household name. In recent years, the theme park concept
became international, with openings in Tokyo and Paris. With the continuing success of Disney, the creation of future theme
park is under discussion.
1. Which of the following is the title for the passage?
A. The history of Disney World and Disneyland. B. Walt Disney’s Boyhood Years
C. Walt Disney and his Legacy. D. Walt Disney and Animated Cartoons
2. The word “humble” in bold in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. boring B. shy C. simple D. respectful
3 What is the author’s attitude toward the accomplishments of Walt Disney?
A. critical B. respectful C. ambivalent D. approving
4. In paragraph 2 “barely making ends meet” in bold is closest in meaning to __________.
A. meeting personal failure. B. producing only a few cartoons.
C. not making much money. D. trying new businesses.
5. The word “enduring” in bold in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. lasting B. suffering C. famous D. difficult
6. The word “renowned” in bold in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. possessed B. talked about C. useful D. well-known
7. It can be inferred from the passage that ________.
A. Snow White was Disney’s most successful film. B. Disney created cartoon movies and “non cartoon” movies.
C. the Tokyo theme park is in financial difficulty. D. the California theme park is now closed.
8. The word “concept” in bold in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
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A. idea B. location C. birth D. demand
9. According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?
A. Disney’s first achieved success after his death. B. Mickey Mouse was Disney’s only cartoons creation.
C. Snow White was the first full-length cartoon film. D. Disney’s first concern was always profitability.
10. In future years it is most likely that ___________.
A. the Disney name will stay well–known. B. Disney will produce only cartoons.
C. the Paris theme park will become successful D. the remaining theme parks will also close
SECTION D: WRITING (20 POINTS)
I. Finish the second sentence so that it means the same as the first one. (10 pts)
1. Peter hasn’t had his hair cut for over 3 months.
→ It is …………………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. I meant to post that letter before lunch.
→ What …………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… ……………………
3. People will only become aware of the problem if you increase the publicity.
→ Only if …………………………………………………………………………………………………………
4. Scientists have tried very hard to find a cure for AIDS.
→ Enormous …………………………………………………………………………………………………………
5. Success depends on hard work.
→ The harder …………………………………………………………………………………………………………
6. She thought it was too difficult for her to finish the job by lunchtime.
→ She found …………………………………………………………………………………………………………
7. They thought that the little girl had found out the keys accidentally.
→ The keys …………………………………………………………………………………………………………
8. Someone has suggested abolishing income tax.
→ It …………………………………………………………………………………………………………
9. It was wrong of you to allow a 4-year-old child to walk home alone.
→ You should …………………………………………………………………………………………………………
10. We were late for the meeting because it rained heavily.
→ But for ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
II. Use the given word to write the second sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original
sentence. Do not change the form of the given word. (5pts)
1. They decided to build a new school in this region. SHOULD
…………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… 2. She got a scholarship as soon as she
registered for the training course. SCARCELY
…………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… 3. Flooding in this region was the result
of heavy rain RESULTED
…………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… 4. I don't like him because he boasts a
lot. MOUTH
…………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… 5. The Embassy said it would not be
necessary for me to get a visa. NEED
…………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… III. Complete the following sentences,
using the words given. (5 pts)
1. Exercise / take regularly / improves / fitness / our body / mind.
…………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… 2. Economic / reform / one / most /
important / measure / take / promote / development / country
…………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… ……………………
…………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… 3. Sleep / next room / boy / wakened / sound / breaking glass.
…………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… 4. Never / put / tomorrow / you / do /
today.
…………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… 5. Many people / say / most /
common / way / attract / someone / attention / by / wave.
…………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… …………………… - THE END –

71
KEYS
SECTION A: PHONETICS (10 POINTS)
I. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. (5 pts)
1. A. resume B. statistics C. position D. designer
2. A. criteria B. initiate C. certificate D. interactive
3. A. ginger B. gesture C. gymnasium D. ghost
4. A. teammate B. reading C. seaside D. creating
5. A. crooked B. naked C. masked D. needed
II. Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from the others. (5 pts)
1. A. oceanic B. argument C. temperature D. valuable
2. A. incredible B. fortunately C. astronomy D. evaporate
3. A. committee B. expensive C. guarantee D. successful
4. A. vocabulary B. assistance C. develop D. evidence
5. A. applicant B. recognize C. yesterday D. curriculum
SECTION B: GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY (40 POINTS)
I. Complete the following sentences with the correct form of the verbs in brackets. (10 pts)
1- 2- 3. My father (work) has worked in Canada for the last year, so by the time he (return) returns the month after next, I
(not see) won’t (will not)have seen him for fourteen months.
4. We looked out of the window and saw it (rain), so we stayed in. was raining
5. TV chat shows (increase) in number all the time. are increasing
6. The camera (disappear) when we came in. had disappeared
7. The woman (accuse) of the killing said that she was at the cinema at the time. accused
8 - 9. Not until we (arrive) at his house we (discover) that he was on holiday. arrived (had arrived)/ did we discover
10. After (take) to the hospital, the injured victim felt much better yesterday. being taken
II. Choose the best answer to complete the sentences. (10 pts)
1. There is a rumour that the National Bank is going to ______ the company I am working for.
A. take on B. take out of C. take off D. take over
2. It would be lovely if the children could see and, ______, touch the animals.
A. eventually B. if possible C. at last D. finally
3. ______ he failed in the entrance exam caused his family much sadness.
A. Which B. That C. The thing D. What
4. Unless you return money immediately, you will risk being charged ______ theft and getting into serous trouble
A. on B. with C. of D. for
5. The old woman came in, ______ by a young man.
A. accompany B. to be accompanied C. accompanying D. accompanied
6. I’ve applied for the job I saw ______ in the newspaper last month.
A. advertised B. advertising C. be advertised D. being advertised
7. No, I didn’t know his number; ______ I’d have phoned him.
A. otherwise B. so C. therefore D. unless
8. ______ the two sisters, Mary is _______.
A. Of/ the prettier B. Between/ the prettiest C. Of/ prettier D. Between/ the prettier
9. A: Do you think it will rain tonight? B: ______. I am attending the evening class.
A. I don’t hope so B. I hope so C. I hope not D. I am not hoping
10. Ninety ______ the maximum length of time allowed for entrance exams to this school.
A. minute is B. minutes are C. minute are D. minutes is
III. Read the text below. Give the correct form of the words in brackets. (10pts)
JUDO
Judo is a sport that has achieved great popularity in many parts of the world. It was (1. origin) _ originally _ developed
in Japan in the late 19th century based on ancient methods of self-defence. There are two (2. fight) _ fighters __. Although
they use physical (3. violent) __violence__ against each other, they are respectful to their (4. oppose) _ opponent __ and bow
to each other before and after each contest. Judo is an (5. expense) _inexpensive__ sport to take up because the only
equipment you need is the special loose-fitting suit. It is very suitable for (6. young) _ youngsters/ youths _ if they join a club
where the (7. instruct) __ instructors __ are properly qualified and pay enough attention to safety. Although Judo is a
physically (8. demand) __demanding_ sport which requires a lot of (9. strong) _trenghth__ practice, and skill, there are many
people who find it (10. enjoy) _ẹnoyable__ as a means of relaxation in their spare time.
IV. Find one mistake in each sentence below by choosing the letter A, B, C or D. (10 pts)
1. Joel giving up smoking has caused him to gain weight and become irritable with his acquaintances.
A B C D

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2. There are many different ways of comparing the economy of one nation with those of another.
A B C D
3. George won’t lend you any money as long as you promise to pay him back.
A B C D
4. Having worked hard during the summer, his result was very successful in the entrance examination
A B C D
5. Society will be having to change radically to keep pace with the technology available.
A B C D
6. It is necessary that he goes to see a doctor as soon as he returns from taking the exam.
A B C D
7. The lion has long been a symbol of strength, power, and it is very cruel.
A B C D
8. The Nobel Prize winning candidate, together with his wife and children, are staying in Sweden after
the presentation. A B C D
9. My brother composes not only the music, but also sings the songs for the major Broadway musicals.
A B C D
10. After driving for twenty miles, he suddenly realized that he has been driving in the wrong direction.
A B C D
SECTION C: READING (30 POINTS)
I. Fill in each numbered space with ONE appropriate word. (10 pts)
TSUNAMI IN JAPAN
Japan's most powerful earthquake since records began has struck the north-east coast, triggering a massive tsunami.
Cars, ships and buildings were (1) _ swept __ away by a wall of water after the 8.9 - magnitude tremor, which struck about
400 kms (250 miles) north-east of Tokyo. A state of emergency has been declared at a nuclear power plant, (2) _ where __
pressure has exceeded normal levels. Officials say more than 10,000 people are dead and about 7,000 (3) __ missing __, but
it is feared the final death toll will be (4) _ much/far __ higher. In one ward alone in Sendai, a port city in Miyagi prefecture,
200 to 300 bodies were found. “The quake has been the fifth-largest in the world (5) _ since _ 1900 and nearly 8,000 (6) __
times __ stronger than the one which devastated Christchurch, New Zealand, last month”, said scientists. Thousands of
people (7) _ living __ near the Fukushima nuclear power plant have been ordered to evacuate. Japanese nuclear officials said
that pressure inside a boiling water reactor at the plant was running much higher than normal after the cooling system failed.
Officials said they might need to deliberately (8) __ release __ some radioactive steam to relieve pressure, but that there
would be no health risk. US Secretary of State Hillary Clinton had earlier said the US Air Force had flown emergency coolant
to the site. But US officials later said (9) _ no __ coolant had been handed over because the Japanese had decided to handle
the situation (10) _ themselves __.
The UN's nuclear agency said four nuclear power plants had been shut down safely.
II. Read the passage below and then choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. (10pts)
Women nowadays have more (1) ______ than those in the past. For example, our great grandmothers were not
allowed to go to school or to work to earn their own living. (2) ______, they had to depend on their husbands financially.
Modern women, on the contrary, can get good education, have their own careers, and (3) ______ their interests. They can
even take good positions in politics if they are competent (4) ______ it. However, women living in our modern society have
their (5) ______ too. Today women work harder than their great grandmothers so that they can gain the (6) ______ between
working life and family life. Many people predict that by 2032, most (7) ______ positions at work will be taken by women.
Then, it is possible that women will have more (8) ______ life because, (9) ______ in a very modern society, the women can’t
(10) ______ their role in the family.
1. A. advances B. advantages C. benefits D. conveniences
2. A. Therefore B. However C. As a result D. Although
3. A. pursue B. support C. promote D. stimulate
4. A. to B. at C. with D. of
5. A. obstacles B. disputes C. profits D. problems
6. A. equality B. stables C. balance D. steadiness
7. A. senior B. junior C. inferior D. superior
8. A. sheltered B. healthy C. strenuous D. active
9. A. though B. even C. ever D. never
10. A. perform B. adopt C. fulfill D. neglect
III. Read the passage below and then choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. (10 pts)
Walt Disney was born in 1901 in Chicago, but soon moved to a small farm near Marceline, Missouri. From this rural
and rather humble beginning, he later became one of the most famous and beloved motion-picture producers in history.
Although he died in 1966, his name and artistic legacy continue to influence the lives of millions of people throughout the
world.
73
After several years of barely making ends meet as a cartoon artist operating from his Los Angeles garage, Disney had
his first success in 1928, with his release of a Mickey Mouse cartoon. Throughout the next decade, he continued to produce
a number of cartoons, and develop more of his highly profitable and enduring creations, such as Donald Duck and Pluto. In
the late 1930s, he issued a full-length cartoon film. Snow White became an instant commercial and critical success. This was
only the first of many films, both animated and not, produced by Disney and his studio.
But as renowned as Disney name is for cartoons and movies, it is probably best known for a string of spectacular
amusement and theme parks. Starting with California’s Disneyland in 1955 and culminating with the fantastically successful
Disney World and EPCOT Center in Florida, Disney became a household name. In recent years, the theme park concept
became international, with openings in Tokyo and Paris. With the continuing success of Disney, the creation of future theme
park is under discussion.
1. Which of the following is the title for the passage?
A. The history of Disney World and Disneyland. B. Walt Disney’s Boyhood Years
C. Walt Disney and his Legacy. D. Walt Disney and Animated Cartoons
2. The word “humble” in bold in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. boring B. shy C. simple D. respectful
3 What is the author’s attitude toward the accomplishments of Walt Disney?
A. critical B. respectful C. ambivalent D. approving
4. In paragraph 2 “barely making ends meet” in bold is closest in meaning to __________.
A. meeting personal failure. B. producing only a few cartoons.
C. not making much money. D. trying new businesses.
5. The word “enduring” in bold in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. lasting B. suffering C. famous D. difficult
6. The word “renowned” in bold in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. possessed B. talked about C. useful D. well-known
7. It can be inferred from the passage that ________.
A. Snow White was Disney’s most successful film. B. Disney created cartoon movies and “non cartoon” movies.
C. the Tokyo theme park is in financial difficulty. D. the California theme park is now closed.
8. The word “concept” in bold in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. idea B. location C. birth D. demand
9. According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?
A. Disney’s first achieved success after his death. B. Mickey Mouse was Disney’s only cartoons creation.
C. Snow White was the first full-length cartoon film. D. Disney’s first concern was always profitability.
10. In future years it is most likely that ___________.
A. the Disney name will stay well–known. B. Disney will produce only cartoons.
C. the Paris theme park will become successful D. the remaining theme parks will also close
SECTION D: WRITING (20 POINTS)
I. Finish the second sentence so that it means the same as the first one. (10 pts)
1. Peter hasn’t had his hair cut for over 3 months.
→ It is over 3 months since Peter (last) had his hair cut
2. I meant to post that letter before lunch.
→ What I meant (to do) was to post that letter before lunch
3. People will only become aware of the problem if you increase the publicity.
→ Only if you increase the publicity will people become aware of the problem
4. Scientists have tried very hard to find a cure for AIDS.
→ Enormous efforts/attempts have been made by scientists to find a cure for AIDS
5. Success depends on hard work.
→ The harder you work, the more successful you are / will be.
6. She thought it was too difficult for her to finish the job by lunchtime.
→ She found it too difficult to finish the job by lunchtime
7. They thought that the little girl had found out the keys accidentally.
→ The keys were thought to have been found out accidentally by the little girl
8. Someone has suggested abolishing income tax.
→ It has been suggested that income tax (should) be abolished
9. It was wrong of you to allow a 4-year-old child to walk home alone.
→ You should not have allowed a four-year-old child to walk home alone
10. We were late for the meeting because it rained heavily.
→ But for the heavy rain, we would not have been late for the meeting/ would have been in time for the meeting/ the fact
that it rained heavily, we would not have been late for the meeting

74
II. Use the given word to write the second sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original
sentence. Do not change the form of the given word. (5pts)
1. They decided to build a new school in this region. SHOULD
They decided that a new school should be built in this region (by them)
2. She got a scholarship as soon as she registered for the training course. SCARCELY
Scarcely had she registered for the training course when/before she got a scholarship
3. Flooding in this region was the result of heavy rain RESULTED
The heavy rain resulted in flooding in this region
4. I don't like him because he boasts a lot. MOUTH
I don't like him because he has a big mouth
5. The Embassy said it would not be necessary for me to get a visa. NEED
The Embassy said (that) I didn’t need to get a visa/ The Embassy said (that) there was no need for me to get a visa
III. Complete the following sentences, using the words given. (5 pts)
1. Exercise / take regularly / improves / fitness / our body / mind.
Exercise (which is) taken regularly improves the fitness of our body and mind
2. Economic / reform / one / most / important / measure / take / promote / development / country
Economic reforms is one of the most important measures to be taken/ (which is) taken/ to promote the development
of a country
3. Sleep / next room / boy / wakened / sound / breaking glass.
Sleeping in the next room, the boy was wakened by the sound of breaking glass
4. Never / put / tomorrow / you / do / today.
Never put off until tomorrow what you can do today
5. Many people / say / most / common / way / attract / someone / attention / by / wave.
Many people say (that) the most common way of attracting/ to attract someone’s attention is by waving
- THE END –

75
KEYS – PRACTICE 72
SECTION A: PHONETICS
I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other words. Write your answer in
the space provided. (5 pts)
1. A. associate B. sociable C. ancient D. ancestor
2. A. walked B. threatened C. passed D. forced
3. A. too B. food C. soon D. good
4. A. legal B. legend C. generous D. manager
5. A. adventure B. future C. mature D. figure
II. Pick out the word that differs from the other words in the position of the main stress. Write your answer in the space
provided. (5 pts)
6. A. comedy B. collection C. comical D. calculate
7. A. ambitious B. memorial C. memory D. mechanic
8. A. remove B. cancel C. copy D. answer
9. A. Japanese B. engineer C. practical D. questionnaire
10. A. document B. develop C. opponent D. astonish
SECTION B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR
I. Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. Write your answer in the space provided. (15 pts)
11. Secondary schools offer a wide ______ of subjects.
A. field B. scope C. list D. range
12. When he woke up, he realized that the things he had dreamt about could not ______ have happened.
A. possibly B. likely C. certainly D. potentially
13. - “Do you think the book is expensive? - “Yes, it’s not ______ what we paid for it.”
A. worthy B. worth of C. worth D. valuable
14. To ______ extent did she benefit from her uncle’s will?
A. what B. how C. which D. whom
15. The new system didn’t ______ expectations.
A. catch up with B. bring about C. come across D. come up to
16. Before the meeting finished, they had arranged when ______ next.
A. they met B. they to meet C. to meet D. should they meet
17. ______ aren’t effective anymore because insects have become resistant to them.
A. Fertilizers B. Pesticides C. Herbicides D. Composts
18. When he heard the joke, he burst into loud ______.
A. smile B. laughter C. amusement D. enjoyment
19. The traffic lights ______ to green, and the car drove on.
A. exchanged B. turned C. removed D. shone
20. It is a good idea to be ______ dressed when you go for an interview.
A. finely B. boldly C. smartly D. clearly
21. We were so late that we ______ had time to catch the train.
A. nearly B. almost C. hardly D. simply
22. They are going to make ______ excursion next month.
A. a two-week B. two-weeks C. two weeks' D. a two-week's
23. I haven't had a very ______ week. I seem to have done nothing at all.
A. extensive B. productive C. enthusiastic D. economic
24. The purpose of the survey was to ______ the inspectors with local conditions.
A. inform B. acquaint C. instruct D. notify
25. Do you know the man ______ over there?
A. interviewed B. interviewing C. to interview D. interviews
II. There is one mistake in each of the following sentences. Find and correct it. (10 pts)
26. Because the torrential rains that had devastated the area, the governor sent the National Guard to assist in the clean-
up operation. Because of
27. One of the most important things in life is a good health. good health
28. The city has spent a big amount of money on crime prevention. large/ huge
29. Comparing with other countries, Libya spends a high percentage of income on education. Compared
30. People are now enjoying a higher level of living. standard
31. In the United Kingdom women see their doctor on the average five times a year. on average

76
32. Although Mark has been cooking for many years, he still doesn’t know to prepare French foods in the traditional
manner. know how to prepare
33. When we arrived at the store to purchase the dishwasher advertise in the newspaper, we learned that all the
dishwashers had been sold. advertised
34. After rising the flag to commemorate the holiday, the mayor gave a long speech. raising
35. This time tomorrow I will lie on the beach, enjoying the sunshine. I will be lying
III. Give the correct form of the words in the brackets in each of the following sentences. Write your answer in the space
provided. (10 pts)
36. I was annoyed at his (REFUSE)__ refusal _ to co-operate.
37. The book doesn’t say much about prices, but it is very (INFORM)_ informative __ about everything else.
38. The noise (LESS)__ lessened __ as the plane got farther away.
39. He lost in the election because he was a weak and (DECIDE)__ indecisive _ leader.
40. I couldn’t help it. The accident was (AVOID)__ unavoidable _.
41. She was (EXTREME)_ extremely _ knowledgeable about the history of China.
42. He was very (SET)__upset__ when his cat was run over.
43. Jackson had another violent (AGREE)_ disagreement __ with the referee.
44. Many people were buried (LIVE)__alive__ after the earthquake.
45. She studied (ECONOMY)_economics__ at university.
SECTION C: READING COMPREHENSION
I. Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word. Write your answer in the space provided. (10 pts)
Australia is a big country, but nearly all Australians live near the sea. On hot summer days, you can see thousands of
people at the beach. Many beaches have waves (46)_ that/ which __ are very high.
These large waves are known as surf and the people who ride them are called surfers. Surfing is a skill, and it needs
learning. Don’t (47)__ expect _ to be able to surf properly the (48)__first__ time you try. However, by practising a few times
you will learn (49)__how_ to do it.
Surfing is not a new sport. Perhaps its origins need explaining. It started hundreds (50)__of__ years ago in Hawaii. Men
swam (51)_out___ to sea to catch fish and found they could come back to land very quickly by riding the waves. These first
surfers did not (52)__use__ a board. They were “body surfers”. Many people (53)_ still __ do this type of surfing today.
After a while people started to use boards and rode the waves by lying, kneeling or standing (54)__on__ them. These first
surfboards were made of wood and the water made them rot after a while. Today, surfboards are made of plastic or fibreglass
(55)__ instead _.
II. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. (10 pts)
What do you do well? What do you enjoy doing? Your answers to these two questions will help you identify your
(56)_____. An employer will consider you seriously for a (57)_____ when you can show them that you know who you are,
what you can offer and which you have studied. Sometimes it is difficult to know what your weaknesses are. Clearly not
everyone is equally good (58)_____ everything. You may need to improve yourself and so (59)_____ courses in that field
could turn a weakness into strength.
You will need to (60)______ some time on your self-assessment. Your honesty and the desire for self-improvement
will lead to (61)______ in getting the right job. Explore the following seven areas to start to get to know yourself: your
aptitude, your skills, your personality, the level of responsibility you feel comfortable with, your interests and your needs.
Ask (62)_____ if you have any special talents and if you need to consider your physical health when choosing a job.
Be as honest and realistic as you can, and ask for other people's (63)_____ if necessary. Make a list of these things. It is
usually a good idea to talk about your aptitudes with teachers, family and friends.
If you are considering a career that (64)_____ a special talent, such as art, acrobatics, mathematics or music,
discuss your aptitudes with (65)_____ expert in that area and discover how they fit the needs of the occupation.
56. A. strong B. strength C. strengthen D. strengthened
57. A. position B. location C. spot D. room
58. A. upon B. in C. at D. for
59. A. meeting B. taking C. making D. interviewing
60. A. use B. make C. lose D. spend
61. A. success B. successful C. successfully D. succeed
62. A. you B. your C. yours D. yourself
63. A. interests B. fields C. opinions D. attendances
64. A. requires B. asks C. tells D. urges
65. A. a B. an C. the D. this
III. Read the following text and choose the best answer for the questions below. (10 pts)

77
May 7th 1840 was the birthday of one of the most famous Russian composers of the nineteenth century: Peter Ilyich
Tchaikovsky, the son of a mining inspector. Tchaikovsky studied music as a child and later studied composition at the St.
Petersburg Conservatory. His greatest period of productivity occurred between 1876 and 1890, during which time he enjoyed
patronage of Madame von Meck, a woman he never met, who gave him a yearly living stipend. Madame von Meck later
terminated her friendship with Tchaikovsky, as well as his living allowance, when she, herself, was facing financial difficulties.
It was during the time of Madame von Meck’s patronage, however, that Tchaikovsky created the music for which he is most
famous, including the music for the ballets of “Swan Lake” and “The Sleeping Beauty”. Tchaikovsky’s music, well-known for
its rich melodic and sometimes melancholy passages, was one of the first that brought serious dramatic music to dance.
Before this, little attention had been given to the music behind the dance. Tchaikovsky died ostensibly of cholera on
November 6th 1893, though there are now some scholars who argue that he committed suicide.
66. The best title for this passage could be ______.
A. “The Life and Music of Tchaikovsky” B. “Development of Tchaikovsky’s Music for Ballets”
C. “Tchaikovsky’s Relationship with Madame von Meck” D. “The Cause of Tchaikovsky’s Death”
67. According to the passage, all of the following describe Madame von Meck EXCEPT ______.
A. she had economic troubles B. she was generous
C. she was never introduced to Tchaikovsky D. she enjoyed Tchaikovsky’s music
68. According to the passage, Tchaikovsky’s music is most well-known for ______.
A. it’s repetitive and monotonous tones B. the ballet-like quality of music
C. the richness and melodic drama of the music D. its lively, capricious melodies
69. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Tchaikovsky’s influence on ballet music. B. Tchaikovsky’s unhappiness leading to suicide.
C. The patronage of Madame von Meck. D. Tchaikovsky’s productivity in composing.
70. It can be inferred from the passage that _. A. it was not the music behind the dance that made Tchaikovsky famous
B. there is suspicion on the cause of Tchaikovsky’s death
C. Madame von Meck was one of the most famous Russian composers
D. Madame von Meck was one of Tchaikovsky’s girlfriends
SECTION D: WRITING
I. Finish the second sentence in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. (15 pts)
71. It is extremely difficult for us to make ends meet these days.
We find it difficult to make ends meet these days
72. Alice and Charles did not decide to move to a bigger house until after the birth of their second child.
Only when Alice and Charles had their second child, did they decide to move to a bigger house
73. While mending the road, they accidentally blocked our water pipes.
They accidentally cut off our water supplying while mending the road
74. He brought the umbrella along but it didn't rain.
He needn't have brought the umbrella along (because it didn't rain anyway).
75. While I strongly disapprove of your behaviour, I will help you this time. Despite my strong disapproval of your
behaviour/ the fact that I strongly disapprove of your behaviour, I will help you this time.
II. Use the word given in brackets and make any necessary additions to write a new sentence in such a way that it is as
similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do NOT change the form of the given word(s). (10 pts)
76. When I was driving, I realized that the car wasn’t working properly. (WRONG)
While I was driving, I realized that there was something wrong with the car
77. Sandra said that she was willing to work late. (MIND)
Sandra said that she didn’t mind working late
78. They pretended to be enjoying themselves, but they weren’t really. (AS)
They acted as if they were enjoying themselves, but they weren’t really
79. I can't lift this table on my own. (UNLESS)
I can't lift this table unless you help me/ someone helps me
80. The coins are believed to have been buried for safe-keeping. (IT)
It is believed that the coins were buried for safe-keeping
THE END

78
KEYS – PRACTICE 73
PART B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR
I. Complete each of the following sentences with the correct answer (A, B, C or D). (15 pts)
1. The traffic problem has improved _____, out of the blue, really.
A. gradually B. factually C. unexpectedly D. respectably
2. This picture book, the few pages _____ are missing, is my favorite.
A. for which B. of that C. to which D. of which
3. It was felt that he lacked the _______ to pursue a difficult task to very end.
A. persuasion B. commitment C. engagement D. obligation
4. Your decision will ______ a great strain on our relationship.
A. impose B. propose C. expose D. suppose
5. We shouldn’t give the children everything they ask for; they will become completely _____.
A. spoilt B. wounded C. damaged D. destroyed
6. The completion of the tunnel has been _______ owing to a strike.
A. held up B. held off C. held on D. held over
7. It is with ________ regret that we have to inform you that your scholarship has been withdrawn.
A. heavy B. deep C. somber D. high
8. _______ of all modern domestic poultry is the red jungle fowl is widely believed.
A. The ancestor B. The ancestor is C. How the ancestor D. That the ancestor
9. Art critics do not all agree on what _______ a painting great.
A. qualities to make B. are the qualities for making C. qualities make D. do the qualities that
make
10. Farmers supply crops with phosphorus in areas ________ have removed it from the soil.
A. because of long years of cultivation B. where long years of cultivation
C. with long years of cultivation D. by long years of cultivation
11. Sarah congratulated _____ passing my driving test.
A. me B. for C. me on D. on me
12. Had it not been for the intolerable heat in the hall, they _____ much longer.
A. will stay B. would stay C. would be staying D. would have stayed
13. I can’t quite _____ out what the sign says.
A. read B. get C. carry D. make
14. One _____ of the scheme is the very high cost.
A. advantage B. shortage C. drawback D. shortcoming
15. In a new culture, many embarrassing situations occur _____ a misunderstanding.
A. because of B. of C. for D. because
II. Choose a word or phrase in each of the following sentences that needs correcting. (10 pts)
1. Paris has been well-known about its famous monuments, beautiful music, and wonderful restaurants for over 100 years.
A B C D
2. In France people drive on the left, so making sure you go on the right side.
A B C D
3. Up to now he wrote five novels and over sixteen short stories.
A B C D
4. The new bridge makes it possibly to cross the river easily and quickly.
A B C D
5. If you are working with young children in a primary school, you will find that teaching lively songs and rhymes are very
popular.
A B C D
III. Use the correct form of the word in bracket to complete each of the following sentences. (10 pts)
1. He is unhappy because of his __ deafness __. (deaf)
2. The __drainage__ of the swamps will destroy the mosquitoes’ breeding places. (drain)
3. He has made a great ___contribution__to the development of the country. (contribute)
4. We will hire new staff when the ____necessity___arises. (necessary)
5. His repeated ___absence___ from school is unacceptable. (absent)
6. The teacher’s words are a great __ encouragement ___ to him. (encourage)
7. They are very ___supportive___ of one another. (support)

79
8. Her interests are very __ diverse __. (diversity)
9. I can’t stand his ___rudeness__. (rude)
10. The holiday was beyond all ___ expectations __. (expect)
PART C: READING
I. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each space. (15 pts)
Around the age of eighteen, you must make one of the biggest decisions of your life. "Do I stay on at school and
hopefully go on to university (1)_later__? Do I leave and start work or begin (2) _a_ training course?".
The decision is yours, but it may be (3)_ worth _ remembering two things: there is more unemployment among people
(4)_who__ haven't been to university, and people who have the right (5)__skills_ will have a big advantage in the competition
for jobs. If you decide to go straight into a job, there are many opportunities (6)_for_ training. Getting qualifications will
(7)_help_ you to get on more quickly in many careers, and evening classes allow you to learn (8)_while _ you earn. Starting
work and taking a break to study when you are older is (9)_ another __ possibility. This way, you can save up money for your
student days, as well as (10)_getting_ practical work experience.
II. Choose the best answer from the four options marked A, B, C or D to complete each numbered gap in the passage below.
(10 pts)
If you (1)_____ to be walking in your local park tomorrow and you find an abandoned book with a label inside
(2)_____ 'Read and Release me', don't just treat it as a joke. You've probably come (3)_____ an example of 'book-crossing',
a book-sharing movement started in 2001 by American software developer Ron Hornbaker, whose stated aim is to 'make the
(4)_____ world a library'. Book-crossers 'release' books (5)_____ by passing them on to friends, or else by leaving them in
public places for others to pick up, or 'catch', and then read, before they (6)_____ turn release them back 'into the wild'.
(7)_____ a book has been 'caught', the person finding it is encouraged to record the event by logging on to the book-crossing
website and entering the book's ID number written on the label. That (8)_____ , both the original owner and subsequent
readers of the book can keep track of its progress. Over half a million people worldwide participate in book-crossing,
'releasing' books in a (9)_____ range of locations including cafés, airports, bus stations, telephone boxes and even
underwater in public fountains. Often a book is left in a place (10)_____ is relevant to its title or content: Agatha Christie's
Murder on the Orient Express on a train, for example, or an archeology book in a museum.
1. A. occur B. happen C. pass D. arise
2. A. telling B. saying C. talking D. answering
3. A. away B. along C. across D. aside
4. A. full B. absolute C. quite D. whole
5. A. either B. but C. or D. neither
6. A. at B. to C. in D. for
7. A. Soon B. Since C. Once D. While
8. A. way B. time C. place D. manner
9. A. deep B. long C. high D. wide
10. A. what B. which C. who D. where
III. Read the text then answer the questions by choosing A, B, C or D. (20 pts)
To date, Canada has produced only one classic children’s tale to rank with Alice’s Adventures in wonderland and the
works of Mark Twain; this was Lucy Maud Montgomery’s Anne of Green Gables. Lucy Maud Montgomery was born in Clinton,
Prince Edward Island. Her mother died soon after her birth, and when her father went to Saskatchewan to assume a business
position, she moved in with her grandparents in Cavendish, Prince Edward Island. There she went to school and later qualified
to be a teacher.
Montgomery wrote the Anne books while living in Cavendish and helping her grandmother at the post office. The first
of the books, Anne of Green Gabbles, was published in 1908, and in the next three years she wrote two sequels. Like
Montgomery, the heroine of the book is taken in by an elderly couple who lives in the fictional town of Avonlea, and
Montgomery incorporated many events from her life in Cavendish into the Anne books.
In 1911, Montgomery married Evan Macdonald and the couple soon moved to Ontario, where she wrote many other
books. However, it was her first efforts that secured her prominence, and the Anne books are still read all around the world.
Her novels have helped create a warm picture of Prince Edward Island’s special character. Several movies, a television series,
and a musical play have been based on her tales, and today visitors scour the Island for locations described in the book.
1. The main purpose of this passage is to ____. A. show the similarities between Montgomery’s life and that of her
fictional character Anne.
B. contrast Canadian children’s literature with that of other countries.
80
C. provide a brief introduction to Prince Edward Island. D. introduce Montgomery and her Anne books.
2. According to the passage, Montgomery was raised primarily____.
A. by her grandparents B. in an orphanage C. by her mother D. by her father
3. Approximately when did Lucy Maud Montgomery write the two sequels to her book Anne of Green Gables?
A. From 1874 to 1908 B. From 1911 to 1913 C. From 1908 to 1911 D. From 1913 to 1918
4. The word “elderly” in line 8 is closest in meaning to____.
A. kindly B. old C. friendly D. sly
5. In the Anne books, the main character lives in____.
A. the town of Cavendish B. the town of Avonlea C. Saskatchewan D. Ontario
6. Which of the following can be concluded from the passage about Anne books?
A. They were not as successful as Montgomery’s later works. B. They were influenced by the works of Mark Twain.
C. They were at least partially autobiographical. D. They were not popular until after Montgomery had
died.
7. Ontario was the place where ____. A. Montgomery wrote other books B. Montgomery got married
C. Montgomery wrote two sequels D. Montgomery became famous
8. The word “prominence” in line 11 is closest in meaning to____.
A. excellence B. reputation C. effort D. permanence
9. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “character” in line 12?
A. a person in a novel B. nature C. a written symbol D. location
10. All of the following have been based on the Anne books EXCEPT____.
A. a television series B. movies C. a play D. a ballet
PART D: WRITING
I. Complete the second sentence so that it has the similar meaning to the first sentence. Write your answer on your answer
sheet. (10 pts)
1. “You’d better not lend her any more money, Paul,” said Tom.  Tom advised Paul not to lend her any more
money.
2. Although the traffic was bad, Peter arrived on time.  In spite of the bad traffic/the fact that the traffic was bad, Peter
arrived on time.
3. The last time I saw Mary was in 2009.  I haven’t seen Mary since 2009.
4. The plumber repaired the leak this morning.  They had the plumber repair the leak this
morning
5. They had a bad crop because the storm swept through the region.  If the storm hadn’t swept through the region,
they wouldn’t have had a bad crop
II: Complete the second sentence so that it has the similar meaning to the first sentence. Use the word given. Do not
change the word. Write your answer on your answer sheet. (10 pts)
1. It's possible that someone stole your purse when we were in the restaurant. (might)  Someone might have stolen
your purse / Your purse might have been stolen when we were in the restaurant
2. ‘Me? No, I didn’t take Sue’s calculator,’ said Bob. (denied)  Bob denied taking/ having taken Sue’s calculator.
3. They said that an electrical failure was the cause of the fire. (blamed)  They blamed the fire on an electrical failure/ an
electrical failure for the fire.
4. She apologized to the host for having to go so early, and left. (apologies) She made/offered her apologies to the host
and left early.
5. Peter was the first person I asked for advice. (whose)  Peter was the first person whose advice I asked for.

81
KEYS – PRACTICE 74
B. PHONETICS: (5.0 points)
1 point for each correct answer:
16. D 17. C 18. A 19. C 20. D
C. GRAMMAR - VOCABULARY - LANGUAGE FUNCTION:
I. (15 points): 1 point for each correct answer:
21. C 22. B 23. B 24. D 25. A
26. C 27. C 28. D 29. B 30. D
31. A 32. A 33. C 34. B 35. C
II. (10 points): 1 point for each correct answer:
36. MYSTERIOUSLY 37. EXPOSURE 38. IRRELEVANCE 39. MIGRATE
40. INATTENTIVE 41. DEEPEN 42. DISCARDED 43. ENTHUSIASM.
44. INDEPENDENT 45. RENEWABLE
III. (5.0 points): 1 point for each correct answer:
46. D 47. B 48. A 49. A 50. C
D. READING:
I. (10 points): 1 point for each correct answer:
51. A 52. A 53. C 54. D 55. B
56. B 57. D 58. A 59. D 60. B
II. (5 points): 1 point for each correct answer:
61. C 62. F 63. H 64. G 65. B
III. (10 points): 1 point for each correct answer:
66. A 67. D 68. B 69. D 70. C
71. A 72. C 73. C 74. D 75. B
E. WRITING:
I. (5 points): 1 point for each correct answer:
76. - There has been a considerable increase / rise in the cost of living in the past few years.
77. - It is unlikely that they will succeed / will be successful.
- It is likely that they will not succeed / will not be successful.
78. - It has been suggested that income tax should be abolished.
79. - Tom can make himself understood when he speaks Vietnamese.
80. - We are thankful to General Vo Nguyen Giap for what he contributed to / what he did for the cause of the national liberation.
II. (10 points)
81. Come and enjoy three hundred years of history in a single day! (1.0 p)
82. Highfield House is one of Britain's finest old buildings (1.0 p) with attractive, well-kept gardens and a good view of the
beautiful North Norfolk coast. (1.0 p)
83. Until recently, it was the home of the members of the Highfield family. (1.0 p)
84. Now, however, this classic 18th century hall is a living museum (which is) full of art and history. (1.0 p)
85. There are so many attractions from the beautiful rooms to the peaceful picnic places / such as the beautiful rooms and the
peaceful picnic places by the lake.(1.0 p)
86. You can even have / make / take a trip on the water if the weather is suitable. (1.0 p)
87. Enjoy a guided tour of the House, starting with the grandeur of the entrance (1.0 p), and carry on through the various
rooms. (1.0 p)
88. The tour of the House ends in the old kitchen where / in which valuable antique tools are display. (1.0 p)
III. (10 points):
1. Form: essay (1.0 points)
+ include 3 parts:
- introduction
82
- body
- conclusion
2. Organization: (10 points)
- easy to follow
- coherent
3. Content: (4.0 points):
- successful fulfillment of the task with important ideas and relevant details
4. Language: (4.0 points)
- a variety of structures and sentences patterns
- appropriate vocabulary
- suitable connectors
- correct grammar
- correct punctuating / spelling

---------THE END---------

83
KEYS – PRACTICE 75

SECTION II: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (7 points)


PART 1: (1,5 điểm) 0,1 điểm/ 1 câu
Write your answers here.
1. D 2. A 3. C 4. A 5. B
6. A 7. B 8. D 9. D 10. A
11. A 12. B 13. B 14. C 15. B

PART 2: (1,2 điểm) 0,1 điểm/ 1 câu


0. it 1.would/could/migh 2. what 3.any/every
t
4.as 5. up/ down 6. of 7. all/ everything
8. taking 9. for/ in 10. because 11. if
12. later

PART 3: (1,5 điểm) 0,1 điểm/ 1 câu


1.√ 2. have 3. so 4. for 5. √
6. is 7. would 8. √ 9. √ 10. if
11. back 12. by 13. who 14. √ 15. at

PART 4: (1,0 điểm) 0,1 điểm/ 1 câu


0. lay 1. buried 2. was discovered
3. have speculated 4. have wondered 5. be taking
6. were 7. experienced 8. occur
9.standing 10. to adverse

PART 5: (0,8 điểm) 0,1 điểm/ 1 câu

0. help 1. stop 2. mind


3. shop 4. luck 5. power
6. technology 7. thought 8. aid

PART 6: (1,0 điểm) 0,1 điểm/ 1 câu


0. advisable. 1. beneficial 2. presentation
3. noticeable 4. speech 5. orally
6. professional 7. impression 8. responses
9. revisit 10. unease

84
SECTION III. READING (4 points)
PART 1: (1,2 điểm) 0,1 điểm/ 1 câu

0. B 1. A 2. D 3. B
4. C 5. D 6. A 7. B
8. C 9. C 10. A 11. B
12. A

PART 2: (1,0 điểm) 0,1 điểm/ 1 câu

1. I 2. C 3. I 4. C 5. C
6. . I 7. . C 8. I 9. I 10. I

PART 3: (1,0 điểm/ 8 câu) 0,1 điểm/ 1 lựa chọn đúng

1. A 2. C 3. D 4. B
5. A 6. B 7. A 8. A C F

PART 4: (0,8 điểm) 0,1 điểm/ 1 câu

1. I 2. F 3. B 4. H
5. A 6. D 7. C 8. G

85
SECTION 4: WRITING (6 points)
PART 1: (1,4 điểm) 0,2 điểm /1 câu
1. ………you have any complaints about the product, return it to the shop.
2. …..my subscription to that magazine nine months ago.
3. ………had she expected she was so successful.
4. ……proficient he was at the game, the more he was fond of it.
5. …… of the findings will be made until next week.
6. ……… of the lifts was working.
7. ………. Simon feeling weaker than he (had) expected.

PART 2: (1,6 điểm) 0,2 điểm /1 câu


1. ….I had ability to……
2. …….was coming down in torrents.
3. ….have (got) nothing in common.
4. …..should have asked me/ for permission….
5. …..to be a favourite of ….
6. ……to put up with commuting ……….
7. ….caught the thieves red-handed…
8. ….nothing like as warm as ….. .

PART 3: ( 3.0 điểm)


Điểm thành phần của bài luận theo những điểm đề nghị sau:
- Organization: Bố cục rõ ràng, đầy đủ ba phần: mở bài, thân bài, kết luận. (0,4đ)
- Discourse: (Thể hiện khả năng viết mạch lạc, chặt chẽ, nối kết câu, chuyển mạch tốt)
(0,6 đ)
- Sentence structures (expressions, vocabulary, spelling): Cấu trúc câu linh hoạt, (đơn, phức) (0,8
đ)
- Ideas: (ý hay, phong phú, biểu đạt nội dung liên quan chặt chẽ với chủ đề của đề thi. (0,8)
- Length (Đảm bảo đủ số lượng từ qui định : không quá dài hoặc quá ngắn) (0,4đ)

---The End---

86
KEYS – PRACTICE 76
I/ READING
PART1: 2ms ( 10 x 0,2 = 2ms)
1B, 2D, 3A, 4B, 5A, 6B, 7D, 8D, 9B, 10C
PART 2: 1m (5x 0,2 = 1m)
1- the, 2– the, 3– an, 4– the, 5– no article
PART 3: 1m (5x 0,2 = 1m)
1– of, 2– of, 3– in, 4– with, 5– to
PART 4: 1m (5x 0,2 = 1m)
1- didn’t do, 2 – hadn’t caught , 3 – has finished/ finishes, 4- will have left, 5- to help
PART 5: 2ms (10 x 0,2 = 2ms)
1B, 2C, 3A, 4D, 5C, 6A, 7D, 8B, 9A, 10C
PART 6: 2ms (10 x 0,2 = 2ms)
1- form, 2- under, 3- turning, 4- increasing, 5- courses
6- raise, 7- it, 8- key, 9- claim, 10- information
PART 7: 2ms (10 x 0,2 = 2ms)
1A, 2C, 3D, 4C, 5C, 6B, 7B, 8A, 9D, 10D
PART 8: 2ms (10 x 0,2 = 2ms)
1- only had it, 2- had been in that, 3. did him no/ did not( seem to ) do him any.
4. good/ use grumbling/ complaining about
5. people parking, 6- without, 7- frightened/ scared to, 8- rumbling
9. under the, 10- afford to have them
II/ WRITING:
PART 1: 2ms (5x 0,4 = 2ms)
1. Tom congratulated me on having passed the final exams.
2. The lifeguard advised us not to swim too far from the shore.
3. There has been a sharp decline in birth race recently.
4. It was not until the next day I heard the news.
5. Despite the torrential all day, we all enjoy the excursion.
PART 2: 2ms (5x 0,4 = 2ms)
1. He has the option of taking early retirement
2. He didn’t contribute to the conversation.
3. The signposts were confusing, which made us lose our way.
4. He wants you people / students to call him “professor”
5. She always gets as well with the children.
PART 2: 3ms

87
KEYS – PRACTICE 77
Mark the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
1: A. adventure B. future C. mature D. figure
2: A. young B. plough C. couple D. cousin
3: A. open B. happen C. offer D. begin
4: A. difficulty B. simplicity C. discovery D. commodity
5: A. obligatory B. geographical C. international D. undergraduate
6: A. represent B. discover C. experience D. adventure
7: A. curriculum B. obstinacy C. historical D. tremendous
8: A. confetti B. confidence C. comrade D. conference
9: A. inexpensive B. psychiatry C. patriotic D. scientific
10: A. emission B. encounter C. impudence D. outnumber
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.
11. (A)The most butterfly eggs are coated (B)with a sticky substance that (C)holds them (D)to plants.
12. Ancient people made (A) a clay pottery (B) because they needed (C) it for (D) their survival.
13. (A) Some of the plants in this store require very (B) little care, but this one needs (C) much more sunlight than the (D)
others ones
14. The bus (A) was plenty of people who had spent (B) many a happy hour in the stores (C) doing (D) their Christmas shopping.
15. (A) In the human body, blood flows from (B) a heart through the (C) arteries and it returns through (D) the veins.
16. As a child grows (A) on, its physical health (B) is affected (C) by (D) many elements in the air, water and food.
16: Among the (A) world’s 44 (B) richest countries, (C) there has been (D) not war since 1945.
17: Educational films are made for (A) schools, training films for industry; documentary films present (B) fact events (C) or
circumstances of social, political, or historical nature (D).

18: The carpenters tried to (A) join together the pieces of the (B) broken beam, but (C) found it impossible (D) to do.
19: A (A) smile can be observed, described, and reliably (B) identify; it can also be elicited and manipulated under (C)
experimental (D) conditions.
20: (A) After the rain had (B) let out, the Mitchells (C) continued (D) their hike up the mountain.
Choose the best answer
21: Had I studied harder, I_________________better in the last exam.
A. would do B. would have done C. had done D. wouldn’t have done
22: The larger the apartment, the __________________ the rent is.
A. expensive B. more expensive C. expensively D. most expensive
23: Nam wanted to know what time _______.
A. the movie began B. the movie begins C. does the movie begin D. did the movie begin
24: On attaining maximum size, ______ by drawing itself out and dividing into two daughter amoebas, each receiving
identical nuclear materials.
A. the reproduction of the amoeba B. the amoeba, which reproduces
C. reproducing the amoeba D. the amoeba reproduces
25: Lenses, ____________, are used to correct imperfections in eyesight.
A. are the forms of glasses and contact lenses B. in the form of glasses and contact lenses
C. glasses and contact lenses which form D. glasses and contact lenses may be formed
26:Tim: “____________” – Jeycy: “Certainly”
A. Welcome back! B. What are you doing there? C. I’m sorry I am late D. May I borrow a pencil , please?
27: Jane:“Would you mind if I use you computer for an hour?” Tony:”________”
A. Not at all. I’ve finished my job B. Yes, you can use it.
C. Of course not. I still need it now D. Yes, It’s all right.
28: Thanks to the laser beams, at last, he could get rid of the __________birthmark on his face.
A. normal B. abnormal C. abnormality D. abnormally
29: That beautiful girl died of an________ morphine.
A. overweight B. overhear C. overdo D. overdose
30: We usually do go by train, even though the car _________ is a lot quicker.
A. travel B. journey C. trip D. voyage
31: I suggest the room ………………..before Christmas.
A. be decorated B. is decorated C. were decorated D. should decorate
32: “What’s the matter? You don’t look very well.” – “I feel a little .....................”
A. out of the blue C. out of order B. under the weather D. under the impression

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33: I know we had an arguement, but now I'd quite like to _________.
A. look down B. make up C. fall out D. bring up
34: Nowadays women ___the same wages as men
A.should pay B.will be paid C.will pay D.should be paid
35. ………he was kidnapped by the Iraqi guerrillas yesterday has been confirmed.
A. What B. If C. That D. Ø
36. The conference was organized for all of the ……… teachers in the city.
A. history B. historic C. historical D. historian
37: In the ____ of proof, the police could not take action against the man.
A. lack B. shortage C. want D. absence
38. He never………….. his word
A. goes back on B. puts up with C. makes up for D. goes down with
39. Someone ……….here recently: these ashes are still warm.
A. should be B. had to be C. must have been D. might have been
40: As an adult, I am independent _____ my parents financially.
A.on B. of C. out D. with
41: Environmentalists are earnestly trying to determine ______ of the ozone layer over the poles.
A. what is causing the deterioration B. what the cause of the deterioration
C. is causing the deterioration D. the deterioration is causing
42: The bank sent a notice to its customers which contained____
Ạ. A remembrance that interest rates were to rise the following month
B. A reminder that a raise in interest rates was the month following
C. To remember that the interest rates was going up next month
D. A reminder that the interest rates would raise the following month
43. The smell of the sea …….. him …… to his childhood.
A. took …back B. brought…back C. reminded… of D. called …off
44. We don’t sell foreign newspapers because there is no ………. for them
A. request B. requirement C. claim D. demand
45. The problem is difficult, therefore ………. students could answer it.
A. a great number of B. a lot of C. few D. a few
46: Different cultures ____ dreams in different ways.
A. associate B. interpret C. interfere D. express
47: Max is not a(n) ____ drinker but he likes a glass of wine occasionally.
A. addict B. drunk C. heavy D. obsessed
48: “What’s the matter? You don’t look very well.” – “I feel a little _________________.”
A. out of the blue B. under the weather C. out of order D. under the impression
49. Sometimes life must be very unpleasant for …… near the airport.
A. people live B. those living C. someone to live D. they who live
50. The professor complimented a grade 1 pupil ……….his good achievement.
A. about B. on C. for D. due to
51: The delay to the flight was brought _____ by bad weather.
A. about B. in C. up D. down
52: When you do something, you should _____.
A. weigh up the pros and cons C. go down well with C. get through to D. turn over a new leaf
53. The road in front of my house is in great need ………..
A. repairing B. to be repaired C. of repair D. of being repaired.
54: I’ll be taking an English exam next Monday.
A. sitting (for) B. writing C. failing D. giving
55: Although John’s grandmother passed away many years ago, he still holds her in fond _____.
A. nostalgia B. sentiment C. memorial D. remembrance
56: Emperor Nero of Egypt was one _____ ruler in history who was cruel to his subjects.
A.unusual B. exceptional C. infamous D. odd
57: This encyclopedia is no good: it’s completely out of _____.
A.time B. date C. age D. hours
58: Let’s not decide yet where to stop on the journey – we’ll just play it by ____ and see how we feel.
A. lip B. eye C. ear D. hand
59: The film starts in half an hour. We really must be making _____.
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A. up for B. a move C. believe D. mess
60: ______ should a young child be allowed to play with fireworks without adult supervision
A. Under no circumstances B. No sooner than C. Always D. Only when
Read the following passage and indicate the correct word for each of the blanks.
The traditional definition of literacy is considered to be the ability to read and write, or the ability to use language to
read, write, listen, and speak. In modern contexts, the word refers to reading and writing at a level (61) _____ for
communication, or at a level that lets one understand and communicate ideas in a literate society,' so as to take (62) _____
in that society. The United Nations, Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) has drafted the following
definition: “Literacy is the ability to identify, understand, interpret, create, communicate and compute, using printed and
written' materials (63) _____ with varying contexts. Literacy involves a continuum of learning to enable an Individual to
achieve his or her goals, to develop his, or her (64) _____ and potential, and to participate fully in the wider society."
Many policy analysts consider literacy rates a crucial measure of a region's human capital. This claim is made on the (65)
_____ that literate people can be trained less expensively than illiterate people, generally have a higher socio-economic (66)
_____ and enjoy better health and employment prospects. Policy makers also argue that literacy increases job opportunities
and access to higher education. In Kerala, India, for example, female and child mortality rates declined (67) _____ in the
1960s, when girls who were educated in the education reforms after 1948 began to raise families. Recent researchers,
(68)_____, argue that correlations such as, the one listed above may have more to do with the effects of schooling rather
than literacy in general. Regardless, the (69) _____ of educational systems worldwide includes a basic (70) _____ around
communication through test and print, which is the foundation of most definitions of literacy.
61. A. important B. adequate C. adaptable D. suitable
62. A. control B. comfort C. part D. honor
63. A. associated B. worked C. appropriated D. related
64. A. ability B. knowledge C. behavior D. performance
65. A. basics B. ways C. foundations D. grounds
66. A. status B. request C. condition D. state
67. A. actually B. dramatically C. extremely D. accurately
68. A. therefore B. however C. consequently D. additionally
69. A. main B. majority C. focus D. demand
70. A. concept B. content C. contact D. context
Read the following passage and indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Bringing up children
Where one stage of child development has been left out, or not sufficiently experienced, the child may have to go back and
capture the experience of it. A good home makes this possible - for example, by providing the opportunity for the child to
play with a clockwork car or toy railway train up to any age if he still needs to do so. This principle, in fact, underlies all
psychological treatment of children in difficulties with their development, and is the basic of work in child clinics.
The beginnings of discipline are in the nursery. Even the youngest baby is taught by gradual stages to wait for food, to
sleep and wake at regular intervals and so on. If the child feels the world around him is a warm and friendly one, he slowly
accepts its rhythm and accustoms himself to conforming to its demands. Learning to wait for things, particularly for food, is
a very important element in upbringing, and is achieved successfully only if too great demands are not made before the child
can understand them. Every parent watches eagerly the child's acquisition of each new skill: the first spoken words, the first
independent steps, or the beginning of reading and writing. It is often tempting to hurry the child beyond his natural learning
rate, but this can set up dangerous feelings of failure and states of anxiety in the child. This might happen at any stage. A
baby might be forced to use a toilet too early, a young child might be encouraged to learn to read before he knows the
meaning of the words he reads. On the other hand, though, if a child is left alone too much, or without any learning
opportunities, he loses his natural zest for life and his desire to find out new things for himself.
Learning together is a fruitful source of relationship between children and parents. By playing together, parents learn
more about their children and children learn more from their parents. Toys and games which both parents and children can
share are an important means of achieving this co-operation. Building-block toys, jigsaw puzzles and crosswords are good
examples.
Parents vary greatly in their degree of strictness or indulgence towards their children. Some may be especially strict in
money matters; others are severe over times of coming home at night, punctuality for meals or personal cleanliness. In
general, the controls imposed represent the needs of the parents and the values of the community as much as the child's
own happiness and well-being.
With regard to the development of moral standards in the growing child, consistency is very important in parental
teaching. To forbid a thing one day and excuse it the next is no foundation for morality. Also, parents should realize that
“example is better than precept”. If they are hypocritical and do not practise what they preach, their children may grow
confused and emotionally insecure when they grow old enough to think for themselves, and realize they have been, to some
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extent, deceived. A sudden awareness of a marked difference between their parents' ethics and their morals can be a
dangerous disillusion.
71. The principle underlying all treatment of developmental difficulties in children ______.
A. is in the provision of clockwork toys and trains B. is to send them to clinics
C. is to capture them before they are sufficiently experienced D. offers recapture of earlier experiences
72. Learning to wait for things is successfully taught ______.
A. in spite of excessive demands being made B. only if excessive demands are avoided
C. because excessive demands are not advisable D. is achieved successfully by all children
73: The encouragement of children to achieve new skills ______.
A. should be focused on only at school B. can never be taken too far
C. will always assist their development D. should be balanced and moderate
74: Parental controls and discipline ______.
A. serve a dual purpose B. are designed to promote the child’s happiness
C. reflect only the values of the community D. should be avoided as far as possible
75: The practice of the rule “Example is better than precept” ______.
A. only works when the children grow old enough to think for themselves
B. would help avoid the necessity for ethics and morals
C. will free a child from disillusion when he grows up D. is too difficult for all parents to exercise
76: In the 1st paragraph, the author lays some emphasis on the role of the ____ in helping the child in trouble.
A. psychiatrists B. community C. family D. nursery
77: The phrase ‘conforming to’ in the 2nd paragraph means ______.
A. adapting to B. accepting C. agreeing with D. following
nd
78: The word ‘zest’ in the 2 paragraph can be best replaced by ______.
A. appetite B. excitement C. enthusiasm D. enjoyment
79: The word ‘imposed’ in the 4th paragraph is closest in meaning to ______.
A. excepted B. introduced C. made D. constrained
80: Hypocrisy on the part of the parents may ______.
A. result in their children’s wrong behaviour B. make their children lose faith in them
C. disqualify their teachings altogether D. impair their children’s mind
Read the following passage and indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Ocean water plays an indispensable role in supporting life. The great ocean basins hold about 300 million cubic miles
of water. From this vast amount, about 80,000 cubic miles of water are sucked into the atmosphere each year by evaporation
and returned by precipitation and drainage to the ocean. More than 24,000 cubic miles of rain descend annually upon the
continents. This vast amount is required to replenish the lakes and streams, springs and water tables on which all flora and
fauna are dependent. Thus, the hydrosphere permits organic existence.
The hydrosphere has strange characteristics because water has properties unlike those of any other liquid. One
anomaly is that water upon freezing expands by about 9 percent, whereas most liquids contract on cooling. For this reason,
ice floats on water bodies instead of sinking to the bottom. If the ice sank, the hydrosphere would soon be frozen solidly,
except for a thin layer of surface melt water during the summer season. Thus, all aquatic life would be destroyed and the
interchange of warm and cold currents, which moderates climate, would be notably absent.
Another outstanding charateristic of water is that water has a heat capacity which is the highest of all liquids and
solids except ammonia. This characterisitc enables the oceans to absorb and store vast quantities of heat, thereby often
preventing climatic extremes. In addition, water dissolves more substances than any other liquid. It is this characteristic which
helps make oceans a great storehouse for minerals which have been washed down from the continents. In several areas of
the world these minerals are being commercially exploited. Solar evaporation of salt is widely practised, potash is extracted
from the Dead Sea, and magnesium is produced from sea water along the American Gulf Coast.
81: The author’s main purpose in this passage is to ___________.
A. illustrate the importance of conserving water B. describe the properties and uses of water
C. compare water with other liquids D. explain how water is used in commerce and industry
82: The phrase “this vast amount” in line 4 of paragraph 1 refers to __________ .
A. 80,000 million cubic miles of water B. 24,000 cubic miles of rain
C. 80,000 cubic miles of water D. 300 million cubic miles of water
83: The word “replenish” in paragraph 1 can best replaced by ________ .
A. fill again B. replace C. evaporate D. form
84: According to the passage, fish can survive in the oceans because ________ .
A. evaporation and condensation create a water cycle B. there are currents in the oceans

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C. they do not need oxygen D. ice floats
85: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a characterisitic of water?
A. Water can absorb heat B. Water is good solvent.
C. Water contracts on cooling D. Water expands when it is frozen
86: The word “outstanding” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________
A. exceptionally good B. special C. amusing D. important
87: According the passage, the hydrosphere is NOT ___________ .
A. the part of the earth covered by water B. responsible for all forms of life
C. in danger of freezing over D. a source of natural resources
88: The author’s tone in the passage can best be described as ________ .
A. dispassionate B. speculative C. biased D. dogmatic
89: The author organizes the passage by _______.
A. juxtaposition of true and untrue ideas B. comparison and contrast
C. general statement followed by examples D. hypothesis and proof
90: Which of the following statements would be the most likely to begin the paragraph immediately following the passage?
A. Water has the ability to erode land
B. Droughts and flooding are two types of disasters associated with water
C. Another remarkably property of ice is its strength
D. Magnesium is widely used in metallurgical processes
*** the end ***
Good luck
ENGLISH PRACTICE 1617 – 01 – 05
Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions.
- Birds that feed in flocks commonly retire together into roosts. The reasons for roosting communally are not
always obvious, but there are some likely benefits. In winter especially, it is important for birds to keep warm at
night and conserve precious food reserves. One way to do this is to find a sheltered roost. Solitary roosters shelter
in dense vegetation or enter a cavity – horned larks dig holes in the ground and ptarmigan burrow into snow
banks – but the effect of sheltering is magnified by several birds huddling together in the roosts, as wrens, swifts,
brown creepers, bluebirds, and anis do. Body contact reduces the surface area exposed to the cold air, so the birds
keep each other warm. Two kinglets huddling together were found to reduce their heat losses by a quarter and three
together saved a third of their heat.
The second possible benefit of communal roosts is that they act as "information centers. " During the day,
parties of birds will have spread out to forage over a very large area. When they return in the evening some will have
fed well, but others may have found little to eat. Some investigators have observed that when the birds set out again
next morning, those birds that did not feed well on the previous day appear to follow those that did. The behavior
of common and lesser kestrels may illustrate different feeding behaviors of similar birds with different roosting
habits. The common kestrel hunts vertebrate animals in a small, familiar hunting ground, whereas the very similar
lesser kestrel feeds on insects over a large area. The common kestrel roosts and hunts alone, but the lesser kestrel
roosts and hunts in flocks, possibly so one bird can learn from others where to find insect swarms .
Finally, there is safety in numbers at communal roosts since there will always be a few birds awake at any given
moment to give the alarm. But this increased protection is partially counteracted by the fact that mass roosts attract
predators and are especially vulnerable if they are on the ground. Even those in trees can be attacked by birds of
prey. The birds on the edge are at greatest risk since predators find it easier to catch small birds perching at the
margins of the roost.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. How birds find and store food B. How birds maintain body heat in the winter
C. Why birds need to establish territory D. Why some species of birds nest together
2. The word "conserve" in the passage is closest in meaning to……………
A. retain B. watch C. locate D. share
3. Ptarmigan keep warm in the winter by……………...
A. huddling together on the ground with other birds B. building nests in trees
C. burrowing into dense patches of vegetation D. digging tunnels into the snow
" "
4. The word magnified in the passage is closest in meaning to……………
A. caused B. modified C. intensified D. combined
5. The author mentions “kinglets” in the passage as an example of birds that….
A. protect themselves by nesting in holes B. nest with other species of birds
C. nest together for warmth D. usually feed and nest in pairs
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6. Which of the following statements about lesser and common kestrels is true?
A. The lesser kestrel and the common kestrel have similar diets.
B. The lesser kestrel feeds sociably but the common kestrel does not.
C. The common kestrel nests in larger flocks than does the lesser kestrel.
D. The common kestrel nests in trees; the lesser kestrel nests on the ground.
7. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as an advantage derived by birds that huddle
together while sleeping?
A. Some members of the flock warn others of impending dangers.
B. Staying together provides a greater amount of heat for the whole flock.
C. Some birds in the flock function as information centers for others who are looking for food.
D. Several members of the flock care for the young.
8. Which of the following is a disadvantage of communal roosts that is mentioned in the passage?
A. Diseases easily spread among the birds. B.Groups are more attractive to predators than individual birds are.
C. Food supplies are quickly depleted. D. Some birds in the group will attack the others.
9. The word "they" in the passage refers to…
A. a few birds B. mass roosts C. predators D. trees
" "
10. The word vulnerable in the passage is closest in meaning to …
A. easy to attack B. easy to be attacked C. easy to give alarm D. easy to move around
Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions.
A recent survey of crime statistics shows that we are all more likely to be burgled now than 20 years ago and the police advise
everyone to take a few simple precautions to protect their homes.
The first fact is that burglars and other intruders prefer easy opportunities, like a house which is very obviously empty. This is
much less of a challenge than an occupied house, and one which is well-protected. A burglar will wonder if it is worth the
bother.
There are some general tips on how to avoid your home becoming another crime statistic. Avoid leaving signs that your house
is empty. When you have to go out, leave at least one light on as well as a radio or television, and do not leave any curtains
wide open. The sight of your latest music centre or computer is enough to tempt any burglar.
Never leave a spare key in a convenient hiding place. The first place a burglar will look is under the doormat or in a flower pot
and even somewhere more 'imaginative' could soon be uncovered by the intruder. It is much safer to leave a key with a
neighbour you can trust. But if your house is in a quiet, desolate area be aware that this will be a burglar's dream, so deter any
potential criminal from approaching your house by fitting security lights to the outside of your house.
But what could happen if, in spite of the aforementioned precautions, a burglar or intruder has decided to target your home.
Windows are usually the first point of entry for many intruders. Downstairs windows provide easy access while upstairs
windows can be reached with a ladder or by climbing up the drainpipe. Before going to bed you should double-check that all
windows and shutters are locked. No matter how small your windows may be, it is surprising what a narrow gap a determined
burglar can manage to get through. For extra security, fit window locks to the inside of the window.
What about entry via doors? Your back door and patio doors, which are easily forced open, should have top quality security
locks fitted. Even though this is expensive it will be money well spent. Install a burglar alarm if you can afford it as another
line of defence against intruders.
A sobering fact is that not all intruders have to break and enter into a property. Why go to the trouble of breaking in if you can
just knock and be invited in? Beware of bogus officials or workmen and, particularly if you are elderly, fit a chain and an eye
hole so you can scrutinise callers at your leisure. When you do have callers never let anybody into your home unless you are
absolutely sure they are genuine. Ask to see an identity card, for example.
If you are in the frightening position of waking in the middle of the night and think you can hear an intruder, then on no account
should you approach the intruder. It is far better to telephone the police and wait for help.
11. A well-protected house …………
A. is less likely to be burgled. B. is regarded as a challenge by most criminals.
C. is a lot of bother to maintain. D. is very unlikely to be burgled.
12. According to the writer, we should …………
A. avoid leaving our house empty. B. only go out when we have to.
C. always keep the curtains closed. D. give the impression that our house is occupied when we go out.
13. The writer thinks that hiding a key under a doormat or flower pot …………
A. is predictable. B. is useful. C. is imaginative. D. is where you always find a spare key.
14. What word best replaces “desolate” in paragraph 4?
A. isolated B. populous C. dissatisfying D. depressing
15. The 'aforementioned precautions' refer to steps that …………
A. will tell a burglar if your house is empty or not. B. are the most important precautions to take to make your home
safe.

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C. will stop a potential burglar. D. will not stop an intruder if he has decided to try and enter your
home.
16. Gaining entry to a house through a small window …………
A. is surprisingly difficult. B. is not as difficult as people think.
C. is less likely to happen than gaining entry through a door. D. is tried only by very determined burglars.
17. According to the writer, window locks, security locks and burglar alarms …………
A. cost a lot of money but are worth it. B. are good value for money.
C. are luxury items. D. are absolutely essential items.
18. The writer argues that fitting a chain and an eye hole…………
A. will prevent your home being burgled. B. avoids you having to invite people into your home.
C. is only necessary for elderly people. D. gives you time to check if the visitor is genuine.
19. What word best replaces “scrutinise” in paragraph 7?
A. glance B. gaze C. search D. examine
20. The best title for the text is …………
A. Increasing household crime. B. Protecting your home from intruders.
C. What to do if a burglar breaks into your home. D. Burglary statistics
Read the following passage and mark the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
The English channel
Engineers have dreaming of an underwater link between Britain and France (21) ____ 1802 . Finally in 1994 the
Channel Tunnel ( nicknamed “ The Chunnel “ by the English ) was (22) _____ opened .
This fifteen billion dollar project took seven years to (23) ____. It is about 50 km long and built 45 metres under the
seabed . The trains which go through the Chunnel can travel at up 300 km/h due to the (24) _____ electrical system .
The journey from London to Paris via the Chunnel takes just three hours . It is also (25) _____ for drivers since they
can load their cars onto the trains . They don’t need to book in (26) _____ , as trains (27) _____ every few minutes .
However, while on the train , there isn’t much to do and many (28) _______ the Chunnel for this
(29) ______ the ferries , there is no duty-free shopping , no videogame parlou or refreshment stand (30) ______ can you look
outside and enjoy the view . As a result , many would find the Chunnel unappealing and would take the ferry instead .
21: A. from B.during C. since D. ago
22: A . officially B. regularly C. correctly D. typically
23: A. perform B. achieve C. deal with D. complete
24: A. forward B. advanced C. higher D. increased
25: A. benefit B. handy C. advantage D. spare
26: A. advance B. time C. ahead D. future
27: A. go away B.exit C. set out D. depart
28: A. criticise B. accuse C. complain D. blame
29: A. Opposite B. Not alike C. Unlike D. Dissimilar
30: A. Nor B. Either C. Neither D. Not
Choose the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions
31: A. international B. entertain C. Vietnamese D. politics
32: A. polite B. children C. husband D. mother
33: A. economy B. communicate C. unemployment D. particular
34: A. rhinoceros B. curriculum C. kindergarten D. discriminate
35: A. project B. support C.secure D. believe
36. A. tornado B. idea C. coherent D. almost
37. A. instrument B. enthusiasm C. accent D. influence
38. A. electrician B. insincere C. argumentative D. interview
39. A. refrigerator B. cathedral C. extraordinaryD. discipline
40. A. severe B. statue C. romance D. endurance
Choose the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
41. (A) All the staff in Tam's film (B) are expected to do (C) some overtime, if the need (D) rises.
42. (A) Many Civil War battles (B) were fought in Virginia than in any (C) other (D) state.
43. The arthropods, (A) including insects and spiders, (B) are great (C) economic and medical (D) significance
44. Within the Alamo (A) was one hundred and eighty men, more than (B) two thirds of whom had recently (C) migrated
from (D) near-by states.
45. Even the most (A) discriminating gourmet will agree (B) that food in the south is as good (C) as any other (D) region in
the country.
46: The skin receives (A) nearly (B) the third of the blood (C) pumped out (D) by the heart.
47: I (A) had my motorbike (B) repair yesterday (C) but now it still doesn’t (D) work.
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48. If you are working (A) with young children in a (B) primary school, you (C) will find that teaching lively songs and rhymes
(D) are very popular.
49: Paris has been (A) well-known (B) about its famous (C) monuments, beautiful music, and wonderful restaurants (D) for
over 100 years.
50: Foreign students who (A) are doing a decision (B) about which school (C) to attend may not know exactly where (D)
the choices are located.
Choose the correct answer to each of the following questions.
51: The vase is definitely not_______, but just a very good imitation.
A. real B. factual C. genuine D. true
52: I walked away as calmly as I could. __________, they would have thought I was a thief.
A. In case B. If so C. Or else D. Owing to
53: I like that photo very much. Could you make an _____ for me?
A. increase B. enlargement C. extension D. expansion
54: Do you think you can meet the _________ given by our teacher ?.
A. deadline B. line C. dead D face
55: There are several means of mass communication. The newspaper is one. Television is ______.
A. another B. other C. the another D. the other.
56. We should not …………… the other person’s formality as stiffness or unfriendliness.
A. notice B. interpret C. think D. translate
57. She often battles with her daughter …………. her irresponsibility for disposing ………… the garbage can.
A. against/ of B. about/ away C. against/ with D. about/ of
58. His play made a tremendous………….on audience.
A. result B. affect C. impact D. collision
59. Unmarried middle-aged ladies usually dislike being called ……….although it is technically the correct word to use.
A. old maids B. spinsters C. maidens D. bachelors
60. -"Haven’t you been here before?" - "_______ "
A. No, I was here in 1999. B. Yes, I was here in 1999. C. No, I haven’t D. B or C
61. As a model, you have to ………. the art of walking in high heels.
A. master B. grasp C. study D. gain
62. Smith: “I’m afraid I can’t come with you.” John: “________”
A. What a shame! B. It’s shameful! C. Thank you D. I don’t think so
63. They are bring in ………….changes to the way the office is run.
A. large B. radical C. deep D. immense
64. Some people feel that television should give less ……… to sport.
A. programmes B. coverage C. concern D. involvement
65. I wish Ben worked as hard as Mary .................. A. did B. had C. does D. would
66. Mr. Lam supposes, .............., that he will be retiring at 60.
A. like most people did B. like most people do C. as most of people D. as do most people
67. ………the cave was found, millions of visitors from many countries have come to look at its beauty.
A. When B. Since C. While D. Unless
68. ……… the steps when you go in. A. Consider B. Mind C. Attend D. Look
69. The car burst into ……… but the driver managed to escape . A. fire B. burning C. heat D. flames
70. The interviewees are supposed to give their answers to the job offers …………..
A. on the spot B. all in all C. beyond the joke D. with in reach
71. Jane changed her major from French to business __________
A. with hopes to be able easier to locate employment B. hoping she can easier get a job
C. with the hope for being able to find better a job D. hoping to find a job more easily
72. Are you sure you told me ? I don’t recall _________ about it .
A. having told B. having been told C. to have told D. to have been told .
73. Before the meeting finished, they had arranged when ______ next.
A. they met B. they to meet C. to meet D. should they meet
74. The staff can’t take leaves at the same time. They have to take holidays ….. rotation. A. on B. under C. by D. in
75. The campaign raised far more than the . . . . . of $20.000. A. aim B. object C. goal D. target
76. We have a …. future ahead with little comfort, food or hope. A. cruel B. pessimistic C. grim D. fierce
77. Only thoroughly unpleasant people leave the ……… of their picnics to spoil the appearance of the countryside.
A. rest B. remainder C. remains D. rester
78. She was overwhelmed with honor ………. recognition ……….. her bravery.
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A. with/of B. on/in C. by/about D. in/of
79. This is the stone bed………the king had lain before he died in the 14th century.
A. however B. of which C. wherever D. where
80. An accident in the power station may result in large ………. of radiation being released.
A. numbers B. number C. amount D. amounts
Mark the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
81: “It is a really difficult matter to decide how to solve now. I will need time to think it over”.
A. to sleep on it.B. to make it better C. to make up for it D. to think out of time
82: “He insisted on listening to the entire story”.
A. part B. funny C. whole D. interesting
83: When being interviewed, you should concentrate on what the interviewer is saying or asking you.
A. be related to B. be interested in C. pay all attention to D. express interest in
84: He drives me to the edge because he never stops talking.
A. steers me B. irritates me C. moves me D. frightens me
85: . School uniform is required in most of Vietnamese schools.
A. divided B. depended C. compulsory D. paid
86. Scientists warn of the impending extinction of many species of plants and animals.
A. irrefutable B. imminent C. formidable D. absolute
87. The aircraft carrier is indispensable in naval operations against sea or shore based enemies.
A. unique B. novel C. exotic D. vital
88: I’d rather stay in a hotel with all the amenities than camp in the woods.
A. expenses B. friends C. sports D. conveniences
89: The most important thing is to keep yourself occupied.
A. busy B. comfortable C. free D. relaxed
90: Around 150 B.C. the Greek astronomer Hipparchus developed a system to classify stars according to brightness.
A. shine B. record C. categorize D. diversify
*** the end ***
ENGLISH PRACTICE 1617 – 01 - 09
Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently in each group.
1. A. latter B. label C. ladder D. latitude
2. A. pour B. roar C. flour D. soar
3. A. chase B. purchase C. bookcase D. suitcase
4. A. thread B. feather C. bread D. bead
5. A. prepare B. preface C. preparation D. prejudice
Mark the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following word.
6 : A. invalid B. predict C. pretend D. preface
7 : A. mausoleum B. conservative C. disqualify D. magnificant
8 : A. nuclear B. province C. construct D. complex
9 : A. literacy B. contingency C. ceremony D. sanctuary
10 : A. optimist B. accuracy C. continent D. artificial
Mark the correct answer to each of the following question
11: The first movie- length cartoon, _____ , “Snow White and the Seven Dwarfs” set the standard for later full length features
such as “ The Lion King” and “Pocahotas”
A. that released ever B. whichever released C. ever released D. released whatever
12: _____, such as banking and travel, computers are not a convenience: they are a necessity.
A. where some industries B. there are some industries C. in some industries D. some industries
13: Only in the Civil war _____killed or wounded
A. soldiers in America B. so many American soldiers were C. many in America D. were so many American soldiers
14: Studies have shown that the elderly who are pet owners have lower blood pressure than____ who live without pets.
A . do the elderly B. elderly C. for the elderly to do D. to the elderly
15:______, Harry was the thirty – third President of the United States
A. He was born and raised in Missori B. That he was born and raised in Missori
C. Because he was born and raised in Missouri D. Born and raised in Missouri
16: ___ the fifth largest among the nine planets that make up our solar system
A. The Earth being B. The Earth is C. That the Earth is D. Being the Earth
17: All the way along the wind street ____ A. he came B. came he C. did he came D. comes he
18: Both liquids and gases flow freely from a container because they have ____
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A. not definite shape B. none definite shape C. no definite shape D. nothing definite shape
19: Environmentalists are earnestly trying to determine ______ of the ozone layer over the poles.
A. what is causing the deterioration B. what the cause of the deterioration
C. is causing the deterioration D. the deterioration is causing
20: The bank sent a notice to its customers which contained____
Ạ. A remembrance that interest rates were to rise the following month
B. A reminder that a raise in interest rates was the month following
C. To remember that the interest rates was going up next month
D. A reminder that the interest rates would raise the following month
21: There’s a lot more to Willie than one would think: still waters run _____
A. deep B. deeply C. deepness D. depth
22: The idea ____to nothing because I couldn’t afford to do it A. went B. came C. turned D. changed
23. The players’ protests_____ no difference to the referee’s decision at all
A. did B. made C. caused D. created
24: Peter, Harry and Chuck were first, second, and third ______ in the school cross-country race
A. respectively B. actively C. responsively D. tremendously
25: By using all the latest technology, the yathchman managed to cross the Atlantic in ____ time.
A. record B. lightning C. top D. quickest
26:Why ____ Peter to the party? He is always making trouble
A. Don’t we invite B. don’t you invite C. not invite D. invite
27. The speaker fail to get his message ____ to his audience A. around B. in C. across D. out
28: You are under no obligation _____ to accept this offer A. whatsoever B. Eventually C. Apart D. indeed
29: ______ no money would be wasted, we will use energy more efficiently
A. so that B. in order that C in order to D. A and B
30: Interpreting is not a mechanical process of converting a sentence in language A in to a sentence in language B. _______,
it is a complex art. A. But B. In addition C. Rather D. However
31: You can always _____Ann to give you sound advice A. bank of B. bank for C. bank at D. bank on
32: His emotional problems _____from the attitudes he encountered as a child, I think.
A. stem B. flourish C. root D. sprout
33:There should be an international law encouraging__ A. afforestation B. deforestation C. forestry D. reforestation
34: I’m not keen on _____ control of the project to a relatively newcomer
A. undertaking B. charging C. entrusting D. allotting
35: Unfortunately, the company closed down because it couldn’t keep___with rapidly changing technology
A. speed B. time C. fast D. pace
36. He is not under arrest, nor have the police placed any _____ on his movements
A. obstacle B. veto C. restriction D. regulation:
37: He was very taken ___ by her aggressive attitude A. about B. aside C. apart D. aback
38: Most crimes that are committed are no more than __theft A. slight B. small C. unimportant D. petty
39:John was asked to _____ before the judge A. wit B. testify C. execute D. prejudice
40: She is extremely competent and _____ A. industrial B. industrious C. industry D. industrialized
Find out the mistake part
41. Assessment instruments in nursery schools (A) they feature items and (B) other materials different (C) from those on
elementary (D) school tests.
42. (A) All the witnesses said (B) that John (C) was blaming (D) for the accident.
43. Migrant (A) workers live in (B) substandard (C) unsanitary, and dilapidated housing and often (D) are lacking medical care.
44. For thousands of years, (A) man has created (B) sweet-smelling substances from wood, herbs, and
flowers and (C) using them for perfume (D) or medicine.
45. Copper comes from seven (A) types of (B) ores that (C) also contain (D) the other materials.
46 : (A) At the rate the clerks were (B) processing the applications, Joe figured that it (C) will take four hours for (D) his to
be reviewed
47:Professor Layton was (A) equally fond of the two children, but he had to admit that he (B) found the (C) youngest and
(D) easier child to handle
48: In order to (A) become a law, a bill (B) must be passed not (C) only by the Senate but also (D) the House of
Representatives
49: (A) Automobile began to be equipped (B) by (C) built-in radios (D) around 1930
50: (A) The Oxford University Publisher has just published a new (B) series of (C) readers for students (D) of English
Mark the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part.
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51 : Hypertension is one of the most widespread and potential dangerous diseases
A. colossal B. popular C. common D. scattered
52 : In the United States, a party can nominate a single candidate for office
A. refuse B. keep C. change D. name
53 : The sales of drugs is controlled by law in most of countries
A. permitted B. restricted C. illegal D. binding
54: I told you clearly and definitely not to write your answers in pencil, Smith!
A. considerably B. thoroughly C. altogether D. specificially
55 : A brief outlined of the course and bibliography were handed out to the students at the first meeting
A. dispensed B. dispered C. distributed D. contributed
Read the following passage and indicate the correct word for each of the blanks.
Looking for an unforgettable way to celebrate that special occasion? Well, the ….(56)of options open today’s youngster – or
even “ oldster” for that matter, is a far cry from the traditional party or restaurant visit. No longer is it ….(57) sufficient to
invite your friends round , buy some food and get a barker to produce a cake. No, today’s birthday boy or girl is looking for
something out of the ordinary, ranging from the ….(58) expensive to the downright dangerous. Anything goes, as long as it is
unusual and impressive.
Top of this year ‘s popular …..(59) are as follows: taking some friends rally driving , helicopter lessons, plane trip and
parachuting , and hot air ballooning . Then there is always group bungee jumping or taking your buddies on a stomach –
churning , while water rafting ……(60) down rapids.
The desire of adventurous celebration is not restricted to the ….(61) . I recently met an octogenarian who celebrated …..(62)
the milestone of eighty by having a fly lesson.
Of course, if you have money the world is your oyster. A very rich relation of mine flew fifty of his friends to a Caribbean
island to mark the passing of his half century. Unfortunately I was only a ….(63) relation.
Undoubtedly, the more traditional forms of celebration do continue to ….(64) the less extravagant or less adventurous among
us. However, with my own half century looming on the horizon I would not say no to a weekend in Paris and a meal at the
Eiffel Tower. I can …(65)dream. Perhaps by the time I’m eighty I’ll be able to afford it.
56: A. scale B. degree C. range D. variance
57: A. hoped B. decided C. marked D. considered
58: A. perfectly B. dearly C. outrageously D. explicity
59: A. experiments B. extravagances. C. exposures D. expenses
60: A. ride B. travel C. voyage D. crossing
61: A. adolescents B. teenagers C. youth D. young
62: A. attaining B. arriving C. reaching D. getting
63: A. distant B. remote C. faraway D. slight
64: A. pacify B. satisfy C. distract D. absorb
65:A. however B. but C. nevertheless D. anyway
Fill in the blank with a suitable word or phrase
Interpreting the feelings of other people is not always easy, as we all know, and we (66) ___ as much on what they seem
to be telling us, as on the actual words they say. Facial (67) ___ and tone of voice are obvious ways of showing our (68) ___
to something, and it may well be that we unconsciously express views that we are trying to hide. The art of being (69) ___
lies in picking up these signals, realizing what the other person is trying to say, and acting so that they are not embarrassed
in any way. For example, we may understand that they are in fact (70) ___ to answer our question, and so we stop pressing
them. Body movements in general may also indicate feelings, and interviewers often pay particular attention to the way a
candidate for a job walks into the room and sits down. However it is not difficult to present the right kind of appearance,
while what many employers want to know relates to the candidate’s character traits, and (71) ___ stability. This raises the
awkward question of whether job candidates should be asked to complete psychological tests, and the further problem of
whether such tests actually produce (72) ___ results. For many people, being asked to take part in such a test would be an
objectionable (73) ___ into their private lives.
After all, a prospective employer would hardly ask a candidate to run a hundred meters, or expect his or her family
doctor to provide (74) ___ medical information. Quite apart from this problem, can such tests predict whether a person is
likely to be a (75) ___ employee or a values colleague?
66: A. reckon B. rely C. trust D. estimate
67: A. manner B. image C. expression D. looks
68: A. notion B. feeling C. view D. reaction
69: A. successful B. humble C. good at D. tactful
10: A. hesitant B. reluctant C. tending D. used
71: A. psychological B. physical C. similar D. relevant
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72: A. reliable B. predictable C. faithful D. regular
73: A. invasion B. infringement C. intrusion D. interference
74: A. confidential B. secretive C. reticent D. classified
75: A. laborious B. particular C. thorough D. conscientious
Read the following passage and indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions
Collecting maps can be an enjoyable hobby for antiquarian booksellers, a captivating interest for cartographers, a lucrative
vocation for astute dealers, and an inspirational part of the occupational functioning of map catalogers, archivists, and
historians. Among recognized collectibles, maps are relatively rarer than stamps, but they have had their avid enthusiasts
and admirers ever since copies were made by hand only for affluent, the commanding officer, and the ship captain.
Whether the interest is business-related or amateur, the economic means abundant or slim, a collection needs a theme, be
it associated with contemporary changes in cartographic representation or geographic knowledge, or a more accessible goal
centered on a particular mapmaker, technique, or type of subject matter. Collectors should not overlook topical maps issued
predominantly or exclusively after World War II, such as navigational charts, industrial compound road layouts, or aerial
projections. Potential collectors ought not to disregard two superficially prosaic, yet important themes: maps of travel routes
for family trips, and maps that, for aesthetic reasons, they personally find intriguing or simply attractive. In the first case, like
the box with old family photos, the collection will give the travelers the opportunity to reminisce and relive the journey.
In most cases, photocopies are worthy alternatives to originals. For example, historical society collections customarily include
the high quality facsimiles needed to make a collection as comprehensive and practical as possible, supplementing the
contributions made by well-to-do donors and benefactors. If not predisposed to wait patiently, and possibly ineffectually,
for a lucky find, collectors may choose to sift through dealer stock, peruse through advertisements in local, regional, or
national periodicals, and solicit the assistance of the U.S. Library of Congress and private agencies. Government and public
agencies, companies, and trade associations can advise the collector about maps currently in circulation and pending sales
of dated reproductions, editions, and prints.
76. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Why hobbyists always flaunt their map collections.
B. How maps can be collected by professionals and enthusiasts.
C. How to assure an interrupted flow of collectibles.
D. What cartographers advocate as a worthy undertaking.
77. In paragraph 1, the word lucrative is closest in meaning to
A. instructive B. insensitive C. profitable D. profuse
78. According to the passage, map collecting as a hobby is
A. not deserving of the time and resources B. not as conventional as collecting stamps
C. as eccentric as collecting dolls D. conformist in the best sense of the word.
79. In paragraph 1, the word avid is closest in meaning to
A. keen B. humorous C. devoted D. supportive
80. It can be inferred from the passage that, at a time when maps were accessible to the upper socioeconomic classes, they
appealed also to a fair number of
A. professional copiers B. ardent devotees
C. buried-treasure hunters D. obscure amateur dealers
81. In paragraph 2, the phrase “economic means” is closest in meaning to
A. economic maps B. fiscal responsibility C. available funds D. capital investment
82. The author of the passage mentions all of the following as sources of procuring maps EXCEPT
A. fellow collectors B. map vendors C. personal archives D. publishers
83. In paragraph 2, the author uses the phrase “superficially prosaic” to mean
A. described in informal prose B. seemingly boring and unimaginative
C. useful for travelers who enjoy a change D. potentially uncovered in a box of photos
84. In paragraph 3, the word “predisposed” is closest in meaning to
A. pressured B. provoked C. condemned D. inclined
85. A paragraph following the passage would most likely discuss
A. specific organizations to contact about map acquisition
B. specific mapping techniques used to enlarge the scale
C. trimming and framing valuable acquisitions
D. volunteering time and work to maintain obsolete maps
Read the following passage and mark the correct answer to each of the following questions
Baseball evolved from a number of different ball-and stick games (paddle ball, trap ball, one-old-cat, rounders, and town
ball) originating in England. As early as the American Revolution. It was noted that troops played “ baseball” in their free
time. In 1845 Alexander Cartwright formalized the New York Knickerbockers’ version of the game : a diamond shaped infield,
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with bases ninety feet apart, three strikers – you’re – out , batter out on a caught ball , three outs per inning , a nine man
team. “ The New York Game” spread rapidly , replacing earlier localized forms. From its beginnings, baseball was seen as a
way of satisfying the recreational needs of an increasingly urban – industrial society. At its inception it was it was played by
and for gentlement. A club might consists of 40 members. The president would appoint two captains who would choose
teams from among the members . Games were played on Monday and Thursday afternoons, with the losers often providing
a lavish evening’s entertainments for the winners. During the 1850- 70 period the game was changing, however, with
increasing commercialism (charging admission), under – the – table payments to exceptional to players, and gambling on the
outcome of games. By 1868 it was said that a club would have their regular professional ten , an amateur first - nine , and
their” muffins “ (the gentlemently duffers who once ran the game) . Beginning with the first openly all – salaried team
(Cincinnati’s Red Stocking Club) in 1869, the 1870- 1890 period saw the complete professionalization of baseball , including
formation of the National Association of Professional baseball players in 1871. The National League of Professional Baseball
Clubs was formed in 1876, run by business-minded invertors in joint-stock company clubs. The 1880s has been called Major
League Baseball’s “ Golden Age”. Profits soared, player’s salaries rose somewhat, a season of 84 games became one of 132,
a weekly periodical “ The sporting News” came into being, wooden stadiums with double-deck stands replaced open fields,
and the standard refreshment became hot dogs, soda pop and peanuts. In 1900 the Western League based in the growing
cities of the Mis west proclaimed itself the American League
86: What is the passage mainly about?
A. the origin of baseball B. the commercialization of baseball
C. the influence of the “ New York Game” on baseball D. the development of baseball in the nineteenth century
87: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage ?
A. the wealthy gentlemen who first played baseball, later needed to find another recreational opportunity if they did not
want to mix with other or become a “muffin”
B. hot dogs would not have become as popular as they did, without the professionalism and commercialism that develop in
baseball
C. the “ New York “ spread rapidly because it was better formalized
D. business – minded investors were only interested in profits
88 : The word “ inception” closest in meaning to
A. requirements B. beginning C. insistence D. rules
89 : The word “ lavish “closest in meaning to
A. prolonged B. very generous C. grand D. extensive
90:Which of the following is true of the way the game was played by wealthy gentlemen at its inception
A. a team might consist of 40 members B. the president would choose teams from among the members
C. they didn’t play on weekend D. they might be called “ duffers” if they didn’t make the first nine
91 : According to the second paragraph , all of the following are true except:
A. commercialism became more prosperous B. the clubs are smaller
C. outstanding players got extra income D. people gamed on the outcome of games
92 : Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a feature of the 1880s “ Golden Age”
A. wooden stadiums replaced open fields B. a weekly periodical commenced
C. the National Association of Professional Baseball Players was formed D. profits soared
93: The word” somewhat” is closest in meaning to
A. to a significant extent B. to a minor extent C. to not the same extent D. to some extent
94: The word “itself” in line 24 refers to
A. the Western League B. growing cities C. the Midwest D. the American League
95: The word business-minded is closest in meaning to
A. able to work in business B. able to think about business C. good at business management D. minded in business
*** the end ***
ENGLISH PRACTICE 80
I. VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR
Part 1: Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) which best completes each sentence. (10 points)
1. The school was closed for a month because of serious ______ of fever.
A. outcome B. outburst C. outset D. outbreak
2. The campaign raised far more than the ______ of $20.000.
A. aim B. object C. goal D. target
3. We have a ______ future ahead with little comfort, food or hope.
A. cruel B. pessimistic C. grim D. fierce
4. Only thoroughly unpleasant people leave the ______ of their picnics to spoil the appearance of the countryside.
A. rest B. remainder C. remains D. rester
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5. An almost ______ line of traffic was moving at a snail’s pace through the town.
A. continuous B. constant C. continual D. stopping
6. Medieval travelers’ tales of fantastic creatures were often fascinating but not always ______
A. credible B. creditable C. credulous D. imaginable
7. Don’t be late for the interview, ____ people will think you are a disorganized person.
A. unless B. otherwise C. if not D. or so
8. My friends have just moved to a new flat in a residential area on the ______ of Paris.
A. suburbs B. outside C. outskirts D. side
9. You are being thoroughly ______ in refusing to allow this ceremony to take place.
A. unrequited B. unrepresentative C. unreliable D. unreasonable
10. “But so”, I told him, “you are my own ______.”
A. heart and heart B. body and soul C. flesh and blood D. skin and bone
Part 2: Use the word in capitals at the end of these sentences to form a word that fits in the blank space. (20 points)
1. How much does ______ of this club cost? (MEMBER)
2. She is extremely ______ about the history of art. (KNOW)
3. Traveling in big cities is becoming more and more ______ every day. (TROUBLE)
4. He is completely ______ ! Not only is he lazy but he is dishonest too. (EMPLOY)
5. His boss told him off because he had behaved ______ (RESPONSIBLE)
6. He won the discus event at the Olympic Games but was later ______ when a medical check proved that he had been
taking drugs. (QUALIFY)
7. Women who are slimming can never enjoy a meal without being afraid of ______ their diet. (ORGANISE)
8. The trouble with Mr. Brown is that he’s so ______ One minute he goes mad when you come late; the next he says
nothing. You never know where you are! (CONSIST)
9. It is forbidden to hunt for that kind of bird. It has been listed as one of the ______ species (DANGER)
10. I didn’t know who it was – with a mask on she was completely ______(RECONGNISE)
Part 3: Complete each sentence with one of the idiomatic phrases given. Use each phrase once only. (8 points)
gave me the cold shoulder lost her head
made her blood boil jumped out of her skin
had a lump in her throat kept her head
took her breath away pulled her legs
1. Pauline completely ignored me this morning. She ______
2. It really ______ to see her friend copy a poem she had written and then present it to her boyfriend as one that she had
written for him.
3. Saying goodbye to her son was a very emotional occasion for her and she ______ as she watched him get on the train.
4. The view from the top of the mountain was absolutely fantastic. It really ______
5. Susan panicked when the fire broke out. She ______
6. When I dropped that tray behind her, she got a shock. She almost ______
7. My sister remained very calm. She ______
8. Sally didn’t believe us, did she? We only joked! We only ______!
Part 4: Put each verb given in brackets into an appropriate tense or form. (17 points)
1. Mr. Pike, who is supposed __ ____________ (witness) the accident, ____________ (leave) the town.
1. At this time next week they __ ____________ _ (sit) in the train on their way to Paris.
2. He said that he watered the plants every day. He __ ____________ ____________ _ (water) them. If he ____________
____________ _ (have), they wouldn’t have died.
3. No sooner— ____________ -- the announcement __ ____________ (make) than everyone started complaining.
4. They said they never __ ____________ _ (make) to do anything they didn’t want to before.
5. We __ ____________ ____________ _ (watch) the play for nearly thirty minutes when he came.
6. The pop star who __ ____________ _ (take) part in over 25 films always avoids _being recognized_ (recognise) by __
____________ (wear) dark glasses.
7. There’s no point _ ____________ _ (try) to get Tim __ ____________ _ (lend) you his car.
8. Not until John ____________ __ (receive) the offer of promotion in writing .. ____________..he ______ (celebrate)
9. He __ ____________ _ (have) trouble with the second-hand car since he bought it. He wishes he __ ____________
____________ _ (not / buy) it.
II. READING
Part 1: Read the text below and choose the correct word for each space. For each question, circle letter A, B, C or D next to
the answer you choose. (10 points)

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If you’re an environmentalist, plastic is a word you tend to say with a sneer or a snarl. It has become a symbol of our
wasteful, throw-way society. But there seems little (1)_____ it is here to stay, and the truth is, of course, that plastic has
brought enormous (2)_____ even environmental ones. It’s not really the plastics themselves that are the environmental
(3)_____ – it’s the way society choose to use and (4)_____ them.
Almost all the 50 or so different kinds of modern plastic are made from oil, gas or coal – non-renewable natural
(5)_____ We (6)_____ well over three million tones of the stuff in Britain each year and, sooner or later, most of it is thrown
away. A high (7)_____ of our annual consumption is in the (8)_____ of packaging, and this (9)_____ about seven per cent
by weight of our domestic (10)_____ Almost all of it could be recycled, but very little of it is, though the plastic recycling
(11)_____ is growing fast.
The plastics themselves are extremely energy-rich – they have a higher calorific (12)_____ than coal and one
(13)_____ of ‘recovery’ strongly (14)_____ by the plastic manufacturers is the (15)_____ of waste plastic into a fuel.
1. A. evidence B. concern C. doubt D. likelihood
2. A. pleasures B. benefits C. savings D. profits
3. A. poison B. disaster C. disadvantage D. evil
4. A. dispose B. store C. endanger D. abuse
5. A. resources B. processes C. products D. fuels
6. A. remove B. import C. consign D. consume
7. A. portion B. amount C. proportion D. rate
8. A. way B. kind C form D. type
9. A. takes B. makes C. carries D. constitutes
10. A. refuse B. goods C. requirements D. rubble
11. A. manufacture B. plant C. factory D. industry
12. A. degree B. value C. demand D. effect
13. A. measure B. mechanism C. method D. medium
14. A. desired B. argued C. favored D. presented
15. A. conversion B. melting C. change D. replacement
Part 2: Read the following text and then fill in each gap with ONE suitable word. (10 points)
I was reading an article last week in (1)__ ____________ _ the writer described (2) _ ____________ _ her children
has changed as they (3)_ ____________ up. When they were small she had to (4)_ ____________ __ up with noisy games
in the house, or join in interminable games of football in the garden which (5)__ ____________ __ her out. If the house went
quiet, she wondered what the monsters were getting up to, or what crisis she would have to (6)_ ____________ _ with next.
She dreaded the fact that they might (7)_ ____________ _ after her husband, who admitted having (8)__ ____________ __
an uncontrollable child who (9)_ ____________ most of the time showing off to his friends by breaking things or getting into
fights. What was worse was that (10)__ ____________ _ else thought he was a sweet child, and he got away with the most
terrible things! However, she had experienced an even greater shocked with her children. They had (11)_ ____________ _
out of all their naughty behavior, and (12)__ ____________ __ up serious hobbies (13)__ ____________ as chess and playing
the piano. They never did anything without (14)__ ____________ __ it over first, and coming to a serious decision. She had
to face up to the fact that they made her feel rather childish as they got (15)_ ____________ __, and that in some ways she
preferred them when they were young and noisy.
Part 3: The paragraphs of the magazine article are in the wrong order. Number the paragraphs (A, B, C, D, E) (5 points)
4. A. On the ghost of Chaffin’s second visit to his son, he told him that he would find a will in the overcoat pocket.
The coat was actually in the possession of the third brother.
2. B. In 1921, a certain James Chaffin died, leaving his entire fortune to his third son, Marshal, in a will which had
been written a full fifteen years earlier, in 1905, and signed in front of witnesses. His wife and two other sons were virtually
cut off without a penny. Marshal was not inclined to split up the inheritance he had come into any more fairly.
5 .C. Once it was found, they came across a note sewn in the lining of one of the pockets saying they should look in
an old family Bible. This Bible was found in the keeping of Chaffin’s widow and examined in front of independent witnesses.
Sure enough, there in the Bible they discovered a later version of the will, one which divided the property and money evenly
between the widow and the three sons. The will appeared to be genuine and Marshal was not prepared to challenge it in
court.
1. D. Some people believe that the dead still keep in touch with us through our dreams. One of the most famous and
extraordinary cases of contact with the dead was the so-called Chaffin Will affair.
3. E. Four years went by and then, strangely, James Chaffin’s ghost started to appear before one of his other two
sons. The apparition had on an old overcoat which had often worn in life.
III. WRITING
Part 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before
it. (20 points)
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1. Immediately after his appointment to the post, the new editor fell ill.
Scarcely ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________
2. I left without saying goodbye as I didn’t want to disturb the meeting.
Rather ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________
3. The value of sterling has fallen considerably in the past week.
There has ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________
4. The only reason the party was a success was that a famous film star attended.
Had it not ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________
5. Harriet was upset because she saw Peter with another woman.
It was ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________
6. We regret to inform you that your application has not been successful.
Much to ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________
7. People no longer smoke so many cigarettes as they used to.
The ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________
8. Their relationship was doomed because of their incompatibility.
Had ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________
9. You should admit that you are to blame, not to conceal it.
I’d rather ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________
10. If she had been less determined she wouldn’t have been able to get better so quickly.
It was her ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________

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KEYS
I. VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR
Part 1: Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) which best completes each sentence. (10 points)
11. The school was closed for a month because of serious ______ of fever.
A. outcome B. outburst C. outset D. outbreak
12. The campaign raised far more than the ______ of $20.000.
A. aim B. object C. goal D. target
13. We have a ______ future ahead with little comfort, food or hope.
A. cruel B. pessimistic C. grim D. fierce
14. Only thoroughly unpleasant people leave the ______ of their picnics to spoil the appearance of the countryside.
A. rest B. remainder C. remains D. rester
15. An almost ______ line of traffic was moving at a snail’s pace through the town.
A. continuous B. constant C. continual D. stopping
16. Medieval travelers’ tales of fantastic creatures were often fascinating but not always ______
A. credible B. creditable C. credulous D. imaginable
17. Don’t be late for the interview, ____ people will think you are a disorganized person.
A. unless B. otherwise C. if not D. or so
18. My friends have just moved to a new flat in a residential area on the ______ of Paris.
A. suburbs B. outside C. outskirts D. side
19. You are being thoroughly ______ in refusing to allow this ceremony to take place.
A. unrequited B. unrepresentative C. unreliable D. unreasonable
20. “But so”, I told him, “you are my own ______.”
A. heart and heart B. body and soul C. flesh and blood D. skin and bone
Part 2: Use the word in capitals at the end of these sentences to form a word that fits in the blank space. (20 points)
11. How much does ______ of this club cost? (MEMBER) SHIP
12. She is extremely ______ about the history of art. (KNOW) LEDGEABLE
13. Traveling in big cities is becoming more and more ______ every day. (TROUBLE) SOME
14. He is completely ______ ! Not only is he lazy but he is dishonest too. UN (EMPLOY) ABLE
15. His boss told him off because he had behaved ______ IR (RESPONSIBLE) LY
16. He won the discus event at the Olympic Games but was later ______ when a medical check proved that he had been
taking drugs. DIS (QUALIFY) IED
17. Women who are slimming can never enjoy a meal without being afraid of ______ their diet. DIS (ORGANISE) ING
18. The trouble with Mr. Brown is that he’s so ______ One minute he goes mad when you come late; the next he says
nothing. You never know where you are! IN (CONSIST) ENT
19. It is forbidden to hunt for that kind of bird. It has been listed as one of the ______ species EN (DANGER) ED
20. I didn’t know who it was – with a mask on she was completely ______ UN (RECONGNISE) ABLE
Part 3: Complete each sentence with one of the idiomatic phrases given. Use each phrase once only. (8 points)
gave me the cold shoulder lost her head
made her blood boil jumped out of her skin
had a lump in her throat kept her head
took her breath away pulled her legs
9. Pauline completely ignored me this morning. She ______
10. It really ______ to see her friend copy a poem she had written and then present it to her boyfriend as one that she had
written for him.
11. Saying goodbye to her son was a very emotional occasion for her and she ______ as she watched him get on the train.
12. The view from the top of the mountain was absolutely fantastic. It really ______
13. Susan panicked when the fire broke out. She ______
14. When I dropped that tray behind her, she got a shock. She almost ______
15. My sister remained very calm. She ______
16. Sally didn’t believe us, did she? We only joked! We only ______!
Part 4: Put each verb given in brackets into an appropriate tense or form. (17 points)
2. Mr. Pike, who is supposed __to have witnessed_ (witness) the accident, __has left_ (leave) the town.
10. At this time next week they __will be sitting_ (sit) in the train on their way to Paris.
11. He said that he watered the plants every day. He __ couldn’t have watered _ (water) them. If he __ had _ (have), they
wouldn’t have died.
12. No sooner—had-- the announcement __been made (make) than everyone started complaining.
13. They said they never __had never been made_ (make) to do anything they didn’t want to before.
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14. We __had been watching_ (watch) the play for nearly thirty minutes when he came.
15. The pop star who __has taken_ (take) part in over 25 films always avoids _being recognized_ (recognise) by __wearing_
(wear) dark glasses.
16. There’s no point _trying__ (try) to get Tim __to_ (lend) you his car.
17. Not until John _(had) received__ (receive) the offer of promotion in writing ..did ..he ______ (celebrate)
18. He __has had_ (have) trouble with the second-hand car since he bought it. He wishes he __hadn’t bought_ (not / buy)
it.
II. READING
Part 1: Read the text below and choose the correct word for each space. For each question, circle letter A, B, C or D next to
the answer you choose. (10 points)
If you’re an environmentalist, plastic is a word you tend to say with a sneer or a snarl. It has become a symbol of our
wasteful, throw-way society. But there seems little (1)_____ it is here to stay, and the truth is, of course, that plastic has
brought enormous (2)_____ even environmental ones. It’s not really the plastics themselves that are the environmental
(3)_____ – it’s the way society choose to use and (4)_____ them.
Almost all the 50 or so different kinds of modern plastic are made from oil, gas or coal – non-renewable natural
(5)_____ We (6)_____ well over three million tones of the stuff in Britain each year and, sooner or later, most of it is thrown
away. A high (7)_____ of our annual consumption is in the (8)_____ of packaging, and this (9)_____ about seven per cent
by weight of our domestic (10)_____ Almost all of it could be recycled, but very little of it is, though the plastic recycling
(11)_____ is growing fast.
The plastics themselves are extremely energy-rich – they have a higher calorific (12)_____ than coal and one
(13)_____ of ‘recovery’ strongly (14)_____ by the plastic manufacturers is the (15)_____ of waste plastic into a fuel.
1. A. evidence B. concern C. doubt D. likelihood
2. A. pleasures B. benefits C. savings D. profits
3. A. poison B. disaster C. disadvantage D. evil
4. A. dispose B. store C. endanger D. abuse
5. A. resources B. processes C. products D. fuels
6. A. remove B. import C. consign D. consume
7. A. portion B. amount C. proportion D. rate
8. A. way B. kind C form D. type
9. A. takes B. makes C. carries D. constitutes
10. A. refuse B. goods C. requirements D. rubble
11. A. manufacture B. plant C. factory D. industry
12. A. degree B. value C. demand D. effect
13. A. measure B. mechanism C. method D. medium
14. A. desired B. argued C. favored D. presented
15. A. conversion B. melting C. change D. replacement
Part 2: Read the following text and then fill in each gap with ONE suitable word. (10 points)
I was reading an article last week in (1)__which_ the writer described (2) _how__ her children has changed as they
(3)_grow_ up. When they were small she had to (4)_put__ up with noisy games in the house, or join in interminable games
of football in the garden which (5)__wore__ her out. If the house went quiet, she wondered what the monsters were getting
up to, or what crisis she would have to (6)_deal__ with next. She dreaded the fact that they might (7)_took__ after her
husband, who admitted having (8)__been__ an uncontrollable child who (9)_spent__ most of the time showing off to his
friends by breaking things or getting into fights. What was worse was that (10)__everyone_ else thought he was a sweet
child, and he got away with the most terrible things! However, she had experienced an even greater shocked with her
children. They had (11)_grown__ out of all their naughty behavior, and (12)__taken__ up serious hobbies (13)__such_ as
chess and playing the piano. They never did anything without (14)__talking__ it over first, and coming to a serious decision.
She had to face up to the fact that they made her feel rather childish as they got (15)_older__, and that in some ways she
preferred them when they were young and noisy.
Part 3: The paragraphs of the magazine article are in the wrong order. Number the paragraphs (A, B, C, D, E) (5 points)
4. A. On the ghost of Chaffin’s second visit to his son, he told him that he would find a will in the overcoat pocket.
The coat was actually in the possession of the third brother.
2. B. In 1921, a certain James Chaffin died, leaving his entire fortune to his third son, Marshal, in a will which had
been written a full fifteen years earlier, in 1905, and signed in front of witnesses. His wife and two other sons were virtually
cut off without a penny. Marshal was not inclined to split up the inheritance he had come into any more fairly.
5 .C. Once it was found, they came across a note sewn in the lining of one of the pockets saying they should look in
an old family Bible. This Bible was found in the keeping of Chaffin’s widow and examined in front of independent witnesses.
Sure enough, there in the Bible they discovered a later version of the will, one which divided the property and money evenly
105
between the widow and the three sons. The will appeared to be genuine and Marshal was not prepared to challenge it in
court.
1. D. Some people believe that the dead still keep in touch with us through our dreams. One of the most famous and
extraordinary cases of contact with the dead was the so-called Chaffin Will affair.
3. E. Four years went by and then, strangely, James Chaffin’s ghost started to appear before one of his other two
sons. The apparition had on an old overcoat which had often worn in life.
III. WRITING
Part 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before
it. (20 points)
1. Immediately after his appointment to the post, the new editor fell ill.
Scarcely …..(had he been appointed to the post when the new editor fell ill.)
2. I left without saying goodbye as I didn’t want to disturb the meeting.
Rather ….. than disturb the meeting, I left without saying goodbye
3. The value of sterling has fallen considerably in the past week.
There has …. been a considerable fall in the value of sterling in the past week
4. The only reason the party was a success was that a famous film star attended.
Had it not …. been for the attendance of a famous film star the party would not have been a success
5. Harriet was upset because she saw Peter with another woman.
It was …. because she saw Peter with another woman that Harriet was upset / that upset Harriet
6. We regret to inform you that your application has not been successful.
Much to … our regret we have to inform you that your application has not been successful
7. People no longer smoke so many cigarettes as they used to.
The …. smoking of cigarettes is no longer as popular as it used to be
8. Their relationship was doomed because of their incompatibility.
Had …. they not been incompatible, their relationship might not have been doomed
9. You should admit that you are to blame, not to conceal it.
I’d rather ….. you admitted that you’re to blame, and didn’t try to conceal it
10. If she had been less determined she wouldn’t have been able to get better so quickly.
It was her ….. determination which enabled her to get better so quickly

ENGLISH TEST 81
Read the following passage adapted from an article on environment, Microsoft ® Encarta ® 2009 and choose the correct
word for each of the blanks
Greenpeace, international environmental organization (1)______ to preserving the earth's natural resources and its
diverse plant and animal life. The organization campaigns (2) ______ nuclear weapons testing, environmental
pollution, and destructive practices in fishing, logging, and other industries. Greenpeace was founded in Vancouver,
British Columbia, Canada, in 1971 by members of the Don't Make a Wave Committee, a small group (3) _____ to
nuclear weapons testing by the United States military in Alaska. The group renamed itself Greenpeace to reflect the
broader goal of creating a green and peaceful world.
Greenpeace won fame for its (4)________ exploits calculated to attract media attention to environmental issues.
Greenpeace members in rubber rafts have (5) _______ whaling expeditions by positioning themselves between the
whales and hunters' harpoons. They used similar tactics in Newfoundland and Labrador to protest the clubbing of
baby harp seals, (6)__ __ soft white fur is highly valued by clothing manufacturers. The organization is well known
for scaling corporate skyscrapers and factory smokestacks to hang protest banners. Greenpeace's aggressive style
has often led to (7)__ __ with corporations, local authorities, and even national governments. In 1985 the
Greenpeace ship Rainbow Warrior, on a (8) ____ to protest French nuclear weapons testing in the Pacific, sank in a
New Zealand port, and the crew photographer, Fernando Pereira, drowned. Investigations revealed that the ship
had been deliberately sabotaged with explosives planted by (9)__ __ agents of the French military. The resulting
scandal rocked the highest levels of the French government, leading to the resignation of Defense Minister Charles
Hernu and the dismissal of Admiral Pierre Lacoste, director of the French Secret Service. During the 1990s
Greenpeace has been troubled by internal disagreements over political strategy. Some members want to persist
with a militant approach, emphasizing civil disobedience and physical confrontation. Other members, including the
organization's leaders, are convinced that Greenpeace must work cooperatively with the companies and industries
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that have been its targets in the past. Greenpeace has about 3 million dues-paying members and offices in more
than 40 countries. Its international (10) __ are in Amsterdam, Netherlands.
1. A. cooperated B. convinced C. dedicated D. provided
2. A. from B. to C. over D. against
3. A. persist B. opposed C. disagreed D. disobeyed
4. A. daring B. discouraging C. frightening D. deliberate
5. A. rocked B. reflected C. disrupted D. revealed
6. A. whose B. whom C. that D. who
7. A. confrontation B. conflicts C. investigations D. resignation
8. A. voyage B. trip C. flight D. expedition
9. A. underclassman B. legal C. undercover D. official
10. A. skyscrapers B. offices C. centers D. headquarters
Choose the word/phrase that is closest in meaning to the underlined part.
11. The cotton gin was commonplace on many nineteenth century farms.
A. often required B. sorely needed C. frequently seen D. visibly absent
12. In the field of artificial intelligence, scientists study methods for developing computer programs that display aspects of
intelligent behavior.
A. exhibit B. classify C. depend on D. conform to
13. She lost her temper with a customer and shouted at him.
A. had a temperature B. kept her temper C. became very angry D. felt worried
Choose the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
14. Doctors have been criticized for their indiscriminate use of antibiotics.
A. disciplined B. selective C. wholesale D. unconscious
15. Slavery was abolished in the US in the 19th century.
A. instituted B. eradicated C. eliminated D. required
Choose the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
16. When he called to tell me that he was studying, I didn't believe him because I could hear the noise of a party in the
background.
A. I didn't believe that he could study properly with the noise of a party in the background and I told him that when he
telephoned.
B. Although he rang me to tell me that he was studying, I couldn't hear what he was saying properly because of my
unbelievably noisy party.
C. Because of the sounds of a party I heard in the background when he phoned, I didn't believe his claim that he was
studying.
D. Though he was studying when he called, I thought he was lying because in the background there were party-like sounds.
17. I feel completely exhausted when I've listened to Marion for half-an-hour.
A. It is completely exhausting after half-an-hour I listening to Marion.
B. Half-an-hour listening to Marion leaves me feeling completely exhausted.
C. Feeling completely exhausted, I spent half-an-hour listening to Marion.
D. When I've listened to Marion for half-an-hour, she feels exhausting completely.
18. It was not until after I had got home that I realized I had not set the burglar alarm in the office.
A. On the way home, I suddenly realized that I had forgotten to turn on the burglar alarm in the office.
B. Fortunately, I realized that I hadn't set the burglar alarm just before I left for home; otherwise, I would have had to travel
all the way back to the office.
C. I didn't turn the burglar alarm on before I left the office, but I only became aware of this after I'd arrived home.
D. I wish I had realized before I arrived home that I hadn't turned on the burglar alarm in the office; then it would have been
easier to go and set it.
19. My father couldn’t stand Tom’s behavior.
A. My father found Tom’s behavior intolerant
B. My father found Tom’s behavior intolerable
C. My father was tolerant towards Tom’s behavior
D. Tom’s behavior was not tolerable
20. Cultures vary from country to country.
A. Cultures are different in different countries.
B. There are different cultures in one country
C. Culture differences are based on countries

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D. Cultures move from one country to another.
21. Nobody at all came to the meeting
A. There was almost nobody at the meeting
B. Not many people came to the meeting
C. Not a single person came to the meeting
D. Only a few people came to the meeting
22. Despite his early retirement, he found no peace in life.
A. Although he retired early, but he found no peace in life.
B. His early retirement has brought him peace in life.
C. He found no peace in life because he retired early.
D. Early as he retired, he found no peace in life.
23. This question is even harder than the last one.
A. The last question is not difficult
B. This question is the most difficult one
C. The last question is difficult but this one is more difficult
D. This question is hard but the last one is not.
24. It's a shame we didn't apologise to Mary for all that mess.
A. It's a shame that we must have apologised to Mary for all that mess.
B. We might have apologised to Mary for all that mess, it’s shameful.
C. We were ashamed not to apologise Mary for all that mess.
D. We should have apologised to Mary for all that mess.
25. "Don't cry honey, I'll help you to find your mummy" - a shop assistant said to the little girl.
A. A shop assistant threatened the little girl and she told that she would help her to find her mummy
B. A shop assistant ordered the little girl to stop crying and she helped her to find her mummy
C. A shop assistant scolded the little girl and she said that her mummy would find her.
D. A shop assistant told the little girl not to cry and she promised that she would help her to find her mummy
Choose the underlined part that needs correction
26. In (A) just three months H.G. Wells (B) wrote the famous classic The Time Machine for (C) what he won (D) a
Newberry Caldecot award.
27. Food prices have (A) raised (B) so rapidly in the past few months (C) that some families have been (D) forced to alter their
eating habits.
28. So far this term, (A) the students in the writing class (B) have learned how (C) to write thesis statements, organize their
material, and (D) summarizing their conclutions.
29. The disciplinary (A) committee recommended that (B) the manager (C) was dismissed (D) from service.
30. At least (A) three-quarters of that book on (B) famous Americans (C) are about people who (D) lived in the nineteenth
century.
Read the following extract from Jess McElhinney's article on health issues and choose the correct answer to each of the questions.
In a study of aspirin's effect on blood clotting in which abstinence from chocolate was required, a large proportion of participants
broke the rules. Their "offence" led to what is believed to be the first biochemical evidence that a few squares of chocolate a day can
almost halve the risk of heart attack death by decreasing the tendency of tiny particles (or platelets) to clot in narrow blood vessels.
"What these chocolate offenders taught us is that the chemical in cocoa beans has a biochemical effect similar to aspirin in
reducing platelet clumping, which can be fatal if a clot forms and blocks a blood vessel, causing a heart attack," said Diane Becker
from Johns Hopkins University in Maryland, USA, who led the study.
Becker cautions that this discovery should not become an excuse to indulge in large amounts of chocolate frequently, since
chocolate also contains high amounts of sugar, butter and cream. However just a few squares of dark chocolate the purest form
may be just what the doctor ordered. For almost 20 years researchers have known that chemicals, called flavonoids, most common in
dark chocolate, help blood flow and lower blood pressure. This new finding, presented at the American Heart Association's annual scientific
sessions in Chicago this week, identifies the effect of everyday doses of chocolate found in regular foods such as hot chocolate
or chocolate bars. This differs from previous studies which have examined the effects of eating unrealistic doses of flavonoids,
equivalent to several pounds of chocolate a day.
"Eating a little bit of chocolate or having a drink of hot cocoa as part of a regular diet is probably good for personal health, so long
as people don't eat too much of it, and too much of the kind with lots of butter and sugar," said Becker.
In the study, 139 chocolate offenders were disqualified from a larger experiment which aimed to examine the effects of aspirin
on blood clotting. Before the study began, all participants were instructed to follow a strict exercise and diet regimen and to refrain
from smoking or using foods and drinks known to affect blood-clotting activity, like caffeinated drinks, wine, grapefruit juice and, of
course, chocolate.

108
Platelet samples from both groups (offenders and non-offenders) were run through a mechanical blood vessel system
designed to time how long it takes for platelets to clump together. Chocolate lovers' samples were found to clot more slowly,
on average taking 130 seconds to block the system. Platelets from those who stayed away from chocolate clotted faster, taking an
average of 123 seconds.
31: According to the findings, what helps lower blood pressure?
A. The most important ingredient in chocolate. B. The most common chemicals in dark chocolate.
C. The chemical reaction in dark chocolate. D. The tiny particles in white chocolate.
32: The word "offenders" in paragraph 3 refers to the ____.
A. people who violate laws B. trouble makers C. people who produce chocolate D. people who ate chocolate
33: What has been found about the relation between aspirin and the chemical in cocoa beans?
A. Similarity B. Difference C. Irrelevance D. Interdependence
34: The kind of chocolate that can help the heart is identified as _____ chocolate.
A. mixed B. dark C. white D. hot
35: How does chocolate help the heart and the vascular system?
A. It widens the blood vessels. B. It helps the heart pumps better. C. It helps blood flow more easily. D. It prevents harmful
bacteria.
36: Too much of chocolate ____ is not very good for health.
A. with a lot of butter and sugar B. containing a lot of milk C. with lots of sugar and cocoa D. made with artificial sugar
37: The word "abstinence" can be interpreted as ______.
A. eating some chocolate B. not eating chocolate C. not smoking D. doing exercise
38: An experiment has found out that the forming of blood clots is ____ in chocolate lovers.
A. stopped B. moderate C. faster D. slower
39: The word "indulge" in this case is closest in meaning to "____".
A. become much interested in B. give up oneself totally
C. abandon oneself D. get heavily involved in
40: The article has probably taken from ____.
A. ads of medicine B. a science journal C. a doctor's prescription D. a book of instructions
Choose the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
41. A. mathematics B. academic C. politics D. continental
42. A. beautifully B. differently C. dedicated D. acceptable
43. A. biologist B. eliminate C. archaeology D. stability
44. A. enthusiast B. statistics C. philosophy D. sociology
45. A. misunderstand B. misbehaviour C. responsibility D. characteristic
Choose the correct answer to each of the following questions.
46. Only in the Civil War____________ killed or wounded.
A. soldiers in America were B. so many American soldiers were C. many in America were D. were so many American soldiers
47. Frankly, I'd rather you _______ anything about it for the time being.
A. don't do B. hadn't done C. didn't do D. haven't done
48. I was angry when you saw me because I ______ with my sister.
A. have been arguing B. had been arguing C. argued D. would argue
49. The book would have been perfect ________ the ending.
A. had it not been for B. it had not been for C. it hadn't been for D . hadn't it been for.
50. I'm __________ my brother is.
A. nowhere like so ambitious B. nothing near as ambitious as
C. nothing as ambitious than D. nowhere near as ambitious as
51. _____ I'd like to help you out, I'm afraid I just haven't got any spare money at the moment.
A. Even B. Despite C. Much as D. Try as
52. Hardly ________ of the paintings at the gallery were for sale
A. none B. few C. some D. any
53. Jane's very modest, always ________ her success.
A. playing down B. turning around C. keeping down D. pushing back
54. I feel __ to inform the committee that a number of members are very unhappy with the decision.
A. my duty B. it my duty C. this my duty D. that my duty
55. Check the bottles carefully to make sure they have not been _______
A. broken into B. taken out C. touched up D. tampered with
56. All things_________, he is the best president we are likely to get.
A. considered B. thought C. taken D. added
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57 George: “In my opinion, action films are exciting.” Frankie: “______”
A. Yes. Congratulations! B. There’s no doubt about it. C. What an opinion! D. You shouldn’t have said that.
58. Peter: “I’ve been awarded a scholarship to study in America.” Kate: “Uh, really? __________!”
A. Take care of yourself B. Congratulations C. You are always lucky D. Lucky as you are
59. Tom:" Would you take this along to the office for me?" - Jerry:"_________"
A. Never mind B. Yes, with pleasure C. Yes, that's right D. Not at all
60. Mother: "Gloria, I'd rather you ___________home so late."
A. hadn't come back B. haven't come back C. don't come back D. didn't come back
61. You are 27 years old so it's high time you ______ responsibility for your deeds.
A. took B. have taken C. had taken D. take
62. Suppose he _________you stealing, what would you do?
A. has caught B. catches C. had caught D. caught
63. I used a calculator so it's impossible I made a mistake with the bill. I ___a mistake with the bill because I used a calculator
A. couldn’t make B. shouldn’t have made C. mightn’t make D. can't have made
64. The school Principal suggested that he __________a scholarship.
A. was awarded B. would be awarded C. be awarded D. must be awarded
65. The portrait__________ by an Italian.
A. is known to have been painted B. known to have been painted C. is knowing to be painted D. is known to be painted
66. If you want the day off, you’ll have to find someone ________ you.
A. stand up B. stand in for C. stand for D. set off
67. I bought a __________ bag at the market yesterday.
A. old leather lovely B. old lovely leather C. lovely old leather D. leather old lovely
68. I ran _____ some old records while I was tidying the attic.
A. into B. out C. across D. after
69. You should never spend all the money you earn, but always _____________a rainy day
A. put an end to B. put something by for C. put the blame on D. put off
70. ____________, I decided to go in, which turned out to be a mistake.
A. Noticed the door was open B. Open the door C. The open door was noticed D. Noticing the door was open
Read the following passage adapted from MS Encarta 2008 and choose the correct answer to each of the questions that follow.
The work of women has been economically vital since prehistory, although their contributions have varied according to the
structure, needs, customs, and attitudes of society. In prehistoric times, women and men participated almost equally in hunting and
gathering activities to obtain food. With the development of agricultural communities, women's work revolved more around the home.
As urban centres developed, women sold or traded goods in the marketplace.
From ancient to modern times, four generalizations can be made about women's paid work. (1) Women have worked because of
economic necessity; poor women in particular worked outside the home whether they were unmarried or married, and especially
if their husbands were unable to sustain the family solely through their own work. (2) Women's indentured work has often been similar
to their work at home. (3) Women have maintained the primary responsibility for raising children, regardless of their paid work. (4)
Women have historically been paid less than men and have been allocated lower-status work.
Some major changes are now occurring in industrial nations, including the steadily increasing proportion of women in
the labour force; decreasing family responsibilities (due to both smaller family size and technological innovation in the home);
higher levels of education for women; and more middle and upper-income women working for pay or for job satisfaction.
Statistically, they have not yet achieved parity of pay or senior appointments in the workplace in any nation
Artisans working in their own homes not infrequently used the labour of their families. This custom was so prevalent during
the Middle Ages, craft guilds of the period, including some that otherwise excluded women, often admitted to membership the
widows of guild members, providing they met professional requirements. Dressmaking and lacemaking guilds were composed
exclusively of women.
Gradually, the guilds were replaced by the putting-out system, whereby tools and materials were distributed to workers by
merchants; the workers then produced articles on a piecework basis in their homes.
During the 18th and early 19th centuries, as the Industrial Revolution developed, the putting-out system slowly declined. Goods that
had been produced by hand in the home were manufactured by machine under the factory system. Women competed more with
men for some jobs, but were concentrated primarily in textile mills and clothing factories. Manufacturers often favoured women
employees because of relevant skills and lower wages, and also because early trade union organization tended to occur first
among men. Employees in sweatshops were also preponderantly women. The result was to institutionalize systems of low pay, poor
working conditions, long hours, and other abuses, which along with child labour presented some of the worst examples of worker
exploitation in early industrial capitalism. Minimum wage legislation and other protective laws, when introduced, concentrated
particularly on the alleviation of these abuses of working women.

110
Women workers in business and the professions, the so-called white-collar occupations, suffered less from poor conditions of
work and exploitative labour, but were denied equality of pay and opportunity. The growing use of the typewriter and the telephone
after the 1870s created two new employment niches for women, as typists and telephonists, but in both fields the result was
again to institutionalize a permanent category of low-paid, low-status women's work.
71: When the farming communities developed, women worked __
A. less at home B. more at home C. more outside D. in groups
72: With the development of urban centres, women ____.
A. traded cattle in the marketplace B. stayed at home to take care of their children
C. worked more in the marketplace D. sold cloth in the marketplace
73: The word "indentured" in this context may mostly means
A. outside the home B. in the kitchen C. outside the kitchen D. inside the home
74: With better education and less family burden, women ____.
A. have been respected at home and in the workplace B. have enjoyed equal status in the workplace
C. have not yet achieved high status in the workplace D. have become more influential in their companies
75: Although women cannot avoid the task of bringing up children, _
A. they have to work to feed their men B. they have to amuse their men
C. are the mainstay of their families D. they can be breadwinners as men
76: The word "sweatshops" suggests ____. A. workshop B. factory work C. hard work D. harmful work
77: Under the "putting-out system", the workers ____.
A. are provided with tools to produce goods at home B. bought materials to manufacture goods
C. provide their factories with raw materials D. turn their homes into factories
78: Manufacturers tended to employ women because _
A. women demanded less than men B. they did not have to pay for high insurance
C. they could cheat them more easily D. they did not have to pay high wages
79: During the time of Industrial Revolution, women were dominant in ___.
A. entertainment industry B. Broidery C. textile industry D. bakery
80: What women have done for the economic development have changed over time due to ____.
A. their role in the home B. their marital status and their husbands C. the different factors of the society D. the Industrial Revolution

111
Keys
Read the following passage adapted from an article on environment, Microsoft ® Encarta ® 2009 and choose the correct
word for each of the blanks
Greenpeace, international environmental organization (1)______ to preserving the earth's natural resources and its
diverse plant and animal life. The organization campaigns (2) ______ nuclear weapons testing, environmental
pollution, and destructive practices in fishing, logging, and other industries. Greenpeace was founded in Vancouver,
British Columbia, Canada, in 1971 by members of the Don't Make a Wave Committee, a small group (3) _____ to
nuclear weapons testing by the United States military in Alaska. The group renamed itself Greenpeace to reflect the
broader goal of creating a green and peaceful world.
Greenpeace won fame for its (4)________ exploits calculated to attract media attention to environmental issues.
Greenpeace members in rubber rafts have (5) _______ whaling expeditions by positioning themselves between the
whales and hunters' harpoons. They used similar tactics in Newfoundland and Labrador to protest the clubbing of
baby harp seals, (6)_______ soft white fur is highly valued by clothing manufacturers. The organization is well known
for scaling corporate skyscrapers and factory smokestacks to hang protest banners.
Greenpeace's aggressive style has often led to (7)_________ with corporations, local authorities, and even national
governments. In 1985 the Greenpeace ship Rainbow Warrior, on a (8) _______ to protest French nuclear weapons
testing in the Pacific, sank in a New Zealand port, and the crew photographer, Fernando Pereira, drowned.
Investigations revealed that the ship had been deliberately sabotaged (damaged) with explosives planted by
(9)________ agents of the French military. The resulting scandal rocked the highest levels of the French
government, leading to the resignation of Defense Minister Charles Hernu and the dismissal of Admiral Pierre
Lacoste, director of the French Secret Service.
During the 1990s Greenpeace has been troubled by internal disagreements over political strategy. Some members
want to persist with a militant approach, emphasizing civil disobedience and physical confrontation. Other
members, including the organization's leaders, are convinced that Greenpeace must work cooperatively with the
companies and industries that have been its targets in the past. Greenpeace has about 3 million dues-paying
members and offices in more than 40 countries. Its international (10) ________ are in Amsterdam, Netherlands.
1. A. cooperated B. convinced C. dedicated D. provided
2. A. from B. to C. over D. against
3. A. persist B. opposed C. disagreed D. disobeyed
4. A. daring B. discouraging C. frightening D. deliberate
5. A. rocked B. reflected C. disrupted (interrupt) D. revealed
6. A. whose B. whom C. that D. who
7. A. confrontation (disagreement) B. conflicts C. investigations D. resignation
8. A. voyage B. trip C. flight D. expedition
9. A. underclassman (a student in the first or second year of high school or college)
B. legal C. undercover(secret) D. official
10. A. skyscrapers B. offices C. centers D. headquarters
Choose the word/phrase that is closest in meaning to the underlined part.
11. The cotton gin was commonplace on many nineteenth century farms.
A. often required B. sorely needed C. frequently seen D. visibly absent
12. In the field of artificial intelligence, scientists study methods for developing computer programs that display aspects of
intelligent behavior.
A. exhibit B. classify C. depend on D. conform to
13. She lost her temper with a customer and shouted at him.
A. had a temperature B. kept her temper C. became very angry D. felt worried
Choose the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
14. Doctors have been criticized for their indiscriminate use of antibiotics.
A. disciplined B. selective C. wholesale D. unconscious
15. Slavery was abolished in the US in the 19th century.
A. instituted B. eradicated C. eliminated D. required
Choose the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
16. When he called to tell me that he was studying, I didn't believe him because I could hear the noise of a party in the
background.

112
A. I didn't believe that he could study properly with the noise of a party in the background and I told him that when he
telephoned.
B. Although he rang me to tell me that he was studying, I couldn't hear what he was saying properly because of my
unbelievably noisy party.
C. Because of the sounds of a party I heard in the background when he phoned, I didn't believe his claim that he was studying.
D. Though he was studying when he called, I thought he was lying because in the background there were party-like sounds.
17. I feel completely exhausted when I've listened to Marion for half-an-hour.
A. It is completely exhausting after half-an-hour I listening to Marion.
B. Half-an-hour listening to Marion leaves me feeling completely exhausted.
C. Feeling completely exhausted, I spent half-an-hour listening to Marion.
D. When I've listened to Marion for half-an-hour, she feels exhausting completely.
18. It was not until after I had got home that I realized I had not set the burglar alarm in the office.
A. On the way home, I suddenly realized that I had forgotten to turn on the burglar alarm in the office.
B. Fortunately, I realized that I hadn't set the burglar alarm just before I left for home; otherwise, I would have had to travel
all the way back to the office.
C. I didn't turn the burglar alarm on before I left the office, but I only became aware of this after I'd arrived home.
D. I wish I had realized before I arrived home that I hadn't turned on the burglar alarm in the office; then it would have been
easier to go and set it.
19. My father couldn’t stand Tom’s behavior.
A. My father found Tom’s behavior intolerant B. My father found Tom’s behavior intolerable
C. My father was tolerant towards Tom’s behavior D. Tom’s behavior was not tolerable
20. Cultures vary from country to country.
A. Cultures are different in different countries. B. There are different cultures in one country
C. Culture differences are based on countries D. Cultures move from one country to another.
21. Nobody at all came to the meeting
A. There was almost nobody at the meeting B. Not many people came to the meeting
C. Not a single person came to the meeting D. Only a few people came to the meeting
22. Despite his early retirement, he found no peace in life.
A. Although he retired early, but he found no peace in life. B. His early retirement has brought him peace in life.
C. He found no peace in life because he retired early. D. Early as he retired, he found no peace in life.
23. This question is even harder than the last one.
A. The last question is not difficult B. This question is the most difficult one
C. The last question is difficult but this one is more difficult D. This question is hard but the last one is not.
24. It's a shame we didn't apologise to Mary for all that mess.
A. It's a shame that we must have apologised to Mary for all that mess.
B. We might have apologised to Mary for all that mess, it’s shameful.
C. We were ashamed not to apologise Mary for all that mess. D. We should have apologised to Mary for all that mess.
25. "Don't cry honey, I'll help you to find your mummy" - a shop assistant said to the little girl.
A. A shop assistant threatened the little girl and she told that she would help her to find her mummy
B. A shop assistant ordered the little girl to stop crying and she helped her to find her mummy
C. A shop assistant scolded the little girl and she said that her mummy would find her.
D. A shop assistant told the little girl not to cry and she promised that she would help her to find her mummy
Choose the underlined part that needs correction
26. In (A) just three months H.G. Wells (B) wrote the famous classic The Time Machine for (C) what he won (D) a
Newberry Caldecot award.
27. Food prices have (A) raised (B) so rapidly in the past few months (C) that some families have been (D) forced to alter
their eating habits.
28. So far this term, (A) the students in the writing class (B) have learned how (C) to write thesis statements, organize their
material, and (D) summarizing their conclutions.
29. The disciplinary (A) committee recommended that (B) the manager (C) was dismissed (D) from service.
30. At least (A) three-quarters of that book on (B) famous Americans (C) are about people who (D) lived in the nineteenth
century.
Read the following extract from Jess McElhinney's article on health issues and choose the correct answer to each of the questions.
In a study of aspirin's effect on blood clotting in which abstinence from chocolate was required, a large proportion of participants
broke the rules. Their "offence" led to what is believed to be the first biochemical evidence that a few squares of chocolate a day can
almost halve the risk of heart attack death by decreasing the tendency of tiny particles (or platelets) to clot in narrow blood vessels.
113
"What these chocolate offenders taught us is that the chemical in cocoa beans has a biochemical effect similar to aspirin in
reducing platelet clumping, which can be fatal if a clot forms and blocks a blood vessel, causing a heart attack," said Diane Becker
from Johns Hopkins University in Maryland, USA, who led the study.
Becker cautions that this discovery should not become an excuse to indulge in large amounts of chocolate frequently, since
chocolate also contains high amounts of sugar, butter and cream. However just a few squares of dark chocolate the purest form
may be just what the doctor ordered. For almost 20 years researchers have known that chemicals, called flavonoids, most common in
dark chocolate, help blood flow and lower blood pressure. This new finding, presented at the American Heart Association's annual scientific
sessions in Chicago this week, identifies the effect of everyday doses of chocolate found in regular foods such as hot chocolate
or chocolate bars. This differs from previous studies which have examined the effects of eating unrealistic doses of flavonoids,
equivalent to several pounds of chocolate a day.
"Eating a little bit of chocolate or having a drink of hot cocoa as part of a regular diet is probably good for personal health, so long
as people don't eat too much of it, and too much of the kind with lots of butter and sugar," said Becker.
In the study, 139 chocolate offenders were disqualified from a larger experiment which aimed to examine the effects of aspirin
on blood clotting. Before the study began, all participants were instructed to follow a strict exercise and diet regimen and to refrain
from smoking or using foods and drinks known to affect blood-clotting activity, like caffeinated drinks, wine, grapefruit juice and, of
course, chocolate.
Platelet samples from both groups (offenders and non-offenders) were run through a mechanical blood vessel system
designed to time how long it takes for platelets to clump together. Chocolate lovers' samples were found to clot more slowly,
on average taking 130 seconds to block the system. Platelets from those who stayed away from chocolate clotted faster, taking an
average of 123 seconds.
31: According to the findings, what helps lower blood pressure?
A. The most important ingredient in chocolate. B. The most common chemicals in dark chocolate.
C. The chemical reaction in dark chocolate. D. The tiny particles in white chocolate.
32: The word "offenders" in paragraph 3 refers to the ____.
A. people who violate laws B. trouble makers C. people who produce chocolate D. people who ate chocolate
33: What has been found about the relation between aspirin and the chemical in cocoa beans?
A. Similarity B. Difference C. Irrelevance D. Interdependence
34: The kind of chocolate that can help the heart is identified as _____ chocolate.
A. mixed B. dark C. white D. hot
35: How does chocolate help the heart and the vascular system?
A. It widens the blood vessels. B. It helps the heart pumps better. C. It helps blood flow more easily. D. It prevents harmful
bacteria.
36: Too much of chocolate ____ is not very good for health.
A. with a lot of butter and sugar B. containing a lot of milk C. with lots of sugar and cocoa D. made with artificial sugar
37: The word "abstinence" can be interpreted as ______.
A. eating some chocolate B. not eating chocolate C. not smoking D. doing exercise
38: An experiment has found out that the forming of blood clots is ____ in chocolate lovers.
A. stopped B. moderate C. faster D. slower
39: The word "indulge" in this case is closest in meaning to "____".
A. become much interested in B. give up oneself totally C. abandon oneself D. get heavily involved in
40: The article has probably taken from ____.
A. ads of medicine B. a science journal C. a doctor's prescription D. a book of instructions
Choose the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
41. A. mathematics B. academic C. politics D. continental
42. A. beautifully B. differently C. dedicated D. acceptable
43. A. biologist B. eliminate C. archaeology D. stability
44. A. enthusiast B. statistics C. philosophy D. sociology
45. A. misunderstand B. misbehaviour C. responsibility D. characteristic
Choose the correct answer to each of the following questions.
46. Only in the Civil War____________ killed or wounded.
A. soldiers in America were B. so many American soldiers were C. many in America were D. were so many American soldiers
47. Frankly, I'd rather you _______ anything about it for the time being.
A. don't do B. hadn't done C. didn't do D. haven't done
48. I was angry when you saw me because I ______ with my sister.
A. have been arguing B. had been arguing C. argued D. would argue
49. The book would have been perfect ________ the ending.
A. had it not been for B. it had not been for C. it hadn't been for D . hadn't it been for.
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50. I'm __________ my brother is.
A. nowhere like so ambitious B. nothing near as ambitious as
C. nothing as ambitious than D. nowhere near as ambitious as
* not anywhere near/nowhere near : far from; not at all (chắc là không; còn lâu)
The job doesn't pay anywhere near enough for me.
51. _____ I'd like to help you out, I'm afraid I just haven't got any spare money at the moment.
A. Even B. Despite C. Much as D. Try as
52. Hardly ________ of the paintings at the gallery were for sale
A. none B. few C. some D. any
53. Jane's very modest, always ________ her success.
A. playing down B. turning around C. keeping down D. pushing back
* play something down : to try to make something seem less important or less likely than it really is
54. I feel __ to inform the committee that a number of members are very unhappy with the decision.
A. my duty B. it my duty C. this my duty D. that my duty
55. Check the bottles carefully to make sure they have not been _______
A. broken into B. taken out C. touched up D. tampered with (làm giả)
56. All things_________, he is the best president we are likely to get.
A. considered B. thought C. taken D. added
57 George: “In my opinion, action films are exciting.” Frankie: “______”
A. Yes. Congratulations! B. There’s no doubt about it. C. What an opinion! D. You shouldn’t have said that.
58. Peter: “I’ve been awarded a scholarship to study in America.” Kate: “Uh, really? __________!”
A. Take care of yourself B. Congratulations C. You are always lucky D. Lucky as you are
59. Tom:" Would you take this along to the office for me?" - Jerry:"_________"
A. Never mind B. Yes, with pleasure C. Yes, that's right D. Not at all
60. Mother: "Gloria, I'd rather you ___________home so late."
A. hadn't come back B. haven't come back C. don't come back D. didn't come back
61. You are 27 years old so it's high time you ______ responsibility for your deeds.
A. took B. have taken C. had taken D. take
62. Suppose he _________you stealing, what would you do?
A. has caught B. catches C. had caught D. caught
63. I used a calculator so it's impossible I made a mistake with the bill. I ___a mistake with the bill because I used a calculator
A. couldn’t make B. shouldn’t have made C. mightn’t make D. can't have made
64. The school Principal suggested that he __________a scholarship.
A. was awarded B. would be awarded C. be awarded D. must be awarded
65. The portrait__________ by an Italian.
A. is known to have been painted B. known to have been painted C. is knowing to be painted D. is known to be painted
66. If you want the day off, you’ll have to find someone ________ you.
A. stand up B. stand in for (replace sb temporarily) C. stand for D. set off
67. I bought a __________ bag at the market yesterday.
A. old leather lovely B. old lovely leather C. lovely old leather D. leather old lovely
68. I ran _____ some old records while I was tidying the attic.
A. into B. out C. across D. after
69. You should never spend all the money you earn, but always _____________a rainy day
A. put an end to B. put something by for C. put the blame on D. put off
70. ____________, I decided to go in, which turned out to be a mistake.
A. Noticed the door was open B. Open the door C. The open door was noticed D. Noticing the door was open
Read the following passage adapted from MS Encarta 2008 and choose the correct answer to each of the questions that follow.
The work of women has been economically vital since prehistory, although their contributions have varied according to the
structure, needs, customs, and attitudes of society.
In prehistoric times, women and men participated almost equally in hunting and gathering activities to obtain food. With the
development of agricultural communities, women's work revolved more around the home. As urban centres developed, women sold or
traded goods in the marketplace.
From ancient to modern times, four generalizations can be made about women's paid work. (1) Women have worked because of
economic necessity; poor women in particular worked outside the home whether they were unmarried or married, and especially
if their husbands were unable to sustain the family solely through their own work. (2) Women's indentured work has often been similar
to their work at home. (3) Women have maintained the primary responsibility for raising children, regardless of their paid work. (4)
Women have historically been paid less than men and have been allocated lower-status work.
115
Some major changes are now occurring in industrial nations, including the steadily increasing proportion of women in
the labour force; decreasing family responsibilities (due to both smaller family size and technological innovation in the home);
higher levels of education for women; and more middle and upper-income women working for pay or for job satisfaction.
Statistically, they have not yet achieved parity of pay or senior appointments in the workplace in any nation
Artisans working in their own homes not infrequently used the labour of their families. This custom was so prevalent during
the Middle Ages, craft guilds of the period, including some that otherwise excluded women, often admitted to membership the
widows of guild members, providing they met professional requirements. Dressmaking and lacemaking guilds were composed
exclusively of women.
Gradually, the guilds were replaced by the putting-out system, whereby tools and materials were distributed to workers by
merchants; the workers then produced articles on a piecework basis in their homes.
During the 18th and early 19th centuries, as the Industrial Revolution developed, the putting-out system slowly declined. Goods that
had been produced by hand in the home were manufactured by machine under the factory system. Women competed more with
men for some jobs, but were concentrated primarily in textile mills and clothing factories. Manufacturers often favoured women
employees because of relevant skills and lower wages, and also because early trade union organization tended to occur first
among men. Employees in sweatshops were also preponderantly women. The result was to institutionalize systems of low pay, poor
working conditions, long hours, and other abuses, which along with child labour presented some of the worst examples of worker
exploitation in early industrial capitalism. Minimum wage legislation and other protective laws, when introduced, concentrated
particularly on the alleviation of these abuses of working women.
Women workers in business and the professions, the so-called white-collar occupations, suffered less from poor conditions of
work and exploitative labour, but were denied equality of pay and opportunity. The growing use of the typewriter and the telephone
after the 1870s created two new employment niches for women, as typists and telephonists, but in both fields the result was
again to institutionalize a permanent category of low-paid, low-status women's work.
71: When the farming communities developed, women worked __
A. less at home B. more at home C. more outside D. in groups
72: With the development of urban centres, women ____.
A. traded cattle in the marketplace B. stayed at home to take care of their children
C. worked more in the marketplace D. sold cloth in the marketplace
73: The word "indentured" in this context may mostly means
A. outside the home B. in the kitchen C. outside the kitchen D. inside the home
74: With better education and less family burden, women ____.
A. have been respected at home and in the workplace B. have enjoyed equal status in the workplace
C. have not yet achieved high status in the workplace D. have become more influential in their companies
75: Although women cannot avoid the task of bringing up children, _
A. they have to work to feed their men B. they have to amuse their men
C. are the mainstay of their families D. they can be breadwinners as men
76: The word "sweatshops" suggests ____.
A. workshop B. factory work C. hard work D. harmful work
77: Under the "putting-out system", the workers ____.
A. are provided with tools to produce goods at home B. bought materials to manufacture goods
C. provide their factories with raw materials D. turn their homes into factories
78: Manufacturers tended to employ women because _
A. women demanded less than men B. they did not have to pay for high insurance
C. they could cheat them more easily D. they did not have to pay high wages
79: During the time of Industrial Revolution, women were dominant in ___.
A. entertainment industry B. Broidery C. textile industry D. bakery
80: What women have done for the economic development have changed over time due to ____.
A. their role in the home B. their marital status and their husbands C. the different factors of the society D. the Industrial Revolution

ENGLISH TEST 82
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct sentence which is built from the words and phrases given:
1. No one / know / answer / teacher / question.
A. No one knows the answer of the teacher’s question.
B. No one knows how to answer of teacher’s question.
C. No one knows the answer to the teacher’s question.
D. No one knows to answer the teacher’s question.
2. patient / he / be / have / intention / wait / three / hours.
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A. He was so patient to have intention of waiting for three hours.
B. Patient as he was, he had no intention of waiting for three hours.
C. So patient was he that he had intention for waiting for three hours.
D. So patient he was to have no intention to wait for three hours.
3. I / get / refund / change / another / sweater.
A. I would like to get the refund if you can change me another sweater.
B. I would like to get the refund or you can change me another sweater.
C. I would like to get the refund; consequently, you can change me another sweater.
D. Unless I would like to get the refund or you can change me another sweater.
4. Henry / suggested / Anna / the doctor.
A. Henry suggested Anna to go to the doctor.
B. Henry suggested to Anna that she goes to the doctor.
C. Henry suggested to Anna that she go to the doctor.
D. Henry suggested Anna that she should go to the doctor.
5. do / cooking / she / look / after / garden.
A. As soon as she did the cooking, she looks after the garden.
B. Apart from to do the cooking, she looked after the garden.
C. In addition to do the cooking, she also looked after the garden.
D. Besides doing the cooking, she looks after the garden.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions:
6. This is his fifth day on the tour . He ___ four countries.
A. already visited B. visited C. has already visited D. is visiting
7. “I think the teacher should give us more exercises. – “____________ .”
A. That’s rubbish. B. Yes, let’s. C. Ok. D. That’s just what I was thinking.
8. There is fog at Heathrow; the plane, ___ , has been delayed.
A. otherwise B. or C. therefore D. so
9. “Excuse me, is anybody sitting here?” – “____________ .”
A. Yes, I am so glad. B. No, thanks. C. Sorry, the seat is taken. D. Yes, yes. You can sit here.
10. ____, he would have been able to pass the exam.
A. Studying more B. If he were studying to a greater degree C. If he studied more D. Had he studied more
11 The manager was very pleased with her last business trip, which had been a _____success.
A. full B. complete C. whole D. high
12. The man you saw yesterday ……..….Mr. Brown, because he went to London on business last week.
A. can’t have been B. mustn’t be C. can’t be D. mustn’t have been
13. “Why don’t you go to the zoo?” – “_______ .”
A. That’s a good idea. B. Because we don’t have enough money. C. I couldn’t agree more. D. Yes, I’d love
to.
14. She went ____ a bad cold just before Christmas. A. through B. over C. in for D. down with
15. In every country , there are _____ between different regions, especially between the North and the South, which
result in unfriendliness, even hatred. A. quarrels B. conflicts C. differences D. disputes
16.The house that we used to live in is in a very ____ state.
A. negligent B. neglected C. negligible D. neglectful
17. _____ the bad weather, he could get to the airport in time. A. Despite B. Though C. However D.
Although
18. One of the great ___ to the students when they go on a mountain walk is that they learn a lot about wild flowers.
A. supports B. returns C. benefits D. profits
19. Imagination _____ facts. A. outlays B. outruns C. outplays D. outlives
20. “ Were there many people waiting in line at the stadium?” – “ Yes, I saw ____________.”
A. quite many B. quite much C. quite a few D. quite some
21. He is decorating the house with a view _____ it. A. to selling B. to be sold C. for selling D. to sell
22. I tried to talk her _____ joining our trip, but she refused. A. on B. in C. out of D. into
23. The boss ____ him because his mother had just passed away.
A. made up B. made use of C. made fun of D. made allowance for

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24. “Must we do it now?” – “No, you ____________ .” A. won’t B. needn’t C. can’t D.
mustn’t
25.The fact is , doctor, I just cannot _____ this dreadful cough.
A. get down to B. get rid of C. get out of D. get round to
26. The Home – Loan Company ______the right to cancel this agreement.
A. serves B. conserves C. reserves D. deserves
27. After Joe’s mother died, he was _____ up by his grandmother. A. drawn B. taken C. grown D. brought
28. It _____ me as strange that my front door was open when I got home.
A. occurred B. seemed C. struck D. appeared
29.The music aroused an _____ feeling of homesickness in him.
A. intentional B. intense C. intended D. intensive
30. _____ regards sport and leisure activities, our two countries appear to have little in common.
A. With B. What C. As D. How
31. Jane is plain, but her sister is very____. A. complex B. attractive C. sympathetic D. sophisticated
32. On the street : “ Have you found a good place to eat yet?
“Yes, there’s a wonderful restaurant right down the street from the school.” “____________ ?”
“ Yes. And the food is good too.”A. Is it really like that B. Do you like good food
C. Are the prices reasonable D. Do they often go there
33. Although we argued with him for a long time, he stood his ground.
A. changed his decision B. refused to change his decision C. felt sorry for us D. wanted to continue
34. Of all the factors _____ agricultural products, weather is the one that influences farmers the most.
A. affecting B. to effect C. to affect D. effecting
35. I like the idea of becoming your partner and which is more, this business really _____me.
A. adjusts B. conforms C. suits D. likes
Mark the letter A, B, C ,or D to indicate the correct answer which completes each of the following sentences :
36.Most psychologists agree that the basic structure of an individual’s personality is _____.
A. well established extremely by the age of five. B. by the age of five and extremely well established.
C. extremely well established by the age of five. D. by the age of five it is extremely well established.
37.Civil rights are the freedoms and rights ________ as a member of a community, state, or nation.
A. may have a person whoC. may have a personB. and a person may have D. a person may have
38.The Internet _____ access to current news, political articles, business statistics, and software for practically any
purpose. A. can be provided readily B. ready and can be providing C. can provide ready D. is ready and
can provide
39.Fibers of hair and wool are not continuous and must normally be spun into thread ____ woven into textile fabrics.
A. when to be B.if they are to be C. as are they D. that they are
40. Franklin D. Roosevelt was _______ the great force of radio and the opportunity it provided for taking government
policies directly to the people.
A. as the first President he understood fully B. the first President to understand fully
C. the first President fully understood D. the first President that, to fully understand
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C ,or D to indicate the correct answer for each of the questions
This rapid transcontinental settlement and these new urban industrial circumstances of the last half of the 19th
century were accompanied by the development of a national literature of great abundance and variety. New
themes, new forms, new subjects, new regions, new authors, new audiences all emerged in the literature of this
half century.
As a result, at the onset of World War I, the spirit and substance of American literature had evolved remarkably,
just as its center of production had shifted from Boston to New York in the late 1880s and the sources of its energy
to Chicago and the Midwest. No longer was it produced, at least in its popular forms, in the main by solemn,
typically moralistic men from New England and the Old South; no longer were polite, well-dressed, grammatically
correct, middle-class young people the only central characters in its narratives; no longer were these narratives
to be set in exotic places and remote times; no longer, indeed, were fiction, poetry, drama, and formal history
the chief acceptable forms of literary expression; no longer, finally, was literature read primarily by young, middle
class women.
In sum, American literature in these years fulfilled in considerable measure the condition Walt Whitman called
for in 1867 in describing Leaves of Grass: it treats, he said of his own major work, each state and region as peers

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"and expands from them, and includes the world ... connecting an American citizen with the citizens of all
nations." At the same time, these years saw the emergence of what has been designated "the literature of
argument," powerful works in sociology, philosophy, psychology, many of them impelled by the spirit of exposure
and reform. Just as America learned to play a role in this half century as an autonomous international political,
economic, and military power, so did its literature establish itself as a producer of major works.
41. The word evolved is closest in meaning to ____ .A. became famous B. turned back C. changed D.
diminished
42. The word it refers to _____ . A. American literature B. the energy C. the population D. the
manufacturing
43. The author uses the word indeed for what purpose?
A. For variety in a lengthy paragraph B. To emphasize the contrast he is making
C. To wind down his argument D. To show a favorable attitude to these forms of literature
44. The word exotic in line 12 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. well-known B. unusual C. urban D. old-fashioned
45. The phrase these years in line 16 refers to _____________ .
A. the present B. the 1900s C. the early 1800s D. 1850-1900
46. All of the following can be inferred from the passage about the new literature EXCEPT ________ .
A. It was not highly regarded internationally B. It broke with many literary traditions of the
past
C. It introduced new American themes, characters, and settings D. It spoke to the issue of reform and change
47. It can be inferred from lines 1-3 that the previous passage probably discussed _____.
A. the limitations of American literature to this time B. the importance of tradition to writers
C. new developments in industrialization and population shifts D. the fashions and values of 19th century
America
48. It can be inferred from the passage that Walt Whitman ______ .
A. disliked urban life B. wrote Leaves of Grass C. was an international diplomat D. was disapproving of the new
literature
49. The main idea of this passage is___.
A. that the new American literature was less provincial than the old
B. that most people were wary of the new literature
C. that World War I caused a dramatic change in America
D. that centers of culture shifted from East to West
50. This passage would probably be read in which of the following academic courses?
A. International affairs B. Current events C. American literature D. European history
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C ,or D to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks.
Ask anyone over forty to make a comparison (51)____ the past and the present and nine (52)____ ten people will tell
you that things have been getting (53)____ worse for as long as they can remember. Take the weather for example,
which has been behaving rather strangely lately. Everyone remembers that in their childhood the summers
were(54)____ hotter, and that winter always included abundant falls of snow just when the school holidays had started.
Of course, the food in those days was far superior too, as nothing was imported and everything was fresh.
Unemployment was negligible, the pound really was worth something, and you could buy a sizeable house even if your
means were limited. And above all, people were (55)____ better in those days, far more friendly, not inclined to crime
or violence, and spent their free time making model boats and tending their stamp collections (56)____ than gazing at
the television screen for hours on end. As we know that this picture of the past (57)____ cannot be true, and there are
plenty of statistics dealing with health and prosperity which prove that it is not true, why is it that we all have a (58)____
to idealize the past ? Is this simply nostalgia? Or is it rather that we need to believe in an image of the world which is
(59)____ the opposite of what we see around us? Whichever it is, at least it leaves us with a nagging feeling that the
present could be better, and perhaps (60)____ us to be a little more critical about the way we live.
51. A. between B. from C. with D. in
52. A. to B. out of C. or D. from
53. A. virtually B. so C. steadily D. out
54. A. considerably B. at least C. rarely D. not only
55. A. more B. somehow C. whatsoever D. as
56. A. usually B. different C. other D. rather

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57. A. especially B. hardly C. simply D. specifically
58. A. tendency B. custom C. habit D. practice
59. A. utterly B. widely C. quite D. rather
60. A. makes B. encourages C. reassures D. supports
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.
61. For centuries, philosophers and (A) artists alike (B) have debated the meaning of beauty and questioned (C)
whether it real or (D) only perceived.
62. The purpose (A) of the United Nations, (B) broad speaking, (C) is to maintain peace and securityand (D) to
encourage respect for human rights.
63. (A) There will always (B) be a job for Mike (C) if he change (D) his mind.
64. (A) Owing to their superior skill, (B) highly competitive athletes (C) have been known to win contests and break
records even (D) when suffered from injuries, physical disorders, and infections.
65. (A) Language is (B) important factor (C) in the accumulation (D) of culture.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the stress in each of the following questions
66 : A. contribute B. compliment C. bacteria D. procedure
67 : A. stagnant B. desert C. interest D. install
68 : A. sacrifice B. maintenance C. disaster D. overview
69 : A. rhinoceros B. curriculum C. kindergartenD. discriminate
70 : A. millennium B. incredible C. fascinating D. philosopher
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C ,or D to indicate the correct answer for the questions.
Aging is the process of growing old. It occurs eventually in every living thing provided, of course, that an illness or
accident does not kill it prematurely. The most familiar outward signs of aging may be seen in old people, such as
the graying of the hair and the wrinkling of the skin. Signs of aging in a pet dog or cat include loss of playfulness and
energy, a decline in hearing and eyesight, or even a slight graying of the coat. Plants age too, but the signs are much
harder to detect.
Most body plants grow bigger and stronger, and function more efficiently during childhood. They reach their peak
at the time of maturity, or early adulthood. After that they begin to decline. Bones, for example, gradually become
lighter and more brittle. In the aged, the joints between the bones also become rigid and more flexible. This can
make moving very painful.
All the major organs of the body show signs aging. The brain, for example, works less efficiently, and even gets
smaller in size. Thinking processes of all sorts are slowed down. Old people often have trouble in remembering
recent events.
One of the most serious changes of old age occurs in the arteries, the blood vessels that lead from the heart. They
become thickened and constricted, allowing less blood to flow to the rest of body. This condition accounts, directly
or indirectly, for many of the diseases of the aged. It may, for example, result in heart attack.
Aging is not a uniform process. Different parts of the body wear out at different rates. There are great differences
among people in their rate of aging. Even the cells of the body differ in the way they age. The majority of cells are
capable of reproducing themselves many times during the course of a lifetime. Nerve cells and muscle fibers can
never be replaced once they wear out.
Gerontologists - scientists who study the process of aging - believe the wearing out of the body is controlled by a
built - in biological time - clock. They are trying to discover how this clock works so that they can slow down the
process. This could give man a longer life and a great number of productive years.
71. What is the main idea in the first paragraph?
A. Signs of aging are easier to detect in animals than in plants. B. The outward signs of aging may be seen in old
people.
C. Aging occurs in every living thing after it has reached maturity. D. Not all signs of aging are visible.
72. Which piece of information is given in the passage?
A. Gerontologists can give man a longer life.
B. Gerontologists are studying how they can slow down the process of aging.
C. Gerontologists have discovered that aging is controlled by a built- in biological time- clock.
D. Gerontologists can prevent diseases connected with aging.
73. The human body begins to lose vigor and the ability to function efficiently ________ .
A. soon after reaching adulthood C. before reaching adulthood B. during childhood D. in old age
74. In old age, the bones ___________

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A. become more flexible B. become heavier C. cause much pain D. break easily
75. According to the passage, what condition is responsible for many of the diseases of the old?
A. Their trouble in remembering recent events B. The blood vessels that have become thickened and
constricted
C. The rigid and inflexible joints between the bones D. The worn - out nerve cells and muscle- fibers
76. Many of the diseases of old people are the results of __________.
A. lack of blood C. poor blood circulation B. the thickening of the blood vessels D. low blood pressure
77.The statement Aging is not a uniform process in line 19 means that __________
A. old people do not have the same outward signs of aging B. nerve cells and muscle fibers do not age
simultaneously
C. not all people age at the same age D. the process of aging is slow
78. The word arteries in line 15 refers to __________ .
A. vessels that are thickened and constricted B. the paths along which blood flows to all parts of the body
C. the tubes carrying blood back to the heart D. such heart diseases as suffered by old people
Question 79. When the brain begins to age, _________.
A. eyesight will begin too B. memorization declines C. it becomes lighter D. the thinking processes stop
80. Which of the statements about aging is false?
A. People vary in their rates of aging. B. All body cells once worn out can never be replaced.
C. The cells of the body age in different ways. D. The various parts of the body do not wear out at the same rate.
_______THE END________

ENGLISH TEST 83
Gap filling:
I’m sure that many people in this lecture hall have, at some time, attempted to open up an image file in order to (1) __ their
photos onto a social (2) _ site, only to find the file has been (3)_. You find there’s no way to retrieve your digital memories
as you’ve already (4) __ the photos from your memory card. Worse is the realization that your entire hard drive has crashed
and that you never made back-up copies of your dissertation, years of research, and so on. Right now, I’m afraid, there’s no
guarantee that any of our data will survive in the (5) ___ currently available. You see, manufacturers want to (6) __ the
speed and capacity of drivers, but aren’t worried about long-term stability. Flash memory drives are not a reliable
alternative as they have an estimated (7) __ lifespan of ten years. Top-end CDs with the gold and the phthalocyanine dye
layers will (8) __ longer. The other issue of course, is that technology is constantly becoming obsolete. Many of your parents
will have video cassettes at home but unless you have a video player still in (9) __, you are unlikely to ever view the content.
The same goes for any documents saved on floppy disks; no modem PC comes with a compatible drive. It’s ironic, of course,
that paper, the old (10)__of transferring information, is actually more durable than its modem equivalents.
1. A. paste B. display C. share D. upload
2. A. chatroom B. discussion C. meeting D. networking
3. A. spoilt B. disrupted C. corrupted D. disturbed
4.A. erased B. cancelled C. withdrawn D.rubbed
5. A. formats B. shapes C. means D. types
6. A. excel B. build C. uplift D. boost
7. A. peak B. maximum C. top D. upper
8. A. spend B. last C. produce D. act
9.A. order B. operation C. function D. occupation
10. A. opportunity B. source C. medium D. technology
Sentence formation
11. Joe/ not/ good/ swimmer/ however/jump/ river/ rescue/ little/ girl/ who/ drown/.
A. Joe wasn’t a good swimmer however jumping in the river rescuing a little girl who was drowning.
B. Joe wasn’t the good swimmer, however he jumped in the river to rescue a little girl who drowned.
C. Joe wasn’t a good swimmer. However, he jumped into the river to rescue the little girl who was drowning.
D. Joe wasn’t the good swimmer; however, he jumped into the river rescuing the little girl who drowned.
12. Last night/storm/ damage/power/ lines/so/ town/ without/ electricity/several/ hour/.
A. Last night a storm damaged power lines. So town had without electricity several hours.
B. Last night the storm had damaged power line so town has been without electricity for several hours.

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C. Last night’s storm has damaged the power line; so the town is without electricity in several hours.
D. Last night’s storm damaged the power lines, so the town was without electricity for several hours.
13. Henry Johnson/ honest/politician/ but/I/ never/ vote/ him/ because/ not/ agree/position/foreign/ policy
A. Henry Johnson is a honest politician. But I never vote him because I do not agree of his position at foreign policy.
B. Henry Johnson is an honest politician, but I would never vote for him because I do not agree with his positions on foreign
policy.
C. Henry Johnson was an honest politician; but I would never vote him because I didn’t agree with his positions about
foreign policy.
D. Henry Johnson is a honest politician but I will never vote for him because I won’t agree his position in foreign policy.
14. Because/ snowstorm/ only/five/ student/ come/ class/ teacher/ therefore/ cancel/ class/.
A. Because of the snowstorm only five students came to class. The teacher, therefore, cancelled the class.
B. Because of a snowstorm only five students have come to the class, teacher therefore has cancelled class.
C. Because the snowstorm only five students came to class the teacher, therefore, had to cancel the class.
D. Because a snowstorm only five students came to the class; teacher, therefore, cancelled class.
15. Paul/ always/ enjoy/ study/ sciences/ high school/ therefore/ decide/ major/ biology/ university/.
A. Paul always enjoys to study sciences in high school therefore decides majoring biology at the university.
B. Paul always enjoys studying sciences at high school, He therefore decides to major on biology at university.
C. Paul always enjoyed studying sciences in high school. Therefore, he decided to major in biology in university.
D. Paul always enjoyed to study sciences in the high school; he, therefore, decided majoring at biology at the university.
Reading comprehension
Line Most forms of property are concrete and tangible, such as houses, cars, furniture, or anything else that is included
in one’s possessions. Other forms of property can be intangible, and copyright deals with intangible forms of property.
Copyright is a legal protection extended to authors of creative works, for example, books, magazine articles, maps, films,
plays, television shows, software, paintings, photographs, music, choreography in dance, and all other forms of intellectual
or artistic property.
Although the purpose of artistic property is usually public use and enjoyment, copyright establishes the ownership of the
creator. When a person buys a copyrighted magazine, it belongs to this individual as a tangible object. However, the authors
of the magazine articles own the research and the writing that went into creating the articles. The right to make and sell or
give away copies of books or articles belongs to the authors, publishers, or other individuals or organizations that hold the
copyright. To copy an entire book or a part of it, permission must be received from the copyright owner, who will most likely
expect to be paid.
Copyright law distinguishes between different types of intellectual property. Music may be played by anyone after it is
published. However, if it is performed for profit, the performers need to pay a fee, called a royalty. A similar principle applies
to performances of songs and plays. On the other hand, names, ideas, and book titles are excepted. Ideas do not become
copyrighted property until they are published in a book, a painting, or a musical work. Almost all artistic work created before
the 20th century is not copyrighted because it was created before the copyright law was passed.
The two common ways of infringing upon the copyright are plagiarism and piracy. Plagiarizing the work of another person
means passing it off as one's own. The word plagiarism is derived from the Latin plagiarus, which means “abductor." Piracy
may be an a a of one person but, in many cases, it is a joint effort of several people who reproduce copyrighted material and
sell it for profit without paying royalties to the creator. Technological innovations have made piracy easy, and anyone can
duplicate a motion picture on videotape, a computer program, or a book. Video cassette recorders can be used by practically
anyone to copy movies and television programs, and copying software has become almost as easy as copying a book. Large
companies zealously monitor their copyrights for slogans, advertisements, and brand names, protected by a trademark.
16. In line 3, the word “extended” is closest in meaning to A. explicated B. exposed C. guaranteed D. granted
17. What does the passage mainly discuss?

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A. Legal rights of property owners C. Examples of copyright piracy
B. Legal ownership of creative work D. Copying creating work for profit
18. In line 16, the word “principle ” is closest in meaning to
A. crucial point B. cardinal role C. fundamental rule D. formidable force
19. The purpose of copyright law is most comparable with the purpose of which of the following?
A. A law against theft B. A law against smoking C. A school policy D. household rule
20. It can be inferred from the passage that copyright law is intended to protect
A. the user’s ability to enjoy an artistic work C. paintings and photographs from theft
B. the creator’s ability to profit from the work D. computer software and videos from being copied
21. Which of the following properties is NOT mentioned as protected by copyright?
A. music and plays B. paintings and maps C. printed medium D. scientific discoveries
22. It can be inferred from the passage that it is legal if
A. two songs, written by two different composers, have the same melody
B. two books, written by two different authors, have the same titles
C. two drawings, created by two different artists, have the same images
D. two plays, created by two different playwrights, have the same plot and characters
23. In line 27, the word “practically” is closest in meaning to A. truthfully B. hardly C. clearly D. almost
24. According to the passage, copyright law is
A. meticulously observed B. routinely ignored C. frequently debated D. zealously enforced
25. With which of the following statements is the author most likely to agree?
A. Teachers are not allowed to make copies of published materials for use by their students.
B. Plays written in the 16th century cannot be performed in theaters without permission.
C. Singers can publicly sing only the songs for which tnej ’ wrote the music and the lyrics.
D. It is illegal to make photographs when sightseeing or traveling.
Sentence similar meaning
26. The thief wore gloves so as to avoid leaving any fingerprints.
A. The thief wore gloves so as to not leave any fingerprints. C. The thief wore gloves in order not to leave any fingerprints.
B. The thief wore gloves so that not leave any fingerprints. D. The thief wore gloves in order to not leave any fingerprints.
27. They left early because they did not want to get caught in traffic.
A. They left early for not getting stuck. C. Because they got caught in the traffic, they left early.
B. In order to avoid being stuck in the traffic, they left early. D. Leaving late, they got caught in the traffic.
28. If there isn’t enough rain, the hydropower station cannot operate.
A. When there isn’t enough rain, the hydropower station can operate.
B. Unless there is enough rain, the hydropower station can operate.
C. Unless there isn’t enough rain, the hydropower station cannot operate.
D. Unless there is enough rain, the hydropower station can’t operate.
29. Because the evidence was withheld, the prisoner was found guilty.
A. If the evidence was presented, the prisoner wouldn’t be found guilty.
B. Had the evidence been presented, the prisoner wouldn’t have been found guilty.
C. The prisoner was found guilty thanks to the evidence.
D. Because he withheld the evidence so the prisoner was found guilty.
30. They stayed in that hotel despite the noise.
A. Despite the hotel is noisy, they stay there. C. Although the noisy hotel, they stayed there.
B. In spite of the noisy hotel and they like it. D. Noisy as the hotel, they stayed there.
Pronunciation
31. A. describe B. spelling C. ethnic D. affect
32. A. either B. climate C. automobile D. island
33. A. complete B. command C. common D. compare
34. A. watched B. laughed C. stuffed D. wicked
35. A. wonder B. construct C. structure D. statue
Reading comprehension
Line For many people, mushrooms are strange, colorless, incomprehensible plants that should be avoided. Quaint tales and
scary stories surround mushrooms because some are extremely poisonous. In reality, however, mushrooms are fungi
that are simple plants without developed roots, leaves, stems, flowers, or seeds. They grow in wetlands, grassy
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meadows, and woods. Certain types of mushrooms
5 are delicious and are included as ingredients in many recipes and trendy snacks. For example, morels are considered
one of the choicest foods, and truffles, related to morels, are highly prized in Europe. Their shape is tube-like, and
they remain entirely underground, a foot or more below the surface. In the old days, dogs and pigs were specially
trained to hunt them by scent.
Mushrooms stand out among other plants because they have no chlorophyll and cannot generate
10 their own nourishment. The part of the fungus that rises above the ground is the fruiting body, and the vegetative part
that produces growth is hidden under the ground. It can be usually dug up in the form of dense, white tangled
filaments, which, depending on the food supply and moisture, can live for hundreds of years. In fact, mushrooms, as
well as the rest of the fungus genus species, are one of the few remaining simple plants that are believed to be among
the oldest living organisms. When their
15 environment is not conducive to growth, filaments stop proliferating and can lie dormant for dozens of years.
Although mushrooms are rich in flavor and texture, they have little food value. Picking mushrooms requires a
thorough knowledge of environments where they are most likely to grow and an ability to tell between edible and
poisonous plants. Most mushrooms thrive in temperatures from 68° to 86° (F)
20 with plenty of moisture, and nearly complete darkness produces the best crop. The entire mushroom should be picked,
the stem, the cap, and whatever part that is underground. Brightly colored mushroom caps usually indicate that the
plant is not fit for consumption, and the more the mushroom attracts attention, the more poisonous it is. Mushrooms
with beautiful red or orange spotted caps that grow under large trees after a good rain are particularly poisonous. If
milky or white juices seep from a break in the body of plant, chances are it should not be picked. Old mushrooms with
brown caps are also not very safe.
36. In line 7, the word “Their” refers to A. morels B. foodsC. truffles D. morels and truffles
37. With which of the following statements is the author of the passage most likely to agree?
A. In the old days, when food was scarce, people chose mushrooms as food.
B. Mushrooms should be treated as all other plants.
C. Because they are poisonous, people should stay away from mushrooms.
D. Mushrooms have different forms of roots, stems, and leaves.
38. In line 5, the word “trendy” is closest in meaning to A. tender B. experimental C. fashionable D. trusted
39. In line 2, the word “quaint” is closest in meaning to ____________ .
A. convoluted B. fanciful C. irritating D. perfunctory
40. It can be inferred from the passage that mushrooms multiply mostly by means of
A. moisture B. fruiting bodies C. nourishment D. root systems
41. What does the author of the passage imply about brightly colored mushrooms?
A. They are beautiful. B. They should not be eaten. C. They attract attention. D. They should be destroyed
42. In line 19, the word “tell” is closest in meaning to A. narrate B. distinguish C. say D. see
43. The author of the passage implies that mushrooms
A. have been known since ancient times
B. are a relatively recent form of plants
C. cannot survive without a good environment
D. have been carefully analyzed

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Grammar and vocabulary
44.It has been estimated _____________ milligram of skin scales have over half a million bacteria.
A. that a B. how a C. a D. to be a
45.We oppose this war, as we would do any other war which created an environmental catastrophe.
A. pollution B. disaster C. convention D. epidemic
46.A: Thanks a lot for your help. B: …………………….
A. Your welcome B. You’re welcome C. You’re welcomed D. You welcomed
47.Spider monkeys are the best climbers in the jungle; ________________ they do not have thumbs.
A. nevertheless B. for C. despite D. although
48 . ___________cell in the body is far from a capillary. A. Not B. No C. Not only a D. Neither a
49.A man ____________ helping police with their interview.
A. was reported to have B. was reported to have been C. reports to be D. reported to have been
50.Vietnam is ____________ the top exporters of rice. A. in B. of C. between D. among
51.When you see your friend off, you say ‘ _______________ !’
A. Lucky you B. Have a good journey C. Good night D. See you later
52.If you don’t pay your rent, your landlord is going to kick you out!
A. lend you some money . B. play football with you C. give you a kick D. force you to leave
53.Mrs. Jones’s husband passed away last Friday. We are all shocked by the news.
A. got married B. divorced C. died D. fell ill
54.A: Did you get any information from Peter? B: He…………an expert, but he doesn’t seem to know much.
A. supposes to be B. is supposed to be C. supposed to be D. is supposed being
55.I’m having problems with David. He………me up in the middle of the night and………me his troubles.
A. has called; told B. has been calling; telling C. is calling; telling D. called; told
56.An international medical conference initiated by Davison resulted in the birth of the League of Red Cross Societies in
1991. A. started B. helped C. treated D. dedicated
57.A: The problems seem annoying to everyone. B: …………..
A. It is B. They are C. They do D. It does
58.During the war...wrote a poem for General Washington, who complimented her on her ‘style and manner’
A. Phillis Wheatley was B. it was Phillis Wheatley C. Phillis Wheatley D. Phillis Wheatley she
59.Underwater activities are less varied and the most popular of which are snorkeling and scuba diving.
A. portable B. diverse C. familiar D. durable
60.In 1736, the number of poor people in Boston receiving public assistance _________________ about 4,000.
A. was B. were C. it was D. they were
61 . __________ in 1776 that the Declaration of Independence was signed.
A. It was B. There was C. There D. It
62.1 can’t believe it, Inspector. You mean that Smith ________________ money from the till all this time!
A. stole B. has stolen C. has been stealing D. was stealing
63. If Mr. Smith _____________ this company, he would have made a lot of changes.
A. runs B. had run C. is running D. ran
64. The core of the moon is much smaller, in relation to its size ________________ of the planets.
A. those B. than those C. ones D. than are those
65 . was made of minute particles called corpuscles was believed by scientists.
A. Light B. That light C. As light D. Whereas light
66. Americans account _____________ 12% of the US population. A. for B. with C. of D. 0
67. The company _____________ a new advertising campaign.
A. thought to plan B. is thought to be planning C. is thought about planning D. is thought that it is planning
68. A: I phoned but you didn’t answer it. You must have gone out. B… A. I did B. I was C. I must D. I agree
69. How many times has Venus Williams _______________ her sister? A. won B. defeated C. lost D. beaten
70. Robert has a new car. He ______________ it for a very good price. He paid 30 percent less than the regular retail cost.
A. could buy B. had to buy C. was supposed to buy D. was able to buy

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71. Pollution can cause changes in the climate _______________ the global scale.
A. in B. on C. of D. under
72. The ____________ refused to change the plot of the play as the actor suggested.
A. composer B. writer C. scriptwriter D. novelist
73 ___________ invited, so we three won’t come to her wedding. If you are invited, you should go.
A. Not only I but also my parents are B. Both my parents and I are
C. Either my parents or I are not D. Neither my parents nor I am
Mistake identification
74. Contact lenses made of actylic are more transparent and least fragile than lenses made of glass.
A. transparent B. least C. than D. glass
75. Aristole believed that the mind or soul, who the Greeks coiled psyche, was separate from the body.
A. the mind B. who C. was separate D. the body
76. Warm and moisture help microbes grow and thus assist the decay process.
A. Warm B. grow C. thus D. decay
77. Although fewer Americans work on farms today, they are too productive that the U.S is now the world’s top food
exporter. A. Although B. fewer C. too D. top
78. It is estimated that at least a million meteors have hit the Earth’s surface, which is only 25 percentage of the planet.
A. at least B. million C. have hit D. percentage
79. Navajo Indians are far more numerous today as they were in the past.
A. Navajo Indians B. far C. as D. in
80. Many fruits contain large amounts of vitamin C, as well as sugar, which provide energy.
A. Many B. amounts C. as well as D. provide

ENGLISH TEST 84
Choose the word or phrase that is closest in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following sentences.
1. I will communicate with you as soon as I have any news.
A. be related B. be interested in C. get in touch D. have connection
2. He is an honest man. You can rely on him to do a good job.
A. take in B. count on C. base on D. put up with
3. We’ll have to use the restrooms on the next floor because the ones on this floor are not in working condition.
A. out of work B. run out of C. out of order D. torn down
4. “Please speak up a bit more, Jason. You’re hardly loud enough to be heard from the back”, the teacher said.
A. visible B. edible C. eligible D. audible
5. I couldn’t see what she was doing. It was so dark down there.
A. make out B. make up C. make for D. make from
Read the passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions.
In the world today, particular in the two most industrialized areas, North America and Europe, recycling is the big news.
People are talking about it, practicing it, and discovering new ways to be sensitive to the environment. Recycling means
finding ways to use products a second time. The motto of the recycling movement is “Reduce, Reuse, Recycle”.
The first step is to reduce garbage. In stores, a shopper has to buy products in blister packs, boxes and expensive plastic
wrappings. A hamburger from a fast food restaurant comes in lots of packaging: usually paper, a box and a bag. All that
packaging is wasted resources. People should try to buy things that are wrapped simply, and to reuse cups and utensils.
Another way to reduce waste is to buy high-quality products. When low-quality appliances break, many customers throw
them away and buy new ones - a loss of more resources and more energy. For example, if a customer buys a high-quality
appliance that can be easily repaired, the manufacturer receives an important message. In the same way, if a customer
chooses a product with less packaging, that customer sends an important message to the manufacturers. To reduce garbage,
the throw-away must stop.
The second step is to reuse. It is better to buy juices and soft drinks in returnable bottles. After customers empty the
bottles, they return them to the stores. The manufacturers of the drinks collect bottles, wash them, and then fill them again.

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The energy that is necessary to make new bottles is saved. In some parts of the world, returning bottles for money is a
common practice. In those places, the garbage dumps have relatively little glass and plastic from throw-away bottles.
The third step being environmentally sensitive is to recycle. Spent motor oil can be cleaned and used again. Aluminum
cans are expensive to make. It takes the same amount of energy to make one aluminum can as it does to run a color TV set
for three hours. When people collect and recycle aluminum (for new cans), they help save one of the world’s
precious resources.
6. It is a waste when customers buy low-quality products because _______.
A. they will soon throw them away B. they have to be repaired many times
C. customers always change their idea D. they are very cheap .
7. The word “motto” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. meaning B. belief C. value D. reference
8. People can do the following to reduce waste EXCEPT _______.
A. buy high-quality products B. buy simply-wrapped things C. buy more hamburgers D. reuse cups
9. What is the topic of the passage?
A. How to reduce garbage disposal. B. How to live sensitively to the environment.
C. What is involved in the recycling movement. D. What people understand the term “recycle”.
10. Which area is considered one of the most industrialized?
A. South America. B. Europe. C. Middle East. D. Asia.
11. The word “practice” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. training B. exercise C. belief D. deed
12. What does the word “sensitive” means?
A. friendly. B. cautious. C. logical. D. responding.
13. What best describe the process of reuse?
A. The bottles are collected, washed, returned and filled again.
B. The bottles are washed, returned filled again and collected.
C. The bottles are collected, returned, filled again and washed.
D. The bottles are filled again after being returned, collected and washed.
14. What are the two things mentioned as examples of recycling?
A. Aluminum cans and spent motor oil. B. Hamburger wrappings and spent motor oil.
C. Aluminum cans and plastic wrappings. D. TV sets and aluminum cans.
15. Garbage dumps in some areas have relatively little glass and plastic because _______.
A. people are ordered to return bottles B. returned bottles are few
C. few bottles are made of glass or plastic D. each returned bottle is paid
Choose the correct answer to each of the following sentences.
16. Having been served lunch, _______ .
A. it was discussed by the committee members the problem
B. the problem was discussed by the members of the committee
C. the committee members discussed the problem
D. a discussion of the problem was made by the members of the committee
17. New sources of energy are constantly being looked for _______.
A. although fossil fuels continue to dwindle B. fossil fuels continuing to dwindle
C. so that we continue to reduce fossil fuels D. as fossil fuels continue to dwindle
18. _______, he would have come to class on time.
A. If Mike could get up early B. If Mike was able to get up early C. Had Mike got up earlier D. Unless Mike had got up early
19. _______ is the price of this car .
A. What interested in us B. What we are interested in C. That interested us D. That we are interested in
20. Such _______ that we all felt numb.
A. a cold weather was B. was a cold weather C. cold the weather D. was cold weather
Choose the correct answer to each of the following sentences.
21. As I was _______ of the change in the program, I arrived half an hour late for the rehearsal.
A. unconscious B. unable C. unaware D. unreasonable

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22. _______ I didn’t know how to do the job. But now I am making progress.
A. At first B. First C. First of all D. At the first
23. My uncle is in _______ of 60 engineers and workers.
A. management B. charge C. leadership D. direction
24. I’d rather you _______ for me here.
A. wait B. waited C. to wait D. waiting
25. He _______ the plants. If he had, they wouldn't have died.
A. couldn't water B. needn't have watered C. can't have watered D. shouldn't water
26. -Peter: "Would you like a beer?" - David: "Not while I’m _______ ."
A. in the act B. on duty C. in order D. under control
27. They decided to _______ their differences and became friends.
A. take on B. give away C. go over D. put aside
28. -Janet: “Do you feel like going to the cinema this evening?” -Susan: "_______ .”
A. You’re welcome B. I feel very bored C. That would be great D. I don't agree, I'm afraid
29. Tom. "Thank you for your help." - Mary. "_______ ."
A. With all my heart B. Never mind me C. Wish you D. It’s my pleasure
30. On _______ he had won, he jumped up for joy.
A. he was told B. being told C. having told D. telling
31. Unemployment _______ by 5 percent since the beginning of the year.
A. has risen B. rose C. has raised D. was raised
32. No one died in the accident, _______ ?
A. did he B. did they C. didn’t he D. didn’t they
33. There's a good film _______ town.
A. on in B. at C. over D. in on
34. You have a good feeling about yourself and _______ when you volunteer.
A. the others B. others C. other D. the other
35. There was no _______ in waiting longer than an hour so we left.
A. use B. worth C. good D. point
36. There was nothing they could do _______ leave the car at the roadside where it had broken down.
A. than B. unless C. but D. instead of
37. -A: “Excuse me, is anybody sitting here?” - B: “_______.”
A. Yes, I am so glad B. No, thanks. C. Sorry, the seat is taken D. Yes, yes. You can sit here.
38. Jump in the car. There’s enough _______ for you.
A. place B. space C. room D. chair
39. Jane: “ _______ " – David: "Thanks. I’ll write to you when I arrive there."
A. Have a good trip B. Good luck C. Have a go D. Good bye
40. She accepted the job _______ the salary, which was rather low.
A. although B. despite C. because of D. inspite
41. The information is strictly _______ and should not be discussed in public.
A. exact B. believable C. valuable D. secret
42. The concert was _______ because of the heavy rain.
A. put out B. run out C. set off D. called off
43. His father is a bank manager, _______ makes him easy to have a good job.
A. whom B. which C. who D. that
44. His father left New York. The doctor suggested he _______ there.
A. not stay B. not stayed C. didn’t stay D. not go to stay
45. Where can I get a good rate of _______ for my money?
A. deposit B. capital C. credit D. interest

Choose the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following sentences.
46. I only recognized him when he came into the light.

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A. Only when I recognized him, he came into the light.
B. Not until he came into the light I did recognize him
C. It wasn’t until he came into the light that I recognized him
D. I did not recognize him even when he came into the light.
47. You are all welcome to take any food you like .
A. Please help yourselves to any food you like. B. Any food welcome to take if you like.
C. It’s my pleasure to take any food you like. D. You don’t have to pay for any food that you like.
48. Jane refused to attend his birthday party, which made him feel sad.
A. He felt sad not be able to attend her birthday party.
B. Jane’s refusal to attend his birthday party made him feel sad.
C. Jane made him sad despite her refusal to attend his birthday party.
D. Jane refused to attend his birthday party because it made him sad.
49. The mistake in the accounts was not noticed until the figures were re-checked.
A. When the figures were re-checked, they came to light the mistake in the accounts.
B. The mistake in the accounts only came to light when the figures were re-checked.
C. Once re-checking the figures, the mistake in the accounts was noticed.
D. It was not until the mistake in the accounts was noticed that the figures were checked.
50. In spite of heavy rain, my brother went to work.
A. In spite it rained heavily, my brother went to work. B. Though rain was heavily, my brother went to work.
C. Although it rained heavily, my brother went to work. D. Despite it rained heavily, my brother went to work.
Choose the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following sentences.
51. They are known that colds can be avoided by eating the right kind of food and taking exercise regularly.
A B C D
52. There are many different ways of comparing the economy of one nation with those of another.
A B C D
53. There are many researches show that various species of animals have been extinct.
A B C D
54. I strongly object the idea of students in the final year working part-time jobs.
A B C D
55. Most doctors agree that it is not good for patients to lay in bed without exercising.
A B C D
Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions.
Recent technological advances in manned and unmanned vehicles, along with breakthroughs in satellite technology and
computer equipment, have overcome some of the limitations of divers and diving equipment for scientists doing research
on the great oceans of the world. Without a vehicle, divers often became sluggish, and their mental concentration was
severely limited. Because undersea pressure affects their speech organs, communication among divers has always been
difficult or impossible. But today, most oceanographers avoid the use of vulnerable human divers, preferring to reduce the
risk to human life and make direct obervations by means of instruments that are lowered into the ocean, from samples take
from the water, or from photographs made by orbiting satellites. Direct observations of the ocean floor can be made not
only by divers but also by deep-diving submarines in the water and even by the technology of sophisticated aerial photgraphy
from vantage points above the surface of more than seven miles and cruise at depths of fifteen thousand feet. In addition,
radio-equipped buoys can be operated by remote control in order to transmit data back to land-based laboratories via
satellite. Particularly important for ocean study are data about water temperature, currents, and weather. Satellite
photographs can show the distribution of sea ice, oil slicks, and cloud formations over the ocean. Maps created from satellite
pictures can represent the temperature and the color of the ocean’s surface, enabling researchers to study the ocean currents
from laboratories on dry land. Furthermore, computers help oceanographers to collect, organize, and analyze data from
submarines and satellites. By creating a model of the ocean’s movement and characteristics, scientists can predict the
patterns and possible effects of the ocean on the enviroment.
Recently, many oceanographers have been relying more on satellites and computers than on research ships or even submarine
vehicles because they can supply a greater range of information more quickly and more effectively. Some of humankind’s most serious
problems, especially those concerning energy and food, may be solved with the help of observations

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made possible by this new technology.
56. Which of the following are NOT shown in satellite photographs?
A. A model of the ocean’s movements. B. Cloud formations over the ocean.
C. The temperature of the ocean’s surface. D. The location of sea ice.
57. The words “those” refers to _______.
A. vehicles B. ships C. problems D. computers
58. With what topic is the passage primarily converned?
A. Technological advances in oceanography. B. Direct observation of the ocean floor.
C. Undersea vehicles. D. Communication among drivers.
59. The word “sluggish” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. slow moving B. very weak C. nervous D. confused
60. The word “cruise” could best be replaced by _______.
A. function without problems B. travel at a constant speed
C. stay in communication D. remain still
61. Undersea vehicles _______.
A. have the same limitations that divers have B. are too small for a man to fit inside
C. are very slow to respond D. make direct observations of the ocean floor
62. This passage suggests that the successful exploration of the ocean depends upon _______.
A. controlling currents and the weather B. vehicles as well as divers
C. radios that divers use to communicate D. the limitations of diving equipment
63. Divers have had problems in communicating underwater because _______.
A. they did not pronounce clearly B. the water destroyed their speech organs
C. the vehicles they used have not been perfected D. the pressure affected their speech organs
64. The word “data” is closest in meaing to _______.
A. samples B. photographs C. articles D. information
65. How is a radio-quipped buoy operated?
A. by operators outside the vehicle on a diving platform. B. By operators outside the vehicle on
ship.
C. by operators outside the vehicle in a laboratory on shore. D. by operators inside the vehicle in the part underwater.
Choose the word that differs from the rest in the stress pattern in each of the following words.
66. A. discriminate B. enthusiast C. admiration D. minority
67. A. essential B. industry C. embarrass D. develop
68. A. particular B. primitive C. continuous D. connected
69. A. explain B. involve C. control D. purpose
70. A. automatic B. familiar C. responsible D. environment
Read the following passage and choose the correct word for each of the blanks.
Nearly 200 of the 1500 native plant species in Hawaii are at risk of going extinct in the near future because they have been
(71) _______ to such low numbers. Approximately 90 percent of Hawaii's plants are found nowhere else in the world but they
are (72) _______ by alien invasive species such as feral goats, pigs, rodents and (73) _______ plants.
The Hawaii Rare Plant Restoration Group is striving to (74) _______ the extinction of the 182 rare Hawaiian plants with
fewer than 50 individuals remaining in the (75) _______ . Since 1990, (76) _______ a result of their "Plant Extinction Prevention
Program", sixteen species have been brought into (77) _______ and three species have been reintroduced. Invasive weeds have
been removed in key areas and fencing put up in order to (78) _______ plants in the wild.
In the future the Hawaii Rare Plant Restoration Program aims (79) _______ collecting genetic material from the remaining
plants in the wild for storage as a safety net for the future. They also aim to manage wild populations and where possible
reintroduce species into (80) _______ .
71. A. reduced B. increased C. disappeared D. developed
72. A. guarded B. invested C. threatened D . conserved
73. A. national B. native C. non-native D. international
74. A. encourage B. stimulate C. influence D. prevent
75. A. atmosphere B. hole C. sky D. wild

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76. A. so B. as C. due D. but
77. A. contamination B. cultivation C. production D. generation
78. A. derive B. vary C. protect D. remain
79. A. for B. with C. on D. at
80. A. reserves B. shelters C. gardens D. halls

ENGLISH TEST 85
Choose the correct answer to each of the following sentences.
1. New sources of energy are constantly being looked for _______.
A. although fossil fuels continue to dwindle B. fossil fuels continuing to dwindle
C. so that we continue to reduce fossil fuels D. as fossil fuels continue to dwindle
2. _______, he would have come to class on time.
A. If Mike could get up early B. If Mike was able to get up early
C. Had Mike got up earlier D. Unless Mike had got up early
3. _______ is the price of this car.
A. What interested in us B. What we are interested in
C. That interested us D. That we are interested in
4. Having been served lunch, _______ .
A. it was discussed by the committee members the problem
B. the problem was discussed by the members of the committee
C. the committee members discussed the problem
D. a discussion of the problem was made by the members of the committee
5. Such _______ that we all felt numb.
A. a cold weather was B. was cold weather C. was a cold weather D. cold the weather
Choose the word or phrase that is closest in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following sentences.
6. I couldn’t see what she was doing. It was so dark down there.
A. make up B. make for C. make out D. make from
7. We’ll have to use the restrooms on the next floor because the ones on this floor are not in working condition.
A. out of order B. out of work C. run out of D. torn down
8. “Please speak up a bit more, Jason. You’re hardly loud enough to be heard from the back”, the teacher said.
A. visible B. audible C. edible D. eligible
9. I will communicate with you as soon as I have any news.
A. get in touch B. be related C. be interested in D. have connection
10. He is an honest man. You can rely on him to do a good job.
A. take in B. base on C. put up with D. count on
Choose the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following sentences.
11. Jane refused to attend his birthday party, which made him feel sad.
A. Jane refused to attend his birthday party because it made him sad.
B. He felt sad not be able to attend her birthday party.
C. Jane made him sad despite her refusal to attend his birthday party.
D. Jane’s refusal to attend his birthday party made him feel sad.
12. I only recognized him when he came into the light.
A. It wasn’t until he came into the light that I recognized him.
B. Only when I recognized him, he came into the light.
C. Not until he came into the light I did recognize him.
D. I did not recognize him even when he came into the light.
13. You are all welcome to take any food you like .
A. Any food welcome to take if you like. B. It’s my pleasure to take any food you like.

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C. Please help yourselves to any food you like. D. You don’t have to pay for any food that you like.
14. In spite of heavy rain, my brother went to work.
A. Although it rained heavily, my brother went to work. B. In spite it rained heavily, my brother went to work.
C. Though rain was heavily, my brother went to work. D. Despite it rained heavily, my brother went to work.
15. The mistake in the accounts was not noticed until the figures were re-checked.
A. When the figures were re-checked, they came to light the mistake in the accounts.
B. Once re-checking the figures, the mistake in the accounts was noticed.
C. It was not until the mistake in the accounts was noticed that the figures were checked.
D. The mistake in the accounts only came to light when the figures were re-checked.
Choose the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following sentences.
16. There are many researches show that various species of animals have been extinct.
A B C D
17. Most doctors agree that it is not good for patients to lay in bed without exercising.
A B C D
18. There are many different ways of comparing the economy of one nation with those of another.
A B C D
19. I strongly object the idea of students in the final year working part-time jobs.
A B C D
20. They are known that colds can be avoided by eating the right kind of food and taking exercise regularly.
A B C D
V. Read the passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions.
In the world today, particular in the two most industrialized areas, North America and Europe, recycling is the big news.
People are talking about it, practicing it, and discovering new ways to be sensitive to the environment. Recycling means
finding ways to use products a second time. The motto of the recycling movement is “Reduce, Reuse, Recycle”.
The first step is to reduce garbage. In stores, a shopper has to buy products in blister packs, boxes and expensive plastic
wrappings. A hamburger from a fast food restaurant comes in lots of packaging: usually paper, a box and a bag. All that
packaging is wasted resources. People should try to buy things that are wrapped simply, and to reuse cups and utensils.
Another way to reduce waste is to buy high-quality products. When low-quality appliances break, many customers throw
them away and buy new ones - a loss of more resources and more energy. For example, if a customer buys a high-quality
appliance that can be easily repaired, the manufacturer receives an important message. In the same way, if a customer
chooses a product with less packaging, that customer sends an important message to the manufacturers. To reduce garbage,
the throw-away must stop.
The second step is to reuse. It is better to buy juices and soft drinks in returnable bottles. After customers empty the
bottles, they return them to the stores. The manufacturers of the drinks collect bottles, wash them, and then fill them again.
The energy that is necessary to make new bottles is saved. In some parts of the world, returning bottles for money is a
common practice. In those places, the garbage dumps have relatively little glass and plastic from throw-away bottles.
The third step being environmentally sensitive is to recycle. Spent motor oil can be cleaned and used again. Aluminum
cans are expensive to make. It takes the same amount of energy to make one aluminum can as it does to run a color TV set
for three hours. When people collect and recycle aluminum (for new cans), they help save one of the world’s
precious resources.
21. Which area is considered one of the most industrialized?
A. South America. B. Middle East C. Asia. D. Europe.
22. What does the word “sensitive” means?
A. cautious. B. logical. C. friendly. D. responding.
23. The word “motto” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. meaning B. value C. reference D. belief
24. It is a waste when customers buy low-quality products because _______.
A. they will soon throw them away B. customers always change their idea
C. they have to be repaired many times D. they are very cheap
25. What is the topic of the passage?

132
A. How to reduce garbage disposal. B. How to live sensitively to the environment.
C. What is involved in the recycling movement. D. What people understand the term “recycle”.
26. People can do the following to reduce waste EXCEPT _______.
A. buy more hamburgers B. buy high-quality products
C. buy simply-wrapped things D. reuse cups
27. What best describe the process of reuse?
A. The bottles are collected, washed, returned and filled again.
B. The bottles are filled again after being returned, collected and washed.
C. The bottles are washed, returned filled again and collected.
D. The bottles are collected, returned, filled again and washed.
28. The word “practice” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. training B. exercise C. belief D. deed
29. Garbage dumps in some areas have relatively little glass and plastic because _______.
A. people are ordered to return bottles B. returned bottles are few
C. few bottles are made of glass or plastic D. each returned bottle is paid
30. What are the two things mentioned as examples of recycling?
A. TV sets and aluminum cans. B. Aluminum cans and spent motor oil.
C. Hamburger wrappings and spent motor oil. D. Aluminum cans and plastic wrappings.
Choose the correct answer to each of the following sentences.
31. His father is a bank manager, _______ makes him easy to have a good job.
A. whom B. who C. which D. that
32. There was nothing they could do _______ leave the car at the roadside where it had broken down.
A. instead of B. but C. than D. unless
33. There's a good film _______ town.
A. at B. on in C. over D. in on
34. He _______ the plants. If he had, they wouldn't have died.
A. shouldn't water B. couldn't water C. can't have watered D. needn't have watered
35. -Peter: "Would you like a beer?" - David: "Not while I’m _______ ."
A. in the act B. under control C. on duty D. in order
36. My uncle is in _______ of 60 engineers and workers.
A. charge B. leadership C. management D. direction
37. I’d rather you _______ for me here.
A. wait B. to wait C. waited D. waiting
38. Tom. "Thank you for your help." - Mary. "_______ ."
A. With all my heart B. It’s my pleasure C. Never mind me D. Wish you
39. On _______ he had won, he jumped up for joy.
A. he was told B. having told C. telling D. being told
40. Where can I get a good rate of _______ for my money?
A. interest B. deposit C. capital D. credit
41. As I was _______ of the change in the program, I arrived half an hour late for the rehearsal.
A. unconscious B. unable C. unaware D. unreasonable
42. _______ I didn’t know how to do the job. But now I am making progress.
A. First B. First of all C. At the first. D. At first
43. -A: “Excuse me, is anybody sitting here?” - B: “_______”
A. Yes, I am so glad B. No, thanks. C. Sorry, the seat is taken D. Yes, yes. You can sit here.
44. Jane: “ _______ " – David: "Thanks. I’ll write to you when I arrive there."
A. Good luck B. Have a good trip C. Have a go D. Good bye
45. Unemployment _______ by 5 percent since the beginning of the year.
A. rose B. has raised C. was raised D. has risen
46. You have a good feeling about yourself and _______ when you volunteer.
A. the others B. other C. the other D. others

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47. They decided to _______ their differences and became friends.
A. put aside B. take on C. give away D. go over
48. There was no _______ in waiting longer than an hour so we left.
A. point B. use C. worth D. good
49. She accepted the job _______ the salary, which was rather low.
A. although B. because of C. inspite D. despite
50. -Janet: “Do you feel like going to the cinema this evening?” -Susan: "_______ .”
A. That would be great B. You’re welcome C. I feel very bored D. I don't agree, I'm afraid
51. No one died in the accident, _______ ?
A. did he B. did they C. didn’t he D. didn’t they
52. The information is strictly _______ and should not be discussed in public.
A. exact B. believable C. secret D. valuable
53. His father left New York. The doctor suggested he _______ there.
A. not stayed B. didn’t stay C. not go to stay D. not stay
54. Jump in the car. There’s enough _______ for you.
A. place B. space C. room D. chair
55. The concert was _______ because of the heavy rain.
A. put out B. run out C. called off D. set off
Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions.
Recent technological advances in manned and unmanned vehicles, along with breakthroughs in satellite technology and
computer equipment, have overcome some of the limitations of divers and diving equipment for scientists doing research
on the great oceans of the world. Without a vehicle, divers often became sluggish, and their mental concentration was
severely limited. Because undersea pressure affects their speech organs, communication among divers has always been
difficult or impossible. But today, most oceanographers avoid the use of vulnerable human divers, preferring to reduce the
risk to human life and make direct obervations by means of instruments that are lowered into the ocean, from samples take
from the water, or from photographs made by orbiting satellites. Direct observations of the ocean floor can be made not
only by divers but also by deep-diving submarines in the water and even by the technology of sophisticated aerial photgraphy
from vantage points above the surface of more than seven miles and cruise at depths of fifteen thousand feet. In addition,
radio-equipped buoys can be operated by remote control in order to transmit data back to land-based laboratories via
satellite. Particularly important for ocean study are data about water temperature, currents, and weather. Satellite
photographs can show the distribution of sea ice, oil slicks, and cloud formations over the ocean. Maps created from satellite
pictures can represent the temperature and the color of the ocean’s surface, enabling researchers to study the ocean currents
from laboratories on dry land. Furthermore, computers help oceanographers to collect, organize, and analyze data from
submarines and satellites. By creating a model of the ocean’s movement and characteristics, scientists can predict the
patterns and possible effects of the ocean on the enviroment.
Recently, many oceanographers have been relying more on satellites and computers than on research ships or even submarine
vehicles because they can supply a greater range of information more quickly and more effectively. Some of humankind’s most serious
problems, especially those concerning energy and food, may be solved with the help of observations
made possible by this new technology.
56. With what topic is the passage primarily converned?
A. Communication among drivers. B. Direct observation of the ocean floor.
C. Technological advances in oceanography. D. Undersea vehicles.
57. The word “sluggish” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. very weak B. nervous C. slow moving D. confused
58. This passage suggests that the successful exploration of the ocean depends upon _______.
A. the limitations of diving equipment B. controlling currents and the weather
C. radios that divers use to communicate D. vehicles as well as divers
59. Divers have had problems in communicating underwater because _______.
A. they did not pronounce clearly B. the pressure affected their speech organs
C. the water destroyed their speech organs D. the vehicles they used have not been perfected
60. The word “cruise” could best be replaced by _______.

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A. remain still B. function without problems
C. stay in communication D. travel at a constant speed
61. Undersea vehicles _______.
A. have the same limitations that divers have B. make direct observations of the ocean floor
C. are too small for a man to fit inside D. are very slow to respond
62. The word “data” is closest in meaing to _______.
A. samples B. information C. photographs D. articles
63. How is a radio-quipped buoy operated?
A. by operators outside the vehicle in a laboratory on shore B. by operators outside the vehicle on a diving
platform
C. By operators outside the vehicle on ship D. by operators inside the vehicle in the part underwater
64. Which of the following are NOT shown in satellite photographs?
A. The location of sea ice B. Cloud formations over the ocean
C. A model of the ocean’s movements D. The temperature of the ocean’s surface
65. The words “those” refers to _______.
A. problems B. vehicles C. ships D. computers
Read the following passage and choose the correct word for each of the blanks.
Nearly 200 of the 1500 native plant species in Hawaii are at risk of going extinct in the near future because they have been
(66) _______ to such low numbers. Approximately 90 percent of Hawaii's plants are found nowhere else in the world but they
are (67) _______ by alien invasive species such as feral goats, pigs, rodents and (68) _______ plants.
The Hawaii Rare Plant Restoration Group is striving to (69) _______ the extinction of the 182 rare Hawaiian plants with
fewer than 50 individuals remaining in the (70) _______. Since 1990, (71) _______ a result of their "Plant Extinction Prevention
Program", sixteen species have been brought into (72) _______ and three species have been reintroduced. Invasive weeds have
been removed in key areas and fencing put up in order to (73) _______ plants in the wild.
In the future the Hawaii Rare Plant Restoration Program aims (74) _______ collecting genetic material from the remaining
plants in the wild for storage as a safety net for the future. They also aim to manage wild populations and
where possible reintroduce species into (75) _______ .
66. A. disappeared B. increased C. reduced D. developed
67. A. threatened B. guarded C. invested D . conserved
68. A. national B. non-native C. native D. international
69. A. encourage B. influence C. stimulate D. prevent
70. A. atmosphere B. hole C. wild D. sky
71. A. so B. due C. but D. as
72. A. contamination B. cultivation C. production D. generation
73. A. protect B. derive C. vary D. remain
74. A. for B. at C. with D. on
75. A. shelters B. gardens C. reserves D. halls
Choose the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following words.
76. A. familiar B. responsible C. environment D. automatic
77. A. discriminate B. admiration C. enthusiast D. minority
78. A. purpose B. explain C. involve D. control
79. A. essential B. embarrass C. industry D. develop
80. A. connected B. primitive C. particular D. continuous

ENGLISH TEST 86
Choose the correct answer to each of the following questions.
1. The factory is said _______ in a fire two years ago.
A. being destroyed B. to have been destroyed C. to have destroyed D. to destroy
2. By the end of this year my father _______ in this company for 12 years.
A. will work B. will have been working C. has been working D. has worked

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3. –“Would you mind giving me a hand with this bag?” -“ _____________________”
A. Yes, I’ll do it now. B. No, not at all. C. Well, I’d love to D. Yes, I am.
4. Forget all and try your best next time- Lightning never _______ twice in the same place.
A. strikes B. attacks C. beats D. hits
5. _____ raiding for camels was a significant part of Bedouin life has been documented in Wilfed Thesiger’s Arabian Sands.
A. That B. Which C. What D. Where
6. The little boy pleaded _____ not to leave him alone in the dark.
A. on her mother B. her mother C. with her mother D. at his mother
7. _____, the people who come to this club are in their twenties and thirties.
A. By and large B. Altogether C. To a degree D. Virtually
8. The TV station, in _______ to massive popular demand, decided not to discontinue the soap opera.
A. reaction B. response C. answer D. rely
9. His emotional problems _______ from the attitudes he encountered as a child, I think.
A. stem B. flourish C. root D. sprout
10. Pete was born and brought up in Cornwall and he knows the place like the _________.
A. nose on his face B. back of his hand C. hairs on his head D. teeth of his mouth
11. Tom: "I'm sorry. I won't be able to come". - Mary: “_______”.
A. Sounds like fun B. Well, never mind C. Oh, that's annoying D. Great
12. British and Australian people share the same language, but in other respects they are as different as _____.
A. cats and dogs B. salt and pepper C. chalk and cheese D. here and there
13. Rows and silences are ______ and parcel of any marriage.
A. package B. stamps C. packet D. part
14. How do you account for the manager's fiery _______ yesterday afternoon?
A. output B. outburst C. outcry D. outlaw
15: Patient: "Can I make an appointment to see the doctor, please?" Receptionist: “________”
A. Not at the moment. He can't be disturbed. B. OK, you will need to check my diary.
C. OK, let me just check the diary. D. Have a seat and I'll be with you in an hour.
16. It’s not in my nature to _______ over the price of something.
A. haggle B. discuss C. challenge D. transact
17: ” Buy me a newspaper on your way back, _________?”
A. don’t you B. can’t you C. will you D. do you?
18. We usually do go by train, even though the car _________ is a lot quicker.
A. travel B. journey C. trip D. voyage
19. The sign says that all shoplifters will be ________.
A. persecuted B. disproved C. prosecuted D. prohibited
20. In elections, politicians try to get old people to vote for them, it’s called the _______ vote.
A. white B. blue C. old D. grey
21. In the end, I just lost my _________ and started gabbling incoherently.
A. head B. mind C. brain D. intelligence
22. John: “May I come in?” Peter: “ ________________”
A. Feel free B. Yes, no problem C. You’re welcome D. Sorry, you may not
23. When I got up yesterday morning, the sun was shining, but the ground was very wet. It …….
A. rained B. has been raining C. had rained D. had been raining
24. The villagers strongly recommend that a new school ___________ immediately.
A. must be built B. is going to be built C. be built D. will be built
25. The children can stay here __________ they don’t make too much noise.
A. whether B. providing C. unless D. until
26. _______ appear, they are really much larger than the Earth.
A. Small as the stars B. The stars as small C. As the small stars D. Despite of the small stars
27. I know his name, but I can’t recall it at the moment. It’s on the tip of _______.
A. brain B. tongue C. mind D. memory
Choose the word that is closest in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
28. I think we can safely say now that we have got our money back, we are home and dry.
A. have been successful B. have not got wet C. have got no water D. have got home dry

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29. Crime frequently increases during periods of social upheaval
A. ruin B. unrest C. havoc D. trends
30. The evening would have been more enjoyable if all the extraneous activities had been dropped from the program.
A. irrelevant B. excessive C. overextended D. exceptional
Choose the underlined part that needs correction
31. The reason he wants to take a leaving of absence is that he needs a complete rest.
A B C D
32. A desert area that has been without water for six years will still bloom when rain will come.
A B C D
33. Like a synonym of speech, which is the general term, address implies some degree of formality.
A B C D
34. The fact that half of the known species is thought to inhabit the world's rain forests does not seem
A B
surprising, considering the huge numbers of insects that comprise the bulk of the species.
C D
35. Moonquakes originating at deep of some 800 kilometers indicate the Moon has considerable rigidity and is not molten at
such levels. A B C D
Choose the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
36. A. consequently B. profile C. initiate D. project
37. A. obedience B. curriculum C. benefactor D. moustache
38. A. arithmetic B. assassinate C. agriculture D. controvert
39. A. compulsory B. technology C. academic D. eliminate
40. A. inheritance B. mathematician C. communication D. tuberculosis
Choose the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
41. I thought she was the right person for the position, yet it turned out that she was quite useless.
A. Contrary to my initial impression, she was not totally unsuitable for the position.
B. I was right in thinking that she was totally useless for the job.
C. I was mistaken about her suitability for the position, since she proved rather incompetent.
D. Because I was expecting her to be competent, I was shocked to see her perform rather badly.
42. At this time tomorrow, hopefully, I'll be relaxing at home rather than working this hard.
A. Resting at home is something I hope to be doing at this time tomorrow, but I'll probably be working quite hard instead.
B. Tomorrow, rather than relaxing at home as I'd hoped to do, I'll be working quite hard.
C. I'm planning to relax at home tomorrow, instead of working so hard.
D. I hope that, instead of working so hard at this time tomorrow, I'll be at home resting.
43. Public education is so good in European countries that there is almost no demand for private schools.
A. Even the excellence of public education in Europe does not stop people from sending their children to private schools.
B. People still send their children to private schools in Europe although the public education system is excellent.
C. Hardly anyone sends their children to private schools in Europe because state schools are excellent.
D. In Europe, there is no reason for parents to send their children to private schools because state schools are so good.
44. The number of people participating in the conference was far below my expectation.
A. I had expected that many more people would actually attend the conference.
B. I think attendance at the conference was low because it was held too far away from the city centre.
C. I knew that holding such a conference required the participation of more people.
D. The number of participants at the conference far exceeded my expectations.
45. Seeing how happy she looked, I was certain that Jack had proposed to her.
A. I knew just by looking at her that she was in love with Jack.
B. The happy look on her face convinced me that she'd received a marriage proposal from Jack.
C. Judging by the happy look on her face, I guess that she accepted Jack's marriage proposal.
D. When I talked to her, I learnt that she was so happy because Jack had proposed to her.
46. By the end of our tour, we had been to every major city in Eastern Europe, except Tallinn, in Estonia.
A. Towards the end of our trip, having visited all the main cities in Eastern Europe, we also wanted to see Tallinn, in Estonia.
B. Our tour included almost all major cities in Eastern Europe, besides Tallinn, In Estonia.
C. During our trip, we visited all the main cities of Estonia, in Eastern Europe, apart from Tallinn.

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D. With the exception of Tallinn, in Estonia, we visited all the important cities in Eastern Europe during our.
47. She has been living on her own for about ten years, but she had never been financially secure until she got that bank job last
year.
A. She's been having financial troubles during the last ten years, even though she's been living on her own and working in a bank
the whole time.
B. A year ago she found a job in a bank and became financially secure for the first time since she began living by herself about a
decade ago.
C. For ten years she had been living there all alone, and was never financially secure even with the bank job she found last year.
D. She hasn't been living with anyone for nearly ten years, but owing to her bank job, she's never had any financial worries.
48. The capital city of Latvia, Riga has maintained the atmosphere of a medieval German city.
A. Latvia's capital, Riga, is a medieval German city with a nice atmosphere.
B. Latvia's capital city, Riga was established in medieval times, and it looks like a German city.
C. Riga, Latvia's capital city, was established by the Germans in medieval times.
D. Riga, Latvia's capital city, still reflects the characteristics of a medieval German city.
49. When we arrived at the party after our car broke down on the way there, there weren't many people left.
A. Our car broke down on the way to the party and by the time we got there, most of the guests had already left.
B. Because we had car trouble on the way to the party, many people grew tired of waiting and left before we arrived there.
C. Not many people had left the party yet when we got there, although we were late because of a car problem on the way.
D. When we arrived at the party after we had had car trouble on the way there, hardly anyone had left yet.
50. She had to buy a new battery for her mobile phone because the charge was unable to last for more than two hours.
A. She had to charge a new battery for her mobile phone because the old one lasted for a little over two hours.
B. Her mobile phone couldn't hold a charge for more than two hours, so she had to buy a new battery.
C. Because she charged her new mobile phone battery for only two hours, the charge did not last very long.
D. The new battery she bought for her mobile phone would not hold a charge for longer than two hours.
Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions
The languages spoken by early Europeans are still shrouded in mystery. There is no linguistic continuity between the
languages of Old Europe (a term sometimes used for Europe between 7,000 and 3,000 B.C.) and the languages of the modern
world, and we cannot yet translate the Old European script. Scholars have deciphered other ancient languages, such as Sumerian,
Akkadian, and Babylonian, which used the cuneiform script, because of the fortuitous discovery of bilingual inscriptions. When
cuneiform tablets were first discovered in the 18th century, scholars could not decipher them. Then inscriptions found in Iran at
the end of the 18th century provided a link: these inscriptions were written in cuneiform and in two other ancient languages, Old
Persian and New Elamite – languages that had already been deciphered. It took several decades, but scholars eventually translated
the ancient cuneiform script via the more familiar Old Persian language.
Similarly, the hieroglyphic writing of the Egyptians remained a mystery until French troops unearthed the famous Rosetta stone
in the late 18th century. The stone carried the same message written in ancient Greek, Egyptian hieroglyphs, and Egyptian hieratic, a
simplified form of hieroglyphs. The Rosetta stone thwarted scholars’ efforts for several decades until the early 19th century when several
key hieroglyphic phrases were decoded using the Greek inscriptions. Unfortunately, we have no Old European Rosetta stone to chart
correspondences between Old European script and the languages that replaced it.
The incursions of Indo-European tribes into Old Europe from the late 5th to the early 3rd millennia B.C. caused a linguistic
and cultural discontinuity. These incursions disrupted the Old European sedentary farming lifestyle that had existed for 3,000 years.
As the Indo-Europeans encroached on Old Europe from the east, the continent underwent upheavals. These severely affected the
Balkans, where the Old European cultures abundantly employed script. The Old European way of life deteriorated rapidly, although
pockets of Old European cultural remained for several millennia. The new peoples spoke completely different languages belonging
to the Indo-European linguistic family. The Old European language or languages, and the script used to write them, declined and
eventually vanished.
51. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Reason for the failure to understand the written records of Old European culture.
B. Influences on the development of Old European script.
C. Similarities between Old European script and other ancient writing systems.
D. Events leading to the discovery of Old European script.
52. According to the passage, New Elamite is _________.
A. a language that was used in Europe about 3,000 years ago B. a modern language that came from Old Persian
C. one of the languages spoken by the Old Europeans D. a language that was understood by the late 18th century
53: When does the passage suggest that ancient Egyptian hieroglyphic script was finally deciphered?

138
A. At around the same time as cuneiform script was deciphered. B. Shortly before the Rosetta stone was unearthed.
C. As soon as additional bilingual inscriptions became available to scholars.
D. A few decades after the hieratic script was decoded.
54: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE of the Rosetta stone?
A. It was found by scholars trying to decode ancient languages. B. It contains two versions of hieroglyphic script.
C. Several of its inscriptions were decoded within a few months of its discovery.
D. Most of its inscriptions have still not been decoded.
55: According to the passage, scholars were able to decipher cuneiform form with the help of _________.
A. the Sumerian, Akkadian, and Babylonian languages B. Old Persian
C. tablets written in Old European D. languages spoken in 18th century Iran
st
56: The word “fortuitous” in the 1 paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.
A. important B. immediate C. early D. lucky
57:The word “them” in the 1st paragraph refers to _________.
A. Sumerian, Akkadian, and Babylonian B. bilingual inscriptions C. cuneiform tablets D. scholars
58: The word “thwarted” in the 2nd paragraph is closest in meaning to _________
A. continued B. influenced C. encouraged D. frustrated
59: According to the passage, Indo-European incursions caused Old European population to ________.
A. separated into different tribes B. move eastward
C. change their ways of living and obtain food D. start recording historical events in writing
60: The author mentions the Balkans in the passage in order to explain why _________.
A. Indo-European languages were slow to spread in Old Europe
B. the inhabitants of Old Europe were not able to prevent Indo-European incursions
C. the use of the Old European script declined
D. the Old European culture survived for a time after the Indo-European incursions
Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions
Industrialization came to the United State after 1790 as North American entrepreneurs increased productivity by
reorganizing work and building factories. These innovations in manufacturing boosted output and living standards to an
unprecedented extent; the average per capita wealth increased by nearly 1 percent per year – 30 percent over the course of a
generation. Goods that had once been luxury items became part of everyday life.
The impressive gain in output stemmed primarily from the way in which workers made goods, since the 1790's, North
American entrepreneurs – even without technological improvements – had broadened the scope of the outwork system that mace
manufacturing more efficient by distributing materials to a succession of workers who each performed a single step of the
production process. For example, during the 1820's and 1830's the shoe industry greatly expanded the scale and extend of me
outwork system. Tens of thousands of rural women, paid according to the amount they produced, fabricated the "uppers" of shoes,
which were bound to the soles by wage-earning journeymen shoemakers in dozens of Massachusetts towns, whereas previously
journeymen would have made the enduring shoe. This system of production made the employer a powerful "shoe boss" and
eroded workers' control over the pace and conditions of labor. However, it also dramatically increased the output of shoes while
cutting their price.
For tasks that were not suited to the outwork system, entrepreneurs created an even more important new organization,
the modem factory, which used power-driven machines and assembly-line techniques to turn out large quantities of well-made
goods. As early as 1782 the prolific Delaware inventor Oliver Evans had built a highly automated, laborsaving flour mill driven by
water power. His machinery lifted the grain to the top of the mill, cleaned it as it fell into containers known as hoppers, ground the
grain into flour, and then conveyed the flour back to the top of the mill to allow it to cool as it descended into barrels. Subsequently,
manufacturers made use of new improved stationary steam engines to power their mills. This new technology enabled them to
build factories in the nation's largest cities, taking advantage of urban concentrations of inexpensive labor, good transportation
networks, and eager customers.
61. What is the passage mainly about?
A. The difficulties of industrialization in North America
B. The influence of changes in manufacturing on the growth of urban centers
C. The rapid speed of industrialization in North America D. Improved ways of organizing the manufacturing of goods
62. The word "boosted" is closest in meaning to
A. ensured B. raised C. arranged D. discouraged
63. The word "scope" is closest in meaning to
A. value B. popularity C. extent D. diversity

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64. The author mentions the shoe industry in the second paragraph to provide an example of how
A. entrepreneurs increased output by using an extended outwork system
B. entrepreneurs used technological improvements to increase output
C. rural workers responded to "shoe bosses" D. changes in the outwork system improved the quality of shoes
65. All of the following are mentioned as effects of changes in the shoe industry during the 1820's and 1830's EXCEPT
A. an increase in the worker's dependence on entrepreneurs B. an increase in the wages paid to journeymen shoemakers
C. a decline in the workers ability to control the speed of production D. a decrease in the price of shoes
66. All of the following are true of the outwork system EXCEPT
A. It involved stages of production. B. It was more efficient than the systems used before 1790.
C. It made many employers less powerful than they had been before.
D. It did not necessarily involve any technological improvements.
67. The word "prolific" is closest in meaning to
A. efficient B. productive C. self-employed D. progressive
68. According to the passage, how did later mills differ from the mills differ from the mill built by Oliver Evans?
A. They were located away from large cities. B. They used new technology to produce power.
C. They did not allow flour to cool before it was placed in Barrels. D. They combined technology with the outwork system.
69. The passage mentions which of the following as a result of improvements in factory machinery?
A. It become easier for factory' owners to find workers and customers.
B. Manufacturers had to employ more highly skilled workers.
C. The amount of power required for factories operate was reduced.
D. Factories could operate more than one engine at a time.
70. The word "eager" is closest in meaning to
A. wealthy B. knowledgeable C. regular D. enthusiastic
Read the following passage and choose the correct word for each of the blanks

Sound Advice for Language Learners

A recent issue of a language learning magazine has consulted a number of experts in the (71) _______ of second
language acquisition. Their advice may prove invaluable for those (72)_____ a language course. One suggestion is that you (73)
______ whether you are likely to be successful at learning a language. Did you enjoy studying languages at school, for example?
Do you have enough time to learn a language? The major (74) _____ will be your own time and effort. If proof of your level of
proficiency is important you must make sure that the course on offer leads to a (75)_____ qualification. Also, be realistic in your
(76)______. If you don't set achievable aims you are more likely to give up. Do not be deceived (77)______ thinking that the
most expensive courses are the best. (78) ______ around to get the best possible value for money. You should also bear in mind
that the quicker you learn a language the more quickly you forget it. Sandra Miller, a French teacher, tried to teach herself
German by enrolling on a (79) ______course. Already fluent in four languages and with a sound knowledge of teaching
methodology her chances of making progress were high. Three years on she remembers very little. She feels her biggest mistake
was not to follow (80) ______ her first experience. "I should have consolidated what I'd learn by continuing to study, even if it
were by myself."

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71: A. domain B. branch C. field D. area
72. A. wondering B. thinking C. looking D. considering
73. A. assess B. review C. balance D. survey
74. A. chance B. cost C. price D. evaluation
75. A. recognized B. understood C. valued D. regarded
76. A. sights B. ends C. objects D. goal
77. A. by B. about C. into D. in
78. A. Nose B. Push C. Run D. Shop
79. A. rapid B. crash C. quick D. fast
80. A. up B. on C. through D. out

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ENGLISH TEST 87
Read the following passage and choose the correct word for each of the blanks
Parrots and macaws have become so (01)......... that special varieties of these birds are (02) ......... up to £9,000 each
on the black market in Britain. Macaws from Brazil cost from £1,000 and parrots from Australia can cost £7,500 a pair.
The demand for parrots, cockatoos and macaws has led to a (03)......... increase in thefts from zoos, wildlife parks
and pet shops. London and Whipsnade zoos are among the many places from which parrots have been stolen. Some thefts
have not been (04)......... in an effort to prevent further (05).......... Parrot rustling, as it is known among bird fanciers, has
increased rapidly in Britain since 1976 when imports and exports of (06)......... birds became (07)......... controlled.
Quarantine controls, (08)......... with the scarcity of many types of parrots in the wild in Africa, Australia, Indonesia,
and South America, have caused a shortage of birds which can be sold legally under (09)..........This has sent prices to (10).........
levels. Working at night and equipped with wire-cutters, nets and substances to dope the birds, the rustlers are prepared to
(11)......... serious risks to capture the parrots they want. At Birdworld, a specialist zoo, thieves (12)......... two parrots after
picking their (13)......... through an enclosure containing cassowaries, The cassowary is a large flightless bird, related to the
emu, which can be extremely (14)......., and has been (15)........ to kill humans with blows from its powerful legs.
01. A. costly B. extinct C. outlandish D. rare
02. A. raising B. reaching C. lifting D. fetching
03. A. acute B. peak C. sharp D. high
04. A. published B. publicised C. advertised D. told
05. A. happenings B. incidents C. acts D. activities
06. A. unusual B. uncommon C. exotic D. strange
07. A. tightly B. hardly C. toughly D. grimly
08. A. coupled B. doubled C. attached D. accompanied
09. A. warranty B. guarantee C. licence D. law
10. A. unknown B. unheard C. record D. highest
11. A. sustain B. assume C. take D. make
12. A. thieved B. robbed C. misappropriated D. stole
13. A. way B. road C. path D. lane
14. A. aggressive B. fighting C. bad-tempered D. rough
15. A. heard B. known C. considered D. able
Choose the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
16. A. popularity B. conscientious C. apprenticeship D. personality
17. A. horizon B. ignorant C. determinedly D. librarian
18. A. consonant B. divisible C. significant D. mosquito
19. A. consignation B. abnomality C. supplementary D. dictionary
20. A. garment B. comment C. cement D. even
Read the following passage and choose the correct answer
In the last third of the nineteenth century a new housing form was quietly being developed. I n 1869 the Stuyvesant,
considered New York’s first apartment house was built on East Eighteenth Street. The building was financed by the developer
Rutherfurd Stuyvesant and designed by Richard Morris Hunt, the first American architect to graduate from the Ecole des
Beaux Arts in Paris. Each man had lived in Paris, and each understood the economics and social potential of this Parisian
housing form. But the Stuyvesant was at best a limited success. In spite of Hunt’s inviting façade, the living space was
awkwardly arranged. Those who could afford them were quite content to remain in the more sumptuous, single-family
homes, leaving the Stuyvesant to newly married couples and bachelors.
The fundamental problem with the Stuyvesant and the other early apartment buildings that quickly followed, in the
1870’s and early 1880’s was that they were confined to the typical New York building lot. That lot was a rectangular area 25
feet wide by 100 feet deep–a shape perfectly suited for a row house. The lot could also accommodate a rectangular
tenement, though it could not yield the square, well-lighted, and logically arranged rooms that great apartment buildings

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require. But even with the awkward interior configurations of the early apartment buildings, the idea caught on. It met the
needs of a large and growing population that wanted something better than tenements but could not afford or did not want
row houses.
So while the city’s newly emerging social leadership commissioned their mansions, apartment houses and hotels
began to sprout in multiple lots, thus breaking the initial space constraints. In the closing decades of the nineteenth century,
large apartment houses began dotting the developed portions of New York City, and by the opening decades of the twentieth
century, spacious buildings, such as the Dakota and the Ansonia finally transcended the tight confinement of row house
building lots. From there it was only a small step to building luxury apartment houses on the newly created Park Avenue,
right next to the fashionable Fifth Avenue shopping area.
21. The new housing form discussed in the passage refers to
A. single-family homes B. apartment buildings C. row houses D. hotels
22. The word “inviting”in line 7 is closest in meaning to
A. open B. encouraging C. attractive D. asking
23. Why was the Stuyvesant a limited success?
A.The arrangement of the rooms was not convenient. B. Most people could not afford to live there.
C. There were no shopping areas nearby. D. It was in a crowded neighborhood.
24.The word “sumptuous”in line 8 is closest in meaning to
A. luxurious B. unique C. modern D. distant
25. It can be inferred that the majority of people who lived in New York’s first apartments were
A. highly educated B. unemployed C. wealthy D. young
26. It can be inferred that the typical New York building lot of the 1870’s and 1880’s looked MOST like which of the
following? A. (A) B. (B) C. (C) D. (D)

27. It can be inferred that a New York apartment building in the 1870’s and 1880’s had all of the following characteristics
EXCEPT: A. Its room arrangement was not logical. B. It was rectangular.
C. It was spacious inside. D. It had limited light.
28.The word “yield”in line 14 is closest in meaning to
A. harvest B. surrender C. amount D. provide
29. Why did the idea of living in an apartment become popular in the late 1800’s?
A. Large families needed housing with sufficient space.
B. Apartmentswere preferable to tenements and cheaper than row houses
C. The city officials of New York wanted housing that was centrally located.
D. The shape of early apartments could accommodate a variety of interior designs.
30. The author mentions the Dakota and the Ansonia in line 22 because
A. they are examples of large, well-designed apartment buildings B. their design is similar to that of row
houses
C. they were built on a single building lot D. they are famous hotels
Choose the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the italic part in each of the following questions
31. Mr. Smith’s new neighbors appear to be very friendly.
A. amicable B. inapplicable C. hostile D. futile
32. The clubs meet on the last Thursday of every month in a dilapidated palace.
A. renovated B. regenerated C. furnished D. neglected
Choose the correct answer to each of the following questions.
33: that I tore up the letter.
A. I was such an annoyed B. Such was my annoyance C. I was so annoying D. So was I annoyed
34: It is the recommendation of many psychologists to associate words and remember names.

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A. that a learner uses mental images B. that a learner use mental images
C. that a learner must use mental images D. mental images are used
35: “______” “Not really.”
A. I don't like that new movie. B. Would you like to watch a cartoon or a documentary?
C. Would you recommend the new movie at the Odeon? D. How often do you go to the movies?
36: Something tells me that you to a single word I in the past ten minutes.
A. haven’t listened/ was saying B. didn’t listen/ said
C. haven’t been listening/ have said D. haven’t listened/ said
37: Don’t to any conclusion before you know the full facts.
A. rush B. dive C. leap D. fly
38: The police spokesman said he was _______ to believe that the arrested man was the serial killer they had been looking
for.
A. inclined B. seemed C. suspected D. supposed
39: For lunch, I always have something quick and easy: a sandwich, a salad, toast and the _______.
A. same B. similar C. like D. rest
40: _______, the invention was perfect, but it didn’t sell very well.
A. Technically B. Technologically C. Politically D. Practically
41: To decorate my room, I ______.the help of my roomate.
A. drafted B. engaged C. recruited D. enlisted
42: I don't think anyone understood what I was saying at the meeting, did they? I totally failed to get my point ______.
A. around B. along C. across D. about
43: This fruit has been in the fridge for over three weeks! It is all ________.
A. sour B. mouldy C. rotten D. bitter
44: If someone is down to earth, he is very________
A. practical B. sad C. shy D. strange
45: I tried to talk to her, but she was as high as a________
A. sky B. house C. wall D. kite
46: We don't seem to have any more of that book, Sir. It is out of ___ but we are getting a new delivery next Thursday if you
would like to pop back then.
A. stock B. order C. print D. shop
47: Cable TV revolutionized communications; ______, the very existence of that service is now threatened by satellites.
A. consequently B. for example C. nevertheless D. moreover
48: Now I am unemployed, I have too much time _______ and don't know what to do with myself.
A. in my hands B. in hand C. to hand D. on my hands
49: - "What do you think of football?" - "_______"
A. I am crazy about it. B. Of course, football players are excellent
C. Well, it's beyond my expectation D. It's none of my business.
50: As coal mines became deeper, the problems of draining water, bringing in fresh air, and ______ to the surface increased.
A. how ore is transported B. transporting ore
C. ore is transporting D. to transport ore
51: ______ is one of the many factors involved in changing farming methods.
A. Each climate B. A climate C. Climates D. The climate
52: There is no chance of you getting the promotion after only two months working here, ___ the great work you have done.
A. presuming B. notwithstanding C. nevertheless D. regardless
53: Are you thinking of flying business class?" "______"
A. I'm flying there to attend a party. B. No, I'm just on business.
C. No, I'd like an aisle seat. D. No, economy.

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54: On the battle field .
A. lied the tanks B. did the tanks lie C. the tanks lay D. lay the tanks
55: The team threw on all their substitutes in the last five minutes, all to no ___ as they lost the game narrowly by three
points.
A. use B. gain C. avail D. benefit
56: _______ Nam Cao is a realistic writer, but he still used a lot of romance in his stories.
A. On my part B. On the whole C. On the contrary D. On the other hand
57: - "Do you mind if I use your phone?" - ".________."
A. Sorry. I have no idea B. Not at all. Help yourself C. Yes, certainly D. You can say that again
58: We took Bill ______ for a couple of months after the fire at his home. It was no trouble as we have the extra bedroom
up in the converted loft.
A. out B. off C. in D. up
Choose the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the italic part in each of the following questions
59. He didn’t bat an eye when he realized he failed the exam again.
A. didn’t want to see B. didn’t show surprise C. wasn’t happy D. didn’t care
60. The notice should be put in the most conspicuous place so that all the students can be well-informed.
A. easily seen B. beautiful C. popular D. suspicious-
Read the following passage and choose the correct answer
Even before the turn of the century, movies began to develop in two major directions: the realistic and the
formalistic. Realism and formalism are merely general, rather than absolute, terms. When used to suggest a tendency toward
either polarity, such labels can be helpful, but in the end they are still just labels. Few films are exclusively formalist in style,
and fewer yet are completely realist. There is also an important difference between realism and reality, although this
distinction is often forgotten. Realism is a particular style, whereas physical reality is the source of all the raw materials of
film, both realistic and formalistic. Virtually all movie directors go to the photographable world for their subject matter, but
what they do with this material - how they shape and manipulate it - determines their stylistic emphasis.
Generally speaking, realistic films attempt to reproduce the surface of concrete reality with a minimum of distortion.
In photographing objects and events, the filmmaker tries to suggest the copiousness of life itself. Both realist and formalist
film directors must select (and hence emphasize) certain details from the chaotic sprawl of reality. But the element of
selectivity in realistic films is less obvious. Realists, in short, try to preserve the illusion that their film world is unmanipulated,
an objective mirror of the actual world. Formalists, on the other hand, make no such pretense. They deliberately stylize and
distort their raw materials so that only the very naive would mistake a manipulated image of an object or event for the real
thing.
We rarely notice the style in a realistic movie; the artist tends to be self-effacing. Some filmmakers are more
concerned with what is being shown than how it is manipulated. The camera is used conservatively. It is essentially a
recording mechanism that reproduces the surface of tangible objects with as little commentary as possible. A high premium
is placed on simplicity, spontaneity, and directness. This is not to suggest that these movies lack artistry, however, for at its
best the realistic cinema specializes in art that conceals art.
61. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Acting styles B. Film plots C. Styles of filmmaking D. Filmmaking 100 years ago
62. With which of the following statements would theauthor be most likely to agree?
A. Realism and formalism are outdated terms.
B. Most films are neither exclusively realistic nor formalistic.
C. Realistic films are more popular than formalistic ones.
D. Formalistic films are less artistic than realistic ones.
63. Whom does the author say is primarily responsible for the style of a film?
A. The director B. The actors C. The producer D. The camera operator
64. The word "shape" in line 7 is closest in meaning to
A. specify B. form C. understand D. achieve
65. The word "preserve" in line 11 is closest in meaning to
A. encourage B. maintain C. reflect D. attain
66. The word “They” in line 12 refers to

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A. films B. realists C. formalists D. raw materials
67. How can one recognize the formalist style?
A. It uses familiar images. B. It is very impersonal.
C. It obviously manipulates images. D. It mirrors the actual world.
68. The word "tangible" in line 17 is closest in meaning to
A. concrete B. complex C. various D. comprehensible
69. Which of the following terms is NOT used to describe realism in filmmaking?
A. Simple B. Spontaneous C. Self-effacing D. Exaggerated
70. Which of the following films would most likely use a realist style?
A. A travel documentary B. A science fiction film
C. A musical drama D. An animated cartoon---------------------------------------
Choose the underlined part that needs correcting.
71. James was worried that he was the last person to submit the physical assignment but he was actually the second.
A B C D
72. Today it seems hardly credible, but Los Angeles grew as it did because in its early days it had a highly advanced public
transporting system. A B C
D
73. After the social science lecture all students are invited to take part in a discussion of the issues which were risen in the
talk.
A B C D
74. A football match begins with the ball kicking forwards from a spot in the centre of the field.
A B C D
75. They had a discussion about training not only the new employees but also giving them some challenges.
A B C D
Choose the correct sentence which is closest in meaning to each of the ones given before.
76. It’s your duty to finish your homework before you go to school.
A. You were supposed to finish your homework before you go to school.
B. Your homework is supposed to be finished before going to school.
C. That your homework is finished before you go to school is your duty.
D. Your duty finishing your homework before you go to school is necessary.
77. "You didn’t lock the door this morning as I found the keys on the table when I got home!" the woman told her son.
A. The woman scolded her son with unlocking the door that morning as she found the key on the table.
B. The woman criticized her son for not locking the door that morning, adding that she saw the keys on the table.
C. The woman blamed her son for not unlocking the door that morning as she found the key on the table.
D. The woman reproached her son of not locking the door that morning, emphasizing that she saw the keys on the table.
78. When he was asked for more information about the burglary, the man appeared quite upset.
A. When asking for more information about the burglary, the man appeared quite upset.
B. On being asked for more information about the burglary, the man appeared quite upset.
C. Being asked for more information about the burglary, the man appeared quite upset.
D. The man appeared quite upset, asking for more information about the burglary, the man appeared quite upset.
79: I think I should have cooked more food. There’s nothing left now.
A. I should not have cooked so much food.

B. I regrets cooking too much food now.


C. I did not cook much food and I think it is ok now.
D. I did not cook much food and I think it was a mistake.
80. What the politician was saying fell on deaf ears last night.
A. The politician fell deaf when he was speaking last night.
B. What the politician was saying deafened the listeners last night.
C. No one took notice of what the politician was saying last night.
D. No one listened to what the politician was saying last night because they had deaf ears.

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ENGLISH TEST 88
Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions
According to sociologists, there are several different ways in which a person may become recognized as the leader of a social
group in the United States. In the family, traditional cultural patterns confer leadership on one or both of the parents. In
other cases, such as friendship groups, one or more persons may gradually emerge as leaders, although there is no formal
process of selection. In larger groups, leaders are usually chosen formally through election or recruitment.
Although leaders are often thought to be people with unusual personal ability, decades of research have failed to
produce consistent evidence that there is any category of “natural leaders.” It seems that there is no set of personal qualities
that all leaders have in common; rather, virtually any person may be recognized as a leader if the person has qualities that
meet the needs of that particular group.
Furthermore, although it is commonly supposed that social groups have a single leader, research suggests that there
are typically two different leadership roles that are held by different individuals. Instrumental leadership is leadership that
emphasizes the completion of tasks by a social group. Group members look into instrumental leaders to “get things”done.”
Expressive leadership, on the other hand, is leadership that emphasizes the collective well-being of a social group’s member.
Expressive leader are less concerned with the overall goals of the group than with providing emotional support to group
members and attempting to minimize tension and conflict among them. Group members expect expressive leaders to
maintain stable relationships within the group and provide support to individual members.
Instrumental leaders are likely to have a rather secondary relationship to other group members. They give orders and
may discipline group members who inhibit attainment of the group’s goals. Expressive leaders cultivate a more personal or
primary relationship to others in the group. They offer sympathy when someone experiences difficulties or is subjected to
discipline, are quick to lighten a serious moment with humor, and try to resolve issues that threaten to divide the group. As
the differences in these two roles suggest, expressive leaders generally receive more personal affection from group members;
instrumental leaders, if they are successful in promoting group goals, may enjoy a mote distant respect
1: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The problems faced by leaders B. The role of leaders in social groups
C. How leadership differs in small and large groups D. How social groups determine who will lead them
2: The passage mentions all of the following ways by which people can become leaders EXCEPT____.
A. recruitment B. formal election process
C. traditional cultural patterns D. specific leadership training
3: In mentioning “natural leaders” in lines 7-8, the author is making the point that_______.
A. there is no proof that “natural leaders” exist B. few people qualify as “natural leaders”
C. “natural leaders’ are easily accepted by the members of a social group
D. “natural leaders” share a similar set of characteristics
4: Which of the following statements about leadership can be inferred from paragraph 2?
A. Few people succeed in sharing a leadership role with another person.
B. A person can best learn how to be an effective leader by studying research on leadership.
C. Most people desire to be leaders but can produce little evidence of their qualifications.
D. A person who is an effective leader of a particular group may not be an effective leader in another group.
5:The passage indicates that instrumental leaders generally focus on_______.
A. ensuring harmonious relationships B. achieving a goal
C. sharing responsibility with group members D. identifying new leaders
6: The word “collective” in line 15 is closest in meaning to_______.
A. necessary B. typical C. particular D. group
7:The word “them” in line 18 refers to_______.
A. expressive leaders B. group members C. goals of the group D. tension and conflict
8: A “secondary relationship” mentioned in line 20 between a leader and the members of a group could best be
characterized as_______. A. enthusiastic B. distant C. unreliable D. personal
9: The word “resolve” in line 24 is closest in meaning to_______.

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A. find a solution for B. talk about C. avoid thinking about D. avoid repeating
10: Paragraphs 3 and 4 organize the discussion of leadership primarily in term of_______.
A. examples that illustrate a problem B. comparison and contrast C. narration of events D. cause and effect analysis
Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions
PAPER
Paper is everywhere. We use it for homework, money, checks, books, letters, wallpaper, and greeting cards. We have
paper towels, napkins plates, cups, and tissues. We print the news every day on newspaper. Our history and knowledge is
written on paper. Without paper, our lives would be completely different.
From the very beginning of time, people have tried to record their thoughts and lives. The earliest humans drew pictures
on cave walls. Later, people used large pieces of clay to write on. Almost 5,000 years ago, the Egyptians wrote on pieces of
plants called papyrus. Papyrus was used throughout the ancient world of the Mediterranean for thousands of years.
Eventually it was replaced by parchment. Parchment was made from animal skins. It was stronger and lasted longer than any
other material.
The Chinese made the first real paper in the year A.D. 105. They mixed tree bark and small pieces of old cloth with water.
They used a screen to remove the thin, wet piece of paper. Then they let the paper dry in the sun. The Chinese kept
papermaking a secret until after 751, in that year there was a war between the Chinese and the Muslims. Many Chinese
papermakers were taken away from China to live in Muslim countries. The art of papermaking soon spread throughout the
Muslim world. Finally, by the end of the twelfth century, papermaking reached Europe. The first paper made in Europe was
in Spain in 1151.
The first important improvement on the Chinese method of papermaking was in France in 1798. A man named Nicholas
Louis Robert invented a machine for making paper. His machine could make paper much faster than one person could by
hand. However, his machine was not very successful. About ten years later an Englishman improved on Robert’s machine
and began producing paper.
The most important improvement in papermaking also happened in France. A scientist observed a wasp making its nest. The
wasp chewed up pieces of wood, mixed it with the chemicals in its mouth, and made a paper nest. The scientist realized that
people could make paper from wood, too. Finally, a machine was invented for grinding wood into pulp to use for making paper.
Today, the principal ingredient in paper is wood pulp. It is made by machine. There are also other kinds of paper made from
rice, wheat, cotton, corn, and other plants. Paper from wood pulp is the most common. Canada and the United States are the
world leaders in paper production, due in part to the quantity, of wood that is available in the forests of these two countries.
Because paper is made of wood, many people are becoming concerned that too many trees are being chopped down
every year in order to produce paper. Trees are an important part of the environment. As a result, many companies that
produce paper are using old paper instead of new wood pulp to make paper. This method of using old products again instead
of simply throwing them away is called recycling. Recycling paper helps reduce the number of trees that are used every year.
Many people also try to use less paper in their daily lives. They use both sides of a sheet of paper instead of just one. They
use cloth handkerchiefs instead of paper tissues. There are also special containers in many schools and public places where
people can put used paper instead of throwing it into the garbage can. Then this paper is collected to be recycled.
Whether we use a little or a lot, paper has an important place in our lives. The books we read and write are made of paper.
Our history and scientific inventions have all been recorded on paper. This, however, is changing. Other methods of storing
information are becoming common. Computers can store an enormous amount of information in a much smaller space.
Computer faxes, electronic mail, and the Internet are only three examples of technology that have replaced paper, Who
knows, perhaps one day people will not use paper to write at all!
11: Papyrus was _______.
A. a kind of paper made from a plant. B. made by ancient Egyptians.
C. a kind of plant that ancient Egyptians wrote on. D. a special kind of clay.
12: The Chinese kept papermaking a secret _______.
A. because they were afraid of the Muslims B. so that they could keep exporting paper to the Muslim world
C. until the Muslims found out about the special tree bark D. for more than 6 centuries
13:The Chinese method of papermaking was first improved by _______.
A. a papermaking machine B. an Englishman C. Nicholas Louis Robert D. employing people with faster hands
14: The United States and Canada _______.
A. import most of the paper they need B. have the largest forests in the world
C. consume most of the paper they produce D. are the biggest producers of paper

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15:What is the main idea of the last paragraph?
A. Paper and computers play the same role in our lives. B. New technology that helps recycling paper.
C. Paper is an important part of our life, but technology is changing this fast.
D. Those who know how to use a computer don’t need paper at all.
16: In order to record their thoughts and lives, the earliest humans _______.
A. drew pictures on cave walls. B. wrote on cave walls. C. invented a system of writing. D found a way to make paper.
17:Parchment was used to write on because _______.
A. it was stronger and lasted longer than papyrus. B. the plant it was made from died out.
C. it could be made into slabs of clay. D. there were a lot of animals.
18:The Chinese secret of papermaking was discovered _______.
A. by some Muslims who went to live among the Chinese B. as a result of a war between the Chinese and the Muslims
C. by the Spanish in the 12th century D. because the Chinese let the paper dry in the Sun
19: Paper was first made from wood pulp _______.
A. in France B. by a wasp C. by a machine D. by a scientist
20:Some people think that producing a lot of paper is not good because ____.
A. papermaking factories are polluting the environment B. a lot of trees have to be chopped down for wood pulp
C. recycling old paper is expensive D. there is not enough land to plant trees for wood pulp
Choose the underlined part that needs correction.
21: The rings of Saturn are so distant to be seen from Earth without a telescope.
A B C D
22: The major goals of primary education is to achieve basic literacy and numeracy among all students.
A B C D
23: I passed my exam last summer, but my friend has just failed her.
A B C D
24: It is primary education that establishes foundations in science geography, history, as well other social sciences for
A B C D
young students.
25: This recipe, is an old family secret, is an especially important part of our holiday celebrations.
A B C D
Choose the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
26. A. collapse B. volcano C. festival D. appliance
27. A. forest B. disaster C. carriage D. furniture
28. A. agricultural B. mausoleum C. correspond D. compulsory
29. A. fashionable B. convenient C. traditional D. minorities
30. A. academic B. reputation C. experience D. intermediate
Read the following passage and choose the correct word for each of the blanks
A DAY IN YOUR LIFE – IN THE YEAR 2020
What are two ways that technology will probably change your life in the next 20-25 years?
People used to know more or less how their children would live. Now things are changing so quickly that we don't even
know what our own lives will be (31) ___ in a few years. What allows is not science fiction. It's how experts see the future.
You're daydreaming behind the wheel of your car, but that's OK. You have it on automatic pilot, and with its high-tech
computers and cameras, your car "knows" (32) ___ you home safely.
You're hungry, so you head for the kitchen as soon as you get home. You ordered groceries by computer an hour ago, and
you know that by now they (33) __. Your kitchen has a two-door refrigerator, (34)_ opens to the outside to accept deliveries.
You've already paid for the food by having the money (35)__ from your bank account. Nobody uses cash any more.
What's for lunch? In the old days, you used to stop off to buy a hamburger or pizza. Now you use your diagnostic
machine to find out which foods your body (36) _______. You find out you need more vegetables and less fat. Your food-
preparation machine (37)______ you a salad.
After lunch, you go down the hall to your home office. Here you have everything you need for doing your work.
Thanks to your information screen and your new computer, you (38) _______ never go into the office any more.

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The information screen shows an urgent message from a co-worker in Brazil. You set the screen to translate
Portuguese (39) __________ English. As you wait, you think about later, then you'll have a movie (40) ________ what a movie
should you order tonight?

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31: A. like B. as C. alike D. about
32: A. to get B. get C. how to get D. what to get
33:.A. are arriving B. arrive
C. will arrive D. have arrived
34: A. which B. that C. what D. and
35: A. added B. counted C. subtracted D. reduced
36:. A. eats B. prefers C. needs D. finds
37: A. does B. makes C. works D. feed
38: A. almost B. hardly C. most D. mostly
39: A. onto B. in C. into D. from
40: A. transmitted B. order
C. broadcast D. transmit

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Choose the correct answer to each of the following questions.
41: The shop assistant was totally bewildered by the customer’s behavior. The word bewildered is closest in meaning to
A. upset B. puzzled C. disgusted D. angry
42:Some wild animals are in danger in this region. The phrase in danger is closest in meaning to
A. dangerous B. likely to cause harm C. likely to be extinct D. predators
43:We offer a speedy and secure service of transferring money in less than 24 hours.
Which of the following word has the opposite meaning to the word secure?
A. unsure B. uninterested C. slow D. open
44:The Red Cross is an international humanitarian agency dedicated to reducing the sufferings of wounded soldiers,
civilians and prisoners of war. Which of the following word has the opposite meaning to the word sufferings
A. happiness B. pain and sorrow C. loss D. worry and sadness
45:Jack: “Hi, Tom. What’s going on?” Tom: “ Nothing special, Jack. ____ with you?”
A. What’s up B. Have you got something C. Nothing new D. Not much
46:Don’t lie! You ____ their phone ringing. They haven’t got a phone.
A. can’t hear B. couldn’t have heard C. haven’t heard D. had not heard
47: Frank: “ Do you know how old I am?” Daisy: “_____.”
A. I couldn’t help it B. Happy birthday C. Don’t mention it D. I haven’t a clue
48: It’s difficult for a sloppy person to live with a ___.
A. perfect B. perfection C. perfectionism D. perfectionist
49:Up ____, and the people cheered.
A. went the balloon B. does the balloon go C. did the balloon go D. goes the balloon
50: It may be wonderful to own a big, old house, but think of the ___.
A. upkeep B. keep-up C. keep-on D. keep-out
51: Learning English isn’t so difficult; once you ____.
A. get down to it B. get off it C. get on it D. get down with it
52: “I’m sorry I couldn’t come to your party last night.” “ _____.”
A. That’s all right B. Excuse me C. You’re welcome D. Don’t mention it
53:. _____, we tried our best to complete it.
A. Difficult as the homework was B. Despite the homework was difficult
C. Thanks to the difficult homework D. As though the homework was difficult
54: You’re quite right, of course, but ____ you needn’t have been so rude about it.
A. at once time B. from time to time C. at the same time D. at times
55: ______ had the restaurant opened ____ people were flocking to eat there.
A. Hardly …than B. No sooner…when C. No sooner … than D. Hardly …. that
56:The other driver failed to signal his ____ to turn right so I had to brake suddenly.
A. purpose B. idea C. intention D. design
57: “ What are you going to do next?” “ I wish I ____ the answer to that question.”
A. knew B. had known C. would know D. will know
58:There was ____ evidence to bring charges against the man.
A. insubstantial B. interior C. ineffective D. insufficient
59: What a ____!
A. new small nice car B. nice small new car C. new nice car, that is small D. car new nice and small
60: His parents hostile attitude ___ him to leave home .
A. drove B. urged C. made D. suggested
61:. I recommend that the student ____ his composition as soon as possible.
A. finishes writing B. should finish the writing C. finish writing D. finished writing
62: Hearing-aid devices are very helpful for ________ are hard of hearing.
A. those B. those who C. people D. who
63: We should study hard ___________ our parents can be proud of us.
A. so as to B. in order that C. as that D. in order to
64: As soon as I ___________ my assignment, I'll show you how to solve that problem.

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A. have finished B. will finish C. will have finished D. finished
65: Today many countries are trying to develop _________ energy sources.
A. sustainable B. natural C. damaging D. non-renewable
66: The company managed to __ its best workers and kept its rival from stealing them.
A. promote B. employ C. retain D. consider
67: The _______ of food during that long winter left many families in despair.
A. scarcity B. availability C. variety D. abundance
68: You ___________ smoke in here. It's against the rules.
A. shouldn't B. mightn't C. mustn't D. needn't
69: The new director is favorably _________ towards innovations.
A. disposed B. devoted C. dedicated D. discouraged
70:These teachers ________ to help their students understand simple things.
A. do an attempt B. make great efforts C. try a great effort D. put great efforts
71: To apply for the scholarship, the students are required to write a _________ essay about their future plans.
A. two-hundred-word B. two-pages C. double pages D. two hundred words
72:It was a ______ that the driver survived the crash. His car was completely damaged.
A. mystery B. miracle C. secret D. strange
73:Sharks acquire many sets of teeth _________ their lifetime.
A. over B. from C. during D. since
74: “Don’t fail to send your parents my regards.” – “______.”
A. You’re welcome B. Good idea, thanks C. Thanks, I will D. It’s my pleasure
75: John: “Do you think that we should use public transportation to protect our environment?” Laura: “______”
A. There’s no doubt about it. B. Well, that’s very surprising. C. Of course not. You bet! D. Yes, it’s an absurd idea.
Choose the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following question
76:She said, “John, I’ll show you round my city when you’re here.”
A. She made a trip round her city with John. B. She promised to show John round her city.
C. She planned to show John round her city. D. She organized a trip round her city for John.
77: There’s no point in persuading Jane to change her mind.
A. No one wants Jane to change her mind because it’s pointless. B. It’s possible for us to persuade Jane to change her
mind.
C. Jane will change her mind though she doesn’t want to. D. It’s useless to persuade Jane to change her mind
78:“Why don’t you reply to the President’s offer right now?” said Mary to her husband.
A. Mary suggested that her husband should reply to the President’s offer without delay.
B. Mary told her husband why he didn’t reply to the President’s offer then.
C. Mary ordered her husband to reply to the President’s offer right now.
D. Mary wondered why her husband didn’t reply to the President’s offer then.
79: If I hadn’t had so much work to do I would have gone to the movies.
A. Because I had to do so much work, I couldn’t go to the movies. B. I would go to the movies when I had done so much work.
C. A lot of work couldn’t prevent me from going to the movies. D. I never go to the movies if I have work to do.
80: Unlike her friends, Jane prefers an independent life.
A. Jane doesn't like her friends because she prefers an independent life.
B. Her friends live in an independent life and Jane doesn't like it.
C. Jane doesn't like her friends to live in a dependent life. D. Jane prefers an independent life but her friends do not.

ENGLISH TEST 89
Choose the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions
1: A. entrepreneur B. extracurricular C. autobiography D. disciplinary
2: A. elaborately B. flamingo C. embryo D. gazelle
3: A. e-book B. quick-witted C. in-depth D. white-collar

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Choose the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation
4: A. markedly B. cooked C. punished D. laughed
5: A. recollect B. restore C. preface D. predator
Choose the correct answer to each of the following questions.
6: ___________ giraffe is the tallest of all __________animals.
A. A/ ø B. ø/ the C. The/ ø D. A/ the
7: By the year 2050, many people currently employed __________ their jobs.
A. have lost B. will be losing C. will have lost D. are losing
8: He may be shy now, but he will soon come out of his __________ when he meets the right girl.
A. shoe B. shell C. shed D. hole
9: She had just enough time to __________ the report before the meeting.
A. dip into B. get through C. turn round D. go into
10: We’d better phone __________ the restaurant to reserve a table.
A. at B. ø C. to D. for
11: He was a natural singer with a voice that was as clear as_________.
A. a water fall B. a mirror C. a bell D. a lake
12: “What do you do for a living?” – “___________.”
A. I work in a bank B. I get a high salary, you know. C. I want to be a doctor, I guess D. It’s hard work, you know.
13: Governments shoud __________ international laws against terrorism.
A. bring in B. bring up C. bring about D. bring back
14: The documentary was so __________ that many viewers cried.
A. touchy B. moody C. moved D. touching
15: Joe, remember that I’m __________ you to see that there’s no trouble at the party on Sunday.
A. relying on B. waiting for C. believing in D. depending on
16: Space travel seemed __________ but it has come true now.
A. unthinkable B. unable C. disbelievable D. disagreeable
17: In 1975, the successful space probe to __________ beginning to send information back to earth.
A. Venus it was B. Venus C. Venus was D. Venus the
18: A cooperative program between China and Germany on building Yangzhow, a famous ancient city, into a(n) ________
city has proceeded smoothly since it started in September last year.
A. ecology-friendly B. friendly ecology C. friendly-ecological D. ecological-friendly
19: The city has __________ of young consumers who are sensitive to trends, and can, therefore, help industries predict the
potential risks and success of products.
A. a high tendency B. a high rate C. a high proportion D. a great level
20: He left the country __________ arrest if he returned.
A. with fear of B. under threat of C. with threat of D. in fear of
21: With competition from __________ the British coal industry is facing a serious ___________.
A. imports/ crisis B. imports/ crises C. import/ crisis D. import/ crises
22: Students can __________ a lot of information just by attending class and taking good notes of the lectures.
A. provide B. transmit C. read D. absorb
23: Some __________ back workers were working hard in the sunshine.
A. empty B. vacant C. bare D. naked
24: She brought three children up __________.
A. single-handedly B. single-minded C. single-mindedly D. single-handed
25: “Jane is really conscientious, isn’t she?” “Absolutely. ___________, she is very efficient”
A. What is more B. So C. All the same D. Still
26: “Excuse me. I’m your new neighbor. I just moved in.” “__________.”
A. Where to, sir? B. Sorry, I don’t know C. Oh, I don’t think so D. I’m afraid not
27: I know you didn’t see me yesterday because I was in Hanoi. You __________ me.
A. may not have seen B. mustn’t have seen C. shouldn’t have seen D. can’t have seen
28: Simple sails were made from canvas __________ over a frame.

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A. was stretched B. a stretch C. it was stretched D. stretched
29: -“I’m going out now.” - “__________ you happen to pass a chemist’s, would you get me some aspirins?”
A. Were B. Had C. Did D. Should
30: “Have you __________ this contract yet?” - “Not yet. I’ll try to read it this weekend.
A. looked up B. looked over C. looked into D. looked out
Read the following passage and choose the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks
What is meant by the term economic resources? In general, these are all the natural, man-made, and human resources
that go into the (31) _________of goods and services. Economic resources can be broken down into (32) _________ general
categories: property resource – land and capital, and human resources – labor and entrepreneurial skills.
What do economists mean (33) __________land? Much more than the non-economist, land refers to all the natural
resources (34) ________ are usable in the production process: arable land, forests, mineral and oil deposits, and
(35)__________ on. What about capital? Capital goods are all the man-made aids to producing, storing, transporting, and
distributing goods and (36) __________. Capital goods differ from consumer goods in that (37) __________ satisfy wants
directly, while the former do so indirectly by facilitating the production of consumer goods. It should be noted that capital
as defined here does not (38) ___________ to money. Money, as such, produces nothing.
The term labor refers to the physical and mental talents of humans used to produce goods and services (with the exception
of a certain set of human talents, entrepreneurial skills, which will be considered separately because of their special
significance). Thus the services of a factory worker or an office worker, a ballet (39) ___________ or an astronaut all fall (40)
__________ the general heading of labor.
31: A. doingB. plant C. using D. production
32: A. some B. many C. two D. six
33: A. with B. calling C. using D. by
34: A. these B. they C. what D. that
35: A. such B. go C. come D. so
36: A. crops B. services C. machines D. money
37: A. the latter B. lately C. the latest D. later
38: A. speak B. refer C. come D. go
39: A. director B. dancer C. performance D. writer
40: A. from B. to C. under D. into
Choose the word or phrase closest in meaning to the underlined word(s)
41: I used to meet him occasionally on Fifth Avenue.
A. in one occasion B. once in a while C. one time D. none is correct
42: Biogas can be utilized for electricity production, cooking, space heating, water heating and process heating.
A. increase B. sparing C. generation D. reformation
43: We spent the entire day looking for a new apartment.
A. the long day B. all long day C. day after day D. all day long
Choose the word(s) opposite in meaning to the underlined word(s)
44: During the five-decade history the Asian Games have been advancing in all aspects.
A. holding to B. holding back C. holding at D. holding by
45: She decided to remain celibate and devote her life to helping the homeless and orphans.
A. divorced B. married C. single D. separated
Choose the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions
46: Some of the agricultural (A) practices (B) used today (C) is responsible for (D) fostering desertification.
47: A 1971 U.S (A) government policy not only put (B) warnings on cigarette packs but also (C) ban television (D) advertising
of cigarettes.
48: Snapping turtles are (A) easily recognized (B) because of the large head, the long tail and the shell that seems (C)
unsufficiently (D) to protect the body.
49: In the 1920s, Tulsa had a (A) higher number of (B) millionaire than any (C) other U.S. (D) city.
50: Because of (A) its ability to survive (B) close to human habitations, the Virginia deer (C) has actually increased (D) their
range and numbers.
Read the following passage and choose the answer to each of the questions

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Quite different from storm surges are the giant sea waves called tsunamis, which derive their name from the
Japanese expression for “high water in a harbor.” These waves are also referred to by the general public as tidal waves,
although they have relatively little to do with tides. Scientists often referred to them as seismic sea waves, far more
appropriate in that they do result from undersea seismic activity.
Tsunamis are caused when the sea bottom suddenly moves, during an underwater earthquake or volcano for
example, and the water above the moving earth is suddenly displaced. This sudden shift of water sets off a series of waves.
These waves can travel great distances at speeds close to 700 kilometers per hour. In the open ocean, tsunamis have little
noticeable amplitude, often no more than one or two meters. It is when they hit the shallow waters near the coast that they
increase in height, possibly up to 40 meters.
Tsunamis often occur in the Pacific because the Pacific is an area of heavy seismic activity. Two areas of the Pacific
well accustomed to the threat of tsunamis are Japan and Hawaii. Because the seismic activity that causes tsunamis in Japan
often occurs on the ocean bottom quite close to the islands, the tsunamis that hit Japan often come with little warning and
can, therefore, prove disastrous. Most of the tsunamis that hit the Hawaiian Islands, however, originate thousands of miles
away near the coast of Alaska, so these tsunamis have a much greater distance to travel and the inhabitants of Hawaii
generally have time for warning of their imminent arrival.
Tsunamis are certainly not limited to Japan and Hawaii. In 1755, Europe experienced a calamitous tsunami, when
movement along the fault lines near the Azores caused a massive tsunami to sweep onto the Portuguese coast and flood the
heavily populated area around Lisbon. The greatest tsunami on record occurred on the other side of the world in 1883 when
the Krakatoa volcano underwent a massive explosion, sending waves more than 30 meters high onto nearby Indonesian
islands; the tsunami from this volcano actually traveled around the world and was witnessed as far away as the English
Channel.
51: The paragraph preceding this passage most probably discusses
A. tides B. storm surges C. tidal waves D. underwater earthquakes
52: According to the passage, all of the following are true about tidal waves EXCEPT that
A. they are caused by sudden changes in high and low tides B. this terminology is not used by the scientific community
C. they are the same as tsunamis D. they refer to the same phenomenon as seismic sea waves
53: The word “displaced” in line 7 is closest in meaning to
A. not pleased B. located C. moved D. filtered
54: It can be inferred from the passage that tsunamis
A. are often identified by ships on the ocean B. generally reach heights greater than 40 meters
C. are far more dangerous on the coast than in the open ocean D. cause severe damage in the middle of the ocean
55: In line 10, water that is “shallow” is NOT
A. deep B. coastal C. tidal D. clear
56: A main difference between tsunamis in Japan and in Hawaii is that tsunamis in Japan are more likely to
A. come from greater distances B. originate in Alaska C. arrive without warning D. be less of a problem
57: The possessive “their” in line 18 refers to
A. the Hawaiian Islands B. these tsunamis C. thousands of miles D. the inhabitants of Hawaii
58: A “calamitous” tsunami, in line 20, is one that is
A. disastrous B. expected C. extremely calm D. at fault
59: From the expression “on record” in line 22, it can be inferred that the tsunami that accompanied the Krakatoa volcano
A. was filmed as it was happening B. occurred before efficient records were kept
C. was not as strong as the tsunami in Lisbon D. might not be the greatest tsunami ever
60: The passage suggests that the tsunami resulting from the Krakatoa volcano
A. was unobserved outside of the Indonesian islands B. resulted in little damage
C. was far more destructive close to the source than far away D. caused volcanic explosions in the English Channel
Read the following passage and choose the answer to each of the questions from 61 to 70.
Esperanto is what is called a planned, or artificial, language. It was created more than a century ago by Polish eye doctor
Ludwik Lazar Zamenhof. Zamenhof believed that a common language would help to alleviate some of the misunderstandings
among cultures.

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In Zamenhof’s first attempt at a universal language, he tried to create a language that was as uncomplicated as possible.
This first language included words such as ab, ac, ba, eb, be, and ce. This did not result in a workable language in that these
monosyllabic words, though short, were not easy to understand or to retain.
Next, Zamenhof tried a different way of constructing a simplified language. He made the words in his language sound like
words that people already knew, but he simplified the grammar tremendously. One example of how he simplified the
language can be seen in the suffixes: all nouns in this language end in o, as in the noun amiko, which means “friend”, and all
adjectives end in -a, as in the adjective bela, which means “pretty”. Another example of the simplified language can be seen
in the prefix mal-, which makes a word opposite in meaning; the word malamiko therefore means “enemy”, and the word
malbela therefore means “ugly” in Zamenhof’s language.
In 1887, Zamenhof wrote a description of this language and published it. He used a pen name, Dr. Esperanto, when signing the
book. He selected the name Esperanto because this word means “a person who hopes” in his language. Esperanto clubs began
popping up throughout Europe, and by 1950, Esperanto had spread from Europe to America and Asia.
In 1905, the First World Congress of Esperanto took place in France, with approximately700 attendees from 20 different
countries. Congresses were held annually for nine years, and 4,000 attendees were registered for the Tenth World Esperanto
Congress scheduled for 1914, when World War I erupted and forced its cancellation.
Esperanto has had its ups and downs in the period since World War I. Today, years after it was introduced, it is estimated
that perhaps a quarter of a million people are fluent in it. This may seem like a large number, but it is really quite small when
compared with the billion English speakers and billion Mandarin Chinese speakers in today’s world. Current advocates would
like to see its use grow considerably and are taking steps to try to make this happen.
61: The topic of this passage is
A. a language developed in the last few years B. one man’s efforts to create a universal language
C. using language to communicate internationally D. how language can be improve
62: According to the passage, Zamenhof wanted to create a universal language
A. to provide a more complex language B. to create one world culture
C. to resolve cultural differences D. to build a name for himself
63: It can be inferred from the passage that the Esperanto word malespera means
A. hopelessness B. hopeless C. hope D. hopeful
64: The expression “popping up” in line 17 could best be replaced by
A. hiding B. shouting C. leaping D. opening
65: It can be inferred from the passage that the Third World Congress of Esperanto took place
A. in 1909 B. in 1907 C. in 1913 D. in 1905
66: According to the passage, what happened to the Tenth World Esperanto Congress?
A. It was scheduled for 1915 B. It had attendees from20 countries C. It never took place D. It had 4,000 attendees
67: The expression “ups and downs” in line 23 is closest in meaning to
A. takeoffs and landings B. floors and ceilings C. highs and lows D. tops and bottoms
68: Which paragraph describes the predecessor to Esperanto?
A. The first paragraph B. The second paragraph C. The third paragraph D. The fourth paragraph
69: The passage would most likely be assigned reading in a course on
A. applied linguistics B. European history C. English grammar D. world government
70: The paragraph following the passage most likely discusses
A. another of Zamenhof’s accomplishments B. attempts to reconvene the World Congress of Esperanto in the 1920s
C. the disadvantages of using an artificial language D. how current supporters of Esperanto are encouraging its growth
Choose the sentence that is correct and closest in meaning to each of the following sentences
71: There are two interesting things I found in The Last Leaf by O. Henry in addition to the general theme of death and dying.
A. The general theme of death and dying is the most interesting thing I found in The Last Leaf by O. Henry.
B. In The Last Leaf by O. Henry two interesting things about death and dying are additional themes I found.
C. The general theme of death and dying is what I found interesting in The Last Leaf by O. Henry besides the other two
things.
D. The general theme of death and dying is one interesting thing I found in The Last Leaf by O. Henry.
72: Some scientists think that a meteor impact, which occurred around 65 million years ago, may have caused the extinction
of the dinasaurs.

157
A. Some scientists reckon that the impact of a meteor that struck Earth some 65 million years ago need not have caused
the extinction of the dinosaurs.
B. In the opinion of some scientists, the extinction of the dinosaurs could have been the result of the impact of a meteor
which occurred roughly 65 million years ago.
C. According to some scientists, the extinction of the dinosaurs was caused by a meteor that struck Earth 65 million or
so years ago.
D. The extinction of the dinosaurs could only have been caused by a meteor impact that occurred some 65 million years
ago.
73: Although it is not a threat to humans, the Bespectacled Bear is killed as it does damage to agriculture.
A. The Bespectacled Bear is killed although it is neither a threat to humans nor damage to agriculture.
B. The Bespectacled Bear is killed as it does damage to agriculture and is a threat to humans.
C. People kill the Bespectacled Bear because of its damage to agriculture even though it is not a threat to humans.
D. As a threat to human and damage to agriculture, the Bespectacled Bear is killed.
74: When he asked which one I wanted, I said I didn’t mind.
A. He wanted me to choose for him and I agreed to do so.
B. He said I could choose between them, but I said it didn’t matter to me.
C. It was up to me to choose between them, but I really didn’t want to.
D. I would have done the choosing if they had asked me to.
75: Many have said that if he had not needed the money as a writer, he would have had the freedom to explore his potential.
A. It has been said that without his need for money as a writer, he would have explored the freedom of his potential.
B. Many have said that it was the need for money that made him explore his potential.
C. Many have said that he needed money as a writer more than his freedom to explore his potential.
D. It has been said that because he needed the money as a writer, he didn’t have the freedom to explore his potential.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet that best completes each sentence from 76 to 80.
76: ___________ that hunted other animals tended to have very narrow, sharp, curved claws.
A. For dinosaurs B. Like dinosaurs C. Dinosaurs are known D. Dinosaurs
77: For more than a decade, ___________ that certain species are becoming scarce.
A. a warning for bird-watchers B. warn the bird-watcher
C. the warnings of bird-watchers D. bird-watchers have warned
78: Manufacturers can help conserve mineral and timber supplies ___________.
A. recycling materials which left over from production processes
B. that recycles materials being left over from production processes
C. which recycling materials left over from production processes
D. by recycling materials left over from production processes
79: ____ at the Isthmus of Panama, so animals were able to migrate between North and South America.
A. With a land bridge B. A land bridge C. A land bridge existed D. When a land bridge existed
80: Only for a short period of time __________ run at top speed.
A. can B. cheetahs C. that a cheetah can D. do cheetahs

ENGLISH TEST 90
Read the following passage and indicate the correct word for each of the blanks.
Next on our trip around the beauties of Greece we take a look at Thrace and Samothrace. Thrace (Thraki) is (1) ___ in the
north-eastern corner of Greece. It is a special place with a very rich history and has been (2) ___ untouched by the tourist
explosion. The lakes and wetlands of Thrace are (3) ___ the most important in Europe, with perhaps more than three hundred
(4) ___ species of birds. More than 200,000 wild waterbirds spend their winters here. (5) ___ Thrace from Kavala, the visitor
finds scenic Xanthi, the capital of the district of the (6) ___ name. It is built on the site of the ancient Xantheia and is proud
of the many old houses and mansions which are prime examples of (7) ___ architecture. (8) ___ to the north-east is scenic
Komotini, the capital of the district of Rodopi. Parts of the area, which (9) ___ from pre-Christian times to the Byzantine era,
are of special (10) ___. Finds from all the archeological sites in Thrace are displayed in the Komotini Museum.

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1 A. populated B. placed C. situated D. occupied
2 A. very B. much C. little D. almost
3 A. among B. being C. through D. some
4 A. covered B. protected C. safe D. cared
5 A. Arriving B. Entrance C. Coming D. Entering
6 A. constant B. same C. like D. equal
7 A. local B. close C. nearby D. neighborhood
8 A. Additional B. Besides C. Extra D. Further
9 A. date B. age C. time D. begin
10 A. attention B. knowledge C. interest D. concentration
Read the following passage and indicate the answer to each of the questions.
Alcoholics Anonymous
Alcoholics Anonymous, or A.A., was founded by two friends who were themselves alcoholics. Bill Wilson was a stockbroker
from New York City, and Dr. Robert Smith was a surgeon from Ohio. [1] When the two met in May, 1935, Wilson had already
been sober for several months, after years of struggling with his drinking. He shared with Smith three important aspects that
he had learned about alcoholism. The first was that alcoholism is not a moral weakness, or a lack of willpower. A New York
specialist, Dr. William Duncan Silkworth had taught Wilson that it was more like a disease than a sin. Alcoholism, he said, is
comparable to allergies, in that it produces abnormal reactions to alcohol that do not afflict non-alcoholics.
These include the intense craving for alcohol that makes it so hard for an alcoholic to stop drinking, once he or she has
started. Second, alcoholics develop an obsession that leads them to begin drinking again even after long periods of
sobriety, even knowing that the powerful cravings would return. These facts explained the enormous rate of relapse
among “reformed” alcoholics. [2]
The third of Wilson’s discoveries is that recovery is possible through a spiritual transformation. He first learned of this
approach through a friend who told him the story of Rowland H. Roland H. was an alcoholic who had undergone treatment
with the famous Swiss psychologist Carl Jung. After a prolonged period of therapy that produced no results, Jung told
Rowland that his case, like that of most alcoholics, was almost hopeless. Rowland had only one chance: a spiritual conversion
experience. According to Jung, virtually every successful alcoholic recovery was due to a spiritual transformation. Heeding
Jung’s advice, Rowland became a member of the Oxford Group, a Christian movement that advocated finding God through
moral selfexamination, confession of faults, reliance upon God, and helping others. [3] Rowland’s story suggested that such
a spiritual conversion could cure an alcoholic of the obsession that kept sending him or her back to drinking. Also, Wilson
told Smith he had found that simply talking to other alcoholics about his personal
struggle with drinking seemed to be very beneficial.
The two men decided together to put these ideas into practice. Smith’s last drinking is thought to have been on June 10,
1935, and that is still considered to be the date of A.A.’s founding. In 1939 they published their book Alcoholics Anonymous,
which is still in print and remains a bestseller. [4] There are now more than 100,000 A.A. groups in 150 countries, with a total
membership of about two million people.
11 Which of the following best describes the passage?
A. An explanation the Alcoholics Anonymous program B. A history of the founding of Alcoholics Anonymous
C. Short biographies of the two men who founded Alcoholics Anonymous
D. A discussion of the origin and symptoms of alcoholism
12 Which is the best place for the following sentence? “The growth of the organization has been phenomenal.”
A. [1] B. [2] C. [3] D. [4]
13 Which of the following is true?
A. Wilson stopped drinking before Smith did. B. Smith told Wilson several important things he had learned.
C. Smith and Wilson believed that alcoholism was a moral weakness.
D. Wilson learned from Carl Jung that alcoholism was a disease.
14 According to paragraph 2, there is a high rate of relapse among alcoholics because
A. most of them do not have enough willpower to stop drinking. B. they have abnormal reactions to alcohol.
C. they have an allergy to alcohol that cannot be cured. D. most of them do not really wish to stop
drinking.
15 It can be inferred from the passage that

159
A. Rowland H. failed to quit drinking.
B. spiritual conversion is an important part of the Alcoholics Anonymous program.
C. Rowland H. convinced Smith to stop drinking. D. joining Alcoholics Anonymous is the only way to cure alcoholism.
16 The word “comparable” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by
A. similar B. identical C. relevant D. related
17 The word “advocated” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
A. developed B. encouraged C. questioned D. tried
18 Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in paragraph 2 in the
passage (“Second … “reformed” alcoholics”)?
A. After long periods without alcohol, most alcoholics experience intense cravings.
B. Even long after they’ve stopped, many alcoholics begin drinking again because of their obsession with alcohol.
C. Because they begin drinking again after years of sobriety, alcoholics may become obsessed with alcohol.
D. Powerful cravings cause an obsession with alcohol that makes it very difficult to give up drinking.
19 What does the author discuss Rowland H. in paragraph 3?
A. To explain how Wilson learned about the spiritual conversion approach
B. To give an example of one of Alcoholics Anonymous’s early successes
C. To contrast his story with that of Wilson D. To show that most cases of alcoholism are hopeless
20 Which of the following is the best summary of the passage?
Choose the sentences (1 – 7) with the most important information.
1. Wilson told Smith how a doctor had taught him that alcoholism was a disease of abnormal reactions to alcohol.
2. Rowland H.’s case seemed almost hopeless until he joined the Oxford Group, a Christian organization.
3. Wilson and Smith used these ideas to write a book and found an organization that now has a large membership.
4. The story of A.A. began with the first meeting of Bill Wilson, a reformed alcoholic, and Dr. Robert Smith, who was still drinking.
5. Smith and Wilson founded Alcoholics Anonymous in 1935 and published their book in 1939.
6. Wilson also told Smith the story of Rowland H., who had treated his alcoholism through a spiritual conversion.
7. Wilson learned from Dr. William Silkworth that alcoholism was not only a matter of willpower.
A. 1, 2, 5, 6 B. 2, 3, 4, 7 C. 1, 3, 5, 7 D. 1, 3, 4, 6
Read the following passage and indicate the answer to each of the questions.
Choosing a career
Choosing a career may be one of the hardest jobs you ever have, and it must be done with care. View a career as an
opportunity to do something you love, not simply as a way to earn a living. Investing the time and effort to thoroughly
explore your options can mean the difference between finding a stimulating and rewarding career, and moving from job
to unsatisfying job in an attempt to find the right one. Work influences virtually every aspect of your life, from your choice
of friends to where you live. Here are just a few of the factors to consider.
Deciding what matters most to you is essential to making the right decision. You may want to begin by assessing your likes,
dislikes, strengths, and weaknesses. Think about the classes, hobbies, and surroundings that you find most appealing. Ask
yourself questions, such as, “Would you like to travel? Do you want to work with children? Are you more suited to solitary
or cooperative work?” There are no right or wrong answers; only you know what is important to you.
Determine which job features you require, which ones you would prefer, and which ones you cannot accept. [1] Then rank
them in order of importance to you. [2] The setting of the job is one factor to take into account. You may not want to sit at a
desk all day. If not, there are diverse occupations – building inspector, surveyor, and real estate agent – that involve a great
deal of time away from the office. Geographic location may be a concern, and employment in some fields is concentrated in
certain regions. For example, aerospace jobs in the U.S. are most plentiful in California, Texas, and Washington. Advertising
jobs can generally be found in large cities. On the other hand, many industries such as hospitality, law, education, and retail
sales are found in all regions of the country.
[3] If a high salary is important to you, do not judge a career by its starting wages. Many jobs, such as insurance sales, offer
relatively low starting salaries; however, pay substantially increases along with your experience, additional training,
promotions, and commission. [4] Don’t rule out any occupation without learning more about it. Some industries evoke
positive or negative associations: The travelling life of a flight attendant appears glamorous, while that of a plumber does
not. Remember that many jobs are not what they appear to be at first, and may have merits that are less obvious. Flight
attendants must work long, grueling hours without sleeps, whereas plumbers can be as highly paid as some doctors another

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point to consider is that as you mature, you will likely develop new interests and skills that may point the way to new
opportunities. The choice you make today need not be your final one.
21 The word “assessing” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by
A. discovering B. considering C. measuring D. disposing
22 The author states in paragraph 2 “there are no right or wrong answers” in order to
A. emphasize that each person’s answers will be different B. show that answering the questions is a long and difficult process.
C. indicate that the answers are not really important. D. indicate that each person’s answers may change over time.
23 According to paragraph 3, which of the following fields is not suitable for a person who does not want to live in a big city?
A. Plumbing B. Law C. Retail sales D. Advertising
24 According to the passage, which of the following is true?
A. If you want to make a lot of money, you should not take a job with a low starting salary.
B. If you want to make a lot of money, you should rule out all factory jobs.
C. If you want an easy and glamorous lifestyle, you should consider becoming a flight attendant.
D. Your initial view of certain careers may not be accurate.
25 It can be inferred from the passage that
A. jobs in insurance sales are generally not well-paid. B. insurance salespeople can earn high salaries later in their
careers.
C. people should constantly work toward the next promotion.
D. a starting salary should be an important consideration in choosing a career.
26 Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in paragraph 1? (“Investing … right one”)
A. Leaving an unsatisfying job is an opportunity to find a rewarding career.
B. Most people have unsatisfying careers because they failed to examine their options thoroughly.
C. If you don’t take the time to think carefully about your choices, you may never find the right career.
D. Choosing a career takes a great deal of effort, and you may not make the right choice the first time.
27 In last paragraph, the author suggests that
A. you may want to change careers at some time in the future. B. as you get older, your career will probably be less
fulfilling.
C. you will be at your job for a lifetime, so choose carefully. D. you will probably be jobless at some time in the future.
28 Which is the best place for the following sentence? “Consider your financial goals.” A. [1] B. [2] C. [3] D. [4]
29 The word “evoke” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to
A. bring to mind B. be related to C. be different from D. agree on
30 Why does the author mention “long, grueling hours without sleeps” in paragraph 5?
A. To emphasize the difficulty of working as plumber.
B. To contrast the reality of a flight attendant’s job with most people’s perceptions.
C. To show that people must be willing to work hard for the career they’ve chosen.
D. To discourage readers from choosing a career as a flight attendant.
Indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
31 A. conversation B. introduce C. romantic D. parallelogram
32 A. safeguard B. precede C. serial D. packet
33 A. artificial B. inhabitant C. mausoleum D. integration
34 A. acquaintance B. ambassador C. stagnant D. prohibit
35 A. convenience B. mechanic C. preference D. official
Show the underlined part that needs correction.
36 Average (A) world temperatures have risen (B) on half a (C) degree Celsius (D) since the mid-nineteenth century.
37 Dimness of light (A) will not harm the eyes (B) any more than (C) taking a photograph in (D) dimly light can harm a camera.
38 The early (A) periods of aviation in the United States was marked by (B) exhibition flights made by (C) individual fliers or
by (D) teams of performers at county fairs.
39 John’s wisdom teeth (A) were troubling him, so he went to a dental surgeon (B) to see (C) about having (D) them pull.
40 It was (A) near end of (B) prehistoric times (C) that the first (D) wheeled vehicles appeared.
Indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
41 Please don’t ask her to the party.

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A. I’d rather you didn’t invite her to the party. B. I’d rather not ask her to the party.
C. Please don’t ask her about the party. D. You ask her to the party, don’t you?
42 “If you don’t pay the ransom, we’ll kill your boy,” the kidnappers told us.
A. The kidnappers pledged to kill our boy if we did not pay the ransom.
B. The kidnappers threatened to kill our boy if we refused to pay the ransom.
C. The kidnappers ordered to kill our boy if we did not pay the ransom.
D. The kidnappers promised to kill our boy if you refused to pay the ransom.
43 There will be no change to the policy before everyone has voted the proposal.
A. Without any change to the policy, everyone would not have voted the proposal.
B. After the proposal has been voted, the policy will not be changed.
C. Not until everyone has voted on the proposal will there be a change in policy.
D. There will be no policy to change and no proposal to vote.
44 Few people realized the importance of his role in the company.
A. Quite a few people realized the importance of his role in the company.
B. Not many people realized that he played an important part in the company.
C. Many people realized his important role in the company.
D. He was realized as an important role in the company by a few people.
45 I couldn’t understand what I was reading.
A. I couldn’t make sense of what I was reading. B. What I was reading was difficult for me to know.
C. I misunderstood of what I was reading. D. Understanding what I was reading was nonsense.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet that best completes each sentence.
46 His English teacher recommends that _____
A. he will begin a regular degree program. B. he is beginning a regular degree program.
C. he begins a regular degree program. D. he begin a regular degree program.
47 Having been served lunch, _____
A. the problem was discussed by the members of the committee. B. the committee members discussed the
problem.
C. it was discussed by the committee members about the problem.
D. a discussion of the problem was made by the members of the committee.
48 _____ about genetic diseases has increased is welcome news.
A. That scientific knowledge B. It was scientific knowledge C. Though scientific knowledge D. Scientific knowledge
49 _____ I admire you, I think you are silly. A. Much as B. Now that C. As long as D. In case
50 _____, dahlias are stocky plants with showy flowers that come in a wide range of colors.
A. Comprising 20 species and many cultivated forms B. When they comprise 20 species and many cultivated forms
C. If comprising 20 species many cultivated forms D. They are comprised 20 species and many cultivated forms
Indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
51 _____ the weather forecast had predicted that skies would remain clear and sunny, it rained throughout the day.
A. Instead of B. According to C. Due to D. Even though
52 John has come _____ some good suggestions for raising the money we need.
A. up with B. on to C. round to D. across with
53 _____ discounted airline tickets may seem attractive, but they have some restrictions.
A. Heavily B. Busily C. Safely D. Solely
54 Prices quoted in this package include _____ hours of Internet access for one month.
A. unwarranted B. uncontrolled C. unlimited D. unrecoverable
55 The decimal numeral system is one of the _____ ways of expressing numbers.
A. useful most world’s B. world’s most useful C. useful world’s most D. most world’s useful
56 Nebraska has floods in some years, _____.
A. in others drought B. droughts are others C. while other droughts D. others in drought
57 Salt is manufactured in quantities that exceed those of most, _____, other commercial chemicals.
A. of all not B. not if all are C. are not all D. if not all
58 The air inside a house or office building has higher concentration of contaminants ___ heavily polluted outside air.

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A. than does B. more C. as some that are D. like of
59 Their first product is a _____. A. small hand-painted china vase B. hand-painted small china vase
C. china small hand-painted vase D. small china hand-painted vase
60 - “Do you know where John Smith is?” - “________.“
A. I’m sorry not to B. I regret, but no C. Pardon, I don’t know D. I’m afraid I don’t
61 - “How much do you earn a month, Jean?” - “I’d _________.”
A. rather don’t say B. better not to say C. rather not say D. prefer not say
62 - “Would you like another coffee?” - “________.”
A. I’d love one B. Willingly C. Very kind of your part D. It’s a pleasure
63 An accident of this magnitude could easily bring the factory’s production to a _____.
A. block B. quit C. stay D. halt
64 We are going to implement new standards in the assembly to _____ the requirements set by the government.
A. meet B. build C. serve D. face
65 My mother always told me that I should _____ the things I believe in, regardless of how others perceive them.
A. put up with B. get along with C. come up to D. stand up for
66 If you don’t get your full _____ of sleep, your work will begin to suffer.
A. extent B. quota C. degree D. ratio
67 Don’t you think she bears an _____ resemblance to his first wife?
A. identical B. uneasy C. uncanny D. indifferent
68. If you set your sights too high, you may fall flat on your _____.
A. back B. nose C. face D. mouth
69 I don’t mind wearing my big brother’s _____.
A. pick-me-ups B. turn-ups C. hand-me-downs D. keep-pace-withs
70 Our school _____ about 600 new students every year.
A. admits B. allows C. accepts D. gets
71 I would have paid _____ for my car if the salesman had insisted because I really liked it.
A. as much twice B. much twice C. twice as much D. two times
72 _____ all of his business dealings, he has been driven by his desire _____ wealth.
A. During – with B. Throughout – to C. In – for D. Over – beyond
73 Hardly _____ the office when he realized that he had forgotten his wallet.
A. he had entered B. had entered C. entered D. had he entered
74 He has made a mistake, and must face the _____. A. hardship B. music C. noise D. play
75 Since the blind cannot use their eyes, they are taught to use the _____ of touch in their fingers.
A. feeling B. sensitivity C. sensation D. sense
Indicate the word or phrase that is closest in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
76 The bread has become stale and I cannot swallow it.
A. gone away B. gone down C. gone up D. gone off
77 The quest for supercomputers is intensifying.
A. investment B. challenge C. search D. demand
78 Hotels were among the earliest facilities that bound the United States together.
A. led B. protected C. tied D. strengthened
Indicate the word or phrase that is opposite in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
79 She came for Christmas laden with gifts for everyone.
A. later B. provided C. unloaded D. lifted
80 In big cities, animals should be kept under control.
A. out of hand B. out of order C. out of dispute D. out of discipline

ENGLISH TEST 91
Read the following passage and indicate the correct word for each of the blanks.

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Getting to the root of Bonsai crime
Bonsai trees have always been a source of great fascination to people. They are perfect miniatures, grown in pots small
enough to sit on a windowsill. You have to keep reminding yourself that these trees are (1) _____ real and identical to their larger
cousins in all respects except their size. Rather like other small and perfectly-formed artifacts, bonsai trees (2) _____ quite a high
price in the marketplace and so it doesn’t come as a great surprise to find that they also attractthe attention of thieves. It seems
that quite a flourishing business has (3) _____, in which they are stolen from the homes of growers and collectors, then repotted
and trimmed by unscrupulous dealers, to be sold on, at good prices, to unsuspectingbuyers.One of Britain’s top collectors of bonsai
trees, Paul Widdington, believes that he has found a solution, however. After losing his life’s work, (4) _____ at £250,000, when
burglars broke into his home one night, Paul decided to (5) _____ the possibilities of electronically tagging the trees he bought as
a replacement. This (6) _____ injecting a microchip the size of a (7) _____ of rice into the trunk of each tree. Each chip is a laser-
etched with information which is (8) _____ in a central register held by the police. Paul is quite aware that this kind of data-tagging
doesn’t prevent thieves from stealing the trees in the first (9) _____, although it may increase the (10) _____ of getting them back.
So he’s also installinga security alarm system, complete with infra-red detectors, in his home.
1 A. deeply B. eventually C. actually D. greatly
2 A. obtain B. expect C. command D. charge
3 A. erupted B. evolved C. adapted D. arrived
4 A. prized B. treasured C. valued D. costed
5 A. look into B. set about C. try out D. go after
6 A. requires B. includes C. involves D. reflects
7 A. crumb B. speck C. bean D. grain
8 A. stored B. detained C. locked D. piled
9 A. turn B. time C. point D. place
10 A. counts B. chances C. choices D. claims
Read the following passage and indicate the answer to each of the questions.
TELEVISION
An American TV network has had an international hit with the drama “24”, a thriller known for its suspense and often graphic
violence. Over the past year, controversy has surrounded the series because of its portrayal of Muslim terrorists and its frequent
scenes of torture. But the content of “24” is not the only thing that would have been unthinkable of prime-time television 20 years
ago. Its form also represents a major change in modern TV: during each episode’s 44 minutes – a real-time hour, minus 16 minutes
for commercials – the show connects the lives of 21 different characters, each with their own personalities and specific
relationships with other characters. Nine different story lines (or “threads”) are depicted, each involving events and information
revealed in previous episodes. [1)
[2] For years many people have assumed that popular culture is in a state of decline, rapidly degenerating into “junk culture” with
no worthwhile purpose. But an interesting new book challenges that assumption. “Everything Bad is Good for You: How Today’s
Popular Culture Is Actually Making Us Smarter,” by Steven Johnson, makes a persuasive argument that today’s complex TV dramas
and other pop culture products give us healthy mental exercise. He calls the use of complex, interwoven plot lines involving multiple
characters “multi-threading”, and it is a new and growing phenomenon in TV. To keep up with shows like “24”, he points out, you
must “pat attention, make inferences, track shifting social relationships”, and these cognitive challenges are changing our mental
development for the better. [3]
[4] The most obvious change in the last five years of narrative entertainment is the rise of TV. Surely, you might be thinking,
watching “Survivor” or “The Bachelor” cannot possibly raise anyone’s IQ. “Survivor” is now in its tenth season, and “The Bachelor”
is in its seventh. But as Johnson tells us, lately “even the junk has improved.” The new reality shows are like games: they are series
of competitive tests, each more challenging than the last, and with rules that be learned as you play On “Survivor”, for instance,
the participants and the audience know the general objective of the game, but each episode brings new challenges that require
quick thinking. Success in these games calls for the intellectual labor of finding the weak spots in the rules and in your opponents.
This labor is done not just by the stars of the shows, but the viewers at home as well. This is what makes these shows such fun to
watch – the human mind enjoys being challenged. As Johnson writes, “There’s real pleasure …..in solving puzzles, detecting patters
or understanding a complex drama system.”
11 What is the main topic of the passage?
A. The decline of TV today B. Benefits of TV today C. TV and culture D. Why “24” became I hot
12 Which is the best place for the following sentence?
A. [1] B. [2] C. [3] D. [4]
13 The author begins the passage by discussing “24” in order to
A. prove that TV has become more violent C. explain why many TV shows nowadays are controversial

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B. show how TV has become more complex D. argue against its graphic violence and portrayal of terrorist
14 It can be inferred that the author of the passage
A. agrees with Steven Johnson’s views C. has no opinion about Steven Johnson’s views
B. strongly disagrees Steven Johnson’s views D. agrees with some of Johnson’s view but disagrees with others
15 According to the passage, Johnson’s book argues all following except that
A. popular culture is not in decline C. people enjoy the effort of understanding complex shows
B. many TV shows involve cognitive challenges D. hour-long drama bring the greatest benefits
16 “Multi-threading” in TV is a new type of
A. form B. content C. series D. character
17 The author mentions “junk culture” in paragraph 2 in order to
A. emphasize how worthless most TV shows are B. contrasts a common view of TV with the one he presents in the passage
C. explain why TV viewing is in decline in the United States
D. argue against the view that popular culture can be worthwhile
18 The word “detecting” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
A. making B. admiring C. remembering D. finding
19 The word “objective” in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by
A. prize B. rule C. goal D. origin
20 Which ones of the following would be the best summary of the passage?
1. Even reality shows provide good examples of how watching TV can be both intellectually challenging and enjoyable.
2. The drama “24” demonstrates new trends in television in its content and, more importantly, in its complicated form.
3. Steven Johnson’s new book addresses the popular view that TV and other pop culture products have little intellectual value.
4. Shows such as “Survivor” have become popular mainly because people enjoy looking for patterns and solving puzzles.
5. Steven Johnson’s new book argues that despite most people’s low opinion of TV, the complexity of its characters and plots
actually presents beneficial mental challenges.
A. 1 , 3, 4 B. 1, 3, 5 C. 1, 2, 5 D. 2, 4, 5
Read the following passage and indicate the answer to each of the questions.
The first two decades of this century were dominated by the microbe hunters. These hunters had tracked down one after
another of the microbes responsible for the most dreaded scourges of many centuries: tuberculosis, cholera, diphtheria. But there
remained some terrible diseases for which no microbe could be incriminated: scurvy, pellagra, rickets, beriberi. Then it was
discovered that these diseases were caused by the lack of vitamins, a trace substance in the diet. The diseases could be prevented
or cured by consuming foods that contained the vitamins. And so in the decades of the 1920’s and 1930’s, nutrition became a
science and the vitamin hunters replaced the microbe hunters.
In the 1940’s and 1950’s, biochemists strived to learn why each of the vitamins was essential for health. They discovered that
key enzymes in metabolism depend on one or another of the vitamins as coenzymes to perform the chemistry that provides cells
with energy for growth and function. Now, these enzyme hunters occupied center stage.
You are aware that the enzyme hunters have been replaced by a new breed of hunters who are tracking genes – the blueprints
for each of the enzymes – and are discovering the defective genes that cause inherited diseases – diabetes, cystic fibrosis. These
gene hunters, or genetic engineers, use recombinant DNA technology to identify and clone genes and introduce them into bacterial
cells and plants to create factories for the massive production of hormones and vaccines for medicine and for better crops for
agriculture. Biotechnology has become a multibillion-dollar industry.
In view of the inexorable progress in science, we can expect that the gene hunters will be replaced in the spotlight. When and by
whom? Which kind of hunter will dominate the scene in the last decade of our waning century and in the early decades of the next?
I wonder whether the hunters who will occupy the spotlight will be neurobiologists who apply the techniques of the enzyme and
gene hunters to the functions of the brain. What to call them? The head hunters. I will return to them later.
 microbe: an extremely small living thing which you can only see if you use a microscope
21 What is the main topic of the passage?
A. The microbe hunters C. The progress of modern medical research
B. The potential of genetic engineering D. The discovery of enzymes
22 The word “incriminated” in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. investigated B. blamed C. eliminated D. produced
23 Which of the following can be cured by a change in diet?
A. Tuberculosis B. Cholera C. Cystic fibrosis D. Pellagra
24 The word “strived” in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. failed B. tried C. experimented D. studied

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25 How do vitamins influence health?
A. They are necessary for some enzymes to function C. They keep food from spoiling
B. They protect the body from microbes D. They are broken down by cells to produce energy
26 In the third paragraph, the author compares cells that have been genetically altered by bio-technicians to
A. gardens B. factories C. hunters D. spotlights
27 The phrase “occupy the spotlight” in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. receive the most attention B. go the furthest C. conquer territory D. lighten the load
28 The author implies that the most important medical research topic of the future will be
A. the functions of the brain B. inherited diseases C. the operation of vitamins D. the structure of genes
29 Which of the following best describes the author’s tone in the last paragraph of the passage?
A. Critical B. Speculative C. Appreciative D. Emotional
30 With which of the following statements would the author be most likely to agree?
A. The focus of medical research will change in the next two decades
B. Medical breakthroughs often depend on luck
C. Medical research throughout the twentieth century has been dominated by microbe hunters
D. Most diseases are caused by defective genes
Indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the same line.
31 A. architecture B. chortle C. choreography D. cholera
32 A. drought B. daughter C. laughter D. caught
33 A. crabbed B. crooked C. naked D. veiled
34 A. book B. foot C. brook D. booth
35 A. applicant B. abbey C. abandon D. happy
Show the underlined part that needs correction.
36 The Canadian province of British Columbia is rich (A) of minerals and, because over 50 percent of (B) the land is (C) covered with
forests, lumbering is its major industry.
37 (A) The astronomy is the oldest (B) science, but it continues (C) to beat the forefront of scientific thought.
38 Henry David Thoreau was (A) an American writer who (B) is remembered (C) for his faith in the religious (D) significance of the
nature.
39 (A) As many as 50 percent of the income from motion pictures (B) produced in the USA (C) comes from marketingfilms (D)
abroad.
40 The walls (A) around the city of Quebec, which was originally a (B) fort military, still (C) stand, making Quebec (D) the only walled
city in North America.
Choose the best sentence built from the given words or phrases.
41 No point/ join/ club/ full/ eccentrics.//
A. There is no point in joining that club because it seems to be full with eccentrics.
B. There is no point of joining that club because it seems to be full of eccentrics.
C. There is no point in joining that club because it seems to be full of eccentrics.
D. It is no point in joining that club because it seems to be full of eccentrics.
42 He/ catch/ red-handed/ he/ have/ no choice/ confess.//
A. He caught red-handed so he had no choice but to confess. B. He was caught red-handed so that he had no choice but to
confess.
C. He was caught red-handed so he had no choice of confessing.
D. He was caught red-handed so he had no choice but to confess.
43 New machinery/ put in/ this year/ with a view/ increase input.//
A. New machinery has been put in this year with a view of increase input.
B. New machinery has been put in this year with a view to increasing input.
C. New machinery has been put in this year with a view to increase input.
D. New machinery has been put in this year with a view of increasing input.
44 Secretary/ be/ responsible/ manager/ serious mistakes.//
A. The new secretary is responsible for the manager to the serious mistakes.
B. The new secretary is responsible for the manager for the serious mistakes.
C. The new secretary is responsible to the manager for the serious mistakes.
D. The new secretary is responsible to the manager to the serious mistakes.
45 It/ be/ cold/ this summer/ surprise/ everyone.

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A. That it is so cold this summer surprise everyone. B. That it is such cold this summer surprise everyone.
C. That it is such cold this summer surprises everyone. D. That it is so cold this summer surprises everyone.
Mark the letter A, B,C, or D on your answer sheet that best completes each sentence.
46 In its pure state antimony has no important uses, but _____ with other substances, it is extremely useful metal.
A. when combined physically or chemically C. the physical and chemical combination
B. combined when physically or chemically D. it is combined physically and chemically
47 Civil Rights are the freedoms and rights _____ as a member of a community, state, or nation.
A. may have a person B. may have a person who C. a person may have D. and a person may have
48 Franklin D. Roosevelt was _____ the great force of radio and the opportunity it provided for taking government policies directly
to the people.
A. as the first President he understood fully C. the first President fully understood
B. the first President that, to fully understand D. the first President to fully understand
49 Would you mind _____?
A. if I borrowed your surfboard C. lending to me your surfboard
B. to lend me your surfboard D. that I borrow your surfboard
50 Good pencils erasers are soft enough not to damage paper _____ they crumble gradually when used.
A. but hard enough so that B. and enough hard that C. and they are so hard that D. so hard are they
Indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
51 It’s ______ that blows nobody any good.
A. a bad breeze B. bad breath C. an unhappy instrument D. an ill wind
52 At last, I ______ on him to help us out of our dilemma.
A. persuaded B. prevailed C. labored D. convinced
53 She came back with an answer as quick as a(n) ______.
A. twinkling B. lighting C. flash D. express
54 He was prepared to announce the news to all and ______.
A. remainders B. odds C. sundry D. select
55 The Governor has been ______ for gross misconduct.
A. impressed B. impounded C. impeached D. impelled
56 I can’t go with you today; I have ______ things to do.
A. a great deal B. many a great C. a great many D. great many
57 Contributions to the charity are beginning to ______ up.
A. end B. finish C. peter D. dry
58 It was her ______ powers at the keyboard rather than her age which eventually forced her retirement.
A. meteoric B. waning C. slippery D. negative
59 _____ the decision would have a major impact on his political career.
A. Did he realize little B. A little he realized C. Little did he realize D. Realizing little
60 They shouted loudly _____ I could hear the instructions clearly.
A. for fear that B. in order that C. unless D. in case
61 He found that the test was child’s _____.
A. play B. games C. matches D. delight
62 Your son has the ______ of a fine musician.
A. beginnings B. makings C. looks D. talents
63 You really can’t trust George. One day he’s your best friend, and the next day he can _____ you in the back.
A. hit B. stab C. cut D. punch
64 He never stops criticizing me. He’s a real _____ in the neck.
A. ache B. pain C. hurt D. itch
65 William is an authority _____ medieval tapestries.
A. on B. with C. about D. in
66 - “Why don’t we go out for a walk?” - “______.”
A. Why not B. Yes, please C. OK, let’s D. Never mind
67 If a diamond is heated without oxygen, it will turn to graphite, a form of _____ that it is used as a lubricant.
A. carbon is so soft B. is carbon so soft C. carbon so soft D. so soft the carbon
68 The first people to live in _____ Hawaii were the Polynesians, who sailed there in large canoes from other Pacific Islands about
2,000 years ago.

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A. now where is B. what is now C. it is now D. now this is
69 If I were you, I’d _____ everything he says with a pinch of salt.
A. make B. admit C. take D. accept
70 - “Would you like to join our volunteer group this summer?” - “______.”
A. Do you think I would? B. I wouldn’t. Thank you. C. Yes, you’re a good friend. D. Yes, I’d love to. Thanks.
71 - “When are you planning to resign?” - “By Christmas ______.”
A. no later B. until lately C. at the latest D. if not later
72 - “The landlord is raising my rent again.” - “______ reason for you to find a new apartment.”
A. Much more B. So much more C. All the more D. More than such a
73 Please _____ your luggage and leave now. I can’t stand your presence any more.
A. throw off B. pack up C. fit in D. pile up
74 I couldn’t speak Italian, so I couldn’t _____ my ideas across to the passer-by.
A. turn B. bring C. get D. look
75 William was 19 years old when he was _____ for war.
A. brought up B. called up C. made up D. put up
Indicate the word or phrase that is closest in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
76 The politician’s conviction for tax fraud jeopardized his future in public life.
A. jettisoned B. penalized C. rejuvenated D. endangered
77 Savage hordes swept across Europe and ruthlessly killed all in their path.
A. without stopping B. without weapons C. without warning D. without pity
78 His physical condition was no impediment to his career as a violinist.
A. help B. impatience C. hindrance D. impossibility
Indicate the word or phrase that is opposite in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
79 His career in the illicit drug trade ended with the police raid this morning.
A. irregular B. legal C. elicited Secret
80 The soldiers were told to commence firing in the mock battle.
A. stop B. begin C. evoke D. continue

ENGLISH TEST 92
Indicate the sentence that is correct and closest in meaning to each of the following sentences
1: Although it is not a threat to humans, the Bespectacled Bear is killed as it does damage to agriculture.
A. People kill the Bespectacled Bear because of its damage to agriculture even though it is not a threat to humans.
B. As a threat to human and damage to agriculture, the Bespectacled Bear is killed.
C. The Bespectacled Bear is killed although it is neither a threat to humans nor damage to agriculture.
D. The Bespectacled Bear is killed as it does damage to agriculture and is a threat to humans.
2: Some scientists think that a meteor impact, which occurred around 65 million years ago, may have caused the extinction
of the dinasaurs.
A. The extinction of the dinosaurs could only have been caused by a meteor impact that occurred some 65 million years
ago.
B. According to some scientists, the extinction of the dinosaurs was caused by a meteor that struck Earth 65 million or so years
ago.
C. Some scientists reckon that the impact of a meteor that struck Earth some 65 million years ago need not have caused
the extinction of the dinosaurs.
D. In the opinion of some scientists, the extinction of the dinosaurs could have been the result of the impact of a meteor
which occurred roughly 65 million years ago.
3: There are two interesting things I found in The Last Leaf by O. Henry in addition to the general theme of death and dying.
A. In The Last Leaf by O. Henry two interesting things about death and dying are additional themes I found.
B. The general theme of death and dying is the most interesting thing I found in The Last Leaf by O. Henry.
C. The general theme of death and dying is one interesting thing I found in The Last Leaf by O. Henry.
D. The general theme of death and dying is what I found interesting in The Last Leaf by O. Henry besides the other two
things.

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4: Many have said that if he had not needed the money as a writer, he would have had the freedom to explore his
potential.
A. Many have said that it was the need for money that made him explore his potential.
B. It has been said that without his need for money as a writer, he would have explored the freedom of his potential.
C. It has been said that because he needed the money as a writer, he didn’t have the freedom to explore his potential.
D. Many have said that he needed money as a writer more than his freedom to explore his potential.
5: When he asked which one I wanted, I said I didn’t mind.
A. He said I could choose between them, but I said it didn’t matter to me.
B. It was up to me to choose between them, but I really didn’t want to.
C. I would have done the choosing if they had asked me to.
D. He wanted me to choose for him and I agreed to do so.
Indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions
6: A. elaborately B. flamingo C. embryo D. gazelle
7: A. entrepreneur B. extracurricular C. autobiography D. disciplinary
8: A. e-book B. quick-witted C. in-depth D. white-collar
Read the following passage and choose the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks
What is meant by the term economic resources? In general, these are all the natural, man-made, and human resources that
go into the (9) _________of goods and services. Economic resources can be broken down into (10) _________ general
categories: property resource – land and capital, and human resources – labor and entrepreneurial skills.
What do economists mean (11) __________land? Much more than the non-economist, land refers to all the natural resources
(12) ____ are usable in the production process: arable land, forests, mineral and oil deposits, and (13)______ on. What about
capital? Capital goods are all the man-made aids to producing, storing, transporting, and distributing goods and (14) ______.
Capital goods differ from consumer goods in that (15) __________ satisfy wants directly, while the former do so indirectly
by facilitating the production of consumer goods. It should be noted that capital as defined here does not (16) ___________
to money. Money, as such, produces nothing. The term labor refers to the physical and mental talents of humans used to
produce goods and services (with the exception of a certain set of human talents, entrepreneurial skills, which will be
considered separately because of their special significance). Thus the services of a factory worker or an office worker, a ballet
(17) ___________ or an astronaut all fall (18) __________ the general heading of labor.
9: A. production B. plant C. using D. doing
10: A. many B. six C. two D. some
11: A. by B. using C. calling D. with
12: A. these B. they C. what D. that
13: A. so B. come C. such D. go
14: A. money B. machines C. crops D. services
15: A. later B. lately C. the latter D. the latest
16: A. come B. go C. speak D. refer
17: A. performance B. director C. writer D. dancer
18: A. into B. from C. under D. to
Indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions
19: A. punished B. cooked C. markedly D. laughed
20: A. recollect B. preface C. restore D. predator
Choose the best completes each sentence
21: Only for a short period of time __________ run at top speed.
A. that a cheetah can B. can C. cheetahs D. do cheetahs
22: Manufacturers can help conserve mineral and timber supplies ___________.
A. that recycles materials being left over from production processes
B. which recycling materials left over from production processes
C. by recycling materials left over from production processes
D. recycling materials which left over from production processes
23: ___________ that hunted other animals tended to have very narrow, sharp, curved claws.
A. For dinosaurs B. Dinosaurs C. Like dinosaurs D. Dinosaurs are known

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24: ___________ at the Isthmus of Panama, so animals were able to migrate between North and South America.
A. With a land bridge B. When a land bridge existed C. A land bridge D. A land bridge existed
25: For more than a decade, ___________ that certain species are becoming scarce.
A. the warnings of bird-watchers B. warn the bird-watcher C. a warning for bird-watchers D. bird-watchers have
warned
Indicate the word or phrase closest in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
26: Biogas can be utilized for electricity production, cooking, space heating, water heating and process heating.
A. generation B. increase C. reformation D. sparing
27: We spent the entire day looking for a new apartment.
A. the long day B. all day long C. all long day D. day after day
28: I used to meet him occasionally on Fifth Avenue.
A. one time B. in one occasion C. once in a while D. none is correct
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
29: A cooperative program between China and Germany on building Yangzhow, a famous ancient city, into a(n) ________
city has proceeded smoothly since it started in September last year.
A. friendly ecology B. ecology-friendly C. friendly-ecological D. ecologicalfriendly
30: She brought three children up __________.
A. single-minded B. single-handedly C. single-mindedly D. single-handed
31: He left the country __________ arrest if he returned.
A. with fear of B. with threat of C. under threat of D. in fear of
32: “What do you do for a living?” – “___________.”
A. I get a high salary, you know. B. I want to be a doctor, I guess C. I work in a bank D. It’s hard work, you know.
33: “Jane is really conscientious, isn’t she?” “Absolutely. ___________, she is very efficient”
A. All the same B. So C. Still D. What is more
34: I know you didn’t see me yesterday because I was in Hanoi. You __________ me.
A. may not have seen B. mustn’t have seen C. shouldn’t have seen D. can’t have seen
35: With competition from __________ the British coal industry is facing a serious ___________.
A. imports/ crisis B. import/ crisis C. import/ crises D. imports/ crises
36: Joe, remember that I’m _______ you to see that there’s no trouble at the party on Sunday.
A. believing in B. relying on C. depending on D. waiting for
37: “Excuse me. I’m your new neighbor. I just moved in.” “__________.”
A. Oh, I don’t think so B. Where to, sir? C. Sorry, I don’t know D. I’m afraid not
38: The city has __________ of young consumers who are sensitive to trends, and can, therefore, help industries predict
the potential risks and success of products.
A. a high rate B. a high tendency C. a high proportion D. a great level
39: Simple sails were made from canvas __________ over a frame.
A. was stretched B. stretched C. a stretch D. it was stretched
40: Governments shoud __________ international laws against terrorism.
A. bring about B. bring up C. bring back D. bring in
41: She had just enough time to __________ the report before the meeting.
A. turn round B. dip into C. go into D. get through
42: Students can __________ a lot of information just by attending class and taking good notes of the lectures.
A. read B. transmit C. provide D. absorb
43: In 1975, the successful space probe to __________ beginning to send information back to earth.
A. Venus the B. Venus it was C. Venus was D. Venus
44: He was a natural singer with a voice that was as clear as_________.
A. a water fall B. a lake C. a mirror D. a bell
45: He may be shy now, but he will soon come out of his __________ when he meets the right girl.
A. shed B. shell C. shoe D. hole
46: The documentary was so __________ that many viewers cried.
A. moved B. touching C. moody D. touchy

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47: Some __________ back workers were working hard in the sunshine.
A. empty B. vacant C. naked D. bare
48: Space travel seemed __________ but it has come true now.
A. unable B. disagreeable C. disbelievable D. unthinkable
49: We’d better phone __________ the restaurant to reserve a table.
A. ø B. for C. to D. at
50: “Have you __________ this contract yet?” - “Not yet. I’ll try to read it this weekend.
A. looked out B. looked over C. looked up D. looked into
51: ___________ giraffe is the tallest of all __________animals.
A. ø/ the B. A/ the C. The/ ø D. A/ ø
52: -“I’m going out now.” - “__________ you happen to pass a chemist’s, would you get me some aspirins?”
A. Were B. Should C. Had D. Did
53: By the year 2050, many people currently employed __________ their jobs.
A. are losing B. will have lost C. will be losing D. have lost
Indicate the word(s) opposite in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
54: During the five-decade history the Asian Games have been advancing in all aspects.
A. holding at B. holding to C. holding by D. holding back
55: She decided to remain celibate and devote her life to helping the homeless and orphans.
A. married B. divorced C. separated D. single
Read the following passage and indicate the answer to each of the questions
Quite different from storm surges are the giant sea waves called tsunamis, which derive their name from the Japanese
expression for “high water in a harbor.” These waves are also referred to by the general public as tidal waves, although they
have relatively little to do with tides. Scientists often referred to them as seismic sea waves, far more appropriate in that
they do result from undersea seismic activity.
Tsunamis are caused when the sea bottom suddenly moves, during an underwater earthquake or volcano for example, and
the water above the moving earth is suddenly displaced. This sudden shift of water sets off a series of waves. These waves
can travel great distances at speeds close to 700 kilometers per hour. In the open ocean, tsunamis have little noticeable
amplitude, often no more than one or two meters. It is when they hit the shallow waters near the coast that they increase
in height, possibly up to 40 meters.
Tsunamis often occur in the Pacific because the Pacific is an area of heavy seismic activity. Two areas of the Pacific well
accustomed to the threat of tsunamis are Japan and Hawaii. Because the seismic activity that causes tsunamis in Japan often
occurs on the ocean bottom quite close to the islands, the tsunamis that hit Japan often come with little warning and can,
therefore, prove disastrous. Most of the tsunamis that hit the Hawaiian Islands, however, originate thousands of miles away
near the coast of Alaska, so these tsunamis have a much greater distance to travel and the inhabitants of Hawaii generally
have time for warning of their imminent arrival.
Tsunamis are certainly not limited to Japan and Hawaii. In 1755, Europe experienced a calamitous tsunami, when movement
along the fault lines near the Azores caused a massive tsunami to sweep onto the Portuguese coast and flood the heavily
populated area around Lisbon. The greatest tsunami on record occurred on the other side of the world in 1883 when the
Krakatoa volcano underwent a massive explosion, sending waves more than 30 meters high onto nearby Indonesian islands;
the tsunami from this volcano actually traveled around the world and was witnessed as far away as the English Channel.
56: The paragraph preceding this passage most probably discusses
A. underwater earthquakes B. storm surges C. tides D. tidal waves
57: According to the passage, all of the following are true about tidal waves EXCEPT that
A. they are caused by sudden changes in high and low tides
B. this terminology is not used by the scientific community
D. they refer to the same phenomenon as seismic sea waves
58: The word “displaced” in line 7 is closest in meaning to
A. moved B. filtered C. located D. not pleased
59: It can be inferred from the passage that tsunamis
A. cause severe damage in the middle of the ocean B. generally reach heights greater than 40 meters
C. are far more dangerous on the coast than in the open ocean D. are often identified by ships on the ocean

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60: In line 10, water that is “shallow” is NOT
A. deep B. clear C. coastal D. tidal
61: A main difference between tsunamis in Japan and in Hawaii is that tsunamis in Japan are more likely to
A. come from greater distances B. originate in Alaska C. arrive without warning D. be less of a problem
62: The possessive “their” in line 18 refers to
A. the Hawaiian Islands B. thousands of miles C. these tsunamis D. the inhabitants of Hawaii
63: A “calamitous” tsunami, in line 20, is one that is
A. at fault B. disastrous C. extremely calm D. expected
64: From the expression “on record” in line 22, it can be inferred that the tsunami that
accompanied the Krakatoa volcano
A. was not as strong as the tsunami in Lisbon B. might not be the greatest tsunami ever
C. was filmed as it was happening D. occurred before efficient records were kept
65: The passage suggests that the tsunami resulting from the Krakatoa volcano
A. was far more destructive close to the source than far away B. resulted in little damage
C. was unobserved outside of the Indonesian islands D. caused volcanic explosions in the English Channel
Read the following passage and indicate the answer to each of the questions
Esperanto is what is called a planned, or artificial, language. It was created more than a century ago by Polish eye doctor
Ludwik Lazar Zamenhof. Zamenhof believed that a common language would help to alleviate some of the misunderstandings
among cultures.
In Zamenhof’s first attempt at a universal language, he tried to create a language that was as uncomplicated as possible. This
first language included words such as ab, ac, ba, eb, be, and ce. This did not result in a workable language in that these
monosyllabic words, though short, were not easy to understand or to retain.
Next, Zamenhof tried a different way of constructing a simplified language. He made the words in his language sound like
words that people already knew, but he simplified the grammar tremendously. One example of how he simplified the
language can be seen in the suffixes: all nouns in this language end in o, as in the noun amiko, which means “friend”, and all
adjectives end in -a, as in the adjective bela, which means “pretty”. Another example of the simplified language can be seen
in the prefix mal-, which makes a word opposite in meaning; the word malamiko therefore means “enemy”, and the word
malbela therefore means “ugly” in Zamenhof’s language.
In 1887, Zamenhof wrote a description of this language and published it. He used a pen name, Dr. Esperanto, when signing
the book. He selected the name Esperanto because this word means “a person who hopes” in his language. Esperanto clubs
began popping up throughout Europe, and by 1950, Esperanto had spread from Europe to America and Asia.
In 1905, the First World Congress of Esperanto took place in France, with approximately700 attendees from 20 different
countries. Congresses were held annually for nine years, and 4,000 attendees were registered for the Tenth World Esperanto
Congress scheduled for 1914, when World War I erupted and forced its cancellation.
Esperanto has had its ups and downs in the period since World War I. Today, years after it was introduced, it is estimated
that perhaps a quarter of a million people are fluent in it. This may seem like a large number, but it is really quite small when
compared with the billion English speakers and billion Mandarin Chinese speakers in today’s world. Current advocates would
like to see its use grow considerably and are taking steps to try to make this happen.
66: The topic of this passage is
A. one man’s efforts to create a universal language B. how language can be improve
C. using language to communicate internationally D. a language developed in the last few years
67: According to the passage, Zamenhof wanted to create a universal language
A. to build a name for himself B. to provide a more complex language
C. to resolve cultural differences D. to create one world culture
68: It can be inferred from the passage that the Esperanto word malespera means
A. hopeless B. hope C. hopelessness D. hopeful
69: The expression “popping up” in line 17 could best be replaced by
A. shouting B. opening C. hiding D. leaping
70: It can be inferred from the passage that the Third World Congress of Esperanto took place
A. in 1905 B. in 1909 C. in 1907 D. in 1913
71: According to the passage, what happened to the Tenth World Esperanto Congress?

172
A. It had attendees from20 countries B. It never took place C. It had 4,000 attendees D. It was scheduled for 1915
72: The expression “ups and downs” in line 23 is closest in meaning to
A. tops and bottoms B. floors and ceilings C. takeoffs and landings D. highs and lows
73: Which paragraph describes the predecessor to Esperanto?
A. The first paragraph B. The second paragraph C. The third paragraph D. The fourth paragraph
74: The passage would most likely be assigned reading in a course on
A. European history B. English grammar C. world government D. applied linguistics
75: The paragraph following the passage most likely discusses
A. how current supporters of Esperanto are encouraging its growth B. another of Zamenhof’s accomplishments
C. the disadvantages of using an artificial language D. attempts to reconvene the World Congress of Esperanto in the
1920s
Show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions
76: Because of its ability to survive close to human habitations, the Virginia deer has actually increased their range and
numbers.
A. its B. their C. has D. close to
77: A 1971 U.S government policy not only put warnings on cigarette packs but also ban television advertising of cigarettes.
A. warnings B. advertising C. government D. ban
78: In the 1920s, Tulsa had a higher number of millionaire than any other U.S. city.
A. higher B. millionaire C. city D. other
79: Snapping turtles are easily recognized because of the large head, the long tail and the shell that seems unsufficiently to
protect the body.
A. unsufficiently B. easily C. because of D. to protect
80: Some of the agricultural practices used today is responsible for fostering desertification.
A. used B. fostering C. practices D. is
----------- THE END ----------

ENGLISH TEST 93
Indicate the sentence that is correct and closest in meaning to each of the following sentences
1: Choosing a suitable job is really important to adolescents.
A. It is really important to choose a suitable job for adolescents. B. It is of great importance for adolescents to choose a suitable
job.
C. Choosing a suitable job for adolescents is a really important affair. D. The choice of a suitable job for adolescents is really
important.
2: That will put the cat among the pigeons.
A. That will cause a lot of trouble. B. The cat will have to stay outside the house today.
C. Then we shall have as many cats as we have pigeons. D. The cat will play with the pigeons.
3: Transportation has been made much easier thanks to the invention of cars, but cars are the greatest contributor of air pollution.
A. It is cars that are the greatest contributor of air pollution although the invention of cars has made transportation much easier.
B. The invention of cars has made transportation much easier, but cars are among the greatest contributors of air pollution.
C. Although the invention of cars has made transportation much easier, people use cars to contribute to the pollution of air.
D. However easier the invention of cars has made transportation, it is cars that are among the greatest contributors of air pollution.
4: The purpose of any invention is to make our lives better, so good or bad, it depends on the way by which we use these inventions.
A. We can use either good or bad inventions to make our lives better.
B. Whether an invention is good or bad depends on the way by which we use it because the purpose of any invention is to make
our lives better.
C. The purpose of any invention, whether good or bad, is to make our lives better. This depends on the way by which we use these
inventions.
D. Good or bad as they are, all inventions have the same purpose: to make our lives better.
5: It is acknowledged that Vietnam had a complete control over SARS from a very early stage of the epidemic.
A. Vietnam is acknowledged to have completely controlled SARS from a very early stage of the epidemic.
B. Vietnam is acknowledged to have controlled SARS from a very early stage of the epidemic.
C. Vietnam was acknowledged to have had a complete control over SARS from a very early stage of the epidemic.

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D. Vietnam is acknowledged to have a complete control over SARS from a very early stage of the epidemic.
Read the following passage and choose the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks
ENGLISH SPELLING
Why does English spelling have a reputation for being difficult? English was first written down when Christian monks came to
England in Anglo-Saxon (6) _________. They used the 23 letters of Latin to write down the sounds of Anglo-Saxon (7) _________
as they heard it. However, English has a (8) __________ range of basic sounds (over 40) than Latin. The alphabet was too small,
and so combinations of letters were needed to (9) ________ the different sounds. Inevitably, there were inconsistencies in the way
that letters were combined. With the Norman invasion of England, the English language was put at risk. English survived, but the
spelling of many English words changed to follow French (10) __________, and many French words were introduced into the
language. The result was more irregularity. When the printing press was (11) __________ in the fifteenth century, many early
printers of English texts spoke other first languages. They made little effort to respect English spelling. Although one of the short-
term (12) __________ of printing was to produce a number of variant spellings, in the long term it created fixed spellings. People
became used to seeing words spelt in the same way. Rules were (13) __________, and dictionaries were put together which
printers and writers could refer to. However, spoken English was not fixed and continued to change slowly- just as it still does now.
Letters that were sounded in the Anglo-Saxon period, like the ‘k’ in ‘knife’, now became (14) ______. Also, the pronunciation of
vowels then had little in common with how they sound now, but the way they are spelt hasn’t changed. No (15) ______, then, that
it is often difficult to see the link between sound and spelling.

174
6: A. centuries B. times C. ages D. years
7: A. chat B. communication C. speech D. discussion
8: A. longer B. deeper C. thicker D. wider
9: A. tell B. express C. explain D. perform
10: A. types B. guides C. plans D. patterns
11: A. discovered B. made up C. taken in D. invented
12: A. conclusions B. actions C. meanings D. effects
13: A. filled in B. drawn up C. handed out D. got across
14: A. silent B. dumb C. quiet D. speechless
15: A. problem B. mention C. wonder D. idea

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16: appearance/ steamboats and railroads/ reduce/ transportation cost/ and have effects/ conditions/ workers.
A. Appearance of the steamboats and the railroads have reduced transportation cost and had effects in conditions of workers.
B. The appearance of the steamboats and railroads have reduced transportation cost and had effects on conditions of workers.
C. The appearance of steamboats and railroads had reduced transportation cost and had effects on conditions of workers.
D. The appearance of steamboats and railroads reduced transportation cost and had effects on the conditions of workers.
17: He/ like/ nothing/ better/ sit/ read/ science books/ father’s/ library.
A. He liked nothing better than to sit to read science books in his father’s library.
B. He liked nothing better than to sit and read science books in his father’s library.
C. He liked nothing better than to sit and read science books in father’s library.
D. He liked nothing better than sitting and read science books in his father’s library.
18: new/machinery/ put in/ this year/ with a view/ increase output.
A. New machinery have been put in this year with a view to increase output.
B. New machinery has put in this year with a view to increasing output.
C. New machinery has been put in this year with a view to increase output.
D. New machinery has been put in this year with a view to increasing output.
19: James Watt/ invention/ steam/ engine/ famous/ world/ Scottish scientist.
A. James Watt whose invention of the steam engine is famous throughout the world was Scottish scientist.
B. James Watt, whose invention of the steam engine is famous throughout the world, was a Scottish scientist.
C. James Watt whose invention of the steam engine is famous round the world was a Scottish scientist.
D. James Watt, whose invention of the steam engine is famous all the world, is a Scottish scientist.
20: scientists/ proved/ there/ close link/ smoking/ lung diseases/ such as/ cough/ tuberculosis/ and/ worst/ all/ fatal cancer.
A. Scientists have proved that there is a close link between smoking and lung diseases, such as cough and tuberculosis and the
worst of all is fatal cancer.
B. Scientists have proved that there has been a close link of smoking with lung diseases, such as cough and tuberculosis and the
worst of all, fatal cancer.
C. Scientists proved that there has been a close link from smoking to lung diseases, such as from cough to tuberculosis and worst
of all, fatal cancer.
D. Scientists have been proving that there is a close link between smoking and lung diseases, such as cough and tuberculosis and
worst of all is fatal cancer.
Indicate the word or phrase closest in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
21: Although the staff did expand somewhat, for the first century of its existence, the entire teaching staff consisted of the
president and three or four tutors. A. back and forth B. to and fro C. more or less D. side by
side
22: Every time he opens his mouth, he immediately regrets what he said. He’s always putting his foot in his mouth.
A. speaking indirectly B. making a mistake C. doing things in the wrong order D. saying embarrassing things
23: To remedy this situation, the Constitution of the United States, approved in 1789, allowed Congress to issue money.
A. resolve B. medicate C. understand D. renew
Indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
24: In 1864, twelve nations signed the first Geneva Convention, _ down rules for the treatment and protection of the wounded.
A. lying B. lied C. laying D. laid
25: I can’t see us beating them at tennis this year. We are so out of ___. A. step B. practice C. fitness D. breath
26: I was talking to my aunt when suddenly my cousin George ________ in on our conversation.
A. went B. interrupted C. intervened D. broke
27: We wish that you __________ such a lot of work, because we know that you would have enjoyed the party.
A. hadn’t B. wouldn’t have C. didn’t have D. hadn’t had
28: He trained his muscles by ___ weightlifting and bodybuilding. A. doing B. playing C. going D. taking
29: I was glad when he said that his car was___. A. for me use B. at my use C. for my use D. at my disposal
30: It’s no use getting _____ him. He won’t change his mind. A. on B. across C. off D. around
31: “Would you bother if I had a look at your paper?” – “ __________.”
A. Well, actually I’d rather you didn’t B. That’s a good idea C. You’re welcome D. Oh, I didn’t realize it
32: You must obey the speed limits on public roads. They are designed to keep you safe. You shouldn’t exceed the speed limit
___ you are an experienced race car driver. A. only if B. even if C. provided that D. if
33: The City Planning Department proposed that the new highway__________ in the fiscal year 2015.
A. would be built B. be built C. is to be built D. will be built
34: “I’m going for an interview for a job this afternoon” - “Good luck! I’ll keep my _______crossed for you.”
A. fingers B. legs C. arms D. hands
35: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is stressed differently from the others.
A. overlook B. influential C. furniture D. oceanic
36: He blamed __________ me __________not explaining the lesson __________her carefully.
A. on/for/to B. ø/ about/ for C. for/ on/ for D. ø/ for/ to
37: “Haven’t you put an ad in the paper yet?” – “__________ .”
A. I can get a paper for you B. I’m not sure C. I’m with you there D. I will, first thing in the morning
38: ____, we missed our plane. A. As the train being late B. The train was late C. The train being late D. To be
late
39: Beyond the mountains __ where you will live. A. does the town lie B. lies the town C. which the town lies D. the
town lies
40: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that does not contain a silent letter.
A. rhino B. trade C. protect D. receipt
41: Many citizens say that they are __________ of the political policies of the candidates in a local election.
A. ignoring B. ignorance C. ignorant D. ignorantly
42: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is primarily stressed on the third syllable.
A. cooperation B. supervise C. reinforce D. committee
43: __ you give the answer, ____. A. The quicker – the better you can get marks B. The more quickly – the better marks you can
get
C. More quickly – better marks you can get D. The quickest – the best marks you can get
44: Tony and Nancy always kiss and make ___ after their argument. A. up with B. clear C. up D. out
45: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is not stressed on the first syllable.
A. purchase B. ignorant C. tuition D. vigorous
46: The player was ejected after committing 5 personal ____. A. faults B. mistakes C. errors D. fouls
47: “Do you think it’s bad to keep all the candy to yourself?” – “______ .”
A. I’m sorry. Sometimes I’m too aggressive B. You’re right. I’m a bit jealous
C. You are absolutely right.I’m crazy about candy D. I’m sorry. I should not be so selfish
48: Which of the following words is not an acronym? A. CANCER B. CARE C. LASER D. AIDS
49: At the end of the nineteenth century, Alfred Binet developed a test for measuring intelligence ________ served as the basis
of modern IQ tests. A. it has B. has C. which has D. and
50: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that contains a consonant /θ/.
A. diphthong B. southern C. breathing D. smooth
51: Hundreds came to __________ their last respects to the dead president.
A. pay B. express C. have D. indicate
52: International Games themselves can help to solve the problem of ___________ among countries.
A. takeoffs B. kickoffs C. standoffs D. warm-ups
53: One of the conservation efforts is the development of wildlife__________.
A. reserves B. reverses C. conserves D. reservoirs
Indicate the word(s) opposite in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 54 to 55.
54: Some vegetables are grown without soil and artificial light.
A. real B. natural C. true D. genuine
55: Mutualism is a type of symbiosis that occurs when two unlike organisms live together in a state that is mutually beneficial.
A. alike B. likely C. similar D. dislike
Read the following passage and indicate the answer to each of the questions
DESERTIFICATION
Desertification is the degradation of once-productive land into unproductive or poorly productive land. Since the first great urban-
agricultural centers in Mesopotamia nearly 6,000 years ago, human activity has had a destructive impact on soil quality, leading to
gradual desertification in virtually every area of the world.
It is a common misconception that desertification is caused by droughts. Although drought does make land more vulnerable, well-
managed land can survive droughts and recover, even in arid regions. Another mistaken belief is that the process occurs only along
the edges of deserts. In fact, it may take place in any arid or semiarid region, especially where poor land management is practised.
Most vulnerable, however, are the transitional zones between deserts and arable land; wherever human activity leads to land
abuse in these fragile marginal areas, soil destruction is inevitable. [1] Agriculture and overgrazing are the two major sources of
desertification. [2] Large-scale farming requires extensive irrigation, which ultimately destroys lands by depleting its nutrients and
leaching minerals into the topsoil. [3] Grazing is especially destructive to land because , in addition to depleting cover vegetation,
herds of grazing mammals also trample the fine organic particles of the topsoil, leading to soil compaction and erosion. [4] It takes
about 500 years for the earth to build up 3 centimeters of topsoil. However, cattle ranching and agriculture can deplete as much
as 2 to 3 centimeters of topsoil every 25 years- 60 to 80 times faster than it can be replaced by nature.
Salination is a type of land degradation that involves an increase in the salt content of the soil. This usually occurs as a result of
improper irrigation practices. The greatest Mesopotamian empires- Sumer, Akkad and Babylon- were built on the surplus of the
enormously productive soil of the ancient Tigris-Euphrates alluvial plain. After nearly a thousand years of intensive cultivation, land
quality was in evident decline. In response, around 2800 BC the Sumerians began digging the huge Tigris-Euphrates canal system
to irrigate the exhausted soil. A temporary gain in crop yield was achieved in this way, but over-irrigation was to have serious and
unforeseen consequences.
From as early as 2400 BC we find Sumerian documents referring to salinization as a soil problem. It is believed that the fall of the
Akkadian Empire around 2150 BC may have been due to a catastrophic failure in land productivity; the soil was literally turned into
salt. Even today, four thousand years later, vast tracks of salinized land between the Tigris and Euphrates rivers still resemble rock-
hard fields of snow.
Soil erosion is another form of desertification. It is a self-reinforcing process; once the cycle of degradation begins, conditions are
set for continual deterioration. As the vegetative cover begins to disappear, soil becomes more vulnerable to raindrop impact.
Water runs off instead of soaking in to provide moisture for plans. This further diminishes plan cover by leaching away nutrients
from the soil. As soil quality declines and runoff is increased, floods become more frequent and more severe. Flooding washes
away topsoil, the thin, rich, uppermost layer of the earth’s soil, and leaves finer underlying particles more vulnerable to wind
erosion. Topsoil contains the earth’s greatest concentration of organic matter and microorganisms, and is where most of the earth’s
land-based biological activity occurs. Without this fragile coat of nutrient-laden material, plan life cannot exist.
An extreme case of its erosion is found in the Sahel, a transitional zone between the Sahara Desert and the tropical African rain
forests; home to some 56 million people. Overpopulation and overgrazing have opened the hyperarid land to wind erosion, which
is stripping away the protective margin of the Sahel, and causing the desert to grow at an alarming rate. Between 1950 and 1975,
the Sahara Desert spread 100 kilometers southward through the Sahel.
56: Which of the following statements is true about desertification?
A. It has a history as long as that of civilization. B. It was just as serious in the past as it is today.
C. It is a fairly recent problem. D. Ancient societies managed the problem well.
57: The word “arable” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to A. cultivatable B. dry C. settled D.
populated
58: According to the passage, many people’s understanding of desertification is incorrect because
A. they do not think of it as a serious problem B. they see it as being reversible
C. they do not see it as being caused by human activity D. they think of it as a very slow process
59: Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in the passage? Incorrect
choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.
A. Most of the vulnerable areas are in transition from desert to arable land; a process that because of human activity and the
delicate nature of these areas, always leads to soil loss.
B. Human activity in the transition areas is vulnerable because of the fragile nature of these areas that are neither desert nor
arable land because they have suffered damage to the soil
C. Soil loss in the transitional zones is especially severe where human activity is damaging the environment through agriculture
which is causing the loss of soil.
D. It is the areas that exist between the deserts and the land that is usable for agriculture that are most at risk because they are
susceptible to poor land management methods from human activity which will always result in the loss of soil.
60: The word “compaction” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
A. fragmentation B. depletion C. disruption D. compression
61: According to the passage, agriculture furthers desertification through which of the following activities
A. The repetitive planting of the same crops B. Irrigation C. The stripping away of native vegetation D. Over fertilization
62: The word “degradation” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
A. rejuvenation B. deterioration C. contribution D. consumption
63: Paragraph 4 of the passage serves mainly to do which of the following?
A. Show the progress of desertification down through history B. Propose a method for dealing with the desertification problem.
C. Describe one process that leads to desertification D. Describe the main cause of desertification in one particular area
64: The word “leaching” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to
A. washing B. depositing C. concentrating D. dispersing
65: Look at numbers [1], [2], [3], [4] in paragraph 3 of the passage. Where would the following sentence best fit?
Each furthers the process dramatically, but they act in quite different ways A. [1] B. [2] C. [4] D.
[3]
Read the following passage and indicate the answer to each of the questions
Though Edmund Halley was most famous because of his achievements as an astronomer, he was a scientist of diverse interests
and great skill. In addition to studying the skies, Halley was also deeply interested in exploring the unknown depths of the oceans.
One of his lesser-known accomplishments that were quite remarkable was his design for a diving bell that facilitated
exploration of the watery depths. The diving bell that Halley designed had a major advantage over the diving bells that were in use
prior to his. Earlier diving bells could only make use of the air contained within the bell itself, so divers had to surface when the air
inside the bell ran low. Halley’s bell was an improvement in that its design allowed for an additional supply of fresh air that enabled
a crew of divers to remain underwater for several hours.
The diving contraption that Halley designed was in the shape of a bell that measured three feet across the top and five feet across the
bottom and could hold several divers comfortably; it was open at the bottom so that divers could swim in and out at will. The bell was
built of wood, which was first heavily tarred to make it water repellent and was then covered with a half-ton sheet of lead to make
the bell heavy enough to sink in water. The bell shape held air inside for the divers to breathe as the bell sank to the bottom.
The air inside the bell was not the only source of air for the divers to breathe, and it was this improvement that made Halley’s bell
superior to its predecessors. In addition to the air already in the bell, air was also supplied to the divers from a lead barrel that was
lowered to the ocean floor close to the bell itself. Air flowed through a leather pipe from the lead barrel on the ocean floor to the
bell. The diver could breathe the air from a position inside the bell, or he could move around outside the bell wearing a diving suit
that consisted of a lead bell-shaped helmet with a glass viewing window and a leather body suit, with a leather pipe carrying fresh
air from the diving bell to the helmet.
66: The subject of the preceding passage was most likely Halley’s
A. childhood B. work as an astronomer C. invention of the diving bell D. many different interests
67: Halley’s bell was better than its predecessors because it ......
A. was bigger B. provided more air C. weighed less D. could rise more quickly
68: The expression “ran low” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
A. sank to the bottom B. was almost exhausted C. had been replenished D. move slowly
69: How long could divers stay underwater in Halley’s bell?
A. Just a few seconds B. Only a few minutes C. For days on end D. For hours at a time
70: It is NOT stated in the passage that Halley’s bell
A. was completely enclosed B. was wider at the top than at the bottom C. could hold more than one diver D. was made of tarred
wood
71: The expression “at will” in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by
A. in the future B. upside down C. as they wanted D. with great speed
72: It can be inferred from the passage that, were Halley’s bell not covered with lead, it would
A. float B. get wet C. trap the divers D. suffocate the divers
73: Where in the passage does the author indicate how air traveled from the barrel to the bell?
A. Lines 8-10 B. Lines 11-13 C. Lines 17-18 D. line 20
74: In which paragraph does the author describe the diving bells that preceded Halley’s?
A. The first paragraph B. The second paragraph C. The third paragraph D. The fourth paragraph
75: This passage would most likely be assigned reading in a course on
A. astronomy B. physiology C. oceanography D. recreation
Show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions
76: (A) One another (B) surprising method of forest (C) conservation is (D) controlled cutting of trees.
77: There are many (A) frequently (B) mentioned reasons why one out of (C) four arrests (D) involve a juvenile.
78: Perhaps the most (A) welcoming and (B) friendly of the park’s wild places is the (C) live oak forest that surrounds the district’s
(D) alone visitors’ center in Gulf Breeze.
79: (A) On June 30, 1992, international timekeepers in Paris (B) were added an extra (C) second to (D) the day.
80: In 1863 and 1864, the U.S. Congress passed (A) the National Banks Acts, which set up a system of (B) privately owned banks
(C) chartered by (D) a federal government.

ENGLISH TEST 94
Mark the correct answer to each of the following questions.
1. Although they are identical twins, their teacher can easily ………between them.
A. identify B. select C. differ D. distinguish
2. I was most ………… of his efforts to help me during the crisis.
A. appreciation B . appreciable C. appreciate D. appreciative
3. John: “May I come in?” Peter: “ …………….”
A. Feel free B. Yes, no problem C. You’re welcome D. Sorry, let’s wait
4. If you go away, you ………write to me, …….. you?
A. will/ won’t B. do/ don’t C. will/ don’t D. will/ do
5. We have to start early …….. we’ll be late for school.
A. so that B. although C. or else D. consequently
6. The smell of the sea …….. him …… to his childhood.
A. took …back B. brought…back C. reminded… of D. called …off
7. The conference was organized for all of the ……… teachers in the city.
A. history B. historic C. historical D. historian
8. We don’t sell foreign newspapers because there is no ………. for them
A. request B. requirement C. claim D. demand
9. He never………….. his word
A. goes back on B. puts up with C. makes up for D. goes down with
10. When I got up yesterday morning, the sun was shining, but the ground was very wet. It …….
A. rained B. has been raining C. had rained D. had been raining
11. Someone ……….here recently: these ashes are still warm.
A. should be B. had to be C. must have been D. might have been
12……….of applicants for this job ……..very big.
A. The number /is B. A number /is C. A number /are D. The number /are
13. The professor complimented a grade 1 pupil ……….his good achievement.
A. about B. on C. for D. due to
14. ………your help, I wouldn’t have got the scholarship.
A. If I had had B. Had not it been for C. But for D. Unless I had
15. ………man suffering from ……..shock should not be given anything to drink.
A. A/ the B. The/ a C. Ø/ a D. A/ Ø
16. The villagers strongly recommend that a new school ………immediately.
A. must be built B. is going to be built C. be built D. will be built
17. You thought I did wrong, but the results ……….my action.
A. agree B. correct C. justify D. approve
18. It’s most unwise to ……in a quarrel between a man and his wife.
A. involve B. go C. take part in D. interfere
19. The more she practices, ……….she becomes.
A. the most confident B. the more confident
C. the greater confidence D. more confidently
20. In today’s paper it ……….that we shall have an election this year.
A. says B. admits C. expresses D. proposes
21.: John: “Could you tell me how to get to the nearest post office?” Peter: “……………”
A. Sorry for this inconvenience B. I have no clue
C. Not at all D. Sorry, I’m a new comer here
22. The problem is difficult, therefore ………. students could answer it.
A. a great number of B. a lot of C. few D. a few
23. ………he was kidnapped by the Iraqi guerrillas yesterday has been confirmed.
A. What B. If C. That D. Ø
24. The road in front of my house is in great need ………..
A. repairing B. to be repaired C. of repair D. of being repaired.
25. Sometimes life must be very unpleasant for …… near the airport.
A. people live B. those living C. someone to live D. they who live
26. She has just bought …………….
A. an old interesting painting French B. a French interesting old paint
C. a French old interesting painting D. an interesting old French painting
27. There are many opportunities for career ………. if you work for that company.
A. system B. sequence C. progression D. succesion
28. The children can stay here …..they don’t make too much noise.
A. whether B. providing C. unless D. until
29. “…………….” – “Thank you. We are proud of him.”
A. Your kid is naughty. B. Can we ask your child to take a photo?
C. Your child is just adorable! D. I can give your kid a lift to school.
30. There were a lot people at the party, only few of …….I had met before.
A. them B. who C. whom D. whose
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.
31. Assessment instruments in nursery schools (A) they feature items and (B) other materials different (C) from those on
elementary (D) school tests.
32. (A) All the witnesses said (B) that John (C) was blaming (D) for the accident.
33. Migrant (A) workers live in (B) substandard (C) unsanitary, and dilapidated housing and often (D) are lacking medical care.
34. For thousands of years, (A) man has created (B) sweet-smelling substances from wood, herbs, and
flowers and (C) using them for perfume (D) or medicine.
35. Copper comes from seven (A) types of (B) ores that (C) also contain (D) the other materials.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main
stress in each of the following questions.
36.A. experience B. maternal C. simplify D. physician
37.A. residential B. repetition C. mountaineer D. television
38.A. sequential B. mistake C. satisfy D. quality
39.A. residence B. establish C. maximum D. regional
40.A. questionable B. inferior C. criticize D. miserable
Read the following passage and mark the correct answer to each of the questions.
Collecting maps can be an enjoyable hobby for antiquarian booksellers, a captivating interest for cartographers, a lucrative
vocation for astute dealers, and an inspirational part of the occupational functioning of map catalogers, archivists, and
historians. Among recognized collectibles, maps are relatively rarer than stamps, but they have had their avid enthusiasts
and admirers ever since copies were made by hand only for affluent, the commanding officer, and the ship captain.
Whether the interest is business-related or amateur, the economic means abundant or slim, a collection needs a theme, be
it associated with contemporary changes in cartographic representation or geographic knowledge, or a more accessible goal
centered on a particular mapmaker, technique, or type of subject matter. Collectors should not overlook topical maps issued
predominantly or exclusively after World War II, such as navigational charts, industrial compound road layouts, or aerial
projections. Potential collectors ought not to disregard two superficially prosaic, yet important themes: maps of travel routes
for family trips, and maps that, for aesthetic reasons, they personally find intriguing or simply attractive. In the first case, like
the box with old family photos, the collection will give the travelers the opportunity to reminisce and relive the journey.
In most cases, photocopies are worthy alternatives to originals. For example, historical society collections customarily include
the high quality facsimiles needed to make a collection as comprehensive and practical as possible, supplementing the
contributions made by well-to-do donors and benefactors. If not predisposed to wait patiently, and possibly ineffectually,
for a lucky find, collectors may choose to sift through dealer stock, peruse through advertisements in local, regional, or
national periodicals, and solicit the assistance of the U.S. Library of Congress and private agencies. Government and public
agencies, companies, and trade associations can advise the collector about maps currently in circulation and pending sales
of dated reproductions, editions, and prints.
41. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Why hobbyists always flaunt their map collections.
B. How maps can be collected by professionals and enthusiasts.
C. How to assure an interrupted flow of collectibles.
D. What cartographers advocate as a worthy undertaking.
42. In paragraph 1, the word lucrative is closest in meaning to
A. instructive B. insensitive C. profitable D. profuse
43. According to the passage, map collecting as a hobby is
A. not deserving of the time and resources B. not as conventional as collecting stamps
C. as eccentric as collecting dolls D. conformist in the best sense of the word.
44. In paragraph 1, the word avid is closest in meaning to
A. keen B. humorous C. devoted D. supportive
45. It can be inferred from the passage that, at a time when maps were accessible to the upper socioeconomic classes, they
appealed also to a fair number of
A. professional copiers B. ardent devotees
C. buried-treasure hunters D. obscure amateur dealers
46. In paragraph 2, the phrase “economic means” is closest in meaning to
A. economic maps B. fiscal responsibility C. available funds D. capital investment
47. The author of the passage mentions all of the following as sources of procuring maps EXCEPT
A. fellow collectors B. map vendors C. personal archives D. publishers
48. In paragraph 2, the author uses the phrase “superficially prosaic” to mean
A. described in informal prose B. seemingly boring and unimaginative
C. useful for travelers who enjoy a change D. potentially uncovered in a box of photos
49. In paragraph 3, the word “predisposed” is closest in meaning to
A. pressured B. provoked C. condemned D. inclined
50. A paragraph following the passage would most likely discuss
A. specific organizations to contact about map acquisition
B. specific mapping techniques used to enlarge the scale
C. trimming and framing valuable acquisitions
D. volunteering time and work to maintain obsolete maps
Read the following passage and mark the correct answer to each of the questions .
The goal of Internet-based encyclopedia Wikipedia (www.wikipedia.org) is to give everyone on the planet access to
information. Like other encyclopedias, Wikipedia contains lots of information: more than 2.5 million articles in 200 different
languages covering just about every subject. Unlike other encyclopedias, however, Wikepedia is not written by experts, but
by ordinary people. These writers are not paid and their names are not published. They contribute to Wikipedia simply
because they want to share their knowledge.
Encyclopedias began in ancient times as collections of writings about all aspects of human knowledge. The word itself comes
from ancient Greek, and means “a complete general education”. Real popularity for encyclopedias came in the nineteenth
century in Europe and the United States, with the publication of encyclopedias written for ordinary readers. With the
invention of the CD-ROM, the same amount of information could be put on a few computer discs. Then with the Internet, it
became possible to create an online encyclopedia that could be constantly updated, like Microsoft’s Encarta. However, even
Internet-based encyclopedias like Encarta were written by paid experts. At first, Wikipedia, the brainchild of Jimmy Wales, a
businessman in Chicago, was not so different from these. In 2001, he had the idea for an Internet-based encyclopedia that
would provide information quickly and easily to everyone. Furthermore, that information would be available free, unlike
other Internet encyclopedias at that time.
But Wales, like everyone else, believed that people with special knowledge were needed to write the articles, and so he
began by hiring experts. He soon changed his approach, however, as it took them a long time to finish their work. He decided
to open up the encyclopedia in a radical new way, so that everyone would have access not only to the information, but also
to the process of putting this information online. To do this, he used what is known as “Wiki” software (from the Hawaiian
word for “fast”), which allows users to create or alter content on web page. The system is very simple: When you open the
web site, you can simply search for information or you can log on to become a writer or editor of articles. If you find an article
that interests you – about your hometown, for example – you can correct it or expand it. This process goes on until no one
is interested in making any more changes.
51: Wikipedia is a(n) ………..
A. book B. journal C. article D. dictionary
52: Wikipedia is written by………..
A. paid written B. millionaires C. normal people D. world experts
53: The phrase “these writers” in the first paragraph refers to ……….
A. ordinary readers B. ordinary people C. encyclopedia experts D. every subject
54: The phrase “the word” in the second paragraph refers to………..
A. knowledge B. encyclopedia C. writing D. collection
55: Microsoft’s Encarta is cited in the passage as an example of ……...
A. CD-ROM dictionary B. printed encyclopedia
C. online encyclopedia D. updateable online encyclopedia
56: The word “brainchild” in the second paragraph of the passage can be best replaced by……...
A. born B. child C. product D. father
57: The word “approach” in the third paragraph of the passage means……...
A. idea B. time C. method D. writing
58: The user of Wikipedia can do all of the following EXCEPT……….
A. have access to information B. determinate the website
C. modify information D. edit information
59: We can say that Jimmy Wales……….
A. became very famous after the formation of Wikipedia B. is the father of Wikipedia
C. made a great profit from Wikipedia D. decides who can use Wikipedia
60: Wiki software enables ……….
A. exchanging articles B. a purchase of information C. limited access D. editing
Read the following passage and mark the correct word for each of the blanks .
HELP ALWAYS AT HAND:
A MOBILE IS A GIRL’S BEST FRIEND
If it fits inside a pocket, keeps you safe as well as in touch with your office, your mother and your children, it is (61)………..worth
having. This is the (62)……….. of the dwelling ranks of female mobile-phone users who are beginning to (63)……….. the
consumer market.
Although Britain has been (64)……….. to be one of the most expensive places in the world to run a mobile phone, both
professional women and (65)……….. mothers are undeterred. At first, the mobile phone was a rich man’s plaything, or a
businessman’s (66)……….. symbol. Now women own almost as many telephones as men do - but for very different reasons.
The main (67)……….. for most women customers is that it provides a form of communications back-up, wherever they are, in
case of contingency. James Tanner of Tancroft Communications says: “The majority of people buying phones from us this
year were women – often young women – or men who were buying for their mothers, wives and girlfriends. And it always
seems to be a question of (68)……….. of mind.”
“Size is also (69)……….. for women. They want something that will fit in a handbag,” said Mr Tanner. “The tiny phones coming
in are having a very big (70)………... This year’s models are only half the size of your hand.”
61. A. totally B. certainly C. absolutely D. completely
62. A. vision B. vista C. view D. conception
63. A. master B. dominate C. overbear D. command
64. A. demonstrated B. seen C. established D. shown
65. A. complete B. total C. absolute D. full-time
66. A. status B. fame C. power D. prestige
67.A. attraction B. enticement C. charm D. lure
68. A. tranquility B. calmness C. peace D. serenity
69. A. necessary B. crucial C. urgent D. essential
70. A. impression B. perception C. impact D. image
Mark the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions or indicate the correct answer to each of
them .
71. Not until Kentucky’s Mammoth Cave had been completely explored in 1972 …………………….
A. when was its full extent realized B. the realization of its full extent
C. was its full extent realized D. that its full extent was realized
72. The knee is……. most other joints in the body because it cannot twist without injury.
A. to be damaged more than likely B. more likely to be damaged than
C. likely to be more than damaged D. more than likely to be damaged
73. The noise next door did not stop until after midnight.
A. Not until after midnight the noise next door stopped.
B. It was not until after midnight that the noise next door stopped.
C. The noise next door stopped at midnight
D. It was midnight and the noise next door stopped.
74. Their dog was so fierce that nobody would visit them.
A. They had a such fierce dog that nobody would visit them.
B. They had so fierce a dog that nobody would visit them.
C. Their dog was too fierce to visit.
D. They had a so fierce dog that nobody would visit them.
75. If you want to be kept informed about current affairs, you should listen to the radio.
A. Only by listening to the radio, you can keep yourself informed about current affairs.
B. Listening to the radio and you will be kept informed about current affairs.
C. A good way of keeping yourself informed about current affairs is listen to the radio.
D. Listening to the radio is a good way of keeping yourself informed about current affairs.
76. I travel by bus only when I have no alternative.
A. Travelling by bus is my only alternative.
B. It’s my only alternative to travel by bus.
C. I resort to travel by bus only when I have no alternative.
D. I travel by bus only as a last resort.
77. Calling Jim is pointless because his phone is out of order.
A. It’s useless calling Jim because his phone is out of order.
B. It’s no use to call Jim because his phone is out of order.
C. There’s no point calling Jim because his phone is out of order.
D. It’s worth not calling Jim because his phone is out of order.
Choose the best way to make the sentence from the cues.
78. fact/ her son/ out/ danger/ bring/ her/ some relief.
A. The fact that her son was out of danger brought her some relief.
B. The fact that her son was out of danger which brought her some relief.
C. The fact that her son is out of danger brought her some relief.
D. The fact that her son is out of danger has brought her some relief.
79. be sure/ good seat/ your tickets / should/ bought/ advance.
A. I’m sure about a good seat for your tickets should be bought in advance.
B. To be sure of a good seat, your tickets should be bought in advance.
C. To be sure of a good seat for your tickets should be bought in advance.
D. To be sure of a good seat, your tickets should be bought advance.
80. How/ ungrateful/ you/ not/ greet/ former/ teacher/ meet/ him.
A. How ungrateful of you not to greet your former teacher when you met him.
B. How ungrateful you are not to greet your former teacher when you met him.
C. How ungrateful to you not to greet your former teacher when you met him.
D. How ungrateful of you not to greet your former teacher to met him.

***** The end *****

ENGLISH TEST 95
Choose the correct answer in each of the following questions.
1: Education is the only method of ______ changes in world population.
A. bringing about B. carrying out C. taking off D. showing off
2: Grace Kelly was the first famous as a Hollywood actress and then ______ Prince Rainer of Monaco.
A. to be the wife of B. she was the wife of C. as the wife of D. the wife of
3: All visitors are requested to ______ with the regulations.
A. agree B. comply C. assent D. consent
4: Betty: “Your house is lovely! I especially like what you’ve done to the front yard.” Alice: ”______.”
A. Really? That’s nice of you to say so B. Nothing new. Same old thing
C. You’re welcome. I’m glad you can come D. Oh, it was nothing! It was nothing I hope you like it
5: He gives a lot of money to the poor despite the fact that he has barely enough to live ______ himself.
A. in B. with C. through D. on
6: I’m glad you told me about the show being cancelled. ______, I’d have travelled all the way to Glasgow for nothing.
A. Therefore B. However C. Otherwise D. Moreover
7: Joe couldn’t come to our party last weekend – he ______ house.
A. was moving B. had moved C. moved D. would move
8: Don’t worry about hotel. We can easily ______ for a few nights.
A. put you in B. put up with you C. put you down D. put you up
9: She wondered ______ her father looked like now, after so many years away.
A. how B. whose C. what D. whom
10: Sarah glanced around the room once more, ______ that nothing was out of place.
A. checked B. checking C. to check D. being checked
11: You ______ him your map. He has one of his own.
A. shouldn’t have lent B. mightn’t have lent C. mustn’t have lent D. needn’t have lent
12: It is vital that our country’s imports ______ its exports.
A. don’t exceed B. not exceed C. didn’t exceed D. won’t exceed
13: Tall people were obliged to bend down ______ their head on the low ceiling.
A. so that they won’t bang B. for them not to bang C. in case they will bang D. so as not to bang
14: Never having been away from home before, ______.
A. Daisy, therefore, felt a little homesick at first B. it made Daisy feel a little homesick at first
C. Daisy was a little homesick at first D. the first feeling Daisy had was sickness.
15: I know William has been disobedient, but don’t be too ______ on him.
A. heavy B. strong C. hard D. strict
16: The two men looked so ______ that it was impossible to distinguish between them.
A. alike B. same C. like D. likely
17: I’d rather you ______ anything about the garden until the weather improves.
A. don’t make B. didn’t do C. don’t do D. didn’t make
18: This is the athlete ______ everyone says will win the gold medal at the winter Olympic Games.
A. whose B. whom C. who D. whoever
19: Because of his poor health, it took him a long time to ______ his bad cold.
A. throw off B. throw away C. throw down D. throw over
20: Betty: “Wally, the bracelet is beautiful, but really, you shouldn’t have!” Wally: “ ______.”
A. Okay. Take care B. You’re welcome. I think it looks beautiful on you C. I hope not D. No. I don’t think so
21: As he made no reference to our quarrel, I assumed he ______ me.
A. forgave B. had forgiven C. would forgive D. was forgiving
22: “There is no further treatment we can give,” said Dr. Jekyll. “We must let the disease take its ______.”
A. term B. end C. course D. way
23: The Continental United States is ______ that there are four time zones.
A. so a big area B. very big C. much big D. so big an area
24: ______ had I had time to take my coat off when the boss came in.
A. Scarcely B. Hard C. No sooner D. Almost
25: My supervisor had me ______ the morning taking inventory.
A. spend B. spent C. to spend D. spending
Choose the sentence that is closest in meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
26: . This holiday is within our price range, provided we don’t go to the expensive restaurants in the tourist center.
A. Our holiday will be okay if there aren’t any expensive restaurants in the tourist center.
B. Because of the expensive restaurants in the tourist center, we cannot continue our holiday.
C. We can afford the holiday so long as we avoid the expensive restaurants in the tourist center.
D. We would be short of money unless we kept away from the expensive restaurants in the tourist center
27: The weather was getting worse, so Joe was forced to give up his attempt to climb the summit.
A. The weather was so bad that Joe wouldn’t be able to climb the summit.
B. But for such awful weather Joe managed to climb the summit.
C. Joe wasn’t encouraged to try to reach the summit because of the weather, which was extremely bad.
D. Due to the worsening weather, Joe had no alternative but to give up his attempt to climb the summit.
28: “Here are the car keys. You’d better wait in the car,” he said to her.
A. He handed her the keys, advising her to wait in the car.
B. He advised her to wait in the car with the car keys.
C. He got the car keys before advising her to wait in the car.
D. He gave the car keys to her who was to wait for him in the car.
29: It couldn’t have been Mary that you heard shouting last night as she is on holiday in Jakarta at the moment.
A. I think Mary is on holiday in Jakarta now, so you may be wrong in thinking that you heard her shouting last night.
B. If you had heard Mary shouting last night she wouldn’t be able to take vacation in Jakarta now.
C. It was not Mary who shouted to you last night because she is on vacation in Jakarta at the moment.
D. Right now, Mary is having a holiday in Jakarta, so it is impossible that it was she whose shouting you heard last night.
30: The mistake in the accounts was not noticed until the figures were re-checked.
A. When the figures were re-checked, they came to light the mistake in the accounts.
B. Once re-checking the figures, the mistakes in the accounts was noticed.
C. The mistake in the accounts only came to light when the figures were re-checked.
D. It was not until the mistake in the accounts was noticed that the figures were checked.
Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions
Ancient people made clay pottery because they needed it for their survival. They used the pots they made for cooking, storing food,
and carrying things from place to place. Pottery was so important to early cultures that scientists now study it to learn more about ancient
civilizations. The more advanced the pottery in terms of decoration, materials, glazes and manufacture, the more advanced the culture
itself.
The artisan who makes pottery in North America today utilizes his or her skill and imagination to create items that are beautiful as
well as functional, transforming something ordinary into something special and unique.
The potter uses one of the Earth’s most basic materials, clay. Clay can be found almost everywhere. Good pottery clay must be free
from all small stones and other hard materials that would make the potting process difficult. Most North American artisan-potters now
purchase commercially processed clay, but some find the clay they need right in the earth, close to where they work.
The most important tools potters use are their own hand; however, they also use wire loop tools, wooden modeling tools, plain wire,
and sponges. Plain wire is used to cut away the finished pot from its base on the potter’s wheel.
After a finished pot is dried of all its moisture in the open air, it is placed in a kiln and fired. The first firing hardens the pottery, and it
is then ready to be glazed and fired again. For areas where they do not want any glaze, such as the bottom of the pot, artisans paint on
melted wax that will later burn off in the kiln. They then pour on the liquid glaze and let it run over the clay surface, making any kind of
decorative pattern that they want.
31: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Different kinds of clay. B. The training of an artisan.
C. The making of pottery. D. Crafts of ancient civilizations.
32: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as a way that ancient people used pottery?
A. To hold food B. To wash clothes C. To transport objects D. To cook
33: The word “it” in line 2 refers to ______.
A. clay B. culture C. survival D. pottery
34: According to the passage, which of the following can be learned about an ancient civilization by examining its pottery?
A. Its food preferences B. Its developmental stage C. Its geographic location D. Its population
35: The word “functional” in line 6 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. Useful B. Strong C. Inexpensive D. Original
36: The word “basic” in line 7 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. Familiar B. Fundamental C. Versatile D. Dirty
37: According to the passage, how do most North American potters today get the clay they need?
A. They buy it B. They make it C. They did it from the earth D. They barter for it
38: It can be inferred from the passage that clay is processed commercially in order to ______.
A. make it dry more evenly B. remove hard substances
C. prevent the glaze from sticking D. make it easier to color
39: According to the author, what do potters use to remove the pot from the wheel?
A. Melted wax B. A wire loop C. A sponge D. Plain wire
40: The word “pattern” in line 15 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. Model B. Color C. Puzzle D. Design
Read the following passage and choose the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks
Sports Photography
Sport as a spectacle and photography as a way of recording action have developed together. At the arrival of the 20 th century, Edward
Muybridge was experimenting with photographs of movement. His pictures of a runner (41) ______ in every history of photography.
Another milestone was when the scientist and photographer Harold Edgerton (42) ______ the limits of photographic technology with his
study of a (43) ______ of milk hitting the surface of a dish. Another advance was the development of miniature cameras in the late 1920s,
which made it possible for sports photographers to (44) ______ their cumbersome cameras behind.
The arrival of television was a significant development in the transmission of sport. Paradoxically, it was of benefit to still
photographers. People who watched a sports event on TV, with all its movement and action, (45) ______ the still image as a reminder of
the game.
Looking back, we can see how (46) ______ sports photography has changed. (47) ______ sports photographers were as interested in
the stories behind the sport as in the sport itself. Contemporary sports photography (48) ______ the glamour of sport, the colour and the
action. But the best sports photographers today do more than (49) ______ tell the story of the event, or make a (50) ______ of it. They
capture in a single dramatic moment the real emotions of the participants, emotions with which people looking at the photographs can
identify.
41: A. exhibit B. show C. feature D. demonstrate
42: A. enlarged B. extended C. prolonged D. spread
43: A. splash B. drop C. dash D. drip
44: A. put B. keep C. lay D. leave
45: A. chose B. valued C. pointed D. cheered
46: A. highly B. radically C. extremely D. severely
47: A. Initial B. First C. Early D. Primary
48: A. outlines B. signals C. emphasises D. forms
49: A. simply B. alone C. singly D. only
50: A. preservation B. store C. mark D. record
Choose the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
51: I haven’t finished my work because there was a fault in the network and I couldn’t log on until 4 o’clock.
A. connect B. check out C. wait D. repair
52: I hate it when students use their MP3 players in the library. It always bothers me when I’m trying to study.
A. disturbs B. converses C. entertains D. interests
53: Although Valentine’s Day has become a global industry with more than 80 million roses sold worldwide,
the origins of the day are unclear and hidden in the mists of time.
A. a long time ago B. unforgettable C. mysterious D. too old for anyone to confirm
Choose the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
54: No one knew precisely what would happen to a human being in space.
A. wrongly B. casually C. flexibly D. informally
55: China has become the third country in the world which can independently carry out the manned space activities.
A. put in B. put on C. put up D. put off
Choose the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following question.
56: A. conserve B. proposal C. resident D. dissolve
57: A. category B. expand C. acacia D. applicant
Read the following passage and indicate the correct answer to each of the questions
The light bulb changed human existence by illuminating the night and making human activity possible in darkness. The electric light,
one of the everyday conveniences that most affects our lives, was invented in 1879 by both Thomas Eva Edison in the United States, and
Sir Joseph Wilson Swan in England at the same time.
However, the story of the electric light actually goes back to 1811, when Sir Humphrey Davy discovered that an electrical arc passed
between two poles produced light. In 1841, experimental lights were installed as public lighting along the Place de la Concorde in Paris.
Other experiments were undertaken in Europe and America, but the arc light eventually proved impractical because it burned out too
quickly. Inventors continued to work on the problem of developing a reliable electric light that would be practical for both home and
public use instead of gas light.
The solution lay not in electrical arc in open space, but in electricity passed through a filament. The breakthrough theory became
known as the Joule effect after James Prescott Joule. He theorized that electrical current, if passed through a resistant conductor, would
glow white-hot with heat energy and thus produce light.
Edison decided to try a carbonized cotton thread filament. When voltage was applied to the completed bulb, it gave off a soft orange
glow. Just about fifteen hours later, the filament finally burned out. Further experimentation produced filaments that could burn longer
and longer with each test. By the end of 1880, he had produced a 10-watt bulb that could last for 1500 hours, and had begun to market
his new invention.
58: What is the topic of the passage?
A. who first invented the light bulb B. the effects of public lighting on everyday life
C. how the light bulb was invented D. the invention of carbonized cotton thread filaments
59: Who first invented the electric light bulb?
A. Thomas Edison B. Sir Joseph Wilson Swan
C. Sir Humphrey Davy D. Both Thomas Edison and Sir Joseph Wilson Swan
60: Why is the date of the electric light’s invention, 1879, given first in the chronology of events?
A. to highlight the years of development preceding its invention
B. to state when the electric light was first invented
C. to show this was the year the light bulb was perfected
D. none of the above
61: Why were the first light bulbs impractical?
A. They lasted only a short time B. Glass was too expensive for light bulbs
C. Electricity wasn’t widely available D. They were too expensive
62: What is a filament?
A. an electrical plug B. anything that electricity passes through to create light
C. an electrical arc in open space D. a burning stick
63: What did James Prescott Joule’s theory state?
A. Light was possible only with electricity
B. Gas light was impractical compared to electrical light
C. Electricity passed through a conductor would produce light
D. Carbonized cotton thread filament was the best means to produce light
64: It can be inferred that “illuminating” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. interrupting B. making easier C. giving light to D. getting rid of
65: It can be inferred that “undertaken” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. failed B. tried C. funded D. discovered
66: The word “it” in paragraph 4 refers to ______.
A. bulb B. light C. current D. voltage
67: What is the purpose of the passage?
A. to prove which country the light bulb’s inventor came from B. to prove who invented the light bulb
C. to show that there were public lights before 1879 D. to inform the reader of the history of the light bulb
Indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
68: Buenos Aires is one of the world capitals that are famous for its busy harbor.
A B C D
69: Of the two lectures, the first was by far the best, partly because the person who delivered it had such a dynamic style.
A B C D
70: Drying food by means of solar energy is an ancient process applying wherever food and climatic conditions make it possible.
A B C D
71: Ice skating and to go skiing are popular winter sports in the Northern United States.
A B C D
72: In recent years great advances forward have been made in the field of genetic research.
A B C D
Choose the sentence that best join each of the following pairs of sentences in each of the following questions.
73: Write your name in the book. He may forget who lent it to him.
A. He will remember whose book it is if you write your name in it.
B. Your name in the book will remind him of it.
C. He will forget the book unless you write your name in it.
D. Write your name in the book in case he forgets who lent it to him.
74: He had just entered the house. The police arrested him at once.
A. No sooner had he entered the house than the police arrested him.
B. Hardly that he had entered the house when the police arrested him.
C. Immediately had he entered the house when the police arrested him.
D. The police immediately arrested him as soon as he’s just entered the house.
75: He felt very tired. However, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
A. He felt so tired that he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
B. Feeling very tired, he was determined to continued to climb up the mountain
C. As a result of his tiredness, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
D. Tired as he might feel, he was determined to climb up the mountain.
76: You have paid for the theatre tickets. Please let me pay for our dinner.
A. Please let me pay for our dinner just after your have paid for the theatre tickets.
B. Inasmuch as you have paid for the theatre tickets, please let me pay for our dinner.
C. Please let me pay for our dinner if you have paid for the theatre tickets.
D. You have paid for the theatre tickets so that I will be allowed to pay for our dinner.
77: The snowfall was very heavy. The result of that was they had to cancel all the trains.
A. The snowfall was heavy enough for them to be cancelled all the trains.
B. They had to cancel all the trains because of the snowfall, which had been heavy.
C. The snowfall was very heavy and they had better to cancel all the trains.
D. So great was the snowfall that all the trains had to be cancelled.
Indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following question
78: A. concentrate B. comfortable C. interview D. technology
79: A. enthusiast B. educator C. curricula D. environment
80: A. particular B. acceptable C. pessimistic D. compulsory

ENGLISH TEST 96
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the italic part in each of the
following questions.
Question 1: Henry has found a temporary job in a factory.
A. eternal B. genuine C. permanent D. satisfactory
Question 2: Mr. Smith’s new neighbors appear to be very friendly.
A. amicable B. inapplicable C. hostile D. futile
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the
main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. punctuality B. technological C. characteristic D. representative
Question 4: A. equip B. vacant C. secure D. oblige
Question 5: A. effectiveness B. accountancy C. satisfaction D. appropriate
Question 6: A. prevention B. implement C. fertilize D. enterprise
Question 7: A. dynamism B. accompany C. comfortable D. interview
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 8: We _______ today and I got into trouble because I hadn't done it.
A. were checked our homework B. had our homework checked
C. have our homework checking D. had checked our homework
Question 9: You can go to the party tonight _______ you are sober when you come home.
A. as long as B. as far as C. as soon as D. as well as
Question 10: She must _______ in the garage when we came that's why she didn't hear the bell.
A. have been working B. be working C. have worked D. work
Question 11: I'm sorry, but I've got _______ much work to do to come to the beach today.
A. too B. such C. enough D. so
Question 12: It’s essential that every student _______ the exam before attending the course.
A. passes B. would pass C. passed D. pass
Question 13: I decided to go to the library as soon as I _______.
A. would finish what I did B. finished what I did
C. finished what I was doing D. finish what I did
Question 14: Ancient Egyptians mummified the dead bodies through the use of chemicals, _______ ancient Peruvians did
through natural processes.
A. because B. whereas C. whether or not D. even though
Question 15: Please cut my hair _______ the style in this magazine.
A. the same length like B. the same length as
C. the same long like D. the same long as
Question 16: _______ in this national park declined from a few thousand to a few hundred in ten years.
A. For a number of tigers B. The number of tigers
C. A number of tigers D. That the number of tigers
Question 17: _______, he would have been able to pass the exam.
A. Studying more B. Had he studied more
C. If he studied more D. If he were studying more
Question 18: Study harder _______.
A. if you will pass the exam B. unless you pass the exam
C. or you won’t pass the exam D. and you pass the exam
Question 19: Fire safety in family houses, _______ most fire deaths occur, is difficult.
A. how B. when C. why D. where
Question 20: _______ of the financial crisis, all they could do was hold on and hope that things would improve.
A. In the end B. At the height C. On the top D. At the bottom
Question 21: When I got my case back, it had been damaged _______ repair.
A. over B. further C. above D. beyond
Question 22: We intend to _______ with the old system as soon as we have developed a better one.
A. do up B. do in C. do away D. do down
Question 23: _______ that she burst into tears.
A. So angry was she B. Such her anger C. She was so anger D. Her anger was so
Question 24: We regret to tell you that the materials you ordered are _______.
A. out of reach B. out of practice C. out of stock D. out of work
Question 25: Do you remember Daisy? I ran _______ her at the Fair yesterday.
A. by B. down C. across D. in
Question 26: I’m really sleepy today. I wish I _______ Bob to the airport late last night,
A. weren’t taking B. didn’t take C. hadn’t had to take D. didn’t have to take
Question 27: Matthew’s hands were covered in oil because he _______ his bike.
A. had been mending B. has mended C. has been mending D. had mended
Question 28: – “I think we should recycle these bags. It will help protect the environment.” – “_______”
A. Never mind B. I can’t agree with you more
C. You can say that again D. It’s rubbish. We shouldn’t use it.
Question 29: Mark: -“_______” Helen: “Oh, thank you. I just got it yesterday.”
A. What a beautiful dress you have on! B. How a beautiful dress you’re wearing!
C. You’ve just bought this beautiful dress, haven’t you? D. When have you got this beautiful dress?
Question 30: Host: “I’m terribly sorry for this inconvenience.” Guests: -"_______"
A. It’s mine. I came late B. It’s not your fault C. I’ll do better next time D. Fine, thanks
Question 31: Once known as the “Golden State” because of its gold mines, _______.
A. North Carolina today mines few metallic minerals
B. few metallic minerals are mined in North Carolina today
C. there are few metallic minerals mined in North Carolina today
D. today in North Carolina few metallic minerals are mined
Question 32: Anyone who has ever pulled weeds from a garden _______ roots firmly anchor plants to the soil.
A. well aware B. is well aware that C. is well aware of D. well aware that
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correcting.
Question 33: Children’s games, which are amusements (A) involve more than one individual, (B) appear to be
(C) culturally (D) universal.
Question 34: When I (A) came back I (B) realized that (C) my camera (D) had been disappeared.
Question 35: If (A) either of you (B) take a vacation now, we (C) won’t be able (D) to finish this work.
Question 36: Among the (A) world’s 44 (B) richest countries, (C) there has been (D) not war since 1945.
Question 37: (A) What we know about certain diseases (B) are still not sufficient to prevent them (C) from spreading easily
(D) among the population.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the italic part in each of the
following questions.
Question 38: The lost hikers stayed alive by eating wild berries and drinking spring water.
A. revived B. surprised C. connived D. survived
Question 39: Father has lost his job, so we’ll have to tighten our belt to avoid getting into debt.
A. earn money B. save money C. sit still D. economize
Question 40: She was brought up in a well-off family. She can’t understand the problems we are facing.
A. wealthy B. kind C. broke D. poor
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each
of the questions.
The modern comic strip started out as ammunition in a newspaper war between giants of the American press in the late
nineteenth century. The first full-color comic strip appeared in January 1894 in the New York World, owned by Joseph
Pulitzer. The first regular weekly full-color comic supplement, similar to today’s Sunday funnies, appeared two years later, in
William Randolph Hearst’s rival New York paper, the Morning Journal.
Both were immensely popular and publishers realized that supplementing the news with comic relief boosted the sale of
papers. The Morning Journal started another feature in 1896, the “Yellow Kid”, the first continuous comic character in the
United States, whose creator, Richard Outcault, had been lured away from the World by the ambitious Hearst. The “Yellow
Kid” was in many ways a pioneer. Its comic dialogue was the strictly urban farce that came to characterize later strips, and it
introduced the speech balloon inside the strip, usually placed above the characters’ heads.
The first strip to incorporate all the elements of later comics was Rudolph Dirks’s “Katzenjammer Kids”, based on Wilhelm
Busch’s Max and Moritz, a European satire of the nineteenth century. The “Kids” strip, first published in 1897, served as the
prototype for future American strips. It contained not only speech balloons, but a continuous cast of characters, and was
divided into small regular panels that did away with the larger panoramic scenes of earlier comics.
Newspaper syndication played a major role in spreading the popularity of comic strips throughout the country. Though
weekly colored comics came first, daily black-and-white strips were not far behind. The first appeared in the Chicago
American in 1904. It was followed by many imitators, and by 1915 black-and-white comic strips had become a staple of daily
newspapers around the country.
Question 41: In what order does the author discuss various comic strips in the passage?
A. In the order in which they were created.
B. From most popular to least popular.
C. According to the newspaper in which they appeared.
D. In alphabetical order by title.
Question 42: According to the passage, the “Yellow Kid” was the first comic strip to do all of the following EXCEPT __.
A. feature the same character in each episode B. include dialogue inside a balloon
C. appear in a Chicago newspaper D. characterize city life in a humorous way
Question 43: The word “prototype” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. model B. story C. humor D. drawing
Question 44: The word “staple” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. new version B. huge success C. regular feature D. popular edition
Question 45: The word “incorporate” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. combine B. mention C. create D. affect
Question 46: Why does the author mention Joseph Pulitzer and William Randolph Hearst?
A. Their comic strips are still published today.
B. They owned major competitive newspapers.
C. They established New York’s first newspaper.
D. They published comic strips about the newspaper war.
Question 47: The word “it” refers to _______.
A. balloon B. farce C. dialogue D. the “Yellow Kid”
Question 48: The passage suggests that comic strips were popular for which of the following reasons?
A. Readers enjoyed the unusual drawings.
B. They were about real-life situations.
C. Readers could identify with the characters.
D. They provided a break from serious news stories.
Question 49: To say that Richard Outcault had been “lured away from” the World by Hearst means which of the following?
A. Hearst warned Outcault not to leave the World. C. Hearst fired Outcault from the World.
B. Hearst convinced Outcault to leave the World. D. Hearst wanted Outcault to work for the World.
Question 50: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The differences between early and modern comic strips.
B. Features of early comic strips in the United States.
C. The effects of newspapers on comic strip stories.
D. A comparison of two popular comic strips.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions.
Question 51: The noise next door did not stop until after midnight.
A. It was not until after midnight that the noise next door stopped. C. The noise next door stopped at midnight
B. It was midnight and the noise next door stopped. D. Not until after midnight the noise next door stopped.
Question 52: Their dog was so fierce that nobody would visit them.
A. They had a so fierce dog that nobody would visit them.
B. Their dog was too fierce to visit.
C. They had a such fierce dog that nobody would visit them.
D. They had so fierce a dog that nobody would visit them.
Question 53: If you want to be kept informed about current affairs, you should listen to the radio.
A. Listening to the radio and you will be kept informed about current affairs.
B. A good way of keeping yourself informed about current affairs is listen to the radio.
C. Listening to the radio is a good way of keeping yourself informed about current affairs.
D. Only by listening to the radio, you can keep yourself informed about current affairs.
Question 54: I travel by bus only when I have no alternative.
A. I travel by bus only as a last resort.
B. It’s my only alternative to travel by bus.
C. I resort to travel by bus only when I have no alternative.
D. Travelling by bus is my only alternative.
Question 55: Calling Jim is pointless because his phone is out of order.
A. It’s worth not calling Jim because his phone is out of order.
B. It’s no use to call Jim because his phone is out of order.
C. It’s useless calling Jim because his phone is out of order.
D. There’s no point calling Jim because his phone is out of order.
Question 56: The Prime Minister is unlikely to call an early general election.
A. The likelihood is that the Prime Minister will call an early general election.
B. The likelihood is great that the Prime Minister will call an early general election.
C. It’s likely that the Prime Minister will call an early general election.
D. There is little likelihood of the Prime Minister calling an early general election.
Question 57: Lin’s success took us all by surprise.
A. We were taken aback by all of Lin’s successes. B. Lin’s success was surprised to all of us.
C. Lin was successful, which surprised all of us. D. We took all of Lin’s successes surprisingly.
Question 58: You are in this mess right now because you didn’t listen to me in the first place.
A. If you listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t be in this mess right now.
B. If you had listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t be in this mess right now.
C. If you listen to my advice in the first place, you will not be in this mess right now.
D. If you had listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t have been in this mess right now.
Question 59: Fiona goes to the theater once in a blue moon.
A. Fiona goes to the theater when the moon is full.
B. Fiona rarely goes to the theater.
C. Fiona goes to the theater when the blue moon is on.
D. Fiona goes to the theater only once a month.
Question 60: What the politician was saying fell on deaf ears last night.
A. The politician fell deaf when he was speaking last night.
B. What the politician was saying deafened the listeners last night.
C. No one listened to what the politician was saying last night.
D. No one listened to what the politician was saying last night because they had deaf ears.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of
the blanks
Mobile phones emit microwave radio emissions. Researchers are questioning whether exposure to these radio waves
might (61) _______ to brain cancer. So far, the data are not conclusive. The scientific evidence does not (62) _______ us to
say with certainly that mobile phones are categorically (63) _______. On the other hand, current research has not yet (64)
_______ clear adverse effect associated with the prolonged use of mobile phones.
Numerous studies are now going (65) _______ in various countries. Some of the results are contradictory but others
have shown an association between mobile phone use and cancer. (66) _______, these studies are preliminary and the issue
needs further, long - term investigation.
(67) _______ the scientific data is more definite, it is prudent for people to try not to use mobile phone for long (68)
_______ of time. Don't think that hands free phones are any safer either. At the moment, research is in fact showing the (69)
_______ and they may be just as dangerous. It is also thought that young people (70) _______ bodies are still growing may
be at particular risk.
Question 61: A. cause B. bring C. produce D. lead
Question 62: A. make B. let C. able D. enable
Question 63: A. risky B. secure C. unhealthy D. safe
Question 64: A. proved B. created C. demonstrated D. caused
Question 65: A. on B. about C. through D. by
Question 66: A. While B. Though C. Additionally D. However
Question 67: A. Until B. When C. Provide D. As
Question 68: A. quantities B. periods C. amounts D. intervals
Question 69: A. way B. truth C. opposite D. fact
Question 70: A. whose B. that C. with D. as
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each
of the questions.
Butterflies are among the most extensively studied insects, an estimated 90 percent of the world's species have
scientific names. As a consequence, they are, perhaps, the best group of insects for examining patterns of terrestrial biotic
diversity and distribution. Butterflies also have a favorable image with the general public. Hence, they are an excellent group
for communicating information on science and conservation issues such as diversity.
Perhaps the aspect of butterfly diversity that has received the most attention over the past century is the striking
difference in species richness between tropical and temperate regions.
For example, in 1875 one biologist pointed out the diversity of butterflies in the Amazon when he mentioned that
about 700 species were found within an hour's walk, whereas the total number found on the British islands did not exceed
66, and the whole of Europe supported only 321. This early comparison of tropical and temperate butterfly richness has been
well confirmed.
A general theory of diversity would have to predict not only this difference between temperate and tropical zones, but
also patterns within each region, and how these patterns vary among different animal and plant groups. However, for
butterflies, variation of species richness within temperate or tropical regions, rather than between them, is poorly
understood. Indeed, comparisons of numbers of species among the Amazon basin, tropical Asia, and Africa are still mostly
"personal communication" citations, even for vertebrates. In other words, unlike comparison between temperate and
tropical areas, these patterns are still in the documentation phase.
In documenting geographical variation in butterfly diversity, some arbitrary, practical decisions are made. Diversity,
number of species, and species richness are used synonymously; little is known about the evenness of butterfly distribution.
The New World butterflies make up the preponderance of examples because they are the most familiar species. It is hoped
that by focusing on them, the errors generated by imperfect and incomplete taxonomy will be minimized.
Question 71: Which aspect of butterflies does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Their physical characteristics B. Their adaptation to different habitats
C. Their names D. Their variety
Question 72: The word "consequence" in the passage is closest in meaning to "_______".
A. requirement B. analysis C. result D. explanation
Question 73: Butterflies are a good example for communicating information about conservation issues because they
_______.
A. are found mainly in temperate climates B. have been given scientific names
C. are simple in structure D. are viewed positively by people
Question 74: The word "striking" in the passage is closest in meaning to "_______".
A. noticeable B. successful C. confusing D. physical
Question 75: The word “exceed” in the passage is closest in meaning to "_______".
A. allow B. go beyond C. come close to D. locate
Question 76: All of the followings are mentioned as being important parts of a general theory of diversity EXCEPT
A. differences between temperate and tropical zones
B. variation of patterns of distribution of species among different animals and plants
C. patterns of distribution of species in each region
D. migration among temperate and tropical zones
Question 77: The author mentions "tropical Asia" in the passage as an example of a location where _______.
A. a general theory of butterfly diversity has not yet been firmly established
B. butterflies are affected by human populations
C. butterfly behavior varies with climate
D. documenting plant species is more difficult than documenting butterfly species
Question 78: Which of the following is NOT well understood by biologists?
A. European butterfly habitats
B. Comparisons of behavior patterns of butterflies and certain animal groups
C. Differences in species richness within a temperate or a tropical region
D. Differences in species richness between temperate and tropical regions
Question 79: The idea "little is known about the evenness of butterfly distribution" is that _______.
A. there are many other things that we don't know about butterfly evenness distribution
B. we don't know anything about butterfly evenness distribution
C. we know much about butterfly evenness distribution
D. we know about butterfly evenness distribution to some extent
Question 80: The word "generated" in the passage is closest in meaning to "_______".
A. assisted B. estimated C. requested D. caused

ENGLISH TEST 97
PART I: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of
the main stress in each of the following questions.
1: A. eventually B. capacity C. altogether D. particular
2: A. appearance B. ambitious C. performance D. telephone
3:A. temptation B. property C. government D. beautiful
4:A. relation B. arrange C. summary D. eliminate
5: A. interview B. processor C. essential D. compliment
PART II: Mark the correct answer to each of the following questions.
6: To solve this problem, it is advisable _______ .
A. a drastic measure to be adopted B. that to adopt a drastic measure
C. that a drastic measure be adopted D. that a drastic measure is adopted
7: John. “Do you think that we should use public transportation to protect our environment?” Laura. “_______ ”.
A. Yes, it's an absurd idea B. There's no doubt about it
C. Of course not. You bet D. Well, that's very surprising
8: A few animals sometimes fool their enemies _______ to be dead.
A. have been appearing B. to be appearing
C. to appear D. by appearing
9: On _______ he had won, he jumped for joy.
A. he was told B. having told C. being told D. telling
10: The success of the party was mainly due to the presence of several_______ .
A. celebrations B. celebrated C. celebrities D. celebrates
11: When a fire broke out in the Louvre, at least twenty _______ paintings were destroyed, including two by Picasso.
A. worthless B. priceless C. valueless D. worthy
12: His brother refuses to even listen to anyone else's point of view. He is very_______.
A. open – minded B. kind – hearted C. narrow- minded D. absent - minded
13: In most__ developed countries, up to 50% of___ population enters higher education at some time in their lives.
A. the/  B. /  C. the/ a D.  /the
14: What chemical is this? It's _______ a horrible smell.
A. giving over B. giving off C. giving down D. giving up
15: I have told you not to do it_______ .
A. hundreds of timesB. many hundred times C. hundred times D. a hundred times
16: Learning English isn't so difficult once you_______ .
A. get down to it B. get off it C. get on it D. get down with it
17: George wouldn't have met Mary_______ to his brother's graduation party.
A. had he not gone B. hadn't he gone C. if he has not gone D. if he shouldn't have gone
18: Nowadays children would prefer history _______ in more practical ways.
A. to be taught B. teach C. be taught D. to teach
19: John has a monthly bank __ sent to him so that he knows how much there is in his account.
A. statement B. overdraft C. cheque D. balance
20: Can you list the problems _______ poor and _______ countries?
A. facing/ overpopulation B. facing/ overpopulated C. face/ overpopulated D. facing/ overpopulating
21: In a few hours, we_______ the test, and we’ll go home and rest.
A. are finishing B. have finished C. will have finished D. will be finishing
22: The doctor gave the patient _______ examination to discover the cause of his collapse.
A. a thorough B. an exact C. a universal D. a whole
23: I thought you said she was going away the next Sunday,_______ ?
A. wasn't she B. didn't you C. didn't I D. wasn't it
24: _______ non-verbal language is _______ important aspect of interpersonal communication.
A.  /an B. A/ the C. the/ D. The/a
25: We bought some _______.
A. German lovely old glasses B. German old lovely glasses
C. lovely old German glasses D. old lovely German glasses
26: Tom. "I'm sorry. I won't be able to come". - Mary. “_______”.
A. Great B. Oh, that's annoying C. Well, never mind D. Sounds like fun
27: _______ air essential is to man, so is water to fish.
A. As B. Just C. Since D. Like
28: If you had taken my advice, you _______ in such difficulties now.
A. wouldn't have been B. hadn't been C. wouldn't be D. won't be
29: One's fingerprints are _______ other person.
A. different from B. different from any C. differ from any D. different from those of any
30: Jane wasn't in when I arrived. I suppose she _______ I was coming.
A. must have forgotten B. must forget C. may forget D. can't have forgotten
31: ____ appears considerably larger at the horizon than it does overhead is merely an optical illusion.
A. The Moon B. The Moon which C. When the Moon D. That the Moon
32: I should very much like to have gone to that party of theirs, but _______.
A. I'm not invited B. I will not be invited
C. I have not been invited D. I was not invited
33: Jane. “It's going to rain”. Mary. “_______”.
A. I hope not so B. I don't hope either C. I don't hope so D. I hope not
34: A good friend is _______ will stand by you when you are in trouble.
A. the one who B. a person that C. people who D. who
35: _______, we tried our best to complete it.
A. Difficult as the homework was B. Thanks to the difficult homework
C. As though the homework was difficult D. Despite the homework was difficult
36: She listened so attentively that not a word_______.
A. she had missed B. she missed C. she didn't miss D. did she miss
37: On hearing the news she fainted and it was half an hour before she came_______ again.
A. round B. up C. over D. forward
38: The policeman_______ him to appear as a witness.
A. let B. discouraged C. made D. compelled
39: Many political radicals advocated that women should not be discriminated on the basic of their sex.
A. publicly supported B. rightly claimed C. publicly said D. openly criticized
40: Staying in a hotel costs _______ renting a room in a dormitory for a week.
A. as much as twice B. twice as much as C. twice more than D. twice as
PART III: Mark the underlined part that needs correction.
41: The (A) reason he wants to take a leaving (B) of absence is that he (C) needs a complete (D) rest.
42: His boss (A) has asked (B) him to respond (C) immediately (D) this fax.
43: It is the writing (A) English that (B) causes difficulties (C) to foreigners (D).
44: The (A) diameter of the Sun is more than (B) one hundred times (C) greater than (D) the Earth.
45: Foreign students who are doing (A) a decision about which (B) school to attend (C) may not know exactly where the
choices (D) are located.
PART IV: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the sentence which is closest in meaning to the
given one.
46: Friendly though he may seem, he's not to be trusted.
A. He's too friendly to be trusted.
B. However he seems friendly, he's not to be trusted.
C. He may have friends, but he's not to be trusted.
D. However friendly he seems, he's not to be trusted.
47: You should have persuaded him to change his mind.
A. It was essential to persuade him to change his mind but you didn’t.
B. You didn't persuade him to change because of his mind.
C. You should persuade him to change his mind.
D. You persuaded him to change his mind but he didn't listen.
48: When the unemployment rate is high, the crime rate is usually also high.
A. The unemployment rate and the crime rate are both higher.
B. The higher the unemployment rate is, the higher the crime rate is.
C. The unemployment rate is as high as the crime rate.
D. The high rate of unemployment depends on the high rate of crime.
49: I wish you hadn't said that.
A. I wish you not to say that. B. If only you didn't say that.
C. I hope you will not say that. D. It would be nice if you hadn't said that.
50: “You're always making terrible mistakes”, said the teacher.
A. The teacher asked his students why they always made terrible mistakes.
B. The teacher realized that his students always made terrible mistakes.
C. The teacher complained about his students making terrible mistakes.
D. The teacher made his students not always make terrible mistakes.
PART V: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the one that best completes each sentence.
51: My English is progressing __________.
A. odds and ends B. leaps and bounds C. bounds and leaps D. ends and odds
52: Many of the current international problems we are now facing __________.
A. linguistic incompetencies
B. are the result of misunderstandings
C. are because of not understanding themselves
D. lack of the intelligent capabilities of understanding each other
53: We got on well when we shared a flat, __________.
A. in spite of the different in our old B. although the difference in our age
C. in spite that fact that I was much older than her D. despite her being much older than me
54: Having selected to represent the Association of American Engineers at the International Convention, ___.
A. the members applauded him B. a speech had to be given by him
C. the members congratulated him D. he gave a short acceptance speech
55: When you do something, you should __________.
A. get through to B. turn over a new leaf C. weigh up the pros and cons D. go down well with
PART VI: Read the following passage and mark the correct answer to each of the following questions
Telecommunicating is a form of computer communication between employees’ homes and offices. For employees whose
jobs involve sitting at a terminal or word processor entering data or typing reports, the location of the computer is of no
consequence. If the machine can communicate over telephone lines, when the work is completed, employees can dial the
office computer from a distant site and transmit the material to their employers. A recent survey in USA Today estimates
that there are approximately 8.7 million telecommuters. But although the numbers are rising annually, the trend does not
appear to be as significant as predicted when Business Week published "The Portable Executive" as its cover story a few years
ago. Why hasn't telecommuting become more popular?
Clearly, change simply takes time. But in addition, there has been active resistance on the part of many managers. These
executives claim that supervising the telecommuters in a large work force scattered across the country would be too difficult,
or, at least, systems for managing them are not yet developed, thereby complicating the manager's responsibilities.
It is also true that employees who are given the option of telecommuting are often reluctant to accept the opportunity. Most
people feel that they need regular interaction with a group, and many are concerned that they will not have the same
consideration for advancement if they are not more visible in the office setting. Some people feel that even when a space in
their homes is set aside as a work area, they never really get away from the office.
56: The author mentions all of the following as concerns of telecommuters EXCEPT_____ .
A. the lack of interaction with a group B. the different system of supervision
C. the fact that the work space is in the home D. the opportunities for advancement
57: How many American workers are involved in telecommuting?
A. More than 8 million B. More than predicted in Business Week
C. Fewer than estimated in USA Today D. Fewer than last year
58: It can be inferred from the passage that the author is _______.
A. the manager of a group of telecommuters B. a reporter
C. a telecommuter D. a statistician
59: The word "resistance" could best be replaced by_______.
A. participation B. consideration C. opposition D. alteration
60: Which of the following is the main topic of the passage?
A. A definition of telecommuting B. The advantages of telecommuting
C. An overview of telecommuting D. The failure of telecommuting
PART VII: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions from 61 to 70.
Although they are an inexpensive supplier of vitamins, minerals, and high-quality protein, eggs also contain a high level of
blood cholesterol, one of the major causes of heart diseases. One egg yolk, in fact, contains a little more than two-thirds of
the suggested daily cholesterol limit. This knowledge has caused egg sales to plummet in recent years, which in turn has
brought about the development of several alternatives to eating regular eggs. One alternative is to eat substitute eggs. These
egg substitutes are not really eggs, but they look somewhat like eggs when they are cooked. They have the advantage of
having low cholesterol rates, and they can be scrambled or used in baking. One disadvantage, however, is that they are not
good for frying, poaching, or boiling. A second alternative to regular eggs is a new type of egg, sometimes called 'designer'
eggs. These eggs are produced by hens that are fed low-fat diets consisting of ingredients such as canola oil, flax, and rice
bran. In spite of their diets, however, these hens produce eggs that contain the same amount of cholesterol as regular eggs.
Yet, the producers of these eggs claim that eating their eggs will not raise the blood cholesterol in humans.
Egg producers claim that their product has been portrayed unfairly. They cite scientific studies to back up their claim. And,
in fact, studies on the relationship between eggs and human cholesterol levels have brought mixed results. It may be that it
is not the type of egg that is the main determinant of cholesterol but the person who is eating the eggs. Some people may
be more sensitive to cholesterol derived from food than other people. In fact, there is evidence that certain dietary fats
stimulate the body's production of blood cholesterol. Consequently, while it still makes sense to limit one's intake of eggs,
even designer eggs, it seems that doing this without regulating dietary fat will probably not help reduce the blood cholesterol
level.
61: What is the main purpose of the passage?
A. To introduce the idea that dietary fat increases the blood cholesterol level.
B. To inform people about the relationship between eggs and cholesterol.
C. To persuade people that eggs are unhealthy and should not be eaten
D. To convince people to eat 'designer' eggs and egg substitutes.
62: According to the passage, which of the following is a cause of heart diseases?
A. minerals B. cholesterol C. canola oil D. vitamins
63: Which of the following could best replace the word 'somewhat'?
A. in fact B. a little C. indefinitely D. a lot
64: What has been the cause for changes in the sale of eggs?
A. increasing price B. decreased production
C. dietary changes in hens D. concerns about cholesterol
65: According to the passage, one yolk contains approximately what fraction of the suggested daily limit for human
consumption of cholesterol?
A. 3/4 B. 2/3 C. 1/2 D. 1/3
66: The word 'portrayed' could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. studied B. destroyed C. tested D. described
67: What is the meaning of 'back up'?
A. reverse B. advance C. block D. support
68: What is meant by the phrase 'mixed results'?
A. The results are blended. B. The results are a composite of things.
C. The results are inconclusive. D. The results are mingled together.
69: According to the passage, egg substitutes cannot be used to make any of following types of eggs EXCEPT?
A. boiled B. poached C. scrambled D. fried
70: According to the author, which of the following may reduce blood cholesterol?
A. reducing egg intake but not fat intake B. increasing egg intake and fat intake
C. decreasing egg intake and fat intake D. increasing egg intake but not fat intake
PART VIII: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word for each of the blanks 71 to 80.
The first question we might ask is: What can you learn in college that will help you in being an employee? The
schools teach a (71)____many things of value to the future accountant, doctor or electrician. Do they also teach
anything of value to the future employee? Yes, they teach the one thing that it is perhaps most valuable for the future
employee to know. But very few students bother (72)____ it. This basic is the skill ability to organize and
express ideas in writing and in speaking. This means that your success as an employee will depend on
your ability to communicate, with people and to (73)____ your own thoughts and ideas to them so they
will (74)____ understand what you are driving at and be persuaded.
Of course, skill in expression is not enough (75)____ itself. You must have something to say in the
first place. The effectiveness of your job depends (76) ___ your ability to make other people understand your
work as they do on the quality of the work itself.
Expressing one's thoughts is one skill that the school can (77)___ teach. The foundations for skill in
expression have to be (78)____ early: an interest in and an ear (79)____ language; experience in
organizing ideas and data, in brushing aside the irrelevant, and above all the habit of verbal expression.
If you do not lay these foundations (80) ____ your school years, you may never have an opportunity again.
71: A. large B. great C. far D. lots
72: A. learning B. to learn C. with learning D. learn
73: A. interpret B. give out C. transfer D. present
74: A. both B. not C. as well D. either
75: A. on B. for C. by D. in
76: A. on most B. most on C. much on D. on much
77: A. quite B. hardly C. truly D. really
78: A. lied B. laid C. lain D. lay
79: A. by B. in C. for D. of
80: A. during B. of C. for D. when

ENGLISH TEST 98
Read the following passage and choose the correct answer for each of the blanks
According to a magazine article I read recently, we (1)_____ live in an age of increasing leisure. Not only are more and
more people reaching retirement age with their taste for enjoyment and even adventure relatively (2)________ but the
working week is becoming shorter and the opportunities for leisure are becoming greater and greater all the time. Not to
mention the fact that people (3)_______ to spend less time traveling to work or may even be working from home. What I
can't understand, however, is who these people are. As far as I can (4)________ the whole thing is another one of (5)_______
journalistic fictions. I admit that there are a lot of retired people (6)_________ but I am not sure that all of them are dashing
about learning hang- gliding or sailing single-handed (7)_________ the world. My own parents seem to (8)_______ most of
their time gazing at the television. And as for the shorter working week, I wish someone (9)________ remind my company
about it. I seem to be working longer and longer hours all the time. The little leisure time I have is eaten into by sitting in the
traffic jams or waiting for trains to (10)_______ up at rain-swept platforms. I haven't noticed any dramatic improvements in
my (11)_________ either, but perhaps I just have to wait until I get my pension.
1: A. presently B. at the moment C. now D. at this time
2: A. present B. survived C. free D. intact
3: A. use B. tend C. have D. demand
4: A. concern B. imagine C. expect D. tell
5: A. the B. those C. these D. some
6: A. in our days B. in these times C. nowadays D. now and again
7: A. round B. over C. through D. into
8: A. have B. use C. save D. spend
9: A. would B. to C. had D. might
10: A. keep B. line C. show D. set
11: A. cost of living B. lifestyle C. lifeline D. livelihood
Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions from 12 to 18.
The food we eat seems to have profound effects on our health. Although science has made enormous steps in making food
more fit to eat, it has, at the same time, made many foods unfit to eat. Some research has shown that perhaps eighty percent
of all human illnesses are related to diet and forty percent of cancer is related to the diet as well., especially cancer of the
colon. People of different cultures are more prone to contract certain illnesses because of the characteristic foods they
consume.
That food is related to illness is not a new discovery. In 1945, government researchers realized that nitrates and nitrites
(commonly used to preserve color in meat) as well as other food additives caused cancer. Yet, these carcinogenic
additives remain in our food, and it becomes more difficult all the time to know which ingredients on the packaging labels of
processed food are helpful or harmful.
The additives that we eat are not all so direct. Farmers often give penicillin to cattle and poultry, and because of this,
penicillin has been found in the milk of treated cows.
Sometimes similar drugs are administered to animals not for medicinal purposes, but for financial reasons. The farmers
are simply trying to fatten the animals in order to obtain a higher price on the market. Although the Food and Drug
Administration (FDA) has tried repeatedly to control these procedures, the practices continue.
A healthy diet is directly related to good health. Often we are unaware of detrimental substances we ingest. Sometimes
well-meaning farmers or others who do not realize the consequences add these substances to food without our knowledge.
12: What is the best title for this passage?
A. Harmful and Harmless Substances in Food B. Improving Health through a Natural Diet.
C. The Food You Eat Can Affect Your Health D. Avoiding Injurious Substances in Food.
13: The word “ carcinogenic” is closest in meaning to _____________.
A. money-making B. trouble-making C. cancer-causing D. color-retaining
14: : The word “ these” refers to ____________.
A. researchers B. nitrates and nitrites C. meats D. colors
15: The word “ fit” is closest in meaning to _____________.
A. athletic B. adaptable C. suitable D. tasty
16: FDA means ____________.
A. Food and Drug Administration B. Federal Dairy Additives C. Final Difficult Analysis D. Food Direct Additives
17: The word “additives” is closest in meaning to ________________.
A. added substances B. benign substances C. dangerous substances D. natural substances
18: What are nitrates used for?
A. They preserve flavor in packaged foods B. They cause the animals to become fatter.
C. They are the objects of research D. They preserve the colour of meat
19: How has science done a disservice to people?
A. The scientists have preserved the color of meats, but not of vegetables.
B. It caused a lack of information concerning the value of food.
C. As a result of scientific intervention, some potentially harmful substances have been added to our food
D. Because of science, disease caused by contaminated food has been virtually eradicated.
20: The word “ prone” is nearest in meaning to __________.
A. supine B. unlikely C. predisposed D. healthy
21: All of the following statements are true except_____________.
A. Researchers have known about the potential hazards of food additives for more than forty-five years.
B. Drugs are always given to animals for medical reasons
C. Food may cause forty percent of the cancer in the world.
D. Some of the additives in our food are added to the food itself and some are given to the living animals.
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest ones.
22: A. imagine B. Valentine C. determine D. discipline
23: A. shore B. assure C. eventually D. proficient
Choose the correct answer to each of the following questions.
24: : The government should take ___________ to reduce the current high unemployment rate.
A. measures B. changes C. steps D. solutions
25: .. ............... that the company has shown rapid growth in the last two years.
A. They are reported B. It is reported C. The report was D. It was reported
26: Professor Alan insisted that every student ___________ their report by Friday.
A. finish B. finishes C. had finished D. finished
27: Doctors advise people who are deficient _________ Vitamin C to eat more fruit and vegetables.
A. for B. in C. of D. from
28: Sandra and Paul have just bought a small house…………………….. of the town.
A. in the district B. in the edge C. on the outskirts D. in the suburb
29: I’m sorry if I gave you false information : I didn’t intend to __________ you
A. mislead B. misconduct C. misrepresent D. mistrust
30: Let’s go ahead and do it now. Nothing ____________ by waiting.
A. accomplished B. accomplished C. has accomplished D. will be accomplished
31: I’m sorry you’ve decided not to go with us on the river trip ,___________ you change your mind , there will still enough
room on the boat for you.
A. provided that B. even C. nevertheless D. in the event that
32: We wish that you____________ such a lot of work , because we know that you would have enjoyed the party.
A. hadn’t B. haven’t had C. didn’t have D. hadn’t had
33: Look ! the yard is wet. It ______________ last night.
A. must have rained B. must rain C. couldn’t have rained D. should have rained
34: John. “Do you think that we should use public transportation to protect our environment?” -Laura. “______”
A . Yes, it’s an absurd idea B. Well, that’s very surprising
C. Of course not. You bet! D. There’s no doubt about it.
35: They decided to name the new baby boy ______________ Grandpa.
A. with B. as C. of D. after
36: ____________ in your class have tickets for the lecture series?
A. Does any of the student B. Do any of the students
C. Do any of the student D. Does any of the students
37: Robert has a new car. He __________ it for a very good price. He paid 30 percent less than the regular retail cost.
A. could buy B. had to buy C. was supposed to buy D. was able to buy
38: Don’t worry if you make a mistake. Just ______________ it out.
A. leave B. rule C. cross D. slip
39: After failing his driving test four times, he finally ______________ trying to pass.
A. give away B. gave up C. gave off D. gave in
40: It was only _________ he told me his surname that I realized that he had been to the same school.
A. as soon as B. then C. when D. until
41: Olives are a principal source of cooking oil, but by no means the only source. __________ olives, cooking oil can be
extracted from coconuts , corn, and sunflower seeds.
A. In spite of B. In addition to C. Because of D. In case of
42: I would appreciate it................ what I have told you a secret.
A. you can keep B. that you kept C. if you kept D. you will keep
43: The United States consists of fifty states, ______ has its own government.
A. hence each B. each of that C. each of which D. they each
44: There is a severe ____________ in South Africa ,and thousands of people are dying from hunger.
A. starvation B. disease C. shortage D. famine
45: I don’t like to ask people for help but I wonder if you could ________________
A. make me a favour B. find me a favour C. do me a favour D. give me a favour
46: By the time he had finished work and returned home, he was absolutely________________
A. exhausted B. tired C. weary D. weak
47: “ Hello? Alice? This is Jeff. How are you ?” “ Jeff? What a coincidence! I ______ about you when the phone rang.”
A. just thought B. was just thought C. was just thinking D. have just been thinking
48: Having been served lunch, __________________
A. it was discussed by the committee members the problem
B. a discussion of the problem was made by the members of the committee.
C. the committee members discussed the problem
D. the problem was discussed by the members of the committee.
Choose the sentence that expresses the best meaning formed by the given words.
49: / computer / run / ten times / fast / this / old one /
A. This computer runs faster ten times than the old one.
B. This computer runs ten times faster than the old one.
C. This ten times computer runs faster than the old one.
D. This computer runs fast ten times than the old one.
50: / survive / we / work / start / cleaner / safer / energy / sources /
A. We won’t survive otherwise we start working on cleaner, safer sources of energy.
B. We won’t survive so we start working on cleaner, safer sources of energy.
C. We won’t survive unless we start working on cleaner, safer sources of energy.
D. We won’t survive although we start working on cleaner, safer sources of energy.
51: I / think / your offer/ give / my answer / as / possible
A. I’ll think for your offer and give you my answer as soon as possible.
B. I’ll think over your offer and give you my answer as soon as possible.
C. I’ll think about your offer and give you my answer as soon as possible.
D. I’ll think of your offer and give you my answer as soon as possible.
Choose the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
52: Were it not for the money, this job wouldn’t be worthwhile.
A. This job offers a poor salary. B. This job is rewarding at all.
C. The only thing that makes this job worthwhile is the money. D. Although the salary is poor, the job is worthwhile.
53: Invitations were sent out as soon as the date of the conference was chosen.
A. Before sending out invitations, the date of the conference was chosen.
B. Choose the date of the conference before sending out invitations.
C. Hardly had the date of the conference been chosen when invitations were sent out..
D. After choosing the date of the conference, invitations were sent out.
54: The film didn’t come up to my expectations.
A. I expected the film to be more boring. B. The film fell short of my expectations.
C. I expected the film to end more abruptly. D. The film was as good as I expected.
55: I lent him some money. I wanted him to continue his study at college.
A. I lent him some money so as he will continue his study at college.
B. I lent him some money in order that he could continue his study at college.
C. I lent him some money so that to continue his study at college.
D. I lent him some money for him continue his study at college.
56: It is believed that the man escaped in a stolen car.
A. They believed that the man stole the car.
B. The man is believed to have escaped in a stolen car.
C. The man is believed to escaped in a stolen car.
D. That the man they believed stole the car.
57: There was a hurricane in August 1992 over West Africa. This hurricane was named Andrew.
A. There was a hurricane what was named Andrew in August 1992 over West Africa.
B. There was a hurricane in August 1992 over West Africa whose hurricane was named Andrew.
C. There was a hurricane who was named Andrew in August 1992 over West Africa.
D. There was a hurricane which was named Andrew in August 1992 over West Africa.
58: Nothing but the whole story would satisfied Tim.
A. On the whole, Tim was satisfied with the story.
B. Tim wanted to know just the end of the story.
C. Tim wouldn’t be satisfied with anything.
D. Tim insisted on being told the complete story.
59: Mr. Smith is now the fifth wealthiest man in this city.
A. Mr. Smith is wealthier than five people.
B. Only four people in this city are wealthier than Mr. Smith .
C. No one in this city has more wealth than Mr. Smith.
D. Mr. Smith is the wealthiest one in this city.
60: The moon doesn’t have the atmosphere, neither does the planet Mars.
A. Neither the moon nor the planet Mars has the atmosphere.
B. Neither the moon or the planet Mars has the atmosphere.
C. Either the moon or the planet Mars has the atmosphere.
D. Either the moon nor the planet Mars has the atmosphere.
61: I think Bob has forgotten the whole event.
A. The whole event is no longer mentioned.
B. Bob appears to have forgotten the whole event.
C. Nothing about the event is worth remembering.
D. Bob must forget the whole event.
Choose the underlined part needs correction in each of the following questions.
62: When (A) the silkworm (B) gets through (C) to lay (D) its eggs, it dies.
63: The high protein (A) content of various strains of alfalfa plants, along with the (B) characteristically long root system
that enables them to survive long droughts, (C) make them (D) particularly valuable in arid countries
64: A fiber-optic cable (A) across the Pacific (B) went into service (C) in April 1989, (D) link the United States and Japan.
65: The Gray Wolf, a species (A) reintroduced into (B) their native habitat in Yellowstone National park, (C) has begun to
breed (D) naturally there.
66: (A) Those of you (B) who signed up (C) for Dr Daniel’s anthropology class should get (D) their books as soon as possible.
Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions
According to airline industry statistics, almost 90 percent of airline accidents are survivable or partially survivable. But
passengers can increase their chances of survival by learning and following certain tips. Experts say that you should read and
listen to safety instructions before takeoff and ask questions if you have uncertainties. You should fasten your seat belt low
on your hips and as tightly as possible. Of course, you should also know how the release mechanism of your belt operates.
During takeoff and landings you are advised to keep your feet flat on the floor. Before takeoff you should locate the nearest
exit and an alterative exit and count the rows of seat between you and the exits so that you can find them in the dark if
necessary
In the even that you are forewarned of the possible accident, you should put your hands on your ankles and keep your
head down until the plane come to complete stop. If smoke is present in the cabin, you should keep your head low and cover
your face with napkins, towels, or clothing. If possible, wet these for added protection against smoke inhalation. To evacuate
as quickly as possible, follow crew command and do not take personal belongings with you. Do not jump on escape slides
before they are fully inflated and when you jump, do so with your arms and legs extended in front of you. When you get to
the ground, you should move away from the plane as quickly as possible, and never smoke near the wreckage.
67: Travelers are urged by experts to read and listen to safety instructions ?
A. in an emergency B. if smoke is in the cabin
C. before locating the exits D. before take off
68: Airline passenger are to do all of the following EXCEPT
A locate the nearest exist B fasten their seat belt before take off
C ask questions about safety D carry personal belongings in an emergency
69: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. guidelines for increasing aircraft passengers survival. B. procedures for evacuating aircraft
C. safety instructions in air travel D. airline industry accident statistics
70: According to the passage, which exits should an airline passenger locate before take off
A. the nearest one B. the ones that can be found in the dark
C. the ones with counted rows of seats between them D. the two closest to the passenger’s seat
71: The word “inflated” in the second paragraph is closes in meaning to_______.
A. expanded B. extended C. lifted D. assembled
72:It can be inferred from the passage that people are more likely to survive fires in aircrafts if they _____
A. read airline safety statistics B. wear a safety belt
C. don’t smoke in or near a plane D. keep their heads low
73:According to the passage, airline travelers should keep their feet flat on the floor _____ .
A. only if an accident is possible B. during takeoff and landings
C. especially during landings D. throughout the flight
74:The word “evacuate” in the second paragraph is closes in meaning to_______.
A. abscond B. vacate C. forestall D. evade
75:What does the paragraph following the passage most probably discuss?
A. Where to go to continue your trip B. How to proceed once you are away from the aircraft
C. How to recover your luggage D. When to return to the aircraft
Choose the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions
76 : A. invalid B. predict C. pretend D. preface
77 : A. mausoleum B. conservative C. disqualify D. magnificant
78 : A. nuclear B. province C. construct D. complex
79 : A. literacy B. contingency C. ceremony D. sanctuary
80 : A. optimist B. accuracy C. continent D. artificial

*** The end ***

ENGLISH TEST 99
I. PHONETICS.
Identify the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.
1. A. privacy B. flight C. recycle D. vivid
2. A. introduce B. huge C. flute D. cute
3. A. ballet B. inlet C. buffet D. stay
Identify the word that has the stress pattern different from that of the other words.
4. A. elegant B. array C. departure D. inherit
5. A. belief B. dinosaur C. argument D. challenge
II. VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR.
Choose the right word or phrase to complete the sentences.
6. There’s a list of repairs as long as .
A. a mile B. a pole C. your arm D. your arms
7. The news was to them that they were all dead silent.
A. such shock B. such a shock C. so shock D. too shock
8. In the United States the states but Hawaii is an island.
A. none of B. neither of C. all of D. no of
9. What a ! I have left the umbrella at home and now it starts raining.
A. complaint B. sorry C. shame D. regret
th
10. are forms of carbon has been known since the late 18 century.
A. Diamonds B. Diamonds, which C. Because diamonds D. That diamonds
11. Dinosaurs believed out millions of years ago.
A. are/ to have died B. were/ to have died C. are/ to die D. were/ to die
12. “Which blouse do you like best?” “ The one .”
A. I tried it on first B. I tried on first C. I tried on it first D. I tried it on firstly
13. The Williams have three sons, have become lawyers.
A. all of whom B. all of them C. they all D. of whom all
14. We would rather Helen us all the information we needed. We should have been well informed.
A. sent B. send C. had sent D. have sent
15. Only because she had to support her family to leave school.
A. that Alice decides B. so Alice decided C. Alice decided D. did Alice decide
16. Sorry, my father is out. Can I a message?
A. leave B. take C. put D. make
17. pollution control measures are expensive, many industries hesitate to adopt them.
A. Because B. Although C. However D. On account of
18. Income tax rates are usually to one’s annual income.
A. dependent B. associated C. adapted D. related
19. She won the competition in 2008 and seems likely again this year.
A. win B. to win C. to do so D. will win
20. The majority of primary school teachers women.
A. is B. are C. includes D. including
21. today, there would be nowhere for them to stay.
A. Were they to arrive B. If they arrive
C. Had they arrive D. Provided they arrived
22. “ I’m taking my driving test tomorrow.” “ !”
A. Luck B. Best wishes C. Good luck D. Good chance
23. The restaurant is very popular with film stars, artists, and the .
A. same B. similar C. such D. like
24. There are different styles in classical music, on when the music was composed.
A. depend B. depending C. depends D. depended
25. The bicycle has two wheels. One wheel is in front of .
A. another B. the other C. other D. others
26. His house is nothing out of the ; it’s just an average four- room house.
A. normal B. typical C. ordinary D. usual
27. Moving to a new town brought about many changes in his life.
A. resulted in B. speeded up C. resulted from D. prevented
28. Will you please give back the pen that yesterday?
A. I borrowed from you B. you lent to me
C. you borrowed to me D. I lent to you
29. “ Let me see. Will five o’clock do?” the nurse answered the patient who wanted an appoinment.
The most appropriate response is “ .”
A. Exactly! B. Not at all C. Maybe, it will D. Fine
30. “ That trumpet player was certainly loud.” “ I wasn’t bothered by his loudness by his lack of talent.”
A. so much as B. rather than C. as D. than
31. “ Do you mind if I ask you one or two questions?” “ .”
A. Not at all. Fire away. B. That’s quite all right.
C. Why not? D. I’m sorry. I have no idea.
32. Their migration may be halted if fog, clouds, or rain hides the stars.
A. postponed B. spoiled C. stopped D. endangered
33. This magazine is very good. If you like reading, you should to it.
A. contribute B. enroll C. buy D. subscribe
34. the Prime Minister stressed that lack of trained personnel would the progress of Third Development Plan.
A. overcome B. retard C. increase D. detect
35. We asked him to go back, but he insisted on watching the sun coming down at .
A. sunrise B. dawn C. dusk D. twilight
Choose the underlined part ( A, B, C or D) that is incorrect.
36. Hundred of scientists have been involved in the research.
A B C D
37. Automation reduces labour costs by cutting the number of workers needing to do a job.
A B C D
38. He drove at full speed lest he was late for the meeting.
A B C D
39. A computer can store information such as the size and the shape of a steel beam, recipe for a
A B C D
cake, and the amount of money in a bank account.
40. Many of the population in the rural areas is composed of manual labourers.
A B C D
III. READING.
Read the following passage and choose the right answer to fill in each of the blanks.
Keeping fit and staying healthy have, not surprisingly, become a growth industry (41) apart
from the amount of money spent each year on doctors’ (42) and approved medical treatment, huge sums are
now spent on health foods and (43) of various kinds, from vitamin pills to mineral water, (44)
health clubs and keep- fit books and videos. We are more concerned than ever, it seeems, (45) the water we
drink and the air we breathe, and are smoking less, though not yet drinking less alcohol. This does not appear to mean that
(46) and sneezes have been banished, or that we can all expect to live to a hundred. To give a personal example,
one of my friends, who is a keep- fit (47) , a non- smoker and teetotaler, and who is very (48)
about what he eats, is at present languishing in bed with a wrist in (49) and a badly sprained ankle. Part of
his healthy (50) is to play squash every day after work, and that (51) for the ankle. He also cycles
everywhere, and if you have ever tried to cycle through the rush-hour traffic with a sprained ankle, you will understand (52)
he acquired the broken wrist. For (53) , it seems, is not just a matter of a good (54)
and plenty of exercise. Too much exercise can be harmful, as many joggers have discovered. Eating the right food can easily
become an obsession, as can overworking, which you might have to do so as to be able to afford your (55) of
the squash club, your mountain bike, your health food, and a few holidays in peaceful and healthy places.
41. A. Poles B. Far C. Quite D. So
42. A. prescriptions B. surgeries C. hospitals D. payments
43. A. medications B. cures C. drugs D. remedies
44. A. beside B. not to mention C. saying D. example
45. A. than B. about C. for D. hence
46. A. colds B. flu C. fevers D. coughs
47. A. fanatic B. follower C. fad D. person
48. A. interested B. varied C. detailed D. particular
49. A. crutches B. plaster C. treatment D. danger
50. A. living B. lifetime C. lifestyle D. liveliness
51. A. is B. caters C. depends D. accounts
52. A. how B. that C. whenever D. thus
53. A. fit B. this C. health D. all
54. A. diet B. eating C. menu D. recipe
55. A. share B. visit C. membership D. subscription
Read the following passage and choose the right answer to each of the questions.
Are organically grown foods the best food choices? The advantages claimed for such foods over conventionally grown and
marketed food products are now being debated. Advocates of organic foods- a term whose meaning varies greatly-
frequently proclaim that such products are safer and more nutritious than others.
The growing interest of consumers in the safety and nutritional quality of the typical North American diet is a
welcome development. However, much of this interest has been sparked by sweeping claims that the foods supply is unsafe
or inadequate in the meeting nutritional needs. Although most of these claims are not supported by scientific evidence, the
preponderance of written material advancing such claims makes it difficult for the general public to separate fact from fiction.
As a result, claims that eating a diet consisting entirely of organically grown foods prevents or cures disease or provides other
benefits to health have become widely publicized and formed the basic for folklore.
Almost daily the public is besieged by claims for “no-aging” diets, new vitamins, and other wonder foods. Thre are
numerous unsubstantiated reports that natural vitamins are superior to synthetic ones, that fertilized eggs are nutritionally
superior to unfertilized eggs, that untreated grains are better than fumigated grains, and the like.
One thing that most organically grown foods products seem to have in common is that they cost more than
conventionally grown foods. But in many cases consumers are misled if they believe foods. So there is real cause for concern
if consumers, particularly those with limited incomes, distrust the regular food supply and buy expensive organic foods
instead.
56. The “ welcome development” mentioned in paragraph 2 is an increase in .
A. interest in food safety and nutrition among North Americans.
B. the nutritional quality of the typical North American diet.
C. the amount of healthy foods grown in North America.
D. the number of consumers in North America.
57. According to the first paragraph, which of the following is true about the term “ organic foods”?
A. It is accepted by most nutritionists. B. It has been used only in recent years.
C. It has no fixed meaning D. It is seldom used by consumers.
58. The author implies that there is cause for concern if consumers with limited incomes buy organic foods instead of
conventionally grown foods because .
A. organic foods can be more expensive but are often no better than conventionally grown foods.
B. many organic foods are actually less nutritious than similar conventionally grown foods.
C. conventionally grown foods are more readily available than organic foods.
D. too many farmers will stop using conventional methods to grow food crops.
59. According to the last paragraph, consumers who believe that organic foods are better than conventionally grown foods
are often .
A. careless B. mistaken C. thrifty D. wealthy
60. What is the author’s attitude towards the claims made by advocates of health foods?
A. Very anthusiastic B. Skeptical C. Neutral D. Somewhat favorable
Read the following passage and choose the right answer to fill in each of the blanks.
One of the hottest topics on the international development agenda is how to harness the power of
International Monetary Fund for the benefit of developing countries. What is sometimes called “ the death of distance”,
brought about by the (61) ,allow professional services such as (62) education and
training to be provided easily and quickly to (63) areas. Some of the gains can be seen in countries as diverse as India
and Morocco, where innovations range from (64) government announcements to local craftsmen selling
their wares to a (65) market. But already a huge and eapanding (66) divide is opening up between
developed and developing nations. The major tasks facing world leaders at present is to (67) everybody on the
planet with clean water, basic education and the drugs needed to fight preventable diseases. Installing a (68) in
every classroom and liking us to (69) must be a lesser (70) , for the time being at least.
61. A. computer B. telephone C. modern D. internet
62. A. stationary B. software C. hardware D. equipment
63. A. far B. uninhabited C. remote D. secluded
64. A. programmed B. broadcast C. recorded D. online
65. A. global B. technical C. village D. shrinking
66. A. physical B. digital C. electrical D. economical
67. A. supply B. give C. donate D. administer
68. A. plug B. video C. mobile phone D. modem
69. A. the real world B. cyberspace C. virtual reality D. outer space
70. A. priority B. advantage C. importance D. criteria
IV. WRITING.
Choose the sentence which is closest in meaning to the given one in bold.
71. It may seem strange, but I enjoy hard work.
A. I feel strange about hard work.
B. As it may seem strange, but I enjoy hard work
C. Strange as it may seem, I enjoy hardwork.
D. Strange as it may seem, but I enjoy hard work.
72. Look out for falling rocks!
A. Let’s look for falling rocks. B. Look out the window at those falling rocks.
C. Look for falling rocks. D. Don’t let those falling rocks hit you.
73. I only called the police when I had tried everything else.
A. I didn’t call the police because I had tried everything else.
B. I only called the police after I have tried evyrything else.
C. I only called the police as a last resort.
D. Because I had tried everything else, I called the police.
74. Any correspondence from the London office must be dealt with before other matters.
A. Any correspondence from the London office must take priority of other matters.
B. Any correspondence from the London office must be put off other matters.
C. Any correspondence from the London office must be given priority over other matters.
D. Both A & C are acceptable.
75. I would rather you wore something more formal to work.
A. I’d prefer you to wear something more formal to work.
B. I’d prefer you wear something more formal to work.
C. I’d prefer you wearing something more formal to work.
D. I’d prefer you should wear something more formal to work.
From the given words, make meaningful sentences by choosing the most appropriate answer.
76. They/ leave/ early/ not catch/ traffic.
A. They left early so that not to catch in the traffic.
B. They left early to avoid being caught in the traffic.
C. They left early so as to not get caught in the traffic.
D. They left earlt in order to not get caught in the traffic.
77. It/ not easy/ remain/ tranquil/ events/ suddenly/ change/ life.
A. It is noy easy remain tranquil when events suddenly change life.
B. It is not easy to remain tranquil when events suddenly change your life.
C. It is not easy remaining tranquil when events suddenly change your life.
D. It is not easy to remain tranquil if events suddenly change life.
78. You/ should/ doctor/ see/ that cut.
A. You should have a doctor seen to that cut.
B. You should get a doctor seen to that cut.
C. You should have a doctor see to that cut.
D. You should ask a doctor see to that cut.
79. She/ urge/ her husband/ accept/ post.
A. She urged that her husband accept the post.
B. She urged her husband accept the post.
C. She urged her husband accepted the post.
D. She urged her husband should be accepted the post.
80. Committee members/ resent/ treat/ that.
A. The committee members resented to treat as that.
B. The committee members resented to be treated as that.
C. The committee members resented to treat like that.
D. The committee members resented beinng treated like that.

ENGLISH TEST 100


Choose the word which is stressed differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
1: A. innovate B. interfere C. sacrifice D. penalize
2: A. preferential B. communicate C. eliminate D. accompany
3: A. community B. businessman C. development D. environment
4: A. achieve B. improve C. enter D. contain
5: A. ability B. variety C. temperature D. original
Choose the correct answer to each of the following questions.
6: I wish Tom worked as hard as Mary ________ .
A. will B. can C. did D. does
7: _______ you’ve asked me why I went there, I’ll tell you.
A. Since B. Although C. What D. That
8: ________ over the exam results ,she rushed home to tell her family the good news .
A. Excited B. Excitement C. To excite D. Exciting
9: Did she get the better of you in the argument ?
A. try to beat B. gain a disadvantage over C. gain an advantage over D. try to be better than
10: “ Well it was nice talking to you, but I have to dash.” - “ __________”
A. That’s nice B. Well, another time. C. Ok, see you. D. Yes , I enjoyed talking to you,too.
11: What if I ________ you that there’s a good chance I can get tickets for the concert ?
A. were telling B. were to tell C. have told D. would to tell
12: Why don’t you _______ a go ? It’s not difficult !
A. do B. have C. set D. make
13: The book would have been perfect __________ the ending.
A. it had not been for B. had it not been for C. hadn’t it been for D. it hadn’t been for
14: Jack __________ chess before so I showed him what to do.
A. wasn’t playing B. hadn’t been playing C. didn’t play D. hadn’t played
15: Part of ________ New York City is situated on _______ LongIsland .
A. the/a B. the/0 C. the/the D. 0/0
16: As you’ve arrived late, you’ll have to _________ the time you’ve lost .
A. do up for B. make up to C. make up for D. do up to
17: Are there any household chores for________ men are better _______ than women ?
A. that/suit B. whose/suited C. which/suited D. which/suit
18: We bought some _________ .
A. lovely old round German sunglasses B. lovely round old German sunglasses
C. lovely German round old sunglasses D. lovely round German old sunglasses
19: Tom “ I’m sorry .I won’t be able to come” . - Mary “ ________” .
A. Oh, that’s annoying B. Sounds like fun
C. Great D. Well, never mind
20: He says he will pay ; I don’t think he will, _______ .
A. even though B. but C. in case D. though
21: That was a bit of a ________ for the books : I never expected him to show up .
A. turn – out B. turn - away C. turn – in D. turn – up
22: Can you please tell me some information _______ to the job ?
A. relating B. that relate C. that are relating D. that indicates
23: I ______ “ Chicken Soup for the Soul” but I haven’t finished it yet.
A. am reading B. was reading C. have been reading D. read
24: Our firm ________ a lot of business with overseas custumers .
A. does B. takes C. deals D. makes
25: She tried to set _____ a few minutes each day for her exercises .
A. down B. in C. aside D. about
26: The _______ at the football macth cheered the team on .
A. audience B. onlookers C. congregation D. spectators
27: You shouldn’t live ____ your means .
A. into B. without C. beyond D. on
28: What if our habitat________ .
A. destroying B. was destroyed C. were destroyed D. to be destroyed
29: There’re several means of mass communication. The newspaper is one, the television is ______.
A. the other B. the another C. other D. another
30: Between you and me, so don’t tell anyone , I’m sure he’ll lose the election.
A. In conclusion B. In fact C. In truth D. In confidence
III. Choose the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
31: There is a rumor that the army is about taking power though this has been denied by the government sources .
A. though B. There C. taking D. has been
32: After writing it , the essay must be duplicated by the student himself and handed into the department secretary before
the end of the month .
A. the end of B. the C. after writing it D. handed
33: It was obvious that he was thorough interested in the subject .
A. thorough B. interested in C. that D. obvious
34: None two butterflier have exactly the same design on their wings .
A. None B. the same C. on D. wings
35: The purpose of traveller’s checks is to protect travellers from theft and accidential lost of money .
A. of B. lost C. theft D. is
Choose the best phrases or clauses A ,B ,C,or D to complete each of the sentences below .
36: _____________ did Jane accept the job .
A. Only because it was interesting work B. The work was interesting
C. Only because it was interested work D. Because it was interesting work
37: The truck _______ crashed into the back of a bus scattering glass everywhere .
A. it was loading with empty bottles B. loaded with empty bottles
C. which loading with empty bottles D. loading with empty bottles
38: Harry would certainly have attended the proceedings _________ .
A. if he didn’t get a flat tyre B. had he not had a flat tyre
C. had the tyre not flattened itself D. if the flat tyre didn’t happen
39: _________ of tissues is known as histology .
A. That is scientific studying B. Studying scientific
C. The scientific study D. To study scientifically
40: Mango trees, _______ , grow rapidly and can attain heights of up to 90 feet.
A. which densely covered with glossy leaves and bear small fragrant flowers
B. whose densely covered glossy leaves and bear small fragrant flowers
C. which are densely covered with glossy leaves and bear small fragrant flowers
D. when are densely covered with glossy leaves and bear small fragrant flowers
V. Choose the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
41: “ I am in a bit of hurry , but I’ll ring you tomorrow” he said .
A. He said that he was very hurried , but that he would ring me the next day .
B. He said he was a bit pressed for time , but that he would ring me the next day.
C. He said that he was in a bit of hurry and rang me the following day.
D. He said that he would ring me the next day as then he could .
42: It is open to question as to whether Jane will get the job .
A. Jane is being interviewed for the job .
B. It is not certain that Jane will get the job .
C. The question is whether Jane will get the job or not .
D. If Jane could answer the question , she would get the job .
43: The older he grew, the more forgetful he became.
A. He grew older and more and more forgetful .
B. He became moe forgetful and older.
C. He grew older when he became more forgetful.
D. As he grew older, he became more and more forgetful .
44: Julie and Anne had not met each other before he party.
A. The party was the place where Julie and Anne could not meet each other.
B. The party prevented Julie and Anne from meeting each other.
C. Julie and Anne got acquainted when they were at the party.
D. Julie and Anne used to meet each other for the party.
45: It was your assistance that enabled us to get achievement.
A. If you assisted us, we could not get achievement.
B. But for you assistance, we could not have, got achievement.
C. Your assistance discouraged us from get achievement.
D. Without your assistance, we could get achievement
Read the following passage, and choose the correct answer to each of the questions
A rather surprising geographical feature of Antarctica is that a huge freshwater lake ,one of the world’s largest and
deepest , lies hidden there under four kilometers of ice .Now known as Lake Vostok, this huge body of water is located under
the ice block that comprises Antarctica . The lake is able to exist in its unfrozen state beneath this blockof ice because its
waters are warmed by geothermal heat from the earth’s core .The thick glacier above Lake Vostok actually insulates it from
the frigid temperatures on the surface .
The lake was first discovered in the 1970s while a research teamwas conducting an aerial survey of the area .Radio
waves from the survey equipment penetrated the ice and revealed a body of water of indeterminate size.It was not until
much more recently that data collected by satellite made scientists aware of the tremendous size of the lake ; the satellite –
borne radar detected an extremely flat region where the ice remains level because it is floating on the water of the lake .
The discovery of such a huge freshwater lake trapped under Antarctica is of interest to the scientific community
because of the potential that the lake contains ancient microbes that have survived for thousands upon thousands of years,
unaffected by factors such as nuclear fallout and elevated ultraviolet light that have affected organism in more exposed areas
.The downside of the discovery,however, lies in the difficulty of conducting research on the lake in such a harsh climate and
in the problems associated with obtaining uncontaminated samples from the lake without actually exposing the lake to
contamination . Scientists are looking for possible way to accomplish this.
46: The word “hidden” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A. unexploitable B. untouched C. undicovered D. undrinkable
47: What is true of Lake Vostok ?
A. It is beneath a thick slab of ice B. It is heated by the sun
C. It is a saltwater lake. D. It is completely frozen.
48: Which of the following is closest in meaning to “frigid” in paragraph 1 ?
A. easily broken B. quite harsh C. lukewarm D. extremely cold
49: All of the following are true about the 1970 survey of Antarctica EXCEPT that it ____
A. could not determine the lake’s exact size B. made use of radio waves
C. was conducted by air D. was controlled by a satellite
50: It can be inffered from the passage that the ice would not be flat if ______ .
A. there were no lake underneath B. Antarctica were not so cold
C. radio waves were not used D. the lake were not so big
51: The word “microbes” in paragrahp 3 could be best replaced by which of the following ?
A. Rays of light B. Pieces of dust C. Tiny bubbles D. Tiny organisms
52: Lake Vostok is potentially important to scientists because it ________ .
A. may have elevated levels of ultraviolet light B. has already been contaminated
C. can be studied using radio waves D. may contain uncontaminated microbes
53: The word “ downside” in paragrahp 3 is closest in meaning to_______ .
A. buried section B. bottom level C. underside D. negative aspect
54: The last paragraph suggests that scientists should be aware of _______ .
A. further discoveries on the surface of Antarctica B. problems with satellite – borne radar equipment
C. the harsh climate of Antarctica D. ways to study Lake Vostok without contaminating it
55: The purpose of the passage is to _______ .
A. present an unexpected aspect of Antarctica’s geography B. provided satellite data concerning Antarctica
C. explain how Lake Vostok was discovered D. discuss future plans for Lake Vostok
Read the following passage and choose the correct word for each of the blanks
About 50 or so kinds modern plastic are made from oil,gas,or coal-non-renewable natural resources . We (56)______
well over three million tones of the stuff in Japan each year and,sooner or later, most of it is thrown away .A high (57))______
of our animal consumption is in the (58)______ of packaging and this (59) ______ about seven percent by weight,of our
domestic(60) ______ . Almost all of it can be recycled , but very little of it is ,though the plastic recycling (61)______ is growing
fast .
The plastics themselves are extremely energy - rich – they have a higher calorific(62) ____ than coal and one (63)______
of “recovery” strongly(64)______ by plastic manufactures is the (65)______ of wast plastic into a fuel .
56: A. consign B. import C. remove D. consume
57: A. proportion B. portion C. amount D. rate
58: A. kind B. type C. form D. way
59: A. constitutes B. carries C. takes D. makes
60: A. refuse B. goods C. requirements D. rubble
61: A. plant B. industry C. factory D. manufacture
62: A. value B. degree C. effect D. demand
63: A. measure B. mechanism C. method D. medium
64: A. desired B. favoured C. argued D. presented
65: A. melting B. change C. conversion D. replacement
Choose the word or phrase that is closest in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
66: You ought to send two hours as a minimum in the fresh air every day .
A. at most B. at all C. at least D. at ease
67: He seems to make the same mistake over and over again .
A. for good B. in vain C. by the way D. repeatedly
68: Sharks are single – minded , and will usually ignore rescuers.
A. concentrate on only one purpose/aim … B. are selfish
C. are cruel D. attack suddenly
69: Our junior employees are being groomed for more senior roles.
A. inferior B. younger C. minor D. superior
70: There’s a shuttle bus to the nearby airport hotel .
A. bus that travels overnight B. bus with air – conditioners
C. bus which looks like a shuttle D. bus travels regularly between two places
Read the following passage, and choose the correct answer to each of the questions
In order to learn to be one’s true self, it is necessary to obtain a wide and extensive knowledge of what has been said
and done in the world : critically to inquire into it,nearly to sift it, and earnestly to carry it out .It matters not what you learn
,but when you once learn a thing , you must never give it up until you have mastered it.It matters not what you inquire into,
but when you inquire into a thing, you must never give it up until you have completely understood it .It matters not what
you try to think out, but when you once try to think out a thing , you must never give it up until you have got what you want
. It matters not what you try to sift out ,but you once try to sift out a thing, you must never give it up until you have sifted it
out clearly and distinctly .It matters not what you try to carry out , but when you once try to carry out a thing , you must
never give it up till you have done it completely and well . If another man succeeds by one effort, you will use a hundred
efforts.If another man succeeds by ten efforts, you will use a thousand efforts.
71: According to the author the ultimate purpose of study is to learn to ________ .
A. be one’s true self B. be a specialist C. succeed in a profession D. become weathy
72: First of all, one must ________ .
A. inquire B. analyse C. act D. obtain knowlegde
73: A consequence of man’s study should be _______ .
A. prayer B. action C. fame D. inaction
74: According to the author,_________ .
A. it doesn’t matter what we learn B. knowledge is unnecessary
C. learning is unimportant D. thinking is one of the least importance
75: The end of learning should be _________ .
A. inquiry B. mastery C. thought D. analysis
76: The end of inquiry should be ______ .
A. understanding B. action C. analysis D. thought
77: A word that means almost the same as “ sift out” is _______ .
A. inquire B. carry out C. ponder D. analyse
78: To successfully carry out the author’s program a person would have to be , most of all, _______ .
A. extremely intelligent B. very weathy C. very persistent D. Aand B
79: According to the article, another man’s success should ______ .
A. spur us on to greater efforts B. make us envious
C. not be taken into consideration D. cause one to stop trying
80: Implied but not stated __________ .
A. Success in one’s profession is least important in one’s life
B. Success depends not so much on natural ability as it does on effort
C. The way to knowledge is through specialization
D. It is necessary to obtain a wide knowledge of what has been said and done in the world

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