Dermatology Selected Past Paper Questions
Dermatology Selected Past Paper Questions
Dermatology Selected Past Paper Questions
Regional
high body mass index (BMI) is a predictive factor lymphadenopathy is normally present, with or
for increased risk of developing moderate to without lymphatic streaking. Pustules,vesicles,
severe acne in adolescents and young adults. bullae and small areas of hemorrhagic necrosis
a) First sentence is true, second sentence is false may also form. This clinical description is
b) First sentence is false, second sentence is true consistent with:
c) Both sentences are true and there is a causative A. cellulitis
relation between them B. necrotizing fasciitis
d) Both sentences are true and there is no C. erysipelas
causative relation between them D. erythrasma
e) Both sentences are false E. erythroderma
33. An 8 year-old patient presents to clinic with 39. First line therapy for non gonorrheal urethritis
moderate atopic dermatitis requiring topical is:
corticosteroids. You counsel the parent about A. metronidazole 500mg 2 x day for 14 days
potential side effects of this medication. Which of B. doxycycline 100mg 2 x day for 7 days
the following is a common side effect of prolonged C. benzathine penicillin 2.4 mln units on day 1,8
topical corticosteroid use? and 15
A. Cushing's syndrome D. a combination therapy with 500 mg of
B. Glaucoma ceftriaxone i.m. single dose together with
C. Photosensitivity azithromycin 2 g as single oral dose
D. Skin atrophy E. tetracycline 1 g 2 x day for 14 days
E. Hypertension
40. First line therapy for uncomplicated
34. Oral tetracyclines are not used in children gonnorhoea is:
younger than 8 years of age because: A. metronidazole 500mg 2 x day for 14 days
A. Risk of bleaching of the hair B. benzathine penicillin 2.4 mln units on day 1,8
B. Risk of damage to tooth enamel and developing and 15
bones C. tetracycline 1 g 2 x day for 14 days
C. Risk of hyperkalemia D. amoxyciline 500mg 3 x day for 14 days
D. Risk of hyperpigmenteation of the skin E. a combination therapy with 500 mg of
E. Risk of hypertension ceftriaxone i.m. single dose together with
azithromycin 2 g as single oral dose
35. A 65 year old woman has been struggling with
urticaria for over 2 years. She has been tested 41. Oral allergy syndrome is caused by cross-
several times for allergies, but all have been reacting allergens found in both pollen and raw
negative. What is the most common cause for fruits or vegetables. People affected by oral allergy
chronic urticaria? syndrome can usually eat the same fruits or
A. Aspirin vegetables in cooked form
B. Food allergies A. first sentence is true, the second is false,
C. Idiopathic B. first sentence is false the second is true
D. Medications. C. there is no such condition
E. Preservatives. D. both sentences are false
E. both sentences are correct
36. Which of the following is the cardinal symptom
of urticaria?
A. Anesthesia
B. Paresthesia
C. Bullae
D. Pruritua
E. Target lesions
42. Brick orange fluorescence in Wood lamp 48. Typical features of herpes zoster include:
examination is characteristic for: A. Pain with or preceding the eruption
A. Corynebacterium minuttissimum B. Dermatomal distribution
B. Melassezia furfur C. Pain persisting after the eruption resolves
C. Dihydroxyacetone D. All of the above.
D. Microsporum canis E. None of the above
E. Treponema pallidum
49. Which one IS NOT true?
43. Irritant contact dermatitis and allergic contact A. Clobetasol is high potency topical steroid
dermatitis, especially the chronic forms, can take B. Topical steroids provide symptomatic relief for
on similar clinical appearances. Therefore patch burning and pruritic lesions
testing remains the gold standard for diagnosing C. High potency are recommended for skin folds
allergic contact dermatitis. D. Topical steroids can cause perioral dermatitis
A. first sentence is true, the second is false E. Topical steroids
B. first sentence is false the second is true
C. there are no such conditions 50. Which one IS NOT true
D. both sentences are false A. Oral isotretinoin is teratogenic and therefore is
E. both sentences are correct absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy
F B. Retinoids are vitamin D derivatives
44. Vascular spasms of digital arteries with distinct C. Topical retinoids can caused dryness, pruritus,
clinical patterns; often associated with autoimmune erythema, scaling
diseases is called: D. Retinoids are Used for the treatment of acne
A. Koebner phenomenon vulgaris
B. Asboe-Hansen sign E. Retinoids are used for the treatment of
C. Kabuki syndrome lympomas
D. Fitzpatrick syndrome
E. Raynaud phenomenon
3. Atopic dermatitis results from increased 6. An exquisitely tender, erythematous, hot and
delayed-type hypersensitivity to topical allergens. swollen area of extensive cellulitis that does not
Sedating antihistamines are helpful in breaking the respond to antibiotics appears in your patient. The
itch-scratch cycle in atopic dermatitis, especially disease progresses at an alarming rate, with the
when given at bedtime. skin changing from red and purple to a
A. First sentence is true, second sentence is false pathognomonic gray-blue with ill-defined patches
B. First sentence is false, second sentence is true within 36 hours after onset. A thin, watery,
C. Both sentences are true and there is a causative malodorous fluid is oozing from the lesion. The
relation between them area becomes anesthetic and feels wooden hard
D. Both sentences are true and there is no on palpation. Patients becomes toxic, with fever,
causative relation between them chills, malaise, leukocytosis, and tachycardia. This
E. Both sentences are false clinical description is consistent with:
A. cellulitis
4. Patients with atopic dermatitis have a greater B. furunculosis
susceptibility for staphylococcal colonisation. C. carbuncle
Staphylococcal exotoxins can function as D. necrotizing fasciitis
superantigens which may exacerbate the E. erysipelas
dermatitis. Sodium hypochlorite (bleach) baths are
advocated in patients with atopic dermatitis. 7. A lesion develops as a solitary red papule or
A. First sentence is true. Second sentence is true. polyp that grows rapidly on your patient's lip over
Third sentence is true. the course of several weeks, then stabilizes
B. First sentence is true. Second sentence is true. reaching 6mm in diameter. Lesion is extremely
Third sentence is false friable, frequently ulcerate, and may bleed
C. First sentence is true. Second sentence is false. profusely with minor trauma. This clinical
Third sentence is true. description is consistent with:
D. First sentence is false. Second sentence is true. A. cherry angioma
Third sentence is true. B. cutaneous angiofibroma
E. First sentence is true. Second sentence is false. C. pyogenic granuloma
Third sentence is false. D. dermatofibroma
E. acrochondron
8. A firm, hyperpigmented, dome-shaped papule 13. A multisystem disorder characterized by
measuring 8mm in diameter. In dermoscopy there uveitis, aseptic meningitis, otic involvement,
is a 'starburst' pattern. On palpation, it seems poliosis. and vitiligo, especially of the head and
attached to the subcutaneous tissue; pinching the neck region is known as:
lesion gently results in apparent downward A. Ribbentrop-Molotov syndrome
movement of the tumor, also known as the dimple B. Alezzandrini Syndrome
sign. This clinical description is consistent with: C. Sutton syndrome
A. cutaneous angiofibroma D. Vogt-Konyagi-Harada syndrome
B. dermatofibroma E. Bellizarius syndrome
C. acrochondron
D. pearly penile papules 14. Surgical treatment options in vitiligo include all
E. fibrous papule except:
A. Shave excision
9. A rapidly enlarging papule evolves into a sharply B. micropigmentation
circumscribed crateriform nodule with a keratotic C. suction blister epidermal grafting
core over a period of a few weeks and then may D. Punch biopsy skin grafting
resolve slowly over months to leave an atrophic E. hair follicle grafting
scar. Most lesions occur on the head or sun-
exposed areas of the extremities, with or without 15. Pathogenic mechanism of underlying
symptoms of pain or tenderness. This clinical melanocyte loss in vitiligo include:
description is consistent with: A. Autoimmuno destruction of melanocytes
A. nodular basal cell carcinoma B. abnormal expression TYRPI
B. Merkel cell carcinoma C. defective free radical defense
C. keratoacanthoma D. reduced melanocyte survival
D. actinic keratosis E. all of the above
E. Bowen's disease
16. Clinical variants of herpes zoster include:
10. A solitary rapidly growing asymptomatic, flesh- A. gangrenous, lymphatic, ophthalmic, generalized
coloured tumour appears on the head of your or disseminated
patient. Skin biopsy reveals densely packed sheets B. diabetic, hemorrhagic, labial, generalized or
of small round blue cells. Cells stain positively for disseminated
CK-20 in a dot-like pattern. This clinical description C. gangrenous, hemorrhagic, ocular, generalized
is consistent with: or disseminated
A. nodular basal cell carcinoma D. vibrating, hemorrhagic, lymphatic, ophthalmic,
B. Merkel cell carcinoma generalized or disseminated
C. keratoacanthoma E. gangrenous, hemorrhagic, labial, generalized
D. actinic keratosis or disseminated
E. Bowen's disease
17. The most common, 'classic' causative factor of
11. Important prognostic factor in melanoma are all genital herpes is:
except: A. HPVI
A. Thickness of the melanoma. B. HSV2
B. Area of the melanoma C. HCV3
C. Mitotic index of the melanoma D. HSV1
D. Presence of ulceration E. VZVI
E. Number of regional lymph nodes involved
nodular basal 18. A 50-year-old man visited you because of
periocular violaceous erythema and muscle
12. Vitiligo may coexist with other autoimmune weakness of the shoulder girdle. Serum CPK levels
endocrinopathies. The strongest association is are increased. The clinical description is most
between vitiligo and: consistent with:
A. Addison's disease A. systemic sclerosis.
B. type 1 diabetes mellitus B. systemic lupus erythematosus
C. pernicious anemia C. scleroderma
D. gonadal failure D. dermatomyositis
E. Hashimoto's thyroiditis E. subacute lupus erythematosus
19. Which of the following symptoms does not 25. Which of the following describes relation
belong to the clinical picture of systemic sclerosis? between smoking and psoriasis:
A. Raynaud's symptom. A. Active smoking increases the risk of psoriasis,
B. dyspnoea in the course of interstitial lung the risk remain elevated. in former smokers
disease. B. Active smoking increases the risk of psoriasis,
C. masque face with microstomy. the risk normalizes in former smokers
D. dysphagia and gastroesophageal reflux. C. Active smoking idecreases the risk of psoriasis,
E. Gottron's sign the risk normalizes in former smokers
D. Active smoking decreases the risk of psoriasis,
20. The eczema lesions located within the the risk remain decreased in former smokers.
antecubital and popliteal fossae, face and neck E. Smoking does not influence the risk of
with accompanying pruritus and positive atopic developing psoriasis
family history are characteristic for:
A. Atopic dermatitis 26. Risk factors for pelvic inflammatory disease are
B. Psoriasis all except of:
C. Seborrheic dermatitis A. multiple sexual partners
D. Urticaria B. past history of STI in partner
E. Erythema multiforme C. homosexuallity
D. in vitro procedure within last 6 weeks
21. Isomorphic sign consisting of psoriatic plaque E. insertion of intrauterine device within last 6
within tattoos and horse bites have been first weeks
described by:
A. Heinrich Koebner 27. Condylomata lata occur during:
B. Heinrich Auspitz A. early prenatal syphilis
C. Ferdinand Hebra B. tertiary syphilis
D. Tulusi Behcet C. late latent syphilis
E. John Fitzpatrick D. secondary syphilis
E. primary syphilis
22. Increased risk of developing both psoriasis and
Crohn's disease is associated with mutations in: 28. Social stigmatization because of psoriasis is
A. CARD14 experienced at least once in a life by :
B. IL27 A. 0,09% patients
C. AGPAT2 B. 0,9% patients
D. LLRK2 C. 9% patients
E. ICD10 D. 20% patients
E. 90% patients
23. PEST, PASE, and TOPAS questionaires are
useful tools in early diagnosis of: 29. A 25-year-old female patient reported to the
A. pustular psoriasis doctor due to rapidly progressing baldness. In the
B. psoriatic arthritis physical examination there are focuses of oval
C. lupus erythematosus shape alopecias in the temporal region, at the
D. plaque psoriasis circumference of which exclamation hair are
E. atopic dermatitis present. The most probable cause of baldness is:
A. androgenic alopecia
24. Which of the following describes relation B. drug-induced alopecia
between infections and psoriasis C. trichotilomania
A. Infections exacerbate the course of psoriasis, D. alopecia areata
antibiotics ameliorate the course of psoriasis E. systemic lupus erythematosus
B. Infections ameliorate the course of psoriasis,
antibiotics exacerbate the course of psoriasis 30. A characteristic symptom of Lyme disease is:
C. Infections ameliorate the course of psoriasis, A. Migrating erythema, peripherally spreading
antibiotics ameliorate the course of psoriasis B. Lymphocytoma
D. Infections exacerbate the course of psoriasis, C. Pain in the joints and muscles
antibiotics may both exacerbate and ameliorate the D. Subfebrile state and weakness
course of psoriasis E. All answers are correct
E. There is no relation between infections and the
course of psoriasis
31. The risk factors for melanoma development 37. Rosacea can be differentiated from acne
does NOT include: vulgaris by which of the following features?
A. Light complexion, especially in people exposed A. Absence of comedones
to sunlight in childhood B. Distribution limited to the face
B. skin phototype III C. Inflammatory papules and pustules
C. A positive family history of melanoma D. Irritation from topical products
D. Presence of dysplastic pigmented nevi E. Gender of the patient
E. Genetic factors
38. First line therapy for late latent syphilis
32. In the treatment of shingles, recommended oral according to IUSTI 2014 is:
dose of acyclovir is: A. benzathine penicillin 2.4 mln units on day 1, 8
A. 4x200mg for 10 days and 15
B. 5x800mg for 7-10 days. B. amoxyciline 500mg 3 x day for 14 days
C. different depending on the location of the C. metronidazole 500mg 2 x day for 14 days
lesions and the duration of the disease. D. benzathine penicillin 2.4 mln units i.m. single
D. 5x400mg for 7 days dose
E. 5x200mg for 14 days E. tetracycline 1 g 2 x day for 14 days
33. An 8 year-old patient presents to clinic with 39. First line therapy for non gonorrheal urethritis
moderate atopic dermatitis requiring topical is:
corticosteroids. You counsel the parent about A. metronidazole 500mg 2 x day for 14 days
potential side effects of this medication. Which of B. doxycycline 100mg 2 x day for 7 days
the following is a common side effect of prolonged C. benzathine penicillin 2.4 mln units on day 1, 8
topical corticosteroid use? and 15
A. Cushing's syndrome D. a combination therapy with 500 mg of
B. Glaucoma ceftriaxone i.m. single dose
C. Photosensitivity together with azithromycin 2 g as single oral dose
D. Skin atrophy E. tetracycline 1 g 2 x day for 14 days
E. Hypertension
40. First line therapy for uncomplicated
34. Oral tetracyclines are not used in children gonnorhoea is:
younger than 8 years of age because: A. metronidazole 500mg 2 x day for
A. Risk of bleaching of the hair B. benzathine penicillin units on day 1,8 and 15
B. Risk of damage to tooth enamel and developing C. tetracycline 1 g 2 x day for 14 days
bones D. amoxyciline 500mg 3 x day for 14 days
C. Risk of hyperkalemia E. a combination therapy with 500 mg of
D. Risk of hyperpigmenteation of the skin ceftriaxone i.m. single dose together with
E. Risk of hypertension azithromycin 2 g as single oral dose
35. A 65 year old woman has been struggling with 41. Treatment of choice of pseudocyst of the nail
urticaria for over 2 years. She has been tested. apparatus is:
several times for allergies, but all have been A. cryodestruction
negative. What is the most common cause for B. surgical removal with adequate margin
chronic urticaria? C. elecrocautery
A. Spirin D. bleomycin injection
B. Food allergies E. drainage with glicocorticosteroid injection and
C. Idiopathic compression
D. Medications
E. Preservatives 42. Brick orange fluorescence in Wood lamp
examination is characteristic for:
36. Which of the following is the cardinal symptom A. Corynebacterium minuttissimum
of urticaria? B. Melassezia furfur
A. Anesthesia C. Dihydroxyacetone
B. Paresthesia D. Microsporum canis
C. Bullae E. Treponema pallidum
D. Pruritus
E. Target lesions
43. Irritant contact dermatitis and allergic contact 49. Which one IS NOT true?
dermatitis, especially chronic forms, can take on A. Clobetasol is high potency topical steroid
similar clinical appearances. Therefore patch B. Topical steroids provide symptomatic relief for
testing remains the gold standard for diagnosing burning and pruritic lesions
allergic contact dermatitis. C. High potency topical steroids are recommended
A. First sentence is false, the second is false for skin folds
B. first sentence is false the second is true D. Topical steroids can cause perioral dermatitis
C. there are no such conditions E. Topical steroids can cause strie distense
D. both sentences are false
E. both sentences are correct 50. Which one IS NOT true
A. Oral isotretinoin is teratogenic and therefore is
44. Vascular spasms of digital arteries with distinct absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy
clinical patterns; often associated with autoimmune B. Retinoids are vitamin D derivatives
diseases is called: C. Topical retinoids can caused dryness, pruritus,
A. Koebner phenomenon erythema, scaling
B. Asboe-Hansen sign D. Retinoids are Used for the treatment of acne
C. Kabuki syndrome vulgaris
D. Fitzpatrick syndrome E. Retinoids are used for the treatment of
E. Raynaud phenomenon lympomas
31. A characteristic symptom of Lyme disease is: 37.Perihepatitis with peritoneal adhesions resulting
a) Migrating erythema, peripherally spreading from sexually transmitted infection is known as:
b) Lymphocytoma a) Fitzpatrick's syndrome
c) Pain in the joints and muscles b) Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome
d) subfebrile state and weakness c) Fitzroy syndrome
e) All answers are correct d) Fitzgerald syndrome
e) Fitzgenstein syndrome
32.The risk factors for melanoma development
does NOT include: 38. Rosacea can be differentiated from acne
a) Light complexion, especially in people exposed vulgaris by which of the following features?
to sunlight in childhood a) Absence of comedones
b) skin phototype III b) Distribution limited to the face.
c) positive family history of melanoma c) Inflammatory papules and pustules
d) Presence of dysplastic pigmented nevi d) Irritation from topical products
e) Genetic factors e) Gender of the patient
33.In the treatment of shingles, recommended oral 39.First line therapy for late latent syphilis
dose of acyclovir is: according to IUSTI 2014 is:
a) 4x200mg for 10 days a) benzathine penicillin 2.4 mln units on day 1,8
b) 5x800mg for 7-10 days. and 15
c) different depending on the location of the b) amoxyciline 500mg 3 x day for 14 days
lesions and the duration of the disease c) metronidazole 500mg 2 x day for 14 days
d) 5x400mg for 7 days. d) benzathine penicillin 2.4 mln units i.m. single
e) 5x200mg for 14 days dose
e) tetracycline 1 g 2 x day for 14 days
34. An 8 year-old patient presents to clinic with
moderate atopic dermatitis requiring topical. 40.First line therapy for non gonorrheal urethritis is:
corticosteroids. You counsel the parent about a) metronidazole 500mg 2 x day for 14 days
potential side effects of this medication. Which of b) doxycycline 100mg 2 x day for 7 days
the following is a common side effect of prolonged c) benzathine penicillin 2.4 mln units on day 1,8
topical corticosteroid use? and 15
a) Cushing's syndrome d) a combination therapy with 500 mg of
b) Glaucoma ceftriaxone i.m. single dose together with
c) Photosensitivity azithromycin 2 g as single oral dose
d) Skin atrophy e) tetracycline 1 g 2 x day for 14 days
e) Hypertension
41.First line therapy for uncomplicated gonnorhoea 46.Read the following sentences and decide which
is: are true.
a) metronidazole 500mg 2 x day for 14 days 1. The epidermis is composed primarily of
b) benzathine penicillin 2.4 mln units on day 1,8 keratinocytes along with smaller populations of two
and 15 other resident cells - melanocytes and Merkel
c) tetracycline 1 g 2 x day for 14 days cells.
d) amoxyciline 500mg 3 x day for 14 days 2. The outermost layer of the epidermis is the
e) a combination therapy with 500 mg of stratum granulosum.
ceftriaxone i.m. single dose together with 3. The stratum lucidum is present only in palms
azithromycin 2 g as single oral dose and soles.
4. Dermal keratinocytes are the key resident cells
42.Irritant contact dermatitis and allergic contact of the dermis
dermatitis, especially the chronic forms, can 5. Dermis is divided into two areas: papillary region
take on similar clinical appearances. Therefore and reticular region.
patch testing remains the gold standard for Which answer contains only true sentences?
diagnosing allergic contact dermatitis. a) All sentences are true
a) first sentence is true, the second is false b) 1,2,3
b) first sentence is false the second is true c) 1,3,5
c) there are no such conditions d) 1,4,5
d) both sentences are false e) 2,3,4
e) both sentences are correct
47.Choose the correct answer about sweat glands:
43. Choose the answer that contains only primary a) Eccrine sweat glands are present only on palms
skin lesions: and soles.
a) Papule, nodule, crust, scar b) Apocrine sweat glands are distributed almost all
b) Plaque, ulcer, erosion, papule over the body.
c) Papule, pustule, ulcer, vesicle c) Apocrine sweat glands are inactive before
d) Macula, nodule, papule, cyst puberty.
e) Papule, nodule, vesicle, macula d) Eccrine sweat glands are also known as
Meibomian Glands.
44. Vascular spasms of digital arteries with distinct e) Sweat glands produce an oily matter called
clinical patterns; often associated with Autoimmune sebum.
diseases is called:
a) Koebner phenomenon 48.Typical features of herpes zoster include:
b) Asboe- Hansen sign a) Pain with or preceding the eruption
c) Kabuki syndrome b) Dermatomal distribution
d) Fitzpatrick syndrome c) Pain persisting after the eruption resolves
e) Raynaud phenomenon d) All of the above
e) none of the above.
45.Dermatitis herpetiformis:
a) is pruriticnodular disease 49. Which one IS NOT true?
b) is most common in people of African origin. a) Clobetasol is high potency topical steroid
c) can be effectively treated with gluten-free diet b) Topical steroids provide symptomatic relief for
d) caused by IgG autoantibodies against burning and pruritic lesions
Desmoglein-3 c) High potency topical steroids are recommended
e) is bacterial infection. for skin folds
d) Topical steroids can cause perioral dermatitis
e) Topical steroids can cause strie distensestrie
distense
50.Bullous pemphigoid is a subepidermal blistering
disease caused by autoantibodies to components
of the hemidesmosomes in the basement
membrane zone. Pemphigus vulgaris is a disease
with intraepidrmal blister formation on skin and
mucosa caused by autoantibodies against proteins
of the hemidesmosomes.
a) Both sentences are true.
b) First sentence is true, but the second is false.
c) Both sentences are incorrect.
d) First sentence is incorrect, but the second is
true.
e) All answers are incorrect.
f) In the skin there are no hemidesmosomes.