03-02-2023-1675413194-SS - QR Code EM

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QR CODE QUESTIONS
History
Unit 1 - Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath
I. Choose the Correct answer
1. In which year Napoleon was defeated in Trafalgar War?
a) 1805 b) 1806 c) 1815 d) 1821
2. Which Country Captured Alsace and Lorraine from France?
a) Russia b) England c) Germany d) Austria
3. In which year did the Young Turk Revolution break out?
a) 1905 b) 1906 c) 1907 d) 1908
4. Which treaty was concluded at the end of the second Balkan war?
a) Treaty of Bucharest b) Treaty of Brest Litovsk
c) Treaty of London d) Treaty of Paris
5. Name the Archduke who was killed at Sarajevo?
a) Kaiser Wilhelm II b) Franz Ferdinand
c) Franz Joseph d) Princip
6. Who was the emperor at Russia at time of First World War?
a) Kaiser Wilhelm II b) Tsar Nicholas II
c) Franz Ferdinand d) Napoleon
7. Name the treaty signed by Russia with Germany in 1918?
a) Treaty of Versailles b) Treaty of Bucharest
c) Treaty of London d) Treaty of Brest Litovsk
8. The Central powers consisted of
a) Germany, Austria-Hungary and Italy b) Russia, Germany and Italy
c) Britain, Germany and Italy d) America, Germany and Italy
9. Who was the first secretary General of League of Nations?
a) Woodrow Wilson b) Sir Eric Drummond
c) Lloyd George d) Orlando
10. In which year did the Russian Revolution break out?
a) 1917 b) 1918 c) 1911 d) 1939
II. Fill in the blanks
1. Tsar Nicholas II belonged to _____________ dynasty. (Romanov)
2. _______________an American ship was torpedoed by a German submarine. (Lusitania)
3. The Russian parliament was called______________. (Duma)
4. ________________party was renamed the Russian Communist Party. (Bolshevik)
5. Pravda is a Russian word meaning _______________ (Truth)
III. Match the following
1. Woodrow Wilson - a) Germany
2. Lloyd George - b) Russia
3. Clemenceau - c) America
4. Lenin - d) France
5. Kaiser Wilhelm II - e) England
Answer: 1-c 2-e 3-d 4-b 5-a
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2  WAY TO SUCCESS – 10th Social Science
Unit 2 - The World between Two World Wars
I. Choose the correct answer
1. U. S market crash occurred in
a) 1927 b) 1928 c) 1929 d) 1930
2. In which party did Mussolini join?
a) Fascist Party b) Nazist Party c) Communist Party d) Labour Party
3. The Lateran Treaty was important because
a) Mussolini recognized the Vatican City as an independent state.
b) the Church recognized the Kingdom of Italy
c) both a and b d) only a
4. Hitler became both President and Commander –in-Chief of armed forces in
a)1933 b) 1934 c) 1935 d) 1936
5. Who were called Boers?
a) The inhabitants of Africa b) Original Dutch settlers of South Africa
c) The natives of South America d) All the above
6. Apartheid - a policy followed in
a) South Africa b) South America c) Europe d) Asia
II Fill in the blanks
1. ___________treaty was concluded by Mussolini with Pope in 1929. (The Lateran)
2. Mussolini invaded Ethiopia in ____________ (1935)
3. ______________was one of the founder of Nazi Party. (Hitler)
4. ______________ is an autobiographical book of Hitler. (Mein Kampf)
5. The Boers called the foreigners as ______________ (Uitlanders)
Unit – 3 World War II
I. Choose the Correct Answer
1. Japan invaded Manchuria in
a) 1930 b) 1931 c) 1932 d) 1933
2. Axis Power nations were
a) Italy, Germany and Japan b) Italy, Germany and Austria
c) Italy, Germany and Russia d) Italy, Germany and Britain
3. Sudetenland was a province in __________________
a) Czechoslovakia b) Austria c) Germany d) Italy
4. Which Country attacked the U S Naval Installation in Pearl Harbour?
a) Germany b) Italy c) Turkey d) Japan
5. In which year US dropped an atom bomb on Hiroshima and Nagasaki?
a) 1945 b) 1947 c) 1948 d) 1940
6. At present how many Member states does UNO have?
a) 192 b) 193 c) 195 d) 189
7. Who wrote the play the merchant of Venice?
a) P.C. Chang b) John Humpharey c) Shakespeare d) Franklin
8. Which Country invaded Rhineland in 1936?
a) Russia b) Poland c) France d) Germany
9. After World War II, world was polarized into
a) two blocs b) three blocs c) one bloc d) none of these
10. The universal Declaration of Human Rights was adoptedby UN in
a) 1947 b) 1948 c) 1949 d) 1950
1. In 1938, British Prime Minister ______concluded Munich Pact with Germany. (Chamberlain)
2. _______________and ______________were the fighter planesused by Royal Air Force during
World War II (Spitfires and Hurricanes)
3. ______programme was started by US President to aid Britain during World War II. (Lend Lease)
4. _____________was the first country to achieve independence after World War II. (India)
5. The Security Council of UNO consists of 15 members. ___________permanent members and
___________temporary members. (5, 10)
Unit - 4 - The World after World War II
1. Who was the father of modern China?
a) Chiang Kai Shek b) Yuav Shih-Kai c) Sun Yat -Sen d) Chou En Lai
2. Who was the first director of Whampoa Military Academy?
a) Chiang Kai - Shek b) Yuav Shih-Kai c) Sun Yat -Sen d) Michael Borodin
3. In Which year Chiang Kai Shek Captured Peking?
a) 1925 b) 1926 c) 1928 d) 1930
4. In which year cento (CENTO) was dissolved?
a) 1991 b) 1970 c) 1975 d) 1979
5. Who introduced Perestroika?
a) Khrushcher b) Gorbachev c) Yeltsin d) Reagan
6. Who founded Kuomintang Party in China?
a) Chiang Kai Shek b) Yuav Shih-Kai c) Sun yat -sen d) Chou Enlai
7. Which of the following pact was organized by Soviet Union?
a) NATO b) SEATO c) CENTO d) Warsaw Pact
8. States outside from Capitalist countries and Communist countries were called ___________
a) First World b) Second World c) Third World d) None of these
9. No military alliance with any of the super power is the policy of
a) NAM b) NATO c) SENTO d) CEATO
10. The European Union has _______ member states.
a) 26 b) 27 c) 28 d) 29
1. _________________ published the pamphlet called Jewish state (Thodore Herzal)
2. The Arab league was formed in __________ (1945)
3. ____________nationalized US Owned Sugar Companies. (Fidel Castro)
4. ______________ was the ancient home of Jews. (Palestine)
5. Germany was officially reunited in ______________ (1990)
1. Opium Wars - a) Egypt
2. Suez Canal - b) 1954
3. SEATO - c) Russia
4. Glasnost - d) Indonesia
5. Bandung - e) China
Answer: 1-e 2-a 3-b 4-c 5-d
Unit – 5 Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th century
1. Who founded Brahmo Samaj?
a) Raja Rammohan Roy b) Debentranath Tagore
c) Keshab Chandra Sen d) Atma Ram Pandurang
2. Adi Brahmo Samaj was founded by ______
a) Raja Rammohan Roy b) Debentranath Tagore
c) Keshab Chandra Sen d) Atma Ram Pandurang
3. Where was Prarthana Samaj founded?
a) Poona b) Madras c) Bombay d) Calcutta
4. Who was the founder of Deccan Education Society?
a) M.G. Ranade b) Ramakrishna
c) Raja Rammohan Roy d) Debentranath Tagore
5. Whose cry was ‘go back to vedas’?
a) Iswar Chandra Vidhyasagar b) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
c) Raja Rammohan Roy d) Ramakrishna
6. Where did Narayana Guru establish a grand Temple?
a) Tiruchendur b) Aruvipuram c) Kanyakumari d) Tirunelveli
7. DAV schools were started by _______
a) Brahmo Samaj b) Arya Samaj
c) Rama Krishna Mission d) Adi Brahmo Samaj
8. In 1893 World Congress of Religion was held in _______
a) Chicago b) London c) Paris d) Rome
9. Deoband Movement was a revivalist movement organized by ______
a) Muslims b) Hindus c) Parsis d) Buddhists
10 . ‘Oru Paisa Tamilan’ was a _______
a) Weekly journal b) daily paper c) novel d) book
1. _______________ founded Rahnumai Mazdyasnan Sabha. (Furdunji Naoroji)
2. Sadu Jana Paripalanasaugam was founded in __________ (1907)
3. Ramalinga Adigal was born at____________ (Marudhur)
4. Khalsa College for the sikhs was established at _________ (Amritsar)
5. Samathuva Samajam was founded by ___________ (Vaikunda Swamigal)
1. Theosophical Movement - a) Vaikunda Swamigal
2. Akila Thirattu - b) Colonel H.S. Olcott
3. Advaidananda Sabha - c) Narayana Guru
4. Sri Narayana Dharma ParipalanaYogam - d) Annie Besant
5. Home Rule League - e) Iyothee Thassar
Answer: 1-d 2-a 3-e 4-c 5-b
Unit 6 - Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu
1. __________ organized the South Indian Confederacy of rebels against the British.
a) Virapandya Kattabomman b) Puli Thevar
c) Oomaithurai d) MarudhuPandyan
2. ViraPandiyaKattabomman was hanged at __________
a) Sivagangai b) Kayathar c) Kalaiyar Koil d) None of the above
3. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
a) Puli Thevar - Nerkattumseval
b) Velunachiyar - Kalaiyar Kovil
c) Gopala Nayak - Virupachi
d) Virapandya Kattabomman - Sivagangai
4. The Vellore revolt broke out in
a) 10 July 1806 b) 10 August 1806 c) 11 July 1806 d) 11 August 1806
5. The first resistance to East India Company in Tamil Nadu was
a) Puli Thevar b) Virapandya Kattabomman
c) Marudhu brothers d) Velu Nachiyar
6. Palayakkaras system was in practice in
a) Kakatiya Kingdom b) Pala Kingdom
c) Pratihara Kingdom d) Solanki Kingdom
7. Who introduced palayakaras system in Tamil Nadu?
a) Lakshmi Nayak b) Yadul Nayak
c) Vishwanatha Nayak d) Gopala Nayak
8. The Marudhu brothers were executed in the
a) fort of Tirupathur b) fort of Panchalamkurichi
c) fort of Sankagiri d) fort of Sivagangai
9. Who among the following did not join in the South Indian Confederacy?
a) Marudhu Pandiyan b) Kerala Verma
c) Puli Thevar d) Gopala Nayak
10. The causes for the Vellore revolt was
a) Low salary to the soldiers
b) Poor prospects of promotion to the soldiers
c) New military regulations
d) All the above
11. Who was the first victim of Vellore revolt?
a) Colonel Fancourt b) Colonel Mekerras c) Major Armstrong d) Lt. Elly
12. The Vellore revolt was suppressed by
a) Major Cootes b) Col. Gillespie c) Captain Young d) Lt. Popham
Unit 7 - Anti-Colonial Movements and the Birth of Nationalism
I. Choose the correct answer
1. Titu Mir’s movement mainly aimed at eradicating which of the following system?
a) Polygamy b) Zamindari system c) Imperialism d) Money lending system
2. Farazi movement was launched in which of the following regions?
a) East Bengal b) Madhya Pradesh c) Kerala d) Delhi
3. Kol Revolt took place in the year
a) 1830 – 31 b) 1831 – 32 c) 1832 – 33 d) 1833 – 34
4. Find the correct answer
A. Santhals were from Rajmahal Hills
B. Santhals rose under Sindhu and Kanu
C. A Separate division called Santhal pargana was created by the government.
a) Only A and B b) Only B and C c) Only C and D d) All the above
5. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched?
a) Barrackpur - Mangal Pandey b) Delhi - Maulavi Ahmadullah
c) Kanpur - Nana Sahib d) Jhansi - Rani Lakshmibai
6. Consider the following statement(s) related to the cause of failure of 1857 revolt.
I. Lack of unity and Coordination II. Lack of military strategy
a) Only I b) Only II c) Both I and II d) Neither I nor II
7. Which of the following was the impact of 1857 revolt?
a) Control of Indian administration was passed on to British crown.
b) India became one of the crown colonies.
c) The number of the Indians in the army was reduced.
d) All the above
8. What was the cause of Indigo revolt of 1859?
a) Exploitation of local peasants by European planters by forcing them to plant indigo on their lands.
b) The peasants were never able to clear their debts.
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above
9. Match the following
A. Farazi movement - 1. Sidhu and Kanu
B. Wahhabi Rebellion - 2. Haji Shariatullah
C. Santhal Hool - 3. Birsa Munda
D. Munda Rebellion - 4. Titu Mir
a) 2 4 3 1 b) 2 3 4 1 c) 2 4 1 3 d) 3 4 1 2
10. Arrange in chronological order
1. Madras Native Association 2. Madras Mahajana Sabha
3. The Bombay Presidency Association 4. Poona Savajanik Sabha
a) 1 4 2 3 b) 2 3 4 1 c) 3 4 2 1 d) 4 1 2 3
11. First session of the Indian National Congress was held under the presidency of
a) A.O. Hume b) Badruddin Tyabji c) J.B. Kriplani d) W.C. Bannerjee
12. Who amongst the following was not a militant Nationalist?
a) Bipin Chandra Pal b) Bala Gangadhar Tilak
c) Lala Lajpat Rai d) Gopala Krishna Gokhale
13. Who was the viceroy of India during Swadeshi Movement?
a) Lord Curzon b) Lord Irwin c) Lord Wellington d) Lord Lansdowne
14. When did Tilak start Home Rule Movement?
a) May 1916 b) April 1916 c) March 1919 d) December 1918
15. The Lucknow pact of 1916 was made between
a) The congress and the Muslim league b) The Hindus and the Muslims
c) The British and the Indians d) The Moderates and extremists
Unit 8 - Nationalism: Gandhian Phase
I. Choose the Correct Answer
1. The “tinkathiya” system refers to as ________
a) Champaran tenant was bound by law to plant three out of every twenty parts of their land.
b) Champaran tenant was bound by law to plant three out of every parts of their land.
c) Champaran tenant was bound by law to plant three out of every kattha of their land.
d) Champaran tenant was bound by law to plant three crops on every parts of their land.
2. Which of the following was forced by the government to cultivate in 1917 at Champaran?
a) Opium b) Spices c) Indigo d) Jute
3. Which of the following is the correct chronology of the movements?
1. Champaran Satyagraha 2. Kheda Satyagraha
3. Rowlatt Satyagraha 4. Bardoli Satyagraha
a) 1 2 4 3 b) 1 4 2 3 c) 1 2 3 4 d) 1 3 4 2
4. Who ordered the JallianwalaBagh Massacre?
a) Colonel Gillespie b) Nigel Collett c) Reginald Dyer d) Kitchlew
5. Non – Cooperation movement was launched
a) 1919 b) 1920 c) 1927 d) 1928
6. Who organised the Indian National Army?
a) Bhagat Singh b) Chandra Shekhar Azad
c) Subash Chandra Bose d) Vallabhbhai Patel
7. The Chauri Chaura incident took place on
a) February 1922 b) March 1922 c) April 1922 d) May 1922
8. Who was associated while protesting against Simon Commission and died later?
a) Bala GangadharaTilak b) Lala Lajapati Roy
c) Gopala Krishna Gokale d) Bipin Chandra Pal
9. Which of the following statements are correct?
A: Gandhi was present in First Round Table Conference.
B: Second Round Table Conference was successful
a) Only A b) Only B c) Both d) None
10. The Constituent Assembly of India was set up under the frame work of
a) Cripps Mission 1942 b) Cabinet Mission 1946
c) Simon Commission 1927 d) None of these
11. Muslim League observed the Direct Action Day on
a) August 6, 1945 b) August 16, 1945 c) August 6, 1946 d) August 16, 1946
12. Name the ruling party in the UK When India got Independence?
a) Socialist Party b) Conservative Party
c) Labour Party d) Liberal Party
13. A Women’s division of the Indian National Army was named after
a) Chand Bibi b) Ahilya Bai c) Rani Jhansi d) Rani Gaidinlliu
14. In which one of the following province was Congress ministry not formed under the Act of 1935?
a) Madras b) Punjab c) Bombay d) Bihar
15. The Slogan of Subash Chandra Bose
a) Swaraj is my birth right b) Do or Die
c) Dilli Chalo d) None of these
Unit 9 - Freedom Struggle in Tamil Nadu
1. Madras Native Association was consisted primarily of _______
a) Landlords b) Merchants c) Farmers d) Money Lenders
2. In which year T. Muthuswami appointed as the first Indian Judge of the Madras High Court?
a) 1777 b) 1874 c) 1877 d) 1977
3. Assertion (A) : The early nationalist believed in constitutional methods.
Reason (R) : Their activities consisted of conducting hall meeting and deliberating the problems of
the country in English.
a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation
b) A is correct but R is wrong
c) Both A and R are wrong
d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation.
4. Choose the correct statement
i) The Swedeshi movement made a deep impact in Tamil Nadu
ii) The congress carried on a vigorous campaign for boycott of foreign goods.
iii) Tamil was not used on the public platform for mobilise the people.
iv) The moderate leader Bipin Chandra pal toured Madras.
a) (i) and (ii) are correct b) (iii) is correct
c) (iv) is correct d) All are correct
5. To avoid imprisonment Subramaina Bharati moved to _______
a) Calcutta b) Bombay c) Delhi d) Pondicherry
6. Indian Home Rule Movement was the model of ______
a) Irish b) USSR c) England d) USA
7. Match the following:
i) Lavo - 1) Infantry man
ii) Vijaya - 2) epicenter of Khilafat agitation
iii) James Neill - 3) ship
iv) Vaniyambadi - 4) Newspaper from Pondicherry
a) 4 1 2 3 b) 3 4 1 2 c) 2 1 3 4 d) 1 2 3 4
8. Who was elected as the president of congress session of 1917?
a) Tilak b) T.M. Nair c) Annie Besant d) Gandhi
9. In Tamil Nadu Khilafat Day was observed on ____
a) 17 April 1921 b) 16 April 1920 c) 18 May 1920 d) 17 April 1920
10. In which protest movement Gandhi gave the slogan ‘Do or Die’?
a) Quit India movement b) Anti- Hindi agitation
c) Civil Disobedience movement d) Non-cooperation movement
11. Who was called as “Rosaappu Durai”?
a) Bharathi b) George Joseph c) Periyar d) Dyer
12. In 1927 the statutory commission was constituted under _______
a) General Dyer b) George Joseph c) Sir John Simon d) Subbarayan
Unit 10 - Social Transformation in Tamil Nadu
1. Tamil book Thambiran Vanakkam was published from
a) Chennai b) Bombay c) Goa d) Delhi
2. Who was introduced the sonnet form in Tamil
a) Parithimarkalaignar b) Maraimalai Adigal
c) Thiru.Vi. Ka d) Bharatidasan
3. Under the Montage-Chelmsford reforms the first election was held in
a) 1919 b) 1920 c) 1921 d) 1922
4. Choose the correct statement
i) The Justice party is the fountain head of the Non-Brahmin Movement in the country.
ii) In the 1937 elections the Indian National Congress was not contested it.
iii) A. Subbarayalu became the chief minister of Madras presidency in 1920.
iv) In 1930 the Government of British India established the public service commission.
a) (i) and (ii) are correct b) (i) and (iii) are correct
c) (iv) is correct d) (ii) and (iii) are correct
5. Assertion (A) : Women’s liberation was one of the important objectives of the Self-Respect Movement.
Reason (R) : It worked for gender equality and gender sensitisation of the society.
a) Both A and R are correct b) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation
c) Both A and R are wrong d) R is correct but it has no relevance to A.
6. Match the following
i) Chitraputtiran - 1) Maraimalai Adigal
ii) Andra Prakasika - 2) M.C. Rajah
iii) Siddhanta Deepika - 3) Periyar
iv) Deputy leader of Justice Party - 4) Justice Party
a) 3 4 1 2 b) 4 3 1 2 c) 2 3 4 1 d) 1 2 3 4
7. The Non-Brahmin Manifesto was released in _______
a) 1915 b) 1916 c) 1917 d) 1918
8. Find out the odd one.
a) Rao Sahib b) Rao Bahadur c) Thanthai d) Divab Bahadur
9. The Tanjore Sangitha Vidya Mahajana sangam was founded by
a) M.C. Rajah b) Dr. Muthulakshmi Ammaiyar
c) T.M. Nair d) Abraham Pandithar
10. Neelambikai was the daughter of
a) Maraimalai Adigal b) P.Sundaranar
c) C.W. Damotharanar d) U.V. Swaminathar
11. U.V. Swaminathar was the student of
a) Robert Caldwell b) Meenakshi Sundaranar
c) Ziegen Balg d) C.W. Damotharanar
12. Who introduced a vocational education in Madras State?
a) Periyar b) Thiru.Vi. Ka c) Rajaji d) M.C. Rajah
Geography
Unit -1 - India - Location, Relief and Drainage
1. A narrow channel of sea which separates two land masses is known as:
a) Mound b) Pass c) Strait d) Valley
2. China is the ....................... largest country in the world
a) Second b) Fourth c) Third d) Seventh
3. The sun rays fall vertically on the Tropic of Cancer on:
a) 21 June b) 22 December c) 21 March d) 22 July
4. Which of the following is the southernmost latitude of the Indian mainland?
a) 8° 4' North b) 8° 4' South c) 6° 4' South d) 6° 4' North
5. When was Indira-Point submerged under water?
a) 2005 b) 2004 c) 2007 d) 2002
6. From Gujarat to Arunachal Pradesh the time lag is?
a) 2 hrs 35 min. b) 2 hrs 10 min. c) 2 hrs d) 1 hr 56min.
7. What is the North-South extent of India?
a) 3214 km b) 2933 km c) 3241 km d) 3213 km
8. The land mass of India has an area of ................... Million square km.
a) 7.68 b) 8.54 c) 3.28 d) 9.59
9. Which country shares land boundaries with India in the west?
a) China b) Nepal c) Bhutan d) Pakistan
10. Which is the capital of Andaman and Nicobar Islands?
a) Kavaratti b) Pondicherry c) Port Blair d) Diu and Daman
11. Tropic of Cancer does not pass through?
a) Rajasthan b) Chattisgarh c) Odisha d) Tripura
12. Which is the river island of Brahmaputra?
a) Isukathippa Island b) Majuli island c) Minicoy Island d) Netrani Island
13. Which dam is built across the river Mahanadi?
a) Bhakra Dam b) Hirakud Dam c) Nagarjuna Sagar Dam d) Sardar Sarovar Dam
14. Which is the longest river system of the peninsular India?
a) The Vaniyaru b) The Cauvery c) The Godavari d) The Krishna
15. Which is the right bank tributary of Godavari?
a) Amravati b) Varna c) Arunavati d) Manjira
16. In which Indian river is Shivanasamudra waterfalls situated?
a) Cauvery b) Brahmani c) Godavari d) Krishna
17. Which is the largest of all the west flowing rivers of the Peninsula?
a) The Luni b) The Mahi c) The Narmada d) The Sabarmati
18. On which Indian river is the Duandhar Falls located?
a) Narmada b) Tapi c) Sabarmati d) Mahi
19. Which is known as 'the twin' of the Narmada?
a) The Luni b) The Mahi c) The Tapi d) The Sabarmati
20. Which is the river basin with the largest catchment area?
a) Ganga b) Sindhu c) Godavari d) Krishna
21. Consider the following statements and identify the right ones:
I. The peninsular block is rigid and stable in its geological structure.
II. The Himalayas are young, weak and flexible in its geological structure.
a) I only b) II only c) Both d) None
22. The origin of Himalayas can best be explained by
a) Continental Drift Theory b) Ocean Floor Mapping
c) Sea Floor Spreading d) Theory of Plate Tectonics
23. Consider the following statements about Himalayas and identify the right ones.
I. They act as a climate divide.
II. They do not play an important role in the phenomenon of Monsoon rainfall in Indian Sub continent.
a) I only b) II only c) Both d) None
UNIT- 2 – Climate and Natural Vegetation of India
1. Which range of temperature conifers are found?
a) 12°C and 20°C b) 18°C and 25°C c) 30°C and 10°C d) 25°C and 20°C
2. Kinds of plants that grow in hot desert includes
a) mosses and lichens b) pine and cacti
c) elephant grass and cacti d) tough grasses and short bushes
3. Large trees are common in areas where the
a) sunlight duration is short b) sunlight duration is long
c) duration of hail is short d) duration of hail is long
4. Word tundra means
a) fertile land b) barren land c) flooded land d) drought land
5. Trees that do not shed their leaves are mostly found in
a) hot desert vegetation b) Tropical monsoon forests
c) coniferous forests d) temperate deciduous forests
6. Forests made of trees that shed leaves as temperature decreases are classified as
a) hot desert vegetation b) tropical monsoon forests
c) coniferous forests d) temperate deciduous forests
7. Regions such as southeastern Brazil, southwestern Africa, Myanmar and Bangladesh consists of
a) tropical monsoon forests b) tropical rainforests
c) coniferous rainforests d) temperate deciduous forests
8. Range of rainfall in temperate grasslands is
a) 200 to 1,000 millimeters b) 750 to 1,000 millimeters
c) 650 to 900 millimeters d) 600 to 800 millimeters
9. A variety of trees is found in…………..
a) coniferous forests b) temperate deciduous forests
c) hot desert vegetation d) Tropical monsoon forests
10. Dense forests are found at places where kind of climate is
a) equatorial b) monsoon c) polar d) all of above
11. Lichens, moss and small plant are dominant in regions where the
a) duration of hail is short b) duration of hail is long
c) sunlight duration is short d) sunlight duration is long
12. Large scale destruction of forests is classified as
a) Willow destruction b) tundra destruction c) afforestation d) deforestation
13. Percentage of forests found in South East Asia is
a) 58% b) 23% c) 39% d) 19%
14. Plants and trees shed their leaves in
a) summer season b) spring season c) winter season d) none of the above
15. Height of trees in tree layer of temperate deciduous forests is
a) 8 to 30 meters b) 10 to 15 meters c) 30 to 40 meters d) 20 to 40 meters
UNIT – 3 – India - Agriculture
1. _________ is a form of overhead irrigation.
a) Centre Pivot irrigation b) Sprinkler irrigation
c) Terraced irrigation d) Drip irrigation
2. Inundation irrigation system is functional all through the year. a) True b) False
3. Surface irrigation is again subdivided into:
a) 2 b) 4 c) 3 d) 5
4. Tank water irrigation system is common in:
a) Madhya Pradesh b) Uttar Pradesh c) Himachal Pradesh d) Andhra Pradesh
5. The field water efficiency of trickle irrigation is:
a) 50-55% b) 55-85% c) 80-90% d) 60-70%
6. Sub-irrigation is used in areas with:
a) Low water table b) High water table c) Sloping terrain d) Flat terrain
7. Water for irrigation can come from ____________ sources.
a) 3 b) 2 c) 4 d) 5
8. Fertigation is a process in ___________ irrigation.
a) Sprinkler b) Surface c) Drip d) Centre pivot
9. The field water efficiency is determined by:
a) Water transpired by crop – water applied to a field
b) Water absorbed by crop ÷ water applied to a field x 100%
c) Water absorbed by crop – water applied to a field
d) Water transpired by crop ÷ water applied to a field x 100%
10. Spate irrigation is a special form of irrigation using surface water. a) True b) False
11. Micro-irrigation is also called:
a) Nano-irrigation b) Petite irrigation c) Localized irrigation d) Flood irrigation
12. Tube wells are not used in:
a) UP b) Haryana c) Gujarat d) Rajasthan
13. The Blue Revolution is related with?
a) Fish production b) Food grain production
c) Oilseed production d) Milk production
14. Indian agriculture is typically characterized as?
a) land surplus, labour scare economy b) land surplus, lablour surplus economy
c) land scare, labour surplus economy d) land scare, labour scare economy
15. Dr. M.S. Swaminathan has distinguished himself in which of the following fields?
a) Nuclear Physics b) Agriculture c) Astrophysics d) Medicine
16. The Green Revolution in India was the outcome of the efforts of who amongst the following?
a) M.S. Swaminathan b) C. Rangrajan c) K.V. Kamath d) Rakesh Mohan
17. The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) was established in the year?
a) 1970 b) 1975 c) 1980 d) 1982
18. The head office of the NABARD is located in?
a) Lucknow b) Hyderabad c) New Delhi d) Mumbai
19. Where is the Central Rice Research Institute located?
a) Bangaluru b) Kanpur c) Coimbatore d) Cuttack
20. NABARD was established in the………………
a) Fourth Five Year plan b) Fifth Five Year plan
c) Sixth Five Year plan d) Eighth Five Year plan
21. Under which Five Year Plan agriculture register negative growth?
a) Third b) Fifth c) Seventh d) Ninth
22. Who is known as Father of White Revolution in India?
a) M.S. Swaminathan b) V.V. Kurien c) K.N. Bahal d) B.P. Pal
UNIT – 4 – India - Resources and Industries
1. The resources which are found everywhere are known as
a) Ubiquitous b) Non-renewable resources
c) Human made resources d) None of the above
2. The following is (are) the non-renewable resources
a) Coal b) Petroleum c) Natural gas d) All of the above
3. Balancing the need to use resources and also conserve them for the future is called
a) sustainable development b) resource conservation
c) resource development d) human resource development
4. The resources can be conserved by
a) reducing consumption b) recycling
c) reusing d) All of the above
5. Land covers only about ____ percent of the total area of the earth’s surface
a) 20 b) 25 c) 30 d) 35
6. The total percent of land of world under forest is _____
a) 26 b) 31 c) 36 d) 41
7. Deciduous forests shed their leaves in a particular season to conserve loss of moisture through
a) transpiration b) evaporation c) both ‘a’ and ‘b’ d) None of the above
8. The following is (are) non-metallic mineral(s)
a) Limestone b) Mica c) Gypsum d) All of the above
9. Minerals can be extracted by
a) Mining b) Drilling c) Quarrying d) All of the above
10. Non-metallic minerals are found in
a) Igneous rocks b) Metamorphic rocks c) Sedimentary rocks d) All of the above
11. China also leads in production of
a) lead b) antimony c) tungsten d) All of the above
12. The following is the world’s leading tin producer
a) China b) Malaysia c) Indonesia d) India
13. The following is the world’s leading iron-ore producer
a) China b) Russia c) France d) India
14. Fresh water accounts for only ____ percent.
a) 1.7 b) 2.7 c) 3.7 d) 4.7
Unit - 5 - India- Population, Transport, Communication and Trade
1. What is the world ranking of Indian Railway network?
a) 1st b) 2nd c) 3rd d) 4th
2. When was the first railway in India operated for public traffic?
a) 1857 b) 1858 c) 1855 d) 1853
3. Which railway line runs along the Indian west coast parallel to Arabian Sea and Western Ghats?
a) South Central Railway b) Konkan Railways
c) Southern Railway d) South Eastern Railway
4. Match the following:
Set I Set II
A. Railwheel Factory 1. Patiala
B. Rail Coach Factory 2. Chennai
C. Integral Coach Factory 3. Kapurthala
D. Diesel Loco odernization works 4. Bengaluru
Code: A B C D
a) 1 2 3 4
b) 4 3 2 1
c) 3 1 2 4
d) 4 1 2 3
5. Which of the following express trains run on the Indian Railways network has longest-run in
terms of total time & distance?
a) Vivek Express b) Himsagar Express c) Navyug Express d) Guwahati Express
6. Which of the following railway is not recognised by UNESCO World heritage Site?
a) Darjeeling Himalayan Railway b) Nilgiri Mountain Railway
c) Kalka-Shimla Railway d) North-Eastern Railway
7. Which of the following National Highway connects the four metro cities of India? (Delhi,
Mumbai, Kolkata and Chennai)
a) National Highway 44 b) National Highway 47A
c) Golden Quadrilateral (GQ) d) North-South Corridor of NHDP
8. India's first Post Office set up in which place?
a) Madras (Now Chennai) b) Calcutta (Now Kolkata)
c) Bombay (Now Mumbai) d) Delhi
9. Which of these is the external sounds present in the channels of communication?
a) Noise b) Semantic problems c) Cultural barriers d) Over communication
10. Which of these should not be avoided for effective communication?
a) Noise b) Planning c) Semantic problems d) Wrong assumptions
11. __________ are problems arising from expression.
a) Cultural barriers b) Semantic problems c) Wrong assumptions d) Selecting perception
12. Both encoding and decoding of message are influenced by our emotions. a) True b) False
13. In which of these problems, the actual message is lost in the jungle of information?
a) Selecting perception b) Over communication
c) Under communication d) Filtering
14. Communication should serve as a conflict- reduction exercise. a) True b) False
15. _______ means to impart understanding of the message.
a) Encoding b) Receiver c) Decoding d) Feedback
Unit 6 - Physical Geography of Tamil Nadu
1. The hills which are located in the border of Tamilnadu and Kerala.
a) Cardamom hills b) Anaimalai hills c) Palani hills d) Agasthiyar hills
2. The hills which separate the river basins of Cauvery and Palar.
a) Kalvarayan hills b) Palani hills c) Patchamalai hills d) Andipatti hills
3. Tamilnadu receives more rainfall during the season
a) North East monsoon b) Winter monsoon c) Summer season d) South West monsoon
4. Soil is formed by the deposition of silt by the rivers.
a) Black soil b) Laterite soil c) Red soil d) Alluvial soil
5. Indira Gandhi wild life sanctuary is found in the district of
a) Salem b) Coimbatore c) The Nilgris d) Erode
6. The second world largest mangrove forest is
a) Pichavaram b) Muthupet c) Vedaranyam d) Tuticorin
7. The forest found on the upper slopes of the Western Ghats in Kanniyakumari and Thirunelveli districts is
a) Tropical deciduous forest b) Tropical evergreen forest
c) Montane temperate forest d) Tropical thorn forest
8. Acacia is the common vegetation found in
a) Tropical evergreen forest b) Tropical deciduous forest
c) Mountain forest d) Thorn forest
9. A collapse of a mass of earth or rock from a mountain or cliff is called
a) Weathering b) Landslide c) Avalanch d) Earthquake
10. Risk Reduction Measures before disaster
a) Important telephone numbers to be known b) Important documents to be kept safe
c) Emergency way to be know d) All the Above
UNIT 7 - Human Geography of Tamil Nadu
1. In Tamilnadu millets and cotton are mainly sown in _______ period.
a) April-May b) August-September c) January-February d) November-December
2. The animal which is called “Poor man’s cow” in India is
a) Sheep b) Bull c) Goat d) Camel
3. “Little Brindavan” picnic spot is in ________ district.
a) Madurai b) Dharmapuri c) Salem d) Theni
4. Central Leather Research Institute (CLRI) is located in _______ district.
a) Chennai b) Kanchipuram c) Vellore d) Coimbatore
5. As per 2011 census sex ratio of Nilgiri district is
a) 946/1000 b) 980/1000 c) 1041/1000 d)1038/1000
6. The transport which is mainly used by most of the people in Tamilnadu is
a) Road ways b) Railways c) Air ways d) Water ways
7. The longest National Highway in Tamilnadu is NH 44 goes from ______ to _______
a) Hosur to Kanniyakumari b) Madurai to Natham
c) Thiruvannamalai to Kallakuruchi d) Kanniyakumari to Salem
8. Nagapattinam district is in the region of _______ population in Tamilnadu
a) Sparse population b) High population
c) Moderate population d) Very high population
9. Pattamadai in Tamilnadu is famous for ___________
a) Mat b) Coconut c) Turmeric d) silk
10. Disaster emergency contact number
a) 107 b)100 c)1077 d)1091
CIVICS
Unit – 1 - Indian Constitution
1. Who is the father of the Constitution of India?
a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
c) Jawaharlal Nehru d) H.C. Mukherjee
2. The Commonwealth citizenship was repealed in the year
a) 2000 b) 2001 c) 2002 d) 2003
3. In which article are the fundamental rights enshrined?
a) 14 to 32 b) 12 to 35 c) 36 to 51 d) 14 to 35
4. Who was elected as the “President of the Constitution Assembly”?
a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad b) V.T. Krishnamachari
c) H.C. Mukherjee d) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
5. The first meeting of the Constitution Assembly was held on
a) 1949, August – 26 b) 1949, November – 26
c) 1949, December – 9 d) 1949, December – 11
6. __________ has been described as the “Key to the Constitution”.
a) Preamble b) Citizenship c) Fundamental Rights d) Fundamental Duties
7. How many regional languages are recognized at present in the 8th schedule of the Indian
Constitution?
a) 18 b) 14 c) 22 d) 25
8. The procedure of Amendement is enshrined in which of the following article?
a) 352 b) 356 c) 360 d) 368
9. __________was the Chairman of drafting Committee of Indian Constitution.
a) Jawaharlal Nehru b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar c) Patel d) Swaran Singh
10. Who was appointed the Head of the National Commission to review the working of the
Constitution?
a) Dr. P.V. Rajamannar b) M.M. Punchchi
c) M.N. Venkatachaliah d) AadhiSeshaiya
Unit – 2 - Central Government

1. The President is elected for a term of
a) Four Years b) Five Years c) Six Years d) Three Years
2. The President nominates 12 persons, who are eminent in literature, Science, Sports, art and Social
Service to ____________
a) Rajya Sabha b) Lok Sabha c) Legislative Council d) Legislative Assembly
3. What is the age to become a member of Rajya Sabha?
a) 18 b) 22 c) 25 d) 30
4. The Lok Sabha is presided over by
a) The Speaker b) Prime Minister c) The President d) Vice President
5. First Vice President of India
a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad b) Dr. Radhakrishnan c) Zakir Hussain d) V.V. Giri
6. First Woman President of India
a) Sarojini Naidu b) Fathima Beevi c) Pratibha Patil d) Indira Gandhi
7. Which Article mentioned the duties of the Prime Minister?
a) Article – 54 b) Article – 64 c) Article – 68 d) Article – 78
8. Who appoints the Chief Justice of Supreme Court?
a) Prime Minister b) Attorney General of India
c) Cabinet d) the President
9. Which article provides for the Attorney General of India?
a) Article – 76 b) Article – 78 c) Article – 83 d) Article – 60
10. The Supreme Court of India, New Delhi was inaugurated on
a) 1947, August – 29 b) 1949, November – 2
c) 1950, January – 26 d) 1950, January – 28
Unit – 3 - State Government
1. Who appoints the Chairman and Members of the state Public Service Commission?
a) The Governor b) Chief Minister c) Cabinet d) the Speaker
2. Which of the following Article provides the privileges for the Governor?
a) Art – 356 b) Art – 360 c) Art – 361 d) Art – 368
3. Who allocates the portfolios among the Ministers?
a) The Governor b) The Chief Minister c) Cabinet d) the Speaker
4. The first Chief Minister of independent Tamilnadu
a) O.P. Ramaswamy b) C. Rajagopalachari c) K. Kamaraj d) C.N. Annadurai
5. Which of the following Article provides a Council of Ministers to aid and advice the Governor?
a) Article 163 b) Article – 164 c) Article – 165 d) Article – 166
6. The Legislative Council in Tamil Nadu was abolished in the year of
a) 1985, November – 1 b) 1986, December – 1
c) 1986, November – 1 d) 1987, November – 1
7. The Maximum Strength of the Legislative Assembly is______
a) 400 b) 450 c) 500 d) 550
8. The Minimum Strength of the Legislative Council is______
a) 30 b) 40 c) 50 d) 60
9. The High Court of Madras was started in ________
a) 1860 b) 1862 c) 1865 d) 1870
10. How many Highcourts are at present in India?
a) 24 b) 25 c) 28 d) 30
Unit 4 - India’s Foreign Policy
1. The tools of foreign policy are
a) Treaties b) Agreements
c) Appointing ambassadors d) All of these
2. Afro-Asian conference held in 1955 in
a) Indonesia b) Indo-china c) Malaysia d) Thailand
3. Which are the new global economic order emerged with the support of Western powers?
a) Liberalisation b) Privatisation c) Globalisation d) All of these
4. Which is not a foreign policy of India?
a) Supporting apartheid b) Decolonization
c) Racial equality d) World peace
5. India is not a member in ________
a) G20 b) IBSA c) BRICS d) OPEC
6. SAARC disaster management centre was setup at___________.
a) Chennai b) Bombay c) New Delhi d) Calcutta
7. How many member countries are there in SAARC organization?
a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8
8. Which is not a domestic policy?
a) education b) social issue c) diplomacy d) Civil rights
9. Non alliance means
a) Neutrality b) Demilitarization
c) De-escalation of conflicts d) None of these
10. NAM is meant for
a) Mutual assistance b) Progress c) Peace d) All of these
Unit 5 - India’s International Relations

1. A small Himalayan kingdom is
a) Bhutan b) Sikkim c) Nepal d) Myanmar
2. The prestigious Nehru – Wangchuk scholarship is being awarded to______
a) Bhutanese b) Chinese c) Japanese d) Indians
3. Our neighbouring country is
a) Andaman Island b) Nicobar Island c) Maldives Island d) Lakshadweep Island
4. India’s second largest border is shared with
a) China b) Bangladesh c) Myanmar d) Pakistan
5. India built the long Mahendra Raj Marg to link
a) Thimpu and India b) Kathmandu and India
c) Dakka and India d) Karachi and India
6. India included ___________language in the VIII schedule of the Indian Constitution.
a) Bhutanese b) Burmese c) Chinese d) Nepalese
7. Which country is separated by the narrow expanse of the Palk Strait from India?
a) Sri Lanka Island b) Maldives Island c) Andaman Island d) Lakshadweep Island
8. A developed country has _____________
a) Sovereign State b) highly developed economy
c) advanced technological infrastructure d) all of these
9. Delhi Metro is the example of _____________
a) French Cooperation b) Chinese Cooperation
c) Japanese Cooperation d) Korean Cooperation
10. Egypt, the Arabian Peninsula, Turkey and Iran are collectively known as
a) West Asian Countries b) East Asian Countries
c) Far East Countries d) Gulf Countries
11. Chabahar Agreement is a ______________
a) Bi – lateral b) Tri – lateral c) Multi-lateral d) None of the above
12. BRICS is an alternative to
a) World bank b) IMF
c) challenge to US Supremacy d) All the above
ECONOMICS
Unit – 1. Gross Domestic Product and its Growth – An introduction
1. Net National Product equals:
a) Gross National Product adjusted for inflation
b) Gross Domestic Product adjusted for inflation
c) Gross Domestic Product plus net property income from abroad
d) Gross National Product minus depreciation
2. The standard of living is often measured by:
a) Per capita Income b) Real GDP c) Real GDP plus depreciation d) Real GDP population
3. GDP measures:
a) A country's income b) A country's wealth c) Consumer spending d) Net trade income
4. The financial year in India is
a) April 1 to March 31 b) January 1 to December 31 c) March 1 to April 30 d) March 16 to March 15
5. The value of NNP at production point is called
a) NNP at factor cost b) NNP at market price c) GNP at market price d) GNP at factor cost
6. The average income of the country is
a) Per capita income b) Disposable income c) Inflation rate d) Real national income
7. Which tool is apt to measure the real development in an economy?
a) Gross Domestic Product b) Human Development Index
c) Net Domestic Product d) None
8. Which are the key parameters of economic growth?
a) GDP & GNP b) NDP & NNP c) Per capita income d) None
9. Tertiary sector otherwise known as
a) Primary Sector b) Secondary Sector c) Service Sector d) None
10. Which development is a very important aspect of any economy?
a) agricultural b) economic c) human resource d) industrial
11. Economic development is ---------------- in nature.
a) qualitative b) quantitative c) a & b d) None
UNIT – 2. Globalization and Trade
1. The term globalization was introduced by ……………….
a) Andre Gunder Frank b) Prof.Theodore Levitt c) Abraham Lincoln d) prof. F.Seeli
2. An early form of globalized economics and culture were known as……………….
a) Archaic Globalization b) Proto Globalization c) Modern globalization d) none
3. ……………………. was also an important early stage of Globalization.
a) Islamic golden age b) Vedic golden age c) Christianic golden age d) none
4. ………is characterized by the rise of maritime European empires in the 16th And 17th centuries.
a) Proto globalization b) Archaic Globalization c)Modern Globalization d) None
5. The first multinational company is described as ------.
a) French East India company b) British East India company
c) Dutch East India company d) none
6. In 16 century ………started establishing trading ports from Asia to Africa and Brazil.
th
a) Dutch b) Portugese c) British d) French

7. …………………………… Act referred directly to the operations of MNC in India.
a) FERA b) FEMA c) AAA d) NIRA
8. South India trade was dominated by the ………………. .
a) Cheras b) Cholas c) Pandiyas d) Pallavas
9. India’s coastal and maritime trade was monopolized by the ……………….. .
a) Europeans b) Americans c) British d) None
10. The Portugese under the leadership of Vasco Da Gama landed Calicut on the……………
a) 17 th May 1498 b) 18 th May 1498 c) 16th August 1948 d) None
11. The headquarters of SBI is located in …………………………….
a) Delhi b) Vijayavada c) Mumbai d) kolkata
12. ………………. was the early capital of the Portugese in India.
a) Cochin b) Cannore c) Calicutt d) Kolkata
13. ………………….formed the East India company and arrived in India in 1616.
a) The Danes b) The French c) The Greek d) None
14. The French Factory was established in India with the permission of ………………..
a) Sultan of Golconda b) Sultan of Mysore c) Nawab of Bengal d) None
Unit 3 - Food Security and Nutrition
1. _________ is defined as any substance that people eat and drink to maintain life and growth.
a) Health b) Nutrition c) Food d) None
2. _________ would denote a person’s ability to eat enough, stay active and lead a healthy life.
a) Nutrition security b) food security c) health security d) None
3. The basic components of food and nutrition security are
a) Availability of food b) Access to food
c) Absorption d) All the above
4. _________ is a price fixed by a group for a particular crop by considering various costs involved
in the cultivation of that crop.
a) Minimum Support Price b) Maximum support price
c) Subsidized price d) Model price
5. _________ is the stock of food grains procured by the government.
a) Godown b) Buffer stock c) Public distribution d) None
6. In 2015-16, _______ percentage of children in rural and urban India are estimated to be underweight.
a) 20% b) 30% c) 25% d) 15%
7. _________ can be used to compare countries income levels and other relevant economic data.
a) Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) b) HDI
c) OPHI d) RBI
8. The _______ purchases wheat and rice from the farmers in states where there is surplus production.
a) RBI b) PDS c) Food Corporation of India (FCI) d) None
9. Tamil Nadu continues to have the _________ system of Public Distribution System and supplies
rice at free of cost to all card holders.
a) Universal PDS b) Targeted PDS c) a and b d) None
10. In India, Consumer Cooperative Societies structure is
a) Two-tier b) three – tier c) four-tier d) None
UNIT 4 - Government and Taxes
1. _________ Governments conduct elections to local bodies within the state.
a) Central b) State c) Central and State d) None
2. Tax is a _________ payment.
a) Service b) not compulsory c) compulsory d) None
3. _________ was the first country to implement Goods and Service Tax (GST) in 1954.
a) Russia b) England c) France d) India
4. If the burden of the tax can be shifted to others, exit is an _________ tax.
a) Indirect tax b) direct tax
c) Goods and Service Tax d) proportional tax
5. _______ tax is a duty that is charged by the government on any source of entertainment provided.
a) Excise duty b) Wealth tax c) Sales tax d) Entertainment tax
6. _________ is typically imposed in addition to an indirect tax such as a sales tax.
a) Excise duty b) Wealth tax c) Sales tax d) Entertainment tax
7. Tax is levied by the government _________ and _________.
a) Progressively and regressively b) regressively and proportionately
c) Progressively and proportionately d) None
8. _________ is a voluntary payment.
a) Fee b) Payment c) Tax d) Duty
9. _________ is an activity commonly associated with the informal economy.
a) Smuggling b) tax evasion c) unaccounted money d) hiding money
10. Payments from non-tax sources other than tax income is known as _______
a) fees b) payments c) receipt d) None
11. Taxation generate _________ welfare.
a) Social b) state c) central d) none
UNIT 5 - Industrial Clusters in Tamil Nadu
1. Industries can be classified on the basis of
a) Types of inputs used b) Users c) Size & ownership d) All the above
2. The advantage of industrial clusters was first observed by the famous economist _____ in the 1920s.
a) Adam Smith b) Alfred Marshall c) Robinsin d) Amartya Sen
3. BHEL in Tiruchirapalli manufacture to _______ and _______.
a) iron and steel b) tyres and tubes c) boilers and turbines d) None
4. Standard motors started manufacturing cars in _______.
a) Tiruchirapalli b) Tripur c) Chennai d) Madurai
5. The Salem steel plant was set up in ------------- to produce stainless steel.
a) 1974 b) 1975 c) 1972 d) 1973
6. “Manchester of South India” is called _______.
a) Coimbatore b) Madurai c) Chennai d) Vellore
7. Countries in the Southern Hemisphere are called _______.
a) Global countries b) Global South countries
c) Southern countries d) none
8. The Vellore district is the top exporter of _______ goods in the country.
a) Iron b) wood c) leather d) glass
9. _______ is a process of an action of an entrepreneur who undertakes to establish his enterprise.
a) Entrepreneurship b) businessman c) business person d) business executive
10. _______ is famous for clustering of a large number of firms producing cotton knitwear.
a) Tiruppur b) Coimbatore c) Vellore d) Salem

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Answer: 1-d 2-a 3-e 4-c 5-b

Unit – 2 - Central Government

Unit 5 - India’s International Relations

a) Dutch b) Portugese c) British d) French

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