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0495 - w23 - Ms - 12-1 Sociology Mock

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Cambridge IGCSE™

SOCIOLOGY 0495/12
Paper 1 October/November 2023
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 80

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2023 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE, Cambridge International A and AS Level components, and some Cambridge O Level
components.

This document consists of 23 printed pages.

© UCLES 2023 [Turn over


0495/12 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme October/November
PUBLISHED 2023

Generic Marking Principles

These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers.
They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors
for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles.

GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 1:

Marks must be awarded in line with:

• the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
• the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
• the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.

GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 2:

Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).

GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 3:

Marks must be awarded positively:

• marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit
is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme,
referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
• marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
• marks are not deducted for errors
• marks are not deducted for omissions
• answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these
features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The
meaning, however, should be unambiguous.

GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 4:

Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed
instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors.

GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 5:

Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question
(however; the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate
responses seen).

GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 6:

Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should
not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind.

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Social Science-Specific Marking Principles


(for point-based marking)

1 Components using point-based marking:


• Point marking is often used to reward knowledge, understanding and application of skills.
We give credit where the candidate’s answer shows relevant knowledge, understanding
and application of skills in answering the question. We do not give credit where the answer
shows confusion.

From this it follows that we:

a DO credit answers which are worded differently from the mark scheme if they clearly
convey the same meaning (unless the mark scheme requires a specific term)
b DO credit alternative answers/examples which are not written in the mark scheme if they
are correct
c DO credit answers where candidates give more than one correct answer in one
prompt/numbered/scaffolded space where extended writing is required rather than list-type
answers. For example, questions that require n reasons (e.g. State two reasons …).
d DO NOT credit answers simply for using a ‘key term’ unless that is all that is required.
(Check for evidence it is understood and not used wrongly.)
e DO NOT credit answers which are obviously self-contradicting or trying to cover all
possibilities
f DO NOT give further credit for what is effectively repetition of a correct point already
credited unless the language itself is being tested. This applies equally to ‘mirror
statements’ (i.e. polluted/not polluted).
g DO NOT require spellings to be correct, unless this is part of the test. However spellings of
syllabus terms must allow for clear and unambiguous separation from other syllabus terms
with which they may be confused (e.g. Corrasion/Corrosion)

2 Presentation of mark scheme:


• Slashes (/) or the word ‘or’ separate alternative ways of making the same point.
• Semi colons (;) bullet points (•) or figures in brackets (1) separate different points.
• Content in the answer column in brackets is for examiner information/context to clarify the
marking but is not required to earn the mark (except Accounting syllabuses where they
indicate negative numbers).

3 Calculation questions:
• The mark scheme will show the steps in the most likely correct method(s), the mark for
each step, the correct answer(s) and the mark for each answer
• If working/explanation is considered essential for full credit, this will be indicated in the
question paper and in the mark scheme. In all other instances, the correct answer to a
calculation should be given full credit, even if no supporting working is shown.
• Where the candidate uses a valid method which is not covered by the mark scheme,
award equivalent marks for reaching equivalent stages.
• Where an answer makes use of a candidate’s own incorrect figure from previous working,
the ‘own figure rule’ applies: full marks will be given if a correct and complete method is
used. Further guidance will be included in the mark scheme where necessary and any
exceptions to this general principle will be noted.

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4 Annotation:
• For point marking, ticks can be used to indicate correct answers and crosses can be used
to indicate wrong answers. There is no direct relationship between ticks and marks. Ticks
have no defined meaning for levels of response marking.
• For levels of response marking, the level awarded should be annotated on the script.
• Other annotations will be used by examiners as agreed during standardisation, and the
meaning will be understood by all examiners who marked that paper.

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Question Answer Marks

1(a) From Source A, identify two countries that complete a census every 2
five years.

Acceptable answers:
• Japan
• Canada

One mark for each correct country identified up to a maximum of two.

1(b) Identify two types of secondary data, apart from a census. 2

Possible answers:
• statistics – these can be official (produced by the government) or
unofficial (i.e. produced by university researchers or students);
• historical documents – anything from the past from which information
can be drawn. These may be records, artefacts, photographs etc.;
• personal documents – letters and diaries are the most frequently used
examples of these. Anne Frank’s diary, for example;
• previous research done by other researchers e.g. previous study or old
statistics;
• media materials – newspapers, magazines, novels etc.;
• any other reasonable response.

One mark for any type correctly identified (up to a maximum of two).

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Question Answer Marks

1(c) Using information from Source A, describe two reasons why a census 4
is useful for researchers.

Possible answers:
• it is a government survey – this means that it can be conducted on a
large scale which means the data can be generalised;
• a census is a government survey investigating who lives in the country –
this may be useful in researching different social groups and how the
population is changing;
• a census investigates the size of the population – this may be helpful in
planning for the future e.g. health needs;
• because the whole population of a country is included – data sets of this
size can only be undertaken by governments because of the scale and
complexity and they are highly representative of the population;
• completing and returning the census to the government is a legal
requirement – because of this the response rate is very high and
researchers can have high confidence in the data provided;
• In the UK a census has occurred every ten years since 1801 making it a
longitudinal study – this is particularly useful for identifying patterns and
trends, such as population growth;
• The census includes data on age, ethnicity, health and employment –
this allows researchers to make comparisons across different social
groups and issues;
• different countries all gather similar population data through their census
– this is enables researchers to do comparative studies between
different countries for example comparing the age make up of different
populations;
• a survey is posted out to every household – because every household is
included there are no sampling errors;
• Japan and Canada complete a census every five years – so censuses
are longitudinal and changes to the lives of the population can be
monitored over time;
• the data collected in the census is useful for sociologists – who are
interested in different social groups and their characteristics and position
in society;
• the data collected in the census is useful for policy makers – e.g.
researchers working for a charity may use the census data to argue for
new initiatives to help an ageing population;
• any other reasonable response.

One mark for each point that appropriately references the source (up to a
maximum of two).
One mark for each point that is correctly developed (up to a maximum of
two).

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Question Answer Marks

1(d) Describe two strengths of using pre-coded questions in sociological 4


research.

Possible answers:
• produce quantitative data – which is readily presented in charts and
tables;
• easy to complete – may thus improve the response rate;
• easy and quick to analyse – quantitative data produced by pre-coded
questions can readily be turned into statistics or graphs, charts etc.;
• enable comparisons – as pre-coded questions give quantitative data,
they allow researchers to spot trends and correlations;
• reliable – researchers can check and repeat the research because pre-
coded questions tend to appear in a standardised format;
• gives quantitative data which allows for causal relationships (positivism)
to be analysed – finding social facts;
• quick to complete – less demanding for respondent;
• pre-coded questions are quick and easy to answer and therefore they
can be sent in surveys or questionnaires to larger samples;
• any other reasonable response.

One mark for each strength correctly identified (up to a maximum of two).
One mark for each strength that is developed (up to a maximum of two).

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Question Answer Marks

1(e) Describe two strengths and two limitations of using interpretivist 8


methods in sociological research.

Possible answers:
Strengths
• interpretivists work out people’s interpretations of the world by putting
themselves in their shoes, develops empathy/verstehen;
• validity – data is trustworthy and honest, interpretivist methods build
rapport with participants so they can be open and give more truthful
answers;
• qualitative – data is more detailed therefore gives a more in-depth view
into what is really happening, the desire for deep and meaningful
research is at the heart of the interpretivist methods;
• positivists believe science can describe people’s actions but
interpretivist methods allow the researcher to find out why individuals act
as they do;
• interpretivist methods are more flexible and can react to the unforeseen,
this enables interpretivists to gather data that might be missed by other
approaches;
• interpretivist methods develop a relationship between respondent and
researcher – misunderstandings can be solved through explanation;
• any other reasonable response.
Limitations
• a micro approach – they may be unrepresentative because interpretivist
methods are often small scale so it may not be possible to generalise
the results for the rest of the population;
• interpretivist methods may be biased e.g. in an in-depth interview the
Interviewer Effect may occur;
• researchers may get too close to their participants and lose objectivity
which positivists would criticise;
• interpretivist methods may lack reliability, in-depth and flexible methods
are almost impossible to replicate;
• when interpretivists use focus groups the data gathered may lack validity
if participants begin to conform with others rather than speak truthfully;
• tends to be expensive – answers are extended and therefore take more
researcher time both to conduct and to analyse and this brings added
costs;
• time consuming – qualitative methods such as unstructured interviews
tend to take longer than positivist surveys or structured interviews and
this can extend the research time frame;
• any other reasonable response.

One mark for each strength correctly identified (up to a maximum of two).
One mark for each strength that is developed (up to a maximum of two).
One mark for each limitation correctly identified (up to a maximum of two).
One mark for each limitation that is developed (up to a maximum of two).

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Question Answer Marks

1(f) Explain why ethical issues may cause problems when conducting 10
sociological research.
Possible answers:
• ethical issues may cause problems with funding – research projects that
would be deemed unethical may negatively impact future funding
opportunities for the researcher as their reputation may have been
damaged due to, for example, harming participants;
• it is not ethical to experiment on human beings if it might impact on their
well-being e.g. Milgram’s electric shock experiment caused physical
harm and mental anguish which is unacceptable;
• the requirement to get informed consent may be difficult to achieve
where the researcher wants to do the research covertly or wants to
research a group who cannot give consent, e.g. children, persons in
institutions who may be viewed as not of sound mind;
• researchers involved in covert observation may face the dilemmas of
having to report illegal activity e.g. James Patrick in ‘A Glasgow Gang
Observed’ which may mean going into hiding due to safety fears;
• the requirement to not invade the participant’s privacy can limit any type
of observation or limit the use of personal documents and thus
negatively impact they quality of data gathered;
• researchers must not lie to or deceive subjects but then it may be
difficult to get valid results, e.g. you must ask the subject to agree to be
part of the research but they are then aware they are being researched
and could change their behaviour (Hawthorne Effect);
• researchers should try to ensure anonymity but this can make follow up
research difficult, e.g. an anonymous survey where people do not give
personal details cannot be followed up;
• it can be difficult to achieve confidentiality if the researcher is
researching a small social group, they may be too readily identifiable;
• racism or sexism from a researcher is unethical and may cause distress
or offence to a respondent who may then withdraw from the research or
refuse to co-operate OR may cause data to be biased due to the
researcher’s racist/sexist interpretation;
• any other reasonable response.
Band 0 [0 marks]
No creditworthy response.
Band 1 [1–3 marks]
Answers in this band will show only a limited awareness of the question. A
tendency to description is likely. Responses may be short and undeveloped
and points stated without explanation. Sociological terms and concepts are
unlikely to be used. At the bottom of the band (1 mark), expect one weak
point. Higher in the band (2–3 marks), candidates may offer more than one
weak point.
Band 2 [4–7 marks]
Answers in this band will show basic sociological knowledge and
understanding. Responses may be underdeveloped and lacking in range. At
the bottom of the band, candidates are unlikely to use sociological terms and
concepts accurately. Higher in the band, candidates may be beginning to
use sociological terms and concepts with greater accuracy. However, some
aspects of the answer may only be partially developed/explained.

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Question Answer Marks

1(f) Band 3 [8–10 marks]


Answers in this band will show good sociological knowledge and
understanding and will be well-developed and explained. Sociological terms
and concepts will be used accurately overall. Answers will be well-focused
on the question and there will be a range of points presented. At the top of
the band explanations will be clear throughout.

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Question Answer Marks

1(g) To what extent are structured interviews the best method for 15
sociological research?

Possible answers:
Arguments for:
• if the participant does not understand a question the interviewer can
explain it thus minimising any confusion;
• there is a higher response rate than with self-completion questionnaires
as the respondent has agreed to participate and is being asked
questions by an interviewer rather than being sent a survey which they
may or may not respond to;
• easy to analyse/quantify and categorise responses to produce
quantitative data due to the closed nature of the questions asked;
• they tend to have good reliability due to the standardised nature of the
questions i.e. the same questions are asked in the same order to all
respondents;
• relatively large numbers can be undertaken because the interviews are
relatively quick and easy to administer, which improves
representativeness over methods such as unstructured interviews;
• positivists prefer structured interviews because they have less
subjectivity than unstructured interviews leading to more objective data –
the questions are pre-set in advance and all respondents are asked the
same questions;
• practical advantages – they are quick and easy to administer due to
them being a list of pre-set closed questions, so they do not necessarily
require a highly skilled interviewer;
• practical advantages, as they are standardised and use closed
questions, structured interviews can easily be completed over the phone
or online;
• any other reasonable response.
Arguments against:
• they tend to be inflexible due their structured nature and therefore the
respondent’s view cannot be explored in any detail through probing
using additional questions;
• they may take more time and are therefore more expensive than other
methods such as self-completion questionnaires;
• interviewer effect – the answers given by respondents may be
influenced by the interviewer through their social characteristics (age,
gender, etc.), tone of voice or manner and this may lower the validity of
the data gathered;
• the questions tend to be closed and are therefore limited in terms of the
level of detail which may negatively affect validity;
• semi-structured and unstructured interviews are higher in validity than
structured interviews because they allow the researcher to ask
supplementary questions and probe for more detail;
• semi-structured and unstructured interviews are more informal and
relaxed than structured interviews which helps build rapport and trust
allowing the respondent to be honest and be open, thus encouraging
valid answers;
• semi-structured and unstructured interviews allow flexibility according to
participant’s social identity so some questions may be missed out
altogether or re-phrased to suit the situation;

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Question Answer Marks

1(g) • semi-structured and unstructured interviews can gather qualitative data


enabling a deeper insight into the respondents’ thoughts;
• triangulation may be needed to add qualitative data to the quantitative
data gained from structured interviews, to give a more balanced and
holistic picture;
• any other reasonable response.

Band 0 [0 marks]
No creditworthy response.

Band 1 [1–4 marks]


Answers in this band may be vague and largely based on common sense
showing limited knowledge of the debate. Use of sociological terms or
concepts is very unlikely. Responses may be short, undeveloped and one-
sided. Lower in the band (1–2 marks), expect one or two weak points. Higher
in the band (3–4 marks) candidates may offer more than two points and
provide a weak definition of key terms in the question.

Band 2 [5–8 marks]


In this band candidates will show some basic knowledge of the debate.
Alternatively, they may offer an answer which is list-like in nature but there
will be no real attempt to assess the issues raised by the question. There
may be limited/some use of sociological terms or concepts. Responses may
be underdeveloped and lack range. Answers may be simplistic and two-
sided or only cover one side of the debate. Lower in the band, the response
may be rather narrow in the points covered and there may be some
development. Higher in the band, more points are likely to be covered with
some development. Alternatively, a list-like answer with some development
covering both sides of the argument may score up to 8 marks.

A one-sided answer cannot score higher than 8 marks.

Band 3 [9–12 marks]


Answers in this band will show good sociological knowledge and
understanding of the debate. Sociological terms and concepts will be used
with greater accuracy and/or frequency. For the most part, answers will be
well-developed, focused on the questions and there will be a range of points
presented. There will be a two-sided response, but it may lack range on one
side. At the bottom of the band, candidates may provide a narrower range of
developed points. At the top of the band, expect a wider range of developed
points and clear focus on the question.

Band 4 [13–15 marks]


Answers in this band will show excellent knowledge and understanding of
the debate. There will be a strong grasp of the arguments as well as
accurate and frequent use of sociological terms and concepts. Answers will
be well-developed, clearly focused on the question and discuss a wide range
of points. Responses will be two-sided and have a range of points on each
side. At the bottom of the band (13 marks), the answer may lack a specific
conclusion. Higher in the band, there will be a clear attempt to offer an
assessment of the ‘To what extent?’ part of the question through a focused
conclusion.

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Question Answer Marks

2(a) What is meant by the term ‘values’? 2

One mark for a partial definition e.g. honesty.


Two marks for a clear definition e.g. standards shared by members of a
culture and used to judge whether behaviour is right or wrong.

2(b) Describe two features of a multicultural society. 4

Possible answers:
• a variety of spoken languages can be found in multicultural societies, for
example Belgium has three official languages;
• multicultural societies can be home to a wide range of customs and
traditions, for example religious festivals or ceremonies;
• a range of different foods from different cultures e.g. Chinese and Indian
food in the UK;
• within one society many social groups have different clothing e.g.
shalwar kameez, saris, kippah;
• there can be many religious groups for example in India, while most
people are Hindus there are also Muslims, Christians and Buddhists;
• multicultural societies can be home to hybrid cultural identities where
individuals embrace norms of both the ethnic minority and majority;
• multicultural societies are made up of many different cultures co-existing
side by side respecting each other’s traditions and lifestyles;
• conflict – some multicultural societies may feature racism, discrimination
and scapegoating when the ethnic majority blame minority groups for
social issues;
• any other reasonable response.

One mark for each feature correctly identified (up to a maximum of two).
One mark for each feature that is developed (up to a maximum of two).

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Question Answer Marks

2(c) Explain how individuals may achieve a higher status in society. 6

Possible answers:
• through charitable work and dedication which can be rewarded with
greater prestige, respect and status;
• social media gives the individual new opportunities to increase their
public profile and enhance their status by becoming influencers;
• by working hard and gaining promotion and thus earning a higher status
within an organisation e.g. a supervisory or managerial role;
• through educational success gaining qualifications which can bring
status in themselves e.g. degree and higher degrees or as a route to
higher status as part of a job;
• through dedication e.g. being a professional athlete requires talent,
dedication and hard work and often brings high status if successful;
• joining a sub-culture – some youths experience status frustration and
join with their peers in a group where they can achieve more respect
and prestige e.g. youth sub-cultures like Goths, K Pop or delinquent
gangs;
• becoming an accomplished criminal – e.g. within a gang engaging in
highly deviant acts may bring higher status within the hierarchy;
• through marriage which can be a route to higher status, particularly in
traditional societies;
• functionalists argue meritocratic societies provide an environment in
which it is possible to raise one’s status by, for example, working hard;
• through mass media recognition people can gain celebrity status;
• any other reasonable response.

Band 0 [0 marks]
No creditworthy response.

Band 1 [1–3 marks]


Answers in this band will show only a limited awareness of the question.
Responses may be short and un/underdeveloped. At the bottom of the band
(1 mark), expect one weak point. Higher in the band (2– 3 marks),
candidates may offer more than one weak point, but there may be a
tendency towards simplistic answers, engaging with sociological ideas
without using sociological language.

Band 2 [4–6 marks]


Answers in this band will have clear and accurate explanation, showing good
sociological knowledge and understanding. Sociological terms and concepts
should be expected and explained. At the bottom of the band, the range of
points covered may be narrow or lack detail. Higher in the band, answers will
cover more than one point in a well-developed way or cover several points in
less detail.

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Question Answer Marks

2(d) Explain why rewards and sanctions are useful for social control. 8

Possible answers:
• the fear of being ostracised or shunned by a peer group is likely to
prevent a member from going against the norms;
• imprisonment or other legal sanctions are serious and have implications
for an individual’s future;
• physical punishment, e.g. hitting will make individuals less likely to
deviate from accepted norms;
• receiving a reprimand, e.g. verbal telling off at home or at school can be
shaming and therefore it is to be avoided;
• some institutions have huge importance, for example religions in some
societies and fear of their sanctions makes individuals conform;
• receiving a reward from a parent, e.g. extra pocket money for good
behaviour will encourage the child to repeat the desired behaviour;
• receiving rewards at school such as prizes or certificates encourage
students to continue to work hard and increase their chances of
educational success;
• financial rewards for conforming, e.g. those who fulfil the role of good
worker are given a pay rise and/or promotion for hard work and are
highly desired;
• any other reasonable response.

Band 0 [0 marks]
No creditworthy response.

Band 1 [1–3 marks]


Answers in this band will show only a limited awareness of the question. A
tendency to description is likely. Responses may be short and undeveloped
and points stated without explanation. Sociological terms and concepts are
unlikely to be used. At the bottom of the band (1 mark), expect one weak
point. Higher in the band (2 –3 marks), candidates may offer more than one
weak point.

Band 2 [4–6 marks]


Answers in this band will show basic sociological knowledge and
understanding. Responses may be underdeveloped and lacking in range. At
the bottom of the band, candidates are unlikely to use sociological terms and
concepts accurately. Higher in the band, candidates may be beginning to
use sociological terms and concepts with greater accuracy. However, some
aspects of the answer may only be partially developed/explained.

Band 3 [7–8 marks]


Answers in this band will show good sociological knowledge and
understanding and will be well-developed and explained. Sociological terms
and concepts will be used accurately overall. Answers will be well-focused
on the question and there will be a range of points presented. At the top of
the band explanations will be clear throughout.

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Question Answer Marks

2(e) To what extent is nurture more important than nature in explaining 15


human behaviour?

Possible answers.
Arguments for:
• social relativity of gender roles, i.e. in different societies gender roles are
different suggesting nurture is the more important;
• cultural traditions e.g. religion at times demands that we overcome
natural instincts e.g. fasting or celibacy;
• inadequate socialisation, i.e. individuals may not be recognisably human
without socialisation, e.g. feral children;
• Ann Oakley’s theories of primary socialisation suggest nurture best
explains human behaviour;
• different ethnicities are socialised to accept culturally specific norms and
values, different cultural norms and values points to the importance of
nurture over nature;
• the role of agencies and processes of socialisation/re-socialisation in
developing human behaviour in society, e.g. the hidden curriculum in
school or the training in the workplace;
• any other reasonable response.
Arguments against:
• Talcott Parson’s theory of woman’s expressive role is influenced by
biological determinism;
• Aggression – it is argued that an individual’s propensity for aggressive
behaviour is genetically determined – aggressive responses are in our
DNA;
• hormones and changes in hormone levels will affect an individual’s
mood and behaviour;
• Sociobiologists argue that much of human behaviour is driven by
‘natural instincts’ such as hunger, fear or the drive to reproduce;
• mothering instinct, Bowlby’s work on maternal deprivation concludes
that the maternal instinct is innate;
• intelligence – it is argued by some that intelligence is determined by
genetic inheritance;
• physical appearance is a key part of our identity and is inherited
genetically e.g. skin colour;
• any other reasonable response.

Band 0 [0 marks]
No creditworthy response.

Band 1 [1–4 marks]


Answers in this band may be vague and largely based on common sense
showing limited knowledge of the debate. Use of sociological terms or
concepts is very unlikely. Responses may be short, undeveloped and one-
sided. Lower in the band (1–2 marks), expect one or two weak points. Higher
in the band (3–4 marks) candidates may offer more than two points and
provide a weak definition of key terms in the question.

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Question Answer Marks

2(e) Band 2 [5–8 marks]


In this band candidates will show some basic knowledge of the debate.
Alternatively, they may offer an answer which is list-like in nature but there
will be no real attempt to assess the issues raised by the question. There
may be limited/some use of sociological terms or concepts. Responses may
be underdeveloped and lack range. Answers may be simplistic and two-
sided or only cover one side of the debate. Lower in the band, the response
may be rather narrow in the points covered and there may be some
development. Higher in the band, more points are likely to be covered with
some development. Alternatively, a list-like answer with some development
covering both sides of the argument may score up to 8 marks.

A one-sided answer cannot score higher than 8 marks.

Band 3 [9–12 marks]


Answers in this band will show good sociological knowledge and
understanding of the debate. Sociological terms and concepts will be used
with greater accuracy and/or frequency. For the most part, answers will be
well-developed, focused on the questions and there will be a range of points
presented. There will be a two-sided response but it may lack range on one
side. At the bottom of the band, candidates may provide a narrower range of
developed points. At the top of the band, expect a wider range of developed
points and clear focus on the question.

Band 4 [13–15 marks]


Answers in this band will show excellent knowledge and understanding of
the debate. There will be a strong grasp of the arguments as well as
accurate and frequent use of sociological terms and concepts. Answers will
be well-developed, clearly focused on the question and discuss a wide range
of points. Responses will be two-sided and have a range of points on each
side. At the bottom of the band (13 marks), the answer may lack a specific
conclusion. Higher in the band, there will be a clear attempt to offer an
assessment of the ‘To what extent?’ part of the question through a focused
conclusion.

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Question Answer Marks

3(a) What is meant by the term ‘apartheid’? 2

One mark for a partial definition e.g. separating groups.


Two marks for a clear definition e.g. a stratification system based on keeping
racial groups apart e.g. pre 1994 South Africa.

3(b) Describe two examples of scapegoating in modern industrial societies. 4

Possible answers:
• unemployment is sometimes blamed on immigrants even when this is
not true;
• through racism some groups are falsely blamed for high crime rates;
• young people are often unfairly labelled as delinquents this can be seen
in the work of Cohen on Mods and Rockers;
• the New Right often scapegoat the poor/underclass as being
responsible for their own poverty through their culture and values,
categorising them as ‘scroungers’ and ‘lazy’ etc.;
• some groups are represented stereotypically in the media leading to
scapegoating e.g. single mothers responsible for out of
control/delinquent children;
• Stuart Hall argues the ‘Black mugger’ was created as a scapegoat to
shift attention away from other structural inequalities;
• during the recent riots in Delhi it is argued the government scapegoated
Muslims as being responsible rather than the agricultural reforms that
were being introduced;
• any other reasonable response.

One mark for each example correctly identified (up to a maximum of two).
One mark for each example that is developed (up to a maximum of two).

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Question Answer Marks

3(c) Explain how a welfare state may cause a dependency culture. 6

Possible answers:
• New Right theorists argue that by providing for people’s needs people
take advantage of benefits and think they do not have to look after
themselves;
• if welfare payments become too high this discourages people from
looking for work so they rely on the state;
• if the welfare state does too much for people it can become a nanny
state and so takes away personal responsibility;
• providing for people’s needs has produced a new class, the underclass,
whose values are based on reliance and welfare;
• the welfare state can cause fatalism in recipients causing individuals to
avoid taking personal responsibility and become dependent upon
welfare;
• if individuals receive welfare they might develop the traits of instant
gratification as they move from welfare cheque to welfare cheque rather
than trying to form a long-term plan for upward mobility;
• any other reasonable response.

Band 0 [0 marks]
No creditworthy response.

Band 1 [1–3 marks]


Answers in this band will show only a limited awareness of the question.
Responses may be short and un/underdeveloped. At the bottom of the band
(1 mark), expect one weak point. Higher in the band (2– 3 marks),
candidates may offer more than one weak point, but there may be a
tendency towards simplistic answers, engaging with sociological ideas
without using sociological language.

Band 2 [4–6 marks]


Answers in this band will have clear and accurate explanation, showing good
sociological knowledge and understanding. Sociological terms and concepts
should be expected and explained. At the bottom of the band, the range of
points covered may be narrow or lack detail. Higher in the band, answers will
cover more than one point in a well-developed way or cover several points in
less detail.

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Question Answer Marks

3(d) Explain why the working class may find it difficult to achieve upward 8
social mobility.

Possible answers:
• because they have lower educational outcomes the opportunities for
getting higher status and higher paid jobs are reduced;
• the working class are negatively labelled at school and this can lead to
internalising negative labels leading to a self-fulfilling prophecy of failure;
• schools are said to be middle class institutions and as such the working
class lack the cultural capital to interact positively with teachers and so
may do less well in terms of educational attainment, e.g. unable to use
the elaborated code;
• because the working class may have poorer health and well-being these
factors will impact educational achievement and employability;
• because the working class have fatalistic attitudes, they feel they have
limited opportunity for social mobility and this becomes a self-fulfilling
prophecy;
• because the working class are more focused on immediate gratification,
they fail to consider longer term planning which is required for upward
social mobility;
• material deprivation may limit the opportunities that many working-class
children have and this can impact their chances of upward social
mobility e.g. lack of educational resources or poor diet affecting
achievement at school;
• because the working class lack social capital e.g. ‘the old boys’ network’
they are denied opportunities to be upwardly socially mobile;
• the working class may lack cultural capital which may prevent them from
achieving success in the workplace/society;
• because, as Marxists would argue, the working class are controlled and
exploited by the upper class who actively deny them the opportunity for
upward social mobility;
• some members of the working class may be caught in the poverty trap
and/or the cycle of poverty as they try to survive on a minimum wage –
in some countries this may mean that working class children do not go
to school but work to help support the family;
• any other reasonable response.

Band 0 [0 marks]
No creditworthy response.

Band 1 [1–3 marks]


Answers in this band will show only a limited awareness of the question. A
tendency to description is likely. Responses may be short and undeveloped
and points stated without explanation. Sociological terms and concepts are
unlikely to be used. At the bottom of the band (1 mark), expect one weak
point. Higher in the band (2 –3 marks), candidates may offer more than one
weak point.

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Question Answer Marks

3(d) Band 2 [4–6 marks]


Answers in this band will show basic sociological knowledge and
understanding. Responses may be underdeveloped and lacking in range. At
the bottom of the band, candidates are unlikely to use sociological terms and
concepts accurately. Higher in the band, candidates may be beginning to
use sociological terms and concepts with greater accuracy. However, some
aspects of the answer may only be partially developed/explained.

Band 3 [7–8 marks]


Answers in this band will show good sociological knowledge and
understanding and will be well-developed and explained. Sociological terms
and concepts will be used accurately overall. Answers will be well-focused
on the question and there will be a range of points presented. At the top of
the band explanations will be clear throughout.

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Question Answer Marks

3(e) To what extent does institutional racism explain social inequality? 15

Possible answers:
Arguments for:
• ethnic minorities are more likely to be arrested by the police – this type
of institutional racism can impact the life chances of ethnic minorities;
• institutional racism around the world has been highlighted by the BLM
movement following the unlawful killing of George Floyd by a US police
officer, making it clear how deep-rooted institutional racism can be and
how the life chances of some ethnic minority groups are curtailed;
• ethnic minorities are often negatively labelled in education – this type of
institutional racism can cause a self-fulfilling prophecy causing ethnic
minorities to have worse educational outcomes;
• ethnic minorities may find it difficult to get jobs or promotion at work – for
example very few big companies have ethnic minorities on the executive
board;
• ethnic minorities may be stereotyped negatively in the media and as
such this causes prejudice in society that increases inequality for ethnic
minorities;
• ethnic minorities may be denied access to social services such as
healthcare and housing this type of institutional racism denies ethnic
minorities fair access to services and hence increases inequality;
• any other reasonable response.
Arguments against:
• feminists are likely to argue that gender is a more important explanation
of inequality than institutional racism, e.g., facing the glass ceiling in the
workplace denies women the opportunity to earn higher wages;
• equalities legislation has now come into force outlawing institutional
racism e.g. the Equality Act 2010 (UK), the Equality Act 2021 (India);
• popular movements like BLM are challenging inequalities in all areas of
life and work and as the movement gains momentum institutional racism
is likely to decline;
• Marxists argue that class-based inequalities are more influential than
institutional racism, e.g. the working class are likely to prioritise
immediate gratification which may limit the possibility of upward mobility;
• functionalists argue society is meritocratic and opportunities exist for
those that work hard and achieve;
• not all forms of racism are institutional and people from ethnic minority
groups may be ostracised from the wider community and face social
exclusion;
• some argue ageism is a bigger cause of inequality than institutional
racism, e.g. young people in many countries are growing up with huge
university debts and limited opportunity to get on the career ladder;
• some argue discrimination against people with disabilities is a bigger
cause of inequality than institutional racism, e.g. many disabled people
find access to public transport difficult and so are denied employment
opportunities;
• any other reasonable response.

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Question Answer Marks

3(e) Band 0 [0 marks]


No creditworthy response.

Band 1 [1–4 marks]


Answers in this band may be vague and largely based on common sense
showing limited knowledge of the debate. Use of sociological terms or
concepts is very unlikely. Responses may be short, undeveloped and one-
sided. Lower in the band (1–2 marks), expect one or two weak points. Higher
in the band (3–4 marks) candidates may offer more than two points and
provide a weak definition of key terms in the question.

Band 2 [5–8 marks]


In this band candidates will show some basic knowledge of the debate.
Alternatively, they may offer an answer which is list-like in nature but there
will be no real attempt to assess the issues raised by the question. There
may be limited/some use of sociological terms or concepts. Responses may
be underdeveloped and lack range. Answers may be simplistic and two-
sided or only cover one side of the debate. Lower in the band, the response
may be rather narrow in the points covered and there may be some
development. Higher in the band, more points are likely to be covered with
some development. Alternatively, a list-like answer with some development
covering both sides of the argument may score up to 8 marks.

A one-sided answer cannot score higher than 8 marks.

Band 3 [9–12 marks]


Answers in this band will show good sociological knowledge and
understanding of the debate. Sociological terms and concepts will be used
with greater accuracy and/or frequency. For the most part, answers will be
well-developed, focused on the question and there will be a range of points
presented. There will be a two-sided response but it may lack range on one
side. At the bottom of the band, candidates may provide a narrower range of
developed points. At the top of the band, expect a wider range of developed
points and clear focus on the question.

Band 4 [13–15 marks]


Answers in this band will show excellent knowledge and understanding of
the debate. There will be a strong grasp of the arguments as well as
accurate and frequent use of sociological terms and concepts. Answers will
be well-developed, clearly focused on the question and discuss a wide range
of points. Responses will be two-sided and have a range of points on each
side. At the bottom of the band (13 marks), the answer may lack a specific
conclusion. Higher in the band, there will be a clear attempt to offer an
assessment of the ‘To what extent?’ part of the question through a focused
conclusion.

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