NEET Level Test (10- Contact Number: 9667591930 /

Mar-24) 8527521718

Physics - Section A 3 Positive charge is uniformly distributed over the

perimeter of a square, ABCD. The electric field at the
1 Alternating voltage V = V sin ωt is applied to a
0
centre (O) of the square, due to one side, is E. The
circuit containing some elements in series. Match the electric field, at the centre, due to two adjacent sides
values of current in Column-I with the possible elements AB, BC is:
connected in the circuit in Column-II.
Column-I Column-II
(A) I = I sin ωt
0 (P) only inductor circuit
(B) I = −I cos ωt 0 (Q) may be C -R circuit
(C) I = I0 sin(ωt +
π

4
) (R) may be L-R circuit

(D) I = I0 sin(ωt −
π

4
) (S) only resistance circuit

1. A → S, B → Q, C → P, D → R 1. 2E along OB
2. A → P, B → S, C → R, D → Q 2. √2E along OB
3. A → S, B → P, C → Q, D → R 3. √2E along OD
4. A → S, B → P, C → R, D → Q E
along OD
4.
2 Identify the gate for the table given below: √2

A B Y

0 0 1
4 The force exerted on a current-carrying wire of
0 1 0
length L, carrying a current I and placed at 30
∘
to a
1 0 0
uniform magnetic field B is:
1 1 0
1. I LB 2. I LB cos 30 ∘

3. I LB sin 30 4. I LB tan 30
∘ ∘

1. NAND gate 2. NOR gate

3. AND gate 4. OR gate 5 In the given nuclear fission reaction;
235 1 x 89 1
U + n → Ba + y Kr + 3 n
92 0 56 0

the values of x and y are, respectively:

1. 143, 36 2. 145, 37
3. 144, 36 4. 141, 37

6 The phase difference between the waves, arriving

from the two slits at the minimum of Young's double-slit
interference pattern, is:
1. integral multiple of π
2. integral multiple of 2π
3. odd integer multiple of 2π
4. odd integer multiple of π

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 NEET Level Test (10- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Mar-24) 8527521718

7 In the circuit shown, each light bulb has a resistance 9 The central part of a convex lens is covered by
2 Ω, and the potential source has an EMF of 6 V. black paper (see figure). Then we can say that:
​

1. no image will be formed

2. full image will be formed but will be less bright
3. central part of the image will be missing
Which graph best shows the power dissipated by the
two images will be formed, each due to two different
light bulb (3) as a function of time? 4.
parts

10 The correct unit of the quantity hc (h: Planck's

constant, c: speed of light in vacuum), is:
1. 2.
1. eV/A ˚

2. eV-A˚

3. eV-s
4. eV/s
3. 4.
11 In a nuclear reaction the following quantities is/are
conserved:
1. kinetic energy 2. mass
3. momentum 4. all the above
8 Eddy currents can be minimised by:
reducing relative motion between the core and 12 When a paramagnetic substance is introduced
1.
magnet in an electric motor
between the poles of a strong magnet, the field between
2. by making the core of thin laminations the poles:
3. by increasing the conductor cross-sectional area
4. both (1) and (2) are correct

1. increases slightly
2. decreases slightly
3. increases by a large factor
4. remains unchanged

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 NEET Level Test (10- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Mar-24) 8527521718

13 The width of the central maximum of the diffraction 16 Given is the following logic gate:
pattern of a single slit of width 1 mm equals the width of
the slit itself when the screen is 1 m away from it. The
wavelength of light used equals:
1. 250 nm
2. 500 nm
3. 1000 nm Input waveform at A and B are:
4. 2000 nm

14 A square loop of side length a, carrying a current i

is placed in a uniform magnetic field B acting parallel to
one of its sides. Then:
1. A net force acts on the loop, but no torque.
2. A torque acts on the loop, but no net force.
3. A force and a torque, both act on the loop.
4. neither a force nor a torque acts on the loop.

15 A p-type extrinsic semiconductor is obtained when

Germanium is doped with: Output waveform Y will be?
1. antimony 2. phosphorous
3. arsenic 4. boron
1.

2.

3.

4.

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 NEET Level Test (10- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Mar-24) 8527521718

17 A short bar magnet has points A and B along its 19 A rod P Q of length L moves in a uniform magnetic
axis at distances of 24 cm and 48 cm on the opposite field B with a velocity v, perpendicular to its own
sides. The ratio of magnetic fields due to bar magnets at length. The magnetic field B acts in the plane of motion,
these points will be: making an angle θ with the rod. The motional emf,
V − V P is: Q

1. 8
2. 4
3.
1

2√2

4. 16
1. zero
18 Two equilateral prisms, made of glass, are placed 2. BLv cos θ
back-to-back so that the emerging ray from A B enters 3. BLv sin θ
1 1

the surface A B . The first prism is placed at minimum 4. BLv

2 2

deviation, and this minimum deviation is 60 .∘

20 Given below are two statements:

In a purely inductive circuit, the average
Statement I:
power consumed is very high.
In a purely inductive circuit only,
Statement II:
resonance can be achieved.

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

2. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
3. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
The net angular deviation of the incident ray, after 4. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
passing through both prisms, is:
1. 60
∘
2. 30
∘
21 To produce an instantaneous displacement current
3. 120
∘
4. 0
∘
of 2 mA in the space between the parallel plates of a
capacitor of capacitance 4 μF, the rate of change of
applied variable potential difference ( dV
) must be:
dt

1. 800 V/s
2. 500 V/s
3. 200 V/s
4. 400 V/s

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 NEET Level Test (10- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Mar-24) 8527521718

22 Charges and (both ) are 25 Resistances P , Q, R, S are connected into the four
−4
Q1 , Q2 1.1 × 10 C

located at (−3 m, 0 m) and at (3 m, 0 m) on the xy- arms of a Wheatstone Bridge, and it is balanced. If the
plane. The coordinates of points A, B and C are resistances P , S are both doubled, then in order to re-
(−1 m, 0 m), (1 m, 0 m) and (0 m, 4 m). balance the bridge:

What is the potential difference between A and B?

1. 0 volts 1. R must be replaced by 2R
2. 10 volts
6
2. Q must be replaced by 2Q
3. 2 × 10 volts
6
3. R must be replaced by 4R
4. 7.5 × 10 volts
6
nothing needs to be done, as the bridge is balanced
4.
now.
23 Given below are two statements:
The magnetic field due to a very long 26 What would be the equivalent capacitance between
current-carrying solenoid, at its centre, is A and B?
Statement I: inversely proportional to the radius of the
solenoid, other things remaining
constant.
The magnetic energy stored in a solenoid
Statement II: carrying a current I is directly
proportional to I . 2

1. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
4. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
1. 5 μF
24 Two identical rheostats (A & B) are connected in
2. μF
4

series, and their tapping points (exactly in the middle) 3. μF 5

are also connected to each other through a resistance R, 4

4. 2 μF
which is also equal to the resistance of either rheostat.
The resistance of the system, between X and Y , is: The electrostatic potential measured at a point along
27
the axis of a dipole is 3 V. If the measurement is taken at
a point that is twice as far, along the same axis, then the
potential will be:
1. 6 V
2. 1.5 V
5R
3. 0.75 V
1. 3R 2. 4. 0.375 V
2

4R 3R
3. 4.
3 2

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 NEET Level Test (10- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Mar-24) 8527521718

28 Current varying at the rate 4 A/s in a coil generates 31 Given below are two statements:
an EMF of 16 mV in a nearby coil. The mutual An electric dipole is enclosed in a closed
inductance of the two coils is: Assertion (A): Gaussian surface. The total flux through
1. 4.0 × 10 mH
−3
the enclosed surface is zero.
2. 4.0 × 10 H
−3
The net charge inside the enclosed
Reason (R):
3. 2.5 × 10 H
−2
surface is zero.
4. 2.5 × 10 mH
−2

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
29 A thin prism made of glass (μ = 1.5) is placed in 1.
explanation of (A).
the path of light rays falling normal to its base AC. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
Given: ∠A = ∠C = 4 . The angle between the
∘ 2.
explanation of (A).
emerging rays, corresponding to ray 1 and ray 2, after 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
they emerge from the prism is:
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

32 The magnetic field of a plane electromagnetic wave

is given by,
→
B = 3 × 10 cos(1.6 × 10 x + 48 × 10 t)^j T.
−8 3 10

The associated electric field will be:

1. 3 × 10 cos (1.6 × 10 x + 48 × 10 t) ^i V/m
−8 3 10

2. 3 × 10
−8
sin (1.6 × 10 3
x + 48 × 10
10 ^
t) i V /m
3. 9sin (1.6 × 10 3
x − 48 × 10
10 ^
t) k V /m

1. 0
∘
2. 2
∘ 4. 9cos (1.6 × 10 3
x + 48 × 10
10 ^
t) k V /m
3. 4
∘
4. 6
∘

33 The SI unit of relative dielectric permittivity (ε ) is: r

30 A charged particle of charge q projected parallel to 1. farad

an infinitely long current-carrying wire (current: i) 2. farad/m
moves in a curved path whose (instantaneous) centre lies 3. farad/m 2

on the wire itself. The momentum of the particle is:

4. none of the above, as it is a pure number.

34 The maximum electric field that a dielectric

medium of a capacitor can withstand without the
breakdown of its insulating property is called its:
1. polarisation
2. capacitance
3. dielectric strength
4. dielectric constant

μ0 iq πqi
1. 2. μ0
2

2πiq μ0 iq
3. μ0
4.
2π

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 NEET Level Test (10- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Mar-24) 8527521718

35 A thin spherical glass vessel, containing a liquid, is 37 The variation of the magnetic field along the axis of
placed in the path of a parallel beam of light. The a solenoid is graphically represented by:
diameter of the glass-vessel parallel to the incident beam (O is the centre with I , I as the extremities of the
′

is AB, while the centre is O. It is observed that an solenoid along the axis)
incident ray falling at C (where ∠AOC = 60 ), ∘

undergoes refraction and passes through the point B.

The refractive index of the liquid is:

1. 2.

1. √3 3. 4.
2. 2
2
3.
√3

4. 2√3
38 As the quantum number n increases, the kinetic
Physics - Section B energy (E ) of an electron in the nth Bohr orbit (in an H
k

-atom) varies as: (A is a positive constant)

36 Which one of the following statements, with respect 1. A

to a semiconducting material, is not correct? n2

A
They have a negative temperature coefficient of 2. −
1. n
2

resistance. 3. An 2

2. They have a moderate forbidden energy gap. 4. −An 2

3. Current is carried by both, electrons and holes.

Every semiconducting material is a tetravalent
4.
element.

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 NEET Level Test (10- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Mar-24) 8527521718

39 The voltage across AB, V AB = 6 to 7 V, and it can 42 In the circuit shown in the figure, D 1, D2 are ideal
vary. A 5 V-Zener diode is to be connected between diodes.
P , Q so that the voltage across the 100 Ω resistance is

maintained at that value.

If the resistance of the circuit is measured in the forward

direction (i.e.,V > V ) then it is R and in the reverse
A B 1

direction (i.e.,V < V ) then it is R . The values of

A B 2

R , R are:
Which diagram shows the proper connection? 1 2

1. 200 Ω, 100 Ω 2. 300 Ω, 200 Ω

3. 150 Ω, 150 Ω 4. 167 Ω, 167 Ω

1. 2. 43 In the circuit shown in the figure, D 1, D2 are ideal

diodes.

3. 4.

If an AC-voltage of peak value 300 V is applied across

the system, the maximum (peak) currents through D
40 The stopping potential for a metal when illuminated and D are:
1

with light of wavelength λ is V and that for wavelength 1. 1 A, 1.5 A

0

2λ is
V0
. The threshold wavelength of the metal is: 2. 1.5 A, 3 A
1. λ
4
3. 2 A, 2 A
2. 2λ 4. 1.25 A, 1.25 A
3. 3λ
4. 4λ

41 An electron and a photon have the same wavelength

and their momenta are p and
e
pv respectively. We can
conclude that:
1. p > p
e v

2. p < p
e v

3. p = p
e v

4. No inference can be made

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 NEET Level Test (10- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Mar-24) 8527521718

44 A plane mirror (M ) is placed with its surface 46 Given below are two statements:
inclined at 45 with the x-axis, and passing through the
∘
Ohm's law is applicable to all devices
origin O. A thin convex lens (L) of focal length 40 cm Assertion (A):
through which a current can flow.
is placed at x = −20 cm, with its principal axis This is because any charge flowing
coinciding with the x-axis. through a device experiences an electric
Reason (R): field, and consequently a force – this
force increases with the electric field,
proportionately.

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
A luminous point object is placed at x = −60 cm on
the x-axis. The final rays emerging, after reflection from
M,
47 Two large plane metallic plates of surface area A
1. form an image at y = −20 cm (on y-axis) are placed parallel to each other, and they are charged
oppositely with equal charges: +Q, −Q. The separation
2. form an image at x = −20 cm (on x-axis)
between the two plates is d, which is very small. A small
3. form a parallel beam, travelling along −ve y-axis. positive charge q (q ≪ Q) is placed exactly midway
4. form a parallel beam, travelling along −ve x-axis between the two plates. The force on q due to the

45 A plane mirror is placed with its surface remaining charges (i.e., + Q, −Q) is: (k = 1
(M ) )
4πε0

inclined at 45 with the x-axis, and passing through the

∘

origin O. A thin convex lens (L) of focal length 40 cm

is placed at x = −20 cm, with its principal axis
coinciding with the x-axis.

2qQ
qQ
If a parallel beam is incident onto the lens from the left, 1. k
2.
(d 2
/4)
travelling parallel to the x-axis, then the emerging beam ε0 A

from the mirror, 2qQ

3. 4. zero
1. will converge on the y-axis at y = 20 cm ε0 A

will appear to diverge from the point on the y-axis at

2.
y = 40 cm

3. will converge on the y-axis at y = −20 cm

will appear to diverge from the point on the y-axis at
4.
y = −40 cm

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 NEET Level Test (10- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Mar-24) 8527521718

48 During an experiment on the photoelectric effect, it Chemistry - Section A

was observed that (monochromatic light) photons
incident on a photocathode, ejected electrons whose 51 Match the parameters listed in Column I with their
minimum de-Broglie wavelength was 6.2 A.
˚
The work- corresponding formulae in Column II, and indicate the
function of the surface was 1 eV. The energy of the appropriate choice:

incident photons was: (one can use the formula Column I Column II
(A) Kohlrausch's law (i) ∧ = ∧ + ∧ o
eq
o
c
o
a

12.4
(B) Molar conductivity (ii) o
∧m =
˚ C
λdB = A)
∧m
√E
k (C) Degree of dissociation (iii) α = o
∧m

1. 101 eV 2

(D) Dissociation constant (iv)

Cα
Ka =
2. 3 eV 1−α

3. 4 eV 1. (A) →(iii), (B)→(iv), (C) →(i), (D)→ (ii)

4. 5 eV 2. (A) →(i), (B)→(ii), (C) →(iii), (D)→ (iv)
3. (A) →(iv), (B)→(i), (C) →(ii), (D)→ (iii)
49 The ground state energy of electrons in hydrogen 4. (A) →(ii), (B)→(iii), (C) →(iv), (D)→ (i)
atom is −13.6 eV. The corresponding kinetic and
potential energies are, respectively: 52 Read the following statements and choose the
1. zero; 13.6 eV correct option.
2. −6.8 eV; −6.8 eV
Potassium dichromate is used in
Statement I:
3. 13.6 eV; −27.2 eV
volumetric analysis.
4. −13.6 eV; zero Statement K2Cr2O7 is more soluble in water than in
II: Na2Cr2O7.
50 In a sample of hydrogen atoms, one atom goes 1. Both Statements I and II are correct
through a transition n = 3 → ground state with emitted 2. Both Statements I and II are incorrect
wavelength λ . Another atom goes through a transition
1
3. Statement I is correct and II is incorrect
n = 2 → ground state with emitted wavelength λ . The
2
4. Statement I is incorrect and II is correct
λ1
ratio of λ2
is equal to:
1. 6/5
2. 5/6
3. 27/32
4. 32/27

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 NEET Level Test (10- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Mar-24) 8527521718

53 The structure of compound B in the following 57 Match the name of the reagents (given in Column
reaction is: A) with the representation of the reagent (given in
Column B):
Column A Column B
I. Lucas' reagent a. Alkaline KMnO4
II. Baeyer's reagent b. CH3MgBr
III. PCC c. ZnCl2+HCl
1.
d.

2. IV. Grignard reagent

3.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
1. i‐c, ii‐d, iii‐a, iv‐b
4. 2. i‐b, ii‐c, iii‐a, iv‐d
3. i‐b, ii‐d, iii‐a, iv‐c
4. i‐c, ii‐a, iii‐d, iv‐b
54 58 For the four compounds Propanal, Benzaldehyde,
Freon-12 (CCl2F2) is manufactured Propanone, Butanone, the correct increasing order of
Assertion(A): from tetrachloromethane through the reactivity in nucleophilic addition reactions is:
Swarts' reaction.
In the stratosphere, freon is capable of 1. Benzaldehyde < Butanone < Propanone< Propanal
Reason(R): initiating radical chain reactions that 2. Butanone < Propanone < Benzaldehyde < Propanal
may disrupt the natural ozone balance. 3. Propanal < Propanone < Butanone < Benzaldehyde
4. Benzaldehyde < Propanal < Propanone < Butanone
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

55 The common oxidation states associated with

cerium (Ce) are:
1. +3 , +4
2. +2, +3
3. +2, +4
4. +3, +5

56 All of the following reactions may result in a

ketone, except:
1. Ozonolysis of an alkene.
2. Aldol condensation.
3. Oxidation of a primary alcohol.
4. Friedel-Crafts acylation.

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 NEET Level Test (10- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Mar-24) 8527521718

59 Mark the correct Nernst equation representation for 63 The relation between temperature and the rate of a
the following cell : chemical reaction,
Fe(s) ∣Fe
∣
2+
(0.001M)∣ ∣
∣ ∣H
+
(1M)∣
∣ H2(g) (1bar) ∣ Pt(s)
as described by the Arrhenius equation, is:
1. k = Ae Ea /RT

[Fe
2+
][H
+
2
]
2. k = Ae −Ea /RT

1. Ecell = E
∘
−
0.591
log 3. k = Ae ×
Ea

cell 2 [Fe][H2 ] RT

∘ 0.591
[Fe][H
+ 2
] 4. k = Ae × RT

2. Ecell
Ea
= E − log
cell 2 2+
[Fe ][H2 ]

2+
64
[Fe ][H2 ]

3. Ecell = E
∘
−
0.0591
log Assertion Nitration of benzoic acid gives m-
cell 2 + 2
[Fe][H ]
(A): nitrobenzoic acid
[Fe][H2 ]

4. Ecell = E
∘
−
0.0591
log The carboxyl group increases the electron
cell 2 2
Reason (R):
density at the meta position.
2+ +
[Fe ][H ]

60 Which compound, among the following, has the Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
lowest pKa? explanation of (A).
1. 3‐Nitrophenol Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2.
2. Phenol explanation of (A).
3. 4‐Nitrophenol 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Ethanol 4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

61 The IUPAC name of the given compound is : 65

The standard reduction potentials of
three metallic ions A, B, and C are –0.3,
Assertion (A): –0.5, and 0.8 volts respectively.
Therefore, the oxidizing power of ions is
C > A > B.
1. 3-Carboxy-3-hydroxy butane dioic acid
2. 2-Hydroxy propane-1,2,3-tricarboxylic acid The higher the standard reduction
3. 3-Hydroxy butane dioic acid Reason (R): potential, the higher the oxidizing
4. 2-Bis (carboxymethyl)-2-hydroxy ethanoic acid power.

62 The correct statement regarding the magnetic 1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
3- 3- explanation of (A).
properties exhibited by [Fe(CN)6] and [FeF6] is:
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
1. Both are paramagnetic 2.
explanation of (A).
2. Only [Fe(CN)6]3- is paramagnetic 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
3. Only [FeF6]3- is paramagnetic 4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
4. Both are diamagnetic
66 Identify the chiral alcohol capable of reacting with
acidified dichromate to produce an aldehyde under
controlled conditions:
1. 2-Ethyl-1-butanol
2. 2-Pentanol
3. 2-Methyl-1-butanol
4. 2,2-Dimethyl-1-butanol

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 NEET Level Test (10- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Mar-24) 8527521718

67 Select the correct option based on the statements 71 Match Column I (formulae of the isomers) with
below: Column II (type of isomerism) and select the correct
Chlorine is an electron-withdrawing option:
group, yet it exhibits ortho- and para- Column II
Assertion (A): Column I
directing behavior in electrophilic (Type of
(Pair of isomers)
aromatic substitution. isomerism)
Inductive effect of chlorine destabilises (I) [Co(N H ) ][Cr(CN ) ]
3 6 6

the intermediate carbocation formed (p) (a) Ionisation

(II) [Cr(N H ) ][Co(CN ) ]
3 6 6
during the electrophilic substitution,
(III) [P tCl (N H ) ]Br
Reason (R): however due to the more pronounced (q)
2 3 4 2
(b) Hydrate
resonance effect, the halogen stabilises (IV) [P tBr (N H ) ]Cl
2 3 4 2

the carbocation at ortho and para (V) [Co(SCN )(N H ) ]Cl 3 5 2

positions. (r) (c) Coordination

(VI) [Co(N CS)(N H ) ]Cl 3 5 2

(VII) [Cr(H O) ]Cl

(s)
2 6 3
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct (d) Geometrical
1. (VIII)[CrCl 2 (H2 O)4 ]Cl ⋅ 2H2 O
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct (e) Linkage
2. 1. p-(d), q-(a), r-(e), s-(b)
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. 2. p-(a), q-(c), r-(b), s-(e)
3. p-(c), q-(a), r-(e), s-(b)
4. (A) is False but (R) is True. 4. p-(a), q-(c), r-(e), s-(b)

68 An incorrect statement regarding actinoids is: 72 How many of the given compounds can be readily
synthesized via Gabriel phthalimide synthesis, resulting
1. They are radioactive elements. in product(s) soluble in KOH when treated with
Actinoid contraction is greater than lanthanoid Hinsberg reagent?
2.
contraction.
3. Actinoid metals are all silvery in appearance.
Electrons are filled in 5f, 6d and 6s subshells in
4.
actinoids.

69 The correct statement among the following

regarding solutions is:
A saturated solution will remain saturated at all
1.
temperatures.
A plant cell swells when placed in a hypertonic 1. 2
2. 2. 3
solution.
The depression in the freezing point is directly 3. 1
3. 4. 0
proportional to the molality of the solution.
4. Lowering of vapour pressure is a colligative property.

70 What factor influences the determination of the rate

constant in a reaction?
1. Temperature
2. Initial concentration of the reactants
3. Time of reaction
4. Extent of reaction

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 NEET Level Test (10- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
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73 77 Which of the following compounds will react with

The coordination number of Fe and Co ethanolic KCN ??
3−
Assertion (A) : in [Fe(C O ) ] and [Co(en) ] is 3+ A. Ethyl chloride
2 4 3
3
B. Acetyl chloride
6.
C. Chlorobenzene
C2 O and en (ethane-1, 2-diamine)
2−
D. Benzaldehyde
Reason (R) : 4

are bidentate ligands. 1. A and B 3. A and D

2. B and D 4. A and C
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A). 78 Determine the vapor pressure (in torr) of a MgCl2
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct solution, given the following data:
2.
explanation of (A). a) molality: 1 m
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. b) vapor pressure of pure solvent: 100 torr
4. Both (A) and (R) are False. c) α (degree of dissociation) = 80 %
1. 95.53 2. 78.23
74 Choose the incorrect statement regarding 3. 68.12 4. 58.26
SN2 reactions:
As the concentration of nucleophiles increases, the 79 The molarity of a solution obtained by mixing 750
1. mL of 0.5M HCl with 250 mL of 2M HCl will be:
reaction rate increases.
Both the attack of the nucleophile and the departure 1. 0.875 M
2. 2. 1.00 M
of the leaving group occur simultaneously.
Inversion of configuration occurs on asymmetric 3. 1.75 M
3. centers because the nucleophile attacks from the 4. 0.975 M
backside of the leaving group.
80 Order of a reaction, given that the initial
The SN2 mechanism is predominant in tertiary alkyl
4. concentration of 0.24 M is reduced to 0.12 M in 10
halides. hours and to 0.06 M in 20 hours, is:
1. Zero order reaction
75 The compound formed by the reduction reaction of 2. First order reaction
an aldehyde is: 3. Second order reaction
4. Half order reaction
1. 2.
81 Among the following, square-planar geometry is
exhibited by:
1. [NiCl ]
2−
4

2. CrO 4
2−

3. 4. 3. MnO −

4. [PtCl (NH
2 3)
2
]

82 The sum of x + y in [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2, where x

76 Among the following, the set representing a
denotes the primary valency and y represents the
complex and a double salt respectively, is:
secondary valency of the central metal ion, is:
1. CuSO4.5H2O and CuCl2,4NH3
1. 6
2. PtCl2.2NH3 and PtCl4.2HCl 2. 9
3. K2PtCl2.2NH3 and KAl(SO4)2.12H2O 3. 5
4. NiCl2.6H2O and NiCl2(H2O)4 4. 3

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83 Match the laws given in Column I (parameters) 87

with the expressions given in Column II (formula) and Methoxy ethane reacts with HI to give
mark the appropriate choice. Assertion (A):
ethanol and iodomethane.
Column II The reaction of ether with HI follows
Column I Reason (R):
(Expressions) SN2 mechanism.
(A) Raoult’s law (1) ΔT = K mf f

(B) Henry's law (2) p = K ⋅ X H

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
Elevation of boiling 1.
(C) (3) p = x p + x p 0 0 explanation of (A).
point 1 1 2 2

Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
Depression in freezing 2.
(D) (4) ΔT = K m explanation of (A).
point b b

3. (A) is True but (R) is False.

4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
1. A-3,B-2,C-1,D-4,
2. A-3,B-2,C-4,D-1
3. A-2,B-3,C-1,D-4,
88
4. A-2,B-3,C-4,D-1, Assertion Phenol undergoes Kolbe reaction,
(A): whereas ethanol does not.
84 The time required to deposit 1.0 g of chromium Reason (R):
The phenoxide ion is more basic than the
when a 1.25 A current flows through a solution of ethoxide ion.
chromium (III) sulphate is:
(Molar mass of Cr =52) Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
1. 1.24 min 2. 1.24 h explanation of (A).
3. 1.24 s 4. None of these Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2.
explanation of (A).
85 What is the source of the 'C' in CO2 liberated when 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
propionic acid reacts with aqueous sodium bicarbonate? 4. Both (A) and (R) are False
1. Methyl group
2. Carboxylic acid group
3. Methylene group
4. Bicarbonate

Chemistry - Section B
86 The shape of XeO 2 F2 molecule is :
1. Trigonal bipyramidal
2. Square planar
3. Tetrahedral
4. See-saw

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89 Trichloroacetaldehyde, CCl3CHO, reacts with 93 Match List–I (Carbohydrates) with List –

chlorobenzene in the presence of sulphuric acid to yield: II (Cyclic Structures) and select the correct option:
List - II
List - I
(Cyclic Structures)
(Carbohydrates)
1.

A. α − D −Glucopyranose 1.

2.
B. β −D − Glucopyranose 2.

C. α − D − Fructofuranose 3.
3.

D. β − D −Fructofuranose 4.
4.

1. A – 4; B – 1; C – 2; D – 3
2. A – 1; B – 4; C – 3; D – 2
90 Identify the product formed from the reaction of 3. A – 2; B – 3; C – 4; D – 1
nitrobenzene with conc. HNO3/H2SO4 at 80-100°C: 4. A – 1; B – 3; C – 2; D – 4
1. 1,4-Dinitrobenzene
2. 2,4,6-Trinitrobenzene
94 The correct statement regarding cellulose among the
3. 1,2-Dinitrobenzene following is:
4. 1,3-Dinitrobenzene 1. Cellulose is not found in plants.
Cellulose is a straight-chain polysaccharide
91 The freezing point (in °C) of a solution containing 2. composed only of β‐D‐glucose units which are joined
0.1 g of K [F e(CN ) ](Mol. wt. 329) in 100g of water
3 6
by glycosidic linkage between C1 of one glucose unit
is: and C4 of the next glucose unit.
(K = 1.86K kg mol
f )
−1
Cellulose is a branched chain polysaccharide
1. −2.3 × 10 −2 composed only of α‐D‐glucose units which are joined
3.
by glycosidic linkage between C1 of one glucose unit
2. −5.7 × 10 −2

and C3 of the next glucose unit.

3. −8.7 × 10 −3

Cellulose is the least abundant organic substance in

4. −1.2 × 10 −2
4.
the plant kingdom.
92 Which complex, among the following, has the
highest value of crystal field splitting energy?
95 Ethyl alcohol reacts with thionyl chloride to give:
1. [Co(CN ) ] 3− 1. CH CH Cl + H Cl
3 2
6
2. CH CH Cl + H O + SO
2. [Cu(N H ) ] 2+ 3 2 2 2
3 4
3. CH CH Cl + H Cl + SO
3. [Co(H O) ] 2+ 3 2 2
2 6
4. CH CH Cl + SO + Cl
3 2 2 2
4. [T i(H O) ]
2 6
3+

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96 Which of the following bases is not found in RNA? 102 The primary source of energy for most ecosystems
1. Adenine on Earth is:
2. Uracil 1. Wind
3. Thymine 2. Sunlight
4. Cytosine 3. Geothermal energy
4. Redox reactions
97 Despite the dipole moment in the B–Cl bond, the
BCl3 molecule as a whole has no dipole moment 103 About what percent of drugs currently sold in
because: markets worldwide are derived from plants?
The respective dipole-moments of the B–Cl bond add 1. 5 2. 10
1.
with each other 3. 25 4. 50
The respective dipole moments of the B–Cl bond
2.
cancel each other 104 In the most important nucleosides:
3. BCl3 is tetrahedral in shape I: the sugar is a pentose.
4. None of the above the nitrogen-containing compound is either a
II:
pyrimidine or a purine.
98 The element, from the following, that exhibits the 1. Only I is correct
highest number of allotropes is: 2. Only II is correct
1. O 3. Both I and II are correct
2. S 4. Both I and II are incorrect
3. Se
4. T e 105 A particular flavor is imparted to 'Roquefort
cheese' during the ripening of cheese due to:
99 Consider the following compounds: 1. Artificial flavors added after production of raw cheese
2. Lactic acid production by a bacteria
A. NH 3
3. Growth of a specific fungi
B. (CH ) N 3 3 4. Ethanol production by a yeast
C. CH NH 3 2

D. (CH ) NH 3
2
106 The central dogma of molecular biology is a theory
The decreasing order of basicity of the amines (A to D) that states that genetic information flows in one
in an aqueous solution is: direction, from:
1. A > B > C > D 1. DNA to RNA to protein
2. B > D > C > A 2. DNA to protein to RNA
3. A > C > D > B 3. RNA to DNA to protein
4. D > C > B > A 4. Protein to DNA to RNA

100 Deficiency of which vitamin causes osteomalacia? 107 Which of the following will lead to a slower rate of
1. Vitamin A decomposition of detritus in an ecosystem?
2. Vitamin D 1. Large content of water soluble sugars
3. Vitamin K 2. Warm and moist conditions
4. Vitamin E 3. Anaerobiosis
4. Rich in nitrogen
Biology I - Section A 108 At which level of the biological organisation does
the study of ecology typically start?
101 Which subspecies of tiger is not extinct?
1. Organism 2. Population
1. Caspian 2. Bali
3. Biological community 4. Ecosystem
3. Javan 4. Sumatran

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109 Micropyle present in a seed coat is important for: 116 Identify the correct statement:
1. Protection of the embryo 1. In prokaryotes, DNA is positively charged
Facilitation of water and oxygen entry during In eukaryotes, histones are a set of negatively charged
2. 2.
germination proteins
Allowing the pollen tube to emerge out of the embryo In eukaryotes, histones are rich in lysine and arginine
3. 3.
sac residues
4. Induction of dormancy in the embryo 4. DNA is a hydrophobic molecule

110 Biotechnology is essentially: 117 What two core techniques enabled the birth of
1. Manipulation of physical structures modern biotechnology?
Use of live organisms or enzymes for useful products 1. Cloning and gene transfer
2. 2. Genetic engineering and bioprocess engineering
and processes
3. Hybridization and DNA sequencing
3. Extraction of minerals from organisms
4. Microbial contamination and antibiotic resistance
4. Creation of artificial intelligence
118 Bottled juices are clarified by the use of:
111 An angiosperm produces light, non-sticky pollen in 1. proteases and lipases
large numbers and its stigmas are long and feathery. 2. lipases and amylases
Most likely this angiosperm will be pollinated by: 3. cellulase and pectinases
1. insects 2. water 4. pectinases and proteases
3. wind 4. animals
119 Pleiotropy describes a phenomenon wherein:
112 What is the chemical composition of the intine of 1. one gene affects one trait
the pollen grain? 2. one gene affects multiple traits
1. Sporopollenin 3. multiple genes affect one trait
2. Cellulose and pectin 4. multiple genes affect multiple traits.
3. Polysulphate esters
4. Alginates 120 As a part of their reproductive strategy, oysters and
pelagic fishes:
113 The vertical layering of a habitat, or the 1. breed only once in their life time
arrangement of vegetation in layers in an ecosystem, is 2. produce small number of large sized offspring
called as: 3. produce large number of small sized offspring
1. Trophic layers 2. Canopy structure 4. reproduce only asexually
3. Stratification 4. Zonation Proteins encoded by cryIAc and cryIIAb genes in
121
114 Curd produced with the use of lactic acid bacteria Bacillus thuringiensis help in control of:
1. corn borer
is considered nutritionally superior as it provides: 2. cotton bollworms
1. Iron 2. Vitamin B12 3. mosquitoes
3. Iodine 4. Vitamin A 4. beetles

115 The organization in India that makes decisions 122 What percentage of pea plants would be
regarding the validity of GM research and safety of homozygous for their trait in the F2 generation, when tall
introducing GM organisms is: F1 heterozygous pea plants are selfed?
1. ICMR (Indian Council of Medical Research)
2. CSIR (Council of Scientific & Industrial Research) 1. 25 2. 50
3. GEAC (Genetic Engineering Approval Committee) 3. 75 4. 100
4. ICAR (Indian Council of Agricultural Research)

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123 Which pathogen requires a snail and a fish as 131 Which of the following is home to the greatest
secondary hosts to complete its life cycle? biodiversity on Earth?
1. Human liver fluke 1. Amazonian rain forest
2. Tapeworm 2. Congo basin
3. Pin worm 3. Coral triangle
4. Ascaris lumbricoides 4. Great barrier reef

124 The largest constituent of biogas is: 132 The outer three wall layers of the
1. Carbon dioxide 2. Oxygen microsporangium, as a unit, function mainly in:
3. Methane 4. Hydrogen sulphide 1. Nourishing the developing pollen grains
2. Providing a constant supply of pollen mother cells
3. Releasing the pollen through dehiscence
125 A -/0 population interaction is called as:
4. Providing structural support to the anthers
1. Amensalism 2. Parasitism
3. Commensalism 4. Competition 133 The organisms that are not a part of the second
trophic level in an ecosystem will be:
126 Which biocontrol agent is effective against aphids? 1. Zooplankton 2. Grasshopper
1. The Ladybird 3. Phytoplankton 4. Cow
2. Dragonfly
3. Trichoderma 134 The large holes in the cheese shown below is due
4. Baculoviruses
to fermentation carried out by:
127 Both autogamy and geitonogamy would be
prevented in a:
1. Monoecious plant bearing unisexual flowers
2. Dioecious plant bearing only male or female flowers
3. Monoecious plant with bisexual flowers
4. Dioecious plant with bisexual flowers.

128 If a new habitat is just being colonised, which of

the following may contribute most to the population
growth rates?
1. Mortality 2. Emigration
3. Natality 4. Immigration 1. Penicillium
2. Propionibacterium
129 The field experiment on barnacles to demonstrate 3. Saccharomyces
competitive release was performed by: 4. Streptomyces
1. Gause 2. Connell
135 An endosperm cell of an angiosperm is found to
3. Ehrlich 4. Tilmann
have 30 chromosomes. What would be the chromosome
number in the root cell of this angiosperm?
130 Florey and Chain: 1. 5
1. discovered penicillin 2. 10
2. discovered streptomycin 3. 20
3. made penicillin into a useful and effective drug 4. 15
4. found vaccine for prevention of swine flu

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Biology I - Section B 140 How many of the given statements are true?
BOD refers to the amount of oxygen that would be
136 A gene has seven alleles. The number of possible I: consumed if all the organic matter in one litre of
genotypic combinations will be: water were oxidised by bacteria.
1. 7 2. 8 The sewage water is treated until BOD reduces to
II:
zero.
3. 28 4. 56
The BOD test measures the rate of uptake of
oxygen by micro-organisms in a sample of water
137 Consider the given two statements: III:
and thus, indirectly, BOD is a measure of the
Pollination does not guarantee the transfer organic matter present in the water.
Assertion of the right type of pollen The greater the BOD of waste water, greater is its
(A): (compatible pollen of the same species as IV:
polluting potential.
the stigma).
1. 1
Reason Pollination is the process of delivering 2. 2
(R): pollen to the female organs of a plant. 3. 3
4. 4
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains
1.
(A) 141 Consider the given two statements:
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly Application of genetic engineering in plant
2. Assertion
explain (A) and animal breeding confers an important
3. (A) is True, (R) is False (A):
advantage over traditional hybridization.
4. (A) is False, (R) is True Unlike traditional hybridisation, genetic
Reason engineering ensures inclusion of only
138 Consider the given two statements: (R): desirable genes without introducing
Yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae) is used for undesirable ones.
I:
commercial production of ethanol.
Statins are produced by the yeast Monascus Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains
II: 1.
purpureus (A)
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly
2.
1. Only I is correct 2. Only II is correct explain (A)
3. Both I and II are correct 4. Both I and II are incorrect 3. (A) is True, (R) is False
4. (A) is False, (R) is True
139 What percent of all bird species at present face the
threat of extinction? 142
1. 12 2. 23 Ecosystems are exempt from the second
Assertion (A):
3. 31 4. 32 law of thermodynamics.
Ecosystems do not require a constant
Reason (R):
supply of energy.

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains
1.
(A)
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly
2.
explain (A)
3. (A) is True, (R) is False
4. (A) is False, (R) is False

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143 147 Consider the given two statements:

Pyramid of energy can never be Development of apomictic embryos is
Assertion (A):
inverted in any ecosystem. Assertion (A): considered significant in the
Pyramids of biomass can be inverted in context of hybrid seed production.
Reason (R):
aquatic ecosystems. If hybrids are made into apomicts, there
is no segregation of characters in
Reason (R):
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains otherwise expensive to produce hybrid
1. progeny.
(A)
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly
2. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains
explain (A) 1.
3. (A) is True, (R) is False (A)
4. (A) is False, (R) is True Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly
2.
explain (A)
144 DNA in prokaryotes is organised in large loops 3. (A) is True, (R) is False
held by: 4. (A) is False, (R) is True
1. Lipids 2. Lectins
3. Proteins 4. RNA strands
148 What role do Agrobacterium vectors play in
creating transgenic tobacco plants resistant to
Meloidogyne infestation?
145 Consider the given two statements:
1. Direct attack and killing of nematodes in the soil.
Assertion Majority of insect-pollinated flowers are
Making the roots tougher so that the nematode cannot
(A): large, colourful, fragrant and rich in nectar. 2.
enter the plant.
Reason Insects are attracted to flowers by colour,
Introduce nematode-specific genes into the host plant,
(R): fragrance and/or nectar. 3.
leading to the production of complementary dsRNA.
Increasing oxygen availability in the rhizosphere,
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains 4.
1. killing the nematode.
(A)
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly
2. 149 In mycorrhiza:
explain (A)
3. (A) is True, (R) is False The fungal symbiont in these associations absorbs
I:
phosphorus from soil and passes it to the plant.
4. (A) is False, (R) is True
II: The fungus derives no benefit from this association.
146 The number of types of gametes produced by a 1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
plant with the genotype AaBbCC [assume independent 3. Both I and II are correct
assortment] will be: 4. Both I and II are incorrect
1. 4 2. 6
3. 8 4. 64 150 Principle of complementarity governs
I: Transcription
II: DNA replication
1. Only I 2. Only II
3. Both I and II 4. Neither I nor II

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Biology II - Section A 157 When species from different evolutionary

backgrounds evolve similar traits due to adaptation to
151 If glucose is not present and if lactose is present, similar environments, the process is called as:
1. Convergent evolution
the lac repressor:
2. Divergent evolution
1. gets synthesized in larger quantities.
3. Saltation
2. gets inactivated.
4. Coevolution
3. binds more tightly to the operator.
4. stimulates the catabolite activator protein.
158 In fowl, the sex of offspring is determined by:
152 The event that establishes pregnancy is the 1. Male parent
2. Female parent
implantation on the endometrium of:
3. Both male and female parents
1. Morula
4. Environmental conditions
2. Blastocyst
3. Corpus albicans
4. Gastrula 159 Which hormone is predominantly secreted by the
ruptured Graafian follicle during the secretory phase of
153 During translation, which of the following the menstrual cycle?
molecules acts as an adaptor? 1. Oestrogen 2. Progesterone
1. mRNA 3. LH 4. FSH
2. tRNA
3. rRNA 160 Medical Termination of Pregnancy is:
4. miRNA 1. Legalized abortion
2. Surgical method for sterilisation
154 The sickle cell trait provides a survival advantage
Most common contraceptive strategy used in our
against: 3.
country
1. Malaria
2. HIV 4. Abortions due to negligence of medical professionals
3. Covid 19
4. Swine flu 161 Which of the following intra uterine contraceptive
devices releases copper ions?
155 Seminal plasma contains: 1. Lippes loop 2. Progestasert
secretions of seminal vesicles, prostate and bulbo- 3. LNG 20 4. Multiload 375
I:
urethral glands.
II: sperms 162 Which scientist, working independently, proposed
1. Only I a theory of natural selection similar to the theory given
2. Only II by Charles Darwin?
3. Both I and II 1. Erasmus Darwin
4. Neither I nor II 2. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck
3. Alfred Russel Wallace
156 Conventionally, the location of the promoter site 4. Thomas Malthus
and the terminator site in a transcription unit is described
as: 163 What can be the possible blood group phenotypes
3’(downstream) end and 5'(upstream) end, of progeny if the male parent has AB and the female
1. parents has O blood type?
respectively, of transcription unit
5’(upstream) end and 3’ (downstream) end, 1. AB and O
2. 2. A and B
respectively, of transcription unit
3. Only O
3. 5’ (upstream) end
4. A, B, AB and O
4. 3' (downstream) end

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164 Which of the following is responsible for 171 After being grown in 15N environment and after
prevention of the occurrence of polyspermy? one round of DNA replication in a medium containing
1. The acrosomal membrane the heavier isotope of nitrogen - 15N, what will be the
2. The oolemma observed distribution of DNA molecules?
3. zona pellucida 1. All heavy DNA
4. corona radiata 2. All light DNA
3. Equal amounts of heavy and light DNA
165 Selection of individuals at both extremes of the 4. Mostly heavy DNA but a few light DNA
phenotypic range is:
1. Stabilizing natural selection 172 Male honeybees produce gametes by:
2. Directional natural selection 1. Mitosis
3. Disruptive natural selection 2. Meiosis
4. Reverse natural selection
3. Abnormal mitosis
166 ‘An Essay on the Principle of Population’, a work 4. Male honeybees are sterile; they do not produce
gametes
that possibly influenced Darwin was authored by:
1. A R Wallace 2. Charles Lyell
173 Secretion of androgens by Leydig cells in the
3. T R Malthus 4. Georges Cuvier
human testis is primarily regulated by:
1. FSH
167 After about how many cycles in PCR, a single 2. Testosterone
molecule of DNA may be amplified to about one billion 3. DHEA
copies? 4. LH
1. 20
2. 30 174 In phenylketonuria, the lack of an enzyme leads to
3. 1000 the failure of amino acid phenylalanine getting
4. 10000 converted into:
1. Serine
168 The loss of genetic variation that occurs when a 2. Tyrosine
new population is established by a very small number of 3. Glutamic Acid
individuals from a larger population is called as: 4. Valine
1. Gene flow 2. Bottleneck effect
3. Founder effect 4. Genetic death 175 All the following are stop codons except:
1. UAA 2. UGA
169 If the frequency of the dominant allele (A) in a 3. UAG 4. UAC
population is 0.5, what is the frequency of the
heterozygotes [Aa] if the population is in genetic 176 Neanderthals:
equilibrium? 1. had a cranial capacity of about 1000 cc
1. 0.5 2. 0.25 2. lived in Africa, some 200000 to 400000 years ago
3. 0.75 4. 0.125 3. used hides to protect their bodies
4. never buried their dead
170 What option is of no practical use in treating the
deficiency of enzyme adenosine deaminase [ADA]? 177 Which of the following cells will be diploid?
1. Bone marrow transplant 1. Primary oocyte 2. Secondary oocyte
2. Enzyme replacement therapy 3. First polar body 4. Second polar body
3. Blood transfusion
4. Gene therapy

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178 The foetal ejection reflex is: Biology II - Section B

1. a pure neural reflex
2. a pure endocrine reflex 186 Consider the given two statements:
3. a neuro-endocrine reflex
4. not a reflex Assertion
Not all copulations lead to pregnancy.
(A):
179 Which of the following is not inherited as an Fertilization can only occur if the ovum
and sperm are transported
autosomal recessive mendelian disorder? Reason (R):
simultaneously to the ampullary isthmic
1. Colour blindness 2. Sickle cell anaemia junction.
3. Phenylketonuria 4. Cystic fibrosis
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains
180 An animal that has had foreign genes (genes from 1. (A)
another species) intentionally introduced into its genome Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly
using genetic engineering techniques will be called as: 2.
explain (A)
1. Transgenic 2. Recombinant 3. (A) is True, (R) is False
3. Heterologous 4. Panmict 4. (A) is False, (R) is True

181 Which of the following are also called as 187 Which amino acid is coded for by six mRNA
‘minisatellite’ loci in human genome? codons?
1. hnRNA 2. SNPs 1. Glycine 2. Alanine
3. ds-dy elements 4. VNTR 3. Leucine 4. Proline

182 Epididymis lies between: 188 Consider the given two statements:
1. Vasa efferentia and Vas deferens
Assertion Both α- and β-thalassemias are often
2. Seminiferous tubules and rete testis
(A): inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.
3. Vas deferens and urethra
4. Rete testis and vasa efferentia The thalassemias are classified according to
Reason
which chain of the hemoglobin molecule is
(R):
183 Most commonly, the regulation of gene expression affected.
takes place at the level of:
1. DNA replication Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly
1.
2. Transcription explains (A)
3. Translation Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly
2.
4. Post-translational modification explain (A)
3. (A) is True, (R) is False
184 Colostrum is very important for the neonate as it 4. (A) is False, (R) is True
contains immunoglobulins of the class:
1. IgA 2. IgG
3. IgM 4. IgE

185 Consider the given two statements:

I: Plasmids are good cloning vectors.
II: Plasmids are linear ds DNA molecules.

1. Only I is correct 2. Only II is correct

3. Both I and II are correct 4. Both I and II are incorrect

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 NEET Level Test (10- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Mar-24) 8527521718

189 Consider the given two statements: 192 How many of the given statements regarding the
Assertion human genome are true?
Passive immunity is instant immunity.
(A): I: The human genome contains 3164.7 million bp.
Passive Immunity results when exposure to The largest known human gene is dystrophin, at 2.4
II:
Reason a disease causing organism million bases.
(R): triggers the immune system to produce Almost all (99.9 percent) nucleotide bases are
antibodies to that disease. III:
exactly the same in all people.
The functions are unknown for over 50 percent of
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains IV:
1. the discovered genes.
(A) More than 98 percent of the genome codes for
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly V:
2. proteins.
explain (A)
3. (A) is True, (R) is False 1. 2 2. 3
4. (A) is False, (R) is True 3. 4 4. 5

190 How many of the given statements regarding DNA 193 How many of the Sexually Transmitted Infections
double helix are correct? given in the box are caused by viral pathogens?
I: Two strands have anti-parallel polarity Syphilis, Genital warts, Genital herpes,
II: Bases in two strands are linked by Hydrogen bonds Gonorrhoea, AIDS, Trichomoniasis
III: Two chains are coiled in a left handed fashion
IV: Pitch of the helix is 3.4 nm 1. 3 2. 4
1. 1 3. 5 4. 6
2. 2
3. 3 194 Eukaryotic genes:
4. 4 include coding regions (exons) and non-coding
I:
regions (introns).
191 Consider the given two statements:
are part of a larger DNA sequence within a
Assertion The possibility of a female becoming a II:
chromosome.
(A): haemophilic is extremely rare.
1. Only I is correct 2. Only II is correct
The only possibility of a female being
Reason 3. Both I and II are correct 4. Both I and II are incorrect
haemophilic is if her mother is also
(R):
haemophilic.
195 In spite of an adequate number of sperms present
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains in the semen of a healthy male, he may be infertile
1. because:
(A)
Only 90% of the sperms are morphologically
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly I:
2. normal.
explain (A)
II: Only 30% of the sperms show vigorous motility
3. (A) is True, (R) is False
4. (A) is False, (R) is True
1. Only I 2. Only II
3. Both I and II 4. Neither I nor II

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 NEET Level Test (10- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Mar-24) 8527521718

196 When compared to insulin derived from animal

sources, human insulin: Fill OMR Sheet*
I: is less potent.
*If above link doesn't work, please go to test link from
II: does not cause antigenic reactions in the recipient.
where you got the pdf and fill OMR from there. After
filling the OMR, you would get answers and explanations
1. Only I is correct 2. Only II is correct for the questions in the test.
3. Both I and II are correct 4. Both I and II are incorrect

197 Which hormone, secreted by foetal cells only in

early pregnancy, is critical for the continuation of
pregnancy? CLICK HERE to get
1.
3.
hCG
hPL
2.
4.
Progesterone
oestrogen
FREE ACCESS for 2
198 The process of extracting a substance that is
days of ANY
adsorbed to another by washing it with a solvent is NEETprep course
called as:
1. Chelation 2. Centrifugation
3. Elution 4. Hybridisation

199 Consider the given two statements:

Use of male barrier contraceptive is a
Assertion safeguard against AIDS and
(A): sexual diseases besides checking
pregnancy.
Male barrier contraceptives act as physical
barriers and prevent
Reason (R):
body fluid of two partners from
coming into contact.

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains
1.
(A)
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly
2.
explain (A)
3. (A) is True, (R) is False
4. (A) is False, (R) is True

200 The reproductive success of an individual, in a

given set of environmental conditions, is primarily due
to:
1. Physical strength of the individual
2. Size of the population
3. The trophic level at which the individual feeds
4. Adaptations to the environment

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