MBBS FINAL PROF - MEDICINE PAPER A MCQs

CVS
1. A 58 year old professor suffered from acute Myocardial Infarction 4 hours ago. He got shifted
to ICU. There are multiple runs of Ventricular tachycardia on ECG. Which is the most appropriate
drug of choice to be administered for arrhythmia in this case?
a) Verapamil
b) Lidocaine
c) Salbutamol
d) Nitrates
e) Furosimide

2. An acute trauma patient is brought to ER in a state of Shock with the pulse rate of 110/min, and
BP 60/40mmHg. He was intubated, resuscitated with fluids, and given inotropes. Cardiac monitor
showed normal sinus rhythm, CVP of 20cm H2O, R/R 20/min & BP of 50/30 mmHg despite
inotropic support and fluid boluses. Clinical exam revealed normal respiratory findings with
muffled heart sounds. What you're your diagnosis?
a) Acute Aortic Dissection
b) Tension Pneumothorax
c) Cardiac Tamponade
d) Septic shock
e) Pulmonary embolism

3. A 3 year old boy with a routine visit to a GP with delayed developmental milestones. On
auscultation there is murmur grade 3/6 continuous accentuating close to 2 nd heart sound and best
heard at left infra-clavicular area. What is the most likely abnormality?
a) VSD (ventricular septal defect)
b) ASD (atrial septal defect)
c) Truncus arteriosus
d) Dextrocardia
e) PDA (patent ductus arteriosus)
4. In a patient presenting with sudden onset chest pain that radiates to the left jaw, which of the
following enzymes is the most specific for investigation of his condition?
a) a.Troponin I
b) b.CPK
c) c.AST
d) d.Troponin C
e) e.ALT

5. A patient presents to your clinic with an Acute myocardial infarction with ST segment elevations
in Leads I and AVL. Which is the likely vessel to be affected?
a) Lateral Circumflex Artery
b) Lateral Anterior Descending
c) Right Coronary Artery
d) Left Coronary Artery
e) Right circumflex artery

6. You are asked to interpret an ECG during the early days of your cardiology ward. You note an
increase in the PR interval leading to a sudden line (a dropped beat). In your knowledge of this
condition, which pathway in the heart is likely affected?
a) a.Sino atrial node
b) b.Atrial fibres
c) c.Right bundle branch
d) d .Left bundle branch
e) e.AV node

7. A patient comes into your clinic complaining of a rapid heartbeat to which she is well aware of.
She says it has been going on for a couple of minutes and she is becoming increasingly anxious
regarding it. What would be the best advice to provide this lady?
a) a.Immediately shift to emergency dept.
b) b .Refer to a specialist for follow up after 1 week
c) c.Immediate DC cardioversion
d) d.Administer warfarin orally
e) Administer beta blocker and send home
8. A 60-year-male with the history of hypertension and dyslipidemia presents with dyspnea,
fatigue and edema feet for last 2 months. On exam there is a raised JVP and S3 gallop. Chest X-
Ray shows cardiomegaly. In the workup of patients of Heart Failure what will be the single best
investigation?
a) ECG
b) Echocardiogram
c) Cardiac Enzymes
d) Chest X-Ray
e) BNP (Brain Natriuretic Peptide)

9. A 40-year-male is brought to the hospital with fever, weakness and arthralgia. He has a history
of IV drug use. On physical examination, there is a systolic murmur at the left sternal border and
splenomegaly.What is the most likely diagnosis and the causative organism?
a) Acute Infective Endocarditis, S.aureus
b) Rhematic fever, Streptococci
c) Rheumatic heart disease, S.aureus
d) Infective Endocarditis, Staphylococcus Epidermidis
e) Infective Endocarditis, Enterococci

RESP
10. Typical presentation of asthma is
a) Episodic shortness of breath
b) Symptom's usually worse at night
c) Productive cough is frequent symptom
d) High grade fever
e) Crepitations on chest auscultation

11. A 25 years old man was admitted with shortness of breath. On examination he has bilateral
bronchospasm. He was put on prednisolone 30 mg/day for 2 weeks. There is substantial
improvement in (forced expiratory volume) FEV1>15%. The diagnosis is
a) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
b) Chronic Bronchitis
c) Asthma
d) Emphysema
e) Sarcoidosis

12. In developed countries, the common cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is
a) Inhalation of smoke from biomass fuels
b) Cigarette smoking
c) Air conditioning
d) Industrial dust
e) Obesity

13. A 36-year-male presented with fever for last 5 weeks, night sweats, weight loss and dry cough.
On examination there is hepato splenomegaly. Chest is clear, fundoscopy reveals choroid tubercle.
He is suffering from
a) Primary Pulmonary Tuberculosis
b) Post-Primary Pulmonary Tuberculosis
c) Milliary Tuberculosis
d) Cryptogenic Tuberculosis
e) Multi drug resistant tuberculosis

14, Corticosteroids are indicated to treat patient suffering from tuberculosis in

a) Pericardial tuberculosis
b) Tuberculous lymphadenitis
c) Genital tuberculosis
d) Intestinal tuberculosis
e) Milliary tuberculosis

15. Majority of cases of community acquired pneumonia is caused by

a) Mycoplasma pneumonia
b) Chlamydia pneumonia
c) Streptococcus pneumonia
d) Haemophilus influenza
e) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
16. A 42-years-male presented with pleuritic chest pain, cough and rusty sputum for 5 days. Chest
X-ray shows a patch of consolidation. He was put on antibiotic, but not responding, having
depressed consciousness, with (confusion, urea, respiratory rate and blood pressure) CURB score
of 4-5. He should be managed;
a) As an out-patient department patient
b) In the Intensive treatment unit
c) In Medical ward
d) By keeping under observation in emergency room
e) In day care centre

17. The best investigation in the diagnosis of interstitial lung disease (ILD) is;
a) X-ray chest P/A view
b) Spirometry
c) High resolution CT scan
d) Broncho-alveolar lavage (BAL)
e) Lung biopsy

18. A 70 year old cigarette smoker, wasted and clubbed was found to have Syndrome of
Inappropriate Anti-diuretic Hormone (SIADH). The cause could be
a) Carcinoid syndrome
b) Pulmonary tuberculosis
c) Pneumothorax
d) Bronchogenic carcinoma
e) Mesothelioma

CNS
19. Following is a feature of Horner’s Syndrome
a) Damage to para-sympathetic fibers
b) Ptosis
c) Mydriasis
d) Exophthalmos
e) Increased sweating on the face
20. The up going plantars are seen in all of following except
a) Lower motor neuron lesion
b) Hypoglycemia
c) Deep coma
d) Post epileptic fit
e) Below the age of 1 year

21. A 30-year-female presents with ascending bilateral lower limb weakness. There is power of
0/5 in both lower limbs with absent reflexes. Likely diagnosis is;
a) Poliomyelitis
b) Cerebrovascular accident
c) Cauda equina syndrome
d) Guillain Barre’ syndrome
e) Subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord

22. Myasthenia gravis is a disorder of

a) Cerebral cortex
b) Neuromuscular junction
c) Posterior horn cells
d) Cerebellum
e) Substantia niagra

23. Following is non- modifiable stroke risk factor

a) Gender
b) Hypertension
c) Diabetes
d) Obesity
e) Smoking

24. Following is a feature of lower motor neuron lesion

a) Muscle hypertrophy
b) Fasciculations
c) Hyper-reflexia
d) Marked sensory loss
e) Positive Babinski

25. A patient with road traffic accident and head injury is admitted in ICU. He develops pulse of
50 beats/min and BP 180/110 mmHg. SCG shows sinus bradycardia. Likely cause is;
a) Non-convulsive Seizures
b) Raised intracranial pressure
c) Hydrocephalus
d) Dural sinus thrombosis
e) Heart block

26. A 50-years-male presents with pill rolling tremors, bradykinesia and in-coordiantion of
movements. What gait disorder will be observed in this case;
a) Shuffling gait
b) Festinant gait
c) Drunken gait
d) Scissor gait
e) High stepping gait

GIT
27. A patient presents in emergency department with history of profuse watery diarrhea and
vomiting. His pulse is 100beats/min and blood pressure is 90/50mmHg. The most
important step in management is;
a) Start antiviral therapy
b) Oral rehydration
c) Intravenous fluids
d) Anti-emetics
e) IV steroids

28. A patient presents with history of lose watery stools off and on for last 4 weeks with
blood and mucous. Most likely cause is;
a) Rota virus diarrhea
b) Coeliac disease
 c) Mal-absorption
d) Lactose intolerance
e) Inflammatory bowel disease
29. A patient with liver disease presents with history of abdominal distension. On
examination you notice shifting dullness and mild tenderness in abdomen. There is no
history of constipation. Likely cause is;
a) Ascites
b) Carcinoma colon
c) Intestinal obstruction
d) Splenomegaly
e) Gastrointestinal bleed

30. The danger signs of diarrhea include which of following;

a) More than 3 stools per day
b) Severe hypotension
c) Vomiting
d) fever
e) Abdominal cramps

31. Which of the following is true for Coeliac disease

a) Gluten free diet to be started
b) Villous hypertrophy
c) Usually presents in old age
d) Massive hepatomegaly
e) Responds to corticosteroids

32. A 55 years old man presented with severe abdominal pain, worse after eating but no
vomiting. He is diagnosed to have recurrent duodenal ulcer not responding to proton pump
inhibitor therapy. Likely diagnosis is
a) Glaucagonoma
b) Gastrinoma
c) Insulinoma
d) Somatostatinoma
 e) Vipoma
33. A 25 year’s old known alcoholic male presents in emergency with sudden abdominal pain.
The most appropriate investigation would be
a) Serum amylase
b) Serum bilirubin
c) Serum calcium
d) Serum cholesterol
e) Serum electrolytes
34. Rome ll (2) criteria is used far diagnosis of following disease
a) Inflammatory bowel disease
b) Irritable bowel disease
c) Chronic liver disease
d) Chronic Renal disease
e) Chronic air way disease

35. A young male presents with profuse watery diarrhea for one day. All of the following
findings will be helpful to assess dehydration except,
a) Tachycardia
b) Postural hypotension
c) Respiratory rate
d) Skin turgor
e) Urine output

LIVER
36. Following is a malignant liver tumor
a) Hemangioma
b) Adenoma
c) Hepatoblastoma
d) Fibroma
e) Leiomyoma

37. Which of the following is low risk for Hepatitis B;

a) Health workers
b) Patients on dialysis
c) I/V drug abusers
d) Sex workers
e) Smokers

38. A patient with hepatitis B infection, develops resistant ascites, with hepato-splenomegaly.
He has raised alpha fetoprotein levels. Likely cause is;
a) Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis
b) GI lymphoma
c) Hepatocellular carcinoma
d) Budd chiari syndrome
e) Liver abscess

39. Which of the following patients are at increased risk to develop fulminent hepatic failure
following acute hepatitis A infection:
a) Patients with chronic hepatitis C virus infection
b) Exposure to hepatitis A during infancy
c) Patients with chronic renal failure
d) Pregnant women
e) Patients with previous exposure to HBV who developed anti-HB surface antigen.

40. Recommended first time Hepatitis B vaccination schedule is

a) 0,1,2 months
b) 0,1,3 months.
c) 0,1,6 months
d) 0,1,12 months
e) 0,3,6 months

41. A 35 year old female is found to have chronic HCV and is referred for evaluation. Which of
the following laboratory tests is not required to be assessed prior to initiating treatment with
peg-interferon and ribavirin?
a) Hemoglobin
b) Thyroid stimulating factor
c) Pregnancy test
d) HCV genotype
e) Serum amylase

42. Which of the following drugs is indicated to reduce mortality in a patient with portal
hypertension secondary to chromic HCV infection;
a) Alpha blockers
b) Beta blockers
c) Loop diuretics
d) Sucralfate
e) Lactulose

RHEUMATOL
43. All of the following are disease modifying drugs for rheumatoid arthritis except
a) Methotrexate
b) Hydoxychloroquine
c) Corticosteroids
d) Leflonamide
e) NSAIDs

44. Migratory poly arthritis is a feature of

a) Rheumatoid arthritis
b) Rheumatic fever
c) Gouty arthritis
d) Reactive arthritis
e) Septic arthritis

45. Following is the feature of rheumatoid arthritis

a) Polycythemia
b) Radial deviation
c) Involvement of proximal inter-phalyngeal joints
d) Morning stiffness less than one hair muscular stiffness
e) Common presentation is with acute onset of joint pain
46. Following test is positive in ankylosing spondylitis
a) Vitamin D deficinecy
b) Anti CCL
c) Anti-double stranded DNA
d) HLA B27
e) Hyperuricemia

47. Following is not a feature of Gout

a) More common in obese
b) High alcohol intake
c) Type IV hyper-lipoproteinaemias
d) More common in females
e) High protein intake

48. Following are features of SLE except

a) Butterfly (malar) Rash over the face
b) Photosensitivity
c) Arthritis of peripheral joints
d) More common in males
e) Thrombocytopenia

49. Following is a feature of scleroderma

a) More common in Males
b) Dysphagia
c) Peak age of onset is 2nd and 3rd decades
d) Pulmonary hypotension
e) Arthritis of large joints

50. Following are risk factors for osteoporosis except

a) Corticosteroids
b) Smoking
c) Hypothyroidism
d) Bisphosphonates
e) Obesity

BLOOD
51. A young girls presents with microcytic anemia. Her MCV is 58fl however serum ferritin,
iron and TIBC levels are within normal range. Likely diagnosis is;
a) B 12 deficiency
b) Anemia of Chronic illness
c) Thalassemia
d) Iron deficiency anemia
e) Sideroblastic anemia

52. Features of hemolysis include all of the following except

a) Raised bilirubin
b) Raised LDH
c) Low reticulocyte count
d) Raised urobillinogen
e) Decreased haptoglobins

53. A patient presents with severe anemia and dark colored urine after being prescribed anti-
malarial by local practitioner. What is the most likely cause;
a) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
b) Hereditary spherocytosis
c) Thalassemia minor
d) G6PD enzyme deficiency
e) Hereditary elliptocytosis

54. The characteristic fever pattern of lymphoma is

a) Quartan fever
b) Tertian fever
c) Pel-Ebstein fever
d) Step ladder fever
e) Black water fever
55. Regarding multiple Myeloma, which is true
a) Bone pain is uncommon feature of this disease
b) Renal involvement carries bad prognosis
c) Absence of Bence-Jones proteinuria excludes the diagnosis
d) Skull X-ray often show sclerotic lesions
e) Hepatic involvement is always present

56. Which of the following is the cause of macrocytosis without megaloblastic anemia
a) Liver disease
b) Pernicious anaemia
c) Folate deficiency
d) Thalassemia
e) Hemochromatosis

57. Reticulocytosis is a feature of following condition

a) Aplastic anemia
b) Hemolytic anemia
c) Iron deficiency anemia
d) Megaloblastic anemia
e) Porphyria

58. A male patient has deficiency of factor-VIII. He has two sisters who have lesser
likelihood to suffer this disease because this disease is
a) Autosomal dominant
b) Autosomal recessive
c) X-linked dominant
d) X-linked recessive
e) Multi-factorial
POISON/ENV
59. A young watchman is brought to Emergency dept. with history of bite by a stray dog half
an hour earlier. What will you suggest?
a) Admit and keep under observation with no vaccine
b) Anti-rabies vaccine alone is sufficient
c) Anti-rabies vaccine and immunoglobulins indicated
d) Rabies immunoglobulins alone sufficient
e) Intravenous antibiotics should be started

60. A student is found unconscious in his hostel room in December while preparing for his
final exams. His skin showed cherry red spots. His room and windows were otherwise
locked and secure. He was non-smoker and has a good academic record. What is likely
diagnosis
a) Epileptic fit
b) Arsenic poisoning
c) Benzodiazepine overdose
d) Carbon monoxide poisoning
e) Bacterial Meningitis
 MBBS FINAL PROF - MEDICINE PAPER B MCQs

ENDO 13
1. The most common symptom of Thyrotoxicosis is
a) Weight loss and loss of appetite
b) Cold intolerance
c) Weight loss despite of good appetite
d) Constipation
e) Bradycardia
2. Posterior pituitary produces
a) TSH (Thyroid stimulating hormone)
b) ADH (Vasopressin)
c) ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone)
d) FSH (Follicle stimulating hormone)
e) LH (Leutinizing hormone)
3. The Drug used to relieve symptoms of Thyrotoxicosis is
a) Beta Agonists
b) Calcium channel blockers
c) Thyroxin
d) Beta Blockers
e) Alpha blockers
4. The Side effect of Glucocorticoid therapy is
a) Hypoglycemia
b) Hyperglycemia
c) Weight loss
d) Increased skin thickness
e) Hypernatremia
5. Addison’s disease (Adrenal insufficiency) presents with
a) Hypertension
b) Excessive Weight gain
c) Increased pigmentation on sun exposed areas
d) Hyperglycemia (raised blood sugar levels)
e) Polycythemia
6. In primary Hypothyroidism
a) T4 is low with raised TSH
b) T4 is low with Normal TSH
c) T4 and TSH both are low
d) T4 and TSH both are raised
e) T3 and T4 are raised
7. Exophthalmos is a typical feature of
a) Hypothyroidism
b) Addison’s disease
c) Thyroid Carcinoma
d) Grave’s disease
e) Hashimotos thyroiditis
8. Patients with Pheochromocytoma present with
a) Hypotension
b) Hypertension
c) Pigmentation
d) Excessive weight gain
e) Cold intolerance
9. Acromegaly and Gigantism are characterized by
a) Growth hormone deficiency
b) Growth hormone excess
c) Cortisol excess
d) Normal Growth hormone levels
e) ACTH excess
10. Osteoporosis and increased risk of fractures is a common side effect of
a) Thyroid hormone replacement therapy
b) Growth hormone replacement therapy
c) Beta blockers
d) Glucocorticoid ( corticosteroid) replacement therapy
e) Bisphosphonates
11. The visual field defects are seen in association with
a) Pituitary adenoma
b) Thyroid adenoma
 c) Adrenal adenoma
d) Addison’s disease
e) Cerebellar lesions
12. A 50-year-male diabetic is brought to emergency dept. in drowsy state. He has blood sugars
750g/dl and is diagnosed with diabetic coma. The treatment of choice is
a) Sitagliptin
b) metformin
c) Insulin
d) Biguanides
e) Acarbose

13. All of the following are precipitating factors for diabetic ketoacidosis except;
a) Dehydration
b) Sepsis
c) Surgery
d) Insulin
e) Myocaridal infarction

NEPHRO 10
14. A 20 years old male comes with H/O anuria for last 1 day. There is H/O profuse diarrhoea
for last 3 days. The likely cause for anuria is;
a) Nephrotic syndrome
b) Nephropathy
c) Acute renal failure
d) Chronic renal failure

15. Hyperkalemia in a patient with renal failure is managed with

a) Beta agonist inhalation
b) Beta blockers inhalation
c) Oral beta blockers
d) Oral potassium supplements

16. Commonest organism leading to urinary tract infection is;

a) Klebsiella
b) Proteus
c) E. Coli
d) enterococcus

17. A 28 years old girl comes to OPD with left lumbar pain and hematuria. What investigation
will you advise first;
a) CT scan abdomen
b) MRI abdomen
c) 24 hour urine for creatinin clearance
d) Ultrasound abdomen
e) Serum electrolytes

18. Cause of bilateral hydronephrosis is;

a) Bladder outlet obstruction
b) Unilateral renal calculus
c) Ureteric stricture
d) Renal artery stenosis
e) Renal cell carcinoma

19. Renal biopsy is indicated in a patients with;

a) Urinary tract infection
b) Benighn prostate hyperplasia
c) Unexplained renal failure
d) Renal calculi
e) Renal agenesis

20. In a patient with renal failure following acid base disorder is seen;
a) Metabolic acidosis
b) Metabolic alkalosis
c) Respiratory acidosis
d) Respiratory alkalosis
e) Normal PH
21. Patients with chronic renal failure commonly have;
a) Polycythaemia
b) Thrombocytosis
c) Normochronic normocytic anemia
d) Reticulocytosis
e) Macrocytic anemia

22. A patient presents with hematuria, weight loss, loin pain and mass in flank. The likely cause
would be;
a) Renal cell carcinoma
b) Renal tuberculosis
c) Urinary tract infection
d) Nephrotic syndrome
e) Addison’s disease

23. In a patient with Nephrotic syndrome, the possible finding is;

a) hypotension
b) hypoglycaemia
c) proteinuria
d) hematuria
e) sterile pyuria

24. Which of following is the leading cause or end stage renal failure;
a) Renal calculi
b) Benighn prostatic hyperplasia
c) Rhabdomyolysis
d) Diabetic nephropathy

INF 12
25. A patient had high grade fever for 3 weeks. After admission into hospital for 1 week, the fever
was still undiagnosed, this condition is called
a) auto immune fever
b) nosocomial fever
c) pyrexia of unknown origin
d) undiagnosed fever
e) Quartan fever

26. The organism that causes enteric fever is

a) campylobacter jejuni
b) salmonella typhi
c) shigella
d) staph aureus
e) Plasmodium

27. A young girl presents with sore throat, malaise and dysphagia. On examination, she has low
grade fever, cervical lymphadenopathy and a yellowish gray membrane covering the pharynx.
Which of the following statements is true:
a) she is likely to have polio
b) treatment should only be started when there is lab confirmation of diagnosis
c) treatment with anti-toxin is unhelpful
d) the causative organism is an invasive aerobic G-ve rod
e) this is an autoimmune disease

28. Plasmodium falciparum causes which of following serious complications;

a) blindness
b) Constipation
c) Cerebral malaria
d) loose motions
e) Vomiting

29. Anesthetist has been pricked by Hep B positive patient. What he should do;
a) Nothing if Anesthetist has been immunized against HBV
b) He should start Hep B Virus vaccination
c) He should be given serum immunoglobulins immediately.
d) He should start interferon with Lamivudine treatment
e) He should be given I/V antibiotic

30. Generalized lymphadenopathy is described in all the diseases except;

a) HIV
b) Infectious mononucleosis
c) Malaria
d) Syphilis
e) Lymphoma

31. The high risk group of people in community to acquire HIV include;
a) School going children
b) Radiologists
c) IV drug abusers
d) Sanitary workers
e) Sewage workers

32. The pattern of fever in malaria is

a) Continuous
b) Biphasic
c) Intermittent
d) Low grade
e) Pel-ebstein

33. Which of the following is expected in acute Typhoid fever

a) Anti-IgM antibody
b) Anti IgG antibody
c) Both anti-IgG and IgM
d) Thrombocytopenia
e) IgA antibody

34. An IV drug abuser presents with 3months history of weight loss, diarrhoea and fever. He is not
jaundiced, there is generalized lymphadenopathy. Keeping in mind his symptoms, which test
is likely to be positive;
a) Hep Bs antigen
b) Anti HCV antibody
c) Anti HIV antibody
d) Anti-thyroid antibodies
e) Anti TTG IgA

35. Dengue hemorrhagic fever spreads by

a) Tsetse fly
b) House fly
c) Anopheles mosquito
d) Aedes aegypti
e) Droplet infection

36. A patient suspected of multi drug resistant tuberculosis. The treatment of choice in this case
will be;
a) Continue first line ATT
b) Switch to second line ATT
c) Add corticosteroids
d) Double the dose of first line ATT
e) Add I/V Amoxiclav

37. A 25 year old sanitary worker presents with off and on fever and ill health for 2weeks. He also
reports exposure to rodents during his job duty. Likely diagnosis is;
a) Brucellosis
b) Tuberculosis
c) Anthracosis
d) Leptospirosis
e) Aspergillosis

PSY 10
38. Diagnosis of depression is based on all of these symptoms except
a) Pessimistic thinking
b) Lack of enjoyment
c) Reduced energy
d) Hopelessness
e) Hallucinations

39. Most common delusion in severe depression is

a) Delusions of guilt and worthlessness
b) Hypochondrical delusions
c) Persecutory delusions
d) Delusions of grandiosity
e) Delusional jealosy

40. A 25 years old lady is brought in emergency with over dose, she took 20 tablets of
benzodiazipines. Detailed history revealed that she has episodes of elation and over activity. What
is your most probable diagnosis
a) Depressive episode severe
b) Bipolar Affective Disorder
c) Mania
d) Schizophrenia
e) Minor depression

41. First line treatment of Bipolar Affective Disorder is

a) Lithium
b) Carbamezapine
c) Haloperidol
d) ECT (electroconvulsive therapy)
e) Escitalopram

42. If a person comes to you with complaints of unknown fear all the time, irritability,
restlessness, poor concentration, worrying thoughts and palpitations. Likely diagnosis is;
a) Depression
b) Phobic anxiety disorder
c) Generalized Anxiety Disorder
d) Panic attack
e) Bipolar maniac depressive disorder

43. In a 17 years old girl of generalized anxiety disorder, which of the following physical cause
must be ruled out?
a) Ischemic heart diseases
b) Thyrotoxicosis
c) Hypoglycemia
d) Pheochoromocytoma
e) Secondary hypertension

44. Etiology of Anxiety Disorder is

a) Dys-regulation of Norepinephrine
b) Increased levels of Dopamine
c) Low levels of serotonin
d) Genetic causes
e) Heavy metal exposure

45. A 22 years old lady is brought to you with complaints of restlessness, repeated hand washing,
taking baths for 4 to 5 hours every day and low mood. What is your most probable diagnosis
a) Depression
b) Obsessive Compulsive Disorder
c) Generalized Anxiety Disorder
d) Phobias
e) Shizophrenia

46. A 35 years old man is brought to you with complaints of suspiciousness towards family
members, aggressive behaviour. He is not going to work for the last 2 weeks. Eating his food alone.
No previous history of any Psychiatric illness. What is your diagnosis
a) Depression
b) Bipolar Affective Disorder
c) Schizophrenia
d) Paranoid Schizophrenia
47. Alzheimer's frequently presents with following symptom
a) Malnutrition
b) Dementia
c) Fatigue
d) Anxiety disorder
e) Schizophrenia

48. The best management for treatment resistant depression is

a) Sertraline
b) Fluvoxamine
c) Valproic acid
d) Cognitive behavioral therapy
e) Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)

DERMA 15
49. The general management of all types of eczema is
a) Antibiotics
b) Systematic Steroids
c) Antiallergic drugs
d) Topical corticosteroids
e) Azathioprin

50. Which of the following is used in the treatment of Psoriasis

a) antifungals
b) methotrexate
c) acyclovir
d) anti malarials
e) antbiotics

51. Drug that can provoke erythema multiforme is:

a) Erythromycin
b) Dexamethasone
c) Sulfonamides
d) Fosfomycin
e) Paracetamol

52. Scabies is best treated by:

a) Melathion topically
b) Hydrocortisone 1% skin ointment
c) Fusidic acid skin ointment
d) Miconazole cream
e) Acyclovir ointment

53. Tinea Corporis is caused by:

a) Dermatophyte (fungus)
b) Streptococci
c) Staphylococcus aureus
d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
e) Candida albicans

54. The most important organism as a pathogenic factor in the development of acne vulgaris is
a) Streptococcus
b) Mycobacterium
c) Propionio bacterium
d) Coryne bacterium
e) Staph aureus

55. Ecthyma is a
a) Type of contact dermatitis
b) Urticarial rash
c) Purulent skin infection caused by Staphylococcus
d) Auto immune disorder involving skin
e) Skin hypersensitivity

56. 25 years old female presented with dry, red lesions with silvery white appearance involving
elbows, knees and lower back. She also has pitting nails. The most likely diagnosis is:
a) Infected eczema
b) Erythema mutliforme
c) Psoriasis
d) Contact dermatitis
e) Tinea

57. A middle aged lady presented with multiple flaccid blisters all over the body for the few
months. There is also involvement of oral mucosa. What is your diagnosis?
a) Bullous Pemphidoid
b) Pemphigus vulgaris
c) Impetigo
d) Herpes simplex

58. A young girl presented to you with history of photosensitivity, oral ulcerations, joint pain,
fever, and discoid rash over the face. What investigation, will you perform to confirm it?
a) Skin biopsy
b) X-ray joint
c) ANA, Anti-ds DNA
d) CBC

59. A boy having multiple hypopigmented Macules over the body more involving upper chest,
back, upper arms. Macules have mild scaling. On scraping taken from lesion hyphae are seen.
Diagnosis in this patient is?
a) Pitryasis Alba
b) Pitryasis versicolor
c) Psoriasis
d) Vitiligo

60. Following are the atciological agents of acne except?

a) ↑ Sebum excretion
b) Infection with staph aureus
c) Occlusion of pilosebaceous unit
 d) Hormonal Changes

61. Choose the best one

a) The skin has three layers: epidermis, dermis, sub cutis
b) Dermis is the outermost layer
c) Sub- cutis contains nerves and blood vessels
d) Epidermis, a stratified columnar epithelium

62. A middle aged man having well- defined erythematous plaques with silvery scale present over
the knees, elbows, nape of neck and back for last many years what is the diagnosis?
a) Psoriasis
b) Pityasis rosea
c) Pitryasis Versicolor
d) Lichen Planus

63. A 35-year-female presents with tightening of skin of hands, she has history of dysphagia and
bluish discoloration of fingers tips also. Likely diagnosis is;
a) Systemic lupus erythematosus
b) CREST syndrome
c) Wegener;s granulomatosis
d) Takayasu’s arteritis
e) Chillblains

64. A 25 years old female presents to dermatologist with rough, bumpy skin with easy bruisability
and petechiae. She is model by profession and has been quite concerned for these symptoms.
Likely diagnosis is;
a) Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
b) Won-Villebrand disease
c) Scurvy
d) Vitamin K deficieny
e) Eczema

NUTRITION 5
65. The formula to calculate body mass index (BMI) is;
a) Weight (kg)/height (metre)
b) Weight (kg)/height (metre)2
c) Weight (kg)2/height (metre)2
d) Weight (pounds)/height(metre)2
e) weight(pounds)2/height (metre)

66. Range for healthy body mass index (BMI) is;

a) 16-28
b) 20-30
c) 18-24
d) 30-35
e) 15-20

67. A 40-year-policeman presents with difficulty in seeing while driving at night. However during
day time, he has no such complaint. likely cause is
a) Vitamin A deficiency
b) Vitamin B deficiency
c) Vitamin C deficiency
d) Vitamin D deficiency
e) Vitamin K deficiency

68. Chronic peripheral neuropathy and Korsakoff’s psychosis are features of

a) Wet Beriberi
b) Dry Beriberi
c) Scurvy
d) Pellagra
e) Kwashiorker

69. Neural tube defects can be prevented by maternal supplementation with

a) Iron
b) Vitamin A
c) Calcium
d) Folic Acid
e) Vitamin B 12

70. Pellagra is caused by deficiency of

a) Vitamin C
b) Vitamin B 12
c) Folic acid
d) Niacin
e) Vitamin D