Test # 12 NEETPrep Test Series For NEET 2020

Test # 12 (NEETprep Test Series)
NEETprep Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
1. Read the following statements 5. Cocaine is obtained from the extract

of
Statement A: In agarose gel 1. Cannabis sativa
electrophoresis, the smaller the 2. Atropa belladona
fragment size of DNA, the farther it 3. Erythroxylum coca
moves from the well. 4. Papaver somniferum
Statement B: Separation of proteins in 6. Select the two core techniques that

normal electrophoresis is based on both enabled birth of modern biotechnology.
size and charge. 1. Genetic engineering and bioprocess
engineering
Choose the correct option 2. Genetic engineering and biolistics
1. Both statements are correct 3. Chemical engineering and biopiracy
2. Statement B is correct and A is 4. Downstream processing and
incorrect bioprocess engineering
3. Statement B is incorrect
4. Statement A is incorrect 7. Select the incorrect match w.r.t.
placental mammals and Australian
2. ____________ is a thermophilic marsupials.
bacterium that can survive temperatures 1. Lemur: Spotted cuscus
up to 95°95°C. Select the option which 2. Bobcat: Tasmanian tiger
fills the blank correctly. 3. Anteater: Numbat
1. Thermus aquaticus 4. Koala: Flying squirrel
2. Salmonella typhi
3. E.coli 8. Select the incorrect statement
4. Lactobacillus 1. Agarose is most commonly used
matrix in gel electrophoresis for nucleic
3. Choose the nematode which infects acids
the roots of tobacco plants causing a 2. Spooling is the cutting out of
great reduction in yield. separated DNA bands from gel piece
1. A. tumefaciens 3. PCR is used for in vitro synthesis of
2. M. incognita DNA of interest
3. S. typhimurium 4. infection of A. tumefaciens in dicot
4. B. thuringiensis plants can cause crown gall disease.
4. Select the odd one w.r.t. ringworms. 9. According to Hardy - Weinberg

1. Microsporum principle, the frequency of homozygous
2. Epidermophyton recessive (aa) individuals in a population
3. Salmonella is denoted by
4. Trichophyton 1. p2
2. 2pq 4. Syphilis
3. q2
4. p + q 14. Hardy-Weinberg equation is used to
check
10. In a human female, the menstrual 1. Size of population
cycle is of 24 days. What will be the 2. Whether evolution is occurring in a
length of follicular phase and luteal population or not
phase if the menstrual phase is for four 3. Average lifespan of a population
days? 4. Maximum life expectancy of a
Follicular Phase Luteal Phase population
1. 14 days 6 days
2. 6 days 14 days 15. Male reproductive system does not
3. 10 days 10 days comprise of
4. 10 days 14 days 1. Prostate gland and Cowper's glands
2. Bulbourethral glands and seminal
11. Match column I and column II w.r.t vesicles
cranial capacity 3. Seminal vesicles and urinogenital duct
Column I Column II 4. Bartholin's gland and paraurethral
a. Homo erectus (i) 650 - 800 cc gland
b. Homo sapiens (ii) 1650 cc
c. Cro-Magnon man (iii) 1400 cc 16. HIV enters the humans’ cells by
d. Homo habilis (iv) 900 cc recognising the CD4 receptors on their
Choose the correct option membrane with the help of its
1. a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) glycoprotein.
2. a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) 1. P17
3. a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) 2. P24
4. a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) 3. GP41
4. GP120
12. Mutations are proposed by Hugo de
Vries are 17. During oogenesis, meiosis I in a
1. Small and directional female is completed in ___________ within
2. Gradual and continuous __________ respectively.
3. Random and directionless Selected the option which fill the blanks
4. Large and directional correctly.
1. Secondary oocyte, tertiary follicle
13. Identify the STI (Sexually Transmitted 2. Primary oocyte, tertiary follicle
Infection) caused due to a protozoan. 3. Primary oocyte, graafian follicle
1. Trichomoniasis 4. Secondary oocyte, graafian follicle
2. Gonorrhoea
3. Chancroid
18. Opinion of how many registered 22. Graphical representation of ovarian

medical practitioners is required for and pituitary hormones are given below.
MTP, if the pregnancy has lasted more Identify the hormones A, B, C and D
than 12 weeks, but fewer than 24 weeks?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
19. The shedding of endometrium

during menstruation occurs due to
decline in concentration of 1. A - estrogen, B - progesterone, C -
1. Estrogen LH, D - Fish
2. Progesterone 2. A - FSH, B - LH, C - estrogen, D -
3. Oxytocin Progesterone
4. FSH 3. A - progesterone, B - estrogen, C - LH,
D - FSH
4. A - Progesterone, B - estrogen, C -
20. Read the given statements FSH, D - LH
Statement A: Umbilical cord carries only 23. The first movement of foetus and
foetal blood. appearance of hair on the head are
usually observed during
Statement B: Structure which connects 1. 3rd month
foetus to placenta is umbilical cord. 2. 5th month
3. 3rd and 5th month respectively
Choose the correct option. 4. 4th and 6th month respectively
1. Both statements are incorrect
2. Statement A is incorrect 24. Adaptive radiation can be observed
3. Only statement B is correct in all cases except
4. Both statements are correct 1. marsupial radiation
2. Variety of beaks in Darwin's finches
21. Select the closet relative of man 3. Placental diversification in North
among following American
1. Gibbon 4. Wing structure of butterfly, bat and
2. Orangutan bird
3. Gorilla
4. Chimpanzee 25. Which type of natural selection is
illustrated by industrial melanism?
1. Directional selection
2. Balancing selection 4. Interleukins are synthesized within B-

3. Disruptive selection lymphocytes for production in antigens
4. stabilising selection
30. All of the following are side effects of
26. Which of the following is correctly use of anabolic steroids in females
matched? except
1. Homology - Convergent evolution 1. Masculinisation
2. Analogy - Divergent evolution 2. Mood swings
3. Biogenetic law - Ontogeny 3. Enlargement of clitoris
recapitulates phylogeny 4. Breast enlargement
4. Avatism - Disappearance of certain
ancestral characters 31. Select the correct statement
1. Cells in a malignant tumor do not
27. Charles Darwin was influenced by a show contact inhibition
population essay written by 2. Computed tomography scans use non
1. T.R. Malthus ionising radiations to study cancer of
2. Hugo de Vries internal organs.
3. Alfred Wallace 3. AIDS is a retroviral disease caused by
4. Herbert Spencer unenveloped HIV.
4. Treatment of AIDS with antiretroviral
28. Select the correct match. drugs is completely effective and always
1. Dengue, chikungunya, filariasis - prevent death.
Vector borne disease
2. Acid, saliva, mucus in GIT - 32. Abbreviation MOET stands for
Physiological barriers 1. Multiple Ova Embryo Transgenics
3. Histamine, cortisol, adrenaline - Anti - 2. Multiple Ovary Embryo Transfer
inflammatory compounds 3. Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer
4. Crack, smack, charas - Hallucinogens 4. Multiple Ovulation Embryo
Transgenics
29. Select the correct statement. 33. Which of the following is a correct
1. Physical barriers include acid in match?
stomach, saliva in mouth and tears from 1. Treponema Pallidum - Causative
eye agent of STI Syphilis
2. Rhinoviruses infect nose and upper 2. Castration - Emergency contraceptive
respiratory tract causing common cold methods
but do not infect lungs 3. GIFT - in-vitro fertilization in surrogate
3. Ruptures WBCs release hemozoin mother
which is responsible for chill and high 4. Saheli - Oral contraceptive, steroid pill
fever in malaria developed at CDRI
34. Which is not a common mode of 3. UV rays

action between LNG20 and oral pill? 4. Visible light
1. Inhibition of ovulation
2. Suppression of sperm motility and 38. Nutritionally more balanced human
fertilising ability of sperm protein (α-lactalbumin) enriched milk
3. Alteration in quality of cervical mucus was obtained from
4. Inhibition of implantation 1. Tracy the sheep
2. Dolly the clone
35. Select the correct statement: 3. Rosie the cow
1. A restriction exonuclease cuts both 4. Polly the goat
strands of foreign DNA as well as vector
DNA at specific palindromic sequences 39. Example of glyphosate resistant crop
2. A restriction endonuclease is named available in market is
on the basis of scientific name and strain 1. Flavr - Savr
of bacteria from which it is isolated 2. Bt cotton
3. All restriction enzymes cut the strands 3. Golden rice
of DNA in the centre of palindromic site 4. Roundup Ready
between the same two bases of
opposite strand
40. Entry of DNA in a competent animal
4. When cut by same restriction enzyme,
cell is due to the use of which ingredient
the resultant DNA fragments generate
/ condition?
different kinds of sticky ends
1. Heat shock at 42°C
2. Cold treatment at 4°C
36. Select the correct statement.
3. Cold shock with calcium salts
1. RNAi is a post transcriptional gene
4. Lysozyme
silencing method
41. Match the column A with column B
2. Transgenic tomatoes have been
and select the correct option.
developed to reduce pre-harvest losses
by decreasing their shelf lives
Column A Column B
3. In GMO, early exhaustion of fertility of
a. Plasmid (i) RNAi
soil is promoted
b. Meloidogyne (ii) Transgenic
4. Gene cryIAb controls infection by
cow
Meloidogyne incognita in tobacco
c. Rosie (iii) Gene Taxi
plants
d. α-1-antitrypsin (iv) Emphysema
1. a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
37. DNA fragments separated by
2. a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
agarose gel electrophoresis are
3. a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
visualized by staining with
4. a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
1. Ethidium bromide
2. Bromophenol blue
42. If in a plasmid pBR322 the sequence 2. Use of single cell proteins.

5' GAATTC 3' appears at three sites, 3. Biofortification.
how many restriction fragments will 4. Developing pest resistant crops.
result if we use BamHI for restriction
digestion?
47. In high yielding hybrid crop varieties, to
1. Two
exploit hybrid vigour, the farmers need to
2. Three
purchase fresh hybrid seed every year
3. Four
4. One because :-
1. They are not allowed to grow their own
43. First successful gene therapy was seed
given to a child deficient in gene coding 2. Hybrid vigour is lost due to inbreeding
for enzyme depression
1. Adenosine deaminase 3. It is cheaper to purchase fresh seed
2. Restriction Endonuclease 4. None
3. Streptokinase
4. Alcohol dehydrogenase 48. Biological Pest Control methods are
more preferably used because-
44. All of the following characters are 1. Chemical pesticides are discriminate
related with Bt- toxin except 2. Predators work through check and
1. Kills lepidopteran, dipteran and balance
coleopteran insects 3. Predators are indiscriminate
2. The toxin is coded by a gene named 4. All of above
cry
3. Activated in midgut of insects in acidic 49. Match the following list of bioactive
medium substances and their roles :
4. Causes lysis of cells in epithelial lining Bioactive Substance-
of midgut (i) Statins
(ii) Cyclosporin A
(iii) Streptokinase
45. Find the wrong match. (iv) Lipase
1. Wheat → Pusa Shubra Role-
2. Cauliflower → Pusa Snowball K-1 (A) Removal of oil stains
3. Chilli → Pusa Sadabahar (B) Removal of clots from blood vessels
4. Brassica → Pusa Swarnim (C) Lowering of blood cholesterol
(D) Immuno-suppressive agent
46. The most practical means to improve
Choose the correct match:
public health and enriching foods with
1. i B, ii C, iii A, iv D
vitamins and minerals would include.
2. i D, ii B, iii A, iv C
1. Micropropagation.
3. i B, ii A, iii D, iv C
4. i C, ii D, iii B, iv A 53. “All organisms have to reach a

certain stage of maturity and growth,
50. In hydrarch succession pioneer is before they can reproduce sexually”.
phytoplankton and climax is forest How many of the following is true for
(mesic). Given below is name of seral above statement?
stages, arrange them in accordance with (I) It is known as juvenile phase.
their appearance. (II) It is known as vegetative phase in
A. Submerged free floating plants B. plants.
Reed – swamp stage (III) It is of different duration in different
C. Marsh meadow stage D. Submerged organisms.
plant stage (IV) It is of same duration in different
E. Scrub stage organisms.
Option Options:
1. A, B, C, D & E 1. 4
2. B, A, C, D & E 2. 3
3. D, A, C, B & E 3. 2
4. D, A, B, C & E 4. 1
51. Ecosystem requires constant supply

of energy to synthesise the molecules
they require for;
1. Storage, as when needed can be
utilized 54.
2. To counteract the universal tendency
The above given diagram is an enlarged
towards increasing disorderliness
view of one microsporangium of a
3. As per first law of thermodynamics
matured anther. Identify A, Band C
4. None is correct
1. A - Middle layer, B - Endothecium, C
– Tapetum
52. Further development of zygote depends 2. A - Endothecium, B - Tapetum, C -
upon? Middle layer
1. Type of life cycle followed by 3. A - Endothecium, B - Middle layer, C
organism. – Tapetum
4. A- Tapetum, B - Middle layer, C –
2. Environment in which that zygote
Endothecium
develops.
3. Behaviour of that organism.
4. Both (a) and (b) 55. The inner wall of pollen grain:
1. Is thin, continuous and pecto cellulosic
and is called intine
2. Comes out in the form of pollen tube 3. In some species floral rewards like
through germpore edible nectar, pollen grains, shelter for
3. Is thick and consists of sporopollenin egg laying are given to pollinating
4. (a) and (b) animals
4. All the above are correct
56. During the formation of embryo sac
from megaspore mitotic divisions 60. Which of the following is not correct?
occurs. These mitotic divisions are: 1. As the seed matures, its water content
1. Strictly free nuclear is reduced and seeds become relatively
2. Strictly cellular dry (10-15% moisture by mass)
3. Strictly reduction 2. The seed dormancy is the internal or
4. Strictly cytoplasmic innate inhibition of generation of normal
or viable seeds
57. Which of the following statements is 3. Embryo in dormant seed shows higher
false about filiform apparatus? rate of general metabolic rate
1. The synergids have special cellular 4. Because of dormancy seeds remain
thickenings at the micropylar tip called viable for longer period and can be
filiform apparatus stored
2. It plays an important role in guiding
the pollen tubes into the synergid 61. Which of the following statements is
3. Both (a) and (b) false?
4. Pollen tube stimulates the formation 1. Some 2000 years old viable seeds of
of filiform apparatus Phoenix dactylifera were discovered
during archaeological excavation of King
58. Which of the following plants Herod's palace near Dead Sea
produce(s) chasmogamous and 2. Record of 10,000 years of dormancy
cleistogamous flowers? of seeds has been estimated in Lupinus
1. Viola (Commonpansy) arcticus
2. Oxalis 3. The number of seeds in each fruit in
3. Commelina case of orchid and some parasitic forms
4. All of the above like Orobanche and Striga is one
4. Many fruits have evolved mechanisms
59. Find out the correct option: for dispersal of seeds
1. Among animals, insects, particularly
bees are the dominant biotic pollinating
agents 62. Match the columns with respect to
2. Often flowers of animal- pollinated the process of translation:
plants are specially adapted for
particular species of animals Column-I Column-II
1. UTR (i) Catalyst
2. rRNA (ii) Template iv. Sequences used for DNA

3. mRNA (iii) Reads the fingerprinting generally code for many
genetic code proteins.
4. tRNA (iv) For efficiency v. Monozygotic twins have identical
DNA fingerprints.
1. a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) 1. All statements are correct
2. a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) 2. Only '4' is incorrect
3. a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) 3. 4 and 5 are incorrect
4. a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) 4. 1, 3, 4 and 5 are correct
63. Match items in Column-I with
Column-II: 65. Gametes are always haploid. What
percent of sperms and ova of
Column-I Column-II grasshopper lack 'x' body respectively?
1 Bioinformatic (i) Non-coding 1. 50% and 50%
. s DNA 2. 50% and 0%
2 Satellite-DNA (ii) Genes which 3. 0% and 0%
. expressed as 4. 0% and 50%
RNA
3 ETS (iii Coding and 66. Test cross is:
. ) non-coding 1. Cross between two homozygous
DNA genotype for different traits of same
sequencing
character
4 Sequence (iv Computationa
2. Cross between two heterozygous
. annotation ) l techniques
genotype of different character
for genome
sequencing
3. Cross between one homozygous and
one heterozygous genotype for different
1. a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) traits of same character
2. a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) 4. Cross between one heterozygous and
3. a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) homozygous of similar traits of same
4. a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) character
64. Consider the following statements 67. Which of the following scientist is
regarding DNA fingerprinting: responsible for the synthesis of protein
i. The technique was initially developed in cell-free system?
by Alec Jeffreys. 1. Har Gobind Khorana
ii. Hybridisation using labelled VNTR 2. Marshall Nirenberg
probe. 3. Severo Ochoa
iii. Sensitivity of the technique has been 4. Frederic Sanger
increased by the use of PCR.
68. Read the following four statements 4. None

(A-D)
A. The characters blend in heterozygous 71. The deletion in chromosome number
condition. 16 results in which of the following
B. Change in a single base pair of DNA genetic disorder?
does not cause mutation. 1. Pleiotropy
C. Cancer cells commonly show 2. Quantitative problem of RBC’s
chromosomal aberrations. 3. Qualitative problem of RBC’s
D. In insect, sex chromosomes in male 4. Hypertrichosis
are ZZ and in females are ZW.
How many of the above statement is/are 72. Conditions of a karyotype 2n ± 1 is
right? observed in all except
1. Two 1. Down syndrome
2. Three 2. Turner’s syndrome
3. Four 3. Phenyl ketonuria
4. One 4. Klinefelter’s syndrome
73. Choose the correct statement about

69. How many of the following recombination and linkage
statements is / are correct for polygenic 1. Complete linkage results in higher
inheritance? non-parental gene combinations than
1. They show uniformity. parental type
2. Controlled by three or more genes 2. Recombination results in generation
3. It is not influenced by environment. of parental gene combinations
4. In polygenic inheritance phenotype 3. Genetic maps are constructed by
reflects the contribution of dominant using the frequency of recombination
allele only. between gene pairs
Options : 4. T.H. Morgan constructed the first
1. 1 and 2 chromosome map
2. 2, 3 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4 74. Which of the following is not the
4. only 2 property of a molecule that can act as
genetic material.
70. Which is not true for haplodiploid 1. Able to replicate
sex determination? 2. Able to mutate
1. It is reported in honey bee. 3. Chemically and structurally stable
2. In this male produces sperms by 4. Should express as dominant
meiosis. characters.
3. In this unfertilized egg develops as a
male by means of parthenogenesis.
75. Distribution of newly synthesized 79. Fitness of one species (measured in

DNA in the chromosomes is by semi- terms of intrinsic rate of increase) is
conservative means is experimentally significantly lower in the presence of
shown by Taylor et al by using another species during the interaction
1. Radioactive adenosine between
2. Radioactive thymidine 1. Barnacles and whale
3. Radioactive guanosine 2. Abingdon tortoise and goats
4. Radioactive cytidine 3. Ophrys and bee
4. Sea anemone and clown fish
76. During DNA replication, two strands
of DNA cannot be separated in its entire
length in one step because? 80. Which the following pairs is wrongly
1. Due to high energy requirement matched while remaining three are correct
2. Due to complementary base pairing 1. Allen’s rule – Mammals with shorter ears
3. Due to antiparallel nature of DNA and limbs in colder area
strand 2. Expanding population – High number of
4. Due to absence of enzyme DNA individual at pre-reproductive stage
polymerase 3. Population density increasing – (B + I) <
(D + E)
77. If due to mutation both the strands 4. Carrying capacity – Logistic growth.
of DNA start transcribing. Which of the
following will not be the consequence of 81. Consider the following four
this? statements (A–D), select the correct
1. Complicate the genetic information option stating which ones are true (T)
transfer machinery and which ones are false (F)
2. One segment of DNA would code for (A) Organism at each trophic level
two different protein depends on those at higher trophic level
3. Will prevent translation for their energy demands.
4. Will result in polyploidy (B) Each trophic level has a certain mass
of living material at a particular time
78. In nature, a given habitat has enough called standing crop.
resources to support a maximum (C) Each trophic level has a certain mass
possible number, beyond which no of non-living material at a particular
further growth is possible. The limit is time called standing state.
known as (D) The number of trophic levels in a
1. Environmental resistance grazing food chain is not restricted
2. Intrinsic rate of natural increase A B C D
3. Carrying capacity 1. T T F F
4. Exponentially growth 2. F T F T
3. T F T F
4. F T T F 86. Which one of the following pairs is

wrongly matched remaining three are
82. In any ecological pyramid, an correct?
organism can occupy how many trophic
level. Legislation Year
1. Only one trophic level 1. Environment (Protection) 1986
2. More than one trophic level Act
simultaneously 2. Air (Prevention and control 1981
3. Can occupy more than one trophic of pollution) Act
3. Noise as on air pollutant 1987
level but not simultaneously
4. Water (Prevention and 1984
4. It cannot be defined
control of pollution) Act
83. Climax community is in a state of:

1. non-equilibrium 87. DDT which is widely used, is
responsible for which of the following
2. equilibrium
effect
3. disorder
(A) Accumulates in human being as a
4. constant change.
result of biomagnifications
84. Which of the following is an (B) Disturbs calcium metabolism in birds
ecosystem service provided by a natural (C) Responsible for decline in population
ecosystem? of certain birds
1. Cycling of nutrients (D) Acts as a signaling molecule in
2. Prevention of soil erosion biochemical pathway
3. Pollutant absorption and reduction of
the threat of global warming Select the correct option
4. All of the above 1. I, II, IV is correct
2. I, II, III is correct
3. I, III, IV is correct
85. Which of the following is not correct 4. I, II, III, IV is correct
with respect of control of vehicular air
pollution in India? 88. Consider the following four
1. Use of CNG as fuel statements (A-D) related to Green house
2. Not phasing out of old vehicles as they effect and Global warming and select
have better technology the correct option stating which one are
3. Use of unleaded petrol, low-sulphur
true (T) and which ones are false (F).
Statements
petrol and diesel
(A) It is responsible for maintaining
4. Use of catalytic converter
average temperature at 18ºC
(B) CO2, CH4, CFC, N2O are green house
gases
(C) Responsible for El Nino Effect 92. The mass of a unit cell of CsCl
(D) Montreal protocol is for this corresponds to:-
Options
A B C D 1. 8Cs+ and Cl-
1. T T F F
2. F F T T 2. 1Cs+ and 6Cl-
3. F T T F
4. T F F T 3. 1Cs+ and 1Cl-
89. Which one of the following 4. 4Cs+ and Cl-

statement is totally wrong about greater
biological diversity in tropics 93. A hypothetical reaction,
1. Tropical latitude have remained A2 +B2 → 2AB mechanism as given
relatively undisturbed for millions of below;
years
A2 ⇌A+ A ............(Fast)
2. Tropical environment is more less
constant and predictable
A+B2 → AB + B ............(Slow)
3. Soil here is very fertile
4. More solar energy is available. A+ B → AB ............(Fast)
90. Select the analogous structures: The order of the overall reaction is:
1. Wings of butterfly and birds 1. 2
2. Flippers of penguins and dolphins 2. 1
3. Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of 3. 1.5
cucurbita 4. zero
4. More than one option is correct
94. Consider the following reaction

91. If NaCl is doped with 10-4 mol % of
sequence
SrCl2, the concentration of cation
vacancies will be (NA = 6.023 x 1023 mol-
1
)
1. 6.023 x 1015 mol-1
2. 6.023 x 1016 mol-1
3. 6.023 x 1017 mol-1 Major product D is
4. 6.023 x 1014 mol-1

97. In the Haber's process for the

manufacture of ammonia the catalyst
used is
1. 1. Fe
2. Co
3. V2O5
4. Pt
2.
98. Calcium phosphide on complete
hydrolysis gives
3. 1. PH3
2. H3PO4
3. H3PO2
4. None
4.
99. If the mass percentage of urea in an
95. The rate of a chemical reaction aqueous solution is 20% then molality of
doubles for every 10°C rise of the solution will be
temperature. If the temperature is raised 1. 5.25 m
by 50°C, the rate of the reaction 2. 2.35 m
increases by about: 3. 4.17 m
1. 10 times 4. 4.31 m
2. 24 times
3. 32 times
4. 64 times 100. Which of the following aq. solutions
will freeze at highest temperature?
96. Monomer of natural number is
1. 1, 3-butadiene 1. 0.1 m NaCl
2. Isoprene
3. Styrene 2. 0.1 m glucose
4. Chloroprene
3. 0.1 m CaCl2
4. 0.1 m AlCl3 105. Consider the following reaction

sequence.
101. Number of tetrahedral voids
occupied in a unit cell of the diamond is
1. 2
2. 4
3. 6
4. 8
Product B is
1. Ester
102. Standard electrode potential for
2. Acetal
Sn4+ / Sn2+ couple is +0.15 V and that for
3. Ketal
the Cr3+/Cr couple is -0.74. These two
4. Lactone
couples in their standard state are
connected to make a cell. The cell
106. How fast the reaction is at 25°C as
potential will be
compared to 0°C. If the activation
1. + 0.89 V
energy is 65 KJ: -
2. + 0.18 V
1. 2 times
3. + 1.83 V
2. 5 times
4. + 1.199 V
3. 11 times
4. 16 times
103. Incorrect statement about
carbohydrates is 107. A 5A current is passed through a
1. Maltose is a reducing sugar. solution of zinc sulphate for 40 min. The
2. The carbohydrates are stored in the amount of zinc deposited at the cathode
animal body as glycogen. is
3. Amylopectin constitutes about 15- 1. 40.65g
20% Of starch. 2. 0.4065g
4. Cellulose is composed of only ββ-D- 3. 4.065g
glucose units. 4. 65.04g
104. Equanil is used as

1. Analgesic 108. Consider the following reaction
2. Antibiotic sequence
3. Tranquilizer
4. Antacid
Major product C is
109. The correct order of basic strength

of the given compound is
111. Intramolecular hydrogen bonding is

absent in
1. o-Cresol
1. 2. Salicyulaldehyde
3. Salicylic acid
4. Chloral hydrate
2.
3.
4.
110. the compound which is most easily

decarboxylated on heating is
112. Which of the following order is 2. [Co(C2O4)3 ]3-

incorrect regarding the indicated
property? 3. [Fe(CN)6]3-
4. [MnCl6]3-
115. Equivalent conductances of NaCl,

HCl and C2H5COONa at infinite dilution
are 126.45, 426.16 and 91Ω−1cm2Ω-
1cm2. The equivalent conductance
of C2H5COOH is
1. 201.28 Ω-1cm2
2. 390.71 Ω-1cm2
3. 698.28 Ω-1cm2
4. 540.48 Ω-1cm2
116. TiO2 sol can be most easily

coagulated by
1. PO43-
2. SO42-
113. In which of the following species
the central atom is sp3d2 hybridised? 3. Al3+
1. PCI5 4. Ca3+
2. CIF3 117. Correct order of electron affinity of

given element is
3. XeF6
1. F>Cl>Br>l
2. l>Br>Cl>F
4. BrF5
3. Cl>F>Br>l
114. Which among the following 4. l>Br>F>Cl
contains only one unpaired electron?
1. [CoF6]3- 118. Benzoic acid gives benzene on

being heated with X and phenol gives
benzene on being heated with Y. minutes? (IF 965m C, Atomic mass of cu

Therefore, X and Y are = 63.5 u)
respectively 1. 2.59
2. 1.9g
1. sodalime and copper 3. 3.6g
2. Zn dust and NaOH 4. 3.8 g
3. Zn dust and sodalime
4. sodalime and zinc dust
123. 40 ml of 0.1 M CaCl2 solution is
mixed with 50 ml of 0.2 M
119. The metal which is purified by Zone AgNO3 solution. Mole of AgCl formed in
refining is the reaction is
1. Ni
2. Zr 1. 10-2 mol
3. In
4. Fe 2. 4×10-3 mol
3. 8×10-3 mol
120. A certain current liberates 0.504 g
of hydrogen in 2 hr. How many gram of
4. 0.2 mol
copper can be liberated by the same
current flowing for the same time in
124. If the rate constant of a chemical
CuSO4 solution?
reaction is 10-2 s-1 then the time
1. 12.7
required for the completion of 20% of
2. 16
the reaction will be
3. 31.8
1. 48.43 s
4. 63.5
2. 22.33 s
3. 15.53 s
121. Ratio of the total energy of electron
4. 65.31 s
in the second orbit of Li2+ to the first
orbit of He+is
1. 2:3
2. 5:8 125.
3. 9:16
4. 1:4 In the above reaction product, 'P'
122. How many grams of copper metal

will be deposited when a solution of
copper sulphate (CuSO4) is electrolyzed
with a current of 9.65 amperes for 10
is 1.
2. Cu2++4CN⇌[Cu(CN)4]2-;(K=2.0x1027)
3. Cu2++2en⇌[Cu(en)2]2+;(K=3.0x1015)
2. 4. Cu2++4H2O⇌[Cu(H2O)4]2+;(K=9.5x108)
129. The correct IUPAC name of

Mn3(CO)12 is :
1. dodecacarbonylmanganate(0)
2. dodecacarbonylmanganate(II)
3. 3. dodecacarbonyltrymanganese(0)
4. manganicdodecacarbonyl0)
130. Match List-I with List-II and select

4.
the correct option.
126. In a mercury cell, the electrolyte
used is
1. A paste of NH4Cl and ZnCl2

2. A paste of KOH and ZnO
3. 38% solution 0t sulphuric acid
4. 20% solution of NaCl
127. The correct order of the boiling 1. a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
point of the given compound is 2. a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
3. a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
1. AsH3 > PH3 > NH3 4. a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
2. NH3 > AsH3 > PH3

131. [Cr(H2O)6Cl3 (at. no. of Cr=24) has a
3. NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 magnetic moment of 3.83 BM, the
correct distribution of 3d electrons in
4. PH3>NH3>AsH3
the chromium of the complex is
128. From the stability constant
1. 3d1xy,3d1yz,3d1z2
(hypothetical values) given below,
predict which is the strongest ligand? 2. 3d(x2- y2),3d1z2,3d1xz
1. Cu2++4NH3⇌[Cu(NH3)4]2+;(k=4.5x1011)
3. 3dxy,3d(x2-y2),3d1yz 4. Na2ZnO2
4. 3d1xy,3d1yz,3d1zx 136. A ring of radius 'R' having charge

'2q' uniformly distributed over it passes
132. EAN of Fe in K3[Fe(CN)6] is through a sphere of same radius in such
1. 34 a way that centre of sphere lies at
2. 35 circumference of ring and centre of ring
3. 36 lies at surface of sphere. Then flux linked
4. 47 with sphere is
133. Among the following species, the

highest bond order is of
1. NO+
2. O2+
3. O2-
4. NO
134. Which of the following products are

formed when potassium bromide reacts
with potassium permanganate in
alkaline pH?
1. BrO3-, MnO2
2. BrO4-, Mn2+
3. Br2, MnO2 137. In the circuit as shown in figure,
4. B2O‐, MnO42- energy stored in capacitor at steady
state at
135. Zinc dissolve in an excess of NaOH,

because of the formation of
1. ZnO
2. Zn(OH)2
3. NaZn(OH)3
1. 36μJ
2. 48 μJ
3. 72 μJ
4. 18 μJ
138. In the following four situations

charged particles are at equal distance 1. 5 A
from the origin. Arrange the magnitude
of the net electric field at origin, greatest 2. 2.5 A
first
3. Zero
4. 10 A
141. Two polaroids are placed such that

their planes are parallel to each other
with their axis of transmission at 30° to
each other. If an unpolarised light of
intensity l0 is incident in first polariser
1. (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)
then intensity of light that will be
2. (ii) > (i) > (iii) > (iv)
transmitted through the second polaroid
3. (i) > (iii) > (ii) > (iv)
is
4. (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i)
139. If two conducting spheres are

separately charged and then brought in
contact
1. The total energy of the two spheres is
conserved
2. The total charge on the two spheres is
conserved
3. Both the total energy and charge are
conserved 142. A cylinder containing water up to a
4. The final potential is always the mean height of 25 cm, has a hole of area of
of the original potentials of the two cross-section 1/4 cm2 in its bottom. It is
spheres counterpoised in a balance. The initial
change in its weight, when water just
starts flowing out is
140. In the given circuit current flowing
through 2Ω resistance is
145. A network of four capacitors of

capacity equal
to C1=C,C2=2C,C3=3C and C4=4C a
re connected to a battery as shown
in the figure. The ratio of the
charges on capacitor C1 and C4 is –
1. Increases by 12.5 gm-wt
2. Increases by 6.25 gm-wt
3. Decreases by 12.5 gm-wt
4. Decreases by 6.25 gm-wt
143. Two bulbs of rated power 60 W and

100 W, same specified voltage 220 V, are 1.
connected in series to a 440 V DC source
1. 60 W bulb gives more brightness 2.
2. 100 W bulb gives more brightness
3. 100 W bulb will get fused 3.
4. 60 W bulb gets fused
4.
144. In Young's double slit experiment 146. Focal length of objective lens and
slit separation is d, and distance of eyepiece of an astronomical telescope
screen from the slit is D (D>>d). If first are 200 cm and 10 cm respectively. The
dark fringe is formed in front of one of length of telescope for maximum
the slit, then wave length of light used magnification is nearly
will be 1. 207 cm
2. 210 cm
3. 204 cm
4. 220 cm
147. The following configuration of gate 40 cm and a concave lens of focal length
is equivalent to 15 cm placed at the mark of 60 cm. The
final image is formed at the mark of -
(point object and two lenses are coaxial)
1. 30 cm
2. 80 cm
3. 90 cm
4. infinity
1. NAND
2. XOR
151. In the following circuit, the current
3. OR
flowing through zener diode is
4. NOR
148. A ray of light is incident at an

angle 60° on one face of a prism which
has refracting angle of 30°. The
emerging ray deviates through 30° from 1. 10 mA
incident light. The refractive index of 2. 5 mA
material of prism is 3. 6.67 mA
4. 3.33 mA
152. Energy of a unielectron system in

the first excited state is -13.6 eV. This is
1. H atom
2. He+ ion
149. If the balance point is obtained at
the 35th cm in a metre bridge the 3. Li2+ ion
resistances in the left and right gaps are
4. Be3+ ion
in the ratio of
1. 7 : 13
153. A proton and an alpha particle is
2. 13 : 7
projected with equal kinetic energy in
3. 9 : 11
transverse uniform magnetic field B. The
4. 11 : 9
ratio of radii of proton to that of alpha
150. On an optical bench a point object
particle is
is placed at the mark of 10 cm, a convex
1. 1:1
lens of focal length 15 cm at the mark of
2. 1:2
3. 1:√2
4. √2:1
154. Find the equivalent resistance

across the terminals of source of e.m.f.
24 V for the circuit shown in figure
1. 1.6 N
2. 2.0 N
3. 8.0 N
4. 1.0 N
156. A thin rod carrying current i2i2 is

1. 15 Ω placed near a ling straight wire carrying
current i1 in the plane of rod as shown in
2. 10 Ω figure. The motion of rod is
3. 5 Ω
4. 4 Ω
155. Two parallel conducting wires AB

and CD placed at a separation of 1m are
connected by a resistance of 3 Ω and 1. Translatory
placed in uniform magnetic field of 2 T, 2. Rotatory
which is perpendicular to the plane 3. Translatory as well as rotatory
containing wires. Another wire PQ of 4. will not experience any force
length 2 m and resistance 2 Ω, slides on
the wires with speed 2 m/s
perpendicular to field. The force 157. In the circuit shown there is a box
required to move the wire PQ with containing a resistor and an inductor
constant speed is and the box is in series with a
capacitance C connected to alternating
power source of frequency 2 rad/s. Box
has power factor 1/√2 and circuit has
overall power factor 1. The impedance
of box is
speeds in the ratio 8:1. Ratio of their

nuclear size will be
1. 2√2:1
2. 1:2√2
3. 1:2
4. 1:1
161. A wire frame of given shape,

carrying current of 10 A is placed in
uniform magnetic field 100 T directed
into the plane of paper as shown in
figure. The net force acting on frame is
158. If a closed current loop of any

arbitrary shape is placed in uniform
magnetic field, then
1. Net force on loop is always zero and
net torque may or may not be zero
2. Net force and net torque always zero
3. Both force and torque may or may not
be zero
4. Torque is zero and net force may or
may not be zero
159. After 225 days, the activity of a 162. In the hydrogen atom, the electron
sample is 4000 decay/s. The activity is making 6.6×1015 r.p.s . If the radius of
reduces to 2000 decay/s after another the orbit is 0.53 Ao, then magnetic field
75 days. The initial activity of the sample produced at the centre of the orbit is
is 1. 140 Tesla
1. 16000 decay/s 2. 12.5 Tesla
2. 20,000 decay/s 3. 1.4 Tesla
3. 24,000 decay/s 4. 0.14 Tesla
4. 32,000 decay/s
160. A nucleus at rest disintegrates into 163. If angle of dip shown by a dip circle
two nuclear parts, which have their at 330° with magnetic meridian is 60°,
then the angle of dip shown by the dip 3. 60

circle at 45° with magnetic meridian is 4. 54
166. The area of hysteresis loop of a

material is equivalent to 250 joules.
When 10 kg material is magnetised by
an alternating field of 50 Hz, then
energy lost in one hour will be if the
density of material is 7.5 × 103 kg/m3 ?
1. 6×104 J
164. In figure shows three long straight
wires P, Q and R carry currents normal to
2. 6×104 erg
the plane of the paper. All three currents
have the same magnitude. Which arrow 3. 3×102 J
best shows the direction of the resultant
force on the wire P? 4. 3×102 erg
167. The figure shows four wire loops,

with edge lengths of either L or 2L. All
four loops will move through a region of
uniform magnetic field 𝐵⃗ (directed out
of the page) at the same constant
velocity. Rank the four loops according
to the maximum magnitude of the e.m.f.
induced as they move through the field,
1. A greatest first
2. B
3. C
4. D
165. A moving coil galvanometer has 48

turns and area of coil is 4×10-2m2 If the
1. (ec=ed)<(ea=eb)
magnetic field is 0.2 T, then to increase
the current sensitivity by 25% without 2. (ec=ed)>(ea=eb)
changing area (A) and field (B) the
number of turns should become 3. ec>ed>eb>ea
1. 24
2. 36 4. ec<ed<eb<ea
168. A short magnet is allowed to fall 171. In the given circuit

along the axis of a horizontal metallic XL=400 Ω, XC=300 Ω and R = 100 Ω.
ring. Starting from rest, the distance Then peak value of current and phase
fallen by the magnet in one second may
be
1. 4 m
2. 5 m
3. 6 m
4. 7 m
169. The electric and magnetic field of

an electromagnetic wave are
1. In phase and parallel to each other
and also parallel to direction of difference between voltage and current
propagation of wave is
2. In phase, parallel to each other and
perpendicular to direction of 1. √2 A, voltage leads current by π/4
propagation of wave 2. √2 A, voltage lags current by π/4
3. In phase and perpendicular to each 3. 2 A, voltage leads current by π/3
other and also perpendicular to 4. 2 A, voltage leads current by π/4
direction of propagation of wave
4. Out of phase, perpendicular to each 172. In a photoelectric experiment, the
other and perpendicular to direction of wavelength of incident light changes
propagation of wave from 4000 A0 to 2000 A0. The change in
stopping potential is
170. The self inductance of a choke coil 1. 6.2 V
is 10 mH. When it is connected with a 2. 3.1 V
10V dc source, then the loss of power is 3. 2.1 V
20 watt. When it is connected with 10 4. 4.1 V
volt ac source loss of power is 10 watt.
The frequency of ac source will be 173. An α-particle is accelerated through
1. 50 Hz a potential difference of 100 V. Its de-
2. 60 Hz Broglie's wavelength is
3. 80 Hz 1. 0.02 nm
4. 100 Hz 2. 0.04 nm
3. 0.1 nm
4. 0.001 nm
174. An object is placed at a point

distant x from the focus of a convex lens
and its image is formed at I as shown in
the figure. The distances x, x' satisfy the
relation
1. Path 1
2. Path 2
3. Any path
4. None of these
177. An electron is moving through a

field. It is moving (i) opposite an electric
field (ii) perpendicular to a magnetic
field as shown. For each situation the
de-Broglie wave length of electron
175. The diameter of the eye-ball of a

normal eye is about 2.5 cm. The power
of the eye lens varies from
1. 2 D to 10 D
2. 40 D to 32 D 1. Increasing, increasing
3. 9 D to 8 D 2. Increasing, decreasing
4. 44 D to 40 D 3. Decreasing, same
4. Same, Same
176. Following figure shows

sources S1 and S2 that emits light of 178. When key k is open in a circuit as
wavelength λ in all directions. The shown in figure, an ideal voltmeter reads
sources are exactly in phase and are 1.53 V. If key is closed then ideal
separated by a distance equal to 1.5 λ. If ammeter reads 1 A and voltmeter reads
we start at the indicated start point and 1.03 V. Then EMF of cell and external
travel along path 1 and 2, the resistance R are respectively
interference produces a maxima all
along
2. From P1 to P3 is less than that

from P1 to P2
3. From P1 to P2 is equal to work
from P1 to P3 and is non-zero
4. From P1 to P2 is equal to work
from P1 to P3 and equal to zero
1. 1.03 V, 1.53Ω
2. 1.53 V, 0.5Ω
3. 1.53 V, 1.03Ω
4. 1.03 V, 1.03Ω
179. If the mass of a radioactive sample

is doubled, the activity of the sample
and the disintegration constant of the
sample are respectively
1. Increases, remains the same
2. Decreases, increases
3. Decreases, remains same
4. Increases, decreases
180. Four point charges are placed at

the corner of a square of side a as
shown in the figure. A charge q is
displaced first from P1 to P2 and then
from P1 to P3, then work done in
displacing the charge
1. From P1 to P2 is less than that

from P1 to P3

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Test # 12 (NEETprep Test Series)

NEETprep Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

1. Read the following statements 5. Cocaine is obtained from the extract

Statement B: Separation of proteins in 6. Select the two core techniques that

4. Select the odd one w.r.t. ringworms. 9. According to Hardy - Weinberg

18. Opinion of how many registered 22. Graphical representation of ovarian

19. The shedding of endometrium

2. Balancing selection 4. Interleukins are synthesized within B-

34. Which is not a common mode of 3. UV rays

42. If in a plasmid pBR322 the sequence 2. Use of single cell proteins.

4. i C, ii D, iii B, iv A 53. “All organisms have to reach a

51. Ecosystem requires constant supply

2. rRNA (ii) Template iv. Sequences used for DNA

68. Read the following four statements 4. None

73. Choose the correct statement about

75. Distribution of newly synthesized 79. Fitness of one species (measured in

4. F T T F 86. Which one of the following pairs is

83. Climax community is in a state of:

89. Which one of the following 4. 4Cs+ and Cl-

94. Consider the following reaction

2. 6.023 x 1016 mol-1

3. 6.023 x 1017 mol-1 Major product D is

4. 6.023 x 1014 mol-1

97. In the Haber's process for the

4. 0.1 m AlCl3 105. Consider the following reaction

104. Equanil is used as

109. The correct order of basic strength

111. Intramolecular hydrogen bonding is

110. the compound which is most easily

112. Which of the following order is 2. [Co(C2O4)3 ]3-

115. Equivalent conductances of NaCl,

116. TiO2 sol can be most easily

2. CIF3 117. Correct order of electron affinity of

1. [CoF6]3- 118. Benzoic acid gives benzene on

benzene on being heated with Y. minutes? (IF 965m C, Atomic mass of cu

122. How many grams of copper metal

129. The correct IUPAC name of

130. Match List-I with List-II and select

1. A paste of NH4Cl and ZnCl2

2. NH3 > AsH3 > PH3

4. 3d1xy,3d1yz,3d1zx 136. A ring of radius 'R' having charge

133. Among the following species, the

134. Which of the following products are

135. Zinc dissolve in an excess of NaOH,

138. In the following four situations

141. Two polaroids are placed such that

139. If two conducting spheres are

145. A network of four capacitors of

1. Increases by 12.5 gm-wt

2. Increases by 6.25 gm-wt

3. Decreases by 12.5 gm-wt

4. Decreases by 6.25 gm-wt

143. Two bulbs of rated power 60 W and

148. A ray of light is incident at an

152. Energy of a unielectron system in

154. Find the equivalent resistance

156. A thin rod carrying current i2i2 is

155. Two parallel conducting wires AB