AIIMS Level Test (05-Jun) Full Syllabus

Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

8. A high-yielding semi-dwarf rice variety developed by
Botany - Section A the International Rice Research Institute (IRRI) –
1. Which of the following will always be true for an Philippines is:
ecosystem? 1. IR-8
1. Producers are more in number and biomass than the 2. Taichung Native-1
herbivores 3. Jaya
2. Pyramid of biomass is inverted 4. Sonalika
3. Pyramid of energy is upright
4. Energy at a lower trophic level is less than at a higher 9. In a dihybrid cross, where the two parent pea plants
level differed in two pairs of contrasting traits – seed colour and
seed shape, the yellow and green colour segregates in the
2. Regarding pollination: ratio:
1. Xenogamy is the only type which brings genetically 1. 1 : 1
different types of pollen grains to the stigma 2. 3 : 1
2. Majority of plants use abiotic agents for pollination 3. 2 : 1
3. All aquatic plants are pollinated by water 4. 1 : 2
4. Geitonogamy is genetically similar to cross pollination
10. In pea:
3. Gymnosperms lack: 1. Flower is zygomorpohic, aestivation is vexillary,
1. Secondary growth stamens are diadelphous and placentation is marginal.
2. Vessels in their xylem 2. Flower is actinomorpohic, aestivation is vexillary,
3. Albuminous cells stamens are diadelphous and placentation is axile.
4. A dominant sporophyte 3. Flower is zygomorpohic, aestivation is twisted, stamens
are monodelphous and placentation is parietal.
4. Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells share all the 4. Flower is actinomorpohic, aestivation is imbricate,
given features except: stamens are diadelphous and placentation is marginal.
1. presence of ribosomes
2. arising from pre-existing cells 11. One of the crosses conducted by Mendel was a ‘test
3. compartmentalization through membrane bound cross’. This cross can be used to:
organelles 1. determine whether the individual is heterozygous or
4. presence of a cell membrane homozygous dominant
2. determine whether a gene is located on a sex
5. What given anatomical feature is not correct for a dicot chromosome or an autosome
stem? 3. differentiate between incomplete dominance and
1. Hypodermis Sclerenchymatous codominance
4. identify linkage between two genes
2. Endodermis Starch sheath
3. Medullary rays Parenchyma cells 12. In the logistic growth of a population, the acceleration
4. Protoxylem Endarch phase is followed by a/an:
1. Lag phase
2. Deceleration phase
3. Asymptote
6. Ethylene, a PGR, is not involved in:
4. Sudden crash phase
1. fruit ripening
2. breaking seed and bud dormancy
13. What is incorrect regarding stomata in the leaves of a
3. closure of stomata in water stress
higher plant?
4. respiratory climactic
1. Normally they are open in the day time and close
during the night.
2. The inner wall of the guard cells is thick and elastic
7. Calvin cycle is described under three stages – I:
3. Cellulose microfibrils in guard cells are oriented
Carboxylation; II: Reduction and III: Regeneration. ATP
longitudinally rather than radially
is required during stage/s:
4. Usually the lower surface of dorsiventral leaf has a
1. Only I
greater number of stomata
2. Only I and III
3. Only II and III
4. Only IV

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 AIIMS Level Test (05-Jun) Full Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
14. The pressure flow or mass flow hypothesis: 21. A dominant gametophyte will be seen in the life cycle
1. is the best-supported theory to explain the movement of of:
sap through the phloem 1. Marchantia
2. explains the movement of water in xylem 2. Sequoia
3. is no longer accepted as a hypothesis to explain the 3. Adiantum
movement of sap through the phloem 4. Eucalyptus
4. is the accepted mechanism of transport of water in the
roots till the endodermis 22. Fucus is:
1. a brown alga having oogamous sexual reproduction and
15. Which relationship given in column I is not correctly haplo-diplontic life cycle
matched with the partner apparently not deriving any 2. a red alga having anisogamous sexual reproduction and
benefit out of the relationship [Column II]? diplontic life cycle
COLUMN I COLUMN II 3. a brown alga having oogamous sexual reproduction and
diplontic life cycle
1. Orchid growing on a mango branch Mango
4. a red alga having isogamous sexual reproduction and
2. Barnacles growing on back of a whale Whale diplontic life cycle
3. Sea anemone and clown fish Sea anemone
4. Lichen Algal partner 23. Which of the following organisms is not matched with
the correct nature of the cell wall present in their
cell/cells?
16. Morels and truffles: Organism Nature of cell wall
1. are pathogenic fungi causing rust and smut 1. True bacterium Polysaccharide + Amino acid
2. do not reproduce sexually 2. Fungus With chitin
3. do not produce asexual spores
3. Euglenoids Cellulosic
4. are delicacies belonging to Ascomycetes
4. Diatoms Embedded with silica
17. In an ecosystem, during decomposition, water soluble
inorganic nutrients go down into the soil horizon and get
precipitated as unavailable salts by the process of: 24. In the mitochondrial electron transport system:
1. Fragmentation 1. Electrons from NADH are oxidized by Complex II
2. Leaching 2. Ubiquinone is located on the outer surface of the inner
3. Catabolism membrane
4. Humification 3. Complex IV refers to cytochrome c oxidase containing
cytochromes a and a3, and two copper centres
18. In a sample of water polluted with sewage discharge, 4. Cytochrome c is an electron carrier located within not
if you measure BOD [Biochemical Oxygen Demand] and with the inner membrane
DO [Dissolved Oxygen], you expect to find that:
1. The levels of both BOD and DO are high 25. Trichoderma polysporum is a fungal species:
2. The levels of both BOD and DO are low 1. extensively used in biocontrol of nematode pests
3. The levels of BOD will be high and the levels of DO 2. and a source of an immunosuppressive agent
will be low 3. used for commercial production of citric acid
4. The levels of BOD will be low and the levels of DO 4. that causes ringworm in humans
will be high
26. Even if a plant is infected with a virus:
19. What is not correct regarding apomixis? I. the apical meristem is free of virus
1. It is production of seeds without fertilization II. the axillary meristem is free of virus
2. It is a form of asexual reproduction III. meristem can be grown in-vitro to obtain virus free
3. It is fruit production without fertilization plants
4. Nucellar cells developing into embryos is an example 1. Only I and III are correct
2. Only II and III are correct
20. As a method of cellular defence, the RNA interference 3. Only I and II are correct
takes place in all: 4. I, II and III are correct
1. nematodes
2. bacteria and archaea
3. eukaryotic cells
4. plant cells
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 AIIMS Level Test (05-Jun) Full Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
27. A hierarchy is an arrangement of items that are 33. Select the option where the given characters are
represented as being "above", "below", or "at the same correct match for members of Rhodophyceae:
level as" one another. Select the correct ascending order of Major Stored
taxonomic hierarchy? Cell wall Flagella
pigments food
1. Species → Genus → Family → Order → Class →
Chlorophyll a, Cellulose, pectin, 2-8,
Division → Kingdom Mannitol.
1. d; polysulphate equal,
2. Species → Genus → Family → Class → Order → Laminarin
phycoerythrin esters apical
Division → Kingdom
3. Species → Genus → Order → Family → Class → Chlorophyll a, Cellulose, pectin,
Floridean
Division → Kingdom 2. d; polysulphate Absent
starch
4. Genus → Species → Family → Order → Class → phycoerythrin esters
Kingdom → Division 2,
Chlorophyll a, Mannitol. Cellulose and
3. unequal,
c; Fucoxanthin Laminarin algin
lateral
28. When we talk of ‘ozone hole’ we mean: 2-8,
1. an absence of ozone layer in troposphere Chlorophyll a,
4. Starch Cellulose equal,
2. an absence of ozone layer in stratosphere b;
apical
3. a thinned ozone layer in troposphere
4. a thinned ozone layer in stratosphere

29. In palmately compound leaves: 34. Identify the incorrect statement regarding
1. Leaf lamina is entire photosynthesis in higher plants:
2. Leaf lamina is incised but the incisions do not touch the 1. Chlorophyll a is the chief pigment associated with
mid rib. photosynthesis.
3. Leaf lamina is incised, lamina reach up to the midrib 2. Splitting of water is associated with PS II
and leaflets are present on a common axis 3. Cyclic flow of electrons results only in the synthesis of
4. Leaf lamina is incised, lamina reach up to the midrib NADH
and leaflets are attached at a common point 4. Biosynthetic phase is dependent on the products of the
light reaction
30. In the Citric acid cycle the reduction of NAD+ to
NADH + H+ takes place at all the following steps except: 35. A higher plant requires the nutrient element
1. Conversion of Citric acid to α-ketoglutaric acid magnesium for:
2. Conversion of α-ketoglutaric acid to Succinyl CoA 1. opening and closing of stomata
3. Conversion of Malic acid to Oxaloacetic acid 2. maintaining the ribosome structure
4. Conversion of Succinic acid to Fumaric acid 3. nitrogen metabolism
4. splitting of water
31. In a diploid organism:
1. there are two copies of each gene
2. there are two genes for each character Botany - Section B
3. there are two sets of homozygous chromosomes 36. Looking at the size of the ears in hares shown in the
4. one allele is always completely dominant over the other diagram given, which hare is most likely to be found in
allele of the same gene arctic region?

32. During the formation of the female gametophyte in

angiosperms, cell walls are laid when the developing
female gametophyte reaches:
1. 2 nucleate stage
2. 4 nucleate stage
3. 6 nucleate stage
4. 8 nucleate stage

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D

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 AIIMS Level Test (05-Jun) Full Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
37. RNA interference involves silencing of a specific 43. When the water content in a seed is reduced to about
mRNA which essentially means: 10-15 % moisture by mass:
1. the transcription of mRNA is stopped by inactivating 1. the seed will never be able to germinate even with the
the promoter return of favourable conditions
2. the hnRNA is not allowed to undergo post- 2. the seed will immediately germinate to avoid
transcriptional modification unfavourable conditions
3. the mRNA cannot cross the nuclear pore complex 3. the general metabolic activity of the embryo slows
4. translation of the mRNA molecule is prevented down
4. the seed dies
38. Name the scientist:
I. He studied the tobacco mosaic virus. 44. Liliaceae:
II. He succeeded in extracting the virus in the form of pure 1. is a family of dicotyledonous plants
crystals in 1935. 2. is distributed in a highly restricted rand of specific
III. He was able to show that the tobacco mosaic virus is temperate climates
composed of protein and RNA. 3. is characterized by floral characters such as tepal, six
1. D. J. Ivanowsky [3+3]; stamen, six [3+3], epitepalous
2. W. M. Stanley 4. includes economically important plants such as
3. M. W. Beijerenik sunhemp, lupin and indigofera
4. Louis Pasteur
45. Regarding pteridophytes:
39. A lot of carbon is fixed annually in the biosphere I. They are the first terrestrial plants to possess true
through photosynthesis. It is estimated that this amount is vascular tissue
close to: II. Main plant is sporophyte
1. 4 X 1013 kg III. Water is required for transfer of antherozoids
1. Only II is incorrect
2. 4 X 1031 kg
2. Only I is correct
3. 4 X 1021 kg 3. I and II are incorrect
4. 4 X 103 kg 4. I, II and III are correct

40. In plants: 46. Pusa Snowball K-1 is the variety of:

1. Both growth and differentiation are ‘open’ 1. Brassica resistant to white rust
2. Root elongating at a constant rate is geometric growth 2. Cauliflower resistant to black rot and curl blight black
3. Extension growth with the help of water does not take rot
place 3. Okra resistant to shoot and fruit borer
4. Development if independent of any external factors 4. Brassica resistant to aphids

41. Which of the following pteridophytes does not belong 47. Identify the incorrect statement:
to the same class as the other three? 1. Noise was included as a pollutant in the Air [Prevention
1. Dryopteris and Control of Pollution] Act in 1981
2. Pteris 2. Montreal Protocol was signed in 1987
3. Adiantum 3. The ‘Earth Summit’ was held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992
4. Equisetum 4. The world Summit on Sustainable Development was
held in 2002 in Johannesburg
42. In both lactate fermentation and alcohol fermentation:
1. glucose is completely oxidized under aerobic conditions 48. Identify the incorrectly matched row:
2. carbon dioxide is produced Extinct animal Category Country/Continent
3. about 70 percent of energy trapped in glucose is
released 1. Dodo Bird Mauritius
4. NADH + H+ is reoxidized to NAD+ Subspecies of
2. Quagga India
Zebra
3. Thylacine Marsupial Australia
Stellar’s sea
4. Mammal Russia
cow

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 AIIMS Level Test (05-Jun) Full Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
49. Regarding the formation and activity of cambial ring 54. Identify the incorrect statement regarding allergy:
during secondary growth in a dicot stem: 1. It is an exaggerated response of the immune system
I. The cells of medullary rays, adjoining intrafascicular 2. Antibodies produced in response to allergens are of
cambium become meristematic. IgA type
II. It is generally more active on the inner side than on the 3. It can be caused by release of chemicals like
outer. histamine by mast cells
1. Only I is correct 4. Steroids can quickly reduce the symptoms of allergy
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect 55. Both AIDS and Hepatitis B infections in humans:
1. are acute fatal infections
50. Select the statements that will be true for C4 plants: 2. are easily cured if detected early
I. Calvin cycle takes place in Bundle sheath cells 3. can be transmitted by a mosquito vector
II. Number of carbon atoms in the primary carbon dioxide 4. can be transmitted through sexual contact or infected
acceptor is 5 blood
III. Initial carboxylation reaction occurs in mesophyll cells
IV. Primary carbon dioxide fixation product is oxaloacetic
acid 56. Regarding the human kidney:
1. Only I, II and III 1. glomerulus is a tuft of capillaries formed by the
2. Only I, III and IV efferent arteriole
3. Only II, III and IV 2. vasa recta is highly reduced in juxtamedullary
4. I, II, III and IV nephrons
3. DCTs of many nephrons open into a straight tube
called collecting duct
Zoology - Section A 4. columns of Bertini are extensions of medulla into the
51. Which of the following animals belongs to the cortex
subphylum Vertebrata?
1. Doliolum
2. Branchistoma 57. Which of the following is not a lipid?
3. Petromyzon 1. Palmitic acid
4. Salpa 2. Glutamic acid
3. Cholesterol
4. Lecithin
52. Osteoporosis, commonly seen in post menopausal
women, is commonly caused by:
1. low levels of calcium ions in blood 58. During oogenesis:
2. decreased levels of oestrogens 1. meiosis I is completed before birth
3. autoimmune destruction of joints and cartilages 2 meiosis I, when completed results in equal sized
4. accumulation of uric acid crystals daughter cells
3. meiosis II results in the unequal sized cells
4. meiosis II is completed just before ovulation
53. Intercalated discs are:
1. flattened interconnected smooth ER in muscle fibre
2. communication junctions between cardiac muscle 59. Identify the hormone that is not correctly matched
cells with its function:
3. cell junctions that hold smooth muscle cells together 1. Parathyroid Increases calcium levels in the
in a unit hormone blood
4. dorsoventrally flattened mitochondria in a skeletal 2. Aldosterone Stimulates reabsorption of sodium
muscle cell at the renal tubules
3. Insulin Enhances cellular glucose uptake
and utilization
4. Cortisol Enhances cellular amino acids
uptake and utilization

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 AIIMS Level Test (05-Jun) Full Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
60. Identify the incorrectly matched pair: 67. What is not correct regarding malpighian tubules in
1. Golgi Formation of glycoproteins and cockroaches?
apparatus glycolipids 1. They are present at the junction of midgut and
2. Rough ER Synthesis of steroidal hormones in hindgut
animal cells 2. They are lined by glandular and ciliated cells
3. Lysosomes Carry acid hydrolases 3. They are 100-150 in number and arranged in a ring-
4. Nucelolus Site for active rRNA synthesis like manner
4. Though they are excretory structures, they do not
have osmoregulatory functions
61. Which of the following will not be seen in any
Cnidarian?
1. Metagenesis 68. Which of the following drugs is a very effective
2. Cnodicytes sedative and painkiller, acts on its receptors in CNS and
3. Bilateral symmetry in larva GIT and is also a CNS suppressant?
4. Tentacles 1. Morphine
2. Marijuana
3. Cocaine
62. The partial pressure of oxygen is expected to be least 4. Atropine
in:
1. Atmospheric air
2. Alveoli 69. Identify the incorrect statement:
3. Oxygenated blood 1. Notochord is derived from embryonic mesoderm
4. Tissues 2. Stomochord in hemochordate is actually notochord
3. Chordates have a post-anal tail
4. Pharynx is perforated by gill slits in chordates
63. A motor neuron, at the neuromuscular junction,
releases a neurotransmitter that is:
1. Epinephrine 70. Thermus aquaticus is the source bacterium of:
2. Acetylcholine 1. a heat-resistant enzyme used in PCR
3. Dopamine 2. an acid-resistant enzyme used in biological detergents
4. Serotonin 3. a reporter enzyme used in recombinant procedures
4. a key enzyme involved in ELISA

64. All the following are examples of genetic disorders

with aneuploidy except: 71. With the help of ELISA, infection by pathogen can be
1. Down’s syndrome detected by the presence in a sample of:
2. Cushing’s syndrome I. antigens of the pathogen
3. Klinefelter syndrome II. antibodies synthesized against the pathogen
4. Turner’s syndrome 1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Both I and II
65. Fallopian tubes are lined with: 4. Neither I nor II
1. Cuboidal ciliated epithelium
2. Cuboidal brush bordered epithelium
3. Columnar ciliated epithelium 72. The thymus:
4. Columnar brush bordered epithelium 1. is located dorsal to the heart and aorta
2. is very small in size at birth and gradually increases in
size after puberty
66. Pouched mammals of Australia survived because: 3. provides the site for interaction of lymphocytes with
1. they all are top predators in a food chain the antigen
2. they are all herbivores and hence get to feed on large 4. is a primary lymphoid organ in the human body
amounts of available primary production
3. of lack of competition from any other mammals
4. the Australian environment is not conducive for the
survival of true placental mammals

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 AIIMS Level Test (05-Jun) Full Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
73. Which of the following hormones does not generate 79. Match blood cells given in Column I with their most
second messenger in their target cells? important function in Column II and select the correct
1. Insulin match from the codes given:
2. Parathyroid hormone COLUMN I COLUMN II
3. Triiodothyronine A Neutrophils P Phagocytosis
4. Adrenaline B Basophils Q Inflammatory reactions
C Lymphocytes R Immune responses
D Thrombocytes S Coagulation of blood
74. Amyloplasts, Leucoplasts and Aleuroplasts are:
1. Chromoplasts containing accessory photosynthetic Codes:
pigments A B C D
2. Pro-plastids capable of developing into any types of
1. P Q R S
plastids
2. Q P S R
3. Plastids found in green algae, photosynthesizing
bacteria and protists 3. R S P Q
4. Types of leucoplasts that store nutrients 4. S R Q P

75. Treatment with divalent cations, ice, and heat shock

are used in the transformation of certain: 80. Identify the incorrect statement:
1. Dicot plant cells 1. Mollusks and arthropods have closed circulatory
2. Monocot plant cells system
3. Bacterial cells 2. All vertebrates possess a muscular chambered heart
4. Animal cells 3. In fishes, the heart pumps out deoxygenated blood
4. The left atrium receives oxygenated blood in
amphibians and reptiles
76. Sticky ends produced by certain restriction
endonucleases are so named because:
1. they form hydrogen bonds with their complementary 81. To produce recombinant human insulin, the
cut counterparts pharmaceutical company Eli Lily:
2. they allow a host cell to retain a large number of 1. produced chains A and B together, cleaved them and
copies of vector DNA combined them by disulfide bonds
3. they act as selectable markers to isolate transformed 2. produced chains A and B separately, extracted and
cells combined by creating disulfide bonds
4. they form covalent phosphodiester bonds with their 3. produced chains A and B together, cleaved them and
complementary cut counterparts combined them by hydrogen bonds
4. produced chains A and B separately, extracted and
combined by creating hydrogen bonds
77. In an animal cell, hydrolases active at acidic pH are
richly found in:
1. Lysosomes 82. Identify the stage of meiotic cells division which is
2. Centrosome followed by cytokinesis leading to the formation of a dyad
3. Peroxisomes of cells:
4. Glyoxysomes 1. Anaphase I
2. Telophase I
3. Anaphase II
78. Each time the sodium-potassium pump works, it 4. Telophase II
pumps:
1. the anions as well with sodium to the outside
2. the anions as well with potassium to the inside 83. Gastric secretions in humans do not include:
3. 3 sodium ions outwards 1. the hormone Gastrin
4. 3 potassium ions inwards 2. a factor essential for absorption of vitamin B12
3. a gastric amylase
4. a proenzyme pepsinogen

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 AIIMS Level Test (05-Jun) Full Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
84. A person with HIV infection starts suffering from 90. In Eukaryotes, during transcription, the introns:
infections, that could have been otherwise overcome, 1. represent the coding sequence of eukaryotic split gene
when the virus significantly destroys: 2. are loosely defined as regulatory genes
1. Macrophages 3. do not appear in mature or processed RNA
2. Helper T cells 4. provide site of attachment for RNA polymerase
3. Cytotoxic T cells
4. B cells 91. Predators play very important roles in an ecosystem
that include:
I. They act as conduit of energy
85. The lineage Synapsids → Pelycosaurs → Therapsids II. They keep prey population under check
evolved into: III. They maintain species diversity in a community
1. Crocodiles 1. Only I and II
2. Turtles 2. Only I and III
3. Birds 3. Only II and III
4. Mammals 4. I, II and III

92. Which of the following is not correct regarding

Variable Number of Tandem Repeats in a DNA sample?
Zoology - Section B 1. Show very high degree of polymorphism
86. At the alveoli: 2. Belong to a class of satellite DNA referred to as mini-
I. The factors are all favourable for the formation of satellites
oxyhemoglobin 3. Vary in size from 100 kb to 1000 kb
II. Carbon dioxide trapped as bicarbonate at the tissue 4. Are used in a technique of DNA fingerprinting
level is released out as carbon dioxide.
1. Only I is correct 93. Km value of an enzyme signifies the substrate
2. Only II is correct concentration at which the enzyme catalyzed reaction:
3. Both I and II are correct 1. achieves Vmax
4. Both I and II are incorrect 2. achieves ½ Vmax
3. is not affected by the presence of a competitive
inhibitor
87. The chylomicrons transported from the intestine by the 4. stops
lymph vessels:
1. are delivered first to liver for first pass metabolism 94. During the concentration of urine by human kidneys:
2. are released ultimately into the blood stream I. Small amounts of urea is transported back to medullary
3. are first incorporated into micelles which move into the interstitium by ascending portion of vasa recta
intestinal mucosa II. NaCl is returned to the medullary interstitium by the
4. are fat coated protein globules formed in the intestinal descending portion of vasa recta
epithelial cells 1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
88. If a molecule that can act as a genetic material should 3. Both I and II are correct
be able to generate its replica, which of the following 4. Both I and II are incorrect
molecules can act as a genetic material?
I. Proteins 95. The ratios between Adenine and Thymine and
II. DNA Guanine and Cytosine are constant and equal one for a:
III. RNA 1. ss RNA
1. Only I and II 2. dsRNA
2. Only I and III 3. dsDNA
3. Only II and III 4. ssDNA
4. I, II and III
96. In a cardiac cycle, joint diastole state correctly means:
89. Meselson and Stahl were able to distinguish heavy 1. only the two atria are in a relaxed state
DNA molecules from the normal DNA by: 2. only the two ventricles are in a relaxed state
15
1. growing them in radioactive NH4Cl environment 3. ventricles and atria are in a relaxed state
2. centrifugation in a CsCl density gradient 4. only the left atrium and the left ventricle are in a
relaxed state
3. radioactive tagging with 32P
4. agarose gel electrophoresis
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 AIIMS Level Test (05-Jun) Full Syllabus
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97. Diminished ability of kidney concentrate urine leading 104. How many alcohol structural isomers are possible of
to dehydration can be due to: molecular formula C H O ? 4 10

1. Increased secretion of ADH 1. 3

2. Decreased secretion of ADH 2. 4
3. Increased secretion of Insulin 3. 7
4. Decreased secretion of ANF 4. 8

98. Which of the following steps would be most important 105. The correct relation for Van der Waals constants 'a'
to check the population growth rate of our country? and 'b' for N and N H will be
2 3

1. Statutory ban on amniocentesis 1. a > a

N2 N H3 ,b > b
N2 N H3

2. Increasing age of marriage for females 2. a < a

N2 N H3 ,b < b
N2 N H3

3. Allowing MTP till 28 weeks of pregnancy 3. a > a

N2 N H3
,b < b
N2 N H3

4. Motivating couples for using various contraceptive 4. a < a

N2 N H3 ,b > b
N2 N H3
methods
106. The formal charge of N in N O is −

99. In bacteria, the formation of peptide bond is catalyzed 3

1. Zero
by a ribozyme that is a part of the:
2. -1
1. 50S (23S component) ribosome subunit
3. +1
2. 30S (28S component) ribosome subunit
4. -3
3. 60S (28S component) ribosome subunit
4. 40S (23S component) ribosome subunit
107. When excess of AgN O and KI are added in a 3

freshly prepared precipitate of AgI, which one of the

100. In the lac operon:
following is formed?
1. the repressor of the operon is synthesized constitutively
1. Positively charged colloid
2. glucose and galactose act as inducers
2. Negatively charged colloid
3. the lac y gene codes for beta galactosidase
3. Positively charged precipitate
4. regulation by repressor is positive regulation
4. Negatively charged precipitate

Chemistry - Section A 108. 10.6 gm N a CO is dissolved in 250 ml H O . The

101. When aqueous solution of N aCl is electrolyzed
2 3 2

molarity of N a ions and CO

+
in this solution, 2−

using inert electrodes then the ion discharged at cathode 3

and anode, respectively, are respectively, are

1. N a and OH
+ − 1. 0.4 M and 0.2 M
2. H and OH
+ − 2. 0.8 M and 0.4 M
3. H and Cl
+ − 3. 0.4 M and 0.4 M
4. N a and Cl
+ − 4. 0.4 M and 0.8 M

102. When aluminium is made to react with an excess of 109. For the reaction, 2O ⇌ 3O , 3 2

N aOH , a soluble complex of aluminium is formed. In

mechanism of the above reaction is:
O3 ⇌ O2 + O . . . . . . . . F ast
the soluble complex of aluminium , aluminium exists in
1. Anionic part O + O3 → 2O2 . . . . . . . Slow

2. Cationic part The order with respect to O 3

and O2 , respectively, will be
3. Both cationic as well as anionic part 1. 1 and 0
4. Neutral complex 2. 2 and -1
3. 2 and 0
103. The aqueous solution of N aH SO will be
3
4. 1 and -1
1. Acidic
2. Alkaline 110. For the reaction, N + 3H → 2N H , the rate of
2 2 3

3. Slightly alkaline disappearance of H is 6 × 10 mole litre-1 min-1. The

2
−4

4. Slightly acidic rate of appearance of N H will be 3

1. 2 × 10 mole litre min

−4 −1 −1

2. 4 × 10 mole litre min

−4 −1 −1

3. 6 × 10 mole litre min

−4 −1 −1

4. 3 × 10 mole litre min

−4 −1 −1

Page: 9
 AIIMS Level Test (05-Jun) Full Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
111. The packing efficiency in case of simple cubic unit 118. In the reaction:
cell is-

1. 2π

2. π

3
,
the compound 'B' is
3. π

4. π

1.
112. In the upper zone of blast furnace, the reducing agent
in the metallurgy of iron from haematite is
1. C
2. CO
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. H 2

2.
113. 100 ml of H Cl (pH=1) is mixed with 150 ml of
H Cl (pH =2). The pH of the resulting solution will be

1. 1.35
2. 1.5
3. 1.8
4. 1.9

114. In which of the following point defects, the density of

crystal is unaffected?
1. Schottky defect
3.
2. Frenkel defect
3. F-center defect
4. Metal deficiency defect

115. Which one of the following ions has highest 4.

hydration energy?
1. M g 2+
119. In the boiling of egg, entropy
2. Li +
1. decreases
3. Be 2+
2. increases
4. N a +
3. remains unchanged
4. cannot be predicted
116. In the preparation of H O , when 50% H SO the
2 2 2 4

solution is electrolysed, the ion discharged at the anode is 120. When magnesium is burnt in the air, the product
1. SO 2− formed is
4

2. OH − 1. M gO
3. H SO − 2. M g N
3 2
4
3. M gO + M g N
4. Cl − 3 2

4. No reaction takes place

117. Which compound does not give Lassaigne's test for 121. In the equilibrium Ice ⇌ water, on increasing the
nitrogen? pressure melting point of ice
1. Urea 1. decreases
2. H N OH2
2. increases
3. C H N O
6
5
−
2
3. doesn't change
4. C H N H
6
−

5 2 4. first increases and then decreases

Page: 10
 AIIMS Level Test (05-Jun) Full Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
122. In which of the following cases, value of the Van't 128. The correct graph representing the frequency of
Hoff factor (i) is the highest? incident radiation (ν) and the kinetic energy of the ejected
1. N aCl (dissociation = 90%) electron (K.E.) will be
2. CaF (dissociation = 80%)
2

3. K [F e(CN ) ] (dissociation = 50%)

4 6

4. AlCl (dissociation = 70%)

3

123. The nature of photochemical smog is

1. Oxidising
2. Reducing
3. Both oxidising as well as reducing 1.
4. Neither oxidising nor reducing

124. When propane is reacted with concentrated H N O 3

at 400 − 500 C then a mixture of all the possible lower

o

mono nitro alkanes are formed. The number of mono nitro

alkanes are
1. 2 2.
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

125. The shape of XeF +

5
will be
1. Square pyramidal
2. Square planar
3. Trigonal bipyramidal 3.
4. Octahedral

126. Methanol and Acetone are separated by

1. Fractional distillation
2. Steam distillation
3. Vacuum distillation
4. Azeotropic distillation
4.
127. Which one of the following has the greatest number
of moles at NTP?
129. Heat at constant volume and heat at constant
1. 50 ml CH 4
pressure, respectively, are
2. 150 ml N 2
1. ΔG and ΔH
3. 10 ml H O2
2. ΔH and ΔE
4. 200 ml CO 2
3. ΔE and ΔH
4. ΔE and ΔG

130. In Heisenberg's uncertainty principle, if uncertainty

in the position (Δx) is equal to the uncertainty in the
momentum (Δp) then uncertainty in the velocity (Δv)
will be
1. 1

m
√
h

2π

2. 1

2m
√
h

3. 1

m
√
h

4. 1

2m
√
2π
h

Page: 11
 AIIMS Level Test (05-Jun) Full Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
131. Which one of the following elements has the highest 137. Which compound is the most reactive towards
3rd ionization potential? aromatic nucleophilic substitution reaction?
1. Na
2. Mg
3. Al
4. Si

132. Which of the following solutions has the highest

osmotic pressure? 1.
1. 1% glucose solution
2. 1% urea solution
3. 1% sucrose solution
4. All of the above have the same osmotic pressure

133. In which of the following cells, the e.m.f of the cell

will be the highest? 2.
2+ 2+
Zn|Zn ||Cu |Cu
1.
(1M )(0.1M )
2+ 2+
Zn|Zn ||Cu |Cu
2. (0.1M )(1M )

2+ 2+
Zn|Zn ||Cu |Cu
3.
(0.01M )(2M )

3.
2+ 2+
Zn|Zn ||Cu |Cu
4. (0.2M )(1M )

134. In Caro's acid (H 2 SO5 ) , the oxidation number of 'S'

will be
1. +8
2. +7
3. +6 4.
4. +5

135. The hybridised state of boron in diborane (B 2 H6 ) is

1. sp
2. sp 2

3. sp 3

4. sp as well as sp
2 3

Chemistry - Section B
136. When BCl is hydrolyzed then an acid of boron is
3

formed. The basicity of the acid is

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

Page: 12
 AIIMS Level Test (05-Jun) Full Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
138. Which of the following compounds gets 139. Given the following reaction
decarboxylated most readily?
1.
O

||

CH3 − C − CH − COOH
The compound 'A' in the above reaction is
|

Cl

2.
O
1.
||

CH3 − C − CH − COOH

N H2

2.
3.
O

||

CH3 − C − CH − COOH

| 3.
N O2

4.
O

||
4.
CH3 − C − CH − COOH
140. Victor Meyer Test is used to distinguish primary (1°),
| secondary (2°) and Tertiary (3°) ......
CH3 1. Alcohols
2. Alkyl halides
3. Nitro alkanes
4. All of the above

141. The number of optical isomers for glucose (open

chain structure) are
1. 8
2. 10
3. 12
4. 16

142. The radioactive lanthanoid, amongst the following,

is-
1. Ce (z=58)
2. Nd (z = 60)
3. Pm (z=61)
4. Eu (z = 63)

143. Alkyl isocyanide is hydrolysed in

1. Acidic medium
2. Alkaline medium
3. Acidic as well as alkaline medium
4. Neither acidic nor alkaline medium
Page: 13
 AIIMS Level Test (05-Jun) Full Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
144. The most acidic oxyacid of phosphorous is
1. H P O
3 4
Physics - Section A
2. H P O 3 151. A mango falling from a height H from a tree is
3. H P O
4 2 7 observed from a car moving with a uniform velocity u,g.
4. H P O
3 2 along a road, that passes underneath. The mango hits the
car. Assume the size of the car to be negligible, and the
145. The monomer unit of cellulose is acceleration due to gravity to be
1. α − D Glucose
2. β − D Glucose
3. α − D Glucose + β − D Glucose
4. Fructose

146. The biodegradable polymer, amongst the following,

is
1. PVC
2. PHBV
3. Teflon Initially, the distance of the car from the tree was d. Then,
4. Bakelite
2 2

1. u
=
d

147. At room temperature, 3 moles of formaldehyde

g 2H
2 2

polymerise to give a product. The name of the product is 2. u

=
g
d

4H

1. Para-formaldehyde 3.
u
2

=
H
2

2. Meta-formaldehyde g
2
2d
2

4.
u H

3. Formalin g
=
4d

4. None of the above

152. The block, shown in the figure, is suspended as
148. The hybridisation and effective atomic number shown from two identical steel wires. The extension in the
(EAN) of the central atom in [N i(CO) )] ,respectively,
4 wires due to the tension is Δl . If the block is suspended
1

are by one of the wires the extension in it is Δl2 . Then

Δl1

1. dsp and 34
2 Δl2

equals
2. dsp and 36
2

3. sp and 34
3

4. sp and 36
3

149. When phenol is exposed to air, it converts into a

coloured compound. The colour of the compound is
1. Red
2. Pink
3. Blue
4. Green

150. Which of the following compounds can show

geometrical isomerism?
1. [P t(N H ) Cl ] 3 2 2
1. 1

2. [Zn(N H ) Cl ] 3 2 2
2. 2

3. [P t(N H ) Cl] 3 3 3. √2

4. Both (1) and (2) 4. 1

Page: 14
 AIIMS Level Test (05-Jun) Full Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
153. Sinusoidal sound waves of the same frequency 155. A mango falling from a height H from a tree is
travelling in air along the x-axis and the y-axis arrive in observed from a car moving with a uniform velocity u,
phase with each other at the origin. Their amplitudes are along a road, that passes underneath. The mango hits the
equal to A (each). The amplitude of the vibration at the car. Assume the size of the car to be negligible, and the
origin is acceleration due to gravity to be g.

The relative speed of the mango when it hits the car is

1. u + √2gH
1. A
2. u − √2gH
2. √2A
3. √u
2
+ 2gH
3. 2A
4. √u
2
− 2gH
4. (2 + √2)A

156. Which of the following, is dimensionless?

154. A balloon ascending with an acceleration a has a
ballast of mass m thrown out, and it is observed to move pressure
upward with double the acceleration. The mass of the 1. density acceleration×

remaining part (after the ballast is thrown out) is density pressure×

2.
speed
viscosity×speed
3.
surface tension
surface tension
4. 2
(speed)

157. The fundamental frequencies of a closed pipe and an

open pipe are identical. The first overtone for the closed
fc
pipe is f and for the open pipe is f . Their ratio
c o is
fo

1. 1

1. m
g+2a 2. 1

2
g+a
g+a 3. 2

2. m
g
3

g+a 4. 3

3. m
a
2

g+2a
4. m
g
158. An ideal gas forms the working substance of a Carnot
engine, and is taken around the Carnot cycle. We form the
dQ
integral: I = ∫ ,
T

where dQ is the heat supplied to the gas and T is the

temperature of the gas. The integral is evaluated over the
entire cycle. The value of the integral I is

1. zero
2. negative
3. positive
4. non-negative(positive or zero)

Page: 15
 AIIMS Level Test (05-Jun) Full Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
159. The 1 kg–block strikes the 2 kg–block, and the first 162. A 20 V-cell delivers the same power to a 2 Ω resistor
block is brought to rest immediately after impact. The as it does to an 8 Ω resistor. The internal resistance of the
coefficient of restitution is cell is

1. 2 Ω

2. 4 Ω

3. 6 Ω

4. 1.6 Ω

163. A long thin wire of length L carrying a current i, is

1. 1
wrapped uniformly around a long solenoid of volume V .
2. 1

2 The radius of the solenoid is r. The magnetic field at its

3. 1
center is
3

4. 1

6 μ0 L r i
1.
V

160. A small thin tube is connected to two soap bubbles, 2. μ0 L r i

one of radius R and the other radius r — so that the air in 2π V

μ0 L r i
the two bubbles can flow through the tube. Then, air will 3. 2V
flow μ0 L r i
4.
4π V

164. The left plate A of an air capacitor is connected to

the positive terminal while the right plate B is connected
to the negative terminal of a cell of voltage V . Assume
0
1. from the larger bubble to the smaller bubble, until the that the plate area is A, and the plate separation is d. If a
two are of equal size. slab of dielectric constant K be inserted into the space
2. from the large bubble to the smaller bubble initially, between the plates, the electric field in the dielectric will
and the smaller becomes larger; then the flow is reversed. be (compared to the air capacitor)
3. from the smaller bubble to the larger until the smaller
bubble becomes very small.
4. from the larger to the smaller bubble and it bursts the
smaller bubble.

161. A current i flows through a semi-circular loop of

radius r, attached to two long straight wires along the
open diameter of the loop. The magnetic field at the center
of the loop is
1. more.
2. less.
3. equal.
4. more or less or equal depending on the value of K .

165. A magnetic needle suspended in the earth's magnetic

field shows a dip of 45 . The horizontal component of the
∘

1.
μ0 i

4r earth's magnetic field is B . The magnetic field of the

H

2.
μ0 i
+
μ0 i
earth equals
4r 2πr
μ0 i μ0 i
3. 4r
+
4πr 1. BH
1
2 2
2.
BH

4.
μ0 i μ0 i 2

[( ) + ( ) ]
√2
4r 4πr

3. BH √2

4. 2BH

Page: 16
 AIIMS Level Test (05-Jun) Full Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
166. Blackbody radiation emerging from a body at an 169. The bob (mass : m) of a simple pendulum is
absolute temperate T is allowed to fall on an ideal gas suspended from a long wire of length L. When this bob is
enclosed in a transparent vessel until its temperature submerged in a fluid of density ρ, it is observed by means
reaches a steady state value of T . Then,
1 of a careful measurement that the extension in the wire is
halved. The volume of bob is

1. T = T
1

2. T > T
1

3. T < T
1

4. any of the above may be true.

1. m

167. A block A is placed on a spring and causes it to be

ρ

compressed; when another block B is placed on top of the 2.

2m

first one the compression increases by 125%. The time 3.

m

2ρ

period of small oscillations is T when A is present, and 4.

A
3m

is T , when both A & B are present. Then,

AB
2ρ

170. Assertion (A): As a gas bubble rises from the bottom

of a lake, its volume decreases.
Reason (R): As the gas bubble rises from the bottom of a
lake-the pressure of the gas within decreases.

1. (A) is true but (R) is false.

2. (A) is false but (R) is true.
3. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
4. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
1. TAB =
3

2
TA explanation of (A).
√5
2. TAB = TA
2 171. A ball is thrown up with a speed u at an angle of 60°
3. TAB =
1

2
TA with the horizontal; the thrower of the ball runs with a
4. TAB =
2
TA
uniform speed v and stops suddenly when he reaches a
3
certain point. He observes that the ball is at its maximum
height, and then waits until it reaches him. Then
168. The equivalent capacitance of the circuit between the
points A and B is equal to
1. v = 4u

2. v = 2u

3. v = u

4. v < u

172. A railway engine moving at a speed of 144 km/h

emits a whistle, the frequency of vibration being 200 Hz.
The speed of sound in air is 320 m/s. The wavelength of
the sound waves moving forward from the engine is
1. 2 C

2. 3C

2
1. 1.6 m
3. 3C
2. 1.4 m

4. 5C 3. 1.8 m
2
4. √(1.6)
2
+ (0.2)
2
m

Page: 17
 AIIMS Level Test (05-Jun) Full Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
173. A horizontal force F is applied to a uniform solid 176. A non-conducting circular plate is uniformly charged
sphere at rest, so that its line of action passes through the and the potential at its center is V . If all the charge is
0

mid-point (P ) of the vertical radius OA; O being the collected and kept at its edge, then the potential will be
centre of the sphere (mass : m). The acceleration of the
uppermost point A is 1. 2V0

2.
V0

3.
V0

3
V0
4.
√2

177. A force F = F + kx (where x is the rightward

0
1

displacement of the block A) acts on the block A as

shown in the figure. The spring is initially unextended and
1. equal to F
.
the block is at rest. There is no friction anywhere. The
m
maximum extension in the spring is
2. greater than F

m
.

3. less than . F

4. unpredictable, and depends on the radius of the sphere.

174. The kinetic energy of a rolling wheel (uniform disc)

F0
of mass m, moving with a speed v equals 1. k

2.
2F0

1.
1 2 k
mv
2 4F0

2. mv
2 3. k

4.
F0
3.
1 2
mv
4 2k

4. 3

4
mv
2

178. The current flowing through the left 20 Ω resistor is

175. One end of the vertical spring is fixed to the ground,
while the other end is connected to a ring of mass m, that
can slide on a fixed smooth horizontal rod. The ring is
given a velocity v so that it moves to the right up to a
distance h, the length of spring in its initial unextended
position. The speed v equals

1. 1 A
2. 0.5 A
3. 2.5 A
4. 3 A

1. √
kh

2
k(√2−1)h
2. √
m

3.
kh
(√2 + 1)√
m

4. (√2 − 1)√
kh

Page: 18
 AIIMS Level Test (05-Jun) Full Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
179. The two blocks A, B have identical masses and are 181. A particle of mass m is placed at the mid-point of the
placed on a smooth horizontal plane. The pulley P is radius of a thin uniform spherical shell of mass M , as
light, and is rigidly connected to the block A by means of shown in the figure. Consider the plane that slices the
a horizontal light rod. The string connecting block B is shell into two parts: the plane is perpendicular to the
also horizontal. A force F is acting vertically on the radius and passes through m. The upper part of the shell
string, and the two blocks move horizontally. The force on has a mass and the lower part
M
. Let the
3M

A due to rod is
4 4

gravitational force exerted by the upper part of the shell

on the particle be F . The force exerted by the lower part
of the shell on the particle is

1. F

2. 2F

3. √2F
1. 3 F
4. F

2. 2 F
√2

3. 4 F

180. A straight horizontal wire of mass m and length l, 4.F

and having a negligible resistance can slide freely on a

pair of conducting parallel rails, placed vertically. The 182. Equal and opposite charges are placed at the two
rails are connected at the top by a capacitor C. A uniform vertices of an equilateral triangle, giving a dipole moment
magnetic field B exists in the region, perpendicular to the p. A small dipole p is placed at the third vertex, parallel
′

plane of the rails. The wire to the previous dipole. If the electric fields due to both
dipoles p, p , at the mid-point of the dipole p, are equal,
′

′
p
then p
equals

1. 3√3
3√3
2. 2

3. √3
√3
4. 2

183. The pressure of an ideal gas (γ =

3
) is increased
2

1. falls with uniform velocity. by 1% in an adiabatic process. The temperature of the gas
2. accelerates down with acceleration less than g.
3. accelerates down with acceleration equal to g. 1. increases by 1.5%
4. moves down and eventually comes to rest. 2. decreases by 1.5%
3. increases by %
1

4. increases by 2

3
%

184. A projectile of mass m is fired at a speed u at an

angle θ with the horizontal. The rate of change of
momentum of the projectile along its direction of initial
motion is

1. −mg

2. −mg sinθ

3. −mg cosθ

4. −mg cotθ

Page: 19
 AIIMS Level Test (05-Jun) Full Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
185. Air flows past a windmill at a constant speed v, the 188. The input signals at A and B are as follows:
area swept by the blades being A. Assume that the At A : 0011010
windmill extracts a constant fraction of the energy of the At B : 1001101
air that flows past it. The power generated by the windmill
varies with v as

1. v
−1

2. v
1

3. v
2

4. v
3

The output at Y is

Physics - Section B 1. 1001101

2. 0011010
186. An empty cylindrical beaker whose height is equal to
3. 1101001
its diameter is kept on a table. An observer's eye(E)
4. 0110010
looking towards S (line of sight: ES ) can see the point Q
on the lower right. The angle of view, θ, is the angle the 189. In the circuit shown in the adjacent diagram, D
1, D2
line of sight ES, makes with the vertical RS -extended. A are ideal diodes and r's are small resistances. Then
transparent liquid is now slowly poured into the beaker.
As the liquid level rises in the beaker, the line of sight has
to be continually adjusted (by increasing angle θ) in order
to keep Q visible. When the liquid fills the beaker to the
brim, Q can no more be seen by adjusting the line of sight
ES. The minimum refractive index of the liquid should be

1. no current flows in the circuit

2. current flows anticlockwise
3. current flows clockwise
4. current only flows through D and not through D
2 1

190. An incident light beam of power P falls on a flat

surface, at an angle of incidence of 60 . 50% of the beam
∘

1.
3

2
is absorbed and the remaining reflected. The force exerted
2. 2 on the surface is
3.
3
√
2

4. √2

187. Which of the following situation(s), can cause the

radiation of an electromagnetic wave?

(A) A varying sinusoidal current flowing through a

capacitor 1. P

(B) An electric dipole, whose size (and magnitude) is

c

2. P

oscillating with time 2c

(C) A steady current flowing through a toroid 3.

√3P

√3P

1. Only A 4. 2c

2. Only B
3. Only A & B
4. A, B, C Page: 20
 AIIMS Level Test (05-Jun) Full Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
191. An equilateral triangular prism of glass (μ = 1.5) is 194. Under what conditions will diode D conduct?
1

placed in air. A ray of light is incident normally onto the

surface AB. The ray will finally emerge

1. VA > VB + V0

2. VA < VB + V0

3. VA > VB − V0

4. VA < VB − V0

1. normally from the surface BC. 195. An inductor of 0.1 H is connected with a 10 Ω
2. normally from the surface AC. resistance in series with it, as shown in the figure. A dc-
3. either from the surface BC or AC, normally. source of emf 20 V and an ac-source of emf 20 V(rms) are
4. either from the surface BC or AC, at an angle of separately connected across AB. The ac-frequency is
emergence greater than 60 but less than 90 .
∘ ∘

Hz. 50

192. An electron of mass m (charge e) moves in a circular

orbit in a uniform magnetic field. Assume that Bohr's law
of quantisation of angular momentum is valid for the
electron. The minimum possible magnetic flux (flux of
magnetic field) through the electron's orbit is

1. h

e
Let the dc-energy stored in the inductor be U (after a long
2. h

2e time) and the average energy stored in the inductor (with

3. 2h

e the ac-source) be U . The ratio

av
Uav
equals
U
4. h

2πe

1. zero
193. Moseley's law for characteristic X-rays states: 2. 1
√ν = a(Z − b). 3. 1

4. 1

(A) a depends on the type of X-rays transition: 4

Kα , Kβ , Lα , Lβ . . .
196. In a Young's double-slit experiment with identical
(B) a is independent of material of cathode.
slits (of slit separation-d, slit to screen distance D), the
(C) b depends on Z.
phase difference between the waves arriving at a point just
opposite to one of the slits is . The source is placed
π

1. All are true 2

2. Only A, B are true symmetrically with respect to the slits. The wavelength of
3. Only B, C are true light is
4. Only B is true 2

1. 2d

D
2

2.
d

2D
2

3. d

D
2

4.
D

Page: 21
 AIIMS Level Test (05-Jun) Full Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
197. A radioactive sample contains two different isotopes 199. Assertion (A): The output power from a transistor
of an element X, both of them are radioactive but they amplifier is much greater than the input power.
have very different half-lives. X has a half-life T and
1 1 Reason (R): This occurs because the power is generated
X has half-life T , T >> T . The activity of the mixture
2 2 1 2 by the electrons moving from the input to the output
is shown in the figure. within the transistor.

1. (A) is true but (R) is false.

2. (A) is false but (R) is true.
3. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
4. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).

200. An inductor of 0.1 H is connected with a 10 Ω

resistance in series with it, as shown in the figure. A dc-
In due course of time the graph is essentially linear. The
source of emf 20 V and an ac-source of emf 20 V (rms)
magnitude of slope of the linear part is
are separately connected across AB. The ac-frequency is
Hz.50

1. ln2

T1
π

2. ln2

T2

3. 1
ln2

(T1 +T2 )
2

4.
1 1
ln2( + )
T1 T2

198. Assume that the corner of O of the room is the Let the dc-current be i (after a long time) and the peak ac-
origin, and the axes x, y, z are along the edges. The three current be i . The ratio equals
i

walls meeting orthogonally at O are perfect mirrors. A ray p

ip

of light travelling parallel to the vector −(^i + 2^j + k)

^
is
incident on the y − z mirror (wall). The emerging ray, 1. 1

after all reflections, will be along 2. √2

3. 1

√2

4. 1

Fill OMR Sheet*

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where you got the pdf and fill OMR from there

1.
2.
^ ^ ^
i − 2j − k

^ ^ ^
i + k − 2j
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3. ^ ^ ^
− i + 2j + k FREE ACCESS for 3
4. ^ ^ ^

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i + 2j + k

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