1.

A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a

HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the
heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is landing
on the same runway in the opposite direction or on a parallel opposite direction runway
separated by. (Checked)
A. 730 m
B. Less than 760 m
C. 760 m or more
D. Less than 730 m

2. A separation minimum of__________ shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft

and a HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when
the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is
landing on the same runway in the opposite direction or on a parallel opposite direction
runway separated by. (Checked)
a. 2 minutes
b. 5 Minutes
c. 10 Minutes
d. 3 Minutes
2. All current civil SSR systems use: (Checked)
A. The same frequency i.e. 1030MHz for transmissions on both directions
B. The same frequency i.e. 1090MHz for transmissions on both directions
C. The same frequencies i.e. 1090MHz for the ground to air transmission and
1030MHz for the air to ground transmission
D. The same frequencies i.e. 1030MHz for the ground to air transmission and 1090MHz
for the air to ground transmission
3. The ground Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) equipment incorporates a transmitter and
receiver respectively operating in the following frequencies: Transmitter ____ Receiver ____:
(Checked)
A. 1090 MHz - 1090 MHz
B. 1030 MHz - 1090 MHz
C. 1030 MHz - 1030 MHz
D. 1090 MHz - 1030 MHz

4. Area Control Centres issue clearances for the purpose of (Checked)

A. Achieving separation between IFR flights
B. Achieving separation between controlled flights
C. Achieving separation between VFR flights
D. Providing flight information service

5. Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates from
the track? (Checked)
A. Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable
B. Notify ATC of the new track immediately and comply with instructions
 C. If VMC, maintain this condition, waiting for the ATC instructions
D. Inform the ATC unit immediately
6. An instrument approach is made up of a number of segments. How many of them are
there? (Checked)
A. 3
B. 6
C. 5
D. 4

7. Who provides assurance between the collision of aircraft with another aircraft or terrain?
(Checked)
A. Pilot
B. FMS
C. Autopilot
D. ATM

8. In alerting services, " Alert phase" when: (Checked)

A. information has been received which indicates that the operating efficiency of the
aircraft has been impaired, but not to the extent that a forced landing is likely, or when
an aircraft has been cleared to land and fails to land within five minutes of the
estimated time of landing and communication has not been re-established with the
aircraft...
B. no communication has been received from an aircraft within a period of thirty
minutes after the time a communication should have been received, or from the time
an unsuccessful attempt to establish communication with such aircraft was first made,
whichever is the earlier, or when an aircraft fails to arrive within thirty minutes of the
estimated time of arrival last notified to or estimated by air traffic services units,
whichever is the later...
C. information is received which indicates that the operating efficiency of the aircraft
has been impaired to the extent that a forced landing is likely, or when the fuel on
board is considered to be exhausted, or to be insufficient to enable the aircraft to reach
safety...
D. information has been received which indicates that the operating efficiency of the
aircraft has been impaired, but not to the extent that a forced landing is likely, or when
the fuel on board is considered to be exhausted, or to be insufficient to enable the
aircraft to reach safety..

9. The airspace between the transition altitude and the transition level: (Checked)
A. Air Route
B. Transition Layer
C. Holding pattern
D. Boundary layer
10. The definition of AIRAC : (Checked)
A. A publication issued by or with the authority of a State and containing aeronautical
information of a lasting character essential to air navigation
B. A special series NOTAM notifying by means of a specific format change in activity
of a volcano, a volcanic eruption and/or volcanic ash cloud that is of significance to
aircraft operations
C. A notice containing information that does not qualify for the origination of a
NOTAM or for inclusion in the AIP, but which relates to flight safety, air navigation,
technical, administrative or legislative matters
D. An acronym signifying a system aimed at advance notification, based on common
effective dates, of circumstances that necessitate significant changes in operating
practices

11. Track separation between aircraft using dead reckoning is at least...and at a distance of...
more from the facility. (Checked)
A. 30 degrees, 15 NM (28 km)
B. 45 degrees, 10 NM (18.5 km)
C. 30 degrees, 10 NM (18.5 km)
D. 45 degrees, 15 NM (28 km)

12. When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same level (Chekced)
A. The aircraft that has the other on its right shall give way
B. Each shall alter its heading to the right
C. The aircraft that has the other on its left shall give way
D. Each shall alter its heading to the left
13. In NOTAM format, in Q item the LOWER/UPPER limit shall be expressed in ... (Checked)
A. Flight level
B. Elevation
C. Altitude
D. Height
14. In non RVSM airspace, An aircraft will be considered to be maintaining FL 290 when SSR
mode C derived level information indicates:
A. 293
B. 294
C. 296
D. 295

15. What is the correct AFTN address of Ho Chi Minh center? (Checked)
A. WTSZTZX
 B. WTSZPZX
C. VVTSZRZX
D. WTSZDZX

16. What is the correct AFTN address of Tan Son Nhat Approach? (Checked)
A. VVTSZRZX
B. VVTSZTZX
C. VVTSZDZX
D. VVTSZAZX

17. A defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a
suitable area in which an aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off" is
the definition for.
A. Runway strip
B. Stopway
C. Clearway
D. Runway

18. VFR flights shall be carried out in compliance with: (Checked)

A. Instrument Filght rules
B. Instrument Filght rules + General rules
C. Visual Flight rules + General rules
D. Visual Flight rules

19. An aircraft has been cleared to land and fails to land within five minutes of the estimated
time of landing and communication has not been reestablished, The aircraft should be
considered in:
A. Emergency phase
B. Distress phase
C. Uncertainty phase
D. Alert phase
20. ICAO Annex 11 defines Area Navigation (RNAV) as a method of navigation which permits
aircraft operation on any desired flight path:
A. outside the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is equipped with a
minimum of two serviceable self-contained navigation aids
B. within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is equipped with a
minimum of one serviceable self-contained navigation aid
C. within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids or within the limits of the capability
of self-contained aids, or a combination of these
D. outside the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is equipped with a
minimum of one serviceable self-contained navigation aid

21. The separation method whereby the vertical and horizontal separation may be reduced till
a maximum of half the standard criteria is called: (checked)
 A. Essential separation
B. Combined separation
C. Composite separation
D. Reduced separation

22. An aircraft is maintaining FL 150 within airspace "class C". Another aircraft below at FL
140 is receiving a instruction to descend to FL 70. It is severe turbulence in the area. When
is the earliest that a instruction to descend to FL 140 or below can be expected? (Checked)
A. When the other aircraft has reported that it has reached FL 70
B. When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 120
C. When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 140
D. When the other aircraft has reported that it has descended through FL 130

23. For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar
separation distance if a heavy aeroplane is following directly behind another heavy
aeroplane on the approach to the same runway (Checked)
A. 2 minutes
B. 5 minutes
C. 3 minutes
D. 4 minutes

24. If the aircraft mass increases, how does the TOD and LDR: (Checked)
A. Increase
B. TOD decrease and LDR increase
C. TOD increase and LDR decrease
D. decrease

25. Refer to the TAF for Bordeaux airport.FCFR31 281400LFBD 1524 26015KT 9999 SHRA
BKN020 TEMPO 1620 26020G30KT 8000 +SHRA BKN015CB PROB30 TSRA. Flight
Lisbon to Bordeaux. ETA 1800 UTC. What type of precipitation is forecast on the approach
to Bordeaux? (Checked)
A. Heavy rain showers
B. Moderate snow showers
C. Continuous moderate rain
D. Light drizzle and fog
(Checked)

26. Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport. TAF EHAM 281500Z 281601 14010KT 6000 -RA
SC1025 BECMG 1010 12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823 3000 RA BKN005
OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKNOZO = Flight from Bordeaux to
Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. At ETA Amsterdam. What surface wind is forecast?
(Checked)
A. 120° / 15 kt gusts 25 kt
B. 300° / 15 kt maximum wind 25 kt
C. 140° / 10 kt
 D. 250° / 20 kt

27. BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001. What visibility is
forecast for 2400 UTC? (Checked)
A. 500 m.
B. 2000 m.
C. Between 500 m and 2000 m.
D. Between 0 m and 1000 m.

28. The time validation of permission for over-flight aircraft in Viet Nam shall become
effective....prior to and until.....after estimated over-flight time.
A. 1 hour - 12 hours
B. 24 hours - 72 hours
C. 12 hours - 24 hours
D. 3 hours-72 hours

29 Heading is the direction in which the.... Axis of an aircraft is pointed, usually expressed in
degrees from... (true, magnetic, compass or grid) ) (Checked)
A. Horizontal/north
B. Longitudinal/ South
C. Horizontal/ south
D. Longitudinal/north
30 Minimum safe altitude ensures (Vietnam rules of the air):
A. At least 300m (1000ft) above highest obstacle in plain area, 600m (2000ft) above
highest obstacle in mountain area
B. At least 300m (1000ft) above terrain and 600 m (2000 ft) above sea,
C. At least 300m (1000ft) above MSL.
D. At least 600m (1000ft) above highest obstacle in plain area, 900m (3000ft) above
highest obstacle in mountain area
31. What shall the controller do when a pilot reports an ACAS resolution advisory (RA)?
(Checked)
A. Do his best to keep separation between aircraft concerned until the pilot reports
"clear of traffic"
B. Acknowledge a report to other flight crew that there is an aircraft affected by RA
C. Not attempt to modify the aircraft flight path until the pilot reports "clear of traffic"
 D. Acknowledge a report from the flight crew that waiting until the aircraft resuming
the current clearance

32. During flight through the transition layer the vertical position of the aircraft should be
reported as: (Checked)
A. altitude above mean sea level during the climb
B. flight level during descent
C. altitude above mean sea level during descent
D. either altitude above mean sea level or flight level during the climb

32.1 While flying through the transition layer the vertical position of the aircraft
should be reported as: (Checked)
A. Flight level
B. Altitude
C. Height
D. It depends upon what is set on the altimeter

33. The definition of Height:

A. The vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a point, measured from a
specified datum
B. The vertical distance of a point or a level, on or affixed to the surface of the earth, measured
from mean sea level
C. The vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a point, measured from
mean sea level (MSL)
D. A surface of constant atmospheric pressure which is related to a specific pressure datum,
1013 hPa, and is separated from other such surfaces by specific pressure intervals
E. none of above

34. In a standard atmosphere and at the sea level, the calibrated airspeed (CAS) is
A. independent of the true airspeed (TAS)
B. equal to the true airspeed (TAS)
C. lower than the true airspeed (TAS)
D. higher than the true airspeed (TAS)

35. The meaning of letter "O" in Field 10a in FPL message is_
A. Aircraft is equipped OMEGA
B. Aircraft is equipped LORAN-C
C. Aircraft is equipped VOR
D. Not Allocated by ICAO

36. Alerting service shall be provided: (Checked)

 A. for all aircraft provided with air flight information service; in so far as practicable, to all
other aircraft having filed a flight plan; and to any aircraft known or believed to be the subject of
unlawful interference
B. for all aircraft provided with air traffic control service; in so far as practicable, to all other
aircraft having filed a flight plan; and to any aircraft known or believed to be the subject of
unlawful interference
C. for all aircraft provided with air traffic control service; in so far as practicable, to all other
aircraft having filed a flight plan or otherwise known to the air traffic services; and to any aircraft
known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference
D. for all aircraft provided with alerting service; in so far as practicable, to all other aircraft
having filed a flight plan: and to any aircraft known or believed to be the subject of unlawful
interference

37. The lower limit of FIR must be:

A. From Ground or water
B. an IFR flight level
C. a VFR flight level
D. FL100

38. In RVSM airspace, An aircraft will be considered to be maintaining FL 290 when SSR
mode C derived level information indicates: (Checked)
A. 295
B. 296
C. 292
D. 294

39. Primary Surveillance Radar mean:

A. A surveillance radar system which uses transmitters/ receivers (interrogators) and
transponders
B. A surveillance radar system which uses reflected radio signals
C. A surveillance radar system which provides primary information of air traffic to Atc
unit
D. A surveillance radar system which Atc uses first to determine aircraft position in
distance and azimuth

40. Aerodrome control service shall be provided by...... I

A. an area control centre
B. by an aerodrome control tower or area control centre when it is necessary or desirable
to combine under the responsibility of one unit the functions of the approach control
service with those of the aerodrome control service or the area control service
C. by an aerodrome control tower
D. by an approach control unit when it is necessary or desirable to establish a separate
unit

41. Which of the following is not a valid SSR mode A squawk? (4 digit từ 0-7)
A. A7777
 B. A2345
C. A5678
D. A5555

42. Aeronautical Information Management (AIM) is:

A. The dynamic, integrated management of aeronautical information through the
provision and exchange of quality-assured digital aeronautical data
B. The important,integrated management of aeronautical information through the
provision and exchange of quality-assured digital aeronautical data
C. The dynamic, integration management of aeronautical information through the
provision and exchange of quality assured digital aeronautical data
D. The important,integrated management of aeronautical information through the
provision and exchange of qualityassured digital aeronautical data

43. Collaborative decision-making (CDM) is the process whereby all ATM decisions, except......
ATC decisions, are based on sharing of all information relevant to air traffic operation
between all civil and military partners:
A. Tactical
B. pre-tactical
C. strategic
D. planning
44. ATC instruction will be issued by an ATC unit for the purpose of:
A. Achieving separation between controlled flights
B. Providing Air Traffic advisory services
C. Providing alerting services
D. Providing flight Information Service
45. A service provided within advisory airspace to ensure separation, in so far as practical,
between aircraft which are operating on IFR flight plans:
A. Air Traffic Control Services
B. Air Traffic Advisory Services
C. Alering Services
D. Flight Information Services
46. Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations,
abbreviated to "CAVOK"?
A. 00000KT 0100 FG W001 11/11 Q1025 BECMG 0500 =
B. 27019G37KT 9999 BKN050 18/14 Q1016 NOSIG =
C. 26012KT 8000 SHRA BKN025 16/12 Q1018 NOSIG =
D. 34004KT 7000 MIFG SCT260 09/08 Q1029 BECMG 1600=

47. What's air traffic control instruction:

A. None of above
B. Directives issued by air traffic control for the purpose of requiring a pilot to
take a specific action.
C. Authorization for an aircraft to proceed under conditions specified by an air traffic
control unit
D. The term is used to prefix a message of noncontrol information when it is relayed to
an aircraft by other than an air traffic controller.
48. When a pressure type altimeter is set to a 1013 altimeter setting, it shall indicate:
A. Elevation
B. Altitude
C. Flight level
D. Height
49. Refer to the following TAF for Noi Bai. WNB 261019 20018G30KT 9999-RA SCT050
BKN080 TEMPO 23012KT 6000- DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518 23020G35KT 4000
RA OVC010- The lowest visibility forecast at ETA Hanoi 1430 UTC is:
A. 6 km
B. 6 NM
C. 4 km
D. 10 km
50. In RVSM, VFR flight level is: (Checked)
A. FL295
B. FL300
 C. FL310
D. FL290

51. In non RVSM, VFR flight is: (Checked)

A. FL290
B. FL300
C. FL310
D. None of above

52. The controller shall listen to the readback: (Checked)

A. to ascertain that the clearance or instruction has been correctly acknowledged by the
flight
B. to ascertain that the clearance or instruction has been correctly received by the flight
crew and shall take immediate action to correct any discrepancies revealed by the
read-back
C. to ascertain that the clearance or instruction has been correctly acknowledged
by the flight crew and shall take immediate action to correct any discrepancies
revealed by the read-back
D. to ascertain that the information has been correctly acknowledged by the flight crew
and shall take immediate action to correct any discrepancies revealed by the read-
back
53. What is the maximum speed adjustment that a pilot should be requested to make when
under radar control and established on intermediate and final approach (Checked)
A. ± 10 kt
B. ± 20 kt
C. +25 kt
D. + 15 kt
54. Time separation minima between holding aircraft in a holding pattern and en-route
aircraft which are on the same flight level is: (Checked)
A. 15 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 3 minutes
D. 5 minutes
55. Where lateral separation is not provided, how long should vertical separation be provided
for opposite direction traffic? (Checked)
A. 05 minutes prior to and after the time they are estimated to have passed
B. 10 minutes prior to and after the time they are estimated to have passed
C. Until they are estimated to have passed
D. 15 minutes prior to and after the time they are estimated to have passed

56. Enterprise which provides air traffic service must: (Checked)

A. all of above
B. Provide adequate and uninterrupted air traffic service
C. Coordinate with organizations concerned in handling emergency situations, unlawful
interference against civil flight operations and air defense operation.
D. Comply with regulations on the management, utilization and defense of the airspace,
rules of the air and related guidance manuals on air trafic service
57. Which following arrival sequence is correct?
A. Shortage of fuel flight - Hospital flight - Commercial flight
B. Hospital flight-Shortage of fuel flight-Commercial flight
C. Hospital flight-Commercial flight-Shortage of fuel flight
D. Shortage of fuel flight-Commercial flight-Hospital flight
58. Which appropriate authority of Vietnam shall grant flight permission to foreign VIP
flights carrying the guests of party and state? (Checked)
A. Minister of transport
B. Minister of foreign affairs
C. Civil Aviation Authority of VN
D. Minister of national defense
58.1 Which appropriate authority of Vietnam shall grant flight permission to
Vietnamese and foreign military aircraft? (Checked)
A. Civil Aviation Authority of VN
B. Minister of transport
C. Minister of foreign affairs
D. Minister of national defense

59. Cruising levels at which a flight is to be conducted mean (Checked)

 A. Flight level for flights at or above the lowest usable flight level or altitude for
flights below the lowest usable flight level
B. Flight level used for enroute flight
C. Altitudes
D. Flight levels

60.. Temporary changes to the AIP which doesn't contain extensive and/or graphics and needs
to be distributed timely shall be published as: (Đã check)
A. NOTAM
B. AIP supplements
C. AIC
D. AIP amendments
61 Information of short duration which contains extensive text and/or graphics shall be
published as …. (Checked)
A. NOTAM
B. AIP amendments
C. AIP supplements
D. AIC

62. Permanent changes to the information contained in the AIP are issued as ______
A. AIP Amendment
B. AIP Supplement
C. NOTAM
D. AIC

63. Unless authorized by the appropriate ATS authority, VFR flight shall not be operated:
A. More than 180 km from the coast in controlled airspace
B. More than 80 km from the coast in controlled airspace
C. More than 150 km from the coast in controlled airspace
D. More than 120 km from the coast in controlled airspace

64. Unless authorized by the appropriate ATS authority, VFR flight shall not be operated.
(Checked)
A. Above minimum flight level
B. Below minimum flight level
C. Above FL 200
 D. Below FL 200

65. Tolerance value used to determine that pressure altitude derived level information
displayed to controller is accurate shall be....in RVSM airspace: (Đã check)
A. +-30 m
B. +-100 m
C. +- 60 m
D. +-90 m
(DOC4444)
66. Tolerance value used to determine that pressure altitude derived level information displayed to
controller is accurate shall be in out of RVSM airspace (non-RVSM): (Đã checked)
A. ±90 m
B. ±60 m
C. ± 100 m
D. ±30 M
(Doc 4444)

67. The true airspeed for the first or the whole cruising portion of the flight, expressed as N
followed by 4 figures, in terms of
A. None of above
B. Kilometres per hour
C. Knots
D. True Mach number

68. In the case of an aircraft is approaching FIR (or boundary of the two areas of
responsibility) but the coordination has not been successfully made, the transferring center
shall:
A. Send the aircraft back to the aerodrome of departure
B. Hold the aircraft within the transferring center area until coordination can be effected
with the adjacent center
C. Release the aircraft to the adjacent center then make co-ordination as required
D. Request the aircraft itself to communication

69. We can distinguish types of departure routes. During a straight departure the initial
departure track is within (Checked)
A. 15 degrees the alignment of the runway center-line
B. 10 degrees the alignment of the runway center-line
C. 5 degrees the alignment of the runway center-line
D. 25 degrees the alignment of the runway center-line

70. With increasing altitude, the rate of descent (RD) will:

A. Increase
B. remains constant
 C. decrease
D. Altitude has no affect on the RD

71. The vertical separation minimum shall be nominal 300 meters (1000ft)....
A. Below an altitude of 8850 meters (29.000ft)
B. At or below flight level 290
C. Below flight level 290
D. At or below flight level 190

72. How is the direction and speed of upper winds described in forecasts?
A. The direction is relative to magnetic north and the speed is in knots
B. The direction is relative to true north and the speed is in knots
C. The direction is relative to magnetic north and the speed is in miles per hour
D. The direction is relative to true north and the speed is in miles per hour
73. In alerting services," Uncertainty phase" when:
A. information has been received which indicates that the operating efficiency of the aircraft has
been impaired, but not to the extent that a forced landing is likely, or when an aircraft has been
cleared to land and fails to land within five minutes of the estimated time of landing and
communication has not been re-established with the aircraft...
B. no communication has been received from an aircraft within a period of thirty minutes after
the time a communication should have been received, or from the time an unsuccessful attempt to
establish communication with such aircraft was first made, whichever is the earlier, or when an
aircraft fails to arrive within thirty minutes of the estimated time of arrival last notified to or
estimated by air traffic services units, whichever is the later...
C. information has been received which indicates that the operating efficiency of the aircraft has
been impaired, but not to the extent that a forced landing is likely, or when the fuel on board is
considered to be exhausted, or to be insufficient to enable the aircraft to reach safety...
D. information is received which indicates that the operating efficiency of the aircraft has been
impaired to the extent that a forced landing is likely, or when the fuel on board is considered to be
exhausted, or to be insufficient to enable the aircraft to reach safety...

74. Which levels should be used for aircraft flying West? (Checked)
A. 100, 200, 300
B. 180, 240, 340
C. 080, 280, 350
D. 180, 290, 430
75. Aeroplane reference field length for code number 4 aerodrome: (Checked)
A. 1800m and over
B. 800m up to but not including 1200m
C. 1200m up to but not including 1800m
D. Less than 800m
76. What will be the influence on the airplane performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is
increased? (Checked)
A. It will increase the TOD
B. It will increase the ASDA
C. It will increase the TODA
D. It will decrease the TOD
77. Item 13 (departure aerodrome) will be filed ZZZZ. It means
A. The name and location may be indicated in item 18/DEP
B. For aerodrome not listed in the relevant DOC 7910, the name and location may be
indicated in item 18/DEP
C. For aerodrome not listed in the relevant DOC 7910, the name and location may be
indicated in item 18/TALT
D. For aerodrome not listed in the relevant DOC 7910, the name and location may be
indicated in item 18/RALT
78. The current flight plan is:
A. The flight plan which comprises all possible changes due to subsequent clearances
B. The flight plan concerning repetitive flights
C. The flight plan that the pilot has submitted to the ATS reporting office
D. The flight plan that the pilot has submitted to the ATS reporting office and the
reporting office has checked and approved
79. ZCZC GHA 273 070407 FF VVNBZPZX (ARR-HVN 322-VVTS WDN 0359). The message
informs:
A. Arrival of HVN 322 flight from VVNB to WDN at 03.59 UTC
B. Arrival of HVN 322 flight from WTS to WND at 03.59 UTC
C. Arrival of HVN 322 flight to WNB at 03.59 UTC
D. Arrival of HVN 322 flight to WTS at 03.59 UTC
80. When an aircraft will pass through the level of another aircraft on the same track, the
longitudinal separation minima must be...when the level is crossed: (Checked)
A. 10 minutes if aircraft have the same type
B. 10 minutes if aircraft have the same Mach number
C. 10 minutes if navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed
 D. 10 minutes

80.1 Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level
when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed will be
A. 10 minutes B. 5 minutes C. 15 minutes D. 3 minutes

81. Aircraft flying along the same track may be separated by DME- distances from the same DME
and it is confirmed that the aircraft have passed each other. Specify the shortest difference in
DME-distance to make it possible for one aircraft to climb or descend:
A. 15 NM
B. 10 NM
C. 12 NM
D. 20 NM
82. The speed reductions not exceeding plus/minus 40km/h (20kt) IAS should be used for:
A. Aircraft on final approach segment
B. Aircraft on intermediate and final approach segments
C. Aircraft on inital and intermediate approach segments
D. Aircraft on intermediate approach segment
83. The change indicator BECMG in the TAF used when:
A. The probability that a certain change or value occurs
B. The MET conditions are expected to reach or pass specified values at a regular or
irregular rate
C. All the MET conditions are to pass specified values at a regular rate
D. Temporary fluctuations in the meteorological conditions, lasting less than one hour
in each instance and covering less than half of the forecast period.
84. Transition Level is : (Checked)
A. The lowest flight level an aircraft can use during its flight
B. The lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude
C. 300m (1000ft) above transition altitude
D. The lowest flight level that can be given to an arriving aircraft by air traffic unit

84.1 The altitude at which or below which the position of an aircraft is controlled
by reference to altitudes. That is the definition of:
 A. Transition Altitude
B. Minimum En-route Altitude
C. Transition Flight level
D. Minimum Sector Altitude
(Checked)

85. In the event of a radio failure, an Air Traffic Control Tower may use a gunlight to signal aircraft
and/or vehicles on or near the airport. The light gun is capable of signaling 3 different colors.
They are
A. red, yellow, green
B. red, white, blue
C. red, blue, green
D. red, green, white
86. ... is a special series NOTAM notifying the presence or removal of hazardous conditions due to
snow, ice, slush or standing water associated with snow, slush and ice on the movement area, by
means of a specific format:
A. ASHTAM
B. SNOWTAM
C. D- ATIS
D. D- VOLMET
87. Who shall decide the Organization and management of ANS at VietNam?
A. Minister of transport
B. ICAO
C. Minister of national defense
D. VATM
87.1 Who shall decide the establishment of an enterprise providing air traffic service
in VietNam?
A. Prime minister
B. Minister of national defense
C. ICAO
D. Minister of transport
88. What action should a pilot take to overtake another aircraft:
A. He should climb to pass above the other aircraft
B. He should alter his course to pass the other's right
 C. He should alter his course to pass the other's left
D. He should decent to pass under the other aircraft

89. The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, and each aircraft on
track uses DME stations, is: (Checked)
A. 20 NM
B. 5 NM
C. 15 NM
D. 10 NM
90. A temperature group of 28/24 in a METAR means that:
A. the temperature is 28° C at the time of reporting, but it is expected to become 24° C
by the end of the TREND report.
B. the temperature 28° C and the dew point is 24°C
C. the dew point is 28° C and the temperature is 24° C.
D. the dry bulb is 28° C and the wet bulb temperature is 24° C.
91.. Manoeuvring area is:
A. That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxing of aircraft,
excluding aprons
B. That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft,
including aprons.
C. That part of an aerodrome to be used for the landing and taxiing of aircraft,
excluding aprons.
D. That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft

92.. It is now mandatory to insert in FPL Item 18 the date of flight departure if the flight plan
is filed more than 24 hours in advance of the estimated off-block time of the flight. This also
impacts on associated flight plan update messages_
A. DLA, DEP, ARR, ROP, SP
B. CNL, DLA, DEP, ARR, RQP
C. ARR, CHG, CNL, DLA, DEP
D. CHG, CNL, DLA, ACP, RQS
93. The units providing Air Traffic Services are: (Checked)
A. Area Control Centre Advisory Centre Flight Information Centre-Approach Control
Office and Tower
B. Area Control Centre - Approach Control Office and Aerodrome Control Tower
C. Area Control Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office-
Aerodrome Control Tower and Air Traffic Services reporting office
D. Area Control Centre - Flight Information Region - Approach Control Office and
Tower

94. The selection of code 7700 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:

A. Unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight
B. Radio communication failure
C. Transponder malfunction
D. An emergency situation
95. If two departing aircraft of the same type propose to follow the same track and the
following aircraft will be flown through the level of the preceding aircraft. Action must be
taken to ensure that the.... Separation will be maintained or increased when cruising levels
are crossed.
A. 5 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 3 minutes
D. 2 minutes
(Doc 4444 : 5.6.3

96. Explain these characters in Field 10a: ADRVL:

A. Aircraft equipped with GBAS, DME, FMC WPR ACARS,PBN, VHF
B. Aircraft equipped with DME, GPS, HF, ILS, RVSM
C. Aircraft equipped with DME, FMC WPR ACARS, RNP10,VHF, ILS
D. Aircraft equipped with GBAS, DME, PBN, VHF RTF, ILS

97. DOC 4444 (ICAO) establishes that wake turbulence separation minima shall be based on a
grouping of aircraft types into three categories according to the maximum certificated take-
off mass. Heavy (H) Category, are all aircraft types of:
A. 135 000 kg or more
B. 146 000 kg or more
C. less than 136 000 kg but more than 126 000 kg
D. 136 000 kg or more
98. DOC 4444 (ICAO) establishes that wake turbulence separation minima shall be
based on a grouping of aircraft types into three categories according to the maximum
certificated take-off mass. Light (L) Category, are all aircraft types of: (Checked)
A. 7600 kg or more
B. 7600 kg or less
C. 10000 kg or more
D. 10000 kg or less

99. Touchdown is the point where the nominal glide path intercepts.
A. Localizer
B. Runway
C. outer marker
D. Final course
100. What are the three principal processes of air traffic management?
A. Air traffic control, Air traffic flow management and Aircraft system maintenance
B. Airspace management, Air traffic flow management and Aircraft system maintenance
C. Air traffic services, Airspace mannagement and Air traffic flow management
D. Air traffic control, Airspace mannagement and Air traffic flow management
101. (Aircraft in holding) Except when lateral separation exists, vertical separation shall be
applied between aircraft holding inflight and other aircraft, whether arriving, departing or
en route, whenever the other aircraft concerned are within .... (Checked)
A. 5 miles flying time of the holding areas
B. 5 minutes flying time of the holding point
C. 5 minutes flying time of the holding areas
D. 15 minutes flying time of the holding areas
102. On a precision approach, where does the intermediate approach segment start?
A. IF
B. FAF
C. MAPt
D. IAF
103. An operator must ensure that, for the duration of each flight, be kept on the ground a
copy of the....
A. Repetitive Flight Plan
B. Filed Flight Plan
C. Flight Plan Processing
D. ATC Clearance
104. A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the
outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track. The tracks
are not reciprocal
A. Racetrack
B. reverse procedure
C. base turn
D. procedure turn

105. The aggregation of the airborne functions and ground-based functions (air traffic
services, airspace management and air traffic flow management) required to ensure the safe
and efficient movement of aircraft during all phases of operations. That is the definition of:
A. Area Flow Control management
B. Air traffic flow control
C. Air traffic management
D. Flow management Control

106. If an arriving aircraft is making a complete instrument approach, a departing aircraft

may take off in any direction until:
A. The arriving aircraft has commenced initial approach
B. The arriving aircraft has started its procedure turn or base turn leading to final
approach
C. The arriving aircraft has entered ILS glide path
D. The pilot of the arriving aircraft has observed the departing aircraft

107. If an arriving aircraft is making a straight-in-approach, a departing aircraft

may take off in any direction until ________ before the arriving aircraft is
estimated to be over the instrument runway. (đã checked)
A. 2 minutes
B. 3 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 10 minutes
(Doc 4444, mục 5.7.1.2)
108. Aerodrome is:
 A. A defined area (including any buildings, installations and equipment) intended to be used
either wholly or in part for the arrival, departure and surface movement of aircraft
B. A defined area on land (including any buildings, installations and equipment) intended to be
used either wholly or in part for the arrival, departure and surface movement of aircraft
C. A defined area on land or water (including any buildings, installations and equipment)
intended to be used either wholly or in part for the arrival, departure and surface movement of
aircraft
D. A defined area on water (including any buildings, installations and equipment) intended to be
used either wholly or in part for the arrival, departure and surface movement of aircraft

109. A flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan submitted and the old flight plan
cancelled in the event of a delay. For controlled flights, this should be done in the event of a
delay in excess of: (checked)
A. 60 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 45 minutes

110 Flight Plan shall not be submitted more than ... hours before the estimated off-block time of a flight
(Checked)
A. 48hrs
B. 60 hrs
C. 72 hrs
D. 120 hrs.

111. What is rescue unit? (Checked)

A. A unit composed of trained personnel or provided with equipment suitable for the
expeditious conduct of search and rescue
B. A unit provided with equipment suitable for the expeditious conduct of search and
rescue
C. A unit composed of trained personnel and provided with equipment suitable for the
expeditious conduct of search and rescue
D. A unit composed of trained personnel for the expeditious conduct of search and
rescue

112.1 ATM include search and rescue: (Checked)

A. Definitely
B. True
C. Probably
D. False

113. The request to change from IFR flight to VFR flight is:
a. Made by the pilot in command or Suggested by ATC
b. Made by the pilot in command
 c. Suggested by ATC when VMC exists
d. Suggested by ATC when IMC exis
(Doc 4444 : mục 9.1)

114. The minimum safe altitude provides 300 metres obstacle clearance within how
many miles radius from the navigation facility upon which the instrument approach
procedure is predicated: (Checked)
Select one:
a. 30 NM (55 km)
b. 20 NM (37 km)
c. 25 NM (46 km)
d. 25 NM (28 km)
(ICAO PANS-OPS/I - definitions)

115. Explain these characters in Field 10a: DFGHW/: (Checked)

a. Aircraft equipped with DVOR, GPS, Inertial Navigation, CPDLC, Non- RVSM
b. Aircraft equipped with DME, GPS, HF, ILS, RVSM Approved
c. Aircraft equipped with DME, ADF, GNSS, HF RTF, RVSM Approved
d. Aircraft equipped with DME, GNSS, DATALINK, ACARS, RVSM Approved

116. In alerting services, "Distress phase" when ? (Checked)

A. No communication has been received from an aircraft within a period of thirty minutes
after the time a communication should have been received, or from the time an
unsuccessful attempt to establish communication with such aircraft was first made,
whichever is the earlier, or when an aircraft fails to arrive within thirty minutes of the
estimated time of arrival last notified to or estimated by air traffic services units,
whichever is the later...

B. Information is received which indicates that the operating efficiency of the aircraft has
been impaired to the extent that a forced landing is likely, or when the fuel on board is
considered to be exhausted, or to be insufficient to enable the aircraft to reach safety...

C. Information has been received which indicates that the operating efficiency of the
aircraft has been impaired, but not to the extent that a forced landing is likely, or when the
fuel on board is considered to be exhausted, or to be insufficient to enable the aircraft to
reach safety...!

D. Information has been received which indicates that the operating efficiency of the
aircraft has been impaired, but not to the extent that a forced landing is likely, or when an
aircraft has been cleared to land and fails to land within five minutes of the estimated time
of landing and communication has not been re-established with the aircraft...
117. Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) in
its territory and for areas in which the state is responsible for the Air Traffic Services
outside its territory, and this shall include the preparation and origination of: (Checked)
a. Integrated Aeronautical Information Package
b. AIP, NOTAM's, Circular and AIRAC
c. Only AIP and NOTAM'S
d. Only NOTAM's and Circulars

117.1 Integrated Aeronautical Information Package includes: (Checked)

A. Checklist and Summary
B. AIP, AIP amendment, AIP supplements
C. AIRAC, AIC, NOTAM, PIB
D. All of above

118. In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent
for landing are made is called: (Checked)
a. Initial approach segment
b. Arrival segment
c. Final approach segment
d. Intermediate approach segment

119. What's air traffic control clearance: (checked)

a. Clearance for aircraft issued by tower controller
b. Authorization for an aircraft to proceed under conditions specified by an
air traffic control unit
c. Clearance by area controller
d. Clearance issued by App controller
(Doc 4444)

120. RA is a weather phenomenon in a METAR: (Checked)

a. Hail
b. Mist
c. Rain
d. Thunderstorm
121. What will be the influence on the airplane performance if aerodrome pressure altitude
is increased?
a. It will decrease the LDR
b. It will increase the LDA
c. It will increase the LDR
d. It will increase the ASDA

122. Which elements of a position report cannot be omitted?

a. Aircraft identification, position, level
b. Aircraft identification, position, next position
c. Aircraft identification, position, time, level
d. Aircraft identification, position, time

123. The following shall always be read back: (Checked)

A. ATC route clearance
B. Clearances and instructions to enter, land on, take off from, hold short of, cross and
backtrack on any runway
C. Runway-in-use, altimeter settings, SSR codes, level instructions, heading and speed
instructions and, whether issued by the controller or contained in ATIS broadcasts,
transition levels
D. All of above

124. An operator shall, prior to departure: (Checked) (Doc 4444)

a. All of above
b. ensure that, where operation in reduced vertical separation minimum (RVSM)
airspace is planned, the aircraft has the required RVSM approval
c. ensure that, where the flight is intended to operate where an RCP type is prescribed,
the aircraft has an appropriate RCP approval, and that all conditions applying to that
approval will be satisfied.
d. ensure that, where the flight is intended to operate on a route or in an area where an
RNP type is prescribed, the aircraft has an appropriate RNP approval, and that all
conditions applying to that approval will be satisfied
125. A simple intruding airplane proximity warning. (Checked)
a. The intruder relative position and possibly by an indicator of a collision avoidance
manoeuvre within the vertical plane only
b. The intruder relative position and possibly by an indicator of a collision avoidance
manoeuvre within the horizontal plane only
c. The intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance
manoeuvre within both the vertical and horizontal planes.
126. A "TCAS II" (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) provides: (Checked)
a. the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance
manoeuvre within the horizontal plane only
b. the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance
manoeuvre within the vertical plane only.
c. a simple intruding airplane proximity warning.
d. the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance
manoeuvre within both the vertical and horizontal planes.

127 . Which of the following correctly decodes the METAR shown below: METAR EGKL
130350 32005KT 0400N DZ BCFG VV002? (Checked)
a. Observed on the 13th day of the month at 0350Z, surface wind 320° True, 05kt,
minimum visibility 400 metres to the north, moderate drizzle, with fog patches and a
vertical visibility of 200 ft
b. Reported on the 13th day of the month at 0350Z, surface wind 320° magnetic, 05kt,
minimum visibility 400 metres to the north, moderate drizzle, with fog patches and a
vertical visibility of 200 ft
c. Valid between 1300 and 1350Z, surface wind 320°T/05kt, minimum visibility 400
metres to the north, moderate drizzle, with fog patches and a vertical visibility of 200 ft
level
d. Valid on the 13th day of the month between 0300 and 1500Z, surface wind 320°T/05
kt, minimum visibility 400 metres, drizzle, with fog patches and a vertical visibility of
200ft

128 . The controller can use the phrase " via flight-planned route" if: (Checked)
a. Routes intended changed compared to routes indicated in flight plan
b. none of them
c. Routes intended unchanged compared to routes indicated in the flight plan
d. Routes that pilot reported

129. Where lateral separation is not provided, how long should vertical separation
be provided for opposite direction traffic? (Checked)
A. 05 minutes prior to and after the time they are estimated to have passed
B. 15 minutes prior to and after the time they are estimated to have passed
 C. Until they are estimated to have passed
D. 10 minutes prior to and after the time they are estimated to have passed

130. A radiotelephony distress message transmitted by an aircraft should commence

with the word "..." preferably spoken three times: (Checked)
a. EMERGENCY
b. PANPAN
c. MAYDAY
d. SOS

131 A radiotelephony Urgency message transmitted by an aircraft should commence

with the word "..." preferably spoken three times: (Checked)
a. EMERGENCY
b. PANPAN
c. MAYDAY
d. SOS

132. What is the Unit of measurement used to express radius in the Q line (NOTAM
format)? (Checked)
a. KM
b. M
C. FT
d. NM

133. In ATFN messages, what is ZQZX? (Checked)

A. For Area Control Center
B. For a computer facility at Area Control Center
C. For an airport control tower
D. Military Flight Operational Control Center

134. The length of runway which is declared available and suitable for the ground run of an
aeroplane landing: (Checked)
a. ASDA
b. TORA
c. LDA
d TODA
135. A defined rectangular area on the ground or water under the control of the appropriate
authority, selected or prepared as a suitable area over which an aeroplane may make a
portion of its initial climb to a specified height: (Checked)
A. Runway strip
B. Runway
C. Clearway
D. Stopway
136. TODA =
A. TORA +RWY
B. TORA + CWY
C. TORA +SWY
D. TORA
(Checked)

136.1 ASDA =... + .... ( accelarate stop distance available)

A. = TORA + SWY
B. = TORA + CWY
C. = TORA +RWY
D. = TORA
(Checked)

136.2 Choose the correct statement from the following:

A. LDA<TORA
B. TODA >= TORA
C. LDA>ASDA
D. TORA >= TODA
(Checked)

137. …..is a presentation of current NOTAM information of operational significance,

prepared prior to flight. (Checked)
a. AIC
b. PIB
c. ASHTAM
d. SNOWTAM
138. On a precision approach, where does the final approach segment finish? (Checked)
a. IAF
b. FAF
C. IF
d. MAPt
139. On a precision approach, where does the final approach segment start ?
(Checked)
A. IF
B. MAPt
C. IAF
D.FAF

140 . On a precision approach, where does the intermediate approach segment

start? (Checked)
A. FAF
B. IAF
C. MAPt
D. IF

141. According DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non radar separation minima of 2
minutes shall be applied ?
a. MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft
b. LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft
c. MEDIUM aircraft taking off behind a HEAVY aircraft from an intermediate part of a
parallel separated by less than 760 m
d. LIGHT aircraft taking off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of the same
runway

142. According DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non radar separation minima of 2
minutes shall be applied ?
a. MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft
b. LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft
c. MEDIUM aircraft taking off behind a HEAVY aircraft from an intermediate part of a
parallel separated by less than 760 m
d. LIGHT aircraft taking off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of the same
runway

143. Radio navigation service: A service providing ...or position data for the efficient and
safe operation of aircraft supported by one or more radio navigation aids: (Checked)
a. ATIS information
b. Departure information
c. Weather information
d. Guidance information
144. Take-off alternate acrodrome is: (Checked)
A. An aerodrome at which air traffic control service is provided to aerodrome
traffic
B. An alternate aerodrome at which an aircraft would be able to land should this
become necessary shortly after take-off and it is not possible to use the aerodrome
of departure
C. An alternate aerodrome at which an aircraft would be able to land in the event
that a diversion becomes necessary while en route
D. An alternate aerodrome at which an aircraft would be able to land should it
become either impossible or inadvisable to land at the aerodrome of intended
landing

145. Destination alternate aerodrome is: (Checked)

A. An alternate aerodrome at which an aircraft would be able to land should this
become necessary shortly after take-off and it is not possible to use the aerodrome
of departure
B. An alternate aerodrome at which an aircraft would be able to land in the event
that a diversion becomes necessary while en route
C. An aerodrome at which air traffic control service is provided to aerodrome
traffic
D. An alternate aerodrome at which an aircraft would be able to land should it
become either impossible or inadvisable to land at the aerodrome of intended
landing

146. The definition of Flight level: (Checked)

a. A surface of constant atmospheric pressure which is related to a specific pressure
datum, 1013 hPa, and is separated from other such surfaces by specific pressure
intervals.
b. The vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a point, measured
from mean sea level (MSL).
c. The vertical distance of a point or a level, on or affixed to the surface of the earth, measured
from mean sea level
d. The vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a point, measured from a
specified datum

147. What type of separation must be maintained at all times between aircraft holding in the
holding pattern? (Checked)
 A. Vertical
B. Radar
C. Longitudial
D. Horizontal

148. On an instrument approach, part of the procedure enables the aircraft to return
inbound from outbound with tracks flown being reciprocal. This is called: (Checked)
A. Base turn
B. Procedure turn
C. Reverse procedure
D. Racetrack

149. A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the
outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track. The
tracks are not reciprocal. (Checked)
A. Base turn
B. Procedure turn
C. Reverse procedure
D. Racetrack

150. The missed approach procedure is show in the......: (Checked)

A. En-route Chart
B. Aerodrome Obstacle Chart-Type B
C. Instrument Approach Chart
D. Aerodrome Obstacle Chart- Type A

151.1 __ is a Mandatory Chart:

A. Aerodrome Obstacle Chart- Type A
B. Aerodrome Obstacle Chart-Type B
C. Standard Instrument Departure (SID) Chart
D. Aerodrome Obstacle Chart- Type C
(Checked) - Doc 8697

151. Missed approach procedure is: (Checked)

A. The procedure to be followed if the a/c can not land.
B. The procedure which a/c uses when there are many obstacle on the RWY -in -
use
 C. The procedure to be commenced by a/c decision height.
D. The procedure to be followed if the approach can not be continued.

152. The horizontal direction to or from any point, usually measured clockwise
from true north, magnetic north, or some other reference point through 360
degrees ? (Checked)
A. Bearing
B. Track
C.Heading
D. Course

152.1 The projection on the earth's surface of the path of an aircraft, the
direction of which path at any point is usually expressed in degrees from North
(true, magnetic or grid):
A. Track
B. Heading
C. Bearing
D. Course

153. The direction in which the longitudinal axis of an aircraft is pointed usually
expressed in degrees from North (true, magnetic, compass, or grid):
A. Bearing
B. Track
C.Heading
D. Course

154. The definition of Special VFR flight:

A flight conducted in accordance with the visual flight rules
B. A flight conducted in accordance with the instrument flight rules
C. A VFR flight cleared by air traffic control to operate within a control zone in
meteorological conditions below VMC
D. Any flight which is subject to an air traffic control clearance

155. The vertical separation minimum shall be nominal 300 meters (1000ft)…
A. Below an altitude of 8850 meters (29.000ft).
B. Below flight level 290.
C. At or below flight level 290.
D. A and B.
156. The schedule of AIRAC effective dates must be based on interval of....?
A. 14 days
B. 28 days
C. 42 days
D. 56 days

157. Who provides assurance between the collision of aircraft with another aircraft or
terrain? ) (Checked)
a) ATM
b) Pilot
c) FMS
d) Autopilot

158. A service provided for the purpose of preventing collision and expediting and
maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic
A. ATS service
B. ATFM service
C. ASM service
D. Flight information service

159. If the landing clearance is not received, a subsequent notification should be made
at approximately (Đã check)
A. 2 NM from touch-down;
B. 3 NM from touch-down;
C. 1NM from touch-down;
D. 4 NM from touch-down;
(Doc 4444)

160. The information so notified by AIRAC must not be changed further for at
least another… after indicated effective date (checked)
A. 42 days
B. 56 days
C. 14 days
D. 28 days

161. Radio navigation service: A service providing…..

 A. providing guidance information or position data for the efficient and safe operation of
aircraft supported by one or more radio navigation aids.
B. providing guidance information or position data for the efficient operation of aircraft
supported by one or more radio navigation aids.
C. providing guidance information or position data for the efficient operation of aircraft
supported by one radio navigation aids.
D. providing guidance information for the efficient operation of aircraft supported by one
or more radio navigation aids.

162. Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC) is

A. A notice containing information that does not qualify for the origination of a
NOTAM or for inclusion in the AIP, but which relates to flight safety, air
navigation, technical, administrative or legislative matters
B. A publication issued by or with the authority of a State and containing
aeronautical information of Inntinn shorontor essential to air navigation
C. An acronym signifying a system aimed at advance notification, based on
common effective dates, of circumstances that necessitate significant changes in
operating practices
D. A special series NOTAM notifying by means of a specific format change in
activity of a volcano, a volcanic eruption and/or volcanic ash cloud that is of
significance to aircraft operations

163. ………is an aircraft system based on secondary surveillance radar (SSR)

transponder signals which operates independently of ground-based equipment to
provide advice to the pilot on potential conflicting aircraft that are equipped with
SSR transponders. (Đã check)
A. ACAS
B. ATIS
C. ACARS
D. STCA

164. Airborne collision avoidance system is:

A. An a/c system based on secondary secondary surveillance transponder signals.
B. . An a/c system based on GPS signals.
C. An a/c system which provides advice to the pilot of potential conflicting a/c that
are equipped with SSR transponder.
D. A and C.
165. In which of the following weather reports could, in accordance with the
regulations, the abbreviation "CAVOK" be used?

A. 00000KT 0100 FG W001 11/11 Q1025 BECMG 0500 =

B. 27019G37KT 9999 BKN050 18/14 Q1016 NOSIG =
C. 26012KT 8000 SHRA BKN025 16/12 Q1018 NOSIG =
D. 34004KT 7000 MIFG SCT260 09/08 Q1029 BECMG 1600=

166. Flight permission granted to flights arriving and departing at the airports of Viet
Nam shall become effective at 12 (twelve) hour prior to and until …… hours after the
ETA, ETD indicated in the permission: Checked)
a) 6
b) 18
c) 12
d) 24.

167. A control zone extends laterally from the centre of an aerodrome or aerodromes
in the direction of approaching aircraft for at least :
a) 20 NM
b) 7 NM
c) 5 NM
d) 15 NM

168. The defitnition of Cross-border areas :

a) Is airspace temporarily segregated and allocated for the exclusive use of a particular
user during a determined period of time and through which other traffic will not be
allowed to transit
b) Is airspace temporarily reserved and allocated for the specific use of a particular user
for a determined period of time and through which other traffic may be allowed to
transit under ATC clearance
 c) Is an airspace reservation/segregation established for specific operational
requirements over international boundaries
d) An airspace of defined dimensions, or designated route, within which air traffic
advisory is available.

169. The ASM phase encompasses measures taken more than one day prior to the day
of operation. Much of this work is accomplished two months or more in advance.
a. Strategic (ASM Level 1)
b. Pre-tactical (ASM Level 2)
c. Tactical (ASM Level 3)

170. In local routine and special reports and in METAR an SPECI: Cloud amount
should be reported using the abbreviations :
a) “FEW” (1 to 4 oktas), “SCT” (5 to 6 oktas), “BKN” (6 to 7 oktas) or “OVC” (8
oktas)
b) “FEW” (5 to 7 oktas), “SCT” (1 to 2 oktas), “BKN” (3 to 4 oktas) or “OVC” (8
oktas)
c) “FEW” (3 to 4 oktas), “SCT” (1 to 2 oktas), “BKN” (5 to 7 oktas) or “OVC” (8
oktas)
d) “FEW” (1 to 2 oktas), “SCT” (3 to 4 oktas), “BKN” (5 to 7 oktas) or “OVC” (8 oktas)

171. The minimum difference between AIRAC publication date and effective date is
at least…..:
a) 56 days
b) 28 days
c) 14 days
d) 42 days.

172. Your aircraft has track between 0° and 179°, your flight level or altitude must be
…
a) None of above
b) Odd or even
c) Even
d) Odd.

173 Your aircraft has track between 90° and 269°, your flight level or altitude must be:
(Checked)
A. odd B. even C. none of above D. odd or even
174 Your aircraft has track between 180° and 359°, your flight level or altitude
must be: (Checked)
A. even
B. odd
C. odd or even
D. none of above

175. A flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan submitted and the old
flight plan cancelled in the event of a delay. For controlled flights, this should be done
in the event of a delay in excess of : (Checked)
A. 30 minutes
B. 45 minutes
C. 60 minutes
D. 15 minutes

176. Establishment of communication, negotiation and priority ………. :

a) Rules and procedure for civil/military coordination
b) None of above
c) Processes and procedures for civil/military coordination
d) Measures and procedures for civil/military coordination
177. When the lower limit of a control area is above 900m (3000ft) MSL, it should coincide with..
a) An IFR flight level
b) At any flight level
c) A VFR flight level
d) Is not specified
178. Thông thường khu vực trách nhiệm của Đài kiểm soát không lưu tại các sân bay mà ở đó không
có trung tâm kiểm soát tiếp cận có giới hạn ngang là
a)
b)
c) 30km
d) 10km

179. In allocating a basic route designation letter (ie A1), what does the choice of the letter A mean ?
a) A regional ATS route (airway)
b) A non regional area navigation route
c) A non regional ATS route (airway)
d) A regional area navigation route.

180. A service provided for the purpose of preventing collision and expediting and maintaining an
orderly flow of Traffic
a. Air Traffic Control Service
b. Air Traffic Flow Management
c. Airspace Management
181. Can you fly under a Special VFR clearance in class F airspace :
a) Yes, providing adequate terrain clearance can be maintained
b) No, SVFR is only applicable to classes A, B and C airspace
c) No, because there are no class F CTRs
d) No, because class F is advisory control only.

182. Reference to AIP Viet Nam, The Class A airspace are classified and designated in
accordance with the following :
a. TMA: Noi Bai, Tan Son Nhat and CTR: Noi Bai, Tan Son Nhat, Da Nang
b. Lateral limit: Ha Noi and Ho Chi Minh FIRs and Vertical limit: from 6000 M to 14 000 M
c. The responsibility areas of the TWRs at the civil aerodromes, the aerodromes (using both civil and
military) over the territory of Viet Nam (except CTR of Noi Bai, Da Nang, Tan Son Nhat)
183. When a pressure type altimeter is set to QNH altimeter setting, it shall indicate :
a) Elevation
b) Flight level
c) Altitude
d) Height
184. The time validation of permission for over-flight aircraft in Viet Nam shall
become effective …….. prior to and until ……. After estimated over-flight time.
a) 24 hours – 72 hours
b) 12 hours – 24 hours
c) 1 hours – 12 hours
d) 3 hours – 72 hours

185. Airspace Management Cell (AMC) is :

a) The organization that provides ASM service for a specific set of ATS units
b) A generic term meaning variously, area control centre, approach control unit or aerodrome control
tower
c) AMC is a joint civil/military cell responsible for the day-to-day management and
temporary allocation of national or sub-regional airspace under the jurisdiction of
one or more than one state.
186. Aerodrome is:
A. A defined area (including any buildings, installations and equipment) intended to be used either
wholly or in part for the arrival, departure and surface movement of aircraft
B. A defined area on land (including any buildings, installations and equipment) intended to be used
either wholly or in part for the arrival, departure and surface movement of aircraft
C. A defined area on land or water (including any buildings, installations and equipment) intended to
be used either wholly or in part for the arrival, departure and surface movement of aircraft
D. A defined area on water (including any buildings, installations and equipment) intended to be used
either wholly or in part for the arrival, departure and surface movement of aircraft

187. The basic designator shall consist of one letter of the alphabet followed by a
number from 1 to ….
 a) 777
b) 1000
c) 888
d) 999

188. Who shall decide the Organization and management of ANS at Viet Nam ?
a. ICAO
b. Minister of transport
c. Minister of national defense
d. VATM
189. The VMC minima for a VFR flight inside an ATS airspace classified as C is :
a) 8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10000ft) AMSL clear of clouds
b) 5 NM visibility below 3050 m (10000 ft), clear of clouds
c) 8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000ft) AMSL and 1500 m horizontal and 300 m
vertical from clouds
d) 5 NM visibility when below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical
from clouds.

190. The lower limit of FIR must be:

a) a VFR flight level
b) From Ground or water
c) FL100

191. The upper limit of FIR usually be:

a. VFR flight level
b. From Ground or water
c. FL100
d. Infinity

192. What are factors related to Separation Standard in Airspace Management ?

a) Vector
b) Vertical Movement
c) Surveillance based
d) Sector Size

193. Airspace in Ha Noi FIR (From 6000m to 14000m) is classified as:

a) Class D
b) Class B
c) Class C
d) Class A
194. Can you fly in VMC in class A airspace:
a) No, you must have an instrument rating and the aircraft must be instrument equipped
b) No, only IMC is permitted
c) Yes
d) No, IFR is mandatory in class A airspace

195. Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are used in
conjunction with SSR ? (Checked)
a) Distress 7600, Unlawful Interference 7500, Communications failure 7700
b) Distress 7500, Unlawful Interference 7700, Communications failure 7600
c) Distress 7700, Unlawful Interference 7500, Communications failure 7600
d) Distress 7700, Unlawful Interference 7600, Communications failure 7500

196. When making routine transponder code change, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of
which code ? (Checked)
A. 7500, 7600, 7700
B. 7555, 7666, 7777
C. 7500, 7600, 7777
D. None of correct
197. What's air traffic control instruction: (Checked)
A. None of above
B. Directives issued by air traffic control for the purpose of requiring a pilot to take a specific
action.
C. Authorization for an aircraft to proceed under conditions specified by an air traffic control unit
D. The term is used to prefix a message of noncontrol information when it is relayed to an aircraft
by other than an air traffic controller.
198. How would a route that is used exclusively by supersonic transport be
designated?
a) By use of the suffix S
b) By use of the prefix X
c) By use of the prefix S
d) By use of the suffix X
199. Pilots should notify air traffic control a revised estimated time if the reported
estimate for the reporting point is found to be in error in excess of (Checked)
a) ± 02 minutes
b) ± 03 minutes
c) ± 05 minutes
d) ± 04 minutes
193. VOR Separation (Checked)
a) 15 degrees, 10 NM (18.5km)
b) 15 degrees, 15 NM (28 km)
c) 10 degrees, 15 NM (28 km)
d) 15 degrees, 10 NM (18.5km)
194. Choose the correct statement from the following:
a) An advisory route is a corridor from ground level to specified upper limit
b) A control zone extends from a specified height above sea level and also has an upper limit (sai vì
đây là định nghĩa CTA)
c) A control zone extends from ground level to a specified upper limit
d) An airway is a control area and extends from ground level to specified limit

195. Who shall decide the establishment of an fuel dumping area at Viet Nam ?
a) Minister of transport
b) The Civil Aviation Authority of Vietnam

196. The position reports shall contain the following elements of information in the order listed:
(Checked)
A. Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time over and
ensuing significant point
B. Aircraft identification, position, flight level or altitude, time, next position and time over and
ensuing significant point
C. Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time over
D. Aircraft identification, position, time, true air speed, flight level or altitude, next position and time
over

197. The DME system shall provide for continuous and accurate indication in the
cockpit of the ________ of an equipped aircraft from an equipped ground reference
point: (Checked)
A. Vertical distance
B. Horizontal distance
C. Slant range distance
D. All of above

198. ADS-B is: (Checked)

A. Automatical Depend Surveillance - Broadcast
B. Automatically Dependent Surveillance - Broadcast
C. Automatic Dependent Surveillance - Broadcast
D. None of above

199. In order to indicate hijacking the aircraft SSR transponder should be selected to code:
(Checked)
B. 7000
C. 7500
D. 7600
E. 7700

200. The beginning of that portion of the runway usable for landing is the definition of...: (checked)
A A Holding point
B. An Airway
C. A Threshold
D. A Aiming Point

201. Recording tapes of air ground communication shall be normally kept for at least:
A. 10 days B. 15 days C. 20 days. D. 30 days
(Checked)

201.1 How long is strip marking remained: (Checked)

A. 60 days
B. 45 days
C. 90 days
D. 30 days
(Doc 9426, mục 8.4.2)

202. An aircraft operates in a defined airspace shall be controlled by: (Checked)

A. An ATC Unit
B. 2 ATC Units
C. 3 ATC Units
D. 4 ATC Units

203. Aeroplane reference field length for code number 2 aerodrome:

A. 800m up to but not including 1200m
B. Less than 800m
C. 1800m and over
D. 1200m up to but not including 1800m

204. Clearance limit means: (Checked)

A. The point to which an a/c is granted an air traffic control clearance.
B. The destination airport at which an a/c plans to arrive.
C. The flight level at which an a/c is going to hold.
D. None of above

205. A service provided for the purpose of giving advice and information useful
for the safe and efficient conduct of flights: (Checked)
A. Air Traffic Control Services
B. Flight Information Services
C. Alerting Services
D. Traffic Advisory Services

206. Approach control service is: (Checked)

A. Air traffic control service for arriving or departing controlled flights
B. Service for meteorological and alerting service
C. Air traffic control service for controlled flights control areas
D. Air traffic control service for aerodrome traffic

206.1 Area control service is: (Checked)

A. air traffic control service for aerodrome traffic
B. air traffic control service for controlled flights in control areas
C. air traffic control service for arriving or departing controlled flights
D. Service for meteorological and alerting service

207. What are the declared distances of the aerodrome indicated in the AIP Vietnam?
A. RWY, SWY, CWY
B. TORA TODA/ASDA TODA
C. CWY, SWY
D. TORA TODA/ASDA/TODA, RWY

208. The objectives of Airspace Management (ASM) are to: (Checked)

A. Airspace Design
B. Balance Capacity and Demand – aftm
C. Provide Separation atm
D. Provide Capacity

208.1 The objectives of Air traffic services (ATS) are to: (Checked)
A. Balance Capacity and Demand
B. Provide Separation
C. Airspace Design
D. Provide Capacity

209. The order of priority for the transmission of messages in the aeronautical fixed
telecommunication network shall be as follows: (Checked)
A. DD, FF, GG, KK, SS
B. DD, FF, SS, GG, KK
C. GG, KK, SS, DD, FF
D. SS, DD, FF, GG, KK
210. Where the transfer of control is to be effected using radar or ADS-B data, the
control information pertinent to the transfer shall include information regarding the
position and, if required, the track and speed of the aircraft, as observed by radar or
ADS-B immediately ........the transfer. (Checked)
A. prior to B. after C. request for D. A and B

211. Area control service shall be provided by: (Checked)

A. An area control centre
B. The unit providing approach control service in a control zone or in a control area of
limited extent which is designated primarily for the provision of approach control service
and where no area control centre is established
C. A and b
D. A or b

212. Air traffic services unit clocks and other time-recording devices shall be checked
as necessary to ensure correct time to within plus or minus of UTC at all times:
(Checked)
A. 15 second at all times
B. 30 second at all times
C. 60 second at all times
D. 20 second at all times

213. NOTAM with series C used for: (Checked)

A. Domestic flight
B. International flight
C. Both of them
D. None of them

213.1 NOTAM with series A used for:

A. Domestic flight
B. International flight
C. Both of them
D. None of them

214. CDM will improve ___________ by sharing information and data between
airport operators, aircraft operators, ground handlers and air traffic control.
(Checked)
A. Air traffic management
B. Air traffic services
C. Airlines operator
D. All of correct

215. ____________ is a semi-prepared surface at the end of a runway designed to

reduce the damage if an aircraft lands short or over runs the runway:
A. SWY B. Runway strip. C. RESA. D. CWY

216. At Tan Son Nhat airport, when VIP arrives, airport operation will be restricted:
(Checked)
A. 05 minutes before landing time of VIP flight, the reserved RWY for VIP flight should be clear
B. 15 minutes after VIP flight lands, that RWY can resume normal operation
C. 15 minutes before landing time of VIP flight, the reserved RWY for VIP flight should be clear
D. 05 minutes after VIP flight lands, that RWY can resume normal operation

217. At Tan Son Nhat airport, when VIP arrives, the reserved RWY for VIP flight will be available:
(Checked MANOF)
A. 03 minutes after VIP flight takes off
B. 05 minutes after VIP flight takes off
C. After VIP flight is airborne
D. None of above

217.1 At Tan Son Nhat airport, when VIP arrives, the reserved RWY for VIP flight
will be available: (Checked)
A. 05 minutes after VIP flight stops at the parking at airport,
B. When VIP flight stops at the parking
C. After VIP flight vacates the RWY
D. 05 minutes after VIP flight lands
(Checked MANOF)

217.2 At Tan Son Nhat airport, when VIP departs, airport operation will be
restricted:
A. 15 minutes after VIP flight takes off, that RWY can resume normal operation
B. 05 minutes after VIP flight takes off, that RWY can resume normal operation
C. 15 minutes before VIP flight lines up, the reserved RWY for VIP flight should be
clear
D. 05 minutes before VIP flight lines up, the reserved RWY for VIP flight should be
clear
(Checked MANOF)

218. The change indicator TEMPO in the TAF used when:

A. Temporary fluctuations in the meteorological conditions, lasting less than one hour in each
instance and covering less than half of the forecast period.
B. The MET conditions are expected to reach or pass specified values at a regular or irregular rate
C. All the MET conditions are to pass specified values at a regular rate
D. The probability that a certain change or value occurs

219. What does the abbreviation "NOSIG" mean? (Checked)

A. No report received
B. Not signed by the meteorologist
C. No significant changes
D. No weather related problems

220. What are the 5 segments of an instrument approach? (Checked)

A. Initial; Intermediate; Final; Landing; Missed Approach
B. Initial: Intermediate: Descent; Final; Landing
C. Arrival; Initial; Intermediate; Final; Landing
D. Arrival; Initial; Intermediate; Final; Missed Approach

221. The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the cruising portion of the flight
must be entered in the speed box of a flight plan form. This speed is the: (Checked)
A true air speed (TAS).
B. true air speed at 65% power.
C. indicated air speed (IAS).
D. estimated ground speed (G/S)

222.In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation number shall be
supplemented: (Checked)
A. By a letter - for example 2 parallel runways "L" and "R" - for 3 "L", "C" and "R"
B. By a letter - for example 3 parallel runways "L" and "R" and the central has no letter
C. By a letter for 2 parallel runways
D. By a number like "0" and "01" for 2 parallel runways

223. Instrument meteorological conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance

from cloud, and ceiling, ____________ the minima specified for visual
meteorological conditions: (Checked)
A. equal to or less than
B. better than
C. equal to or better than
D. less than

223.1 Visual meteorological conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance

from cloud, and ceiling,.... the minima specified for visual meteorological
conditions: (Checked)
A. equal to or better than
B. less than
 C. equal to or less than
D. better than

224. The ratio of an aircraft's true air speed to the speed of the sound is:
A. CAS
B. TAS
C. Mach Number
D. Relative Wind

225. The definition of Altitude: (Checked)

A. The vertical distance of a point or a level, on or affixed to the surface of the earth,
measured from mean sea level
B. A surface of constant atmospheric pressure which is related to a specific pressure datum,
1013hPa, and is separated from other such surfaces by specific pressure intervals
C. The vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a point, measured
from a specified datum
D. The vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a point, measured
from mean sea level (MSL)

226. When two a/c re converging track s at approximately the same altitude, which
has the right-of way? (Checked)
A. The one that has other on its left.
B. The one that has other on its right.
C. The one that has the other on in sight first
D. The one that is faster than the other

227. When the aircraft is __________ miles from the threshold on final approach,
speed control should not be applied: (Checked)
A. 5 B. 3 C. 10 D. 4

228. When a pressure type altimeter is set to a QFE altimeter setting, it shall
indicate: (Checked)
A. Altitude. B. Elevation. C. Flight level. D. Height

229. Who has final authority of an aircraft: (Checked)

A. The operator of the aircraft
B. The manufacturer
C. The controller
D. The pilot in command

230. ___________ shall be given priority over other aircraft listed below: (Checked)
A. Military aircraft
B. Emergency aircraft
C. VIP aircraft
D. Hospital aircraft

231. In the vicinity of an aerodrome that is going to be used by the aircraft, the
vertical position of the aircraft shall be expressed as: (Checked)
A. Altitude above sea level at or above the transition altitude
B. Flight level at or below the transition altitude
C. Flight level at or below the transition level
D. Altitude above sea level at or below the transition altitude

232. A Standard Instrument Arrival is known as a:

A. SDP B. STAR C. SIA D. SID

233. The abbreviation OCA means:

A. Obstacle Confirmation Altitude
B. Obstruction Collision Altitude
C. Obstruction Clearance Altitude
D. Obstacle Clearance Altitude

234. Expected approach time is: (Checked)

A. The time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraft, following a delay will leave the holding
point to complete its approach for landing
B. The time at which the pilot of an arriving aircraft expects to leave the holding point to complete
its approach for landing
C. The time at which it is estimated that an arriving aircraft will commence its approach for landing
D. All the above

235. Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the flight commences in accordance with
VFR and subsequently changes to IFR? (Checked)
A. V
B. Y
C. Z
D. I
236. The Air traffic service includes:
A. ATC Services and Air Traffic Advisory Services
B. Flight Information Services
C. Alering Services
D. All of above

237. Pilots should notify air traffic control if the variation in true airspeed at
cruising level between the reporting point Vary by:
A. 04 per cent
B. 03 per cent
C. 05 per cent
D. 02 per cent

238. Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same
cruising level when a frequent determination of position and speed provided
that the pre or aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit
than the succeeding aircraft will be mauon of position and speed provided that
the preceding aircraft is maintaining a speed of 20 kt or more faster. (Checked)
A. 10 minutes
B. 15 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 3 minutes

239. ADS-C: (Checked)

A. Automatic Dependent Surveillance - Contact
B. Automatic Dependent Surveillance - Contract
C. Automatically Dependent Surveillance - Contract
D. Automatically Dependent Surveillance – Contact

240. N60515Z has been cleared to land and fails to land within five minutes of
the estimated time of landing and communication has not been re-established.
The a/c should be considered in: (Checked)
A. Uncertainty phase.
B. Alert phase.
C. Distress phase.
D. Emergency phase.
241. The definition of VFR flight: (checked)
A. Any flight which is subject to an air traffic control clearance
B. A flight conducted in accordance with the instrument flight rules
C. A VFR flight cleared by air traffic control to operate within a control zone in
meteorological conditions below VMC.
D. A flight conducted in accordance with the visual flight rules

242. METAR VVTS 021230Z 13012626KT 1200 NW +SHRA BKN010

SCT015CB 28/27 Q1012 - (Checked)
A. The present weather is light shower rain
B. The present weather is heavy shower rain
C. The present weather is heavy rain
D. The present weather is heavy thunderstorm with rain

243. The date-time group consists of six figures, the first two figures
indicating the day of the month and the next four figures indicating for
METAR and SPECI:
A. The full hour in UTC (of which the last two figures are always 00) preceding
the transmission time; for other forecasts, the standard time of observation in
UTC on which the forecast is based
B. The time of observation in UTC
C. The standard time of observation in UTC
D. The time of origin in UTC of the text of the bulletin(s)
(Checked – Doc 8896)

244. In the event of a delay of ... minutes in excess of the EOBT for a controlled
flight or delay of ... minutes for an uncontrolled flight for which a flight plan
has been submitted , the flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan
submitted and the old flight plan canceled, whichever is applicable:
A. 60, 60
B. 60, 30
C. 30, 60
D. 30, 45
(Checked)
245. Which of the following statements regarding Alerting service is correct?
A. Aircraft in the vicinity shall be informed about an aircraft known or believed to
be the subject of unlawful interference
B. THE ARLERT phase is established when no communication has been received
from an aircraft within a period of of thirty minutes after the time a communication
should have been received
C. Alerting Service and Flight Information Service are often provided by the same
ATS unit
D. The distress phase is established when an aircraft is known or believed th be the
subject of unlawful interference
(Checked)

246. Estimated time of arrival is…. :

A. For VFR flights, the time at which it is estimated that the aircraft will arrive over
the aerodrome
B. For IFR flights, the time at which it is estimated that the aircraft will arrive over
the designated point, defined by reference to navigation aids, from which it is
intended that an instrument approach procedure will be concerned
C. The time at which it is estimated that the aircraft will land on the runway
D. A or B
(Checked)
P/s
arrive over the aerodrome : VFR
over the designated point, defined by reference to navigation aids : IFR

247. The .......... types of separation methods are.....

A. 2 (vertical + horizontal separation)
B. 2 (lateral + vertical separation)
C. 3 (lateral, vertical + horizontal separation)
D.3 (vertical + longitudinal separation)
(Checked)

248. An airspeed indicator displays: (checked)

A. TAS
B. Relative Wind
C. CAS
D. IAS

249. A flight plan for a flight to be provided with air traffic control service shall
be submitted at least _____ before departure: (Checked)
 A. 60 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 45 minutes
D. 15 minutes

250. In ATFN messages, what is YNYX?

A. For a computer facility at Area Control Center
B. International NOTAM Office
C. For Area Control Center
D. Military Flight Operational Control Center