ĐA ĐỀ 131 (VIP 30)
ĐA ĐỀ 131 (VIP 30)
ĐA ĐỀ 131 (VIP 30)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. width B. strength C. tooth D. smooth
Question 2. A. dinner B. visit C. confide D. begin
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. delay B. devote C. explain D. happen
Question 4. A. important B. accurate C. artistic D. expensive
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. Benzene, _______ by Faraday, became the starting point in the manufacture of many dyes,
perfumes and explosives.
A. was discovered B. discovering C. discovered D. was discovering
Question 6. Exercising regularly is _______ than sitting for long periods of time in front of a screen.
A. most beneficial B. as beneficial C. the most beneficial D. more beneficial
Question 7. You will receive an automatic email notification _______.
A. as soon as you completed your online profile B. once your profile is available online
C. after your profile will be available online D. when you finished your online profile
Question 8. If you are absent _______ work for more than three days, you must provide a medical
certificate.
A. at B. from C. to D. away
Question 9. They flew from Los Angeles to Toronto by way of Chicago, _______?
A. didn’t they B. was they C. don’t they D. are they
Question 10. _______ life has become much easier for people living near the world heritage sites because
there are more and better paid jobs there.
A. The B. Ø (no article) C. A D. An
Question 11. The growth in employment and wages gives consumers some spending _______ to absorb
the higher cost of energy.
A. energy B. force C. ability D. power
Question 12. I believe they're about to _______ a law that bans people from public places if they're not
smoking
A. figure out B. bring in C. cut out D. set in
Question 13. Vietnam failed _______ it around in the second leg of the 2022 AFF Cup after losing 0-1
and let Thailand lift the trophy.
A. to turn B. turning C. turned D. turn
Question 14. The characters in Tony’s film are always larger than _______ as they are much more
exciting and interesting than any other actors.
A. life B. expectation C. span D. longevity
Question 15. Lan Minh _______ her presentation on career orientations when her parents came back
home from work.
A. was completing B. completed C. are completing D. has completed
Question 16. I am sure your sister will _______ you a sympathetic ear when you explain the
situation to her.
A. pay B. lend C. borrow D. take
Question 17. When the children complete their homework, they _______ for a walk to a nearby
playground.
A. will take B. will be taken C. have taken D. are taking
Question 18. High qualification and experience during internship period will help you receive an
_______ offer from large companies.
A. attract B. attraction C. attractive D. attractively
Question 19. A professor at Oxford University was _______ for her contribution to finding an effective
vaccine against the novel coronavirus.
A. decorated B. renovated C. refurbished D. embellished
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 20. Linh and Nam are talking about high school education.
- Linh: "In my opinion, History must be a compulsory subject at high schools."
- Nga: "_______. Historical knowledge helps students arouse their national pride.
A. That's not true B. It's ridiculous C. I don't quite agree D. I completely agree
Question 21. Michael and Linda are at the schoolyard.
- Michael: “Do you prefer relaxing holidays, or would you rather go on an adventure?”
- Linda: “_______”
A. To be honest, that sounds great. B. Honestly, I’m not the adventurous type.
C. As a matter of fact, I’d rather like them. D. Why don’t you go for a holiday?
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions.
Question 22. Various programs have been designed in order to facilitate the storage and analysis of
research data.
A. ease B. block C. speed D. build
Question 23. I should keep a stiff upper lip and take the high road and all that, so I will.
A. be talkative B. be calm C. be quiet D. be nervous
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 24. He stressed that idea of the event is to grab the public's attention with their favorite acts,
rather than to give them a diverse arts festival.
A. distract B. evaluate C. change D. attract
Question 25. It's a memorable night for all Vietnamese football fans when their team won the gold
medal in Sea Games 31.
A. unforgettable B. remarkable C. incredible D. eventful
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 26. You are wrong to drive in a car without fastening the seat belt.
A. You needn't drive in a car without fastening the seat belt.
B. You would drive in a car without fastening the seat belt.
C. You can drive in a car without fastening the seat belt.
D. You shouldn't drive in a car without fastening the seat belt.
Question 27. Mrs. Brown last went on a trip to Hanoi with his family two years ago.
A. Mrs. Brown has gone on a trip to Hanoi with his family for two years.
B. Mrs. Brown didn't go on a trip to Hanoi with his family two years ago.
C. Mrs. Brown has two years to go on a trip to Hanoi with his family.
D. Mrs. Brown hasn't gone on a trip to Hanoi with his family for two years.
Question 28. “When will you start doing your exercises?” asked my father.
A. My father asked me when would I start doing my exercise.
B. My father asked me when I would start doing my exercise.
C. My father asked me when I will start doing my exercise.
D. My father asked me when will I start doing my exercise.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 29. Honestly, the team had the distinctive advantage of playing in their own stadium;
winning a victory is not surprising.
A. Honestly B. distinctive C. stadium D. surprising
Question 30. Last year, Tim works as a shipper and he earned twice as much as his brother.
A. works B. a shipper C. twice D. as
Question 31. Some children still face discrimination at school because of its sexual orientation
A. Some B. face C. at school D. its
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 32. We don’t live in Da Nang. We can't walk along Dragon Bridge.
A. If only we had lived in Da Nang, we would have walked along Dragon Bridge.
B. If we lived in Da Nang, we would walk along Dragon Bridge.
C. If we lived in Da Nang, we wouldn’t walk along Dragon Bridge.
D. Provided that we live in Da Nang, we won't walk along Dragon Bridge.
Question 33. The play ended in tragedy. He didn’t shed a tear.
A. Such was a tragic play that he didn't shed a tear.
B. Only when he didn't shed a tear did the play end in tragedy.
C. So tragic was the play that he shed a tear.
D. Not a tear did he shed when the play ended in tragedy.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that
best fits each the numbered blanks.
The importance of internships
Recent research indicates that graduates applying to some of the UK's leading employers stand a
much better chance of being offered a job if they have already had (34) _______ work experience
with the same organization - either through internships, industrial placements or vacation work.
(35) _______ three quarters of graduate vacancies are likely to be snapped up by graduates (36)
_______ already had some work experience with the same employer. This latest research confirms
that taking part in work placements or internships whilst at university is now just as important as
getting a good degree. A separate study warns that almost six in ten students finish university
without a graduate job, highlighting the (37) _______ competition for graduate jobs. It is not (38)
_______ that employers are going to be interested in your previous work experience and while this
does not have to have been a glamorous internship with an investment bank, using your time at
university to gain work experience is going to have a major impact on your future job prospects.
(Adapted from "Complete Advanced" by Guy Brook-Hart and Simon Haines)
Question 34. A. other B. some C. few D. each
Question 35. A. In fact B. On the contrary C. As a result D. However
Question 36. A. whose B. which C. who D. that
Question 37. A. massive B. immense C. considerable D. intense
Question 38. A. surprising B. astonishing C. amazing D. shocking
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the
question.
There is nothing to suggest that Evelyn Glennie is profoundly deaf. She insists that her deafness is
irrelevant to her musicianship, but there is no doubt that her obvious handicap has turned a remarkable
career into a miraculous one.
Glennie was eight when her hearing began to fail; by twelve she had lost it completely and feared she
would have to give up the music she loved. But a doctor’s suggestion that she should become an
accountant rather than follow a hopeless musical career strengthened her will to succeed.
As it turned out, music was one of the most advantageous careers she could have chosen and is one
reason why her speech remains so extraordinarily correct, despite her deafness. Occasionally she listens
to recordings by holding a cassette player between her knees, interpreting the vibrations and the shaking
movements. Her deafness is one of the reasons for her unique style, for she cannot listen and be
influenced by other performances and she has often declared that getting her hearing back would be the
worst thing that could happen to her.
As a result of her devotion to her music and her determination to succeed, she has doubled the range
of works available for percussion music in Europe and introduced instruments previously unheard of in
the west. She has also asked composers to write more than fifty new pieces of music for these
instruments, and has set up a library of three hundred works for other musicians to use.
(Adapted from Richmond FCE Practice Tests)
Question 39. Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A. How to be a Successful Singer B. The Disadvantages of Deafness
C. Developing Musical Skills at School D. Overcoming a Severe Disability
Question 40. The word it in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. hearing B. handicap C. career D. music
Question 41. The word unique in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. special B. boring C. common D. healthy
Question 42. According to paragraph 4, Glennie has ______.
A. refused to introduce new instruments to the west
B. written over fifty new pieces of music by herself
C. established a library to support other musicians
D. given up the hope to succeed in her musical career
Question 43. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. People can easily tell that Glennie is completely deaf.
B. Glennie’s deafness turns out to be an advantage to her career.
C. Glennie wishes she could hear clearly like a normal person.
D. Glennie’s doctor encouraged her to become a musician.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the
question.
The United States was the first country to conclude a safeguards agreement with the IAEA, covering
four research reactors and intended to help the IAEA develop its safeguards methods. During the
negotiation of the NPT, the United States committed to accept the same safeguards on its civil nuclear
facilities that non-nuclear-weapon States would be required to accept under the NPT. This “voluntary
offer” safeguards agreement (VOA) entered into force in 1980. Under the VOA, the United States
provides the IAEA with a list of civil nuclear facilities, excluding only those facilities of direct national
security significance to the United States, thereby making them eligible for IAEA safeguards. The IAEA
may select any facility on this list for the application of safeguards. As of December 2019, 274 facilities
are on the Eligible Facilities List, and the IAEA applies safeguards at one facility, the K-Area Material
Storage facility at the Department of Energy’s Savannah River Site. Between 1981 and 2019, the IAEA
conducted over 869 inspections at 19 facilities in the United States.
During the negotiation of the Model Additional Protocol, the United States committed to accept all
the measures of the Model Protocol with respect to its civil nuclear activities, excluding only information,
location, and activities of direct national security significance to the United States. The U.S. signature of
the Additional Protocol was an important factor in the decisions of many non-nuclear-weapon states to
accept the Model Protocol and provided significant impetus toward their early acceptance. The U.S.
Additional Protocol entered into force on January 6, 2009. By submitting itself to the same safeguards on
its civil nuclear activities that non-nuclear-weapon States Party to the NPT are required to accept, the
United States demonstrates that adherence to the Model Protocol does not place other countries at a
commercial disadvantage.
(Adapted from https://2009-2017.state.gov/)
Question 44. Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A. A List of Civil Nuclear Facilities
B. 869 Inspections at 19 Facilities in the United States
C. IAEA Safeguards in the United States
D. The U.S. Additional Protocol
Question 45. The word voluntary in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. mysterious B. industrious C. harmonious D. spontaneous
Question 46. According to paragraph 1, the United States ______.
A. is the second country to conclude a safeguards agreement with the IAEA
B. accepts the same safeguards on its civil nuclear facilities
C. selects any facility on the list for the application of safeguards
D. conducted over 869 inspections at 19 facilities in 2019
Question 47. The word them in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. the United States B. nuclear facilities C. facilities D. IAEA safeguards
Question 48. The word impetus in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. inspection B. motivation C. obligation D. hindrance
Question 49. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. There are 274 facilities on the Eligible Facilities List in December 2019.
B. The United States will accept all the measures of the Model Protocol.
C. The U.S. Additional Protocol entered into force on January 6, 2009.
D. Adherence to the Model Protocol may cause commercial disadvantage.
Question 50. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. It’s important to have IAEA Safeguards in the United States.
B. The United States will become a leader of IAEA.
C. The United States provides the IAEA with lots of money to operate.
D. The U.S. signature of the Additional Protocol may bring about disadvantage.
THE END
ĐÁP ÁN
Question 8. Đáp án B
Kiến thức: Giới từ
Giải thích:
Ta có cấu trúc: be absent from: vắng/ nghỉ …
Vậy đáp án đúng là B
Tạm dịch: Nếu bạn nghỉ làm hơn ba ngày, bạn phải cung cấp giấy chứng nhận y tế.