Test Bank For Human Resource Management 12th Edition Ivancevich

Test Bank for Human Resource Management, 12th Edition : Ivancevich
Test Bank for Human Resource Management, 12th

Edition : Ivancevich
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c6
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. The cornerstone of any organization is the human resources department.
True False
2. Studying and understanding jobs through job analysis is a vital part of any HRM program.
True False
3. How workers' responsibilities and duties are segmented helps shape and determine virtually all
other facets of organizational functioning.
True False
4. Precision in the use of job analysis terms is required by federal legislation.
True False
5. The Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures is a set of policies designed to

minimize or prevent workplace sexual harassment.
True False
6. Knowing the skills necessary for jobs is essential to building effective training programs.
True False
7. A process chart presents the relationships among departments and units of the firm.
True False
8. Differences among job incumbents should be disregarded during the analysis of JAIF
information.
True False
9. The costs of interviewing can be very high.
True False
10. Many experts agree that interviews can be relied on as the sole data collection method.
True False
11. An advantage of a Functional Job Analysis is that each job is given a quantitative score. Thus, for
HRM and compensation purposes, jobs with similar ratings are assumed to be similar.
True False
12. Position analysis questionnaires are often filled out by a trained job analyst in order to ensure that
the handwriting is legible and consistent.
True False
13. The MPDQ is a checklist of 208 items related to the concerns and responsibilities of
manufacturing line employees.
True False
14. Repetitive, highly specialized work leads to higher levels of absenteeism and turnover.
True False
15. With job enrichment, employees are given responsibility that might have previously been part of a
supervisor's job.
True False
16. Job analysis provides answers to questions such as ______________.
A. which candidate should be hired for a position

B. what kind of behaviors are needed to perform a job
C. how much should an individual be paid
D. All of the above.
17. Job analysis provides answers to all of the following questions except:
A. which candidate should be hired for a position.

B. what kind of behaviors are needed to perform a job.
C. how much time is taken to complete a task.
D. which tasks are grouped together and considered a job
18. A purposeful, systematic process for collecting information on the important work-related aspects
of a job is called a ________.
A. job analysis
B. job description
C. job specification
D. position analysis
19. A written explanation of the knowledge, skills, abilities, traits, and other characteristics (KSAOs)
necessary for effective performance on a given job is called a ________.
A. job analysis
B. job description
20. A written summary of the job as an identifiable organizational unit is called a ________.
A. job analysis
B. job description
21. A group of two or more jobs that have similar duties is called a ________.
A. job family
B. job group
D. position family
22. There are ___ steps in the job analysis process.
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 8
23. The first step in the job analysis process is to __________.
A. determine how the job analysis information will be used

B. select the job to be analyzed
C. examine the total organization and the fit of each job.
D. determine how to conduct the job analysis
24. Information from a job analysis may be used for _______.
A. EEO compliance
B. planning
C. job design
25. A ____________ is defined as a group of positions that are similar in their duties.
A. position
B. job
C. job group
D. position group
26. There are as many positions in an organization as there are _______________________.
A. jobs
B. job grades
C. employees
D. occupations
27. Job analysis is closely tied to _______________.
A. training
B. compensation
C. recruitment and selection
D. All of the choices are correct.
28. ____________ are a set of policies designed to minimize or prevent workplace discrimination
practices.
A. Federal Guidelines to Prevent Discrimination

B. Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures
C. Uniform Guidelines on Employee Discrimination
D. EEOC Bulletins on Discrimination
29. If it is to be viewed favorably, a good job analysis must provide the following all of the following
except:
A. It should yield a thorough, clear job description.

B. The frequency and importance of task behaviors should be assessed.
C. It must allow for an accurate assessment of the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other
characteristics required by the job.
D. It must clearly determine which KSOs are important for each job duty.
30. The choice of who should analyze a job depends on _______________.
A. the location and complexity of the job to be analyzed

B. how receptive incumbents are to an external analyst
C. the ultimate purpose of the results of the analysis
31. Before asking employees and supervisors for their assistance in conducting several job analyses,
HR managers need to ___________________.
A. have the employees sign disclosure statements

B. inform the employees of their rights under the UGESP
C. communicate to these individuals why job analyses are important and how the information will
be used
D. balance the employee pool to ensure diversity in the sample
32. Conducting a job analysis with job incumbents may be advantageous as:
A. they are a good source of information about what work is actually being done rather than what
work is supposed to be done
B. involving incumbents in the job analysis process might increase their acceptance of any work
changes stemming from the results of the analysis
C. they are typically more objective than outsiders
D. Both A and B are correct.
33. Conducting a job analysis with job incumbents may be advantageous for all of the following
reasons except:
A. they are a good source of information about what work is actually being done rather than what
work is supposed to be done
B. involving incumbents in the job analysis process might increase their acceptance of any work
changes stemming from the results of the analysis
D. None of the above.
34. Reengineering designs jobs around important outcomes, like performance, rather than:
A. Specific tasks
B. Corporate divisions
C. Organization charts
D. Pay grades
35. All of the following are core competencies required of HR professionals around the world except:
A. Credible activist
B. Cultural steward
C. Strategy architect
D. Termination executor
36. The HR competency of _________ is associated with the need to be proactive and advocate for
their own position with top management of the company.
A. credible activist
B. cultural steward
C. strategy architect
D. business ally
37. The HR competency of _________ is associated with the ability to shape an effective
organizational culture.
B. cultural steward
D. business ally
38. The HR competency of _________ is associated with the need to know how the business makes
money, what products/services it sells, and who the customers are.
B. cultural steward
D. business ally
39. The HR competency of operational executor refers to _____________.
A. the traditional responsibilities of HR, recruitment, selection, compensation, training, etc., that
need to be well-managed
B. the need to know how the business makes money, what products/services it sells, and who the
customers are.
C. the need to understand the production/operations elements of the organization
D. the ability to shape an effective operational culture within recent years.
40. The ___________________ presents the relationships among departments and units of the firm.
A. relationship chart
B. organizational chart
C. line chart
D. responsibility chart
41. All of the following can be used separately, or in combination, to collect job analysis data except:
A. Observation
B. Questionnaires
C. Interview
D. Product testing
42. The most widely used technique in collecting data for job analysis is _______________.
A. the interview
B. observation
C. the questionnaire
D. the incumbent diary
43. Interviews to obtain job information can be conducted with:
A. A single job incumbent

B. A group of job incumbents
C. A supervisor who is knowledgeable about the job
44. Typically the least costly method to collect job analysis data is ________________.
A. incumbent logs
B. questioners
C. observation
D. interviews
45. According to the text, _______________ is useful when attempting to analyze jobs that are
difficult to observe.
A. an interview
B. a diary or log
C. a questionnaire
46. The FJA was originally conceived in the late _______.
A. 1930s
B. 1940s
C. 1960s
D. 1970s
47. The Functional Job Analysis assumes that jobs can be described in terms of basic relationships
that the incumbent has with his or her work. Which of the following is not one of those
relationships?
A. Physically relating to things

B. Using mental resources to process data
C. Interacting with the artificial intelligence of machines
D. Interacting with people
48. The Occupational Information Network _________.
A. replaced the DOT

B. describes job KOs
C. encompasses over 100 years of occupational knowledge
D. All of the above are correct.
49. Of the following, a(n) _______________ is the most likely to use the O*NET system to develop
job descriptions and specifications.
A. HR professional
B. career counselor
C. recruiter
D. educator
50. All of the following are major sections of the position analysis questionnaire except:
A. Information output
B. Mental processes
C. Relationships with other people
D. Job context
51. All of the following are dimensions on which PAQ ratings are scored except:
A. Decision making
B. Social responsibilities
C. Operating vehicles or equipment
D. Performing unskilled activities
52. Conducting a job analysis for managerial jobs offers a significant challenge to the analyst
because of all of the following except:
A. Disparity across positions

B. Disparity between managers
C. Disparity across levels in the hierarchy
D. Disparity across industries
53. The MPDQ is a _________________.
A. checklist related to the concerns and responsibilities of manufacturing line employees

B. checklist related to the concerns and responsibilities of police department management
C. checklist related to the concerns and responsibilities of management
54. All of the following have increased the need for job descriptions in recent years except:
A. The aging of the current workforce

B. The need to implement new and creative ways to motivate and reward employees
C. The accelerated rate at which technology is changing work environments
D. More stringent federal regulation of employment practices
55. The common metric questionnaire has the advantage of ________________.
A. having a more appropriate reading level

B. being more behaviorally concrete
C. being appropriate for both exempt and nonexempt employees
D. All of these responses are correct.
56. The job specification evolves from the _________.
A. job description
B. position qualification checklist
C. position analysis
D. one net job characteristics
57. R.J. Harvey offered guidelines for arriving at the characteristics that should be included on a job
specification. Which of the following is not one of the recommended guidelines?
A. Identify and rate job tasks in terms of importance, using sound job analysis techniques
B. A panel of experts, incumbents, or supervisors should specify the necessary skills for
performing each job task identified
C. Rate the relative importance of each worker and manager
D. Identify any other characteristics necessary for performing the job, such as physical
requirement and professional certification
58. _______________ are general attributes that employees need to do well across multiple jobs or
within the organization as a whole.
A. Competencies
B. Intelligences
C. Abilities
D. Attitudes
59. Perspectives on the design of work can be classified into all of the following categories except:
A. Perceptual-motor approach
B. Biological approach
C. Mechanistic approach
D. Linguistic approach
60. The _______________ approach to job design emphasizes the proper match between machines
and operators.
A. biological
B. mechanical
C. practical
D. holistic
61. Job design was a central issue in ___________. His use of job design is an excellent example of
the rational approach and shows how certain perspectives focus more heavily on productivity
than on satisfaction.
A. Mayo's essay on motivation

B. F. W. Taylor's model of scientific management
C. Frederic Herzberg's two-factor
D. Ivoncevich's multifactor theory
62. Job _______________ tries to design jobs in ways that help incumbents satisfy their needs for
growth, recognition, and responsibility.
A. enrichment
B. growth
C. expansion
D. motivation
63. All of the following are recommendations stemming from Taylor's scientific management research
except:
A. Work should be studied scientifically

B. Work should be arranged so that the machinery can be efficient
C. Employees should be trained to perform the job
D. Monetary compensation should be tied directly to performance
64. _____________ attempts to increase satisfaction by giving employees a greater variety of things
to do.
A. Job enrichment
B. Job enlargement
C. Job expansion
D. Job engorgement
65. The notion of satisfying employees' needs as a way of designing jobs comes from ___________.

66. Which of the following is not directelly associated with experienced meaningfulness?
A. Skill variety
B. Feedback
C. Task identity
D. Task significance
67. Which of the following is not one of the psychological states necessary for motivation and job
satisfaction?
A. Experienced meaningfulness
B. Experienced responsibility
C. Task significance
D. Knowledge of results
68. Which of the following is not one of the forces driving work-family tension?
A. The aging population

B. An expanding number of women and single parents entering the workforce
C. An increase in the number of dual-career couples
D. More young workers entering the workforce
69. ________ is a work arrangement in which two or more employees divide a job's responsibilities,
hours, and benefits among themselves.
A. Job splitting
B. Job sharing
C. Job enlargement
D. Job augmentation
70. When a skill deficiency exists for a reengineered organization, it can be eliminated through:
A. training
B. redeployment
C. outsourcing
71. What are the Uniform Guidelines in Employee Selection Procedures?
72. Why is objectivity difficult to achieve when incumbents conduct the job analysis?
73. What is an organization chart and what function does it serve?
74. What information is provided by the JAIF?
75. What is a process chart and how is it different from an organization chart?
76. Interviews are difficult to standardize for three reasons. What are they?
77. Identify four hints for making a questionnaire easier to use.
78. What problems are associated with using interviews for the collection of job analysis data?
79. What are two of the hints provided in the text regarding the use of questionnaires to collect job
analysis data?
80. What does KSAO stand for?

81. What is the relationship between O*NET and DOT?
82. What are essential skills?
83. What are job competencies?
84. How does job enrichment differ from job enlargement?

85. What is job sharing?
86. List the six steps in the job analysis process. Can any of these steps be skipped?
87. Identify and explain three things that a good job analysis must provide if it is to be viewed
favorably in court.
88. What is the difference between job oriented analysis and work-oriented analysis? Which method
is better?
89. Identify two major problems with the Position Analysis Questionnaire. How would you address
them?
90. Although there is no standard format for a job description, almost all well-written, useful
descriptions will include these components: (1) Job title, (2) Summary, (3) Equipment, (4)
Environment, (5) Activities. Explain what information should be contained in each section.
c6 Key
1. The cornerstone of any organization is the human resources department.

(p. 151)
FALSE
The cornerstone of any organization is the set of jobs performed by its employees.
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Ivancevich - Chapter 06 #1
2. Studying and understanding jobs through job analysis is a vital part of any HRM program.
(p. 151)
TRUE
Difficulty: 1 Easy
3. How workers' responsibilities and duties are segmented helps shape and determine virtually
(p. 151) all other facets of organizational functioning.
TRUE
4. Precision in the use of job analysis terms is required by federal legislation.

(p. 152)
TRUE
5. The Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures is a set of policies designed to

(p. 153) minimize or prevent workplace sexual harassment.
FALSE
The Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures is a set of policies designed to

minimize or prevent workplace discrimination practices
6. Knowing the skills necessary for jobs is essential to building effective training programs.
(p. 154)
TRUE
Difficulty: 1 Easy
7. A process chart presents the relationships among departments and units of the firm.
(p. 155)
FALSE
An organization chart presents the relationships among departments and units of the firm.
8. Differences among job incumbents should be disregarded during the analysis of JAIF
(p. 156) information.
FALSE
Differences among job incumbents should be considered during the analysis of JAIF
information.
9. The costs of interviewing can be very high.

(p. 159)
TRUE
Difficulty: 1 Easy
10. Many experts agree that interviews can be relied on as the sole data collection method.
(p. 160)
FALSE
Many experts agree that interviews should not be relied on as the sole data collection method.
Difficulty: 1 Easy
11. An advantage of a Functional Job Analysis is that each job is given a quantitative score. Thus,
(p. 161) for HRM and compensation purposes, jobs with similar ratings are assumed to be similar.
TRUE
Difficulty: 3 Hard
12. Position analysis questionnaires are often filled out by a trained job analyst in order to ensure
(p. 162) that the handwriting is legible and consistent.
FALSE
The questionnaire is often filled out by a trained job analyst because it generally requires
considerable experience and a high level of reading comprehension to complete properly.
Difficulty: 1 Easy
13. The MPDQ is a checklist of 208 items related to the concerns and responsibilities of
(p. 164) manufacturing line employees.
FALSE
The MPDQ is a checklist of 208 items related to the concerns and responsibilities of
managers.
14. Repetitive, highly specialized work leads to higher levels of absenteeism and turnover.
(p. 171)
TRUE
Difficulty: 1 Easy
15. With job enrichment, employees are given responsibility that might have previously been part
(p. 172) of a supervisor's job.
TRUE
Difficulty: 1 Easy
16. Job analysis provides answers to questions such as ______________.

(p. 151)
A. which candidate should be hired for a position

B. what kind of behaviors are needed to perform a job
C. how much should an individual be paid
17. Job analysis provides answers to all of the following questions except:
(p. 151)
A. which candidate should be hired for a position.

B. what kind of behaviors are needed to perform a job.
C. how much time is taken to complete a task.
D. which tasks are grouped together and considered a job
18. A purposeful, systematic process for collecting information on the important work-related
(p. 152) aspects of a job is called a ________.
A. job analysis
B. job description
19. A written explanation of the knowledge, skills, abilities, traits, and other characteristics
(p. 152) (KSAOs) necessary for effective performance on a given job is called a ________.
A. job analysis
B. job description
20. A written summary of the job as an identifiable organizational unit is called a ________.
(p. 152)
A. job analysis
B. job description
21. A group of two or more jobs that have similar duties is called a ________.
(p. 152)
A. job family
B. job group
D. position family
22. There are ___ steps in the job analysis process.

(p. 152)
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 8
23. The first step in the job analysis process is to __________.

(p. 152)
A. determine how the job analysis information will be used

B. select the job to be analyzed
C. examine the total organization and the fit of each job.
D. determine how to conduct the job analysis
24. Information from a job analysis may be used for _______.

(p. 152)
A. EEO compliance
B. planning
C. job design
25. A ____________ is defined as a group of positions that are similar in their duties.
(p. 152)
A. position
B. job
C. job group
D. position group
Difficulty: 3 Hard
26. There are as many positions in an organization as there are _______________________.

(p. 152)
A. jobs
B. job grades
C. employees
D. occupations
27. Job analysis is closely tied to _______________.

(p. 152)
A. training
B. compensation
C. recruitment and selection
Difficulty: 1 Easy
28. ____________ are a set of policies designed to minimize or prevent workplace discrimination
(p. 153) practices.
A. Federal Guidelines to Prevent Discrimination

B. Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures
C. Uniform Guidelines on Employee Discrimination
D. EEOC Bulletins on Discrimination
Difficulty: 3 Hard
29. If it is to be viewed favorably, a good job analysis must provide the following all of the following
(p. 153) except:
A. It should yield a thorough, clear job description.

B. The frequency and importance of task behaviors should be assessed.
C. It must allow for an accurate assessment of the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other
characteristics required by the job.
D. It must clearly determine which KSOs are important for each job duty.
Difficulty: 3 Hard
30. The choice of who should analyze a job depends on _______________.

(p. 154)
A. the location and complexity of the job to be analyzed

B. how receptive incumbents are to an external analyst
C. the ultimate purpose of the results of the analysis
Difficulty: 1 Easy
31. Before asking employees and supervisors for their assistance in conducting several job
(p. 154) analyses, HR managers need to ___________________.
A. have the employees sign disclosure statements

B. inform the employees of their rights under the UGESP
C. communicate to these individuals why job analyses are important and how the information
will be used
D. balance the employee pool to ensure diversity in the sample
32. Conducting a job analysis with job incumbents may be advantageous as:
(p. 154)
A. they are a good source of information about what work is actually being done rather than
what work is supposed to be done
B. involving incumbents in the job analysis process might increase their acceptance of any
work changes stemming from the results of the analysis
D. Both A and B are correct.
33. Conducting a job analysis with job incumbents may be advantageous for all of the following
(p. 154) reasons except:
A. they are a good source of information about what work is actually being done rather than
what work is supposed to be done
B. involving incumbents in the job analysis process might increase their acceptance of any
work changes stemming from the results of the analysis
34. Reengineering designs jobs around important outcomes, like performance, rather than:
(p. 155)
A. Specific tasks
B. Corporate divisions
C. Organization charts
D. Pay grades
35. All of the following are core competencies required of HR professionals around the world
(p. 155) except:
A. Credible activist
B. Cultural steward
C. Strategy architect
D. Termination executor
36. The HR competency of _________ is associated with the need to be proactive and advocate
(p. 155) for their own position with top management of the company.
B. cultural steward
D. business ally
37. The HR competency of _________ is associated with the ability to shape an effective
(p. 155) organizational culture.
B. cultural steward
D. business ally
Difficulty: 1 Easy
38. The HR competency of _________ is associated with the need to know how the business
(p. 155) makes money, what products/services it sells, and who the customers are.
B. cultural steward
D. business ally
39. The HR competency of operational executor refers to _____________.

(p. 155)
A. the traditional responsibilities of HR, recruitment, selection, compensation, training, etc.,

that need to be well-managed
B. the need to know how the business makes money, what products/services it sells, and who
the customers are.
C. the need to understand the production/operations elements of the organization
D. the ability to shape an effective operational culture within recent years.
40. The ___________________ presents the relationships among departments and units of the
(p. 155) firm.
A. relationship chart
B. organizational chart
C. line chart
D. responsibility chart
41. All of the following can be used separately, or in combination, to collect job analysis data
(p. 156) except:
A. Observation
B. Questionnaires
C. Interview
D. Product testing
Difficulty: 1 Easy
42. The most widely used technique in collecting data for job analysis is _______________.
(p. 159)
A. the interview
B. observation
C. the questionnaire
D. the incumbent diary
43. Interviews to obtain job information can be conducted with:

(p. 159)
A. A single job incumbent

B. A group of job incumbents
C. A supervisor who is knowledgeable about the job
Difficulty: 1 Easy
44. Typically the least costly method to collect job analysis data is ________________.
(p. 159)
A. incumbent logs
B. questioners
C. observation
D. interviews
45. According to the text, _______________ is useful when attempting to analyze jobs that are
(p. 159) difficult to observe.
A. an interview
B. a diary or log
C. a questionnaire
Difficulty: 3 Hard
46. The FJA was originally conceived in the late _______.

(p. 160)
A. 1930s
B. 1940s
C. 1960s
D. 1970s
47. The Functional Job Analysis assumes that jobs can be described in terms of basic
(p. 161) relationships that the incumbent has with his or her work. Which of the following is not one of
those relationships?
A. Physically relating to things

B. Using mental resources to process data
C. Interacting with the artificial intelligence of machines
D. Interacting with people
48. The Occupational Information Network _________.

(p. 161)
A. replaced the DOT

B. describes job KOs
C. encompasses over 100 years of occupational knowledge
D. All of the above are correct.
49. Of the following, a(n) _______________ is the most likely to use the O*NET system to
(p. 162) develop job descriptions and specifications.
A. HR professional
B. career counselor
C. recruiter
D. educator
50. All of the following are major sections of the position analysis questionnaire except:
(p. 164)
A. Information output
B. Mental processes
C. Relationships with other people
D. Job context
51. All of the following are dimensions on which PAQ ratings are scored except:
(p. 164)
A. Decision making
B. Social responsibilities
C. Operating vehicles or equipment
D. Performing unskilled activities
Difficulty: 3 Hard
52. Conducting a job analysis for managerial jobs offers a significant challenge to the analyst
(p. 164) because of all of the following except:
A. Disparity across positions

B. Disparity between managers
C. Disparity across levels in the hierarchy
D. Disparity across industries
53. The MPDQ is a _________________.
(p. 164)
A. checklist related to the concerns and responsibilities of manufacturing line employees

B. checklist related to the concerns and responsibilities of police department management
C. checklist related to the concerns and responsibilities of management
54. All of the following have increased the need for job descriptions in recent years except:
(p. 165)
A. The aging of the current workforce

B. The need to implement new and creative ways to motivate and reward employees
C. The accelerated rate at which technology is changing work environments
D. More stringent federal regulation of employment practices
55. The common metric questionnaire has the advantage of ________________.

(p. 165)
A. having a more appropriate reading level

B. being more behaviorally concrete
C. being appropriate for both exempt and nonexempt employees
D. All of these responses are correct.
56. The job specification evolves from the _________.

(p. 166)
A. job description
B. position qualification checklist
C. position analysis
D. one net job characteristics
Difficulty: 1 Easy
57. R.J. Harvey offered guidelines for arriving at the characteristics that should be included on a
(p. 167) job specification. Which of the following is not one of the recommended guidelines?
A. Identify and rate job tasks in terms of importance, using sound job analysis techniques
B. A panel of experts, incumbents, or supervisors should specify the necessary skills for
performing each job task identified
C. Rate the relative importance of each worker and manager
D. Identify any other characteristics necessary for performing the job, such as physical
requirement and professional certification
Difficulty: 3 Hard
58. _______________ are general attributes that employees need to do well across multiple jobs
(p. 170) or within the organization as a whole.
A. Competencies
B. Intelligences
C. Abilities
D. Attitudes
Difficulty: 3 Hard
59. Perspectives on the design of work can be classified into all of the following categories
(p. 170) except:
A. Perceptual-motor approach
B. Biological approach
C. Mechanistic approach
D. Linguistic approach
Difficulty: 3 Hard
60. The _______________ approach to job design emphasizes the proper match between
(p. 171) machines and operators.
A. biological
B. mechanical
C. practical
D. holistic
61. Job design was a central issue in ___________. His use of job design is an excellent example
(p. 171) of the rational approach and shows how certain perspectives focus more heavily on
productivity than on satisfaction.

Difficulty: 3 Hard
62. Job _______________ tries to design jobs in ways that help incumbents satisfy their needs for
(p. 172) growth, recognition, and responsibility.
A. enrichment
B. growth
C. expansion
D. motivation
63. All of the following are recommendations stemming from Taylor's scientific management
(p. 171) research except:
A. Work should be studied scientifically

B. Work should be arranged so that the machinery can be efficient
C. Employees should be trained to perform the job
D. Monetary compensation should be tied directly to performance
64. _____________ attempts to increase satisfaction by giving employees a greater variety of

(p. 171) things to do.
A. Job enrichment
B. Job enlargement
C. Job expansion
D. Job engorgement
65. The notion of satisfying employees' needs as a way of designing jobs comes from
(p. 172) ___________.

Difficulty: 3 Hard
66. Which of the following is not directelly associated with experienced meaningfulness?
(p. 173)
A. Skill variety
B. Feedback
C. Task identity
D. Task significance
Difficulty: 3 Hard
67. Which of the following is not one of the psychological states necessary for motivation and job
(p. 173) satisfaction?
A. Experienced meaningfulness
B. Experienced responsibility
C. Task significance
D. Knowledge of results
68. Which of the following is not one of the forces driving work-family tension?
(p. 173)
A. The aging population

B. An expanding number of women and single parents entering the workforce
C. An increase in the number of dual-career couples
D. More young workers entering the workforce
69. ________ is a work arrangement in which two or more employees divide a job's
(p. 174) responsibilities, hours, and benefits among themselves.
A. Job splitting
B. Job sharing
C. Job enlargement
D. Job augmentation
70. When a skill deficiency exists for a reengineered organization, it can be eliminated through:
(p. 155)
A. training
B. redeployment
C. outsourcing
Difficulty: 1 Easy
71. What are the Uniform Guidelines in Employee Selection Procedures?

(p. 153)
In terms of staffing and selection activities, job analysis plays an important role in the Uniform
Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures (1978), a set of policies designed to minimize
or prevent workplace discrimination practices. The UGESP emphasizes that job analysis
should be used when validating or assessing the accuracy of organizational selection
procedures.
72. Why is objectivity difficult to achieve when incumbents conduct the job analysis?
(p. 154)
Because incumbents tend to exaggerate the responsibilities and importance of their work.
73. What is an organization chart and what function does it serve?
(p. 155)
An organization chart presents the relationships among departments and units of the firm. The
line functions (the individuals performing the work duties) and staff functions (the advisers) are
also spelled out. A typical organizational chart will yield information about the number of
vertical levels in the organization, the number of different functional departments, and the
formal reporting relationships that exist.
74. What information is provided by the JAIF?

(p. 156)
A questionnaire called the job analysis information format (JAIF) can provide the basic core
information for use with any job analysis method—observation, interview, questionnaire, or
incumbent diary or log. It permits the job analyst to collect information that provides a thorough
picture of the job, job duties, and requirements.
Difficulty: 3 Hard
75. What is a process chart and how is it different from an organization chart?
(p. 156)
The process chart shows how a specific set of jobs are related to each other. Thus, rather
than simply showing the structural relationships among job titles (as in a typical organizational
chart), the process chart shows the flow of activities and work necessary to produce a desired
product or service.
Difficulty: 3 Hard
76. Interviews are difficult to standardize for three reasons. What are they?
(p. 159)
(1) Different interviewers may ask different questions. (2) The same interviewer might ask
different questions of different respondents. (3) The information provided by the respondent
may be distorted by the interviewer.
Difficulty: 3 Hard
77. Identify four hints for making a questionnaire easier to use.
(p. 159)
(1) Keep it as short as possible. (2) Explain what the questionnaire is being used for. (3) Keep
it simple. (4) Test the questionnaire before using it.
Difficulty: 3 Hard
78. What problems are associated with using interviews for the collection of job analysis data?
(p. 159)
Although interviews can yield useful job analysis information, an awareness of their potential
limitations is also needed. Interviews are difficult to standardize—different interviewers may
ask different questions and the same interviewer might unintentionally ask different questions
of different respondents. There is also a real possibility that the information provided by the
respondent will be unintentionally distorted by the interviewer. Finally, the costs of interviewing
can be very high, especially if group interviews are not practical.
79. What are two of the hints provided in the text regarding the use of questionnaires to collect job
(p. 159) analysis data?
• Keep it as short as possible • Explain what the questionnaire is being used for • Keep it
simple —do not try to impress people with technical language.• Test the questionnaire before
using it
80. What does KSAO stand for?

(p. 160)
Knowledge, skills, abilities, and other human characteristics.
Difficulty: 3 Hard
81. What is the relationship between O*NET and DOT?
(p. 161)
In the 1990s, the U.S. Department of Labor Employment and Training Administration
undertook a major job analysis initiative known as the Occupational Information Network
(O*NET). The O*NET, which has replaced the DOT, is a comprehensive and flexible Internet
accessible database that describes occupations, worker KSAOs, and workplace requirements.
82. What are essential skills?

(p. 168)
Essential skills are those for which alternative ways of accomplishing the job are not possible.
In other words, the skills that are mandatory for performance of the job.
83. What are job competencies?

(p. 170)
Much more general than traditional knowledge, skills, and abilities needed to perform one
specific job, competencies are general attributes employees need to do well across multiple
jobs or within the organization as a whole. For example, competencies might include anything
from "teamwork" to "leadership potential."
84. How does job enrichment differ from job enlargement?

(p. 172)
Rather than simply increasing the variety of tasks performed by an employee, job enrichment
tries to design jobs in ways that help incumbents satisfy their needs for growth, recognition,
and responsibility. Thus, enrichment differs from enlargement because the job is expanded
vertically; employees are given responsibility that might have previously been part of a
supervisor's job.
85. What is job sharing?
(p. 174)
Job sharing is a work arrangement in which two or more employees divide a job's
responsibilities, hours, and benefits among themselves.
86. List the six steps in the job analysis process. Can any of these steps be skipped?
(p. 152)
Step 1 - Examine the total organization and the fit of the job. Step 2 - Determine how job
analysis information will be used. Step 3 - Select jobs to be analyzed. Step 4 - Collect data by
using acceptable job analysis techniques Step 5 - Prepare job description Step 6 - Prepare job
specification
Difficulty: 3 Hard
87. Identify and explain three things that a good job analysis must provide if it is to be viewed
(p. 153) favorably in court.
Any three of the following: (1) It should yield a thorough, clear job description. (2) The
frequency and importance of task behaviors should be assessed. (3) It must allow for an
accurate assessment of the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other characteristics (KSAOs)
required by the job. (4) It must yield information about the relationship between job duties and
the Identified KSAOs. That is, it must clearly determine which KSAOs are important for each
job duty.
Difficulty: 3 Hard
88. What is the difference between job oriented analysis and work-oriented analysis? Which
(p. 156) method is better?
When information about a job is collected and then the job is studied in terms of tasks
completed by the job incumbent, the analysis is job-oriented. When the job is analyzed in
terms of behaviors, such as computing, coordinating, or negotiating, it is a work-oriented job
analysis.
89. Identify two major problems with the Position Analysis Questionnaire. How would you address
(p. 164) them?
Any two of the following: (a) It is long, so it takes time and patience to complete. (b) It may
distort actual task differences in jobs. (c) The ratings on the PAQ may reflect the job analyst's
stereotype about the work, rather than actual differences among jobs.
Difficulty: 1 Easy
90. Although there is no standard format for a job description, almost all well-written, useful
(p. 165) descriptions will include these components: (1) Job title, (2) Summary, (3) Equipment, (4)
Environment, (5) Activities. Explain what information should be contained in each section.
Job title: The title of the job and other identifying information, such as its wage and benefits
classification. Summary: A one- or two-sentence statement describing the purpose of the job
and what outputs are expected from job incumbents. Equipment: A clear statement about the
tools, equipment, and information required to effectively perform the job. Environment:
Description of the working conditions of the job, the location of the job, and other relevant
characteristics of the immediate work environment, such as hazards and noise levels.
Activities: A description of the job duties, responsibilities, and behaviors performed on the job.
It also describes the social Interactions associated with the work. For example, the size of the
work group and the amount of dependency in the work
Test Bank for Human Resource Management, 12th Edition : Ivancevich
c6 Summary
Category # of Questions
Difficulty: 1 Easy 15
Difficulty: 2 Medium 56
Difficulty: 3 Hard 19
Ivancevich - Chapter 06 90
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1. The cornerstone of any organization is the human resources department.

4. Precision in the use of job analysis terms is required by federal legislation.

5. The Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures is a set of policies designed to

9. The costs of interviewing can be very high.

16. Job analysis provides answers to questions such as ______________.

A. which candidate should be hired for a position

A. which candidate should be hired for a position.

22. There are ___ steps in the job analysis process.

23. The first step in the job analysis process is to __________.

A. determine how the job analysis information will be used

26. There are as many positions in an organization as there are _______________________.

27. Job analysis is closely tied to _______________.

A. Federal Guidelines to Prevent Discrimination

A. It should yield a thorough, clear job description.

30. The choice of who should analyze a job depends on _______________.

A. the location and complexity of the job to be analyzed

A. have the employees sign disclosure statements

39. The HR competency of operational executor refers to _____________.

A. A single job incumbent

46. The FJA was originally conceived in the late _______.

A. Physically relating to things

A. replaced the DOT

A. Disparity across positions

A. checklist related to the concerns and responsibilities of manufacturing line employees

A. The aging of the current workforce

55. The common metric questionnaire has the advantage of ________________.

A. having a more appropriate reading level

56. The job specification evolves from the _________.

A. Mayo's essay on motivation

A. Work should be studied scientifically

A. Mayo's essay on motivation

A. The aging population

71. What are the Uniform Guidelines in Employee Selection Procedures?

74. What information is provided by the JAIF?

80. What does KSAO stand for?

82. What are essential skills?

83. What are job competencies?

84. How does job enrichment differ from job enlargement?

1. The cornerstone of any organization is the human resources department.

4. Precision in the use of job analysis terms is required by federal legislation.

5. The Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures is a set of policies designed to

The Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures is a set of policies designed to

9. The costs of interviewing can be very high.

16. Job analysis provides answers to questions such as ______________.

A. which candidate should be hired for a position

A. which candidate should be hired for a position.

22. There are ___ steps in the job analysis process.

23. The first step in the job analysis process is to __________.

A. determine how the job analysis information will be used

24. Information from a job analysis may be used for _______.

26. There are as many positions in an organization as there are _______________________.

27. Job analysis is closely tied to _______________.

A. Federal Guidelines to Prevent Discrimination

A. It should yield a thorough, clear job description.

30. The choice of who should analyze a job depends on _______________.