Notes IMLE (AutoRecovered) 2
Notes IMLE (AutoRecovered) 2
Notes IMLE (AutoRecovered) 2
perforated appendicitis, a culture is taken from the abdominal fluid. Which of the
following bacteria is the most likely to grow?
The Most common aerobic bacteria is E. Coli and the most common anaerobic bacteria is Bacteroidis
Fragilis
E.coli in 77%
s.viridans 44%
GDS 27%
p,aeruginosa 18%
FAP
info
nasogastric tube aspirate that contains bile and no blood effectively rules out upper tract bleeding in
most patients.
Therapy with nitrates for controlling the discomfort in patients with STEMI should be
avoided in patients who present with low systolic arterial pressure (<90 mmHg) or in
whom there is clinical suspicion of RV infarction (inferior infarction on ECG, elevated
jugular venous pressure, clear lungs, and hypotension)
Psych
Phenelzine, sold under the brand name Nardil, among others, is a non-selective and
irreversible monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI)
Not all patients require hospitalization; some can be treated on an outpatient basis.
But the absence of a strong social support system, a history of impulsive behavior, and a suicidal plan
of action
are indications for hospitalization.
To decide whether outpatient treatment is feasible, clinicians should use a straightforward
clinical approach: Ask patients who are considered suicidal to agree to call when they become
uncertain about their ability to control their suicidal impulses. Patients who can make such an
agreement with a doctor with whom they have a relationship reaffirm the belief that they have
sufficient strength to control such impulses and to seek help.
The most common signs of catatonia are immobility, mutism, withdrawal and refusal
to eat, staring, negativism, posturing (rigidity), rigidity, waxy flexibility/catalepsy,
stereotypy (purposeless, repetitive movements), echolalia or echopraxia,
verbigeration (repeat meaningless phrases).
2nd line would be DMRD(Methotrexate)- add steroids if severe Extra-articular symptoms is present.
Internal
remember that this is endocrine pancreatic head tumor that secrets gastrin (induces acid secretion
and causes (refractory) ulcers). Also pt has diarrhea.
Gastrin must be high, if low r/o ZE.
If equivocal results (gastrin is not low, but somwhere @ midrange) do secretin test - it won't stop
gastrin secretion.
Also, if you don't know about ZE - remember that the pt is on PPI - which one of it's Side Effects is
hypergastrinemia, therefore - you stop it regardless.
Contrast nephropathy
Definition: AKI after IV administration of iodinated contrast medium
Risk factors
o Chronic kidney disease (CKD): esp. in patients with diabetes mellitus, multiple
myeloma
Creatinine is highest after 3–5 days after injury and usually falls back to the
baseline level within 1 week.
Always evaluate kidney function before administering a contrast agent.
Ampicillin is added if patients are at risk of Listeria spp. infection (e.g., newborns, pregnant women,
the elderly, or immunocompromised patients) because cephalosporins are ineffective against Listeria
spp.
AMBOSS
Antimicrobial prophylaxis should be applied in clean wounds at high risk of wound infection, clean-
contaminated wounds and contaminated wounds.
In clean wounds without a risk, there is no indication for prophylaxis.
risk factors that require prophylaxis:
Patient-related risk factors for surgical wound infections are advanced age, negative nutritional status,
obesity, diabetes mellitus, cigarette smoking, presence of infection, immunodeficiency or
immunosuppressive use, steroid use, recent surgery, long preoperative hospitalization and
colonization with microorganisms.
The patient is presenting with signs and symptoms of Small Bowel Obstruction (SBO) which is evident
by the abdominal distention, pain, vomiting and constipation.
The abdomen being soft with no signs of peritonitis (guarding, rigidity, rebound tenderness, diffuse
pain) rules out perforation.
Imaging confirms the diagnosis of SBO demonstrating dilated loops and collapse after the point
where the obstrucion is (Terminal Ileum, as the bowel after it has collapsed)
Now some causes of SBO are hernias, adhesions, tumors, or as demonstrated in the question
gallstones which is hinted at by the presence of pneumobilia.
Contrast-enhanced CT scans can identify/rule out a mechanical colonic obstruction and possible
complications (colonic ischemia/perforation). Patients with acute/chronic megacolon can often be
treated conservatively with bowel rest, dietary modifications, prokinetic drugs, and/or neostigmine.
Colonoscopic decompression is often successful in patients with acute megacolon. Surgical
intervention for acute/chronic megacolon (colectomy and ileorectal anastomosis) is indicated if
conservative treatment fails.
The chromogranin A (CgA) blood test is a good marker to help detect and monitor the activity of
carcinoid tumors. This includes the tumors that release (secrete) the hormones that are associated
with carcinoid syndrome
Right side heart failure
Diagnostic method :
1- ECG : RV hypertrophy (V1 : R higher than S )
2- Findings on ECHO for patient with right side HF: RA +RV dilatation + pulmonary hypertension +
JVP increase
3- X rays : IVC inferior vena cava dilatation (will be > 0,7 mm) (most sp)
dcis
Immunization
Killed virus, toxoid, or recombinant vaccines may be given during pregnancy. The American College
of Obstetrics and Gynecology recommends that all pregnant women should receive the injectable
influenza vaccine during the season (October–March). The “flu shot” is safe when given in any
trimester. Furthermore, if administered during pregnancy, the vaccine appears to reduce the risk of
infant respiratory disease within the first 6 months of life. Diphtheria and tetanus toxoid, hepatitis B
vaccine series, and killed polio vaccine may be administered during pregnancy to women at risk.
Live attenuated vaccines (varicella, measles, mumps, polio, and rubella) should be given 3 months
before pregnancy or postpartum. Live virus vaccines are contra-indicated in pregnancy secondary to
the potential risk of fetal infection. Viral shedding occurs in children receiving vaccination, but they
do not transmit the virus; consequently, vaccination may be safely given to the children of pregna
Nonstress Test
Fetal movements associated with accelerations of fetal heart rate (FHR) provide reassurance that the
fetus is not acidotic or neurologically depressed. A reactive and therefore reassuring nonstress test
(NST) is defined as 2 or more FHR accelerations, at least 15 beats/min above the baseline and lasting
at least 15 seconds within a 20-minute period.
Lange 429
PRETERM LABOR is defined as labor occurring after 20 weeks’ but before 37 weeks’
gestation...UTERINE CONTRACTIONS..Documented cervical change in dilation or effacement of at least
1 cm or A CERVIX THAT IS WELL EFFACED AND DILATED (AT LEAST 2 CM) ON ADMISSION is
considered diagnostic..The administration of corticosteroids to accelerate fetal lung maturity has
become the standard of care in the United States for all women between 24 and 34 weeks’ EGA at risk
of preterm delivery within the following 7 days. It has been shown to decrease the incidence of
neonatal respiratory distress,intraventricular hemorrhage, and neonatal mortality. Steroids can be
given according to 1 of 2 protocols:(1)BETAMETHASONE(!!!)12 MG INTRAMUSCULARLY(!!!)(IM)every
24 hours for a total of 2 doses;or(2) dexamethasone 6 mg IM every 12 hours for a total of 4 doses.The
optimal benefits of ANTENATAL CORTICOSTEROIDS are seen 24 hours after administration,peak at 48
hours,and continue for at least 7 days(Lange,11e,671).
PRETERM LABOR is defined as labor occurring after 20 weeks’ but before 37 weeks’
gestation...UTERINE CONTRACTIONS..Documented cervical change in dilation or effacement of at least
1 cm or A CERVIX THAT IS WELL EFFACED AND DILATED (AT LEAST 2 CM) ON ADMISSION is
considered diagnostic..The administration of corticosteroids to accelerate fetal lung maturity has
become the standard of care in the United States for all women between 24 and 34 weeks’ EGA at risk
of preterm delivery within the following 7 days.It has been shown to decrease the incidence of
neonatal respiratory distress,intraventricular hemorrhage, and neonatal mortality. Steroids can be
given according to 1 of 2 protocols:(1)BETAMETHASONE(!!!)12 MG INTRAMUSCULARLY(!!!)(IM)every
24 hours for a total of 2 doses;or(2) dexamethasone 6 mg IM every 12 hours for a total of 4 doses.The
optimal benefits of ANTENATAL CORTICOSTEROIDS are seen 24 hours after administration,peak at 48
hours,and continue for at least 7 days(Lange,11e,671).
Treatment of latent TB
Immediate CXR should be performed to rule out pleural effusion, a complication of pneumonia
Initially treat DKA with normal saline and short-acting (regular) insulin.
Zinc deficiency – give zinc in cirhosis
In patients with liver cirrhosis: associated with accelerated progression of cirrhosis and
aggravated clinical symptoms (e.g., hepatic encephalopathy).
(not cholangitis)
Induction and inhibition: CYP induction increases the rate of metabolism of the
substrate, while CYP inhibition decreases it.
o The effects of drugs that are activated by CYP enzymes (e.g.,
prodrugs) are increased by enzyme induction and decreased by
enzyme inhibition.
o The effects of drugs that are broken down by CYP enzymes are
decreased by enzyme induction and increased by enzyme inhibition.
In healthy people an INR of 1.1 or below is considered normal. An INR range of 2.0 to 3.0 is
generally an effective therapeutic range for people taking warfarin
Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura TTP
Serum chemistry
o ↑ LDH, ↑ indirect bilirubin (hemolytic anemia)
o ↑ BUN and ↑ creatinine (impaired renal function)
TTP requires urgent diagnosis and treatment! Waiting for test results to
confirm ADAMTS13 deficiency should not delay treatment.
BUN to serum creatinine ratio > 20:1 → renal hypoperfusion due to hypovolemia
Urine osmolality: See sodium imbalance for more information.
o < 800 mOmol/L → renal free water loss
o > 800 mOmol/L → extrarenal free water loss
A urine specific gravity test compares the density of urine to the density of water.
This quick test can help determine how well your kidneys are diluting
your urine. Urine that's too concentrated could mean that your kidneys aren't
functioning properly or that you aren't drinking enough water.
ITP
Splenectomy is indicated in acute ITP only for life-threatening bleeding. Approximately 80%
of children have a spontaneous resolution of ITP within 6 months after diagnosis. (Nelson)
Faecal calprotectin (or fecal calprotectin) is a biochemical measurement of the
protein calprotectin in the stool. Elevated faecal calprotectin indicates the migration
of neutrophils to the intestinal mucosa, which occurs during intestinal inflammation, including
inflammation caused by inflammatory bowel disease. Under a specific clinical scenario, the test
may eliminate the need for invasive colonoscopy or radio-labelled white cell scanning.
The main diseases that cause an increased excretion of faecal calprotectin are inflammatory
bowel diseases, coeliac disease, infectious colitis, necrotizing enterocolitis, intestinal cystic
fibrosis and colorectal cancer.[6][7]
Anaphylaxis
Thallasemia -> simple read
https://next.amboss.com/us/article/tT0Xs2?q=beta-thalassemia
%20major#Z9552febc6ff0fe89018c863980027e53
https://next.amboss.com/us/article/GL0B_g?q=blunt
%20trauma#Zeac0c0d8fb1cfc5f204487c30d1038b3
Shigellosis -> Shigellosis usually resolves without specific treatment.[1] Sufficient fluids by mouth
and rest is recommended.[1] Bismuth subsalicylate may help with the symptoms
Treatment: in severe cases,
antibiotic therapy with fluoroquinolones or 3 generation cephalosporins
rd
Celiac – HLA testing: second-line testing after unclear initial evaluation
Anti-endomysial antibody (EMA): Potential second-line confirmatory test (high-specificity)
[6]
most common serious bacterial infection in neonates presenting with fever?
Answer: Urinary tract infection (not meningitis)
https://next.amboss.com/us/article/iM0Jog?q=crigler-najjar
%20syndrome#Zbbd3dd53008009926961cef66cee3b64
unconscious
unresponsive
not breathing or not breathing normally (in cardiac arrest, some people will
take occasional gasping breaths – they still need CPR at this point. Don’t wait
until they are not breathing at all).
CPR is indicated for any person unresponsive with no breathing or breathing only in
occasional agonal gasps, as it is most likely that they are in cardiac arrest.[5]:S643 If a person still
has a pulse but is not breathing (respiratory arrest) artificial ventilations may be more appropriate
Nontuberculous mycobacteria -> Lymphadenitiscan be caused by various species that differ from one
place to another, but again, MAC is the main cause worldwide. Most patients are aged less than
5 years, but the incidence is rare for children having BCG vaccine. -> Tx w/ Cefalexin
Transient hypoparathyroidism is common during the first few days of life in preterm
infants, infants of mothers with diabetes mellitus, infants of mothers with hypercalcemia, and
infants with a prolonged delay in parathyroid gland responsiveness.
https://next.amboss.com/us/article/3O0SHT?q=premature%20rupture%20of
%20membranes#Z5c4f5412a41bbd89f148e0e642253b6b
A 29-year-old woman has genital Herpes on her 30th week of gestation -> Prophylactic
acyclovir from 36 weeks of gestation until delivery
Preeclampsia –
Endometrial Cancer
Increased Risk
Breast Cancer
Contraindication -> answer was coagulopathy
https://next.amboss.com/us/article/W40PRT?q=congenital%20adrenal
%20hyperplasia#Zc0dd217779f8de5c748cfc48d0deccdc
Virginal status.
Vaginitis: this might cause increased patient discomfort.
Hydrosalipinx (post PID) -> infertility
You generally know but good to go over since its asked a lot
https://next.amboss.com/us/article/io0JbS?q=disseminated%20intravascular
%20coagulation#Zfe7e3ae8c22fecf85e6b257def2f006b
First line for ovarian cyst – COContraceptives (think they referring to PCOS)
Complications low yield
Limb defects
Amniocentesis ->
Infection
Might come up
Confirmation anki card I made was right -> delete this after going over 1 time more
Really?
https://next.amboss.com/us/article/_k05qT?q=breast
%20cancer#Z3186a2e5e91124c9021effe4344433c7
Go over once more and delete
Penetrating object still in situ?? -> LAPAROTOMY
https://next.amboss.com/us/article/_P05hT#Z27ee2fb8e73649a5d0f45668d31914ce
CHEST TRAUMA
Breast cancer therapy – related to question on adjunctive chemoradiation
Cholangiocarcinoma- surgery
Pylephlebitis is an uncommon thrombophlebitis of the portal vein or any of its branches (i.e.
a portal vein thrombosis) that is caused by infection. It is usually a complication of intra-
abdominal sepsis, most often following diverticulitis, perforated appendicitis, or peritonitis.
Reminder-delete
POD1 Postoperative Day 1 Surgery
Confusing question – how is this answer right? IBC has peau dorange – not clear
Perioperative management – go over
https://next.amboss.com/us/article/550ikg?q=preoperative%20steroid#JAXsk00
Perioperative steroids
Weird question..
Resprim forte = TMP SMX
Biperiden = anticholinergic for parkinsons
Depaletpt= valproate
Lamictal = lamotrigine
Reminder
Electrocovulsive therapy
https://next.amboss.com/us/article/wM0hIg?q=electroconvulsive
%20therapy#Z4ad261c0f08ad05f41a33812b8344685
no absolute contraindications!
https://next.amboss.com/us/article/AN0Rdg?q=neuroleptic%20malignant
%20syndrome#Z6c0fe1657cdcb5393902367c654c75de
https://next.amboss.com/us/article/zN0rdg?
q=lithium#Za0b9c3c070ec11170f26f0620f287d7d
https://next.amboss.com/us/article/CN0qWg?
q=benzodiazepines#Ze66461a89ab9a7899565fa476a741909
Clinical signs of appendicitis :
Pain in the Pouch of Douglas: pain elicited by palpating the rectouterine pouch on rectal examination
Superimposed preeclampsia
Evidence of preeclampsia (proteinuria, renal insufficiency, thrombocytopenia, elevated liver enzymes,
pulmonary edema, cerebral edema) that occurs in a patient with chronic hypertension (BP > 140/90
mm Hg with an onset after 20 weeks' gestation).
A 40-year-old woman, 36-week pregnancy, presents with severe headaches. Mild hypertension is
known since her 18th week, and blood pressure at the emergency room is measured 168/98
mmHg and 170/91 mmHg an hour apart. Spot urinary protein +2
’
Probably wont repeat
Fecundability is expressed as the likelihood of conception per month of exposure. Goes down the
longer it takes to get pregnant.
Fertility, as well as infertility, of a woman or couple is best perceived as fecundability, as few infertile
patients are sterile. It also allows for a direct comparison of treatment options over a more functional
time frame.
Which of the following is true regarding sperm test? A normal test does not need to be
repeated
Which of the following instructions should be given to a patient referred to a sperm test?
The patient should avoid intercourse for 2-5 days and bring the sperm to the laboratory within 1
hour from ejaculation
Read on Chorioamnionitis
https://next.amboss.com/us/article/gM0FLg?q=intrauterine%20infection#RcXlXC
Cervical factors infertility associated w/ abnormal Pap, postcoital bleed, crytotherpay, conization and
DES exposure in utero.
Dx - speculum to show cervicitis or cervical stenosis.
Tx - bypass the mucus of cervix w/ ovarian stimulation + Intra Uterine Insemination - when it is
stenosed or abnormal
If cervicitis - doxycycline.
If refractory to these tx – IVF
Zygote intrafallopian transfer (ZIFT) combines in vitro fertilization (IVF) and GIFT. Eggs are stimulated
and collected using IVF methods. Then the eggs are mixed with sperm in the lab. Fertilized eggs
(zygotes) are then laparoscopically returned to the fallopian tubes where they will be carried into the
uterus. The goal is for the zygote to implant in the uterus and develop into a fetus.
vulvodynia
inflammation of the vestibular gland from unknown etiology .
pain during intercourse , sitting
pain increase during physical exam with cotton applicator
tx --> topical cortisone and lidocaine , surgical excision
Answer was: Local lignocaine and pelvic floor physiotherapy
Thus endometrial hyperplasia, both typical and atypical, and
endometrial carcinoma are more frequent in patients with PCOS and long-term anovulation. Many of
these markedly atypical endometrial features can be reversed by large doses of progestational agents,
such as megestrol acetate 40–60 mg/d for 3–4 months. Follow-up endometrial biopsy is mandatory to
determine endometrial response and subsequent recurrence.
Lange 1163
Vaginal vault suspension to 1 or both sacrospinous ligaments has the potential of injury to the
pudendal nerve or pudendal vessels and is often technically difficult. Because gluteal and posterior leg
pain is a potential complication of this procedure, particularly if the branches of the sacral plexus are
disturbed by suturing deep to the ligament, the procedure requires a skilled vaginal surgeon and
should be undertaken only by those familiar with the technique.
Lange 1220
OGilivie’s –
Contrast-enhanced CT scans can identify/rule out a mechanical colonic obstruction and possible
complications (colonic ischemia/perforation). Patients with acute/chronic megacolon can often be
treated conservatively with bowel rest, dietary modifications, prokinetic drugs, and/or neostigmine.
Colonoscopic decompression is often successful in patients with acute megacolon. Surgical
intervention for acute/chronic megacolon (colectomy and ileorectal anastomosis) is indicated if
conservative treatment fails.
Confirming card- can delete
Stop all before surgery except the following (allow them unless mentioned) –
Beta Blockers, CBB, nitrates, statins, anti HTN (but stop if ACEi, ARB, diuretics),
anti eplipetics,
..
Breast imaging is usually negative in Paget's disease and therefore breast conserving surgery
including nipple resection with ipsilateral axillary evaluation is a valid option.
ERCP
Gallstone Ileus -> enterotomy
The chromogranin A (CgA) blood test is a good marker to help detect and monitor the activity of
carcinoid tumors. This includes the tumors that release (secrete) the hormones that are associated
with carcinoid syndrome.
Elevated urinary levels of 5-HIAA measured during 24 hours with high-performance liquid
chromatography are highly specific although not sensitive. For the last decade, chromogranin A (CgA)
has been a well-established marker for carcinoid disease; it is elevated in more than 80% of
patients with NETs. CgA alone may be used for the diagnosis of NETs, given its specificity of 95%
Should’ve got right…
o Surgical AVR: Recommended for patients with Low to moderate surgical risk, Higher surgical risk AND severe multivessel
coronary artery disease
o Transcatheter AVR (TAVR): Recommended for patients with high or prohibitive surgical risk and predicted survival of > 12
months
o Percutaneous balloon valvuloplasty: Indicated in children, adolescents, and young adults without AV calcification.
Meningitis –> Ceftriaxone + vancomycin
https://next.amboss.com/us/article/3T0Sq2?q=myelodysplastic
%20syndrome#Zfda61924b603eb5304faf491e8ded93f
OHSS is a rare complication of ovarian stimulation
OHSS: abdominal distention ,discomfort ,nausea, respiratory distress and electrolyte disturbance
hypoamenorrhea -means light amenorrhea
metrorrhagia- intermenstrual bleeding
polymenorrhea - period less than 21 days
amenorrhea - absence of a menstrual period
oligomenorrhea- period occur more than 35 days
messed this one up
Partial mole is - shows fetal parts, positive p57, positive fetal RBC, focal hyperplasia, triploid 69, HCG<
50,000
Honeycomb on US
Q. about Vasa previa velamentous insertion.. definitely offputing..
It is recommended that women with vasa previa should deliver through elective cesarean prior to rupture of the membranes. Given the timing of membrane rupture is
difficult to predict, elective cesarean delivery at 35–36 weeks is recommended. This gestational age gives a reasonable balance between the risk of death and that of
prematurity.
Dr MADA comment
CMV Dx -
Must have both positive for CMV IgG + IgM.
IgM positivity alone is useless.
Effects
Macrosomia: birth weight > 90thpercentile or > 4000–4500 g/8 lb 13 oz–9 lb 15 oz (due to stimulated
growth and adipogenesis) → increased risk of birth injuries (e.g., shoulder dystocia)
Polycythemia (associated with an increased risk of hyperviscosity syndrome and hyperbilirubinemia)
Neonatal hypoglycemia
Electrolyte imbalances (hypocalcemia, hypomagnesemia)
Respiratory distress (due to insufficient production of pulmonary surfactant)
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (polycythemia → redistribution of iron → iron deficiency in cardiac
tissue and hypoxemia → impaired cardiac remodeling)
Polyhydramnios (fetal hyperglycemia → fetal polyuria)
Cystic adnexal masses of the ovaries, fallopian tubes, and surrounding tissues can be gynecologic or
nongynecologic on origin and benign or malignant in nature.
Factors such as the location of the mass, age and reproductive status of the patient, and family history can help to
determine the nature of this common OB/GYN occurrence. Although the majority of adnexal masses are benign, a
chief goal is to rule out malignancy. Postmenopausal women, women with a strong family history of breast
and/or ovarian cancer, and women with a hereditary ovarian cancer syndrome are at highest risk for an ovarian
cancer.
Simple ovarian cysts can be observed as long as the patient is low risk, asymptomatic. The same is true for
asymptomatic complex cysts, which are presumed benign such as endometriomas, dermoids, and hydrosalpinx.
The risk of malignancy must always be assessed and excluded. The exclusion of a neoplastic process should be
performed mainly through use of imaging modalities. For instance, sonographic indices (see table) should
indicate whether the adnexal mass is at high risk for involving a neoplastic process.
CA-125 is elevated in many patients with ovarian cancer, but a normal CA-125 does not exclude the diagnosis of
cancer and does not represent a reason to delay surgery.
The decision to intervene is based on cyst size, ultrasound characteristics, and clinical symptoms.
Surgical technique used for removal of an adnexal mass may be performed laparoscopically or via a laparotomy.
The choice of surgical approach depends upon the degree of suspicion of malignancy and surgeon and patient
preference.
The differential diagnoses for cystic adnexal masses include ectopic pregnancy, pelvic inflammatory disease,
torsed adnexa, tubo-ovarian abscess, endometriosis, fibroids, and ovarian neoplasms.
Confirm knowledge
Thought during exam levongenstrel was estrogen based.. its progesterone based!
Comment:
The abnormal areas can then be biopsied and examined histologically. The composition of Schiller's
iodine is the same as Lugol's iodine, the latter being more concentrated. When Schiller's iodine is not
available, Lugol's iodine can be used as an alternative.
Schiller's test is not specific for cervical cancer, as areas of inflammation, ulceration and keratosis may
also not take up the stain, and will also be NON STAINING…
A non-staining Shillers test is a positive test (positive for possible neoplasia)
IRUR Q. – but nonetheless – according to comments can be
1. Dopamine useful in the treatment of heart failure or shock, especially in newborn babies.
2. it is a case of perimyocarditis (post viral disease) with signs of acute heart failure, that need
IMMEDIATE TREATMENT WITH DOPAMINE
Comment: Normal saturation on the right is around 75%,
and even if it would be Normal, if you see oxygenation increase between RA and RV ----> you have a
septal defect my friend
https://next.amboss.com/us/article/S40yiT?q=birth-related%20clavicular
%20fracture#Z463068127e83c14624316e450b477b93
Hemorrhagic disease of the newborn, a disease more common among breastfed infants, occurs in the
first few weeks of life. It is rare in infants who receive prophylactic intramuscular vitamin K on the first
day of life. Hemorrhagic disease of the newborn usually is marked by generalized ecchymoses,
gastrointestinal hemorrhage, or bleeding from a circumcision or umbilical stump; intracranial
hemorrhage can occur, but is uncommon.
testicular enlargement-> pubic hair -> penis enlargement
Ataxia Telangiectasia
Sturge Weber
Bacterial meningitis is diagnosed by CSF examination. Typical findings are: elevated opening pressure,
elevated protein and hypoglycorrhachia. The fluid appearance may be cloudy or turbid. The CSF
leukocyte concentration is usually elevated with a neutrophilic pleocytosis. CSF Gram stain
examination is associated with rapid and accurate organism identification in up to 90 percent of
bacterial meningitis cases.
lymphangitis -> 1st gen cephalosporin
sinusitis
3 months - cooing and gurgling
6 months - babbling
Normal development
Other complications of terminal ileal resection include vitamin B12 deficiency, which might not appear
until 1-2 yr after parenteral nutrition is withdrawn. Long-term monitoring for deficiencies of vitamin
B12 , folate, iron, fat-soluble vitamins, and trace minerals, such as zinc and copper, is important.
nelson 21- 7958
a case of Sickle Cell Anemia (Acute painful crises)
one of common complications is Acute splenic sequestration (peak age 6 mos to 3 yrs); can lead to
rapid death
− Altered splenic function → increased susceptibility to infection, especially with
encapsulated bacteria (S. pneumococcus, H. influenzae, N. meningitidis)
Treatment—Prevent complications:
° Immunize (pneumococcal regular plus 23-valent, meningococcal
diagnosis of DDH :
<1 MONTH : physical examination .
1-4 months : ultrasound
>4 m: Xray
Not clear..comment..
The most important condition to exclude before confirming a diagnosis of
toxic synovitis is septic arthritis. Children with septic arthritis usually appear
more systemically ill than those with transient synovitis. The pain associated
with septic arthritis is more severe, and children often refuse to walk or move
their hip at all. High fever, refusal to walk, and elevations of the erythrocyte
sedimentation rate, serum C-reactive protein, and white blood cell count all
suggest a diagnosis of septic arthritis. If the clinical scenario is suspicious for
septic arthritis, an ultrasound-guided aspiration of the hip joint should be
performed to make the definitive diagnosis (see Chapter 705 ). An exception to
these criteria is hip septic arthritis due to Kingella kingae , which may have
minimal inflammation and low-grade or no fever (see Chapter 705 ). MRI may
be needed to detect an associated osteomyelitis.
nelson 21- 13988
Toddler fractures occur in young ambulatory children. The age range for this fracture is typically from
around 1-4y
The injury often occurs after a seemingly harmless twist or fall and is often unwitnessed. It is a result
of a torsional injury.
The classic symptom is refusal to bear weight, which can manifest as pulling up the affected extremity
or florid display of protest. The other common sign is point tenderness at the fracture site. The AP and
lateral views of the tibia-fibula might show a nondisplaced spiral fracture of the distal tibial
metaphysis.
TX: treated with a below-knee cast for approximately 3 wk.
NELSON 21e p.14151
Muscular dystrophies diagnosis
ADHD>Differential diagnoses :
Hearing or visual impairment
Absence seizures
Thyroid disorders
Sleep disorders
Stable hypernatremia => free water given oral or nasogastric tube
If unstable hypernatremia (like in this case )=> normal saline 0.9% is given
subglottic hemangioma:
more common in females, usually symptoms appear after 3 months of age, including biphasic stridor,
and in 50% of cases cutaneous leisons, treatment includes:
-observation
-trachestomy
-systemic steroids
-laser
-propranolol
Bacterial tracheitis
S. aureus (see Chapter 181) is the most commonly isolated pathogen with isolated reports of
methicillinresistant S. aureus. S. pneumoniae, S. pyogenes, Moraxella catarrhalis,
nontypeable H. influenzae, and anaerobic organisms have also been implicated. The mean age is
between 5 and 7 yr. There is a slight male
predominance. Bacterial tracheitis often follows a viral respiratory
infection (especially laryngotracheitis), so it may be considered a bacterial complication of a viral
disease, rather than a primary bacterial illness. This life-threatening entity is more common than
epiglottitis in vaccinated populations.
nelson 20 - 2984
DCIS:
1.Breast conservative therapy(also called lumpectomy,excisional biopsy or partial mastectomy).
2.radiation therapy plus minus hormonal therapy.
IF RADIATION IS CONTRAINDICATED OR SMALL BREAST WITH LARGE TUMOR OR MULTICENTRIC
DISEASE(DIFFUSE).......
THEN DO MASTECTOMY WITH SENTINEL LN...
1.IF THE SENTINEL LN IS POSITIVE THEN DO AXILLARY LN DISSECTION FOR NODE STAGING.
Anal Fissure
Sigmoid Volvulous – reminder that its decompression
Treatment of the sigmoid volvulus begins with appropriate resuscitation and, in most cases, involves
nonoperative decompression. Decompression relieves the acute problem and allows resection as an
elective procedure, which can be accomplished with reduced morbidity and mortality. Patients with
signs of colonic necrosis are not eligible for nonoperative decompression.
sabiston 20 - 1361
Graft Rejection
Of the three types of rejection, only acute rejection can be successfully reversed once it is established.
T cells constitute the core element responsible for acute rejection, often termed T cell–mediated
rejection. There is also a form of acute rejection that is particularly aggressive and involves vascular
invasion by T cells known as acute vascular rejection.
sabiston 20 - 643
Just reminder..
pharmacologic thromboprophylaxis
1. Hospitalized patients who have active malignancy and acute medical illness or reduced mobility
should be offered pharmacologic thromboprophylaxis in the absence of bleeding or other
contraindications.
2. Hospitalized patients who have active malignancy without additional risk factors may be offered
pharmacologic thromboprophylaxis in the absence of bleeding or other contraindications
3. Routine pharmacologic thromboprophylaxis should NOT be offered to patients admitted for the
sole purpose of minor procedures or chemotherapy infusion, nor to patients undergoing
stem-cell/bone marrow transplantation.
Damage control in trauma patient mean : stop bleeding and infection in an unstable trauma patient
When do Hernias go to OR?
1. Emergent = Black/Blue, Acute Abdomen, Sepsis
2. Urgent = Acutely irreducible or +SBO without Emergent
3. Elective = reducible hernia and Ø SBO and Ø Acute Abd
Acute inflammation of the duodenum can lead to mechanical obstruction, with a functional gastric
outlet obstruction manifested by delayed gastric emptying, anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. In cases of
prolonged vomiting, patients may become dehydrated and develop a hypochloremic hypokalemic
metabolic alkalosis secondary to the loss of gastric juice rich in hydrogen and chloride.
Umbilical Hernia In general, umbilical hernia has a tendency to close on its own in
approximately 80% of cases, and therefore elective repair should be deferred until
approximately 5 years of age. The umbilical hernia rarely presents with complications,
but there are unique exceptions to this general rule for which an earlier elective repair
should be considered. Although rare, a history of incarceration clearly warrants prompt
surgical repair, irrespective of age. Enlarging umbilical hernia over time, in particular with
a large skin proboscis more than 3 cm or a significantly large umbilical fascial defect (>2
cm), is unlikely to resolve spontaneously;
Comment
If none of the latest is present a local exploration of the wound is done. An intact Fascia allows and
immediate discharge. Fascia penetrated Patient has to be monitored for 24 hours ( with Hg control
every 8 hours ) after which if everything goes Okey dokey he or she can go home.
Bilateral adrenal hyperplasia is the most common cause of primary hyperaldosteronism,
and is treated medically. An aldosterone-producing adenoma is an important differential
diagnosis.
Bad prognosis sign on CT of patient with adrenal incidentaloma ( and in general ) :
1- Hypervascularity
2- Slow contrast excretion
3- Necrosis within the mass
4- Invisible border
Reminder
The tissue types of STS (Soft tissue sarcoma) origin include
skeletal muscle, adipose cells, blood and lymphatic vessels, and connective tissue or those cells with a
common mesoderm origin (Fig. 31-1 and Table 31-1). Also included are peripheral nerves derived
from the neuroectoderm.
sabiston 20 – 777
Desmoid tumor
Aggressive fibromatosis
A slow-growing, benign but locally aggressive tumor caused by the proliferation of fibroblasts. Is
often associated with familial adenomatous polyposis (sporadic desmoid tumors are rare). Can arise
from any part of the body, most commonly, the extremities, the abdominal wall, and abdominal cavity.
May be asymptomatic until they grow large enough to compress adjacent structures (e.g.,
bowel/ureteric obstruction).
Due to partial resection and resection margins are not free of neoplastic tissue, a surgical resection is required by
segmental colectomy.