Test is part of Rau’s IAS Test series for Preliminary Exam 202 3

Test ID
GENERAL STUDIES (PAPER–I)
1004
CURRENT AFFAIRS
CA: MAY 2022
Time Allowed: 1 Hour Maximum Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK

THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN or MISSING PAGES OR
ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. This Test Booklet contains 50 items (questions). Each item is printed in English Only. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the
Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response
which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

3. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet (OMR sheet) provided.
Read the directions in the Answer Sheet.

4. All items carry equal marks.

5. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test booklet,
you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions contained therein.

6. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to
take away with you the Test Booklet.

7. Penalty for wrong answers:

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of
the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that
question.

(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.

This test is part of Rau’s IAS Test series for Preliminary Exam 202 3

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1. Consider the following statements about Select the correct answer using the code
the Indian citizenship: given below:
1. The Citizenship Act, 1955, regulates the (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
modes of acquiring and terminating the
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
Indian citizenship.
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
2. The Government of India can deprive a
person of the Indian citizenship, if the (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Registration or the Naturalization
Certificate was obtained by fraud. 4. Indian Federalism can be best explained
3. Acquiring the nationality of other through which of the following?
country or countries does not impact 1. The Seventh Schedule
the Indian citizenship of such person.
2. Independent judiciary
Which of the statements given above are
3. The GST Council
correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only 4. The Inter-State Council

(b) 1 and 2 only 5. All India Services

(c) 1 and 3 only 6. Emergency provisions
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
2. Consider the following statements: (a) 2, 3, 4 and 6 only
1. The Electoral Bonds shall be valid (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
for 25 calendar days from the date of (c) 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
issue.
(d) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only
2. The Electoral Bonds can be encashed
by any political party within a specified
time-frame. 5. With reference to the Inter-State Council,
3. The amount of donation received by the consider the following statements:
political parties must be disclosed to the 1. The Constitution of India provides for
Election Commission. the establishment of an Inter-State
Which of the statements given above is/are Council by an Act of the Parliament.
incorrect? 2. The Council can inquire, investigate or
(a) 1 and 2 only make recommendations on the disputes
(b) 3 only which may have arisen between the
(c) 1 only states.
(d) 2 and 3 only 3. An Inter-State Council was set up after
independence, based upon the
3. The Punjab Reorganization Act, 1966, recommendations of Justice R. S.
resulted in which of the following? Sarkaria.
1. Formation of the state of Haryana. Which of the statements given above are
2. Formation of the Union Territory of correct?
Chandigarh. (a) 1 and 2 only
3. Transfer of the territory from Punjab to
(b) 1 and 3 only
Himachal Pradesh.
(c) 2 and 3 only
4. Amendment of the First Schedule to the
Constitution. (d) 1, 2 and 3

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6. Consider the following pairs: 10. Which of the following statements is/are
1. The Tribes Advisory Council: Sixth correct regarding the Near Field
Schedule Communication (NFC) technology?
2. The District Council: Fifth Schedule 1. The NFC allows two devices to
3. The Regional Council: Sixth Schedule communicate by transmitting data
using the electromagnetic radio signals.
Which of the pairs given above is/are
2. The NFC technology is intended for use
correctly matched?
between the devices that are exactly 1
(a) 2 only metre apart from each other.
(b) 1 and 2 only Select the correct answer using the code
(c) 3 only given below:
(d) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
7. The Directorate of Enforcement functions (c) Both 1 and 2
under which department of the Ministry of (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Finance?
(a) The Department of Revenue 11. Which of the following statements are
(b) The Department of Expenditure correct regarding the recently discovered
(c) The Department of Economic Affairs Micro-Swimmers (Microbots)?
(d) The Department of Public Enterprises 1. It intends to deliver medications to the
blood-stream, using the microbots.
8. The Egmont Group, recently in the news, 2. The method uses light as a fuel to
can be associated with which of the enable the microbots to move in virtual
following? environments.
(a) Sharing maritime intelligence 3. Poly carbon nitride, a material with a
two-dimensional structure, is used in
(b) Sharing financial intelligence
the manufacturing of these micobots.
(c) Preserving marine environment
Select the correct answer using the code
(d) Developing Artificial Intelligence for given below:
Mars
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
9. Consider the following statements: (c) 1 and 3 only
1. The Ministry of Social Justice and (d) 1, 2 and 3
Empowerment has constituted the
Permanent Commission for the
12. The moon of Jupiter may be the most
Denotified, Nomadic and Semi-Nomadic
promising place in our solar system to find
Communities, chaired by Bhiku Ramji
the present-day environments suitable for
Idate.
some form of life beyond the Earth. The
2. All Denotified Tribes are spread across scientists are almost certain that hidden
the Scheduled Castes, the Scheduled beneath the icy surface of the moon is a
Tribes and the Other Backward Classes salty-water ocean, thought to contain twice
categories. as much water as the Earth’s oceans
Which of the statements given above is/are combined. And like the Earth, the moon is
correct? thought to also contain a rocky mantle and
(a) 1 only iron core. The moon is-
(b) 2 only (a) Ganymede
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) Europa
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Lo
(d) Cyllene

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13. Which of the following statements is/are 16. Consider the following statements about
correct regarding the Blue Straggler Stars? the Middle Eastern Quad:
1. They can only be discovered in the 1. All the member countries of this group
dense stellar systems with very close belong to the Middle East region.
star distances. 2. Israel is a member of this grouping.
2. This data of the Blue Straggler Stars Which of the statements given above is/are
was collected using the ASTROSAT correct?
Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope.
(a) 1 only
Select the correct answer using the code
(b) 2 only
given below:
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
17. Consider the following statements about
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
the UN Human Rights Council:
1. All P5 members of the United Nations
14. Consider the following statements about
Security Council are the permanent
the Reusable Launch Vehicle – Technology
members of the UN Human Rights
Demonstrator (RLV-TD):
Council.
1. The winged RLV-TD has been
2. The Universal Periodic Review is a
configured to act as a flying test bed to
procedure of the UN Human Rights
evaluate hypersonic flight and powered
cruise flight. Council for reviewing the human rights
of all countries every 4 years.
2. It features symmetrically placed active
control surfaces, called Elevons and Which of the statements given above is/are
Rudder. correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 only
correct? (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 18. Consider the following statements about
the National Security Council:
15. Consider the following statements 1. The Prime Minister is the Chairperson
regarding the Genetically Modified (GM) of this body.
mosquitos: 2. The Strategic Planning Group; the
1. The fluorescent marker gene in the GM National Security Advisory Board; and
mosquitos glows under a particular red the National Security Council
light. Secretariat function under the National
2. It was created to lower the number of Security Council.
virus-carrying Aedes Aegypti mosquitos 3. The Strategic Planning Group is chaired
in the wild. by the National Security Adviser.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3

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19. Consider the following statements: 3. The Special Officer for linguistic
1. The Golan Heights is a disputed minorities will be appointed by the
territory between Israel and Syria. Prime Minister to safeguard the rights
2. The West Bank is located on the coast of the linguistic minorities.
of the Mediterranean Sea. Which of the statements given above is/are
3. The Gaza Strip shares boundary with correct?
Egypt and Saudi Arabia. (a) 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (b) 1 and 2 only
correct? (c) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only 22. Consider the following statements about
(d) 1, 2 and 3 the Transgender Persons (Protection of
Rights) Act, 2019:

20. Consider the following statements about 1. The Act defines a ‘transgender’ as one
the Scheduled Tribes (STs): who gender does not match the gender
assigned at birth.
1. The criteria for the inclusion of a
community as Scheduled Tribe is 2. A person can apply for a Certificate of
prescribed in the Constitution. Identity as transgender to the District
Magistrate.
2. Constitutional Amendment is required
for the inclusion of a community in the Which of the statements given above is/are
list of the Scheduled Tribes. correct?

3. The members of the community, who (a) 1 only

are given the ST status, enjoy the (b) 2 only
benefits of the ST status in all the states (c) Both 1 and 2
of India. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the statements given above is/are
incorrect? 23. ‘LIFE - Lifestyle for Environment’, a mantra
(a) 2 only shared by India to combat climate change,
(b) 1 and 3 only emerged at
(c) 2 and 3 only (a) The United Nations Framework
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Convention on Climate Change, 2021,
Glasgow.

21. Consider the following statements about (b) The United Nations Framework
the provisions related to languages in the Convention on Climate Change, 2015,
Constitution: Paris.

1. All communities in India have the right (c) The World Sustainable Development
to protect their language and script. Summit, 2016, New Delhi.

2. All linguistic minorities have the right to (d) The United Nations Framework
establish and administer educational Convention on Climate Change, 2019,
institutions of their choice. Madrid.

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24. With respect to the “Indian Tent Turtle”, Which of the statements given above is/are
consider the following statements: correct?
1. It is native to India, Nepal and (a) 1 only
Bangladesh. (b) 2 only
2. It is mainly herbivorous. (c) Both 1 and 2
3. It is listed as ‘Endangered’ under the (d) Neither 1 nor 2
IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are 27. The ‘Basket of Egg’ topography is related to
correct? which of the following agents of geomorphic
(a) 1 and 2 only change?

(b) 2 and 3 only (a) Deserts

(c) 3 only (b) Groundwater

(c) Glaciers
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Coasts

25. With respect to “Biogas”, consider the

following statements: 28. Consider the following statements about
the Atal Tunnel:
1. It is produced by the
1. It is located on the Great Himalayan
decomposition/breakdown of bio-
Range of the Himalayas.
degradable organic matter in the
2. It will result in a shorter route to Leh
presence of oxygen.
when driving from Manali.
2. Biogas, in its raw form, which is
Which of the statements given above is/are
without any purification, can be used as
correct?
clean cooking fuel, like LPG, lighting,
(a) 1 only
motive power and generation of
electricity. (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (d) Neither 1 nor 2

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 29. Consider the following statements about
the measures of biodiversity:
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. Alpha richness refers to the diversity of
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
the habitats within a landscape or
region.
26. Consider the following statements about 2. Beta richness measures the expression
the Tribal Movements: of diversity between the habitats.
1. The Tamar Revolts were the tribal Which of the statements given above is/are
revolts in Assam against the correct?
exploitation of the tribals by the British. (a) 1 only
2. The Kherwar Movement was a (b) 2 only
movement of the Munda tribe to restore (c) Both 1 and 2
their golden age.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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30. Consider the following statements: 2. The Khelo India Youth Games see the
1. The Manodarpan Scheme is an initiative participation from only the schools.
of the Ministry of Health and Family Which of the statements given above is/are
Welfare, to provide mental healthcare
correct?
support.
(a) 1 only
2. Satyabhama is an initiative of the
Ministry of Law and Justice, to promote (b) 2 only
access to legal aid among the (c) Both 1 and 2
marginalised communities. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. TEJAS is an initiative of the Ministry of
Skill Development and
Entrepreneurship, to enable the Indian 33. Which of the following conditions can be
workforce to get skills for employment found in the totalitarian political systems?
in the GCC countries. 1. Lack of a strong opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. Strong and independent public
correct? institutions.
(a) 3 only
3. State controlled media.
(b) 1 and 2 only
4. Constitutionalism.
(c) 2 and 3 only
5. Superior police and intelligence forces.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
6. Weak protection of individual rights.

31. Consider the following statements about Select the correct answer using the code
the Rio Declaration on Environment and given below:
Development: (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
1. It was adopted during the UN (b) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only
Conference on Environment and
(c) 2, 3, 5 and 6 only
Development in 1992.
2. It enunciated 27 principles for the (d) 1, 2, 4 and 6 only
countries to pursue sustainable
development. 34. Consider the following statements:
3. The Rio Declaration noted that the 1. Maasir-i-Alamgiri was written by
human beings are at the centre of
Aurangzeb.
concerns for sustainable development.
2. Alamgirnama was written by Mirza
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? Muhammad Kazim.
(a) 1 only 3. Muntakhab-i-Lubab was written by
(b) 2 and 3 only Khafi Khan.
(c) 1 and 2 only Which of the statements given above are
(d) 1, 2 and 3 correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
32. Consider the following statements about (b) 2 and 3 only
Khelo India:
(c) 1 and 3 only
1. The Khelo India University Games were
(d) 1, 2 and 3
held for the first time in 2022 in
Karnataka.

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35. Consider the following statements about 38. Which of the following statements is/are
the First Movers Coalition: correct?
1. It aims to harness the purchasing 1. Black holes were predicted by Albert
power of the companies to decarbonise Einstein’s General Theory of Relativity.
heavy industry and long-distance 2. The boundaries of the black holes are
transport sectors. known as the ‘event horizons’.
2. Only corporates can be the members of Select the correct answer using the code
this group. given below:
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 only
correct? (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 39. With respect to “Deccan Riots
Commission”, consider the following
36. Consider the following statements with statements:
reference to Raja Ravi Varma: 1. It was concerned with the problems of
1. The themes of Varma’s paintings were the Mahalwari system.
based on mythology and Indian 2. It paved the way for the enactment of
literature. the Deccan Agriculturalists 'Relief Act of
1879.
2. He opened a Lithographic Press in
Bombay. Which of the statements given above is /
are correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (a) 1 only

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

40. With reference to the Standing Deposit
Facility (SDF), consider the following
37. Which of the following clearly
statements:
supports/support the viewpoints of Bhim
1. The SDF enables the RBI to suck out
Rao Ambedkar?
excess liquidity from the economy for a
1. Socialism and communism based on
period more than 1 year.
controlled monetary regime.
2. The G-Secs are not required to be used
2. Annihilation of caste system in India.
as collateral.
3. Constitutional rights should be
3. The SDF is usually higher than the
protected.
Reverse Repo.
Select the correct answer using the code
Which of the statements given above is/are
given below: correct?
(a) 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

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41. Consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are
1. The money raised through the small correct?
savings schemes, such as the Post (a) 1 only
Office Deposits, the Public Provident (b) 2 only
Fund etc., get deposited into the (c) Both 1 and 2
Consolidated Fund of India. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. The interest rate on the small savings
schemes is completely market 44. With respect to the Pradhan Mantri
determined. MUDRA Yojana (PMMY), consider the
Which of the statements given above is/are following statements:
correct? 1. Under this scheme, the Micro Units
(a) 1 only Development and Refinance Agency
(b) 2 only Ltd., (MUDRA), provides loans directly
to the small-scale enterprises in India.
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. The interest rate on the MUDRA loans
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
is fixed by the Ministry of Finance.
3. The MUDRA loans are given without
42. With reference to the Special Purpose
collateral.
Acquisition Companies (SPACs), consider
Which of the statements given above are
the following statements:
incorrect?
1. The SPACs raise capital from the capital
(a) 1 and 2 only
market, without having any revenue or
(b) 2 and 3 only
operations.
(c) 1 and 3 only
2. The Securities and Exchange Board of
(d) 1, 2 and 3
India (SEBI) has enabled the creation of
the SPACs in India.
45. Consider the following statements related
Which of the statements given above is/are
to the Union Tax collections:
correct?
1. The share of the Direct Taxes has been
(a) 1 only
higher than that of the Indirect Taxes in
(b) 2 only 2021-22.
(c) Both 1 and 2 2. Amongst the Direct Taxes, Income Tax
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 accounted for the highest share in
2021-22.
43. With respect to the Atal Innovation Mission 3. The Tax-to-GDP ratio in 2021-22 has
(AIM), consider the following statements: increased to its highest level in the last
1. The Applied Research and Innovation decade.

for Small and Medium Enterprises Which of the statements given above are
(ARISE) is a component under the AIM correct?
to promote the development of the (a) 1 and 2 only
MSMEs. (b) 1 and 3 only
2. The AIM is implemented by the Ministry (c) 2 and 3 only
of Science and Technology. (d) 1, 2 and 3

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46. Which of the following is/are included in Select the correct answer using the code
‘the Economic Cost of Food Grains’ for the given below:
Food Corporation of India (FCI)? (a) 1 only
1. MSP paid to the farmers. (b) 1 and 2 only
2. Procurement incidentals, such as (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
transportation, storage and labour (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
costs.
3. Cost of distributing the food grains.
49. With reference to the PM DAKSH Yojana,
Select the correct answer using the code consider the following statements:
given below:
1. The PM DAKSH Yojana seeks to
(a) 1 only enhance the skill sets of the youth
(b) 1 and 2 only belonging to the Scheduled Castes and
(c) 1 and 3 only Other Backward Classes.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 2. This scheme is implemented by the
Ministry of Skill Development and
47. The State VAT on petrol and diesel in a Entrepreneurship.
particular state is an Ad Valorem Tax. Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the following statements best correct?
describes such a regime on the petroleum (a) 1 only
products? (b) 2 only
(a) The tax collections would directly (c) Both 1 and 2
depend upon the international crude oil (d) Neither 1 nor 2
prices.
(b) The tax collections would directly
50. Which of the following agencies has
depend upon the domestic prices.
recently launched the "Fincluvation"
(c) The tax collections would directly Initiative to promote financial inclusion?
depend upon the volume of sale of
(a) The Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
petrol and diesel.
(b) The National Payments Corporation of
(d) The tax collection would depend upon
India (NPCI)
the overall economic condition.
(c) The India Post Payments Bank (IPPB)
(d) The Ministry of Finance
48. Which of the following taxes, imposed by
the Centre on petroleum products, is/are
distributable among the Centre and the
States?
1. Basic Excise Duty
2. Additional Excise Duty
3. Agriculture Infrastructure Cess
4. Road and Infrastructure Cess

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Answers &
Explanations
of

TEST CODE: TS23E1004

GENERAL STUDIES (PAPER–I)

CA: May 2022

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 ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS OF
CA: May 2022
GS Paper-I: (TS23E1004)

1. Answer: (b) and which secured not less than 1% of

Explanation: the votes polled in the last general
The Constitution of India does not allow election to the House of the People or
dual citizenship. According to Article 9, the Legislative Assembly of the State,
no person shall be a citizen of India, if shall be eligible to receive the Electoral
he has voluntarily acquired the Bonds. The Electoral Bonds shall be
citizenship of any foreign state. encashed by an eligible political party,
only through a bank account with the
The Parliament, in its exercise of power
authorized bank.
under Article 11, enacted the Citizenship
Act, 1955, which regulates the modes of  The Electoral Bonds are bearer
acquiring and terminating the Indian instruments in the nature of a
citizenship. Promissory Note and are an interest-
free banking instrument.
Deprivation of the Citizenship: If any
person has acquired the citizenship of India  The Electoral Bond shall be issued for
by fraudulent means, then the Government any value, in multiples of Rs. 1,000, Rs.
of India is empowered to deprive the person 10,000, Rs. 1 lakh, Rs. 10 lakh and Rs.
of the Indian citizenship if: 1 crore from the specified branches of
the State Bank of India (SBI).
 Registration or Naturalization
Certificate was obtained by fraud.  The purchaser would be allowed to buy
the Electoral Bonds only on due
 The citizen, through his act or speech,
fulfillment of all the extant KYC norms
has shown disloyalty or disaffection
and by making payment from a bank
towards the Constitution of India.
account. It will not carry the name of
 During any war, such citizen helped the
the payee.
enemy country through unlawful trade
 The Electoral Bonds would have a life
or communication.
of only 15 days, during which it can
 The citizen, within 5 years of
be used for making donation only to the
naturalization or registration, has been
political parties, which have secured not
sentenced to imprisonment in another
less than 1% of the votes polled in the
country for a term of not less than 2
last general election to the House of the
years.
People or to the Legislative Assembly.
 If such citizen has not registered
 Every political party, in its Income Tax
annually at an Indian Consulate with
return, will have to disclose the amount
an intention to retain the Indian
of donations it has received through the
citizenship.
Electoral Bonds to the Election
Commission.
2. Answer: (a)
Explanation: 3. Answer: (d)
 Only the political parties registered Explanation:
under Section 29A of the
The Punjab Reorganization Act, 1966,
Representation of the People Act, 1951,
resulted in the formation of a new state

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 Haryana, whose areas were carved out of the Rajya Sabha is made on the
Punjab, the formation of the Union basis of the population of each state.
Territory of Chandigarh and the transfer of  Distribution of Legislative,
certain territory from Punjab to Himachal Administrative and Financial Powers:
Pradesh. These changes mandated The Constitution has demarcated each
amendment to the First Schedule, which level of government by devising an
has been mentioned in the Punjab elaborate scheme of distribution of
Reorganization Act, 1966. Since then, legislative, administrative and financial
Chandigarh has been the joint capital of powers between the Centre and the
both Punjab and Haryana. However, the States.
present Chief Minister of Punjab has  Article 246 of the Indian Constitution
passed a resolution in the Punjab Assembly clearly enumerates the federal character
urging the Central Government to transfer of the Indian Constitution. It empowers:
Chandigarh to the state of Punjab. This has
o The Parliament to make law under
started a political slugfest between Haryana
the Union List;
and Punjab.
o The states to make law under the
State List; and
4. Answer: (b)
o Both the Parliament and the states
Explanation:
to make law under the Concurrent
‘All India Services’ and ‘Emergency List.
Provisions’ are the examples of a strong
 The Finance Commission, constituted
centre and not federal features of the
under Article 80, evaluates the finances
Indian Constitution.
of the Union and the State
Constitutional Provision on Indian Governments, recommends sharing of
Federalism: the taxes between them, lays down the
 Article 1: It mentions that India that is principles determining the distribution
Bharat shall be a Union of States. It of these taxes among the states. Thus,
means that the states do not have the the Finance Commission is a
power or right to secede away from the constitutionally mandated body that is
Union of India. Also unlike USA, in at the centre of fiscal federalism.
India, different states have not formed  Settling the ‘Inter-State River Water
because of an agreement among the Disputes’ under Article 262: For this
states. purpose, the Parliament has enacted
 Article 3: It empowers the Parliament ‘The Inter-State River Water Disputes
to create new states. It allows the Act, 1956’.
federation to evolve, grow and respond  The Inter-State Council (Article 263)
to the regional aspirations, as we have inquires into and advises upon the
witnessed in the past. disputes which may have arisen
 Formation of new state: When a new between the states.
state is formed, Schedule I and  The GST (The Goods and Services Tax)
Schedule IV to the Constitution are Council (Article 279A) makes
amended: recommendations to the Union and the
o Schedule I: It contains the list of State Governments on the issues
the States and the Union Territories. related to the Goods and Service Tax.
o Schedule IV: It provides for the The GST Council is chaired by the
allocation of the seats in the Rajya Union Finance Minister and other
Sabha. The allocation of the seats in members are the Union State Minister

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 of Revenue, or the Finance and counter money laundering, terrorist
Ministers in-charge of Finance or financing and associated predicate
Taxation of all the states. offences. The Financial Intelligence Units
(FIUs) are required by the international
5. Answer: (c) standards to exchange information and
engage in international co-operation.
Explanation:
An Inter-State Council, under Article 263,
can be set up if at any time it appears to 9. Answer: (d)
the President that the public interests Explanation:
would be served by the establishment of a Permanent Commission has not been
Council charged with the duty of constituted so far. All Denotified Tribes are
(a) inquiring into and advising upon the not part of the Scheduled Castes, the
disputes which may have arisen Scheduled Tribes or the Other Backward
between the states; Classes categories.
(b) investigating and discussing the  Denotified Tribes (DNTs) are the
subjects in which the state(s) and the communities that were ‘notified’ as
Union have common interest; or being ‘born criminals’ during the
(c) make recommendations for better co- British regime under a series of laws
ordination of policy and action among starting with the Criminal Tribes Act
the states. of 1871.
It shall be lawful for the President by order  These Acts were repealed, based on
to establish such a Council, and to define the recommendation of the
the nature of the duties to be performed by Ananthasayanam Ayyangar
it and its organization and procedure. Committee, 1949, by the Indian
Government in 1952, and these
communities were accordingly "De-
6. Answer: (c)
Notified”.
Explanation:
 Most Denotified Tribes (DNTs) are
The Tribes Advisory Council: Fifth Schedule
spread across the Scheduled Castes
The District Council: Sixth Schedule (SCs), the Scheduled Tribes (STs) and
The Regional Council: Sixth Schedule the Other Backward Classes (OBCs)
categories. However, some DNTs are
7. Answer: (a) not covered in any of the SCs, STs or
Explanation: OBCs categories.
The Directorate of Enforcement, in the  The Ministry of Social Justice and
Department of Revenue (The Ministry of Empowerment had notified in March,
Finance), is responsible for investigating 2019, to constitute The Development
the cases of the offences of money and Welfare Board for Denotified,
laundering under the Prevention of Money Nomadic and Semi-Nomadic
Laundering Act, 2002. Communities, chaired by Bhiku Ramji
Idate.

8. Answer: (b)  Setting up of a Permanent

Commission at the Centre for the
Explanation:
Denotified, Nomadic and Semi-
The Egmont Group recognizes that
Nomadic Communities has been one
financial intelligence sharing is of
of the recommendations of the
paramount importance and has become the
National Commission for De-notified,
corner-stone of international efforts to

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 Nomadic and Semi-Nomadic Tribes (Protection) Act, 1972", to give them
(NCDNT). But, it has not been set up. their natural habitats.
The National Commission for De-notified,
Nomadic and Semi-Nomadic Tribes 10. Answer: (a)
(NCDNT) was constituted by the Explanation:
Government of India in February, 2014, to
 Users with the NFC (The Near Field
prepare a state-wise list of castes belonging
Communication) -enabled Android
to the De-notified, Nomadic and Semi-
smartphones and Google Pay UPI
Nomadic Tribes. The main
(Unified Payments Interface) accounts
recommendations of the National
will be able to complete the transactions
Commission for De-Notified Nomadic and
simply by tapping their phones on any
Semi-Nomadic Tribes (NCDNT) are:
Pine Labs Android point-of-sale (POS)
1. Setting up of a Permanent terminal throughout the nation.
Commission at the Centre for the
 The NFC method is far quicker than
Denotified, Nomadic and Semi-
scanning a QR code or inputting a UPI-
Nomadic Communities.
linked cell phone number, which was
2. Setting up of a Separate previously the only option.
Department/Directorate for the
 The NFC is a short-range wireless
DNT/NT communities in the states.
networking technology that enables the
3. Define the NTs and the DNTs.
NFC-enabled devices to interact and
Uniformity in categorization of the
transmit information with a single
DNTs/NTs as SCs/STs/OBCs across
touch, whether it is to pay the bills,
the states/UTs. Issue of single caste
exchange business cards, download
certificate. Sub-quota for the
discounts or share a document.
DNTs/NTs/SNTs within the quota of
 The NFC allows two devices to
the SCs/STs/OBCs.
communicate by transmitting data
4. Caste-based census in respect of the
using the electromagnetic radio signals.
DNTs/NTs/SNTs communities in the
Because the transactions occur over
2021 Census.
such a small distance, both the devices
5. Creating awareness among the must have the NFC chips.
DNTs/NTs/SNTs communities for
 To transmit data, the NFC-enabled
their inclusion in the mainstream.
devices must be physically contacting or
6. Sensitization of different government within a few centimetres of each other.
officials, law enforcing authorities and
local bodies, so that the
11. Answer: (d)
DNTs/NTs/SNTs do not get differential
treatment and benefits of the Explanation:
mainstream schemes reach to the  The 'Micro-Swimmers,' according to a
DNTs/NTs/SNTs communities. new study, may soon assist in
7. The schemes focusing the medication delivery.
DNTs/NTs/SNTs communities for  The goal of the study is to introduce the
their health, education, housing, microbots into the blood-stream to
traditional art and traditional deliver medications.
expertise.  The approach uses light as a fuel to
8. The livelihood of the DNTs/NTs/SNTs enable the small robots to move in
communities is largely dependent on virtual environments.
the forests. Review the "Indian Forest
Act, 1927" and the "Wildlife

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  These microbots, which are made of a  They are only found in the dense stellar
two-dimensional substance, poly systems, where the distances between
(heptazine-imide) carbon nitride (also the stars are extremely small (a fraction
known as PHI carbon nitride), are of a light year).
nothing like the miniaturised people  The UVIT (Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope)
they are based on. of ASTROSAT, India's first scientific
 They can self-propel when stimulated observatory in the orbit, was used to
by bright light and vary in size from 1 to gather information regarding the Blue
10 micrometres (a micrometre is one Straggler Stars.
millionth of a metre).
14. Answer: (c)
12. Answer: (b) Explanation:
Explanation: Reusable Launch Vehicle – Technology
Europa is a moon of Jupiter. It may be the Demonstrator (RLV-TD) is one of the most
most promising place in our solar system to technologically challenging endeavours of
find present-day environments suitable for ISRO towards developing essential
some form of life beyond the Earth. technologies for a fully reusable launch
The scientists are almost certain that vehicle to enable low cost access to the
hidden beneath the icy surface of Europa is space. The configuration of RLV-TD is
a salty-water ocean, thought to contain similar to that of an aircraft and combines
twice as much water as the Earth’s oceans the complexity of both, the launch vehicles
combined. And like the Earth, Europa is and the aircrafts. The winged RLV-TD has
thought to also contain a rocky mantle and been configured to act as a flying test bed
iron core. to evaluate various technologies, viz.,
There is a very strong evidence suggesting hypersonic flight, autonomous landing and
that Europa's ocean is in contact with rock. powered cruise flight. In future, this vehicle
This is important because life, as we know will be scaled up to become the first stage
it, requires three key basic "ingredients": of India’s reusable two stage orbital launch
Liquid water; An energy source; and vehicle.
Organic compounds to use as the building RLV-TD consists of a fuselage (body), a
blocks for the biological processes. nose cap, double delta wings and twin
Europa could have all three of these vertical tails. It also features symmetrically
ingredients and its ocean may have existed placed active control surfaces, called
for the whole age of the solar system, long Elevons and Rudder.
enough for life to begin and evolve there. Objectives of RLV-TD:
 Hypersonic aero thermodynamic
13. Answer: (c) characterisation of wing body.
Explanation:  Evaluation of autonomous Navigation,
Guidance and Control (NGC) schemes.
 When a main-sequence star in an open
or globular cluster is brighter and bluer  Integrated flight management.
than other stars at the main sequence  Thermal protection system evaluation.
turnoff point for the cluster, the star is
referred to as a "Blue Straggler." 15. Answer: (c)
 Allan Sandage found the first Blue Explanation:
Stragglers in 1953, while doing  An open-air research using the
photometry on the stars in the globular genetically altered mosquitos was done
cluster M3.

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 in the United States, with encouraging world to ensure geographical
findings. representation.
 The study's goal is to lower the number • There is no special privilege for the
of the wild Aedes Aegypti mosquitos, more developed western countries, as is
which spread illnesses, including the case with other multilateral
chikungunya, dengue, zika and yellow institutions, such as the International
fever. Monetary Fund (IMF) or the World
 The mosquitos had previously been Bank.
studied in the field in Brazil, Panama, • It passes non-binding resolutions on
the Cayman Islands and Malaysia, but the human rights issues, besides
no similar research had been done in overseeing expert investigation of
the United States. violations in specific countries.
 In a lab, the GM mosquitos are mass- • The UNHRC holds regular sessions 3
produced to contain two kinds of genes: times a year, in March, June and
o A self-limiting gene, that causes the September.
female mosquito progeny to die • The Universal Periodic Review: The
before reaching maturity. Universal Periodic Review (UPR)
o Under a particular red light, a mechanism reviews all the 192 UN
fluorescent marker gene shines. Member States every 4 years to ensure
This enables the scientists to spot universality of coverage and equal
the GM mosquitos in the wild. treatment of all Member States. It
provides opportunities to the Member
States to declare what actions they have
16. Answer: (b)
taken to improve human rights and to
Explanation: fulfil their obligations.
The Middle Eastern Quad: The Abraham • Special Procedure: The Special
Accords are smoothening the Israel – Arab Procedures of the Human Rights
Faultline. This has facilitated the Council are independent human rights
initiation of the so-called New Quad in experts with mandates to report and
the Middle East, involving the US, Israel, advise on human rights from a thematic
the UAE and India. or country-specific perspective. The
system of Special Procedures is a
17. Answer: (b) central element of the United Nations
Explanation: Human Rights machinery and covers all
The UN Human Rights Council (UNHRC): human rights: Civil, cultural, economic,
• The UNHRC is the central structure political and social.
in the global human rights • Special Rapporteur: The titles Special
architecture, a political body with Rapporteur; Independent Expert; and
representatives drawn from the Working Group Member are given to the
General Assembly. individuals working on behalf of the
• The UNHRC replaced the UN Human United Nations (UN) within the scope of
Rights Commission in 2006. the "Special Procedure" mechanisms.

• The UNHRC has 47 members serving at The mechanism of the Universal Periodic
any time with elections held to fill up Review (UPR) was incorporated into the
the seats every year, based on the functioning to give teeth to the
allocations to the regions across the organisation. The UPR, which has a
national report from the state under review,
plus a compilation of UN information

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 prepared by the Office of the UN High • The National Security Adviser is its
Commission for Human Rights, also allows Secretary.
for a summary of information from the civil • Three tier structure of the NSC
society actors. comprises: (i) The Strategic Policy
Group (SPG); (ii) The National Security
18. Answer: (a) Advisory Board (NSAB); and (iii) The
Explanation: National Security Council Secretariat.
The National Security Council (NSC): • The SPG, chaired by the Cabinet
Secretary, is the principal forum for
• All aspects of national security are
inter-ministerial co-ordination and
deliberated upon by the NSC, the apex
integration of the relevant inputs.
body headed by the Prime Minister.
• The NSAB undertakes long-term
• The Ministers of Home Affairs, Defence,
analysis and provides perspectives on
External Affairs and Finance are its
the issues of national security
members.

19. Answer: (a)

Explanation:
The Golan Heights is a disputed area between Israel and Syria.

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 The West Bank and the Gaza Strip are the two regions, which combinedly form the territory of
Palestine.

The West Bank is named so, because it is located on the west bank of the Jordan River. It is
inland and not located on the Mediterranean Sea. The Gaza Strip is a region located on the
Mediterranean Sea, and surrounded by Egypt and Israel.

20. Answer: (d)

Explanation:
The term 'Scheduled Tribes' (STs) first appeared in the Constitution of India. Article 366 (25)
defined the STs as "such tribes or tribal communities or parts of or groups within such tribes or
tribal communities as are deemed under Article 342 to be Scheduled Tribes for the purposes of
this Constitution".
The President may, with respect to any State or Union Territory, and where it is a state, after
consultation with the Governor there of by public notification, specify the tribes or tribal
communities or parts of or groups within tribes or tribal communities which shall, for the
purposes of this Constitution, is deemed to be the Scheduled Tribes in relation to that state or
Union Territory, as the case may be.
The Parliament may by law include in or exclude from the list of the Scheduled Tribes specified
in a notification issued under Clause (1) any tribe or tribal community or part of or group within
any tribe or tribal community, but save as aforesaid, a notification issued under the said Clause
shall not be varied by any subsequent notification.
Thus, the first specification of the STs in relation to a particular State/Union Territory is by a
notified order of the President, after consultation with the State governments concerned. These
orders can be modified subsequently only through an Act of the Parliament. The above Article
also provides for the listing of the STs State/Union Territory-wise and not on an all India
basis.

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 The criterion followed for the specification of a community, as STs is the indication of primitive
traits, distinctive culture, geographical isolation, shyness of contact with the community at large
and backwardness. This criterion is not spelt out in the Constitution, but has become well
established.

21. Answer: (b) The Special Officer for linguistic

Explanation: minorities will be appointed by the
The Linguistic Minorities – President to safeguard the rights of the
linguistic minorities.
Article 29: Protection of the interests of
the minorities:
1. Any section of the citizens residing in 22. Answer: (c)
the territory of India or any part thereof Explanation:
having a distinct language, script or The Transgender Persons (Protection of
culture of its own shall have the right to Rights) Act, 2019:
conserve the same. • Definition of Transgender: The Act
2. No citizen shall be denied admission defines a transgender person as one
into any educational institution whose gender does not match the
maintained by the State or receiving aid gender assigned at birth. It includes
out of the State funds on grounds only trans-men and trans-women, persons
of religion, race, caste, language or any with intersex variations, gender-queers
of them. and persons with socio-cultural
Article 30: The right of the minorities to identities, such as Kinnar and Hijra.
establish and administer educational • Self-identification: A transgender
institutions: person may make an application to the
1. All minorities, whether based on District Magistrate for a Certificate of
religion or language, shall have the Identity, indicating the gender as
right to establish and administer ‘transgender’.
educational institutions of their • Prohibition against discrimination:
choice. The Act prohibits discrimination against
1A. In making any law providing for the a transgender person in: Education,
compulsory acquisition of any employment and healthcare; Access to
property of an educational institution goods, facilities, opportunities available
established and administered by a to the public; Right to movement,
minority, referred to in Clause (1), the reside, rent or otherwise occupy
State shall ensure that the amount property; and Opportunity to hold
fixed by or determined under such law public or private office.
for the acquisition of such property is • Welfare measures by the government:
such as would not restrict or abrogate Mandated the government to undertake
the right guaranteed under that measures to ensure full inclusion and
Clause. participation of the transgender persons
2. The State shall not, in granting aid to in the society. It must also take steps
the educational institutions, for their rescue and rehabilitation,
discriminate against any educational vocational training and self-
institution on the ground that it is employment, create schemes that are
under the management of a minority, transgender sensitive and promote their
whether based on religion or participation in cultural activities.
language.

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 • Offences and penalties: Recognize the operation and co-ordination to better
offences against the transgender tackle the challenge
persons, like forced or bonded labour;
denial of use of public places; physical, 24. Answer: (a)
sexual, verbal, emotional or economic
Explanation:
abuse. Penalties for these offences vary
The Indian Tent Turtle:
between 6 months and 2 years, and a
fine. • The species is native to India, Nepal and
Bangladesh, with three sub-species
recorded from the region, viz., P. t.
23. Answer: (a)
tentoria; P. t. circumdata; and P. t.
Explanation: flaviventer.
At the 26th Session of the Conference of the • P. t. tentoria occurs in peninsular India
Parties (COP26) to the United Nations and is recorded from Odisha,
Framework Convention on Climate Change Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Assam
(UNFCCC), 2021, held in Glasgow (United and Madhya Pradesh.
Kingdom), India shared the mantra of LIFE
• P. t. circumdata occurs in the western
- Lifestyle for Environment - to combat
tributaries of the Ganga and the rivers
climate change.
of Gujarat. It is found in Rajasthan,
Components of LIFE: Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh and
• From dispose economy to circular Gujarat.
economy: In a linear/dispose economy, • P. t. flaviventer occurs in the northern
we mine raw materials that we process tributaries of the Ganga and is recorded
into a product that is thrown away after from Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal
use. In a circular economy, we close the and Assam.
cycles of all these raw materials. It aims
• Its habitats include still-water pools on
to increase the lifecycle of the goods
the river side and slow running water
through reuse, recycling and repairs.
near the river banks. These are active
• 3Ps – Pro Planet People: The people swimmers and are mainly herbivorous.
and the planet are inter-connected. Life,
• IUCN Status: Least Concern. It is
as we know today, cannot exist if either
listed in Schedule I of the Wildlife
are destroyed. The aim is to encourage
(Protection) Act, 1972, of India.
the people to lead the lifestyle having a
smaller carbon footprint, leading to a
more sustainable use of the 25. Answer: (b)
environment. Explanation:
• Eliminating/reducing throw-away Biogas is a mixture of gases, primarily
culture: Under the throw-away culture, methane (CH4) and carbon di-oxide (CO2),
the economy is strongly influenced by and traces of hydrogen sulphide (H2S),
consumerism. It features over- produced by the decomposition/breakdown
consumption and a preference for of bio-degradable organic matter in the
short-lived products, which maximise absence of oxygen from raw materials, such
the profit, rather than creating durable as agricultural waste, cattle dung, poultry
goods that do not need constant droppings, municipal waste, plant material,
replacing. sewage, green waste or food/kitchen waste.
• One World: Climate change is a global Biogas contains about 55%-65% of
phenomenon. No individual country methane, 35%-44% of carbon dioxide and
could solve this problem alone. Thus, traces of other gases, such as hydrogen
there is need for international co- sulphide, nitrogen and ammonia.

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 Biogas, in its raw form, which is without and in their opinion, it was linked to ‘the
any purification, can be used as clean Golden Age’ of their history.
cooking fuel, like LPG, lighting, motive At that time, the Santhals (Kherwars) were
power and generation of electricity. It can supposed to have enjoyed absolute
be used in diesel engines to substitute independence. They had to pay tribute to
diesel up to 80% and upto 100% their chief for the protection, which he
replacement of diesel by using 100% biogas provided to them. This Movement started
engines. Further, biogas can be purified under the charismatic leadership of
and upgraded up to 98% purity of methane Bhagirath Majhi. He assumed the title of
content to make it suitable to be used as a 'Babaji'. He announced that he would
green and clean fuel for transportation or restore the Golden Age of the Santhals, if
filling in cylinders at high pressure of 250 they returned to the worship of God and
bar or so, and called as Compressed Biogas cleared themselves from their sins. He
(CBG). vowed to liberate them from the oppression
of the officials, landlords and money-
26. Answer: (d) lenders. He exhorted them to worship the
Explanation: Hindu God Ram, identifying him with
Santhal "Caudo". He banned the Santhal's
The Tamar Revolts (1789-1832): The
pigs and fowls. He assured them that their
tribals of Tamar revolted over many times
land would be recovered and given back to
between 1789 and 1832 against the
them. He explained their oppression as a
British. They were joined in the revolt by
divine punishment for not worshipping God
the tribals of the adjoining areas:
and for turning to veneration of minor and
Midnapur, Koelpur, Dhadha, Chatshila,
evil spirits. He imposed on the Santhals the
Jalda and Silli. They revolted against 'the
rules and behaviour which reflected the
faulty align system of the government’.
Hindu notion of purity and pollution. This
The Tamar revolts were led by Bhola Nath
Movement took a more political turn later
Sahay of Tamar. In 1832, the arrows of war
for driving the non-Santhals out of their
circulated throughout the region. Oraons,
habitat.
Mundas, Hos or Kols, who had distinct
social and cultural identities, joined the
insurgents under the leadership of Ganga 27. Answer: (c)
Narain Singh, a member of the Banbhum Explanation:
Raj family. The tribals murdered the Drumlins:
"Dikus" in each village of the areas. They They are formed due to glaciers.
burnt and plundered their houses. But, the These are the swarms of oval, elongated
movement was suppressed by the ‘whale-back’ hummocks, composed wholly
government in 1832-33. The Ho-country of boulders of clay, with their elongation in
was annexed as government estate. Simple the direction of the ice flow that is on the
rules of administration were drawn up, downstream side. They are low hills varying
though the system of government through from a few yards to 400 feet in height and
the "Ho" tribal head was maintained. may be a mile or two long. They appear a
The Kherwar Movement of the Santhals little steeper at the onset side and taper off
(1833): This Movement was motivated by towards the leeward end.
the desire to return to an idealised past of They are arranged diagonally and so are
tribal independence. The word "Kherwar" is commonly described as having a ‘basket of
said to be an ancient name of the Santhals eggs’ topography. Large numbers of them

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 are found in County Down in Northern completion of the under-construction
Ireland and the glaciated plain around the Shingo La Tunnel, which is targeted to be
Great Lakes in North America. completed by 2025, the new Leh-Manali
Highway via Nimmu–Padum–Darcha road
28. Answer: (b) will become all-weather roads. The tunnel
reduces the travel time and the overall
Explanation:
distance between Manali and Keylong on
The Atal Tunnel (also known as the
the way to Leh.
Rohtang Tunnel), named after the former
Note: The Pir Panjal Range is a group of
Prime Minister of India, Atal Bihari
mountains in the Lesser Himalayan region,
Vajpayee, is a highway tunnel built under
running from east-southeast to west-
the Rohtang Pass in the eastern Pir Panjal
northwest across the Indian territories of
range of the Himalayas on the Leh-Manali
Himachal Pradesh and Jammu & Kashmir,
Highway in Himachal Pradesh. At a length
and then Pakistan's Azad Kashmir and
of 9.02 km, it is the longest highway single-
Punjab.
tube tunnel above 10,000 feet in the world.
With the existing Atal Tunnel and after the

29. Answer: (b)

Explanation:
Biodiversity can be measured and monitored at several spatial scales.
Alpha Diversity = The richness and evenness of the individuals within a habitat unit. For
example, in the figure below, Alpha Diversity of Site A = 7 species, Site B = 5 species and Site C
= 7 species.
Beta Diversity = The expression of diversity between the habitats. In the example below, the
greatest Beta Diversity is observed between Site A and Site C with 10 species that differ between
them and only 2 species in common.
Gamma Diversity = The landscape diversity or the diversity of the habitats within a landscape
or region. In this example, the Gamma Diversity is 3 habitats with 12 species total diversity.

Site A = 7 Species A vs B = 8 species

Site B = 5 Species B vs C = 4 species
Site C = 7 Species A vs C = 10 species

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30. Answer: (a) development. They are entitled to a
Explanation: healthy and productive life in
The Manodarpan Scheme: It is an harmony with the nature.
initiative of the Ministry of Education, 2. Principles 2: The states have the
to provide psychosocial support for the responsibility to ensure that activities
mental health and well-being of the within their jurisdiction or control do
students during the COVID-19 outbreak not cause damage to the environment
and beyond. of other states or of areas beyond the
Satyabhama (Science and Technology limits of national jurisdiction.
Yojana for Aatmanirbhar Bharat in 3. Principle 3: The right to development
Mining Advancement): The Ministry of must be fulfilled, so as to equitably
Mines has launched this portal to promote meet the developmental and
research and development in the mining environmental needs of the present
sector. The portal allows online submission and the future generations.
of the project proposals, along with 4. Principle 4: Environmental protection
monitoring of the projects and utilisation of shall constitute an integral part of the
funds/grants. development process and cannot be
The TEJAS Scheme: TEJAS stands for considered in isolation from it.
‘Training in Emirates Job and Skills’. It 5. Principle 5: Eradicating poverty as an
is an initiative of the Ministry of Skill indispensable requirement for
Development and Entrepreneurship. sustainable development.
The project is aimed at skilling, certification 6. Principle 6: The needs and priorities
and overseas employment of the Indians. of the developing countries, in
TEJAS is aimed at creating pathways to particular the ‘Least Developed’
enable the Indian workforce to get equipped countries, to be given preference.
for skill and market requirements in the 7. Principle 7: The ‘Principle of Common
GCC (The Gulf Cooperation but Differentiated Responsibilities’ to
Council) countries. the countries to protect, conserve and
It aims at creating a 10,000 strong Indian restore health and integrity of the
workforce in the UAE during the initial Earth’s ecosystem.
phase. 8. Principle 8: Reduce and eliminate
unsustainable patterns of production
31. Answer: (d) and consumption, and promote
Explanation: appropriate demographic policies.
The Rio Declaration on Environment and 9. Principle 9: Strengthen endogenous
Development: This Declaration was capacity building, improving scientific
adopted in the UN Conference on understanding, technology transfer
Environment and Development at Rio de etc.
Janeiro (Brazil) in 1992. 10. Principle 10: The participation of the
The Declaration recognised the integral and citizens in the environmental issues.
interdependent nature of the Earth and 11. Principle 11: The states to enact
aimed to protect the integrity of global effective environmental legislation.
environment and developmental system.
The Declaration has 27 principles. 32. Answer: (d)
Salient principles: Explanation:
1. Principle 1: Human beings are at the The Khelo India University Games is a
centre of concerns for sustainable national level multi-sport event, where the

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 athletes from the universities across the 2. Weak public institutions, which do
country compete in different sports not question.
disciplines. The inaugural edition was 3. State controlled media, lack of free and
held in Cuttack (Odisha) and was hosted independent media.
by the Kalinga Institute of Industrial 4. Constitutionalism: Constitutions
Technology in 2020. In 2022, the second function as a check on the state and
edition of the Khelo India University Games protect individuals’ rights.
was held in Jain University, Bengaluru.
5. Strong Police and Intelligence: Police
These games are organised by the Sports
and intelligence are the wings, which
Authority of India and the Ministry of
are used by the totalitarian regimes to
Youth Affairs & Sports, to identify and train
check opposition and deviance.
capable athletes in the age group of 18 to
6. Individual rights are disregarded in the
25 years for the Olympics and the Asian
totalitarian systems. The states have
Games.
power over the individuals.
The Khelo India Youth Games (KIYG)
[earlier known as the Khelo India School
Games (KISG)] are the annual national level 34. Answer: (b)
multi-disciplinary grass-root games in Explanation:
India. These games are held for two Alamgirnama, the court history of Emperor
categories: Aurangzeb (1658-1707), was written by
1. Under 17 years’ school students. Mirza Muhammad Kazim. Following the
2. Under 21 years’ college students. tradition of the Mughal emperors from the
time of Akbar, Aurangzeb ordered his court
Every year best 1,000 kids will be given an
historian Mirza Muhammad Kazim to
annual scholarship of Rs. 5 lakh for 8 years
record and compile the history of his reign.
to prepare them for the international
Mirza Kazim wrote the history up to the
sporting events.
10th year of the reign of Aurangzeb (1668),
The inaugural games were held in Delhi,
but the emperor forbade him to continue
2018. Subsequently, two editions of games
the work after this period. The history was
were organized at Pune (2019) and
a voluminous work, consisting of 1,107
Guwahati (2020). In 2022 the fourth KIYG
printed pages (published by the Calcutta
will be organised at Panchkula (Haryana).
Asiatic society of Bengal in 1868).
Maasir-i-Alamgiri was a court history of
33. Answer: (b) the next 5 decades of Aurangzeb rule. It
Explanation: was written by Saqi Mustad Khan. It was
Philosophers, like Hegel, and dictators, composed after the death of Aurangzeb.
such as Hitler and Mussolini, held that the The book has been in the news recently, as
state must have absolute powers and the there are records in the book which show
individuals have no right against the state. that Aurangzeb ordered raising of temples
According to this view, the state can do no in Banaras (Varanasi). (The Gyanvapi
wrong. The whole life of an individual is Mosque Controversy).
within the jurisdiction of the state. Thus, Muntakhab-i-Lubab is a historical account
the totalitarian states are all powerful of the Mughal empire in India. It was
states, where the individuals have no written by Khafi Khan. It covers the period
political choice as such. from the Lodhi dynasty, to the rule of
Conditions which can lead to the Muhammad Shah. It is an important
development of totalitarianism are: source of history for the period of Shah
1. Lack of a strong opposition. Jahan and Aurangzeb.

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35. Answer: (a) • He opened a Lithographic Press in
Explanation: Bombay in 1894 to take his art to the
The First Movers Coalition: It is a global masses. His lithographs increased the
initiative harnessing the purchasing power involvement of the common people with
of the companies to decarbonize the heavy fine arts and defined artistic tastes
industry and long-distance transport among the common people.
sectors responsible for 30% of global • Important works: Shakuntala; Nair
emissions. The companies have sent the Lady Adorning Her Hair; There Comes
largest market signal in the history to Papa; Galaxy of Musicians; Damayanti
commercialize emerging clean technologies talking with a swan; and Maharaj
by making unprecedented advance Shivaji.
purchase commitments by 2030.
Sectors targeted: Steel, aluminium, 37. Answer: (b)
shipping, trucking, aviation and advanced Explanation:
carbon dioxide removal technologies. Economic views of Ambedkar:
Both governments and corporates can be • He advocated a free economy with a
the members of this coalition. stable Rupee.
Government members: US, Denmark, • He also mooted birth control for
Italy, India, Japan, Norway, Singapore, economic development (Demand-
Sweden and UK. scarcity argument).
Corporate members: Over 50 global Socio-Political views of Ambedkar:
businesses have joined this initiative.
He was against the caste-based
It was created through a partnership discriminations and untouchability in the
between the US State Department’s US society and promoted annihilation of caste
Special Presidential Envoy for Climate and system.
the World Economic Forum.
• He condemned the Hindu scriptures,
that he thought propagated caste
36. Answer: (c) discrimination.
Explanation: • Established the ‘Bahishkrit Hitakarini
About the paintings and related works of Sabha’ to promote education and socio-
Raja Ravi Varma: economic improvements among the
 He learnt watercolour painting from the Dalits.
royal painter Ramaswamy Naidu and • Magazines like Mooknayak and
later trained in oil painting from the Bahishkrit Bharat.
Dutch artist Theodore Jensen. • Advocated separate electorates for the
• He specialised in oil and water ‘Depressed Classes’.
paintings. He focused on realised • In 1927, he organised the Mahar
expression and skin tone. Satyagraha.
• Varma combined the European realism • In 1930, Ambedkar launched the
with the Indian sensibilities. Kalaram Temple Movement.
• He was inspired by the Indian • Founded the Independent Labour Party
literature, mythology and dance drama. (later transformed into the Scheduled
• He got three gold medals at the World’s Castes Federation) in 1936.
Columbian Exposition in Chicago in • Considered the Right to Constitutional
1893. Remedy as the soul of the Constitution.

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38. Answer: (c) requiring an extraordinary engineering
Explanation: effort to bring it into focus.
Note: Sagittarius A* (a black hole) sits at
the centre of our Milky Way galaxy, in the
direction of the Sagittarius constellation.

39. Answer: (b)

Explanation:
The British government implemented the
Ryotwari land revenue system in the
Bombay Deccan region. The revenue was so
Black holes were predicted by Albert high under this system that the farmers
Einstein’s General Theory of Relativity over were unable to pay it. If farmers do not pay,
a century ago. the British government will take immediate
Black holes themselves are completely action against them. Farmers borrowed
dark, since nothing, not even light, can money from moneylenders to pay the land
escape their gravity. But, black holes are revenue on interest.
surrounded by the clouds of gas and the Generally, moneylenders charged high-
astronomers can measure this gas to infer interest rates to farmers who could not
the images of the black holes within. The afford to pay it. As a result of a large
central dark region in the above image is a number of Ryots becoming debtors, some of
shadow cast by the black hole onto the gas. them lost their land. Peasant indebtedness
The bright ring is the gas itself glowing. The became a major issue in rural areas in
bright spots in the ring show the areas of particular.
hotter gas that may one day fall into the The American Civil War began in 1861. At
black hole. that time, the USA was the largest supplier
Their boundary is known as the event of cotton to Britain. After the outbreak of
horizon, which marks the point of no war, the demand of cotton was increased in
return. That is just one of the reasons that India as a result cotton cultivation
these objects are hidden from our eyes. The increased in India. After the end of this war
other is that they are exceedingly small, the demand of cotton in India was
when placed in their cosmic context. If our decreased and the farmers affected
Milky Way galaxy were the size of a soccer adversely.
field, its black hole event horizon would be During the civil war the moneylenders
a million times smaller than a pin prick at became generous to give loans to farmers.
centre-field. But after the end of war they refused to
The light looks rather like a ring, a farmers for loans. The farmers became
characteristic signature that is the direct debtors and fully dependent on
consequence of two key processes. First, moneylenders. The farmers became
the black hole is so dense that it bends the economically weak and due to this their
path of the light near it. Second, it captures standard of living was adversely affected.
the light that strays too close to the event The farmers started uprising in the Pune
horizon. The combined effect produces a and Ahmednagar district of Maharashtra.
so-called black hole shadow - a brightened They started a strong attack on the
ring surrounding a distinct deficit of light moneylenders.
centred on the black hole. In the case of In 1875, the farmers attacked the market
our Milky Way black hole, this ring has the place where most of the moneylenders
apparent size of a doughnut on the Moon, lived. The farmers aimed to destroy the

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 account books of the moneylenders. To get  Social Security Schemes [(Public
proper enquiry of the farmers’ revolt, Provident Fund (PPF) and Senior
the Deccan Riots Commission was set up Citizens’ Savings Scheme (SCSS)].
and presented a report to British All small savings collections are credited
Government in 1878. After analysing the to the National Small Savings Fund
report of Deccan Riots Commission the (NSSF) in the Public Account of India.
British Government planned to make the
The interest rates are reset every
proper solution of this movement.
quarter, based on the G-Sec yields of the
In the year 1879, the Agriculturist Relief previous 3 months.
Act was passed. Under this act British
A certain amount of NSSF is invested in the
Government ensured that the farmers
Central and State Government securities.
could not be arrested and imprisoned if
The Fund is administered by the
they are unable to pay their debts.
Department of Economic Affairs, the
Ministry of Finance.
40. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
42. Answer: (a)
Understanding the Standing Deposit
Facility (SDF): The SDF was introduced Explanation:
through an amendment to the RBI Act, The Special Purpose Acquisition Companies
1934. The SDF works similar to the (SPACs) are the listed shell companies
Reverse Repo. However, the SDF would be created with the sole purpose to acquire the
different from the Reverse Repo in the unlisted private companies. The SPACs do
following ways: not have any business operations or
1. Under the SDF route, the RBI would not revenues of their own, but are created to
be required to provide the G-Secs as raise capital through the IPO (The Initial
collateral to the banks. Hence, it would Public Offering). The money raised is then
enable the RBI to absorb huge amount used to acquire the private companies.
of liquidity from the economy without They are also called as the “Blank
the G-Secs acting as collateral. Cheques”, as the investors would have no
2. The SDF would be available for idea as to where their money will be
parking the funds with the RBI on an invested.
overnight basis. But, the duration of Global: The SPACs are currently regulated
the Reverse Repo could be longer. and recognised across multiple
3. Presently, the Reverse Repo is 3.35%, jurisdictions, such as the UK, the USA,
while the SDF rate has been fixed Canada, Singapore and Malaysia. The
higher at 3.75%. SPACs have raised more than 50% of the
capital in the stock market in the USA in
41. Answer: (d) 2020.
Explanation: India – The International Financial
The small savings instruments are the Services Centre (IFSC): The GIFT city,
major source of household savings in India. located in Gujarat, enables raising of
Broadly, the small savings schemes basket capital through the SPACs. The
comprises 12 instruments and can be International Financial Services Centres
classified under 3 heads. These are: Authority (IFSCA) has already provided
 Postal deposits; regulatory clarity on listing the SPACs in
 Savings certificates [(National Small the International Financial Services Centre.
Savings Certificate VIII (NSC) and Kisan Domestic Market: The capital market
Vikas Patra (KVP)]; and regulator, i.e., SEBI (The Securities and

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 Exchange Board of India) has so far not operators, food-service units, repair shops,
enabled the raising of capital through machine operators, small industries,
the SPACs. Hence, the current regulatory artisans, food processors, street vendors
framework of India is not supportive of the and many others.
SPAC structure. Who can provide loans?
The loans are provided by the last mile
43. Answer: (a) financers, such as the Public Sector Banks,
Explanation: Regional Rural Banks, Co-operative Banks,
Details about the Atal Innovation Private and Foreign Banks, Small Finance
Mission: Banks, Non-banking financial companies
(NBFCs) and Micro-Finance Institutions.
Year of launch: 2016
Benefits for the last mile financers: The
Objective: To promote a culture of
loans provided by the last mile financers
innovation and entrepreneurship in the
get refinanced by the Micro Units
country.
Development and Refinance Agency Ltd.
Implemented by: NITI Aayog
(MUDRA). Hence, MUDRA does not
Important Programmes:
directly lend to the individuals/micro-
 Atal Tinkering Labs: To create a enterprises. MUDRA is a refinancing
problem-solving mindset in the school institution.
going students. Rate of interest on the MUDRA loans:
 Atal Incubation Centres: Support the The interest rates are deregulated and the
startups in terms of labs and banks have been advised to charge
mentoring. reasonable interest rates.
 Atal New India Challenge: Supports Need for collateral: The banks have been
innovations based on advanced mandated by the RBI not to insist for
technologies in the areas of national collateral for the loans given under the
importance and social relevance. MUDRA Scheme. Hence, MUDRA loans are
 Atal Community Innovation Centre collateral free.
(ACIC): Promotes innovation in Tier-II
and Tier III cities. 45. Answer: (b)
 Applied Research and Innovation for Explanation:
Small and Medium Enterprises
As per the latest data, the Tax-to-GDP ratio
(ARISE): Promotes innovations and
in 2021-22 has increased to its highest
research in the MSMEs (The Micro,
level of 11.7%.
Small and Medium Enterprises).
Share of the Direct and the Indirect
Taxes: The share of the Direct Taxes is
44. Answer: (a) 6.1% and the share of the Indirect Taxes is
Explanation: 5.6%.
About the MUDRA Scheme: Contribution of different taxes in the
Launched in: 2015 descending order: The GST (including
Implemented by: The Ministry of Finance. CGST, UTGST and GST Compensation
Objective: To provide loans of up to Rs. 10 Cess), Corporate Tax, Income Tax, Union
lakhs to Non-Corporate Small Business Excise Duty and Customs Duty. Amongst
Sector (NCSBS), which includes small the Direct Taxes, Corporate Tax
manufacturing units, shopkeepers, accounts for the highest share.
fruits/vegetable vendors, truck & taxi

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46. Answer: (d)  Pooled cost of grains [weighted MSP
Explanation: (Minimum Support Price) of the stock of
‘The Economic Cost of Food Grains’ refers food grains];
to the cost incurred by the Food  Procurement incidentals (Labour
Corporation of India (FCI) for the charges, transport charges, storage cost
procurement of food grains. It comprises 3 etc.); and
components:  Cost of distribution.

47. Answer: (b)

Explanation:
In case of Ad Valorem Taxes, the tax collections would directly depend upon the domestic
prices.

48. Answer: (a) 49. Answer: (a)

Explanation: Explanation:
Presently, both the Central and the State Details about the Pradhan Mantri
Governments impose taxes on petrol and DAKSH Yojana –
diesel. The Central Taxes on petrol and Objective: To enhance the skill set of the
diesel include: Basic Excise Duty; Special youth in the age group 18-45 years.
Additional Excise Duty; Road and Target Beneficiaries: Scheduled Castes,
Infrastructure Cess; and Agriculture Other Backward Classes/Economically
Infrastructure and Development Cess. Backward Classes/De-notified Tribes and
Only the Basic Excise Duty imposed on Safai Karamcharis, including waste
the petroleum products is distributable pickers.
among the Centre and the States. Time Period: Implemented over the period
of 2021-22 to 2025-26.

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 Implemented by: The National Scheduled Phygital Banking: Combination of two
Castes Finance and Development words, i.e., ‘Physical’ and ‘Digital’. It is a
Corporation (NSFDC); the National form of banking that combines the
Backward Classes Finance & Development advantages of digitalization with the
Corporation (NBCFDC); and the National comfort of a physical bank branch.
Safai Karamcharis Finance and Details about Fincluvation: Under this
Development Corporation (NSKFDC). initiative, the start-ups are invited to build
Nodal Ministry: The Ministry of Social technology-led solutions for:
Justice and Empowerment.  Instant paperless micro credit, using
alternate data sources.
50. Answer: (c)  Integration of digital payments with the
Explanation: money order services of India Post.
The India Post Payments Bank (IPPB)  Innovative solutions for the promotion
has recently announced the launch of of financial inclusion.
‘Fincluvation’ to promote financial
inclusion.

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