IASbabas Open Mock 1 Paper 1 English

English
IASbaba
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO
TEST BOOKLET
Open Mock 1 (Paper – 1)
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200
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PAPERS.
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has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as
penalty.'
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answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
iii. If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that
question.
IASBABA’S OPEN MOCK 1 – (PAPER 1)
Q.3) The role of governor is always in news for

Q.1) Consider the following statements with
various reasons. With reference to this aspect, which
respect to ‘Uniform Civil Code (UCC)’. of the following statement is not correct?
1. Article 44 of the Indian Constitution does a) The constitution clearly specifies that the
not mandate but only asks the State to Governor shall not be a member of the
Legislature or Parliament.
make an endeavor to secure the UCC for
b) Governor’s pardoning power doesn’t extend
all citizens. to punishment involving court-martial.
2. Goa and Mizoram are the only states in c) In Nebam Rabia vs the Union of India, the
Supreme Court clarified that the decisions of
India to have a uniform civil code at the
the governor are not beyond the scope of
state level. judicial review.
Select the correct statement/s from above: d) The Governor of the state is the ex-officio
chancellor of the universities in that state,
a) 1 only
including the central universities in the state.
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 Q.4) Consider the following statements and identify
d) Neither 1 nor 2 the correct one/s:
1. Supreme Court confers power on the
Parliament to make laws regarding
Q.2) With reference to legislative powers, which citizenship.
of the following statement/s is/are correct? 2. The Indian Citizenship Act, 1955 was
enacted in exercise of Article 11 and has been
1. Courts do not have jurisdiction to inquire
amended 6 times till now.
into the proceedings of the legislature. Select the answer:
2. If the legislator is absent for a period more a) 1 only
b) 2 only
than 120 days in the legislature then the
c) Both 1 and 2
house may declare his seat vacant. d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Article 191 of the Indian constitution deals
Q.5) In context of the COVID-19 pandemic, which
with the disqualifications of membership
of the following provisions of Indian constitution are
from a legislature. related to the aspect of right to health?
Select the answer: 1. Article 39
a) 1 and 2 only 2. Article 44
3. Article 47
b) 1 and 3 only
Select the answer:
c) 2 and 3 only a) 1 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
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Q.6) With reference to ‘Registration of Births and Q.8) With reference to funding of rural local bodies,
Deaths Act, 1969’, which of the following which of the following statements is/are correct?
statement/s is/are correct? 1. Giving financial powers in relation to taxes,
1. The Act defines the position of Chief- levy fees etc. to the rural local bodies comes
under the compulsory provisions of 73rd
Registrar, who is appointed by the state
Constitutional Amendment Act.
Government. 2. Grants from the Union Government is one of
2. Under this Act, it is the responsibility of the sources of funding for rural local bodies.
Select the answer:
the states to register births and deaths.
a) 1 only
Select the answer:
b) 2 only
a) 1 only
c) Both 1 and 2
b) 2 only
d) Neither 1 nor 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q.9) According to feminists, inequality between men
and women in society is due to:
Q.7) Consider the following statements and a) Natural differences, which are a result of
identify the correct one: evolution in humans.
b) Submissive nature of female gender, which
1. The Constitution of India empowers the affects dynamics of interaction.
Supreme Court and High Court to punish c) Patriarchy that values men more than women.
people for their contempt. d) Capitalism and its effect on societal dynamics
2. The power to punish for contempt of the and relations.
Supreme Court is subject to any law made
by Parliament. Q.10) Consider the following statements and identify
3. As per the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, the correct statement/s:
1. Affirmative action goes beyond the formal
the consent of the Attorney General is
equality by law.
required before the Supreme Court can 2. Reservations are a form of negative
take cognizance of a contempt of court discrimination.
3. Affirmative actions have been criticized as
plea by a private individual.
being against the principle of equality.
Select the answer: Select the answer:
a) 1 only a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 d) 2 and 3 only

Q.11) With respect to the recently passed Election Q.13) With reference to the ‘Central Information
Laws (Amendment) Bill 2021, which of the Commission (CIC)’, which of the following
following statement is not correct? statements is/are correct?
a) The Bill amends the Representation of the 1. It is constituted under the ‘Central
People Act, 1950 and the Representation Information Commission Act, 2005’.
of the People Act, 1951 to implement 2. A complaint or appeal can be filed in the CIC
certain electoral reforms. against an order of a State Information
b) Under the new amendments, the qualifying Commission.
date for enrolment in the electoral roll has 3. The decisions of the CIC are final and
been fixed at January 1 of the year in binding.
which such roll is being prepared or Select the answer:
revised. a) 1 and 2 only
c) The Bill adds that the electoral registration b) 1 and 3 only
officer may require a person to furnish c) 2 and 3 only
their Aadhaar number for establishing their d) 3 only
identity.
d) The Bill also replaces the word ‘wife’ to Q.14) Consider the following statements and identify
‘spouse’ to make the laws gender-neutral. the incorrect one/s:
1. The Constitution makes provision for the
Q.12) Consider the following statements and transfer of a Judge from one High Court to
identify the correct one/s: any other High Court.
1. The entire Representation of the People
2. The initiation of the proposal for the transfer
Act, 1951 does not provide any
mechanism for the de-registration of a of a Judge should be made by the Chief
political party. Justice of the concerned High Court.
2. Election Commission has no power to de-
3. Consent of a Judge for his first or subsequent
register a political party whatsoever.
3. As of 2021, there are only two (2) transfer is essential to ensure greater
recognized National parties and fifty-four productivity in judicial functioning.
(54) recognized State parties, some of
Select the answer –
which are recognized in multiple States.
Select the answer: a) 1 only
a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only c) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only d) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.15) With reference to Prohibition and alcohol Q.18) With respect to the unorganized workers in
consumption in India, consider the following India, consider the following statements and identify
statements: the correct one/s:
1. As per the Indian Constitution, alcohol for 1. The term unorganized worker has been
human consumption comes under the defined under the Unorganized Workers'
concurrent list of the Seventh Schedule.
Social Security Act, 2008.
2. The case of State of Bombay v. F.N.
Balsara in Supreme Court relates to the 2. Ministry of Finance has developed eSHRAM
right to consume and trade liquor. portal for creating a National Database of
3. Alcohol sale and consumption is totally
Unorganized Workers (NDUW).
banned in Bihar and Gujarat only.
Identify the correct statement/s from above – 3. eSHRAM portal is the first-ever national
a) 1 and 2 only database of unorganized workers including
b) 2 only migrant workers, construction workers, gig
c) 3 only and platform workers, etc.
d) 2 and 3 only Select the answer:
a) 1 only
Q.16) Sometimes seen in news, the ‘Rajiv– b) 1 and 2 only
Longowal Accord’ is related to: c) 1 and 3 only
a) Resolution of Jammu’s issues within d) 1, 2 and 3
Jammu and Kashmir state’s constitution.
b) Agreement with regards to the Gorkhas Q.19) Consider the following statements about the
demands in Darjeeling region. ‘1931 Karachi Session of Indian National Congress’.
c) Status of Chandigarh between Haryana and 1. A resolution on fundamental rights was
Punjab. passed which guaranteed the right to
d) Punjab-Himachal Pradesh resolution with employment among other things.
regards to the sharing of Sutlej River water. 2. The session reiterated that goal of the
national movement is to achieve self-
Q.17) Jawaharlal Nehru described which post as government with dominion status.
‘the Linchpin of Government’? Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) President a) 1 only
b) Vice President b) 2 only
c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha c) Both 1 and 2
d) Prime Minister d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.20) Consider the following statements about the Q.22) With reference to Indian freedom struggle,
consider the following statements about ‘Disorders
proposals under ‘Wavell Plan’.
Inquiry Committee’.
1. With exception of Viceroy and the 1. There were no Indian members in the
committee.
commander in chief, all members of the
2. The final report of the committee
viceroy’s executive council were to be unanimously condemned the action of
General Dyer in Jallianwala Bagh.
Indians.
3. The Inquiry Committee was formed during
2. The Viceroy will have veto power and the the Viceroyship of Lord Reading.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
executive council will be responsible to the
a) 2 only
Central Legislative Assembly. b) 2 and 3
Which of the statements given above is/are c) 1 only
correct? d) 1 and 2
a) 1 only Q.23) Consider the following statements about the

b) 2 only ‘Charter Act of 1813’.
c) Both 1 and 2 1. It provided for a financial grant towards the
revival of Indian literature and the promotion
d) Neither 1 nor 2 of science.
2. All restrictions on European immigration and
the acquisition of property in India were
Q.21) Consider the following statements about lifted.
‘Brahmo Samaj’. 3. Christian missionaries were permitted to
come to India and preach their religion.
1. Meditation and reading of Upanishads Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
were among the forms of worship a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
promoted by Brahmo Samaj.
c) 1 and 3
2. Brahmo Samaj took no definite stand on d) All of the above
the doctrine of karma.
3. Brahmo Samaj accepted the beliefs in Q.24) With reference to resistance against Britishers,
consider the following statements about ‘Santhal
divine incarnations or avataras. Rebellion’
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. Santhals proclaimed an end to company rule.
2. British annexation of the Santhal homeland
correct?
was the immediate cause of the rebellion.
a) 1 only 3. The rebellion is often described as “Ulgulan”
or the Great Tumult.
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3 a) 1 and 2
d) 1 and 3 b) 1 only
c) 2 and 3
d) All of the above

Q.25) Consider the following events: Q.27) Consider the following statements about
1. Third Anglo-Burmese war. ‘Swadeshi Movement’
1. Samitis were a major form of mass
2. Swami Dayanand Saraswati established
mobilization widely used by the Swadeshi
Arya Samaj. Movement.
3. Satyendra Nath Tagore passed the Indian 2. Mass participation of peasants in different
forms of struggles across all parts of Bengal
Civil Services exam.
was a remarkable feature of Swadeshi
4. East India Association founded by movement.
Dadabhai Naoroji. 3. Rabindranath Tagore started a school at
Shanti Niketan in response to the call of
What is the correct chronological sequence of the
Swadeshi Movement.
above events? Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 3-4-2-1 a) 1 only
b) 3-2-4-1 b) 1 and 3
c) 2 only
c) 4-3-1-2 d) All of the above
d) 1-4-3-2
Q.28) Which of the following is/are power(s)
guaranteed by the Diwani rights to the British East
Q.26) With reference to ‘Champaran Movement’,
India Company?
consider the following statements: 1. Levying tariffs
1. The peasants of Champaran were suffering 2. Administration of civil justice
3. Collection of land revenue
due to the Tebhaga system.
Select the correct answer by using the code given
2. Gandhi was nominated by the Government below.
as a member of the Committee to enquire a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
into the grievances of the cultivators.
c) 1 and 3 only
3. Government failed to pass the Champaran d) 1, 2 and 3
Agrarian Bill due to opposition from
British planters. Q.29) Consider the following statements about
‘Jainism’.
Which of the statements given above is/are
1. Jainism rejected the authority of Vedas.
correct? 2. Nayavada is a doctrine in Jain philosophy.
a) 2 only 3. Jainism believed in transmigration of soul.
b) 3 only
a) 1 and 2
c) 1 and 3 b) 2 and 3
d) 2 and 3 c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above

Q.30) With reference to ancient Indian history, Q.33) Consider the following statements:
consider the following statements about emperor 1. Huen-tsang visited India during the reign of
‘Kanishka’: Chandragupta 2.
1. He adopted the title of ‘Devputra’. 2. Vishakadatta authored Mudrarakshasa and
2. The third Buddhist council was held Devichandraguptam.
during his reign. 3. Guptas issued a large number of gold coins
3. He patronized the great Buddhist scholar called dinaras.
Ashvagosha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are a) 3 only
correct? b) 1 and 2
a) 2 and 3 c) All of the above
b) 3 only d) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) None of the above Q.34) Consider the following statements about
society and administration under ‘Delhi Sultanate’.
1. The practice of Sati was widely prevalent.
Q.31) Which among the following statements is 2. Slavery was banned in the areas under Delhi
not true about society in the ‘Rig Vedic’ period? sultanate.
a) Most wars were fought for the sake of 3. Diwan-i-Risalat was the department of
land. intelligence.
b) No regular army was maintained. 4. Provinces under the Sultanate were called
c) Intra tribal conflicts among Aryans were Iqtas.
common. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
d) Profits obtained by winning a war were a) 1 and 2
unequally distributed. b) 1 and 4
c) 1 only
Q.32) The inscriptions of Ancient India were d) 3 only
used:
1. To convey royal orders and decisions Q.35) The books Raja Yoga, Karma Yoga and Jnana
regarding social and administrative Yoga were written by
matters. a) Maharshi Patanjali
2. As votive records of the followers of b) Aurobindo Ghosh
various religions. c) Swami Vivekananda
3. To record land grants made by chiefs and d) Ramakrishna Paramahansa
princes.
Which of the statements given above is/are Q.36) ‘Most of the movements in this dance form
correct? resemble to that of a dancing flame’. Which of the
a) 1 only following dance is referred to in the statement?
b) 2 only a) Kathakali
c) 1 and 2 only b) Kuchipudi
d) 1, 2 and 3 c) Mohiniyattam
d) Bharatnatyam

Q.37) Consider the following pairs: Q.40) Consider the following statements regarding
Theatre/Dance-drama Region Keystone Species
1. Ankia Nat Himachal Pradesh 1. An ecosystem may cease to exist altogether
2. Daskathia Odisha
without its Keystone Species.
3. Bhavai Rajasthan
4. Tamasha Madhya Pradesh 2. Keystone species have high functional
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly redundancy.
matched? 3. Organisms in the top of food chain like Tiger
a) 2 and 3 can only be a keystone species.
b) 3 and 4 Which of the statements given above is/are
c) 1 and 3 incorrect?
d) 1,2 and 3 a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
Q.38) Which of the following are environmental
effects of ‘Eutrophication’? c) 1 and 3 only
1. Decrease in the rate of precipitation d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Shift in the phytoplankton community
3. Enhanced water acidification
Q.41) Consider the following statements with respect
4. Reduction in macroalgal blooms
Select the correct answer using the code given to the ‘International Solar Alliance (ISA)’.
below 1. It has been conceived to enhance energy
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
security and sustainable development, and to
b) 2 and 3 only
improve access to energy in developing
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
member countries.
d) 1, 3 and 4 only
2. It was conceived as a coalition of solar-
resource-rich countries (which lie either
Q.39) Consider the following statements
1. Sundarbans is the world's largest single completely or partly between the Tropic of
patch of mangrove forests. Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn) to
2. It is spread over three countries.
address their special energy needs.
3. South 24 Parganas district of West Bengal
alone accounts for over 40 percent of 3. Countries that do not fall within the Tropics
mangrove cover of the country. are not eligible to a member of the ISA.
Select the correct statements
correct?
a) 1 only a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3 only b) 2 Only
c) 1 and 3 only c) 1 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.42) The greater one-horned rhino (or “Indian Q.44) Consider the following statements regarding
rhino”) is the largest of the rhino species. Once ‘Peatlands’.
1. Peatlands cover at least 3% of global land
widespread across the entire northern part of the
surface and is found only in the Arctic and
Indian sub-continent, rhino populations Antarctic regions.
plummeted as they were hunted for sport or killed 2. They store twice as much carbon as all the
world’s forests.
as agricultural pests. It can be found in which of
Which of the above statements is correct?
the following Protected areas? a) 1 only
1. Dudhwa National Park b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
2. Dibru Saikhowa National Park
d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Jaldapara National Park
4. Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary Q.45) India announced five-fold strategy
Select the correct answer using the code given (panchamrita) at the 26th Conference of Parties
(CoP26). These include
below 1. Reduce the total projected carbon emissions
a) 1 and 2 only by 100 billion tones from now onwards till
b) 2 and 4 only 2030.
2. Non-fossil energy capacity to 500 gigawatts
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(GW) by 2030
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only 3. 100% of energy requirements from renewable
energy by 2030.
Q.43) Consider the following statements regarding
a) 1 and 2 only
‘Bhitarkanika National Park’. b) 3 only
1. It is the largest mangrove ecosystems on c) 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
the west coast of India.
2. It lies in the estuarial region of Brahmani- Q.46) Among the following Tiger Reserves, which
Baitrani and Bay of Bengal. one is the smallest?
3. It has the largest congregation of the a) Amrabad Tiger reserve
b) Sanjay Dubri Tiger Reserve
endangered saltwater crocodiles in the
c) Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve
country. d) Orang Tiger Reserve
Q.47) ‘Breathe Life’, a joint campaign on
correct?
implementing solutions to air pollution is led by
a) 1 and 2 only a) UNFCCC and World Bank
b) 2 and 3 only b) UNEP and IPCC
c) UNEP and World Bank
c) 1 and 3 only
d) WHO and UNFCCC
d) 1, 2 and 3
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Q.48) Consider the following statements ‘Gir Q.51) Which of the following are the Toxic
National Park’ Chemicals used in our everyday lives?
1. It is the only place in the world outside 1. Organophosphates
Africa where a lion can be seen in its 2. Bisphenol A (BPA)
natural habitat. 3. Paraffin
2. It is known for the Chowsingha – the 4. Formaldehyde
world’s only four horned antelope. 5. Mercury
Which of the statements given above is/are Select the correct answer using the code given below
correct? a) 1, 2 and 3 only
a) 1 only b) 1, 2 and 4 only
b) 2 only c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
c) Both 1 and 2 d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.52) Consider the following statements about
Q.49) Consider the following statements regarding ‘Scheduled Banks’.
the ‘Green Hydrogen and Green Ammonia’ 1. All banks which are included in the Second
policy. Schedule to the Reserve Bank of India Act,
1. It aims to boost the domestic production of 1934 are Scheduled Banks.
green hydrogen to 50 million tonnes by 2. Cooperative banks are not eligible for
2030. scheduled bank status.
2. Green hydrogen or green ammonia is 3. All payment banks are considered as
produced using natural gas or naphtha scheduled banks.
instead of coal. Identify the correct statements:
Which of the above statements is correct? a) 1 only
a) 1 only b) 1 and 3
b) 2 only c) 3 only
c) Both 1 and 2 d) All of the above
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.50) Consider the following statements with ‘Regulatory Sandbox’ seen in news:
respect to ‘Forest Cover in the North Eastern 1. It is another name for red-tapism caused by a
series of opaque regulations.
States’.
2. It hinders informed decision-making ability
1. The total forest cover in north-eastern of regulators as market agents go
states increased by 6 per cent in the last underground.
two years. 3. It refers to testing of new products or services
2. The forest cover in the eight north eastern in a controlled environment.
states accounts for more than 20 per cent 4. It helps innovators with regulatory flexibility.
of the total forest cover of the country. Select the correct statements using the code given
Which of the above statements is correct? below:
a) 1 only a) 1 only
b) 2 only b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 c) 3 and 4
d) Neither 1 nor 2 d) 1 and 2

Q.54) Consider the following statements about Q.56) Consider the following statements about
‘National Electronic Fund Transfer System ‘Special Drawing Rights (SDRs)’
1. Adding SDRs to the country’s international
(NEFT)’ and ‘Real Time Gross Settlement System
reserves makes it more financially resilient.
(RTGS)’ 2. Countries can buy and sell SDRs by entering
1. Both NEFT and RTGS are owned and into voluntary trading arrangements (VTAs)
facilitated by the IMF.
operated by National Payment Corporation
3. The value of the SDR is based on a basket of
of India. three currencies – USD, GBP and EUR.
2. NEFT requires only mobile number linked Identify the correct statements:
a) 1 and 2
to bank account for initiating transaction.
b) 2 and 3
3. There is no maximum transaction limit c) 1 and 3
prescribed for RTGS or NEFT by the RBI. d) All of the above.
4. RTGS is primarily meant for high value
transactions. ‘Currency Convertibility’.
Identify the correct statements: 1. At present the rupee is fully convertible on
a) 4 only the current account, but only partially
convertible on the capital account.
b) 3 and 4
2. Fuller capital account convertibility (FCAC)
c) 1, 3 and 4 can shield the economy from global
d) 1, 2 and 3 macroeconomic shocks.
Select the correct statements using code given below:
a) 1 only
Q.55) Which of the following activities are b) 2 only
counted as part of ‘India’s GDP’? c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Economic activities of Indian residents in
international waters.
Q.58) Consider the following statements:
2. Informal sector economic activities.
1. Foreign Portfolio Investors can invest in both
3. Domestic work of a family done by
listed and unlisted companies.
household members.
2. Foreign Portfolio Investment is a part of
4. Salary earned by Indian citizen working
country's current account as they are short
abroad.
term in nature.
Select the correct answer using the code given
3. Foreign Portfolio Investment is allowed in
below: both G-secs and State Development Loans.
a) 1 only Identify the correct statements:
b) 2, 3 and 4 a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 2
c) 3 only
d) All of the above. d) All of the above

Q.59) Which of the following statement about Q.62) Which of the following statements is incorrect
‘Hard currency’ is correct? about ‘Provision Coverage Ratio (PCR)’?
a) Domestic currency whose supply is a) Lower the asset quality, higher will be the
tightened by monetary authority is termed provisioning coverage ratio.
as hard currency. b) Higher the asset quality, higher will be the
b) Domestic currency which is under enough provisioning coverage ratio.
pressure of depreciation is called hard c) Higher provision coverage ratio means the
currency. bank is not vulnerable and the asset quality
c) A hard currency remains relatively stable issue is taken care.
and are highly liquid in the forex market. d) The PCR helps in estimating the financial
d) Hard currencies come from countries with health of a bank.
unstable economies.
Q.63) Which of the following are advantages about
Q.60) Which of the following receipts comes ‘Digital Banking Units (DBU)’?
under revenue receipts of Government of India: 1. It will open up rural market for service
1. Loans raised by the government from the providers besides providing a boost to credit
public. flow.
2. Interest receipts on loans extended by 2. It will encourage more financial literacy and
Central Government.
a favourable outlook towards digital banking.
3. Recoveries of loans granted by the Central
Government. 3. It will be cheaper to establish than a new
4. Proceeds from Disinvestment of PSUs. branch and can provide better customer
Select the correct answer using code given below: experience aided by technology.
a) 2 only Select the correct statements
b) 2, 3 and 4 a) 1 and 2
c) 1,2 and 3 b) 2 and 3
d) All of the above c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
Q.61) Consider the following statements and
identify the organization it is primarily associated Q.64) Which of the following are features of
with ‘Cryptocurrency’?
1. Pillar one would give countries a share of 1. Uses cryptography.
the taxes on profits earned there, though 2. Depends on distributed ledger technology.
the tax would still be collected where the 3. No use for a third party such as a bank to
company has its fiscal base. issue crypto asset.
2. Pillar two is a global minimum corporate
4. No state backing.
tax rate to stop competition between
countries over who can offer companies Select the correct code:
the lowest rate -- what critics call a "race a) 1, 2 and 3
to the bottom". b) 2, 3 and 4
Select the appropriate code: c) 1, 3 and 4
a) BIMSTEC d) 1, 2 and 4
b) OECD
c) OPEC
d) ASEAN

Q.65) Consider the following statements about Q.68) A liquidity trap is characterized by
‘Oil Bonds’ 1. Very low-interest rates.
1. They are issued by the government to
2. High inflation.
compensate OMCs to offset losses that
they suffer to shield consumers from rising 3. High economic growth.
crude prices. 4. Preference for saving rather than spending
2. They are more liquidity compared to other
and investment.
government securities.
Select the correct statements Select the correct code:
a) 1 Only a) 1 and 2
b) 2 Only
b) 2 and 3
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2 c) 3 and 4
d) 1 and 4
Q.66) Which of the following statements best
describes ‘Circular Economy’?
a) It refers to an economy which experiences Q.69) Consider the following statements
frequent highs and lows in its business 1. Special Safeguard Mechanism (SSM) is a
cycle. protection measure allowed for developing
b) Higher government expenditure will create
countries to take contingency restrictions
more demand for goods and services and
consequently higher production resulting against agricultural imports that are causing
in circular economy. injuries to domestic farmers.
c) Circular economy resulted in increased
2. Under the global trade norms, a WTO
negative externalities post industrial
revolution. member country's food subsidy bill should
d) A circular economy is an industrial system not breach the limit of 25 per cent of the
that is restorative or regenerative by
value of production based on the reference
intention and design.
price of 1986-88.
Q.67) In India, States are reluctant to cut taxes 3. G-33 is a coalition of developing countries
because pressing for flexibility for developing
1. Petroleum and alcohol, on an average,
countries to undertake limited market
account for 25-35% of states’ own tax
revenue. opening in agriculture.
2. Switch to GST has severely curtailed the Select the correct statements
states’ flexibility to adjust revenues
a) 1 and 2
Select the correct statements using the code given
below: b) 2 and 3
a) 1 only c) 1 and 3
b) 2 only
d) All of the above
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.70) Consider the following passage Q.73) Which of the following is/are Rabi crops?
This phenomenon is especially observed in 1. Barley
intermontane valleys. Long winter night, clear sky, 2. Mustard
dry air and absence of winds are the ideal 3. Moong
conditions for the occurrence of this phenomenon. 4. Groundnut
It’s because of this phenomenon mulberry planters 5. Safflower
of the Suwa Basin and the apple growers of Choose the correct code:
Himachal Pardesh avoid the lower slopes of the a) 1, 2, 3 and 5
mountains to escape winters frost. b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
The above points are related to which of the c) 1, 2 and 5
following phenomenon? d) 1, 4 and 5
a) Adiabatic Lapse Rate
b) Western Disturbances Q.74) Consider the following statements
c) Temperature Inversion 1. El Nino is synonymous with the Indian
d) Temperature Shift Ocean.
2. El Nino has been found to trigger droughts in
Australia and India.
Q.71) Consider the following statements with
3. During an El Niño it is relatively dry in the
respect to the ‘Summer Solstice’. tropics, and plant growth decreases.
1. Summer Solstice is the longest day in the Select the correct statements
Southern Hemisphere. a) 1 and 2
2. Summer Solstice signals the start of the b) 2 and 3
summer season in the Southern c) 3 Only
Hemisphere. d) 1, 2 and 3
3. During Summer Solstice, the Sun shines
overhead on the Tropic of Capricorn. Q.75) In which of the following cities, are the days the
Select the incorrect statements longest?
a) 1 and 2 a) Bangalore
b) 2 and 3 b) Nagpur
c) 1 and 3 c) New Delhi
d) All of the above d) Chandigarh
Q.72) Consider the following statements with Q.76) Which of the below given pairs is/are correctly
respect to the ‘Heat Dome’. matched?
1. Atmospheric pressure and rising sea PVTGs States
temperatures contribute to a heat dome. 1. Koraga Karnataka
2. Low pressure way up in the atmosphere 2. Kadar Kerala
can lead to an increase in temperatures at 3. Maria Gond Maharashtra
ground level. 4. Marram Naga Nagaland
Select the correct code: Choose the correct code:
a) 1 Only a) 1, 3 and 4
b) 2 Only b) 2, 3 and 4
c) Both 1 and 2 c) 1, 2 and 4
d) Neither 1 nor 2 d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.77) Consider the following statements Q.80) Consider the following statements
1. The surface of the sea changes at different 1. Relay cropping is the process of growing one
rates around the globe. crop, then planting another crop in the same
2. Ocean levels vary considerably due to
field before harvesting the first.
tides and magnetism.
Select the correct statements 2. Ratoon cropping is the cultivation of food,
a) 1 Only forage or specialty crops between rows of
trees.
b) 2 Only
3. The cultivation of crop regrowth after harvest
c) Both 1 and 2 is known as Alley cropping
d) Neither 1 nor 2 Choose the correct statements:
a) 1, 2 and 3
Q.78) Which of the following statements about b) 2 and 3
Laurentian Climate is not true? c) 1 only
a) It’s an intermediate type of climate between d) 1 and 3
the British Type Climate and the Taiga

Type Climate of climate 1. Oceanic Rossby waves contribute to high
b) Laurentian type of climate is found only in tides and coastal flooding in some regions of
the world.
northern hemisphere
2. Rossby waves help transfer heat from the
c) Rainfall occurs throughout the year tropics toward the poles and cold air toward
with winter maxima. the tropics in an attempt to return atmosphere
to balance.
d) Lumbering, timber, paper and pulp
industries are the most important economic a) 1 Only
undertakings b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
Q.79) Microclimatic zones, or areas where the d) Neither 1 nor 2
weather is different from surrounding areas, are
shifting across various districts of India. Which of Q.82) Consider the following statements
the following are reasons behind this shift in 1. Terpenes are aromatic compounds found in
microclimatic zones? plants.
1. Change in land-use patterns 2. These compounds are absent in cannabis.
2. Disappearing wetlands and natural 3. Terpentine oil facilitates faster drying of the
ecosystems paint.
3. Urban heat islands Choose the correct statements:
Select the correct code: a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
a) 1 and 2
c) 1 and 3
b) 2 Only d) 1, 2 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.83) The combustion products from complete Q.87) ‘SPARCLD’ was in news recently. It is
combustion of biomass generally contain associated with
1. Nitrogen
a) Nano Technology
2. Water Vapour
3. Carbon dioxide b) Nuclear Technology
4. Oxygen c) Edge Computing
Select the correct code:
d) Space Technology
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 Q.88) Consider the following statements about
d) All of the above ‘DiMeLo-seq technique’.
1. It is a method to map protein-DNA
Q.84) Consider the following statements interactions at a single-molecule level across
1. Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association the genome.
between a fungus and Algae. 2. DiMeLo uses antibody-tethered enzymes to
2. Lichens are bio indicators of air pollutants methylate DNA near a target protein’s binding
Choose the correct statements: sites in situ.
a) 1 only Choose the correct statements:
b) 2 only a) 1 only
c) Both 1 and 2 b) 2 only
d) Neither 1 nor 2
c) Both 1 and 2
Q.85) Which of the following is not essential d) Neither 1 nor 2
characteristic of cloning vector?
a) It must be self-replicating inside host cell Q.89) Consider the following statements
b) It must possess a unique restriction site for
1. Negative ions are produced when sunlight,
RE enzymes
c) It must not possess any marker gene radiation, air, or water break down hydrogen.
d) Introduction of donor DNA fragment must 2. Negative ion technology embeds negative
not interfere with replication property of the ions in personal products like silicone
vector
wristbands.
Q.86) The terms Transcription-coupled repair, 3. Radioactive substances such as uranium and
Global genome repair (GGR) and nucleotide thorium often produce negative ions.
excision repair (NER) are related to?
Choose the correct statements:
a) Damaged DNA repair mechanisms
b) Newly developed cancer treatments a) 1 and 3
c) Mechanisms employed in drug b) 2 only
development for treating HIV disease
c) 2 and 3
d) Genetic engineering techniques to treat
mitochondrial disease d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.90) Consider the following statements Gamma Q.93) Which of the following statements is correct
Ray Outbursts (GRB) with respect to ‘Carbon Black’.
1. GRBs are the most powerful explosions in 1. It is used as a component for magnetic tapes
the Universe after the Big Bang. and semiconductors.
2. Every supernova produces a gamma-ray 2. Carbon black is added to rubber as a
burst. reinforcing agent.
3. Both long-duration and short-duration 3. It is also used as a pigment in cosmetics.
GRBs results in a new black hole. 4. India has banned the import of carbon black.
Choose the correct statements: Select the correct statements
a) 1 and 2 a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2, 3 and 4
b) 1 and 3
c) 1, 3 and 4
c) 1, 2 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 4
d) None
Q.94) ‘eDNA Metabarcoding’ has applications in
1. Invasive Species Detection
Q.91) ‘Senescence’ is the process of aging in 2. Pollution Response
plants. It is affected by 3. Diet Analysis
1. Photosynthesis 4. Plant-Pollinator Interactions
2. Photo Pollution Select the correct code:
3. Atmospheric CO2 concentration a) 1 and 2
Select the correct code: b) 2, 3 and 4
a) 1 and 2 c) 1, 2 and 4
b) 2 Only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
c) 1 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3 1. Currency and Gold Revaluation Account
(CGRA) is maintained by the Department of
Q.92) Which of the following pairs is/are correctly Economic Affairs to take care of currency
risk, interest rate risk and movement in gold
matched? prices.
Communities – Country 2. Profits or surplus of the Reserve Bank of
1. Uighurs – China India are to be transferred to the government
as per Payment and Settlement Systems Act,
2. Dinka – Sudan
2007.
3. Oromos – Belarus Select the correct statements
Select the correct code: a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
a) 1 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
b) 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
c) 2 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.96) Consider the following statements Q.98) Consider the following statements with respect
1. Forest Advisory Committee (FAC) advises to ‘Counter-Terrorism Committee (CTC)’
the ministry on any activity that requires 1. It comprises only of non-permanent members
the diversion of forestland for non-forest of the UN Security Council.
2. It was formed in the aftermath of the 9/11
use.
terror attacks in New York
2. The committee was constituted under the 3. India had led it during its last stint as a non-
Environment Protection Act, 1986 permanent member of the UN Security
Council during 2011-12.
3. Coal cannot be mined on non-forest lands
of a mining area.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 Only
a) 1 Only
c) 2 and 3
b) 1 and 2
d) 1, 2 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) 1 and 3
Q.99) The Global Climate Litigation Report is
brought out by
Q.97) It is one of the largest lakes in Asia. It is in
a) United Nations Environment Programme
the east of Central Asia and sits in an endorheic
b) World Economic Forum
basin. Rivers like Aksu, Byan, Ili, Karatal drain
c) Climate Vulnerable Forum
into the lake. A central narrow strait divides the
d) International Institute for Sustainable
lake into two portions of which the eastern half is
Development
saline water and the western half is freshwater. The
lake it is shrinking due to diversion and extraction
Q.100) ‘Bedded Salt formations’ are
of water from its feeders
1. Strategically useful for underground oil
The above passage refers to which of the following
storage.
lake?
2. Used in the Fertilizer Industry and the
a) Aral Sea
Chemical Industry.
b) Lake Taymyr
3. Useful for storage of nuclear waste.
c) Qinghai Lake
d) Lake Balkhash
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 Only
c) 1 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3

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Open Mock 1 (Paper – 1)

Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

Q.3) The role of governor is always in news for

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a) 1 only Q.23) Consider the following statements about the

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b) 2 and 3 only b) 2 Only

c) 1 and 3 only c) 1 and 3

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the British Type Climate and the Taiga

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