Prelims PYQ
Prelims PYQ
Prelims PYQ
with Explanations
A B C D A B C D
A B C D A B C D
A B C D A B C D
A B C D A B C D
A B C D A B C D
A B C D A B C D
A B C D A B C D
A B C D A B C D
By Unacademy
A
A
B
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One of the most difficult exams in the world, it aims to select the
best of the best through a rigorous testing process. Consequently,
it becomes challenging for the candidates to prepare for the exam
because the previous year's papers and guidance are not readily
available.
While due care has been taken to ensure accuracy in the preparation
of this book. Nonetheless, if there are any corrections, feedback or
suggestions, email us at learnersupport.upsc@unacademy.com.
Modern India 7
1. India in the 18th Century 8
2. Indian Renaissance and Reform Movements 16
3. Early Uprising Against the British and Revolt of 1857: 23
4. Rise of Indian National Movement: Moderate and Extremists Phase 26
5. Phases of Revolutionary Nationalism 33
6. The Beginning of Gandhian Era 35
7. The National Movement in the 1940s 49
8. Development of Press, Education and Civil Services 54
9. Independence to Partition 57
Ancient India 60
1. Prehistoric Period and Indus Valley Civilisation 61
2. Vedic and Later Vedic Age 65
3. Mauryan and Post-Mauryan Age 67
4. Gupta and Post- Gupta Age 78
5. Sangam Age 84
Medieval India 87
1. Delhi Sultanate (1206 AD to 1526 AD) 88
2. Mughal Empire (1526 AD to 1761 AD) 92
3. Provincial Kingdoms in Medieval India 96
4. Religious movement during medieval period 100
Table of Contents 3
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7. Miscellaneous 129
4 Table of Contents
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Indian Polity and Governance 347
1. Historical Background & Making of Indian Constitution 348
2. Features of the Indian Constitution 354
3. Legislature 375
4. Executive 399
5. Judiciary 411
6. Local Self Government 422
7. Governance 427
8. Constitutional and Non-constitutional Bodies 432
9. Judicial & Quasi-Judicial Bodies 438
Table of Contents 5
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15. 4E: Inflation 580
16. 5A: Infra: Energy 587
17. 5B: Infra: Transport, Urban Rural, Communication, Investment, PPP 594
18. 6A: HRD: Census, Health Hunger 599
19. 6B: HRD: Education and Skill 603
20. 6C: HRD: POVERTY 607
21. 6D: HRD: Weaker Section, HDI, SDG 610
22. 7: MicroEconomics 614
6 Table of Contents
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1 MODERN INDIA
1 India in the 18th Century
1. Who among the following rulers of medieval established a factory at Madras on a plot
Gujarat surrendered Diu to the Portuguese? of land leased from a representative of
(2023) the Vijayanagara empire.
(a) Ahmad Shah Which of the statements given above are
(b) Mahmud Begarha correct?
1. The rent was paid directly by the (d) None of the (a), (b) and (c) above
The factories of the British East India Company Pair 2 is correctly matched: The use of
were not located in Chicacole and Trichinopoly intermediaries with expertise of the local
y Most of the production of spice The Ryots could not be evicted from their land
varieties were in southern Indian as long as they paid the rent. It was prevalent in
states. Even today, southern Indian most of southern India, first introduced in Tamil
states are known for the production Nadu. It was later extended to Maharashtra,
of spices. Bengal is less significant for Berar, East Punjab, Coorg, and Assam. The
spice production or export. So, option advantages of this system were the elimination
(c) can be easily eliminated. of middlemen, who often oppressed villagers.
(c) Behramji Malabari and M. G. Ranade 1. Funds used to support the India Office
decided to bring together all the social in London.
reform groups of the country under one 2. Funds used to pay salaries and pensions
organisation. of British personnel engaged in India.
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and 3. Funds used for waging wars outside
(c) given above is correct in this India by the British.
context. Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
14. Consider the following statements: (2012) (a) 1 only
The most effective contribution made by (b) 1 and 2 only
Dadabhai Naoroji to the cause of Indian (c) 2 and 3 only
National Movement was that
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Exposed the economic exploitation of
India by the British.
2. Interpreted the ancient Indian texts and 16. What was the purpose with which Sir
restored the self-confidence of Indians. William Wedderburn and W.S.Caine had set
up the Indian Parliamentary Committee in
3. Stressed the need for eradication of all 1893? (2011)
the social evils before anything else.
(a) To agitate for Indian political reforms in
Which of the statement(s) given above is/ the House of Commons
are correct?
(b) To campaign for the entry of Indians
(a) 1 only into the Imperial Judiciary
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) To facilitate a discussion on India’s
(c) 1 and 3 only Independence in the British Parliament
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) To agitate for the entry of eminent
Indians into the British Parliament
Who of the above was/were actively (c) Militant organization with headquarters
associated with the Ghadar Party? at Berlin
2. Answer: (a)
Option (a) is correct: Ghadar Party was an
Indian revolutionary organization, which was
formed in 1913 in San Francisco, the United
States, by migrant Indians with the aim to
liberate India from British rule. The party was
established as the Hindi Association of Pacific
Coast under the leadership of Lala Har Dayal
BARINDRA KUMAR GHOSH: ANUSHILAN SAMITI with Baba Sohan Singh Bhakna as its president.
1. In the Government of India Act 1919, the (c) Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi
functions of Provincial Government were (d) Sarojini Naidu
divided into “Reserved” and “Transferred”
subjects. Which of the following were
treated as “Reserved” subjects? (2022) 4. The Gandhi-Irwin Pact included which of
1. Administration of Justice the following? (2020)
(c) Joining of peasant unrest to India's (d) Division of the subjects delegated to
National Movement the provinces into two categories.
8. In 1920, which of the following changed its (a) Define the jurisdiction of the Central
name to "Swarajya Sabha"? (2018) and Provincial Governments.
(a) All India Home Rule League (b) Define the powers of the Secretary of
State for India.
(b) Hindu Mahasabha
(c) Impose censorship on the national
(c) South Indian Liberal Federation press.
(d) The Servants of India Society (d) Improve the relationship between the
(a) 1 only (d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c)
given above is correct.
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
24. Mahatma Gandhi said that some of his
(d) 1, 2 and 3 deepest convictions were reflected in
a book titled, “Unto this Last” and the
21. The Rowlatt Act aimed at: (2012) book transformed his life. What was the
message from the book that transformed
(a) Compulsory economic support to war
Mahatma Gandhi? (2011)
efforts.
(a) Uplifting the oppressed and poor is the
(b) Imprisonment without trial and
moral responsibility of an educated man
summary procedures for trial.
(b) The good of individual is contained in
(c) Suppression of the Khilafat Movement.
the good of all
(d) Imposition of restrictions on freedom of
(c) The life of celibacy and spiritual pursuit
the press.
are essential for a noble life
(d) All the statements (a), (b) and (c) a r e
22. The Lahore Session of the Indian National correct in this context
Congress (1929) is very important in history,
because (2012)
25.
With reference to the period of India
1. The Congress passed a resolution
freedom struggle, which of the following
demanding complete independence.
was/were recommended by the Nehru
2. The rift between the extremists and Report? (2011)
moderates was resolved in that Session.
1. Complete Independence for India.
Option (c) is correct: During his imprisonment at Statement 2 is not correct: Lord Chelmsford,
Yerwada Prison in 1930, Mohandas Karamchand the then viceroy of India invited Gandhi to Delhi,
Gandhi Ji translated hymns and lyrics from at an award conference in order to gain the
the Upanishads and other sacred texts. These trust of the empire and Gandhi agreed to move
texts were known as the ‘Songs from Prison’. people to enlist in the army for World War I. He
agreed to the resolution with the belief that
absolutely unconditional and whole-hearted
4. Answer: (b) cooperation with the government on the part
Option (b) is correct: Gandhi-Irwin Pact was of educated India will bring us within sight of
signed by Gandhiji on behalf of the Congress our goal of Swaraj as nothing else will’.
and by Lord Irwin on behalf of the Government, Statement 3 is correct: At the Calcutta congress
y The Nehru report was declared to be null Statement 1 is correct: The Government of
and void. India Act 1919 divided the provincial subjects
into two parts—transferred and reserved. The
transferred subjects were to be administered
19. Answer: (c) by the governor with the aid of ministers
The Government of India Act, 1919 had a provision responsible to the legislative Council. The
that a Commission would be appointed ten reserved subjects, on the other hand, were
years from date to study the progress of the to be administered by the governor and his
governance scheme and suggest new steps. executive council without being responsible
An all-white, seven-member Indian Statutory to the legislative Council. This dual scheme of
Commission, popularly known as the Simon governance was known as ‘dyarchy’- double
Commission (after the name of its chairman, rule.
Sir John Simon), on 8th November 1927. Statement 2 is not correct: It extended the
Option (c) is correct: The Commission was to principle of communal representation by
recommend to the British government whether providing separate electorates for Sikhs, Indian
India was ready for further constitutional Christians, Anglo-Indians, and Europeans.
reforms and along what lines. The Indian Separate electorate was introduced for the
response to the Simon Commission was first time in 1909 for Muslims.
immediate and nearly unanimous. What Statement 3 is correct: It relaxed the central
angered the Indians most was the exclusion control over the provinces by demarcating and
of Indians from the Commission and the basic separating the central and provincial subjects.
notion behind the exclusion that foreigners The central and provincial legislatures were
would discuss and decide upon India’s fitness authorized to make laws on their respective
for self-government. list of subjects. However, the structure of
government continued to be centralised and
Elimination Technique
unitary.
Eliminating options in this question is
Other Features of the Government of India Act
not easy because options are very close
1919:
and analytical. Still, the options can
be eliminated if one has the idea of the y It introduced, for the first time, bicameralism
Government of India Act of 1919. and direct elections in the country. Thus,
the Indian legislative council was replaced
y As we know, it was decided in the Government
by a bicameral legislature consisting of
of India Act of 1919 that a commission will be
an Upper House (Council of State) and a
set up every 10 years to assess the working
Lower House (Legislative Assembly). The
of the Act. And, the Simon Commission was
majority of members of both the Houses
created for this.
y That a lawyer’s work has the same value y Nineteen fundamental rights including
as the barber’s in as much as all have the equal rights for women, right to form unions,
same right of earning their livelihood from and universal adult suffrage. (Statement 3
their work. is correct)
y That a life of labour, that is, the life of the y Responsible government at the Centre and
tiller of the soil and the handicraftsman is in provinces.
the life worth living. y Full protection of the cultural and religious
interests of Muslims.
The Nehru Report confined itself to British India, Statement 2 is not correct: The Gujarat
as it envisaged the future link-up of British India Sabha, consisting of the peasants, submitted
with the princely states on a federal basis. For petitions to the highest governing authorities
the dominion, it recommended: of the province requesting that the revenue
assessment for the year 1919 be suspended.
y Dominion status on lines of self-governing The government, however, remained adamant
dominions as the form of government and said that the property of the farmers would
desired by Indians. be seized if the taxes were not paid. Gandhi
y Rejection of separate electorates, instead, asked the farmers not to pay the taxes.
a demand for joint electorates with y It was Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel and a
reservation of seats for Muslims at the group of other devoted Gandhians, namely,
Centre and in provinces where they were in Narahari Parikh, Mohanlal Pandya and Ravi
minority (and not in those where Muslims Shankar Vyas, who went around the villages
were in majority, such as Punjab and Bengal) and gave the necessary political leadership.
8. Quit India Movement was launched in 10. Which one of the following observations is
response to (2013) not true about the Quit India Movement of
(a) Cabinet Mission Plan 1942? (2011)
Independence to Partition 57
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Independence to Partition-
9 Explanation
1. Answer: (b) 3. Answer: (b)
Statement 1 is incorrect: A Constituent Option (b) is correct: In 1953, India nationalised
Assembly was to be founded to frame a new all Indian airlines, creating two corporations—
Constitution. Members of this assembly were to one for domestic service, called Indian Airlines
be partly elected by the provincial assemblies Corporation (merging Air-India Limited with six
and partly nominated by the Princely states. lesser lines), and one for international service,
Statement 2 is correct: Any province not Air-India International Corporation.
willing to join the Union could have a separate The Reserve Bank of India, which is the Central
Constitution and would be eligible to sign an Bank of India, acquired a controlling interest
agreement with the British regarding its future in the Imperial Bank of India in 1955. On 1 July
status. 1955, the Imperial Bank of India became the
State Bank of India.
58 Independence to Partition-Explanation
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census materials, was required to draw the Option (c) is correct: A Constituent Assembly
boundaries and decide disputed points within was to be elected by provincial assemblies
a period of six weeks. by proportional representation (voting in
three groups—General, Muslims, Sikhs). This
Constituent Assembly would be a 389-member
5. Answer: (c) body with Provincial Assemblies sending 292,
The Cabinet Mission Plan, which set up the Chief Commissioner’s provinces sending 4, and
Constituent Assembly of India, discarded full princely states sending 93 members.
adult franchise for elections to the Constituent The seats given to a province were decided
Assembly and instead suggested indirect among three communities on the basis of
elections by members of the recently elected their number, the three communities being the
Provincial Legislative Assemblies. Muslims, Sikhs and General including Hindus
and all others who were not Muslims and Sikhs.
Independence to Partition-Explanation 59
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2 ANCIENT INDIA
Prehistoric Period and Indus
1 Valley Civilisation
1. Which one of the following ancient towns 3. They employed horse-drawn chariots in
is well-known for its elaborate system warfare.
of water harvesting and management by Select the correct statement/statements
building a series of dams and channelizing using the code given below:
water into connected reservoirs? (2021)
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) Dholavira
(b) 2 only
(b) Kalibangan
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Rakhigarhi
(d) None of the statements given above is
(d) Ropar correct
2. Which one of the following is not a 4. Regarding the Indus Valley Civilization,
Harappan site? (2019) consider the following statements:(2011)
(a) Chanhudaro 1. It was predominantly a secular
(b) Kot Diji civilization and the religious element,
(c) Sohgaura though present, did not dominate the
scene.
(d) Desalpur
2. During this period, cotton was used for
manufacturing textiles in India.
3. Which of the following characterises/ Which of the statements given above is/are
characterise the people of the Indus correct?
Civilization? (2013)
(a) 1 only
1. They possessed great palaces and
temples. (b) 2 only
1. In which one of the following regions 4. Consider the following pairs: (2023)
was Dhanyakataka, which flourished as Site : Well Known for
a prominent Buddhist centre under the
Mahasanghikas, located? (2023) 1. Besnagar : Shaivite cave shrine
14. With reference to the religious history of 17. Which of the following kingdoms were
India, consider the following statements: associated with the life of Buddha? (2015)
(2017)
1. Avanti
1. Sautrantika and Sammitiya were the
sects of Jainism. 2. Gandhara
8. Answer: (b)
Statement 1 is not correct: The first division
in the Buddhist community occurred in 383
B.C. The order broke into Sthaviravada (in Pali
Theravada) and the Mahasanghikas. While the
Sthaviravadins were believers in the teaching
of elders, and orthodox school. They did not
belong to the Mahayana Buddhism.
Statement 2 is correct: Subdivisions of
the Mahasanghikas included aspects of
Lokottarvadin whose philosophy was based
on the concept of Lokottara Buddha or
Supernatural Buddha. Hence, Lokottaravadin
sect was an offshoot of Mahasanghika sect of
Buddhism.
The Major split took place during the reign of
Kanishka in 100 A.D. and there emerged two
sects: Hinayana or the Lesser Vehicle and
y Pair 1 is correctly matched: Dhauli is Mahayana or the Greater Vehicle.
located in Odisha.
Statement 3 is correct:Mahasanghika Paved
y Pair 2 is correctly matched: Erragudi or the way for the emergence of the Mahayana
Yerragudi is located in Andhra Pradesh sect of Buddhism during the 4th Buddhist
y Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Jaugada is Council. Mahayanist gave prominence to the
located in Odisha. Bodhisattva ideal. Thus, the deification of
Buddha by Mahasanghikas fostered Mahayana
y Pair 4 is incorrectly matched: Kalsi is
Buddhism.
located in Uttarakhand.
Ashoka, also known as Ashoka the Great, was Option (c) is correct: To achieve enlightenment
an Indian Emperor of the Mauryan Dynasty. He and realise Nibbana, the Fourth Noble Truth,
ruled almost all of the subcontinent from c.268 the Noble Eightfold Path, gives a Buddhist
to 232 BCE. He adopted Buddhism in the 9th practitioner, ways to practice, and the path to
year of his reign after winning Kalinga. Ashoka’s follow. There also exists a parallel path that
edicts are mainly concerned with the reforms consists of perfecting certain qualities, in order
3. The Mitakshara system deals with the (a) An advisory issued by the king to his
matters related to the property held by subordinates
male members only of a family, whereas (b) A diary to be maintained for daily
the Dayabhaga system deals with the accounts
matters rélated to the property held by (c) A bill of exchange
both male and female members of a
(d) An order from the feudal lord to his
family.
subordinates
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
5. With reference to the period of the Gupta
(a) 1 and 2
dynasty in ancient India, the towns
(b) 2 only Ghantasala, Kadura, and Chaul were known
(c) 1 and 3 as (2020)
2.
Amarasimha is associated with (a) 1 only
Harshavardhana (b) 2 and 3 only
3. Kalidasa is associated with Chandra (c) 1 and 3 only
Gupta-II
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
10. India maintained its early cultural contacts
(a) 1 and 2 only
and trade links with Southeast Asia across
(b) 2 and 3 only the Bay of Bengal. For this pre-eminence
(c) 3 only of early maritime history of Bay of Bengal,
which of the following could be the most
(d) 1, 2 and 3
convincing explanation/explanations?
(2011)
8. With reference to forced labour (Vishti) in (a) As compared to other countries, India
India during the Gupta period, which one of had better ship-building technology in
the following statements is correct? (2019) ancient and medieval times.
(a) It was considered a source of income (b) The rulers of southern India always
for the State, a sort of tax paid by the patronised traders, brahmin priests and
people. Buddhist monks in this context.
(b) It was totally absent in the Madhya (c) Monsoon winds across the Bay of Bengal
Pradesh and Kathiawar regions of the facilitated sea voyages.
Gupta Empire.
(d)
Both (a) and (b) are convincing
(c) The forced labourer was entitled to explanations in this context.
1. With reference to ancient South India, 4. Consider the following events in the history
Korkai, Poompuhar and Muchiri were well of India: (2020)
known as (2023) 1. Rise of Pratiharas under King Bhoja
(a) capital cities 2. Establishment of Pallava power under
(b) ports Mahendravarman-I
(c) centres of iron-and-steel making 3. Establishment of Chola power by
(d) shrines of Jain Tirthankaras Parantaka-I
4. Pala dynasty founded by Gopala
2. Which one of the following explains the What is the correct chronological order of
practice of Vattakirutal' as mentioned in the above events, starting from the earliest
Sangam poems? (2023) time?
(b)
Learned persons assembling in (b) 3 – 1 – 4 – 2
royal courts to discuss religious and (c) 2 – 4 – 1 – 3
philosophical matters (d) 3 – 4 – 1 – 2
(c)
Young girls keeping watch over
agricultural fields and driving away birds
and animals 5. In the context of the history of India,
consider the following pairs: (2016)
(d) A king defeated in a battle committing
ritual suicide by starving himself to Term Description
death 1. Eripatti Land, revenue from
which was set apart for
the maintenance of the
3. Which one of the following statements
village tank
about Sangam literature in ancient South
India is correct ? (2022) 2. Taniyurs Villages donated to a
single Brahmin or a
(a) Sangam poems are devoid of any
group of Brahmins
reference to material culture.
3. Ghatikas Colleges generally
(b) The social classification of Varna was
attached to the temples
known to Sangam poets.
Which of the pairs given above is/are
(c) Sangam poems have no reference to correctly matched?
warrior ethics.
(a) 1 and 2
(d) Sangam literature refers to magical
(b) 3 only
forces as irrational.
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
Sangam Age 84
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5 Sangam Age-Explanation
4. Answer: (c)
The Pallavas were a powerful ancient dynasty
that ruled a huge part of Southern India,
including present day Tamil Nadu, between the
6th and 9th centuries AD, with Kanchipuram
as their capital. The Pallavas reached their
zenith during the reign of Mahendravarman I
(600–630 AD), a contemporary of Harsha and
Pulakeshin II.
The Pala Empire was an imperial power during
2. Answer: (d) the post-classical period (8th and 9th century
AD) which originated in the Bengal region.
Vatakkiruttal (Vaṭakkiruttal, ‘fasting facing
The empire was founded with the election of
north’), also Vadakiruthal and vadakiruttal,
Gopala as the emperor of Gauda in 750 CE.
was a Tamil ritual of fasting till death. It was
especially widespread during the Sangam age. The GurjaraPratihara dynasty was founded
The Tamil kings, in order to save their honour, by Nagabhatta I in the region of Malwa in the
and prestige, were prepared to meet their 8th century AD. He belonged to a Rajput clan.
death facing North (‘Vatakkiruttal’), and never The Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty ruled much of
would they turn their back in battle. It was a Northern India from the mid-8th to the 11th
Tamil martial. This was either done alone or as century. The greatest ruler of the Pratihara
a group with the supporters of the captured dynasty was Mihira Bhoja (836–885 CE). He
king. recovered Kannauj (Kanyakubja) by 836 A.D,
and it remained the capital of the Pratiharas
for almost a century.
3. Answer: (b)
The Cholas became prominent in the ninth
Sangam Literature has references to material century and established an empire comprising
culture and war tactics and ethics. Hence the major portion of South India. Their capital
statements a and c are incorrect. was Tanjore. Aditya I or Aditya Chola, the son
85 Sangam Age-Explanation
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of VijayalayaChola, was the second ruler of the individuals, the revenue from which was set
Medieval Cholas. The Chola ruler Parantaka apart for the maintenance of the village tank.
succeeded his father Aditya I on the throne in This indicates that the village was dependent
907 AD and ruled for forty-eight years. Soon on the tank for irrigation.
after his accession, as early as 910 AD, he Pair 2 is not correctly matched: Taniyur, are
invaded the Pandyan country and assumed the the large villages under Chola administrative
title Maduraikonda (‘Capturer of Madura’). division. These were distinct revenue units.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: In South India
5. Answer: (d) centers of higher learning were known as
Pair 1 is correctly matched: A special category Ghatikas. Ghatikas and Mathas were attached
of land, Eripatti or tank land, was known only to temples. There was a famous Ghatika at
in south India. This was the land donated by Kanchi, drawing students from far and near.
Sangam Age-Explanation 86
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3 MEDIEVAL
INDIA
Delhi Sultanate (1206 AD to 1526
1 AD)
1. Who among the following rulers of da Gama reached the coast of Kerala.
Vijayanagara Empire constructed a large Which of the statements given above is /
dam across Tungabhadra River and a canal- are correct?
cum-aqueduct several kilometres long
from the river to the capital city? (2023) (a) 1 only
(d) Virupaksha
4. Consider the following statements: (2019)
2. During the reign of Ala-ud-din Khalji, 3. The office of ‘Mir Bakshi’ came into
one Mongol assault marched up to Delhi existence during the reign of Khalji
and besieged the city. Sultans of Delhi.
2. With reference to medieval India, which one 2. Land assignments to Jagirdars were
of the following is the correct sequence in hereditary and the revenue rights of
ascending order in terms of size? (2021) Zamindars were not hereditary.
(d) Tansen invented many Ragas. (a) the mosque for the use of the Royal
Family
(b) Akbar’s private prayer chamber
(d) 3 only
1. The Prime Minister recently inaugurated 3. It was meant to promote the Vaishnava
the new Circuit House near Somnath cult in the region.
Temple at Veraval. Which of the following 4. Its design has given rise to a popular
statements are correct regarding Somnath belief that it was the inspiration behind
Temple? (2022) the Indian Parliament building.
1. Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga Which of the statements given above are
shrines. correct?
2. A description of the Somnath Temple (a) 1 and 2
was given by Al-Biruni.
(b) 2 and 3 only
3. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple
(installation of the present-day temple) (c) 1 and 4
was done by President S. Radhakrishnan. (d) 2, 3 and 4
Select the correct answer using the code
given below : 4. Building ‘Kalyana Mandapam’ was a notable
(a) 1 and 2 only feature in the temple construction in the
(b) 2 and 3 only kingdom of: (2019)
Which of the pairs given above is/are (c) Classical vocal music in South India
correct? (d) Pietra dura tradition in Central India
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only 6. With reference to Buddhist history,
(c) 3 only tradition and culture in India, consider the
following pairs: (2014)
(d) 2 and 3 only
Famous Shrine Location
1. Tabo monastery and Spiti Valley
3. Consider the following pairs: (2017)
temple complex
Traditions Communities 2. Lhotsava Lhakhang Zanskar Valley
1. Chaliha Sahib Festival Sindhis temple, Nako
2. Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra Gonds 3. Alchi temple complex Ladakh
3. Wari-Warkari Santhals Which of the pairs given above is/are
correctly matched?
Which of the pairs given above is/are
correctly matched? (a) 1 only
1. With reference to Indian history, who of the Which of the above statements is/are
following were known as “Kulah-Daran”? correct?
(2022) (a) 1 only
(a) Arab merchants (b) 2 only
(b) Qalandars (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Persian calligraphists (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Sayyids
3. With reference to India, the terms ‘Halbi, 6. Consider the following pairs: (2018)
Ho and Kui’ pertain to (2021)
Craft Heritage of
(a) dance forms of Northwest India
1. Puthukkuli shawls Tamil Nadu
(b) musical instruments
2. Sujni embroidery Maharashtra
(c) prehistoric cave paintings
3. Uppada Jamdani Karnataka
(d) tribal languages sarees
Which of the pairs given above is/are
4. Consider the following statements: (2021) correct?
1. 21st February is declared to be the (a) 1 only
International Mother Language Day by (b) 1 and 2 only
UNICEF.
(c) 3 only
2. The demand that Bangla has to be one
of the national languages was raised in (d) 2 and 3 only
the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan.
129 Miscellaneous
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7. Consider the following pairs: (2016) (a) 1 and 2 only
Famous place Region (b) 3 only
1. Bodhgaya Baghelkhand (c) 2 and 3 only
2. Khajuraho Bundelkhand (d) 1, 2 and 3
3.
Shirdi Vidarbha
4. Nasik (Nashik) Malwa 9. With reference to the scientific progress
5. Tirupati Rayalaseema of ancient India, which of the statements
given below are correct? (2012)
Which of the pairs given above are correctly
matched? 1. Different kinds of specialised surgical
instruments were in common use by
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only the 1st century AD.
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only 2. Transplant of internal organs in the
(c) 2 and 5 only human body had begun by the beginning
(d) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only of 3rd century AD.
3. The concept of sine of an angle was
known in 5th century AD.
8. Consider the following languages (2014)
4. The concept of cyclic quadrilaterals
1. Gujarati
was known in the 7th century AD.
2. Kannada
Select the correct answer using the code
3. Telugu given below:
Which of the above has/have been declared (a) 1 and 2 only
as 'Classical Language / Languages' by the
(b) 3 and 4 only
Government?
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Miscellaneous 130
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7 Miscellaneous-Explanation
131 Miscellaneous-Explanation
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5. Answer: (a) Cultural Heritage of Humanity.
Pair 1 is correctly matched: Vidisha is an
ancient city in Madhya Pradesh state in India. It 7. Answer: (c)
is also the administrative capital of the district
with the same name. It was known as Besnagar Pair 1 is not correctly matched: Bodh Gaya is in
in ancient times. During the Medieval period, the central part of the state of Bihar. It is part
Vidisha city was known as Bhilsa. Emperor of the great Ganges plains. Bihar is one of the
Ashoka the Great of Maurya Dynasty served four holy sites related to the life of the Lord
as the governor of Vidisha during his father’s Buddha, and particularly to the attainment of
regime. Enlightenment.
Pair 2 is not correctly matched: Hoysalas had Pair 2 is correctly matched: The temple at
their capital at Dwarasamudra, the modern Khajuraho, Madhya Pradesh (Bundelkhand)
Halebidu in Belur Taluk. It is in Karnataka. was made in the 10th century, about 400
years after the temple at Deogarh and the
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Girinagar is one complex is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
of the most ancient 22nd Jain Tirthankar Lord The temples were patronized by Chandela
Neminath Prabhu Kshetras in India. It is in kings. The temples at Khajuraho are all made
Junagadh district of Gujarat. of Sandstone. These depict the style of the
Pair 4 is not correctly matched: Thanesar nagara temple architecture.
(sometimes called Thaneswar and, archaically, Pair 3 is not correctly matched: Shirdi is a town
Sthaneshwar) is a historic town and an in the state of Maharashtra, in western India.
important Hindu pilgrimage centre on the It is known as the former home of revered
banks of the Saraswati River in the state of spiritual leader Sai Baba, and as a major
Haryana in northern India. Prabhakara Vardhana pilgrimage site.
was a ruler of Thanesar in the early seventh-
century CE and was succeeded by his sons, Pair 4 is not correctly matched: Nashik is an
Rajyavardhana and Harshavardhana. ancient city and the largest city in the northern
region of the Indian state of Maharashtra. It is
situated on the banks of river Godavari. This
6. Answer: (a) place is well known for Kumbh Mela which is
Pair 1 is correctly matched: Puthukkuli shawls celebrated once in every twelve years and is
are made by Todas of Nilgiri hills in Tamil Nadu. known as Sinhasta. The city is also called the
It is locally called Pugur, meaning flower. The “Wine Capital of India”.
fine and intricate Toda embroidery is done by Pair 5 is correctly matched: The ancient and
tribal men and women on shawls. sacred temple of Sri Venkateswara is located
Pair 2 and pair 3 are not correctly matched: on the seventh peak, Venkatachala (Venkata
Sujini and Khatwa Embroidery is famous Hill) of the Tirupati Hill, lies on the southern
as well as beautiful work of handicraft in banks of Sri Swami Pushkarini what is known
Bihar. Jamdani style of weaving originated in popularly today as Tirupati Balaji Temple.
Bangladesh. Uppada Sari is a sari style woven Rayalaseema, meaning ‘rocky region’, includes
in Uppada of East Godavari district in Andhra the districts of Anantapur, Kurnool, Cuddapah
Pradesh. Jamdani is a ‘cotton’ fibre woven and Chittoor, south of the Krishna River in
delicately into the finest muslin. Uppada saree Andhra Pradesh. Tirupati Balaji temple has its
was registered by the Geographical Indications origins in Vaishnavism, which advocates the
Registry tag (GI Tag) for the jamdani technique principles of equality and love, and prohibits
in 2009. In 2013, the traditional art of weaving animal sacrifice. The sanctum sanctorum,
jamdani was declared a UNESCO Intangible which houses the awe-inspiring idol of the
Miscellaneous-Explanation 132
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Lord of the Seven Hills, is situated in the main technology. The dependence on nature could
temple complex of Tirumala. be overcome by developments in science. In
ancient India, religion and science worked in
Elimination Technique: Malwa region close proximity.
generally refers to the region north of the Statement 1 is correct: There is evidence that
Vindhya Range. Nashik is not part of the the surgical knife dates back as far back as
Malwa region. Thus, Option (c) is correct. the Mesolithic era, around 8000 BC. One of the
oldest surgical procedures was trepanation or
trepanning, the art of drilling a hole into the
8. Answer: (c)
skull.
The guidelines for declaring a language as
Statement 2 is not correct: The first successful
‘Classical’ are:
internal organ transplant in the human body
y High antiquity of its early texts/recorded was done in the USA in the year 1954.
history over a period of 1500-2000 years.
Statement 3 is correct: The significant
y A body of ancient literature/texts, which development of trigonometry in India, was
is considered a valuable heritage by in the works known as Siddhantas (4th- 5th
generations of speakers. century) which first defined the sine as the
y The literary tradition is original and not modern relationship between half an angle
borrowed from another speech community. and half a chord.
y The classical language and literature being Statement 4 is correct: The formula for the
distinct from modern, there may also area of a cyclic quadrilateral was discovered
be a discontinuity between the classical by the 7th century Indian mathematician
language and its later forms or its offshoots. Brahmagupta.
133 Miscellaneous-Explanation
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5 WORLD
GEOGRAPHY
1 The Earth and the Universe
3. If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches 5. On 21st June, the Sun: (2019)
the Earth, which of the following are the
(a) does not set below the horizon at the
possible effects on the Earth? (2022)
Arctic Circle.
1. GPS and navigation systems could fail.
(b) does not set below the horizon at the
2. Tsunamis could occur at equatorial Antarctic Circle.
regions.
(c) shines vertically overhead at noon on
3. Power grids could be damaged. the Equator.
4. Intense auroras could occur over much (d) shines vertically overhead at the Tropic
of the Earth. of Capricorn.
5. Forest fires could take place over much
of the planet.
6. Consider the following statements: (2018)
6. Orbits of the satellites could be
1. The Earth's magnetic field has reversed
disturbed.
every few hundred thousand years.
7. Shortwave radio communication of the
2. When the Earth was created more than
aircraft flying over polar regions could
Which of the statements given above is/are (d) Carbon, Hydrogen, Potassium
correct? 10. A person stood alone in a desert on a dark
(a) 1 only night and wanted to reach his village which
was situated 5 km east of the point where
(b) 2 and 3 only he was standing. He had no instruments
(c) 1 and 3 only to find the direction, but he located the
(d) 1, 2 and 3 polestar. The most convenient way now to
reach his village is to walk in the: (2012)
(a) direction facing the polestar
7. Which of the following phenomena
might have influenced the evolution of (b) direction opposite to the polestar
organisms? (2014) (c) direction keeping the polestar to his left
1. Continental drift (d) direction keeping the polestar to his
2. Glacial cycles right
(a) the earth’s rotation on its axis 3. Comets show perceptible glowing tails,
while asteroids do not.
(b) the earth’s revolution around the sun in
an elliptical manner Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(c) latitudinal position of the place
(a) 1 and 2 only
(d) revolution of the earth on a tilted axis
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
9. Which one of the following sets of elements
was primarily responsible for the origin of (d) 1, 2 and 3
141 Geomorphology
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2 Geomorphology-Explanation
Geomorphology-Explanation 142
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the Moon. Tides cause coastal erosion. and Night formation that create temperature
y Earthquakes (plate movements) bring differences. The Revolution of the Earth is
dynamic change on the earth surface. responsible for seasonal changes. Both are
responsible for bringing dynamic changes
y Rotation of the Earth is responsible for Day to the surface of the earth.
143 Geomorphology
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3 Climatology
1. Consider the following statements: (2023) 3. Consider the following statements: (2020)
Statement-I: 1. Jet streams occur in the Northern
The temperature contrast between Hemisphere only.
continents and oceans is greater during 2. Only some cyclones develop an eye.
summer than in winter. 3. The temperature inside the eye of a
Statement-II: cyclone is nearly 10°C less than that of
The specific heat of water is more than that the surroundings.
of land surface. Which of the statements given above is/are
Which one of the following is correct in correct?
respect of the above statements? (a) 1 only
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (b) 2 and 3 only
correct and Statement-II is the correct (c) 2 only
explanation for Statement-I
(d) 1 and 3 only
(b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II
are correct and Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I 4. Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II night? (2019)
is incorrect (a) Clouds absorb the radiation released
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement- from the Earth’s surface.
II is correct (b) Clouds reflect back the Earth’s radiation.
(c) The Earth’s surface would have low
2. Consider the following statements: (2022) temperatures on cloudy nights.
1. High clouds primarily reflect solar (d) Clouds deflect the blowing wind to
radiation and cool the surface of the ground level.
Earth.
2. Low clouds have a high absorption 5. During a thunderstorm, the thunder in the
of infrared radiation emanating from skies is produced by the (2013)
the Earth’s surface and thus cause a 1. Meeting of cumulonimbus clouds in the
warming effect. sky.
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. Lightning that separates the nimbus
correct? clouds.
(a) 1 only 3. Violent upward movement of air and
(b) 2 only water particles.
(c) Both 1 and 2 Select the correct answer using the code
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
Climatology 144
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(c) 1 and 3 only km/sec can severely harm living beings if
(d) None of the above produces the thunder they reach the surface of the Earth. What
prevents them from reaching the surface
of the Earth? (2012)
6. The annual range of temperature in
(a) The Earth’s magnetic field diverts them
the interior of the continents is high as
towards its poles
compared to coastal areas. What is/are the
reason/reasons? (2013) (b) Ozone layer around the Earth reflects
them back to outer space
1. Thermal difference between land and
water (c)
Moisture in the upper layers of
atmosphere prevents them from
2. Variation in altitude between continents
reaching the surface of the Earth
and oceans
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c)
3. Presence of strong winds in the interior
given above is correct
4. Heavy rains in the interior as compared
to coasts
9. The jet aircrafts fly very easily and smoothly
Select the correct answer using the code
in the lower stratosphere. What could be
given below:
the appropriate explanation? (2011)
(a) 1 only
1. There are no clouds or water vapour in
(b) 1 and 2 only the lower stratosphere.
(c) 2 and 3 only 2. There are no vertical winds in the lower
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 stratosphere.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct in this context?
7. Normally, the temperature decreases with
the increase in height from the Earth’s (a) 1 only
surface, because: (2012) (b) 2 only
1. The atmosphere can be heated upwards (c) Both 1 and 2
only from the Earth’s surface.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. There is more moisture in the upper
atmosphere.
10. Westerlies in the southern hemisphere
3. The air is less dense in the upper
are stronger and persistent than in the
atmosphere.
northern hemisphere. Why? (2011)
Select the correct answer using the code
1. The Southern Hemisphere has less
given below:
landmass as compared to the Northern
(a) 1 only Hemisphere.
(b) 2 and 3 only 2. Coriolis force is higher in the Southern
(c) 1 and 3 only Hemisphere as compared to the
Northern Hemisphere.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
8. Electrically charged particles from space
(a) 1 only
travelling at speeds of several hundred
(b) 2 only
145 Climatology
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(c) Both 1 and 2 Pacific Ocean.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. EI Nino has an adverse effect on the
southwest monsoon of India, but La
Nina has no effect on monsoon climate.
11. La Nina is suspected to have caused recent
floods in Australia. How is La Nina different Which of the statements given above is/are
from EI Nino? (2011) correct?
Climatology 146
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3 Climatology-Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: High clouds are Option (b) is correct: Dew is formed when
often thin and do not reflect very much. They the atmospheric temperature draws the level
let lots of the Sun’s warmth in. They radiate to the dewpoint temperature. This often
less energy into space than the lower, warmer happens at ground level for two reasons. First,
clouds. Therefore, high clouds work to “trap” longwave emission causes the Earth’s surface
more energy than the low clouds. to cool at night and condensation requires the
temperature to decrease to the dew point.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Low clouds are often
Second, the soil often acts as the moisture
quite thick and reflect lots of sunlight back
source for dew. Warm and moist soils will help
to space. Low clouds are excellent reflectors.
with the formation of dew as the soil cools
But, they don’t stop the longwave energy from
overnight.
escaping to space. Therefore, low clouds help
to cool the Earth. Dewdrops are not formed on a cloudy night
because clouds reflect back the Earth’s
radiation.
3. Answer: (c)
Additional Information:
Statement 1 is not correct: Jet streams occur
The ideal conditions for its formation are clear
both in the Northern Hemisphere as well
sky, calm air, high relative humidity, and cold
as in the Southern Hemisphere. The actual
and long nights. For the formation of dew, it
appearance of jet streams results from the
is necessary that the dew point is above the
complex interaction between many variables -
freezing point.
such as the location of high- and low-pressure
systems, warm and cold air, and seasonal
changes. 5. Answer: (d)
Statement 2 is correct: The hurricane’s centre Thunderstorms develop in hot, humid tropical
147 Climatology-Explanation
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areas like India very frequently. The rising
temperatures produce strong upward rising heating of land and sea creates different
winds. These winds carry water droplets air pressure zones in different seasons
upwards, where they freeze, and fall down in and around the Indian subcontinent.
again. The swift movement of the falling water Difference in air pressure causes reversal in
droplets along with the rising air creates the direction of monsoon winds.
lightning and sound. y Variation in altitude between continents
y A thunderstorm is a well-grown and oceans has little impact on the annual
cumulonimbus cloud producing thunder range of temp. But Temperature decreases
and lightning. When the clouds extend with height. Due to thin air, places in the
to heights where sub-zero temperature mountains are cooler than places on the
prevails, hails are formed, and they come plains. (Statement 2 is not correct)
down as hailstorms. If there is insufficient y Presence of strong winds in the interior is not
moisture, a thunderstorm can generate a main contributing factor for temperature
dust storms. variability. Rainfall is heavier in coastal
y A thunderstorm is characterised by an areas than interior generally. (Statement 3
intense updraft of rising warm air, which and statement 4 are not correct)
causes the clouds to grow bigger and rise to
Elimination Technique: Variation in altitude
a greater height. This causes precipitation.
between continents and oceans has
Later, downdraft brings down to earth the
nothing to do with the range of temperature
cool air and the rain.
in the interior of the continents. So, by
y From severe thunderstorms sometimes eliminating the statement 2, we can get
spiralling wind descends like a trunk of an the answer A.
elephant with great force, with very low
pressure at the centre, causing massive
destruction on its way. Such a phenomenon 7. Answer: (c)
is called a tornado. Tornadoes generally Option (c) is correct: In the troposphere,
occur in middle latitudes. The tornado over temperature decreases as altitude increases
the sea is called a waterspout. primarily because Earth’s atmosphere is heated
Option (d) is correct: None of the given reasons upward from the lowest level. The atmosphere
explains the production of thunder in the sky is warmed from the ground up, and since the
during a thunderstorm. air is at its most dense near the surface of the
Earth, the air near the surface is going to be
able to remain much more heat than the air at
6. Answer: (a) higher elevations due to the increased amounts
Statement 1 is correct: As compared to the of air molecules; higher elevations have fewer
landmass, water heats up or cools down slowly. air molecules and consequently cannot remain
Due to this thermal difference between land much heated.
and water, the annual range of temperature Simply putting, as elevation increases, there
in the interior of the continents is high as is less air above thus the pressure decreases.
compared to coastal areas. As the pressure decreases, air molecules
y India is flanked by the Indian Ocean on three spread out further (i.e., air expands) and
sides in the south and girdled by a high and the temperature decreases. Temperature
continuous mountain wall in the north. As decreases with altitude only in the troposphere
compared to the landmass, water heats and the mesosphere.
up or cools down slowly. This differential
Climatology-Explanation 148
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Statement 2 is correct: As one moves upward
through the stratosphere Temperatures rise
Elimination Technique: Statement 2 and 3 opposite of the behaviour in the troposphere in
are contradictory and can not be correct which we live, where temperatures drop with
simultaneously. In the upper atmosphere increasing altitude. Because of this temperature
moisture is less. So, by eliminating the stratification, there is little convection and
statement 2 we can get the answer C. mixing in the stratosphere, so the layers of air
there are quite stable. Jet aircraft fly in the
lower stratosphere to avoid the turbulence
8. Answer: (a) which is common in the troposphere below.
Option (a) is correct: The Earth itself is a magnet,
with a magnetic north pole and south pole. 10. Answer: (a)
The origin of the Earth’s magnetic field is
said to be a result of the dynamo effect. The westerly winds, also known as the
Electric currents produced by the rotation westerlies, occur at two regions on Earth:
of iron-nickel cores. The Earth’s magnetic between 30 and 60 degrees latitude in the
field continually traps moving charged Northern Hemisphere and between 30 and 60
particles coming from the sun, called the degrees latitude in the Southern Hemisphere.
solar wind. It Protects us from solar winds The name of these unique winds comes from
containing electrically charged Particles. the direction of their origin; the westerlies run
west to east while other winds run east to
west.
9. Answer: (c) Statement 1 is correct: In the Southern
Statement 1 is correct: The amount of water Hemisphere, westerlies are particularly strong,
vapour in the stratosphere is very low, especially in areas where land is absent,
only 5 out of one million air molecules are because land amplifies the flow pattern,
water molecules. This means that under making the current more north-south oriented,
normal conditions there are no clouds in slowing the westerlies.
the stratosphere. Clouds are found almost Statement 2 is not correct: Coriolis force is
exclusively in the troposphere. strongest in the polar regions and zeroes at
the equator. At the intermediate levels, it varies
directly as the sine of the latitude.
149 Climatology-Explanation
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11. Answer: (d) rains in India. A La Nina is actually beneficial
Statement 1 is not correct: La Nina is a cold for the Indian monsoon.
event. Here, the water temperature in the Statement 2 is not correct: Since 1950, out of
Eastern Pacific gets colder than normal. As a the 13 droughts that India faced, 10 have been
result of this, there is a strong high pressure during El Nino years and one in a La Nina year. El
over the eastern equatorial Pacific. Now, Nino means lesser than average rains for India.
there is low pressure in the Western Pacific Indian agriculture is heavily dependent on the
and off Asia. La Nina causes drought in Peru monsoons and because of this, lesser rainfall
and Ecuador, heavy floods in Australia, high during the monsoons generally translates to
temperatures in Western Pacific, Indian Ocean, below-average crop yields.
off the Somalian coast and good monsoon
Climatology-Explanation 150
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4 Oceanography
1. Consider the following statements: (2021) 2. OMT collected during January March
1. In the tropical zone, the western can be used in assessing whether the
sections of the oceans are warmer amount of rainfall in monsoon will be
than the eastern sections owing to the less or more than a certain long-term
influence of trade winds. mean
2. In the temperate zone, westerlies make Select the correct answer using the code
the eastern sections of oceans warmer given below
than the western sections. (a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (b) 2 only
correct? (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 4. Consider the following statements: (2018)
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. Most of the world's coral reefs are in
tropical waters.
2. With reference to the water on the planet 2. More than one-third of the world's coral
Earth, consider the following statements: reefs are located in the territories of
1. The amount of water in the rivers Australia, Indonesia and Philippines.
and lakes is more than the amount of 3. Coral reefs host far more animal
groundwater. phyla than those hosted by tropical
2. The amount of water in polar ice caps rainforests.
and glaciers is more than the amount of Which of the statements given above is/are
groundwater. correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 and 2 only
correct? (b) 3 only
(a) 1 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 5. Which of the following has/have shrunk
immensely/dried up the recent past due to
3. With reference to Ocean Mean Temperature human activities? (2018)
(OMT), which of the following statements 1. Aral Sea
is/are correct? (2020) 2. Black Sea
1. OMT is measured up to a depth of 3. Lake Baikal
26°C isotherm which is 129 metres in
the south-western Indian Ocean during Select the correct answer using the code
January – March. given below:
(a) 1 only
151 Oceanography
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(b) 2 and 3 only (a) Warm and cold atmospheric currents
(c) 2 only meet
Select the correct answer using the code Which among the statements given above
given below: is/are correct?
8. On the planet earth, most of the freshwater 11. Consider the following factors (2012)
exists as ice caps and glaciers. Out of 1. Rotation of the Earth
the remaining freshwater, the largest 2. Air pressure and wind
proportion (2013)
3. Density of ocean water
(a) is bound in atmosphere as moisture
and clouds 4. Revolution of the Earth
(b) is found in freshwater lakes and rivers Which of the above factors influence the
ocean currents?
(c) exists as groundwater
(a) 1 and 2 Only
(d) exists as soil moisture
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
9. The most important fishing grounds of
the world are found in the regions where (d) 2, 3 and 4
(2013)
Oceanography 152
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4 Oceanography-Explanation
153 Oceanography-Explanation
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are located in the territories of Australia, Habitable area in Black Sea is shrinking, but
Indonesia, and Philippines. the actual volume is not shrinking immensely.
Statement 3 is correct: Coral reefs are the most In 2015, Russia officially declared Lake Baikal
diverse of all marine ecosystems. Reefs cover an emergency zone because of a catastrophic
just a tiny fraction (less than one percent) of drop in its water level. Baikal is the globe’s
the earth’s surface and less than two percent of largest freshwater lake and is on the UNESCO
the ocean bottom. Because they are so diverse, World Heritage list. Industrial area of the
coral reefs are often called the rainforests of closed Baikal Pulp and Paper Mill that has been
the sea. Coral reefs host a greater number of polluting the lake for decades. building more
animal phyla than those hosted by tropical hydroelectric dams near Lake Baikal can cause
rainforests. the unique lake to dry out. It is shrinking but
the fate is not immense. It is not dried up.
5. Answer: (a)
Option (a) is correct: Decades ago, the Aral 6. Answer: (b)
Sea was the world’s fourth largest body of Tropical cyclones are violent storms that
inland water, but it has shrunk immensely originate over oceans in tropical areas and move
due to diversion of rivers for irrigation (human over to the coastal areas bringing about large-
activities). Two decades ago, it split into the scale destruction caused by violent winds,
small northern and larger southern sections, very heavy rainfall, and storm surges. This is
and further divisions have been happening ever one of the most devastating natural calamities.
since. Moreover, in the 1960s, the Soviet Union They are known as Cyclones in the Indian
undertook major water diversion projects on Ocean, Hurricanes in the Atlantic, Typhoons in
the Syr Darya and Amu Darya rivers, capturing the Western Pacific and South China Sea, and
water that once fed into the Aral Sea. Willy-willies in Western Australia.
Dust blowing from the exposed lakebed Tropical cyclones originate and intensify
eventually degraded the soils, forcing further over warm tropical oceans. The conditions
water diversion efforts to revive them. On favourable for the formation and intensification
a larger scale, loss of the Aral Sea’s water of tropical storms are
influenced regional climate, making the winters y Large sea surface with a temperature
even colder and the summers much hotter. higher than 27° C.
Fifty years later, the lake is virtually gone.
y Presence of the Coriolis force.
Black Sea is often seen in the news in the context
of Russian affairs. Past 60 years, the oxygen- y Small variations in the vertical wind speed.
rich top layer of the Black Sea decreased from y A pre-existing weak low-pressure area or
140 metres to 90 metres deep, which amounts low-level-cyclonic circulation.
to an over 40 percent dip in habitable waters. y Upper divergence above the sea level
Two existing causes behind the shrinkage: an system.
abundance of nutrients, particularly algae that
Option (b) is correct: In the South Atlantic
led to great consumption of oxygen and global
and South-Eastern Pacific regions in tropical
warming. With warmer winters, there is a lower
latitudes, cyclones do not originate due to
volume of dense water created and this lowers
the Inter-tropical Convergence Zone, which
the oxygen content. Warmer waters also mean
seldom occurs.
the sea is now able to accumulate less dissolved
gas, including oxygen. The Black Sea has lost y The Intertropical Convergence Zone
more than a third of its habitable volume. The (ITZC), which shifts toward the north in
Oceanography-Explanation 154
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our summer and toward the south in the
southern summer, usually stays at or north 8. Answer: (c)
of the equator in the Atlantic Ocean.
Option (c) is correct: About 71 per cent of the
y A broad convergence zone like this need to planetary water is found in the oceans. The
reach about 5 degrees of latitude away from remaining is held as freshwater in glaciers
the equator in order for the Coriolis Force to and icecaps, groundwater sources, lakes, soil
have sufficient intensity to organise a full- moisture, atmosphere, streams and within
fledged tropical cyclone, and the Atlantic life. Nearly 59 per cent of the water that falls
ITCZ almost never shift that far south, on land returns to the atmosphere through
while the Monsoon trough in the Indian and evaporation from over the oceans as well as
Australian basins, and the western South from other places.
Pacific, regularly do so.
The remainder runs off on the surface, infiltrates
The eastern South Pacific is just about as void into the ground or a part of it becomes glacier.
of activity as the South Atlantic, due largely to Renewable water on the earth is constant
the ITCZ also having a tendency to stay near while the demand is increasing tremendously.
or north of the equator and to climatologically This leads to water crises in different parts
cool sea surface temperatures. of the world — spatially and temporally. The
pollution of river waters has further aggravated
7. Answer: (d) the crisis.
155 Oceanography-Explanation
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fish population. The best fishing grounds
of the world exist mainly in these mixing
zones. [Option (c) is correct]
Oceanography-Explanation 156
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Earth causes Coriolis force which affects the of density and salinity in ocean water
direction of movement of water and leads to motivates denser waters to sink and move as
formation of ocean currents. undercurrents, whereas lighter waters move
Difference of density and salinity: Difference towards the denser water as surface currents.
157 Oceanography-Explanation
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5 World Climatic Regions
(d) A definite dry and wet season Which of the statements given above is/are
correct in this context?
(a) 1 only
8. What could be the main reason/reasons
for the formation of African and Eurasian (b) 2 only
desert belts? (2011) (c) Both 1 and 2
1. It is located in the subtropical high- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Which one of the following is a part of the (d) All four pairs
Congo Basin? (2023)
(a) Cameroon 4. Consider the following countries: (2022)
(b) Nigeria 1. Azerbaijan
(c) South Sudan 2. Kyrgyzstan
(d) Uganda 3. Tajikistan
4. Turkmenistan
2. Consider the following countries: (2023) 5. Uzbekistan
1. Bulgaria Which of the above have borders with
2. Czech Republic Afghanistan?
3. Hungary (a) 1, 2 and 5 only
4. Latvia (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
5. Lithuania (c) 3, 4 and 5 only
6. Romania (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
How many of the above-mentioned
countries share a land border with Ukraine? 5. The term “Levant” often heard in the
(a) Only two news roughly corresponds to which of the
(b) Only three following regions? (2022)
How many pairs given above are correctly (a) Lake Victoria
matched? (b) Lake Faguibine
(a) Only one pair (c) Lake Oguta
(b) Only two pairs (d) Lake Volta
(c) Only three pairs
2. Answer: (a)
With an area of 600,000 km², Ukraine is
the second-largest country in Europe after
European Russia, twice the size of Italy or
slightly smaller than the US state of Texas.
Ukraine borders Belarus, Hungary, Moldova,
Poland, Romania, Russia, and Slovakia.
5. Answer: (a)
Option (a) is correct: From the beginning of
civilization, the Levant, the coastal region of
the eastern Mediterranean from Syria in the
north to Egypt in the south, was the crossroads
of various peoples and cultures. From this
important trade region, fundamental social and
economic changes began spreading across the
3. Answer: (b) Middle East and the Mediterranean, leaving
1. Anatolia—Turkey (pair 1 is correctly behind a rich heritage of unique material
matched) remains.
y Jakarta, earlier named Batavia and Djakarta, Pair (c) is not correctly matched: Guiana
is the largest city and capital of Indonesia. Highlands, plateau and low-mountain region
It lies on the northwest coast of Java at the of South America located north of the Amazon
mouth of the Ciliwung (Liwung River), on and south of the Orinoco River. They cover the
Jakarta Bay, Java Sea. southern half of Venezuela, all of the Guianas
except for the low Atlantic coastal plain, the
y Singapore, a city-state located at the
northern part of Brazil, and a portion of south-
southern tip of the Malay Peninsula, north
eastern Colombia.
of the Equator. It consists of the diamond-
shaped Singapore Island and some 60 Pair (d) is not correctly matched: Okavango
small islets Basin is an endorheic basin, shared between
Angola, Namibia and Botswana. It comprises
y Bangkok is the capital and most populous
permanent marshlands and seasonally flooded
city of Thailand. It is located on the delta of
plains. It is one of the very few major interior
the Chao Phraya River.
delta systems that do not flow into the sea or
y Hanoi is the capital of Vietnam. It is situated ocean, with a wetland system that is almost
in northern Vietnam on the western bank intact.
of the Red River.
4. Which of the following Protected Areas are 7. From the ecological point of view, which
located in the Cauvery basin? (2020) one of the following assumes importance
in being a good link between the Eastern
1. Nagarhole National Park Ghats and the Western Ghats? (2017)
2. Papikonda National Park (a) Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
3. Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve (b) Nallamala Forest
4. Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary (c) Nagarhole National Park
Select the correct answer using the code (d) Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve
ie
ac
Keres gl S
alle
im
o hy
ok of Nagarhole and Bandipur Tiger Reserves of
e
R
Ind
Khapalu
Tiger Reserve of Tamil Nadu in the southeast.
Nu
bra
6. Answer: (a)
The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are the
largest archipelago system in the Bay of
Bengal, consisting of 306 islands and 206
rocks and rocky outcrops and covering a total
area of about 8200 sq km. Only 38 of these
1. Consider the following statements : (2023) 4. Consider the following rivers: (2021)
1. Jhelum River passes through Wular 1. Brahmani
Lake. 2. Nagavali
2. Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru 3. Subarnarekha
Lake.
4. Vamsadhara
3. Meandering of the Gandak River formed
Kanwar Lake. Which of the above rise from the Eastern
Ghats?
How many of the statements given above
are correct? (a) 1 and 2
(d) None
5. With reference to the Indus river system,
of the following four rivers, three of them
2. Consider the following pairs: (2022) pour into one of them which joins the Indus
Reservoirs States directly. Among the following, which one is
such a river that joins the Indus directly?
1 Ghataprabha Telangana
(2021)
2. Gandhi Sagar Madhya Pradesh
(a) Chenab
3. Indira Sagar Andhra Pradesh
(b) Jhelum
4. Maithon Chhattisgarh
(c) Ravi
How many pairs given above are not
correctly matched? (d) Sutlej
The Sutlej is joined by the Beas River in Elimination techniques: Hampi is located
Hari-Ke-Patan, Amritsar, Punjāb, India, and at the bank of river Tungabhadra. Pair 3 is
continues southwest into Pakistan to unite not correctly matched.Thus, Option (a) is
with the Chenab River, near Bahawalpur. The correct.
Sutlej joins the Indus River at Mithankot.
7. Answer: (a)
Pair 1 is correctly matched: Bandarpunch
glacier is located in the Garhwal region of
Uttarakhand. The River Yamuna originates
on the West end of the Bandarpunch cirque
Glacier. The Eastern slopes of the Bandarpunch
mountain feed the River Ganga. This is a unique
mountain that feeds both Yamuna and Ganga.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: Bara Shigri glacier
is located in Lahaul and Spiti Valley of Himachal
Pradesh. The Bara Shigri glacier attracted
much attention for many years because of
the valuable antimony deposits found there. It
feeds the Chandra River and after the junction
at Tandi with the Bhaga River, it is known as
the Chenab river.
Pair 3 is not correctly matched: Milam is
The Godavari is the largest Peninsular River. It This enables multi-cropping and the
rises from the slopes of the Western Ghats in introduction of diverse agro-based activities,
the Nasik district of Maharashtra. Its length is which help to provide sustainable livelihoods
about 1500 km. It drains into the Bay of Bengal. to the people residing in the watershed area.
Its drainage basin is also the largest among the The National River Linking Project (NRLP)
peninsular rivers. formally known as the National Perspective
Plan, envisages the transfer of water from
Option (d) is correct: The basin covers parts of water ‘surplus’ basins where there is flooding
Maharashtra (about 50 per cent of the basin to water ‘deficit’ basins where there is drought/
area lies in Maharashtra), Madhya Pradesh, scarcity through inter-basin water transfer
Odisha and Andhra Pradesh. The Pravara, projects.
Manjira and Maner are right bank tributaries
covering about 16.14%, the Purna, Pranahita, The National River Linking Project (NRLP)
Indravati and Sabari are important left bank formally known as the National Perspective
tributaries, covering nearly 59.7% of the total Plan, envisages the transfer of water from
catchment area of the basin. Because of its water ‘surplus’ basins where there is flooding
length and the area it covers, it is also known to water ‘deficit’ basins where there is drought/
as the ‘Dakshin Ganga’. scarcity through inter-basin water transfer
projects.
(b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II (b) low flat plains, close to stream courses,
are correct and Statement-II is not the liable to flooding
correct explanation for Statement-I (c) scrublands, liable to spread of weed
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II growth
is incorrect (d) None of the above
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
II is correct 5. Which of the following statements
regarding laterite soils of India are correct?
2. The black cotton soil of India has been (2013)
formed due to the weathering of (2021) 1. They are generally red in colour.
(a) brown forest soil 2. They are rich in nitrogen and potash.
(b) fissure volcanic rock 3. They are well-developed in Rajasthan
(c) granite and schist and UP.
(d) shale and limestone 4. Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on
these soils.
Select the correct answer using the code
3. In India, the problem of soil erosion is given below:
associated with which of the following?
(2014) (a) 1, 2 and 3
Soils 191
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4 Soils-Explanation
192 Soils-Explanation
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5. Answer: (c) in excess. Hence, laterites are not suitable for
Statement 1 is correct: Laterite has been cultivation.
derived from the Latin word ‘Later’ which Statement 3 is not correct: These soils have
means brick. They are generally red in colour. mainly developed in the higher areas of the
The laterite soils develop in areas with high Peninsular plateau. The laterite soils are
temperatures and high rainfall. These are the commonly found in Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil
result of intense leaching due to tropical rains. Nadu, Madhya Pradesh and the hilly areas of
With rain, lime and silica are leached away, Odisha and Assam.
and soils rich in iron oxide and aluminium Statement 4 is correct: Application of manures
compounds are left behind. Humus content of and fertilisers are required for making the soils
the soil is removed fast by bacteria that thrive fertile for cultivation. Red laterite soils in Tamil
well in high temperatures. Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Kerala are more
Statement 2 is not correct: These soils are suitable for tree crops like Tapioca and cashew
poor in organic matter, nitrogen, phosphate nut. Laterite soils are widely cut as bricks for
and calcium while iron oxide and potash are use in house construction.
Soils-Explanation 193
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5 Natural Vegetation in India
(d) Wildlife Sanctuaries (d) The mangrove trees do not get uprooted
by storms and tides because of their
extensive roots.
8. The 2004 Tsunami made people realise that
mangroves can serve as a reliable safety
4. Answer: (a)
The Himalayan ranges show a succession of
vegetation from the tropical to the tundra, which
change with the altitude. Deciduous forests
are found in the foothills of the Himalayas. It
is succeeded by the wet temperate type of
forests between an altitude of 1,000-2,000 m.
Option 1 is correct: In the higher hill ranges of
northeastern India, hilly areas of West Bengal
and Uttaranchal, evergreen broadleaf trees
Option (a) is correct: The Jing Kieng Jri or living
such as oak and chestnut are predominant.
root bridges — aerial bridges built by weaving
and manipulating the roots of the Indian rubber Option 2 is correct: Between 1,500-1,750 m,
tree — have been serving as connectors for pine forests are also well-developed in this
generations in Meghalaya. A root bridge uses zone, with Chir Pine as a very useful commercial
traditional tribal knowledge to train roots of tree. Deodar, a highly valued endemic species,
the Indian rubber tree, found in abundance in grows mainly in the western part. Blue pine
1. Ilmenite and rutile, abundantly available in 4. Consider the following statements: (2021)
certain coastal tracts of India, are rich sources 1. The Global Ocean Commission grants
of which one of the following? (2023) licences for seabed exploration and
(a) Aluminum mining in international waters.
(b) Copper 2. India has received licences for seabed
(c) Iron mineral exploration in international
waters.
(d) Titanium
3. 'Rare earth minerals' are present on the
seafloor in international waters.
2. Consider the following heavy industries: Which of the statements given above are
(2023) correct?
1. Fertilizer plants (a) 1 and 2 only
2. Oil refineries (b) 2 and 3 only
3. Steel plants (c) 1 and 3 only
Green hydrogen is expected to play a (d) 1, 2 and 3
significant role in decarbonizing how many
of the above industries?
(a) Only one 5. Consider the following minerals: (2020)
3. With reference to India, consider the In India, which of the above is/are officially
following statements: (2022) designated as major minerals?
Which of the statements given above is/are (d) All of the above
correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only 10. Which one among the following industries
(b) 2 and 3 only is the maximum consumer of water in
India? (2013)
(c) 3 only
(a) Engineering
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Paper and pulp
(c) Textiles
7. Consider the following statements: (2018)
(d) Thermal power
1. In India, State Governments do not have
the power to auction non-coal mines.
2. Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand do not 11. Consider the following statements: (2013)
have gold mines. 1. Natural gas occurs in the Gondwana beds.
3. Rajasthan has iron ore mines. 2. Mica occurs in abundance in Kodarma.
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. Dharwars are famous for petroleum.
correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 and 2 correct?
(b) 2 only (a) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 (b) 2 only
(d) 3 only (c) 2 and 3
(d) None
8. In which of the following regions of India
are shale gas resources found? (2016) 12.
Which of the following is/are the
1. Cambay Basin characteristics/characteristics of Indian
2. Cauvery Basin coal? (2013)
Select the correct answer using the code 2. Low sulphur content
given below. 3. Low ash fusion temperature
(a) 1 and 2 only Select the correct answer using the code
(b) 3 only given below:
8. Answer: (d)
10. Answer: (d)
Shale gas refers to natural gas that is trapped
According to the Central Pollution Control
within shale formations. Shales are fine-
Board (CPCB) of India, about 500 billion cubic
grained sedimentary rocks that can be rich
metres of water out of the total available
sources of petroleum and natural gas. Over the
freshwater is used in industries annually. Out
past decade, the combination of horizontal
of this, about 10 billion cubic metres water is
drilling and hydraulic fracturing has allowed
used by processing industries and 30 billion
access to large volumes of shale gas that were
cubic metres is used for refrigeration purposes.
previously uneconomical to produce.
Option (d) is correct: Thermal power industries
Option (d) is correct: The following sedimentary
are the maximum consumer of water in india.
basins are considered prospective from Shale
oil and gas point of view:
(b) Only two States 1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest.
2. Green-gram alone accounts for nearly Which of the above pairs is/are correctly
half of pulse production. matched?
13. Among the following states, which one has 16. The lower Gangetic plain is characterised
the most suitable climatic conditions for by a humid climate with high temperature
the cultivation of a large variety of orchids throughout the year. Which one among the
with minimum cost of production, and can following pairs of crops is most suitable
develop an export-oriented industry in this for this region? (2011)
field? (2011) (a) Paddy and cotton
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Wheat and Jute
(b) Arunachal Pradesh (c) Paddy and Jute
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Wheat and cotton
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Which one of the following states has all of (c) It raises the water table
the above characteristics? (d) It fills the air spaces in the soil with
(a) Andhra Pradesh water
(b) Gujarat
Tripura are also tea-producing states in the Statement 3 is not correct: The country’s
country. pulses production stood at 234 lakhs tonnes
in the 2018-19 crop year, down from the
record level of 254 lakh tonnes in 2017-18.
2. Answer: (a) Due to MSP increases, some improvement in
India is believed to be the original home of the public procurement and buffer stocks norms
cotton plant. Cotton is one of the main raw announced, India’s pulses production saw a big
materials for the cotton textile industry. In increase in 2016-17 to 231 lakhs tonnes from
2008 India was the second largest producer of 163 lakh tonnes in 2015-16, the year that saw
cotton after China. a spike in prices. The government policy over
the last few years was guided by an intent to
Option (a) is correct: Cotton grows well in
reduce import dependence (which was as high
drier parts of the black cotton soil of the
as around 40% of the domestic consumption).
Deccan plateau. It is subtropical in nature. It
In the last three decades, the production of
requires high temperature, rainfall of 50-100
kharif pulses has decreased due to monsoon
centimetres, or irrigation, 210 frost-free days
delay and production of rabi pulses has
and bright sun-shines for its growth. A light
increased.
well-drained soil capable of retaining moisture
is desirable for its growth. Elimination Technique : We know that
It is a kharif crop and requires six to eight months Chickpea and Pigeon pea are major pulses
to mature. Major cotton-producing states that are consumed in India. So, Statement
are– Maharashtra, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, 2 is not correct. Thus, Option (a) is correct.
Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Tamil
Nadu, Punjab, Haryana, and Uttar Pradesh.
4. Answer: (a)
As per the annual report of Ministry of
3. Answer: (a) Agriculture, area, production and yield of major
Statement 1 is correct: Rice is dominantly crops are as follow:
Statement 2 is not correct: It is not the only Paddy is the first-ranking crop in the vast
means of irrigation in dry land farming. Micro region stretching from lower Gangetic Plain to
Irrigation can be applied to any form of land Brahmaputra Valley in the east and the circum-
because it saves water in Irrigation. coastal alluvial tracts of the Peninsula region.
Paddy cultivation has a complete dominance
Statement 3 is correct: Agriculture consumes over all fertile plains around Bay of Bengal.
the largest share of groundwater in India - the
biggest user of groundwater in the world. The
past few decades have witnessed an alarming 17. Answer: (b)
depletion of groundwater resources in the Option (b) is correct: Salinization makes it
country. more difficult for plants to absorb soil moisture
While almost half of the agricultural area making it impermeable. It has detrimental
cultivating food grains in India depends on effects on plant growth and yield. Sea levels
irrigation, as high as 65 percent of these irrigated are rising, which further accelerates the
land holdings depend on groundwater to meet process of salinization due to climate change.
their water needs. It has been recommended Vast areas of farmland are lost every day due
that farmers should move from flood irrigation to salinization, land that is desperately needed
to feed the world’s growing population.
(c) Chandipur
(d) Nagapattinam 13. Consider the following towns of India:
(2014)
1. Bhadrachalam
10. Consider the following pairs: (2015)
2. Chanderi
Place of Pilgrimage Location
3. Kancheepuram
1. Srisailam Nallamala Hills
4. Karnal
2. Omkareshwar Satmala Hills
Which of the above are famous for the
3. Pushkar Mahadeo Hills production of traditional sarees/fabric?
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly (a) 1 and 2 only
matched?
(b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
14. Consider the following pairs: (2014)
1. Dampa Tiger Reserve Mizoram
7. Answer: (a)
Option (a) is correct: The longitude of Delhi is
77.1025° E. Bengaluru with longitude 77.5946°
E lies on the longitude closest to that of Delhi.
Longitude of Hyderabad: 78.4867° E
Longitude of Nagpur: 79.0882° E
Longitude of Pune: 73.8567° E
Parallels of Latitude: The parallels of latitude
refer to the angular distance, in degrees,
minutes and seconds of a point north or south
of the Equator. Lines of latitude are often
referred to as parallels.
Meridians of Longitude: The meridians of
Elimination Technique: The first recorded
longitude refer to the angular distance, in
eruption of the volcano dates back to 1787.
degrees, minutes, and seconds, of a point east
Since then, the volcano has erupted more
or west of the Prime (Greenwich) Meridian.
than ten times, with the most recent one
Lines of longitude are often referred to as
being in 2020. Statement 3 is eliminated.
meridians.
Thus, Option (a) is correct.
8. Answer: (b)
6. Answer: (a)
Option (b) is correct: Kohima is the capital of
Option (a) is correct: Kodaikanal Lake, which
Nagaland and Kottayam is a city in the Indian
4. Answer: (c)
Statement 1 is correct: Desert National Park
is situated in the Indian state of Rajasthan. It
covers an area of 3162 km² of which 1900 km²
is in Jaisalmer district and the remaining 1262
km² is in Barmer district of Rajasthan State. The
Desert National Park is an excellent example of
the ecosystem of the Thar Desert.
Statement 2 is not correct: The Thar desert is
2. Answer: (a)
the most thickly populated desert in the world
Option (a) is correct: Hard ground swamp deer with an average density of 83 persons/km²
(Barasingha or Rucervus duvaucelii), the state (compared to 7km² of other deserts, Baqri and
animal of Madhya Pradesh, is seeing a revival Kankane 2001). The human population, though,
in the Kanha National Park and Tiger Reserve is low (4-5 persons per km²) within the DNP.
(KNPTR) after having been perilously close to There are 73 villages and settlements or Dhanis
extinction for a long time. KNPTR is on the existing within the Park. These communities
1. Consider the following statements : (2023) which one of the following situations?
1. Some microorganisms can grow in (2022)
environments with temperature above (a) Restoration of damaged coral reefs
the boiling point of water. (b) Development of building materials using
2. Some microorganisms can grow in plant residues
environments with temperature below (c) Identification of areas for exploration/
the freezing point of water. extraction of shale gas
3. Some microorganisms can grow in a (d) Providing salt licks for wild animals in
highly acidic environment with a pH forests/protected areas
below 3.
How many of the above statements are
correct? 5. Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing
plants? (2022)
(a) Only one
1. Alfalfa
(b) Only two
2. Amaranth
(c) All three
3. Chickpea
(d) None
4. Clover
5. Purslane (Kulfa)
2. Certain species of which one of the
following organisms are well known as 6. Spinach
cultivators of fungi? (2022) Select the correct answer using the code
(a) Ant given below :
8. In case of which one of the following 11. Which of the following are detritivores?
biogeochemical cycles, the weathering (2021)
of rocks is the main source of release of 1. Earthworms
nutrients to enter the cycle? (2021) 2. Jellyfish
(a) Carbon cycle 3. Millipedes
(b) Nitrogen cycle 4. Seahorses
(c) Phosphorus cycle 5. Woodlice
(d) Sulphur cycle Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
9. Consider the following kinds of organisms : (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(2021) (b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
1. Copepods (c) 1, 3 and 5 only
2. Cyanobacteria (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
3. Diatoms
4. Foraminifera 12. Which of the following have species that
Which of the above are primary producers can establish a symbiotic relationship with
in the food chains of oceans? other organisms? (2021)
(a) 1 and 2 1. Cnidarians
(b) 2 and 3 2. Fungi
(c) 3 and 4 3. Protozoa
(d) 1 and 4 Select the correct answer using the
code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 4 and 5
(c) 2, 3 and 4 18. Due to some reasons, if there is a huge fall
in the population of species of butterflies,
(d) 1, 3 and 5 what could be its likely consequence/
consequences? (2017)
15. "Leaf litter decomposes faster than in 1. Pollination of some plants could be
any other biome and as a result the soil adversely affected.
surface is often almost bare. Apart from 2. There could be a drastic increase in the
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only 22. Consider the following: (2014)
19. Which one of the following is the best The phenomenon of hibernation can be
description of the term 'ecosystem'? (2015) observed in which of the above kinds of
animals?
(a) A community of organisms interacting
with one another (a) 1 and 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code (c) 2, 4, 5, and 7 only
given below: (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only 30. Acid rain is caused by the pollution of
(c) 1 and 3 only environment by (2013)
27. In the grasslands, trees do not replace (c) ozone and carbon dioxide
the grasses as a part of an ecological (d) nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide
succession because of (2013)
(a) insects and fungi 31. With reference to food chains in ecosystems,
(b) limited sunlight and paucity of nutrients consider the following statements: (2013)
(c) water limits and fire 1. A food chain illustrates the order in
(d) None of the above which a chain of organisms feeds upon
each other.
2. Food chains are found within the
28. Which one of the following is the correct populations of a species.
sequence of ecosystems in the order of
decreasing productivity? (2013) 3. A food chain illustrates the numbers of
each organism that are eaten by others.
(a) Oceans, lakes, grasslands, mangroves
Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) Mangroves, oceans, grasslands, lakes correct?
(c) Mangroves, grasslands, lakes, oceans (a) 1 only
(d) Oceans, mangroves, lakes, grasslands (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
29. Due to improper/indiscriminate disposal
34. Consider the following kinds of organisms: 37. In the context of ecosystem productivity,
(2012) marine upwelling zones are important
1. Bat as they increase marine productivity by
2. Bee bringing the: (2011)
Nutrient cycles are of two types: (a) gaseous Copepods are important secondary producers
and (b) sedimentary. The reservoir for the in the oceans. Copepod is any member of
gaseous type of nutrient cycle (e.g., nitrogen, the widely distributed crustacean subclass
carbon cycle) exists in the atmosphere, and for Copepoda.
the sedimentary cycle (e.g., phosphorus cycle), Foraminifera are single-celled organisms and
the reservoir is located in Earth’s crust. are members of a phylum or class of amoeboid
The phosphorus cycle is the process by which protists characterized by streaming granular
phosphorus moves through the lithosphere, ectoplasm for catching food and other uses,
hydrosphere, and biosphere. Phosphorus is and commonly an external shell (called a
essential for plant and animal growth, as well as “test”) of diverse forms and materials. They are
the health of microbes inhabiting the soil, but is not primary producers.
gradually depleted from the soil over time. The
main biological function of phosphorus is that 10. Answer: (c)
it is required for the formation of nucleotides,
which comprise DNA and RNA molecules. Option (c) is correct:
Option (c) is correct: Much of the phosphorus y Lichens may grow on practically any
Option (d) is correct: In tropical rainforests, Option (d) is correct: Desert plants lose very
leaf litter decomposes faster than in any other little water through transpiration. The leaves in
biome, and as a result, the soil surface is often desert plants are either absent, very small (tiny),
almost bare. Apart from trees, the vegetation or they are present in the shape of spines. This
is largely composed of plant forms that reach helps in reducing the loss of water from the
up into the canopy vicariously by climbing the leaves through transpiration plants growing in
trees or growing as epiphytes, rooted on the extremely dry conditions throughout the year
upper branches of trees. adopt thorns instead of leaves to prevent loss
Xerophytes are plants growing in extremely dry Elimination Technique: The term ‘drastic
conditions throughout the year. For example, increase’ seems vague in the statement.
plants growing in deserts (psammophytes), So, by eliminating statement 2, we are
on rock (lithophytes), or alpine plants growing remaining with options A and C.
above 14000 feet altitude.
y Acid rain is a byproduct of a variety of such as iron, lead, and copper into the
human activities that emit the oxides of drinking water. Acid rain damages buildings
sulphur and nitrogen into the atmosphere. and other structures made of stone or
As mentioned earlier, the burning of metal. The Taj Mahal in India has been
fossil fuels (which contain sulphur and affected by acid rain.
nitrogenous matter) such as coal and oil in
power stations and furnaces or petrol and
31. Answer: (a)
diesel in motor engines produces sulphur
dioxide and nitrogen oxides. SO2 and NO2 Statement 1 is correct: Organisms in the
after oxidation and reaction with water are ecosystem are related to each other through
major contributors to acid rain because feeding mechanisms or trophic levels, i.e.,
polluted air usually contains particulate one organism becomes food for the other.
matter that catalyses oxidation. A sequence of organisms that feed on one
another, form a food chain. A food chain starts
y Acid rain is harmful to agriculture, trees,
with producers and ends with top carnivores.
and plants as it dissolves and washes away
nutrients needed for their growth. Statement 2 is not correct: A food chain
represents only one part of the food or energy
y It causes respiratory ailments in human
flow through an ecosystem and implies a
beings and animals. It corrodes water pipes
resulting in the leaching of heavy metals simple, isolated relationship, which seldom
Statement 3 is not correct: Density of ocean y It will start leaching of nutrients and very
water at the sea surface is about 1027 kg/m 3. little fertility remains in the topsoil. In this
There are two main factors that make ocean case, most of the seeds don’t germinate for
water more or less dense than about 1027 years.
kg/m 3: the temperature of the water and the y The Regeneration Process will be very slow
salinity of the water. Ocean water gets denser (it may take decades). But the layer below
as temperature goes down and vice versa. topsoil (subsoil) is very fertile. So, plants
grow very quickly once their roots reach
the sub-soil and if they receive enough
37. Answer: (b) sunlight.
Statement 1 and statement 3 are not correct:
2. Coal-based thermal power plants cause 1. Its fibres can be blended with wool
mercury pollution. and cotton fibres to reinforce their
properties.
3. There is no known safe level of exposure
to mercury. 2. Containers made of it can be used to
store any alcoholic beverage.
How many of the above statements are
correct? 3. Bottles made of it can be recycled into
other products.
(a) Only one
4. Articles made of it can be easily
(b) Only two
disposed of by incineration without
(c) All three causing greenhouse gas emissions.
(d) None Which of the statements given above are
correct?
4. Sulphur dioxide
Excess of which of the above in the 5. In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines,
environment is/are cause(s) of acid rain ? consider the following statements : (2022)
3. Among the following crops, which one is 3. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and
the most important anthropogenic source enter the bloodstream.
of both methane and nitrous oxide ? (2022) 4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger
(a) Cotton asthma.
6. Magnetite particles, suspected to cause Which of the statements given above are
neurodegenerative problems, are generated correct?
as environmental pollutants from which of (a) 1 and 2 only
the following? (2021) (b) 2 and 3 only
1. Brakes of motor vehicles (c) 1 and 3 only
2. Engines of motor vehicles (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Microwave stoves within homes
4. Power plants 9. Consider the following statements: (2020)
5. Telephone lines 1. Coal ash contains arsenic, lead and
Select the correct answer using the code mercury.
given below. 2. Coal-fired power plants release sulphur
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only dioxide and oxides of nitrogen into the
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only environment.
11. In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl Which of the statements given above is/are
parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed correct?
with apprehension. These chemicals are (a) 1 and 3 only
used as (2019) (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) pesticides in agriculture. (c) 2 only
(b) preservatives in processed foods. (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) fruit-ripening agents.
(d) moisturising agents in cosmetics. 15. Why is there a great concern about the
‘microbeads' that are released into the
12. In the context of which one of the following environment? (2019)
are the terms ‘pyrolysis and plasma (a) They are considered harmful to marine
gasification’ mentioned? (2019) ecosystems.
(a) Extraction of rare earth elements (b) They are considered to cause skin
(b) Natural gas extraction technologies cancer in children.
(c) Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles (c) They are small enough to be absorbed
by crop plants in irrigated fields.
(d) Waste-to-energy technologies
(d) They are often found to be used as food
adulterants.
13. Consider the following: (2019)
1. Carbon monoxide 16. Which of the following is/are the possible
2. Methane consequence/s of heavy sand mining in
3. Ozone riverbeds? (2018)
4. Sulphur dioxide
5. Methane 22. Which of the following are some important
pollutants released by the steel industry in
Select the correct answer using the code India? (2014)
given below.
1. Oxides of sulphur
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
2. Oxide of nitrogen
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
3. Carbon monoxide
(c) 1, 4 and 5 only
4. Carbon dioxide
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
(b) 2, 4 and 5 only
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 5 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
24. Photochemical smog is a resultant of the
reaction among (2013)
(a) NO2, O3 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the 27. There is a concern over the increase in
presence of sunlight harmful algal blooms in the seawater of
India. What could be the causative factors
(b) CO, O2 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the for this phenomenon? (2011)
presence of sunlight
1. Discharge of nutrients from the
(c) CO, CO2 and NO2 at low temperature estuaries.
(d) high concentration of NO2, O3 and CO in 2. Run-off from the land during the
the evening monsoon.
3. Upwelling in the seas.
25. Consider the following statements: (2012) Select the correct answer from the code
Chlorofluorocarbons, known as ozone given below:
depleting substances, are used (a) 1 only
1. In the production of plastic foams (b) 1 and 2 only
2. In the production of tubeless tyres (c) 2 and 3 only
3.
In cleaning certain electronic (d) 1, 2 and 3
components
4. As pressurizing agents in aerosol cans
29.
The formation of ozone holes in the (b) It is the latest technology developed for
Antarctic Region has been a cause of undersea oil exploration.
concern. What could be the reason for the (c) It is a genetically engineered high
formation of this hole? (2011) biofuel-yielding maize variety.
(a) Presence of prominent tropospheric (d) It is the latest technology to control
turbulence; and inflow of the accidentally caused flames from oil
chlorofluorocarbons wells.
Acid rain results when sulfur dioxide (SO2) Statement 4 is not correct: Emission of
and nitrogen oxides (NOX) are emitted into the greenhouse gases is one of the major
atmosphere and transported by wind and air disadvantages associated with the disposal of
currents. The SO2 and NOX react with water, PET by incineration process.
oxygen and other chemicals to form sulfuric Elimination Technique: Polyethylene
and nitric acids. These then mix with water and Terephthalate (PET or PETE) is plastic,
other materials before falling to the ground. so while incinerating the PET it will emit
greenhouse gasses.
264 Biodiversity
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and seeds in the ground. 10. Consider the following statements:(2021)
3. They are omnivorous. 1. Moringa (drumstick trees) is a
How many of the above statements are leguminous evergreen trees.
correct? 2. The Tamarind tree is endemic to South
(a) Only one Asia.
8. With reference to “Gucchi” sometimes 11. Which one of the following is a filter
mentioned in the news, consider the feeder? (2021)
following statements : (2022)
(a) Catfish
1. It is a fungus.
(b) Octopus
2. It grows in some Himalayan forest areas.
(c) Oyster
3. It is commercially cultivated in the
Himalayan foothills of north-eastern (d) Pelican
India.
Which of the statements given above is/are 12. Which one of the following is used in
correct? preparing a natural mosquito repellent?
(a) 1 only (2021)
Biodiversity 265
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(c) Reptiles herbivores.
(d) Amphibians 4. Some species of snakes are viviparous.
Which of the statements given above is/are
14.
With reference to Indian elephants, correct?
consider the following statements: (2020) (a) 1 and 3 only
1. The leader of an elephant group is a (b) 2, 3, and 4 only
female. (c) 2 and 4 only
2. The maximum gestation period can be (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
22 months.
3. An elephant can normally go on calving
till the age of 40 years only. 17. Consider the following statements: (2019)
4. Among the States in India, the highest 1. Asiatic lions are naturally found in India
elephant population is in Kerala. only.
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. Double-humped camels are naturally
correct? found in India only.
266 Biodiversity
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in other parts of the world which may
cause the disappearance of good 22. Which one of the following is the national
native crop plants and the loss of food aquatic animal of India? (2015)
biodiversity.
(a) Saltwater crocodile
(d) Mankind's overexploitation/misuse
of natural resources, fragmentation/ (b) Olive Ridley turtle
loss of natural habitats, destruction (c) Gangetic dolphin
of ecosystems, pollution, and global (d) Gharial
climate change.
20.
In which of the following regions of Select the correct answer using the code
India are you most likely to come across given below:
the ‘Great Indian Hornbill’ in its natural (a) 1 and 2 only
habitat? (2016) (b) 2 only
(a) Sand deserts of northwest India (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) Higher Himalayas of Jammu and Kashmir (d) 3 only
(c) Salt marshes of western Gujarat
(d) Western Ghats 24. With reference to Neem tree, consider the
following statements: (2014)
21. What is/are unique about ‘Kharai camel’, a 1. Neem oil can be used as a pesticide
breed found in India? (2016) to control the proliferation of some
1. It is capable of swimming up to three species of insects and mites.
kilometers in seawater. 2. Neem seeds are used in the manufacture
2. It survives by grazing on mangroves. of biofuels and hospital detergents.
3. It lives in the wild and cannot be 3. Neem oil has applications in the
domesticated. pharmaceutical industry.
Select the correct answer using the code Which of the statements given above is/are
given below. correct?
Biodiversity 267
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2. Leatherback turtle
25. Other than poaching, what are the possible 3. Swamp deer
reasons for the decline in the population of Which of the above is/are endangered?
Ganga River Dolphins? (2014)
(a) 1 and 2 only
1. Construction of dams and barrages on
rivers. (b) 3 only
268 Biodiversity
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4. Andhra Pradesh (a) Oryx is adapted to live in hot and arid
Select the correct answer using the code areas whereas Chiru is adapted to live
given below: in steppes and semi-desert areas of
cold high mountains.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) Oryx is poached for its antlers whereas
(b) 2 only Chiru is poached for its musk.
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) Oryx exists in western India only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 whereas Chiru exists in north-cast India
only.
31. The Government of India encourages the (d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c)
cultivation of ‘sea buckthorn ‘. What is the given above is correct.
importance of this plant? (2012)
1. It helps in controlling soil erosion and in 34. Which of the following can be threats to
preventing desertification. the biodiversity of a geographical area?
2. It is a rich source of biodiesel. (2012)
32.
Which one of the following groups of 35. Consider the following: (2012)
animals belongs to the category of
endangered species? (2012) 1. Black-necked crane
Biodiversity 269
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36. Vultures which used to be very common in 39. Biodiversity forms the basis for human
the Indian countryside some years ago are existence in the following ways: (2011)
rarely seen nowadays. This is attributed to: 1. Soil formation
(2012)
2. Prevention of soil erosion
(a) the destruction of their nesting sites by
new invasive species 3. Recycling of waste
(d)
a widespread, persistent and fatal (a) 1, 2, and 3 only
disease among them (b) 2, 3, and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
37. A sandy and saline area is the natural (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
habitat of an Indian animal species. The
animal has no predators in that area, but
40. Which one of the following is not a site for
its existence is threatened due to the
in-situ method of conservation of flora?
destruction of its habitat. Which one of the
(2011)
following could be that animal? (2011)
(a) Biosphere Reserve
(a) Indian wild buffalo
(b) Botanical Garden
(b) Indian wild ass
(c) National Park
(c) Indian wild boar
(d) Wildlife Sanctuary
(d) Indian gazelle
270 Biodiversity
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4 Biodiversity-Explanation
Biodiversity-Explanation 271
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5. Answer: (d) 6. Answer: (c)
Statement 1 is correct: Mushrooms possess Statement 1 is correct: The Indian palm squirrel
medicinal properties and have been used for is a species of rodent in the family Sciuridae
their therapeutic benefits in various traditional found naturally in the south of the Vindhyas and
and modern systems of medicine. For example- in Sri Lanka. Indian Palm squirrels construct
reishi mushroom (Ganoderma lucidum). Reishi their nests in tree branches and hollow trunks.
mushrooms have a long history of use in Statements 2 and 3 are correct: Indian palm
traditional Chinese medicine, where they are squirrels are omnivores. They feed mainly on
believed to promote overall well-being and nuts and fruits but will also eat seeds, insects,
boost the immune system. Shiitake mushroom small mammals and reptiles, eggs, and even
(Lentinula edodes).It contains compounds like sometimes chicks of birds.
lentinan, which has been shown to enhance
immune function and exhibit potential
anticancer properties. 7. Answer: (b)
Statement 2 is correct: some mushrooms Orangutans, which are large arboreal great apes
possess psychoactive properties, meaning native to the rainforests of Southeast Asia, have
they contain compounds that can alter been observed using sticks as tools in various
consciousness, mood, perception, and ways. One of their notable tool-use behaviours
cognition when ingested. These mushrooms are involves employing sticks to scrape or probe
commonly referred to as “magic mushrooms” insect nests or crevices. They may modify the
or “psychedelic mushrooms.” The primary sticks by stripping off leaves or bark to create
psychoactive compound found in these a more effective tool for extracting insects.This
mushrooms is called psilocybin. behaviour demonstrates their problem-solving
Statement 3 is correct: Certain mushrooms abilities and adaptive intelligence.
possess insecticidal properties, meaning they
contain compounds that can repel, inhibit the 8. Answer: (c)
growth of, or directly kill insects. These natural
Statement 1 is correct: Guchhi mushroom is a
insecticidal properties of mushrooms have
species of fungus in the family Morchellaceae
been recognized and studied for their potential
of the Ascomycota. One of the most sought-
use in pest control and agriculture.
after edible mushrooms, guchhi is known for
Statement 4 is correct: some mushrooms its spongy, honeycombed head and savoury
exhibit bioluminescent properties, meaning flavour but all of that comes at a high price.
they have the ability to produce and emit light.
Statement 2 is correct and Statement 3 is not
These mushrooms are often referred to as
correct: Apart from its flavour, guchhi also owes
“glow-in-the-dark” mushrooms and are known
its high price to the challenges in cultivation. The
for their captivating and magical appearance
mushrooms cannot be cultivated commercially
in the dark.Bioluminescence in mushrooms
and grow in conifer forests across temperature
is a result of a chemical reaction that occurs
regions, and the foothills in Himachal Pradesh,
within their cells. The exact mechanisms and
Uttaranchal, and Jammu and Kashmir. And it
compounds responsible for the bioluminescent
takes months for villagers to collect enough of
properties vary among different species
these mushrooms, dry them and bring them to
of bioluminescent mushrooms. However,
the market.
a common feature is the presence of a
bioluminescent enzyme called luciferase and
a substrate known as luciferin.
272 Biodiversity-Explanation
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9. Answer: (a) water through their bodies. Water is pumped
Option (a) is correct: Golden Mahseer is a fish, through the oyster’s gills. Plankton, algae, and
whose scientific name is Tor putitora. Mahseer other particles become trapped in the mucus
roughly translates as mahi – fish and sher – of the gills. From there, these particles are
tiger, and hence is also referred as tiger among transported to the oyster’s mouth.
fish. It is a large cyprinid and known to be the
toughest among freshwater sport fish. 12. Answer: (c)
Lemongrass is a herb with a lemony scent. The
10. Answer: (b) culinary herb is produced from the stalk of the
Statement 1 is not correct: Drumstick is one of lemongrass plant (Cymbopogon citratus). This
those rare plant species whose seeds, flowers, plant grows in many tropical climates, most
leaves, and stems are edible and extremely notably in Southeast Asia. It is a common
nutritious. Moringa, commonly referred to ingredient in Thai cooking and can also be
as drumstick, is treated as a ‘super plant’ found in dishes from Indonesia, Sri Lanka, and
for its unique yet powerful properties that India.
combat different ailments in our system. This Option (c) is correct: Lemongrass acts as a
nutrient-dense plant has its roots in Ayurveda natural mosquito repellent. It helps one to get
and was used as a medicine by our ancestors. rid of mosquitoes and keep them at bay. All you
Drumstick is an easily available vegetable need to do is crush the leaves of lemongrass
which is cultivated mostly in Asian and African and then apply the oily mixture to your skin.
regions. It is a staple vegetable in Southern
India. It can be evergreen and semi-deciduous.
13. Answer: (a)
Statement 2 is not correct: The tamarind tree
is endemic to Tropical Africa. Option (a) is correct: Ceylon frogmouth,
Coppersmith barbet, Grey-chinned minivet,
Statement 3 is correct: In India, most of the and White-throated redstart are birds.
tamarind is collected as minor forest produce.
Coppersmith Barbet is a short, stocky bird, with
Statement 4 is correct: India exports tamarind a leaf-green body that allows it to remain well-
and seeds of moringa. Moringa has been in camouflaged in the canopy. The Coppersmith
great demand in many countries. The major Barbet feeds mainly on the fruits of common
countries that import moringa leaves and fig trees, such as banyan, peepul, and cluster
seeds are the US, Germany, China, Canada, fig, as well as the occasional insect.
South Korea, and other European countries.
White-throated redstart is found in the Indian
Statement 5 is correct: Seeds of moringa and Subcontinent and Southeast Asia, as well
tamarind can be used in the production of as some adjoining areas. The species ranges
biofuels. across Afghanistan, Bhutan, Cambodia, India,
Laos, Myanmar, Nepal, Pakistan, Tajikistan,
11. Answer: (c) Thailand, Tibet, and Vietnam. Its natural habitat
is temperate forests.
Filter feeders are suspension-feeding animals
that feed by straining suspended matter and Grey-chinned minivet is a small minivet
food particles from water, typically by passing species distributed in the Indian subcontinent
the water over a specialized filtering structure. and southeast Asia. These minivet species are
common resident birds of the thorn jungles
Option (c) is correct: Oysters are filter feeders,
and shrubs in their range. These minivets are
meaning they eat by pumping large volumes of
polytypic species.
Biodiversity-Explanation 273
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14. Answer: (a)
very specific. So, by eliminating statement
The Indian elephant (Elephas maximus indicus) 3 we are remaining with options A and B.
is a subspecies of the Asian elephant found on
the Asian mainland. Other subspecies of Asian
elephants are found on the islands of Sri Lanka 15. Answer: (c)
and Sumatra. Indian elephants are considered Pair 1 is correctly matched: Blue-finned
an endangered species. Mahseer belongs to the genus tor. It is a
Statement 1 is correct: Indian elephants are freshwater fish found in the Cauvery river
both diurnal and nocturnal. They are highly basin in Karnataka. Pollution, loss of habitat,
social animals, gathering into matriarchal units: destructive fishing, and sand extraction have
these are stable groups, which may consist of taken this fish to the brink of extinction.
more than 20 related females. The leader of Pair 2 is not correctly matched: The Irrawaddy
the group is the oldest female. dolphin is a species of river dolphin found in
Statement 2 is correct: The Indian elephants parts of South Asia. Chilika lake, in Odisha,
have a polygynous mating system. These is home to the only known population of
animals breed year-round. Before mating, Irrawaddy Dolphins in India.
males usually engage in aggressive fights, Pair 3 is correctly matched: The rusty-spotted
which occasionally result in serious injuries cat inhabits the forests of Andhra Pradesh and
or even death. The winner joins an all-female Eastern Ghats. It is a threatened species as
group, driving away other males. A breeding per IUCN, listed in Schedule I of the Wildlife
pair remains together for about 3 weeks. The Protection Act, 1972.
gestation period lasts for 22 months, yielding
a single baby. y Elimination Technique: Irrawaddy
Dolphin in pair 2 can be eliminated.
Statement 3 is not correct: Females between
As Irrawaddy Dolphins are naturally
14 - 45 years may give birth to calves
found in the Irrawaddy river and not in
approximately every four years with the mean
the Chambal River. So, we can get the
interbirth intervals increasing to five years
answer C.
by age 52 and six years by age 60. Hence, an
elephant can go on calving even after the age
of 40 years. Interbirth intervals of up to 13 years 16. Answer: (d)
may occur depending on habitat conditions
Statement 1 is correct: Whether or not a turtle
and population densities.
is a carnivore, a herbivore, or an omnivore
Statement 4 is not correct: The population of depends on the particular species. For instance,
India’s national heritage animal— the elephant— tortoises are almost always exclusively
has dipped in the country in the last five years herbivores. Their diets usually consist of plants.
(2012-2017). Among the states, the highest Most aquatic turtles are carnivores, it however
population was recorded in Karnataka (6,049), depends on the species of aquatic turtle. Semi-
followed by Assam (5,719) and Kerala (3,054). aquatic turtles are mostly omnivores and their
As far as regions are concerned, the highest nutritional requirements are usually best met
population was in the southern region (11,960) with a diet i.e. meat and vegetables.
followed by the northeast region (10,139), east-
Statement 2 is correct: Fish are of two types
central region (3,128), and northern region
mainly, there are carnivorous fish that eat
(2,085).
the meat of other animals, and there are
Elimination Technique: The ‘till the age herbivorous fish that eat herbs, seaweeds,
of 40 years only’, in statement 3 makes it and coral reefs, etc. Herbivore fish are usually
274 Biodiversity-Explanation
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small in number as compared to carnivore fish. 18. Answer: (d)
Statement 3 is correct: The Earth’s vast Mass extinction refers to a substantial increase
network of oceans supports millions of marine in the degree of extinction or when the Earth
animals. Among them, some marine animals are loses more than three-quarters of its species
carnivores who eat the flesh of other animals, in a geologically short period of time. So far,
some are omnivores who eat a combination of during the entire history of the Earth, there have
flesh and plant matter and some are herbivores been five mass extinctions. The sixth, which
who are adapted to eat only plant matter. is ongoing, is referred to as the Anthropocene
Marine herbivores are found within four groups extinction.
of species in the animal kingdom which are: The ‘Sixth Extinction’ is presently in progress,
invertebrates, fish, reptiles, and mammals. different from the previous episodes. The
Statement 4 is correct: Snakes are reptiles. The difference is in the rates; the current species
species of snake can be classified as viviparous extinction rates are estimated to be 100 to
(no eggs) and ovoviviparous (egg retained inside 1,000 times faster than in pre-human times
the body). Most species of snakes will follow and our activities are responsible for the faster
the general rules of reptilian reproduction, the rates. Ecologists warn that if the present trends
mother will lay a clutch of eggs that will hatch continue, nearly half of all the species on earth
into baby snakes. Such snakes are referred might be wiped out within the next 100 years.
to as oviparous. A few exceptional species of Humanity needs a relatively stable climate,
snakes diverge from this general rule. They flows of fresh water, agricultural pest and
are referred to as viviparous because they give disease-vector control, and pollination for
birth to live young. crops, all services that will be impacted as the
sixth mass extinction accelerates.
17. Answer: (a) Option (d) is correct: The term “sixth mass
Statement 1 is correct: Asiatic lions are extinction/sixth extinction” is in the context of
naturally found in India only. In India, they overexploitation/misuse of natural resources,
are found in Gir National Park (Gujarat). It is fragmentation/loss of natural habitats,
part of the Schedule I species of the Wildlife destruction of ecosystems, pollution, and
Protection Act, 1972 that covers endangered global climate change.
species.
Statement 2 is not correct: In India double- 19. Answer: (b)
humped camels are found in Nubra Valley, Gharial prefers deep fast flowing rivers;
Ladakh. Besides India, they are found however, adult gharial has also been observed
throughout the highlands of central Asia from in still-water branches (jheel) of rivers
Turkistan to Mongolia and their total population and comparatively velocity-free aquatic
is around 20 million. environments of deep holes (kunds) at river
Statement 3 is not correct: One-horned bends and confluences.
rhinoceros are naturally found in Bhutan, Option (b) is correct: Historically, gharial was
Nepal, Indonesia, Malaysia, and India. These found in the river system of India, Pakistan,
countries signed a declaration- ‘The New Bangladesh, and the southern part of Bhutan
Delhi Declaration on Asian Rhinos 2019’ for the and Nepal. Today, they survive only in the
conservation and protection of the species. waters of India and Nepal. The surviving
population can be found within the tributaries
of the Ganges River system: Girwa (Uttar
Pradesh), Son (Madhya Pradesh), Ramganga
Biodiversity-Explanation 275
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(Uttarakhand), Gandak (Bihar), Chambal (Uttar marine food, they sometimes swim for hours.
Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, and Rajasthan) and Statement 3 is not correct: The number of
Mahanadi (Orissa). these camels, spread out across six coastal
It is listed in Schedule I of the Wildlife districts of Gujarat, has dwindled to 5,000.
(Protection) Act, 1972, and as Critically Kharai Camels are bred by two distinct
Endangered on the IUCN Red List. communities —the Fakirani Jats, who are
the handlers, and the Rabaris, who own the
animals. While the Rabaris are spread across
20. Answer: (d)
Bhachau and Mundra talukas, the Fakirani Jats
India is home to nine species of hornbills, of live in Bhachau, Mundra, Lakhpat, and Abdasa
which two are endemic. India is positioned talukas as well as in other coastal districts of
between two bio-geographic realms: the Gujarat such as Ahmedabad, Bharuch, Anand,
Afrotropical and Indomalayan. The north- and Bhavnagar. The nomadic communities
eastern region of India has the highest diversity move in search of mangroves for their camels
of Hornbill species (5), though the number to feed on and they can be domesticated.
of sympatric species is not as high as in the
Special Features of Kharai Camel:
Southeast Asian forests. The Great Hornbill
occurs in north, northeast, and south India, y Kharai Camel is an Eco-tonal breed. They
apart from Nepal, Bhutan, and Bangladesh. survive on dry land ecosystems as well as
coastal systems.
Option (d) is correct: Great Indian Hornbills are
found in Western Ghat. They are fondly referred y They are less affected by common skin
to as the ‘farmers of the forest’ because of the diseases (Khaji/Dermatitis).
great distances to which they help disperse y Excellent feeding and digesting of saline
seeds. trees and shrubs.
There are four species of hornbills in the y This breed can tolerate water with high TDS
Western Ghats. The prominent among them is (Total Dissolved Solid) up to 10000 ppm.
the Great Indian Hornbill and the others are y Smooth and long hair can be used for the
the Malabar Pied Hornbill, the Common Grey preparation of soft clothes/stoles.
Hornbill, and the Malabar Grey Hornbill.
276 Biodiversity-Explanation
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construction of barrages causing physical y Neem oil is used in the pharmaceutical
barriers for this migratory species. industry because it contains various
compounds that have medicinal, and
cosmetic purposes.
23. Answer: (c)
Dugongs are mammals. They graze on seagrass,
especially young shoots and roots in shallow 25. Answer: (c)
coastal waters. They can consume up to 40 The Gangetic River dolphin is India’s national
kilograms of seagrass in a day. aquatic animal and is also known as ‘Susu’. The
y Dugong (Dugong), also called as ‘Sea Cow’ Ganga River Dolphin is found in Assam, Uttar
is one of the four surviving species in the Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Bihar,
Order Sirenia and it is the only existing Jharkhand, and West Bengal. The upper Ganga
species of herbivorous mammal that lives River, Chambal River, Ghagra and Gandak
exclusively in the sea including in India. Rivers, Son and Kosi rivers, Brahmaputra and
(Statement 1 is correct) Kulsi River, a tributary of the Brahmaputra
River, form ideal habitats for the Ganges River
y Dugongs are protected in India and found
dolphin.
in the Gulf of Mannar, PalkBay, the Gulf of
Kutch, Andaman and the Nicobar Islands. Option (c) is correct: Once present in tens
They are not found along the entire coast of thousands of numbers, the Ganges River
of India. (Statement 2 is not correct) dolphin has dwindled abysmally to less than
2000 during the last century owing to direct
y They are protected in India under Schedule
killing, habitat fragmentation by dams and
I of the Wild (Life) Protection Act, 1972.
barrages, and indiscriminate fishing. Moreover,
(Statement 3 is correct)
the pollution entering their habitat from
y Human activities such as the destruction agricultural fields is another threat. It is for
and modification of habitat, pollution, these reasons that despite the high level of
rampant illegal fishing activities, vessel protection, its numbers continue to decline.
strikes, unsustainable hunting or poaching, Crocodiles are not a threat to dolphins.
and unplanned tourism are the main threats
The absence of a coordinated conservation
to dugongs. Moreover, the loss of seagrass
plan, lack of awareness, and continuing
beds due to ocean floor trawling was the
anthropogenic pressure, are posing incessant
most important factor behind dwindling
threats to the existing dolphin population.
dugong populations in many parts of the
world. Additional Information:
y The Ganga River Dolphin is classified under
Schedule 1, Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
24. Answer: (c)
providing absolute protection as offenses
Option (c) is correct: Coating urea with Neem under these are prescribed the highest
oil or Neem cake has been proved to be an penalties. Vikramshila Gangetic Dolphin
effective natural alternative to chemical Sanctuary (VGDS) in the Bhagalpur district
pesticides. is the only dedicated sanctuary for Gangetic
y Neem urea-coated agents contain an all- dolphins.
natural unaltered form of a nutrient, which
enables it to be an effective denitrifying
26. Answer: (b)
agent and as well as a natural soil
insecticide. Option (b) is correct: The Common Myna is
brown with a blackhead. It has a yellow bill,
Biodiversity-Explanation 277
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legs, and bare eye skin. In flight, it shows Swamp deer is a highly endangered species
large white wing patches. The Common Myna protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife
is a member of the starling family and is also Protection Act of India 1972. It is also included
known as the Indian Myna or Indian Mynah. in the red data list of the rare animals of the
The Common Myna is closely associated with International Union for Conservation of Nature
human habitation. In the evening, large groups (IUCN).
of Common Mynas gather in communal roosts,
mainly in the non-breeding season, in roof 28. Answer: (a)
voids, bridges, and large trees, and numbers
can reach up to several thousand. Option 1 is correct: The Indian star tortoise is
one of the most trafficked tortoise species in
the world. Indian star tortoises are found in
27. Answer: (c) the forest areas closer to villages in Andhra
Option 1 is correct: Gharials (Gavialis Pradesh, Bihar, Delhi, Gujarat, Karnataka,
gangeticus) have been identified as the most Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha,
Critically Endangered crocodilian species in the Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh, and West Bengal.
world. Gharial prefers deep fast flowing rivers. The star tortoise is a Schedule IV species under
Historically, gharial was found in the river the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 which means
system of India, Pakistan, Bangladesh and the it is illegal to keep them as pets or trade them
southern part of Bhutan and Nepal. Today they commercially. It is a CITES Appendix II species.
survive only in the waters of India and Nepal. Option 2 is correct: India is home to four
The surviving population can be found within species: Bengal Monitor Varanus bengalensis,
the tributaries of the Ganges River system: Common Water Monitor Varanus Salvator,
Girwa (Uttar Pradesh), Son (Madhya Pradesh), Yellow Monitor Varanus flavescens, and Desert
Ramganga (Uttarakhand), Gandak (Bihar), Monitor Varanus griseus. Monitor Lizards are
Chambal (Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, and protected under India’s Wildlife (Protection)
Rajasthan) and Mahanadi (Orissa). Act, 1972 and listed under CITES. Monitor
Option 2 is correct: Leatherback turtles are Lizards helped the Maratha General Tanaji
named for their shell, which is leather-like rather Malusare scale the steep hilltop Sinhagad Fort
than hard, like other turtles. The leatherback in Pune in 1670.
(Dermochelys coriacea) is the largest turtle and Option 3 is correct: The pygmy hog is the
the largest living reptile in the world. Globally, smallest member of the pig family and is a
leatherback status according to IUCN is listed critically endangered species. Once found
as Vulnerable, but many subpopulations (such along a narrow strip of tall and wet grassland
as in the Pacific and Southwest Atlantic) are plains on the Himalayan foothills – from Uttar
Critically Endangered. Pradesh to Assam, through Nepal’s terai areas
Option 3 is correct: Swamp deer (Barasingha and Bengal’s duars – it was thought to have
or Rucervus duvaucelii) is the State Animal of become extinct in the 1960s. But in 1971 it was
Madhya Pradesh. There are three subspecies of “re-discovered” with a small population in the
swamp deer found in the Indian Subcontinent. Bornadi Wildlife Sanctuary. The only viable
The western swamp deer (Rucervus duvaucelii) population of the pygmy hog in the wild is in
is found in Nepal, the southern swamp deer the Manas Tiger Reserve in Assam.
(Rucervus duvaucelii branderi) is found in Option 4 is not correct: Spider monkeys are
central and north India, and the eastern swamp found in healthy tropical rainforests in Central
deer (Rucervus duvaucelii ranjitsinhi) found and South America. Black spider monkeys are
in the Kaziranga and Dudhwa National Parks. one of the largest primates in South America.
278 Biodiversity-Explanation
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They exhibit anatomical and locomotory is a ‘staccato’ call emitted by the female which
adaptations, not unlike those of apes. coincides with a rather conspicuous swelling
of the skin near the females’ sexual organs at
the time of attaining sexual maturity. It is an
29. Answer: (b)
endangered species in the IUCN red data book.
Option 1 is correct: The sea cow also known
as Dugong (Dugong dugon), is one of the four
surviving species in the Order Sirenia and 31. Answer: (c)
it is the only existing species of herbivorous Statement 1 is correct: Sea buckthorn is a
mammal that lives exclusively in the sea hardy shrub with thorny branches, delicate
including in India. Dugongs are protected in and willowy leaves, and bright orange-yellow
India and occur in the Gulf of Mannar, PalkBay, berries. This shrub is also known as seaberry,
the Gulf of Kutch and the Andaman and Nicobar Siberian pineapple, sandthorn, and sallowthorn.
Islands. It restores degraded sites by preventing soil
Option 2 is not correct: Seahorses are erosion and fixes nitrogen with the help of soil
charismatic fish with a snout like a horse. They microbes.
are widespread in marine ecosystems across Statement 2 is not correct: It is found to have
the world. Most seahorses are marine except low viscosity in Seabuckthorn which is an
a few estuarine species. 46 recognised species important property of biodiesel. But this is not
of seahorses are found in the world’s oceans. only the criteria to extract biodiesel from it.
7 of these are found in India. All seahorses Statement 3 is correct: Sea buckthorn grows
give birth to young ones through the unique mostly wild throughout a few of India’s cold
breeding behaviour of male pregnancy. They and dry regions like Ladakh, Kumaon-Garhwal
are not mammals. in Uttaranchal, Lahaul-Spiti and Kinnaur in
Statement 3 is correct: Seals and sea lions are Himachal Pradesh, and the sacred forests of
marine mammals called ‘pinnipeds’ that differ Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh. Seabuckthorn
in physical characteristics and adaptations. is a medicinal plant found in the Himalayan
Sea lions haul out in large colonies on rocks region also which is a cold region of India.
and sandy shores on the Islands. They move Statement 4 is not correct: Sea buckthorn is
into the water to feed and cool off as needed. a medium- sized, hardy, deciduous shrub (not
timber) that can grow between 2 and 6 m in
30. Answer: (a) height. It is found in the Northern Hemisphere
along riversides, in mountainous areas, and in
Option (a) is correct: Lion-tailed macaque
sandy and gravel ground at elevations of 3,300
(Macaca silenus), a primate endemic to small
to 4,500 m.
and severely fragmented rainforests of the
Western Ghats in Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil
Nadu. This monkey is not only an indicator of 32. Answer: (a)
the health of rainforests, but its management Option (a) is correct: An endangered species
in the fragmented habitats also makes it an is a type of organism that is threatened by
umbrella species for the conservation of other extinction. Species become endangered for
wildlife species in the region. two main reasons: loss of habitat and loss of
The macaque is a typically arboreal species genetic variation. Great Indian Bustard, Musk
spending over 99 percent of its time in the Deer, Red Panda, and Asiatic Wild Ass belong
rainforest canopy. One of the most unusual to the category of endangered species.
features of the species’ reproductive behaviour y The Great Indian Bustard is the heaviest
Biodiversity-Explanation 279
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flying bird and can weigh up to 15 kg sand dunes. Oryx live in desert conditions for
which grows up to one meter in height. In long periods and can survive without water.
July 2011 it was categorised as “critically Chiru is a Tibetan antelope that lives in cold
endangered” by the International Union for high mountains.
Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
y A musk deer species occurs in the Himalayas 34. Answer: (a)
of Nepal, Bhutan, India, Pakistan, and China.
It is listed as endangered on the IUCN Red In our biosphere immense diversity (or
List because of overexploitation. heterogeneity) exists not only at the species
level but at all levels of biological organisation
y The Red Panda is an endangered species of ranging from macromolecules within cells to
arboreal mammal found in the Himalayan biomes.
region and in south-western China. Its
range of countries includes India, Nepal, The biological wealth of our planet has been
Bhutan, Tibet, Myanmar, and China. declining rapidly which is mainly due to human
activities. The colonisation of tropical Pacific
y The IUCN Red List also moved the Islands by humans is said to have led to the
Indian wild ass from the ‘vulnerable’ to extinction of more than 2,000 species of native
‘endangered’ category, indicating the need birds. Presently, 12 percent of all bird species,
for heightened protection measures in 23 percent of all mammal species, 32 percent
August 2015. The Kiang or Tibetan Wild Ass of all amphibian species, and 31 percent of
is the largest of all African and Asiatic wild all gymnosperm species in the world face the
asses. threat of extinction.
Option (a) is correct: Global warming,
33. Answer: (a) fragmentation of habitat, invasion of alien
Oryx is a genus consisting of four large antelope species, and promotion of vegetarianism- all
species called oryxes. Their fur is pale with can be the threats to the biodiversity of a
contrasting dark markings on the face and geographical area.
on the legs, and their long horns are almost y Global Warming: Global warming is harmful
straight. The Arabian oryx was only saved from to the earth as it increases the water level
extinction through a captive breeding program in the sea but now it is also endangering the
and reintroduction to the wild. The scimitar biodiversity present on the planet. Studies
oryx, which is now listed as extinct in the wild, suggest that an increase in temperature
also relies on a captive breeding program for leads to the loss of biodiversity, mainly
its survival. The chiru is the only genus of large marine life as the elevated temperature
mammals endemic to the Tibetan Plateau. reduces the amount of dissolved oxygen
Despite its antelope-like appearance, the and hence leads to the unavailability of
chiru is not related to antelopes or to gazelles oxygen for marine animals.
but represents the last remnant of a group of y Fragmentation of habitat: Loss of
ruminants that split off from the sheep, goat, biodiversity stems largely from the habitat
and goat antelope lineages during the Neogene loss and fragmentation produced by human
Period. appropriation of land for development,
Option (a) is correct: Oryx live primarily in forestry and agriculture as natural capital
arid regions with low rainfall. Arabians live in is progressively converted to human-made
deserts, plains, savanna, and desert edges. capital.
Scimitars and East Africans live in similar y Invasion of alien species: Invasive alien
habitats, like steppe, desert, semi-desert, and species are known for endangering
280 Biodiversity-Explanation
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biodiversity. Invasive species can take of the western Himalayas including the states
over that environment and create a new of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh,
functioning habitat. However, not all alien Uttarakhand and Sikkim, and Arunachal
species are harmful. Some non-native Pradesh in the eastern Himalayas.
species bring benefits to their new area of
habitation.
36. Answer: (b)
Option (b) is correct: In India Vultures are on
35. Answer: (b) the verge of extinction because a banned drug
Option (b) is correct: Black-necked crane, is still being used illegally to treat suffering
Flying squirrel, Snow leopard- they are naturally cattle. The endangered birds eat the remains of
found in India but Cheetah is mostly found in the drugged animals and suffer kidney failure
Africa but not in India, especially after 1952, and visceral gout, which is usually fatal. The
when it was declared extinct from India. drug was banned five years ago, but pharmacies
Black-necked crane: The black-necked crane continue to sell it under the counter, a study
is found at extremely high elevations, typically has revealed. More than 97 percent of vultures
3000-4900m, on the central and northern have disappeared from India’s skies in the past
Tibetan Plateau where it nests in high-altitude 15 years - the fastest decline ever recorded in
wetlands throughout Qinghai and the northern a bird population anywhere in the world.
Tibet Autonomous Region as well as in adjacent
areas of Xinjiang, Gansu, western Sichuan, and 37. Answer: (b)
the Ladakh region of India.
Option (b) is correct: The Indian wild ass
Cheetah: The Cheetah is the world’s fastest (Equus hemionus khur) also known as Ghor
land mammal. It is listed as vulnerable in IUCN Khar or Ghud Khur is found in the Little Rann
red-listed species. The cheetah was declared of Kutch and its surrounding areas in Gujarat.
extinct from India in 1952 and is considered Its preferred environment are Saline deserts
the only large mammal that has gone extinct (Rann), arid grasslands and shrublands. It is
since the country’s independence. The also found in Afghanistan, southern Pakistan,
cheetah lives in dry and shrub forests and and south-eastern Iran.
savannas in Africa with the largest populations
occurring in South-Western Angola, Botswana, y Indian wild buffalo: Terai region
Malawi, South-Western Mozambique, Namibia, y Indian wild boar: Tt can survive in different
Northern Mozambique, Northern South Africa, types of habitats: grasslands, taiga, and
Southern Zambia, and Zimbabwe. tropical rainforests, but they prefer life in
Flying squirrel: A species of rodent, the flying deciduous forests.
squirrel, is found in China, India, Indonesia, y Chinkara (Indian gazelle): Thar desert
Myanmar, Sri Lanka, Taiwan, Vietnam and
Thailand. In India, all flying squirrels are a rare
38. Answer: (c)
species and are placed under Schedule 1 of the
Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Statement 1 is correct: Latitudinal gradients
of biodiversity are biogeographic patterns
Snow leopards: Snow leopards are considered
that quantify the ways in which taxonomic,
medium-sized cats, standing about 24 inches
phylogenetic, functional, genetic, or phonetic
at the shoulder and weighing around 30-55kg.
biodiversity changes with the latitudinal
Snow leopards live in the mountainous regions
position on the surface of the earth. Species
of central and southern Asia. In India, their
richness, or biodiversity, increases from the
geographical range encompasses a large part
Biodiversity-Explanation 281
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poles to the tropics. So, the latitude range activities such as excessive pesticide and land
with maximum species diversity is the equator use, would heavily impact human beings when
region which is at lower latitude. they die out.
Statement 2 is correct: A decrease in species
diversity takes place from lower to higher 40. Answer: (b)
altitudes on mountains. On Mountain Higher
seasonal variations and fall in temperature Option (b) is not correct: Botanical Garden
leads to a reduction in biodiversity with a 1000 is not a site for the ‘in-situ’ method of
m increase in altitude leading to a temperature conservation of flora. In-situ conservation
drop of about 6.5°C. is on-site conservation or the conservation
of genetic resources in natural populations
of plant or animal species, such as forest
39. Answer: (d) genetic resources in natural populations of
Statement 1 is correct: Biodiversity helps tree species.
in the maintenance and formation of soil
structure and the retention of moisture and
nutrient levels. Clearing of vegetation has
contributed to the leaching of nutrients,
salinisation of soils, lateralization of minerals
and accelerated erosion of topsoil, reducing the
land’s productivity. On the other hand, Trees
lower the water table and remove deposited
salt from the upper soil horizons.
Statement 2 is correct: The relationship
between erosion and biodiversity is reciprocal.
Soil organisms can both reduce soil loss,
by improving porosity, and increase it, by
diminishing soil stability as a result of their
mixing activities.
41. Answer: (b)
Statement 3 is correct: Deforestation due to
The Himalayas have three biogeographical
raw materials destroys the natural habitat and
zones which have different biodiversity as:
causes global warming. Recycling reduces the
Northwest Himalayas, West Himalayas, Central
need for raw materials and hence preserves
Himalayas, and East Himalayas, which together
the rainforests.
constitute about 6.4% of the country’s area.
Statement 4 is correct: Insects are responsible It is a confluence of different biogeographical
for the pollination of 3/4th of all the plants zones due to which the Himalayan region is
cultivated for human consumption. Bees, very rich in species diversity.
which are severely endangered by human
282 Biodiversity-Explanation
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5 Global Conservation Efforts
2. Answer: (a)
4. Answer: (a)
The Common Carbon Metric is supported by
Option (a) is correct: Responsible Recycling
the United Nations Environment Program.
(R2) is a standard specifically created for the
The purpose of a Common Carbon Metric for
electronics recycling industry by Sustainable
buildings is to give the sector a way to measure,
Electronics Recycling International (SERI).
report, and verify reductions consistently and
comparably. This sector consumes 40% of the SERI is the housing body and ANSI-accredited
world’s energy and releases 1/3rd of global Standards Development Organization for the
greenhouse gas (GHG). R2 Standard: Responsible Recycling Practices
for Use in Accredited Certifications Programs.
Option (a) is correct: The Common Carbon
Metric is used to measure, report, and verify An updated version of the R2 Code of Practices
14. Answer: (d) However, it was agreed in the 2007 Bali Action
Plan that the program should go beyond
REDD (Reducing Emissions from Deforestation
mitigation. It should also deliver environmental
and Forest Degradation) is the global endeavour
and social co-benefits that would contribute
to create an incentive for developing countries
to poverty reduction.
to protect, better manage and save their forest
Elimination Technique: All the options are correct as it is obvious that deforestation would
result in these benefits. Thus, Option (d) is correct.
The Montreux Record was established by the Since then, the GEF has provided more
recommendation of the Conference of the than $21.1 billion in grants and mobilised an
Contracting Parties (1990). During the fourth additional $114 billion in co-financing for more
meeting held at Montreux, Switzerland in 1990, than 5,000 projects in 170 countries. It serves
it was decided that mere listing of wetlands as a financial mechanism for ‘Convention
as Ramsar sites was not enough. The purpose on Biological Diversity’ and ‘United Nations
would be fulfilled if the conservation activities Framework Convention on Climate Change’.
could be prioritised where ecological damage Through its Small Grants Programme, the GEF
has begun or is likely to occur. has provided support to more than 25,000
civil society and community initiatives in 133
Option (a) is correct: The Montreux Record countries.
is a register of wetland sites on the List of
Wetlands of International Importance where
changes in ecological character have occurred, 21. Answer: (b)
are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result Statement 1 is not correct: Wetlands
of technological developments, pollution or International is the only global not-for-
other human interference. It is maintained as profit organisation (not an intergovernmental
part of the Ramsar List. organisation) dedicated to the conservation
Additional Information: and restoration of wetlands. It is concerned
y The Convention on Wetlands is an about the loss and deterioration of wetlands
intergovernmental treaty that provides the such as lakes, marshes, and rivers. Wetlands
framework for the conservation and wise International is dedicated to maintaining and
use of wetlands and their resources. The restoring wetlands for their environmental
Convention was adopted in the Iranian city values as well as for the services they provide
of Ramsar in 1971 and came into force in to people.
1975. Statement 2 is correct: Wetland International-a
y There are 171 contracting parties to the network organisation working locally and
Ramsar Convention. globally. The organisation has a network
of offices around the world; these often-
y India signed the Ramsar Convention on 1 independent entities share the same Strategy.
February 1982. They work at the field level to develop and
y There are 42 Ramsar sites in India. Chilika mobilise knowledge and use this practical
Lake (Odisha) and Keoladeo National Park experience to advocate for better policies.
(Rajasthan) were recognized as the first
Ramsar Sites of India. Elimination Technique: Statement
1 is not correct as there is no such
1. the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State Which of the statements given above is/are
becomes the governing authority of correct?
such forest (a) 1 and 2
2. Hunting is not allowed in such area (b) 2 only
3. People of such area are allowed to (c) 1 and 3
collect non-timber forest produce (d) 3 only
4. People of such area are allowed
traditional agricultural practices
4. If a particular plant species is placed under
How many of the above statements are Schedule VI of The Wildlife Protection Act,
correct? 1972, what is the implication? (2020)
(a) Only one (a) A licence is required to cultivate that
(b) Only two plant.
(c) Only three (b) Such a plant cannot be cultivated under
(d) All four any circumstances.
(c) It is a Genetically Modified crop plant.
2. Which one of the following has been (d) Such a plant is invasive and harmful to
constituted under the Environment the ecosystem.
(Protection) Act, 1986? (2022)
(a) Central Water Commission 5. Consider the following statements: (2020)
(b) Central Ground Water Board 1. 36% of India’s districts are classified
(c) Central Ground Water Authority as “overexploited” or “critical” by the
Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA).
(d) National Water Development Agency
2. CGWA was formed under the
Environment (Protection) Act.
3. With reference to Indian laws about 3. India has the largest area under
wildlife protection, consider the following groundwater irrigation in the world.
statements : (2022)
Which of the statements given above is/are
1. Wild animals are the sole property of correct?
the government.
(a) 1 only
2. When a wild animal is declared
protected, such animal is entitled for (b) 2 and 3 only
equal protection whether it is found in (c) 2 only
protected areas or outside. (d) 1 and 3 only
3. Apprehension of a protected wild
12. How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) (b) Maintenance of Tiger Reserves
different from the Central Pollution Control (c) Indigenous Satellite Navigation System
Board (CPCB)? (2018) (d) Security of National Highways
1. The NGT has been established by an Act
whereas the CPCB has been created by
an executive order of the Government. 15. In India, if a species of tortoise is declared
protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife
2. The NGT provides environmental justice (Protection) Act, 1972, what does it imply?
and helps reduce the burden of litigation (2017)
in the higher courts whereas the CPCB
promotes cleanliness of streams and (a) It enjoys the same level of protection as
wells, and aims to improve the quality the tiger.
of air in the country. (b) It no longer exists in the wild, a few
Which of the statements given above is/are individuals are under captive protection;
correct? and now it is impossible to prevent its
extinction.
(a) 1 only
(c) It is endemic to a particular region of
(b) 2 only India.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Both (b) and (c) stated above are
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 correct in this context.
Select the correct answer using the code Select the correct answer using the code
given below: given below:
24.
How does the National Biodiversity 26.
With reference to India, consider the
Authority (NBA) help in protecting Indian following Central Acts: (2011)
agriculture? (2012) 1. Import and Export (Control) Act, 1947
1. NBA checks the biopiracy and protects 2. Mining and Mineral Development
the indigenous and traditional genetic (Regulation) Act, 1957
resources. 3. Customs Act, 1962
2. NBA directly monitors and supervises 4. Indian Forest Act, 1927
scientific research on the genetic
modification of crop plants. Which of the above Acts have relevance to/
bearing on the biodiversity conservation in
3. Application for Intellectual Property the country?
Rights related to resources genetic/
biological cannot be made without the (a) 1 and 3 only
approval of the NBA. (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
correct? (d) None of the above Acts
(a) 1 Only
(b) 2 and 3 only
Option (c) is correct: In India, ‘extended Statement 2 is correct: Baiga Tribals became
producer responsibility’ was introduced as an India’s first community to get Habitat Rights.
important feature in the e-Waste (Management Baigas are considered as a Particularly
and Handling) Rules, 2011. Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) in the Indian
Constitution and rely mostly on shifting
cultivation, forest produce and fishing for
12. Answer: (b) sustenance. The tribe numbers only 150,000
Statement 1 is not correct: The National Green people spread over forested areas of Madhya
Tribunal has been established under the Pradesh and Chhattisgarh.
National Green Tribunal Act 2010 for effective Statement 3 is not correct: The definition of
and expeditious disposal of cases relating to Habitat Rights was incorporated through an
environmental protection and conservation of Amendment in the FRA in 2012. As per the
forests and other natural resources including amendment, the District Level Committee
enforcement of any legal right relating to the under the Act shall ensure that all PVTGs
environment and giving relief and compensation receive Habitat Rights, in Consultation with
for damages to persons and property and for the concerned traditional institutions of these
matters connected therewith or incidental groups, after filing claims before the Gram
thereto. Whereas, the Central Pollution Control Sabha.
Board (CPCB), a statutory organisation, was
constituted in September 1974 under the Water
(Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. 14. Answer: (b)
Further, CPCB was entrusted with the powers Option (b) is correct: M-STrIPES (Monitoring
and functions under the Air (Prevention and System for Tigers-Intensive Protection and
Control of Pollution) Act, 1981. Ecological Status) is a platform where modern
Statement 2 is correct: The National technology is used to assist in effective
Green Tribunal’s dedicated jurisdiction in patrolling, assess ecological status, and
mitigate human-wildlife conflict in and around
y Buffer Zones: These surrounds or adjoins Statement 2 is not correct: Commercial mining,
the core area(s) and is used for activities setting of sawmills and industries causing
compatible with sound ecological practices pollution, commercial use of firewood and
that can reinforce scientific research, major hydro-power projects, are prohibited in
monitoring, training, and education. such areas. Activities permitted in the areas
include ongoing agriculture and horticulture
y Transition Area: The transition area is
practices by local communities, rainwater
where community foster socio-culturally
harvesting, organic farming, adoption of green
and ecologically sustainable economic and
technology and use of renewable energy
human activities.
sources.
The National Mission for a Green India is one The Protocol arose when the World Resources
of the eight Missions under the National Action Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for
y Global warming leads to a change in the Option (d) is not correct: Carbon credit prices
patterns of heat and humidity. This has led are never fixed because they are traded on an
to the movement of mosquitoes that carry exchange. It is a permit that allows the company
and spread diseases. that holds it to emit a certain amount of carbon
dioxide or other greenhouse gases. One credit
y Due to an increase in floods, tsunamis and
permits the emission of a mass equal to one
other natural calamities, the average death
ton of carbon dioxide. Credit is one-half of a
toll usually increases. Also, such events can
so-called “cap-and-trade” program.
bring about the spread of diseases that can
hamper human life.
19. Answer: (b)
3. Capturing carbon dioxide released by Select the correct answer using the code
various industries and pumping it into given below:
abandoned subterranean mines in the (a) 1, 2, 5 and 6 only
7. Steel slag can be the material for which of 2. Setting up and engineering the algae-
the following? (2020) based biofuels production requires a
high level of expertise/ technology until
1. Construction of base road
the construction is complete.
2. Improvement of agricultural soil
3. Economically viable production
3. Production of cement necessitates the setting up of large-
Select the correct answer using the code scale facilities, which may raise
given below: ecological and social concerns.
(a) 1 and 2 only Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
(b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
8. In the context of proposals to the use of
hydrogen - enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel
for buses in public transport, consider the 10. Consider the following statements: (2016)
following statements: (2019)
1. The Sustainable Development Goals
1. The main advantage of the use of H-CNG were first proposed in 1972 by a global
is the elimination of carbon monoxide think tank called the ‘Club of Rome’.
12. With reference to ‘fly ash’ produced by the 3. Molasses can be used for the production
power plants using the coal as fuel, which of ethanol.
of the following statements is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the code
(2015) given below:
1. Fly ash can be used in the production of (a) 1 only
bricks for building construction.
(b) 2 and 3 only
2. Fly ash can be used as a replacement for
(c) 1 and 3 only
some of the Portland cement contents
of concrete. (d) 1, 2 and 3
5. Answer: (a)
2. Answer: (c)
‘Biofuels’ are fuels produced from renewable
resources and used in place of or in blend with,
3. Answer: (c) diesel, petrol or other fossil fuels for transport,
Statement 1 is correct: Sprinkling powdered stationary, portable and other applications.
basalt over natural ecosystems would remove Option (a) is correct: Biofuels can be produced
vast amounts of carbon dioxide from the from biomass such as sugar-containing
Earth’s atmosphere while also improving soils. materials, like sugar cane, sugar beet, sweet
That’s the finding of a new study that evaluates sorghum, etc.; starch-containing materials
this proposed geoengineering scheme and such as corn, cassava, rotten potatoes, algae,
estimates the costs involved. etc.; and cellulosic-materials such as bagasse,
Statement 2 is correct: Ocean alkalinization is wood waste, agricultural and forestry residues,
an approach to carbon removal that involves or other renewable resources like an industrial
adding alkaline substances to seawater to waste; rice & wheat straw/corn cobs (Damaged
enhance the ocean’s natural carbon sink. These wheat grains).
substances could include minerals, such as
olivine, or artificial substances, such as lime or
6. Answer: (a)
some industrial byproducts. Adding alkalinity
to the ocean removes carbon dioxide from the In order to encourage locally available
atmosphere through a series of reactions that materials and the use of green technologies
convert dissolved CO2 into stable bicarbonate for the construction of roads under Pradhan
and carbonate molecules, which in turn causes Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY), guidelines
the ocean to absorb more CO2 from the air to were issued by the Ministry, wherein the
restore equilibrium. State Governments are required to propose
a minimum 15% of the total length of annual
Statement 3 is correct: Injection of fluids into
Agriculture 335
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3. The palm oil can be used to produce 8. What is the use of biochar in farming?
biodiesel. (2020)
Which of the statements given above are 1. Biochar can be used as a part of the
correct? growing medium in vertical farming.
(a) 1 and 2 only 2. When biochar is a part of the growing
(b) 2 and 3 only medium, it promotes the growth of
nitrogen-fixing microorganisms.
(c) 1 and 3 only
3. When biochar is a part of the growing
(d) 1, 2 and 3 medium, it enables the growing medium
to retain water for a longer time.
6. Among the following, which one is the least Which of the statements given above is/are
water-efficient crop? (2021) correct?
(a) Sugarcane (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) Sunflower (b) 2 only
(c) Pearl millet (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Red gram (d) 1, 2 and 3
7. In the context of India's preparation for 9. In the context of India, which of the
Climate-Smart Agriculture, consider the following is/are considered to be practice(s)
following statements: (2021) of eco-friendly agriculture? (2020)
1. The 'Climate-Smart Village' approach 1. Crop diversification
in India is a part of a project led by 2. Legume intensification
the Climate Change, Agriculture and
Food Security (CCAFS), an international 3. Tensiometer use
research programme. 4. Vertical farming
2. The project of CCAFS is carried Select the correct answer using the code
out under Consultative Group on given below:
International Agricultural Research (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(CGLAR) headquartered in France.
(b) 3 only
3. The International Crops Research
Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (c) 4 only
(ICRISAT) in India is one of the CGIAR's (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
research centres.
Which of the statements given above are 10. What is/are the advantage/advantages of
correct? zero tillage in agriculture? (2020)
(a) 1 and 2 only 1. Sowing of wheat is possible without
(b) 2 and 3 only burning the residue of the previous
(c) 1 and 3 only crop.
336 Agriculture
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possible. (c) 1 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code (d) 1, 2 and 3
given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only 13.
With reference to the circumstances
(b) 2 and 3 only in Indian agriculture, the concept of
(c) 3 only "Conservation Agriculture" assumes
significance. Which of the following fall
(d) 1, 2 and 3 under the Conservation Agriculture? (2018)
1. Avoiding the monoculture practices
11. What are the advantages of fertigation in 2. Adopting minimum tillage
agriculture? (2020)
3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation
1. Controlling the alkalinity of irrigation crops
water is possible.
4. Using crop residues to cover soil surface
2. Efficient application of Rock Phosphate
and all other phosphatic fertilizers is 5. Adopting spatial and temporal crop
possible. sequencing/crop rotations
3. Increased availability of nutrients to Select the correct answer using the code
plants is possible. given below:
12.
With reference to agricultural soils, 2. Applying gypsum before irrigating the
consider the following statements: (2018) field
1. A high content of organic matter in soil 3. Allowing crop residue to remain in the
drastically reduces its water holding field
capacity. Select the correct answer using the code
2. Soil does not play any role in the sulphur given below:
cycle. (a) 1 and 2 only
3. Irrigation over a period of time can (b) 3 only
contribute to the salinization of some (c) 1 and 3 only
agricultural lands.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only 15. What can be the impact of excessive/
inappropriate use of nitrogenous fertilisers
(b) 3 only
Agriculture 337
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in agriculture? (2015) 3. Spirogyra
1. Proliferation of nitrogen fixing Which of the above is/are used as
microorganisms in soil can occur. biofertilizer/biofertilizers?
2. Increase in the acidity of soil can take (a) 1 and 2 only
place. (b) 2 only
3. Leaching of nitrate to the groundwater (c) 2 and 3 only
can occur.
(d) 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only 18. Consider the following kinds of organisms:
(2012)
(b) 2 only
1. Bacteria
(c) 2 and 3 only
2. Fungi
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Flowering plants
Some species of which of the above kinds of
16. What is/are the significance of a practical organisms are employed as biopesticides?
approach to sugarcane production known
as 'Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative’? (a) 1 only
(2014) (b) 2 and 3 only
1. Seed cost is very low in this compared to (c) 1 and 3 only
the conventional method of cultivation. (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Drip irrigation can be practised very
effectively in this.
19.
Consider the following agricultural
3. There is no application of chemical/ practices: (2012)
inorganic fertilisers at all in this.
1. Contour bunding
4. The scope for intercropping is more
2. Relay cropping
in this compared to the conventional
method of cultivation. 3. Zero tillage
Select the correct answer using the code In the context of global climate change,
given below: which of the above helps/help in carbon
sequestration/ storage in the soil?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) None of them
338 Agriculture
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9 Agriculture-Explanation
Agriculture-Explanation 339
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biologist Bill Mollison. It gained acceptance in
India after several enthusiasts were influenced Statement 1 is clearly correct. So, Option
by Mollison during his visit to the country in (b) is correct.
1987. Permaculture is the conscious design
and maintenance of agriculturally productive
5. Answer: (b)
ecosystems which have the diversity, stability,
and resilience of natural ecosystems. It is Statement 1 is not correct: Palm is an African
the harmonious integration of landscape and tree, cultivated as a source of oil. The oil
people — providing their food, energy, shelter, palm is grown extensively in its native West
and other material and non-material needs in and Central Africa, as well as in Malaysia and
a sustainable way. Indonesia. It reached global markets with the
Atlantic slave trade five centuries ago.
Statement 1 is correct: Permaculture integrates
patterns in ecosystems to replicate biodiversity Statement 2 is correct: Palm oil is cheap and
into agriculture to minimalize human energy versatile. It is found in everything from lipstick
intervention. Monoculture efficiently produces to ice cream. For Indians, though, its primary
a single crop or livestock type grown in a specific use has been as a cooking oil. Palm oil, obtained
area, relying heavily on human involvement and from fruits, is used in making soaps, cosmetics
energy-intensive machinery. So, Permaculture (lipstick and perfumes), candles, biofuels, and
farming discourages monocultural practices. lubricating greases and in processing tinplate
Whereas in conventional chemical farming, and coating iron plates.
monoculture practices are predominant. Statement 3 is correct: Edible vegetable oils
Statement 2 is correct: In Conventional such as soybean oil, palm oil and sunflower
chemical farming, soil salinity increases due oil are first-generation biodiesel feedstocks
to an increase in salts in the soil. Soil salinity, because they were the first type of crop used
due to intense chemical use, demands at to produce biodiesel. Palm biodiesel, a type
least four times more water. Chemical runoffs of liquid bioenergy fuel (biofuel), is gaining
destroy not just marine ecosystems but life prominence as renewable energy that can
forms in the soil, which makes soil sterile. In either be used together with petrol or diesel in
permaculture, the whole is greater than the any proportion or as a full substitute for diesel
sum of its parts. So, the occurrence of soil engines without modification in transport and
salinity is not observed in permaculture. industrial applications.
340 Agriculture-Explanation
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7. Answer: (d) y It can be used as a part of the growing
Climate-smart agriculture (CSA) is an approach medium in vertical farming. (Statement 1 is
that helps guide actions to transform agri- correct)
food systems towards green and climate- y When biochar is a part of the growing
resilient practices. CSA supports reaching medium, it promotes the growth of nitrogen-
internationally agreed goals such as the SDGs fixing microorganisms. (Statement 2 is
and the Paris Agreement. It aims to tackle correct)
three main objectives: sustainably increasing y Biochar holds the potential for long-term
agricultural productivity and incomes; adapting carbon sequestration, improving soil health
and building resilience to climate change, and and water-holding capacity, and further
reducing and/or removing greenhouse gas reducing emissions of greenhouse gases
emissions. associated with fertiliser application.
Statement 1 is correct: The ‘Climate-Smart (Statement 3 is correct)
Village’ approach in India is a part of a project Adding biochar to soil increases its carbon
led by the Climate Change, Agriculture and content and can mitigate greenhouse gas
Food Security (CCAFS), an international emissions. This mitigation can occur by several
research programme. This program provides means, long-term transfer of carbon into
technological, organizational and systemic biochar, which would otherwise decompose
support to farmers in association with naturally and emit carbon dioxide and methane,
institutions to help them cope with climate production of syngas andbio–oil, which can
change. be used as energy alternatives to fossil fuels,
Statement 2 is correct: The project of CCAFS and reduced emissions of nitrous oxide from
is carried out under the Consultative Group on fertiliser application.
International Agricultural Research (CGIAR),
headquartered in France. The CGIAR Research
Program on Climate Change, Agriculture and 9. Answer: (a)
Food Security (CCAFS) marshals the science Statement 1 is correct: Crop diversification
and expertise of CGIAR and its partners to refers to the addition of new crops or cropping
catalyse positive change for climate-smart systems to agricultural production on a
agriculture (CSA). particular farm considering the different returns
Statement 3 is correct: The International from value-added crops with complementary
Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid marketing opportunities. It is an eco-friendly
Tropics (ICRISAT) in India is one of the CGIAR’s practice.
research centers. ICRISAT is headquartered in Statement 2 is correct: Improved varieties of
Patancheru near Hyderabad, Telangana, India. legumes adapted to the nutrient deficiency
have the potential to improve food security
for the poorest farmers. Tolerant varieties
8. Answer: (d) could be an inexpensive and biologically
Biochar is a charcoal-like product that is the smart technology that improves soils while
residue of a renewable energy production minimising fertiliser costs.
process called slow pyrolysis. Products like Statement 3 is correct: A tensiometer is
paper mill waste, green waste, animal manure a device for measuring soil water tension.
or other biomass can be recycled by heating to Tensiometers have five applications: They are
550 degrees Celsius in the absence of oxygen. used to determine rooting depth. They are
The process generates energy and biochar. used for the timing of field irrigation. They are
Usages of biochar: used to determine the timing of greenhouse
Agriculture-Explanation 341
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irrigations for potted plants and greenhouse reduced due to the presence of mulch.
beds. The water table level is determined
using tensiometers. The hydraulic gradient is
determined from measurements using two 11. Answer: (c)
tensiometers. It is an eco-friendly practice. Fertigation is a method of fertilizer application
Statement 4 is not correct: In vertical farming, in which fertilizer is incorporated within the
crops are grown indoors, under artificial irrigation water by the drip system. In this
conditions of light and temperature. It aims system, fertilizer solution is distributed evenly
at higher productivity in smaller spaces. It in irrigation.
uses soil-less methods such as hydroponics, Statement 1 is correct: Drip irrigation also
aquaponics and aeroponics. Vertical farming avoids water spillage on the field which could
uses significantly less water and pesticides have promoted weed growth or increased soil
than traditional agricultural methods. Being alkalinity due to water logging. So, controlling
indoors, the crops are not subject to seasons the alkalinity of irrigation water is possible
and hence give high productivity year-round. through it.
Lettuces, tomatoes, and green crops can be Statement 2 is not correct: Fertigation is the
produced through this practice. technique of supplying dissolved fertilizers
The biggest downside of vertical farms is the to crops through an irrigation system. But
large amount of energy it takes to grow crops: phosphatic fertilizers are insoluble in water
between 30-176 kWh per kg more than the and thus cannot be applied to the field by
greenhouses method of crop production. fertigation. Hence, efficient application of Rock
Phosphate and all other phosphatic fertilizers
is not possible.
10. Answer: (d)
Statement 3 is correct: By this method, fertilizer
In Zero tillage (No tillage), a new crop is planted use efficiency is increased from 80 to 90
in the residues of the previous crop without any percent as they are delivered directly to roots
prior soil tillage or seed bed preparation, and it via a drip. As water and fertilizer are supplied
is possible when all the weeds are controlled evenly to all the crops through fertigation there
by the use of herbicides. is the possibility of getting 25-50 percent higher
Advantages of zero tillage in agriculture: yield. So, increased availability of nutrients to
y In this method, the sowing of wheat is done plants is possible.
by a special machine (zero tillage machine) Statement 4 is correct: Leaching Process
without preparing the field. Sowing of wheat describes the release of organic and inorganic
is possible without burning the residue of contaminants or radionuclides from a solid
the previous crop. (Statement 1 is correct) phase into a water phase when influenced by
y In this method, there is no need for a processes such as desorption, complexation,
nursery of rice saplings, direct planting of and mineral dissolution. This is correct since
paddy seeds in the wet soil is possible. overapplication, and soil waterlogging is
(Statement 2 is correct) avoided. Therefore, a reduction in the leaching
of chemical nutrients is possible.
y Zero tillage helps in carbon sequestration
in the soil. (Statement 3 is correct)
y Zero-tilled soils are homogenous in structure 12. Answer: (b)
with a greater number of earthworms, Organic matter affects both the chemical and
organic matter content increases due to physical properties of the soil and its overall
less mineralization, and surface runoff is health. Properties influenced by organic
342 Agriculture-Explanation
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matter include soil structure; moisture holding bacterial waste products, organic gels, fungal
capacity; diversity and activity of soil organisms, hyphae and worm secretions and casts.
both those that are beneficial and harmful to Moreover, organic matter intimately mixed
crop production; and nutrient availability. with mineral soil materials has a considerable
Statement 1 is not correct: Organic matter influence in increasing water holding capacity.
contributes to the stability of soil aggregates Especially in the topsoil, where the organic
and pores through the bonding or adhesion matter content is greater, more water can be
properties of organic materials, such as stored.
Statement 2 is not correct: Sulphur is one The salt lodged in the lower profiles of the
of three nutrients that are cycled between soil comes up to the surface and destroys its
the soil, plant matter and the atmosphere. fertility. Chemical fertilisers in the absence of
The Sulphur cycle describes the movement organic manures are also harmful to the soil.
of Sulphur through the atmosphere, mineral Unless the soil gets enough humus, chemicals
and organic forms, and through living things. harden it and reduce its fertility in the long
Although Sulphur is primarily found in run. This problem is common in all the com-
sedimentary rocks, it is particularly important mand areas of the river valley projects, which
to living things because it is a component of were the first beneficiaries of the Green Rev-
many proteins. Hence, soil plays a role in the olution. According to estimates, about half of
sulphur cycle. the total land of India is under some degree of
Statement 3 is correct: A fairly large area of degradation.
arable land in the irrigated zones of India is
becoming saline because of overirrigation. Elimination Technique: A high content of
Agriculture-Explanation 343
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slow the flow of water, increasing the time
organic matter in soil drastically increases during which infiltration can take place.
its water-holding capacity. Statement 1 is
Statement 2 is not correct: An infiltration
eliminated. Thus, Option (b) is correct.
problem often occurs in farms if the irrigation
water does not enter the soil rapidly enough
13. Answer: (c) during a normal irrigation cycle. Gypsum helps
in the dissolution of the salt clay pan found
Option (c) is correct: Conservation Agriculture
in soils that hinder the percolation of water.
is a set of soil management practices that
This increases the efficiency of irrigation as
minimise the disruption of the soil’s structure,
less water is needed to irrigate the same soil.
composition, and natural biodiversity. Despite
Adding gypsum to irrigation water further
high variability in the types of crops grown
increases its infiltration rate.
and specific management regimes, all forms
of conservation agriculture share three core Statement 3 is correct: Crop residues or other
principles, which are, adopting minimum organic matter left in the field will improve
tillage (just enough to get the seed into the water penetration and is becoming a more
ground), using crop residues to cover soil widely accepted practice. It is one of the
surface, and adopting spatial and temporal easiest methods to improve water infiltration,
crop sequencing/crop rotations. especially for small farmers who do not have
the resources to implement more costly
Conservation agriculture is largely the product
corrective measures. Thus, it helps in water
of the collective efforts of several previous
conservation in agriculture.
agricultural movements, including no-till
agriculture, agroforestry, green manures/cover
crops, direct planting/seeding, integrated pest 15. Answer: (c)
management, and conservation tillage among
The applications of inorganic nitrogen fertilisers
many others.
to various crops have been continuously
Monoculture is the agricultural practice in increasing since the last many decades globally.
which only one type of crop is grown at a time. Although nitrogen fertiliser contributes
It deplete the soil's nutrients and destroy the substantially to yield enhancement, excessive
soil microorganism diversity and reduces the use of this manure has posed serious threats
biodiversity of a specific area so, it is not related to the environment and human health.
to concept of "Conservation Agriculture".
y Statement 1 is not correct: More use
Elimination Technique: Avoiding the of nitrogenous fertilisers in agriculture
cultivation of plantation crops is not does not contribute to the growth of
related to ‘conservation agriculture’. So, microorganisms. The proliferation of
Thus, Option (c) is correct. nitrogen-fixing microorganisms in soil
cannot occur due to the inappropriate use
of nitrogenous fertilisers in agriculture.
14. Answer: (c)
y The rate of nitrogen fertiliser application
Statement 1 is correct: In zero tillage (no- has a close relationship with nitrate
tillage), a new crop is planted in the residues accumulation in the surrounding
of the previous crop without any prior soil environment, groundwater, as well as leafy
tillage or seedbed preparation, and it is and root vegetables. Consumption of diets
possible when all the weeds are controlled by having high nitrate contents has contributed
the use of herbicides. Tillage is helpful in water to endogenous nitrosation, which could
conservation as they roughen the surface and lead to a thyroid condition, various kinds
344 Agriculture-Explanation
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of human cancers, neural tube defects
(during foetus development), and diabetes. extreme, so it can be eliminated. Thus,
Overuse of Nitrogen fertilisers can increase Option (b) is correct.
the acidity of the soil. (Statement 2 is
correct)
17. Answer: (b)
y Leaching of nitrate into the groundwater
Biofertilizers are the living microbes that
can occur. (Statement 3 is correct)
inhabit the root zone or the interior plant
parts. They are a good source for enhancing
16. Answer: (b) nutrient availability in soil and plants. These
are categorised on the basis of the specific
The Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative (SSI) is
nutrient availability concern.
an innovative set of agronomic practices that
involve using fewer seeds, raising seeds in a y Biofertilizers are low-cost, effective,
nursery, and following new planting methods, environmentally friendly, and renewable
with wider seed spacing, and better water and sources of plant nutrients to supplement
nutrient management to increase the cane fertilisers. Integration of chemical, organic
yields significantly. The initiative was launched and biological sources of plant nutrients
jointly by International Crops Research and their management is necessary for
Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) maintaining soil health for sustainable
and Worldwide Fund for Nature (WWF). agriculture. The bacterial organisms present
in the biofertilizer either fix atmospheric
Statement 1 is correct: By practicing SSI, the
nitrogen or solubilise insoluble forms of
seed cost can be reduced up to 75% and there
soil nutrients.
will be a reduction in the plant mortality rate.
While in conventional methods, the cost of y Nitrogen-fixing Biofertilizers include
seeds (seed material used are the stem cuttings Clostridium, Azotobacter, Nostoc,
known as “setts”) occupies a major part of the Anabaena, Rhizobium, Azollae, Anabaena
cost of cultivation. and Azospirillum. [Option (b) is correct]
Agriculture-Explanation 345
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consist of a microorganism (e.g., a bacterium, small quantities and often decompose
fungus, virus or protozoan) as the active quickly, resulting in lower exposures and
ingredient. Microbial pesticides can control largely avoiding the pollution problems
many different kinds of pests, although each caused by conventional pesticides.
separate active ingredient is relatively specific y When used as a component of Integrated
for its target pest. For example, there are fungi Pest Management (IPM) programs,
that control certain weeds and other fungi that biopesticides can greatly reduce the use of
kill specific insects. conventional pesticides, while crop yields
Plant-Incorporated-Protectants (PIPs) are remain high.
pesticidal substances that plants produce
from genetic material that has been added to
the plant. 19. Answer: (b)
y Bacteria: Bacteria are microscopic, single- Carbon sequestration is the process of capturing
celled organisms that thrive in diverse and storing atmospheric carbon dioxide. It is
environments. These organisms can live in soil, one method of reducing the amount of carbon
the ocean and inside the human gut. Humans’ dioxide in the atmosphere with the goal of
relationship with bacteria is complex. reducing global climate change.
346 Agriculture-Explanation
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8 INDIAN POLITY
AND GOVERNANCE
Historical Background & Making of
1 Indian Constitution
1. Consider the following statements in (a) 1 only
respect of the Constitution Day: (2023) (b) 2 only
Statement-I: (c) Both 1 and 2
The Constitution Day is celebrated on (d) Neither 1 nor 2
26th November every year to promote
constitutional values among citizens.
Statement-II: 3. Which one of the following factors
constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in
On 26th November, 1949, the Constituent a liberal democracy? (2021)
Assembly of India set up a Drafting
Committee under the Chairmanship of (a) A committed judiciary
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft (b) Centralization of powers
Constitution of India. (c) Elected government
Which one of the following is correct in (d) Separation of powers
respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
4. What was the exact constitutional status
correct and Statement-II is the correct
of India on 26th January, 1950? (2021)
explanation for Statement-I
(a) A Democratic Republic
(b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II
are correct and Statement-II is not the (b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic
correct explanation for Statement-I (c)
A Sovereign Secular Democratic
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II Republic
is incorrect (d) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement- Republic
II is correct
8. Which of the following are regarded as the (d) The Fundamental Duties
main feature of “Rule of Law”? (2018)
1. Limitation of power 11.
The distribution of powers between
2. Equality before the law the Centre and the States in the Indian
Constitution is based on the scheme
3.
People’s responsibility to the provided in the (2012)
Government
(a) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909
4. Liberty and civil rights
(b) Montagu-Chelmsford Act, 1919
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below: (c) Government of India Act, 1935
(c) Right to Constitutional Remedies (b) not a part of the Constitution and has
no legal effect either
(d) Right to Equality
(c) a part of the Constitution and has the
same legal effect as any other part
16. Which part of the Constitution of India (d) a part of the Constitution but has no
declares the ideal of a Welfare State? legal effect independently of other parts
(2020)
(a) Directive Principles of State Policy
20. With reference to the provisions contained
(b) Fundamental Rights in Part IV of the Constitution of India, which
(c) Preamble of the following statements is/are correct?
(d) Seventh Schedule (2020)
1. They shall be enforceable by courts.
17. Consider the following statements: (2020) 2. They shall not be enforceable by any
court.
1. The Constitution of India defines its
‘basic structure’ in terms of federalism, 3. The principles laid down in this part are
21. Under which Schedule of the Constitution 3. Protection of the interests of minorities
of India can the transfer of tribal land to 4. Prohibition of employment of children
private parties for mining be declared null in factories and mines
and void? (2019) Select the correct answer using the code
(a) Third Schedule given below:
(b) Fifth Schedule (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) Ninth Schedule (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) Twelfth Schedule (c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
22.
The Ninth Schedule was introduced in
the Constitution of India during the prime 26. Which one of the following is not a feature
ministership of: (2019) of Indian federalism? (2017)
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru (a) There is an independent judiciary in
(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri India.
(c) Indira Gandhi (b)
Powers have been clearly divided
(d) Morarji Desai between the Centre and the States.
(c) The federating units have been given
unequal representation in the Rajya
23. Which Article of the Constitution of India Sabha.
safeguards one’s right to marry the person
of one’s choice? (2019) (d) It is the result of an agreement among
the federating units.
(a) Article 19
(b) Article 21
27. Which of the following statements is/are
(c) Article 25 true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian
(d) Article 29 citizen? (2017)
24. Right to vote and to be elected in India is a 1. A legislative process has been provided
(2017) to enforce these duties.
(a) Fundamental Right 2. They are correlative to legal duties.
(b) Natural Right Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
(a) 1 only
28.
Which one of the following objectives
is not embodied in the Preamble to the 32. Consider the following statements: (2017)
Constitution of India? (2017) With reference to the Constitution of India,
(a) Liberty of thought the Directive Principles of State Policy
constitute limitations upon
(b) Economic liberty
1. legislative function.
(c) Liberty of expression
2. executive function.
(d) Liberty of belief
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
29. In the context of India, which one of the (a) 1 only
following is the correct relationship
between Rights and Duties? (2017) (b) 2 only
(b)
Rights are personal and hence (d) Neither 1 nor 2
independent of society and Duties.
(c) Rights, not Duties, are important for the 33. Which one of the following statements is
advancement of the personality of the correct? (2017)
citizen. (a) Rights are claims of the State against
(d) Duties, not Rights, are important for the the citizens.
stability of the State. (b)
Rights are privileges that are
incorporated in the Constitution of a
30. One of the implications of equality in State.
society is the absence of (2017) (c) Rights are claims of the citizens against
(a) Privileges the State.
(c) determine the powers, authorities, and (a) Preamble of the Constitution
responsibilities of Panchayats (b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) protect the interests of all the border (c) Fundamental Duties
States (d) Ninth Schedule
37.
Consider the following statements 40. ‘Economic Justice’ as one of the objectives
regarding the Directive Principles of State of Indian Constitution has been provided in
Policy: (2015) (2013)
1. The Principles spell out the socio- (a) The Preamble and Fundamental Rights
economic democracy in the country.
(b)
The Preamble and the Directive
2. The provisions contained in these Principles of State Policy
Principles are not enforceable by any
court. (c)
The Fundamental Rights and the
Directive Principles of State Policy
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (d) None of the above
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 41. According to the Constitution of India,
which of the following are fundamental for
(c) Both 1 and 2 the governance of the country? (2013)
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Fundamental Duties
38.
Consider the following statements: A (c) Directive Principles of State Policy
Constitutional Government is one which
(2014) (d) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental
Duties
1. A Constitutional Government is one
which places the effective restrictions 42. Consider the following provisions under
on individual liberty in the interest of the Directive Principles of State Policy
State Authority. as enshrined in the Constitution of India:
(2012)
Which of the above are the Gandhian Select the correct answer using the code
Principles that are reflected in the Directive given below:
Principles of State Policy? (a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
45. Consider the following: (2011)
43. Which of the following provisions of the 1. Right to education
Constitution of India have a bearing on
2. Right to equal access to public service
Education? (2012)
3. Right to food
1. Directive Principles of State Policy
Which of the above is/are Human Right/
2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies
Human Rights under “Universal Declaration
3. Fifth Schedule of Human Rights”?
4. Sixth Schedule (a) 1 only
5. Seventh Schedule (b) 1 and 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code (c) 3 only
given below:
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3, 4 and 5 only
46.
Under the Constitution of India, which
(c) 1, 2 and 5 only one of the following is not a Fundamental
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Duty? (2011)
(a) To vote in public elections
44. Which of the following is/are among the (b) To develop the scientific temper
Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down (c) To safeguard public property
in the Indian Constitution? (2012)
(d) To abide by the Constitution and respect
1. To preserve the rich heritage of our its ideals
composite culture
Option (b) is correct: The Supreme Court has Option (a) is correct: A state is a form of human
recently held that a citizen’s right to own association distinguished from other social
private property is a human right. The Right to groups based on its purpose of formation. The
Property is a legal right available to any person. state is a political organization of society. The
Article 300-A provides that no person shall be elements of a state are:
deprived of his property save by authority of y People, i.e., the community of persons
law. “ Since the article says that no person permanently living there.
shall be deprived, the statement, “legal rights y Government
are available to citizens only”, is not correct.
y Territory: Demarcated boundary that
separates one state from the other.
7. Answer: (c) y Sovereignty: It has an independent say in
Option (c) is correct: In K. S. Puttaswamy Case all domestic and external decision-making.
(2017), the Supreme Court of India has held
that the right to privacy is a Fundamental
10. Answer: (a)
Right and is protected under Article 21
of the Constitution of India. Privacy is a Option (a) is correct: The establishment of an
constitutionally protected right that deals with independent judiciary necessarily indicates
a guarantee of life and liberty in Article 21 of the federal character of Indian polity.
the Constitution. It includes the preservation Following are the federal features of the Indian
of personal intimacies, sanctity of family life, Constitution:
marriage, procreation, the home and sexual
y Dual polity consists of the Union at the
orientation. It connotes a right to be left
Centre and the states at the periphery.
alone. It safeguards individual autonomy and
recognises one’s ability to control vital aspects y Written Constitution
27. Answer: (d) Option (a) is correct: The Rights and Duties of
the citizens are correlative and inseparable.
Fundamental Duties were incorporated in the Rights are what we want others to do for us,
Constitution at the suggestion of the Swaran whereas duties are those acts which we should
Singh Committee in the year 1976 through the perform for others. Thus, a right comes with
42nd amendment. Later in 2002, one more an obligation to show respect for the rights of
fundamental duty was added. There are, in others. The obligations that accompany rights
total, 11 Fundamental Duties enshrined in are in the form of duties.
Article 51 A of the Constitution.
Our duties and the consequences we bear for
Statement 1 is not correct: Though failing to keep them therefore exist as a self-
recommended by the Committee, no legislative contained whole. They follow a simple logic:
process has been provided to enforce these that peaceful co-existence requires a degree
duties. They are non-justiciable in nature, like of self-sacrifice, and that, if necessary, this
the Directive Principles. must be enforced through the set of sanctions.
Statement 2 is not correct: One cannot move Rights, on the other hand, follow a different
to the court if fundamental duties are violated; principle entirely. The twin principles of anti-
hence there is no legal sanction against their dehumanisation and anti-hierarchy reveal the
violation and are not correlative to legal duties. transformative purpose of the fundamental
rights chapter: the recognition that true
democracy could not exist without ensuring
28. Answer: (b)
that at a basic level, the dignity and equality of
Option (b) is correct: Economic Liberty is individuals was protected, both from the state
not embodied in the Preamble of the Indian as well as from social majorities. It was only
Constitution. It provides for the liberty of with these guarantees could an individual rise
thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship. from the status of subject to that of citizen.
The Preamble of Indian Constitution:
WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly 30. Answer:(a)
resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN
Option (a) is correct: The term ‘equality’
SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC
means the absence of special privileges to
and to secure to all its citizens:
any section of the society and the provision
JUSTICE, social, economic, and political of adequate opportunities for all individuals
LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith, without any discrimination. The Preamble of
and worship the Indian Constitution secures all citizens
of India equality of status and opportunity.
EQUALITY of status and of opportunity and to
y Article 42: To make provision for just and y To value and preserve the rich heritage of
humane conditions of work and maternity the country’s composite culture.
relief. y To protect and improve the natural
y Article 43: To secure a living wage, a decent environment, including forests, lakes, rivers
standard of life and social and cultural and wildlife and to have compassion for
opportunities for all workers. living creatures.
y Article 43A: To take steps to secure the y To develop scientific temper, humanism
participation of workers in the management and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
of industries. y To safeguard public property and to abjure
y Article 47: To raise the level of nutrition violence.
and the standard of living of people and to y To strive towards excellence in all spheres
improve public health. of individual and collective activity so that
the nation constantly rises to higher levels
of endeavour and achievement.
35. Answer: (d)
y To provide opportunities for education to
The provisions to uphold and protect the his child or ward, between the age of six
Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India are and fourteen years. This duty was added by
y Sixth Schedule: The Constitution, under y To cherish and follow the noble ideals that
Sixth Schedule, contains special provisions inspired the national struggle for freedom.
for the administration of tribal areas in y To uphold and protect the sovereignty,
the four north-eastern states of Assam, unity and integrity of India.
Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. The y To defend the country and render national
District Council in these four states can service called upon to do so.
establish, construct or manage primary
y To promote harmony and the spirit of
schools, dispensaries, markets, ferries,
common brotherhood amongst all the
fisheries, roads and so on in the district.
people of India transcending religious,
y Seventh Schedule: The Constitution linguistic, and regional or sectional
provides for a three-fold distribution of diversities and to renounce practices
legislative subjects between the Centre derogatory to the dignity of women.
and the states, viz., List-I (the Union List),
y To value and preserve the rich heritage of
List-II (the State List) and List-III (the
the country’s composite culture.
Concurrent List) in the Seventh Schedule.
Earlier education as an item was present in y To protect and improve the natural
the state list. The 42nd Amendment Act of environment including forests, lakes, rivers
1976 transferred education to Concurrent and wildlife and to have compassion for
1. Consider the following statements : (2023) How many of the above statements are
Statement-I : correct?
Legislature 375
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the election of a candidate as Deputy against the Council of Ministers
Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from 3. To impeach the President of India
either the principal opposition party or
the ruling party. Select the correct answer using the code
given below :
3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power
as of the Speaker when presiding over (a) 1 and 2
the sitting of the House and no appeal (b) 2 only
lies against his rulings. (c) 1 and 3
4. The well established parliamentary (d) 3 only
practice regarding the appointment
of Deputy Speaker is that the motion
is moved by the Speaker and duly 7. Consider the following statements : (2022)
seconded by the Prime Minister. 1. A bill amending the Constitution
Which of the statements given above are requires a prior recommendation of the
correct ? President of India.
(a) 1 and 3 only 2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is
presented to the President of India, it is
(b) 1, 2 and 3
obligatory for the President of India to
(c) 3 and 4 only give his/her assent.
(d) 2 and 4 only 3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be
passed by both the Lok Sabha and the
5. With reference to anti-defection law in Rajya Sabha by a special majority and
India, consider the following statements : there is no provision for joint sitting.
(2022) Which of the statements given above are
1. The law specifies that a nominated correct ?
legislator cannot join any political party (a) 1 and 2 only
within six months of being appointed to (b) 2 and 3 only
the House.
(c) 1 and 3 only
2. The law does not provide any time-
(d) 1,2 and 3
frame within which the presiding officer
has to decide a defection case.
Which of the statements given above is/are 8. Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister
correct ? also places other documents before the
Parliament which include ‘The Macro
(a) 1 only
Economic Framework Statement’. The
(b) 2 only aforesaid document is presented because
(c) Both 1 and 2 this is mandated by (2020)
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Long standing parliamentary convention
(b) Article 112 and Article 110 (1) of the
6. Which of the following is/are the exclusive Constitution of India
power(s) of Lok Sabha ? (2022) (c) Article 113 of the Constitution of India
1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency (d) Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility
2. To pass a motion of no-confidence and Budget Management Act, 2003
376 Legislature
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9. A Parliamentary System of Government is 12. Consider the following statements: (2019)
one in which (2020) 1. The Parliament (Prevention of
(a) all political parties in the Parliament are Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts
represented in the Government several posts from disqualification on
(b) the Government is responsible to the the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
Parliament and can be removed by it 2. The above-mentioned Act was amended
(c) the Government is elected by the five times.
people and can be removed by them. 3. The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined
(d)
the Government is chosen by the in the Constitution of India.
Parliament but cannot be removed by it Which of the statements given above is/are
before completion of a fixed-term correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
10. Consider the following statements: (2020) (b) 3 only
1. According to the Constitution of India, (c) 2 and 3 only
a person who is eligible to vote can (d) 1, 2 and 3
be made a minister in a state for six
months even if he/she is not a member
of the Legislature of that state. 13. Consider the following statements: (2018)
2. According to the Representation of 1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single
People Act, 1951, a person convicted largest party in the opposition was the
of a criminal offence and sentenced Swatantra Party.
to imprisonment for five years 2. In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the
is permanently disqualified from Opposition” was recognised for the first
contesting an election even after his time in 1969.
release from prison.
3. In the Lok Sabha, if the party does not
Which of the statements given above is/are have a minimum of 75 members, its
correct? leader cannot be recognised as the
(a) 1 only leader of opposition.
(b) 2 only Which of the following statements given is/
(c) Both 1 and 2 are correct?
11. Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok (c) 2 and 3 only
Sabha in (2020) (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) the matter of creating new All India
Services 14. Consider the following statements: (2018)
(b) amending the Constitution 1. Parliament of India can place a
(c) the removal of the government particular law in the Ninth Schedule of
(d) making cut motions the Constitution of India.
2. The validity of law placed in the Ninth
Schedule cannot be examined by any
Legislature 377
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court and no Judgement can be made to imposition, abolition, remission,
on it. alteration or regulation of any tax.
Which of the statements given above is/are (b) A Money Bill has the provisions for the
correct? custody of the Consolidated Fund of
(a) 1 only India or the Contingency Fund of India.
(b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(c) Committee on rules
(a) 1 only
(d) Business Advisory Committee
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
16. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic
part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the following in the Constitution
of India correctly and appropriately imply 19. Consider the following statements: (2017)
the above statement? (2018)
1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State
(a) Article 14 and the provisions under the Assembly, the winning candidate must
42nd amendment to the Constitution. get at least 50 per cent of the votes
(b) Article 17 and the Directive Principle of polled to be declared elected.
the State Policy in Part IV 2. According to the provisions laid down in
(c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha,
in Part III the Speaker's post goes to the majority
(d) Article 24 and provisions under the 44th party and the Deputy Speaker's to the
Amendments to the Constitution Opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
17.
Regarding Money Bill, which of the
following statements is not correct? (2018) (a) 1 only
378 Legislature
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(d) Neither 1 nor 2 which the election is to be contested.
(c) any citizen of India whose name appears
20. Out of the following statements, choose the in the electoral roll of a constituency.
one that brings out the principle underlying (d) any citizen of India.
the Cabinet form of Government: (2017)
(a) An arrangement for minimising criticism 23. Which of the following statements is/are
against the Government whose correct? (2016)
responsibilities are complex and hard
to carry out to the satisfaction of all. 1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses
on its prorogation.
(b) A mechanism for speeding up the
activities of the Government whose 2. A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which
responsibilities are increasing day by has not been passed by the Lok Sabha,
day. shall not lapse on the dissolution of the
Lok Sabha.
(c)
A mechanism of parliamentary
democracy for ensuring collective Select the correct answer using the code
responsibility of the Government to the given below.
people. (a) 1 only
(d) A device for strengthening the hands of (b) 2 only
the head of the Government whose hold (c) Both 1 and 2
over the people is in a state of decline.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Legislature 379
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(d) Council of Ministers is responsible to (d) 1, 2 and 3
the Lok Sabha
29.
Which one of the Schedules of the
26. Consider the following statements: (2015) Constitution of India contains provisions
1. The Legislative Council of a State in India regarding the anti-defection? (2014)
can be larger in size than half of the (a) Second Schedule
Legislative Assembly of that particular (b) Fifth Schedule
State.
(c) Eighth Schedule
2. The Governor of a State nominates the
Chairman of the Legislative Council of (d) Tenth Schedule
that particular State.
Which of the statements given above is/are 30. Which of the following committees is the
correct? largest Committee of the Parliament?
(a) 1 only (2014)
(b)
three-fourths majority of member 2. A Motion of No-Confidence can be
present and voting introduced in the Lok Sabha only.
(c) two-thirds majority of the House Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(d) absolute majority of the House
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
28. Consider the following statements: (2015)
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to
reject or to amend a Money Bill. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
380 Legislature
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Which of the statements given above is/are 35.
What will follow if a Money Bill is
correct? substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?
(a) 1 only (2013)
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with
the Bill, accepting or not accepting the
(c) 3 only
recommendations of the Rajya Sabha
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill
further
33. In the context of India, which of the following (c) The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the
principles is/are implied institutionally in Rajya Sabha for reconsideration
the parliamentary government? (2013)
(d) The President may call a joint sitting for
1. Members of the Cabinet are Members passing the Bill
of the Parliament.
2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy
36. Consider the following statements: (2013)
confidence in the Parliament.
1. An amendment to the Constitution of
3. The Cabinet is headed by the Head of
India can be initiated by an introduction
the State.
of a Bill in the Lok Sabha only.
Select the correct answer using the code
2. If such an amendment seeks to make
given below:
changes in the federal character of
(a) 1 and 2 only the Constitution, the amendment also
(b) 3 only requires to be ratified by the Legislature
of all the States of India.
(c) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) 1, 2 and 3
correct?
(a) 1 only
34. Consider the following statements: (2013)
(b) 2 only
1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman
(c) Both 1 and 2
of the Rajya Sabha are not the Members
of that House. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Legislature 381
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(2012) (c) to allow a reduction of specific amount
1. He/She holds the office during the in demand for grant
pleasure of the President. (d) to postpone the proceedings to check
2. He/She need not be a member of the the inappropriate or violent behaviour
House at the time of his/her election on the part of some members
but has to become a member of the
House within six months from the date 41. Which of the following are the methods of
of his/her election. Parliamentary control over public finance
3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter of in India? (2012)
his/her resignation has to be addressed 1. Placing Annual Financial Statement
to the Deputy Speaker. before the Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are 2.
Withdrawal of moneys from
correct? Consolidated Fund of India only after
(a) 1 and 2 only passing the Appropriation Bill.
(b) 3 only 3. Provisions of supplementary grants and
(c) 1, 2 and 3 vote-on-account.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 42. Which of the following special powers have
been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the
(c) 1 and 3
Constitution of India? (2012)
(d) None
(a) To change the existing territory of
a State and to change the name of a
40. In the Parliament of India, the purpose of State.
an Adjournment Motion is: (2012) (b) To pass a resolution empowering the
(a) to allow a discussion on a definite Parliament to make laws in the State
matter of urgent public importance List and to create one or more All India
Services.
(b)
to let opposition members, collect
information from the ministers (c) To amend the election procedure of
the President and to determine the
382 Legislature
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pension of the President after his/her (b) Public Account
retirement. (c) Consolidated Fund of India
(d) To determine the functions of the (d) Deposits and Advances Fund
Election Commission and to determine
the number of Election Commissioners.
46.
When the annual Union Budget is not
passed by the Lok Sabha, (2011)
43. A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the
Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting of the (a) the Budget is modified and presented
Parliament during the passage of (2012) again
45.
All revenues received by the Union (a) 1 only
Government by way of taxes and other (b) 2 only
receipts for the conduct of Government (c) Both 1 and 2
business are credited to the (2011)
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Contingency Fund of India
Legislature 383
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3 Legislature-Explanation
384 Legislature-Explanation
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shall in these circumstances be deemed to be President is to be impeached for violation of
references to any such person so presiding. the Constitution, the charge shall be preferred
Statement 4 is incorrect by either House of Parliament. Impeachment
resolution must be passed by both the houses
RULES OF PROCEDURE AND CONDUCT OF
separately 2/3rd votes of total membership.
BUSINESS IN LOK SABHA: The motions which
have been moved and duly seconded shall
be put one by one in the order in which they 7. Answer: (b)
have been moved, and decided, if necessary, Statement 1 is not correct: Constitution
by division. If any motion is carried, the person Amendment Bills are not treated as Money Bills
presiding shall, without putting later motions, or Financial Bills. Accordingly, the President’s
declare that the member proposed in the recommendation under Articles 117 and 274 of
motion which has been carried, has been the Constitution with regard to these Bills is
chosen as the Deputy Speaker of the House. not asked for.
Statement 2 is correct: Article 368:
5. Answer: (b) Notwithstanding anything in this Constitution,
Statement 1 is not correct: Schedule 10: Parliament may in exercise of its constituent
A nominated member of a House shall be power amend by way of addition, variation or
disqualified for being a member of the House repeal any provision of this Constitution in
if he joins any political party after the expiry of accordance with the procedure laid down in
six months from the date on which he takes this Article.
his seat after complying with the requirements An amendment of this Constitution may be
of Article 99 or, as the case may be, Article 188. initiated only by the introduction of a Bill for
Statement 2 is correct: Schedule 10: If any the purpose in either House of Parliament, and
question arises as to whether a member of a when the Bill is passed in each House by a
House has become subject to disqualification majority of the total membership of that House
under this Schedule, the question shall be and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of
referred for the decision of the Chairman or, as the members of that House present and voting,
the case may be, the Speaker of such House it shall be presented to the President who
and his decision shall be final. shall give his assent to the Bill and thereupon
the Constitution shall stand amended in
accordance with the terms of the Bill.
6. Answer: (b)
Statement 3 is correct: In case of any
Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 352: Every
disagreement between the two Houses of
Proclamation issued under this article shall be
Parliament on a Constitution Amendment Bill,
laid before each House of Parliament
there cannot be a joint sitting of the Houses
Article 356: Every Proclamation under this of Parliament on the Bill as article 368 of the
article shall be laid before each House of Constitution requires each House to pass the
Parliament. Bill by the prescribed special majority.
Article 360: A Proclamation issued under this
shall be laid before each House of Parliament.
8. Answer: (d)
Statement 2 is correct: Article 75(3): The
Option (d) is correct: The Macro Economic
Council of Ministers shall be collectively
Framework Statement is presented to
responsible to the House of the People.
the Parliament as mandated by the Fiscal
Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 61: When a Responsibility and Budget Management Act,
Legislature-Explanation 385
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2003. The FRBM Rules came into force from be a member of the Legislature of a state can
July 5, 2004. be made a Minister even when they are not
Every year, a macro-economic framework the members of the state Legislature (Article
statement is presented before Parliament at 164). Voter eligibility is not mentioned in
the time of the Union Budget presentation. This the Constitution. This question is related to
is under Section 3(5) of the Fiscal Responsibility checking the concept rather than fact.
and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003. Statement 2 is not correct: Section 8 of RPA,
The FRBM Act instructs the government to 1951 states the grounds for disqualification
assess growth prospects for the economy with on conviction of certain offences pursuant to
regards to specific underlying assumptions. Section 8 of RPA, 1951, in case the candidate
The statement contains an overview of is convicted of certain offences specified and
the economy. This includes an assessment sentenced for imprisonment for not less than
regarding the GDP growth rate, fiscal balance two years then the person will be disqualified
of the central government and the external to contest the election from the date of the
sector balance of the economy. conviction and will continue to be disqualified
for further six years even after the release.
9. Answer: (b)
11. Answer: (b)
Option (b) is correct: In a Parliamentary System
of Government, the Government is responsible Option (b) is correct: Both Rajya Sabha and
to the Parliament and can be removed by it. Lok Sabha have the powers to amend the
The Government is responsible collectively to Constitution. To amend the Constitution a bill
the Lok Sabha and it stays in power as long may originate either in the Rajya Sabha or in
as it enjoys the confidence of the House. The the Lok Sabha. The amendment cannot be
Government can be removed by the House if a effective unless it is passed by both the Houses
No-Confidence Motion is passed. with the required majority. The procedure of
amendment in the Constitution is laid down
There are two forms of Government,
in Part XX (Article 368) of the Constitution of
Parliamentary and Presidential. In the
India.
Parliamentary System, the political party
winning the majority seats in the Parliament Additional Information:
makes the Government and elects a person y With regards to the creation of All India
from among themselves as the Prime Minister Services, Rajya Sabha has special powers
who is the Head of the Government. In this (Article 312) such that if Rajya Sabha
system, the legislative and executive body is passing a resolution by a majority of
of Government are closely related, while the 2/3rd of the members present and voting,
judiciary is independent of the other two bodies Parliament may, by law, create one or more
of Government. The executive is accountable All India Services in national interest.
to the legislature. y As per Article 75, the Government (Council
of Ministers) is collectively responsible to
10. Answer: (a) the Lok Sabha. Therefore, Lok Sabha has
greater power as compared to Rajya Sabha.
Statement 1 is correct: One who is eligible to
vote is not necessarily eligible to be a minister y Cut Motions, which are meant to reduce
(for e.g., on grounds of age). Question used the amount allocated to the ministries in
the term “a voter can” and not “every voter”, the demand for grants, can be made only
here many voters who meet the eligibility to in Lok Sabha. Rajya Sabha can only make
recommendations in this regard.
386 Legislature-Explanation
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12. Answer: (a) 13. Answer: (b)
Statement 1 is correct: The Parliament Statement 1 is not correct: The first Lok Sabha
(Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 elections in India were held in 1951-52. Indian
exempts several posts from disqualification on National Congress won with the sweeping
the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’. The posts are: majority scoring 364 out of 489 seats. The
y Ministers in the Government of India and Communist Party of India emerged as the
States. largest party in the opposition winning a total
of 16 seats. The Swatantra Party on the other
y Whips in the Parliament.
hand was formed in 1959. It was founded by C.
y Parliamentary Secretary and Under Rajagopalachari who was dissatisfied with the
Secretaries. Indian National Congress’s socialist agenda.
y Officers of the National Cadet Corps and Statement 2 is correct: In parliamentary form
the Territorial Army. government the Leader of the Opposition has
y Chairman and Members of Advisory a significant role to play. His function involves
Committees set up by the Government. providing constructive criticism of government
policies. In 1969, when Indira Gandhi was the
Statement 2 is correct: This act has been
Prime Minister, the Congress split to form the
amended five times 1960, 1992, 1993, 2006 and
Indian National Congress (Requisitionists) and
in 2013.
the Indian National Congress (Organisation). The
Statement 3 is not correct: The word ‘office’ Leader of INC(O), Ram Subhag Singh, became
has not been defined in the Constitution the first person to be formally recognised as
or the Representation of the People Act of LoP in the Lok Sabha. Leaders of Opposition in
1951. But the definition has evolved over the the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha were accorded
years with interpretations made in various statutory recognition in 1977.
court judgments. An office of profit has been
Statement 3 is not correct: The leader of
interpreted to be a position that brings to the
the largest opposition party having not less
office-holder some financial gain, or advantage,
than one-tenth seats of the total strength of
or benefit. The amount of such profit is
the house is recognised as the Leader of the
immaterial.
Opposition in that house.
In 1964, the Supreme Court ruled that the test
for determining whether a person holds an office Elimination Technique: The Swatantra
of profit is the test of appointment. Several Party was formed in 1959 and first Lok
factors are considered in this determination Sabha elections were held in 1951-52.
which are as follows: The leader of the largest opposition party
having not less than one-tenth seats of the
y whether the government is the appointing
total strength of the house is recognised
authority,
as the Leader of the Opposition in that
y whether the government has the power to house.
terminate the appointment,
y whether the government determines the
14. Answer: (a)
remuneration,
Statement 1 is correct: The Ninth Schedule
y what is the source of remuneration, and
contains a list of central and state laws. The
y the power that comes with the position. Schedule became a part of the Constitution in
1951 when the document was amended for the
first time. It was created by the new article
31B, which along with 31A were inserted in the
Legislature-Explanation 387
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Constitution to protect laws related to agrarian recognized that the Right to Privacy includes
reforms and for abolishing the Zamindari autonomy over personal decisions, as in beef
system. At present there are around 284 laws consumption; bodily integrity, as in reproductive
in the Ninth Schedule. Thus, the Parliament can rights; and protection of personal information,
place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of as in the privacy of health records.
the Constitution of India.
Statement 2 is not correct: In a significant 17. Answer: (c)
judgement delivered in I.R. Coelho case (2007),
the Supreme Court ruled that there could not Option (c) is correct: Article 110 of the
be any blanket immunity from judicial review of Constitution deals with the definition of Money
laws included in the Ninth Schedule. The court Bills. It states that a bill is deemed to be a
held that judicial review is a ‘basic feature’ of Money Bill if it contains ‘only’ provisions dealing
the Constitution, and it could not be taken with all or any of the following matters:
away by putting a law in the Ninth Schedule. y The imposition, abolition, remission,
alteration, or regulation of any tax.
388 Legislature-Explanation
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a resolution can be moved only after giving 14 the voice of the people, where the members
days advance notice. are elected directly by people of India.
Statement 2 is not correct: Whenever the
Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker 21. Answer: (d)
does not vacate his office and continues till
the newly elected Legislative Assembly meets. Statement 1 is not correct: A Private member’s
bill is a bill introduced by any Member of
Parliament in either House of Parliament other
19. Answer: (d) than a minister. Its introduction requires one
Statement 1 is not correct: India has the month’s notice. Its rejection by the House has
first-past-the-post (FPTP) system (simple no implication on the parliamentary confidence
majority system). In this voting method, the in the government. A bill introduced by a
candidate with the highest number of votes Minister is known as a public bill.
in a constituency is declared the winner. This Statement 2 is not correct: Around 14 private
system is used in India in the direct elections members bills have been passed since 1952.
to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative The last private member bill to become a
Assemblies. It does not always allow for a truly law was way back in 1970. Most recently (as
representative mandate, as the candidate could per 2018 records), the Rights of Transgender
win despite securing less than half the votes in Persons Bill, 2014, was passed by the Rajya
an election. In 2014, the National Democratic Sabha in 2015, but remains stuck in the Lok
Alliance won 336 seats with only 38.5% of the Sabha. It was brought in by DMK MP Tiruchi
popular vote. The winning candidate does not Siva, the bill has not been converted into a law.
need to get at least 50 per cent of the votes
polled to be declared elected.
22. Answer: (c)
Statement 2 is not correct: Up to the 10th
Lok Sabha, both the Speaker and the Deputy The Parliament has laid down the following
Speaker were usually from the ruling party. After additional qualifications in the Representation
the 11th Lok Sabha, there was a consensus (no of People Act (1951).
provisions) that the Speaker comes from the y He must be registered as an elector for
ruling party (or ruling alliance), and the post of a parliamentary constituency. This is the
Deputy Speaker goes to the main opposition same in the case of both the Rajya Sabha
party. Currently, in the 17th Lok Sabha, there and the Lok Sabha. The requirement that
is no Deputy Speaker. Hence, it is just a a candidate contesting an election to the
convention and not a provision. Rajya Sabha from a particular state should
be an elector in that state was dispensed
with in 2003. In 2006, the Supreme Court
20. Answer: (c) upheld the Constitutional validity of this
Article 74 states that there shall be a Council change. (Option (c) is correct)
of Ministers with the Prime Minister to aid and y He must be a member of a scheduled
advise the President. caste or scheduled tribe in any state or
Option (c) is correct: The fundamental principle union territory if he wants to contest a seat
underlying the working of the parliamentary reserved for them. However, a member of
system of government is a principle of collective scheduled castes or scheduled tribes can
responsibility. Article 75 clearly states that the also contest a seat not reserved for them.
Council of Ministers is collectively responsible
to the Lok Sabha, whereas the Lok Sabha is
Legislature-Explanation 389
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23. Answer: (b) supported by two-thirds of the members
Statement 1 is not correct: Prorogation not only present and voting.
terminates a sitting but also a session of the y The Parliament acquires the power to
House. Prorogation does not affect the bills or legislate with respect to matters in the
any other business pending before the House. State List, while a proclamation of national
However, all pending notices (other than those emergency is in operation.
for introducing bills) lapse on prorogation and y When the legislatures of two or more states
fresh notices have to be given for the next pass resolutions requesting the Parliament
session. to enact laws on a matter in the State List,
Statement 2 is correct: In case of dissolution then the Parliament can make laws for
of Lok Sabha (Rajya Sabha being the permanent regulating that matter. A law so enacted
house is not subjected to dissolution) the applies only to those states which have
position with respect to lapsing of bills is as passed the resolutions.
follows: y The Parliament can make laws on any
y A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses matter in the State List for implementing
(whether originating in the Lok Sabha or the international treaties, agreements, or
transmitted to it by the Rajya Sabha). conventions.
y A bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending y When the President’s rule is imposed in a
in the Rajya Sabha lapses. state, the Parliament becomes empowered
y A bill not passed by the two Houses due to make laws with respect to any matter in
to disagreement and if the president has the State List in relation to that state.
notified the holding of a joint sitting before
the dissolution of Lok Sabha, does not 25. Answer: (d)
lapse.
India has a Parliamentary System of
y A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha but not Government. Article 74 and Article 75 deal with
passed by the Lok Sabha does not lapse. the Parliamentary System at the Centre and
y A bill passed by both Houses but pending Article 163 and Article 164 deal with the States.
assent of the president does not lapse. The features of Parliamentary Government in
y A bill passed by both Houses but returned India are:
by the president for reconsideration of y Presence of nominal and real executives.
Houses does not lapse. y Majority party rule.
y Collective responsibility of the executive
24. Answer: (d) to the legislature: This is the bedrock
Option (d) is correct: Constitution empowers principle of parliamentary government. The
the Parliament to make laws on any matter ministers are collectively responsible to the
enumerated in the State List under the Parliament in general and to the Lok Sabha
following five extraordinary circumstances: in particular (Article 75). The principle of
collective responsibility implies that the
y If the Rajya Sabha declares that it is
Lok Sabha can remove the ministry (i.e.,
necessary in the national interest that
Council of Ministers headed by the Prime
Parliament should make laws on a matter
Minister) from office by passing a vote of no
in the State List, then the Parliament
confidence. [Option (d) is correct]
becomes competent to make laws on
that matter. Such a resolution must be y Membership of the Ministers in the
Legislature.
390 Legislature-Explanation
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y Leadership of the Prime Minister or the the other House:
Chief Minister. y if the bill is rejected by the other House.
y Dissolution of the Lower House (Lok Sabha y if the Houses have finally disagreed as to
or Assembly). the Amendments to be made in the Bill.
y if more than six months have elapsed from
26. Answer: (d) the date of the receipt of the Bill by the
Statement 1 is not correct: The maximum other House without the Bill being passed
strength of the Council is fixed at one-third by it.
of the total strength of the Assembly, and the Option (a) is correct: The President can
minimum strength is fixed at 40. The size of the summon both the Houses to meet in a Joint
Council depends on the size of the Assembly Sitting for the purpose of deliberating and
of the concerned state. voting on the Bill. The provision of Joint Sitting
There is no uniformity in the organisation of is applicable to ordinary Bills or Financial Bills
State Legislatures. At present (2021), only six only and not to Money Bills or Constitutional
states have two Houses (bicameral). These Amendment Bills. In the case of a Money Bill,
are Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, the Lok Sabha has overriding powers, while
Bihar, Maharashtra and Karnataka. The Jammu a Constitutional Amendment Bill must be
and Kashmir Legislative Council was abolished passed by each House separately. The Bill in a
by the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, Joint Sitting is passed by a simple majority of
2019. members present and voting.
Legislature-Explanation 391
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Lok Sabha can either accept or reject the 30. Answer: (b)
recommendations made by Rajya Sabha in Option (b) is correct: The Committee of
this regard. (Statement 1 is correct) Estimates is the largest committee of the
y The Rajya Sabha has no power to vote on Parliament. All members of the Committee are
the Demand for Grants; it is the exclusive from Lok Sabha only. The Rajya Sabha has no
privilege of the Lok Sabha. (Statement 2 is representation in this Committee.
correct) y The members of the Committee are elected
Statement 3 is not correct: Article 112 states by the Lok Sabha every year from amongst
that the President shall, in respect of every its own members, according to the
financial year, cause to be laid before both the principles of proportional representation by
Houses of Parliament a statement of estimated means of a single transferable vote. Thus,
receipts and expenditure of the Government all parties get due representation in it.
of India for that year, which implies that y The term of office is one year.
Rajya Sabha can discuss the Annual Financial
Statement. y A Minister cannot be elected as a Member
of the Committee.
y The Chairman of the Committee is appointed
29. Answer: (d) by the Speaker from amongst its Members
Option (d) is correct: The Anti-Defection Law and he is invariably from the Ruling Party.
sought to prevent such political defections y The function of the Committee is to
which may be due to reward of office or other examine the estimates included in the
similar considerations. The Tenth Schedule Budget and suggest ‘economies’ in public
was inserted in the Constitution in 1985. It lays expenditure. Hence, it has been described
down the process by which legislators may be as a ‘Continuous Economy Committee’.
disqualified on grounds of defection by the
Presiding Officer of a legislature based on a Additional Information:
petition by any other Member of the House. y Public Accounts Committee: At present,
y A legislator is deemed to have defected if he the Committee consists of 22 members (15
either voluntarily gives up the membership from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya
of his party or disobeys the directives of Sabha). The function of the Committee is
the party leadership on a vote and has not to examine the annual audit reports of the
received pardon from the political party Comptroller and Auditor General of India
within fifteen days (CAG), which are laid before the Parliament
by the President.
y The Law applies to both Parliament and
State Assemblies. y Committee on Public Undertaking: It has
22 members (15 from the Lok Sabha and
Additional Information: 7 from the Rajya Sabha). Function of the
y Second Schedule contains provisions Committee is to examine the reports and
related to allowances, privileges, and accounts of public undertakings.
emoluments of some constitutional bodies. y Committee on Petitions: It examines
y Fifth Schedule contains provision in relation petitions on Bills and on matters of general
to administration and control of Scheduled public importance. It also entertains
Areas and Scheduled Tribes. representations from individuals and
y Eighth Schedule contains 22 languages associations on matters pertaining to Union
recognised in the Constitution. Subjects.
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31. Answer: (c) the audit report of CAG on it. (Statement 3
Statement 1 is correct: The Indian Constitution is Correct)
does not mention No-Confidence Motion. y To examine the accounts of state
However, Article 75 specifies that the Council corporations, trading concerns and
of Ministers shall be collectively responsible manufacturing projects and the audit
to the House of the People. The implication of report of CAG on them (except those public
this Article is that the majority of Lok Sabha undertakings which are allotted to the
MPs must not be against the Prime Minister Committee on Public Undertakings).
and his Cabinet. y To examine the accounts of autonomous
Statement 2 is correct: Article 75 of the and semi-autonomous bodies, the audit of
Constitution says that the Council of Ministers which is conducted by the CAG.
shall be collectively responsible to the Lok y To consider the report of the CAG relating
Sabha. It means that the ministry stays in to the audit of any receipt or to examine
office so long as it enjoys the confidence of the accounts of stores and stocks.
the majority of the members of the Lok Sabha.
In other words, the Lok Sabha can remove the y To examine the money spent on any service
ministry from office by passing a No-Confidence during a financial year in excess of the
Motion. Thus, it can only be introduced in the amount granted by the Lok Sabha for that
Lok Sabha. The Motion needs the support of at purpose.
least 50 members to be admitted.
y Article 118 of the Constitution permits both 33. Answer: (a)
Houses of Parliament to make its own rules Statement 1 is correct: Membership of the
for its functioning. Lok Sabha’s Rule 198 Ministers in the legislature is such that they
mentions the procedure for a Motion of No- are members of both the legislature and the
Confidence. executive. This means that a person cannot
be a Minister without being a member of the
32. Answer: (b) Parliament. The Constitution stipulates that a
Minister who is not a Member of the Parliament
Statement 1 is not correct: Public Accounts for a period of six consecutive months ceases
Committee was set up first in 1921 under the to be a Minister.
provisions of the Government of India Act
of 1919 and has since been in existence. At Statement 2 is correct: Collective responsibility
present, it consists of 22 members (15 from of the executive to the legislature is the bedrock
the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha). The principle of parliamentary government. The
members are elected by the Parliament every Ministers are collectively responsible to the
year from amongst its members according to Parliament in general and to the Lok Sabha
the principle of proportional representation by in particular (Article 75). They act as a team,
means of the single transferable vote. and swim and sink together. The principle of
collective responsibility implies that the Lok
Functions of the Committee are: Sabha can remove the Ministry (i.eCouncil of
y To examine the appropriation accounts Ministers headed by the Prime Minister) from
and the finance accounts of the Union office by passing a vote of ‘No Confidence’.
government and any other accounts laid Statement 3 is not correct: The Cabinet is
before the Lok Sabha. (Statement 2 is headed by the Prime Minister and not by the
Correct) Head of the State (the President).
y Scrutinise the appropriation accounts and
Legislature-Explanation 393
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34. Answer: (b) y The procedure to pass a Money Bill in
Unlike the Speaker (who is a member of the Parliament is a key provision limiting the
House), the Chairman is not a member of the powers of Rajya Sabha compared to Lok
House. The Chairman, however, can cast a vote Sabha. Any Bill other than a Money Bill
in the case of an equality of votes. cannot become law unless both Houses
agree to it with or without amendments.
Statement 1 is not correct: The Deputy
Chairman is elected by the Rajya Sabha itself
from amongst its members. Whenever the 36. Answer: (d)
office of the Deputy Chairman falls vacant, the Statement 1 is not correct: Rajya Sabha shares
Rajya Sabha elects another member to fill the equal status with Lok Sabha in matters of
vacancy. introduction and passage of Constitutional
Statement 2 is correct: The Electoral College amendment Bills, hence a Bill initiating
for the election of the Vice President consists amendment to the Constitution can be
of both elected and nominated members of introduced in Rajya Sabha also.
the Parliament (in the case of the President, Statement 2 is not correct: Those provisions
only elected members). of the Constitution which are related to the
The President is elected by members of federal structure of the polity can be amended
electoral college consisting of: by a special majority of the Parliament and
y The elected members of both the Houses also with the consent of half of the State
of Parliament. Legislatures by a simple majority. If one or some
or all the remaining States take no action on
y The elected members of the Legislative
the Bill, it does not matter; the moment half of
Assemblies of the States.
the States give their consent, the formality is
y The elected members of the Legislative completed. There is no time limit within which
Assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi the States should give their consent to the Bill.
and Puducherry.
Thus, the nominated members of the Houses
37. Answer: (d)
have no vote in Presidential elections.
Option (d) is correct: The Constitution
empowers the Parliament to make laws for the
35. Answer: (a) whole or any part of India for implementing
Option (a) is correct: Under Article 109 (1), a International Treaties. It can make laws on
Money Bill cannot be introduced in Rajya Sabha. the subjects enumerated in the State List
Once passed by Lok Sabha, it is sent to Rajya (which at present has 59 subjects, originally
Sabha along with the Speaker’s certificate that 66 subjects) under the following five abnormal
it is a Money Bill for its recommendations. circumstances:
However, Rajya Sabha can neither reject nor y When Rajya Sabha passes a resolution to
amend the Bill, and must return it within 14 days, that effect.
after which Lok Sabha may choose to accept
y When a proclamation of National Emergency
or reject all or any of its recommendations. In
is in operation.
either case, the Bill is deemed to have been
passed by both Houses. Under Article 109(5), y When two or more states make a joint
if Rajya Sabha fails to return the Bill to Lok request to the Parliament.
Sabha within 14 days, it is deemed to have y When necessary to give effect to
been passed anyway. International Agreements, Treaties and
Conventions.
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y When President’s Rule is in operation in the 39. Answer: (d)
state. Statement 1 is not correct: Out of the seven
All the Ordinances issued by the President Union Territories, two (Delhi and Puducherry)
(during the recess of the Parliament) must be have representation in Rajya Sabha. The
approved by the Parliament within six weeks populations of other five Union Territories
after its reassembly and consent of the states are too small to have any representative
is not required. in the Rajya Sabha. The representatives of
each Union Territory in the Rajya Sabha are
indirectly elected by members of an electoral
38. Answer: (b) college specially constituted for the purpose.
Statement 1 is not correct: The Speaker can This election is also held in accordance with
be removed from Office only on a resolution the system of proportional representation by
of the House passed by a majority of all the means of the single transferable vote.
then members of the House. Such a resolution Statement 2 is not correct: Representative
has to satisfy some conditions like, it should of the People’s Act, 1951 vested the power to
be specific with respect to the charges, and adjudicate the disputes regarding election to
it should not contain arguments, inferences, the Parliament or any State Assembly with
ironical expressions, imputations or defamatory the High Court of the concerned state. Also,
statements, etc. Not only these, but discussions all doubts and disputes in connection with
should also be confined to charges referred to election of the President are inquired into and
in the resolution. It is also mandatory to give a decided by the Supreme Court whose decision
minimum of 14 days’ notice of the intention to is final.
move the resolution.
Statement 3 is not correct: Under the
Statement 2 is not correct: The Speaker is Constitution, the Parliament of India consists
elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its of three parts viz, the President, the Council of
members, therefore the Speaker has to be a States, and the House of the People. Though
member of Parliament to become eligible to the President of India is not a member of
contest election for the post of Speaker. either House of Parliament or does not sit in
Statement 3 is correct: The Speaker holds the Parliament to attend its meetings, he is an
Office from the date of his/her election till integral part of the Parliament. This is because
immediately before the first meeting of the Lok a Bill passed by both the Houses of Parliament
Sabha after the dissolution of the one to which cannot become law without the President’s
he/she was elected. He/She is eligible for re- assent.
election. On the dissolution of the Lok Sabha,
although the Speaker ceases to be a member
of the House, he/she does not vacate his/her 40. Answer: (a)
Office. The Speaker may, at any time, resign Option (a) is correct: Adjournment Motion
from Office by writing under his/her hand to is introduced in the Parliament to draw the
the Deputy Speaker. attention of the House to a definite matter
of urgent public importance and needs the
Elimination Technique: The Speaker does support of 50 members to be admitted. As it
not hold the office during the pleasure of interrupts the normal business of the House,
the President. Hence, statement 1 is not it is regarded as an extraordinary device. It
correct. He is elected by the Lok Sabha involves an element of censure against the
from amongst its members so 2 is also government and hence Rajya Sabha is not
incorrect. permitted to make use of this device. The
Legislature-Explanation 395
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discussion on an Adjournment Motion should is made by the Parliament under extraordinary
last for not less than two hours and thirty or special circumstances. It is granted when
minutes. the amount authorised by the Parliament
The right to move a motion for an adjournment through the Appropriation Act for a particular
of the business of the House is subject to the service for the current financial year is found
following restrictions: to be insufficient for that year.
y It should raise a matter which is definite, Statement 5 is correct: The Finance Bill is
factual, urgent and of public importance. introduced to give effect to the financial
proposals of the Government of India for
y It should not cover more than one matter.
the following year. It is subjected to all the
y It should be restricted to a specific matter conditions applicable to a Money Bill. Unlike the
of recent occurrence and should not be Appropriation Bill, the amendments (seeking
framed in general terms. to reject or reduce a tax) can be moved in the
y It should not raise a question of privilege. case of the Finance Bill.
396 Legislature-Explanation
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other House without the bill being passed credited to the Consolidated Fund of India.
by it. All the legally authorised payments on behalf
Option (a) is correct: In the above three of the Government of India are made out of
situations, the President can summon both the this fund.
Houses to meet in a joint sitting for the purpose Additional Information:
of deliberating and voting on the bill. It must
be noted here that the provision of joint sitting y Contingency Fund of India: The Contingency
is applicable to ordinary bills or financial bills Fund of India is the emergency fund for the
only and not to money bills or Constitutional Nation. Constituted under Article 267(1) of
amendment bills. In the case of a money bill, the Indian Constitution, the Contingency
the Lok Sabha has overriding powers, while a Fund of India is used at a time when there
Constitutional amendment bill must be passed is a crisis in the nation — a natural calamity,
by each House separately. for instance — and money is required to deal
with it. The Union government has its own
contingency fund with a corpus of Rs 500
44. Answer: (b) crore. States can also opt to have their own
Consolidated Fund of India is a fund to which Contingency Funds. The Contingency Fund
all Government receipts are credited, and all of the Union Government is at the disposal
payments are debited. In other words, of the President of India, who releases the
funds on request of the Union Cabinet,
y All revenues received by the Government which later gets approval from Parliament.
of India, A Parliament approval is mandatory.
y All loans raised by the Government by the y Public Account: Public Account of India
issue of treasury bills, loans or ways and accounts for flows for those transactions
means of advances; and where the Government is merely acting
y All money received by the Government in as a banker. This fund was constituted
repayment of loans forms the Consolidated under Article 266 (2) of the Constitution. It
Fund of India. accounts for flows for those transactions
Option (b) is correct: All the legally authorised where the government is merely acting as
payments on behalf of the Government of India a banker. Examples of those are provident
are made out of this fund. No money out of this funds, small savings and so on. These funds
fund can be appropriated (issued or drawn) do not belong to the Government. They
except in accordance with a parliamentary law. have to be paid back at some time to their
rightful owners. Because of this nature
Elimination Technique: The authorization of the fund, expenditures from it are not
for the withdrawal of funds from the required to be approved by the Parliament.
Consolidated Fund of India comes from
Parliament of India hence option (b) is
correct. 46. Answer: (d)
Option (d) is correct: When the annual Union
Budget is not passed by the Lok Sabha, the
45. Answer: (c)
Prime Minister submits the resignation of the
Option (c) is correct: Article 266 of the Indian Council of Ministers. If the Budget is not passed
Constitution provides for the Consolidated under any condition in Parliament, then it can
Fund of India. All revenues received by the Union be understood that the ruling party is in the
Government by way of taxes and other receipts minority. Technically it means the Government
for the conduct of Government business are has lost the confidence vote in the Lok Sabha
Legislature-Explanation 397
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and it has to resign. In Indian history, this has estimation. Vote on account is passed every
not happened so far. year, used by both the regular and caretaker
Government.
398 Legislature-Explanation
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4 Executive
Executive 399
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5. Consider the following statements: (2020) (a) First Administrative Reforms
1. The President of India can summon a Commission (1966)
session of Parliament at such a place as (b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)
he/she thinks fit. (c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
2. The Constitution of India provides for (d) National Commission to Review the
three sessions of the Parliament in a Working of the Constitution (2000)
year, but it is not mandatory to conduct
all three sessions.
3. There is no minimum number of days 8. With reference to the election of the
that the Parliament is required to meet President of India, consider the following
in a year. statements: (2018)
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies
correct? from State to State.
400 Executive
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state, then (2018) 1. The Chief Secretary in a State is
(a) the assembly of a state is automatically appointed by the Governor of that State.
dissolved. 2. The Chief Secretary in a state has a
(b) the power of the Legislature of that fixed tenure.
State shall be exercisable by or under Which of the statements given above is/are
the authority of the Parliament. correct?
(c) Article 19 is suspended in that State. (a) 1 only
(d) the President can make laws relating to (b) 2 only
that State. (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
11. Which of the following are not necessarily
the consequences of the proclamation of
the President's rule in a State? (2017) 14. Consider the following statements: (2015)
3. Dissolution of the local bodies Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
Select the correct answer using the code
given below: (a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
15. Which of the following is/are the functions/
functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?
12. The Parliament of India exercises control (2014)
over the functions of the Council of
Ministers through (2017) 1. Preparations of agenda for Cabinet
Meetings
1. Adjournment motion
2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet
2. Question hour Meetings
3. Supplementary questions 3. Allocations of financial resources to the
Select the correct answer using the code Ministers
given below: Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1 only given below:
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
13. Consider the following statements: (2016)
Executive 401
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16. Which of the following are the discretionary 3. The Prime Minister shall communicate
powers of the Governor of a State? (2014) to the President about the proposals
1. Sending a report to the President of for legislation.
India for imposing the President’s rule. Select the correct answer using the given
2. Appointing the Ministers. code below:
402 Executive
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21. According to the Constitution of India, it 4. The Report of the National Commission
is the duty of the President of India to be for Scheduled Castes
laid before the Parliament which of the Select the correct answer using the code
following? (2012) given below:
1. The Recommendations of the Union (a) 1 only
Finance Commission
(b) 2 and 4
2. The Report of the Public Accounts
Committee (c) 1, 3 and 4
Executive 403
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4 Executive-Explanation
404 Executive-Explanation
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not exceed fifteen per cent. of the total number 6. Answer: (a)
of members of the House of the People. Statement 1 is correct: Article 176(1) of the
Constitution of India enjoins that the Governor
4. Answer: (d) shall address both the Houses assembled
together at the commencement of the first
Option (d) is correct: Bureaucracy refers to Session after each general election to the
a permanent executive body of non-elected Assembly and at the commencement of the
government officials and an administrative first session of each year.
policy-making group. The public administration
in many countries is an example of a Statement 2 is not correct: When the State
bureaucracy. Providing policy inputs to the legislature does not have a rule on a particular
Government and to implement the policies matter, the rules made by the Speaker of
once they become law or directives are the the Assembly or Chairman of the Council
two basic functions of Bureaucracy. So, are applicable. Article 208(1) states that, the
bureaucracy can be considered as an agency Legislature of a State may make rules for
for the implementation of public policy. regulating subject to the provisions of the
Constitution, its procedure and the conduct
of its business. Article 208(2) states that
4. Answer: (c) until such rules are made for the conduct of
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 85(1) of business, the adaptations and modifications
the Constitution the President can summon made by the Speaker of Legislative Assembly
each House of Parliament to meet at such or the Chairman of the Legislative Council shall
time and place as he thinks fit, but six months be applicable.
duration shall not exceed between its last
sitting in one Session and the date appointed 7. Answer: (c)
for its first sitting in the next Session.
Option (c) is correct: Sarkaria Commission was
Statement 2 is not correct: The Indian set up in June 1983 to examine the relationship
Constitution does not provide for three and balance of power between state and central
sessions of the Parliament. It is by convention governments and suggest changes within the
that Parliament meets for three sessions in a framework of the Constitution. The Commission
year. suggested various recommendations for the
Statement 3 is correct: To meet in a year appointment of Governor.
there is no minimum number of days that the It recommended that the Governor:
Parliament is required in fact, the number of
days that Parliament meets has reduced over y Should be an eminent person.
the years. During the first two decades of y Must be a person from outside the State.
Parliament, Lok Sabha met for an average of y Should not have participated in active
a little more than 120 days a year. In the last politics at least for some time before his
decade this has come down to approximately appointment.
70 days.
y Should not be connected with local politics
Elimination Technique: The Constitution of the state.
asks House of Parliament to meet at such
time and place as president thinks fit
and six months duration shall not exceed 8. Answer: (a)
between its sitting hence statement 1 is Statement 1 is correct: The President is elected
correct and 2 is incorrect. by an electoral college, which comprises
Executive-Explanation 405
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only of elected representatives (Parliament, by or under the authority of the Parliament.
Legislative Assemblies of States and UTs of The Parliament can also delegate the power
Delhi and Puducherry). Nominated members of to make laws for the State to the President or
Parliament are not allowed to vote. The value to any other Authority specified by him in this
of a vote of an MLA varies from State to State, regard.
mainly to reflect the population of each state.
For example: the value of one MLA’s vote in
Delhi is 58, in Uttar Pradesh it is 208 and in 11. Answer: (b)
Sikkim it is just 7. Article 355 imposes a duty upon the Centre to
Statement 2 is not correct: The value of vote of ensure that the government of every state is
each Member of Parliament is equal whether carried on in accordance with the Constitution.
he/she is from Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha. It is this duty in the performance of which the
centre takes over the State government under
Article 356 in case of failure of Constitutional
9. Answer: (c) machinery in the state. This is popularly known
Statement 1 is correct: The Governor is entitled as ‘President’s Rule’, also known as ‘State
to a number of privileges and immunities. He Emergency’ or ‘Constitutional Emergency’.
enjoys personal immunity from legal liability Option (b) is correct: Consequences of
for his official acts. During his term of office, he President’s Rule are mentioned below.
is immune from any criminal proceedings, even y The President can take up the functions of
in respect of his personal acts and cannot be the state government and powers vested in
arrested or imprisoned. However, after giving the governor.
two months’ notice, civil proceedings can be
instituted against him during his term of office y The President can declare that the powers
in respect of his personal acts. of the state legislature are to be exercised
by the Parliament.
Statement 2 is correct: A Governor holds office
for a term of five years from the date on which y The President either suspends or dissolves
he enters upon his office. He is entitled to such the State Legislative Assembly.
emoluments, allowances and privileges as may y The President dismisses the State Council
be determined by Parliament. His emoluments of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister.
and allowances cannot be diminished during y There is no provision for dissolution of
his term of office. the local bodies when President’s rule is
imposed in the state.
10. Answer: (b)
The President’s Rule can be proclaimed under 12. Answer: (d)
Article 356 on two grounds, one mentioned The Parliament exercises control over the
in Article 356 itself and another in Article ministers through various devices like question
365. When the President’s rule is imposed, hour, discussions, adjournment motion, no-
the President dismisses the State Council of confidence motion, etc.
Ministers headed by the Chief Minister. Further,
Option (d) is correct: Adjournment Motion
the President either suspended or dissolved
is introduced in the Parliament to draw the
the State Legislative Assembly.
attention of the House to a definite matter
Option (b) is correct: When the State Legislature of urgent importance and needs the support
is suspended or dissolved, the power of the of 50 members to be admitted. It involves an
Legislature of that State shall be exercisable element of censure against the government,
406 Executive-Explanation
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and hence Rajya Sabha is not permitted to the Vice-President, the Prime Minister, the
make use of this device. The discussion on an Council of Ministers and the Attorney General
adjournment motion should last for not less of India. The President is the Head of the Indian
than two hours and thirty minutes. Hence, it State. He is the First Citizen of India and acts
is a tool of the Parliament to exercise control as the symbol of unity, integrity and solidarity
over the functions of the Council of Ministers. of the nation.
uestion Hour is also used to exercise control The executive powers and functions of the
over the functions of the Council of Ministers. President are:
The first hour of every parliament sitting is y All executive actions of the Government
slotted for this. During this time, the members of India are formally taken in his name.
can ask questions, and ministers usually give (Statement 1 is not correct)
answers. The questions are of three kinds,
namely, starred, unstarred and short notices. y He can make rules specifying the manner
in which the orders and other instruments
y Starred Question (distinguished by an made and executed in his name shall be
asterisk) requires an oral answer, and hence authenticated.
Supplementary questions can follow.
y He appoints the Prime Minister and the
y Unstarred questions require a written other ministers. They hold office during his
answer and hence supplementary questions pleasure.
cannot follow.
The Civil Services Board is responsible for
y Short notice questions are asked by giving recruitment and promotions below the rank
a notice of less than ten days, answered of Joint Secretary. It is headed by the Chief
orally. Secretary of the state with Personnel Secretary
and either Financial Commissioner or Home
13. Answer: (d) Secretary as its members. (Statement 2 is not
correct)
Statement 1 is not correct: Chief Secretary is
the topmost bureaucratic position in a State,
generally held by an Indian Administrative 15. Answer: (c)
Officer. The Chief Secretary is ‘a linchpin’ in the The Cabinet Secretariat is responsible for the
administration. The Chief Secretary is chosen administration of the Government of India
by the Chief Minister from among the senior (Transaction of Business) Rules, 1961 and the
most Indian Administrative Officers. He is then Government of India (Allocation of Business)
appointed by the Chief Minister in the name Rules, 1961, facilitating smooth transaction
of the Governor. The Governor is the Chief of business in Ministries/Departments of
Executive Head of the State and all executive the Government. This Secretariat provides
actions in a State are taken by and in the name Secretarial assistance to the Cabinet and
of the Governor. its Committees. The secretarial assistance,
Statement 2 is not correct: Chief Secretary of provided by Cabinet Secretariat to the Cabinet
a State has not been guaranteed any security and Cabinet Committees, includes:
of tenure. He assumes his office as per the y Preparation and circulation of the agenda.
pleasure of the Governor and can be removed (Statement 1 is correct)
anytime by the Governor.
y Convening of the meetings of the Cabinet
and its Committees on the orders of the
14. Answer: (d) Prime Minister. (Statement 2 is correct)
The Union executive consists of the President, y Circulation of the record of discussions
Executive-Explanation 407
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after obtaining the approval of the Prime Government is not under the discretionary
Minister. powers of the Governor of a State.
y Monitoring implementation of decisions Elimination Technique: Appointing the
taken by the Cabinet and its Committees. Ministers and making the rules to conduct
Statement 3 is not correct: Allocations of the business of the State Government is
financial resources to the Ministers is not a not under the discretionary powers of the
function of the Cabinet Secretariat. Financial Governor hence statement 2 and 4 are
resources are allocated to Ministries, as per incorrect.
the provisions in the Budget prepared by the
Finance Ministry.
17. Answer: (a)
Statement 1 is correct: The President is
16. Answer: (b) the Head of the Indian State. He is the First
The Constitution of India provides for a Citizen of India and acts as the symbol of
Parliamentary form of government in the States unity, integrity, and solidarity of the Nation.
as in the Centre. Consequently, the Governor He performs a wide spectrum of functions
has been made only a nominal executive, ranging from executive, legislative, judicial,
the real executive constitutes the Council military, financial to diplomatic. Under the
of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister. In executive powers of the President granted by
other words, the Governor has to exercise his the Constitution, he/she can make rules for
powers and functions with the aid and advice more convenient transactions of business of
of the Council of Ministers headed by the the Union Government, and for allocation of
Chief Minister, except in matters in which he is the said business among the Ministers.
required to act at his discretion. The Governor Statement 2 is not correct: All executive actions
has Constitutional discretion in the following of the Government of India are formally taken
cases: in the President’s name and not in the name of
y Recommendation for the imposition of the the Prime Minister (head of the government or
President’s Rule in the state. (Statement 1 real head).
is correct) Other executive functions of the President are:
y Reservation of a Bill for the consideration y The President can make rules specifying
of the President. (Statement 3 is correct) the manner in which the orders and other
y While exercising his functions as the instruments made and executed in his
administrator of an adjoining Union Territory name shall be authenticated. He appoints
(in case of additional charge). the Prime Minister and the other Ministers.
y Determining the amount payable by the They hold office during his (President’s)
Government of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura pleasure.
and Mizoram to an autonomous Tribal y He appoints the Attorney General of India
District Council as royalty accruing from and determines his remuneration. The
licences for mineral exploration. Attorney General holds office during the
y Seeking information from the Chief Minister pleasure of the President.
with regard to the administrative and y He appoints the Comptroller and Auditor
legislative matters of the State. General of India, the Chief Election
Statement 2 and statement 4 are not correct: Commissioner and other Election
Appointing the Ministers and making the Commissioners, the Chairman and Members
rules to conduct the business of the State of the Union Public Service Commission,
408 Executive-Explanation
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the Governors of States, the Chairman and Option (d) is not correct: Section 45 in the
Members of Finance Commission, and so Government of Union Territories Act, 1963,
on. states that the Chief Minister shall be appointed
by the President and the other Ministers shall
be appointed by the President on the advice of
18. Answer: (b)
the Chief Ministers.
Article 75 of the Indian Constitution states
that:
20. Answer: (a)
y The Prime Minister shall be appointed by
the President and the other Ministers shall The Constitution does not contain any specific
be appointed by the President on the advice procedure for the selection and appointment
of the Prime Minister. of the Prime Minister. Article 75 says only that
the Prime Minister shall be appointed by the
y The Council of Ministers shall be collectively
president. However, this does not imply that
responsible to the House of the People.
the president is free to appoint anyone as
(Statement 1 is not correct)
the Prime Minister. In accordance with the
y The Ministers shall hold office during the conventions of the parliamentary system of
pleasure of the President. (Statement 2 is government, the President has to appoint the
correct) leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha as
According to Article 78 of the Indian the Prime Minister.
Constitution, it shall be the duty of the Prime But, when no party has a clear majority in the
Minister to communicate to the President all Lok Sabha, then the President may exercise
the decisions of the Council of Ministers relating his personal discretion in the selection and
to the administration of the affairs of the Union appointment of the Prime Minister. In such a
and proposals for legislation. (Statement 3 is situation, the President usually appoints the
correct) leader of the largest party or coalition in the
Lok Sabha as the Prime Minister and asks him
to seek a vote of confidence in the House
19. Answer: (c)
within a month. This discretion was exercised
Option (a) is not correct: There is a Governor by the President, for the first time in 1979, when
for each state, but the 7th Constitutional Neelam Sanjiva Reddy (the then President)
Amendment Act of 1956 facilitated the appointed Charan Singh (the coalition leader)
appointment of the same person as a Governor as the Prime Minister after the fall of the Janata
for two or more states. Party government headed by Morarji Desai.
Option (b) is not correct: The Judges of a High Option (a) is correct: In 1997, the Supreme
Court and the Supreme Court are appointed by Court held that a person who is not a member
the President. of either House of Parliament can be appointed
Option (c) is correct: The Constitution does not as Prime Minister for six months, within which,
lay down any grounds upon which a Governor he should become a member of either House
may be removed by the President. A Governor of Parliament; otherwise, he ceases to be the
holds office for a term of five years from Prime Minister.
the date on which he enters upon his office. In the scheme of parliamentary system of
However, this term of five years is subject to government provided by the constitution, the
the pleasure of the President. Further, he can President is the nominal executive authority
resign at any time by addressing a resignation (de jure executive) and Prime Minister is the
letter to the President. real executive authority (de facto executive). In
Executive-Explanation 409
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other words, the President is the head of the each general election and the first session
State while the Prime Minister is the head of of each year.
the government. Constitutionally, the Prime y He can send messages to the Houses of
Minister may be a member of any of the two Parliament, whether with respect to a bill
Houses of Parliament. pending in the Parliament or otherwise.
y He lays the reports of the Comptroller
21. Answer: (c) and Auditor General, Union Public Service
Option (c) is correct: According to the Commission, Finance Commission, National
Constitution of India, it is the duty of the Commission of Scheduled Caste, National
President of India to be laid before the Commission of Scheduled Tribe, before the
Parliament -the recommendations of the Parliament.
Union Finance Commission, the report of the y He can appoint any member of the Lok
Comptroller and Auditor General of India and Sabha to preside over its proceedings when
the report of the National Commission for the offices of both the Speaker and the
Scheduled Castes. Deputy Speaker fall vacant. Similarly, he
Under the Constitution, the Parliament of can also appoint any member of the Rajya
India consists of three parts viz, the President, Sabha to preside over its proceedings when
the Council of States, and the House of the the offices of both the Chairman and the
People. The President is an integral part of the Deputy Chairman fall vacant.
Parliament of India and enjoys the following y He nominates 12 members of the Rajya
legislative powers: Sabha from amongst persons having
y He can summon or prorogue the Parliament special knowledge or practical experience
and dissolve the Lok Sabha. He can also in literature, science, art and social service.
summon a joint sitting of both the Houses y He can nominate two members to the Lok
of Parliament, which is presided over by the Sabha from the Anglo-Indian Community.
Speaker of the Lok Sabha. y He decides on questions as to
y He can address the Parliament at the disqualifications of members of the
commencement of the first session after Parliament, in consultation with the
Election Commission.
410 Executive-Explanation
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5 Judiciary
1. In India, which one of the following 1. Mandamus will not lie against a private .
Constitutional Amendments was widely organisation unless it is entrusted with
believed to be enacted to overcome the a public duty.
judicial interpretations of Fundamental
Rights? (2023) 2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company
even though it may be a Government
(a) 1st Amendment Company.
(b) 42nd Amendment 3. Any public minded person can be a
(c) 44th Amendment petitioner to move the Court to obtain
(d) 86th Amendment the writ of Quo Warranto.
Which of the statements given above are
correct ?
2. Consider the following statements : (2023)
(a) 1 and 2 only
Statement-I:
(b) 2 and 3 only
The Supreme Court of India has held in
some judgments that the reservation (c) 1 and 3 only
policies made under Article 16(4) of the (d) 1, 2 and 3
Constitution of India would be limited by
Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of
administration. 4. With reference to India, consider the
following statements: (2022)
Statement-II :
1. Government law officers and legal
Article 335 of the Constitution of firms are recognised as advocates, but
India defines the term 'efficiency of corporate lawyers and patent attorneys
administration'. are excluded from recognition as
Which one of the following is correct in advocates.
respect of the above statements? 2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are the rules relating to legal education and
correct and Statement-II is the correct recognition of law colleges.
explanation for Statement-I Which of the statements given above is/are
(b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II correct ?
are correct and Statement-II is not the (a) 1 only
correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) 2 only
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
is incorrect (c) Both 1 and 2
Judiciary 411
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2. The Constitution of India empowers the Which of the statements given above is /
Supreme Court and the High Courts to are correct?
punish for contempt of themselves. (a) 1 only
3. The Constitution of India defines Civil (b) 2 only
Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
(c) Both 1 and 2
4. In India, the Parliament is vested with
the powers to make laws on Contempt (d) Neither 1 nor 2
of Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are 8. With reference to Indian judiciary, consider
correct ? the following statements : (2021)
(a) 1 and 2 only 1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court
(b) 1, 2 and 4 of India can be called back to sit and act
as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief
(c) 3 and 4 only Justice of India with prior permission of
(d) 3 only the President of India.
2. A High Court in India has the power
6. With reference to India, consider the to review its own judgement as the
following statements : (2021) Supreme Court does.
7. With reference to India, consider the 10. Consider the following statements: (2019)
following statements : (2021) 1. The motion to impeach a Judge of
1. When a prisoner makes out a sufficient the Supreme Court of India cannot
case, parole cannot be denied to such be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok
prisoner because it becomes a matter Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act
of his/her right. 1968.
2. State Governments have their own 2. The Constitution of India defines
Prisoners Release on Parole Rules. and gives details or what constitutes
‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’
412 Judiciary
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of the Judges of the Supreme Court of constitutional powers under Article 142.
India. It could mean which one of the following?
3. The details of the process of (2019)
impeachment of the Judges of the (a) The decisions taken by the Election
Supreme Court of India are given in the Commission of India while discharging
Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. its duties cannot be challenged in any
4. If the motion for the impeachment court of law.
of a Judge is taken up for voting, the (b) The Supreme Court of India is not
law requires the motion to be backed constrained in the exercise of its powers
by each House of the Parliament by the laws made by Parliament.
and supported by a majority of total (c) In the event of a grave financial crisis in
membership of that House and by not the country, the President of India can
less than two-thirds of total members declare a Financial Emergency without
of that House present and voting. the counsel from the Cabinet.
Which of the statements given above is/are (d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on
correct? certain matters without the concurrence
(a) 1 and 2 only of the Union Legislature.
(b) 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only 13. With reference to the Constitution of India,
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only consider the following statements: (2019)
1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction
to declare any central law to be
11. Consider the following statements: (2019)
constitutionally invalid.
1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution
2. An amendment to the Constitution of
of India introduced an Article placing the
India cannot be called into question by
election of the Prime Minister beyond
the Supreme Court of India.
judicial review.
Which of the statements given above is/are
2. The Supreme Court of India struck
correct?
down the 99th Amendment to the
Constitution of India as being violative (a) 1 only
of the independence of judiciary. (b) 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) Both 1 and 2
correct? (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 14. In India, Judicial Review implies (2017)
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) The power of the Judiciary to pronounce
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 upon the Constitutionality of laws and
executive orders.
12. With reference to the Constitution of India, (b) The power of the Judiciary to question
prohibitions or limitations or provisions the wisdom of the laws enacted by the
contained in ordinary laws cannot act Legislatures.
as prohibitions or limitations on the (c) The power of the Judiciary to review all
the legislative enactments before they
Judiciary 413
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are assented to by the President. House of the Parliament or that of
(d) The power of the Judiciary to review its Legislature of a State
own judgements given earlier in similar 3. A dispute between the Government of
or different cases. India and a Union Territory
4. A dispute between two or more States
15. Who/which of the following is the Custodian Select the correct answer using the code
of the Constitution of India? (2015) given below:
(a) The President of India (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) The Prime Minister of India (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) The Lok Sabha Secretariat (c) 1 and 4 only
(d) The Supreme Court of India (d) 3 and 4 only
16. The power to increase the number of 19. What is the provision to safeguard the
Judges in the Supreme Court of India is autonomy of the Supreme Court of India?
vested in (2014) (2012)
(a) The President of India 1. While appointing the Supreme Court
(b) The Parliament Judges, the President of India has to
consult the Chief Justice of India.
(c) The Chief Justice of India
2. The Supreme Court Judges can be
(d) The Law Commission
removed by the Chief Justice of India
only.
17. The power of Supreme Court of India to 3. The salaries of the Judges are charged
decide dispute between the centre and on the Consolidated Fund of India to
states fall under its: (2014) which the legislature does not have to
(a) Advisory jurisdiction vote.
(b) Appellate jurisdiction 4. All appointments of officers and staff of
the Supreme Court of India are made by
(c) Original jurisdiction
the Government only after consulting
(d) Writ jurisdiction the Chief Justice of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are
18. Which of the following are included in the correct?
original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court? (a) 1 and 3 only
(2012)
(b) 3 and 4 only
1. A dispute between the Government of
(c) 4 only
India and one or more States
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. A dispute regarding elections to either
414 Judiciary
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5 Judiciary-Explanation
Judiciary-Explanation 415
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inter alia defined and limited the powers of (iii) interferes or tends to interfere with,
certain courts in punishing for contempt of or obstructs or tends to obstruct, the
courts and provided to regulate the procedure administration of justice in any other
in relation thereto. The recommendations of manner;
the Committee were generally accepted by the (d) “High Court” means the High Court for a
Government after having wide consultation State or a Union territory, and includes the
with the State Governments, Union Territory court of the Judicial Commissioner in any
Administrations, and all other stakeholders. Union territory.
After the aforesaid deliberations the Contempt
of Courts Act, 1971 (70 of 1971) came to be Statement 4 in correct
enacted (hereinafter referred to as the “Act SEVENTH SCHEDULE (Article 246) List I—
1971”), which repealed and replaced the Act Union List: Entry 77. Constitution, organisation,
1952. jurisdiction and powers of the Supreme Court
Statement 2 is correct: Article 129: Supreme (including contempt of such Court), and the
Court to be a court of record The Supreme fees taken therein; persons entitled to practise
Court shall be a court of record and shall have before the Supreme Court.
all the powers of such a court including the
power to punish for contempt of itself. 6. Answer: (b)
Article 215: High Courts to be courts of record Statement 1 is not correct: The provisions for
Every High Court shall be a court of record custody in India are governed by Section 167 of
and shall have all the powers of such a court the Code of Criminal Procedure. Police Custody
including the power to punish for contempt of means that police have the physical custody
itself. of the accused, while Judicial Custody means
Statement 3 is not correct: an accused is in the custody of the concerned
THE CONTEMPT OF COURTS ACT, 1971 Magistrate. In Police custody, the accused
is lodged in a police station lockup, while in
Definitions.—In this Act, unless the context Judicial Custody, he is locked up in jail.
otherwise requires,—
Statement 2 is correct: During Judicial Custody,
(a) “contempt of court” means civil contempt the police officer in charge of the case is not
or criminal contempt; allowed to interrogate the suspect. However,
(b) “civil contempt” means wilful disobedience the court may allow the interrogations to be
to any judgement, decree, direction, order, conducted if it opines the interrogation is
writ or other process of a court or wilful necessary under the facts produced before
breach of an undertaking given to a court; the court. However, during police custody,
(c) “criminal contempt” means the publication the police officer in charge of the case may
(whether by words, spoken or written, or interrogate the suspect.
by signs, or by visible representations, or
otherwise) of any matter or the doing of any 7. Answer: (b)
other act whatsoever which—
Statement 1 is not correct: The granting
(i) scandalises or tends to scandalise, or authority for parole is the deputy home
lowers or tends to lower the authority secretary of the state government. Parole
of, any court; or is a system of releasing a prisoner with the
(ii) prejudices, or interferes or tends to suspension of the sentence. Parole cannot be
interfere with, the due course of any claimed as a matter of right. Parole may be
judicial proceeding; or denied to a prisoner even when he makes out
416 Judiciary-Explanation
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sufficient cause for release on parole. Parole 9. Answer: (b)
is to be granted only on a sufficient cause, Option (b) is correct: Article 50 of the Indian
such as cases of severe illness or death of Constitution, as enshrined in form of Directly
any member of the prisoner’s family. Parole Principles of State Policy in Part IV, provides
and Furlough can be denied if the competent that “the State shall take steps to separate
authority is of the opinion that releasing the the Judiciary from the Executive in the public
inmate would not be in the interest of society. services of the State”.
Statement 2 is correct: In India, parole (as The Criminal Procedure Code 1973 also
well as furlough) is covered under the Prisons mandates the separation of judiciary from the
Act of 1894. Prisoners convicted of multiple executive, which enables the state to work
murders or under the anti-terror Unlawful independently and impartially without the
Activities Prevention Act (UAPA) are not eligible interference of any other organs of the State.
for parole. Since prisons are a State subject
to the Constitution, the Prisons Act of each The Directive Principles of State Policies
state government defines the rules under (Article 36 - 51) act as a guideline for the state
which parole is granted in that state. The and are needed to be taken into consideration
management and administration of prisons fall while coming up with any new law but a citizen
exclusively in the domain of state governments cannot compel the state to follow DPSPs as
and are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 and they are non-justiciable. DPSPs are positive
the Prison Manuals of the respective state obligations on the state.
governments. DPSPs were not made justiciable because at
the time of the drafting of the Constitution,
India was a newly born independent state and
8. Answer: (a) was lacking in financial resources and also
Statement 1 is correct: The Chief Justice struggling with various issues and making
of India may at any time, with the previous DPSPs justiciable would have put India in great
consent of the President, request a retired difficulty.
judge of the Supreme Court or a retired judge
of a high court (duly qualified for appointment
as a Supreme Court judge) to act as a judge 10. Answer: (c)
of the Supreme Court for a temporary period. Statement 1 is not correct: The Judges (Inquiry)
He can do so only with the previous consent Act,1968 contains the detailed procedures
of the President and also of the person to be relating to the removal of Judges of the
so appointed. Such a judge is entitled to such Supreme Court or the High Court. Under this
allowances as the President may determine. Act, the Chairman or the Speaker may or may
He will also enjoy all the jurisdiction, powers not admit the motion of impeachment.
and privileges of a judge of the Supreme Court. Statement 2 is not correct: The term
Statement 2 is not correct: Article 137 of the “incapacity and proved misbehaviour” is not
Indian Constitution deals with the review of mentioned anywhere in the Constitution. The
judgments or orders by the Supreme Court. It term ‘misconduct’ of a judge is to be proved
says that subject to the provisions of any law outside Parliament before a non-parliamentary
made by Parliament or any rules made under committee. However, the Judges (Inquiry) Bill,
article 145; the Supreme Court shall have the 2006, defines ‘proved misbehaviour’:
power to review any judgment pronounced or y wilful or persistent conduct bringing
order made by it. dishonour or disrepute to the judiciary;
y wilful or persistent failure to perform the
Judiciary-Explanation 417
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duties of a judge; Commission (NJAC) Act were brought by the
y wilful abuse of judicial office, corruption, government to replace the 1993 collegium
lack of integrity or committing an offence system for the appointment of judges to the
involving moral turpitude. Supreme Court and the High courts. But the
Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th
Moreover, the Judicial Standards and
amendment to the Constitution as it impinged
Accountability Bill, 2010, also proposed to
upon the principles of “independence of the
widen the definition of misconduct.
judiciary”, as well as “separation of powers”.
Statement 3 is correct: The Judges (Inquiry)
Additional Information:
Act, 1968 states “the procedure for the
investigation and proof of the misbehaviour or The 44th Constitution Amendment Act, 1978
incapacity of a judge of the Supreme Court or removed the 39th Constitution Amendment
of a High Court”. Act, 1975. It was enacted by the Janata Party
to “restore the Constitution to the condition it
Statement 4 is correct: The motion for removal
was before the Emergency”. Some provisions
of a Judge is to be signed by 50 members of
of 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978
Rajya Sabha or 100 members of Lok Sabha and
are as follows:
it has to be passed by a majority of the House
and 2/3rd of those present and voting in the y Right to Property was removed as a
same session. Fundamental Right (Article 31) and was
made Legal Right (Article 300A)
Additional Information:
y Proclamation of Emergency could be done
If the motion is admitted by the Chairman or
on the basis of war, external aggression
the Speaker, he/she must constitute a three-
or armed rebellion. The word “Internal
member committee to investigate the charges
Disturbance” was replaced with “armed
against the judge. Such a committee consists
rebellion.”
of the Chief Justice or a Judge of the Supreme
Court of India, Chief Justice of a High Court y Written recommendation of the cabinet
and a distinguished Jurist. to the President was made necessary to
proclaim National Emergency.
418 Judiciary-Explanation
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million to the victims, went to the extent of the Supreme Court and the High Courts to
saying that to do complete justice, it could review the laws, which means an amendment
even override the laws made by Parliament to the Constitution of India can be called into
by holding that, “prohibitions or limitations or question by the Supreme Court of India.
provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot,
ipso facto, act as prohibitions or limitations
on the constitutional powers under Article 14. Answer: (a)
142.” By this statement the Supreme Court of Option (a) is correct: Judicial Review, power of
India placed itself above the laws made by the Judiciary of a country to examine the actions
Parliament or the legislatures of the States. of the legislative, executive, and administrative
arms of the government and to determine
whether such actions are consistent with the
13. Answer: (d) Constitution. Actions judged inconsistent are
The Constitution of India does not give a declared unconstitutional and, therefore, null
detailed description of the original jurisdiction and void. The institution of Judicial Review in
of the High Court. It is accepted that the this sense depends upon the presence of a
original jurisdiction of a High Court is exercised written Constitution.
by issue of Writs to any person or authority Though the phrase ‘Judicial Review’ has
including Government. nowhere been mentioned in the Constitution,
Article 226 of the Constitution vests in the the provisions of several articles (Article 13)
High Court the power to issue writs for the explicitly confer the power of judicial review
restoration of fundamental rights. However, on the Supreme Court.
this power of the High Court does not derogate The Constitutional Validity can be challenged
the similar power conferred on the Supreme on three following grounds:
Court in Article 32 of the Constitution.
y It infringes on Fundamental Rights.
Statement 1 is not correct: The original
jurisdiction of the High Courts also extends to y It is outside the competence of the
the matters of admiralty, probate, matrimonial authority which has framed it.
and contempt of Court cases. The High Courts y It is repugnant to the Constitutional
also have full powers to make rules to regulate provisions.
their business in relation to the administration
of justice.
15. Answer: (d)
Recently, a petitioner challenged the validity
Option (d) is correct: The Supreme Court is a
of the Epidemic Diseases Act, a central law
federal court, the highest court of appeal, the
in the Supreme Court. The Supreme court
guarantor of the Fundamental Rights of the
bench led by Justice DY Chandrachud refused
citizens and the guardian of the Constitution.
to entertain the plea and asked the petitioner
that the High Courts also have jurisdiction in y Article 32 is one of the Fundamental
respect of central Acts. Rights listed in the Constitution that
each citizen is entitled to. It deals with
Statement 2 is not correct: The 42nd
the ‘Right to Constitutional Remedies’ or
Constitution Amendment Act, 1976 curtailed
affirms the right to move the Supreme
the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and the
Court by appropriate proceedings for the
High Courts to review the constitutionality
enforcement of the rights conferred in Part
of laws. However, the 43rd Constitution
III of the Constitution.
Amendment Act,1977 restored the power of
Judiciary-Explanation 419
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16. Answer: (b) treaty, agreement, covenant, engagements,
Option (b) is correct: The Constitution has and or other similar instrument which,
vested the power to increase the number of having been entered into or executed
Judges of the Supreme Court of India with the before the commencement of this
Parliament. Parliament accordingly enacted Constitution, continues in operation after
the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, such commencement, or which provides
1956. Originally, the strength of the Supreme that the said jurisdiction shall not extend
Court was fixed at eight (one Chief Justice and to such a dispute.
seven other Judges). In addition, Article 32 of the Constitution
y The Parliament has increased this number gives an extensive Original jurisdiction to the
of other Judges progressively to ten in 1956, Supreme Court regarding enforcement of
to thirteen in 1960, to seventeen in 1977, to Fundamental Rights. It is empowered to issue
twenty-five in 1986, to thirty in 2009 and directions, orders or writs, including writs in
to thirty-three in 2019 by amending the the nature of Habeas Corpus, Mandamus,
Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act. Prohibition, Quo Warranto and Certiorari to
Therefore, at present the Supreme Court enforce them.
consists of thirty-four Judges (one Chief
justice and thirty-three other Judges). 18. Answer: (c)
Option (c) is correct: Article 131 of the Indian
17. Answer: (c) Constitution deals with the original jurisdiction
Option (c) is correct: The power of the Supreme of the Supreme Court. The Supreme Court
Court of India to decide disputes between shall, to the exclusion of any other court, have
the centre and states fall under its Original original jurisdiction in any dispute
jurisdiction. The Supreme Court has exclusive y between the Government of India and one
Original jurisdiction in the federal dispute. or more States; or
Federal disputes refer to disputes between y between the Government of India and any
different units of the Indian Federation. State or States on one side and one or
Article 131 of the Indian Constitution deals with more other States on the other; or
the Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. y between two or more States, if and in so
Original jurisdiction, subject to the provisions far as the dispute involves any question
of this Constitution, the Supreme Court shall, (whether of law or fact) on which the
to the exclusion of any other court, have existence or extent of a legal right depends:
Original jurisdiction in any dispute: Provided that the said jurisdiction shall
y Between the Government of India and one not extend to a dispute arising out of any
or more States; or treaty, agreement, covenant, engagements,
y Between the Government of India and any and or other similar instrument which,
State or States on one side and one or having been entered into or executed
more other States on the other; or before the commencement of this
Constitution, continues in operation after
y Between two or more States, if and in so
such commencement, or which provides
far as the dispute involves any question
that the said jurisdiction shall not extend
(whether of law or fact) on which the
to such a dispute
existence or extent of a legal right depends:
Provided that the said jurisdiction shall Additional Information:
not extend to a dispute arising out of any y The Supreme Court has original, appellate,
420 Judiciary-Explanation
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and advisory jurisdiction. In addition, Article consultation with the chief justice and such
32 of the Constitution gives an extensive other judges of the Supreme Court and the
original jurisdiction to the Supreme Court high courts as he deems necessary.
in regard to enforcement of Fundamental Statement 2 is not correct: A judge of the
Rights. It is empowered to issue directions, Supreme Court can be removed from his Office
orders or writs, including writs in the nature by an order of the president. The President can
of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, issue the removal order only after an address
quo warranto and certiorari to enforce by Parliament has been presented to him in the
them. same session for such removal. 5 The address
must be supported by a special majority of
19. Answer: (a) each House of Parliament (ie, a majority of the
total membership of that House and a majority
The Supreme Court has been assigned a of not less than two-thirds of the members of
very significant role in the Indian democratic that House present and voting).
political system. It is a federal court, the
highest court of appeal, the guarantor of Statement 3 is correct: The salaries, allowances
the fundamental rights of the citizens and and pensions of the judges and the staff as
guardian of the Constitution. Therefore, its well as all the administrative expenses of the
independence becomes very essential for the Supreme Court are charged on the Consolidated
effective discharge of the duties assigned to it. Fund of India
Statement 1 is correct: The chief justice is Statement 4 is not correct: The Chief Justice
appointed by the president after consultation of India can appoint officers and servants of
with such judges of the Supreme Court and the Supreme Court without any interference
high courts as he deems necessary. The other from the executive. He can also prescribe their
judges are appointed by the president after conditions of service.
Judiciary-Explanation 421
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6 Local Self Government
2. Consider the following statements: (2016) Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
1. The minimum age prescribed for any
person to be a member of a panchayat (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
is 25 years. (b) 2 and 4 only
2. A panchayat reconstituted after (c) 1 and 3 only
premature dissolution continues only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
for the remainder period.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? 5. The Government enacted the Panchayat
Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act
(a) 1 only in 1996. Which one of the following is not
(b) 2 only identified as its objective? (2013)
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) To provide self-governance
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) To recognize traditional rights
(c) To create autonomous regions in tribal
3. With reference to “Gram Nyayalayas Acts”, areas
which of the following statements is/are (d) To free tribal people from exploitation
correct? (2016)
1. As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can 6. Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other
hear only civil cases and not criminal Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of
cases. Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority
2. The Act allows local social activists as to initiate the process of determining
mediators/conciliators. the nature and extent of individual or
Select the correct answer using the code community forest rights or both? (2013)
given below. (a) State Forest Department
(a) 1 only (b) District Collector/ Deputy Commissioner
(b) 2 only (c) Tahsildar/ Block Development Officer/
(c) Both 1 and 2 Mandal Revenue Officer
1. With reference to India, consider the 3. With reference to the “Tea Board” in India,
following pairs: (2023) consider the following statements: (2022)
Action: The Act under which it is covered 1. The Tea Board is a statutory body.
1. Unauthorized wearing of police or 2. It is a regulatory body attached to the
military uniforms : The Official Secrets Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers
Act, 1923 Welfare.
2. Knowingly misleading or otherwise 3. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated
interfering with a police officer or in Bengaluru.
military officer when engaged in their 4. The Board has overseas offices at Dubai
duties : The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 and Moscow.
3. Celebratory gunfire which can endanger Which of the statements given above are
the personal safety of others : The Arms correct ?
(Amendment) Act, 2019
(a) 1 and 3
How many of the above pairs are correctly
matched? (b) 2 and 4
Governance 427
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5. At the national level, which ministry is create durable assets like physical
the nodal agency to ensure effective infrastructure for health, education,
implementation of the Scheduled Tribes etc.
and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers 2. A specified portion of each MP's fund
(Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006? must benefit SC/ST populations.
(2021)
3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on a
(a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and yearly basis and the unused funds
Climate Change cannot be carried forward to the next
(b) Ministry of Panchayati Raj year.
(c) Ministry of Rural Development 4. The district authority must inspect
(d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs at least 10% of all works under
implementation every year.
Select the correct answer using the code
6. Consider the following statements in given below:
respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards:
(2021) (a) 1 and 2 only
3. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards 1. Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for
is restricted to a maximum of five in a more than three months.
particular year. 2. State cannot enter into any contract
Which of the above statements are not with private corporations for sharing of
correct? Aadhar data.
428 Governance
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7 Governance-Explanation
Governance-Explanation 429
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improvement in the personnel’s capabilities, instituted in 1954 to be awarded to citizens
and the working of the O&Ms Division. It nowhere of India in recognition of their distinguished
mentions that a minister and a secretary be contribution in various spheres of activity.
designated solely for pursuing the subject of The government suspended the practice of
administrative reform and promoting it. granting the Padma awards for two years in
Statement 2 is correct: In 1970, based on 1977. It was again suspended in mid-1992
the recommendations of the Administrative when 2 PILs were filed in the High Courts of
Reforms Commission, the Department of India. They are given in three categories: Padma
Personnel was set up in the Cabinet Secretariat. Vibhushan (for exceptional and distinguished
It was placed under the Prime Minister’s Office. service), Padma Bhushan (distinguished service
The Administrative Reforms Commission had in of higher-order) and Padma Shri (distinguished
its report on Machinery of the Government of service).
India, and its procedure of work recommended Statement 3 is not correct: A maximum of 3
inter-alia setting up of a separate Department people can be awarded the Bharat Ratna. The
of Personnel directly under the Prime Minister. total number of Padma awards to be conferred
each year is limited to 120. But the count
excludes posthumous awards and any non-
5. Answer: (d)
resident Indian or Overseas Citizen of India or
Option (d) is correct: The Ministry of Tribal foreign-based winners.
Affairs is the nodal agency at the national level
to ensure the effective implementation of the
Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest 7. Answer: (d)
Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act Statement 1 is correct: The funds under
2006. The preamble to the FRA clearly states Members of Parliament Local Area Development
it be ‘An Act to recognize and vest the forest Scheme have objectives to create durable
rights and occupation in forest land in forest- community assets and for the provision of
dwelling Scheduled Tribes and other traditional basic facilities including physical infrastructure
forest dwellers who have been residing in such for health, education, etc., based on locally felt
forests for generations but whose rights could needs.
not be recorded. It provides a framework for Statement 2 is correct: There is a special focus
recording the forest rights so vested and the on areas inhabited by Scheduled Caste and
nature of evidence required for such recognition Scheduled Tribe populations by earmarking 15%
and vesting in respect of forest land. and 7.5 % of the MPLADS funds, respectively.
Out of an amount of Rs.5 Crores, the M.P. shall
6. Answer: (d) recommend for areas inhabited by the SC
population, Rs.75 lakhs, and Rs.37.5 lakhs for
Statement 1 is not correct: National awards
areas inhabited by ST population.
such as Bharat Ratna, Padma Vibhushan, Padma
Bhushan and Padma Shri do not amount to Statement 3 is not correct: The annual
titles within the meaning of Article 18(1) of the entitlement of Rs 5 crore shall be released,
Constitution. Article 18(1) abolishes all titles. It in two equal installments of Rs 2.5 crore
prohibits the State to confer titles on anybody, each, by Government of India directly to the
whether a citizen or a non-citizen. Military and District Authority based on unspent amount
academic distinctions are, however, exempted and utilisation certificate. The funds are non-
from the prohibition. Thus, a university can lapsable and can be carried forward.
give a title of honour to a man of merit. Statement 4 is correct: The District Authority
Statement 2 is not correct: Padma Awards were would be responsible for overall coordination
430 Governance-Explanation
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and supervision of the works under the scheme the Aadhaar Act, enabling body corporate and
at the district level and inspect at least 10% individuals to seek authentication, has been
of the works under implementation every year. held unconstitutional by the Supreme Court.
The District Authority should involve the MPs Statement 3 is not correct: In the 2018
in the inspections of projects to the extent judgement, the Supreme Court held that Aadhar
feasible. is not mandatory to purchase the insurance
products, however, it can be voluntarily used
8. Answer: (b) for KYC of the insurance products. Even IRDA
has made similar rules.
Statement 1 is not correct: A Constitution
Bench of the Supreme Court ruled that the Statement 4 is correct: The Supreme Court
Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored beyond ruled that any welfare scheme, driving funds
six months. out of the Consolidated Fund of India, would
require Aadhar to deliver the benefits to the
Statement 2 is correct: Part of Section 57 of intended beneficiaries.
Governance-Explanation 431
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Constitutional and Non-
8 constitutional Bodies
1. Consider the following organizations/ decides the election schedule for the
bodies in India: (2023) conduct of both general elections and
1. The National Commission for Backward by-elections.
Classes 3. Election Commission resolves the
2. The National Human Rights Commission disputes relating to splits/mergers of
recognized political parties.
3. The National Law Commission
Which of the statements given above is/are
4. The National Consumer Disputes correct?
Redressal Commission
(a) 1 and 2 only
How many of the above are constitutional
bodies? (b) 2 only
2. Consider the following statements : (2022) 1. take part in the proceedings of the Lok
Sabha
1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor
General of India are the only officers 2. be a member of a Committee of the Lok
of the Government who are allowed Sabha
to participate in the meetings of the 3. speak in the Lok Sabha
Parliament of India. 4. vote in the Lok Sabha
2. According to the Constitution of India, Which of the statements given above is/are
the Attorney General of India submits correct?
his resignation when the Government
which appointed him resigns. (a) 1 only
2. The Union Ministry of Home Affairs Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only 8. With reference to the Finance Commission
of India, which of the following statements
(c) 1 and 3 only
is correct? (2011)
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) It encourages the inflow of foreign
capital for infrastructure development
7. In India, other than ensuring that public (b) It facilitates the proper distribution
funds are used efficiently and for intended of finances among the Public Sector
purpose, what is the importance of the Undertakings
office of the Comptroller and Auditor
(c) It ensures transparency in financial
General (CAG)? (2012)
administration
1. CAG exercises exchequer control on
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c)
behalf of the Parliament when the
given above is correct in this context
President of India declares national
1. In India, Legal Services Authorities provide 3. With reference to National Legal Services
free legal services to which of the following Authority, consider the following
types of citizens? (2020) statements: (2013)
1. Person with an annual income of less 1. Its objective is to provide free and
than Rs. 1,00,000 competent legal services to the weaker
2. Transgender with an annual income of sections of the society on the basis of
less than Rs. 2,00,000 equal opportunity.
3. Member of Other Backward Classes 2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal
(OBC) with an annual income of less Services Authorities to implement the
than Rs. 3,00,000 legal programs and schemes throughout
the country.
4. All Senior Citizens
Which of the statements given above is/are
Select the correct answer using the code
correct?
given below:
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1 and 4 only
1. Consider the following countries: (2015) 2. With reference to "Look East Policy" of
1. China India, consider the following statements:
(2011)
2. France
1. India wants to establish itself as an
3. India important regional player in East Asian
4. Israel affairs.
5. Pakistan 2. India wants to plug the vacuum created
Which among the above are Nuclear by the termination of the Cold War.
Weapons States as recognized by the 3. India wants to restore the historical
Treaty on the Nonproliferation of Nuclear and cultural ties with its neighbours in
Weapons, commonly known as Nuclear Southeast and East Asia.
Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 and 2 only correct?
(b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only (a) 1 only
(c) 2, 4 and 5 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
7. In which one of the following groups are all 3. AIIB does not have any members from
the four countries members of G20? (2020) outside Asia.
(a) Argentina, Mexico, South Africa, and Which of the statements given above is/are
Turkey correct?
Which of the above statements is/are 2. South Africa was the last to join the
correct? BRICS grouping.
9. Answer: (a)
Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)
is a multilateral development bank that aims
to support the building of infrastructure in
the Asia-Pacific region. It is headquartered
in Beijing, China. It offers sovereign and non-
sovereign financing for sound and sustainable
8. Answer: (c) projects in energy and power, transportation
Statement 1 is not correct: The United Nations and telecommunications, rural infrastructure
Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) only and agricultural development, water supply
covers five main areas: preventive measures, and sanitation, environmental protection, and
criminalization and law enforcement, urban development and logistics.
international cooperation, asset recovery, and Statement 1 is correct: The bank currently has
technical assistance and information exchange. 103 member nations.
This convention does not cover the aspect of
Statement 2 is not correct: China is the largest
Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air’.
shareholder (shareholding 30.77%) in AIIB
Statement 2 is correct: The United Nations followed by India (shareholding 8.64%), Russia
Convention against Corruption is the only (6.75%) and Germany (4.63%).
legally binding universal anti-corruption
Statement 3 is not correct: AIIB has 39 non-
instrument. The Convention’s far-reaching
regional members (members from outside Asia)
approach and the mandatory character of
as well. Some of them are Austria, Canada,
many of its provisions make it a unique tool
Finland, etc.
for developing a comprehensive response to a
global problem. y Elimination Technique: AIIB does not
Statement 3 is not correct: The General have any members from outside Asia.
Assembly adopted the United Nations Statement 3 is not correct. Thus,
Convention against Transnational Organised Option (a) is correct.
1. Consider the following pairs: (2023) (a) Discovery of rich deposits of rare earth
elements
Regions often Reason for being in
mentioned in news (b) Establishment of Chinese military bases
news : (c) Southward expansion of Sahara Desert
1. North Kivu War between (d) Successful coups
and Ituri : Armenia and
Azerbaijan
4. Consider the following countries: (2022)
2. Nagorno- Insurgency in
Karabakh : Mozambique 1. Armenia
3. Kherson and Dispute between 2. Azerbaijan
Zaporizhzhia : Israel and Lebanon 3. Croatia
How many of the above pairs are correctly 4. Romania
matched?
5. Uzbekistan
(a) Only one
Which of the above are members of the
(b) Only two Organization of Turkic States ?
(c) All three (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) None (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 5 only
2. Consider the following pairs: (2023) (d) 3, 4 and 5 only
Area of conflict Country where
mentioned in news : it is located 5. Which one of the following statements best
1. Donbas : Syria reflects the issue with Senkaku Islands,
2. Kachin : Ethiopia sometimes mentioned in the news? (2022)
5. Answer: (b)
Option (b) is correct: The 50-year-old controversy between Japan, the People’s Republic of China
(PRC), and Taiwan over the sovereignty of a group of tiny, uninhabited islets and rocks in the East
China Sea, administered by Japan and referred to as the Senkaku Islands in Japan.
8. Answer: (a)
Pair 1 is correctly matched: Chechnya is in
southwestern Russia, situated on the northern
flank of the Greater Caucasus range. The region
6. Answer: (a) is rich in oil. After a decade of unsuccessfully
fighting for independence, the autonomous
Option (a) is correct: The International Maritime
region is now firmly under the control of
Organization has adopted a mandatory Polar
Russia. In addition, jihadist groups, including
Code to provide for safe ship operation and
those aligned with Islamic State terrorist
environmental protection in the polar regions.
organizations, exist in the region.
If you operate a SOLAS or MARPOL ship in
Arctic or Antarctic waters, then your ship will
soon need to comply with all or part of this
Code.
7. Answer: (c)
Option 1 is not correct: China established its
first, and so far only, the overseas military base
in the eastern African nation of Djibouti in 2017.
The facility is strategically located near the
Bab el-Mandeb Strait linking the Indian Ocean
and the Red Sea. and A permanent Chinese
military installation in Equatorial Guinea is the
culmination of nearly a decade’s investment in
Pair 2 is not correctly matched: The Darfur
Africa – and will not be the last of such bases
region lies in the western part of Sudan,
on the continent’s Atlantic coast.
which borders Libya, Chad, and the Central
Option 2 is correct: In Guinea, military leaders African Republic. The population of Darfur was
detain the president, declaring the dissolution estimated in 2002 at about six million, eighty
of government and suspension of the percent of whom live in rural areas. Since
constitution. 2003, the Darfur region of western Sudan has
Option 3 is correct: Lebanon’s severe and been the site of terrible violence, death, and
prolonged economic depression is, according displacement. The UN described it as “the
to the World Bank, ‘likely to rank in the top world’s worst humanitarian crisis”.
Elimination Technique
Swat valley is in Pakistan, a famous tourist
attraction. So, Ooptions (b), (c), and (d)can
be eliminated easily. Therefore, we can
mark option (a) as the correct answer.
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) The bank money in the form of cheques,
drafts, bills of exchange, etc.
(c) 1 and 3 only '
(d) The metallic money in circulation in a
(d) 1, 2 and 3 country.
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only 6. Which one of the following best describes
the term "Merchant Discount Rate"
sometimes seen in news? [2018 - I]
3. Which one of the following links all the (a) The incentive given by a bank to a
ATMs in India? (2018) merchant for accepting payments
13. If the RBI decides to adopt an expansionist 3. Air India was nationalised and became
monetary policy, which of the following it the national carrier.
would not do? (2020) 4. Goa became a part of independent
1. Cut and optimize the Statutory Liquidity Indi(a)
Ratio Which of the following is the correct
2. Increase the Marginal Standing Facility chronological sequence of the above
Rate events?
3. Cut the Bank Rate and Repo Rate (a) 4 - 1 - 2 - 3
Select the correct answer using the code (b) 3 - 2 - 1 - 4
given below: (c) 4 - 2 - 1 - 3
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) 3 - 1 - 2 - 4
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only 17. Which of the following statements is/are
(d) 1, 2 and 3 correct regarding the 'Monetary Policy
Committee (MPC)? (2017)
1. It decides the RBI's benchmark interest
rates.
14. Which of the following is not included in
2. It is a 12-member body including the
the assets of a commercial bank in India?
Governor of RBI and is reconstituted
(2019)
every year.
(a) Advances
3. It functions under the chairmanship of
(b) Deposits
the Union Finance Minister.
(c) Investments
Select the correct answer using the code
(d) Money at call and short notice given below:
(a) 1 only
15.
The money multiplier in an economy (b) 1 and 2 only
increases with which one of the following?
(c) 3 only
(2019)
(a) Increase in the cash reserve ratio (d) 2 and 3 only
30. Priority Sector Lending by banks in India 34. Which of the following grants/grant direct
constitutes the lending to: (2013) credit assistance to rural households?
(a) Agriculture (2013)
(b) micro and small enterprises 1. Regional Rural Banks
(c) weaker sections 2. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural
(d) All of the above Development
3. Land Development Banks.
31. In the context of Indian economy, ‘Open Select the correct answer using the code
Market Operations’ refers to: (2013) given below:
(a) borrowing by scheduled banks from the (a) 1 and 2 only
RBI (b) 2 only
(b) lending by commercial banks to industry (c) 1 and 3 only
and trade
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c)
purchase and sale of government
securities by the RBI
35. Which of the following measures would
(d) None of the above result in an increase in the money supply in
the economy? (2012)
32. An increase in the Bank Rate generally 1. Purchase of government securities from
indicates that the (2013) the public by the Central Bank
(a) Market rate of interest is likely to fall 2. Deposit of currency in commercial
(b) Central Bank is no longer making loans banks by the public
to commercial banks 3. Borrowing by the government from the
(c) Central Bank is following an easy money Central Bank
policy 4. Sale of government securities to the
(d) Central Bank is following a tight money public by the Central Bank
policy Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
33. The Reserve Bank of India regulates the (a) 1 only
commercial banks in matters of: (2013) (b) 2 and 4 only
1. liquidity of assets
(c) 1 and 3 only
2. branch expansion
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
3. merger of banks
4. winding-up of banks 36. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as a
Select the correct answer using the code bankers' bank. This would imply which of
given below: the following? (2012)
(a) 1 and 4 only 1. Other banks retain their deposits with
the RBI.
Money multiplier is the amount of money that y Air India was nationalized in 1953. The
banks generate with each rupee of reserves. government of India passed the Air
Reserves are the amount of deposits that the Corporations Act in 1953 and purchased a
majority stake in the carrier from Tata Sons.
Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct: The Payments Banks are registered as Public limited
Small Finance Bank (SFB) is a private financial companies under the Companies Act, 2013 and
Priority Sector Lending (PSL) is aimed to y The objective of OMO is to regulate the
2. Answer: (c)
Statement 1 is correct: According to Section 3. Answer: (a)
8 of the RBI Act 1934, the Central Government Interest Coverage Ratio is an indicator of a
(Union Government) appoints the Governor company’s ability to pay interest out of its
and Deputy Governors of the Reserve Bank of current earnings. It is expressed as the number
India (RBI). of times that the interest can be covered from
Statement 2 is not correct: The RBI is an entity its current earnings.
independent of the government as it takes its Importance of the term Interest Coverage
own decisions. However, in certain instances, it Ratio:
has to listen to the government. This provision y It can help in understanding the present
in the RBI Act is contained in Section 7 of RBI risk, as a firm with a low-interest coverage
Act, 1934, which says: ratio just may not have enough earnings
(1) The Central Government may, from time in order to meet the annual interest
to time, give such directions to the Bank as it obligations. (Statement 1 is correct)
may, after consultation with the Governor of y Emerging risk can also be assessed by
7. With reference to the Indian Economy, Which of the statements given above is/are
consider the following statements: (2020) correct?
1. ’Commercial Paper’ is a short term (a) 1 and 2 only
unsecured promissory note. (b) 3 only
2. ‘Certificate of Deposit’ is a long-term (c) 2 and 3 only
instrument issued by the Reserve Bank
of India to a corporation. (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Under the Kisan Credit Card Scheme, short- (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
term credit support is given to farmers for (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
which of the following purposes? (2020) (c) 2 and 3 only
1. Working capital for maintenance of farm
assets (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
8. Answer: (c)
6. Answer: (a)
Option (c) is correct: Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan
Explanation:
Yojana (PMJDY) was launched in August 2014
Option (a) is correct: MUDRA stands for Micro (in two phases) under the National Mission for
Units Development and Refinance Agency. Financial Inclusion. The aim of the PMJDY is to
Under the Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana non- promote financial inclusion in the country by
corporate, non-farm small/micro enterprises providing universal access to banking facilities
can avail loans of up to Rs 10 lakh. It aimed at with at least one basic banking account for
bringing the small entrepreneurs into a formal every household, financial literacy, access to
financial system. credit, insurance and pension.
MUDRA is a refinance scheme where the Under this scheme, people not having a bank
authority formed under the MUDRA Yojana does account can open a simple Savings Bank A/c.
not directly lend to the borrowers, instead These accounts have certain benefits for the
the loans are provided by various financial account holders:
institutions like Commercial Banks, NBFCs etc.
y No requirement for maintaining a minimum
Loans provided under the MUDRA Yojana are
balance in the account.
classified into three types, based upon the size
of the loans granted. y Provision of interest on the deposited
amounts.
y Shishu Loan: Loans of up to Rs 50000
y Rupay Debit Card is provided to the account
y Kishore Loan: Loans ranging from Rs 50000
holders.
to 5 lakh
y Overdraft facility of up to Rupees 10000.
y Tarun Loan: Loans ranging from Rs 5 lakh
to Rupees 10 lakh. y Benefits of other government schemes
The Constitution has defined the relative roles Consolidated Fund of India, a fund to which
or position of both the Houses of Parliament all receipts are credited, and all payments are
about the enactment of the budget in the debited. This consists of:
following way: y All revenues received by the Government
y A money bill or finance bill dealing with of India.
taxation cannot be introduced in the Rajya y All loans raised by the Government by the
Sabha, it must be introduced only in the issue of treasury bills, loans or ways and
Lok Sabha. means of advances.
y The Rajya Sabha has no power either to y All money received by the government in
reject or to amend a Money Bill. It should repayment of loans forms the Consolidated
return the Money bill (or Finance bill) to Fund of India.
the Lok Sabha within fourteen days. The Statement 3 is not correct: All public money
Lok Sabha can either accept or reject the (other than those which are credited to the
1. Consider the investments in the following Select the correct answer using the code
assets: (2023) given below :
1. Brand recognition (a) 1 only
2. Inventory (b) 2 only
3. Intellectual property (c) Both 1 and 2
4. Mailing list of clients (d) Neither 1 nor 2
How many of the above are considered
intangible investments? 4. With reference to the Indian economy,
(a) Only one consider the following statements: (2022)
(b) Only two 1. An increase in Nominal Effective
Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the
(c) Only three
appreciation of rupee.
(d) All four
2. An increase in the Real Effective
Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an
2. With reference to the Indian economy, improvement in trade competitiveness.
consider the following statements : (2022)
3. An increasing trend in domestic inflation
1. A share of the household financial
relative to inflation in other countries is
savings goes towards government
likely to cause an increasing divergence
borrowings.
between NEER and REER.
2. Dated securities issued at market-
Which of the above statements are correct
related rates in auctions form a large
?
component of internal debt.
(a) 1 and 2 only
Which of the above statements is/are
correct ? (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
22. Consider the following statements: (2017)
(c) Both 1 and 2 1. Tax revenue as a per cent of GDP of
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 India has steadily increased in the last
decade.
20. Consider the following statements: (2018) 2. The fiscal deficit as a per cent of GDP of
1. The quantity of imported edible oils is India has steadily increased in the last
more than the domestic production of decade.
edible oils in the last five years. Which of the statements given above is/are
2. The Government does not impose any correct?
customs duty on all the imported edible (a) 1 only
oils as a special case.
(b) 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
23. Which of the following is/are included in
(c) Both 1 and 2 the capital budget of the Government of
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 India? (2016)
1. Expenditure on acquisition of assets
21. Consider the following statements: (2018) like roads, buildings, machinery, etc.
1. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget 2.
Loans received from foreign
Management (FRBM) Review Committee governments.
Report has recommended a debt to GDP 3. Loans and advances granted to the
ratio of 60% for the general (combined) States and Union Territories.
government by 2023, comprising 40%
for the Central Government and 20% for Select the correct answer using the code
the State Governments. given below.
24. There has been a persistent deficit budget 27. Which of the following best describes the
year after year. Which action/actions of the term ‘import cover’, sometimes seen in the
following can be taken by the government news? (2016)
to reduce the deficit? (2016) (a) It is the ratio of value of imports to the
1. Reducing revenue expenditure Gross Domestic Product of a country.
2. Introducing new welfare scheme (b) It is the total value of imports of a
3. Rationalizing subsidies country in a year.
32. With reference to the Union Budget, which 35. Which of the following constitute Capital
of the following is/are covered under Non- Account? (2013)
Plan Expenditure? (2014) 1. Foreign Loans
1. Defence Expenditure 2. Foreign Direct Investment
2. Interest Payments 3. Private Remittances
3. Salaries and pensions 4. Portfolio Investment
4. Subsidies Select the correct answer using the code
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) None
36. Which one of the following groups of items
33. With reference to Balance of Payments, is included in India’s foreign – exchange
which of the following constitutes/ reserves? (2013)
constitute the Current Account? (2014) (a) Foreign – currency assets, Special
1. Balance of Trade Drawing Rights (SDRs) and loans from
foreign countries.
2. Foreign Assets
37. Consider the following statements: (2012) 40. Why is the Government of India disinvesting
The price of any currency in international its equity in the Central Public Sector
market is decided by the Enterprises (CPSEs)? (2011)
1. World Bank 1. The Government intends to use the
2. demand for goods/services provided by revenue earned from the disinvestment
the country concerned mainly to pay back the external debt.
Elimination Technique
19. Answer: (a)
y Currency crisis is mostly related to
external economic events. Increasing The basis for Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) is
government expenditure is not directly the “law of one price”. It aims to determine
Statement 1 is correct: Edible oil imports are Statement 3 is correct: Article 293 (3) of the
a huge cause of concern due to their rising Constitution of India states that, “A State may
import bill. A high domestic demand for edible not without the consent of the Government of
oils in the country, makes it dependent upon India raise any loan if there is still outstanding
imports for meeting around 70 percent of its any part of a loan which has been made to
domestic demand. Hence, the quantity of the State by the Government of India or by
imported edible oils is more than the domestic its predecessor Government, or in respect
production of edible oils in the last five years. of which a guarantee has been given by the
Government of India or by its predecessor
Statement 2 is not correct: The government
Government”.
levies 35% and 45% import duty on all crude
and refined edible oils respectively. While in The Act allows for an “escape clause” under
2018 the import duty on Olive oil was 40%. which in special circumstances like calamities
the government can flexibly follow the Fiscal
Additional Information:
Deficit targets, allowing it for more room and
Around 62 percent of edible oil imports space to tackle the situation. This terminology
are accounted for by Palm Oil due to a high of escape clause was innovated by the N.K
domestic demand. With effect from January Singh Panel. For the Fiscal Year 2019-20, the
2020, import policy of refined Palm Oil is total Central Government debt stood at 48.6%
amended from ‘free’ to ‘Restricted’ category, of the GDP.
meaning that the government has imposed
certain trade barriers which the importer has
to overcome before importing the product into 22. Answer: (d)
the country. Statement 1 is not correct: Tax revenue as a
percentage of GDP has not steadily increased
in the last decade. There has been a rise and
Statement 2 is not correct: Fiscal deficit as a percentage of GDP has not steadily increased in the
last decade. There has been a rise and fall in it with no steady pattern of rising or falling.
y Changes of ownership and other changes y Financial Account: The financial account
in that economy’s monetary gold, special records an economy’s transaction in
drawing rights (SDRs), and financial claims external financial assets and liabilities.
on and liabilities to the rest of the world,
and 35. Answer: (b)
y Unrequited transfers (a remittance that an Capital Account is a sub-component under
immigrant makes to his family or friends in the Balance of Payments. It keeps a record
the home country). of transactions of international nature which
Option (c) is correct: The Current Account are concerned with altering either an Asset or
keeps the record of transactions of goods and Liability for the domestic country.
services between the country and the rest of Option (b) is correct: Foreign Loans, Foreign
the world and is a subcomponent under the Direct Investment and Portfolio Investment
Balance of Payments. With reference to Balance form a component of the Capital Account as
Statement 1 is not correct: A fixed exchange Foreign direct investment (FDI) is when a
rate is one of the systems that determines the company takes controlling ownership in a
price or the value of currency. A fixed or pegged business entity in another country. With FDI,
rate is determined by the government through foreign companies are directly involved with
its central bank. The rate is set against another day-to-day operations in the other country. It
major world currency (such as the U.S. dollar,
544 3B: WTO, IMF & other Intl. Orgs & Agreeements
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7. The term 'Digital Single Market Strategy' Which of the statements given above is/are
seen in the news refers to [2017] correct?
(a) ASEAN (a) 1 only
(b) BRICS (b) 2 only
(c) EU (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) G20 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3B: WTO, IMF & other Intl. Orgs & Agreeements 545
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(c) The World Economic Forum (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) The World Bank
18.
The Global Competitiveness Report is
15. Regarding the International Monetary Fund, published by the
which one of the following statements is (a) International Monetary Fund
correct? (2011) (b) United Nations Conference on Trade
(a) It can grant loans to any country. and Development
(b) It can grant loans to only developed (c) World Economic Forum
countries. (d) World Bank
(c) It grants loans to only member countries.
(d) It can grant loans to the central bank of 19. Consider the following countries:
a country. 1. Armenia
2. Azerbaijan
16.
‘Broad-based Trade and Investment 3. Croatia
Agreement (BTIA)’ is sometimes seen in
the news in the context of negotiations 4. Romania
held between India and 5. Uzbekistan
(a) European Union Which of the above are members of the
(b) Gulf Cooperation Council Organization of Turkic States?
(c) Organization for Economic Cooperation (a) 1, 2 and 4
and Development (b) 1 and 3
(d) Shanghai Cooperation Organization (c) 2 and 5
(d) 3, 4 and 5
546 3B: WTO, IMF & other Intl. Orgs & Agreeements
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3B: WTO, IMF & other Intl. Orgs &
10 Agreeements_Explanation
1. Answer: (b) related to trade in goods that restrict or distort
Option (b) is correct: The Rapid Financing trade. The TRIMS Agreement prohibits certain
Instrument (RFI) provides rapid financial measures that violate the national treatment
assistance, which is available to all member and quantitative restrictions requirements of
countries facing an urgent balance of payments the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade
need. The RFI was created as part of a broader (GATT).
reform to make the IMF’s financial support y It prohibits the imposition of Quantitative
more flexible to address the diverse needs of restrictions on imports by foreign investors.
member countries. (Statement 1 is correct)
The Rapid Credit Facility (RCF) provides y TRIMS is concerned with trade in goods.
rapid concessional financial assistance to It does not apply to trade in services.
low-income countries (LICs) facing an urgent (Statement 2 is not correct)
balance of payments (BoP) need with no ex post y TRIMS is largely concerned with the
conditionality where a full-fledged economic treatment aspect of foreign entities in
program is neither necessary nor feasible. a domestic territory. It does not concern
the regulation of foreign investment.
2. Answer: (a) (Statement 3 is correct)
3B: WTO, IMF & other Intl. Orgs & Agreeements_Explanation 547
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5. Answer: (c) 7. Answer: (c)
Explanation: Explanation:
The Association of Southeast Asian Nations Option (c) is correct: The Digital Single Market
(ASEAN) was established in August 1967 in Strategy was adopted by the European Union
Bangkok, Thailand, with the signing of the in 2015. This strategy is based on three broad
ASEAN Declaration (Bangkok Declaration). pillars namely: Improving access to digital
goods and services, an environment where
Currently, it has 10 member nations which are:
digital networks and services can prosper and
Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia,
Digital as a driver for growth.
Myanmar, the Philippines, Singapore, Thailand,
and Vietnam.
ASEAN has a total of 6 free trade partners 8. Answer: (a)
namely: Australia, New Zealand, South Korea, Explanation:
Japan, India, China. Therefore, from the above-
The Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) of WTO
mentioned countries Australia, China, India and
attempts to create an international framework
Japan are the free-trade partners of ASEAN.
for reducing trade costs. It has provisions
(Option c is correct)
which expedite movement of goods, clearance
Additional Information: of goods and release of goods by simplifying
Recently ASEAN and its 5 free trade partners customs rules and regulations amongst the
(excluding India) have entered into a regional countries.
trading agreement called the Regional Statement 1 is correct: India ratified the Trade
Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP). Facilitation Agreement of WTO in 2016.
The purpose of RCEP was to make it easier
Statement 2 is correct: TFA was an outcome of
for products and services of each of these
the WTO’s Bali Ministerial.
countries to be available across this region.
India has however chosen to stay out of RCEP. Statement 3 is not correct: It came into force
in February 2017
6. Answer: (d)
9. Answer: (b)
Option (d) is correct: A geographical indication
(GI) is a sign used on products that have a specific Explanation:
geographical origin and possess qualities or a Statement 1 is not correct: During the sixth
reputation that are due to that origin. India BRICS Summit in Fortaleza (2014), the leaders
enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods signed the Agreement establishing the New
(Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 in order Development Bank (NDB). In the Fortaleza
to comply with the obligations to the World Declaration, the leaders stressed that the NDB
Trade Organization. will strengthen cooperation among BRICS and
Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property will supplement the efforts of multilateral
Rights (TRIPS) Agreement was signed in and regional financial institutions for global
1994, forming a part of the larger Marrakesh development, thus contributing to collective
Agreement forming the WTO. Geographical commitments for achieving the goal of strong,
Indications have been understood to be sustainable and balanced growth.
Intellectual Property Rights under the TRIPS Statement 2 is correct: The headquarters of
Agreement. the New Development Bank shall be located in
Saffron of Jammu & Kashmir is the recent item Shanghai, China.
which has received GI tag in India.
548 3B: WTO, IMF & other Intl. Orgs & Agreeements_Explanation
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10. Answer: (c) governments to their Agricultural Sector under
three heads, namely Amber Box, Blue Box and
The International Monetary and Financial
Green Box Subsidies.
Committee (IMFC) is a committee of the
International Monetary Fund (IMF). y Amber Box: These are the subsidies which
are trade-distorting. These subsidies need
y The IMFC advises and reports to the IMF
to be eliminated subject to a de-minimis
Board of Governors on the supervision
level, which is the amount of support that
and management of the international
is permitted under the amber box. This
monetary and financial system, including
level is at 5% of agricultural production
on responses to unfolding events that may
for the developed countries and 10% of
disrupt the system. In effect, IMFC is the
agricultural production for the developing
key to providing advice and direction to the
countries.
work of the IMF. (Statement 1 is correct)
y Blue Box: These are the production
y The IMFC has 24 members amongst
limitation subsidies. There are no limits on
central bank governors, Ministers, or
the amount of subsidy that can be provided
other comparable ranks. The World Bank
under this head.
participates as an observer in the IMFC’s
Meetings. (Statement 2 is correct) y Green Box: These are the non-trade
distorting subsidies. Programmes under
this head are not specifically targeted
11. Answer: (b) at a particular product; instead they are
Explanation: general protection and developmental
Option (b) is correct: The Global Financial programmes. These subsidies are allowed
Stability report is prepared by the International without any limit.
Monetary Fund (IMF). The report provides an
assessment of the global financial system 13. Answer: (c)
and markets and addresses emerging market
Explanation:
financing in a global context. It focuses on
current market conditions, highlighting Option (c) is correct: The Agreement on the
systemic issues that could pose a risk to Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary
financial stability and sustained market access Measures (the “SPS Agreement”) entered into
by emerging market borrowers. force with the establishment of the World Trade
Organization on 1 January 1995. It concerns the
The IMF also publishes other report namely,
application of food safety and animal and plant
the ‘World Economic Outlook’ report and
health regulations.
Fiscal Monitor.
The WTO Agreement on Agriculture, which
came into force in 1995, represents a significant
12. Answer: (a) step towards reforming agricultural trade
Option (a) is correct: Amber Box, Blue Box, and making it fairer and more competitive.
etc., are agricultural subsidies of the World Article 13 (“due restraint”) of the Agriculture
Trade Organization (WTO). In WTO terminology, Agreement protects countries using subsidies
subsidies, in general, are identified by “Boxes”. which comply with the agreement from being
WTO’s Agreement on Agriculture, which seeks challenged under other WTO agreements.
to eliminate the trade-distorting subsidies Without this “peace clause”, countries would
in the context of global trade in agricultural have greater freedom to take action against
products, divides the subsidies provided by each others’ subsidies, under the Subsidies
and Countervailing Measures Agreement and
3B: WTO, IMF & other Intl. Orgs & Agreeements_Explanation 549
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related provisions. Competitiveness Report is an annual report
published by the World Economic Forum.
550 3B: WTO, IMF & other Intl. Orgs & Agreeements_Explanation
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published twice a year. accountable to its 189 member countries.
y The report analyses global economic y The IMF’s primary purpose is to ensure
developments during the near and the stability of the international monetary
medium-term. It gives an overview as system such as the system of exchange
well as more detailed analysis of the rates and international payments that
world economy; consider issues affecting enables countries (and their citizens) to
industrial countries, developing countries, transact with each other.
and economies in transition to market; and y IMF provides loans to member countries
address topics of pressing current interest. that are experiencing actual or potential
balance-of-payments problems. It also
20. Answer: (c) provides financial assistance to its member
countries through allocation of Special
Option (c) is correct: The International Monetary Drawing Rights (SDRs) and Quota based on
Fund (IMF) is a Bretton Woods Organization, economic size and other parameters.
created in 1945 and it is governed by, and is
3B: WTO, IMF & other Intl. Orgs & Agreeements_Explanation 551
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11 4A: Sectors of Economy- Agri
1. Which one of the following best describes 3. With reference to WaterCredit’, consider
the concept of 'Small Farmer Large Field? the following statements : (2021)
(2023) 1. It puts microfinance tools to work in
(a) Resettlement of a large number of the water and sanitation sector.
people, uprooted from their countries 2. It is a global initiative launched under the
due to war, by giving them a large aegis of the World Health Organization
cultivable land which they cultivate and the World Bank.
collectively and share the produce 3. It aims to enable the poor people
(b)
Many marginal farmers in an area to meet their water needs without
organize themselves into groups and depending on subsidies.
synchronize and harmonize selected Which of the statements given above are
agricultural operations correct?
(c) Many marginal farmers in an area together (a) 1 and 2 only
make a contract with a corporate body
and surrender their land to the corporate (b) 2 and 3 only
body for a fixed term for which the (c) 1 and 3 only
corporate body makes a payment of (d) 1, 2 and 3
agreed amount to the farmers
(d) A company extends loans, technical 4.
Find correct statement(s): (UPSC-
knowledge and material inputs to a Prelims-2020)
number of small farmers in an area 1. 36% of India’s districts are classified
so that they produce the agricultural as “overexploited” or “critical” by the
commodity required by the company CGWA.
for its manufacturing process and
2. Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA)
commercial production
was formed under the Environment
(Protection) Act.
2. Consider the following statements : (2023) 3. India has the largest area under
1. The Government of India provides groundwater irrigation in the world.
Minimum Support Price for niger Codes:
(Guizotia abyssinica) seeds.
(a) 1 only
2. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop.
(b) 2 and 3 Only
3. Some tribal people in India use niger
(c) 2 only
seed oil for cooking.
(d) 1 and 3 Only
How many of the above statements are
correct?
5. With reference to chemical fertilisers in
(a) Only one
India, consider the following statements:
(b) Only two (2020)
(c) All three 1. At present, the retail price of chemical
(d) None fertilisers is market-driven and not
2. Out of the total agricultural households Select the correct answer using the code
in the country, a little over 60 percent given below:
belong to OBCs. (a) 1 only
3. In Kerala, a little over 60 percent (b) 2 only
of agricultural households reported (c) Both 1 and 2
to have received maximum income
from sources other than agricultural (d) Neither 1 nor 2
activities.
Which of the statements given above is/are 14.
Why does the Govt promote the use
correct? of Neem-coated Urea’ in agriculture?
(Prelims-2016)
(a) 2 and 3 only (a)
Release of Neem oil in the soil
(b) 2 only increases nitrogen fixation by the soil
(c) 1 and 3 only microorganisms.
12. Consider the following: (2018) (c) Nitrous oxide, a greenhouse gas, is not
1. Areca nut at all released into atmosphere by crop
fields.
2. Barley
(d) It is a combination of a weedicide and a
3. Coffee
fertilizer for particular crops.
4. Finger millet
5. Groundnut 15. Which of the following is/are the advantage/
6. Sesamum advantages of practising drip irrigation?
(2016)
7. Turmeric
1. Reduction in weed
564 4B: Sectors- MFG, Services, Ease of Doing Biz, IPR, Startup, MSME
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the mother minimum six creche visits (a) 1 only
daily (b) 2 only
3. Women with two children get reduced (c) Both 1 and 2
entitlements.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Select the correct answer using the code
given below
9. With reference to the 'National Intellectual
(a) 1 and 2 only Property Rights Policy', consider the
(b) 2 only following statements: (2017)
(c) 3 only 1. It reiterates India's commitment to the
Doha Development Agenda and the
(d) 1,2 and 3
TRIPS Agreement.
2. Department of Industrial Policy and
7. As per the Industrial Employment (Standing
Promotion is the nodal agency for
Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018:
regulating intellectual property rights in
[2019]
India.
1. If rules for fixed-term employment are
implemented, it becomes easier for the Which of the above statements is/are
firms/companies to lay off workers correct?
2. The Food Safety and Standards Select the correct answer using the code
Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the given below:
charge of Director General of (a) 1 only
Health Services in the Union Ministry of (b) 2 and 3 only
Health and Family Welfare. (c) 1 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (d) 1, 2 and 3
correct ?
4B: Sectors- MFG, Services, Ease of Doing Biz, IPR, Startup, MSME 565
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4B: Sectors- MFG, Services, Ease of Doing
12 Biz, IPR, Startup, MSME_Explanation
566 4B: Sectors- MFG, Services, Ease of Doing Biz, IPR, Startup, MSME_Explanation
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and Industry on 15th September 2003 to hear more employees, including the right of
appeals against the decisions of the Registrar mothers to visit the crèche four times per
under the Trade Marks Act, 1999 and the day. (Statement 2 is not correct) Thus,
Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration Statement 2 is wrong and by elimination
and Protection) Act, 1999. of options containing this statement, we
arrive at the correct answer [C].
Statement 3 is correct: In India, there are no
laws that allow for patenting patented in India.
7. Answer: (c)
5. Answer: (c) Explanation:
Explanation: Recently, the Ministry of Labour and
Employment notified fixed term employment
Option (c) is correct: Atal Innovation Mission is
for all sectors through an amendment to
a flagship scheme by the Government of India,
the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders)
set up under NITI Aayog (National Institute
Central Rules, 1946. Under the rules, a fixed
for Transforming India), erstwhile Planning
term employment workman is engaged on the
Commission, to create and promote a culture
basis of a written contract of employment for
of innovation and entrepreneurship across the
a fixed period.
country.
Statement 1 is correct: The changes introduced
Its objective is to develop new programmes and
in Industrial Employment (Standing Orders)
policies for fostering innovation in different
Act, 1946 have made it easy for the firms to
sectors of the economy, provide platforms
hire and fire employees by introducing fixed
and collaboration opportunities for different
term employment in all sectors.
stakeholders, and create an umbrella structure
to oversee the innovation & entrepreneurship Statement 2 is correct: As the Amendment
ecosystem of the country. provides that subject to the provisions of
the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, no notice of
termination of employment shall be necessary
6. Answer: (c) in the case of temporary workman whether
Explanation: monthly rated, weekly rated or piece rated and
The 2017 landmark amendment to the probationers or badli workmen.
Maternity Benefit Act of 1961 (MBA), The key
changes include: 8. Answer: (a)
y Increased paid maternity leave from 12 Explanation:
weeks to 26 weeks for women employees,
The Food Safety and Standards Act was
unless they have two or more surviving
enacted in 2006 as an Act to consolidate the
children; (Statement 3 is correct)
laws relating to food and to establish the
y Recognition of the rights of an adopting Food Safety and Standards Authority of India
mother and of a commissioning mother for laying down science-based standards
(using a surrogate to bear a child) for the for articles of food and to regulate their
first time, who may claim paid maternity manufacture, storage, distribution, sale and
leave for 12 weeks. import, to ensure availability of safe and
y A “work from home” option that may be of wholesome food for human consumption and
benefit after the maternity leave expires. for matters connected therewith or incidental
y Mandatory crèche (day care) facilities thereto.
for every establishment employing 50 or Statement 1 is correct: The Food Safety and
4B: Sectors- MFG, Services, Ease of Doing Biz, IPR, Startup, MSME_Explanation 567
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Standard Act repealed various Acts and Orders under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry
like the Edible Oils Packaging (Regulation) is the nodal agency for regulating intellectual
Order 1998, Fruit Products Order (FPO) 1955, property rights in India.
Meat Food Products Order (MFPO), Prevention
of Food Adulteration Act,1954 etc.
10. Answer: (d)
Statement 2 is not correct: Ministry of Health
& Family Welfare, Government of India is the Statement 1 is correct: Setting up of National
Administrative Ministry for the implementation Investment and Manufacturing Zones (NIMZs)
of FSSAI. The Chairperson and Chief Executive are one of the important instruments of
Officer of Food Safety and Standards Authority National Manufacturing Policy, 2011. NIMZs are
of India (FSSAI) is appointed by Government envisaged as large areas of developed land
of India, who holds the rank of Secretary to with the requisite eco-system for promoting
Government of India. The authority acts in world class manufacturing activity. NIMZs are
independent capacity. based on the principle of industrial growth
in partnership with States and focuses on
manufacturing growth and employment
9. Answer: (c) generation.
The National Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) Statement 2 is correct: Through a single
Policy is a vision document that encompasses window clearance approach the new
and brings to a single platform all IPRs. It views manufacturing units can obtain all clearances
IPRs holistically, taking into account all inter- from separate agencies, ministries, and various
linkages and thus aims to create and exploit licenses etc. by filing all documents with a
synergies between all forms of intellectual single authority instead of having to deal with
property (IP), concerned statutes and agencies. multiple regulators and bodies. The single
It sets in place an institutional mechanism for window clearance mechanism reduces delay
implementation, monitoring and review. It aims and thus helps in faster clearance and setting
to incorporate and adapt global best practices up manufacturing industries.
to the Indian scenario. Statement 3 is correct: Establishing the
Statement 1 is correct: It reiterates India’s Technology Acquisition and Development Fund
commitment to Doha Development Agenda (TADF), provides funding support to Micro,
and TRIPS Agreement as the policy will enable Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) for
smooth facilitation of trade across nations by the acquisition and development of clean and
the smooth transition of Intellectual Property green technology. The Scheme is applicable to
Rights across borders. all existing and new Micro, Small and Medium
Statement 2 is correct: Department of Industrial Enterprises (MSMEs) including those in the
Policy and Promotion (now, Department for National Investment and Manufacturing Zones
Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade) (NIMZs) in respect of their investments made
after notification of the Scheme.
568 4B: Sectors- MFG, Services, Ease of Doing Biz, IPR, Startup, MSME_Explanation
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4C: NITI, Planning Commission, FYP,
13 Unemployment
1. Consider the following statements: (UPSC- (c) 1 and 3 only
2022) (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Vietnam has been one of the fastest
growing economies in the world in the
recent years. 3. With reference to the Indian Economy after
the 1991 economic liberalization, consider
2. Vietnam is led by a multi-party political the following statements: (2020)
system. 1. Worker productivity (rupees per worker
3. Vietnam's economic growth is linked to at 2004-05 prices) increased in urban
its integration with global supply chains areas while it decreased in rural areas.
and focus on exports. 2. The percentage share of rural areas in
4. For a long time Vietnam's low labour the workforce steadily increased.
costs and stable exchange rates have 3. In rural areas, the growth in the non-
attracted global manufacturers. farm economy increased.
5. Vietnam has the most productive 4. The growth rate in rural employment
eservice sector in the Indo-Pacific decreased.
region.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above are correct?
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 2 and 4
(b) 3 and 4 only
(b) 3 and 5
(c) 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1 and 2
Statement 1 is not correct: Casual workers are y Worker productivity has comparatively
engaged by various Ministries/ Departments increased both in the urban as well as the
and their attached and subordinate offices rural areas. As per the 2017 report of NITI
for work of casual or seasonal, or intermittent Aayog, in rural areas worker productivity
nature. They are engaged according to was Rs. 37,273 per worker in 2004-05 and it
the requirements of different Ministries/ increased to Rs. 1,01,755 per worker in 2011-
Departments/ attached/subordinate offices. All 12. While, in urban areas it increased from
casual workers are not entitled to Employees Rs. 1,20,419 per worker in 2004-05 to Rs.
Provident Fund coverage. There are certain 2,82,515 per worker in 2011-12. (Statement
conditions which need to be filled. 1 is not correct)
Statement 2 is correct: Holding that an y The rural share in the total workforce
employer cannot differentiate between declined steadily from 76.1 per cent in
contractual and permanent employees, the 1999-00 to 70.9 per cent in 2011-12. Due
Supreme Court ruled in 2020 that casual to a faster reduction in the rural share in
workers are also entitled to social security total employment than in national NDP (Net
benefits under the Employees’ Provident Fund. Domestic Product), the difference between
So, all casual workers are entitled to regular the rural share in output and employment
working hours and overtime payment. narrowed down to 24 per cent by the year
2011-12. (Statement 2 is not correct)
Statement 3 is correct: The Payment of Wages
Act, 1936 has been amended by the Payment y The share of the manufacturing and service
of Wages (Amendment) Act, 2017 (effective sector has increased in the Rural NDP,
1. Which of the following activities constitute 4. Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP
a real sector in the economy ? (2022) do not connote a higher level of economic
1. Farmers harvesting their crops development, if (2018)
2. Textile mills converting raw cotton into (a) industrial output fails to keep pace with
fabrics agricultural output.
3. A commercial bank lending money to a (b) agricultural output fails to keep pace
trading company with industrial output.
3. Despite being a high saving economy, 2. The Gross Domestic Product at market
capital formation may not result in prices (in rupees) has steadily increased
significant increase in output due to (2018) in the last decade.
(a) weak administrative machinery Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) Illiteracy correct?
3. Answer: (d)
Under the concept of circular flow of income, 5. Answer: (a)
it is illustrated that the savings from the The tax to GDP ratio is defined as the amount
household sector are subsequently moved of taxes collected as a proportion of the
to the producers in an economy who in turn country’s Gross Domestic Product (GDP).
invest it and enhance the capital formation
Inflation is the rate at which the value of Option (a) is correct: Demand-pull inflation
a currency is falling and, consequently, the can be caused or increased by:
general level of prices for goods and services y Expansionary policies
is rising. Inflation is sometimes classified into y Fiscal stimulus
three types: Demand-Pull inflation, Cost-Push
y Higher purchasing power
inflation, and Built-In inflation.
Interest rates tend to move in the same
The financing of deficits is fundamentally
direction as inflation but with lags because
inflationary. The threat of inflation looms
interest rates are the primary tool used by
big since deficit financing raises aggregate
central banks to manage inflation.
expenditure and, as a result, increases
aggregate demand. Rising interest rates will discourage consumers
from borrowing money, preventing demand-
Option (d) is correct: The flow of money in
pull inflation. The standard tool of central banks
the economy is increased by printing new
to address “demand-pull” inflation has been
currency notes. As a result, inflationary
to raise interest rates. By making it costlier
pressures develop, resulting in higher costs for
for firms and households to borrow, demand
products and services in the country. It is most
for investment and consumption goods along
inflationary in nature.
with workers comes down, thereby cooling an
Printing new currency notes increases the overheated economy.
flow of money in the economy. This leads to an
Inflation-indexing wages mean that wages in
increase in inflationary pressures, which leads
the economy are dependent on inflation. So,
to the rise in the prices of goods and services
wages in an economy change w.r.t. to change
in the country.
in inflation changes. So effectively, it will not
While additional money printing is likely to
(b) Only two Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
(c) All three
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
2. Consider the following statements : (2023)
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Statement-I :
India, despite having uranium deposits,
4. Consider the following minerals: [2020]
depends on coal for most of its electricity
1. Bentonite
production.
2. Chromite
Statement-II :
3. Kyanite
Uranium, enriched to the extent of at least
60%, is required for the production of 4. Sillimanite
electricity. In India, which of the above is/are officially
Which one of the following is correct in designated as major minerals?
respect of the above statements? (a) 1 and 2 only
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (b) 4 only
correct and Statement-II is the correct (c) 1 and 3 only
explanation for Statement-I
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II
are correct and Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-1 5. Consider the following statements: (2019)
1. Coal sector was nationalized by the
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II Government of India under Indira
is incorrect
(a) 1 only
8. With reference to solar power production
(b) 2 and 3 only in India, consider the following statements:
(c) 3 only (2018)
(d) 1, 2 and 3 1. India is the third largest in the world in
the manufacture of silicon wafers used
in photovoltaic units.
6. With reference to the management of minor
minerals in India, consider the following 2. The solar power tariffs are determined
statements : [2019] by the Solar Energy Corporation of India.
1. Sand is a 'minor mineral' according to Which of the statements given above is/are
the prevailing law in the country. correct?
2. State Governments have the power to (a) 1 only
grant mining leases of minor minerals, (b) 2 only
but the powers regarding the formation
of rules related to the grant of minor (c) Both 1 and 2
minerals lie with the Centre Government. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. State Governments have the power to
frame rules to prevent illegal mining of 9. Which one of the following is the purpose
minor minerals. of ‘UDAY’, a scheme of the Government?
Which of the statements given above is/are (2016)
correct? (a) Providing technical and financial
assistance to start-up entrepreneurs in
(a) 1 and 3 only the field of renewable sources of energy
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) Providing electricity to every household
(c) 3 only in the country by 2018
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) Replacing the coal-based power plants
with natural gas, nuclear, solar, wind
7. Consider the following statements : (2019) and tidal power plants over a period of
1. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory time
Board (PNGRB) is the first regulatory (d) Providing for financial turnaround and
body set up by the Government of India. revival of power distribution companies
2. One of the tasks of PNGRB is to ensure
competitive markets for gas. 10.
What is/are the purpose/purposes of
3. Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB District Mineral Foundations in India?
(2016)
Statement 3 is not correct: The Bangladesh, Statement 3 is correct: Under Coal Bearing
China, India and Myanmar Economic Corridor Area (Acquisition and Development) Act, 1957-
(BCIM) is a proposed corridor connecting India Coal Controller is the competent authority
and China through Myanmar and Bangladesh under this act to hear any objection to the
as a corridor. Central Government’s Notification relating to
acquisition of coal bearing land and to furnish
The corridor would run from Kunming to his reports to Central Govt.
Kolkata, linking Mandalay in Myanmar as well
as Dhaka and Chittagong in Bangladesh. Statement 4 is not correct: Ensuring that coal
mining companies deliver the coal to end users
in the prescribed time is not the function of
2. Answer: (c) the Coal Controller’s Organization (CCO).
Statement 1 is correct:Both conventional
(thermal, nuclear, and hydro) and renewable 4. Answer: (d)
(wind, solar, biomass, etc.) energy sources are
used to produce electricity in India. However, Explanation:
the majority of electricity is produced by coal- Bentonite is essentially a highly plastic clay
fired thermal power plants, which provide containing not less than 85% clay mineral,
about 58% of the total electricity. In the year montmorillonite. It gets its name from Fort
2021–2022, approximately 3.15 per cent of Benton, America, the place where its presence
the nation’s electricity was generated using and usages were first discovered. The
nuclear energy. Government of India declared Bentonite as
Statement 2 is not correct: Commercially, the ‘Minor Mineral’.
U 235 isotope is enriched to 3 to 5% (from Option (d) is correct: Chromite (Cr) is the single
the natural state of 0.7%) and is then further commercially viable ore of chromium which is
processed to create nuclear fuel. chemically known as iron chromium oxide (Fe
Cr2O4). Kyanite, Sillimanite and andalusite are
anhydrous aluminosilicate minerals that have
3. Answer: (a) the same chemical formula Al2O3 but differ
Explanation: in crystal structure and physical properties.
Statement 1 is correct: The Coal Controller’s Chromite, kyanite, and Sillimanite are
Organisation (CCO) is an attached office under designated as major minerals.
the Ministry of Coal. Under Collection of
Statistics Act, 2008 Coal Controller has been
y Operational Improvement
y Reduction of Cost of Generation of Power 11. Answer: (b)
Statement 2 is not correct: Mass Rapid The Polar Code covers the full range of
Transport is not included in the UNOPS S3i design, construction, equipment, operational,
initiative. training, search and rescue and environmental
protection matters relevant to ships operating
Statement 3 is correct: UNOPS S3i initiative in the inhospitable waters surrounding the two
prioritize Healthcare. Regarding healthcare, the poles.
objective is to enhance the quality of healthcare
(b) Its high population in the age group of (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
15-64 years. correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(c) Its high population in the age group
above 65 years. (b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II
are correct and Statement-II is not the
(d) Its high total population. correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
7. Consider the following statements: (2023) is incorrect
Statement-I: (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
II is correct
5. Answer: (c)
3. Answer: (b) Explanation:
Explanation: The Global Hunger Index report is released
National Food Security Act, 2013 provides a by the International Food Policy Research
legal right to persons belonging to “eligible Institute (IFPRI) annually, to measure hunger
households” to receive food grains at a at the global, regional and country level and
subsidised price. It has the objective to the progress towards tackling hunger.
provide for food and nutritional security in Option (c) is correct: There are four indicators
the human life cycle approach, by ensuring used to compute the Global Hunger Index,
1. In a given year in India, official poverty lines 3. How does the National Rural Livelihood
are higher in some States than in others Mission seek to improve livelihood options
because: (2019) of rural poor? (2012)
(a) poverty rates vary from State to State. 1. By setting up a large number of
(b) price levels vary from State to State. new manufacturing industries and
agribusiness centres in rural areas
(c) Gross State Product varies from State
to State. 2. By strengthening 'Self-Help Groups' and
providing skill development
(d) quality of public distribution varies from
State. 3. By supplying seeds, fertilizers, diesel
pump-sets and micro-irrigation
equipment free of cost to farmers
2. The Multi-dimensional Poverty Index
developed by Oxford Poverty and Human Select the correct answer using the code
Development Initiative with UNDP support given below:
covers which of the following? (2012) (a) 1 and 2 only
1. Deprivation of education, health, assets (b) 2 only
and services at household level
(c) 1 and 3 only
2. Purchasing power parity at national
level (d) 1, 2 and 3
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22 7: MicroEconomics_Explanation
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11 SCIENCE & TECH
AND BASIC SCIENCE
1 Biotechnology
(c)
Promoting clonal propagation of 1. assess the age of a plant or animal.
horticultural plants 2. distinguish among species that look
(d) Assessing the efficacy of drugs by alike.
conducting series of drug trials in a 3. identify undesirable animal or plant
population materials in processed foods.
Which of the statements given above is/are
3. In the context of vaccines manufactured to correct ?
prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the (a) 1 only
following statements : (2022) (b) 3 only
1. The Serum Institute of India produced (c) 1 and 2
COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield
(d) 2 and 3
using mRNA platform.
2. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using
a vector based platform. 6. Consider the following statements : (2022)
3. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen 1. Biofilms can form on medical implants
based vaccine. within human tissues.
Which of the statements given above are 2. Biofilms can form on food and food
correct? processing surfaces.
(a) 1 and 2 only 3. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic
resistance.
(b) 2 and 3 only
617 Biotechnology
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Which of the statements given above are 2. Fungi
correct ?
3. Virus
(a) 1 and 2 only
Which of the above can be cultured in
(b) 2 and 3 only artificial/synthetic medium?
(c) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
7. With reference to recent developments (d) 1, 2 and 3
regarding ‘Recombinant Vector Vaccines’,
consider the following statements: (2021)
10. The term ‘ACE2’ is talked about in the
1. Genetic engineering is applied in the
context of (2021)
development of these vaccines.
(a) genes introduced in the genetically
2. Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors.
modified plants
Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) development of India’s own satellite
correct?
navigation system
(a) 1 only
(c) radio collars for wildlife tracking
(b) 2 only
(d) spread of viral diseases
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
11. Consider the following statements : (2021)
1. Adenoviruses have single-stranded DNA
8. In the context of hereditary diseases, genomes whereas retroviruses have
consider the following statements: (2021) double-stranded DNA genomes.
1. Passing on mitochondrial diseases 2. Common cold is sometimes caused by
from parent to child can be prevented an adenovirus whereas AIDS is caused
by mitochondrial replacement therapy by a retrovirus.
either before or after in vitro fertilization
Which of the statements given above is/are
of the egg.
correct?
2. A child inherits mitochondrial diseases
(a) 1 only
entirely from mother and not from
father. (b) 2 only
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(d) production of biofertilizers sperm
(b) Genetic modification of sperm producing
13.
What is the importance of using cells
Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines in (c)
Development of stem cells into
India? (2020) functional embryos
1. These vaccines are effective against (d) Prevention of mitochondrial diseases in
pneumonia as well as meningitis and offspring
sepsis.
2. Dependence on antibiotics that are not 16. What is the Cas9 protein that is often
effective against drug-resistant bacteria mentioned in the news? (2019)
can be reduced.
(a) A molecular scissors used in targeted
3. These vaccines have no side effects and gene editing.
cause no allergic reactions.
(b)
A biosensor used in the accurate
Select the correct answer using the code detection of pathogens in patients.
given below:
(c) A gene that makes plants pest-resistant.
(a) 1 only
(d) A herbicidal substance synthesized in
(b) 1 and 2 only generally modified crops.
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 17. RNA interference (RNAi) technology has
gained popularity in the last few years.
14. Consider the following statements: (2020) Why? (2019)
15. In the context of recent advances in human 18. With reference to the recent developments
reproductive technology, ‘Pronuclear in science, which one of the following
Transfer” is used for (2020) statements is not correct? (2019)
(a) Fertilization of egg in vitro by the donor (a)
Functional chromosomes can be
619 Biotechnology
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created by joining segments of DNA often seen in the news, be used in the
taken from cells of different species. immediate future? (2017)
(b) Pieces of artificial functional DNA can 1. Genome sequencing can be used to
be created in laboratories. identify genetic markers for disease
(c) A piece of DNA taken out from an animal resistance and drought tolerance in
cell can be made to replicate outside a various crop plants.
living cell in a laboratory. 2. This technique helps in reducing the
(d) Cells taken out from plants and animals time required to develop new varieties
can be made to undergo cell division in of crop plants.
laboratory petri dishes. 3. It can be used to decipher the host-
pathogen relationships in crops.
19. With reference to the Genetically Modified Select the correct answer using the code
mustard (GM mustard) developed in India, given below:
consider the following statements: (2018) (a) 1 only
1. GM mustard has the genes of a soil (b) 2 and 3 only
bacterium that give the plant the (c) 1 and 3 only
property of pest-resistance to a wide
variety of pests. (d) 1, 2 and 3
20. What is the application of Somatic Cell 23. Consider the following techniques/
Nuclear Transfer Technology? (2017) phenomena: (2014)
(a) Production of bio larvicides 1. Budding and grafting in fruit plants
(b) Manufacture of biodegradable plastics 2. Cytoplasmic male sterility
(c) Reproductive cloning of animals 3. Gene silencing
(d) Production of organisms free of diseases Which of the above is/are used to create
transgenic crops?
21. With reference to agriculture in India, how (a) 1 only
can the technique of ‘genome sequencing', (b) 2 and 3 only
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(c) 1 and 3 only stations
(d) None 4. To increase their shelf life.
Select the correct answer using the code
24. Mycorrhizal biotechnology has been used given below:
in rehabilitating degraded sites because (a) 1 and 2 only
mycorrhiza enables the plants to (2013) (b) 3 and 4 only
1. Resist drought and increase the (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
absorptive area
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. Tolerate extremes of pH
3. Resist disease infestation
27. With reference to ‘stem cells’, frequently
Select the correct answer using the code in the news, which of the following
given below: statements is/are correct? (2012)
(a) 1 only 1. Stem cells can be derived from
(b) 2 and 3 only mammals only.
(c) 1 and 3 only 2. Stem cells can be used for screening
(d) 1, 2 and 3 new drugs.
3. Stem cells can be used for medical
therapies.
25.
Recombinant DNA technology (Genetic
Engineering) allows genes to be transferred Select the correct answer using the code
(2013) given below:
3.
from microorganisms to higher (c) 3 only
organisms (d) 1, 2 and 3
Select the correct answer using the code
given below: 28.
What are the reasons for the people's
(a) 1 only resistance to the introduction of BT brinjal
(b) 2 and 3 only in India? (2012)
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Select the correct answer using the code Which of the statements given above is/are
given below: correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
29. At present, scientists can determine the 30. A genetically engineered form of brinjal,
arrangement or relative positions of genes known as the Bt-Brinjal, has been
or DNA sequences on a chromosome. How developed. The objective of this is (2011)
does this knowledge benefit us? (2011) (a) To make it pest-resistant
1. It is possible to know the pedigree of (b)
To improve its taste and nutritive
livestock. qualities
2. It is possible to understand the causes (c) To make it drought resistant
of all human diseases.
(d) To make its shelf-life longer
3. It is possible to develop disease-
resistant animal breeds.
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1 Biotechnology-Explanation
During aerial metagenomics, air samples are Statement 2 is correct: The Sputnik V vaccine
collected using specialised equipment such is based on a proven well-studied human
as air samplers or filters. These samples adenovirus vector platform.
contain a wide range of genetic material, Statement 3 is correct: Covaxin is an inactivated
including DNA from bacteria, fungi, viruses, vaccine. This destroys the pathogen’s ability to
and other microorganisms present in the air. replicate but keeps it intact so that the immune
The collected samples are then subjected to system can still recognise it and produce an
DNA extraction and sequencing techniques to immune response.
obtain genetic information.
Elimination Technique: We know that
the Serum Institute of India produced a
2. Answer: (a) COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using
“Microsatellite DNA” is used in studying the the viral vector platform. Statement 1 is
evolutionary relationships among various eliminated. So, Option(b) is correct.
species of fauna. Microsatellites, also known
as simple sequence repeats (SSRs), are short 4. Answer: (d)
segments of DNA consisting of repetitive
nucleotide sequences. These repetitive Option (d) is correct: T cells and B cells are
sequences vary in length and are highly part of a specialized network of immune cells
polymorphic, meaning they exhibit variations that specifically respond to pathogens and
in the number of repeats among individuals fight off infections. B cells and T cells are the
within a species. white blood cells of the immune system that
are responsible for adaptive immune response
Microsatellite DNA analysis involves examining in an organism. Both the cells are made in
the variation in microsatellite loci across the bone marrow. B cells mature in the bone
different species or populations. By comparing marrow while the T cells travel to the thymus
the presence, absence, or frequency of and mature there. These cells are structurally
specific microsatellite alleles among different similar and are involved in adaptive immune
organisms, scientists can assess the genetic response in an organism
diversity and relatedness between species.
This information is valuable for understanding
evolutionary relationships, population genetics, 5. Answer: (d)
and phylogenetic studies. DNA barcoding is a method of identifying
biological specimens and distinguishing among
3. Answer: (b) species that look alike. It involves sequencing
of stretches of the genomic region which
Statement 1 is incorrect: India has majorly
623 Biotechnology-Explanation
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evolves fast enough to allow species-level to generate immunity. These vaccine genomes
discrimination. may evolve to lose the extra genes during
Statement 1 is incorrect: To measure the age of the process of manufacture of the vaccine or
plant and animal remains from the more recent replication within an individual, and there is a
past, scientists use a radioactive isotope of concern that this evolution might severely limit
carbon, called carbon-14, as their clock. the vaccine’s efficacy.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct: DNA Barcoding Statement 1 is correct: As a result of advances
can be used to distinguish among species that in the fields of molecular biology and genetic
look alike and identify the undesirable animal engineering, it is now possible to create live
or plant materials in processed foods. DNA recombinant vectors capable of delivering
barcoding in plants not only speeds up writing heterologous antigens by the introduction of
the encyclopedia of life, but also opens up antigen-encoding genes.
the possibility of establishing a Digital Plant
Identification System (DPIS) which works 8. Answer: (c)
independently of type, age, or developmental
stage of the sample under study. Hence, if used Mitochondrial disease, or mitochondrial
properly, DNA barcoding can be an effective disorder, refers to a group of disorders that
and efficient tool for exploring and protecting affect the mitochondria, which are tiny
biodiversity, expediting bioprospecting, and compartments that are present in almost every
defending against bio-piracy. cell of the body.
Statement 2 is correct: An individual’s
mitochondrial genome is entirely derived from
6. Answer: (d) the mother because sperm contain relatively
Biofilm is a complex structure of microbiome few mitochondria, and these are degraded
having different bacterial colonies or single after fertilization. It follows that mitochondrial
types of cells in a group; that adhere to the inheritance is essentially maternal inheritance.
surface. It is observed that a child inherits mitochondrial
Statements 1 & 2 are correct: Biofilms can diseases entirely from the mother and not
be formed on medical implants with human from the father.
tissues, food, and food processing surfaces. Statement 1 is correct: Mitochondrial
Hence, they pose grave health issues, especially replacement therapy (MRT) is a new form of
in the form of infections. reproductive in vitro fertilization (IVF) which
Statement 3 is correct: Bacterial biofilms are a works on the principle of replacing a woman’s
serious global health concern due to their ability abnormal mitochondrial DNA (mt-DNA) with the
to tolerate antibiotics (exhibiting antibiotic donor’s healthy one. Passing on mitochondrial
resistance), host defence systems and other diseases from parent to child can be prevented
external stresses; therefore it contributes to by mitochondrial replacement therapy either
persistent chronic infections. before or after in vitro fertilization of an egg.
Biotechnology-Explanation 624
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fastidious bacteria, and the exact chemical developed or researched will look to inhibit
compositions of simple media are known. these activities at one stage or the other.
y Synthetic media is composed of minimal
ingredients needed for the growth of 11. Answer: (b)
microorganisms, for example, Davis and
Mingioli Medium. Option (b) is correct: Adenovirus is a type
of virus that has no envelope, whereas
y In complex media, the exact chemical retroviruses are characterized as enveloped
composition is not known, for example, in viruses. Adenoviruses belong to the virus group
Tryptic Soy Broth. that is composed of non–enveloped viruses.
Fungal Media containing high carbohydrate They are very common human pathogens, and
sources and nitrogen sources are required some may also infect animals. Adenoviruses
for the growth of fungi at a pH range of 5 to contain a double-stranded DNA genome.
6 and a temperature range from 15 to 37˚C. The adenovirus family is divided into two
There are two general types of fungal culture main genera, namely, Mastadenoviruses and
media: natural and synthetic. Natural media Aviadenoviruses.
are composed of natural substrates, such as Retroviruses are a family of viruses that
herbaceous or woody stems, seeds, leaves, are categorized as enveloped viruses. One
corn meal, wheat germ, oatmeal, etc. of the most common retroviruses that
Cultivation of Viruses: Viruses cannot be infect humans worldwide is the Human
cultured in an artificial/synthetic medium. Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) which causes
Viruses require a living host cell for replication. Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS).
Retroviruses contain RNA genome.
Elimination Technique: A virus is an
infectious agent that can only replicate Adenoviruses are common viruses that
within a host living organism. Virus is typically cause the common cold - or flu-like
eliminated. Thus, Option (a) is correct. illness.
Option (d) is correct: A coronavirus is surrounded Option (b) is correct: Bollgard I Bt cotton (single-
by a fatty outer layer (“envelope”) and on the gene technology) is India’s first biotech crop
surface of this layer is the “corona” (crown) technology approved for commercialization in
of spikes made of protein. On the surface of India in 2002, followed by Bollgard II – double-
human cells is an enzyme called angiotensin- gene technology in mid-2006 by Genetic
converting enzyme 2 (ACE2), which acts as the Engineering Approval Committee (GEAC), the
receptor that enables SARS-CoV2 to launch its Indian regulatory body for biotech crops.
attack. The virus’s spike protein binds to the Bollgard cotton provides in-built protection for
receptor, then fuses with the cell surface, and cotton against destructive American Bollworm
releases its genetic material (RNA in the case of Heliothis Armigera infestations and contains an
SARS-CoV2) into the cell. The coronavirus that insecticidal protein from a naturally occurring
causes SARS, called SARS-CoV, uses the same soil microorganism, Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt).
ACE2 receptor to invade a cell. Once inside,
the virus replicates itself by using the cell’s
molecular mechanism. All these stages involve 13. Answer: (b)
various interactions between virus proteins Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccine (PCV)
and human proteins. Any treatment being prevents us from pneumococcal disease. In
625 Biotechnology-Explanation
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the 1980s the first pneumococcal vaccine was sperm cell becomes a pronucleus only after the
developed. Under the Universal Immunization sperm enters the ovum, but before the fusion
Programme (UIP) the government is planning of genetic material of the sperm and egg.
for the nationwide rollout of the Pneumococcal Option (d) is correct: The technique of pronuclear
Conjugate Vaccine (PCV). transfer involves the transfer of pronuclei from
Statement 1 is correct: Pneumonia, Sepsis and one zygote to another. Pronuclear Transfer
Meningitis are the symptoms of pneumococcal has the potential to prevent mitochondrial
disease. Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines disease in the offspring as Mitochondrial DNA
are effective against pneumonia as well as is transmitted maternally.
meningitis and sepsis.
Statement 2 is correct: The usage and
dependence of antibiotics that are drug
resistant can be reduced as the vaccine
prevents the very occurrence of the infection.
Statement 3 is not correct: PCV Pneumococcal
Conjugate Vaccines have side effects like fever,
loss of appetite, fussiness, and other side
effects.
Biotechnology-Explanation 626
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is cut, the natural DNA repair mechanism is 18. Answer: (a)
utilized to add or remove genetic material or DNA stands for Deoxyribonucleic acid. It is
make changes to the DNA. made up of units of biological building blocks
called nucleotides. DNA is a vitally important
17. Answer: (a) molecule for not only humans but for most
other organisms as well. DNA contains our
RNA interface or Post-Transcriptional Gene
hereditary material and our genes, which
Silencing is a genetic regulatory system that
makes every individual unique.
functions to silence the activity of specific
genes. RNAi occurs naturally, through the In the nucleus of each cell, the DNA molecule
production of nuclear-encoded pre-micro is packaged into thread-like structures called
RNA (pre-miRNA), and can be induced chromosomes. Each chromosome is made up of
experimentally, using short segments of DNA tightly coiled many times around proteins
synthetic double-stranded RNA (dsRNA). called histones that support its structure.
Statement 1 is correct: Gene silencing is Option (a) is not correct: It is not possible to
a modern gene-editing technique. Using create a functional chromosome by joining
techniques like RNA interference, CRISPR-CAS9 segments of DNA taken from different species.
and antisense RNA technique, a gene of our Chromosomes are very long and code for so
interest can be suppressed, or its expression many genes. Within a species, translocation
is controlled. It is used in developing gene- can take place and different parts of two
silencing therapies. chromosomes may join to produce functional
chromosomes. But this often gives rise to
Statement 2 is correct: RNAi is used in
abnormalities like Philadelphia Chromosome.
functional genomics (systematic analysis
of loss-of-function phenotypes induced by
RNAi triggers) and developing therapies for 19. Answer: (b)
the treatment of viral infection, dominant Genetically modified crops are those types
disorders, neurological disorders, and many of crops that have been modified genetically,
types of cancers (in vivo inactivation of gene which might include increasing nutrients,
products linked to human disease progression reducing the maturation time of the plant,
and pathology). yields, and stress tolerance, and creating a
Statement 3 is not correct: Hormone plant that can withstand diseases, and heavier
replacement therapy is a treatment for women applications of pesticides and herbicides.
who have low hormone levels, like a woman Statement 1 is not correct: DMH-11 is a
going through menopause (menstrual periods Genetically Modified (GM) mustard, and it is
stop permanently, and they are no longer able also an herbicide-tolerant mustard. DMH -11
to bear children). It is also called estrogen contains three genes viz. Bar gene, Barnase
replacement therapy. The RNA interface cannot and Barstar sourced from a soil bacterium.
be used to develop hormone replacement The genes of a soil bacterium do not give the
therapies. plant the property of pest resistance to a wide
Statement 4 is correct: RNAi has resulted in variety of pests.
the invention of novel crops such as nicotine- Statement 2 is correct: GM Mustard is a perfect
free tobacco, decaffeinated coffee, nutrient flower so it ‘self-pollinates’. GM mustard has
fortified vegetation. It can be used to produce the genes that allow plant cross-pollination
crop plants that are resistant to virtual and hybridization.
pathogens.
Statement 3 is not correct: GM Mustard has
627 Biotechnology-Explanation
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been developed by a team of scientists at Delhi or better treated by early detection and
University (not IARI and Punjab University) led intervention. Genome sequencing is also now
by former vice-chancellor Deepak Pental with used in farming adding speed and precision
the aim of reducing India’s demand for edible oil to selective breeding methods. It is also being
imports. They developed Dhara Mustard Hybrid used in farming various crop plants.
(DMH) -11, a genetically modified hybrid variety Statement 3 is correct: Genome sequence
of the mustard species (Brassica juncea). reveals a compact genome, a dependency of
Elimination Technique: The GM mustard the pathogen on its host for some essential
has been developed by a team of nutrients and a potential role in the regulation
scientists at Delhi University. Statement 3 of host plant cytokinin and auxin.
is eliminated. Thus, Option (b) is correct.
22. Answer: (b)
20. Answer: (c) Option (b) is correct: Transcriptome is the
Option (c) is correct: Somatic Cell Nuclear sum total of all the messenger RNA molecules
Transfer (SCNT) is a technology applied in expressed from the genes of an organism. It
cloning, stem cell research, and regenerative is the full range of messenger RNA, or mRNA,
medicine. Somatic cells are cells that have molecules expressed by an organism. The term
gone through the differentiation process and “transcriptome” can also be used to describe
are not germ cells. Somatic cells donate their the array of mRNA transcripts produced in a
nuclei, which scientists transplant into eggs particular cell or tissue type. In contrast with
after removing their nuclei (enucleated eggs). the genome, which is characterised by its
stability, the transcriptome actively changes.
The successful cloning of monkeys, the first
non-human primate species, by Somatic Cell In fact, an organism’s transcriptome varies
Nuclear Transfer (SCNT) attracted world-wide depending on many factors, including the stage
attention. Remarkably, it has taken more than of development and environmental conditions.
20 years since the cloning of Dolly the Sheep
in 1997 to achieve this feat. This success 23. Answer: (b)
was largely due to a recent understanding of
epigenetic barriers that impede SCNT-mediated Option (b) is correct: Transgenic plants are
reprogramming and the establishment of key the ones whose DNA is modified using genetic
methods to overcome these barriers, which engineering techniques. The aim is to introduce
also allowed efficient derivation of human a new trait to the plant which does not occur
pluripotent stem cells for cell therapy. naturally in the species. Cytoplasmic male
sterility and gene silencing technique is used
to create transgenic crops.
21. Answer: (d) y Cytoplasmic male sterility is total or
Genome sequencing is the process of partial male sterility in plants. These
determining the complete DNA sequence of systems are widely exploited in crop
an organism’s genome. It involves figuring out plants for hybrid breeding due to the
the order of DNA nucleotides, or bases, in a convenience of controlling sterility.
genome—the order of As, Cs, Gs, and Ts that Gene silencing using RNA interference
make up an organism’s DNA. technology, transcriptional gene silencing,
Statement 1 and statement 2 are correct: and virus-induced gene silencing, is
Genomes for plant diseases allow the detection commonly used in horticulture crops. The
of rare disorders that can be prevented presence of double-stranded RNA inside
Biotechnology-Explanation 628
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the cell leads to the production of small varying pH from as low as 3 to as high as 9.5
interfering RNAs, short hairpin RNAs and (extremes of pH). However, at the extremes of
microRNAs. this range, the occurrence of plants is much
y Grafting and budding are horticulture more limited. Most plants grow in soils of pH
techniques used to join parts from two or 4.0 to 8.0.
more plans so that they appear to grow as Statement 3 is correct: Mycorrhizal fungi
a single plant. In grafting the upper part provide an effective alternative method of
of one plant grows on the root system disease control, especially for those pathogens
of another plant. In the budding process, which affect below-ground plant organs. In
a bud is taken from one plant and grown mycorrhizal fungi lies the enormous potential
on another. It does not lead to any genetic for use as biocontrol agents for soil- and root-
modification. borne diseases.
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Option (c) is correct: Genetically modified 28. Answer: (c)
(GM) or transgenic plants, have been and are The possible reasons for the people’s resistance
being developed with the aim of enhancing to the introduction of Bt brinjal in India is too
productivity; decreasing dependence on the due to an apprehension that the consumption
use of agricultural chemicals; and improving of Bt brinjal may have an adverse impact on
the nutritional value of foods and livestock health and there was also some concern that
feeds, longer shelf life, increase resistance to the introduction of BT brinjal may have an
droughts, increase resistance to insects, pests, adverse effect on the biodiversity.
increased resistance to herbicides.
Statement 1 is not correct: Bt Brinjal is a
transgenic brinjal created by inserting a
27. Answer: (b) gene cry1Ac from the soil bacterium Bacillus
Stem cells are special human cells that are able thuringiensis into Brinjal.
to develop into many different cell types. This Statement 2 is not correct: The seeds of Bt
can range from muscle cells to brain cells. In brinjal are not terminator seeds. Although
some cases, they can also fix damaged tissues. proposed nearly 20 years ago, so-called
Types of Stem cells are: Embryonic Stem Cells, ‘terminator’ seeds have never been developed
Adult Stem Cells, Induced Pluripotent Stem and do not currently exist. Seeds from Bt
Cells, Mesenchymal stem cells brinjal open-pollinated varieties will be free for
Statement 1 is not correct: Stem cells can farmers to save and replant as they wish.
be derived from two main sources: adult Statement 3 is correct: An independent inquiry
body tissues and embryos. Scientists are has revealed that the cultivation of genetically
also working on techniques to develop engineered (GE, also called genetically
stem cells from other cells, using genetic modified, or GM) Bt brinjal poses risks to the
“reprogramming” techniques. environment and possibly to human health. The
Statement 2 is correct: Scientists use stem occurrence of wild, weedy and also cultivated
cells in laboratories to test new drugs for relatives presents a likelihood that the GE Bt
safety and effectiveness before they are tested gene will spread to these relatives but, so far,
on humans. Scientists can also test how drugs this has largely been overlooked in the risk
might affect different organs such as the heart assessments for GE Bt brinjal.
or the liver by programming stem cells to Statement 4 is correct: Genetically engineered
acquire properties of the organ the drugs are Bt brinjal has several implications on
targeting. plant biodiversity. An independent study
Statement 3 is correct: It can also be used to commissioned by Greenpeace International
understand how disease occurs by studying finds that brinjal relatives do occur in the
how stem cells turn into specific tissue such regions where cultivation of GE Bt brinjal is
as heart muscles or nerves. proposed and that GE Bt brinjal may mate
with these relatives to spread the GE Bt gene.
Application of Stem cells
The spread of the GE Bt gene would have
y treating patients with currently untreatable considerable ecological implications, as well
conditions as implications for future crop contamination
y growing organs for transplants and farmers’ rights.
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concerns include food safety and possible sequencing of complex communities of
effects on organisms other than the pest insect microorganisms, metagenome sequencing
(non-target organisms), such as beneficial of environmental or human microbiomes,
insects and butterflies. and environmental profiling.
631 Biotechnology-Explanation
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2 Defence Technology
1. Consider the following statements: (2023) 2. With reference to Agni-IV Missile, which of
1. Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled the following statements is/are correct?
at subsonic speeds throughout their (2014)
fights, while cruise missiles are rocket- 1. It is a surface-to-surface missile.
powered only in the initial phase of 2. It is fuelled by liquid propellant only.
flight.
3. It can deliver one-tonne nuclear
2. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic warheads about 7500 km away.
cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-
fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (a) 1 only
1. Consider the following pairs: (2023) of an equilateral triangle that has sides one
million kilometers long, with lasers shining
Objects in Description
between the craft.” The experiment in
space
question refers to (2020)
1. Cepheids : Giant clouds of dust and
(a) Voyager-2
gas in space
(b) New Horizons
2. Nebulae : Stars which brighten and
dim periodically (c) LISA Pathfinder
3. Pulsars : Neutron stars that are (d) Evolved LISA
formed when massive
stars run out of fuel and
4. For the measurement/estimation of which
collapse
of the following are satellite images and
How many of the above pairs are correctly remote sensing data is used? (2019)
matched?
1. Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of
(a) Only one a specific location.
(b) Only two 2. Greenhouse gas emission from rice
(c) All three paddies of a specific location.
(d) None 3. Land surface temperature of a specific
location.
Select the correct answer using the code
2. Which one of the following statements best
given below:
reflects the idea behind the “Fractional
Orbital Bombardment System” often talked (a) 1 only
about in the media? (2022) (b) 2 and 3 only
(a)
A hypersonic missile is launched (c) 3 only
into space to counter the asteroid
(d) 1, 2 and 3
approaching the Earth and explode it in
space.
(b) A spacecraft lands on another planet 5. Recently, scientists observed the merger
after making several orbital motions. of giant ‘blackholes’ billions of light-
years away from the Earth. What is the
(c) A missile is put into a stable orbit
significance of this observation? (2019)
around the Earth and deorbits over a
target on the Earth. (a) ‘Higgs boson particles’ were detected.
(d) A spacecraft moves along a comet with (b) ‘Gravitational waves’ were detected.
the same speed and places a probe on (c) Possibility of intergalactic space travel
its surface. through ‘wormhole’ was confirmed.
(d) It enabled scientists to understand
3. The experiment will employ a trio of ‘singularity’.
spacecraft flying in formation in the shape
Select the correct answer using the codes (b) 2 and 3 only
given below: (c) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only (d) 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only 9. With reference to the Indian Regional
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS),
consider the following statements: (2018)
1. IRNSS has three satellites in
7. Consider the following phenomena: (2018)
geostationary and four satellites in
1. Light is affected by gravity. geosynchronous orbits.
2. The Universe is constantly expanding. 2. IRNSS covers the entire India and about
3. Matter warps its surrounding space- 5500 sq. km beyond its borders.
time. 3. India will have its own satellite navigation
Which of the above is/are the predictions/ system with full global coverage by the
predictions of Albert Einstein's General middle of 2021.
Theory of Relativity, often discussed in the Which of the statements given above is/are
media? correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None
(a) the limits of habitable zone above the (b) 2 and 3 only
surface of the Earth (c) 1 and 3 only
17. Which of the following is/are cited by Which the correct answer using the code
the scientists as evidence/evidences for given below:
the continued expansion of the universe? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(2012) (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
1. Detection of microwaves in space (c) 2 and 4 only
2. Observation of redshift phenomenon in (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
space
2. Answer: (c)
Option (c) is correct: The Fractional Orbital
Bombardment System (FOBS) was developed
by the Soviet Union in the 1960s. The system
is used to launch nuclear warheads from
space. In 2021, Frank Kendal III (the US
Secretary of Air Force) stated that the Chinese
eLISA aims to measure gravitational waves
Government is developing and testing FOBS.
in the frequency range from 0.1mHz to about
The idea behind FOBS is, a warhead is put into
100 mHz. To do this, it is necessary for the
a stable orbit and it deorbits over the target.
interferometers to have an arms length of a
If the target and the launch position is lined
million kilometers and that is impossible to
up and the warhead keeps going round, it will
achieve with an earth-based setup. Hence, it is
complete a circle.
necessary to have this elaborate experiment in
space. This frequency range, from 0.1 MHz to 100
MHz, or even 1Hz, is expected to be sensitive
19. Which one of the following countries has its (SaaS)”, consider the following statements
own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) : (2022)
(a) Australia 1. SaaS buyers can customise the user
(b) Canada interface and can change data fields.
17. What is the difference between Bluetooth (d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c)
and Wi-Fi devices? (2011) given above is the correct description
of virtual private networks.
(a) Bluetooth uses 2.4 GHz radio frequency
9. Answer: (d)
Statement 1 is correct: Blockchain is a distributed ledger technology (DLT) that allows data to be
stored globally on thousands of servers – while letting anyone on the network see everyone else’s
Statement 2 is not correct: Its application is not Option (d) is correct: Digital signature is a
only of cryptocurrency. It has a wide range of digital code, generated and authenticated by
applications in health, education, governance, public key encryption, which is attached to
etc. an electronically transmitted document to
verify its contents and the sender’s identity.
Statement 3 is correct: As per NITI Aayog, the Digital signatures are based on public key
majority of viable use cases for blockchain will cryptography, also known as asymmetric
be permissioned ones, not public blockchains. cryptography.
“Public blockchains like Bitcoin, have no central
authority and are regarded as enablers of total It serves as proof of the identity of an individual
disruptive disintermediation. Permissioned for a certain purpose; for example, a driver’s
blockchains are hosted on private computing licence identifies someone who can legally
networks, with controlled access and editing drive in a particular country. Likewise, a digital
rights, that is there are still central authorities certificate can be presented electronically to
with admin rights”. Thus, applications that prove one’s identity, to access information
depend on the basic features of blockchain can or services on the Internet or to sign certain
be developed without anybody’s permission. documents digitally.
Digital watches are classic examples of Elimination Technique: Virtual Reality (VR)
wearable technology. JawBone UP is the most and Augmented Reality are buzzwords in
popular fitness band around, Jawbone UP today’s world. Using our presence of mind,
helps people to understand their sleep cycles, we can see both terms are interchanged.
(c) It can drastically improve the efficiency 3. India has a manufacturing base for
of its fission reactors in power Solar Thermal Technology but not for
generation photovoltaics.
(d) It can build fusion reactors for power Which of the statements given above is/are
generation correct?
(a) 1 only
655 Energy
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5. Microbial fuel cells are considered a source (a) 1 only
of sustainable energy. Why? (2011)
(b) 2 and 3 only
1. They use living organisms as catalysts
(c) 1 and 3 only
to generate electricity from certain
substrates. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Energy 656
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5 Energy-Explanation
657 Energy-Explanation
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a radioactive element of the actinoid series of and energy by a population of bacteria each of
the periodic table. Its atomic number is 90. It which is roughly 1 micron in size. Consumption
is four times more abundant in nature than of these compounds is a normal part of the
uranium and is widely distributed throughout microorganism’s metabolism; in a microbial fuel
the Earth’s crust. cell part of the energy liberated is harvested in
Statement 2 is correct: Thorium fuel generates the form of electricity.
no new bomb-usable material in the waste Microbial fuel cells have various practical
profile. Thorium fuel waste consists of the applications such as in breweries, domestic
radioisotope Uranium-233, or U233, which is wastewater treatment, desalination plants,
virtually impossible to weaponize/ Thorium hydrogen production, remote sensing, and
fuel will generate more energy per unit of mass pollution remediation, and they can be used as
than uranium fuel by a factor of approximately a remote power source.
30.
Statement 3 is correct: Thorium is silvery white 6. Answer: (a)
but turns gray or black on exposure to air.
According to the UN nuclear agency IAEA There Option (a) is correct: Nuclear reactors are the
is limited radioactive debris when thorium is heart of a nuclear power plant. They contain and
used. And in terms of chemical stability and control nuclear chain reactions that produce
resistance to radioactivity thorium is a safer heat through a physical process called fission.
alternative compared to uranium. That heat is used to make steam that spins
a turbine to create electricity. In a nuclear
reactor, heavy water is used to slow down
5. Answer: (c) the neutrons. A neutron hitting a deuterium
Microbial fuel cells (MFCs) are a new nucleus slows down quickly. A neutron hitting
bioelectrochemical process that aims to a deuterium nucleus slows down quickly.
produce electricity by using the electrons Heavy water is deuterium oxide or D20. The
derived from biochemical reactions catalysed world’s second-largest producer of heavy
by bacteria. water in India. Heavy water is used as a
Option (c) is correct: Microbial fuel cells are low- coolant as well as a neutron moderator. It is
power devices that use microbes (single-celled chemically the same as normal water (H20) but
living organisms) to convert wastewater into the hydrogen atoms are of the heavy isotope
electricity. A huge range of organic compounds deuterium in which the nucleus contains a
can be converted into carbon dioxide, water, neutron in addition to protons found in the
nucleus of any hydrogen atom.
Energy-Explanation 658
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Additional Information: This is called a chain reaction.
A nuclear reactor is driven by the splitting The fissioning of atoms in the chain reaction
of atoms, a process called fission, where a also releases a large amount of energy as heat.
particle (a ‘neutron’) is fired at an atom, which The generated heat is removed from the reactor
then fissions into two smaller atoms and some by a circulating fluid, typically water. This heat
additional neutrons. Some of the neutrons can then be used to generate steam, which
that are released then hit other atoms, causing drives turbines for electricity production.
them to fission too and release more neutrons.
659 Energy-Explanation
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6 Miscellaneous
1. Consider the following statements : (2022) surface pumps and not for submersible
1. Other than those made by humans, pumps,
nanoparticles do not exist in nature. 2. Solar power can be used for running
2. Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides centrifugal pumps and not the ones
are used in the manufacture of some with piston.
cosmetics. Which of the statements given above is/are
3. Nanoparticles of some commercial correct?
products which enter the environment (a) 1 only
are unsafe for humans. (b) 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) Both 1 and 2
correct ?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
5. With reference to the carbon nanotubes,
(c) 1 and 2 consider the following statement: (2020)
(d) 2 and 3 1. They can be used as the carriers of
drugs and antigens in the human body.
2. Bisphenol A (BPA), a cause of concern, 2. They can be made into artificial blood
is a structural/key component in the capillaries for an injured part of the
manufacture of which of the following human body.
kinds of plastics? (2021) 3. They can be used in biochemical
(a) Low-density polyethylene sensors.
(b) Polycarbonate 4. Carbon nanotubes are biodegradable.
(c) Polyethylene terephthalate Which of the statements given above are
(d) Polyvinyl chloride correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
Miscellaneous 660
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of the above activities can be successfully Appellate Board.
carried out by using drones?
3. Plant varieties are not eligible to be
(a) 1 and 2 only patented in India.
(b) 2 and 3 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) 1 and 3 only correct?
Select the correct answer using the code Select the correct answer using the code
given below: given below:
8. The word ‘Denisovan’ is sometimes 11. Consider the following pairs: (2018)
mentioned in media in reference to: (2019) Terms sometimes Context/Topic
(a) fossil of a kind of dinosaur. seen in news
(b) an early human species. 1. Belle II experiment Artificial
Intelligence
(c) a cave system found in North-East
India. 2. Blockchain Digital/
technology Cryptocurrency
(d) a geological period in the history of the
Indian subcontinent. 3. CRISPR-Cas9 Particle Physics
Which of the pairs given above is/are
correctly matched?
9. Consider the following statements: (2019)
(a) 1 and 3 only
1. According to the Indian Patent Act, a
biological process to create a seed can (b) 2 only
be patented in India. (c) 2 and 3 only
2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property (d) 1, 2 and 3
661 Miscellaneous
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12. Consider the following pairs: (2017) 2. Nanotechnology can largely contribute
to gene therapy.
Commonly Unwanted or
used/ controversial chemicals Select the correct answer using the code
consumed likely to be found in given below:
materials them (a) 1 only
1. Lipstick Lead (b) 2 only
2. Soft drinks Brominated vegetable (c) Both 1 and 2
oils
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Chinese fast Monosodium glutamate
food
15. The efforts to detect the existence of Higgs
Which of the pairs given above is/are
boson particles have become frequent
correctly matched?
news in the recent past. What is /are the
(a) 1 only importance/importance of discovering this
(b) 2 and 3 only particle? (2013)
(c) 1 and 3 only 1. It will enable us to understand why
(d) 1, 2 and 3 elementary particles have mass.
2. It will enable us in the near future to
develop the technology to transfer
13. Organic Light-Emitting Diodes (OLEDs) matter from one point to another
are used to create digital displays in many without traversing the physical space
devices. What is/are the advantage of between them.
OLED displays over Liquid Crystal displays?
(2017) 3. It will enable us to create better fuels
for nuclear fission.
1. OLED displays can be fabricated on
flexible plastic substrates. Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
2. Roll-up displays embedded in clothing
can be made using OLEDs. (a) 1 only
Miscellaneous 662
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Which of the statements given above are 2. Compared to a DVD, the Blu-ray disc
correct? format has several times more storage
(a) 1 and 2 only capacity.
663 Miscellaneous
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6 Miscellaneous-Explanation
Miscellaneous-Explanation 664
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by pistons, screws, gears, rollers, diaphragms, based on their placement (underwater and
or vanes. above the waterline). Solar power can be
Statement 1 is not correct: Also, pumps are used for both running centrifugal pumps and
classified as submersible and surface pumps, ones with pistons.
Statement 1 is correct: In case of Cancer, CNTs Statement 3 is correct: New materials CNTs are
as drug delivery vehicles (carriers) have shown promising building blocks for biosensors due to
potential in targeting specific cancer cells with their unique electronic and optical properties.
a dosage lower than conventional drugs used. Carbon nanotubes are rolled-up cylinders of
carbon monolayers (graphene).
Statement 2 is correct: CNTs have been
successfully applied in pharmacy and medicine Statement 4 is correct: Microbes including
due to their high surface area that is capable bacteria and fungi have the ability to degrade
of adsorbing or conjugating with a wide variety carbon nanotubes (CNTs), graphene (GRA), and
of therapeutic and diagnostic agents (drugs, their derivatives.
665 Miscellaneous-Explanation
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6. Answer: (d) been in practice for quite some time. David
Drones are Unmanned aerial vehicles, aircraft Bowie helped develop an app called the
that flies without a human pilot aboard. Verbasizer in the ‘90s, which took the literary
source material and randomly reordered the
Statement 1 is correct: To surmount the words to create new combinations that could
shortage of farm labour and rising labour be used as lyrics.
charges, some progressive farmers are trying
to harness drone technology to find a lasting Statement 3 is correct: Artificial Intelligence is
solution to their recurring problems in every being used to diagnose various diseases, such
cropping season. Thus, it can be helpful in as Alzheimer’s disease early by reviewing brain
spraying pesticides on a crop field. scans. In the Italy University of Bari and Istituto
Nazionale di Fisica Nucleare have developed a
Statement 2 is correct: Drones have become new machine learning AI technology that helps
a critical tool for professionals working in a identify Alzheimer’s a decade before doctors
large variety of different sectors such as public usually can, by way of non-invasive MRI brain
safety, search and rescue, infrastructure scans.
inspection, surveying and mapping, wildlife
conservation and many more. It is also useful Statement 4 is correct: An easy-to-use text-
in Inspecting the craters of active volcanoes. to-speech conversion tool powered by AI is
Lister which is available in the market. It helps
Statement 3 is correct: Marine researcher to convert all texts into a speech with human-
Vanessa Pirotta of Sydney’s Macquarie sounding voices.
University, says a drone has been used for
the first time to collect whale mucus from Statement 5 is correct: Wireless smart control,
humpback whales at sea in a technique that or smart off-grid, or wireless transmission of
could help monitor the health of whales around electrical energy is going to be what enables
the world. this big shift in the power industry. Big Data,
advanced analytics, and artificial intelligence
Elimination Technique: Drone technology (AI) will also have a material impact on
is developing at a rapid rate and being performance and capabilities of off-grid
used in a variety of applications. All these systems.
activities are possible through the present
level of drone technology.
8. Answer: (b)
Note: Always watch out for new headlines
in development in the science and Option (b) is correct: Denisovans are an extinct
technology field. species of hominid and a close relative to
modern humans. Denisovans may have ranged
from Siberia to Southeast Asia during the last
7. Answer: (d) Ice Age. DNA evidence suggests Denisovans
Statement 1 is correct: Artificial Intelligence are related to both Neanderthals and modern
will be the brain of the future smart grid. humans.
The technology will continuously collect and Neanderthals were an extinct relative of
synthesize overwhelming amounts of data modern humans once found across Europe,
from millions of smart sensors nationwide to extending into Central and Southwest Asia.
make timely decisions on how to best allocate
energy resources. It will help in bringing down
electricity consumption in industrial units. 9. Answer: (c)
Statement 2 is correct: To create meaningful The Indian Patent Act, 1970 strikes a balance
short stories and songs using AI as a tool has between the rights of the applicant and his
Miscellaneous-Explanation 666
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obligation to the society granting the rights. in the anatomic geometry of a human ear
Some salient features of the Act include in America.
product and process patent, term of the patent y Industrial 3D printers have opened new
as 20 years, patent examination conducted paths at each stage of the production of
on request, fast track mechanism for quick motor vehicles in the automotive industry.
disposal of appeals, pre-grant and post-grant y It has been used in reconstructive surgery
opposition allowed, protection of biodiversity to help repair damaged tissue; for example
and traditional knowledge, and publication of - in cases of birth defects.
applications after 18 months of date of filing of
the patent application. y 3D scanning is the process of analysing
a real-world object or environment to
Statement 1 is not correct: Under Section 3(j) collect data on its shape and possibly its
of India’s Patents Act, a seed or a plant, or a appearance (e.g., colour) then the collected
biological process to create a seed or plant data can be used to Construct or Print
cannot be patented. digital 3D models, hence, it is useful in data
Statement 2 is not correct: Intellectual processing technologies as well.
Property Appellate Board has been constituted
by the Government of India in the Ministry of
Commerce and Industry in September 2003 11. Answer: (b)
to hear appeals against the decisions of the Pair 1 is not correctly matched: The Belle II
Registrar under the Trademarks Act, 1999 experiment is a particle physics experiment
and the Geographical Indications of Goods designed to study the properties of B mesons
(Registration and Protection) Act, 1999. (heavy particles containing a bottom quark).
Statement 3 is correct: Any of the variety Pair 2 is correctly matched: Blockchain is a
as mentioned are not inventions, hence not system which helps in recording information.
patentable: “plants and animals in whole or in The information is recorded in such a way
any part thereof other than microorganisms; that it makes it difficult for anyone to hack or
but including seeds, varieties, and species, and cheat the system. Unlike physical currencies,
essentially biological processes for production blockchain cryptocurrency works on digital
or propagation of plants and animals”. channels and are often adhered to strong
cryptography to secure financial transactions
that happen online. Blockchain technology -
10. Answer: (d) Digital/ Cryptocurrency.
3D printing is additive manufacturing Pair 3 is not correctly matched: CRISPR- Cas9 is
technology where a 3D object is created by a Gene-editing tool that can be used to modify
laying down successive layers of material. From DNA in cells. CRISPR-Cas9 was adapted from
construction to medical technology, 3D printing a naturally occurring genome editing system in
is being used across a range of industries. Its bacteria. The bacteria capture snippets of DNA
use in the food industry continues to grow. from invading viruses and use them to create
Option (d) is correct: DNA segments known as CRISPR arrays. The
y 3D printing technology has applications in CRISPR arrays allow the bacteria to “remember”
the preparations of confectionery items, the viruses (or closely related ones).
focused primarily on the chocolate and Elimination Technique: CRISPR- Cas9
hard sugar candy industry. is a Gene-editing tool ( it is not related
y 3D-printed bionic ears were generated via to Particle Physics). Pair 3 is eliminated.
3D printing of a cell-seeded hydrogel matrix Thus, Option (b) is correct.
667 Miscellaneous-Explanation
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12. Answer: technology is used for heads-up displays.
Pair 1 is correctly matched: Over the years, there Elimination Technique: Any technologically
have been many reports alleging dangerous intensive question that is associated with
levels of lead to be used in lipstick. Research the word ‘can’ should be true in most
has shown that 61 per cent of lipsticks contain cases. Thus, Option (c) is correct.
lead, with levels ranging up to 0.65 parts per
million.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: Brominated 14. Answer: (c)
vegetable oil (BVO) is a complex mixture Nanotechnology is the manipulation and
of plant-derived triglycerides. Brominated manufacture of materials and devices on the
vegetable oil is used primarily to help emulsify scale of atoms or small groups of atoms. The
citrus-flavoured soft drinks, preventing them word Nano means very small and the size of
from separating during distribution. Brominated Nanometer. Nanotechnology has a wide range
vegetable oil has been used by the soft drink of applications in the field of electronics,
industry since 1931, generally at a level of about medical, biotechnology, etc.
eight ppm. In the health sector, nanomaterials are used
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Monosodium for the diagnosis, treatment, control, and
glutamate (MSG) is a flavour enhancer prevention of diseases. Nanoparticles lead to
commonly added to Chinese food, canned the development of better and safer medicine,
vegetables, soups and processed meats. tissue-targeted actions and custom-made
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has nanomedicines.
classified MSG as a food ingredient that’s Statement 1 is correct: Nanotechnology drug
“generally recognized as safe,” but its use delivery applications occur through the use
remains controversial. of designed nanomaterials as well as forming
delivery systems from nanoscale molecules
13. Answer: (c) such as liposomes. Targeted drug delivery is
made possible by nanotechnology. It means
Organic Light-Emitting Diodes (OLED) is a delivery of a drug to the site of action not to all
flat light emitting technology, which can be organs by somehow nano-tagging the drug. In
created by placing a series of organic thin films drug delivery, nanotechnology is just beginning
between two conductors. to make an impact. Many of the current “nano”
Statement 1 and statement 2 are correct: drug delivery systems, however, are remnants
OLED displays are fabricated on flexible plastic of conventional drug delivery systems that
substrates. It leads to the possible fabrication happen to be in the nanometre range, such as
of flexible organic light-emitting diodes for liposomes, polymeric micelles, nanoparticles,
other new applications—for example, roll- dendrimers, and nanocrystals.
up displays embedded in fabrics or clothing. Statement 2 is correct: Nanotechnology can
If a substrate like polyethylene terephthalate largely contribute to gene therapy also. Gene
(PET) is used, the displays are produced therapy by means of nanotechnology has the
inexpensively. potential of helping the body treat its diseases
Statement 3 is correct: Transparent OLED by means of its own genes and cells.
(T-OLED) has transparent components like
substrate, cathode and anode and, when Elimination Technique: Statements like
turned off, are up to 85 percent as transparent 1 and 2 are generally true because the
as to their substrate. When it is turned on, it negation of like these statements would
allows light to pass in both directions. This be very difficult, especially in science and
Miscellaneous-Explanation 668
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one of the most pliable. It is also called “The
technology questions. Thus, Option (c) is Wonder Material”.
correct.
Statement 3 is not correct: Graphene is made of
a single layer of carbon atoms (it is not entirely
15. Answer: (a) made of Silicon) that are bonded together in
a repeating pattern of hexagons. Graphene is
Option (a) is correct: The Higgs boson was
one million times thinner than paper. Carbon is
proposed in 1964 by Peter Higgs, François
an incredibly versatile element. Depending on
Englert, and four other theorists to explain
how atoms are arranged, it can produce hard
why certain particles have mass. Scientists
diamonds or soft graphite.
confirmed its existence in 2012 through the
ATLAS and CMS experiments at the Large Statement 4 is correct: Graphene is a promising
Hadron Collider (LHC) at CERN in Switzerland. next-generation conducting material with
This discovery led to the 2013 Nobel Prize in the potential to replace traditional electrode
Physics being awarded to Higgs and Englert. materials such as indium tin oxide in electrical
and optical devices. It combines several
The Higgs boson is the fundamental particle
advantageous characteristics including low
associated with the Higgs field, a field that
sheet resistance, high optical transparency, and
gives mass to other fundamental particles
excellent mechanical properties. Graphene can
such as electrons and quarks. A particle’s mass
be used as ‘conducting electrodes’ required for
determines how much it resists changing its
touch screens, LCDs and organic LEDs. However,
speed or position when it encounters a force.
recent research has coincided with increased
Not all fundamental particles have mass. The
interest in the application of graphene as an
photon, which is a particle of light and carries
electrode material in transistors, light-emitting
electromagnetic force, has no mass at all.
diodes, solar cells and flexible devices.
669 Miscellaneous-Explanation
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capacity of a DVD. It can hold 25 GB on single- Statement 3 is not correct: HD DVD also has
layer discs and 50GB on double-layer discs (i.e., a disc thickness of 1.2mm (not simple DVD)
both-sided discs). Blu-ray disc was developed which is equal to Blu Ray Disc – 1.2mm (not
to record, rewrite and playback high-definition 2.4 mm).
video as well as store large amounts of data.
Miscellaneous-Explanation 670
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7 Physics
(b)
Gravity of stellar bodies does not
change. 4. Ball bearings are used in bicycles, cars,
(c) Light always travels in a straight line. etc. because (2013)
(d) Speed of light is always same. (a) The actual area of contact between the
wheel and axle is increased
(b) The effective area of contact between
2. In a pressure cooker, the temperature at the wheel and axle is increased
which the food is cooked depends mainly
upon which of the following? (2021) (c) The effective area of contact between
the wheel and axle is reduced
1. Area of the hole in the lid
(d) None of the statements is correct
2. Temperature of the flame
3. Weight of the lid
5. Consider the following phenomena: (2013)
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. 1. Size of the sun at dusk
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Select the correct answer using the code 2. one would not be able to use a straw to
given below: consume a soft drink
(a) 1 and 2 only 3. the blotting paper would paper would
(b) 2 and 3 only fail to function
(c) 1 and 3 only 4. the big trees that we see around would
not have grown on the earth
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the following statements given
above are correct?
7. The known forces of nature can be
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
divided into four classes, viz., gravity,
electromagnetism, weak nuclear force (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
and strong nuclear force. With reference (c) 2 and 4 only
to them, which one of the following
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
statements is not correct? (2013)
(a) Gravity is the strongest of the four
10. An artificial satellite orbiting around the
(b) Electromagnetism act only on particles
Earth does not fall down. This is so because
with an electric charge
the attraction of Earth (2011)
(c) Weak nuclear force causes radioactivity
(a) does not exist at such a distance.
(d) Strong nuclear force holds protons and
(b) is neutralised by the attraction of the
neutrons inside the nucleus of an atom
moon.
(c) provides the necessary speed for its
8. What is the role of ultraviolet (UV) radiation steady motion.
in the water purification systems? (2012)
(d) provides the necessary acceleration for
1. It inactivates/kills the harmful its motion.
microorganisms in water.
2. It removes all the undesirable odours
11. The surface of a lake is frozen in severe
from the water.
winter, but the water at its bottom is still
3. It quickens the sedimentation of liquid. What is the reason? (2011)
solid particles, removes turbidity and
(a) Ice is a bad conductor of heat.
improves the clarity of water.
(b) Since the surface of the lake is at the
Which of the statements given above is/are
same temperature as the air, no heat is
correct?
lost.
(a) 1 only
(c) The density of water is maximum at 4°c.
(b) 2 and 3 only
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c)
(c) 1 and 3 Only given is correct.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
12. What is the difference between a CFL and a
9. Consider the following statements: (2012) LED lamp? (2011)
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2. The average lifespan of a CFL is much 13.
A layer in the Earth’s atmosphere
longer than that of a LED lamp. called the ionosphere facilitates radio
3. A CFL is less energy efficient as communication. Why? (2011)
compared to an LED lamp. 1. The presence of ozone causes the
Which of the statements given above is/are reflection of radio waves to earth.
correct? 2. Radio waves have a very long wavelength.
(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) 2 and 3 only correct?
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7 Physics-Explanation
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street lighting. LEDs offer a variety of colour at dawn during the entire half of the cycle
options providing better lighting solutions than of phases from Full Moon to just before
their High-Pressure Sodium counterparts. New Moon. It is not an optical illusion.
(Statement 3 is not correct)
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7. Answer: (a) neutron by emitting a positron. Gamma decay
Gravitational force, weak nuclear force, normally happens after alpha or beta decay
electromagnetic force, and strong nuclear when the nucleus is in an excited state. Beta
force are the four fundamental forces, and they radioactivity is the best-known manifestation
govern everything that happens in the universe, of the weak force. It’s a slow process as it
from walking on the street to launching a occurs with difficulty. Unlike nuclear forces
rocket into space, to sticking a magnet on a and electromagnetism, the weak force can
refrigerator. transform a neutron into a proton or vice versa,
thus changing the composition of a nucleus.
Statement (a) is not correct: The gravitational
force was described systematically by Isaac Statement (d) is correct: The strong nuclear
Newton in the 17th century. Newton stated that force, also called the strong nuclear interaction,
the gravitational force acts between all objects is the strongest of the four fundamental forces
having mass (including objects ranging from of nature. It is six thousand trillion times
atoms and photons to planets and stars) and stronger than the force of gravity and that is
is directly proportional to the masses of the because it binds the fundamental particles
bodies and inversely proportional to the square of matter together to form larger particles. It
of the distance between the bodies. Since holds together the quarks that makeup protons
energy and mass are equivalent, all forms of and neutrons, and part of the strong force also
energy (including light) also cause gravitation keeps the protons and neutrons of an atom’s
and are under the influence of it. Objects with nucleus together.
more mass have more gravity. Gravity also gets
weaker with distance. So, the closer objects are 8. Answer: (a)
to each other, the stronger their gravitational
pull is. The gravitational force is weaker than Option (a) is correct: Ultraviolet water
the other four fundamental forces. purification is the most effective method for
disinfecting bacteria from the water. Ultraviolet
Statement (b) is correct: The electromagnetic (UV) rays penetrate harmful pathogens in water
force is the force responsible for all and destroy illness-causing microorganisms
electromagnetic processes. It acts between by attacking their genetic core (DNA). This
electrically charged particles. It is an infinite- is extremely efficient in eliminating their
ranged force, much stronger than the ability to reproduce. Disinfecting your water
gravitational force, and obeys the inverse with Ultraviolet light is exceptionally simple,
square law, but neither electricity or magnetism effective, and environmentally safe. UV systems
adds up in the way that gravitational force destroy 99.99% of harmful microorganisms
does. Since there are positive and negative without adding chemicals or changing your
charges (poles), these charges tend to cancel water’s taste or odour. UV water purification is
each other out. Electromagnetism includes usually used with other forms of filtration such
the electrostatic force acting between charged as reverse osmosis systems or carbon block
particles at rest, and the combined effect of filters.
electric and magnetic forces acting between
charged particles moving relative to each other.
Statement (c) is correct: There are three forms 9. Answer: (b)
of radioactivity, alpha, beta, and gamma. Alpha Option (b) is correct: Capillary action is the
decay only occurs in heavier elements which movement of water molecules through the gaps
give up energy when the nucleus is divided. Beta in the porous material due to cohesive force,
decay is where a neutron turns into a proton adhesive force, and surface tension. Capillarity
by emitting an electron or a proton turns into a can also be defined as the tendency of a liquid
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in a capillary tube or absorbent material to rise 12. Answer: (c)
or fall as a result of surface tension. Compact Fluorescent Light (CFL) is a light bulb
Few Examples of capillary actions: which uses fluorescence for producing light
y The oil in the wick of a lamp rises due to whereas the Light Emitting Diode (LED) uses
the capillary action of threads in the wick. the semiconductor diode for producing visible
light.
y A blotting paper soaks ink by the capillary
action of the pores in the blotting paper. Statement 1 is correct: CFL uses mercury
vapour and phosphor to produce light while
y The root-hairs of plants draw water from
LED lamps use semiconductor material. Due
the soil through capillary action. Water is
to the use of mercury, power consumption in
retained in a piece of sponge on account of
CFL is more (as more power is required for
a capillary.
ionisation) than in LED.
y The action of a towel in soaking up moisture
Statement 2 is not correct: The average lifespan
from the body is due to the capillary action
of LED lamps (not CFLs) is much longer than
of cotton in the towel.
that of CFLs. LEDs are better than CFLs in
y No capillary action in using a straw to every aspect. LED lamps save power, the cost
consume the soft drink as we applied is very less, recyclable and lifespan are also
additional pressure from the mouth. higher than CFL lamps.
Statement 3 is correct: A CFL is less energy
10. Answer: (d) efficient as compared to a LED lamp. A CFL can
save energy costs up to 70% whereas a LED
Option (d) is correct: An artificial satellite
lamp can save energy costs up to 80%.
moving around the Earth in a circular orbit
possesses an acceleration which is “constant” Additional Information:
in magnitude but “changing in direction”. An y The destruction of CFL bulbs is difficult
artificial satellite revolves around the earth because it contains toxic mercury vapour.
under centripetal acceleration. Acceleration is This mercury vapour has harmful effects on
the rate at which velocity changes with time, in the health of humans and the environment
terms of both speed and direction. An artificial whereas the destruction of LEDs is easy
satellite maintains its orbit by balancing two because it is free from toxic metals.
factors: its velocity, that is the speed it takes
to travel in a straight line and the gravitational
pull that Earth has on it. An artificial satellite 13. Answer: (d)
orbiting closer to the Earth requires more Option (d) is correct: Edward Appleton first
velocity to resist the stronger gravitational pull. discovered that radio waves were broadcast
around the world. Radio waves reflected back
from the ionosphere are the highest electrified
11. Answer: (c)
layers of the atmosphere that contain large
Option (c) is correct: The density of water is concentrations of charged particles (ions) and
greatest at 4˚C and in cold weather ice forms free electrons. Electromagnetic waves that are
at the top of the water. But after some time, sent from radio transmitters to outer space
it acts as an insulating barrier, preventing the are reflected back to every corner of the Earth
water underneath from getting much colder. after hitting this gas and plasma layer that is
Frozen lake surface acts like an insulator composed of charged particles. Thus, radio
preventing heat from the water from escaping, and radio telephone communication is made
keeping the heat of the water trapped. possible for the benefit of human beings.
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8 Chemistry
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8 Chemistry-Explanation
A change in which one or more new substances y Souring of milk is a chemical change due to
are formed is called a chemical change. A this process, acidification takes place and
chemical change is also called a chemical soured milk is produced. (Statement 3 is
reaction. Chemical changes are very important correct)
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9 Biology
3. If bad weather conditions prevail when (c) Globally, the number of people infected
seeds are directly planted, single- with Hepatitis B and C viruses are
budded setts have better survival as several times more than those infected
compared to large sets. with HIV.
4. Sugarcane can be cultivated using (d) Some of those infected with Hepatitis
settlings prepared from tissue culture. B and C viruses do not show the
symptoms for many years.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only 5. Which of the following are the reasons for
the occurrence of multidrug resistance in
(b) 3 only microbial pathogens in India? (2019)
(c) 1 and 4 only
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1. Genetic predisposition of some people. 8. Consider the following diseases (2014)
2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to 1. Diphtheria
cure diseases.
2. Chickenpox
3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming.
3. Smallpox
4. Multiple chronic diseases in some
Which of the above diseases has/have been
people.
eradicated in India?
Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1 and 2 only
given below:
(b) 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(d) None
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
9. Consider the following statements: (2014)
1. Maize can be used for the production of
6. Consider the following: (2018)
starch.
1. Birds
2. Oil extracted from maize can be a
2. Dust blowing feedstock for biodiesel.
3. Rain 3. Alcoholic beverages can be produced
4. Wind blowing by using maize.
Which of the above spread plant diseases? Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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(d) 1, 2 and 3 transplantation
(d)
leaves get damaged during
11. Consider the following pairs: (2014) transplantation
(c) most of the root hairs are lost during Which of the minerals given above is/
are required by the human body for the
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contraction of muscles? 20. Aspartame is an artificial sweetener sold in
(a) 1 only the market. It consists of amino acids and
provides calories like other amino acids.
(b) 2 and 3 only
Yet, it is used as a low-calorie sweetening
(c) 1 and 3 only agent in food items. What is the basis of
(d) 1, 2 and 3 this use? (2011)
(a) Aspartame is as sweet as table sugar,
but unlike table sugar, it is not readily
18. Regular intake of fresh fruits and vegetables
oxidised in the human body due to lack
is recommended in the diet since they are
of requisite enzymes.
a good source of antioxidants. How do
antioxidants help a person maintain health (b)
When aspartame is used in food
and promote longevity? (2011) processing, the sweet taste remains,
but it becomes resistant to oxidation.
(a) They activate the enzyme necessary for
vitamin synthesis in the body and help (c) Aspartame is as sweet as sugar, but after
prevent vitamin deficiency. ingestion into the body, it is converted
into metabolites that yield no calories.
(b) They prevent excessive oxidation of
carbohydrates, fats and protein in (d) Aspartame is several times sweeter than
the body and help avoid unnecessary table sugar, hence food items made
wastage of energy. with small quantities of aspartame yield
fewer calories on oxidation.
(c) They neutralise the free radical produced
in the body during metabolism.
(d) They activate certain genes in the cells 21. A married couple adopted a male child.
of the body and help delay the ageing A few years later, twin boys were born to
process. them. The blood group of the couple is AB
positive and O negative. The blood group of
the three sons is A positive, B positive, and
19.
A company marketing food product O positive. The blood group of the adopted
advertises that its items do not contain son is? (2011)
trans-fats. What does this campaign signify
(a) O positive
to the customers? (2011)
(b) A positive
1. The food products are not made out of
hydrogenated oils. (c) B positive
2. The food products are not made out of (d) Cannot be determined on the basis of
animal fats/oils. the given data
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9 Biology-Explanation
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Option (d) is correct: Signs and symptoms of
hepatitis B range from mild to severe. They
usually appear about one to four months after
infection. Some people, usually young children,
may not have any symptoms.
5. Answer: (b)
Multidrug resistance is also called cross-
resistance. It is a phenomenon seen in
some malignant cell lines. Malignant cells
are the cells that have developed natural
4. Answer: (b) resistance to a single cytotoxic compound
Hepatitis B is a serious liver infection caused and are also resistant to structurally unrelated
by the hepatitis B virus (HBV). For some people, chemotherapy agents. Whereas microbial
hepatitis B infection becomes chronic, meaning pathogens are microorganisms that are capable
it lasts more than six months. Having chronic of producing disease.
hepatitis B, increases risk of developing liver Statement 1 is not correct: Genetic
failure, liver cancer or cirrhosis (a condition predisposition is an increased chance that
that permanently scars the liver). one will develop a certain disease based
Option (a) is correct: HIV (human on genetic makeup. This can be identified
immunodeficiency virus) is a virus that by one’s family history and/or genetic
attacks the body’s immune system. It can be alterations. A predisposition contributes to the
transmitted via the exchange of a variety of development of disease but is not the reason
body fluids from infected people, such as blood, for the occurrence for multidrug resistance in
breast milk, semen, and vaginal secretions. The microbial pathogens.
Hepatitis B virus also spreads through contact Statement 2 is correct: The overuse and
with the blood, semen, or other body fluid of a inappropriate consumption and application of
person who has HBV, much like HIV. antibiotics is one of the major reasons for the
Option (b) is not correct: Different strains of occurrence of multidrug resistance.
hepatitis exist, including hepatitis A, B, C, and Statement 3 is correct: Antibiotics are a type
D. Hepatitis B and hepatitis C are both viral of antimicrobial designed to target bacterial
infections that attack the liver, and they have infections in people and animals. Antibiotics
similar symptoms. People can be effectively increase the efficiency of animal growth
protected against Hepatitis B through by inhibiting the growth of microbes in the
vaccination. In fact, India is the largest producer gastrointestinal tract which triggers immune
of recombinant hepatitis B vaccine but there is responses in the host. But indiscriminate
no effective Hepatitis C vaccine till date. use of antibiotics in livestock farming is also
Option (c) is correct: As per the World Health the reason for the occurrence of multidrug
Organization (WHO), Hepatitis B and C is a resistance in microbial pathogens.
leading infectious killer and affects 325 million Statement 4 is not correct: A chronic disease is
people worldwide, leading to about 1.4 million a disease that persists for a long time. People
deaths a year. It is the second major killer with multiple chronic diseases often receive
infectious disease after tuberculosis, and nine high doses of antimicrobials. This encourages
times more people are infected with hepatitis the spread of Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR)
than HIV. microbes. So, the treatment of chronic
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diseases may cause an AMR resistance based by the bacterium corynebacterium diphtheria,
on the medication and schedule followed by which affects the mucous membranes of the
the patient. But it is not always necessary. throat and nose. It is a communicable disease.
The usual symptoms of this disease are fever,
a loud cough, swollen neck, and a sore throat.
6. Answer: (d)
Diphtheria is a purely vaccine-preventable
Plant diseases are caused by a pathogenic disease and effective vaccines are also
organism such as a fungus, bacterium, available. But national immunization coverage
mycoplasma, virus, viroid, nematode, or of triple antigen DPT (Diphtheria, Pertussis,
parasitic flowering plant. Plant diseases can Tetanus) is only 50 to 60 percent. It should be
be classified as endemic diseases (prevalent in 100 percent otherwise there are chances of
and confined to a particular locality), epidemic disease eradication being less. Diphtheria has
diseases (occur incidentally and occasionally not been fully eradicated in India yet.
in a particular locality) and sporadic diseases
Statement 2 is not correct: Chickenpox is
(occur at very irregular intervals and locations).
a highly contagious disease caused by the
Option (d) is correct: Plant diseases spread varicella-zoster virus (VZV). It can cause an
through direct transmission (the pathogen is itchy, blister-like rash. The rash appears first
carried externally or internally on the seed or on the chest, back, and face, and then spreads
planting material like cuttings, sets, tubers, over the entire body. It primarily occurs in
bulbs, etc.) or through indirect transmission children under 10 years of age but can affect
(the pathogen spreads itself by way of its adults as well. The disease can be severe in
persistent growth or certain structures of the adults. In India, Chickenpox has not been fully
pathogen carried independently by natural eradicated yet.
agencies like wind, water (rain), animals,
Statement 3 is correct: It was a serious
insects, mites, nematodes, birds, etc.
infectious disease caused by the variola virus.
It had a contagious meaning, it spread from one
7. Answer: (d) person to another. People who had smallpox
had a fever and a distinctive, progressive skin
Option (d) is correct: Viruses are minuscule
rash. Most people with smallpox recover, but
infectious particles composed of a protein
about 3 out of every 10 people with the disease
coat and a nucleic acid core. They exist in a
died. India has eradicated smallpox.
huge variety of forms and infect practically all
living creatures: animals, plants, insects and
bacteria. Viruses can be considered as mobile 9. Answer: (d)
genetic particles, containing instructions for
Its percentage varies with the plant and also in
reproducing themselves using foreign cellular
different parts of the same plant. Corn (maize),
resources.
sorghum grain wheat, rice, potato, tapioca,
The number of viruses that exist in the arrowroot and sago are among the important
biosphere is enormous, varying in their virion sources of natural starches. The grains of
shapes, genomes, and lifestyles. They can barley, rye, oat, and millet are also employed
infect bacteria, fungi, plants, etc. in the production of starches.
y Corn Starch is made from maize kernels,
8. Answer: (b) which are high in starch, and used as
thickening agents in soups. (Statement 1 is
Statement 1 is not correct: Diphtheria is a
correct)
serious bacterial infection. It is primarily caused
y Maize has oil extracts that can be converted
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to ethanol or biodiesel. (Statement 2 is Pair 3 is not correctly matched: Vitamin E
correct) deficiency in humans is a very rare condition,
y An alcoholic drink is a drink that contains occurring as a consequence of abnormalities
ethanol, usually sourced from maize and in dietary fat absorption or metabolism rather
other grains. (Statement 3 is correct) than from a diet low in Vitamin E. Deficiency of
Vitamin A causes night blindness.
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Metabolic activity is manifested by respiration. rotavirus which are common causes of viral
Reduction of temperature is an effective means gastroenteritis, are transmitted by the faecal
of reducing the rate of respiration. oral route passed by hand-to-mouth contact
y Most food products would benefit from or in food or water.
a reduction in the storage temperature Elimination Technique: Viral diseases like
provided that no freezing occurs. Reduced flu, Common Cold is spread by droplets
temperature reduces the rate of chemical generated through coughing or sneezing.
reactions that deteriorate the product and Statement 3 is eliminated. Thus, Option
also reduces microbiological activity. (a) is correct.
y However, the perishable foods not Note: Always pay extra attention to only-
specifically prepared for frozen storage, the statements
freezing temperature should be the lowest
acceptable limit for storage.
16. Answer: (b)
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be chances of transmission of HIV through 18. Answer: (c)
blood if the contacting person is infected with Antioxidants are man-made or natural
HIV. substances that may prevent some types
of cell damage. Diets high in vegetables and
17. Answer: (d) fruits, which are good sources of antioxidants,
have been found to be healthy. Examples of
Option (d) is correct: In Our body muscle
antioxidants include vitamins (C and E), and
contraction is triggered when a signal is sent by
minerals (copper, zinc, selenium, etc.)
the central nervous system through the motor
neuron. The minerals Calcium, Iron, Potassium, Option (c) is correct: Antioxidants are
Magnesium, Sodium, etc., are required by the molecules that fight free radicals in our body.
body for the contraction of muscles. Free radicals are compounds that can cause
harm if their levels become too high in our body.
Calcium is important for healthy bones and
They are linked to multiple illnesses, including
teeth; helps muscles relax and contract;
diabetes, heart disease, and cancer. Our body
important in nerve functioning, blood clotting,
has its own antioxidant defences to keep free
blood pressure regulation, and immune system
radicals in check. Antioxidants are also found in
health. Sources of Calcium are milk and milk
food, especially in fruits, vegetables, and other
products; canned fish with bones (salmon,
plant-based, whole foods, which may prevent
sardines); fortified tofu and fortified soy milk;
some of the damage caused by free radicals
greens (broccoli, mustard greens); legumes.
by neutralising them. Antioxidant preservatives
Sodium is needed for proper fluid balance, also play a crucial role in food production by
nerve transmission, and muscle contraction. increasing shelf life.
The sources of Sodium are Table salt, soy
Free Radicals:
sauce; large amounts in processed foods;
small amounts in milk, breads, vegetables, and Free radicals are constantly being formed in
unprocessed meats. In muscle contraction your body. Without antioxidants, free radicals
Sodium plays essential roles due to their would cause serious harm very quickly,
importance in nerve function. Sodium helps eventually resulting in death.
our nerve cells send electrical signals, called However, free radicals also serve important
action potentials that signal for your muscles functions that are essential for health. For
to contract. example, our immune cells use free radicals to
Iron also helps muscles contract. Each muscle fight infections. As a result, your body needs to
contraction uses up energy as well as oxygen. maintain a certain balance of free radicals and
Iron helps support continued muscle function antioxidants.
by supporting energy production in muscle When free radicals outnumber antioxidants,
cells, so that muscle fibres always have the it can lead to a state called oxidative stress.
energy they need to contract properly. Iron Prolonged oxidative stress can damage your
also helps muscles store oxygen to fuel muscle DNA and other important molecules in your
contractions and promotes healthy circulation body. Sometimes it even leads to cell death.
so that muscles can get additional oxygen from Several lifestyle, stress, and environmental
the bloodstream. Men need 8 milligrams of iron factors are known to promote excessive free
each day to prevent a deficiency, according to radical formation and oxidative stress, including
the Linus Pauling Institute, while women need air pollution, cigarette smoke, alcohol intake,
18 milligrams. toxins, etc.
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19. Answer: (c) 21. Answer: (a)
Statement 1 is correct: Trans fats come in both Option (a) is correct: One of the parent’s
natural and man-made forms. The process blood group is AB⁺ to form single chromosome
of adding hydrogen to oil to make it thicker, cells his cell will undergo division during
and to increase its shelf life is Hydrogenation. reproduction either A⁺ cell or B⁺ cell. Other
Vanaspati Ghee, a type of shortening made parent has blood group O⁻ which will remain
from hydrogenated vegetable oils used as a same during reproduction.
cheaper alternative to ghee and butter.
Statement 2 is not correct: A limited amount
of trans fats present naturally in some food
items such as dairy products and meat and
processed and baked food such as cakes,
biscuits, pastries, some packaged popcorn
and chips, pre-mixes such as pancake mixes
contain industrially-manufactured trans-fat.
Statement 3 is correct: World Health
Organisation’s (WHO) call for eliminating trans
fats globally by 2023. This aims to reduce the
incidence of heart ailments in the country,
The following configuration the offspring thus
with one in four deaths in India due to cardiac
produced may have:
diseases. In light of the COVID-19 pandemic
this becomes even more vital which saw most A⁺ and O⁻ results in A⁺
deaths in patients who had comorbidities, B⁺ and O⁻ results in B⁺
including heart ailments. Their offspring can have only either A⁺ or B⁺
blood groups. So, the adopted son’s blood
20. Answer: (d) group will be O positive.
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12 CURRENT AFFAIRS
AND MISCELLANEOUS
1 Current Affairs: India
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 1. It was the first time that Chess Olympiad
correct and Statement-II is the correct was held in India.
explanation for Statement-I 2. The official mascot was named ‘Thambi’.
(b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II 3. The trophy for the winning team in the
are correct and Statement-II is not the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup.
correct explanation for Statement-I
4. The trophy for the winning team in
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II the women’s section is the Hamilton-
is incorrect Russell Cup.
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement- How many of the statements given above
II is correct are correct?
(a) Only one
5. Consider the following pairs with regard to (b) Only two
sports awards: (2023)
(c) Only three
1. Major Dhyan For the most (d) All four
Chand Khel spectacular and
Ratna Award : o u t s t a n d i n g
performance by a 7. Consider the following statements : (2022)
sportsperson over 1. Gujarat has the largest solar park in
period of last four India.
years
2. Kerala has a fully solar powered
2. Arjuna Award For the lifetime International Airport.
: achievement by a
3. Goa has the largest floating solar
sportsperson
photovoltaic project in India.
3. Dronacharya To honor eminent
Which of the statements given above is/are
Award : coaches who have
correct ?
successfully trained
sportspersons or (a) 1 and 2
teams (b) 2 only
4. Rashtriya To recognize the (c) 1 and 3
Khel contribution made by
(d) 3 only
Protsahan sports persons even
Puraskar : after their retirement
How many of the above pairs are correctly 8. With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital
matched? Mission, consider the following statements
: (2022)
(a) Only one
1. Private and public hospitals must adopt
(b) Only two
it.
(c) Only three
2. As it aims to achieve universal health
(d) All four coverage, every citizen of India should
be part of it ultimately.
30.
With reference to 'National Skills (b) It is a scheme of RBI for reworking the
Qualification Framework (NSQF)', which of financial structure of big corporate
the statements given below is/are correct? entities facing genuine difficulties.
Select the correct answer using the code 2. It is an initiative to identify new digital
given below: technology innovations for solving the
many problems faced by our country.
(a) 1 and 2 only
3. It is a programme aimed at making all
(b) 2 and 3 only
the financial transactions in our country
(c) 1 and 3 only completely digital in a decade.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
50. Regarding ‘Atal Pension Yojana’, which of Select the correct answer using the code
the following statements is/are correct? given below.
(2016) (a) 1 only
1. It is a minimum guaranteed pension (b) 2 only
scheme mainly targeted at unorganized (c) Both 1 and 2
sector workers.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Only one member of a family can join
the scheme.
53. Recently, linking of which of the following
3. Same amount of pension is guaranteed
rivers was undertaken? (2016)
for the spouse for life after the
subscriber’s death. (a) Cauvery and Tungabhadra
Select the correct answer using the code (b) Godavari and Krishna
given below. (c) Mahanadi and Son
(a) 1 only (d) Narmada and Tapti
(b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 71.
With reference to consumer’s rights/
privileges under the provision of law in
(c) Both 1 and 2
India, which of the following statements
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 is/are correct? (2012)
1. Consumer are empowered to take
68. The term ‘IndARC’ sometimes seen in the samples for food testing
news, is the name of? (2015) 2. When a consumer files a complaint in
(a) an indigenously developed radar system any consumer forum, no fee is required
inducted into Indian Defence to be paid.
PVTGs in Tamilnadu: Kattu Nayakans, Kotas, Note: Give extra attention to numbers in
Kurumbas, Irulas, Paniyans and Todas. statements.
PVTGs have been identified in only one Union This Regulation protects the fundamental
Territory i.e. Andaman & Nicobar Islands. Great rights and freedoms of natural persons and
Andamanese, Jarawas, Onges, Sentinelese and in particular their right to the protection of
ShomPens are identified as PVTGs in Andaman personal data. Moreover, the free movement of
& Nicobar Islands. personal data within the Union shall be neither
restricted nor prohibited.
Elimination Technique: Forward Market Option (c) is correct: Merchant Discount Rate
Commission was the first regulatory body (alternatively referred to as the Transaction
set up in 1953. Statement 1 is eliminated. Discount Rate) is the charge to a merchant
Thus, Option (b) is correct. by a bank for accepting payments from his
customers through the bank’s debit as well as
credit cards.
20. Answer: (d) Merchant Discount Rate (alternatively referred
Option (d) is correct: An Intercreditor Agreement to as the Transaction Discount Rate or TDR)
(ICA) is an agreement between one or more is the sum total of all the charges and taxes
creditors (lenders), who have shared interests that a digital payment entails. For instance,
in a particular borrower. The agreement is part the MDR includes bank charges, which a bank
of project ‘Sashakt’, which was approved under charges customers and merchants for allowing
the recommendations of the Sunil Mehta payments to be made digitally. Similarly, MDR
Committee to address the bad loan problem also includes the processing charges that a
of India. The objective is to use ICA for faster payments aggregator has to pay to online or
facilitation of resolution of stressed assets. mobile wallets or indeed to banks for their
service.
Statement 2 is not correct: The Unique Statement 1 is not correct: In 2011, the
Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) on National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE)
its website mentioned following provisions laid down the teacher recruitment norms for
for deactivation of Aadhaar: If within 2 years all government schools in India irrespective
of attaining age 5, the child’s biometrics are of the State. According to it, the stipulated
not updated in the Aadhaar database, his/ qualification for teaching Class 6 to Class 8
her Aadhaar number will be deactivated is either a four-year Bachelor of Elementary
(no authentication permissible). It will be Education or a B.Ed. degree after senior
reactivated once biometrics are updated secondary; or a two-year B.Ed. after graduation;
in the database. If a resident has not been or a two-year Diploma in Education (D.Ed.) plus
biometrically authenticated in 5 years, his/her a graduate degree.
One Time Password (OTP) based authentication Statement 2 is correct: The Teacher Eligibility
services will be deactivated. They will be Test, known as TET, is the minimum qualification
reactivated once the resident is biometrically required in India for a person to be eligible
authenticated. for appointment as a teacher for Classes I to
VIII. The test is mandatory for teaching jobs in
Indian government schools.
23. Answer: (c)
Statement 3 is not correct: The NCTE is the apex
Application Programming Interface (API) body that manages the teacher’s education
is Computer Program code that lets two institutions in the country. The key role of the
applications interact with each other. It helps NCTE is to ‘achieve planned and coordinated
in letting software exchange data and use each development of the teacher education system
Statement 2 is not correct: NIIFL has a planned y Fund of Funds: A fund focused on anchoring
corpus of Rs. 40,000 Crore. and backing credible and reputed third-
party managers across diversified sectors
Additional Information: and strategies with a strong track record of
NIIFL currently manages three separate funds, delivering returns over a cycle.
which are registered as Alternative Investment y Strategic Opportunities Fund: A Private
Fund (AIF) with SEBI. Equity fund that aims to build scalable
These three funds are as follows: businesses across a range of opportunity
long but capital-short sectors.
y A transaction or an arrangement in
respect of a property where the owner 50. Answer: (c)
of the property is not aware of or denies Atal Pension Yojana is a flagship social security
knowledge of such ownership. scheme of the Government of India, launched
y A transaction or an arrangement in respect in 2015. with an objective of delivering old age
of a property where the person providing income security, particularly to the workers in
the consideration is not traceable or is the unorganised sector.
fictitious. y The scheme provides for a minimum
Option (b) is correct: This act was amended in guaranteed fixed pension for the
2016 and now referred to as Benami Transaction beneficiaries ranging from Rs 1,000 per
(Prohibition) Amendment Act, 2016. It gives month to Rs 5,000 per month after attaining
the government power to confiscate Benami the age of 60 years. (Statement 1 is correct)
properties through competent authority. No y The scheme is open to all citizens of India
compensation will be paid for such properties. who are in the age group of 18-40 years and
Also, it will not be possible to recover the not limited to only one member of a family,
confiscated property. The act now also provides those with a bank account and currently
for an appellate tribunal whose orders will be not covered under any other social security
open to appeal in High Courts. benefit scheme. (Statement 2 is not
Elimination Technique: The Act provides correct)
for three authorities for investigations y After the death of the subscriber, the same
but does not provide for any appellate pension amount will be paid to the spouse
mechanism. Statement 3 is not correct of the subscriber. On the demise of both
and can be eliminated. Statement 2 is subscriber and spouse, the accumulated
correct. So, Option (b) is correct. pension as accumulated till the age 60
years of the subscriber will be returned to
the nominee. (Statement 3 is correct)
49. Answer: (c)
Option (c) is correct: Rashtriya Garima Abhiyan Elimination Technique: The scheme is
is National Campaign for dignity and Eradication open to all citizens of India and not limited
of Manual Scavenging. The initiative is the to one family member. So, we are left with
brainchild of Ashif Shaikh, social activist and Option (a) and Option (c).
founder of nonprofit organisation Jan Sahas.
Rashtriya Garima Abhiyan used a positive 51. Answer: (d)
transformation approach to empower manual Energy ‘labelling’ is one of the most cost-
scavengers, village by village, to take collective effective tools for improving energy efficiency
action, burn their cane baskets, demolish dry and lowering the energy cost of appliances/
latrines and stand united in opposition to equipment for consumers. The program
caste-based exploitation. Ashif was also part has been developed in a collaborative and
1. Which of the following countries has been this they are trying to bring technological
suffering from decades of civil strife and progress and physical productivity under
food shortages and was in news in the their control.
recent past for its very severe famine? Which one of the following is correct in
(2023) respect of the above statements?
(a) Angola (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(b) Costa Rica correct and Statement-II is the correct
(c) Ecuador explanation for Statement-I
Statement-II: (c)
Ignoring the disastrous ecological
consequences while undertaking
The ‘Arab Peace Initiative’ mediated by
infrastructure development
Saudi Arabia was signed by Israel and Arab
League. (d)
Making mandatory provisions for
environmental costs in a government
Which one of the following is correct in
project/programme
respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is the correct 9. Consider the following statements : (2022)
explanation for Statement-I 1. Vietnam has been one of the fastest
(b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II growing economies in the world in the
are correct and Statement-II is not the recent years.
correct explanation for Statement-I 2. Vietnam is led by a multi-party political
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II system.
is incorrect 3. Vietnam’s economic growth is linked to
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement- its integration with global supply chains
II is correct and focus on exports.
4. For a long time Vietnam’s low labour
costs and stable exchange rates have
7. Consider the following statements : (2022)
attracted global manufacturers.
1. Bidibidi is a large refugee settlement in
5. Vietnam has the most productive
north-western Kenya.
e-service sector in the Indo-Pacific
2. Some people who fled from South region.
Which of the pairs given above is/are (c) Venezuela and Colombia
correctly matched? (d) Yemen and South Sudan
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 4 only 19. The term “Two state Solution” is sometimes
(c) 1 and 3 only mentioned in the new in the context of the
affairs of: (2018)
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
(a) China
(b) Israel
15.
The Global Competitiveness Report is
published by the: (2019) (c) Iraq
23.
'Broad-based Trade and Investment
27.
The term ‘Regional Comprehensive
Agreement (BTIA)' is sometimes seen in
Economic Partnership’ often appears in
the news in the context of negotiations
the news in the context of the affairs of a
held between India and: (2017)
group of countries known as: (2016)
(a) European Union
(a) G20
(b) Gulf Cooperation Council
(b) ASEAN
(c) Organization for Economic Cooperation
(c) SCO
and Development
(d) SAARC
(d) Shanghai Cooperation Organization
Select the correct answer using the code (b) United Nations Framework Conference
given below: on Climate Change
7. Answer: (c)
6. Answer: (c) Statement 1 is not correct & Statement 2 is
Statement 1 is correct: In recent years, Israel correct: The U.N. refugee agency now says that
has established diplomatic relations with Bidi Bidi hosts more than 270,000 refugees —
several Arab states, marking a significant shift making it the world’s largest refugee camp.
in regional dynamics. It is now bigger than Kenya’s Dadaab camp,
1. Egypt: Egypt was the first Arab country which has been receiving Somali refugees for
to establish diplomatic relations with more than 20 years. As soon as you set foot
Israel in 1979 under the Camp David in any of the refugee camps along the South
Accords, which led to a peace treaty Sudan border in Uganda, vast human suffering
between the two nations. becomes easily apparent. What began as
a dispute between the president and vice
2. Jordan: Jordan followed suit and
president has turned into a brutal civil war
signed a peace treaty with Israel in
fueled by ethnic tensions.
1994, normalizing diplomatic relations
between the two countries. Statement 3 is correct: The first camp was
established in 1991 when refugees fleeing the
3. United Arab Emirates (UAE): In August
civil war in Somalia started to cross the border
2020, the UAE and Israel signed the
into Kenya. A second large influx occurred in
historic Abraham Accords, which
2011, when some 130,000 refugees arrived,
included the establishment of full
fleeing drought and famine in southern Somalia.
diplomatic ties between the two
countries. This marked a significant
development in regional relations. 8. Answer: (a)
4. Bahrain: Also in August 2020, Bahrain Option (a) is correct: Greenwashing is the
and Israel signed the Abraham Accords, process of conveying a false impression or
establishing diplomatic relations and providing misleading information about how a
normalization of ties between the two company’s products are more environmentally
countries. sound. Greenwashing is considered an
5. Sudan: In October 2020, Sudan unsubstantiated claim to deceive consumers
announced its intention to normalize into believing that a company’s products are
environmentally friendly.
Statement 1 is not correct: As per the Statement 2 is not correct: The award was
current regulations for the ICC World Test received mostly by tennis players.
Championship (WTC), the finalists are decided Statement 3 is correct: Roger Federer received
by the percentage of points (PCT) earned by this award the maximum number of times
individual teams. PCT is the percentage of compared to others.
points won out of the total number of points
contested by each team.
13. Answer: (b)
Statement 2 is not correct: New Zealand has
ranked ahead of England in WTC 2019-21 Statement 1 is not correct: The value of Indo-
because the percentage of points won by New Sri Lanka trade has not consistently increased
Zealand was more than England. They won 70 in the last decade. It registered a downfall
percent as against England who won 68.7 post 2014-15. While the import value almost
remains stagnant or at a very slow growth rate,
the sharp decline in exports value has brought
11. Answer: (b) down the total value of the trade in the past
The Olympic Games are an athletic festival that decade.
originated in ancient Greece and was revived Statement 2 is correct: “Textile and Textile
in the late 19th century. They are the world’s articles” such as the import of readymade
The United Nations (UN) defines famine as a THAAD is able to intercept incoming missiles
crisis where at least 20 percent of a region’s at endo- and exo-atmospheric altitudes, with
population does not have sufficient food to be a maximum engagement altitude of roughly 93
healthy, more than 30 percent of children under miles above the earth’s surface. In South Korea,
the age of five are severely malnourished, and the THAAD missile defence system is operated
two in 10,000 people or four in 10,000 children by the US army stationed in the country.
die due to extreme hunger every day. The US had previously announced that the
deployment of this missile defence system was
Option (d) is correct: Presently, around 20
a countermeasure against potential attacks by
million people, including 1.4 million children,
North Korea, particularly after the country had
are inching closer to this state of living as
engaged in testing ballistic missiles.
the spectre of famine looms large over South
Sudan, Somalia, Northeast Nigeria, and Yemen.
People in these regions either suffered from 21. Answer: (b)
severe famine/acute malnutrition or died due Option (b) is correct: The Global Infrastructure
to starvation caused by war/ethnic conflicts. Facility (GIF), a G20 initiative, is a global
Pair 3 is correctly matched: The Rohingya are Statement 2 is not correct: The Trans-Pacific
an ethnic Muslim minority who practice a Partnership’ is a trade bloc and is not related to
Sufi-inflected variation of Sunni Islam. Major a strategic alliance for the purpose of maritime
population of Rohingya inhabited in Myanmar’s security. In the United States, the deal was
Rakhine State. viewed in the broader context of the military
and diplomatic “pivot” toward East Asia.
Statement 1 is not correct: At the fourth BRICS y It focuses on current market conditions,
Summit in New Delhi (2012), the leaders of highlighting systemic issues that could
Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa pose a risk to financial stability and
considered the possibility of setting up a sustained market access by emerging
New Development Bank (NDB) to mobilise market borrowers.
resources for infrastructure and sustainable y Some of the other reports published by
development projects in BRICS and other the IMF are the ‘World Economic Outlook’
emerging economies, as well as in developing report, Fiscal Monitor, etc.
countries. During the sixth BRICS Summit
in Fortaleza (2014), the leaders signed the
Agreement establishing the New Development 38. Answer: (c)
Bank. NDB was not set up by Asia-Pacific Option (c) is correct: In 1995, 189 governments
Economic Cooperation (APEC). were joined by 17,000 participants and 30,000
Statement 2 is correct: The headquarters of non-governmental activists in Beijing for
New Development Bank is located in Shanghai, the opening of the Fourth World Conference
China. on Women. For two weeks, government
representatives worked on producing a
The Bank has an initial authorised capital of document of agreed written targets towards
US$ 100 billion. The initial subscribed capital achieving gender equality. The outcome of
shall be US$ 50 billion, equally shared among this momentous conference was the Beijing
founding members. Declaration and Platform for Action, a holistic
document for women empowerment and
36. Answer: (a) gender-neutral society.
3. International Centre for Settlement of Statement 2 is not correct: Its mission is to help
Investment Disputes (ICSID) India become a creative and knowledge-based
society by expanding policy and institutional
space for grassroots technological innovators.
46. Answer: (b) NIF supports grassroots innovations developed
Option (b) is correct: The 2014 outbreak of by individuals and local communities in
Ebola virus disease in West Africa was the any technological field, helping in human
“largest, most severe and most complex survival without any help from the formal
Ebola epidemic” in history, according to the sector. NIF helps grassroots innovators and
World Health Organization. More than 28,000 outstanding traditional knowledge holders get
people were infected, and over 11,000 people due recognition, respect and reward for their
died before the international public health innovations.
emergency ended in June 2016. The outbreak
started in Guinea and then moved across land
48. Answer: (b)
borders to Sierra Leone and Liberia.
Option (b) is correct: The Fortaleza Declaration
Ebola:
of heads of state from Brazil, Russia, India,
1. With reference to coal-based thermal according to the Flag Code of India, 2002:
power plants in India, consider the (2023)
following statements: (2023) Statement-I:
1. None of them uses seawater. One of the standard sizes of the National
2. None of them are set up in water- Flag of India is 600 mm × 400 mm.
stressed districts. Statement-II:
3. None of them is privately owned. The ratio of the length to the height (width)
How many of the above statements are of the Flag shall be 3 : 2.
correct? Which one of the following is correct in
(a) Only one respect of the above statements?
(b) Only two (a) Both Statement-I and Statements-II are
(c) All three correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(d) None
(b) Both Statement-I and Statements-II
are correct and Statement-II is not the
2. Consider the following statements: (2023) correct explanation for Statement-I
Statement-I: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
7th August is declared as the National is incorrect
Handloom day. (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
Statement-II: II is correct
1. Consider the following statements: (2023) (b) Converting crop residues into packing
1. Carbon fibres are used in the material
manufacture of the components used (c) Producing biodegradable plastics
in automobiles and aircrafts. (d) Producing biochar from thermochemical
2. Carbon fibres once used cannot be conversion of biomass
recycled.
Which of the statements given above is/are 4. With reference to Home Guards, consider
correct? the following statements: (2023)
(a) 1 only 1. Home Guards are raised under the
(b) 2 only Home Guards Act and Rules of the
(c) Both 1 and 2 Central Government.
768 Miscellaneous
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(a) Exoplanets 10. ‘Project Loon’, sometimes seen in the news,
(b) Crypto currency is related to: (2016)
7. What is the purpose of the 'evolved Laser (d) water conservation technology
Interferometer Space Antenna (eLISA)'
project? (2017)
11. Recently, our scientists have discovered a
(a) To detect neutrinos new and distinct species of banana plant
(b) To detect gravitational waves which attains a height of about 11 metres
and has orange-coloured fruit pulp. In
(c) To detect the effectiveness of missile
which part of India has it been discovered?
defence system
(2016)
(d) To study the effect of solar flares on our
(a) Andaman Islands
communication systems
(b) Anaimalai Forests
(c) Maikal Hills
8. Consider the following statements: (2017)
(d) Tropical rain forests of northeast
1. In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is
transmitted by the same mosquito that
transmits dengue. 12. Which one of the following is the best
2. Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease description of ‘INS Astradharini’, that was
is possible. in the news recently? (2016)
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) Amphibious warfare ship
correct? (b) Nuclear-powered submarine
(a) 1 only (c) Torpedo launch and recovery vessel
(b) 2 only (d) Nuclear-powered aircraft carrier
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 13. What is ‘Greased Lightning-10 (GL-10)’,
recently in the news? (2016)
9. The terms 'Event Horizon', 'Singularity', (a) Electric plane tested by NASA
‘String Theory' and 'Standard Model' are (b) Solar-powered two-seater aircraft
sometimes seen in the news in the context designed by Japan
of: (2017)
(c) Space observatory launched by China
(a) Observation and understanding of the
(d) Reusable rocket designed by ISRO
Universe
(b) Study of the solar and the lunar eclipses
14. ‘Doctors Without Borders (Medecins Sans
(c) Placing satellites in the orbit of the
Frontieres)’, often in the news, is: (2016)
Earth
(a) A division of World Health Organisation
(d) Origin and evolution of living organisms
on the Earth (b)
A non-governmental international
organisation
Miscellaneous 769
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(c)
An inter-governmental agency 17. Which one of the following was given
sponsored by European Union classical language status recently? (2015)
(d) A specialised agency of the United (a) Odia
Nations (b) Konkani
(c) Bhojpuri
15. The term ‘Base Erosion and Profit Shifting’ (d) Assamese
is sometimes seen in the news in the
context of: (2016)
(a)
mining operation by multinational 18. Which of the following brings out the
companies in resource-rich but ‘Consumer Price Index’ Number for the
backward areas Industrial Workers’? (2015)
(b)
curbing of the tax evasion by (a) The Reserve Bank of India
multinational companies (b) The Department of Economic Affairs
(c) exploitation of genetic resources of a (c) The Labour Bureau
country by multinational companies (d)
The department of Personnel and
(d) lack of consideration of environmental Training
costs in the planning and implementation
of developmental projects
19. With reference to bio-toilets used by the
Indian Railways, consider the following
16. Which of the following has/have been statements: (2015)
accorded ‘Geographical Indication’ status? 1. The decomposition of human waste in
(2016) the bio-toilets is initiated by a fungal
1. Banaras Brocades and Sarees inoculum.
2. Rajasthani Dal-Bati-Churma 2. Ammonia and water vapour are the only
3. Tirupati Laddu end products in this decomposition
which are released into the atmosphere.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below: Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
770 Miscellaneous
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4 Miscellaneous-Explanation
3. Accelerometers are commonly found in Statement 2 is correct: The role of the Home
smartphones and other portable devices. Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the
They detect changes in orientation and police in maintenance of internal security for
motion. When a smartphone is tilted, preventing infiltration on the international
the accelerometer senses the change border/coastal areas, guarding of VA/VPs and
in position and provides the necessary lines of communication in vulnerable areas at
input for the device to adjust the display the time of external aggression.
from portrait to landscape mode, or Statement 3 is correct: Fifteen Border Wing
Miscellaneous-Explanation 771
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Home Guards (BWHG) Battalions have been grades or benchmarks (reference price for
raised in the border States viz. Punjab (6 Bns.), buyers and sellers), namely, Brent Crude and
Rajasthan ( 4 Bns.), Gujarat (2 Bns.) and one West Texas Intermediate (WTI).
each Battalion for Meghalaya, Tripura and Brent Crude: It is the most popular traded
West Bengal to serve as an auxiliary to Border grade, produced in the Brent oil fields and other
Security Force. sites in the North Sea. It is the benchmark for
African, European and Middle Eastern crude
5. Answer: (a) oils. This grade dictates nearly two-thirds of
the world’s crude oil production.
Option (a) is correct: West Texas Intermediate
is a particular grade of crude oil. This oil is WTI: It is the benchmark for crude oil for the
primarily sourced from Texas and serves as a United States. It, however, continues to be the
global benchmark for setting global oil prices. main benchmark oil consumed in the United
States.
Crude oil mainly comes under two different
772 Miscellaneous-Explanation
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6. Answer: (c) noise: in this sense, eLISA will complement
Option (c) is correct: WannaCry is ransomware the efforts of ground-based gravitational wave
which is used for cyberattacks worldwide. detectors.
It targets computers running the Microsoft
Windows operating system by encrypting data
and demanding ransom payments in Bitcoin
cryptocurrency.
The Petya ransomware not only encrypts
files, but it also locks the entire disk, making
it basically unusable until the infection is
removed. It shuts down the system and asks
for a ransom of $300 in bitcoins on rebooting.
Code known as “Eternal Blue,” which cyber
security experts widely believe was stolen
from the US National Security Agency (NSA)
and was also used in a ransomware attack,
named “WannaCry.”
8. Answer: (c)
Statement 1 is correct: Zika virus disease is
7. Answer: (b)
caused by a virus transmitted primarily by
Option (b) is correct: The evolved Laser Aedes mosquitoes (responsible for transmitting
Interferometer Space Antenna (eLISA) is a dengue fever and chikungunya), which bite
mission aiming at exploring the Gravitational during the day. Symptoms are generally mild
Universe from space. and include fever, rash, conjunctivitis, muscle,
The eLISA mission consists of a “Mother” and and joint pain, malaise, or headache. Symptoms
two “Daughter” spacecraft. These will orbit typically last for 2–7 days. Most people with
the Sun in a triangular configuration. The three Zika virus infection do not develop symptoms.
satellites will form a precision interferometer, Statement 2 is correct: Zika can be passed
with the two Daughter spacecraft connected through sexual transmission from a person
to the mother one by 1 million km long laser with Zika to his or her partners. Sex includes
beams. This interferometer will be capable of vaginal, anal, and oral sex and the sharing of
detecting gravitational waves at frequencies in sex toys. Zika can be passed through sex even
the range of 0.1 MHz to 1 Hz. in a committed relationship. The timeframes
Such a frequency interval is not accessible that men and women can pass Zika through
on Earth due to arm length limitations and to sex are different because Zika virus can stay in
noise caused by the terrestrial gravity gradient semen longer than in other body fluids.
Miscellaneous-Explanation 773
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9. Answer: (a) and are identical to one another.
Option (a) is correct: ‘Event Horizon’, ‘Singularity’, y The Standard Model is a theory that
‘String Theory’ and ‘Standard Model’ are used displays modern ideas about the original
for the observation and understanding of the basic material for building the Universe.
Universe. This model describes how matter is formed
y Singularity and Event Horizons are from its basic components; what interaction
concerned with Black Holes. Singularities forces exist between its components.
were first predicted as Einstein’s Theory
of General Relativity, which gave the
theoretical existence of black holes. In this,
any star that reaches beyond a certain point
in its mass would exert a gravitational force.
Event Horizon is the boundary defining the
region of space around a black hole from
which nothing (not even light) can escape.
y String Theory and ‘Standard Model’ try
to observe and understand the universe. 10. Answer: (b)
String Theory states that everything in our Option (b) is correct: Project Loon is a pilot
Universe is made up of tiny vibrating strings. project developed by Google LLC with an aim
These strings are one-dimensional objects of providing economic internet access across
774 Miscellaneous-Explanation
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the world. It comprises a network of balloons 12. Answer: (c)
that would float above in the stratosphere Option (c) is correct: INS Astradharini is the
higher than the airplanes and the weather. Indian Navy’s first indigenously designed and
Project Loon targets such parts of the world and built torpedo launch and recovery vessel. The
others that have been hit by natural calamities unique design of the ship was a collaborative
and allows them internet connectivity. It uses effort of Naval Science and Technological
wireless communication technology to provide Laboratory, IIT Kharagpur and Shoft Shipyard.
internet services. The catamaran hull configuration significantly
reduces its power requirement.
INS Astradharini will be used to carry out the
technical trials of underwater weapons and
systems developed by the city-based NSTL.
It is an advanced replacement for Astravahini
which was decommissioned on July 17, 2015
Miscellaneous-Explanation 775
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15. Answer: (b)
Base Erosion and Profit Shifting are the
techniques by which firms operating in
multiple jurisdictions shift their profits from
the jurisdiction of one nation to another by
exploiting tax laws and taking advantage of
lower tax rates. Through ways such as transfer
pricing, firms often manipulate their purchase
prices from their own related concerns in other
jurisdictions so that the profits accrue to the
related concern that is operating in a lower tax
jurisdiction.
Option (b) is correct: Governments have been
Greased Lightning-10 (GL-10) is an aircraft
worrying about such practices and take steps
configuration that combines the characteristics
to plug loopholes so that such practices
of a cruise efficient airplane with the ability to
cannot take place and curb tax evasion by
perform vertical take-off and landing (VTOL).
multinational companies. Advance pricing
This aircraft has been designed, fabricated
agreements form a way out of this.
and flight tested at the small unmanned aerial
system (UAS) scale.
16. Answer: (c)
14. Answer: (b) A Geographical Indication (GI) is a status given
to certain products which correspond to a
Option (b) is correct: Doctors Without
specific geographical location or origin (e.g.,
Borders/ Médecins Sans Frontieres (MSF)
a town, region, or country). The use of a GI
is an international, independent, medical
may act as a certification that the product
humanitarian organisation that delivers
possesses certain qualities, is made according
emergency aid to people affected by armed
to traditional methods, or enjoys a certain
conflict, epidemics, natural disasters and
reputation, due to its geographical origin.
exclusion from healthcare. MSF was established
in 1971 by a small group of French doctors who y Banarasi Brocade has been in existence
had worked in Biafra. Upon their return, they since the Mughal era and can be identified
were determined to find a way to respond rapidly with a narrow fringe-like pattern, called
and effectively to public health emergencies, Jhalar, found along the inner and outer
with complete independence from political, border. This fringe resembles a string of
economic and religious influences. leaves. Banarasi Brocade is a GI-protected
item. As per the GI registry, brocade sarees
Today, MSF is one of the world’s leading
made only in the districts of Varanasi,
independent international medical relief
Chandauli, Mirzapur, Jaunpur, Bhadohi
organisations, working in more than 70
and Azamgarh in Uttar Pradesh can be
countries worldwide and with operational
authentically identified as Banarasi saree
centres and national offices in 19 countries.
or brocade. [Option 1 is correct]
MSF offers assistance to people based on
need, irrespective of race, religion, gender or
political affiliation.
776 Miscellaneous-Explanation
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17. Answer: (a)
Option (a) is correct: Odia became the sixth
language of the country to get classical language
status on 20th February 2014 after Malayalam
(2013), Telugu (2008), Kannada (2008), Sanskrit
(2005) and Tamil (2004). Sahitya Akademi is
the authority that gives the status of classical
languages.
According to information provided by the
Ministry of Culture in the Rajya Sabha in
February 2014, the guidelines for declaring a
language as ‘Classical’ are:
y High antiquity of its early texts/recorded
history over a period of 1500-2000 years.
y A body of ancient literature/texts, which
is considered a valuable heritage by
generations of speakers.
y The literary tradition is original and not
y Rajasthani Dal-Bati-Churma is the most borrowed from another speech community.
popular dish of Rajasthani cuisine. This meal
y The classical language and literature being
is an esteemed part of every Rajasthani
distinct from modern, there may also
household. This dish has not been accorded
be a discontinuity between the classical
‘Geographical Indication’ status yet. [Option
language and its later forms or its offshoots.
2 is not correct]
Once a language is notified as a classical
y India’s richest temple, the Venkateshwara
language, it will have the following benefits:
(Tirupati) temple, continues to have the
patent of its famous ‘Laddu’. It is the y Two major annual international awards for
decision by the Geographical Indications scholars of eminence in classical Indian
Registry which also granted Laddu the languages.
status of Geographical Indicator of the y A Centre of Excellence for Studies in
Tirupati region. [Option 3 is correct] Classical Languages is set up.
y The University Grants Commission is
requested to create, to start with at least in
the Central Universities, a certain number
of Professional Chairs for the Classical
languages so declared.
Miscellaneous-Explanation 777
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Option (c) is correct: The Consumer Price
index (CPI) for Industrial Workers is released
by the Labour Bureau, Ministry of Labour
and Employment. CPI for Industrial Workers
measures the changes in prices over a period
of time for a specified basket of commodities
consumed by the Industrial Workers.
At all India levels, the Labour Bureau,
Chandigarh/Shimla, has been compiling the
CPI-IW with base 2001=100. The index is
released every month. Regulation of dearness
allowance in respect of all the workers and
employees belonging to private and public Statement 2 is not correct: Carbon dioxide and
sectors industries as well as Central and State Methane (not Ammonia and water vapour) are
Government employees are decided based on the end products released into the atmosphere.
CPI-IW.
778 Miscellaneous-Explanation
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