Ncert Books MCQ PDF With Answers
Ncert Books MCQ PDF With Answers
Ncert Books MCQ PDF With Answers
CONTENTS
1. Free and fair elections are the key to functioning 3. “.. a future and more enlightened age will view
of a vibrant democracy. Consider the following with astonishment the absurd farce of...”
statements regarding elections in India and identify Above statements were mode in the context of:
the correct ones.
Code:
1. Ballot papers with name of all candidates in a
constituency were used for elections in India since a) Integration of Princely States
Independence. b) Linguistic reorganization of states.
2. This method was replaced by Electronic Voting c) Introduction of Universal Adult Franchise
machines starting from end of 1990s.
d) Establishment of secular India
3. Independent India’s first election was the largest
Ans. C.
of such an exercise in the world till then.
3. Match the following:
Code:
List-I List-II
a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only
A. Habeas corpus 1. The court finds that a
c) 2 and 3 only d) All of the above
particular office holder is not doing legal duty and is
Ans. C. infringing on the right of an individual.
2. Read the statements below. They were written in B. Mandamus 2. The court orders that the
context of India after Independence. arrested person should be presented before it.
1. “... the biggest gamble in the history ...” C. Quo warranto 3. The court orders a lower
2. “Nehru will live to confess the failure of ...” court or another authority to transfer a matter
pending before it to the higher authority or court.
D. Certiorari 4. If the court finds that a C. Power of judicial review 3. British and
person is holding office but is not entitled to hold independence of the Constitution judiciary
that office, the court restricts that person from D. Principles of liberty, 4. Irish Equality and
acting as on office holder Fraternity Constitution
Code: E. The idea of Residual 5. United States powers
ABCD Constitution
a) 2 1 3 4 Code:
b) 2 1 4 3 ABCDE
c) 1 2 4 3 a) 3 4 2 5 1
d) 1 2 3 4 b) 3 4 5 2 1
ans. B c) 4 3 5 1 2
4. Which of the following statements is not correct? d) 4 3 2 1 5
1. The Constitution forbids employment of children ans. B
below the age of 14 years in dangerous jobs like 6. Match the following and choose the correct
factories and mines. answer from the codes given below:
2. The freedom of religion is not an unlimited right List-I List-II
as govt. can interfere in religious matters for rooting
out certain social evils. A. Freedom to criticize 1. Substantive treatment
of widows achievement
3. The Constitution allows conversions in India.
B. Taking decisions 2. Procedural in the
4. All minorities, religious or linguistic can set up Constituent achievement Assembly on the basis of
their own education institutions. reason, not self interest
Code: C. Accepting importance 3. Liberal of community in
a) 4 only b) 3 and 4 an individualism individual’s life
c) 3 only d) None D. Article 370 and 371 4. Attention to
ans. D requirements of a particular region.
c) 5 2 1 4 3
d) 3 2 1 4 5 9. Which of the following is not a reasonable
ans. D explanation of the conflict between the legislature
and the judiciary over different amendments?
7. Which of the following principles of secularism
are adopted in the Constitution of India? 1. Different interpretations of the Constitution are
possible
1. That state will have nothing to do with religion.
2. In a democracy, debates and differences are
2. That state will have close relation with religion. natural.
3. That state can discriminate among religions. 3. Constitution has given higher importance to
4. That state will recognize rights of religious certain rules and principles and also allowed for
groups. amendment by special majority.
5. That state will have limited powers to intervene in 4. Legislature cannot be entrusted to protect the
affairs of religions. rights of the citizens.
Code: 5. Judiciary can only decide the Constitutionality of
a particular law; cannot resolve political debates
a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 b) 4 and 5
about its need.
c) 1, 4 and 5 d) All of the Above
Code:
ans. B
a) 2 and 4 b) 2, 3 and 4
8. Identify the correct statements about the theory
c) 1, 3 and 5 d) 2, 3, 4 and 5
of basic structure.
ans. A
1. Constitution specifies the basic tenets.
10. 42nd Amendment was one of the most
2. Legislature can amend all parts of the
controversial Amendments so far. Which of the
Constitution except the basic structure.
following were the reasons for this controversy?
3. Judiciary has defined which aspects of the
1. It was made during National emergency and the
Constitution can be termed as the basic structure
declaration of that emergency was itself
and which cannot.
controversial.
4. The theory found its first expression in the
2. It was made without the support of special
Kesavananda Bharti case and has been discussed
majority.
in subsequent judgments.
3. It was made without ratification by state
Code:
legislatures.
a) 1 and 4 b) 2 and 4
Code:
c) 1, 2 and 4 d) 2, 3 and 4
a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 only
ans. B
c) 1 and 2 only d) 1, 2 and 3
11. Who among the following are involved in 1. Federalism enhances the possibility of people
making amendment to the Indian Constitution. from different regions to interact without the fear of
one’s culture being imposed upon them by others.
1. Voters
2. Federal system will hinder easier economic
2. President of India transaction between two different regions that have
3. State legislatures distinct types of resources.
4. Parliament 3. A federal system will ensure that the powers of
those at the centre will remain limited.
5. Governors
Code:
6. Judiciary
a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only
Choose the correct answer from the codes given
below: c) 2 and 3 only d) All of the above
a) 2 and 4 only b) 3 and 4 only ans. B
c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) 2, 3, 4 and 6
ans. C 14. Read the following statements given in list-I
and match them with the different jurisdictions that
12. Consider the following statements.
Supreme Court can exercise given in list-II.
1. The President cannot send back a constitutional
List-I
amendment bill for reconsideration to the
Parliament. A. The govt. wanted to know if it can pass a law
about the citizenship status of residents of Pakistan
2. Elected representatives alone have the power to
Occupied areas of Jammu and Kashmir.
amend the Constitution.
B. In order to resolve the dispute about the sharing
3. The judiciary cannot initiate the process of
of police forces with Telangana, the Government of
Constitutional Amendment but can effectively
Andhra Pradesh wants to approach the Court.
change the Constitution by interpreting it differently.
C. Court rejected the appeal of the people against
4. The Parliament can amend any section of the
the eviction from the dam site.
Constitution.
List-II
Which among the above statements is/are correct?
1. Original Jurisdiction
a) 1 and 4 only b) 1, 3 and 4 only
2. Appellate Jurisdiction
c) 1, 2 and 4 only d) All of the above
3. Advisory Jurisdiction
ans. B
Code:
2. Voter can give preference order for different c) 1, 2 and 4 only d) All of the above
candidates. ans. C
3. Every voter has equal vote. 21. Consider the following statements about the
4. The winner must get more than half the votes. Indian constitution and choose the correct ones:
Choose the correct answer from the codes given 1. Constitution makers were of the belief that there
below: can be no faults in the constitution as each
a) Only 3 b) Only 1 and 3 provision was deliberated in detail and passed
unanimously.
c) Only 1, 3 and 4 d) All of the above
2. Some provisions in Indian constitution were
ans. A temporary in nature.
3. There are different ways for amending Indian
19. Which of the following can be termed as a Constitution.
violation of Fundamental Rights? Code:
1. Not paying minimum wages a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only
2. Banning of a book c) 2 and 3 only d) All of these
3. Banning of loudspeakers after 9 p.m. ans. C
4. Restriction on making a public speech 22. Indian Constitution was amended several times
Code: in history of independent India. Consider the
following statements and choose the incorrect
a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only
ones
c) 1, 2 and 4 only d) None of the above
1. Indian Constitution was amended maximum
ans. A during the period between 1960 to 1970
20. Consider the following statements. 2. 44th Amendment was a mini constitution in itself.
1. A Bill of Right lays down the rights enjoyed by the 3. 43rd and 44th amendment primarily sought to
people of a country. reverse the provisions in 38th, 39th and 42nd
2. A bill of Rights protects the liberties of an amendments.
individual. 4. The theory of basic structure is an example in
3. Every country of the world has a Bill of Rights. itself of a living constitution.
23. Consider the following statements and choose 2. The ideals enshrined in constitution are variously
the correct ones: interpreted and willfully manipulated at times to suit
1. Values and standards of constitution makers partisan interests.
should be used to study constitutions all over the 3. Constitution is a document which can work as an
world. arbitrator in a conflict of interpretation of values and
2. Liberalism always privileges rights of individuals ideals.
over demands of social justice and community Which of the above statements are correct?
values. a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only
3. Reservation is against the ideal of classical c) 2 and 3 only d) All of these
liberalism.
ans. C
Code:
26. Consider the following statements about Indian
a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only Constitution.
c) 2 and 3 only d) All of the above 1. Indian Constitution envisaged decentralized idea
ans. C of national unity.
24. Constitution is not an end in itself, but means to 2. Indian constitution comprehensively addressed
pursue the end, hence consider these statements all issues of gender justice.
and choose the correct ones. Which of the above statements are correct?
1. One of the needs of a constitution is to restrict a) Only 1 b) Only 2
the exercise of power by the state.
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 1
2. Constitutions are documents capable of social
transformation. 27. Consider the following statements in the
context of First Past the Post system of Election.
3. Constitutions cannot empower those who are
traditionally kept out of power. 1. Under this system, the Candidates who secured
more votes is declared elected.
Code:
2. First Past the Post system of Election is also
a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only called the Plurality System.
c) 2 and 3 only d) All of the above 3. First Past the Post system of Election is not
ans. A prescribed in the Constitution.
25. India created a constitution which is very much Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
alive and strong even after 60 years of a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only
independence. Consider the following statements
about the constitution. c) 1, 2 and 3 d) None of the above
1. Constitution is purely a legal document. 28. Consider the following statements in the
context of Local Governments.
1. The reservation of seats apply only to ordinary Jurisdiction, which is not available even forthe
members in Panchayats not to the positions of American Supreme Court.
Chairpersons or ‘Adhyakshas‘ 2. If the Supreme Court is approached for its advice,
2. The stipulated reservation of the seats for women then the court is bound to give the advice on the
is restricted to general category of seats not to the matter sought.
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. 3. Both the President and Council of Ministers are
Which of the above statements is/are correct? bound to act upon the advise tendered by the
a) 1 only b) 2 only Supreme Court.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 2. The ministers are bound to reply to the question
a) 1 only b) 2 only raised in the Zero Hour.
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. If a bill is presented, the President has to either
return or give assent in same session.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
39. Consider the following statements in the
context of Panchayati Raj institutions. a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only
1. The reservations for both SCs & STs are provided c) 1, 2 and 3 d) None of them
at all the levels of Panchayati Raj.
2. All the three levels of Panchayati Raj institutions 42. For conduction of free and fair elections,
are elected directly by the people. Election Commission of India was set up after
3. The terms of all the three levels of Panchayati Raj independence. Consider following statements and
institutions are coterminous. choose incorrect statements in the context of
elections.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. Election Commission is a constitutional body to
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only supervise, direct and control all elections in India.
c) 1, 2 and 3 d) None of them 2. Country’s first general elections were conducted
in 1950.
40. Consider the following statements in the 3. Electronic Voting Machine method has been used
context of State Re-organization in India. in entire country since 2004.
1. The implementation of States Reorganization Code:
Commission Report was resulted in creating 15 new a) 3 only b) 1 and 2
states and six Union Territories.
c) 2 and 3 d) All the Above
2. While Gujarat and Maharashtra were created in
1966, the Punjab and Haryana were separated from
each other in 1960. 43. Planning Commission was set up to uptake the
Which of the above statements is/are correct? task of planned development of Indian economy.
Consider the following statements in this regard
a) 1 only b) 2 only and choose correct statement/s:
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. Planning Commission is a statutory body set up
in March, 1950 by government of India
41. Consider the following statements in the 2. Bombay Plan – 1944, was the brainchild of
context of legislative business in our country. Congress working committee which provided a
blueprint for the planned economy for the country
1. In Zero Hour, members are free to raise any
matter that they think is important.
44. Federal character has been adopted by Indian 1. Karpoori Thakur, was a pioneer in raising voice for
constitution. Consider following statements in this reservations for backward castes in North India.
regard and choose statements in this regard and 2. Mandal Commission was the first Backward
choose the incorrect statements. Class Commission since Independence, appointed
1. Constitution of India described India as a by Central Government.
federation in Article 1. 3. The decision to implement Mandal Commission
2. Economic and financial powers are decentralized recommendation was challenged in the Supreme
in character. Court in the famous ‘S R Bommai Case’.
1. Constitution is a document which announces 2. All these constitutions were granted by the King
political self determination. of Nepal.
48. Which of the following is a conclusive reason Commission introduced through the 73rd and 74th
for saying that the authority of the constitution is amendments.
higher than that of the Parliament? 1. The State Election Commission would be
1. The Constitution was framed before the responsible for the elections of the local assemblies
Parliament came in to being. and the local bodies.
2. The Constitution makers were more eminent 2. The Commission will report to the Election
leaders than the members of the Parliament. Commission of India.
3. The Constitution specifies how Parliament is to 3. This commission will function as a
be formed and what are its powers. semi-autonomous body under the state
Code: government.
4. The CEC can be removed before the expiry of the c) 1 and 2 d) 2 and 3
term, by the President of India on the advice of the
Council of Ministers.
52. Consider the following statements about the
Code: 73rd amendment act and choose the correct one/s.
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 only 1. The act provided for a three tier Panchayati Raj
c) 2 and 3 d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 structure with Gram Sabha at the base.
2. The intermediary level body need not be
constituted in smaller states.
50. Choose the incorrect statements from the
following about the provision of State Election
3. Gram Sabha would comprise of all adult 4. Individual freedom includes freedom of
members registered as voters in the Panchayat expression, freedom of profession, freedom of
area. residence, freedom of movement.
Code: Code:
a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2 and 3 a) 1, 3 and 4 b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1 and 3 d) Only 1 c) 1 and 2 d) 3 and 4
53. Universal adult franchise and a strong 55. Elections are the most important events,
constitution are the prerequisites to ensure ensuring accountability of governments to the
fairness of democracy. Which among the following general public, in a democratic country. Which
statements is/are correct? among the following statements is/are not correct.
1. The concept of universal adult franchise was 1. Election Commission is a Constitutional body.
mentioned as early as the constitution of India Bill 2. Article 325 deals with superintendence, direction
1895. and control of election.
2. The Constitution of India Bill 1895 is the first 3. Election Commissioner have fixed terms and
official attempt at drafting a Constitution for India. tenures.
3. Motilal Nehru report 1928, mentioned the age of a 4. The Election Commissioners can be removed by
person as 21, he/she who is eligible to vote for the the President on the recommendation of the
house of Parliament. supreme court.
4. First country to implement universal adult Code:
franchise was Germany followed by Russia. Code:
a) 1 and 3 only b) 1, 2 and 4 only
a) 1, 2, 4 only b) 2, 3, 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) 2 and 4 only
c) 1 and 3 only d) 2 and 4 only
56. Consider the following statements about local
bodies in India
54. Which among the following statements is/are 1. Local government is government at state and
correct? district level.
1. State can prohibit criticism of executive action 2. It is a statutory body.
under the limitation to freedom of expression.
3. It came into existence in 1993.
2. Freedom of press is expressly mentioned in
Article 19 but has been held to flow from general 4. Local bodies in India are nominated bodies.
freedom of speech given to all citizen. a) 1, 2 and 4 b) 1, 2 and 3
3. Ram Mohan Roy protested against curtailment of c) 2, 3 and 4 d) All of above
freedom of the press.
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57. Local government strengthens the democratic 3. It is a subordinate office of Central Election
process by: Commissioner
1. By ensuring active participation of people since it 4. It is responsible for conducting elections to state
is closer to people and local government institutions
2. By bringing purposeful accountability. Which of above statements is/are correct?
3. Make justice delivery quicker and cost effective. a) 3 and 4 only b) 2, 3, 4
4. Brings about effective problem solving and c) 1 and 2 only d) None of above
people-friendly administration
Code: 60. Consider the following statements with respect
a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 and 4 only to State Finance Commission.
c) 1, 2 and 4 d) All of above 1. It is a statutory body.
2. State Finance Commission is appointed by State
58. Consider the following statements about local Government once in every 5 years.
bodies in India. 3. It examines the financial position of local
1. Local bodies in India is a modern phenomenon government in the State.
created by amending the constitution in 1993. 4. It reviews the distribution of revenues between
2. Government of India Act 1919 established Village State & Local Government.
Panchayats in Provinces. Which of following statements are correct?
3. Government of India Act 1935 abolished local a) 2, 3 and 4 only b) 2 and 3
bodies in India. c) 2 and 4 only d) All of above
4. Lord Rippons resolution on democratic A. It is constitutional body
decentralization created local boards.
61. Our Constitution ensures that persons accused
Which of following statements are incorrect? of various offences would also get sufficient
a) 1 and 3 only b) 1, 2 and 3 only protection. In this context, which of the following
c) 2 and 4 only d) None of above statements is/are correct?
1. No person would be punished for the same
offence more than once.
59. Consider the following statements regarding
State Election Commission? 2. Law can declare any action as illegal
retrospectively.
1. It is appointed by the President in consultation
with the state government 3. No person shall be asked to give evidence against
himself or herself.
2. Creation of the State Election Commission is the
discretionary power of the state government
Select the correct answer using the codes given c) 1, 2 and 3 d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
below: 64. Consider the following statements about High
Code: Court:
a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only 1. High Court can issue writs only for restoring
c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 fundamental rights.
62. The legislature in Parliamentary system 3. High Court can hear appeals from lower courts.
ensures executive accountability at various stages. Which of the following statements are correct?
The legislature does this through the use of variety a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 3
of devices. Which among the following devices are
used in Parliamentary control over executive c) 3 only d) 2 and 3
1. Question hour
2. No confidence motion 65. Consider the following statements with respect
to Supreme Court of India:
3. Budget
1. Decisions made by the Supreme Court are binding
4. Adjournment motion on all other courts with in the territory of India
Which of the following statements are correct? 2. Supreme Court have no right to review its
a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2, 3 and 4 decision.
c) 1, 2 and 4 d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 3. A person can appeal to the Supreme Court
ans. D against the decisions of High Court only if, High
63. The Indian Constitution has ensured the Court certify that the case is fit for appeal.
Independence of the judiciary through a number of Which of the following statements are correct?
measures. Consider the following: a) Only 1 b) 1 and 2
1. The legislature is not involved in the process of c) 1 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3
appointment of judges
ans. A
2. Judiciary is not financially dependent on either
the executive or legislature 66. Which among the following is included in the
original jurisdiction of Supreme Court?
3. Parliament can never discuss the conduct of
judges 1. Dispute between centre and states
4. The judiciary has the power to penalise those who 2. Dispute between states
are found guilty of contempt of Court 3. Dispute in presidential election
Select the correct code: 4. Violation of fundamental rights
a) 1, 3 and 4 b) 1, 2 and 4 Which of the following statements are correct?
3. Rajya Sabha can only discuss the budget but c) 2 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3
cannot vote on the demands for grants (which is the 71. USA practises a Presidential form of
exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha) government. Consider the following statements
Which of the above statements are correct? about Presidential system.
Select the correct statements using the codes 74. Legislature is not merely a law making body. It
below: is at the centre of all democratic political process.
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 Consider the statement about the functioning of
parliament in light of this.
c) 1, 2 and 3 d) None of the above
1. The parliament has the power to amend the
constitution by a joint sitting of both the houses and
72. The Constitution of India vests the executive with a special majority
power of the Union formally in the President. 2. The judicial functions of the Parliament include
Consider the following statements. considering the proposals for removal of President,
1. The President is elected indirectly by all the Prime Minister, Vice-President and Judges of High
member of Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and State Courts and Supreme Court.
Assembly Which of these statement/s are correct?
2. This election takes place in accordance with the a) Only 1 b) Only 2
List system
c) Both 1 and 2 d) None
3. The Prime Minister is not obliged to furnish the
information the President may call for Which of
these statements are not correct? 75. Parliamentary privilege is a legal immunity
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 enjoyed by members of legislatures, in which
legislators are granted protection against civil or
c) 1 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3 criminal liability for actions done or statements
made in the course of their legislative duties.
Consider the following statements about this and
73. The constitution of India provides for a single
choose the incorrect ones.
integrated judicial system. This means that
1. The President has the final power in deciding
1. Unlike most of the other federal countries of the
matters of breach of privilege.
world, India does not have separate state courts.
2. The main purpose of such privileges is to enable
2. The structure of the judiciary in India is pyramidal
the members of the legislature to represent the
with the Supreme Court at the top, High Courts
people and exercise effective control over the
below them and district and subordinate courts at
executive.
the lowest level.
Code:
3. The lower courts function under the direct
superintendence of the higher courts. a) Only 1 b) Only 2
Code: c) Both 1and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
a) 1 and 2 only b) All 1, 2 and 3
c) 2 and 3 only d) None of the above 76. Indian Independence Act of 1947 made various
changes in the position of the Constituents
ans. C
Assembly. Consider the following statements in 1. Here the president is directly elected by the
this regard. people and the president and prime minister belong
1. Assembly was made a fully sovereign body, which to the same political party
could frame any constitution it pleased. 2. President has vast powers and he chooses the
2. Dual role of constituent assembly and parliament prime minister from party with majority in
was assigned to the Assembly. parliament.
3. Muslim League members withdrew from the 3. President is the head of the state,
constituent Assembly for India. commander-in-chief of armed forces and also head
of the government
Which among the above statements are correct:
4. The president is elected for a term of four years
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 and can be removed only by a resolution in
c) 3 only d) All the above parliament passed by the parliament with at least
2/3rd of total strength of the parliament
Code:
77. To provide independence to Judiciary the
removal of judges of the Supreme Court and High a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3
Courts is made extremely difficult. In this context c) 3 and 4 d) 1 and 4
which of the following statement/s are correct.
79. The President of India has various legislative,
1. A judge of the Supreme of High Court can be judicial, and military powers as well as situational
removed only on the ground of proven misbehavior discretionary powers. Consider the following
(or) incapacity. statements in this regard and choose the correct
2. A motion containing the charges against the ones.
judge must be approved with by special majority in 1. The president has a right to be informed about of
both houses of the parliament. all important matters and deliberations of the
3. So far, no judge has been removed from the council of ministers.
office. 2. The president can send back the advice given by
Code: the council of minister and ask the council to
reconsider the decision
a) 1 only b) 1, 2 and 3
3. The president has the veto power by which he can
c) 1 and 2 only d) None
withhold or refuse to give assent to bills passed by
ans. B the parliament.
78. In 1978 the constitution of Sri Lanka was 4. The president is always bound by the advice of
amended and the system of executive presidency council of ministers.
was introduced. Consider the following statements
Code:
with respect to this find out the correct ones:
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 2 and 3
Code:
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 83. Even after the 73rd and 74th amendments, the
local bodies cannot really function in an effective
c) 1 and 3 d) All the above manner. Which of the following can be termed as
81. Many Provincial Congress Committees were the reasons for this?
created on the basis of linguistic zones, which did 1. Many states have not transferred most of the
not follow the administrative divisions of British subjects to the local bodies.
India. In light of this which among the following
statements are not correct? 2. People at the local level do not enjoy much
powers of choosing welfare programmes or
1. State Re-organisation Commission was allocation of the resources.
appointed in 1953 to look into the question of
redrawing of the boundaries of the States. 3. The dependence of local bodies on the State and
central governments for financial support.
2. State Re-organisation Commission wanted India
to be divided into states based on geographic Code:
contiguity. a) 1 and 3 b) Only 1
3. Statehood for Punjab was given in 1970 when the c) Only 2 d) All the above
territories of today’s Haryana and Himachal Pradesh
were separated from larger Punjab State.
84. Consider the following statements about the
Code:
procedure for amendment of the Constitution of
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only India and choose the correct ones.
1. Those voting in favour of the amendment bill would endanger the basic structure of the
should constitute at least half of the total strength constitution.
of that house. Code:
2. The supporters of the amendment bill must also a) Only 1
constitute two-third of those who take part in voting.
b) Only 2
3. Referendum is required in those amendments
affecting the basic structure of the constitution. c) Both of the above
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3 d) All the above 87. The long lasting effect on the evolution of the
Indian Constitution is the theory of the basic
85. Consider the following statements about the structure of the Constitution. Consider the
42nd amendment act and choose the incorrect following about the basic structure concept and
ones. choose the incorrect one/s.
1. It was an attempt to override the ruling of the 1. It has set specific limits in the Parliament’s power
Supreme Court given in the Kesavananda Bharti to amend the Constitution.
case.
2. It allows the Parliament to amend any and all
2. Duration of the Rajya Sabha was extended from parts of the Constitution within this limitation.
five to six years.
3. The power to decide what constitutes the basic
3. This is the only amendment act which brought structure lies with the Parliament only.
changes in the preamble of the constitution.
Code:
Code:
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
a) Only 2 b) Only 1
c) 3 only d) 1 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 d) 2 and 3
86. In late nineties, efforts were made to review the
entire Constitution. Consider the following 88. In India, Judiciary is an independent organ with
statements in this regard and choose the correct respect to Executive and Legislative. In this
one/s. context, which of the following statement/s are not
correct.
1. In 2000, a commission to review the working of
the Constitution was appointed by the Government 1. The judiciary is financially dependent on either the
of India under the chairmanship of retired Chief executive (or) legislature.
Justice Venkatachaliah. 2. The constitution provides that the salaries and
2. The commission stuck to the theory of basic allowances of the judges are not subjected to the
structure and did not suggest any measures that approval of the legislature.
Code:
93. Consider the following statements about 2. Introduction and passage of constitutional
eleventh schedule of the constitution and choose amendment bill originate in either of the houses of
the correct one/s. Parliament
1. Twenty nine subjects which were earlier in the 3. Article 108 says that a Money Bill shall not be
State list of subjects are identified and listed in the introduced in the Council of States.
eleventh schedule. Select the incorrect statements:
2. These subjects are mostly linked to development a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3
and welfare functions at the local level. c) 1 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3
3. It is mandatory for the state legislation to transfer
all the subjects to the local bodies within the given
time limit. 96. Which among the following committees have
representation only from Lok Sabha?
Code:
a) Public Accounts Committee
a) 1 and 2 b) 1, 2 and 3
b) Public Undertaking Committee
c) 2 and 3 d) Only 1
c) Estimates Committee
d) Committee on Welfare of SCs and STs
94. Due to the federal character, the Rajya Sabha
has been given two exclusive or special powers
that are not enjoyed by the Lok Sabha. Consider the 97. No discussion of government or politics in India
following statements in this regard: could normally take place without mentioning one
1. It can authorize the Parliament to make a law on officer, the Prime Minister of India. Consider the
a subject enumerated in the state list and following statements:
concurrent list (Article 249) 1. Only a Member of the Parliament can become the
2. It can authorize the Parliament to create new Prime Minister
All-India services common to both the centre and 2. It is the prerogative of the Prime minister to
states (Article 312) decide the members of the Council of Ministers.
Select the correct statement/s: 3. Council of Minister cease to exist in case of
a) 1 only b) 2 only resignation of the Prime Minister
98. Consider the following statements about the 1. Each province and princely state were to be
growth of local governments in India and choose allotted seats in proportion to their respective
the correct ones. population.
1. The concept of elected local government system 2. Seats allocated to each British province were to
in India was brought about by the Lord Rippon in be decided among the three principal communities-
1882. Muslims, Christians and Hindus.
2. Following the Government of India Act 1919, 3. The representatives of princely states were to be
village panchayats were established in a number of nominated by the heads of the princely states.
provinces. Code:
3. The trend of organising panchayats discontinued a) 1 and 3 b) 2 and 3
after the Government of India Act 1935.
c) 2 only d) 1 and 2
Code:
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3 d) All are correct
1. The United Nations Conference on Trade and geopolitics after the second world war. Consider
Development (UNCTAD) brought out a report in the following statements in this regard and choose
1972 entitled Towards a New Trade Policy for the correct one/s.
Development. The report proposed a reform of the 1. A coup took place in 1991 that was encouraged
global trading system so as to: by Communist Party hardliners.
1. give the LDCs control over their natural resources 2. Boris Yeltsin emerged as a national hero in
exploited by the developed Western countries opposing this coup.
2. Obtain access to Western markets so that the 3. In December 1991, under the leadership of
LDCs could sell their products and, therefore, Yeltsin, Russia, Ukraine and Belarus, three major
maketrade more beneficial for the poorer countries,
republics of the USSR, declared that the Soviet
3. reduce the cost of technology from the Western Union was disbanded.
countries, and
Code:
4. provide the LDCs with a greater role in
international economic institutions. a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only d) All of the above 3. European Union is a major alternate political and
economic power centre in the unipolar world led by
Ans: D US. Consider the following statements about origin
2. The disintegration of Soviet Union was one of of EU. Which of the following is/are not correct?
the most important events that altered the global
1. European integration after 1947 was aided by the 5. Consider the following statement about ASEAN
Cold War. and choose the incorrect one/s.
2. Under the Marshall Plan, the Organisation for 1. ASEAN Community comprises of three pillars,
European Economic Cooperation (OEEC) was namely, the ASEAN Military Community, the ASEAN
established in 1948 to channel aid to the east Economic Community and the ASEAN
European states. Socio-Cultural Community.
3. The Council of Europe was established in 1948, 2 The ASEAN Regional Forum (ARF), which was
which was another step forward in political established in 1994, is the organisation that carries
cooperation. out coordination of security and foreign policy.
Code: Code:
a) 1 only a) 1 only b) 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
c) 1 and 3 only Ans: A
d) All of the above 6. Consider the following statements about relation
Ans:D between India and it’s neighbours.
4. The Union of Soviet Socialist Republics (USSR) 1. India and Nepal had conflicts related to migration
came into being after the socialist revolution in of ethnic Napalese into India.
Russia in 1917. Which of the following statements 2. In 1960, with the help of the World Bank, India and
is/are correct in this regard? Pakistan signed the Indus Waters Treaty.
1. The revolution was inspired by the ideals of Which of these statements are not correct?
socialism, as opposed to capitalism, and the need a) 1 only b) 2 only
for an egalitarian society.
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. In doing so, the makers of the Soviet system gave
primacy to the state and the institution of the party. Ans: A
2. External influence of non-regional players is a 3. In ‘Agenda 21’, there was a consensus between
major bone of contention which prevents attainment developed and developing countries, on combining
of full potential of SAARC. economic growth with ecological responsibility.
Code: Code:
a) Only 1 b) Only 2 a) 1 and 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 d) None of these b) 2 and 3 only
Ans: B c) 1 and 3 only
8. Contemporary World Politics have expanded its d) All of the above
scope to include environmental concerns as the Ans: D
major element in global politics today. Which of the
following statement/s is are correct regarding this? 10. Consider the following statements about the
1992 United Nations Framework Convention on
1. Throughout the world, cultivable area is barely Climate Change (UNFCCC) and choose the correct
expanding anymore, and a substantial portion of one/s.
existing agricultural land is losing fertility.
1. It provides that the parties should act to protect
2. There is a steady decline in the total amount of the climate system “on the basis of equity and in
ozone in the Earth’s stratosphere. accordance with their common but differentiate
3. Coastal waters are relatively less polluted than capabilities and respective capabilities”.
the open sea. 2. India, China and other developing countries were
Code: exempted from the requirements of the Kyoto
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only Protocol.
c) All of the above d) 1 and 3 only 18. The International Court of Justice is the
Ans: B principal judicial organ of the UN. Consider the
following statements:
1. The Court is composed of 15 Judges, who are
16. Which among the following gives more elected for terms of office of five years by the UNGA
weightage to India’s proposal for permanent
membership in the Security Council. 2. The Court’s role is to settle disputes in
accordance with international law and to give
a) India’s growing economic power and stable advisory opinions on legal questions referred to it by
political system authorized UN organs and specialized agencies.
b) Nuclear capability 3. The Seat of the court is at peace place in New
c) It has been a member of UN since its inception York.
20. On 19 March 2003, the US launched the 1. Hegemony implies class ascendancy in the
invasion of Iraq under the codename ‘Operation social, political and particularly ideological spheres.
Iraqi Freedom’. Consider the following statements 2. Hegemony arises when the dominant class or
and choose the correct one/s. country can win the consent of the dominated
1. UN refused to give mandate to the invasion. classes.
2. More than 40 other countries joined in the US-led 3. It is achieved by coercing the dominated classes
‘coalition of the willing’. to view the world in a manner favourable to the
3. Through the fall of government of Saddam ascendancy of the dominant class.
Hussein, US completely pacified Iraq. Code:
4. The ostensible purpose of the invasion was to a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
prevent Iraq from developing WMDs. c) 1 and 3 only d) All the above
Code: Ans: A
a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 3 and 4 only d) All of the above 23. Consider the following statements comparing
Ans: B US and European Union and choose the correct
21. Which of the following were used by US to one/s.
establish its hegemony over the world? 1. The EU is the world’s biggest economy with a
1. Military domination GDP slightly larger than that of the United States.
2. Economic power 2. EU’s share of world trade is three times larger that
of United States.
3. Political clout
3. Militarily, the EU’s combined armed forces are the
4. Cultural Superiority largest in the world with US in the second position.
5. Establishment of dictatorship Code:
Code: a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2, 3 and 4 only c) 1 and 3 only d) All the above
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only d) 1, 3 and 4 only Ans:A
Ans: C
2. Margaret Thatcher kept the UK out of the 2. Agricultural production generated surplus for
European market. China to start the industries in a better way
3. Denmark and Sweden have resisted the compared to India.
Maastricht treaty and the adoption of the euro. 3. Before reforms, China’s industrial production was
Code: not growing fast enough to play a good role in
international trade.
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
Code:
c) 1 and 3 only d) All the above
a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 only
Ans: B
c) 1 and 3 only d) All of the above
Ans: C
25. Consider the following statements about the
formation of ASEAN and choose the correct one/s.
1. ASEAN was established in1967 by ten countries 27. Japan can be termed as one of the alternative
of the region through the Singapore declaration. centres of power which progressed rapidly after the
end of the Second World War. Consider the
2. The primary objective of the association is to following in this regard and choose the correct
accelerate economic growth and through that one/s:
‘social progress and cultural development’.
1. Japan has very few natural resources and imports
3. A secondary objective was to promote regional most of its raw materials.
peace and stability based on the rule of law and the
principles of the United Nations Charter. 2. It is the only Asian member of the G-8.
2. The resolution for this war got defeated in UN, but 1. LTBT (Limited Test Ban Treaty) banned nuclear
they silently supported this war. weapon tests exclusively in atmosphere.
3. America led a coalition of forces from 34 2. NPT was signed in 1968, entered into force in
countries and Iraq got defeated quickly. 1970 and extended indefinitely in 1995.
Code: Code:
a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only a) 1 only b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only d) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: B Ans: A
29. New International Economic Order was a step in 31. In Spite of cold war , USA and USSR was vary of
direction of bringing economic development to the real war and many arms control treaties were
third world countries. Consider the following signed between USA and USSR/Russia. Consider
statements in the context of NAM and choose the following statements and choose correct
incorrect statements: statements:
1. The New International Economic Order (NIEO) 1. Treaty on limitation of Anti-ballistic missile
was a set of proposals put forward during the 1970s system was signed in 1972 during Strategic Arms
by some developing countries through the United Limitation Talk’s second round (SALT-II)
Nations Conference on Trade and Development.
2. Strategic arms reduction treaty-I was signed
2. It was meant to be a revision of the international between Russian President Boris Yeltsin and US
economic system in favour of Third World countries, President George Bush in 1993
replacing the Bretton Woods system.
Code:
3. NIEO initiative faded in late 1980s in wake of stiff
opposition by developed countries and nonaligned a) 1 only b) 2 only
countries struggled to maintain their unity. c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Code: Ans: D
a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only 32. There had been many important events during
c) 3 only d) None of the above cold war era. Arrange these events in chronological
order:
Ans: D
1. Korean war resulting in division of Korea
30. Consider the following statements regarding
the Arms Control Treaties which have been signed 2. Signing of the Baghdad pact
in International arena during the post 2nd World 3. American intervention in Vietnam
War era and choose the incorrect one/s:
4. Cuban missile crisis
5. Formation of SEATO
Code: Ans:C
a) 1-5-3-2-4 b) 1-5-2-3-4
c) 5-1-3-4-2 d) 1-5-4-2-3 35. New theories and doctrines were proposed
Ans:A during cold war era to control the influence of
opposing bloc. Consider the following statements
regarding these and choose correct one/s:
33. Soviet system which came into being after 1. The Truman Doctrine of containment was a
socialist revolution in 1917 was a very powerful United States policy to stop Soviet expansion during
leader of communist bloc, but disintegrated in the Cold War.
1990s and reasons cited for this are:
2. Asian collective security system was proposed by
1. One-party system Leonid Brezhnev.
2. Russian dominance over other 14 republics of 3. The Marshall Plan was the American initiative to
USSR aid Europe, in which the United States gave $17
3. Non-recognition of cultural affairs of people billion in economic support to help rebuild European
residing in these republics economies after the end of World War
4. Soviet invasion of Afghanistan Code:
Code: a) 1and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2, 3 and 4 only c) 1 and 3 only d) All of the above
c) 1, 3 and 4 only d) All of the above Ans:A
Ans: D
34. There are some important events which 36. In Eastern Europe, there have been splits in the
happened in course of disintegration of Soviet countries and emergence of new countries as
Union. Consider the following statements and communism was weakened due to various causes.
choose the correct one/s: Consider the following statements and choose
incorrect ones regarding this:
1. Latvia becomes first of 15 Soviet republics to
declare its independence. 1. Yugoslavia went a peaceful split resulting in
emergence of states like Slovenia, Bosnia and
2. Permission for Multi-party politics was given in
Herzegovina etc
1990.
2. Czechoslovakia split resulted into a major conflict
3. Russia, Belarus and Armenia established
and Czechs and Slovaks formed two independent
Commonwealth of Independent States in 1991.
countries.
Code:
Code:
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
a) 1 only b) 2 only
c) 2 only d) 3 only
41. Consider the following statements regarding 2. WTO has 160 members with Yemen being the
Organization for the Prohibition of Chemical latest to join on June 26, 2014.
Weapons (OPCW) and choose the incorrect one/s. 3. The decision making power is WTO mostly lies
1. OPCW is an inter governmental organization with the top 10 countries having 55% of the votes.
located in Brussels. Code:
2. The organization promotes and verifies the a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only
adherence to the chemical weapons only.
c) 2 and 3 only d) All of the above
3. OPCW is not an agency of the United Nations.
Ans: A
Code:
44. SAARC is slowly emerging from the slumbers,
a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only after caught in between India and Pakistan since
c) 1 and 2 only d) 3 only inception, with new initiatives like SAARC
Ans:A university. Consider the following statements about
SAARC and choose the correct one/s.
42. World Bank was established under Bretton
woods agreement after the Second World War. 1. The SAARC is a major regional initiative by South
Choose the incorrect statements about World Bank: Asian states to evolve cooperation through
multilateral means.
1. International Development Association is the
investment arm of World Bank which provides loans 2. SAARC members signed the south Asian free
to private sector. trade agreement which promised the formation of a
trade zone for whole zone of South Asia.
2. International Finance Commission is the soft loan
window of World Bank. Code:
1. In 1991 India met with an economic crisis. Which 1. India approached the international bank for
of the following can be quoted as a reason for the reconstruction and development popularly known as
same? IMF for loan to manage the crisis.
1. The high level of external debt. 2. India came up with new economic policies which
2. High level of foreign exchange reserve. were based on the conditionality of international
institutions.
3. Rising prices of essential goods.
3. Conditionality of international institutions was not
4. Import substitution policy of India. as a punishment but were towards creating more
5. Political instability. competitive environment in the economy.
Code: Select the correct ones.
a) 1 and 2 a) All the above
b) Only 1 b) 2 and 3
c) 2, 3 and 4 c) 1 and 2
d) All the above d) 1 and 3
Ans. B Ans. B
2. Consider the following statements about India’s 3. Which of the following is not a part of changes in
approach in dealing with 1991 crisis. industrial sector post 1991 reform?
d) None of these
7. In case of India we have unemployment in rural Ans. D
and urban areas. Consider the following statements
about types of unemployment in India.
9. Although there has been a substantial reduction
1. Disguised unemployment happens when people in global poverty, it is marked with great regional
are not able to find jobs during some months of the differences. Consider the following statements
year due to agricultural patterns. related to this.
2. Educated unemployment is a result of improper 1. In Sub-Saharan Africa, poverty in fact rose from
management of Human resources. 41 per cent in 1981 to 46 per cent in 2001.
3. In case of India, statistically, the unemployment 2. Number of poors in South Asia has come down
rate is low. from 606 million in 1981 to 212 million in 2001.
Select the correct statements using codes below. 3. Poverty has also resurfaced in some of the
a) 1 and 2 former socialist countries like Russia after their
b) 1 and 3 opening up.
3. Credit refers to an agreement in which the lender 1. Rich households in urban area has more
supplies the borrower with money, goods or accessibility to formal credit in India.
services in return for the promise of future payment. 2. The cost to the borrower of informal loans is
Select the correct statements using the code much higher than formal loans.
below. 3. The formal sector still meets only about half of
a) 1 and 2 only the total credit needs of the rural people.
3. India stands far ahead than China in giving birth 1. In India, the Reserve Bank of India and an
by skilled attendants institution recommended by Parliament can issue
Select the correct statements using codes given currency notes on behalf of the central government.
below: 2. In India, the law legalizes the use of rupee as a
a) 1 and 2 medium of payment that cannot be refused in
settling transaction in India.
b) 2 and 3 only
3. Some Indians can legally refuse a payment made
c) 2 only in rupees
d) 1, 2 and 3 Select the correct answer from the code given
Ans. C below.
25. Activities which contribute to the gross national a) Total value of goods and services produced in the
product are called economic activities. Consider country.
the following statements about activities which b) Total value of all transaction in the country.
contribute to GNP?
c) Depreciation in the total value of goods and
1. Income of Ambassadors of other countries in services produced in the country.
India
d) Total value of goods and services produced in the
2. Women working at home also contribute to gross country and net factor income from abroad.
national product.
Ans. D
3. Income of people working abroad also
contributes to gross national product. 28. Participation of women in workforce is crucial
for economic development. Consider the following
Select the correct answer from the code given statements regarding participation of women?
below:
1. Women work force was more in urban areas
a) 1 and 2 compared to rural areas.
b) 2 and 3 2. Women workers account for one-third of the rural
c) 3 only work force.
d) None Select the correct answer from the code given
Ans. C below:
a) 1 and 2
Select the incorrect ones 3. Issue price is the price issued by the FCI for their
procurements based on the market price.
a) Only 3
Select the correct ones.
b) 2 and 3
a) 1 and 2
c) Only 2
b) Only 2
d) All of these
c) Only 1
Ans. B
d) All the above
35. The poverty line is revised periodically taking
into consideration the rise in prices. Consider the Ans. C
following statements.
1. The poverty line is estimated periodically by 37. Occupational structure of India in colonial
conducting sample surveys normally every five period was completely different from the present
years. systems. Consider the following statements.
2. The surveys are carried out by the National 1. There were hardly any service sectors in the
Sample Survey Organisation. colonial period.
3. For making comparisons between developing 2. The regional variations were not visible in the
countries, the international organizations like World colonial era.
Bank use uniform standards.
3. Agricultural sector accounted for the largest
Select the correct ones. share of work force.
a) Only 2 Select the incorrect ones.
b) All the above a) Only 3
c) Only 1 b) Only 1
2. India moved with the mixed economy mainly due 40. An important approach to addressing poverty is
to the opposition from other leader. to provide minimum basic amenities to the people.
Consider the following statements about schemes
3. With mixed economy India sought an alternative to provide basic amenities.
to the capitalism and socialism concepts.
1. National Social Assistance Programme is a
Select the incorrect ones. programme to give pension to elderly people who do
a) 1 and 2 not have anyone to take care of them.
b) Only 3 2. Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana aims to
c) All of these provide better connectivity in the villages by
improving roads.
d) Only 2
Select the correct statements using codes below.
Ans. C
a) 1 only
39. Marketed Surplus was the most important fruit
of Green Revolution period. Consider the following b) 2 only
statements. c) Both 1 and 2
1. The portion of the agricultural produce which is d) None of the above
sold in the market by the farmers is called the Ans. C
marketed surplus.
2. With the increase in supply, the price of food
grains also increased relative to the other items of
consumption.
1. There are large scale regional variations within 2. Based on the variations in its geological
the Himalayas. On the basis of relief, alignment of structure and formations, India can be divided into
ranges and other geomorphological features, the three geological divisions: the Peninsular Block,
Himalayas can be divided into the five subdivisions. the Himalayas and Indo-Ganga-Brahmaputra Plain.
Consider the following statements in this regard Consider the following statements in this regard
and choose the incorrect ones. and choose the correct ones.
1. The world famous Valley of Kashmir and the 1. The Karbi Anglong, Meghalaya Plateau and
famous Dal lake lies between the Great Himalayas Rajasthan are extensions of the Peninsular block.
and the Pir Panjal range. 2. The Peninsular Block is young, weak and flexible
2. The Himachal and Uttarakhand Himalayas lies in its geological structure than Himalayas and other
between the river Jhelum in the west and the Kali in Peninsular mountains
the east. 3. Average depth of alluvial deposits in
3. The Darjeeling and Sikkim Himalayas are famous Indo-Ganga-Brahmaputra plains ranges from 1,000-
for its tea gardens. 2,000 m.
4. The Eastern Hills and Mountains are part of the Code:
Himalayan mountain system having their general a) 1 and 2 b) 3 only
alignment from the northwest to southeast.
c) 2 and 3 d) 1 and 3
Code:
a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2 and 4
3. North and North-eastern mountains are
c) 1 and 4 d) 1 and 2 important physiographic division based on
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geomorphological features. Consider following following statements in this regard and choose the
statements in this context and choose incorrect correct ones:
statements. 1. The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve (NBR) is the first
1. In Darjeeling and Sikkim, Himalayas lies in biosphere reserve established in India
southwest to northwest directions. 2. The major forest types of Nanda Devi Biosphere
2. Fotu La pass is on Zaskar range while Khardung Reserve are of temperate type
La is on Ladakh range. 3. Heritiera fomes, a species of the mangrove forest,
3. Jhelum river is in mature stage and form valued for its timber is found is Gulf of Mannar
meanders. Biosphere Reserve
1. Himalayan rivers pass through the giant gorges a) Sabarmati, Mahi, Kalinadi, Periyar, Bharathapuzha
carved out by the erosional activity carried on b) Mahi, Sabarmati, Kalinadi, Periyar, Bharathapuzha
simultaneously with the uplift of Himalayas
c) Sabarmati, Mahi, Kalinadi, Bharathapuzha, Periyar
2. Himalayan rivers form rapids, oxbow lakes and
water falls in their mountainous course d) Mahi, Sabarmati, Kalinadi, Bharathapuzha, Periyar
B. Banihal 2. Zaskar 11. The islands of the Arabian Sea are scattered
between 8º–12ºN and 71ºE–74ºE longitude.
C. Zoji La 3. Ladakh Consider the following statements and choose the
D. Photu La 4. Pir panjal correct ones:
Code: 1. Lakshadweep group of islands are of tectonic
ABCD origin.
B) The Islands in Lakshadweep are of coral origin. 14. The temperate forest also known as shola
12. Consider the following statements and choose forest are found in
the incorrect ones: a) Upper Himalayas up to a height of 1000-2000mt
1. River Indus originates from a glacier near Bokhar b) Hills of north-eastern India
Chu in the Kailash range. c) Forest of Andaman and Nicobar Island
2. Khurram, Tochi, Gomal and Samgar are the left d) The forest in the Nilgiris, Annamalai and Palani
bank tributaries of River Indus. hills of Peninsular India.
3. Chenab the largest tributary of Indus has two Ans. D
headstreams Chandra and Bhaga which joins at
Tandi in Punjab. 15. Biodiversity is the number and variety of
organisms found within a specified geographical
4. Sutlej River is known as Singi Khamban is Tibet. region. Consider the following in this regard and
Code: choose the correct ones.
a) 1, 2 and 4 only 1. Biodiversity is richer in temperate region
b) 3 and 4 compared to the Tropical and Polar regions.
Ans. D
3. The sand content in these soil decreases from 3. The temperate forests of Himalayas are called
west to east. Sholas.
Code: Code:
a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 and 2 a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3 d) 1 and 3 c) None of the above d) 2 and 3
23. India has a rich variety of wetland habitats.
21. On the basis of genesis, colour, composition Consider the following statements about
and location, the soils of India have been classified Mangroves in India and choose the incorrect ones:
into different types. Consider the following 1. Mangroves grow along the coasts in the salt
statements about a particular soil type: marshes, tidal creeks, mud flats and deltas.
1. It is found in the area of heavy rainfall and high 2. Mangroves does not grow along estuaries.
humidity. 3. In India, these are highly developed in Andaman
2. Soil has very rich humus and organic content. and Nicobar Island, Lakshadweep,
3. Soil is normally heavy and black in colour. Sunderbans, Mahanadi and Godavari deltas.
4. It occurs widely in the Northern part of Bihar, Code:
Southern part of Uttaranchal and the Coastal areas a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3
of West Bengal, Odisha & Tamil Nadu.
c) 1, 2 and 3 d) 1 and 3
Above statements are said about which of the
following soil types:
Code: 24. For the purpose of effective conservation of
flora and fauna, special steps have been initiated
a) Alluvial soil b) Saline soil by the Government of India in collaboration with
c) Peaty soil d) Blacks soil UNESCO’s ‘Man and Biosphere Programme’.
Ans. C Consider the following statements in this regard
22. In Mountainous areas, the decrease in and choose the correct ones.
temperature with increasing altitude leads to a 1. Initially the Project Tiger was launched in ten tiger
corresponding change in natural vegetation. reserves.
Consider the following statements about these 2. Project Elephant is aimed at ensuring long term
forest types and choose the incorrect ones. survival of identified viable population of elephants
1. Wet temperate forests are found between an in their natural habitat.
altitudes of 1000-2000 mt in the Himalayas. 3. Biosphere reserves are terrestrial and coastal
2. Deodar, a highly valued endemic species grows ecosystem, which are internationally recognized
mainly in the eastern part of Himalayas. within the framework of UNESCO’s Man and
Biosphere (MAB) Programme.
3. When the primary tributaries of rivers flow parallel 1. Old rivers with graded profile have almost
to each other and secondary tributaries join them at reached their base levels
right angles, the pattern is known as trellis. 2. Antecedent and consequent rivers leads to
4. When the rivers discharge their waters from all dendritic pattern in plains
directions in a lake or depression, the pattern is 3. Very large catchment area
know as radial.
Code:
Code:
a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2 and 3
a) 1 and 3 b) 3 and 4
c) 1 only d) 1 and 3
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 d) 2 and 4
28. The Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) is
a low pressure zone located at the equator where
26. The Himalayan drainage system has evolved trade winds converge. Consider the following
through a long geological history. These rivers are statements about ITCZ and choose the correct
responsible for different erosional as well as ones.
depositional structures during their course. Which 1. It is a zone where air tends to descend
of the following is/are a result of depositional
2. In July, the ITCZ located around 20°N-25°N
activity of the Himalayan rivers?
latitudes (over the Gangetic plain) is also called the
1. V-shaped valleys monsoon trough.
3. Due to the shift of ITCZ, the trade winds of the 2. It lies in the rainshadow area of the Arabian Sea
southern hemisphere cross the equator between 40° branch of the south-west monsoon.
and 60°E longitudes and start blowing from Code:
southwest to ortheast due to the Coriolis force.
a) 1 only b) 2 only
Code:
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 and 3
Ans. C
c) 2 and 3 d) 2 only
31. In the Indian tradition, a year is divided into six,
2-monthly seasons. This cycle of seasons, which
29. Monsoon is a familiar though a little known the common people in North and Central India
climatic phenomenon. Despite the observations follow is based on their practical experience and
spread over centuries, the monsoon continues to age-old perception of weather phenomena.
puzzle the scientists. Which of the following However, this system does not match with the
statement/s is/are correct about Onset of seasons of South India where there is little
Monsoon? variation in the seasons. Match the following item
1. The differential heating of land and sea during the in List-I with items in List-II with the help of code
summer months is the mechanism which sets the given below:
stage for the monsoon winds to drift towards the List-I List-II
subcontinent. A. Vasanta 1. May-June
2. The shift in the position of the ITCZ is related to B. Grishma 2. March-April
the phenomenon of the withdrawal of the Westerly
jet stream from its position over the North Indian C. Varsha 3. July-August
plain, south of the Himalayas. D. Sharada 4. November-December
3. The Westerly jet streams is held responsible for E. Hemanta 5. September-October
the burst of the monsoon in India.
F. Shishira 6. January-February
Code:
Code:
a) 1 and 2 b) 1, 2 and 3
ABCDEF
c) 2 and 3 d) 1 and 3
a) 1 2 3 5 6 4
b) 2 1 5 3 4 6
30. Where whole of India receives rainfall from
c) 2 1 3 5 4 6
southwest monsoon, Tamil Nadu coast remains dry
during this season. Which of the following reasons d) 1 2 6 4 5 3
can be responsible for this: Ans. C
1. The Tamil Nadu coast is situated parallel to the 32. The average annual rainfall in India is about
Bay of Bengal branch of southwest monsoon 125 cm, but it has great spatial variations. In the
figure given below, the dotted area represents 35. The impact of Tsunami is less over the ocean
which of the following? and more near the coast where they cause
a) Areas having rainfall more than 200cm. large-scale devastation. Why?
b) Areas having rainfall 100-200cm 1. The speed of wave in the ocean depends upon
the depth of water
c) Areas having rainfall 50-200cm
2. Over deep water the Tsunami has very long
d) Areas having rainfall less than 50cm wave-length and limited wave-height as compared
Ans. D to shallow water near the coast
33. Koeppen used letter symbols to denote climatic Code:
types as given below. Each type is further a) 1 only
subdivided into sub-types on the basis of seasonal
variations in the distributional pattern of rainfall b) 2 only
and temperature. In light of above statement which c) Both 1 and 2
of the following pair/s is/are correctly matched? d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Amw - Monsoon with short dry season Ans. C
2. As - Tropical savannah 36. Tropical cyclones are intense low-pressure
3. Aw - Monsoon with dry summer areas confined to the area lying between 300N and
4. BShw - Semi-arid steppe climate 300S latitudes. Which of the following initial
conditions are required for the emergence of
Code: tropical cyclone?
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 b) 1 and 3 1. Large and continuous supply of warm and moist
c) 1 and 4 d) 2, 3 and 4 air that can release enormous latent heat
2. Presence of strong Coriolis force
34. India is a land of great variety of natural 3. Presence of strong vertical wind
vegetation. Considering the statement, the shaded Code:
portion of the given map below represents which of
the following type of natural vegetation? a) 1 only
1. Deccan Plateau is bordered by Western Ghats in 39. Match the following items in List-I (River) with
the West, Eastern Ghats in the east and the Satpura, the items in List-II (Place where it joins river
Maikal and Mahadeo hills in the north Ganga)
2. Western Ghats are locally known as Sahyadri in List-I List-II
Maharashtra and Nilgiri hills in Kerala A. Gandak 1. Arrah
3. Heights of the Western Ghats decreases from B. Ghaghara 2. West Bengal
north to south
C. Mahananda 3. Chhapra
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? D. Son 4. Sonpur
a) 1 only Code:
c) 2 and 3 only a) 1 2 3 4
d) 2 only b) 3 4 2 1
Ans. A c) 4 3 2 1
d) 2 1 4 3
1. The western coastal plains are an example of 40. Which of the following rivers is/are not a
submerged coastal plain tributary of Godavari?
1. After Independence, our country had to face 1. British Indian provinces were directly governed by
several challenges. Consider following statements British East India Company.
regarding these challenges- 2. Princely states enjoyed full control over their
1. All Muslim majority areas wanted to join Pakistan internal affairs but not on issues related to foreign
in accordance with popular ‘Two-Nation Theory’ as relations.
given by Muslim league. Choose the incorrect statements
2. Muslim majority areas of British India were Code:
concentrated in different pockets.
a) 1 only b) 2 only
3. Muslim majority provinces were to be separated
on the basis of religion and language. c) Both 1 and 2 d) None
5. Congress proved its dominance in first three 2. Communist government in Kerala was dismissed
general elections for Lok Sabha. Consider the under Article 356 in the year 1959.
following statements in the context of general Code:
elections. a) 1 only b) 2 only
1. Socialist Party came at second position in first c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
general election.
8. Socialist party origin can be traced to
2. Congress won majority seats in all States in first pre-independence era but later it underwent many
State Assembly Elections. splits. Consider the following statement and
Choose the incorrect statement/s: choose the correct one/s:
Code: 1. Socialist party was formed by socialists in 1934,
a) 1 only b) 2 only through a split in congress.
17. Choose the incorrect statements about the 2. The first summit of NAM was held in Bandung in
1971 Bangladesh war. 1961
1. The war conditions led India signing a 20 year 3. India followed genuine non alignment till Janata
Treaty of peace and friendship with USA in 1971. party came to power in 1977
2. India retaliated the Pakistan army with an attack Code:
mainly using air force due to the lack of support a) 1 and 3 b) 1 and 2
from local population.
c) 2 and 3 d) All of the above
3. The Shimla agreement between Lal Bahadu
Shastri and Zulfikar Ali Bhutto formalized the return
of peace in July 1972. 20. Choose the incorrect statements about India’s
Code: relationship with Pakistan.
22. Consider the following statement about the 2. CPI, PSP, Bharatiya Jana Sangh, Swatantra Party
Presidential election of 1969 and Bharatiya Kranti Dal came together under this
1. N Sanjiva Reddy the then speaker of Lok Sabha umbrella.
was the official candidate of congress. Code:
2. The then congress President Nijalingappa issued a) 1 only b) 2 only
a whip asking all congress MPs and MLAs to vote c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
against the official candidate.
3. The election led to the victory of V.V. Giri who was
supported by the ‘requisitionist’. 25. Which among the following statements is/are
correct?
Choose the correct statements:
1. Bharatiya Jan Sangh was formed by Shyama
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 Prasad Mukherjee in 1951.
c) 1 and 3 d) All of the above 2. The party emphasised idea of orthodoxy and
strong Indian Traditions.
23. The Indira government abolished privy purses. 3. The party was in forefront of the agitation to
Consider the following statements in this regard replace English with Hindi as the official language of
and choose the correct ones India.
1. After independence, the then royal families were 4. The party called for the reunion of India and
allowed to retain certain private properties and were Pakistan in ‘Akhand Bharat’.
given a grant in heredity or government allowance Code:
and this grant was called Privy Purse.
a) 1, 2 and 4
2. Nehru was against this concept of privy purses
b) 1, 3 and 4
3. The privy purses were abolished through an
ordinance and later it got passed in the Parliament c) 1 and 4
in 1970. d) All of the above
Code:
a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 26. Consider the following statements:
c) 1 and 3 d) All of the above 1. Nehru was the co-founder of Non Alignment
Movement (NAM)
24. Consider the following statements about the 2. Bandung Conference led to the establishment of
Grand Alliance formed in 1971 at the time of fifth NAM
Lok Sabha election and choose the correct one/s: 3. India advocated the policy of NAM because it
1. Grand alliance was formed by the major wanted to keep away from the military alliances.
communist and non-congress opposition parties.
Code:
a) 1 only b) 2 only 30. An ambitions developmental project was
launched in the Narmada valley of Central India in
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 the ‘eighties’. Consider the following statements:
1. Narmada and its tributaries flow across the
28. India was born in very difficult circumstances. states of Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Maharashtra
Consider the following statements regarding the 2. Sardar Sarovar Project in Gujarat and Narmada
challenges India faced and find out the correct Sagar Project in Maharashtra were two of the most
statements. important multipurpose dams planned under the
1. The first and the immediate challenge was to project
shape a nation that was not united. Which of the above statements are correct?
2. Another challenge was to develop democratic a) 1 only b) 2 only
practices in accordance with the constitution.
c) Both 1 and 2 d) None
3. Country also faced challenges in ensuring the
development of entire society. 31. Consider the following statements regarding
the Shah Commission and choose the incorrect
Code: one/s:
a) 2 only 1. Congress government had appointed this
b) 1 and 2 only Commission to inquire into incidence that happened
at the time of emergency proclaimed on 25th June,
c) 2 and 3 only
1975.
d) 1, 2 and 3
2. The Commission Examined various kinds of 1. Communists of India opposed the move to
evidence and called scores of witnesses to give intensify freedom movement during second world
testimonies, including Indira Gandhi. war.
3. The Government of India did not accept its 2. In the first general election, CPI won 16 seats and
findings emerged as the largest opposition party.
Code: 3. The party’s support was more concentrated in
a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 3 Andhra Pradesh, West Bengal, Bihar and Kerala.
32. In the 1970s and 1980s, many sections of the c) Only 3 d) 2 and 3
society became disillusioned with the failure of the 34. Many Provincial Congress Committees were
Janata experiment which ultimately led to a created on the basis of linguistic zones, which did
political instability. Consider the following not follow the administrative divisions of British
statements and choose the correct ones in this India. Which among the following statements are
regard. not correct in this regard?
1. The disillusionment was more about economic 1. State Re-organisation Commission was
policies of the state. appointed in 1953 to look into the question of
2. The model of planned development that was redrawing of the boundaries of the States.
adopted after independence was based only on the 2. State Re-organisation Commission wanted India
goal of rapid growth, and resulted in disparities. to be divided into states based on geographic
3. Inspite of the impressive growth in many sectors contiguity.
of the economy, existing social inequalities like 3. Statehood for Punjab was given in 1970 when the
caste and gender sharpened and complicated the territories of today’s Haryana and Himachal Pradesh
issues of poverty. were separated from larger Punjab State.
Code: Code:
a) Only 1 b) 2 and 3 a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 d) None of the above c) 1 and 3 only d) None of the above
33. In the early 1920’s communist groups emerged
in different parts of India taking inspiration from 35. Consider the following statements about the
the Bolshevik revolution in Russia and advocating coalition governments formed in the 1967 and
socialism. Consider the following statements and choose the correct ones regarding this.
choose the correct one/s:
1. Congress lost the majority in nine states which
led to the formation of coalition governments.
1. The factors affecting location of Industries are a) An IT Industry company with headquarters in
the availability of land, raw materials, water, labour, Bangalore.
power, transport and market. Consider the b) A person who loses overseas job in it and has to
following statements. return to Bangalore.
1. Government provides incentives like cheap power c) A business process which is outsourced to
or transportation for developing industries in countries like India.
backward areas.
d) Losing a job in US due to outsourcing to
2. Major Industrial Regions of the world are located Bangalore.
in tropical regions, near sea ports and especially
near coal fields. Ans. D
Which of these is/are not correct? 3. Match the following shifting cultivation with
regions where they are known so.
a) 1 only b) 2 only
List-I List-II
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Jhum A. Mexico
Ans. B
2. Milpa B. Brazil
3. Roca C. Malaysia
2. Being Bangalored meAns...
4. Ladang D. India
b) Shelter belts are rows of trees planted in coastal a) Smelting is the process in which metals are
or dry regions to check wind movement to protect extracted from their ores by cooling below the
soil cover. boiling point.
c) Shelter belts are water harvesting structures in b) Smelting is the process in which metals are
dry areas. extracted from their ores by heating beyond the
d) Shelter belts are rows of trees planted to protect melting point.
the soil from rain wash. c) Smelting is the process of producing refined
Ans. B goods.
8. Energy generated from tides is called tidal d) Smelting is the major process used in Nuclear
energy. Consider the following statements about Reactors.
tidal energy and choose the correct ones: Ans. B
1. Tidal energy can be best harnessed in the deltas. 11. Identify the correct statement regarding Land
2. Russia, France and Gulf of Kachchh in India have Resource and Land use pattern.
tidal farms 1. 30% of the land area on the earth’s surface is
Code: either sparsely populated or uninhabited.
ABCD Code:
a) 2 4 3 1 a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 4 only
b) 3 4 1 2 c) 2 and 3 only d) None of the above
c) 3 4 2 1 Ans. A
d) 1 4 3 2 15. A naturally occurring substance that has
Ans. B definite chemical composition is a mineral. Choose
the correct statement/s regarding minerals
1. Iron ore, bauxite, manganese ore and mica are
13. Which of the following fresh water reserve is examples of metallic minerals.
available and fit for human consumption?
2. Metallic minerals are always ferrous.
1. Glaciers
3. Minerals that lie at shallow depths are taken out
2. Ice-sheets by removing the surface layer by the process called
3. Water in rivers and lake shaft mining.
4. Water vapour 4. A rock is an aggregate of one or more minerals
with definite composition of constituent minerals.
5. Ground water
Code:
Code:
a) 1, 3 and 4 only b) 1, 2 and 3 only
a) 1, 2 and 5 only b) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
c) All the above d) None of the above
c) 1, 3 and 5 only d) 3, 4 and 5 only
Ans. D
Ans. D
32. A narrow zone of contact between lithosphere, 2. In India, geothermal plants are located in
hydrosphere and atmosphere where natural Manikaran in Uttarakhand and Puga valley in Ladakh
vegetation and wildlife exist called Which any the above statements is/are correct?
a) Ecosystem b) Ecology a) 1 only b) 2 only
c) Biosphere d) None c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. C Ans. A
33. Consider the following statements:
1. Deciduous forests shed their leaves in a particular 36. Which of the following statements is/are not
season to conserve loss of moisture through correct about minerals?
transpiration
a) They are created by natural processes
2. Evergreen forests never shed their leaves so they
appear evergreen throughout the year Which any the b) They have a definite chemical composition
above statements is/are correct? c) They are inexhaustible
a) 1 only b) 2 only d) Their distribution is uneven
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. C
Ans. A 37. Which of the following is/are an example of
Plantation Crop?
1. Consider the following statements: 2. Vinoba Bhave was declared the leader of the Quit
1. The Cripp’s Mission agreed to the demand for a India Movement
Constituent Assembly Which of the above statements is/are correct?
2. The People of the States were given proper a) 1 only
representation in the proposed Constituent b) 2 only
Assembly of Cripp’s Mission
c) Both 1 and 2
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
d) Neither 1 nor 2
a) 1 only
Ans. D
b) 2 only
3. Arrange the following events chronologically:
c) Both 1 and 2
1. Cripp’s Mission
d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Cabinet Mission
Ans. A
3. Quit India Movement
2. Consider the following statements:
4. Individual Satyagraha
1. On 8 August 1940, the All India Congress
Committee at a meeting in Bombay passed the 5. RIN Mutiny
resolution for Quit India Movement Select the correct answer from the codes given
below:
1. Asaf Jahi dynasty was established by Chin Qilich 1. The Rajputs regained influence during the period
Khan and his successors are called as Nizams of of later Mughals and were frontline supporters
Awadh against the Jats and Marathas
2. Murshid Quli Khan shifted his capital to a town in 2. Sawai Jai Singh built astronomical observatories
central Bengal which he renamed Murshidabad. at Delhi, Ujjain, Benaras, Jaipur, Agra and Mathura
Select the correct answer from the codes given Which of the above statements is/are not correct?
below: a) Only 1
Codes: b) Only 2
a) Only 1 c) Both 1 and 2
b) Only 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
c) Both 1and 2 Ans. B
d) Neither 1 nor 2 29. Consider the following statements:
Ans. B 1. The Sikh Misls emerged on the decline of Mughal
27. Which of the following statements about the power in Punjab due to repeated invasions of
State of Awadh is/are not correct? Ahmad Shah Abdali
1. Saddat Khan, the Governor of Awadh, was 2. Even Nadir Shah failed to subdue the Sikh Misls
succeeded by his son-in-law Shuja-ud-daulah who Which of the above statements is/are not correct?
suppressed lawlessness and improved the finances a) Only 1
2. At the time of Saadat Khan the rulers of Awadh b) Only 2
organised a powerful army, which was composed
of, besides Hindus and Muslims, Naga Sanyasis as c) Both 1 and 2
well d) Neither 1 nor 2
Select the correct answer from the codes given Ans. D
below:
30. Which of the following about the state of
Codes: Mysore is not correct?
a) Only 1 a) It was a part Deccan Subah
b) Only 2 b) Hyder Ali began his career as a soldier and
c) Both 1and 2 established his dynasty in Mysore
d) Neither 1 nor 2 c) Tipu Sultan gave respect to all faith and won the
support of his subjects
Ans. A
d) Tipu Sultan had good knowledge of international
28. Consider the following statements: developments
b) Balaji Vishwanath, Baji Rao-I, Balaji Baji Rao 3. Mir Jafar was made the Nawab and he gave away
large sums of money to Clive and other officials of
c) Balaji Baji Rao, Baji Rao I, Balaji Vishwanath the English Company as reward for their support.
d) Baji Rao I, Balaji Baji Rao, Balaji Vishwanath 4. This battle marks the beginning of the
Ans. B establishment of British power in India.
32. Third Battle of Panipat (1761) was fought Select the correct answer from the codes given
between below:
a) Jats and Sikhs Codes:
b) Marathas and Mughals a) 1, 2 and 3
c) Marathas and Ahmad Shah Abdali b) 2, 3 and 4
d) Peshwas and Gaekwads c) 1, 3 and 4
Ans. C d) All the above
33. Consider the following statements: Ans. C
1. The tax realized by the Marathas from the areas 35. Which of the following statements about Battle
inside their domain, equal to one-fourth of the of Buxar is/are correct?
revenue paid to the Mughal Empire, was known as 1. The battle of Buxar took place on 22 October
the Chauth. 1764.
2. The tax realized by the Marathas equal to 2. Mir Qasim the Nawab of Bengal, Shuja-ud-daulah
one-tenth of land revenue was known as the the Nawab of Awadh, the Mughal Emperor Shah
Sardeshmukhi. Alam prepared for a battle against the British.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 3. In 1765, Shuja-ud-daulah and Shah Alam signed
a) Only 1 treaties at Allahabad with Clive who had become the
Governor of the Company.
b) Only 2
4. Under these treaties, the English Company
c) Both 1and 2
secured the Diwani of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa.
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Select the correct answer from the codes given
Ans. B below:
34. Which of the following statements about the Codes:
battle of Plassey is/are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3
the Governor-General of all the Indian territories of 42. Give the correct chronology of following events.
the Company. 1. Widow Remarriage Act
4. For the administration of Justice, the Act 2. Slavery made illegal
proposed the setting up of a Supreme Court at
Bombay. 3. Establishment of Benaras Sanskrit School
Select the correct answer from the codes given 4. Decision to introduce European system of
below: education
1. This act was named after William Pitt the 43. Which of the following statements about Act of
younger, the then Prime Minister of Britain. 1861 is/are correct?
2. This Act set up a Board of Control in Calcutta, 1. The number of ordinary members of the
through which the British government could fully Executive Council was increased to five.
control the Company’s civil, military and revenue 2. The membership of the Legislative Council was
affairs in India. enlarged by an addition of six to twelve more
3. A system of dual government of British India by members.
the British Government and the Company was set 3. The Presidencies of Bengal, Madras and Bombay
up. Council consisting of three members.
Select the correct answer from the codes given 4. Legislative Councils was created in the provinces
below: which comprised of members of the executive
Codes: council and other members whose number varied
from four to eight.
a) 1 and 2
Select the correct answer from the codes given
b) 2 and 3 below:
c) 1 and 3 Codes:
d) All the above a) 1 and 2
Ans. C b) 1, 2 and 3
a) Only 1 Codes:
1. During 1885-1905, the Congress demanded more 52. Why the Lucknow Pact of 1916 was famous in
powers for the Legislative Council and the creation Indian History?
of the Legislative Councils in provinces where they 1. The ‘moderate’ and ‘extremist’ groups of Indian
did not exists National Congress were reunited under this pact
2. During 1885-1905, the Congress also demanded 2. The Congress and the Muslim League signed this
that the reduction in land revenue and changes in pact to work together
government economic policies, to facilitate the 3. Under this pact, British promised to establish
growth of Indian industries parliamentary type of Government in India
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Select the correct answer from the codes given
a) Only 1 below:
b) Only 2 Codes:
a) 1and 2 a) Only 1
b) 2 and 3 b) Only 2
c) 1 and 3 c) Both 1and 2
d) All the above d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. A Ans. B
53. Which of the following statements about the 55. Which of the following statements about
Act of 1858 is/are correct? Satyasodhak Samaj is/are correct?
1. It put an end to the rule of the Company and 1. Its aim was to work for winning equal rights for
British Government in India was controlled by the the people of the oppressed caste.
British Crown.
2. Opposed the supremacy of the Brahmins.
2. After this Act, a minister of the British 3. Was opened only for lower caste people.
Government called the ‘Secretary of State’ was
made responsible for the Government in India. 4. It was established in the year 1873.
3. Governor-General was given the title of Viceroy Select the correct answer from the codes given
below:
4. Company didn’t follow the Act and they revolted
against monarch. Codes:
16. The Muslim calendar started in A.D. 622 20. The first significant work in a modern European
because of which event that happened in this year? language was Divine Comedy written by
a) Muhammad’s birth a) Thomas Moore
b) Muhammad’s migration from Mecca to Medina b) Dante Alighieri
c) Muhammad’s death c) William Shakespeare
d) None of the above d) Cervantes
Ans. B Ans. B
17. The famous literary work Rubaiyat was 21. Consider the following statements
composed by 1. The printing press was invented by Gutenberg in
a) Omar Khayyam 15th century A.D.
b) Al-Firdausi 2. The Chinese had invented the art of printing
c) Ibn Sina centuries earlier.
Ans. A a) 1 only
d) None of the above 22. The steam locomotive was developed for use in
inter-city railways by
Ans. C
a) James Watt
19. The Last Supper and Mona Lisa are the two
most famous paintings of which Renaissance b) Eli Whitney
artist? c) George Stephenson
a) Leonardo da Vinci d) None of the above
b) Michelangelo Ans. C
c) Raphael 23. Which among the following were responsible
d) None of the above for the erosion of Roman Civilization?
a) 1 and 2 a) 1, 3, 4 and 5
b) 1 and 3 b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
c) Only 3 c) 1, 2, 4 and 5
d) 1, 2 and 3 d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. D Ans. B
25. Capitalism is an economic system, where large 27. The chief characteristic of the Renaissance way
scale capital is used in the process of production. of thinking was ‘Humanism’. Which among the
Indentify the characteristic features of capitalism. following can be associated with the same?
1. Private ownership of means of production. 1. Direct correlation between humans and divinity.
b) 2 and 3 d) 1, 2, 4 and 5
c) 1 and 3 Ans. C
d) None of the above 30. Consider the following statements.
Ans. B 1. They were creators of a powerful civilization
28. The political system that developed in the early around Andean region of South America in the
nation-states was absolutist. Which among the 14th and 15th centuries.
following were outcomes of the absolute regime? 2. The cities had huge structures.
1. End of instability created by the feudal system. 3. They were famous for their engineering skill.
2. Installation of powerful states. 4. Their emperor was regarded as the descendant of
3. Prosperity to merchants and traders. the sun.
4. Fair and uniform laws. The above mentioned can be related to:
Code: a) Bantu Civilization
a) 1, 2 and 4 b) Maya Civilization
b) 2, 3 and 4 c) Incas Civilization
c) 1, 3 and 4 d) Aztecs Civilization
d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans. C
Ans. D 31. The nation states had many achievements to
29. The Maya civilization is said to be one of the their credit. Which among the following can be
oldest Mesoamerican civilizations. Which among termed so?
the following can be associated with it? 1. Destruction of feudalism.
1. Economy based on agriculture. 2. Boost to economic development.
2. Emphasis on religious rites and rituals. 3. Strengthening of arbitrary limits of national
3. Practice of Human sacrifice. boundaries.
4. Prevalence of city – states. 4. Unification of people from a common culture.
5. Pictographic writing style. 5. Termination of serfdom.
Code: Code:
a) 1, 3 and 4 a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
b) 1, 3 and 5 b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 c) 2, 3, 4 and 5
32. Which among the following can be categorized 1. It gave all people the right to vote.
as the outcomes of American Revolution? 2. The right to insurrection was limited.
1. Abolition of slavery. 3. Happiness of all was proclaimed as the aim of
2. Grant of universal male franchise. government.
a) 1, 2 and 4
a) 1 and 2
b) 2, 3 and 4
b) 3 and 4
c) 1, 3 and 4
c) 2 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1 and 4
Ans. C
Ans. B
35. Both Judaism and Christianity are indebted to
33. Consider the following statements. Zorastrianism. Which among the following
1. Its an economic programme. concepts were derived from the same?
2. It was initiated in the United States. 1. Idea of Satan.
3. It was carried out under the leadership of Franklin 2. Resurrection of dead.
D. Roosevelt. 3. Divine healing.
4. It dealt with economic reconstruction and social 4. Ultimate triumph over the devil.
welfare.
5. Last judgement.
5. It resulted in the recovery of United States from
the Great Depression. Code:
Ans. B Ans. C
c) Both 1and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the above Statements is/are correct?
3. Sabha and Samiti allowed anyone to speak of his 1. In Vedic age a man’s life was valued as equal to
mind that of a 100 cows.
4. Sabha and Samiti doesn’t exist in vedic period 2. The Aryans referred indigenous people of India as
Dasas and Dasyus
Which of the above Statements is/are correct?
Which of the above Statements is/are correct?
Codes:
a) Only 1 b) Only 2
a) All the above b) Only 1
c) Both 1and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
c) 2, 3 and 4 d) 3 and 4
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Ans. c Ans. c
10. Consider the following Statements : 13. Consider the following Statements :
1. ‘Agni’ was the favourite god of Aryans. 1. Chandra Gupta Maurya was the first king of
2. ‘Soma’was the special drink which was drunk only Magadha .
during religious ceremonies 2. ‘Rajagriha’ was the capital of Magadha during
Which of the above Statements is/are correct? Bimbisara’s time.
1. Aryan society was divided into four groups or 14. Consider the following Statements :
varnas-kshatriyas, brahmanas, vaishyas and 1. In general the peasants gave One-sixth share of
shudras their produce to the king.
2. Vaishyas and Shudras became influential that 2. During 600 BC to 400 BC artisans and merchants
they were given the first position organized themselves into groups known as
3. The brahmans began by being equal in Shrenis.
importance with the kshatriyas, but slowly they were Which of the above Statements is/are correct?
given the first position a) Only 1 b) Only 2
Which of the above Statements is/are correct? c) Both 1and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Codes: Ans. c
a) only 1 b) only 1, 3 15. Consider the following Statements :
c) only 2 d) 1, 2 and 3 1. Magadha was the most powerful kingdom of the
Ans. b north and was ruled by the Nanda kings.
12. Consider the following Statements : 2. Nandas collected a vast amount of wealth in
Which among the following are Mahajanapads taxes and they kept a huge army.
c) Only 1, 2 and 3 d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 2. For the first time in India history, Ashoka ruled
Ans. c whole sub-continent except the extreme south.
16. Consider the folowing statements : Which of the above Statements is/are correct?
2. Alexander overthrown the Persian emperor and c) Both 1and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
conquered his empire of the Achaemenid Ans. c
3. Alexander died in 326 BC 19. The ancient script in which Ashoka’s Dhamma
Which of the above statements is/are correct about were written
Alexander ? a) Brahmi b) Brahmi and Greek
Codes: c) Greek d) Hindi
a) Only 3 b) Only 1, 2 Ans. b
c) Only 1, 2, 3 d) Only 2 20. “The Beloved of the Gods, the king Piyadassi,
Ans. d when he had been consecrated twenty years, came
in person and reverenced the place where Buddha
Shakyamuni was born. He caused a stone
17. Consider the following statements : enclosure to be made and a stone pillar to be
erected. As the Lord was born here in the village of
1. Chandragupta conquered the whole of the Punjab
Lumbini, he has exempted it from tax, and fixed its
2. He was defeated by Seleucus Nicator in 305 BC contribution at oneeight.”
3. He acquired the territory across the Indus, part of The above inscription on the Ashokan pillar was
what is now is modern Afghanistan found at
4. He had marriage alliance with Seleucus Nicator a) Maski b) Gandhara
and had conquered parts of Central India
c) Kalinga d) Rumminderi
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct
Ans. d
about Chandragupta Maurya
21. Consider the following Statements :
Codes:
1. Ashoka was the first king to issue rock edicts.
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 b) Only 1 and 2
2. Kalinga was not the part of Mauryan empire
c) Only 1, 3 and 4 d) Only 2, 3 and 4
during the reign of Bindusara
Ans. c
Which of the above Statements is/are correct?
18. Consider the following Statements :
a) Only 1 b) Only 2
1. During Bindusara’s reign, the Mauryan empire
c) Both 1and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
extended as far south as Mysore and therefore
included almost the whole of India. Ans. c
22. Who were Shramanas? 4. Ashoka started a special group of officers whom
a) Shudras he called the dharma-mahamatras
brahmans b) Only 2, 3, 4
Which of the above statements about Mauryan Art 26. Consider the following Statements :
is/are correct ? 1. Rulers after Ashoka were weak and could not
Codes: control the empire properly
Which of the above statements about Megalithic 31. Consider the following Statements about
people is/are correct ? Buddhism:
1. The only Neolithic settlement in the Indian 1. Many centuries ago, three assemblies were held,
subcontinent attributed to 7000 BC lies in Mehrgarh the third at the town of Madurai.
2. Neolithic settlements found in South India are not 2. These poems describe the life of the chiefs and
older than 2500BC . Which of the above Statements of the common people of south India.
is/are correct? 3. In later gatherings, two thousands poems were
a) Only 1 b) Only 2 collected into eight books.
c) Both 1and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 4. Sangam literature was written in Tamil.
Ans. c 5. There are many poems describing the wars
34. Which kingdom built a fleet of ships and between Cholas, Pandyas and the Cheras.
occupied northern Sri Lanka. Which of the statements about Sangam literature
a) Pandyas b) Cholas are correct ?
a) Mathura art 2. The revenues of the state came from the taxes on
b) Gandhara art cultivated land
c) Both Mathura art and Gandhara art 3. Society was divided into castes, most of which
lived in harmony together
d) Gandharva art
4. Untouchables were badly treated
Ans. b
Which statements about society during Gupta
41. Who were Bodhisattvas period is/are not correct?
a) Incarnation of Buddha Codes:
b) Monks of Buddhism a) Only 4 b) Only 1, 2
c) Holy persons who had lived on earth before the c) None of the above d) All the above
Buddha
Ans. c
d) Another name of Lord Buddha.
44. Consider the following Statements :
Ans. c
1. The first Portuguese ship to reach the west coast
42. Consider the following statements : of India was that of Vasco da Gama in 1498
1. We know about Samudragupta from an 2. ‘Nikitin’, the traveller came to india from Russia
inscription engraved on a pillar at Allahabad and travelled in the Deccan.
2. He defeated four kings of northern India and Which of the above Statements is/are Correct ?
added the region of present day Delhi and western
Uttar Pradesh to his kingdom Codes:
c) None of the above d) All the above 2. The alvars were the devotees of Vishnu and the
nayannars were the devotees of Shiva
Ans. c
3. Saints recite their hymns during festivals at
43. Consider the following statements : Kanchipuram
1. Fa Hien’s account is very useful in telling us about Which of the above Statements is/are correct?
life in India during the Gupta period
Codes:
2. Vatapi was the center of Chalukya dynasty 50. Consider the following Statements about
Rajendra is correct ?
Which of the above Statements is/are correct?
1. He had a long reign, from 1016 to 1044
Codes:
2. Rajendra’s northern campaign was in many ways
a) Only 1 b) Only 2 similar to Samudragupta’s southern campaign
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. Rajendra defeated the kingdom of Shrivijaya
Ans. c Which of the above Statements is/are correct?
48. Consider the following Statements : Codes:
1. Rashtrakuta kingdom in the northern Deccan a) only 2, 3 b) only 1, 3
fought repeatedly against Palas and Pratiharas
c) 1, 2, 3 d) only 1, 2
2. Pallavas began as officers of the Satavahana
kings Ans. c
51. The kingdom of ‘Later Chalukyas’ was also 2. Pratihara king, Amoghavarsha attempted to
known specially to the historians as control the north by capturing kanauj
a) The Chola Dynasty Which of the above Statements is/are correct?
b) The Kalyan Dynasty Codes:
c) The Chera Dynasty a) Only 1 b) Only 2
d) The Pratihara Dynasty c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. b Ans. a
52. Which of the following three kingdoms 55. Consider the following Statements :
(tripartite) were involved in struggle for kanauj. 1. Telugu, language was widely spoken in the Chola
a) Cholas, Palas Rashtrakutas kingdom
b) Palas, Pratiharas,Cholas 2. Many literary and religious works in Sanskrit
c) Cheras,Rashtrakutas, Pandeys became popular when they were rewritten in Tamil,
such as the famous Ramayan of Kamban
d) Palas, Pratiharas, Rashtrakutas.
3. Many of the inscriptions of the Chola kings were
Ans. d written in both Sanskrit and Tamil
53. Consider the following Statements : 4. The poets Pampa, Ponna and Ranna are called
1. The Pratiharas ruled in Avanti and parts of the ‘three jewels’ of kannada literature.
Southern Rajasthan 5. Kannada also became popular because of a
2. Pratiharas became powerful after defeating other group of religious teachers, called the lingayats
foreign kingdoms, what the sources of the time preached in Kannada
describe as the mlechchhas Which of the above statements about Chola
3. Pratiharas captured kannauj by the end of the Education is/are correct?
eighth century Codes:
Which of the above Statements is/are correct? a) 1, 2, 3, 5 b) 2, 3, 4, 5
Codes: c) 1, 2, 3, 4 d) 1, 3,4, 5
a) only 3 b) 1, 2 Ans. b
c) 1, 3 d) 1, 2, 3
Ans. d 56. Consider the following Statements :
54. Consider the following Statements : 1. The temple in the Chola kingdom became the
1. The Rashtrakutas were ruling in the northern centre of social activity
Deccan in the region around Nasik 2. The earliest temples had consisted of a
shrine-room and an entrance hall or a verandah.
1. The Palas ruled for about four hundred years and Ans. d
their kingdom consisted of almost the whole of 60. Which of the following statement(s)about
Bengal and much of Bihar Mahmud of Ghazni is/are correct ?
2. The first Pala king Gopala established the Pala 1. Mahmud belong to the kingdom of Ghazni
dynasty founded by a Turkish nobleman in the tenth century
3. Gopala’s son, Dharmapala made pala dynasty 2. He attacked India, seventy times
more powerful, reorganized his army and attacked 3. He destructed the temple of Somnath and looted
kanauj it
4. Pala dynasty had a good relation with the king of 4. He was the patron of the famous Persian poet
Tibet Firdausi, who wrote the epic poem Shah
Which of the above statements about Palas is/are Namah. He sent scholar Alberuni to India
correct?
Codes:
Codes:
a) only 1, 2, 3 b) only 1, 3, 4
a) Only 1, 3, 4 b) only 2, 3, 4
c) only 2, 3, 4 d) 1, 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 2, 3, 4 d) only 1, 2, 3
Ans. b
Ans. c
61. Which of the following statements about
58. Consider the following Statements : Muhammad Ghori is/are correct ?
1. The city of Dhillika was built by Tomaras 1. Muhammad Ghori was interested in conquering
2. In Rajputs there were four clans, Pratiharas northern India and adding it to his kingdom
(Pariharas), Chauhans (or Chahamanas), Solankis 2. His most important campaign in India was
(or Chaulukyas) and Pawars (Paramaras) against the Chauhan ruler, Prithviraj III.
Which of the above Statements is/are correct? Muhammad defeated him in the second battle of
Codes: Tarrain in 1192
3. After his death in 1206, his territory in northern 1. The earliest rulers of the Delhi Sultanate were the
India was left in control of his general Qutb-ud-din Mamluks
Aibak 2. Iltutmish succeeded Qutb-ud-din as Sultan
Codes: Which of the above Statements is/are Correct ?
a) only1, 3 b) only 2, 3 Codes:
c) 1, 2 d) 1, 2, 3 a) Only 1 b) Only 2
Ans. d c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
62. Match List-I(Books) with List-II (Writers) and Ans. c
select the correct answer using the codes
65. Consider the following Statements :
given below the lists :
1. Raziya was daughter of Iltutmish
List-I (Books ) List-II (Writers)
2. Mamluks are also known as the slave kings
1. Katha-Saritasagara A. Jayadeva because many of them were either slaves or were
2. Vikramanka-deva-charita B. Kalhana the sons of slaves who had become sultans
3. Rajatarangani C. Bilhana Which of the above Statement(s) is/are Correct ?
4. Gita-Govinda D. Collection of stories in Sanskrit Codes:
Codes: a) Only 1
1234 b) Only 2
a) D C B A c) Both 1 and 2
b) A B C D d) Neither 1 nor 2
c) C B A D Ans. c
d) D C A B 66. Consider the following statements :
Ans. a 1. Khaljis succeeded the Slave sultans
63. The temple of Khajuraho in central India were 2. Ala-ud-din became the first ambitious khalji
built by the sultan in 1296 and wanted to become a second
a) Chola kings Alexander
a) Firoz-shah-Tughlaq a) Only1, 3, 4 b) 1, 2, 3, 4
a) Muhammad-bin-Tughluq Gesudaraz
c) Budshah 5. Gulbarga
Ans. d ABCD
Codes: c) 1, 2, 3 d) only 3
a) only 1, 2 b) only 2, 3 Ans. a
c) only 1, 3 d) 1, 2, 3
Ans. d 85. Name the Sikh Guru who was executed by
83. Consider the following statements : Aurangzeb in 1675
Which of the above statements are true about b) Guru Govind Singh
Shivaji? c) Guru Ram Dash
Codes: d) Guru Teg Bahadur
a) only 1, 2, 3 b) only 2, 3, 4 Ans. b
c) only 1, 3, 4 d) 1, 2, 3, 4 87. Consider the following statements:
Ans. c 1. Dara Shukoh was the son of Shah Jahan and
brother of Aurangzeb
84. Which of the following statement(s) about 2. His best known work was a study of sufi and
Maratha state is/are correct ? Vedanta Philosophy
1. The Maratha state was governed by the king and 3. He also translated the Upanishads into Persian in
was assisted by a council of eight ministers-the 1657
Ashtaghosha’s. 4. He was killed in the fight for the throne between
2. Maratha government levied two taxes. One was him and his brother Aurangzeb
Chauth and other was Sardeshmukhi Which of the above statements about Prince Dara
3. The revenue of the state came mainly from the Shukoh is/are correct ?
land and state was entitled to two-fifths of the Codes:
produce
a) Only 1,2,3 b) Only 2,3,4
Codes:
c) only 1,3, 4 d) 1, 2, 3, 4
a) only 2, 3 b) only 1, 2
2. There was the chief steward (Khan-i-Saman) who 2. He built ‘Ibadat Khana’at Fatehpur Sikri were he
attended to the royal household hold discussion on various religions
3. The chief qazi held the highest position amongst 3. The religious path of Akbar’s was latter referred to
the judges as the Din-i-Ilahi or divine
4. When the Emperor took advice from others he monotheism
use to call them to the Diwan-i-Khas (hall of private 4. Raja Birbal became sincere follower but Raja
audience) Man Singh opposed it
Codes: Codes:
a) only 1, 2, 3 b) only 1, 3, 4 a) only 1, 2, 3 b)only 2, 3, 4
c) only 2, 3, 4 d) 1, 2, 3, 4 c) only 1, 3, 4 d) All the above.
Ans. d Ans. d
94. During Akbar’s rule, who estimated the land 98. Consider the following statements:
revenue system?
1. Two battles were fought between Sher Shah and
a) Birbal b) Raja Man Singh Humayun and in both Humayun was defeated.
c) Bairam Khan d) Raja Todar Mal 2. Sher Shah’s real name was Farid. But he was
Ans. d given the name ‘Sher’ after he had killed atiger.
95. Who among the following has enriched the Which of the above Statements is/are correct ?
Hindustani school of music by making additions in Codes:
the style of singing many of the ragas
a) Only 1 b) Only 2
a) Abul Fazl b) Faizi
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
c) Tansen d) Amir Kushroo
Ans. c
Ans. c
99. Consider the following statements:
96. Nastaliq script belongs to
1. Sher Shah issued the coin called the rupia which
a) Hindi b) Urdu is the same name as that used for our modern
c) English d) Persian rupee
Ans. d 2. Sher Shah was killed in 1545 during the siege of
97. Which of the following statement(s) about Kalinjar when a gun burst on his face Which of the
Akbar’s religious policy is/are correct? above Statements is/are correct?
Ans. c
100. The battle of Talikota (1565) was fought
between
a) Vijayanagara and Bijapur
b) Bijapur and Golconda
c) Ahmadnagar and Bijapur
d) Vijayanagar and Bijapur, Golconda, Ahmadnagar
Ans. d
1. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct America as a continual range of highlands along
answer from the codes given below. the Western coast of the Continent.
List-I List-II Consider the following statement/s in this context.
A. The Island Continent 1. Arctic 1. Andes mountain systems are geologically old and
B. The Highest plateau 2. Antarctica structurally fold mountains.
C. The second largest Continent 3. Africa 2. Andes range is the world’s highest mountain
range outside Asia and stands as the second
D. The Continent around the South Pole 4. Australia highest mountain systems in the world after
5. Tibet Himalayas.
Codes: 3. Cotopaxi is a shield volcano in the Andes
Mountains
ABCD
Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
a) 2 4 5 1
Code:
b) 4 5 3 2
a) 1 and 3 only b) 1 only
c) 2 5 3 4
c) All the above d) 2 and 3 only
d) 4 1 5 2
Ans. A
ans: B
2. The Andes mountain system runs from the
Caribbean Sea to the very southern tip of South
3. Consider the following statements: 2. Central Siberian Plains lies between the Urals and
1. The Arctic Ocean is connected with the Pacific river Yenisey.
Ocean by Alaska strait. 3. Moscow is the largest railway junction as well as
2. Europe and Asia are separated by Ural mountain it is called the port of five seas.
and Volga river. Which among the above is/are correct?
Which among the above is/are correct? Code:
Code: a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) All the above
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. B
Ans. D 6. Polar Regions of the earth have unique
characteristics which makes them different from
other areas.
4. On account of Russia’s large size and its long
distance from sea, there are many climatic regions Choose the incorrect statements in this regard.
in Russia. However one outstanding characteristic 1. Queen Maud range divides Arctic Circle into two
of its climate is long cold winter. Consider the equal halves.
following statements regarding this and choose the 2. Mount Erebus is a live Volcano in Antarctica.
incorrect ones:
Code:
1. Intensity of winter increases from east to west.
a) 1 only b) 2 only
2. During winter, all ports of Russia functions due to
warm oceanic current from Atlantic Ocean. c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
8. Which of the following statements is/are 3. Nile rises in equatorial region and flows
incorrect? northward through the rainy regions and reaches the
1. Harmattan blow from the north-east during Mediterranean Sea.
summer season in Nigeria. Code:
2. Kainji dam has been constructed on the river a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 only
Niger. c) 2 and 3 only d) All the above
3. Khamsin is the dry and sand laden wind blowing Ans. A
from the north in summer in Egypt.
4. The first European settlers in South Africa were
the Britishers. 11. Consider the following statements:
1. Mount Kilimanjaro remains snow covered 3. Most of the rain occurs in summer.
throughout the year. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
2. A rift valley is bounded by wall like steep slopes Code:
on both sides. a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) All the above d) None of the above
Ans. C b) All parts of the earth will receive sunshine all the
time
c) Some parts will have daylight forever and some
20. Which of the following statements is/are parts will be in darkness all the time
correct about Solar System?
d) There will be no effect on the occurrence of day
1. Sun is made up of extremely hot gases like and night
Hydrogen and Helium.
Ans. C
2. Light of the Sun takes about eight minutes and
twenty second to reach the Earth
3. Saturn is the heaviest planet of the solar system 23. Through which of the following countries
equator does not pass?
Code:
1. Burundi
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
2. Uganda
c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Rwanda
Ans. A
4. Gabon
21. Which one among the following statement/s
is/are correct? 5. Somalia
less fixed. Match the following with the help of 1. South Africa is largely a dry country, with most of
codes given below: its eastern regions being semi-desert.
1. 22nd December 2. The narrow southern coastal strip receives
2. 23rd September all-year rainfall in the west.
3. 21st March 3. The Limpopo River is the largest and longest river
in South Africa.
4. 21st June
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Code:
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
ABCD
c) 1 and 3 only d) All the above
a) 3 4 2 1
Ans. D
b) 2 4 3 1
27. Consider the following statements:
c) 2 1 3 4
1. The Great Rift Valley extends from Lake Malawi
d) 3 1 2 4 through the Red sea to Dead sea in South west Asia.
Ans. C 2. Victoria Falls is a waterfall in southern Africa on
25. The small clusters of stars in the sky are called the Zambezi River at the border of Zambia,
constellations. Consider the following statements Zimbabwe and South Africa.
in this regard and choose the correct one. 3. ‘MULATTOS’ which is a new race of people (South
1. The Great Bear is a Constellation of seven stars Africa) of mixed Black and Indian blood.
which keeps revolving round the North Pole. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
2. The two stars in front of the Great Bear Code:
Constellation which are called ‘pointers’, always
point to the Pole Star. a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 only
c) The time taken by Moon to revolve around the 2. The light reflected by the moon reaches us in just
earth is same as that of the time taken by it to rotate one and a quarter seconds
on its axis 3. The moon revolves round the earth in about 27
d) The time taken by Moon to revolve around the days and 8 seconds
Sun is same as that of the time taken by earth to Codes:
revolve around the Sun
gravitational influence of the Moon acts – and it is
Ans. C now “locked in” to this period. eventually it would
30. In the above outline map of South Africa 1, 2, 3 show its far side to the Earth while moving
and 4 respectively representing tline eth, b) 2 and 3 only
a) Pretoria, East London, Port Elizabeth and Cape d) All the above
Town
one-sixth of that of the earthy this particular
b) Johannesburg, Durban, Port Elizabeth and Cape vitational ntually till today.
Town
a) 1 and 3 only b) 2 only
c) Kimberley, Durban, Cape Town and Good Hope
c) 2 and 3 only d) None of the above
d) Johannesburg, Port Elizabeth, Cape Town and
Ans. A
Durban
Ans. B
33. Apart from being the big source of irrigation 2. The Vaal River is the largest tributary of the
and other facilities, the rivers sometimes make the Limpopo River
borders between the countries. Consider the 3. The Orange River flowing eastwards through
following rivers and its bordering countries. South Africa to the Indian Ocean
1. The Orinoco River — Colombia and Venezuela. Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
2. The Limpopo River — South Africa and Zambia. a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
3. The Zambezi River — Zambia and Zimbabwe c) 1 and 3 only d) All the above
Which of the above is/are correctly matched? Ans. B
Code:
a) 1 and 3 only b) 2 and 3 only
36. Which of the following statements is/are
c) All the above d) None of the above correct?
Ans. A 1. The Central plains of South America consist of
the basins of Orinoco, the Amazon and the Plata
rivers.
34. Consider the following statements:
2. The Amazon basin is the second largest drainage
1. Mineral oil is the most important mineral wealth basin in the world after Mississipi basin in US.
of Egypt and is found in Sinai peninsula and along
the Red Sea coast. 3. The largest city along the Amazon River is
Fortaleza.
2. Egypt is a part of the great Sahara Desert which
occupies nearly half the northern part of Africa. Code:
3. The distributaries of Nile form a triangle which a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
has its head or apex at Alexandria. c) 1 only d) All the above
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Ans. C
Code:
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only 37. Arrange the following countries with their
c) 1 and 3 only d) All the above increasing distance from equator.
1. Kenya
Code:
a) 4, 1, 2, 3 b) 4, 1, 3, 2 40. The semi-humid areas of Argentina, Uruguay
c) 1, 4, 3, 2 d) 1, 4, 2, 3 and Brazil, where the area is covered by the
ALFALFA grasses are important areas for South
Ans. C America from economic perspective. Choose the
38. Consider the following statements: correct statements in this regard.
1. Amazon basin has equatorial type of climate 1. ALFALFA grasses have high nutritious value and
covered with rainforests known as Llanos. are the original grasses of this area.
2. The Grasslands found in Orinoco basin are locally 2. ALFALFA is a leguminous plant which helps in
known as Campos and in central Brazil they are maintaining the fertility of the soil.
called Selvas. 3. These are areas of cattle rearing as cattle fatten
3. The wet tropical forests in the lowlands of north very quickly on these grasses.
Argentina and west Paraguay is locally known as Code:
Gran Chaco.
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
4. Central Chile has cool British type of climate.
c) 1 and 3 only d) All the above
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Ans. B
Code:
41. Consider the following statements:
a) 1 and 3 only b) 2, 3 and 4 only
1. The lightest wood in the world is Carnauba.
c) 1, 3 and 4 only d) All the above
2. The forests along the western slopes of the
Ans. D Andes is called ‘Montana’.
39. Consider the following statements: 3. Tannin is a medicinal substance obtained from
1. Four countries of South America share the Quebracho tree found in Argentina.
common border with Argentina. 4. Cattle are reared in western part of Argentina
2. Gauchos of Argentina are those Farms which run while Sheep is reared in eastern parts.
on the lines of a big factory. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
3. The Trans-Andean railway line connects Code:
Uruguay-Chile.
a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2 and 4 only
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) All the above
Code:
Ans. D
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 only
42. South America is the fourth largest Continent in
c) 2 and 3 only d) None of the above the world. Consider the following statements about
Ans. D South America and identify the incorrect ones:
1. South America is economically and industrially 3. The Eastern Plateau of Australia is made up of
highly developed continent with high standard of old rocks, similar to the Deccan plateau in India
living. 4. Most of the rivers of Australia rise in the Eastern
2. It has a large part lying in tropical belt and rich Highlands
biodiversity monsoon forests on either side. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
3. South America, Central America, Mexico and Code:
West Indies together make up Latin America as the
inhabitants in this regions are migrants from Spain, a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2 and 4 only
Portugal, France and Italy. c) 1 and 2 only d) 3 and 4 only
Code: Ans. B
a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only d) All the above 45. Consider the following statements:
Ans. A 1. Nigeria is the only coal producing country of
43. Which of the following statements is/are Western Africa and the coalfield is located in the
incorrect? scrapland of south eastern Nigeria
1. North America is linked to the continent of South 2. Oil is generally extracted from both hard nuts and
America at Panama’s western border. from the pulp of the fruit of oil-palm tree in Africa
2. Lake Titicaca, one of the largest lakes of South Which of the above statements is/are correct?
America is located in Brazilian plateau. Code:
3. Coffee is grown on very large plantations which a) 1 only b) 2 only
are called Hazendas.
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Code:
Ans. C
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
46. Consider the following statements:
c) 1 and 3 only d) All the above
1. ‘Merino’ is the most important breed of sheep,
Ans. D producing the best wool in the world.
2. ‘Jackaroos’ is the Hybrid of Kangaroo and jackle.
44. Consider the following statements: 3. Australia is the largest producer of bauxite in the
1. Australia is the smallest continent and together world.
with New Zealand it is known as Australasia 4. The National Highways (major roads) in Australia
2. It is the only country in the world that covers the are called Continental Highways.
entire continent Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Code:
47. The shaded areas in the outline map of Africa is a) 1 and 2 only
represented by c) All the above
a) Equatorial type of climate Ans. D
b) Sudan type of climate 50. Variation in the length of daytime and night
c) Tropical desert time from seaso
1. Volga is the most important river of the plains of 2. A Gorge is an U-shaped valley
European Russia which falls into the Black Sea. 3. Taiga is a wide belt of coniferous forests
2. The Kamchatka peninsula is a region of stretches from the Atlantic to the pacific across
earthquakes and volcanic activities. Canada
3. The Caucasus Mountains run between the Black Codes:
Sea and the Caspian Sea. a) 1 and 3 only b) 2 and 3 only
Code: c) 1 and 2 only d) None of the above
a) 3 only b) 1 and 2 only Ans. C
c) 2 and 3 only d) All the above 55. Consider the following statements:
Ans. C
1. Australia is primarily Agricultural and Pastoral
country.
53. Consider the following statements: 2. High percentage of population of Australia is
1. Most of the land area of the earth lies in the urban.
Northern Hemisphere 3. Australia is industrially highly developed
2. Greater part of the South America lies in the continent.
Southern Hemisphere Which among the above is/are correct?
3. Southern part of the North America lies in the Code:
Southern Hemisphere a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
Which of the above statements is/are correct? c) 1 and 3 only d) All the above
a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only Ans. D
c) 2 and 3 only d) All the above
Ans. A
54. Consider the following statement and choose
the incorrect ones:
1. A chain of mountain ranges which are roughly
parallel or run in one general direction is called
Massifs.
1. India is third most densely populated country 1. Weather refers to the sum total of weather
after Bangladesh and Japan. Consider the conditions and variations over a large area for a
statements about population distribution in India long period of time.
and choose the correct ones: 2. Climate refers to the state of the atmosphere over
1. Delhi is the only administrative unit of India with an area at any point of time.
more than 1000 people per square kilometer. Code:
2. Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal and Kerala are a) 1 only
the states with maximum density of population.
b) 2 only
3. Assam is the only North Eastern State with
density of population more than National average. c) Both 1 and 2
1. The rivers coming from Northern mountains are 9. The streams within a Drainage basin form
involved in depositional work. certain patterns, depending on the Slope of land,
2. In the lower course, due to steep slope, the underlying rock structure as well as Climatic
velocity of the river increases which results in the conditions of the area. Identify the wrong
formation of riverine Islands. statements about Drainage patterns?
3. The river in their lower course split into numerous 1. The Dendritic pattern develops where the stream
channels due to deposition of silt, which are known flow in different directions from a central peak or
as tributaries. dome like structure
Select the correct statements from the code given 2. A river joined by its tributaries, at approximately
below: right angles develop Trellis pattern
3. A Rectangular drainage pattern develops on a
a) 1 only
strongly jointed rocky terrain
b) 2 and 3 only
4. The Radial pattern develops where the river
c) 3 only channel follows the slope of the terrain
d) All the above Code:
Ans. A a) 2 and 3 only
b) 1 and 4 only
8. The Indian desert lies towards the western c) 1, 3 and 4 only
margins of the Aravali Hills. It is an undulating
sandy plain covered with sand dunes. Consider the d) All the above
incorrect statements about Indian deserts? Ans. B
1. Streams appear during the rainy season and soon
after they disappear into the sand 10. The Ganga is a Trans Boundary river of India
2. Chambal is the only large river in this region and Bangladesh and rises in the Western
3. Longitudinal dunes cover large areas in this Himalayas in Uttarakhand. Consider the wrong
region statements about Ganga river system?
a) 1 only c) 2 only
b) 1 and 2 only d) All the above
c) 3 only Ans. C
d) 2 only 13. Identify the type of vegetation with the
Ans. B following information?
1. These forests are restricted to heavy rainfall
areas of Island groups of Lakshadweep, Andaman
11. A particular state in India has the following and Nicobar and Tamil Nadu
characteristics:
2. The trees reach great height up to 60 metres or
1. It is located on the same latitude which passes even above
through Northern Rajasthan
3. Some of the commercially important trees of this
2. It has over 75% of its area under Forest Cover forest are Rosewood, Rubber and Cinchona
3. Over 10% of forest cover constitutes Protected Code:
area network in this state
a) Tropical Evergreen Forest
Which one among the following states has all the
above characteristics? b) Tropical Dry Deciduous Forest
17. The Cold Weather Season begins from mid a) 1 and 2 only
November in Northern India and stays till February. b) 1 and 3 only
Consider the following statements about Cold
c) All the above
Weather Season?
d) 2 and 3 only
1. During this season, the Northeast Trade winds
prevail over the country which blow from sea to land Ans. C
and hence, for most part of the country, it is a dry 19. The latitude that pass through Sikkim does not
season pass through
1. Punjab c) Duns
2. Rajasthan d) I-shaped valley
3. Uttrakhand Ans. C
4. Delhi 22. Which of the given statements is/are NOT
5. Uttar Pradesh correct?
Code: d) 1 – 4 – 3 – 2
30. Which are the three main factors that cause a) 1 and 3 only
population change? b) 2, 3 and 4 only
a) Births, Deaths and marriage c) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) Births, Deaths and migration d) All the above
c) Births, Deaths and life expectancy Ans. D
d) Births. Deaths and Sex ratio 33. Consider the following statements in the
Ans. B context of Peninsular Plateau of India.
31. Consider the following statements in the 1. Part lying to the north of the Narmada river known
context of Coriolis force. as the Central Highlands.
1. Coriolis force is an apparent force caused by the 2. The westward extensions of Peninsular Plateau
earth’s revolution and is also known as Ferrel’s Law. are locally known as Bundelkhand.
2. The Coriolis force is responsible for deflecting 3. The Central Highlands are wider in the East but
winds towards the left in the northern hemisphere narrower in the West.
and right in the southern hemisphere. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct? a) 1 only
a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only c) All the above
c) Both 1 and 2 d) None of the above
d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. A
Ans. D
34. India and Nepal have traditionally been close
32. Monsoon is traditionally defined as a seasonal since ancient times as a result of geographical
reversing wind accompanied by corresponding location and common religious, linguistic and
cultural identities that overlap the two countries. 1. India lies in the region of North easterly winds
Consider the following Indian states. which originate from the subtropical low pressure
1. Bihar belt of the Northern Hemisphere.
1. Equatorial trough to be normally positioned about 1. The Indus basin is shared by the states of Jammu
50N of the equator. and Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh in India.
2. Presence of the high pressure area east of 2. The Tapi basin is shared by the states of Madhya
Madagascar, approximately at 200N over the Indian Pradesh and Gujarat only.
Ocean. 3. Amravati, Bhavani and Kabini are the tributaries of
3. Presence of the tropical easterly jet stream to the river Kaveri.
north of the Himalayas. Which among the above is/are not correct?
Code: Code:
a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only a) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only d) 3 only b) 2 and 3 only
Ans: A c) 1 only
d) 2 only
36. Consider the following statements:- Ans: A
1. They occur mainly in the regions between 60 and 7. Consider the following statements:
200 north and south of the equator 1. Within the tropics, the equatorial highlands have a
2. In extent, they are smaller than temperate cyclones distinctively cooler climate
and have a diameter of only 50 to 200 miles 2. The most outstanding feature of the equatorial
3. They have a much steeper pressure gradient climate is its great uniformity of temperature
4. Violent winds with a velocity of over 100 mph are throughout
common the year
The above statements are the characteristics of Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Willy-Willies a) Only 1 b) Only 2
b) Typhoons c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
c) Tornadoes Ans. C
d) Hurricanes 8. Consider the following statements:
Ans. B 1. In equatorial climate, the diurnal range of
5. Which of the following climatic type is not found in temperature is small, and so the annual range
warm Temperate Zone between 300 – 450 N and S? 2. In general, in equatorial climate, there is no winter
a) China type b) British type Which of the above statements is/are correct?
c) Gulf type d) Natal type a) Only 1 b) Only 2
Ans. B c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
6. Consider the following statements related to Ans. C
natural vegetations. 9. Consider the following statements:
1. Deciduous forests are present 1. In equatorial climate, the relative humidity is
2. Evergreen coniferous forests are present constantly high
3. Mixed forests, are present 2. In equatorial climate, seeding, flowering, fruiting
These are the characteristics natural vegetations of and decaying do not take place in a seasonal pattern
which climatic zone? Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Warm Temperate Zone a) Only 1 b) Only 2
b) Cool Temperate Zone c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
c) Alpine Zone Ans. C
d) Equatorial Zone 10. ‘Belukar’ in Malaysia is
Ans. B a) Shifting cultivation
1. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 2. They were the first bronze users of the
answer from the codes given below the lists: subcontinent and hence they started using metal
List-I (Sites) List-II (Artefacts/objects discovered) money
Ans: C Ans: a.
1. As a result of the Great Depression of 1929, the 3. There is a sale and purchase of labour services at a
unemployment rate in USA rose from 3 percent to 25 price called wage rate
percent. Unemployment rate is defined as: Code:
a) Ratio of number of people who are not working and a) 1 and 2 only
looking for jobs to the total population of the country
b) 1 and 3 only
b) Ratio of number of people who are working to the
number of people who are not working and looking for c) 2 and 3 only
jobs d) 1, 2 and 3
c) Ratio of number of people who are not working and Ans. C
looking for jobs to the number of people who are
working
3. Which among the following is/are an example of
d) Ratio of the total population of the country to the
investment expenditure?
number of people who are not working
1. Part of the revenue paid out as rent for the services
Ans. C
rendered by land
2. Which of the following is/are characteristics of
2. Part of the revenue paid to capital as interest
capitalist economy?
3. Part of the revenue paid to labourers as wages
1. Private and Public ownership of means of
production 4. Part of revenue used to buy new machinery or to
build new factories to expand production
2. Production takes place for selling the output in the
market Code:
14. If the supply of money in the economy increases Which of the statements given above is/are not
and people purchase bonds with this extra money, correct?
what will happen? a) 1 and 3 only
1. The bond prices will rise b) 3 only
2. Rate of interest will decline c) 1 and 2 only
Code: d) None of the above
a) 1 only Ans: B
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 17. RBI publishes figures of four alternative
d) Neither 1 nor 2 measures of money supply, viz. M1, M2, M3 and M4.
Ans: C M3 is the most commonly used measure of money
15. Which of the following statement given below is supply. It consists of:
correct? a) Money held by the public and net demand deposits
a) In India, currency notes and coins are issued by the held by commercial banks.
Reserve Bank of India. b) Money held by the public and net demand as well
b) Currency notes are issued by Government of India as time deposits held by the commercial banks.
while coins are issued by RBI. c) Money held by public + Net demand deposits with
c) Currency notes and coins are issued by banks + Savings deposits with Post office
Government of India. d) Money held by Public + Net time and term deposits
d) Currency notes are issued by Reserve Bank of India, with commercial banks + Total deposits with Post
while coins are issued by Government of India. Office Savings Organisation.
Ans: D Ans: B
16. Consider the following statements given below: 18. Consider the following statements:
1. Currency notes and coins do not have intrinsic 1. The Currency Deposit Ratio is the proportion of the
value like a gold or silver coin. total deposits commercial banks keep as reserves.
2. Currency notes and coins are called legal tenders 2. The Reserve Deposit Ratio is the money held by the
as they cannot be refused by any citizen of the public in currency to that they hold in bank deposits.
country for settlement of any kind of transaction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
3. Similar to currency notes and coins, cheques drawn a) 1 only
on savings or current accounts can never be refused b) 2 only
by anyone as a mode of payment.
c) Both 1 and 2
4. Cash grants-in-aid from foreign countries and 30. Budget documents classify total expenditure into
international organisations plan and non-plan expenditure. Which of the
Code: following come under non-plan expenditure?
Ans. D Code:
29. Service Tax in India was introduced in the year a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1995-96 c) 3 only
c) 1998-99 d) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1999-2000 Ans. C
Ans. A
32. When a government spends more than it collects 34. Consider the following statements and choose
by way of revenue, it incurs a budget deficit. the correct ones:
Consider the following statements in this regard: 1. The balance of payments (BoP) record the
1. Fiscal deficit is the difference between the transactions in goods, services and assets between
government’s total expenditure and its total receipts residents of a country with the rest of the world in a
including borrowing year
2. The revenue deficit includes only such transactions 2. The current account records the import and exports
that affect the current income and expenditure of the of goods only
government 3. Trade in services is denoted as invisible trade
3. Primary deficit is calculated by reducing Net Code:
interest liabilities from Gross fiscal deficit
a) 1 only
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
b) 1 and 2 only
a) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
c) 2 and 3 only
Ans. C
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. C
35. Consider the following statements:
1. Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) is a
33. Which of the following were the main features of multilateral rate representing the price of a
FRBM Act, 2003 representative basket of foreign currencies, each
1. To reduce the fiscal deficit to not more than 3 weighted by its importance to the domestic country in
percent of GDP international trade
2. To reduce the revenue deficit to zero by March 2009 2. Nominal Exchange rate is often taken as a measure
3. It required the reduction in fiscal deficit by 0.3 of a country’s international competitiveness
percent of GDP each year and the revenue deficit by Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
0.5 per cent a) 1 only
Code: b) 2 only
a) 1 and 2 only c) Both 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3 only d) Neither 1 nor 2
c) 2 and 3 only Ans. A
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. D
1. Which among the following can be categorized as 2. The nationalist leaders of India refused to provide
the fallout(s) of Russian Revolution? legal help to the accused.
1. Widespread acceptance of laissez-fairism. 3. The accused list had both Indians as well as
2. Increase in the dignity of labour. Englishmen.
3. Mitigation of discriminations based on race, colour 4. The accused could evoke sympathy and concern
and sex. even from foreign countries.
Code: b) 2, 3 and 4
a) 1, 2 and 3 c) 1, 2 and 4
b) 1, 4 and 5 d) 1, 3 and 4
c) 2, 3 and 5 Ans. D
Code: b) 2 and 3
a) 1 only c) 1 and 3
b) 2 only d) 1, 2 and 3
c) 3 only Ans. A
Code: Ans. D
a) 1 only c) Cholas
b) 2 only d) Pandyas
c) Both 1 and 2 Ans. C
d) None 26. The British did not receive the Diwani rights for
Ans. B which of the following regions after the Battle of
Buxar?
23. The growing popularity of image worship during
ancient period stimulated developments in a) Awadh
architecture. b) Bengal
Which religion did not contribute to these c) Bihar
developments?
d) Orissa
a) Mahayana Buddhism Ans. A
b) Hinduism 27. Which of the following statement is incorrect
c) Hinayana Buddhism about Simon Commission?
d) Jainism a) It consisted solely of Englishmen.
Ans. C b) It’s purpose was to look into the working of the
24. Consider the following statements about the Government of India Act of 1919.
Rathas Mahabalipuram: c) It’s term of reference held out promises for steps
1. The Ratha is a shrine carved out of a single rock. towards Swaraj.
2. They are named after the Pandavas. d) It was vehemently opposed throughout India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 28. Which of the following was not a provision of the
Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909?
a) 1 only
a) Introduction of dyarchy.
b) 1 and 3 only
b) Separate electorates for the Muslims.
c) 2 and 3 only
c) The memberships of the provincial legislative
d) 1 and 2 only councils to be enlarged.
Ans. D d) Limited franchise to landlords and chambers of
25. The famous bronze sculpture of Nataraja is a commerce.
masterpiece of which dynasty? Ans. A
a) Pallavas 29. Which of the following events did not happen at
b) Cheras the Lucknow session of Congress in 1916?
Select the correct option using the codes. 3. Aim of establishing dictatorships.
a) 1 and 4 only Select the correct option using the codes.
b) 1, 2 and 4 only a) 1 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2 and 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 2 only
Ans. B d) 3 only
36. Which American President is famous for his Ans. A
peace proposal known as the Fourteen Points? 39. Which of the following countries was not a
a) Woodrow Wilson member of the Anti-Comintern Pact, 1937?
b) Theodore Roosevelt a) Germany
c) Calvin Coolidge b) Italy
d) Franklin Delano Roosevelt c) Austria
Ans. A d) Japan
37. Which of the following dynasties were destroyed Ans. C
after the First World War? 40. In the context of reforms in the Soviet Union in
1. Romanov 1980s, perestroika meant
2. Habsburg a) Restructuring
3. Hohenzollern b) Openness
4. Bourbon c) Transparency
Select the correct option using the codes. d) Efficiency
a) 2 and 3 only Ans. A
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Ans. C
38. Which of the following features were common in
the fascist movements of Europe after the First
World War?
1. Hostility to democracy
2. Belief in socialism