IBPS Clerk Question Paper 2012

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IBPS Clerk Question paper 16-12-2012
Subject: Reasoning Ability

Directions (1-5): Each of the questions given below is based on the given diagram. The
diagram shows three circles each representing Doctors, Experienced Hospital
Employee and Post Graduates.
1. Which of the following represents such people who are Experienced- Hospital Employees but are
not doctors?
(1) Only A
(2) Only C
(3) A and C
(4) F and C
(5) G and A
2. Which of the following represents such people who are Doctors and Post Graduates but not
Experienced- Hospital Employees?
(1) Only D
2) B and F
(3) Only E
(4) Only B
(5) B and E
3. Which of the following represents such Doctors who are also Experienced- Hospital Employees?
(1) G and F
(2) D and G
(3) Only A
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(4) Only G
(5) Band F
4. Which of the following represents Experienced-Hospital Employees who are Doctors but are not
Post Graduates?
(1) Only F
(2) F and G
(3) B, F and G
(4) A and G
(5) Only G
5. Which of the following represents all such people who are Doctors?
(1) Only D
(2) B, D, F and G
(3) Only F
(4) B, D and G
(5) S, F and G
Directions (6-10): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below:
QSRUIVPJLGNFMTOKEAHDBC
6. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded
by a Consonant and also immediately followed by a Vowel?
(1) None
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One
(5) Two
7. How many such pairs of alphabets are there in the series of alphabets given in Bold in the above
arrangement each of which has as many letters between them (in both forward and backward
directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two

(4) Three
(5) More than three
8. On the basis of above series of alphabets DECK is written as BABE and BARS is written as CHSR,
then how will JUMP be written?
(1) LIFJ
(2) PRTV
(3) LRFV
(4) PITJ
(5) None of these
9. On the basis of above series of alphabets if PJ is related to GI, EA is related to DO, then NF is
related to-
(1) JL
(2) OL
(3) TL
(4) TO
(5) None of these
10. Which of the following is the fourth to the left of the ninth from the left end of the above
arrangement?
(1) V
(2) I
(3) U
(4) M
(5) None of these
Directions (11-15): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below:
J, K. L, M, N, 0, P and Q are sitting around a circular table facing the centre but not
necessarily in the same order. 0 is immediate neighbour of both K and Q. Only one
person sits between K and J. Land Mare neighbours but are not immediate neighbours
of
Q. Two persons sit between Mana P. P does not sit to the immediate right of K.
11. What is the position or P with respect to Q ?

(1) Fourth to the left

(2) Third to the left
(3) Third to the right
(4) Second to the left
(5) Second to the right
12. Who amongst the following is sitting to the right of J?
(1) N
(2) M
(3) L
(4) P
(5) K
13. Who amongst the following sits exactly between K and J ?
(1) P
(2) O
(3) Q
(4) L
(5) None of these
14. Who amongst the following sits fourth to the left of M ?
(1) N
(2) J
(3) P
(4) O
(5) None of these
15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that
does not belong to that group?
(1) JLL
(2) NQ
(3) ML
(4) OK
(5) PJ

Directions (16-18): Study the following information to answer the given questions.
In a six storeyed building the ground floor is numbered one, the floor above it is
numbered two and so on such that the topmost floor is numbered six. One out of six
people viz, A, B, C, D, E and F lives on each floor.
No one lives between C and F. There are two floors between the floors on which A and
D live. A lives on floor above the floor on which D lives. E lives on odd numbered floor.
B does not live on a floor immediately above or below E’s floor.
16. Who lives on the ground floor?
(1) E
(2) B
(3) D
(4) A
(5) Cannot be determined
17. Where does A live?
(1) Numbered 2
(2) Numbered 3
(3) Numbered 5
(4) Numbered 4
(5) None of these
18. Who lives immediately above D’s floor?
(1) A
(2) C
(3) F
(4) B
Directions (19-23): In each question below are two statements followed by two
conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance from known facts and then decide which of the
given conclusions logically commonly follows from the given statements disregarding
commonly known facts.
Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows.
Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows.

Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II follows.

Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
Give answer (5) if both conclusions I and II follow.
19. Statements:
All buses are cars.

Some buses are trucks.
Conclusions:
I. Some buses are definitely not trucks.
II. At least some trucks are cars.
20. Statements:
No leaf is a root.
All plants are roots.
Conclusions:
I. No leaf is a plant.
II. Some plants are leaves.
21. Statements:
Some chapters are units.

Some units are topics.
Conclusions:
I. At least some topics are chapters.
II. Some topics are definitely not units.
22. Statements :
All spoons are bowls.

All dishes are bowls.
Conclusions:
I. Some spoons are dishes.
II. All bowls are spoons.
23. Statements:
Some gates are doors.

No gate is window.

Conclusions:
I. No door is window.
II. Some doors are definitely not windows.
Directions (24-28): In these questions relationships between different elements is
shown in the statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions.
Mark answer (1) if only Conclusion I follows
Mark answer (2) if only Conclusion II follows
Mark answer (3) if either Conclusion I or II follows
Mark answer (4) if neither Conclusion I nor II follows
Mark answer (5) if both Conclusions I and II follow
24. Statement: A F T = E R
Conclusions:
I. A < F
II. R F
25. Statement: R I < G H >T
Conclusions:
I. T < I
II. H > I
26. Statement: T = A K > E = S
Conclusions:
I. K T
II. S < K
27. Statement: P < O = I N > T
Conclusions:
I. P < N
II. O > T
28. Statement: D > E L > A Y
Conclusions:
I. Y D
II. A E

Directions (29-30): Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below:
Among five friends P, Q, R, S and T each having different height. T is the second tallest.
P is taller than only S, R and T are taller than Q. P is taller than S but shorter than Q.
29. Who among the following is the tallest in the group?
(1) R or T
(2) T
(3) R
(4) Q
(5) None of these
30. Who among the following is taller than T?
(1) R
(2) Q
(3) P
(4) S
(5) None of these
Directions (31-35): Each of the following questions below consists or a question and
two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data
provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the
statements and-
Give answer (1) If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question
while the data in / statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (2) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (3) If the data in either Statement I alone or statement II alone are
sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (4) If the data in both the Statements I and II together are not sufficient to
answer the question.
Give answer (5) If the data in both the Statements I and II are together necessary to
answer the question.
31. What is the total number of students in Course ‘A’ in College ‘X ?

I. The respective ratio of girls and boys is 2 : 3.

II. The number of students has grown by 5 per cent this year as compared to 4 per cent last year from
the number 1000 which it was year before last.
32. What was the grand total of Falcon Team of College ‘X’?
I. Mayank correctly remembers that Falcon Team scored a grand total of above 82 but below 91.
II. Animesh correctly remembers that Falcon Team scored a grand total of above 77 and below 84.
33. Which direction is Ajay facing at the moment?
I. After walking 5 metres early morning from point ‘P’, Ajay is facing the opposite direction of the
Sun.
II. Ajay took two consecutive right turns after covering a distance of 6 metres to reach the point ‘P’.
34. How is M related to H?
I. H is the daughter of P and sister of K.

II. S is the son of M and husband of P.
35. How is ‘healthy’ coded in the language?
I. In that code language ‘eat and drink healthy’ is written as ‘se ta pa me’ and ‘drink hot beverages’ is
written as ‘ta nu fa’.
II. In that code language ‘eat hot meal daily’ is written as ‘fa me la du’ and ‘cold and hot’ is written as
‘pa fa ga’.
36. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word FINANCIAL, each of which has as many
letters between them in the word as in the English alphabetical series (in both forward and backward
directions)?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
37. Cause: The Government has recently increased the taxes on retail items by about 10 per cent.
Which of the following can be a possible effect of the above cause?

(1) The retailers will reduce the prices of retail items by about 10 per cent
(2) The retailers will dose their shops till the taxes are rolled back by the Government
(3) The retailers will increase the prices of retail items by about 20 per cent
(4) The retailers will most probably increase the prices of retail items by about 10 percent or less
than 10 percent
(5) None of these
38. Statement: Many students died in a collision of their bus and a truck near the school premise
because the driver of truck lost his balance owing to high speed of the truck.
Courses of Action:
(A) The Government should immediately cancel the licenses of all the trucks operating
in the city.
(B) The Government should prohibit the movement of all the vehicles near the school
premise.
(C) The Government should set up a high level task force to suggest measures to
prevent such incidents in the future.
A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement,
follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy etc. On the basis of the
information given in the statement, decide which of the suggested courses of action
logically follow(s) for pursuing.
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) Only A and C
(5) None
Directions (39-40): Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below:
The Government has decided to continue providing subsidy to consumers for cooking
gas for three more years. This is not good news from the point of view of reining in the
fiscal deficit. Mounting subvention for subsidies means diversion of savings by the
government from investment to consumption, raising the cost of capital in the process.
The Government must cut expenditure on subsidies to create more fiscal space for
investments in both physical and social infrastructure. It should outline a plan for
comprehensive reform in major subsidies including petroleum, food and fertilizers
and set a final deadline.

39. Which of the following is a Conclusion which can be drawn from the facts stated in the above
paragraph?
(1) Government cannot withdraw subsidies provided to various items.

(2) Government subsidy on cooking gas is purely a political decision
(3) Government can compensate the expenditure incurred on subsidy by raising the various taxes
(4) Subsidy provided by the government under various heads to the citizens increases the cost of
capital
(5) None of these
40. Which of the following is an assumption which is implicit in the facts stated in the above
paragraph?
(1) It is not possible to create more infrastructural abilities if the present level of subsidy continues
even for short duration
(2) The Government should sought assistance from international financial organizations for
developing infrastructural projects
(3) The people of India may not be able to pay more for cooking gas
(4) India is no longer a developing country and many people in the country are rich enough to buy
petroleum products market cost
(5) None of these
Subject: English Language

Directions (1-5): Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below should replace
the phrase given in bold in the following sentences to make the sentence
grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is and there is no correction
required mark (5) i.e. ‘No correction required’ as the answer.
1. During the recession many companies will be forced to lay oil workers.
(1) have the force to

(2) be forced into
(3) forcibly have
(4) forcefully
(5) No correction required
2. He wanted nothing else expecting to sleep after a stressful day at work.

(1) nothing better than

(2) anything else unless
(3) nothing but having
(4) nothing else than
3. Ramesh took charge of the project, within a few days of having appointed?
(1) having an appointment

(2) being appointed
(3) after being appointed
(4) appointing
4. It is difficult to work with him because he is one of those persons who think he is always right.
(1) think they are always

(2) always thinks he is
(3) is always thinking they are
(4) always think his
5. Foreign businesses in developing countries have usually problems with lack of infrastructure and
rigid laws.
(1) usual problems as

(2) usually problems on
(3) as usual problems like
(4) the usual problems of
Directions (46-50): Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the
blank in each sentence to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
6. They work hard not because of the __ , but because of their inner urge.
(1) desire
(2) drive
(3) energy

(4) incentive
(5) motivation
7. His __ background has made him so docile.
(1) famous
(2) lucrative
(3) rich
(4) advanced
(5) humble
8. It is __ for everyone to abide by the laws of the land.
(1) expected
(2) obligatory
(3) meant
(4) optional
(5) recommended
9. he is a hard worker, his quality of work is not of a desirable level.
(1) Despite
(2) Because
(3) Although
(4) Somehow
(5) However
10. In spite of repeated instructions, he __ the some mistakes.
(1) commits
(2) detects
(3) corrects
(4) imitates
(5) exhibits
Directions (11-20): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the question.
Political ploys initially hailed as master-strokes often end up as flops. The Rs. 60,000
crore farm loan waiver announced in the budget writes off 100% of overdues of small

and marginal farmers holding upto two hectares, and 25% of overdues of larger
farmers. While India has enjoyed 8%-9% GDP growth for the past few years, the boom
has bypassed many rural areas and farmer distress and suicides have made newspaper
headlines. Various attempts to provide relief (employment guarantee scheme, public
distribution system) have made little impact, thanks. to huge leakages from the
government’s lousy delivery systems. So, many economists think the loan waiver is a
worthwhile alternative to provide relief.
However the poorest rural folk are landless labourers, who get neither farm loans nor
waivers. Half of the small and marginal farmers get no loans from banks and depend
entirely on money-lenders, and will not benefit. Besides, rural India is full of the
family holdings rather than individual holdings and family holdings will typically be
much larger than two hectares even for dirt-poor farmers, who will, therefore, be
denied the 100% waiver. It will thus fail in both economic and political objectives.
IRDP loans to the rural poor in the 1980s demonstrated that crooked bank officials
demand bribes amounting to one-third the intended benefits. Very few of the intended
beneficiaries who merited relief received it. After the last farm loan waiver will
Similarly slow down fresh loans to deserving farmers. While overdues to cooperatives
may be higher, economist Surjit Shalla says less than 5% of farmer loans to banks are
overdue i.e. overdues exist for only 2.25 million out of 90 million farmers. If so, then
the 95% who have repaid loans will not benefit. They will be angry at being penalised
for honesty.
The budget thus grossly overestimates the number of beneficiaries, It also
underestimates the negative effects of the waiver-encouraging willful default in the
future and discouraging fresh bank lending for some years. nstead of trying to reach
the needy, through a plethora of leaky schemes we should transfer cash directly to the
needy using new technology like biometric smart cards, which are now being used in
many countries, and mobile phones bank accounts. Then benefits can go directly to
phone accounts operable only by those with biometric cards, ending the massive
leakages of current schemes.
The political benefits of the loan waiver have also been exaggerated since if only a
small fraction of farm families benefit, and many of these have to pay bribes to get the
actual benefit, will the waiver really be a massive vote- winner? Members of joint
families will feel aggrieved that, despite having less than one hectare per head, their
family holding is too large. Lo qualify for the 100% waiver. Alliance ministers, of
central or state governments, give away freebies in their last budgets, hoping to win
electoral regards, Yet, four-fifth of all incumbent governments are voted out. This

shows that beneficiaries of favours are not notably grateful, while those not so
favoured may feel aggrieved, and vote for the opposition. That seems to be why
election budgets constantly fail to win elections in India and the loan waiver will not
change that pattern.
11. Why do economists feel that loan waivers will benefit farmers in distress?
(1) It will improve the standard of living of those farmers who can afford to repay their loans but are
exempted,
(2) Other government relief measures have proved ineffective.
(3) Suicide rates of farmers have declined after the announcement of the waiver.
(4) Farmers will be motivated to increase the size of their family holdings not individual holdings.
(5) The government will be forced to reexamine and Improve the public distribution system.
12. What message will the loan waiver send to farmers who have repaid loans?
(1) The Government will readily provide them with loans in the future.
(2) As opposed to money lenders banks are a safer and more reliable source of credit.
(3) Honesty is the best policy.
(4) It is beneficial to take loans from co-operatives since their rates of interest are lower.
(5) They will be angry at being penalised for honesty
13. What is the author’s suggestion to provide aid to farmers?
(1) Families should split their joint holding to take advantage of the loan waiver.
(2) The government should increase the reach of the employment guarantee scheme.
(3) Loans should be disbursed directly into bank accounts of the farmers using the latest technology.
(4) Government should ensure that loans waivers can be implemented over the number of years.
(5) Rural infrastructure can be improved using schemes which were successful abroad.
14. What was the outcome of IRDP loans to the rural poor?
(1) The percentage of bank loan sanctioned to family owned farms increased.
(2) The loans benefited dishonest money-lenders not landless labourers.
(3) Corrupt bank officials were the unintended beneficiaries of the loans.
(4) It resulted in the Government sanctioning thrice the amount for the current loan waiver.
(5) None of these.
15. What are the terms of the loan waiver?

(A) One-fourth of the overdue loans of landless labourers will be written off.
(B) The Rs. 60,000 crore loan waiver has been sanctioned for 2.25 million marginal
farmers.
(C) Any farmer with between 26 per cent to 100 per cent of their loan repayments
overdue will be penalised.
(1) Only(A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Both (B) and (C)
(4) All (A), (B) and (C)
(5) None of these
16. What is the author’s view of the loan waiver?
(1) It will have an adverse psychological impact on those who cannot avail of the waiver.
(2) It is a justified measure in view of the high suicide rate among landless labourers.
(3) It makes sound economic and political sense in the existing scenario.
(4) It will ensure that the benefits of India’s high GDP are felt by the rural poor.
(5) None of these
17. Which of the following cannot be said about loan waiver?
(A) Small and marginal farmers will benefit the most.

(B) The loan waiver penalizes deserving farmers.
(C) A large percentage i.e.. ninety- five per cent of distressed farmers will benefit.
(1) Only(C)
(2) Both (A) and (C)
(3) Only (A)
(4) Both (B) and (C)
(5) None of these
18. Which of the following will definitely be an impact of Joan waivers?
(A) Family holdings will be split into individual holdings not exceeding one hectare.
(B) The public distribution system will be revamped.
(C) Opposition will definitely win the election.
(1) None
(2) Only (A)
(3) Both (A) and (B)

(4) Only (C)

(5) All (A), (B) and ( C)
29. What impact will the loan waiver have on banks?
(1) Banks have to bear the entire brunt of the write off.
(2) Loss of trust in banks by big farmers.
(3) Corruption among bank staff will increase.
(4) Farmers will make it a habit to default on loans
(5) None of these
20. According to the author what is the government’s motive in sanctioning the loan waiver?
(1) To encourage farmers to opt for bank loans from money- lenders.
(2) To raise 90 million farmers out of indebtedness.
(3) To provide relief to those marginal farmers who have the means to but have not repaid their
loans
(4) To ensure they will be re-elected
(5) None of these
Directions (21-23): Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning to the
word printed in bold as used in the passage.
21. Incumbent
(1) mandatory
(2) present
(3) incapable
(4) lazy
(5) officious
22. ploys
(1) surveys
(2) entreaties
(3) ruses
(4) lazy
(5) assurances
23. aggrieved

(1) vindicated
(2) intimidated
(3) offensive
(4) wronged
(5) disputed
Directions (24-25): Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning to the word
printed in bold as used in the passage.
24. plethora
(1) dearth
(2) missing
(3) superfluous
(4) sufficient
(5) least
25. merited
(1) ranked
(2) unqualified for
(3) lacked
(4) inept at
(5) unworthy of
Directions (26-30): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical
error in it.
The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is
no error, the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)
26. It is more better(l)/ if one of the parents(2)/ stays at home(3)/ to look after the children(4)/ No
error(5)
27. With a fresh coat(l)/ of paint(2)/ the school can(3)/ look much nice(4)/ No error(5)
28. I asked the salesman(1) / If I could exchange(2)/ the faulty camera(3)/ with another one(4)/ No
error(5)
29. I took me(l)/ almost a hour(2)/ to fill the(3)/ application form(4)/ No error(5).
30. She insists (1)/ you stay(2)/ until her husband (3)/ comes home(4)/ No error (5)

Directions (31-40): In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been
numbered.
These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested one of
which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Mankind has seen rapid (31) in the last 150 years because of the mass manufacturing
techniques (32) in western nations and later taken to new levels of efficiency by Japan.
Mass production and production for the masses became the bases of new business
strategies. Large scale consumption by all with the social benefit of (33) poverty
became the dominant economic strategy. The advent of electricity and its large-scale
application to lighting, heating and operating machines added a fresh dimension to
manufacturing. By the 1950s came (34) in electronics and transistor devices to be
followed by innovations in microelectronics, computers and various forms of sensors
all of which (35) altered the manufacturing scene. It is now no longer necessary to
make prototypes in a factory or a laboratory to study a new product. Many new
products can be (36) on computers and their behaviour simulated on them. By
choosing an optimum design through such simulations, computer programmes can
directly (37) the manufacturing processes. These processes are generally called
Computer Aided Design (CAD) and Computer Assisted Manufacturing (CAM). These
capabilities are leading to newer forms of (38) by customers. Each customer can be
offered several special options. Customised product design or (39) manufacturing are
other popular techniques currently in (40) in many developed countries.
31.
(1) havoc
(2) transformation
(3) destruction
(4) violence
(5) deforestation
32.
(1) discarded
(2) resorted
(3) indulged
(4) perfected
(5) designated

33.
(1) removing
(2) nurturing
(3) appeasing
(4) cajoling
(5) mastering
34.
(1) additions
(2) gadgets
(3) modifications
(4) variety
(5) invention
35.
(1) immediately
(2) precisely
(3) irreversibly
(4) indefinitely
(5) measurably
36.
(1) designed
(2) produced
(3) manufactured
(4) sold
(5) purchased
37.
(1) inspire
(2) cultivate
(3) visualise
(4) drive
(5) curtail

38.
(1) uses
(2) demands
(3) advertisements
(4) consumption
(5) goods
39.
(1) visible
(2) secure
(3) fundamental
(4) overt
(5) flexible
40.
(1) view
(3) vogue
(5) order
(2) wings
(4) isolation
Subject: General Awareness

1. Which of the following is not correct regarding the JICA President Award?
(1) It is given to an individual

(2) It is given to an organization
(3) It is given for making contributions in the field of development
(4) The ‘J’ in JICA denotes Jordan
(5) Delhi Metro is the recipient of the 2012 Award
2. Who among the following was never the Governor of Reserve Bank of India?
(1) Osborne Smith

(2) James Braid Taylor
(3) Montek Singh Ahluwalia

(4) C.D. Deshmukh

(5) D. Subbarao
3. Which one of the following is correct regarding the Note Issuing Authority of the Reserve Bank of
India?
(1) Apart from the government it has the authority / monopoly to issue currency notes other than
one rupee notes/ coins
(2) One rupee notes/coins and coins of smaller denominations are put into circulation by the Central
government
(3) At present the RBI issues notes in seven denominations
(4) The functions of note issue and currency management is discharged by the RBI through its head
office in Mumbai
(5) None of these
4. Which of the following Is not correct regarding the National Integration Day?
(1) It aims to bring unity, peace, and spreading of love and brotherhood among fellow Indians
(2) It is also celebrated as Quami Ekata Divas
(3) It is celebrated in remembrance of Indira Gandhi
(4) It is celebrated on October 31
(5) National Integration Day celebration ends with Children’s Day
5. In banking, a Pay in Slip-
(1) Means a slip through which a person can deposit money in his account
(2) Means a slip through which a person can issue cheque from his account
(3) Is also called a withdrawal slip
(4) Must essentially contain IFSC Code
(5) None of these
6. The Reserve Bank of India reduced which of the following rates by 25 basis points in October 2012?
(1) Repo rate

(2) Cash Reserve Ratio
(3) Statutory Liquidity Ratio and Repo Rate
(4) Repo Rate and Cash Reserve Ratio
(5) None of these
7. Who among the following has authored the book, titled “Saga of Struggle and Sacrifice”?

(1) Manmohan Singh

(2) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(3) Hamid Ansari
(4) Pranab Mukherjee
(5) Amartya Sen
8. Prime Minister Manmohan Singh effected a reshuffle of his council of ministers in October 2012.
Which of the following pairs is not correct with regard to the new Union Cabinet Ministers?
(1) Manmohan Singh: Planning

(2) Salman Khurshid: External Affairs
(3) Kapil Sibal: Communications
(4) Anand Sharma: Information Technology
(5) Ajay Maken: Housing
9. A unique function of the bank is to create credit. Which of the following factors do not determine
the credit creation power of banks?
(1) Amount of Cash Reserve in the Country

(2) Cash Reserve Ratio
(3) Special Drawing Rights
(4) Monetary Policy of the Central Bank
(5) Willingness of Customers to Borrow
10. For which of the following debt instruments, not having a fixed rate of interest over the life of the
instrument, can Floating Interest Rate’ be applied?
(1) Aloan
(2) A bond
(3) A mortgage
(4) A credit
(5) All of these
11. Which of the following is not correct regarding SMS Banking?
(1) It is operated through Pull messages

(2) One-Time password (OTP) is a type of pull message
(3) Most SMS banking solutions are add-on products
(4) The lack of encryption on SMS messages is an area of concern
(5) None of these

12. In banking, Mobile Banking refers to the performance of which of the following services through
a mobile device?
(1) Balance checks

(2) Account transactions
(3) Payments
(4) Credit applications
(5) All of these
13. Which among the following subsidiaries of the State Bank of India, which were nationalized in
1960, has now been merged with SBI?
(1) State Bank of Bikaner and Jaipur

(2) State Bank of Hyderabad
(3) State Bank of Patiala
(4) State Bank of Saurashtra
(5) State Bank of Travancore
14. The Goods and Services Tax (GST) is to be implemented in India. Which of the following taxes will
not be replaced by It?
(1) Excise duty

(2) Service tax on the Centre’s front
(3) Value Added Tax (VAT) at states end
(4) Cesses, surcharges and local levies
(5) Wealth Tax
15. Service Tax act/Rules in India has provided exemption to small scale service providers from
service tax up to aggregate value of taxable’ services provided up to ‘how much in a Financial Year?
(1) Rs. 1 lakh

(2) Rs. 2.5 lakhs
(3) Rs. 5 lakhs
(4) Rs. 10lakhs
(5) None of these
16. Which of the following does not aptly describe Demat Account in India?
(1) It refers to a dematerialized account for individual Indian citizens to trade In listed stocks or
debentures in paper form

(2) It is required for investors by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
(3) In a Demat account, shares and securities are held electronically
(4) This account is opened by the Investor while registering with an investment broker (or sub-
broker)
(5) Access to the Demat account requires an internet password and a transaction password
17. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has introduced a new type of Demat Account
called “Basic Services De-mat Account (BSDA). Which of the following is one of its features?
(1) Individuals are eligible to have multiple BSDA account across all depositories
(2) Investors will receive transaction statement on annual base
(3) Investors can avail at least two delivery instruction slip during account opening
(4) Investors can avail SMS alert facility for credit transactions
(5) If investors account have zero balance and no transactions during the year then will receive no
annual statement
18. Which of the following is not one of the major charges usually levied on a Demat account?
(1) Account opening fee

(2) Annual maintenance fee
(3) Annual fee for spot conversions of one currency into another·
(4) Custodian fee
(5) Transaction fee
19. Who among the following has authored the famous novel titled ‘Joseph Anton’?
(1) Jeet Thayil

(2) Salman Rushdie
(3) Shobha De
(4) V.S. Nalpaul
(5) Chetan Bhagat
20. Which of the following are the essential facilities/benefits provided by a Demat account to an
individual to trade the securities in the stock market?
(1) It reduces brokerage charges

(2) It makes pledging/hypothecation of shares easier
(3) It enables quick ownership of securities on settlement reo sulting in increased liquidity
(4) It avoids confusion in the ownership title of securities
(5) All of these

21. Which one of the following can be described as a secondary function of commercial banks in
India?
(1) Overdraft facilities

(2) Discounting Bills of Exchange
(3) Money at Call
(4) Purchase and Sale of Securities
(5) Remittance of Funds
22. The balance sheet of a bank comprises of two sides; the assets side and the liabilities side. Which
one of the following items comes under the side of ‘Assets’?
(1) Subscribed capital

(2) Acceptance and endorsements
(3) Money at call and short notice
(4) Bills for collection
(5) Paid-up Capital
23. In the reshuffle of Union Council of Ministers, undertaken by Prime Manmohan Singh in October
2012, who among the following is a Cabinet Minister (excluding Ministers of State and Ministers of
Stare with Independent Charge)?
(1) Pawan Kumar Bansal

(2) Shashi Tharoor
(3) Jyotiraditya Madhavrao Scindia
(4) Sachin Pilot
(5) Chiranjeevi
24. The first ever India Biodiversity Awards were presented in October 2012. In which of the
following categories were these awards not given?
(1) Community Stewardship

(2) Decentralized Governance
(3) Environmental sensitization
(4) Co-management
(5) Protected Area
25. Which of the following Central Armed Police Forces of India has recently celebrated its golden
jubilee?

(1) Sash astra Seema Bal (SSB)

(2) Border Security Force (BSF)
(3) Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF)
(4) Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP)
(5) Central Industrial Security Force (CISF)
26. Which of the following is not correct regarding ‘cheque’ in banking?
(1) It is a type of bill of exchange

(2) It is a non-negotiable instrument
(3) There are four main items on a cheque
(4) Parties to regular cheques generally include a drawer and a payee
(5) Cheques have been in decline for some years both for point of sale transactions and for third
party payments
27. Which of the following does not aptly describe a Demand Draft in India?
(1) It is a type of cheque

(2) It is an Account payee instrument
(3) In case of Demand drafts, the drawer is a bank
(4) The principle of Cheque Clearing does not apply to it
(5) None of these
28. India has taken a pledge towards strengthening the institutional mechanism for biodiversity
conservation in the country with a sum of $ 10 million announced by Prime Minister Manmohan
Singh in this regard. The name of this pledge is
(1) Rio Pledge

(2) Doha Pledge
(3) Hyderabad Pledge
(4) Delhi Pledge
(5) Kyoto Pledge
29. Which of the following is not a technique/tool/Instrument of money/credit control by the Reserve
Bank of India?
(1) Open Market Operations

(2) Bank Rate
(3) Liquidity Adjustment Facility

(4) Refinance
(5) Monopoly to issue currency notes
30. Which of the following is a type of indirect security?
(1) Mutual Funds

(2) Ordinary Shares
(3) Debentures
(4) Preference shares
(5) Innovative Debt Instruments
31. Europe recently produced the greatest comeback in Ryder Cup to retain the trophy. With which
sports is the Ryder Cup associated?
(1) Golf
(2) Tennis
(3) Baseball
(4) Basketball
(5) Ice Hockey
32. The Cheque was first introduced in India by which of the following banks?
(1) Bank of Hindustan

(2) State Bank of India
(3) Bank of India
(4) Punjab National Bank
(5) None of these
33. United Nations secretary general Ban Ki-Moon has announced that every year 10 November will
be celebrated as
(1) Malala Day

(2) Earth Day
(3) Development Day
(4) Wilmut Day
(5) Jobs Day
34. Which of the following is a quantitative credit control policy of the Reserve Bank of India?

(1) Margin requirements

(2) Moral suasion
(3) Bank rate
(4) RBI guidelines
(5) Direct action
35. What is the term for inflation when the general price level increases at the rate of about 5-6 per
cent per annum?
(1) Creeping inflation

(2) Walking inflation
(3) Running inflation
(4) Hyper inflation
(5) Galloping inflation
36. Which of the following cannot be termed as ‘non-traditional’ functions of a commercial bank in
India?
(1) ATM facility

(2) Issuing credit cards
(3) Venture capital financing
(4) Creating deposits
(5) None of these
37. Who among the following is a Deputy Governor of the Reserve Bank of India?
(1) Abhijit Sen

(2) Mihir Shah
(3) K Kasturirangan
(4) H.R. Khan
(5) Arun Mall-a
38. Which Union Budget first announced the introduction of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) from
April 1, 2010?
(1) Budget 2002-03

(2) Budget 2005-07
(3) Budget 2007 -08

(4) Budget 2009- 10

(5) None of these
39. The National Capital Region (NCR) in India is a name for the conurbation or metropolitan area
which encompasses the entire Delhi as well as urban areas around it in neighbouring states. Which
of the following is not that neighbouring state?
(1) Punjab
(2) Rajasthan
(3) Uttarakhand
(4) Uttar Pradesh
(5) None of these
40. Which one of the following banks was nationalized in the second wave of nationalization in 1980?
(1) Central Bank of India

(2) Bank of India
(3) Syndicate Bank
(4) Corporation Bank
(5) Bank of Maharashtra
Subject: Numerical Ability
1. In an urn there are 4 red balls and 3 blue balls. If two balls are drawn at random, find the
probability that none is red.
2. On annual day of a school some chocolates were to be distributed equally among 420 children. But
on that particular day, due to some reason 140 more children of another school joined them: hence
each child got 1 chocolate less. How many chocolates were originally supposed to be distributed
among the children?
(1) 1640
(2) 1680
(3) 1690

(4) 1600
(5) None of these
3. Raj Kumar got the result of his 8th class. Each subject consists of a maximum of 140 marks. If he
scores 98 marks in science; 129 marks in Sanskrit; 131 marks in Maths, 110 marks in English and 120
marks in Hindi, what was his percentage of marks in all the five subject?
(1) 84%
(2) 82%
(3) 77%
(4) 79%
(5) None of these
4. If Suresh sells an article at a price of Rs. 9300, he incurs a loss of Rs. 3100. At what price should he
sell the article so that he gets a profit of 25%?
(1) Rs. 7250

(2) Rs. 7350
(3) Rs. 7650
(4) Rs. 7750
(5) None of these
5. There is a circular ground whose area is 246400 sq. metre. If a person runs at the speed of 14.08
m/sec, then how much time will he take to complete the circle?
(1) 125 sec.

(2) 130 sec.
(3) 100 sec.
(4) 120 sec.
(5) None of these
Directions (6-10): What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following
number series?
6. 2 4 16 96 768 ? 92160
(1) 7680
(2) 7580
(3) 7608
(4) 7090
(5) 7860

7. 14 36 ? 300 897 2676 8022
(1) 101
(2) 102
(3) 103
(4) 104
(5) None of these
8. 5 8 13 20 ? 44 61
(1) 29
(2) 30
(3) 31
(4) 32
(5) 37
9. 11 16 31 56 91 136 ?
(1) 171
(2) 181
(3) 185
(4) 191
(5) 197
10. 3 4 12 45 196 ?
(1) 985
(2) 990
(3) 995
(4) 1000
(5) 1005
11. The simple interest accrued in 2 years on a principal of Rs. 24000 is one-eighth of the principal.
What is the rate of simple interest p.c.p.a. ?
(1) 5
(2) 4.5
(3) 6.25
(4) 7.25
(5) None of these

12. If a person runs 14.35 km in five weeks, then what distance does he travel everyday?
(1) 400 m
(2) 410 m
(3) 405 m
(4) 415 m
(5) None of these
13. If a train 280 metre long runs at the speed of 7.4 m/ second how much time will it take to cross a
platform 460 metre long?
(1) 95 sec.
(2) 96 sec.
(3) 98 sec.
(4) 99 sec.
(5) 100 sec.
14. If a trader sells his stock of oranges at Rs. 18270, he gains 45 per cent. What is the cost price of
total stock of oranges?
(1) Rs. 12600

(2) Rs. 13600
(3) Rs. 12650.
(4) Rs. 13650
(5) None of these
15. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 20% and its denominator by 25%. then the fraction
so obtained is . What is the original fraction ?
Directions (16-24): What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following
questions?
16.

17. 97. 4 ×566 ÷ 5 + 24.2 - 36 = (?)2
(1) 20
(2) 21
(3) 22
(4) 23
(5) 25
18. 5252 + 2525 = ? × 25
(1) 310.8
(2) 311.8
(3) 311.08
(4) 312.8
(5) 312.08
19. 8 × ? = 4888 ÷ 4
(1) 150.75
(2) 125.75
(3) 125.05
(4) l52.75
(5) None of these
20. 39254 + 5217 - 2286 =? × 50
(1) 813.7
(2) 843.7
(3) 834.7
(4) 943.77
(5) None of these

21. (62.5 × 14 × 5) ÷ 25 + 41 = (?)3
(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 9
(4) 8
(5) 6
22. (23 × 23 × 23 × 23 × 23 × 23)5 × (23 × 23)2 ÷ (23)2 = (23)?
(1) 32
(2) 30
(3) 9
(4) 7
(5) 11
23. 27% of 510 = 266.3
(1) 182.6
(2) 122.6
(3) 123.6
(4) 128.6
(5) None of these
24.
25. 5/8 of 4/9 of 3/5 of 222 = ?
(1) 42
(2) 43
(3) 39
(4) 37
(5) None of these

26. A car covers a distance from town A to town B at the speed of 58 kmph and covers the distance
from town B to town A at the speed of 52 kmph What is the approximate average speed of the car?
(1) 55 kmph
(2) 52 kmph
(3) 48 kmph
(4) 50kmph
(5) 60kmph
27. Mr. Phanse invests an amount of Rs. 24,200 at the rate of 4 p.c.p.a. for 6 years to obtain a simple
interest. Later he invests the principal amount as well as the amount obtained as simple interest for
another 4 years at the same rate of interest. What amount of simple interest will he obtain at the end
of the last 4 years?
(1) Rs. 4,800

(2) Rs. 4,850.32
(3) Rs. 4,801.28
(4) Rs. 4,700
(5) None of these
28. In a sale perfumes are available at a discount of 25% on the selling price. If a perfume costs Rs.
5.895 in the sale what is the selling price of the perfume?
(1) Rs. 6.020

(2) Rs. 7.860
(3) Rs. 7,680
(5) None of these
29. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following
question’?
(1) 294
(2) 276
(3) 265
(4) 300
(5) 288

30. The cost of 15 digital cameras and 21 handy cameras is Rs. 3.54.900. What is the cost of 5 digital
cameras and 7 handy cameras?
(1) Rs. 1.25.500

(2) Rs. 1.18.300
(3) Rs. 2.15.100
(5) None of these
31. A canteen requires 56 kgs. of rice for seven days. How many kgs. of rice will It require for the
months of April and May together?
(1) 496
(2) 480
(3) 498
(4) 488
(5) None of these
32. How much part of a day is 45 minutes?
33. The total number of students in a school is 31700. If the ratio 01 boys to the girls in the school is
743:842 respectively, what is the total number of girls in the school?
(1) 14860
(2) 16480
(3) 15340
(5) None of these
34. The sum of five consecutive even numbers A, B, C, D and E is 130. What is the product of A and E?

(1) 720
(2) 616
(3) 660
(4) 672
(5) None of these
35. If the square of a number is subtracted from 4052 and the difference is multiplied by 15, the
answer so obtained is 41340. What is the number?
(1) 36
(2) 1024
(3) 32
(4) 1296
(5) None of these
36. 20% of the total cost of a plot with an area of 395 sq.ft. is Rs. 78,210. What is the rate of per sq. ft.
of the plot?
(1) Rs. 1,020/-

(2) Rs. 999/-
(3) Rs. 1,000/-
(4) Rs. 995/-
(5) None of these
37. The owner of a furniture shop charges his customers 15% more than the cost price. If a customer
paid Rs. 9,039/- for a sofa set, then what is the cost price of the sofa set?
(1) Rs. 7,680/-

(2) Rs.7.860/-
(3) Rs. 7.880/-
(4) Rs. 7,660/-
(5) None of these
38. Each child from a certain school can make 5 items of handicraft in a day. If 1125 handicraft items
are to be displayed in an exhibition then in how many days can 25 children make these items?
(1) 6 days
(2) 9 days
(3) 8 days

(4) 7 days
(5) None of these
39. The product of two successive positive integers is 462. Which is the smaller integer?
(1) 20
(2) 22
(3) 21
(4) 23
(5) None of these
40. While withdrawing an amount of Rs. 49.350/- a customer by mistake collects Rs. 48.150/-. The
remaining amount is deposited back to his account by the bank, which shows the balance of Rs.
25.376/-. What will be the customer’s balance after depositing the remaining amount?
(1) Rs. 26,576/-

(2) Rs. 26,676/-
(3) Rs. 26,586/-
(4) Rs. 26,686/-
(5) None of these
Subject: Computer Knowledge

1. The system unit—
(1) coordinates input and output devices

(2) is the container that houses electronic components
(3) is a combination of hardware and software
(4) controls and manipulates data
(5) does the arithmetic operations
2. In Word you can force a page break —
(1) By positioning your cursor at the appropriate place and pressing the F1 key
(2) By positioning your cursor at the appropriate place and pressing Ctrl + Enter
(3) By using the Insert/Section Break
(4) By changing the font size of your document
(5) None of these
3. The basic unit of a worksheet into which your enter data in Excel is called a _____

(1) tab
(2) cell
(3) box
(4) range
(5) None of these
4. To reload a Web page, press the _____ button.
(1) Redo
(2) Reload
(3) Restore
(4) Ctrl
(5) Refresh
5. Which of the following is a programming language for creating special programs like applets?
(1) Java
(2) Cable
(3) Domain name
(4) Net
(5) COBOL
6. Which part of the computer is directly involved in executing the instructions of the computer
program?
(1) The scanner

(2) The main storage
(3) The secondary storage
(4) The printer
(5) The Processor
7. In order to create column data in Word you need to
(1) Tab consecutively until your cursor reaches the desired place
(2) Set tabs or user the Table menu
(3) You need to use Excel
(4) Press the space bar until your cursor reaches the desired place
(5) None of these
8. When the computer is switched on. the booting process performs the

(1) integrity Test

(2) Power-On Self-Test
(3) Correct Functioning Test
(4) Reliability Test
(5) Shut-down
9. Press the __ key to move the insertion point to the first cell in a row in Excel.
(1) Page Up
(2) Page Down
(3) Home
(4) Tab
(5) None of these
10. How many margins are on a page?
(1) Two (header and footer)

(2) Four (top, bottom. right, left)
(3) Two (landscape and portrait)
(4) Two (top and bottom)
(5) None of these
11. Language used in a computer that is similar to the languages of humans and is easy to understand
is referred to as
(1) Source Code

(2) Machine Language
(3) High Level Language
(4) Object Code
(5) Assembly Language
12. Which of the following should be used to move a paragraph from one place to another in a Word
document?
(1) Copy and Paste

(2) Cut and Paste
(3) Delete and Retype
(4) Find and Replace
(5) None of these

13. Excel documents are stored as files called ________
(1) workforce
(2) worksheets
(3) worktables
(4) workgroups
(5) workbooks
14. A computer programmer—
(1) does all the thinking for a computer

(2) can enter input data quickly
(3) can operate all types of computer equipments
(4) can draw only flowchart
(5) is not a useful person
15. A cookie ______
(1) stores information about the user’s web activity

(2) stores software developed by the user
(3) stores the password of the user
(4) stores the commands used by the user
(5) None of these
16. Which of the following is not true about an assembler?
(1) Trartslates Instructions of assembly language into machine language

(2) It does not translate a C program
(3) It is involved in program’s execution
(4) Is a translating program
(5) ‘It does not translate a BASIC program
17. A web site is a collection of ______
(1) graphics
(2) programs
(3) algorithms
(4) web pages
(5) charts

18. Which contents are lost when the computer turns off?
(1) storage
(2) input
(3) output
(4) memory
(5) None of these
19. Which of the following is hardware and not software?
(1) Excel
(2) Printer driver
(3) Operating System
(4) Power Point
(5) CPU
20. To be able to “boot”, the computer must have a(n)
(1) Compiler
(2) Loader
(3) Operating System
(4) Assembler
(5) None of these
21. In Excel this is a prerecorded formula that provides a shortcut for complex calculations -
(1) Value
(2) Data Series
(3) Function
(4) Field
(5) None of these
22. In word, replace option is available on-
(1) File Menu

(2) View Menu
(3) Edit Menu
(4) Format Menu
(5) None of these

23. A word gets selected by clicking it to select a word in Word—
(1) once
(2) twice
(3) three times
(4) four times
(5) None of these
24. The process of trading goods over the Internet is known as —
(1) e-selling-n-buying
(2) e- trading
(3) e-finance
(4) e-salesmanship
(5) e-commerce
25. In word, when you indent a paragraph, you-
(1) push the text in with respect to the margin

(2) change the margins on the page
(3) move the text up by one line
(4) move the text down by one line
(5) None of these
26. The operation of combining two cells into a single cell in Excel is referred to as
(1) Join Cells

(2) Merge Cells
(3) Merge Table
(4) Join Table
(5) None of these
27. What do you see when you click the right mouse button?
(1) The same effect as the left click

(2) A special menu
(3) No effect
(4) A mouse cannot be right clicked
(5) Computer goes to sleep mode

28. In order to delete a sentence from a document you would use __
(1) highlight and copy

(2) cut and paste
(3) copy and paste
(4) highlight and delete
(5) select and paste
29. When machine instructions are being executed by a computer the instruction phase followed by
the execution phase is referred to as __
(1) program cycle

(2) machine instruction
(3) execution cycle
(4) task cycle
(5) machine cycle
30. Which of the following refers to the process of a computer receiving information from a server on
the Internet?
(1) gathering
(2) uploading
(3) inputting
(4) outputting
(5) downloading
31. Which of the following is not a storage medium?
(1) hard disk

(2) flash drive
(3) DVD
(4) CD
(5) monitor
32. _______ is the part of the computer that does the arithmetical calculations.
(1) OS
(2) ALU
(3) CPU

(4) Memory
(5) Printer
33. User can use ______ commands to search for and correct words in a document.
(1) Print and Print Preview

(2) Header and Footer
(3) Find and Replace
(4) Spelling and Grammar
(5) Copy and Paste
34. Which of the following will be used if a sender of e-mail wants to bold, italics etc. the text
message?
(1) Reach Signature

(2) Reach Text
(3) Reach Format
(4) Plain Format
(5) Plain Text
35. Which of the following justification align the text on both the sides-left and right -of margin?
(1) Right
(2) Justify
(3) both Sides
(4) Balanced
(5) None of these
36. Which of the following characteristics is used to compute dynamically the results from Excel
data?
(1) Goto
(2) Table
(3) Chart
(4) Diagram
(5) Formula and Function
37. What is included in an e-mail address?

(1) Domain Name followed by User’s Name

(2) User’s Name followed by Domain Name
(3) User’s Name followed by Postal address
(4) User’s Name followed by street address
(5) None of these
38. The other name of motherboard is
(1) Mouse
(2) Computer Board
(3) System Device
(4) Central Board
(5) System Board
39. In Power Point the Header & Footer button can be found on the Insert tab in what group?
(1) Illustrations group

(2) Object group
(3) Text group
(4) Tables group
(5) None of these
40. What does CO stands in COBOL
(1) Common Object

(2) Common
(3) Common Operating
(4) Computer Oriented
(5) None of these

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IBPS Clerk Question paper 16-12-2012

Subject: Reasoning Ability

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11. What is the position or P with respect to Q ?

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(1) Fourth to the left

12. Who amongst the following is sitting to the right of J?

13. Who amongst the following sits exactly between K and J ?

14. Who amongst the following sits fourth to the left of M ?

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16. Who lives on the ground floor?

17. Where does A live?

18. Who lives immediately above D’s floor?

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Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II follows.

All buses are cars.

Some chapters are units.

All spoons are bowls.

Some gates are doors.

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25. Statement: R I < G H >T

26. Statement: T = A K > E = S

27. Statement: P < O = I N > T

28. Statement: D > E L > A Y

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29. Who among the following is the tallest in the group?

30. Who among the following is taller than T?

31. What is the total number of students in Course ‘A’ in College ‘X ?

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I. The respective ratio of girls and boys is 2 : 3.

33. Which direction is Ajay facing at the moment?

34. How is M related to H?

I. H is the daughter of P and sister of K.

35. How is ‘healthy’ coded in the language?

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(1) Government cannot withdraw subsidies provided to various items.

Subject: English Language

(1) have the force to

2. He wanted nothing else expecting to sleep after a stressful day at work.

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(1) nothing better than

(1) having an appointment

(1) think they are always

(1) usual problems as

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7. His __ background has made him so docile.

8. It is __ for everyone to abide by the laws of the land.

9. he is a hard worker, his quality of work is not of a desirable level.

10. In spite of repeated instructions, he __ the some mistakes.

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13. What is the author’s suggestion to provide aid to farmers?

15. What are the terms of the loan waiver?

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16. What is the author’s view of the loan waiver?