NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set-XV B (2079 –4 –14)

MECEE BL
Model Entrance Exam 2079
Day Shift
(Set-XV B)

Date: Shrawan 14th, 2079 (Saturday) Duration – 3 hrs

Venue: NAME Time – 12:00 PM

INSTRUCTIONS
There are 200 multiple-choice questions, each having four choices of which only one
. choice is correct.
Fill ( ) the most appropriate one.

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NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set-XV B (2079 –4 –14)

1. Pink eye is
a) Presbyopia b) Conjunctivitis c) Astigmatism d) Myopia
2. Exophthalmos is seen in
a) Graves disease b) Hashimoto disease c) Cretinism d) Myxoedema
3. Calcitonin hormone is secreted by ...
a) Follicular cell b) Parafollicular cell c) oxyntic cell d) Chief cell
4. Which of following is sensory nerve?
a) VI. b) II. c) IX. d) XII
5. Vasomotor center is present in ........
a) Spinal cord b) Medulla oblongata c) Mid brain d) Cerebellum
6. Number of lobes in Right and left lung in human.
a) 2 and 2 b) 2 and 5 c) 2 and 3 d) 3 and 2
7. Normal GFR per day is .........
a) 125 ml/day b) 125 L/day c) 180 ml/day d) 180 L/day
8. Cowper gland (Bulbourethral gland) in male is homologous to .......
a) Bartholin gland b) Clitoris
c) Ovaries d) Paraurethral gland
9. Kidney received ...... Percentage of Cardiac output.
a) 5 b) 10 c) 15 d) 25
10. Phagocytic cell of skin is ......
a) Microglial cell b) Langerhans cell c) Dentritic cell d) Kupffer cell
11. Anti Tobacco day is celebrated on .......
a) 31st May b) 31st Dec. c) 13 November d) 13 March
12. Which disease is known as Koch disease?
a) TB b) Leprosy c) HIV/AIDS d) Ascariasis
13. Carditis is inflammation of .......
a) Kidney b) Heart c) Liver d) Spleen
14. Drug used in treatment of Ascariasis.
a) mebendazole b) Lamivudin c) Rifampicin d) Isoniazid
15. Lining of parietal layer of Bowmans capsule .....
a) Simple squamous epi. b) Ciliated columnar
c) columar d) Cuboidal
16. Longest cell of human body
a) Hepatocyte b) Oligodendrocytes c) Ependymal cell d) Neuron
17. Smallest bone of human body
a) Stapes b) Tibia c) Humerus d) Sternum
18. Hemoglobin is higher in person who live in ......................
a) Bara b) Jhapa c) Kathmandu d) Solukhumbu
19. Which of following is lung fluke?
a) Fasciola hepatica b) Taenia solium
c) Schistosoma d) Paragonimus westermani

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NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set-XV B (2079 –4 –14)

20. The most common cause of iron deficiency anemia in Nepal is cause by
a) Ascaris b) Ancylostoma c) Wuchereria d) Loa Loa
21. Metameric segmentation is the characteristic of
a) Mollusca and chordata b) Platyhelminthes and arthropoda
c) Echinodermata and annelida d) Annelida and arthropoda
22. In case of Poriferans, the paragastric cavity is lined with flagellated cells called
a) Oscula b) Choanocytes c) Mesenchymal cells d) Myocytes
23. Choose the correct statement.
a) All mammals are viviparous
b) All cyclostomes do not possess jaws and paired fins
c) All reptiles have a three chambered heart
d) All pisces have gills covered by an operculum
24. Which of the following characteristics is mainly responsible for diversification of
insects on land?
a) Exoskeleton b) Eyes
c) Segmentation d) Bilateral symmetry
25. Which one of the following statements is totally wrong about the occurrence of
notochord, while the other three are correct?
a) It is present only in larval tail in ascidian
b) It is replaced by a vertebral column in adult frog
c) It is absent throughout the life in humans from the very beginning
d) It is present throughout life in Amphioxus
26. The nephridia in earthworm are analogous to
a) Nematoblasts of Hydra b) flame cells of Planaria
c) gills of prawn d) Trachea of insects
27. Compared to those of humans, the erythrocytes in frog are
a) without nucleus but with haemoglobin b) nucleated and with haemoglobin
c) very much smaller and fewer d) nucleated and without haemoglobin
28. Which is common between the septal nephridia of earthworm and malphighian
tubules of cockroach?
a) Both excrete the nirtogenous wastes in the form of urea
b) Both discharge their contents to the outside of the body through the alimentary canal
c) Both are segmentally arranged in the body
d) Both have their free ends opening into nephridiopores
29. Which of the following is not correct of an adaptive character of volant adaptation of
birds?
a) High proportion of haemoglobin in RBCs b) Caudal vertebrae with pygostyle
c) Cerebellum is well developed d) Cerebrum is well developed
30. A median aperture (unpaired) on the body of earthworm is
a) Nephridiopore b) Spermathecal pore c) Female genital pore d) Male genital pore
31. In frog, the vein that carries blood from tongue is termed
a) lingual b) azygous
c) cutaneous d) anterior abdominal
32. Which one is correctly match to its adaptive features?
a) Cursorial-muscles of hind limbs are highly developed
b) Scansorial-integument without hair and oil glands
c) Fossorial-claws and adhesive pads
d) Secondary aquatic adaptation-lateral line sense organ

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NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set-XV B (2079 –4 –14)

33. The first cell like structures (eobionts) appeared in:

a) Air b) Water c) Ocean d) Soil
34. Which one of the following in birds, includes their reptilian ancestry?
a) Two special chambers crop and gizzard in their digestive tract
b) Eggs with a calcareous shell
c) Scales on their hind limbs
d) Four chambered heart
35. In the life cycle of Plasmodium vivax, the microgametocyte undergoes exflagellation in
the
a) stomach of the FAM b) Erythrocytes of man
c) blood plasma of man d) liver cells of man
36. Schuffnar's dots occur at which of the following developmental stage of Plasmodium?
a) Schizont b) Gametocyte c) Sporozoite d) Merozoite
37. From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced amino acids by mixing the following in a
closed flask.
a) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapour at 800ºC
b) CH3, H2, NH4 and water vapour at 800ºC
c) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapour at 600ºC
d) CH3, H2, NH3 and water vapour at 600ºC
38. Industrial melanism is an example of
a) mutation b) Neo-Lamarckism c) Neo-Darwinism d) natural selection
39. Which of the following is closet relative of man?
a) Chimpanzee b) Gorilla c) Orang-utan d) Gibbon
40. The animals with bilateral symmetry in young stage and radial pentamerous
symmetry in the adult stage, belong to the phylum
a) Annelida b) Mollusca c) Cnidaria d) Echinodermata
41. Study of agricultural plants is
a) Agronomy b) Agrostology c) Pomology d) Ethnology
42. The term ‘Virus’ was given by
a) Linnaeus b) Ehrenberg c) Leeuwenhoek d) Louis Pasteur
43. First phototroph on earth was
a) virus b) bacteria c) cyanobacteria d) mycoplasm
44. Bacterial capsule is made from
a) chitin b) cellulose c) peptidoglycan d) polysaccharide
45. Seaweeds are main source of
a) Iodine b) Sulphur c) Phosphorus d) Calcium
46. Dominant gametophyte with reduced sporophyte is present in
a) Algae b) Fungi c) Bryophyta d) Hydrilla
47. Female gametes of Marchantia are
a) multiciliate b) aflagellate c) uniflagellate d) uniflagellate
48. Heterospory habit is present in
a) Selaginella b) Funaria c) Dryopteris d) Marchantia

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NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set-XV B (2079 –4 –14)

49. Monosporangiate cones are found in

a) moss b) ferns c) Pinus d) angiosperms
50. Lianas are
a) climbers b) herbaceous climber
c) stem climber d) woody climber
51. Multiseeded fleshy fruits are
a) hesperidium b) berry c) achene d) regma
52. Organism prefer to grow in non-living habitat is
a) oligotrophic b) eutrophic c) saprotrophic d) parasitic
53. Rafflesia is
a) a semi-parasite b) a total parasite c) an epiphyte d) a saprophyte
54. Smallest national park of Nepal is
a) Makalu Barun national park b) Chitwan national park
c) Sagarmatha national park d) Rara national park
55. Biomass is
a) biological production of ecosystem b) remnant of biological production
c) standing density d) fresh dry mass of organism
56. Siderosis is pollution induced effect due to
a) soil pollution b) water pollution c) land pollution d) air pollution
57. Innermost layer of cell wall near to cell membrane is
a) middle lamella b) tertiary wall c) primary wall d) secondary wall
58. Meiosis I is
a) somatic division b) equational division
c) germinal division d) heterotypic division
59. Semiautonomous organelle is
a) ribosome b) endoplasmic reticulum
c) nucleus d) mitochondria
60. Post mitotic phase is
a) M phase b) G2 phase c) S phase d) G1 phase
61. What happen when colour blind girl and boy becomes parent?
a) All sons will be colour blind
b) All daughters will be colour blind
c) Sons will be colour blind and daughter will be normal
d) All offspring will be colour blind
62. Among them which chromosome does not bear Mendalian character?
a) 4 b) 5 c) 2 d) 1
63. The codon of Tryptophan is
a) AUG b) GUG c) UAG d) UGG
64. Frame shift mutation is a type of
a) polyploidy b) genomic mutation
c) chromosomal mutation d) gene mutation
65. Raphanobrassica is an example of
a) polyploid b) aneuploid c) autopolyploid d) allopolyploid

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NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set-XV B (2079 –4 –14)

66. Edible part of sweet potato is

a) corm b) rhizome c) stolon d) root
67. The transplantation of organs from one part to another in a body is
a) xenograft b) autograft c) isograft d) heterograft
68. All are trisomy except
a) Down's syndrome b) Patau syndrome
c) Turner syndrome d) Klinefelter syndrome
69. Bidirectional flow of minerals occurs through
a) xylem b) cortex c) phloem d) endodermis
70. A marine organism bursts if kept in fresh water because of
a) exosmosis b) endosmosis c) inhibition d) plasmolysis
71. Best spectrum for higher rate of photosynthesis is
a) red and blue b) blue and red
c) red and green d) green and yellow
72. Among them which is not a C4 plant?
a) maize b) rice c) sorghum d) wheat
73. The number of oxidations a Krebs cycle is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 4 d) 3
74. The common site of reaction for aerobic and anaerobic respiration is
a) matrix b) mitochondria
c) membrane of mitochondria d) cytoplasm
75. The movement of opening and closing of flower is
a) phototropism b) epinasty and hyponasty
c) thigmonastic d) chemotropism
76. White scented flowers are pollinated by
a) moth b) butterfly c) flies d) snake
77. Female gametophyte is
a) synergid b) embryo sac c) pollen grain d) microspore
78. Aseptic culture is essential in tissue culture to prevent
*a) growth of the microbes b) the unwanted cell growth
c) the infections d) growth of tissues
79. Colchicine is used to
a) initiate karyokinesis b) initiate cell division
c) induce trisomy d) induce polyploidy
80. Best agent of fermentation is
a) Agaricus b) Lichens c) Saccharomyces d) Asparagus
35 37
81. 17Cl and 17Cl are two isotopes of chlorine. If average atomic mass is 35.5 then the ratio
of these two isotopes is
a) 35 : 37 b) 37 : 35 c) 1 : 3 d) 3 : 1
82. Four 1 litre flasks are separately filled with gases O 3, O2, H2 and He at same
temperature and pressure then ratio of molecules would be
a) 2 : 1 : 2 : 3 b) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 c) 3 : 2 : 2 : 1 d) 1 : 3 : 1 : 3

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NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set-XV B (2079 –4 –14)

83. Carbon forms two oxides which have different compositions. The equivalent wt. of
which remains constant.
a) Both C and O2 b) C c) O2 d) Neither C nor O2
84. According to Bohr's theory, the angular momentum of electron in 3 rd orbit is
7h 5h 3h 3h
a) b) c) d)
2 2  2
85. Azimuthal quantum number was discovered by
a) Sommerfeld b) Bohr c) Lande d) Pauli
86. These is no S-S bond in
2– 2– 2– 2–
a) S2O 3 b) S2O 7 c) S2O 5 d) S2O 4
87. Oxidation number of C in CH2Cl2 is
a) 4 b) 3 c) 1 d) 0
88. Which is not a protonic acid?
a) PO(OH)3 b) SO(OH)2 c) B(OH)3 d) SO2(OH)2
89. Shape of nitrite ion will be
a) Linear b) V-shaped c) Triangular d) K-shaped
90. AgBr have
a) Frenkel defect b) Schottky defect c) both d) none
91. Decomposition of H2O2 is related by H3PO4 is
a) +ve catalysis b) –ve catalysis c) Auto catalysis d) Induced catalysis
92. In acidic medium, both KMnO4 and K2Cr2O7 acts as oxidizing agent. Correct about the
oxidizing behaviour is
a) KMnO4 > K2Cr2O7 b) KMnO4 < K2Cr2O7 c) KMnO4 = K2Cr2O7 d) none
93. In period, the strength of the oxy acids formed by non metals
a) es from left to right b) es from right to left
c) es from left to right d) none
94. Which of the following is true for the reaction H 2O (l) ⇌ H2O(g) at 100ºC and 1 atm.
pressure?
a) S = 0 b) H = E c) H = TS d) H = 0
95. Internal energy does not include
a) vibrational energy b) nuclear energy c) rotational energy d) none
96. Calculate standard emf of the cell
Cu(s)|Cu2+(aq)|| Ag+ (aq) | Ag(s)
E0 Cu2+ | Cu = + 0.34V, E0 Ag+|Ag = + 0.80V
a) – 0.46V b) + 0.46V c) + 1.14V d) – 1.14V
97. What is the order of reaction which has a rate expression? Rate = K{A]5/2 [B]–1/2
5
a) 2 b) 3 c) –2 d) 2

98. Units of mole fraction are

a) mol/L b) mol/L2 c0 mol.L d) none
99. Which one is not a complex?
a) K4Fe(CN)6 b) Cu(NH3)4SO4 c) LiAlH4 d) NaKCO3
100. Among following which one is best conductor of heat and electricity?
a) Al b) Cu c) Zn d) Au

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NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set-XV B (2079 –4 –14)

101. Which of the following is not efflorescent substance?

a) Hypo b) Glauber's salt c) Epsom salt d) Mohr's salt
102. The second electron affinity of oxygen is
a) Exothermic b) Endothermic
c) no energy change d) may be exo or endo
103. Electron is an alloy of
a) Mg (90%) + Zn(10%) b) Mg (70%) + Zn(30%)
c) Mg (95%) + Zn (5%) d) None
104. Milk of magnesia is used for
a) Antiseptic b) Analgesics c) Antacid d) Tranquilizer
105. XeO3, XeOF4, XeOF2 have lone pairs
a) 1, 1, 2 b) 1, 1, 1 c) 1, 2, 1 d) 2, 1, 1
106. In group separation, IIIB metal ions are precipitated as
a) Chloride b) Sulphide c) Hydroxide d) Carbonate
107. If conc. H2SO4 is used in place of dil. H2SO4 in the reaction:
Zn + dil. H2SO4 ⟶ ZnSO4 + H2 then
a) H2 evolved b) SO2 evolved c) SO3 evolved d) H2S evolved
108. The order of tendency for catenation power is
a) Si > Ge > Pb > C b) C > Si < Sn > Pb c) C > Si > Ge > Sn d) C < Si < Pb < Sn
109. Pb3O4 is a mixed oxide contains
a) PbO + PbO2 b) PbO + Pb2O3 c) PbO + 2PbO2 d) 2PbO + PbO2
110. Aqueous solution of Na2S2O3 on reaction with Cl2 gives
a) NaHSO4 b) NaCl c) NaOH d) Na2S4O6
111. Which one is most soluble in water?
a) Sr(OH)2 b) Ca(OH)2 c) Ba(OH)2 d) Mg(OH)2
112. Fusion mixture is
a) Na2CO3 + K2CO3 b) K2CO3 + NaHSO4
c) KHSO4 + NaH3O4 d) KHSO4 + Na2CO3
113. THF is
a) ester b) ether c) cyclic ester d) cyclic ether
114. Carbolic acid is
a) H2CO3 b) C2H5COOH c) C6H5OH d) CH3COOH
115. Anthracene have
a) 8 and 26 bond b) 8 and 24 bond c) 7 and 24 bond d) 7 and 26 bond
116. IUPAC name for Swastik sign is

a) neononane b) 2, 2-diethyl pentane

c) 3, 3-diethyl pentane d) tetra ethyl carbon
117. Which of the following do not show tautomerism?
a) CH3 – CH2 – NO2 b) (CH3)2CHNO2 c) (CH3)3CNO2 d) Ph – CH2 – NO2

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NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set-XV B (2079 –4 –14)

118. Chlorine is
a) O – P director with the deactivation of ring
b) O – P director with the activation of ring
c) both
d) Meta director
119. The catalyst used in Rosenmund's reduction is
a) HgSO4 b) Pd/ BaSO4
c) Anhydrous AlCl3 d) Anhydrous ZnCl2
120. Which of the following is used as medicine?
a) Methyl salicylate b) Terylene c) Urotropine d) a and b
121. Hydrolysis of sucrose is called
a) Saponification b) Hydration c) Inversion d) Esterification
122. The correct order of the ing basicity of methyl amine, ammonia and aniline is
a) Methyl amine < aniline < ammonia b) Aniline < ammonia < methyl amine
c) Ammonia < aniline < methyl amine d) Aniline < methyl amine < ammonia
123. Ethylene forms ethylene chlorohydrins by the action of
a) solution of chlorine gas in water b) dry chlorine gas
c) dil. HCl acid d) dry hydrogen chloride
124. A nucleophile must necessarily have
a) an over all +ve charge b) an unpaired electron
c) an over all –ve charge d) a lone pair of electrons
125. The formation of cyanohydrin from ketone is an example of
a) Nucleophilic addition b) Electrophilic addition
c) Nucleophilic substitution d) Electrophilic substitution
126. The reaction
CHO
AlCl3
+ CO + HCl

a) Rosenmund's reaction b) Stephen's reaction

c) Gattermann – Koch reaction d) Cannizzaro's reaction
127. Least soluble alcohol in water is
a) CH3OH b) C10H21OH c) C7H15OH d) C2H5OH
128. Which of the following amines can be prepared by Grabriel method?
(i) CH3CH2NH2 (ii) C6H5NH2 (iii) (CH3)3CNH2 (iv) (CH3)2CHNH2
a) (i) and (iv) b) (i) and (iii) c) (ii) and (iii) d) all
129. In steam distillation, the vapour pressure of volatile organic compound is
a) equal to atmospheric pressure b) less than atmospheric pressure
c) double than atmospheric pressure d) more than atmospheric pressure
130. First organic compound synthesized by its own element is
a) Urea b) Methane c) Acetic acid d) all
131. Planck's constant has the dimensions (unit) of
a) Energy b) Linear momentum
c) Work d) Angular momentum

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NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set-XV B (2079 –4 –14)

132. The distance between two particles is decreasing at the rate of 6 m/sec. If these
particles travel with same speeds and in the same direction, then the separation
increase at the rate of 4 m/sec. The particles have speeds as
a) 5 m/sec ; 1 m/sec b) 4 m/sec ; 1 m/sec
c) 4 m/sec ; 2 m/sec d) 5 m/sec ; 2 m/sec
133. n small balls each of mass m impinge elastically each second on a surface with velocity
u. The force experienced by the surface will be
a) mnu b) 2 mnu c) 4 mnu d) mnu2
134. When work is done on a body by an external force, its
a) Only kinetic energy increases
b) Only potential energy increases
c) Both kinetic and potential energies may increase
d) Sum of kinetic and potential energies remains constant
135. A light and a heavy body have equal momenta. Which one has greater K.E
a) The light body b) The heavy body
c) The K.E. are equal d) Data is incomplete
136. The escape velocity for a rocket from earth is 11.2 km/sec. Its value on a planet where
acceleration due to gravity is double that on the earth and diameter of the planet is
twice that of earth will be in km/sec
a) 11.2 b) 5.6 c) 22.4 d) 53.6
137. If the potential energy of a spring is U on stretching it by 2 cm, then its potential
energy when it is stretched by 10 cm will be
a) U/25 b) 5U c) U/5 d) 25U
138. A particle is vibrating in a simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 4 cm. At
what is placement from the equilibrium position, is its energy half potential and half
kinetic
a) 1 cm b) 2 cm c) 3 cm d) 2 2 cm
139. A square frame of side L is dipped in a liquid. On taking out, a membrane is formed. If
the surface tension of the liquid is T, the force acting on the frame will be
a) 2 TL b) 4 TL c) 8 TL d) 10 TL
140. Water is flowing through a horizontal pipe of non-uniform cross section. At the
extreme narrow portion of the pipe, the water will have
a) Maximum speed and least pressure b) Maximum pressure and least speed
c) Both pressure and speed maximum d) Both pressure and speed least
141. The absolute zero temperature in Fahrenheit scale is
a) – 273°F b) – 32°F c) – 460°F d) – 132°F
142. A brass disc fits simply in a hole of a steel plate. The disc from the hole can be
loosened if the system
a) First heated then cooled b) First cooled then heated
c) Is heated d) Is cooled
143. The amount of work, which can be obtained by supplying 200 cal of heat, is
a) 840 dyne b) 840 W c) 840 erg d) 840 J

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NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set-XV B (2079 –4 –14)

144. First law thermodynamics states that

a) System can do work b) System has temperature
c) System has pressure d) Heat is a form of energy
145. The slopes of isothermal and adiabatic curves are related as
a) Isothermal curve slope = adiabatic curve slope
b) Isothermal curve slope =   adiabatic curve slope
c) Adiabatic curve slope =   isothermal curve slope
d) Adiabatic curve slope =  /2 × isothermal curve slope
146. Under steady state, the temperature of a body
a) Increases with time
b) Decreases with time
c) Does not change with time and is same at all the points of the body
d) Does not change with time but is different at different points of the body
147. A convex lens
a) Converges light rays b) Diverges light rays
c) Form real images always d) Always forms virtual images
148. The angle of minimum deviation measured with a prism is 30° and the angle of prism
is 60°. The refractive index of prism material is
a) 2 b) 2 c) 3/2 d) 4/3
149. A fish inside water 12cm below the surface looking up through the water sees the
4
outside world contained in a circular horizon. If the refractive index of water is 3 , the
radius of the circle is

a) 36 5 cm b) 36 7 cm c) 12 5 cm d)
36
cm
3 7
150. Two lenses of power +12D and –2D are placed in contact. What will be the focal length
of the combination?
a) 10cm b) 12.5cm c) 16.6cm d) 8.33cm
151. As a result of interference of two coherent sources of light, energy is
a) Increased
b) Redistributed and the distribution does not vary with time
c) Decreased
c) Redistributed and the distribution changes with time
152. The penetration of light into the region of geometrical shadow is called
a) Polarisation b) Interference c) Diffraction d) Refraction
153. Two waves of frequencies 20 Hz and 30 Hz. Travels out from a common point. The
phase difference between them after 0.6 sec is
 3
a) Zero b) 2 c)  d) 4
154. Stationary waves are set up in air column. Velocity of sound in air is 330 m/s and
frequency is 165 Hz. Then distance between the nodes is
a) 2 m b) 1 m c) 0.5 m d) 4 m

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NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set-XV B (2079 –4 –14)

155. If source and observer both are relatively at rest and if speed of sound is increased
then frequency heard by observer will
a) Increases b) Decreases
c) Cannot be predicted d) Will not change
156. The minimum charge on an object is
a) 1 Coulomb b) 1 stat Coulomb
c) 1.6 × 10–19 Coulomb d) 3.2 × 10–19 Coulomb
157. The electric charge in uniform motion produces
a) an electric field only b) a magnetic field only
c) both electric and magnetic field d) neither electric nor magnetic field
158. Three capacitors of capacitances 3F, 9F and 18F are connected once in series and
Cs
another time in parallel. The ratio of equivalent capacitance in the two cases Cp will
 
be
a) 1 : 15 b) 15 : 1 c) 1 : 1 d) 1 : 3
159. The relaxation time in conductors
a) Increases with the increase of temperature
b) Decreases with the increase of temperature
c) It does not depend on temperature
d) All of sudden changes at 400 K
160. A galvanometer can be converted into an ammeter by connecting
a) Low resistance in series b) High resistance in parallel
c) Low resistance in parallel d) High resistance in series
161. An energy source will supply a constant current into the load if its internal resistance
is
a) Zero
b) Non-zero but less than the resistance of the load
c) Equal to the resistance of the load
d) Very large as compared to the load resistance
162. An electric bulb is rated 220 volt and 100 watt. Power consumed by it when operated
on 110 volt is
a) 50 watt b) 75 watt c) 90 watt d) 25 watt
163. If two streams of protons move parallel to each other in the same direction, then they
a) Do not exert any force on each other
b) Repel each other
c) Attract each other
d) Get rotated to be perpendicular to each other
164. The deflection in a moving coil galvanometer is
a) Directly proportional to the torsional constant
b) Directly proportional to the number of turns in the coil
c) Inversely proportional to the area of the coil
d) Inversely proportional to the current flowing

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NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set-XV B (2079 –4 –14)

165. A line passing through places having zero value of magnetic dip is called
a) Isoclinic line b) Agonic line c) Isogonic line d) Aclinic line
166. To induce an e.m.f. in a coil, the linking magnetic flux
a) Must decrease b) Can either increase or decrease
c) Must remain constant d) Must increase
167. In a circuit containing an inductance of zero resistance, the e.m.f. of the applied ac
voltage leads the current by
a) 90º b) 45º c) 30º d) 0º
168. In Milikan’s experiment, an oil drop having charge q gets stationary on applying a
potential difference V in between two plates separated by a distance ‘d’. The weight of
the drop is
d q qV
a) qVd b) qV c) Vd d) d

169. The kinetic energy of an electron with de-Broglie wavelength of 0.3 nanometer is
a) 0.168 eV b) 16.8 eV c) 1.68 eV d) 2.5 eV
170. On increasing the number of electrons striking the anode of an X-ray tube, which one
of the following parameters of the resulting X-rays would increase
a) Penetration power b) Frequency c) Wavelength d) Intensity
171. In the Bohr's hydrogen atom model, the radius of the stationary orbit is directly
proportional to (n = principle quantum number)
a) n–1 b) n c) n–2 d) n2
172. If the biding energy of the deutrium is 2.23 MeV. The mass defect given in amu is
a) 0.009 b) 0.0012 c) 0.006 d) 0.0024
173. The half life period of radium is 1600 years. Its average life time will be
a) 3200 years b) 4800 years c) 2308 years d) 4217 years
174. In a semiconductor, the concentration of electrons is 8 × 10 14/cm3 and that of the holes
is 5 × 1012cm3. The semiconductor is
a) P-type b) N-type c) Intrinsic d) PNP-type
175. A N-type semiconductor is
a) Negatively charged b) Positively charged
c) Neutral d) None of these
176. The electrical circuit used to get smooth dc output from a rectifier circuit is called
a) Oscillator b) Filter c) Amplifier d) Logic gates
177. PN-junction diode works as a insulator, if connected
a) To A.C. b) In forward bias c) In reverse bias d) None of these
178. The power generated in a windmill
a) is more in rainy season since damp air would mean more air mass hitting the blades
b) depends on the height of the tower
c) depends on wind velocity
d) can be increased by planting tall tress close to the tower

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NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set-XV B (2079 –4 –14)

179. Name the fundamental particles which help create strong force between quarks?
a) Leptons b) Quarks c) Photons d) Gluons
180. According to the pulsating theory the expansion and contraction of the universe
repeats after every
a) 11 years b) 8 billion years c) 8 million years d) 80 billion years
181. Which word does NOT belong with the others?
a) Heading b) Body c) Letter d) Closing
182. Look at this series: 53, 53, 40, 40, 27, 27, ... What number should come next?
a) 12 b) 14 c) 27 d) 53
183. David gets on the elevator at the 11th floor of a building and rides up at the rate of 57
floors per minute. At the same time, Albert gets on an elevator at the 51st floor of the
same building and rides down at the rate of 63 floors per minute. If they continue
travelling at these rates, then at which floor will their paths cross?
a) 19 b) 28 c) 30 d) 37
184. What number replaces the question mark?
18 50 128
3 4 4
4 5 1
6 10 ?
a) 11 b) 8 c) 2 d) 9
185. The ratio of work done by (a-1) men in (a+1) days and (a+1) men in (a+2) days is 5:6.
What is the half value of a?
a) 14 b) 15 c) 16 d) 8
186. Complete the given analogy.
BH : HEAB :: GE : ?
a) CDCACE b) DCDABE c) CDCABE d) MERU
187. Which one will replace the question mark ?

a) 11 b) 19 c) 15 d) 22
188. Complete the given series.
A, R, C, U, G, X, M, A, ?, ?
a) U, D b) D, U c) E, U d) None of these

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NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set-XV B (2079 –4 –14)

189. Choose the set of figures which follows the given rule.
Rule: The series becomes simpler as it proceeds.

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
190. Sachin walks 20 km towards North. He turns left and walks 40 km. He again turns left
and walks 20 km. Finally he moves 20 km after turning to the left. How far is he from
his starting position?
a) 20 km. b) 30 km. c) 50 km. d) 60 km.
191. Introducing a woman, Shashank said, "She is the mother of the only daughter of my
son." How that woman is related to Shashank?
a) Daughter b) Sister-in-law c) Wife d) Daughter-in-law
192. A, B, C, D and E are sitting on a bench. A is sitting next to B, C is sitting next to D, D is
not sitting with E who is on the left end of the bench. C is on the second position from
the right. A is to the right of B and E. A and C are sitting together. In which position A
is sitting?
a) Between B and D b) Between B and C c) Between E and D d) Between C and E
193. Choose the box that is similar to the box formed from the given sheet of paper (X).

a) 2 and 3 only b) 1, 3 and 4 only c) 2 and 4 only d) 1 and 4 only

194. Choose the figure which is different from the rest.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 5

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NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set-XV B (2079 –4 –14)

195. Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives that would complete the figure
matrix.

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
196. Find the number of triangles in the given figure.

a) 16 b) 18 c) 14 d) 15
197. Which letter replaces the question mark?

a) L b) T c) O d) Y
198. A family consists of two grandparents, two parents and three grandchildren. The
average age of the grandparents is 67 years, that of the parents is 35 years and that of
the grandchildren is 6 years. What is the average age of the family?
4 5 1
a) 28 7 years b) 31 7 years c) 32 7 years d) None
199. In how many different ways letter of the word NAME be arranged so that all vowels
always comes together?
a) 6 b) 24 c) 12 d) 48
200. If MATKANDEL is coded as LEDNAKTAM then IQSHANKAR is coded as :
a) RAKSHANQI b) RAKNAHSQI c) SHANKARQI d) RASKHANIQ

Best of Luck

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