Geology Pre 2013
Geology Pre 2013
Geology Pre 2013
INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK
THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES
OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE
APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE RESPONSE SHEET.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on this Your Roll No.
Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside.
DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Booklet contains 120 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select
one response which you want to mark on the Response Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one
correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response
for each item.
5. In case you find any discrepancy in this test booklet in any question(s) or the Responses, a written
representation explaining the details of such alleged discrepancy, be submitted within three days, indicating
the Question No(s) and the Test Booklet Series, in which the discrepancy is alleged. Representation not
received within time shall not be entertained at all.
6. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Response Sheet provided. See directions in the
Response Sheet.
7. All items carry equal marks. Attempt ALL items. Your total marks will depend only on the number of correct
responses marked by you in the Response Sheet.
8. Before you proceed to mark in the Response Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you
have to fill in some particulars in the Response Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admit Card
and Instructions.
9. While writing Centre, Subject and Roll No. on the top of the Response Sheet in appropriate boxes use
“ONLY BALL POINT PEN”.
10. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Response Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Response Sheet. You are permitted to take away
with you the Test Booklet.
EIJ-49859-A 2
1. The Wiechert-Gutenberg discontinuity is obseved at what depth ?
(A) About 35 km below the surface (B) About 2881 km below the surface
(C) About 3473 km below the surface (D) About 200 km below the surface
2. Par and Morar series are integral part of which of the following systems ?
(A) Bijawar (B) Cuddapah
(C) Gwalior (D) Delhi
3. Chamberlin and Moulton suggested which of the following hypothesis for the origin of the earth ?
(A) Nebular Hypothesis (B) Planetesimal Hypothesis
(C) Accretion Growth Hypothesis (D) Asteroidal Hypothesis
4. Most important stage in the formation of the solar system is the burning of :
(A) Carbon (B) Helium
(C) Hydrogen (D) Oxygen
14. When soil-creep is controlled by frost and thaw such movement of soil is called :
(A) Mud-flow (B) Lahars
(C) Terracettes (D) Solifluction
15. Broad loop of a meander with a narrow neck cut off from one side of the deserted channel is
called :
(A) Ox-bow lake (B) Entrenched meander
(C) Free-meander (D) Braided river
16. Horizontal beds capped by resistant bed and having steep slopes all around is called :
(A) Questa (B) Hogback
(C) Butte (D) Mesa
17. Fallen rock debris that accumulate at the base of the cliff is called :
(A) Elluvium (B) Alluvium
(C) Tuffs (D) Talus
18. Chernozem soil develop under which of the following climatic conditions ?
(A) Monsoon (B) Borel
(C) Steppes (D) Desert
20. Smaller pyroclastic rock fragments about the size of a pea are called :
(A) Lapilli (B) Volcanic tuffs
(C) Tephera (D) Volcanic bombs
21. When effusion of mobile lava is dominant either from craters or fissures and the gas escaping
quietly, such volcanoes are called :
(A) Strambolian type of volcanoes (B) Vesuvian type of volcanoes
(C) Volcanian type of volcanoes (D) Hawaiian type of Volcanoes
EIJ-49859-A 4
22. Drumlins are formed by which of the following process ?
(A) Glacial erosion (B) Wind erosion
(C) Fluvial erosion (D) Marine erosion
24. Which of the following rocks is least effected by chemical weathering process ?
(A) Shale (B) Granite
(C) Basalt (D) Limestone
27. Jean Jaffrays postulated which of the following hypothesis for the origin of fold mountains ?
(A) Bicausal hypothesis (B) Thermal cycle hypothesis
(C) Convection current hypothesis (D) Thermal contraction hypothesis
28. Which of the following facts are correctly associated with “Continental Drift Theory” :
(A) Carry (1958) – Continental raft – 3000 m. y.
(B) Carry (1958) – Asthenosphere – 300 m. y.
(C) Wagner (1912) – Plate tectonics – 300 m. y.
(D) Wagner (1912) – Pangea – 300 m. y.
30. How many elements of symmetry elements are recognized in the crystallography ?
(A) 8 (B) 6
(C) 2 (D) 4
34. In which crystal system three axes are right angles to each other but their axial parameters are
different ?
(A) Triclinic (B) Orthorhombic
(C) Monoclinic (D) Tetragonal
36. Which mineral of the monoclinic system lacks in the centre of symmetry ?
(A) Epidote (B) Scolecite
(C) Augite (D) Orthoclase
37. Which of the following sequence is correct showing specific gravity increase with increasing
atomic weight of cation in orthorhombic carbonates ?
(A) Aragonite, strontianite, witherite, cerussite
(B) Strontianite, aragonite, witherite, cerussite
(C) Aragonite, cerussite, strontianite, witherite
(D) Witherite, cerussite, strontianite, aragonite
38. In olivine structure the layers consisting of octahedra cross-linked by independent SiO4
tetrahedra, lie parallel to which of the following ?
(A) {010} (B) {100}
(C) {001} (D) {111}
40. A iii-fold axes is the characteristic feature of which of the following crystal systems ?
(A) Triclinic system (B) Isometric system
(C) Tetragonal system (D) Monoclinic system
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42. Rock Gondite is associated with which of the following ?
(A) Saussars (B) Sakolis
(C) Chilpis (D) None of the above
43. Which of the following symmetry class whose plane symmetry is 3 and axis of symmetry is 4 II
and 1 IV ?
(A) Pyrite type (B) Scheelite type
(C) Zircon type (D) Garnet type
46. Twinkling under the plane polarized light is seen in case of which of the following minerals ?
(A) Quartz (B) Orthoclase
(C) Nepheleni (D) Calcite
47. Cross-hatching is observed under the cross nicol conditions in case of which of the following
minerals ?
(A) Orthoclase (B) Plagioclase
(C) Microcline (D) Lucite
48. Cloudy extinction is the characteristic property of which of the following minerals :
(A) Nosean (B) Garnet
(C) Diopside (D) Quartz
49. Which of the following minerals shows extinction angle of about 120° ?
(A) Augite (B) Chlorite
(C) Epidote (D) Hornblende
50. Which of the following mineral contains high amount of chromium content ?
(A) Biotite (B) Phlogopite
(C) Lepidolite (D) Fuchsite
54. Change in colour or intensity or both of a mineral is observed when the stage of the microscope
is rotated under plane polarized light, is called :
(A) Anisotropism (B) Polarization colours
(C) Pleochroism (D) Birefrigence
55. Biotite is identified under the microscope by which of the following property ?
(A) High relief (B) High order polarization colours
(C) Strong pleochroism (D) Straight extinction
61. Albite and anorthite are the two end members of the solid solution series that belongs to which
of the following minerals ?
(A) Orthoclase (B) Plagioclase
(C) Microcline (D) Nepheline
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62. Diopside and hedenbergite are the two end members of the solid solution series that belong to
which of the following ?
(A) Olivine (B) Pyroxene
(C) Amphibole (D) Feldspathoids
65. Nepheline and lucite can be distinguished by which of the most important character ?
(A) Relief (B) Polarization colours
(C) Pleochroism (D) Isotropism
66. East coast bauxite deposit is associated with which of the following rocks ?
(A) Gondite (B) Basalt
(C) Kodurite (D) Khondalite
67. Which of the following rock in Central India contains pyrolusite and psilmelane minerals ?
(A) Anorthosite (B) Kodurite
(C) Gondite (D) Khondalite
69. Zawar Pb-Zn deposit of Rajasthan is formed by which of the following process ?
(A) Hydrothermal cavity filling process (B) Hydrothermal replacement process
(C) Magmatic reggregation process (D) Hydrothermal sublimination process.
71. Which is the host rock in the Bombay high oil field ?
(A) Sandstone (B) Shale
(C) Conglomerate (D) Limestone
72. Large number of Uranium deposits in the world are associated with which of the following rocks ?
(A) Archaeaus (B) Precambrians
(C) Permo-carboniferous (D) Cretaceous-tertiary
76. Which one of the following sequence is correctly associated with progressive coalification ?
(A) Peat → Lignite → Bituminous coal → Anthracite
(B) Anthracite → Bituminous coal → Lignite → Peat
(C) Bituminous coal → Anthracite → Peat → Lignite
(D) Lignite → Peat →Bituminous coal → Anthracite
79. Structureless bands which appear like a black glass present in the coal seams is called :
(A) Clarain (B) Durain
(C) Fusain (D) Vitrain
81. Largest accumulation of tholeiitic rocks in India is known by which of the following name ?
(A) Rajamahal Traps (B) Sylhet Traps
(C) Bhavali Traps (D) Deccan Traps
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83. Allotriomorphic texture is characteristic feature of which of the following rocks ?
(A) Aplite (B) Allanite
(C) Andesite (D) Adamatite
90. Lithium mica is commonly associated with which of the following rocks ?
(A) Lemprophyre (B) Kerotophyre
(C) Granophyre (D) Lucitophyre
92. When oceanic lithosphere descends beneath overlying lithosphere then which of the following
magmatism occurs ?
(A) Within plate magmatism occurs (B) Continental arc magmatism occurs
(C) Island arc magmatism occurs (D) Bac-arc magmatism occurs
99. In a folded sequence, when crest and trough are filled up by igneous material and exhibit
doubly-convex lens-like form. Such structures are called :
(A) Lacoliths (B) Lapoliths
(C) Chonoliths (D) Phacoliths
100. Which of the following law states that the “settling velocity of a particle is proportional to the
square of the particle diameter (where, density of particle, acceleration due to gravity and fluid
velocity remain constant)” ?
(A) Stoke’s law (B) Krumbein’s law
(C) Bragg’s law (D) Pettijohn’s law
101. The sedimentary structures observed on bottom of the bedding surfaces are :
(A) Lamination (B) Shrinkage cracks
(C) Bioturbation (D) Flute marks
102. Which of the following sedimentary rocks were deposited under marine environment ?
(A) Karewas (B) Vindhyans
(C) Shivaliks (D) Gondwanas
EIJ-49859-A 12
103. Which of the following siliciclastic end members demonstrate increased diagenetic potential ?
(A) Feldspar (B) Rock fragments
(C) Micaceous minerals (D) Quartz
104. Compaction and cementation are associated with which of the following processes ?
(A) Lithification (B) Burrial
(C) Metamorphism (D) Diagenesis
107. Presence of glauconite in the sedimentary rock is indicative of which of the following
environment ?
(A) Continental weathering and fresh water deposition
(B) Marine water deposition
(C) Sedimentation in lake environment is keeping pace with the subsidence of the basic floor
(D) Glacial environment
108. Apatite and zircon are indicative of which of the following provinance ?
(A) Basaltic (B) Granitic
(C) Carbonate (D) Arkosic
112. When original minerals and textures are preserved after recrystallization, then the texture is
called :
(A) Xenoblastic texture (B) Meculose texture
(C) Blastopsamatic texture (D) Palimpsest
115. Which of the following metamorphic rocks consists of anhydrous assemblage of plagioclase +
pyroxene ± quartz ± garnet ± sillimanite ± cordierite ?
(A) Granulite (B) Eclogite
(C) Charnockite (D) Amphibolite
117. Choose the correct sequence which indicates increasing order of metamorphic grade :
(A) Slate → shale → gneiss → schist (B) Schist → gneiss → shale → slate
(C) Gneiss → shale → slate → schist (D) Shale → slate → schist → gneiss
118. A distinctive sequence of magmatic, sedimentary and metamorphic rocks formed in an oceanic
environment and made up of oceanic crust and mantle is called :
(A) Alpine peridotite (B) Adakite
(C) Quartz normative tholerite (D) Ophiolite
119. Regionally, thermally metamorphic rocks containing Mn-ore in Central India is represented by :
(A) Sakolis (B) Mahakaoshals
(C) Chilpis (D) Saussars
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ROUGH WORK
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ROUGH WORK
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