Questions

1. MSA given as 12 000 ft, flying over mountains in temperatures +9°C, QNH set as
1023 (obtained from a nearby airfield). What will the true altitude be when
12 000 ft is reached?
a. 11 940
b. 11 148
c. 12 210
d. 12 864
2. Why do TRS not occur in the SE Pacific and South Atlantic?
a. Low water temperatures
b. No Coriolis effect
c. SE trade crosses Equator
d. SE trade winds blow there
3. In the Northern Hemisphere a man observes a low pressure system passing him to
the south, from west to east. What wind will he experience?
a. Backs then Veers
b. Constantly Backs
c. Veers then Backs
d. Backs then steady
4. When would a rotor cloud be ahead of a Cb?
a. Mature stage
b. Cumulus stage
c. Dissipating stage
d. Initial stage
5. What are the conditions under which advection fog will be formed?
a. Warm moist air over cold surface
b. Cold dry air over warm surface
c. Warm dry air over cold surface
d. Cold moist air over warm surface
6. What cloud does hail fall from?
a. Cb
b. Ns
c. Cu
d. Ci
7. What is a cold pool, in the Northern Hemisphere?
a. Cold air found on the lee side of the Alps in winter in a cold north-westerly air
stream
b. Cold air brought down from the north behind frontal systems
c. Air from tropical continental origin
d. Air from Polar maritime origin only

8. What is relative humidity dependent upon?

a. Moisture content and temperature of the air
b. Temperature of the air
c. Temperature and pressure
d. Moisture content of the air
9. If the ELR is 0.65°C/100 m:
a. atmosphere is conditionally stable
b. atmosphere is stable
c. atmosphere is unstable
d. atmosphere is stable when dry
10. Where are you most likely to find moderate to severe icing?
a. In upper levels of cumulonimbus capillatus
b. Nimbostratus
c. Stratus
d. Cirrus
11. Height of the tropopause at 50°N:
a. 11 km
b. 16 km
c. 5 km
d. 20 km
12. What are the indications of a TRS from a great distance?
a. Thick Ci
b. Thick Cbs
c. Ns
d. Sc
13. Flying form London to Bombay in January, what average wind might you expect?
a. Light easterly
b. Light westerly
c. Westerly polar front jet stream
d. Tropical easterly jet
14. What pressure systems affect the North Atlantic in summer?
a. Azores low, Scandinavian high
b. Azores low, North Canadian low
c. North Canadian low, Azores High
d. Azores high, Scandinavian High
15. A characteristic of a stable air mass:
a. lapse rate of 1°C/100 m
b. rising air slows down and dissipates
c. lapse rate of 0.3°C/100 m
d. good visibility and showers
16. How do you recognize high level jet streams and associated CAT?
a. High pressure centre at high level
b. Streaks of cirrus
c. High level dust
d. Lenticularis
17. Which conditions lead to mountain waves?
a. Unstable moist air, speeds <5 kt across the ridge
b. Stable air, speed, >20 kt across the ridge
c. Unstable air, speed >20 kt across the ridge
d. Stable air, speed >30 kt, parallel to the ridge
18. Where is the coldest air in a cold occlusion?
a. Behind the cold front
b. At the junction of the occlusion
c. In front of the occlusion
d. Behind the warm front
19. What causes low level cloud in front of the warm front?
a. Rain falling into the cold air
b. Rain falling into warm air
c. Warm air passing over cold surface
d. Cold air passing over warm surface
20. Where is the largest chance of squalls occurring?
a. In front of an active cold front
b. Above the occlusion along the cold front
c. Behind the cold front
d. Above the occlusion along the warm front
21. ELR is 1°C/100 m:
a. Neutral when dry
b. Absolute stability
c. Absolute instability
d. Conditional stability
22. Typical tornado diameter:
a. Less than 100 m
b. 100 - 150 m
c. 2 - 6 km
d. More than 10 km
23. In the areas of the ITCZ why are the heights of the tropopause not reported?
a. Because it is too cold
b. Because it cannot be measured
c. Because it is likely to be above your FL

d. Because it is in the stratosphere

0
30
24. Flying conditions in Ci cloud and horizontal visibility:
a. less than 500 m vis, light/mod clear icing
b. greater than 1000 m vis, light/mod rime ice
c. less then 500 m vis, no icing
d. greater than 1000 m vis, no icing
25. Description of radiation fog:
a. marked increase in ground wind speed
b. marked increase in wind speed close to the ground
c. ground cooling due to radiation
d. warm air over warm surface
26. Flying over an airfield, at the surface the temp. is -5°C, freezing level is at 3000 ft,
rain is falling from clouds with a base of 4000 ft caused by warm air rising above
cold air. Where would you experience icing?
a. Never
b. No icing because you are not in cloud
c. Between 3000 - 4000 ft
d. Below 3000 ft
27. Climbing out of Dhahran, Saudi Arabia on a clear night you suddenly lose your rate
of climb. Why?
a. Engine full of sand
b. Downdraft
c. Marked temperature inversion
d. VSI blocked
28. What is the composition of Ci cloud?
a. Supercooled water droplets
b. Ice crystals
c. Water droplets
d. Smoke particles
29. What cloud types are classified as medium cloud?
a. Ns + Sc
b. Ac + As
c. Cb + St
d. Ci + Cs
30. What is the approximate height of the tropopause at 50°N?
a. 14 km
b. 13 km
c. 11 km
d. 16 km
31. Isolated TS occur mostly due to:
a. warm frontal uplift
b. cold front uplift
c. insolation
d. convection
32. What type of cloud is associated with drizzle?
a. St
b. Cb
c. Ci
d. Ac
33. Fair weather cumulus gives an indication of:
a. poor visibility
b. thunderstorms
c. turbulence
d. smooth flying below
34. What cloud type are you least likely to get icing from?
a. Ci
b. Cu
c. St
d. Ns
35. When flying from south to north in the Southern Hemisphere crossing over and
above a polar frontal jet at FL400, what might happen to the OAT?
a. Initially fall then rise
b. Initially rise then fall
c. Rise
d. Fall
36. What type of jet stream blows constantly through the Northern Hemisphere?
a. Arctic jet
b. Equatorial jet
c. Polar night jet
d. Subtropical jet
37. Why is clear ice such a problem?
a. Translucent and forms along leading edges
b. Not translucent and forms along leading edges
c. Very heavy and can affect aircraft controls and surfaces
d. Forms in clear air
30
38. What best shows altocumulus lenticularis?
39. A steep pressure gradient is characterized by:
a. isobars close together, strengthened wind
b. isobars far apart, decreased wind
c. isobars close together, temperature increasing
d. isobars far apart, temperature decreasing
40. Assuming a generalized zonal distribution of winds, which zones on the diagram
contain the temperate lows?
a. t
b. t + x
c. s + y
d. u + w
41. If you fly with left drift in the Northern Hemisphere, what is happening to your true
altitude?
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Stays the same
d. Cannot tell
42. What type of icing requires immediate diversion?
a. Light
b. Moderate
c. Severe
d. Extreme
43. What is the weather inside the warm sector in a frontal depression in central
Europe?
a. Fair weather Cu
b. Low stratus and drizzle
c. Cb and thunderstorms
d. As with light rain
44. Flying from Dakar to Rio de Janeiro, where is the ITCZ in winter?
a. > 8°S
b. 0 - 7°N
c. 8 - 12°N
d. 12 - 16°N
45. At a stationary front:
a. winds blow parallel to the isobars and front
b. winds blow perpendicular to the isobars
c. winds are always very strong
d. winds are usually gusty and variable
46. In central Europe, where are the greatest wind speeds?
a. Tropopause level
b. 5500 m
c. Where the air converges
d. Above the Alps
47. Sublimation is:
a. solid to vapour
b. vapour to liquid
c. liquid to vapour
d. liquid to solid
48. Standing in the Northern Hemisphere, north of a polar frontal depression travelling
west to east, the wind will:
a. continually veer
b. continually back
c. back then veer
d. veer then back
49. What is the coldest time of the day?
a. 1 hour before sunrise
b. 30 min before sunrise
c. At exact moment of sunrise
d. 30 min after sunrise
50. Which of the following would lead to the formation of advection fog?
a. Warm moist air over cold surface, clear night and light winds
b. Cold dry air over warm surface, clear night and light winds
c. Cold moist air over warm surface, cloud night with strong winds
d. Warm dry air over cold surface, cloudy night with moderate winds
30
51. Using the radiosonde diagrams, which would most likely show ground fog?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
52. Which of the following would lead to the formation of steaming fog?
a. Cold air over warm sea
b. Warm air over cold sea
c. Cold sea near coast
d. Warm air over land
53. When is diurnal variation a maximum?
a. Clear sky, still wind
b. Clear sky, strong wind
c. OVC, still
d. OVC, windy
54. QNH at Timbuktu (200 m AMSL) is 1015 hPa. What is the QFE?
(Assume 1 hPa = 8 m)
a. 1000
b. 990
c. 1020
d. 995
55. The Arctic jet core is at:
a. 20 000 ft
b. 30 000 ft
c. 40 000 ft
d. 50 000 ft
56. If flying cross country at FL50 you first see NS, AS, CC then CI, you can expect:
a. increasing temperature
b. decreasing temperature
c. a veer in the wind

d. increase in pressure 30
57. Which is likely to cause aquaplaning?
a. +RA
b. SA
c. FG
d. DS
58. Prevailing winds in Northwest Africa will be:
a. SW monsoon in summer, NE trade winds in winter
b. SE monsoon in summer, NW trade winds in winter
c. SE trade wind in summer, NE monsoon in winter
d. SE trade wind in winter, NE monsoon in summer
59. ATC will only report wind as gusting if:
a. gust speeds exceeds mean by >15 kt
b. gusts to over 25 kt
c. gusts exceed mean by 10 kt
d. gusts to over 25 kt
60. Hill fog will be most likely when:
a. clear sky, little wind, dry air
b. humid, stable, blowing onto a range of hills
c. precipitation is lifted by air blowing over the hills
d. high RH, unstable
61. In temperate latitudes in summer what conditions would you expect in the centre
of a high pressure system?
a. TS, CB
b. calm winds, haze
c. TS, SH
d. NS
62. Above a stable layer in the lower troposphere in an old high pressure system is
called:
a. radiation inversion
b. subsidence inversion
c. frontal inversion
d. terrestrial inversion
63. If the pressure level surface bulges upwards, the pressure system is a:
a. cold low
b. warm low
c. cold high

d. warm high
30
0
64. What is a land breeze?
a. From land over water at night
b. From land over sea by day
c. From sea over land by night
d. From sea over land by day
65. When travelling from Stockholm (55N 18E) to Rio de Janeiro (22S 80W), you
encounter:
a. polar front jet stream then subtropical jet then polar jet
b. polar front jet then 1 or 2 subtropical jets
c. one subtropical jet stream
d. one subtropical jet stream then one polar front jet
66. Why does air cool as it rises?
a. It expands
b. It contracts
c. The air is colder at higher latitudes
d. The air is colder at higher altitudes
67. When flying at FL180 in the Southern Hemisphere you experience a left crosswind.
What is happening to your true altitude if indicated altitude is constant?
a. Remains the same
b. Increasing
c. Decreasing
d. Impossible to tell
68. In a polar front jet stream in the Northern Hemisphere, where is there likely to be
the greatest probability of turbulence?
a. Above the jet core in the boundary between warm and cold air
b. Looking downstream, to the right
c. In the core
d. Looking downstream, to the left
69. Dew point is defined as:
a. the lowest temperature at which evaporation will occur for a given pressure
b. the lowest temperature to which air must be cooled in order to reduce the
relative humidity
c. the temperature below which the change of state for a given volume of air
will result in absorption of latent heat
d. the temperature to which moist air must be cooled to reach saturation
70. Flying from Marseilles (QNH 1012) to Palma (QNH 1015) at FL100. You do not reset
the altimeter, why would true altitude be the same throughout the flight?
a. Not possible to tell
b. Air at Palma is warmer than air at Marseilles
c. Air at Marseilles is warmer than air at Palma
d. Blocked static vent
71. FL180, Northern Hemisphere with a wind from the left, what can you say about
temperature with a heading of 360°?
a. Not possible to tell without a pressure
b. Increases from south to north
c. Increases from north to south
d. Nothing
72. From which of the following can the stability of the atmosphere be determined?
a. Surface pressure
b. Surface temperature
c. DALR
d. ELR
73. How do you define convection?
a. Horizontal movement of air
b. Vertical movement of air
c. Same as advection
d. Same as conduction
74. In a class A aircraft if you encounter freezing rain, you should:
a. climb to the cooler air above
b. climb to the warmer air above
c. accelerate
d. descend
75. When heading south in the Southern Hemisphere you experience starboard drift:
a. you are flying towards a lower temperature
b. you are flying away from a lower temperature
c. you are flying towards a low pressure
d. you are flying out of a high
76. When is the latest time radiation fog is most likely?
a. Just after dawn
b. Late afternoon
c. Midday
d. Midnight
77. When are thunderstorms most likely in Europe?
a. Just after dawn
b. Late afternoon
c. Midday
d. Midnight
78. How does the level of the tropopause vary with latitude in the Northern
Hemisphere?
a. Decreases north - south
b. Decreases south - north
c. Constant
d. It varies with longitude not latitude
79. What is the tropopause?
a. The layer between the troposphere and stratosphere
b. The boundary between the troposphere and stratosphere
c. Where temperature increases with height
d. Upper boundary to CAT
80. Where do you find the majority of the air within the atmosphere?
a. Troposphere
b. Stratosphere
c. Tropopause
d. Mesosphere
81. What are lenticularis clouds a possible indication of?
a. Mountain waves
b. Instability
c. Developing Cu and Cb
d. Horizontal windshear in the upper atmosphere
82. What are the factors affecting the geostrophic wind?
a. PGF, θ, Ω, ρ
b. θ, Ω, ρ
c. Ω, ρ
d. ρ
83. What is the Bora?
a. Cold katabatic wind over the Adriatic
b. Northerly wind blowing from the Mediterranean
c. Warm anabatic wind blowing to the Mediterranean
d. An anabatic wind in the Rockies
84. Where is the 300 hPa level approx. in ISA?
a. 30 000 ft
b. 39 000 ft
c. 18 000 ft
d. 10 000 ft
85. What is the usual procedure when encountering CAT en route?
a. Request climb to get out of it
b. Turn around immediately
c. Descend immediately to clear it

d. Accelerate through it and stay level 0

86. When are cyclones most likely?
a. Mid winter
b. Late autumn
c. Late summer
d. Late spring
87. At a certain position the temperature on the 300 hPa chart is -48°C. According to
the chart the tropopause is at FL330. The most likely temperature at FL350 is:
a. -54°C
b. -50°C
c. -56.5°C
d. 58°C
88. When are the rains most likely in Equatorial Africa?
a. March to May, August to October
b. March to May, October to November
c. June to July
d. December to January
89. What is the likely hazard association with the Harmattan?
a. Poor visibility from dust and sand
b. Sand up to FL150
c. Thunderstorms
d. Dense fog
90. General surface winds in West Africa with ITCZ to the north:
a. NE trade wind to the north, SW monsoon to the south
b. east - west
c. SE trade winds to the north, NE trade winds to the south
d. west - east
91. In what cloud is icing and turbulence most severe?
a. Cb
b. Ns
c. Sc
d. Ci
92. What will snow most likely fall from?
a. Ns
b. Ci
c. Cs
d. Ac
93. Referring to the diagram below the TAF applies best to which aerodrome
19010KT 8000 RA BKN014 TEMPO 1518 4000 RADZ BKN010
a. EBBR
b. Madrid
c. Paris
d. LOWW
94. Rime ice is caused by:
a. large supercooled water droplets
b. small supercooled water droplets
c. slow freezing of water droplets onto the wing
d. rapid re-freezing of large water droplets
95. What is the most severe form of icing?
a. Dry ice
b. Hoar frost
c. Clear ice
d. Rime ice
96. Cold occlusion is:
a. cold air undercutting warm air
b. warm air overriding cold air
c. air ahead of the warm front undercutting the air behind the cold front
d. air behind the cold front undercutting the air in front of the warm front
97. Warm occlusion is:
a. warm air undercutting cold air
b. warm air overriding cold air
c. air ahead of the warm front over riding the air behind the cold front
d. air behind the cold front over riding the air in front of the warm front

98. Where is the warmest air?

A
D
C
B
99. What happens to the polar front jet stream in NH winter compared to summer?
a. Moves south, speed increases
b. Moves north, speed increases
c. Moves south, speed decreases
d. Moves north, speed decreases
100. Which is likely to give freezing rain?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
101. What is the duration and size of a microburst:
a. 5 min, 5 km
b. 20 min, 5 km
c. 15 min, 25 km
d. 45 min, 25 km
30
102. Where is the surface wind usually westerly in a Northern Hemisphere polar front
depression?
a. In front of the warm front
b. In front of the cold front
c. Behind the cold front
d. To the north of centre of the depression
103. Flying from an area of low pressure in the Southern Hemisphere at low altitudes,
where is the wind coming from?
a. Right and slightly on the nose
b. Left and slightly on the tail
c. Left and slightly on the nose
d. Right and slightly on the tail
104. What causes the geostrophic wind to be stronger than the gradient wind around a
low?
a. Centrifugal force adds to the gradient force
b. Centrifugal force opposes the gradient force
c. Coriolis force adds to the gradient force
d. Coriolis force opposes the centrifugal force
105. The subtropical high pressure belt is at which latitude?
a. 25° - 35°
b. 10° - 15°
c. 55° - 75°
d. 40° - 55°
106. A METAR for Paris gave the surface wind as 260/20. Wind at 2000 ft is most likely
to be:
a. 260/15
b. 210/30
c. 290/40
d. 175/15
107. When the upper part of a layer of warm air is advected:
a. stability increases within the layer
b. stability decreases within the layer
c. wind speed will always decrease with increase in height in the Northern
Hemisphere
d. wind will back with increase in height in the Northern Hemisphere
108. The QNH at an airfield 200 m AMSL is 1009 hPa; air temperature is 10°C lower than
standard. What is the QFF?
a. Not possible to give a definite answer
b. Less than 1009
c. 1009
d. More than 1009
109. A plain in Western Europe at 500 m (1600 ft) AMSL is covered with a uniform
alto-cumulus cloud during summer months. At what height AGL is the base of the
cloud expected?
a. 100 - 1500 ft
b. 15 000 - 25 000 ft
c. 7000 - 15 000 ft
d. 1500 - 7 000 ft
110. With the passage of a polar frontal depression what would be most likely?
a. Showers for 2 hours, Drizzle for 12 hours, then snow and rain
b. Continuous snow and rain, then it stops to be followed by showers of rain and
snow
c. Continual backing of the wind
d. Heavy showers of rains and possible hail, followed by drizzle and light rain
111. A pilot experiences severe turbulence and icing. A competent met. man would
issue a:
a. SPECI
b. METAR
c. TEMPO
d. SIGMET
112. Which of these would cause your true altitude to decrease with a constant
indicated altitude?
a. Cold/Low
b. Hot/Low
c. Cold/High
d. Hot/High
113. Flying from Bangkok to Bombay, why does the wind at 30 000 ft change from 15 kt
headwind in winter to 20 kt tailwind in summer?
a. Freak weather conditions experienced on route
b. The equatorial easterly jet changes direction through 180 degrees
c. This is due to local changes in the upper winds due to the movement of the
ITCZ
d. The subtropical jet changes direction through 180 degrees
114. ITCZ weather is:
a. thundery strong convergence
b. clear Wx
c. showers
d. light winds
115. Where is the ITCZ during the year?
a. Does not move
b. Always north of the Equator
c. Always south of the Equator
d. Moves in accordance with the heat Equator
116. Flying from Marseilles to Dakar in summer where is the ITCZ?
a. Canaries
b. Algeria
c. Gibraltar
d. Near Dakar
117. Where is the ozone layer?
a. Ionosphere
b. Stratosphere
c. Tropopause
d. Troposphere
118. Which of the following diagrams depicts cumulus capillatus:
119. What wind would you expect between the Equator and 20° South?
a. NE monsoon
b. Trade wind
c. Strong westerlies
d. Roaring forties
120. Where are TRS not likely to form?
a. South China sea
b. South Pacific
c. South Atlantic
d. South Indian Ocean
121. Where is the most severe weather in a TRS?
a. In the centre of the eye
b. In the wall of cloud surrounding the eye
c. Within the eye
d. 300 km from the eye
122. Satellite images are used to:
a. locate fronts in areas with few ground stations
b. achieve 14 day forecasts
c. locate precipitation zones
d. locate wind currents on the ground
123. What best describes the diagram below?
a. Cutting winds
b. Westerly wave
c. Easterly wave
d. Uniform pressure gradient
124. A large pressure gradient is shown by:
a. closely spaced isobars - low temperature
b. distant spaced isobars - high temperature
c. close spaced isobars - strong winds
d. close spaced isobars - light winds
125. The degree of CAT experienced by an aircraft is proportional to:
a. intensity of vertical and horizontal windshear
b. intensity of solar radiation
c. stability of the air
d. height of the aircraft
126. Squall lines are encountered:
a. in an air mass with cold air properties
b. ahead of a cold front
c. behind a stationary front
d. at an occluded front
127. Microbursts:
a. only affect tropical areas
b. average lifespan 30 min
c. typical horizontal dimensions 1 - 3 km
d. always associated with CB clouds
128. Which of the following are described as precipitation?
a. TS
b. SQ
c. SA
d. DZ
129. An aircraft flying in the Alps on a very cold day, QNH 1013 set in the altimeter, flies
level with the summit of the mountains. Altitude from aneroid altimeter reads:
a. same as mountain elevation
b. lower than mountain elevation
c. higher than mountain elevation
d. impossible to determine
130. Clouds classified as low level are considered to have a base height of:
a. 500 - 1000 ft
b. 1000 - 2000 ft
c. the surface - 6500 ft
d. 100 - 200 ft
131. With a polar front jet stream (PFJ), the area with the highest probability of
turbulence in the Southern Hemisphere is:
a. in the jet core
b. above the jet core in the boundary of the warm and cold air
c. looking downstream, on your left hand side
d. looking downstream, on your right hand side
132. After such a fine day yesterday, the ring around the moon indicated bad weather
today. Sure enough, it is pouring down rain, with a very low cloud base of uniform
grey. It is a little warmer though.
This describes:
a. a warm front
b. a cold front
c. the weather behind a cold front
d. poetic licence
133. On a flight from London to New York in summer, where would you cross the ITCZ?
a. Newfoundland, Grand Banks
b. New York
c. Azores
d. You wouldn’t
134. What type of low is usually associated with frontal activity?
a. Polar front low
b. Mountain lee low
c. Warm low
d. Cold low
135. When would you encounter hoar frost?
a. Climbing through an inversion
b. Ns
c. Cb
d. Ac
136. What is the temperature decrease with height below 11 km?
a. 1°C - 100 m
b. 0.5°C - 100 m
c. 0.65°C - 100 m
d. 0.6°C - 100 m
137. Contours on a weather chart indicate:
a. heights of pressure levels
b. distance between pressure levels
c. thickness between pressure levels
d. height of ground
138. When do you get TRS at Darwin?
a. July - October
b. Never
c. November - April
d. In the winter
139. Subtropical highs are found:
a. 5 - 15°
b. 25 - 35°.
c. 40 - 60°.
d. between the Polar and Ferrell cells
140. Equatorial easterly jets occur in the:
a. Northern Hemisphere in summer
b. Northern Hemisphere all year
c. Southern Hemisphere all year
d. Southern Hemisphere
141. What causes ‘echoes’ on airborne weather radar screens?
a. Water vapour
b. All cloud
c. Fog
d. Hail
142. In a tropical downpour the visibility is sometimes reduced to:
a. 1000 m
b. 500 m
c. 200 m
d. less than 100 m
143. Aircraft with thick wing (T) and thin wing (S) fly at the same TAS and altitude
through cloud containing small super cooled water droplets. What extent of icing
will be experienced?
a. S and T same icing
b. Nothing as its super cooled water droplets
c. S more, T less
d. T more, S less
144. What surface weather is associated with a stationary high pressure region, over
land, in the winter?
a. Ns and continuous rain
b. A tendency for fog and low stratus
c. The possibility of snow showers
d. Thunderstorms
145. QNH is defined as:
a. the pressure at MSL obtained using the standard atmosphere
b. the pressure at MSL obtained using the actual conditions
c. QFE reduced to MSL using the actual conditions
d. QFE reduced to MSL using the standard atmosphere
146. Where would you expect to find the strongest wind on the ground in temperate
latitudes?
a. In an area of low pressure
b. In an area of high pressure
c. In the warm air between two fronts
d. In a weak anticyclone
147. Landing at an airfield with QNH set the pressure altimeter reads:
a. zero feet on landing only if ISA conditions prevail
b. zero
c. the elevation of the airfield if ISA conditions prevail
d. the elevation of the airfield
148. The fastest moving thunderstorms are:
a. orographic
b. thermal
c. frontal
d. lifting
149. Where are the fastest winds in a Tropical Revolving Storm?
a. Near the eye
b. In the wall of cloud surrounding the eye
c. To the right of the track
d. To the right of the track in hurricanes and cyclones
150. What type of cloud is usually found at high level?
a. St
b. Ac
c. Cc
d. Ns
151. You are flying in an atmosphere which is warmer than ISA, what might you
expect?
a. True altitude to be the same as Indicated altitude
b. True altitude to be lower than Indicated altitude
c. True altitude to be the decreasing
d. True altitude to be higher than Indicated altitude
152. The environmental lapse rate in the real atmosphere:
a. has a fixed value of 2°C / 1000 ft
b. has a fixed value of 0.65°C / 100 m
c. varies with time
d. has a fixed value of 1°C / 100 m
153. Airfield is 69 metres below sea level, QFF is 1030 hPa, temperature is ISA -10°C.
What is the QNH?
a. Impossible to tell
b. Less than 1030 hPa
c. 1030 hPa
d. More than 1030 hPa
154. The QNH is 1030 hPa and at the Transition Level you set the SPS. What happens to
your indicated altitude?
a. Drops by 510 ft
b. Rises by 510 ft
c. Rises
d. Drops
155. What is the movement of air relating to a trough?
a. Descending and diverging
b. Ascending and diverging
c. Descending and converging
d. Converging and ascending
30
156. What is the movement of air relating to a ridge?
a. Descending and diverging
b. Ascending and diverging
c. Descending and converging
d. Ascending and converging
157. What would the code 01650428 tell you about the condition of the runway?
a. It is raining
b. It is snowing
c. Braking coefficient of 0.28
d. It is broken
158. What time of year is the tornado season in North America?
a. Spring to summer
b. Summer and autumn
c. Spring
d. Summer
159. What is the min. temperature according to ISA?
a. -56.5°C
b. -273°C
c. -100°C
d. 215.6 K
160. At a coastal airfield, with the runway parallel to the coastline. You are downwind
over the sea with the runway to your right. On a warm summer afternoon, what
would you expect the wind to be on finals?
a. Crosswind from the right
b. Headwind
c. Tailwind
d. Crosswind from the left
161. What diagram best shows Acc?
For questions 162 to 164, use the diagram below.
162. What symbol is used to describe widespread haze?
163. What symbol is used to describe a TRS?
164. What symbol is used to describe freezing rain?
165. The temperature at the surface is 15°C, the temperature at 1000 m is 13°C. The
atmosphere is:
a. unstable
b. conditionally unstable
c. stable
d. cannot tell
166. Altostratus is:
a. a low level cloud
b. a medium level cloud
c. a high level cloud
d. a heap type cloud
167. Which of the following would give you the worst airframe icing?
a. GR
b. SN
c. FZFG
d. +FZRA
168. Small supercooled water droplets hit the aerofoil, will it:
a. freeze on impact giving clear ice
b. partially freezing and running back giving clear ice
c. freeze on impact giving rime ice
d. partially freezing and running back giving a cloudy rime ice
169. In a METAR you see the coding R16/P1300. What does this imply?
a. RVR assessed to be more than 1300 metres
b. RVR equipment is problematic
c. RVR is improving
d. RVR is varying
30
170. If at 0600 the temperature and dew point were recorded as T= - 0.5 and DP = - 1.5,
how would a METAR record this?
a. M01, M02
b. M01, M01
c. M00, M01
d. 00, M01
171. What causes wind?
a. Difference in pressure
b. Rotation of the earth
c. Frontal systems
d. Difference in temperature
172. What is the approximate height of the 250 hPa level?
a. 30 000 ft
b. 32 000 ft
c. 39 000 ft
d. 34 000 ft
173. Several aircraft report clear air turbulence in a certain area en route:
a. ATC should issue a storm warning
b. ATC should close the specified area
c. a competent ATC should issue a SPECI
d. a competent ATC should issue a SIGMET
174. What is the flight hazard associated with the Harmattan?
a. Sand up to FL150
b. Windshear
c. Dust and poor visibility
d. Dense fog
175. Where are icing conditions on a runway specified?
a. TAF
b. METAR
c. SIGMET
d. GAFFO
176. Where are icing conditions en route specified?
a. TAF and METAR
b. METAR and SIGMET
c. SWC (sig. weather chart) and SIGMET
d. SPECI and TREND
177. If flying in the Alps with a Föhn effect from the south:
a. clouds will be covering the southern passes of the Alps
b. CAT on the northern side
c. wind veering and gusting on the northern side
d. convective weather on the southern passes of the Alps
178. If flying en route and you encounter moderate turbulence with convective clouds
and you decide to continue, you should:
a. decrease power and climb above the clouds if flight parameters allow
b. decrease power and fly below the clouds
c. increase power and climb above the clouds if flight parameters allow
d. increase power and fly below the clouds
179. You are flying from Madrid (QNH 1012) to Paris (QNH 1015) at FL80. If your true
altitude and indicated altitude remain the same then:
a. the air at Madrid is warmer than Paris
b. the air at Paris is warmer than Madrid
c. the altimeters are incorrect
d. your indicated altitude must be changing
180. If you are flying on a QNH 1009 on very cold day and you circle the top of a peak in
the Alps, your altimeter will read:
a. the same as the elevation of the peak
b. lower than the elevation of the peak
c. higher than the elevation of the peak
d. not enough information to tell
181. ICAO statement no diversion necessary, de-icing is not required or is effective; the
icing in this case is:
a. light
b. moderate
c. severe
d. extreme
182. Aircraft A has a sharp leading edge and a thin aerofoil. Aircraft B has a thick
cambered wing aerofoil. If they are flying at the same TAS into clouds with small
supercooled water droplets then:
a. depends upon the differential kinetic heating
b. B gets more icing than A
c. both get the same
d. A gets more icing than B
183. What is subsidence?
a. Horizontal motion of air
b. Vertical down draught of air
c. Vertical up draught of air
d. Adiabatic cooling
184. If an isohypse on a surface pressure chart of 500 hPa shows a figure of 522, this
indicates:
a. topography of 522 m above MSL
b. topography of 522 decametres above MSL
c. pressure is 522 hPa
d. a low surface pressure
185. Moderate turbulence can be expected in:
a. altocumulus lenticularis
b. cirrocumulus
c. nimbostratus
d. stratus
186. The polar front jet stream in summer compared to winter in the Northern
Hemisphere moves:
a. north and decreases in strength
b. north and increases in strength
c. south and decreases in strength
d. south and increases in strength
187. The Bora is a:
a. cold katabatic wind with a air mass of maritime origin
b. cold katabatic wind with a air mass of Arctic origin
c. cold katabatic wind that may produce violent gusts
d. warm squally katabatic wind
188. RVR is:
a. measured using ceilometers along the runway
b. displayed in TAFs and METARs
c. usually greater than met visibility
d. given when the met visibility is below 2000 m
189. Comparing the surface wind to the 3000 ft wind:
a. surface wind veers and is less then the 3000 ft wind
b. surface wind blows along the isobars and is less than the 3000 ft wind
c. surface wind blows across the isobars and is less than the 3000 ft wind
d. both are the same

30
190. In which air mass can extreme cold temperatures be found?
a. Polar continental
b. Arctic maritime
c. Polar maritime
d. Tropical maritime
191. Up and down going draughts in a thunderstorm occur in which stage?
a. Cumulus stage
b. Mature stage
c. Dissipating stage
d. Precipitation stage
192. Relative humidity increases in:
a. warmer air compared to colder air
b. warm air at a constant vapour pressure
c. cold air at a constant vapour pressure
d. colder air compared to warmer air
193. Supercooled water droplets are found in:
a. clouds only
b. clouds, fog and precipitation
c. precipitation and clouds
d. precipitation
194. Which of the following, with no orographic intensification, will give rise to light to
moderate icing conditions?
a. Ns and Cs
b. As and Ac
c. Cb and Ns
d. Ns and Cc
195. If an active cold front is approaching what will the altimeter read on a parked
aircraft shortly before the front arrives?
a. Decrease
b. Increase
c. Fluctuates -50 ft to +50 ft
d. Stays the same
196. Which of the following METARs at 1850UTC will most likely give fog formation over
the coming night?
a. 240/04 6000 -RA SCT012 OVC 3000 17/14 Q1002 NOSIG=
b. VRB002 9999 SCT150 17/M08 Q1012 NOSIG=
c. VRB001 8000 SCT280 11/10 Q1028 BECMG 3000
d. VRB002 8000 FEW100 12/09 Q1025 BECMG 0800
30
197. The lowest temperature in the international standard atmosphere (ISA) is?
a. -50.6°C
b. -56.5°F
c. 216.5 K
d. 56.5°C
198. What would be reflected to radar?
a. Fog
b. Hail
c. Cloud
d. Mist
199. A jet stream with a wind speed of 350 kt is:
a. impossible
b. possible but very rare
c. possible in polar areas
d. common
200. Turbulence is worst in a jet stream:
a. in the core
b. along the axis of the core to the right
c. along the axis of the core to the left
d. between the boundaries of the cold and warm air
201. If you fly at right angles to a jet stream in Europe with a decreasing outside air
temperature, you will experience:
a. increasing headwind
b. increasing tailwind
c. wind from the left
d. wind from the right
202. Low level windshear is likely to be greatest:
a. at the condensation level when there is a strong surface friction
b. at the condensation level when there is no night radiation
c. at the top of the friction layer during strong solar radiation
d. at the top of a surface based inversion during strong night radiation
203. The North African rains occur:
a. March to May and August to October
b. March to May and October to November
c. December to April
d. June to August
204. TEMPO TS indicates:
a. TS that will last for the entire period indicated
b. TS that will last for a max of 1 hour in each instance
c. TS that will last for at least 30 min
d. TS that will last for less than 30 min
205. What happens in a warm occlusion?
a. Warm air behind the cold front overrides the cold air in front of the warm
front
b. Cold air under rides the warm air
c. Cold air behind the cold front undercuts the warm air ahead of the warm
front
d. Warm air undercuts the cold air
206. Which of the following gives conditionally unstable conditions?
a. 1°C/100 m
b. 0.65°C/100 m
c. 0.49°C/100 m
d. None of the above
207. A mass of unsaturated air is forced to rise till just under the condensation level. It
then settles back to its original position:
a. temp. is greater than before
b. temp. stays the same
c. temp. is less than before
d. it depends on QFE
208. Which of the radiosonde diagrams below will show low stratus?
a. 4
b. 2
c. 3
d. 1
209. What is a microburst?
a. Air descending at high speed, the air is colder than the surrounding air
b. Air is descending at high speed; the air is warmer than the surrounding air
c. A small tropical revolving storm
d. A small depression with high wind speeds
30
210. The high bringing tropical continental air masses to Europe in summer is positioned
over:
a. southern Italy
b. southern France
c. the Balkans
d. the Azores
211. What most likely gives freezing rain over Central Europe?
a. Warm occlusion
b. Cold occlusion
c. Warm front
d. Cold front
212. Which of the cuts in the plan view of the polar front depression best represents the
profile view?
a. A, B
b. B, C
c. C, D
d. D, E
213. On a polar front depression, the point of occlusion moves mainly in which direction
in the Northern Hemisphere?
a. Along the front to the west
b. Across the front to the north
c. Across the front to the south
d. Along the front to the east
214. In the Northern Hemisphere between lat. 35°N - 65°N in the North Atlantic during
winter, the principle land based depression affecting the region is located at:
a. USA high
b. Siberia high
c. Greenland/Icelandic low
d. Azores high
215. The ITCZ is best described as:
a. where the trade winds of the Northern and Southern Hemispheres meet
b. where the west winds meet the subtropical high pressure belt
c. where cold fronts are formed in the tropics
d. where the Harmattan meets the NE trades in Africa
216. When would you most likely find cold occlusions across central Europe?
a. Winter and spring
b. Summer
c. Winter and autumn
d. Winter
217. Clear ice is most likely to form:
a. -10°C to -17°C
b. -30°C to -40°C
c. -20°C to -30°C
d. -40°C to -60°C
218. How do you calculate the lowest flight level?
a. Lowest QNH and lowest negative temperature below ISA
b. Lowest QNH and highest negative temperature below ISA
c. Highest QNH and highest temperature above ISA
d. Highest QNH and lowest temperature
219. TRS off Somalia are called:
a. hurricanes
b. typhoons
c. cyclones
d. tornadoes
220. In which cloud would you encounter the most intensive rain?
a. Ci
b. Ns
c. St
d. Sc
221. What height is the tropopause and at what temperature?
a. At the poles 8 km and -16°C
b. At the pole 18 km and -75°C
c. At the Equator 8 km and -40°C
d. At the Equator 18 km and -76°C
222. Where do you get freezing rain?
a. Rain hitting the ground and freezing on impact
b. Rain falling into warmer air
c. Rain falling from an inversion into an area below 0°C
d. Rain falling into colder air and freezing into pellets
223. Flying from Dakar to Rio de Janeiro in winter where would you cross the ITCZ?
a. 0 to 7°N
b. 7°N to 12°N
c. 7°S to 12°S
d. 12°S to 18°S
224. Where are polar front depressions located?
a. 10 to 15°N
b. 25 to 35°N
c. 35 to 55°N
d. 55 to 75°N
225. Which of the following is worst for icing?
a. -2°C to -15°C
b. -15°C to -20°C
c. -25°C to -30°C
d. Near freezing level
226. Which of the following is worst for icing?
a. Speed and shape of aerofoil
b. Relative humidity and temperature
c. Size of droplet and temperature
d. Freezing levels
227. With low pressures dominating the Med, which of the following would likely be
found in central Europe?
a. Thunderstorms and snow
b. Thermal depressions
c. Northerly Föhn wind over the Alps
d. Warm clear sunny spells
228. Which of the following will give the greatest difference between temperature and
dew point?
a. Dry air
b. Moist air
c. Cold air
d. Warm air
229. CB cloud in summer contains:
a. water droplets
b. ice crystals
c. water droplets, ice crystals and supercooled water droplets
d. water droplets and ice crystals
230. Using the diagram below you are on a flight from A to B at 1500 ft. Which
statement is true?
a. True altitude at A is greater than B
b. True altitude at B is greater than A
c. True altitude is the same
d. Cannot tell
231. Solar radiation heats the atmosphere by:
a. heating the air directly
b. heating the surface, this then heats the air in the atmosphere
c. heating the water vapour in the atmosphere directly
d. heating the water vapour directly unless there are clouds present
232. How are CBs that are not close to other CBs described on a SIGMET?
a. Isolated
b. Embedded
c. Frequent
d. Occasional
233. When do you mainly get cold occlusions?
a. Summer
b. Autumn and winter
c. Winter
d. Winter and spring
234. A coded SIGMET message for Athens reads
“TS W Athenia MOV E”
a. there will be TS coming from the east
b. there will be TS coming from the west
c. there will be TS coming from the west, moving east
d. there will be TS coming from the east, moving west
235. In a very deep depression in Iceland, the likely weather is:
a. convection causing snow
b. high wind, clear vis
c. high wind, rain, snow
d. high windshear
30
236. What affects how much water vapour the air can hold?
a. RH
b. Temperature
c. Dew point
d. Pressure
237. In a METAR/TAF what is VV?
a. RVR in metres
b. Vertical visibility
c. Horizontal visibility in metres
d. Vertical visibility in feet
238. In a METAR the cloud height is above:
a. MSL
b. aerodrome level
c. the measuring station
d. the highest point within 5 km
239. Aerodrome at MSL, QNH is 1022. QFF is:
a. greater than 1022
b. less than 1022
c. same as QNH
d. cannot tell without temperature information
240. Air at the upper levels of the atmosphere is diverging. What would you expect at
the surface?
a. Rise in pressure with clouds dissipating
b. Rise in pressure with clouds forming
c. Fall in pressure with cloud dissipating
d. Fall in pressure with cloud forming
241. What happens to the stability of the atmosphere in an inversion? (Temp increasing
with height)
a. Absolutely stable
b. Unstable
c. Conditionally stable
d. Conditionally unstable
242. What happens to stability of the atmosphere in an isothermal layer? (Temp
constant with height)
a. Absolutely stable
b. Unstable
c. Conditionally stable
d. Conditionally unstable
243. Air temperature in the afternoon is +12°C with a dew point of +5°C. What
temperature change must happen for saturation to occur?
a. Cool to +5°C
b. Cool by 5°C
c. Cool to +6°C
d. Cool to +7°C
244. What is the gradient of a warm front?
a. 1:50
b. 1:150
c. 1:300
d. 1:500
245. Subsidence would be described as:
a. vertical ascension of air
b. horizontal movement of air
c. the same as convection
d. vertical down flow of air
246. What is the technical term for an increase in temperature with altitude?
a. Inversion
b. Advection
c. Adiabatic
d. Subsidence
247. What units are used to measure vertical windshear?
a. m/sec
b. kt
c. kt/100 ft
d. km/100 ft
248. The Pampero is:
a. marked movement of cold polar air in North America
b. marked movement of cold air in South America
c. Föhn type wind in North America
d. polar air over the Spanish Pyrenees
249. If you fly from Bombay to Karachi in summer you might experience a 70 kt tailwind
and the same flight in winter experiences a headwind. This is due to:
a. the normal local changes in the winds at that time of the year
b. the route happens to be in a region of the STJs
c. in winter you had unusually unfavourable conditions
d. in summer you had unusually good weather conditions

250. Why is the “Icelandic low” more intense in winter?

a. The temperature contrast between Arctic/polar air and Equatorial areas are
much greater in winter
b. The developments of lows over the North Atlantic Sea, east of Canada are
stronger in winter
c. The winds over the North Atlantic are more favourable for lows during winter
d. In winter, strong winds favour the developments of lows
251. What causes the formation of aircraft contrails at certain altitudes?
a. Water vapour that condenses behind the engines
b. Soot particles from the engine exhaust
c. Water vapour that condenses in the wing tips due to pressure changes in the
relative warm air
d. Unburnt fuel
252. QNH is 1003. At FL100 true altitude is 10 000 ft. It is:
a. warmer than ISA
b. colder than ISA
c. same as ISA
d. cannot tell
253. Winds in western India:
a. SW monsoon in summer, NE monsoon in winter
b. NE monsoon in summer and SW monsoon in winter
c. SE monsoon in summer and SW monsoon in winter
d. SE monsoon in summer and NE monsoon in winter
254. Ice pellets on the ground are evidence that:
a. a warm front has past
b. a cold front has passed
c. there are thunderstorms in the area
d. there may be freezing rain at a higher level
255. You have to fly through a warm front. The freezing level in the warm air is at
10 000 ft and the freezing layer in the cold air is at 2000 ft. Where are you least
likely to encounter freezing rain?
a. 12 000 ft
b. 9000 ft
c. 5000 ft
d. 3000 ft
256. You are flying at FL170. The pressure level which is closest to you is the:
a. 300 hPa
a. 700 hPa
c. 500 hPa
d. 850 hPa
257. When you have icing conditions forecast en route, on what chart would you find
this information?
a. 500 hPa
b. 300 hPa
c. Surface charts
d. Significant weather charts
258. The average duration of a microburst is:
a. 1-5 min
b. 10 min
c. 15 min
d. less than 2 min
259. How is QFE determined from QNH?
a. Using the temperature of the airfield and the elevation of the airfield
b. Using the temperature
c. Using the elevation
d. Using the temperature at MSL and the elevation of the airfield
260. Which cloud would produce showers?
a. NS
b. AS
c. CS
d. CB
261. What clears radiation fog?
a. Temperature drop
b. Wind speed decreases
c. Wind speed increases
d. Mixing
262. QFE is 1000 hPa with an airfield elevation of 200 m AMSL. What is QNH?
a. 976 hPa
b. 1024 hPa
c. 1008 hPa
d. 992 hPa
263. With the approach of a warm front:
a. QNH/QFE decreases
b. QNH/QFE increases
c. QNH decreases and QFE increases
d. QNH increases and QFE decreases
264. With the approach of a cold front, temperature will:
a. decrease
b. remain the same
c. increase
d. decrease then increase
30
265. On a surface weather chart, isobars are lines of:
a. QNH
b. QFE
c. QFF
d. QNE
266. What is the effect of a strong low level inversion?
a. Good visibility
b. Calm conditions
c. Turbulence
d. Unstable conditions
267. A moist stable air mass is forced to rise against a mountain range. What might you
expect?
a. Large Cu clouds and turbulence
b. Altocumulus lenticularis
c. Cap clouds and standing waves
d. Clear skies
268. Air temperature is 12°C, Dew point is 10°C and the sea temperature is 8°C. What
might you expect if the air is blown over the sea?
a. Steaming fog
b. Radiation fog
c. Arctic smoke
d. Advection fog
269. A cold pool over land in summer would give rise to:
a. clear skies
b. low stratus with intermittent rain
c. a potentially very unstable atmosphere
d. extensive industrial haze
270. Near industrial areas with lots of smoke the worst situation for met vis is:
a. low level inversion
b. strong winds
c. fast moving cold fronts
d. Cbs in the area
271. Upper level winds are forecast in significant weather charts as:
a. true/knots
b. magnetic/knots
c. magnetic/km/h
d. true/km/h2
272. Melbourne in July will experience:
a. the Equatorial low pressure belt
b. subtropical high
c. continuous waves of troughs and ridges
d. the Antarctic high
273. How often are METARs issued at main European airfields?
a. 1 h
b. 30 min
c. 3 h
d. 1 h 30 min
274. METAR winds are meaned over the .............. period immediately preceding the
time of observation.
a. 10 minute
b. 30 minute
c. 1 hour
d. 1 minute
275. Main TAFs at large aerodromes are valid for approximately:
a. 1 hour
b. 2 hours
c. 6 hours
d. 24 hours
276. What are the TRS off the west coast of Africa called?
a. Typhoons
b. Cyclones
c. Easterly waves
d. Hurricanes
277. The most severe in-flight icing occurs in:
a. Cb
b. Cu
c. Ns
d. FZRA
278. Which of the following constituents in the atmosphere has the greatest effect on
the weather?
a. Nitrogen
b. Oxygen
c. Hydrogen
d. Water vapour
279. When would you mostly likely get fair weather Cu?
a. 15:00
b. 12:00
c. 17:00
d. 07:00
30
280. RVR is defined as being:
a. the maximum distance an observer on the runway can see marker boards by
day and runway lights by night
b. the maximum distance a pilot in the threshold area at 15 ft above the runway
can see marker boards by day or runway lights by night, when looking in the
direction of take-off or landing
c. the maximum distance in metres a pilot 15 ft above the touchdown zone can
see marker boards by day and runway lights by night in the direction of takeoff
d. the distance it would be possible to see an observer 15 ft above the runway
when standing in the direction of take-off or landing
281. What type of cloud extends into another level?
a. As
b. Acc
c. Ns
d. Ci
282. Ceilometers measure:
a. RVR
b. Cloud height
c. Met vis
d. Turbulence
283. In a METAR, the pressure group represents:
a. QFE rounded up to the nearest hectopascal
b. QFE rounded down to the nearest hectopascal
c. QNH rounded up to the nearest hectopascal
d. QNH rounded down to the nearest hectopascal
284. On a station circle decode, the cloud cover is divided into:
a. 8 parts
b. 6 parts
c. 4 parts
d. 10 parts
285. Which of the following is true?
QNH is:
a. Always more than 1013.25 hPa
b. Always less than 1013.25 hPa
c. Never 1013.25 hPa
d. Can never be above or below 1013 hPa
286. When does Darwin (Australia) experience TRS?
a. June and July
b. December to March
c. Early summer
d. Not at all
287. Radiation fog extends from the surface to:
a. 5000 ft
b. 2000 ft
c. 10 000 ft
d. 800 ft
288. Flying from Marseilles to Palma you discover your true altitude is increasing, but
oddly the QNH is identical at both places. What could be the reason?
a. Re-check the QNH
b. Re-check the radio altimeter
c. The air at Palma is warmer
d. Palma is lower than Marseilles
289. Hurricanes in the Caribbean generally move:
a. west, then NE
b. east, then SE
c. west, then SE
d. east, the NE
290. Low level inversions give:
a. good vis at night
b. good vis in the morning
c. poor vis due to the lack of vertical moving air
d. poor vis because of the lack of horizontal movement of air
291. What are the TRS off the coast of Madagascar called and when would you expect
to find them?
a. Cyclones, in December and January
b. Hurricanes, in July and August
c. Typhoons, in May to November
d. Cyclones, in June and July
292. A forecast trend is:
a. for an aerodrome and valid for 9 hours
b. for a route and valid for 24 hours
c. a SPECI and valid for 2 hours
d. for a landing and valid for 2 hour
293. On rare occasions TS can be found along the warm front. What conditions could
lead to this?
a. The warm sector being stable
b. The warm sector being unstable
c. The cold air being stable
d. The cold air being unstable
30
294. QNH is 1030. Aerodrome is 200 m AMSL. What is QFF?
a. Higher than 1030
b. Lower than 1030
c. Same
d. Not enough info
295. Where are downdraughts predominant in a thunderstorm?
a. Mature
b. Dissipating
c. Initial
d. Cumulus
296. If an aerodrome is 1500 ft AMSL on QNH 1038, what will the actual height AGL to
get to FL75?
a. 6670 ft
b. 8170 ft
c. 8330 ft
d. 2330 ft
297. What is FG VV100?
a. RVR less than 100 m
b. RVR less than 100 ft
c. Vertical visibility is 100 m
d. Vertical visibility is 100 ft
298. The line connecting C to D crosses which type of front?
a. Cold front
b. Warm front
c. Warm occlusion
d. Cold occlusion
299. What is B?
a. A trough of high pressure
b. Col
c. A ridge of low pressure
d. A low
300. On a particular day the PFJ runs north to south in the Northern Hemisphere:
a. the temperature gradient runs north to south below the jet core
b. the temperature gradient runs north to south above the jet core
c. the polar air is east of the jet above the core
d. the polar air is below the jet to the east
301. A 350 kt jet stream is:
a. impossible
b. common near Equator
c. possible but rare
d. common in the Southern Hemisphere over the oceans
302. Why do TRS tend to form in the western side of tropical oceans?
a. Because the land temperature and sea temperature provide unstable gradient
for formation
b. Because the coastal gulf provides a strong rotational force
c. Because the areas tend to have high ‘shear’ in the atmosphere
d. Because the air humidity is high, due to long passage of trade winds over
ocean
303. Where would an anemometer be placed?
a. Close to station, 2 m above ground
b. On the roof of the station
c. 10 m above aerodrome elevation on a mast
d. Next to the runway, 1 m above ground
30
304. Altimeter set to 1023 at aerodrome. On climb to altitude the SPS is set at transition
altitude. What will indication on altimeter do on resetting to QNH?
a. Dependent on temperature
b. Decrease
c. Increase
d. Same
305. 90 km/h wind in kt is:
a. 70
b. 60
c. 50
d. 30
306. The ITCZ is best described as:
a. the area where trade winds from the Northern Hemisphere meets those from
the Southern Hemisphere
b. where west winds meet subtropical high pressure zone
c. where Harmattan meets the N.E. trade winds
d. where cold fronts form in the tropics
307. When landing at Dakar in July, the weather to be expected is:
a. clear and dry
b. wet and stormy, due to proximity of the ITCZ
c. settled/warm/clear skies due to influence of the Azores High
d. low visibility/dust storms due to the Harmattan
308. When is the hurricane season in the Caribbean?
a. July to November
b. October to January
c. January to April
d. April to July
309. An aircraft is stationary on the ground. With the passage of an active cold front its
altimeter will:
a. show an increase then a decrease
b. fluctuate ± 50 ft
c. show a decrease then an increase
d. remain constant
310. What is the average vertical extent of radiation fog?
a. 2000 ft
b. 500 ft
c. 5000 ft
d. 10 000 ft
311. Where is clear ice most likely in a Cb?
a. Near the freezing level
b. -2°C to -15°C
c. -20°C to -40°C
d. Below -40°C
312. You have to make an emergency ditch at sea. The QNH of a nearby island airfield
is 1025 hPa, airfield elevation 4000 ft. The temp is -20°C. With 1025 set on your subscale,
on ditching the altimeter will read:
a. 0 ft
b. less than 0 ft
c. > 0 ft but less than 4000 ft
d. 4000 ft
313. Which of the following will indicate medium level instability, possibly leading to
thunderstorms?
a. Halo
b. Altocumulus castellanus
c. Altocumulus capillatus
d. Red Cirrus
314. Radiation fog extends to:
a. 8000 ft
b. 4000 ft
c. 2000 ft
d. 500 ft
315. What is reported as precipitation?
a. FZFG
b. FG
c. TS
d. SN
316. At FL60 what pressure chart would you use?
a. 700 hPa
b. 850 hPa
c. 800 hPa
d. 900 hPa
317. On a descent through cloud cover at high level you notice a white, cloudy or
opaque, rough powder like substance on the leading edge of the wing. This
contamination is likely to be:
a. frost
b. clear ice
c. mixed ice
d. rime ice
318. In association with CB in temperate latitudes, at about what levels can hail be
anticipated?
a. Ground to FL100
b. Ground to FL200
c. Cloud base to FL200
d. Ground to FL450
319. Moderate turbulence gives:
a. changes in altitude and/or attitude but the aircraft remains in positive control
at all times
b. slight erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude
c. large, abrupt changes in altitude and/or attitude. Aircraft maybe momentarily
out of control
d. slight, rapid and somewhat rhythmic bumpiness
320. ATIS reports:
a. aerodrome operational and meteorological information
b. met only
c. operational only
d. none of the above
321. +TSRA come from what sort of cloud?
a. Cb
b. Ns
c. Cc
d. Cu
322. Flying 2500 ft below core of jet, with temperature increasing in the Southern
Hemisphere, where does the wind come from?
a. Head
b. Tail
c. Left
d. Right
323. Secondary depressions move:
a. around the primary in a cyclonic fashion
b. around the primary in an anticyclonic fashion
c. eastwards
d. westwards
324. What temperature and pressure conditions would be safest to ensure that your
flight level clears all the obstacles by the greatest margin?
a. Cold temp/low pressure
b. Warm temp/high pressure
c. Temp less than or equal to ISA and a QNH less than 1013
d. Temp more than or equal to ISA and a QNH greater than 1013
325. In which part of the world are TRS most frequent?
a. Caribbean
b. Madagascar, Eastern Indian Ocean
c. NW Pacific i.e. Japan, Korea
d. Northern Indian Oceans around India, Sri Lanka
326. As an active cold front passes, the altimeter of an a/c parked on the apron:
a. increases then decreases
b. fluctuates by ± 50 ft
c. decreases then increases
d. remains unchanged
327. Where does a TRS gain its energy from?
a. Energy gained directly from the sun
b. Latent heat from water in oceans
c. The very fast winds
d. The very low pressures inside the storm
328. What is the height and temperature of the tropopause?
a. 8 km and -40°C at Equator
b. 16 km and -75°C at Equator
c. 16 km and -40°C at Pole
d. 8 km and -75°C at Pole
329. What is the easterly wave?
a. A wave of weather travelling east-west
b. A wave of weather travelling west-east
c. A wave of weather travelling north-south
d. A wave of weather travelling south-north
330. Where is icing worst?
a. Near condensation level
b. Near freezing level
c. -2°C to -15 °C
d. -16°C to -30°C etc.
331. What is in position A?
a. Col
b. Ridge of high pressure
c. A low
d. A high
332. The geostrophic wind blows at your flight level in Northern Hemisphere, true
altitude and indicated altitude remain constant, is the crosswind:
a. from the left
b. from the right
c. no crosswind
d. impossible to determine
333. What is the base of altocumulus in summer?
a. 0 - 1500 ft
b. 1500 - 7000 ft
c. 7000 ft - 15 000 ft
d. 7000 ft - 16 500 ft
334. What is the general height of radiation fog?
a. 500 ft
b. 2000 ft
c. 3000 ft
d. 1500 ft
335. When a CC layer lies over a West European plain in summer, with a mean terrain
height of 500 m above sea level, the average cloud base could be expected:
a. 0- 100 ft above ground level
b. 5000 - 15 000 ft above ground level
c. 15 000 - 25 000 ft above ground level
d. 15 000 - 35 000 ft above ground level
336. Which of the following cloud types can stretch across all three cloud levels (low,
medium and high level)?
a. CI
b. ST
c. AC
d. CB
337. Which of the following cloud types can stretch across at least two cloud levels?
a. ST
b. NS
c. CI
d. SC
338. Shortly after the passage of an active cold front you observe the aneroid altimeter
of a parked aircraft. The indication of the instrument will:
a. decrease
b. not be influenced by the air pressure
c. increase
d. show no appreciable change due to such minor pressure fluctuation
339. In a shallow pressure distribution (widely spaced isobars or low pressure
gradients) you observe the aneroid altimeter of a parked aircraft for 10 minutes (no
thunderstorms observed). The reading of the instrument will:
a. not be influenced by the air pressure
b. increase greatly
c. show no appreciable change due to such a minor pressure fluctuation
d. experience great changes
340. You are flying from Marseilles (QNH 1012 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1012
hPa) at FL100. You notice that the effective height above MSL (radio altitude)
increases constantly. Hence:
a. one of the QNH values must be wrong
b. you have the altimeters checked, as their indications are obviously wrong
c. the air mass above Palma is warmer than that above Marseilles
d. you have to adjust for a crosswind from the right
341. Which air mass has the coldest temperature?
a. mAc
b. mPc
c. cPc
d. mTw
342. You are flying from Marseilles (QNH 1026 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH
1026 hPa) at FL100. You notice that the effective height above MSL (radio altitude)
decreases constantly. Hence:
a. one of the QNH values must be wrong
b. the air mass above Marseilles is warmer than that above Palma
c. you have the altimeters checked, as their indications are obviously wrong
d. you have to adjust for a crosswind from the right
343. Flying at FL135 above the sea, the radio altimeter indicates a true altitude of
13 500 ft. The local QNH is 1019 hPa. Hence the crossed air mass is, on average:
a. at ISA standard temperature
b. colder than ISA
c. warmer than ISA
d. there is insufficient information to determine the average temperature
deviation
344. What happens to an aircraft altimeter on the ground once a cold front has passed?
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Increases then decreases
d. Remains the same
345. What happens to an aircraft’s altimeter on the ground at the approach of a cold
front?
a. Increases then decreases
b. Decreases then increases
c. Remains the same
d. Increases
346. Even pressure system, no CB - what would you notice the altimeter in an aircraft on
the ground do during a 10 min period?
a. Remains the same as any fluctuations are small
b. Increases
c. Rapidly fluctuates
d. Impossible to tell
347. What weather phenomenon is over northern Italy?
a. A high
b. Easterly wind
c. Cloud and rain
d. A col
348. You are flying in the Alps at the same level as the summits on a hot day. What
does the altimeter read?
a. Same altitude as the summit
b. Higher altitude as the summit
c. Lower altitude as the summit
d. Impossible to tell
349. What cloud is between a warm and cold front?
a. St with drizzle
b. Cs
c. Ns
d. St with showers
350. From which cloud do you get hail?
a. Sc
b. Cb
c. Ns
d. Ts
351. When flying from south to north in the Southern Hemisphere, you cross over the
polar front jet. What happens to the temperature?
a. It increases
b. It decreases
c. It remains the same
d. Impossible to determine
352. If you see alto castellanus what does it indicate?
a. The upper atmosphere is stable
b. Subsistence
c. Instability in the lower atmosphere
d. Middle level instability
353. To dissipate cloud requires:
a. subsidence
b. a decrease in temperature
c. an increase pressure
d. convection
354. When would a SIGMET be issued for subsonic flights?
a. Thunderstorms and fog
b. Severe mountain waves
c. Solar flare activity
d. Moderate turbulence
355. Which of these statements about icing is correct?
a. Ice will occur going through cirrus cloud
b. Large amounts of icing if temperature is way below -12°C
c. Icing increases if dry snow starts to fall from cloud
d. Icing will occur if supercooled water and ice are present
356. You will get least amount of icing in which cloud?
a. NS
b. SC
c. CS
d. AS
357. The core of a jet stream is located:
a. at the level where temperature change with altitude becomes little or nil and
the pressure surface is at maximum slope
b. in the warm air where the pressure surface is horizontal
c. in the warm air and directly beneath at the surface
d. in cold air
358. Isolated TS in summer are because of:
a. convection
b. cold fronts
c. warm front occlusions
d. cold front occlusions
359. Trade winds are most prominent or strongest in the:
a. upper troposphere over sea
b. lower troposphere over ocean
c. lower troposphere over land
d. upper troposphere over land
360. A layer of air can be:
a. conditional; unstable when unsaturated and stable when saturated
b. conditional; unstable when saturated and stable when unsaturated
c. neutrally stable when saturated and unstable when unsaturated
d. all of the above
361. On a significant weather chart you notice a surface weather front with an arrow
labelled with the no. 5 pointing outward perpendicular from the front. This would
indicate:
a. front speed is 5 kt
b. front movement is 5 NM
c. front thickness is 5 km
d. front is 5000 ft AMSL
362. With all other things being equal with a high and a low having constantly spaced
circular isobars, where is the wind the fastest?
a. Anticyclonic
b. Cyclonic
c. Where the isobars are closest together
d. Wherever the PGF is greatest
363. Blocking anticyclones prevent the polar front from arriving over the UK and
originate from where?
a. Warm anticyclones over the Azores
b. Warm anticyclones over Siberia
c. Cold anticyclones over the Azores
d. Cold anticyclones over Siberia
364. Föhn winds are:
a. warm katabatic
b. cold katabatic
c. warm descending winds
d. warm anabatic
365. The gust front is:
a. characterized by frequent lightning
b. formed by the cold outflow from beneath TS
c. another name for a cold front
d. directly below a TS
366. Cu is an indication of:
a. vertical movement of air
b. stability
c. the approach of a warm front
d. the approach of a cold front
367. Which clouds are evidence of stable air?
a. St, As
b. Cb, Cc
c. Cu, Ns
d. Cu, Cb
368. Lack of cloud at low level in a stationary high is due to:
a. instability
b. rising air
c. sinking air
d. divergence at high level
369. What is the ratio of height to width in a typical jet stream?
a. 1:10
b. 1:100
c. 1:1000
d. 1:10000
370. When and where does an easterly jet stream occur?
a. All year through the Equator
b. In Summer from SE Asia through S. India to Central Africa
c. In Summer from the Middle East through N. Africa and the Mediterranean to
S. Spain
d. In winter in Arctic Russia
371. What degree of turbulence, if any, is likely to be encountered while flying through
a cold front in the summer over central Europe at FL100?
a. Light turbulence in ST cloud
b. Moderate turbulence in NS cloud
c. Light turbulence in Cb cloud
d. Severe turbulence in Cb cloud
372. An easterly wave is a:
a. wave in a trade wind belt, moving from east to west with severe convective
activity in rear of its trough
b. small scale wave disturbance in the tropics, moving from east to west with
severe convective activity ahead of its trough
c. wave-like disturbance in the monsoon regime of indices moving from east to
west with severe convective activity ahead of its trough
d. disturbance in the higher levels associated with the Equatorial easterly jets,
moving from east to west, with severe convective activity in rear of its trough
373. What is the most common freezing precipitation?
a. Freezing pellets
b. Freezing rain and freezing drizzle
c. Freezing graupel
d. Freezing hail and freezing snow
374. Which of the following is an example of a Föhn wind?
a. Bora
b. Harmattan
c. Chinook
d. Ghibli
375. From which of the following clouds are you least likely to get precipitation in
summer?
a. CS/NS
b. CS/AS
c. CB/CU
d. CU/ST
376. What is a cold pool?
a. Found south of the Alps if there is NW airflow
b. Cool area of weather which disappears at night
c. Cold pool is most evident behind polar frontal weather in mid temperate areas
with little or no sign on significant weather charts
d. Air trapped on the leeward side of mountain ranges
377. Where do you find information on ICING and CAT?
a. 300 hPa chart
b. 700 hPa chart
c. Sig. WX chart
d. Analysis chart
378. Which of these statements is true about hurricanes?
a. They are 400-500 m wide
b. They pick up in force when they hit land
c. The air inside is warmer than outside and can reach up to the tropopause
d. They are never found more than 25° latitude
379. Relative humidity:
a. is not affected by temperature
b. is not affected by air expanding and contracting
c. does not change when water is added
d. changes when water is added, even if the temperature is the same
380. What happens to the temperature of a saturated air mass when forced to descend?
a. It heats up more than dry because of expansion
b. It heats up less than dry because of evaporation
c. It heats up more than dry because of sublimation
d. It heats up less than dry because of latent heat released during condensation
381. A warm front occlusion is approaching the east coast of the UK.
What WX would you expect in the North Sea during summer?
a. High level Ci
b. TS/showers/CB
c. Medium level cloud 3/8 oktas, isolated showers
d. Low level stratus
382. What is the average height of the tropopause at the Equator?
a. 16 km
b. 11 km
c. 5 km
d. 3 km
383. The tropopause is lower:
a. in summer in mid latitudes
b. at the North Pole than at the Equator
c. in summer at the Equator
d. at the Equator than at the South Pole
384. An airfield has an elevation of 540 ft with a QNH of 993 hPa. An aircraft descends
and lands at the airfield with 1013 hPa set. What will its altimeter read on landing?
a. 380 ft
b. 1080 ft
c. 0 ft
d. 540 ft
385. In a METAR a gust is reported when:
a. it is 10 kt greater than the mean wind speed
b. it is 15 kt greater than the mean wind speed
c. it is 20 kt greater than the mean wind speed
d. it is 5 kt greater than the mean wind speed
386. When is pressure altitude equal to true altitude?
a. In standard conditions
b. When surface pressure is 1013.25 hPa
c. When the temperature is standard
d. When the indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude
387. What is the relationship between QFE and QNH at an airport 50 ft below MSL?
a. QFE = QNH
b. QFE < QNH
c. QFE > QNH
d. There is no clear relationship
388. Where would a pilot find information about the presence of a jet stream?
a. On an Upper Air chart
b. On a Significant Weather chart
c. On a Surface Analysis chart
d. On a Wind/Temperature chart
389. Up to FL180 ISA Deviation is ISA +10°C. What is the actual depth of the layer
between FL60 and FL120?
a. 6000 ft
b. 6240 ft
c. 5760 ft
d. 5700 ft
390. Thunderstorms will occur on a warm front:
a. when air is cold moist and cools quicker than SALR
b. when air is warm moist and cools quicker than SALR
c. when air is cold moist and cools slower than SALR
d. when air is warm moist and cools slower than DALR
391. What is the effect of a mountain valley wind?
a. It blows down a mountain to a valley at night
b. It blows down a mountain to a valley during the day
c. It blows from a valley up a mountain by day
d. It blows from a valley up a mountain at night
392. What is the name of the dry, dusty wind blowing in Northwest Africa from the
northeast?
a. Pampero
b. Khamsin
c. Harmattan
d. Ghibli
393. What is the difference between gradient and geostrophic winds?
a. Difference in temperatures
b. A lot of friction
c. Curved isobars and straight isobars
d. Different latitudes and densities
394. In still air a lapse rate of 1.2°C/100 m refers to:
a. DALR
b. SALR
c. ELR
d. ALR
395. What happens to the temperature of a saturated air mass when descending?
a. Heats up more than dry because of expansion
b. Heats up less than dry because of evaporation
c. Heats up more than dry because of compression
d. Heats up less than dry because of latent heat released during condensation
396. What prevents air from flowing directly from a high to a low pressure?
a. Centripetal force
b. Centrifugal force
c. Pressure force
d. Coriolis force
397. You are flying at FL160 with an OAT of -27°C. QNH is 1003 hPa. What is your true
altitude?
a. 15 540 ft
b. 15 090 ft
c. 16 330 ft
d. 15 730 ft
398. Flying from A to B at a constant indicated altitude in the Northern Hemisphere:
B
A
a. true altitude increases
b. wind is northerly
c. true altitude decreases
d. wind is southerly
399. What is the relationship between the 5000 ft wind and the surface wind in the
Southern Hemisphere?
a. Surface winds are veered from the 5000 ft and have the same speed
b. Surface winds are backed from the 5000 ft and have a slower speed
c. Surface winds are veered from the 5000 ft and have a slower speed
d. Surface winds are backed from the 5000 ft and have a faster speed
400. What is the relationship between the 2000 ft wind and the surface wind in the
Northern Hemisphere?
a. Surface winds blow across isobars towards a high
b. Surface winds blow parallel to isobars
c. Surface winds blow across isobars towards a low
d. Surface winds have laminar flow
401. The DALR is:
a. variable with time
b. fixed
c. variable with latitude
d. variable with temperature
402. Which frontal or occlusion system is the fastest moving?
a. Warm front
b. Cold front
c. Cold occlusion
d. Warm occlusion
403. From the preflight briefing you know a jet stream is at 31 000 ft whilst you are at
FL270. You experience moderate CAT, what would be the best course of action?
a. Stay level
b. Descend
c. Climb
d. Reduce speed
404. On a significant weather chart you notice a symbol with the letter “H” and the
number “400” inside. What does this imply?
a. The height of the significant weather chart
b. Tropopause “low”
c. Tropopause “high”
d. Tropopause “middle”
405. You are at 12 000 ft (FL120) with an outside air temperature of -2°C. Where would
you find the freezing level?
a. FL110
b. FL100
c. FL090
d. FL140
406. How does a polar front depression normally move?
a. Same direction as the isobars behind the cold front
b. Same direction as the isobars in the warm sector
c. Same direction as isobars in front of the warm front
d. Same direction as the isobars north of the centre of the low
407. Flying away from a low pressure at low levels in the Southern Hemisphere, where
is the wind coming from?
a. From the left and slightly on the nose
b. From the right and slightly on the nose
c. From the rear and slightly on the left
d. From the rear and slightly on the right
408. The ITCZ in July is:
a. over West Africa at 25°N and stretches up to the north of the Arabian Sea
b. 20°N over West Africa
c. over the Canaries
d. passing through Freetown
409. Using the diagram shown, what cross-section is through an occluded front?
a. DE
b. CD
c. CB
d. AB
410. What is true about the dew point temperature?
a. Can be higher or lower than the air mass temperature
b. Can be higher than the temperature of the air mass only
c. Can be only lower than the temperature of the air mass
d. Can be equal to or lower than the temperature of the air mass
411. What kind of weather system might you typically find between 45° - 70°N?
a. Subtropical highs
b. Polar highs
c. Polar front depressions
d. Arctic front depressions
412. What is true regarding supercooled water droplets?
a. Always below -60°C
b. All large
c. All small
d. All below 0°C
413. What is most different about the equatorial easterly jet stream?
a. Its height
b. Its length
c. Its direction
d. Its speed
414. Flying towards a warm front, at what distances might you expect the following
cloud types from the surface position of the front?
a. CS 600 km; AS 400 km: NS 200 km
b. CS 200 km: AS 400 km: NS 600 km
c. CS 800 km: AS 200 km: NS 400 km
d. CS 400 km: AS 600 km: NS 800 km
415. Wind is caused by:
a. mixing of fronts
b. horizontal pressure difference
c. earth rotation
d. surface friction
416. What weather might you expect behind a fast moving cold front?
a. 8 oktas of layered cloud
b. Scattered ST
c. Isolated CBs and showers
d. Continuous rain
417. How would an unstable atmosphere likely reduce the visibility?
a. By mist
b. By haze
c. By rain and or snow
d. Low stratus
418. Which is true regarding a polar front jet stream?
a. It is found in the warm air and so does its plan projection show this
b. It is located where there is little vertical temperature gradient but the
horizontal pressure gradient is at its steepest
c. It is located where there is significant horizontal temperature difference but
the pressure gradient is flat
d. It is always in the colder of the air masses
419. Which of the following indicates upper level instability and possibly the formation
of TS?
a. Halo
b. Red cirrus
c. Altocumulus lenticularis
d. Altocumulus castallanus
420. When are the North Atlantic lows at their most southerly position?
a. Spring
b. Summer
c. Autumn
d. Winter
421. A layer of air cooling at the SALR compared to the DALR would give what kind of
cloud?
a. Stratus if saturated
b. Cumulus if saturated
c. No cloud if saturated
d. Convective cloud
422. For the same pressure gradient at 50N, 60N and 40N, the geostrophic wind speed
is:
a. greatest at 60N
b. least at 50N
c. greatest at 40N
d. the same at all latitudes
423. What is a SPECI?
a. A forecast valid for 3 hours
b. A report produced when significant changes have occurred
c. A forecast and valid for 6 hours
d. A landing forecast
424. A parcel of air cooling by more than 1°C/100 m is said to be:
a. conditionally stable
b. conditionally unstable
c. unstable
d. stable
425. The wind in the Northern Hemisphere at the surface and above the friction layer at
2000 ft would be:
a. veered at the surface, veered above the friction layer
b. backed at the surface, veered above the friction layer
c. veered at the surface, backed above the friction layer
d. backed at the surface, backed above the friction layer
426. Where are easterly and westerly jets found?
a. Northern Hemisphere only
b. Southern Hemisphere only
c. Northern and Southern Hemisphere
d. There are no easterly jets
427. Which weather phenomena are typical for the north side of the alps with stormy
winds from the south (Föhn)?
a. Drop in temperature, moderate to severe icing
b. Icing, huge mass of cloud
c. Good visibility, turbulence
d. Continuous precipitation and moderate turbulence
428. At 15 000 ft in nimbostratus cloud with an outside air temperature of -12°C, what
icing might you expect?
a. Moderate rain ice
b. Moderate to severe mixed ice
c. Moderate to severe ice if orographically intensified
d. Light rime ice
429. Comparing rain to drizzle, visibility will generally:
a. rain has a visibility of 1 km, drizzle has 2 km
b. remains the same
c. deteriorate
d. improve
430. What statement is true regarding the tropopause?
a. It is higher over the Equator with a higher temperature
b. It is lower over the Equator with a lower temperature
c. It is higher over the poles with a lower temperature
d. It is lower over the poles with a higher temperature
431. See Figure opposite.
What is the temperature deviation, in degrees Celsius, from the International
Standard Atmosphere overhead Frankfurt (50N 08E) at FL180?
a. ISA +2°C
b. ISA -13°C
c. ISA +13°C
d. ISA -2°C
432. Polar front depression normally move:
a. in the direction of the isobars behind the cold front
b. in the direction of the isobars in front of the warm front
c. in the direction on the isobars ahead of the depression
d. in the direction of the isobars inside the warm sector
433. QNH in a METAR is:
a. rounded up to the nearest whole hectopascal
b. rounded down to the nearest even hectopascal
c. rounded up to the nearest even hectopascal
d. rounded down to the nearest whole hectopascal
434. Thermal lows usually develop:
a. over the sea in summer
b. over the sea in winter
c. over the land in summer
d. over the land in winter
435. TAFs are usually valid:
a. for the period indicated in the TAF itself
b. for 18 hours
c. for 24 hours
d. for 8 hours
436. Tornadoes are usually associated with which cloud type?
a. Ns
b. Cu
c. Cb
d. Ts
437. Wind at altitude is usually given as …….. in ……..
a. true, m/s
b. magnetic, m/s
c. true, kt
d. magnetic, kt
438. The surface wind circulation found between the subtropical highs and the
Equatorial lows are called:
a. the doldrums
b. the trade winds
c. the easterlies
d. the westerlies
439. If an occlusion is mimicking a cold front, where would the coldest air be found?
a. Behind the original cold front
b. Behind the original warm front
c. In front of the occlusion
d. In front of the original warm front

440. In high pressure systems:

a. the winds tend to be stronger in the morning
b. the angle between the isobars and the wind direction is greatest in the
afternoon
c. the winds tend to be stronger at night
d. the winds tend to be stronger in early afternoon
441. Over flat dry land what would cause cloud?
a. Orographic uplift
b. Convective uplift during the day
c. Release of latent heat
d. Advection
442. Where does freezing rain come from?
a. Cold hail falling into a warm layer
b. Cold rain falling into a warmer layer
c. Warmer rain falling into a colder layer
d. Cold rain falling into cold layer
443. Without the ability to de-ice or land immediately, what should you do if you
encounter rain ice at about 2000 ft?
a. Turn around immediately before loss of controllability
b. Descend immediately to stop the rain ice
c. Climb into the warm air found above
d. Fly faster
444. What is the feature W?
a. Warm occlusion
b. Cold occlusion
c. Quasi-stationary front
d. Warm front
445. Using the picture shown above, what will be expected to happen to the surface
pressure after the feature Y has passed?
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Remain the same
d. Increase, then decrease
446. A man is flying east to west in the Northern Hemisphere. What is happening to his
altitude?
a. Flying into a headwind will decrease altitude
b. If the wind is from the south, he will gain altitude
c. If the wind is from the north, he will gain altitude
d. Tailwind will increase altitude
447. Up to FL180 ISA Deviation is ISA -10°C. What is the actual depth of the layer
between FL60 and FL120?
a. 6000 ft
b. 6240 ft
c. 5760 ft
d. 5700 ft
448. In central Europe in summer, under the influence of a polar depression in a wide
warm sector, you would expect the following wx:
a. thunderstorms and rain showers
b. low stratus and drizzle
c. fair weather Cu
d. clear skies
449. An easterly wave will produce:
a. frontal weather
b. thunderstorms and rain
c. low stratus
d. clear skies
450. The line connecting A to B crosses what pressure system?
a. A trough
b. A ridge
c. A front
d. An occlusion
451. Which coast of the USA is affected by the most frequent hurricanes?
a. NE
b. NW
c. SE
d. SW
452. Flying over France at dawn, with 8/8 St at 200 ft, QNH 1026, wind Var3, what will
be the most likely conditions at mid-day in winter and summer?
a. OVC 2000 ft St OVC 200 ft St
b. OVC 500 ft AGL St SCT 3000 ft St
c. OVC 2000 ft AGL St OVC 200 ft St
d. clear skies CBs
453. What do the following one hour interval METARS indicate the passage of?
22010KT 9999 SCT200 14/08 Q1012=
22010KT 9999 OVC200 13/08 Q1011=
23012KT 9KM SCT 060 OVC120 13/08 Q1010=
24012KT 8KM -RA BKN040 OVC090 12/08 Q1009=
25015KT 2000 +RA SCT002 OVC008 12/08 Q1008=
27015KT 0800 DZ BKN002 OVC010 17/16 Q1008=
27015KT 0800 DZ BKN002 OVC010 17/16 Q1008=
27015G30KT 1000 +SHRA TS OVC010 17/16 Q1008=
29020KT 9000 SHRA BKN020 14/07 Q1010=
31020KT 9999 SCTO30 13/07 Q1012=
a. Cold occlusion
b. Polar front
c. Ridge
d. Warm front
454. Paris reports OVC 8/8 St at +3°C during the day. What will happen on the night of
3/4 Jan?
a. Slightly above +3°
b. Slightly below +3°
c. Stays at +3°
d. Well below 0°
455. With a cold front over the North Sea, what weather would you expect 300 km
behind the front?
a. Stratus with drizzle
b. Thunderstorms and heavy showers
c. Scattered Cu and showers
d. Clear skies
456. Surface wind is 320/12 what is the wind at 2000 ft in the Northern Hemisphere?
a. 330/25
b. 220/20
c. 270/20
d. 210/12
457. Lucarno airfield elv 1735 ft altimeter indicates 1310 ft with 1013 hPa set what is the
QNH?
a. 990 hPa
b. 980 hPa
c. 1028 hPa
d. 998 hPa
458. Where is the ITCZ in July?
a. 25N over the Atlantic
b. 10 - 20N over East Africa and the Arabian sea
c. 10 - 30N over West Africa
d. 20 - 30N over East Africa
459. The letters NC used at the end of a SIGMET, mean:
a. no cloud
b. no change
c. no cumulus
d. not clear
460. On the route London to Bombay, which feature would you most likely encounter
between 30E and 50E?
a. Polar front jet in excess of 90 kt
b. Sub tropical jet in excess of 90 kt
c. Variable winds less than 30 kt
d. Easterly winds
461. When would the strongest convection occur?
a. Land in summer
b. Land in winter
c. Sea in summer
d. Sea in winter
462. Which way does a depression move?
a. Direction of the isobars in the warm sector
b. 90 degrees to the plane of the warm front
c. Towards the east
d. Direction of the isobars behind the cold front
463. Freezing rain is most likely from a:
a. warm front in summer
b. cold front in summer
c. warm front in winter
d. cold front in winter
464. With regard to RVR and met vis:
a. met vis is usually less than RVR
b. met vis is usually greater than RVR
c. RVR is usually less than met vis
d. met vis and RVR are usually the same
465. When are thermal lows most likely?
a. Land in summer
b. Land in winter
c. Sea in summer
d. Sea in winter
466. What is the validity of a significant weather chart?
a. 3 h
b. 6 h
c. 9 h
d. 12 h
467. What is the main feature of the initial stage of a thunderstorm?
a. Downdrafts
b. Up currents
c. Rain
d. Rotor cloud
468. What is haze?
a. Poor visibility due to drizzle
b. Poor visibility due to rain
c. Poor visibility due to dust or sand
d. All of the above
469. On the chart below, where is rain least likely?
a. EBBR
b. Madrid
c. Paris
d. LOWW
470. On a flight from Zurich to Rome, which of the following METARs would be
applicable?
a. London
b. Shannon
c. Madrid
d. Milan
471. Which of the following is true about freezing precipitation?
a. It only falls from a warm front
b. It is either rain or drizzle
c. It only falls from a cold front
d. It only falls from an occlusion
472. What do the letters NO SIG mean at the end of a METAR?
a. No significant change
b. No significant weather
c. No significant cloud
d. No signature on report
473. What is a TREND forecast?
a. An aerodrome forecast valid for 9 hours
b. A routine report
c. A landing forecast appended to a METAR/SPECI valid for 2 hours
d. A route forecast, valid for 24 hours
474. How does clear ice form?
a. SWDs spreading on impact
b. Ice pellets shattering on impact
c. Frost on the wing
d. Water vapour freezing on the aircraft surface
475. Where is windshear the greatest?
a. Near a strong low level inversion and in the region of a thunderstorm
b. Near a valley with wind speeds greater than 35 kt
c. On the windward side of a mountain
d. When the wind is greater than 35 kt
477. On the chart below, for the route Edinburgh to Zurich, state the optimum flight
level.
a. FL220
b. FL240
c. FL370
d. FL390
476. Where do you find squall lines?
a. Where there are thunderstorms
b. Ahead of a fast moving cold front
c. Foggy areas
d. Regions of snow
478. A Föhn wind occurs:
a. on the windward side caused by surface heating
b. on the leeward side, because the condensation level is higher
c. on the windward side, caused by surface cooling and wind flow reversal
d. on the leeward side, caused by precipitation
479. The Harmattan is:
a. a SE monsoon wind
b. a NE wind over NW Africa between Nov - April reducing visibility with dust
c. a local depression wind
d. SE wind over NW Africa between Nov - April reducing visibility with dust
480. Icing is most likely:
a. -20 to --35 C
b. +10 to 0 C
c. 0 to -10C
d. below - 35 C
481. At what height is half the mass of the atmosphere?
a. 5 km
b. 11 km
c. 8 km
d. 3 km
482. How can you determine QNH from QFE?
a. Temperature and elevation
b. Elevation
c. Pressure and temperature
d. Temperature
483. What is true about moderate to severe airframe icing?
a. It will occur in clear sky conditions
b. Always occurs in AS cloud
c. May occur in the uppermost levels of CB capillatus formation
d. Most likely in NS
484. A winter day in N Europe with a thick layer of SC and surface temperature zero
degrees C. You can expect:
a. decreasing visibility due to snow below the cloud base and light icing in cloud
b. high probability of icing in clouds, severe icing in the upper levels due to large
droplets
c. turbulence due to a strong inversion, but no icing due to clouds being formed
from ice crystals
d. reduced visibility and light icing in cloud
485. If an aircraft flies into an area of supercooled rain with a temperature below zero,
what kind of icing is most likely?
a. Clear
b. Rime
c. Hoar frost
d. Granular frost
486. With regard to the idealized globe below, where are travelling lows located?
a. V
b. S + Y
c. T + W
d. U + W
487. If Paris has a surface wind of 160/40, what is the wind at 2000 ft?
a. 180/60
b. 120/40
c. 160/60
d. 160/40
488. What causes convection in a low pressure system?
a. Height
b. Latitude
c. Centripetal force
d. Friction
489. What is the cause of the formation of the polar front jet?
a. Pressure
b. Azores High
c. Temperature
d. Tropopause height
490. You are flying at FL120 with a true altitude of 12 000 ft, why would this be?
a. ISA conditions prevail
b. Temperature higher than ISA
c. Temperature lower than ISA
d. An altimeter fault
491. TAF 130600Z 130716 VRB02 CAVOK =
Volmet 0920 28020G40KT BKN050CB OVC090 TEMPO TS =
a. TAF is correct Volmet is wrong
b. TAF & Volmet match
c. Volmet speaker surely must have mixed up airports because there is no way
that TAF & Volmet can differ by that much
d. Conditions just turned out to be much more volatile than originally forecast
492. What will be the position of the polar front in 24 hours time, assuming the usual
path of movement of the PF?
493. Considering the North Atlantic area at 60°N in winter, the mean height of the
tropopause is approximately:
a. 56 000 ft
b. 37 000 ft
c. 29 000 ft
d. 70 000 ft
494. An unsaturated parcel of air is forced to rise through an isothermal layer. As long
as it stays unsaturated the temperature of the parcel will:
a. remain the same
b. become equal to the temperature of the isothermal layer
c. decrease at 1.0 deg C per 100 m
d. decrease at 0.65 deg C per 100 m

30