FAA - ORDER JO 7110.65Z - Air Traffic Control

ORDER
JO 7110.65Z
Air Traffic Organization Policy
Effective Date:
June 17, 2021
SUBJ: Air Traffic Control
This order prescribes air traffic control procedures and phraseology for use by personnel providing
air traffic control services. Controllers are required to be familiar with the provisions of this order that
pertain to their operational responsibilities and to exercise their best judgment if they encounter
situations not covered by it.
Angela McCullough
Vice President, Mission Support Services
Air Traffic Organization
Distribution: ZAT-710, ZAT-464 Initiated By: AJV-0

RECORD OF CHANGES DIRECTIVE NO. JO 7110.65Z
CHANGE SUPPLEMENTS CHANGE SUPPLEMENTS

TO OPTIONAL TO OPTIONAL
BASIC BASIC
FAA Form 1320−5 (6−80) USE PREVIOUS EDITION

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Explanation of Changes
Basic
Direct questions through appropriate facility/service center office staff
to the Office of Primary Interest (OPI)
a. 2−1−14. COORDINATE USE OF were made in 2015 in response to an ATSAP CAR.

AIRSPACE One of those changes established that the
2−1−17. RADIO COMMUNICATIONS transferring controller is always responsible for an
4−5−7. ALTITUDE INFORMATION adjacent sector point−out when the sectors involved
10−4−4. COMMUNICATIONS FAILURE in the handoff are in different altitude strata and the
receiving controller must delay the climb or descent
This change reflects the removal of the term
of an aircraft into their airspace, whether that
Aeronautical Radio, Incorporated (ARINC) and
decision is made before OR after accepting the
reflects the addition of new communication relay
handoff. This change incorporates the intent of AIT
call signs due to corporate changes in the company
procedures regarding transfer of communications
name.
into paragraph 5–4–5 by adding “Unless otherwise
b. 3−6−4. SAFETY LOGIC ALERT coordinated or specified in an LOA or facility
RESPONSES directive” to the beginning of the paragraph. This
This change amends FAA Order JO 7110.65, Air change also deletes subparagraph 5–4–5h since it is
redundant with basic radar air traffic control
Traffic Control, 3−6−4, Safety Logic Alert
Response, requiring controllers to issue go−around procedures; rearranges the subparagraphs of 5–4–5
instructions when the safety logic system generates into a more chronological order; removes outdated
terms and information in 5–3–4, 5–4–5, and 5–4–6;
an alert for a taxiway arrival.
and makes minor editorial changes for better
c. 4−3−4. DEPARTURE RESTRICTIONS, readability.
CLEARANCE VOID TIMES, HOLD FOR
f. 5−9−6. SIMULTANEOUS DEPENDENT
RELEASE, AND RELEASE TIMES
APPROACHES
This change requires that ATC instruct a pilot This change removes the existing Note language
departing from an airport without an operating concerning area navigation (RNAV) approaches
control tower that he/she is either “Released for during dependent approaches and replaces that
Departure” or told to “Hold for Release” when language with a statement concerning Established
issuing the Departure Clearance (IFR flight plan). on RNP (EoR) operations that are currently not
d. 4−4−1. ROUTE USE permitted during simultaneous dependent ap-
proaches. This change also corresponds to revised
This change corrects the PHRASEOLOGY label to flight procedures guidance for charting simultane-
EXAMPLE. It also adds a correct PHRASEOLO- ous approach authorized chart notes.
GY for paragraph 4−4−1j3 and reorders the
g. 5−9−7. SIMULTANEOUS INDEPEN-
paragraph for consistency and clarity.
DENT APPROACHES− DUAL & TRIPLE
e. 5−3−4. TERMINAL AUTOMATION SYS- 5−9−8. SIMULTANEOUS INDEPEN-
TEMS IDENTIFICATION METHODS DENT CLOSE PARALLEL APPROACHES
5−4−5. TRANSFERRING CON- –PRECISION RUNWAY MONITOR (PRM)
TROLLER HANDOFF APPROACHES
5−4−6. RECEIVING CONTROLLER 5−9−9. SIMULTANEOUS OFFSET IN-
HANDOFF STRUMENT APPROACHES (SOIA)
This change deletes subparagraph 5–4–5n and This change removes all references to airport field
combines subparagraphs 5–4–6h and 5–4–6i to elevations as a condition to be met to conduct
remove the ambiguity that remained after changes simultaneous independent approaches and creates
Explanation of Changes E of C−1

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
new provisions to account for reduced runway of a classified document to ascertain altitude codes.
centerline spacing (RCLS) when high update rate This revision does not change the classification of
surveillance is used. This change reorganizes information, nor the requirements for handling
paragraph 5−9−8, concerning precision runway classified information.
monitor (PRM) approaches, as the content is j. Editorial Changes
redundant with paragraph 5−9−7 and eliminates the
duplication. Editorial changes include fixing the formatting of
h. 7−4−4. APPROACHES TO MULTIPLE phraseology in subparagraph 2−7−2g, a grammati-
RUNWAYS cal fix to paragraph 2−5−2, deleting the EDST Hold
Annotations Menu from paragraphs 13−1−7 and
This change adds procedures for when aircraft are
13−1−11, fixing a reference to paragraph 2−1−27,
approaching from the same side of the airport. It
fixing the phraseology in paragraph 5−7−2,
also spells out the procedures when aircraft are
updating the situation display terminology in
approaching from opposite base legs, or when one
paragraph 11−1−3, modifying the phraseology in
aircraft is turning to final, and another aircraft is
paragraphs 5−4−3 and 2−7−2, and clarifying
established on an adjacent runway centerline.
information in paragraph 3−7−5.
Additionally, editorial changes were made to
subparagraphs c1 and c3. k. Entire publication
i. 9−2−14. MILITARY OPERATIONS
Additional editorial/format changes were made
ABOVE FL 600
where necessary. Revision bars were not used
This change removes verbiage prescribing the use because of the insignificant nature of these changes.
E of C−2
U.S. DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION JO 7110.65Z
CHANGE FEDERAL AVIATION ADMINISTRATION CHG 1
Air Traffic Organization Policy
Effective Date:
December 2, 2021
SUBJ: Air Traffic Control
1. Purpose of This Change. This change transmits revised pages to Federal Aviation
Administration Order季JO季7110.65Z, Air Traffic Control, and the Briefing Guide.
2. Audience. This change applies to all Air Traffic Organization (ATO) personnel and anyone
using ATO directives.
3. Where Can I Find This Change? This change is available on the FAA Web site at
http://faa.gov/air_traffic/publications and https://employees.faa.gov/tools_resources/orders_notices/.
4. Explanation of Policy Change. See the Explanation of Changes attachment that has
editorial corrections and changes submitted through normal procedures. The Briefing Guide lists
only new or modified material, along with background.
5. Distribution. This change is distributed to selected offices in Washington headquarters,

regional offices, service area offices, the William J. Hughes Technical Center, and the Mike
Monroney Aeronautical Center. Also, copies are sent to all air traffic field facilities and
international aviation field offices; and to interested aviation public.
6. Disposition of Transmittal. Retain this transmittal until superseded by a new basic order.
7. Page Control Chart. See the page control chart attachment.
Digitally signed by ANGELA

ANGELA RENEE RENEE MCCULLOUGH
MCCULLOUGH Date: 2021.10.15 12:33:01
-04'00'
Angela McCullough
Air Traffic Organization
Distribution: ZAT-710, ZAT-464 Initiated By: AJV-0

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Basic
a. 2−1−14. COORDINATE USE OF were made in 2015 in response to an ATSAP CAR.

AIRSPACE One of those changes established that the
2−1−17. RADIO COMMUNICATIONS transferring controller is always responsible for an
4−5−7. ALTITUDE INFORMATION adjacent sector point−out when the sectors involved
10−4−4. COMMUNICATIONS FAILURE in the handoff are in different altitude strata and the
receiving controller must delay the climb or descent
This change reflects the removal of the term
of an aircraft into their airspace, whether that
Aeronautical Radio, Incorporated (ARINC) and
decision is made before OR after accepting the
reflects the addition of new communication relay
handoff. This change incorporates the intent of AIT
call signs due to corporate changes in the company
procedures regarding transfer of communications
name.
into paragraph 5–4–5 by adding “Unless otherwise
b. 3−6−4. SAFETY LOGIC ALERT coordinated or specified in an LOA or facility
RESPONSES directive” to the beginning of the paragraph. This
This change amends FAA Order JO 7110.65, Air change also deletes subparagraph 5–4–5h since it is
redundant with basic radar air traffic control
Traffic Control, 3−6−4, Safety Logic Alert
Response, requiring controllers to issue go−around procedures; rearranges the subparagraphs of 5–4–5
instructions when the safety logic system generates into a more chronological order; removes outdated
terms and information in 5–3–4, 5–4–5, and 5–4–6;
an alert for a taxiway arrival.
and makes minor editorial changes for better
c. 4−3−4. DEPARTURE RESTRICTIONS, readability.
CLEARANCE VOID TIMES, HOLD FOR
f. 5−9−6. SIMULTANEOUS DEPENDENT
RELEASE, AND RELEASE TIMES
APPROACHES
This change requires that ATC instruct a pilot This change removes the existing Note language
departing from an airport without an operating concerning area navigation (RNAV) approaches
control tower that he/she is either “Released for during dependent approaches and replaces that
Departure” or told to “Hold for Release” when language with a statement concerning Established
issuing the Departure Clearance (IFR flight plan). on RNP (EoR) operations that are currently not
d. 4−4−1. ROUTE USE permitted during simultaneous dependent ap-
proaches. This change also corresponds to revised
This change corrects the PHRASEOLOGY label to flight procedures guidance for charting simultane-
EXAMPLE. It also adds a correct PHRASEOLO- ous approach authorized chart notes.
GY for paragraph 4−4−1j3 and reorders the
g. 5−9−7. SIMULTANEOUS INDEPEN-
paragraph for consistency and clarity.
DENT APPROACHES− DUAL & TRIPLE
e. 5−3−4. TERMINAL AUTOMATION SYS- 5−9−8. SIMULTANEOUS INDEPEN-
TEMS IDENTIFICATION METHODS DENT CLOSE PARALLEL APPROACHES
5−4−5. TRANSFERRING CON- –PRECISION RUNWAY MONITOR (PRM)
TROLLER HANDOFF APPROACHES
5−4−6. RECEIVING CONTROLLER 5−9−9. SIMULTANEOUS OFFSET IN-
HANDOFF STRUMENT APPROACHES (SOIA)
This change deletes subparagraph 5–4–5n and This change removes all references to airport field
combines subparagraphs 5–4–6h and 5–4–6i to elevations as a condition to be met to conduct
remove the ambiguity that remained after changes simultaneous independent approaches and creates

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
new provisions to account for reduced runway of a classified document to ascertain altitude codes.
centerline spacing (RCLS) when high update rate This revision does not change the classification of
surveillance is used. This change reorganizes information, nor the requirements for handling
paragraph 5−9−8, concerning precision runway classified information.
monitor (PRM) approaches, as the content is j. Editorial Changes
redundant with paragraph 5−9−7 and eliminates the
duplication. Editorial changes include fixing the formatting of
h. 7−4−4. APPROACHES TO MULTIPLE phraseology in subparagraph 2−7−2g, a grammati-
RUNWAYS cal fix to paragraph 2−5−2, deleting the EDST Hold
Annotations Menu from paragraphs 13−1−7 and
This change adds procedures for when aircraft are
13−1−11, fixing a reference to paragraph 2−1−27,
approaching from the same side of the airport. It
fixing the phraseology in paragraph 5−7−2,
also spells out the procedures when aircraft are
updating the situation display terminology in
approaching from opposite base legs, or when one
paragraph 11−1−3, modifying the phraseology in
aircraft is turning to final, and another aircraft is
paragraphs 5−4−3 and 2−7−2, and clarifying
established on an adjacent runway centerline.
information in paragraph 3−7−5.
Additionally, editorial changes were made to
subparagraphs c1 and c3. k. Entire publication
i. 9−2−14. MILITARY OPERATIONS
ABOVE FL 600
This change removes verbiage prescribing the use because of the insignificant nature of these changes.
E of C−2
12/2/21 JO 7110.65Z CHG 1
Change 1
a. 1−2−6. ABBREVIATIONS when phrases similar to “or as assigned by ATC” are

2−1−9. REPORTING ESSENTIAL published. 3. Corrects an ambiguity between the
FLIGHT INFORMATION vectoring of missed approach aircraft once it
10−6−4. INFLIGHT CONTINGENCIES commences and the requirements for vectoring
10−7−1. INFORMATION RELAY below the minimum altitude. 4. Adds new
10−7−5. EXTENDED NOTIFICATION procedures under Vectors below Minimum Altitude
to permit vectoring in accordance with Radar SIDs
This editorial change complies with the Federal under procedures outlined in a facility directive,
Women’s Program (FWP) suggestions. The permit vectoring when there are no prominent
acronym NOTAM is updated from Notice to obstacles within 10 NM from the departure end of
Airmen to the more applicable term Notice to Air runway (DER), and assuring that after the first
Missions, which is inclusive of all aviators and minimum vectoring altitude/minimum IFR altitude
missions. (MVA/MIA) sector is reached, all subsequent
b. 1−2−6. ABBREVIATIONS MVA/MIA sectors encountered are met. 5. Adds a
4−2−1. CLEARANCE ITEMS new provision to provide an amended departure
4−3−2. DEPARTURE CLEARANCES clearance to a pilot when cancelling a previously
4−8−9. MISSED APPROACH assigned SID and subsequently utilize a DVA or
5−6−1. APPLICATION vice versa and do so in a timely manner so that the
5−6−2. METHODS pilot can brief the changes before entering the
5−6−3. VECTORS BELOW MINIMUM takeoff runway.
ALTITUDE
c. 2−1−3. PROCEDURAL PREFERENCE
5−8−1. PROCEDURES
11−1−1. DUTY RESPONSIBILITY
5−8−2. INITIAL HEADING
11−1−2. DUTIES AND RESPONSIBILI-
This change addresses revisions in Standard TIES
Instrument Departure (SID) criteria that have not 11−1−3. TIME BASED FLOW MANAGE-
been incorporated into Terminal Instrument Proce- MENT (TBFM)
dures (TERPS) for radar vector SIDs. Additionally,
Diverse Vector Areas (DVAs) cannot be used This change adds trajectory−based operations
concurrently with a SID when the SID is included (TBO) and time−based management (TBM)
as part of the IFR clearance. This change also language to Chapter 2 and Chapter 11 of the order.
addresses: 1. Vectors below Minimum Altitude by d. 2−1−26. SUPERVISORY NOTIFICA-
adding the Terminal Domain, addressing the TION
FUSION environment by including mention of
Increased Separation Required (ISR), adding This change adds suspicious unmanned aircraft
additional methods that may be employed when system (UAS) activity to the existing list contained
vectoring below the minimum altitude, and in paragraph 2−1−26, which directs all personnel
addressing when radar vectors are used for aircraft performing ATC duties to notify the operational
conducting missed approaches or conducting supervisor (OS)/controller−in−charge (CIC) of
go−arounds. 2. Adds provisions under Radar flight activities that could have an impact to
Departures so that SIDs and DVAs are not used sector/position operations. In addition, the term
concurrently. This also accounts for new TERPS ”suspicious UAS” is added to the pilot controller
criteria that will include a range of headings glossary. This chance cancels and incorporates N
specified in the SID departure route description JO 7110.780, which was effective May 21st, 2021.

JO 7110.65Z CHG 1 12/2/21
e. 4−3−2. DEPARTURE CLEARANCES SURE SUIT FLIGHTS AND FLIGHTS

ABOVE FL 600
This change adds guidance to subparagraph 5−2−14. CODE MONITOR
4−3−2c2 regarding issuing a remain within distance
when issuing a departure clearance that includes a This change removes several paragraphs and
Visual Climb Over airport (VCOA). It also provides subparagraphs from JO 7110.65, Chapter 5, Section
example phraseology, and removes subparagraph 2, containing obsolete information and procedures
4−3−2c3 as it no longer provides the purpose that regarding discrete, nondiscrete, and mixed beacon
was intended. code environments; function code assignments; and
non−automated beacon decoding equipment. This
f. 5−1−1. PRESENTATION AND EQUIP- change removes certain beacon code allocation
MENT PERFORMANCE information that is now contained in FAA Order JO
5−1−2. ALIGNMENT ACCURACY 7610.4, Special Operations; and updates informa-
CHECK tion in paragraph 5–2–7, VFR Code Assignments,
5−1−3. ATC SURVEILLANCE SOURCE regarding use of code 1202 for VFR gliders to
USE reflect a recent change to FAA Order JO 7110.66,
5−1−4. BEACON RANGE ACCURACY National Beacon Code Allocation Plan. This
5−1−6. SERVICE LIMITATIONS change adds information regarding what is
5−1−7. ELECTRONIC CURSOR displayed in the data block when an aircraft
5−1−11. RADAR FIX POSTING squawks 7400 (UAS Lost Link), 7500 (Hijack),
5−5−6. EXCEPTIONS 7600 (Communications Failure), or 7700 (Emer-
This change deletes several obsolete paragraphs gency). For all three FAA automation systems, the
and subparagraphs: 5–1–2, Alignment Accuracy actual beacon code is not displayed for these four
Check; 5–1–4, Beacon Range Accuracy; 5–1–6, codes. In ERAM, the characters shown are “LLNK”
Service Limitations, subparagraphs a and b; and for 7400, “HIJK” for 7500, “RDOF” for 7600, and
5–1–7, Electronic Cursor. For better organization, “EMRG” for 7700; and in STARS and MEARTS,
paragraph 5–1–6, subparagraph b is moved to those characters are “LL,” “HJ,” “RF,” and “EM,”
paragraph 5–5–6, Exceptions, as new subparagraph respectively. This change also makes minor
c; and paragraph 5–1–6, subparagraph c is updated editorial changes for better readability.
and moved to paragraph 5–1–1, Presentation and h. 5−3−3. BEACON/ADS−B IDENTIFICA-
Equipment Performance, as new subparagraph b. TION METHODS
This change also rewrites paragraph 5–1–11, Radar This change corrects the phraseology to be used
Fix Posting, for better conformity with FAA when establishing surveillance identification for en
Writing Standards, and deletes an obsolete route aircraft.
reference. i. 9−2−13. MILITARY AERIAL REFUEL-
g. 5−2−1. ASSIGNMENT CRITERIA ING
5−2−2. DISCRETE ENVIRONMENT
This change, when authorizing aerial refueling
5−2−3. NONDISCRETE ENVIRON-
operations, deletes MAINTAIN REFUELING
MENT
LEVEL (altitude) and incorporates existing phrase-
5−2−4. MIXED ENVIRONMENT
ology to reflect the assignment of multiple altitudes
5−2−5. HIJACK/UNLAWFUL INTER-
as required, providing consistency between direc-
FERENCE
tives JO 7610.4 and JO 7110.65.
5−2−6. FUNCTION CODE ASSIGN-
MENTS j. Editorial Changes
5−2−7. EMERGENCY CODE ASSIGN- Editorial changes include the deletion of the
MENT abbreviation for automation embedded route text
5−2−8. RADIO FAILURE (AERT) and Bigelow Aerospace Advanced Space
5−2−9. UNMANNED AIRCRAFT SYS- Studies (BAASS) and the addition of the
TEMS (UAS) LOST LINK abbreviation for embedded route text (ERT). In
5−2−10. VFR CODE ASSIGNMENTS paragraph 9−3−2, Space Operations at ATCSCC is
5−2−11. BEACON CODE FOR PRES- now called ATO Space Operations. The term/abbre-
E of C−2
12/2/21 JO 7110.65Z CHG 1
viation acceptance rate is replaced with arrival rate. k. Entire publication

Out of date contact information for the Domestic
Events Network (DEN) is deleted. An out of date
reference is fixed in paragraph 5−15−4. Also, a
because of the insignificant nature of these changes.
broken link is fixed and some out of date references
are corrected, including to departure clearance/IFR
flight plan in paragraph 4−3−4f NOTE.

12/2/21 JO 7110.65Z CHG 1
Table of Contents
Chapter 1. General
Section 1. Introduction
Paragraph Page
1−1−1. PURPOSE OF THIS ORDER . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1−1−1
1−1−2. AUDIENCE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1−1−1
1−1−3. WHERE TO FIND THIS ORDER . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1−1−1
1−1−4. WHAT THIS ORDER CANCELS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1−1−1
1−1−5. EXPLANATION OF CHANGES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1−1−1
1−1−6. EFFECTIVE DATES AND SUBMISSIONS FOR CHANGES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1−1−1
1−1−7. DELIVERY DATES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1−1−1
1−1−8. RECOMMENDATIONS FOR PROCEDURAL CHANGES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1−1−1
1−1−9. REQUESTS FOR INTERPRETATIONS OR CLARIFICATIONS TO THIS ORDER 1−1−2
1−1−10. PROCEDURAL LETTERS OF AGREEMENT (LOA) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1−1−2
1−1−11. CONSTRAINTS GOVERNING SUPPLEMENTS AND PROCEDURAL
DEVIATIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1−1−2
1−1−12. SAFETY MANAGEMENT SYSTEM (SMS) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1−1−3
1−1−13. REFERENCES TO FAA NON−AIR TRAFFIC ORGANIZATIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . 1−1−3
1−1−14. DISTRIBUTION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1−1−3
Section 2. Terms of Reference

1−2−1. WORD MEANINGS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1−2−1
1−2−2. COURSE DEFINITIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1−2−2
1−2−3. NOTES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1−2−2
1−2−4. REFERENCES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1−2−3
1−2−5. ANNOTATIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1−2−3
1−2−6. ABBREVIATIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1−2−3
Chapter 2. General Control

Section 1. General
2−1−1. ATC SERVICE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−1−1
2−1−2. DUTY PRIORITY . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−1−1
2−1−3. PROCEDURAL PREFERENCE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−1−2
2−1−4. OPERATIONAL PRIORITY . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−1−2
2−1−5. EXPEDITIOUS COMPLIANCE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−1−4
2−1−6. SAFETY ALERT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−1−4
2−1−7. INFLIGHT EQUIPMENT MALFUNCTIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−1−5
2−1−8. MINIMUM FUEL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−1−5
2−1−9. REPORTING ESSENTIAL FLIGHT INFORMATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−1−5
2−1−10. NAVAID MALFUNCTIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−1−5
2−1−11. USE OF MARSA . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−1−6
2−1−12. MILITARY PROCEDURES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−1−6
2−1−13. FORMATION FLIGHTS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−1−7
2−1−14. COORDINATE USE OF AIRSPACE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−1−8
2−1−15. CONTROL TRANSFER . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−1−8
Table of Contents i
JO 7110.65Z CHG 1 12/2/21
Paragraph Page
2−1−16. SURFACE AREAS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−1−8
2−1−17. RADIO COMMUNICATIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−1−9
2−1−18. OPERATIONAL REQUESTS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−1−10
2−1−19. WAKE TURBULENCE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−1−10
2−1−20. WAKE TURBULENCE CAUTIONARY ADVISORIES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−1−10
2−1−21. TRAFFIC ADVISORIES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−1−11
2−1−22. UNMANNED AIRCRAFT SYSTEM (UAS) ACTIVITY INFORMATION. . . . . . . 2−1−12
2−1−23. BIRD ACTIVITY INFORMATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−1−12
2−1−24. TRANSFER OF POSITION RESPONSIBILITY . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−1−13
2−1−25. WHEELS DOWN CHECK . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−1−13
2−1−26. SUPERVISORY NOTIFICATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−1−13
2−1−27. PILOT DEVIATION NOTIFICATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−1−13
2−1−28. TCAS RESOLUTION ADVISORIES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−1−13
2−1−29. RVSM OPERATIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−1−14
2−1−30. TERRAIN AWARENESS WARNING SYSTEM (TAWS) ALERTS . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−1−15
2−1−31. “BLUE LIGHTNING” EVENTS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−1−15
Section 2. Flight Plans and Control Information

2−2−1. RECORDING INFORMATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−2−1
2−2−2. FORWARDING INFORMATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−2−1
2−2−3. FORWARDING VFR DATA . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−2−1
2−2−4. MILITARY DVFR DEPARTURES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−2−1
2−2−5. IFR TO VFR FLIGHT PLAN CHANGE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−2−1
2−2−6. IFR FLIGHT PROGRESS DATA . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−2−1
2−2−7. MANUAL INPUT OF COMPUTER-ASSIGNED BEACON CODES . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−2−2
2−2−8. ALTRV INFORMATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−2−2
2−2−9. COMPUTER MESSAGE VERIFICATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−2−2
2−2−10. TRANSMIT PROPOSED FLIGHT PLAN . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−2−3
2−2−11. FORWARDING AMENDED AND UTM DATA . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−2−3
2−2−12. AIRBORNE MILITARY FLIGHTS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−2−4
2−2−13. FORWARDING FLIGHT PLAN DATA BETWEEN U.S. ARTCCs AND
CANADIAN ACCs . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−2−4
2−2−14. TELETYPE FLIGHT DATA FORMAT− U.S. ARTCCs − CANADIAN ACCs . . . . 2−2−4
2−2−15. NORTH AMERICAN ROUTE PROGRAM (NRP) INFORMATION . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−2−5
Section 3. Flight Progress Strips

2−3−1. GENERAL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−3−1
2−3−2. EN ROUTE DATA ENTRIES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−3−3
2−3−3. OCEANIC DATA ENTRIES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−3−5
2−3−4. TERMINAL DATA ENTRIES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−3−6
2−3−5. AIRCRAFT IDENTITY . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−3−9
2−3−6. AIRCRAFT TYPE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−3−10
2−3−7. USAF/USN UNDERGRADUATE PILOTS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−3−10
2−3−8. AIRCRAFT EQUIPMENT SUFFIX . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−3−10
2−3−9. CLEARANCE STATUS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−3−11
2−3−10. CONTROL SYMBOLOGY . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−3−12
Section 4. Radio and Interphone Communications

2−4−1. RADIO COMMUNICATIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−4−1
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2−4−2. MONITORING . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−4−1
2−4−3. PILOT ACKNOWLEDGMENT/READ BACK . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−4−1
2−4−4. AUTHORIZED INTERRUPTIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−4−1
2−4−5. AUTHORIZED TRANSMISSIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−4−1
2−4−6. FALSE OR DECEPTIVE COMMUNICATIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−4−2
2−4−7. AUTHORIZED RELAYS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−4−2
2−4−8. RADIO MESSAGE FORMAT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−4−2
2−4−9. ABBREVIATED TRANSMISSIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−4−2
2−4−10. INTERPHONE TRANSMISSION PRIORITIES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−4−2
2−4−11. PRIORITY INTERRUPTION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−4−3
2−4−12. INTERPHONE MESSAGE FORMAT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−4−3
2−4−13. INTERPHONE MESSAGE TERMINATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−4−4
2−4−14. WORDS AND PHRASES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−4−4
2−4−15. EMPHASIS FOR CLARITY . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−4−4
2−4−16. ICAO PHONETICS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−4−5
2−4−17. NUMBERS USAGE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−4−5
2−4−18. NUMBER CLARIFICATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−4−7
2−4−19. FACILITY IDENTIFICATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−4−8
2−4−20. AIRCRAFT IDENTIFICATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−4−8
2−4−21. DESCRIPTION OF AIRCRAFT TYPES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−4−11
2−4−22. AIRSPACE CLASSES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−4−11
Section 5. Route and NAVAID Description
2−5−1. AIR TRAFFIC SERVICE (ATS) ROUTES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−5−1
2−5−2. NAVAID TERMS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−5−1
2−5−3. NAVAID FIXES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−5−2
Section 6. Weather Information
2−6−1. FAMILIARIZATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−6−1
2−6−2. PIREP SOLICITATION AND DISSEMINATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−6−1
2−6−3. REPORTING WEATHER CONDITIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−6−2
2−6−4. ISSUING WEATHER AND CHAFF AREAS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−6−3
2−6−5. DISSEMINATING OFFICIAL WEATHER INFORMATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−6−5
2−6−6. HAZARDOUS INFLIGHT WEATHER ADVISORY . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−6−6
Section 7. Altimeter Settings
2−7−1. CURRENT SETTINGS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−7−1
2−7−2. ALTIMETER SETTING ISSUANCE BELOW LOWEST USABLE FL . . . . . . . . . . 2−7−1
Section 8. Runway Visibility Reporting− Terminal
2−8−1. FURNISH RVR VALUES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−8−1
2−8−2. ARRIVAL/DEPARTURE RUNWAY VISIBILITY . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−8−1
2−8−3. TERMINOLOGY . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−8−1
Section 9. Automatic Terminal Information Service Procedures
2−9−1. APPLICATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−9−1
2−9−2. OPERATING PROCEDURES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−9−1
2−9−3. CONTENT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−9−2
Section 10. Team Position Responsibilities
2−10−1. EN ROUTE OR OCEANIC SECTOR TEAM POSITION RESPONSIBILITIES . . 2−10−1
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2−10−2. TERMINAL RADAR/NONRADAR TEAM POSITION RESPONSIBILITIES . . . 2−10−2
2−10−3. TOWER TEAM POSITION RESPONSIBILITIES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2−10−4
Chapter 3. Airport Traffic Control− Terminal

Section 1. General
3−1−1. PROVIDE SERVICE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−1−1
3−1−2. PREVENTIVE CONTROL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−1−1
3−1−3. USE OF ACTIVE RUNWAYS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−1−1
3−1−4. COORDINATION BETWEEN LOCAL AND GROUND CONTROLLERS . . . . . . . 3−1−2
3−1−5. VEHICLES/EQUIPMENT/PERSONNEL NEAR/ON RUNWAYS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−1−2
3−1−6. TRAFFIC INFORMATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−1−2
3−1−7. POSITION DETERMINATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−1−3
3−1−8. LOW LEVEL WIND SHEAR/MICROBURST ADVISORIES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−1−3
3−1−9. USE OF TOWER RADAR DISPLAYS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−1−5
3−1−10. OBSERVED ABNORMALITIES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−1−5
3−1−11. SURFACE AREA RESTRICTIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−1−6
3−1−12. VISUALLY SCANNING RUNWAYS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−1−6
3−1−13. ESTABLISHING TWO−WAY COMMUNICATIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−1−6
3−1−14. GROUND OPERATIONS WHEN VOLCANIC ASH IS PRESENT . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−1−6
3−1−15. GROUND OPERATIONS RELATED TO THREE/FOUR−HOUR TARMAC RULE 3−1−6
Section 2. Visual Signals

3−2−1. LIGHT SIGNALS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−2−1
3−2−2. WARNING SIGNAL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−2−1
3−2−3. RECEIVER-ONLY ACKNOWLEDGMENT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−2−1
Section 3. Airport Conditions

3−3−1. LANDING AREA CONDITION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−3−1
3−3−2. CLOSED/UNSAFE RUNWAY INFORMATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−3−1
3−3−3. TIMELY INFORMATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−3−2
3−3−4. BRAKING ACTION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−3−2
3−3−5. BRAKING ACTION ADVISORIES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−3−2
3−3−6. ARRESTING SYSTEM OPERATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−3−3
3−3−7. FAR FIELD MONITOR (FFM) REMOTE STATUS UNIT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−3−4
Section 4. Airport Lighting

3−4−1. EMERGENCY LIGHTING . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−4−1
3−4−2. RUNWAY END IDENTIFIER LIGHTS (REIL) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−4−1
3−4−3. VISUAL APPROACH SLOPE INDICATORS (VASI) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−4−1
3−4−4. PRECISION APPROACH PATH INDICATORS (PAPI) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−4−1
3−4−5. APPROACH LIGHTS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−4−2
3−4−6. ALS INTENSITY SETTINGS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−4−2
3−4−7. SEQUENCED FLASHING LIGHTS (SFL) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−4−2
3−4−8. MALSR/ODALS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−4−2
3−4−9. ALSF−2/SSALR . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−4−3
3−4−10. RUNWAY EDGE LIGHTS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−4−3
3−4−11. HIGH INTENSITY RUNWAY, RUNWAY CENTERLINE, AND TOUCHDOWN
ZONE LIGHTS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−4−4
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3−4−12. HIRL ASSOCIATED WITH MALSR . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−4−4
3−4−13. HIRL CHANGES AFFECTING RVR . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−4−4
3−4−14. MEDIUM INTENSITY RUNWAY LIGHTS (MIRL) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−4−4
3−4−15. HIGH SPEED TURNOFF LIGHTS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−4−4
3−4−16. TAXIWAY LIGHTS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−4−4
3−4−17. OBSTRUCTION LIGHTS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−4−5
3−4−18. ROTATING BEACON . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−4−5
3−4−19. RUNWAY STATUS LIGHTS (RWSL) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−4−5
Section 5. Runway Selection
3−5−1. SELECTION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−5−1
3−5−2. STOL RUNWAYS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−5−1
3−5−3. TAILWIND COMPONENTS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−5−1
Section 6. Airport Surface Detection Procedures
3−6−1. EQUIPMENT USAGE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−6−1
3−6−2. IDENTIFICATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−6−1
3−6−3. INFORMATION USAGE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−6−1
3−6−4. SAFETY LOGIC ALERT RESPONSES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−6−1
3−6−5. RADAR−ONLY MODE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−6−2
Section 7. Taxi and Ground Movement Procedures
3−7−1. GROUND TRAFFIC MOVEMENT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−7−1
3−7−2. TAXI AND GROUND MOVEMENT OPERATIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−7−2
3−7−3. GROUND OPERATIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−7−5
3−7−4. RUNWAY PROXIMITY . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−7−5
3−7−5. PRECISION APPROACH CRITICAL AREA . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−7−5
3−7−6. PRECISION OBSTACLE FREE ZONE (POFZ) AND FINAL APPROACH
OBSTACLE CLEARANCE SURFACES (OCS) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−7−6
Section 8. Spacing and Sequencing
3−8−1. SEQUENCE/SPACING APPLICATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−8−1
3−8−2. TOUCH-AND-GO OR STOP-AND-GO OR LOW APPROACH . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−8−1
3−8−3. SIMULTANEOUS SAME DIRECTION OPERATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−8−1
3−8−4. SIMULTANEOUS OPPOSITE DIRECTION OPERATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−8−2
Section 9. Departure Procedures and Separation
3−9−1. DEPARTURE INFORMATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−9−1
3−9−2. DEPARTURE DELAY INFORMATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−9−1
3−9−3. DEPARTURE CONTROL INSTRUCTIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−9−2
3−9−4. LINE UP AND WAIT (LUAW) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−9−2
3−9−5. ANTICIPATING SEPARATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−9−4
3−9−6. SAME RUNWAY SEPARATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−9−4
3−9−7. WAKE TURBULENCE SEPARATION FOR INTERSECTION DEPARTURES . . . . 3−9−7
3−9−8. INTERSECTING RUNWAY/INTERSECTING FLIGHT PATH OPERATIONS . . . . 3−9−9
3−9−9. NONINTERSECTING CONVERGING RUNWAY OPERATIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−9−10
3−9−10. TAKEOFF CLEARANCE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−9−12
3−9−11. CANCELLATION OF TAKEOFF CLEARANCE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−9−13
Section 10. Arrival Procedures and Separation
3−10−1. LANDING INFORMATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−10−1
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3−10−2. FORWARDING APPROACH INFORMATION BY NONAPPROACH CONTROL
FACILITIES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−10−1
3−10−3. SAME RUNWAY SEPARATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−10−2
3−10−4. INTERSECTING RUNWAY/INTERSECTING FLIGHT PATH SEPARATION . . . 3−10−3
3−10−5. LANDING CLEARANCE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−10−6
3−10−6. ANTICIPATING SEPARATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−10−8
3−10−7. LANDING CLEARANCE WITHOUT VISUAL OBSERVATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−10−8
3−10−8. WITHHOLDING LANDING CLEARANCE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−10−8
3−10−9. RUNWAY EXITING . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−10−8
3−10−10. ALTITUDE RESTRICTED LOW APPROACH . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−10−9
3−10−11. CLOSED TRAFFIC . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−10−9
3−10−12. OVERHEAD MANEUVER . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−10−9
3−10−13. SIMULATED FLAMEOUT (SFO) APPROACHES/EMERGENCY LANDING
PATTERN (ELP) OPERATIONS/PRACTICE PRECAUTIONARY
APPROACHES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−10−10
Section 11. Helicopter Operations

3−11−1. TAXI AND GROUND MOVEMENT OPERATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−11−1
3−11−2. HELICOPTER TAKEOFF CLEARANCE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−11−1
3−11−3. HELICOPTER DEPARTURE SEPARATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−11−2
3−11−4. HELICOPTER ARRIVAL SEPARATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−11−3
3−11−5. SIMULTANEOUS LANDINGS OR TAKEOFFS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−11−3
3−11−6. HELICOPTER LANDING CLEARANCE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−11−4
Section 12. Sea Lane Operations

3−12−1. APPLICATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−12−1
3−12−2. DEPARTURE SEPARATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−12−1
3−12−3. ARRIVAL SEPARATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3−12−1
Chapter 4. IFR
Section 1. NAVAID Use Limitations
4−1−1. ALTITUDE AND DISTANCE LIMITATIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−1−1
4−1−2. EXCEPTIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−1−1
4−1−3. CROSSING ALTITUDE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−1−2
4−1−4. VFR-ON-TOP . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−1−2
4−1−5. FIX USE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−1−2
Section 2. Clearances
4−2−1. CLEARANCE ITEMS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−2−1
4−2−2. CLEARANCE PREFIX . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−2−1
4−2−3. DELIVERY INSTRUCTIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−2−1
4−2−4. CLEARANCE RELAY . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−2−1
4−2−5. ROUTE OR ALTITUDE AMENDMENTS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−2−1
4−2−6. THROUGH CLEARANCES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−2−3
4−2−7. ALTRV CLEARANCE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−2−3
4−2−8. IFR−VFR AND VFR−IFR FLIGHTS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−2−3
4−2−9. CLEARANCE ITEMS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−2−3
4−2−10. CANCELLATION OF IFR FLIGHT PLAN . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−2−4
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Paragraph Page
4−3−1. DEPARTURE TERMINOLOGY . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−3−1
4−3−2. DEPARTURE CLEARANCES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−3−1
4−3−3. ABBREVIATED DEPARTURE CLEARANCE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−3−4
4−3−4. DEPARTURE RELEASE, HOLD FOR RELEASE, RELEASE TIMES,
DEPARTURE RESTRICTIONS, AND CLEARANCE VOID TIMES . . . . . . . . . . . 4−3−7
4−3−5. GROUND STOP . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−3−8
4−3−6. DELAY SEQUENCING . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−3−8
4−3−7. FORWARD DEPARTURE DELAY INFORMATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−3−8
4−3−8. COORDINATION WITH RECEIVING FACILITY . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−3−8
4−3−9. VFR RELEASE OF IFR DEPARTURE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−3−9
4−3−10. FORWARDING DEPARTURE TIMES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−3−9
Section 4. Route Assignment

4−4−1. ROUTE USE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−4−1
4−4−2. ROUTE STRUCTURE TRANSITIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−4−2
4−4−3. DEGREE-DISTANCE ROUTE DEFINITION FOR MILITARY OPERATIONS . . . . 4−4−3
4−4−4. ALTERNATIVE ROUTES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−4−3
4−4−5. CLASS G AIRSPACE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−4−3
4−4−6. DIRECT CLEARANCES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−4−4
Section 5. Altitude Assignment and Verification

4−5−1. VERTICAL SEPARATION MINIMA . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−5−1
4−5−2. FLIGHT DIRECTION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−5−1
4−5−3. EXCEPTIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−5−1
4−5−4. LOWEST USABLE FLIGHT LEVEL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−5−2
4−5−5. ADJUSTED MINIMUM FLIGHT LEVEL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−5−2
4−5−6. MINIMUM EN ROUTE ALTITUDES (MEA) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−5−2
4−5−7. ALTITUDE INFORMATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−5−3
4−5−8. ANTICIPATED ALTITUDE CHANGES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−5−8
4−5−9. ALTITUDE CONFIRMATION− NONRADAR . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−5−8
Section 6. Holding Aircraft

4−6−1. CLEARANCE TO HOLDING FIX . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−6−1
4−6−2. CLEARANCE BEYOND FIX . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−6−2
4−6−3. DELAYS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−6−2
4−6−4. HOLDING INSTRUCTIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−6−3
4−6−5. VISUAL HOLDING POINTS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−6−3
4−6−6. HOLDING FLIGHT PATH DEVIATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−6−3
4−6−7. UNMONITORED NAVAIDs . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−6−3
4−6−8. ILS PROTECTION/CRITICAL AREAS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−6−3
Section 7. Arrival Procedures

4−7−1. CLEARANCE INFORMATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−7−1
4−7−2. ADVANCE DESCENT CLEARANCE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−7−1
4−7−3. SINGLE FREQUENCY APPROACHES (SFA) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−7−1
4−7−4. RADIO FREQUENCY AND RADAR BEACON CHANGES FOR MILITARY
AIRCRAFT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−7−2
4−7−5. MILITARY TURBOJET EN ROUTE DESCENT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−7−2
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4−7−6. ARRIVAL INFORMATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−7−3
4−7−7. WEATHER INFORMATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−7−3
4−7−8. BELOW MINIMA REPORT BY PILOT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−7−4
4−7−9. TRANSFER OF JURISDICTION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−7−4
4−7−10. APPROACH INFORMATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−7−4
4−7−11. ARRIVAL INFORMATION BY APPROACH CONTROL FACILITIES . . . . . . . . . 4−7−5
4−7−12. AIRPORT CONDITIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−7−5
4−7−13. SWITCHING ILS RUNWAYS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−7−6
Section 8. Approach Clearance Procedures

4−8−1. APPROACH CLEARANCE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−8−1
4−8−2. CLEARANCE LIMIT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−8−6
4−8−3. RELAYED APPROACH CLEARANCE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−8−6
4−8−4. ALTITUDE ASSIGNMENT FOR MILITARY HIGH ALTITUDE INSTRUMENT
APPROACHES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−8−6
4−8−5. SPECIFYING ALTITUDE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−8−7
4−8−6. CIRCLING APPROACH . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−8−7
4−8−7. SIDE−STEP MANEUVER . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−8−7
4−8−8. COMMUNICATIONS RELEASE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−8−7
4−8−9. MISSED APPROACH . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−8−7
4−8−11. PRACTICE APPROACHES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−8−8
4−8−12. LOW APPROACH AND TOUCH-AND-GO . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4−8−9
Chapter 5. Radar
Section 1. General
5−1−1. PRESENTATION AND EQUIPMENT PERFORMANCE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−1−1
5−1−2. ATC SURVEILLANCE SOURCE USE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−1−1
5−1−3. ELECTRONIC ATTACK (EA) ACTIVITY . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−1−1
5−1−4. MERGING TARGET PROCEDURES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−1−2
5−1−5. HOLDING PATTERN SURVEILLANCE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−1−3
5−1−6. DEVIATION ADVISORIES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−1−3
5−1−7. MANUAL FIX POSTING . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−1−3
5−1−8. POSITION REPORTING . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−1−3
5−1−9. RADAR SERVICE TERMINATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−1−3
Section 2. Beacon/ADS−B Systems

5−2−1. ASSIGNMENT CRITERIA . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−2−1
5−2−2. RADAR BEACON CODE CHANGES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−2−1
5−2−3. EMERGENCY CODE ASSIGNMENT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−2−1
5−2−4. RADIO FAILURE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−2−2
5−2−5. HIJACK/UNLAWFUL INTERFERENCE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−2−2
5−2−6. UNMANNED AIRCRAFT SYSTEMS (UAS) LOST LINK . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−2−2
5−2−7. VFR CODE ASSIGNMENTS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−2−2
5−2−8. BEACON CODES FOR PRESSURE SUIT FLIGHTS AND FLIGHTS ABOVE
FL 600 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−2−3
5−2−9. AIR DEFENSE EXERCISE BEACON CODE ASSIGNMENT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−2−3
5−2−10. STANDBY OPERATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−2−4
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5−2−11. CODE MONITOR . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−2−4
5−2−12. FAILURE TO DISPLAY ASSIGNED BEACON CODE OR INOPERATIVE/
MALFUNCTIONING TRANSPONDER . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−2−4
5−2−13. INOPERATIVE OR MALFUNCTIONING INTERROGATOR . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−2−4
5−2−14. FAILED TRANSPONDER OR ADS−B OUT TRANSMITTER . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−2−4
5−2−15. VALIDATION OF MODE C READOUT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−2−4
5−2−16. ALTITUDE CONFIRMATION− MODE C . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−2−5
5−2−17. ALTITUDE CONFIRMATION− NON−MODE C . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−2−6
5−2−18. AUTOMATIC ALTITUDE REPORTING . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−2−6
5−2−19. INFLIGHT DEVIATIONS FROM TRANSPONDER/MODE C REQUIREMENTS
BETWEEN 10,000 FEET AND 18,000 FEET . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−2−6
5−2−20. BEACON TERMINATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−2−7
5−2−21. ALTITUDE FILTERS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−2−7
5−2−22. INOPERATIVE OR MALFUNCTIONING ADS-B TRANSMITTER . . . . . . . . . . . 5−2−7
5−2−23. ADS−B ALERTS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−2−8
5−2−24. ADS−B OUT OFF OPERATIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−2−8
Section 3. Radar Identification

5−3−1. APPLICATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−3−1
5−3−2. PRIMARY RADAR IDENTIFICATION METHODS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−3−1
5−3−3. BEACON/ADS−B IDENTIFICATION METHODS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−3−1
5−3−4. TERMINAL AUTOMATION SYSTEMS IDENTIFICATION METHODS . . . . . . . . 5−3−2
5−3−5. QUESTIONABLE IDENTIFICATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−3−2
5−3−6. POSITION INFORMATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−3−2
5−3−7. IDENTIFICATION STATUS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−3−2
5−3−8. TARGET MARKERS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−3−3
5−3−9. TARGET MARKERS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−3−3
Section 4. Transfer of Radar Identification

5−4−1. APPLICATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−4−1
5−4−2. TERMS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−4−1
5−4−3. METHODS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−4−1
5−4−4. TRAFFIC . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−4−2
5−4−5. TRANSFERRING CONTROLLER HANDOFF . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−4−2
5−4−6. RECEIVING CONTROLLER HANDOFF . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−4−3
5−4−7. POINT OUT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−4−4
5−4−8. AUTOMATED INFORMATION TRANSFER (AIT) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−4−4
5−4−9. PREARRANGED COORDINATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−4−5
5−4−10. EN ROUTE FOURTH LINE DATA BLOCK USAGE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−4−5
Section 5. Radar Separation

5−5−1. APPLICATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−5−1
5−5−2. TARGET SEPARATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−5−1
5−5−3. TARGET RESOLUTION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−5−2
5−5−4. MINIMA . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−5−2
5−5−5. VERTICAL APPLICATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−5−5
5−5−6. EXCEPTIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−5−5
5−5−7. PASSING OR DIVERGING . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−5−6
5−5−8. ADDITIONAL SEPARATION FOR FORMATION FLIGHTS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−5−7
5−5−9. SEPARATION FROM OBSTRUCTIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−5−7
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5−5−10. ADJACENT AIRSPACE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−5−7
5−5−11. EDGE OF SCOPE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−5−8
5−5−12. BEACON TARGET DISPLACEMENT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−5−8
Section 6. Vectoring
5−6−1. APPLICATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−6−1
5−6−2. METHODS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−6−1
5−6−3. VECTORS BELOW MINIMUM ALTITUDE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−6−3
Section 7. Speed Adjustment

5−7−1. APPLICATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−7−1
5−7−2. METHODS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−7−2
5−7−3. SPEED ASSIGNMENTS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−7−4
5−7−4. TERMINATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−7−4
Section 8. Radar Departures

5−8−1. PROCEDURES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−8−1
5−8−2. INITIAL HEADING . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−8−1
5−8−3. SUCCESSIVE OR SIMULTANEOUS DEPARTURES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−8−1
5−8−4. DEPARTURE AND ARRIVAL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−8−3
5−8−5. DEPARTURES AND ARRIVALS ON PARALLEL OR NONINTERSECTING
DIVERGING RUNWAYS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−8−4
Section 9. Radar Arrivals

5−9−1. VECTORS TO FINAL APPROACH COURSE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−9−1
5−9−2. FINAL APPROACH COURSE INTERCEPTION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−9−1
5−9−3. VECTORS ACROSS FINAL APPROACH COURSE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−9−2
5−9−4. ARRIVAL INSTRUCTIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−9−2
5−9−5. APPROACH SEPARATION RESPONSIBILITY . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−9−4
5−9−6. SIMULTANEOUS DEPENDENT APPROACHES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−9−5
5−9−7. SIMULTANEOUS INDEPENDENT APPROACHES− DUAL & TRIPLE . . . . . . . . 5−9−6
5−9−8. SIMULTANEOUS INDEPENDENT CLOSE PARALLEL APPROACHES –
PRECISION RUNWAY MONITOR (PRM) APPROACHES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−9−9
5−9−9. SIMULTANEOUS OFFSET INSTRUMENT APPROACHES (SOIA) . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−9−9
5−9−10. SIMULTANEOUS INDEPENDENT APPROACHES TO WIDELY-SPACED
PARALLEL RUNWAYS WITHOUT FINAL MONITORS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−9−11
5−9−11. TRANSITIONAL PROCEDURE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−9−13
Section 10. Radar Approaches− Terminal

5−10−1. APPLICATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−10−1
5−10−3. NO-GYRO APPROACH . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−10−2
5−10−4. LOST COMMUNICATIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−10−2
5−10−5. RADAR CONTACT LOST . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−10−3
5−10−6. LANDING CHECK . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−10−3
5−10−7. POSITION INFORMATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−10−3
5−10−8. FINAL CONTROLLER CHANGEOVER . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−10−3
5−10−9. COMMUNICATIONS CHECK . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−10−4
5−10−10. TRANSMISSION ACKNOWLEDGMENT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−10−4
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5−10−11. MISSED APPROACH . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−10−4
5−10−12. LOW APPROACH AND TOUCH-AND-GO . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−10−4
5−10−13. TOWER CLEARANCE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−10−4
5−10−14. FINAL APPROACH ABNORMALITIES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−10−5
5−10−15. MILITARY SINGLE FREQUENCY APPROACHES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−10−5
Section 11. Surveillance Approaches− Terminal

5−11−1. ALTITUDE INFORMATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−11−1
5−11−2. VISUAL REFERENCE REPORT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−11−1
5−11−3. DESCENT NOTIFICATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−11−1
5−11−4. DESCENT INSTRUCTIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−11−1
5−11−5. FINAL APPROACH GUIDANCE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−11−1
5−11−6. APPROACH GUIDANCE TERMINATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−11−2
Section 12. PAR Approaches− Terminal

5−12−1. GLIDEPATH NOTIFICATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−12−1
5−12−2. DECISION HEIGHT (DH) NOTIFICATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−12−1
5−12−3. DESCENT INSTRUCTION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−12−1
5−12−4. GLIDEPATH AND COURSE INFORMATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−12−1
5−12−5. DISTANCE FROM TOUCHDOWN . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−12−1
5−12−6. DECISION HEIGHT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−12−1
5−12−7. POSITION ADVISORIES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−12−1
5−12−8. APPROACH GUIDANCE TERMINATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−12−2
5−12−9. COMMUNICATION TRANSFER . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−12−2
5−12−10. ELEVATION FAILURE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−12−2
5−12−11. SURVEILLANCE UNUSABLE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−12−3
Section 13. Use of PAR for Approach Monitoring− Terminal

5−13−1. MONITOR ON PAR EQUIPMENT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−13−1
5−13−2. MONITOR AVAILABILITY . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−13−1
5−13−3. MONITOR INFORMATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−13−1
Section 14. Automation− En Route

5−14−1. CONFLICT ALERT (CA) AND MODE C INTRUDER (MCI) ALERT . . . . . . . . . . 5−14−1
5−14−2. EN ROUTE MINIMUM SAFE ALTITUDE WARNING (E-MSAW) . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−14−1
5−14−3. COMPUTER ENTRY OF FLIGHT PLAN INFORMATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−14−1
5−14−4. ENTRY OF REPORTED ALTITUDE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−14−2
5−14−5. SELECTED ALTITUDE LIMITS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−14−2
5−14−6. SECTOR ELIGIBILITY . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−14−2
5−14−7. COAST TRACKS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−14−2
5−14−8. CONTROLLER INITIATED COAST TRACKS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−14−3
5−14−9. ERAM COMPUTER ENTRY OF HOLD INFORMATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−14−3
5−14−10. ERAM VISUAL INDICATOR OF SPECIAL ACTIVITY AIRSPACE (SAA)
STATUS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−14−3
Section 15. Standard Terminal Automation Replacement System

(STARS)−Terminal
5−15−1. APPLICATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−15−1
5−15−2. RESPONSIBILITY . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−15−1
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5−15−3. FUNCTIONAL USE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−15−1
5−15−4. SYSTEM REQUIREMENTS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−15−1
5−15−5. INFORMATION DISPLAYED . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−15−1
5−15−6. CA/MCI . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−15−2
5−15−7. INHIBITING MINIMUM SAFE ALTITUDE WARNING (MSAW) . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−15−2
5−15−8. TRACK SUSPEND FUNCTION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5−15−2
Chapter 6. Nonradar
Section 1. General
6−1−1. DISTANCE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6−1−1
6−1−2. NONRECEIPT OF POSITION REPORT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6−1−1
6−1−3. DUPLICATE POSITION REPORTS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6−1−1
6−1−4. ADJACENT AIRPORT OPERATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6−1−1
6−1−5. ARRIVAL MINIMA . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6−1−1
Section 2. Initial Separation of Successive Departing Aircraft

6−2−1. MINIMA ON DIVERGING COURSES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6−2−1
6−2−2. MINIMA ON SAME COURSE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6−2−3
Section 3. Initial Separation of Departing and Arriving Aircraft

6−3−1. SEPARATION MINIMA . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6−3−1
Section 4. Longitudinal Separation

6−4−1. APPLICATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6−4−1
6−4−2. MINIMA ON SAME, CONVERGING, OR CROSSING COURSES . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6−4−1
6−4−3. MINIMA ON OPPOSITE COURSES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6−4−5
6−4−4. SEPARATION BY PILOTS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6−4−6
6−4−5. RNAV AIRCRAFT ALONG VOR AIRWAYS/ROUTES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6−4−6
Section 5. Lateral Separation

6−5−1. SEPARATION METHODS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6−5−1
6−5−2. MINIMA ON DIVERGING RADIALS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6−5−1
6−5−3. DME ARC MINIMA . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6−5−2
6−5−4. MINIMA ALONG OTHER THAN ESTABLISHED AIRWAYS OR ROUTES . . . . . 6−5−2
6−5−5. RNAV MINIMA− DIVERGING/CROSSING COURSES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6−5−4
Section 6. Vertical Separation

6−6−1. APPLICATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6−6−1
6−6−2. EXCEPTIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6−6−1
6−6−3. SEPARATION BY PILOTS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6−6−1
Section 7. Timed Approaches

6−7−1. APPLICATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6−7−1
6−7−2. APPROACH SEQUENCE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6−7−1
6−7−3. SEQUENCE INTERRUPTION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6−7−2
6−7−4. LEVEL FLIGHT RESTRICTION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6−7−2
6−7−5. INTERVAL MINIMA . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6−7−2
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6−7−6. TIME CHECK . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6−7−2
6−7−7. MISSED APPROACHES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6−7−2
Chapter 7. Visual
Section 1. General
7−1−1. CLASS A AIRSPACE RESTRICTIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−1−1
7−1−2. VFR CONDITIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−1−1
7−1−3. APPROACH CONTROL SERVICE FOR VFR ARRIVING AIRCRAFT . . . . . . . . . 7−1−1
7−1−4. VISUAL HOLDING OF VFR AIRCRAFT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−1−1
Section 2. Visual Separation

7−2−1. VISUAL SEPARATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−2−1
Section 3. VFR-On-Top
7−3−1. VFR-ON-TOP . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−3−1
7−3−2. ALTITUDE FOR DIRECTION OF FLIGHT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−3−1
Section 4. Approaches
7−4−1. VISUAL APPROACH . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−4−1
7−4−2. VECTORS FOR VISUAL APPROACH . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−4−1
7−4−3. CLEARANCE FOR VISUAL APPROACH . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−4−1
7−4−4. APPROACHES TO MULTIPLE RUNWAYS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−4−2
7−4−5. CHARTED VISUAL FLIGHT PROCEDURES (CVFP). USA/USN NOT
APPLICABLE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−4−4
7−4−6. CONTACT APPROACH . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−4−4
Section 5. Special VFR (SVFR)

7−5−1. AUTHORIZATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−5−1
7−5−2. PRIORITY . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−5−1
7−5−3. SEPARATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−5−2
7−5−4. ALTITUDE ASSIGNMENT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−5−2
7−5−5. LOCAL OPERATIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−5−3
7−5−6. CLIMB TO VFR . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−5−3
7−5−7. GROUND VISIBILITY BELOW 1 MILE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−5−3
7−5−8. FLIGHT VISIBILITY BELOW 1 MILE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−5−4
Section 6. Basic Radar Service to VFR Aircraft− Terminal

7−6−1. APPLICATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−6−1
7−6−2. SERVICE AVAILABILITY . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−6−1
7−6−3. INITIAL CONTACT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−6−1
7−6−4. IDENTIFICATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−6−1
7−6−5. HOLDING . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−6−1
7−6−6. APPROACH SEQUENCE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−6−1
7−6−7. SEQUENCING . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−6−1
7−6−8. CONTROL TRANSFER . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−6−2
7−6−9. ABANDONED APPROACH . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−6−2
7−6−10. VFR DEPARTURE INFORMATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−6−2
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7−6−11. TERMINATION OF SERVICE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−6−2
7−6−12. SERVICE PROVIDED WHEN TOWER IS INOPERATIVE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−6−2
Section 7. Terminal Radar Service Area (TRSA)− Terminal

7−7−1. APPLICATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−7−1
7−7−2. ISSUANCE OF EFC . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−7−1
7−7−3. SEPARATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−7−1
7−7−4. HELICOPTER TRAFFIC . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−7−1
7−7−5. ALTITUDE ASSIGNMENTS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−7−1
7−7−6. APPROACH INTERVAL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−7−1
7−7−7. TRSA DEPARTURE INFORMATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−7−1
Section 8. Class C Service− Terminal

7−8−1. APPLICATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−8−1
7−8−2. CLASS C SERVICES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−8−1
7−8−3. SEPARATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−8−1
7−8−4. ESTABLISHING TWO-WAY COMMUNICATIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−8−1
7−8−6. EXCEPTIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−8−2
7−8−7. ADJACENT AIRPORT OPERATIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−8−2
7−8−8. TERMINATION OF SERVICE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−8−2
Section 9. Class B Service Area− Terminal

7−9−1. APPLICATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−9−1
7−9−2. VFR AIRCRAFT IN CLASS B AIRSPACE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−9−1
7−9−3. METHODS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−9−1
7−9−4. SEPARATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−9−2
7−9−5. TRAFFIC ADVISORIES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−9−2
7−9−6. HELICOPTER TRAFFIC . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−9−2
7−9−8. APPROACH INTERVAL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7−9−2
Chapter 8. Offshore/Oceanic Procedures

Section 1. General
8−1−1. ATC SERVICE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8−1−1
8−1−2. OPERATIONS IN OFFSHORE AIRSPACE AREAS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8−1−1
8−1−3. VFR FLIGHT PLANS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8−1−1
8−1−4. TYPES OF SEPARATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8−1−1
8−1−5. ALTIMETER SETTING . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8−1−1
8−1−6. RECEIPT OF POSITION REPORTS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8−1−1
8−1−7. OCEANIC ERROR REPORT PROCEDURES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8−1−1
8−1−8. USE OF CONTROL ESTIMATES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8−1−1
8−1−9. RVSM OPERATIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8−1−1
Section 2. Coordination
8−2−1. GENERAL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8−2−1
8−2−2. TRANSFER OF CONTROL AND COMMUNICATIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8−2−1
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8−2−3. AIR TRAFFIC SERVICES INTERFACILITY DATA COMMUNICATIONS (AIDC) 8−2−1

8−3−1. APPLICATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8−3−1
8−3−3. MACH NUMBER TECHNIQUE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8−3−2

8−4−1. APPLICATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8−4−1
8−4−3. REDUCTION OF ROUTE PROTECTED AIRSPACE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8−4−3
8−4−4. TRACK SEPARATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8−4−4
Section 5. Offshore/Oceanic Transition Procedures

8−5−1. ALTITUDE/FLIGHT LEVEL TRANSITION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8−5−1
8−5−2. COURSE DIVERGENCE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8−5−1
8−5−3. OPPOSITE DIRECTION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8−5−1
8−5−4. SAME DIRECTION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8−5−1
8−5−5. RADAR IDENTIFICATION APPLICATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8−5−2
Section 6. Separation from Airspace Reservations

8−6−1. TEMPORARY STATIONARY AIRSPACE RESERVATIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8−6−1
8−6−2. REFUSAL OF AVOIDANCE CLEARANCE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8−6−1
8−6−3. TEMPORARY MOVING AIRSPACE RESERVATIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8−6−1
Section 7. North Atlantic ICAO Region

8−7−1. APPLICATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8−7−1
8−7−2. VERTICAL SEPARATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8−7−1
8−7−3. LONGITUDINAL SEPARATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8−7−1
8−7−4. LATERAL SEPARATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8−7−3
8−7−5. PROCEDURES FOR WEATHER DEVIATIONS IN NORTH ATLANTIC (NAT)
AIRSPACE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8−7−3
Section 8. Caribbean ICAO Region

8−8−1. APPLICATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8−8−1
8−8−5. VFR CLIMB AND DESCENT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8−8−3
Section 9. Pacific ICAO Region

8−9−1. APPLICATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8−9−1
8−9−5. PROCEDURES FOR WEATHER DEVIATIONS AND OTHER CONTINGENCIES
IN OCEANIC CONTROLLED AIRSPACE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8−9−3
Section 10. North American ICAO Region

8−10−1. APPLICATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8−10−1
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8−10−2. VERTICAL SEPARATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8−10−1
8−10−3. LONGITUDINAL SEPARATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8−10−1
8−10−4. LATERAL SEPARATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8−10−3
Chapter 9. Special Flights

Section 1. General
9−1−1. GENERAL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9−1−1
9−1−2. SPECIAL HANDLING . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9−1−1
9−1−3. FLIGHT CHECK AIRCRAFT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9−1−1
Section 2. Special Operations

9−2−1. AIRCRAFT CARRYING DANGEROUS MATERIALS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9−2−1
9−2−2. CELESTIAL NAVIGATION TRAINING . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9−2−1
9−2−3. EXPERIMENTAL AIRCRAFT OPERATIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9−2−1
9−2−4. FAA RESEARCH AND DEVELOPMENT FLIGHTS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9−2−1
9−2−5. FLYNET . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9−2−2
9−2−6. IFR MILITARY TRAINING ROUTES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9−2−2
9−2−7. INTERCEPTOR OPERATIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9−2−3
9−2−8. SPECIAL INTEREST SITES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9−2−3
9−2−9. SPECIAL AIR TRAFFIC RULES (SATR) AND SPECIAL FLIGHT RULES AREA
(SFRA) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9−2−3
9−2−10. ATC SECURITY SERVICES FOR THE WASHINGTON, DC, SPECIAL FLIGHT
RULES AREA (DC SFRA) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9−2−4
9−2−11. SECURITY NOTICE (SECNOT) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9−2−5
9−2−12. LAW ENFORCEMENT OPERATIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9−2−5
9−2−13. MILITARY AERIAL REFUELING . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9−2−5
9−2−14. MILITARY OPERATIONS ABOVE FL 600 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9−2−7
9−2−15. MILITARY SPECIAL USE FREQUENCIES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9−2−7
9−2−16. AVOIDANCE OF AREAS OF NUCLEAR RADIATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9−2−8
9−2−17. SAMP FLIGHTS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9−2−8
9−2−18. AWACS/NORAD SPECIAL FLIGHTS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9−2−8
9−2−19. WEATHER RECONNAISSANCE FLIGHTS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9−2−8
9−2−20. EVASIVE ACTION MANEUVER . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9−2−9
9−2−21. NONSTANDARD FORMATION/CELL OPERATIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9−2−9
9−2−22. OPEN SKIES TREATY AIRCRAFT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9−2−10
Section 3. Special Use, ATC−Assigned Airspace, and Stationary

ALTRVs
9−3−1. APPLICATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9−3−1
9−3−3. VFR-ON-TOP . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9−3−2
9−3−4. TRANSITING ACTIVE SUA/ATCAA . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9−3−2
Section 4. Fuel Dumping

9−4−1. INFORMATION REQUIREMENTS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9−4−1
9−4−2. ROUTING . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9−4−1
9−4−3. ALTITUDE ASSIGNMENT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9−4−1
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9−4−5. INFORMATION DISSEMINATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9−4−1
Section 5. Jettisoning of External Stores

9−5−1. JETTISONING OF EXTERNAL STORES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9−5−1
Section 6. Unmanned Free Balloons

9−6−1. APPLICATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9−6−1
9−6−2. DERELICT BALLOONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9−6−2
Section 7. Parachute Operations

9−7−1. COORDINATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9−7−1
9−7−2. CLASS A, CLASS B, AND CLASS C AIRSPACE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9−7−1
9−7−3. CLASS D AIRSPACE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9−7−1
9−7−4. OTHER CONTROL AIRSPACE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9−7−1
Section 8. Unidentified Flying Object (UFO) Reports

9−8−1. GENERAL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9−8−1
Chapter 10. Emergencies

Section 1. General
10−1−1. EMERGENCY DETERMINATIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10−1−1
10−1−2. OBTAINING INFORMATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10−1−1
10−1−3. PROVIDING ASSISTANCE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10−1−1
10−1−4. RESPONSIBILITY . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10−1−1
10−1−5. COORDINATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10−1−2
10−1−6. AIRPORT GROUND EMERGENCY . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10−1−2
10−1−7. INFLIGHT EMERGENCIES INVOLVING MILITARY FIGHTER-TYPE
AIRCRAFT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10−1−2
Section 2. Emergency Assistance

10−2−1. INFORMATION REQUIREMENTS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10−2−1
10−2−2. FREQUENCY CHANGES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10−2−1
10−2−3. AIRCRAFT ORIENTATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10−2−1
10−2−4. ALTITUDE CHANGE FOR IMPROVED RECEPTION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10−2−1
10−2−5. EMERGENCY SITUATIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10−2−1
10−2−6. HIJACKED AIRCRAFT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10−2−2
10−2−7. VFR AIRCRAFT IN WEATHER DIFFICULTY . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10−2−2
10−2−8. RADAR ASSISTANCE TO VFR AIRCRAFT IN WEATHER DIFFICULTY . . . . . 10−2−2
10−2−9. RADAR ASSISTANCE TECHNIQUES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10−2−3
10−2−10. EMERGENCY LOCATOR TRANSMITTER (ELT) SIGNALS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10−2−3
10−2−11. AIRCRAFT BOMB THREATS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10−2−4
10−2−12. EXPLOSIVE DETECTION K−9 TEAMS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10−2−5
10−2−13. MANPADS ALERT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10−2−5
10−2−14. UNAUTHORIZED LASER ILLUMINATION OF AIRCRAFT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10−2−6
10−2−15. EMERGENCY AIRPORT RECOMMENDATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10−2−6
10−2−16. GUIDANCE TO EMERGENCY AIRPORT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10−2−6
10−2−17. EMERGENCY OBSTRUCTION VIDEO MAP (EOVM) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10−2−6
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10−2−18. VOLCANIC ASH . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10−2−7
10−2−19. REPORTING DEATH, ILLNESS, OR OTHER PUBLIC HEALTH RISK ON
BOARD AIRCRAFT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10−2−7
Section 3. Overdue Aircraft

10−3−1. OVERDUE AIRCRAFT/OTHER SITUATIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10−3−1
10−3−2. INFORMATION TO BE FORWARDED TO ARTCC . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10−3−1
10−3−3. INFORMATION TO BE FORWARDED TO RCC . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10−3−1
10−3−4. ALNOT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10−3−2
10−3−5. RESPONSIBILITY TRANSFER TO RCC . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10−3−2
10−3−6. LAST KNOWN POSITION DETERMINATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10−3−3
10−3−7. ALNOT CANCELLATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10−3−3
Section 4. Control Actions

10−4−1. TRAFFIC RESTRICTIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10−4−1
10−4−2. LIGHTING REQUIREMENTS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10−4−1
10−4−3. TRAFFIC RESUMPTION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10−4−1
10−4−4. COMMUNICATIONS FAILURE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10−4−1
Section 5. Miscellaneous Operations

10−5−1. EXPLOSIVE CARGO . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10−5−1
Section 6. Oceanic Emergency Procedures

10−6−1. APPLICATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10−6−1
10−6−2. PHASES OF EMERGENCY . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10−6−1
10−6−3. ALERTING SERVICE AND SPECIAL ASSISTANCE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10−6−1
10−6−4. INFLIGHT CONTINGENCIES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10−6−2
10−6−5. SERVICES TO RESCUE AIRCRAFT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10−6−3
Section 7. Ground Missile Emergencies

10−7−1. INFORMATION RELAY . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10−7−1
10−7−2. IFR AND SVFR MINIMA . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10−7−1
10−7−3. VFR MINIMA . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10−7−1
10−7−4. SMOKE COLUMN AVOIDANCE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10−7−1
10−7−5. EXTENDED NOTIFICATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10−7−1
Chapter 11. Traffic Management Procedures

Section 1. General
11−1−1. DUTY RESPONSIBILITY . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 11−1−1
11−1−2. DUTIES AND RESPONSIBILITIES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 11−1−1
11−1−3. TIME BASED FLOW MANAGEMENT (TBFM) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 11−1−2
Chapter 12. Canadian Airspace Procedures

Section 1. General Control
12−1−1. APPLICATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 12−1−1
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12−1−2. AIRSPACE CLASSIFICATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 12−1−1
12−1−3. ONE THOUSAND−ON−TOP . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 12−1−1
12−1−4. SEPARATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 12−1−1
12−1−5. DEPARTURE CLEARANCE/COMMUNICATION FAILURE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 12−1−1
12−1−6. PARACHUTE JUMPING . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 12−1−2
12−1−7. SPECIAL VFR (SVFR) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 12−1−2
Chapter 13. Decision Support Tools

Section 1. ERAM − En Route
13−1−1. DESCRIPTION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 13−1−1
13−1−2. CONFLICT DETECTION AND RESOLUTION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 13−1−1
13−1−3. TRIAL PLANNING . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 13−1−1
13−1−4. CONFLICT PROBE-BASED CLEARANCES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 13−1−1
13−1−5. THE AIRCRAFT LIST (ACL), DEPARTURE LIST (DL) AND FLIGHT DATA
MANAGEMENT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 13−1−1
13−1−6. MANUAL COORDINATION AND THE COORDINATION MENU . . . . . . . . . . . . 13−1−2
13−1−7. HOLDING . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 13−1−2
13−1−8. RECORDING OF CONTROL DATA . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 13−1−2
13−1−9. ACKNOWLEDGEMENT OF AUTOMATED NOTIFICATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 13−1−5
13−1−10. CURRENCY OF TRAJECTORY INFORMATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 13−1−5
13−1−11. DELAY REPORTING . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 13−1−5
13−1−12. OVERDUE AIRCRAFT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 13−1−5
13−1−13. USE OF GRAPHICS PLAN DISPLAY (GPD) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 13−1−5
13−1−14. FORECAST WINDS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 13−1−6
13−1−15. INTERFACILITY CONNECTIVITY . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 13−1−6
13−1−16. SURVEILLANCE AND FLIGHT DATA OUTAGES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 13−1−6
13−1−17. AIRSPACE CONFIGURATION ELEMENTS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 13−1−6
Section 2. ATOP − Oceanic

13−2−1. DESCRIPTION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 13−2−1
13−2−2. CONFLICT DETECTION AND RESOLUTION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 13−2−1
13−2−3. INFORMATION MANAGEMENT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 13−2−2
13−2−4. CONTROLLER PILOT DATA LINK COMMUNICATIONS (CPDLC) . . . . . . . . . . 13−2−3
13−2−5. COORDINATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 13−2−4
13−2−6. TEAM RESPONSIBILITIES − MULTIPLE PERSON OPERATION . . . . . . . . . . . . 13−2−4
Appendices
Appendix A. Standard Operating Practice (SOP) for the Transfer of Position Responsibility Appendix A−1
Appendix B. Standard Operating Practice (SOP) for Aircraft Deviating for Weather Near
Active Special Activity Airspace (SAA) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Appendix B−1
Pilot/Controller Glossary . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . PCG−1
INDEX . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . I−1
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Chapter 1. General
Section 1. Introduction
1−1−1. PURPOSE OF THIS ORDER TBL 1−1−1

Publication Schedule
This order prescribes air traffic control procedures
and phraseology for use by persons providing Basic or Cutoff Date for Effective Date
air traffic control services. Controllers are required to Change Completion of Publication
be familiar with the provisions of this order that JO 7110.65Z 12/31/20 6/17/21
pertain to their operational responsibilities and to
exercise their best judgment if they encounter Change 1 6/17/21 12/2/21
situations that are not covered by it. Change 2 12/2/21 5/19/22
Change 3 5/19/22 11/3/22
1−1−2. AUDIENCE
JO 7110.65AA 11/3/22 4/20/23
This order applies to all ATO personnel and anyone Change 1 4/20/23 10/5/23
using ATO directives.
Change 2 10/5/23 3/21/24
1−1−3. WHERE TO FIND THIS ORDER Change 3 3/21/24 9/5/24
This order is available on the FAA Web site at

http://www.faa.gov/regulations_policies/orders_notices. 1−1−7. DELIVERY DATES
a. If an FAA facility has not received the
1−1−4. WHAT THIS ORDER CANCELS order/changes at least 30 days before the above
FAA Order JO 7110.65Y, Air Traffic Control, dated effective dates, the facility must notify its service area
August 15, 2019, and all changes to it are canceled. office distribution officer.
b. If a military facility has not received the
1−1−5. EXPLANATION OF CHANGES order/changes at least 30 days before the above
effective dates, the facility must notify its appropriate
The significant changes to this order are identified in military headquarters. (See TBL 1−1−2.)
the Explanation of Changes page(s). It is advisable to
retain the page(s) throughout the duration of the basic TBL 1−1−2
order. Military Distribution Contacts
Military
1−1−6. EFFECTIVE DATES AND SUBMIS- DSN Commercial
Headquarters
SIONS FOR CHANGES U.S. Army 656−4868 (703) 806−4868
a. This order and its changes are scheduled to be USAASA
published to coincide with AIRAC dates. U.S. Air Force 884-5509 (405) 734-5509
(See TBL 1−1−1.) HQ AFFSA
b. The “Cutoff Date for Completion” in the table U.S. Navy 224−2638 (703) 614−2638
below refers to the deadline for a proposed change to CNO (N980A)
be fully coordinated and signed. Change initiators
must submit their proposed changes well in advance
1−1−8. RECOMMENDATIONS FOR
of this cutoff date to meet the publication effective
PROCEDURAL CHANGES
date. The process to review and coordinate changes
often takes several months after the change is initially The office of primary responsibility (OPR) for this
submitted. order is:
Introduction 1−1−1
JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
FAA Headquarters, Mission Support Services 1. The Service Center Operations Support
Policy (AJV-P) Group may consult with the Policy Directorate when
600 Independence Avenue, SW preparing their response.
Washington, DC 20597
2. The Service Center Operations Support
a. Personnel should submit recommended Group must provide a written response to the
changes in procedures to facility management. requestor and forward the response to the Policy
Directorate.
b. Recommendations from other sources should
be submitted through appropriate FAA, military, or c. Interpretation requests from all other sources
industry/user channels. must be submitted to the Policy Directorate at
9−AJV−P−HQ−Correspondence@faa.gov.
c. Proposed changes must be submitted electroni-
cally to 9−AJV−P−HQ−Correspondence@faa.gov. NOTE−
The submission should include a description of the Interpretations can be accessed through the Air Traffic
recommended change, and the proposed language to Control Interpretation link at the following website:
https://my.faa.gov/org/linebusiness/ato/mission_support/
be used in the order.
psgroup/atc_interpretations.html.
NOTE−
For details on the submission process as well as additional
AJV−P processing responsibilities, please see FAA Order 1−1−10. PROCEDURAL LETTERS OF
JO 7000.5, Procedures for Submitting Changes to Air AGREEMENT (LOA)
Traffic Control Publications.
d. Procedural changes will not be made to this Procedures/minima which are applied jointly or
order until the operational system software has been otherwise require the cooperation or concurrence of
adapted to accomplish the revised procedures. more than one facility/organization must be docu-
mented in a letter of agreement. LOAs only
supplement this order. Any minima they specify must
not be less than that specified herein unless
1−1−9. REQUESTS FOR INTERPRETA- appropriate military authority has authorized applica-
TIONS OR CLARIFICATIONS TO THIS tion of reduced separation between military aircraft.
ORDER
REFERENCE−
a. Interpretation requests from field air traffic FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−1 , ATC Service.
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 4−3−1, Letters of Agreement.
personnel must be submitted as follows:
1. The request must be submitted, in writing, by

an Air Traffic Facility/General manager to their 1−1−11. CONSTRAINTS GOVERNING
Service Area Director. SUPPLEMENTS AND PROCEDURAL
DEVIATIONS
2. The Service Area Director must review the
request and determine if more than one interpretation a. Exceptional or unusual requirements may
on the intent of the language can be inferred. dictate procedural deviations or supplementary
procedures to this order. Prior to implementing
3. If it is determined that an interpretation is supplemental or any procedural deviation that alters
required, the Service Area Director must submit the the level, quality, or degree of service, obtain prior
request, in writing, to the Policy Directorate, for a approval from the Vice President, Mission Support
response. Services.
b. If a request does not require an interpretation b. If military operations or facilities are involved,
but further clarification is needed it must be prior approval by the following appropriate
forwarded to the Service Center Operations Support headquarters is required for subsequent interface with
Group for a response. FAA. (See TBL 1−1−3.)
1−1−2 Introduction
6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
TBL 1−1−3 appropriate, are intended for implementation of any

Military Operations Interface Offices planned safety significant changes within the NAS, as
directed by FAA Order 1100.161, Air Traffic Safety
Branch Address
Oversight. Direction regarding the SMS and its
U.S. Navy Department of the Navy application can be found in the FAA Safety
Chief of Naval Operations Management System Manual and FAA
N980A, NAATSEA
2000 Navy Pentagon (5D453)
Order 1100.161. The SMS will be implemented
Washington, D.C. 20350−2000 through a period of transitional activities. (Additional
information pertaining to these requirements and
U.S. Air Force HQ AFFSA processes can be obtained by contacting the service
5316 S. Douglas Blvd
Bldg 8400, Room 232 area offices.)
Oklahoma City, OK 73150
U.S. Army Director 1−1−13. REFERENCES TO FAA NON−AIR
USAASA (MOAS−AS) TRAFFIC ORGANIZATIONS
9325 Gunston Road, Suite N319
Ft. Belvoir, VA 22060−5582 When references are made to regional office
organizations that are not part of the Air Traffic
NOTE− Organization (i.e., Communications Center, Flight
Terminal: Headquarters Air Force Flight Standards Standards, Airport offices, etc.), the facility should
Agency is the approval authority for any USAF procedures contact the FAA region where the facility is
or minima that differ from those specified herein and that physically located − not the region where the
involve military aircraft only. facility’s service area office is located.
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−12, Military Procedures.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−1−3 , Use of Active Runways. 1−1−14. DISTRIBUTION
This order is distributed to selected offices in
1−1−12. SAFETY MANAGEMENT SYSTEM
Washington headquarters, regional offices, service
(SMS)
area offices, the William J. Hughes Technical Center,
Every employee is responsible to ensure the safety of and the Mike Monroney Aeronautical Center. Also,
equipment and procedures used in the provision of copies are sent to all air traffic field facilities and
services within the National Airspace System (NAS). international aviation field offices; and to interested
Risk assessment techniques and mitigations, as aviation public.
Introduction 1−1−3
6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 2. Terms of Reference
1−2−1. WORD MEANINGS o. Flight operations in accordance with the options

of “due regard” or “operational” obligates the
As used in this order:
authorized state aircraft commander to:
a. “Shall” or “must” means a procedure is
1. Separate his/her aircraft from all other
mandatory.
air traffic; and
b. “Shall not” or “must not” means a procedure is
2. Assure that an appropriate monitoring agency
prohibited.
assumes responsibility for search and rescue actions;
c. “Should” means a procedure is recommended. and
d. “May” or “need not” means a procedure is 3. Operate under at least one of the following
optional. conditions:
e. “Will” means futurity, not a requirement for the (a) In visual meteorological conditions
application of a procedure. (VMC); or
f. Singular words include the plural. (b) Within radar surveillance and radio
g. Plural words include the singular. communications of a surface radar facility; or
h. “Aircraft” means the airframe, crew members, (c) Be equipped with airborne radar that is
or both. sufficient to provide separation between his/her
aircraft and any other aircraft he/she may be
i. “Approved separation” means separation in controlling and other aircraft; or
accordance with the applicable minima in this order.
(d) Operate within Class G airspace.
j. “Altitude” means indicated altitude mean sea
level (MSL), flight level (FL), or both. (e) An understanding between the pilot and
controller regarding the intent of the pilot and the
k. “Miles” means nautical miles unless otherwise status of the flight should be arrived at before the
specified, and means statute miles in conjunction aircraft leaves ATC frequency.
with visibility.
NOTE−
l. “Course,” “bearing,” “azimuth,” “heading,” and 1. A pilot’s use of the phrase “Going Tactical” does not
“wind direction” information must always be indicate “Due Regard.” An understanding between the
magnetic unless specifically stated otherwise. pilot and controller regarding the intent of the pilot and the
status of the flight should be arrived at before the aircraft
m. “Time” when used for ATC operational leaves air traffic control (ATC) frequency.
activities, is the hour and the minute in Coordinated
2. The above conditions provide for a level of safety
Universal Time (UTC). Change to the next minute is equivalent to that normally given by International Civil
made at the minute plus 30 seconds, except time Aviation Organization (ICAO) ATC agencies and fulfills
checks are given to the nearest quarter minute. U.S. Government obligations under Article 3 of the
n. “Runway” means the runway used by aircraft Chicago Convention of 1944 (Reference (d)), which
and, unless otherwise specified, does not include stipulates there must be “due regard for the safety of
helipads and/or their accompanying takeoff/landing navigation of civil aircraft” when flight is not being
conducted under ICAO flight procedures.
courses. (See Pilot/Controller Glossary terms –
Runway and Helipad.) p. “CFR” means Code of Federal Regulations.
Terms of Reference 1−2−1

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
FIG 1−2−1
Divergence
1−2−2. COURSE DEFINITIONS b. CROSSING COURSES are intersecting courses

whose angular difference is 45 through 135 degrees
The following definitions must be used in the inclusive. (See FIG 1−2−1.)
application of the separation criteria in this order.
NOTE−
c. OPPOSITE/RECIPROCAL COURSES are
The term “protected airspace,” as used in this paragraph, courses whose protected airspaces are coincident,
is the airspace equal to one half the required applicable overlap, or intersect and whose angular difference is
lateral separation on either side of an aircraft along its greater than 135 degrees through 180 degrees
projected flight path. If the protected airspace of inclusive. (See FIG 1−2−1.)
two aircraft does not overlap, applicable lateral separa-
tion is ensured.
1−2−3. NOTES
a. SAME COURSES are courses whose protected
airspaces are coincident, overlap, or intersect and Statements of fact, or of a prefatory or explanatory
whose angular difference is less than 45 degrees. nature relating to directive material, are set forth as
(See FIG 1−2−1.) notes.
1−2−2 Terms of Reference

12/2/21
6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z CHG 1
JO 7110.65Z
1−2−4. REFERENCES h. The annotation EXAMPLE provides a sample of

the way the prescribed phraseology associated with
As used in this order, references direct attention to an the preceding paragraph(s) will be used. If the
additional or supporting source of information such preceding paragraph(s) does (do) not include specific
as FAA, NWS, and other agencies’ orders, directives, prescribed phraseology, the EXAMPLE merely
notices, CFRs, and Advisory Circulars (ACs). denotes suggested words and/or phrases that may be
used in communications.
NOTE−
1−2−5. ANNOTATIONS
The use of the exact text contained in an example not
Revised, reprinted, or new pages are marked as preceded with specific prescribed phraseology is not
mandatory. However, the words and/or phrases are
follows:
expected, to the extent practical, to approximate those used
a. The change number and the effective date are in the example.
printed on each revised or additional page.
1−2−6. ABBREVIATIONS
b. A page that does not require a change is As used in this order, the abbreviations listed below
reprinted in its original form. have the following meanings indicated. (See
c. Bold vertical lines in the margin of changed TBL 1−2−1.)
pages indicate the location of substantive revisions to TBL 1−2−1
the order. Bold vertical lines adjacent to the title of a FAA Order JO 7110.65 Abbreviations
chapter, section, or paragraph means that extensive
Abbreviation Meaning
changes have been made to that chapter, section, or
AAR . . . . . . . Adapted arrival route
paragraph.
AAR . . . . . . . Airport arrival rate
d. Paragraphs/sections annotated with AC . . . . . . . . Advisory Circular
EN ROUTE, OCEANIC, or TERMINAL are only to ACC . . . . . . . Area Control Center
be applied by the designated type facility. When they ACE−IDS . . . ASOS Controller Equipment− Information
are not so designated, the paragraphs/sections apply Display System
to all types of facilities (en route, oceanic, and ACL . . . . . . . Aircraft list
terminal).
ACLS . . . . . . Automatic Carrier Landing System
e. The annotation, USAF for the U.S. Air Force, ADAR . . . . . Adapted departure arrival route
USN for the U.S. Navy, and USA for the U.S. Army ADC . . . . . . . Aerospace Defense Command
denotes that the procedure immediately following the ADIZ . . . . . . Air Defense Identification Zone (to be
annotation applies only to the designated service. pronounced “AY DIZ”)
REFERENCE− ADR . . . . . . . Adapted departure route
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−12, Military Procedures. ADS . . . . . . . Automatic Dependent Surveillance
f. WAKE TURBULENCE APPLICATION in- ADS−B . . . . . Automatic Dependent
serted within a paragraph means that the remaining Surveillance−Broadcast
information in the paragraph requires the application ADS−C . . . . . Automatic Dependent
Surveillance−Contract
of wake turbulence procedures.
AFP . . . . . . . Airspace Flow Program
g. The annotation PHRASEOLOGY denotes the AIDC . . . . . . ATS Interfacility Data Communications
prescribed words and/or phrases to be used in AIM . . . . . . . Aeronautical Information Manual
communications.
AIRMET . . . Airmen’s meteorological information
NOTE− ALDARS . . . Automated Lightning Detection and
Controllers may, after first using the prescribed Reporting System
phraseology for a specific procedure, rephrase the ALERFA . . . Alert phase code (Alerting Service)
message to ensure the content is understood. Good
ALNOT . . . . Alert notice
judgment must be exercised when using nonstandard
phraseology. ALS . . . . . . . Approach Light System

JO
JO 7110.65Z
7110.65R CHG
7110.65Z CHG
2 1 12/2/21
3/15/07
6/17/21
Abbreviation Meaning Abbreviation Meaning

ALTRV . . . . . Altitude reservation CERAP . . . . . Combined Center/RAPCON
AMASS . . . . Airport Movement Area Safety System CFR . . . . . . . Code of Federal Regulations
AMB . . . . . . Ambiguity−A disparity greater than 2 miles CFR . . . . . . . Call for Release
exists between the position declared for a CIC . . . . . . . . Controller−in−Charge
target by STARS and another facility’s
computer declared position during CNS . . . . . . . Continuous
interfacility handoff CPDLC . . . . . Controller Pilot Data Link
AMVER . . . . Automated Mutual Assistance Vessel Communications
Rescue System CPME . . . . . . Calibration Performance Monitor
ANG . . . . . . . Air National Guard Equipment
APR . . . . . . . ATC preferred route CTA . . . . . . . Control Area
APREQ . . . . Approval Request CTRD . . . . . . Certified Tower Radar Display
ARAC . . . . . Army Radar Approach Control facility (US CVFP . . . . . . Charted Visual Flight Procedure
Army) CWA . . . . . . . Center Weather Advisory
ARINC . . . . . Aeronautical Radio Incorporated DETRESFA . Distress Phase code (Alerting Service)
ARIP . . . . . . Air refueling initial point DH . . . . . . . . Decision height
ARSR . . . . . . Air route surveillance radar
DL . . . . . . . . Departure List
ARTCC . . . . . Air Route Traffic Control Center
DME . . . . . . . Distance measuring equipment compatible
ASD . . . . . . . Aircraft Situation Display with TACAN
ASDE . . . . . . Airport surface detection equipment DOE . . . . . . . Department of Energy
ASDE−X . . . Airport Surface Detection Equipment DP . . . . . . . . Instrument Departure Procedure
System − Model X
DR . . . . . . . . Dead reckoning
ASF . . . . . . . Airport Stream Filters
DRT . . . . . . . Diversion recovery tool
ASOS . . . . . . Automated Surface Observing System
DSR . . . . . . . Display System Replacement
ASR . . . . . . . Airport surveillance radar
DTAS . . . . . . Digital Terminal Automation Systems
ASSC . . . . . . Airport Surface Surveillance Capability
DTM . . . . . . . Digital Terrain Map
ATC . . . . . . . Air traffic control
DVFR . . . . . . Defense Visual Flight Rules
ATCAA . . . . ATC assigned airspace
DVRSN . . . . Diversion
ATCSCC . . . . David J. Hurley Air Traffic Control System
EA . . . . . . . . Electronic Attack
Command Center
EAS . . . . . . . En Route Automation System
ATD . . . . . . . Along−Track Distance
EBUS . . . . . . Enhanced Backup Surveillance System
ATIS . . . . . . . Automatic Terminal Information Service
EDCT . . . . . . Expect Departure Clearance Time
ATO . . . . . . . Air Traffic Organization
EDST . . . . . . En Route Decision Support Tool
ATO COO . . Air Traffic Organization Chief Operating
Officer EFC . . . . . . . Expect further clearance
ATOP . . . . . . Advanced Technologies and Oceanic EFVS . . . . . . Enhanced Flight Vision System
Procedures ELDB . . . . . . Enhanced Limited Data Block
ATS . . . . . . . Air Traffic Service ELP . . . . . . . Emergency Landing Pattern
AWOS . . . . . Automated Weather Observing System ELT . . . . . . . . Emergency locator transmitter
BASE . . . . . . Cloud base EoR . . . . . . . Established on RNP
CA . . . . . . . . Conflict Alert EOVM . . . . . Emergency obstruction video map
CARCAH . . . Chief, Aerial Reconnaissance EOS . . . . . . . End Service
Coordination, All Hurricanes
ERAM . . . . . En Route Automation Modernization
CARF . . . . . . Central Altitude Reservation Function
ERIDS . . . . . En Route Information Display System
CAT . . . . . . . Clear air turbulence
ERT . . . . . . . Embedded route text
CDT . . . . . . . Controlled departure time
ETA . . . . . . . Estimated time of arrival
CEP . . . . . . . Central East Pacific

12/2/21
6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z CHG 1
JO 7110.65Z

FAA . . . . . . . Federal Aviation Administration Mach . . . . . . Mach number
FANS . . . . . . Future Air Navigation System MALS . . . . . Medium Intensity Approach Light System
FDB . . . . . . . Full Data Block MALSR . . . . Medium Approach Light System with
FDIO . . . . . . Flight Data Input/Output runway alignment indicator lights
FDP . . . . . . . Flight data processing MAP . . . . . . . Missed approach point
FICON . . . . . Field Condition MARSA . . . . Military authority assumes responsibility

for separation of aircraft
FIR . . . . . . . . Flight Information Region
MCA . . . . . . Minimum crossing altitude
FL . . . . . . . . . Flight level
MCI . . . . . . . Mode C Intruder
FLIP . . . . . . . Flight Information Publication
MDA . . . . . . Minimum descent altitude
FLY . . . . . . . Fly or flying
MDM . . . . . . Main display monitor
FMS . . . . . . . Flight Management System
MEA . . . . . . . Minimum en route (IFR) altitude
FSM . . . . . . . Flight Schedule Monitor
MEARTS . . . Micro En Route Automated Radar
FSS . . . . . . . . Flight Service Station Tracking System
GCA . . . . . . . Ground controlled approach METAR . . . . Aviation Routine Weather Report
GNSS . . . . . . Global Navigation Satellite System MIA . . . . . . . Minimum IFR altitude
GPD . . . . . . . Graphics Plan Display MIAWS . . . . Medium Intensity Airport Weather System
GPS . . . . . . . Global Positioning System MIRL . . . . . . Medium intensity runway lights
GS . . . . . . . . Ground stop MNPS . . . . . . Minimum Navigation Performance
HF/RO . . . . . High Frequency/Radio Operator Specification
HIRL . . . . . . High intensity runway lights MNT . . . . . . . Mach Number Technique
IAFDOF . . . . Inappropriate Altitude for Direction of MOA . . . . . . Military operations area
Flight MOCA . . . . . Minimum obstruction clearance altitude
ICAO . . . . . . International Civil Aviation Organization MRA . . . . . . Minimum reception altitude
IDENT . . . . . Aircraft identification MSAW . . . . . Minimum Safe Altitude Warning
IDS . . . . . . . . Information Display System MSL . . . . . . . Mean sea level
IFR . . . . . . . . Instrument flight rules MTI . . . . . . . Moving target indicator
IFSS . . . . . . . International Flight Service Station
MTR . . . . . . . Military training route
ILS . . . . . . . . Instrument Landing System
MVA . . . . . . . Minimum vectoring altitude
INCERFA . . . Uncertainty Phase code (Alerting Service)
NADIN . . . . . National Airspace Data Interchange
INREQ . . . . . Information request Network
INS . . . . . . . . Inertial Navigation System
NAR . . . . . . . National Automation Request
IR . . . . . . . . . IFR military training route
NAS . . . . . . . National Airspace System
IRU . . . . . . . . Inertial Reference Unit
NAT . . . . . . . ICAO North Atlantic Region
ISR . . . . . . . . Increased Separation Required
NAT HLA . . . North Atlantic High Level Airspace
ITWS . . . . . . Integrated Terminal Weather System
NBCAP . . . . National Beacon Code Allocation Plan
JATO . . . . . . Jet assisted takeoff
NDB . . . . . . . Nondirectional radio beacon
LAHSO . . . . Land and Hold Short Operations
NHOP . . . . . . National Hurricane Operations Plan
LOA . . . . . . . Letter of Agreement NM . . . . . . . . Nautical mile
LLWAS . . . . . Low Level Wind Shear Alert System NOAA . . . . . National Oceanic and Atmospheric
LLWAS NE . Low Level Wind Shear Alert System Administration
Network Expansion NOPAC . . . . North Pacific
LLWAS−RS . Low Level Wind Shear Alert System NORAD . . . . North American Aerospace Defense
Relocation/Sustainment Command
L/MF . . . . . . Low/medium frequency NOS . . . . . . . National Ocean Service
LORAN . . . . Long Range Navigation System NOTAM . . . . Notice to Air Missions

JO
JO 7110.65Z
7110.65R CHG
7110.65Z CHG
2 1 12/2/21
3/15/07
6/17/21

NOWGT . . . . No weight. The weight class or wake SAR . . . . . . . Search and rescue
category has not been determined SATCOM . . . Satellite Communication
NRP . . . . . . . North American Route Program SDP . . . . . . . Surveillance Data Processing
NRR . . . . . . . Nonrestrictive Route SELCAL . . . . Selective Calling System
NRS . . . . . . . Navigation Reference System SFA . . . . . . . . Single frequency approach
NTZ . . . . . . . No transgression zone SFO . . . . . . . Simulated flameout
NWS . . . . . . . National Weather Service SID . . . . . . . . Standard Instrument Departure
NWSOP . . . . National Winter Storm Operations Plan SIGMET . . . . Significant meteorological information
ODALS . . . . Omnidirectional Approach Lighting SPA . . . . . . . . Special Posting Area
System
SPECI . . . . . . Nonroutine (Special) Aviation Weather
ODP . . . . . . . Obstacle Departure Procedure Report
STAR . . . . . . Standard terminal arrival
OID . . . . . . . Operator Interface Device
STARS . . . . . Standard Terminal Automation
OS . . . . . . . . Operations Supervisor Replacement System
OTR . . . . . . . Oceanic transition route STMC . . . . . . Supervisory Traffic Management
PAPI . . . . . . . Precision Approach Path Indicators Coordinator
PAR . . . . . . . Precision approach radar STMCIC . . . . Supervisory Traffic Management
Coordinator−in−charge
PBCT . . . . . . Proposed boundary crossing time
STOL . . . . . . Short takeoff and landing
P/CG . . . . . . . Pilot/Controller Glossary
SURPIC . . . . Surface Picture
PDC . . . . . . . Pre−Departure Clearance
SVFR . . . . . . Special Visual Flight Rules
PPI . . . . . . . . Plan position indicator
TAA . . . . . . . Terminal arrival area
PTP . . . . . . . . Point−to−point
TAS . . . . . . . Terminal Automation Systems
PVD . . . . . . . Plan view display
TACAN . . . . TACAN UHF navigational aid
RA . . . . . . . . Radar Associate
(omnidirectional course and distance
RAIL . . . . . . Runway alignment indicator lights information)
RAPCON . . . Radar Approach Control facility (USAF, TAWS . . . . . . Terrain Awareness Warning System
USN and USMC)
TCAS . . . . . . Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance
RATCF . . . . . Radar Air Traffic Control Facility (USN System
and USMC)
TCDD . . . . . . Tower cab digital display
RBS . . . . . . . Radar bomb scoring TDLS . . . . . . Terminal Data Link System
RCC . . . . . . . Rescue Coordination Center TDW . . . . . . Tower display workstation
RCLS . . . . . . Runway Centerline System TDWR . . . . . Terminal Doppler Weather Radar
RCR . . . . . . . Runway condition reading TDZL . . . . . . Touchdown Zone Light System
RE . . . . . . . . Recent (used to qualify weather TF . . . . . . . . . Track−to−Fix
phenomena such as rain, e.g. recent rain =
RERA) TFMS . . . . . . Traffic Flow Management System
REIL . . . . . . . Runway end identifier lights TMC . . . . . . . Traffic Management Coordinator
RF . . . . . . . . . Radius−to−Fix TMU . . . . . . . Traffic Management Unit
RNAV . . . . . . Area navigation TRACON . . . Terminal Radar Approach Control
RNP . . . . . . . Required Navigation Performance TRSA . . . . . . Terminal radar service area
RTQC . . . . . . Real−Time Quality Control
UFO . . . . . . . Unidentified flying object
RVR . . . . . . . Runway visual range
UHF . . . . . . . Ultra high frequency
RVSM . . . . . . Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum
USA . . . . . . . United States Army
RwyCC . . . . . Runway Condition Codes USAF . . . . . . United States Air Force
RwyCR . . . . . Runway Condition Report USN . . . . . . . United States Navy
SAA . . . . . . . Special Activity Airspace UTC . . . . . . . Coordinated universal time

12/2/21
6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z CHG 1
JO 7110.65Z
UTM . . . . . . . Unsuccessful transmission message
UUA . . . . . . . Urgent pilot weather report
VCI . . . . . . . . Voice Communication Indicator
VFR . . . . . . . Visual flight rules
VHF . . . . . . . Very high frequency
VMC . . . . . . Visual meteorological conditions
VNAV . . . . . . Vertical Navigation
VOR . . . . . . . VHF navigational aid (omnidirectional
course information)
VOR/DME . . Collocated VOR and DME navigational
aids (VHF course and UHF distance
information)
VORTAC . . . Collocated VOR and TACAN navigation
aids (VHF and UHF course and UHF
distance information)
VR . . . . . . . . VFR military training route
VSCS . . . . . . Voice Switching and Control System
WAAS . . . . . Wide Area Augmentation System
WARP . . . . . Weather and Radar Processing
WATRS . . . . . West Atlantic Route System
WRA . . . . . . Weather Reconnaissance Area
WSO . . . . . . Weather Service Office
WSP . . . . . . . Weather System Processor
WST . . . . . . . Convective SIGMET

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Chapter 2. General Control

Section 1. General
2−1−1. ATC SERVICE 2. Other procedures/minima are prescribed in a

letter of agreement, FAA directive, or a military
a. The primary purpose of the ATC system is to document, or:
prevent a collision involving aircraft operating in the
system. NOTE−
These procedures may include altitude reservations,
b. In addition to its primary purpose, the ATC air refueling, fighter interceptor operations, law enforce-
system also: ment, etc.
REFERENCE−
1. Provides a safe, orderly, and expeditious flow FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 1−1−10, Procedural Letters of Agreement
(LOA).
of air traffic.
3. A deviation is necessary to assist an aircraft
2. Supports National Security and Homeland when an emergency has been declared.
Defense missions.
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−6, Safety Alert.
c. The ATC system must provide certain addition- FAA Order JO 7110.65, Chapter 10, Emergencies.
al services to the extent permitted. The provision of FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−1−4, Merging Target Procedures.
additional services is not optional on the part of the e. Air Traffic Control services are not provided for
controller, but rather required when the work model aircraft operating in the NAS or to any UAS
situation permits. It is recognized that the provision operating in the NAS at or below 400ft AGL.
of these services may be precluded by various factors,
NOTE−
including, but not limited to:
1. This does not prohibit ATC from providing services to
1. Volume of traffic. civil and public UAS.
2. The provisions of this paragraph apply to model aircraft
2. Frequency congestion. operating at any altitude. For all other UAS, this
3. Quality of surveillance. paragraph applies only to those UAS operating entirely at
or below 400ft AGL.
4. Controller workload. REFERENCE−
P/CG Term − Model Aircraft.
5. Higher priority duties.
6. The physical inability to scan and detect 2−1−2. DUTY PRIORITY
situations falling in this category. a. Give first priority to separating aircraft and
issuing safety alerts as required in this order. Good
d. Controllers must provide air traffic control
judgment must be used in prioritizing all other
service in accordance with the procedures and
provisions of this order based on the requirements of
minima in this order, except when one or more of the
the situation at hand.
following conditions exists:
REFERENCE−
1. A deviation is necessary to conform with FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−6, Safety Alert.
ICAO Documents, National Rules of the Air, or NOTE−
special agreements where the U.S. provides air traffic Because there are many variables involved, it is virtually
control service in airspace outside the U.S. and its impossible to develop a standard list of duty priorities that
possessions or: would apply uniformly to every conceivable situation.
Each set of circumstances must be evaluated on its own
NOTE− merit, and when more than one action is required,
Pilots are required to abide by CFRs or other applicable controllers must exercise their best judgment based on the
regulations regardless of the application of any procedure facts and circumstances known to them. That action which
or minima in this order. is most critical from a safety standpoint is performed first.
General 2−1−1
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b. Provide support to national security and come, first served” basis as circumstances permit,
homeland defense activities to include, but not be except the following:
limited to, reporting of suspicious and/or unusual NOTE−
aircraft/pilot activities. It is solely the pilot’s prerogative to cancel an IFR flight
REFERENCE− plan. However, a pilot’s retention of an IFR flight plan does
FAA Order JO 7610.4 Special Operations. not afford priority over VFR aircraft. For example, this
c. Provide and/or solicit weather information in does not preclude the requirement for the pilot of an
arriving IFR aircraft to adjust his/her flight path, as
accordance with procedures and requirements
necessary, to enter a traffic pattern in sequence with
outlined in this order. arriving VFR aircraft.
NOTE−
a. An aircraft in distress has the right of way over
Controllers are responsible to become familiar with and
stay aware of current weather information needed to
all other air traffic.
perform ATC duties. REFERENCE−
14 CFR Section 91.113(c).
d. Provide additional services to the extent
b. Treat air ambulance flights as follows:
possible, contingent only upon higher priority duties
and other factors including limitations of radar, 1. Provide priority handling to civil air
volume of traffic, frequency congestion, and ambulance flights when the pilot, in radio transmis-
workload. sions, verbally identifies the flight by stating
“MEDEVAC” followed by the FAA authorized call
2−1−3. PROCEDURAL PREFERENCE sign or the full civil registration letters/numbers.
Good judgment must be used in each situation to
a. Use automation procedures in preference to facilitate the most expeditious movement of a
nonautomation procedures when workload, commu- MEDEVAC aircraft.
nications, and equipment capabilities permit. NOTE−
b. Use automation procedures that provide closed If a flight plan includes the letter “L” for “MEDEVAC”
loop clearances in preference to open loop clearances and/or includes “MEDEVAC” in Item 11 (Remarks) of the
to promote operational advantage for time−based flight plan or Item 18 (Other Information) of an
international flight plan, the entries are considered
management (TBM) when workload permits. (e.g., a
informational in nature only and not an identification for
QU route pick that anticipates length of vector and operational priority.
includes the next fix that ties into the route of flight.)
REFERENCE−
c. Use radar separation in preference to nonradar FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−4−20, Aircraft Identification.
separation when it will be to an operational advantage 2. Provide priority handling to AIR EVAC and
and workload, communications, and equipment HOSP flights when verbally requested by the pilot.
permit. NOTE−
d. Use nonradar separation in preference to radar If a flight plan includes “HOSP” or “AIR EVAC” in either
separation when the situation dictates that an Item 11 (Remarks) or Item 18 (Other Information) of an
international flight plan, the entries are considered
operational advantage will be gained.
informational in nature only and not an identification for
NOTE− operational priority. For aircraft identification in radio
One situation may be where vertical separation would transmissions, civilian pilots will use normal call signs
preclude excessive vectoring. when filing “HOSP” and military pilots will use the
“EVAC” call sign.
2−1−4. OPERATIONAL PRIORITY 3. Assist the pilots of MEDEVAC, AIR EVAC,
and HOSP aircraft to avoid areas of significant
It is recognized that traffic flow may affect the
weather and adverse conditions.
controller’s ability to provide priority handling.
However, without compromising safety, good 4. If requested by a pilot, provide additional
judgment must be used in each situation to facilitate assistance (i.e., landline notifications) to expedite
the most expeditious movement of priority aircraft. ground handling of patients, vital organs, or urgently
Provide air traffic control service to aircraft on a “first needed medical materials.
2−1−2 General
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c. Provide priority handling and expedite the i. Provide priority handling to USAF aircraft
movement of presidential aircraft and entourage and engaged in aerial sampling/surveying missions using
any rescue support aircraft as well as related control the call sign “SAMP.”
messages when traffic conditions and communica- REFERENCE−
tions facilities permit. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 9−2−17, SAMP Flights.
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 5−3−2, Aerial Sampling/Surveying For
NOTE− Nuclear Contamination.
As used herein the terms presidential aircraft and FAA Order JO 7610.4, Para 12−4−3, Aerial Sampling/Surveying For
Nuclear Contamination.
entourage include aircraft and entourage of the President,
Vice President, or other public figures when designated by j. Provide priority handling to Special Air Mission
the White House. aircraft when SCOOT is indicated in the remarks
REFERENCE− section of the flight plan or used in air/ground
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−4−20, Aircraft Identification. communications.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−3−2, Departure Clearances.
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 5−1−1, Advance Coordination. NOTE−
The term “SCOOT” will not be part of the call sign but may
d. Provide priority handling and maximum
be used when the aircraft is airborne to indicate a request
assistance to SAR aircraft performing a SAR for special handling.
mission.
REFERENCE−
REFERENCE− FAA Order JO 7610.4, Para 12−6−1, Applications.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 10−1−3, Providing Assistance.
k. When requested, provide priority handling to
e. Provide priority handling and maximum TEAL and NOAA mission aircraft.
assistance to expedite the movement of interceptor REFERENCE−
aircraft on active air defense missions until the FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 9−2−19, Weather Reconnaissance
unknown aircraft is identified. Flights.
l. Provide priority handling to expedite the

f. Provide priority handling to NIGHT WATCH movement of OPEN SKIES Treaty observation and
aircraft when NAOC (pronounced NA−YOCK) is demonstration (F and D) flights.
indicated in the remarks section of the flight plan or
in air/ground communications. NOTE−
An Open Skies Treaty (F and D) aircraft has priority over
NOTE− all “regular” air traffic. “Regular” is defined as all
The term “NAOC” will not be a part of the call sign but may aircraft traffic other than:
be used when the aircraft is airborne to indicate a request 1. Emergencies
for special handling. 2. Aircraft directly involved in presidential movement.
REFERENCE− 3. Forces or activities in actual combat.
FAA Order JO 7610.4, Para 12−1−1, Applications. 4. MEDEVAC, and active SAR missions.
5. AIR EVAC and HOSP aircraft that have requested
g. Provide priority handling to any civil or military
priority handling.
aircraft using the code name “FLYNET.”
REFERENCE−
REFERENCE− FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 9−2−22, Open Skies Treaty Aircraft.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 9−2−5, FLYNET. FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 5−3−5, Open Skies Treaty Aircraft Priority
FAA Order JO 7610.4, Para 12−4−1, “FLYNET” Flights, Nuclear Flights (F and D).
Emergency Teams. Treaty on Open Skies, Treaty Document, 102−37.
h. Provide priority handling to aircraft using the m. Provide priority handling, as required to
code name “Garden Plot” only when CARF notifies expedite Flight Check aircraft.
you that such priority is authorized. Refer any NOTE−
questions regarding flight procedures to CARF for It is recognized that unexpected wind conditions, weather,
resolution. or heavy traffic flows may affect controller’s ability to
provide priority or special handling at the specific time
NOTE−
requested.
Garden Plot flights require priority movement and are
coordinated by the military with CARF. State authority will REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 9−1−3, Flight Check Aircraft.
contact the Regional Administrator to arrange for priority
of National Guard troop movements within a particular n. IFR aircraft must have priority over SVFR
state. aircraft.
General 2−1−3
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REFERENCE− observed and the safety alert issued; inform the

FAA Order JO 7110.65, Chapter 7, Section 5, Special VFR (SVFR).
appropriate controller.
o. Aircraft operating under the North American NOTE−
Route Program (NRP) are not subject to route 1. The issuance of a safety alert is a first priority (see
limiting restrictions (e.g., published preferred IFR paragraph 2−1−2, Duty Priority) once the controller
routes, letter of agreement requirements, standard observes and recognizes a situation of unsafe aircraft
operating procedures). proximity to terrain, obstacles, or other aircraft.
REFERENCE− Conditions, such as workload, traffic volume, the
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−3−2, En Route Data Entries. quality/limitations of the radar system, and the available
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−2−15, North American Route Program lead time to react are factors in determining whether it is
(NRP) Information. reasonable for the controller to observe and recognize such
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−2−5, Route or Altitude Amendments.
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Chapter 18, Section 17, North American Route situations. While a controller cannot see immediately the
Program. development of every situation where a safety alert must be
issued, the controller must remain vigilant for such
p. If able, provide priority handling to diverted situations and issue a safety alert when the situation is
flights. Priority handling may be requested via use of recognized.
“DVRSN” in the remarks section of the flight plan or
2. Recognition of situations of unsafe proximity may result
by the flight being placed on the Diversion Recovery
from MSAW/E−MSAW, automatic altitude readouts,
Tool (DRT). Conflict/Mode C Intruder Alert, observations on a PAR
REFERENCE− scope, or pilot reports.
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 18−4−5, Diversion Recovery.
3. Once the alert is issued, it is solely the pilot’s
q. If able, provide priority handling to FALLEN prerogative to determine what course of action, if any, will
HERO flights when “FALLEN HERO” is indicated be taken.
in the remarks section of the flight plan or requested
a. Terrain/Obstruction Alert. Immediately issue/
in air/ground communications.
initiate an alert to an aircraft if you are aware the
aircraft is at an altitude that, in your judgment, places
2−1−5. EXPEDITIOUS COMPLIANCE it in unsafe proximity to terrain and/or obstructions.
Issue the alert as follows:
a. Use the word “immediately” only when
expeditious compliance is required to avoid an PHRASEOLOGY−
imminent situation. LOW ALTITUDE ALERT (call sign),
b. Use the word “expedite” only when prompt CHECK YOUR ALTITUDE IMMEDIATELY.
compliance is required to avoid the development of
an imminent situation. If an “expedite” climb or and, if the aircraft is not yet on final approach,
descent clearance is issued by ATC, and subsequently
the altitude to maintain is changed or restated without THE (as appropriate) MEA/MVA/MOCA/MIA IN YOUR
AREA IS (altitude).
an expedite instruction, the expedite instruction is
REFERENCE−
canceled. P/CG Term − Final Approach − IFR
c. In either case, if time permits, include the reason b. Aircraft Conflict/Mode C Intruder Alert.
for this action. Immediately issue/initiate an alert to an aircraft if you
are aware of another aircraft at an altitude that you
2−1−6. SAFETY ALERT believe places them in unsafe proximity. If feasible,
offer the pilot an alternate course of action. When an
Issue a safety alert to an aircraft if you are aware the alternate course of action is given, end the
aircraft is in a position/altitude that, in your judgment, transmission with the word “immediately.”
places it in unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions,
PHRASEOLOGY−
or other aircraft. Once the pilot informs you action is TRAFFIC ALERT (call sign) (position of aircraft) ADVISE
being taken to resolve the situation, you may YOU TURN LEFT/RIGHT (heading),
discontinue the issuance of further alerts. Do not
assume that because someone else has responsibility and/or
for the aircraft that the unsafe situation has been
2−1−4 General
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CLIMB/DESCEND (specific altitude if appropriate) a pilot that his/her fuel supply has reached a state where,
IMMEDIATELY. upon reaching destination, he/she cannot accept any undue
EXAMPLE− delay. This is not an emergency situation but merely an
“Traffic Alert, Cessna Three Four Juliet, 12’o clock, 1 mile advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible
advise you turn left immediately.” should any undue delay occur. A minimum fuel advisory
or does not imply a need for traffic priority. Common sense
“Traffic Alert, Cessna Three-Four Juliet, 12’o clock, 1 and good judgment will determine the extent of assistance
mile advise you turn left and climb immediately.” to be given in minimum fuel situations. If, at any time, the
remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−14−1, Conflict Alert (CA) and Mode C
priority to ensure a safe landing, the pilot should declare
Intruder (MCI) Alert. an emergency and report fuel remaining in minutes.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−14−2, En Route Minimum Safe
Altitude Warning (E−MSAW).
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−15−6, CA/MCI.
2−1−9. REPORTING ESSENTIAL FLIGHT
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−2−21, Altitude Filters. INFORMATION
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−21, Traffic Advisories.
Report as soon as possible to the appropriate FSS,
airport manager’s office, ARTCC, approach control
2−1−7. INFLIGHT EQUIPMENT facility, operations office, or military operations
MALFUNCTIONS office any information concerning components of the
a. When a pilot reports an inflight equipment NAS or any flight conditions which may have an
malfunction, determine the nature and extent of any adverse effect on air safety.
special handling desired. NOTE−
FSSs are responsible for classifying and disseminating
NOTE−
Notices to Air Missions.
Inflight equipment malfunctions include partial or
complete failure of equipment, which may affect either REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−3−3, Timely Information.
safety, separation standards, and/or the ability of the flight FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 3−1−2, Periodic Maintenance.
to proceed under IFR, or in Reduced Vertical Separation USN, See OPNAVINST 3721.30.
Minimum (RVSM) airspace, in the ATC system. Control-
lers may expect reports from pilots regarding VOR, 2−1−10. NAVAID MALFUNCTIONS
TACAN, ADF, GPS, RVSM capability, or low frequency
navigation receivers, impairment of air−ground commu- a. When an aircraft reports a ground−based
nications capability, or other equipment deemed NAVAID malfunction, take the following actions:
appropriate by the pilot (e.g., airborne weather radar). 1. Request a report from a second aircraft.
Pilots should communicate the nature and extent of any
assistance desired from ATC. 2. If the second aircraft reports normal
operations, continue use and inform the first aircraft.
b. Provide the maximum assistance possible
Record the incident on FAA Form 7230−4 or
consistent with equipment, workload, and any special
appropriate military form.
handling requested.
3. If the second aircraft confirms the malfunc-
c. Relay to other controllers or facilities who will
tion or in the absence of a second aircraft report,
subsequently handle the aircraft, all pertinent details
activate the standby equipment or request the monitor
concerning the aircraft and any special handling
facility to activate.
required or being provided.
4. If normal operation is reported after the
standby equipment is activated, continue use, record
2−1−8. MINIMUM FUEL
the incident on FAA Form 7230−4 or appropriate
If an aircraft declares a state of “minimum fuel,” military form, and notify technical operations
inform any facility to whom control jurisdiction is personnel (the Systems Engineer of the ARTCC
transferred of the minimum fuel problem and be alert when an en route aid is involved).
for any occurrence which might delay the aircraft 5. If continued malfunction is reported after the
en route. standby equipment is activated or the standby
NOTE− equipment cannot be activated, inform technical
Use of the term “minimum fuel” indicates recognition by operations personnel and request advice on whether
General 2−1−5
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or not the aid should be shut down. In the absence of b. ATC facilities do not invoke or deny MARSA.
a second aircraft report, advise the technical Their sole responsibility concerning the use of
operations personnel of the time of the initial aircraft MARSA is to provide separation between military
report and the estimated time a second aircraft report aircraft engaged in MARSA operations and other
could be obtained. nonparticipating IFR aircraft.
b. When an aircraft reports a GPS or WAAS c. DOD must ensure that military pilots requesting
anomaly, request the following information and/or special use airspace/ATCAAs have coordinated with
take the following actions: the scheduling agency, have obtained approval for
entry, and are familiar with the appropriate MARSA
1. Record the following minimum information: procedures. ATC is not responsible for determining
which military aircraft are authorized to enter special
(a) Aircraft make, model, and call sign.
use airspace/ATCAAs.
(b) Location or position, and altitude at the REFERENCE−
time where GPS or WAAS anomaly was observed. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 9−2−13, Military Aerial Refueling.
(c) Date/time of occurrence. 2−1−12. MILITARY PROCEDURES

2. Request a report from a second aircraft. Military procedures in the form of additions,
modifications, and exceptions to the basic FAA
3. Record the incident on FAA Form 7230−4 or procedure are prescribed herein when a common
appropriate military form. procedure has not been attained or to fulfill a specific
4. Inform other aircraft of the anomaly as requirement. They must be applied by:
specified in paragraph 4−8−1j or k, as applicable. a. ATC facilities operated by that military service.
PHRASEOLOGY− EXAMPLE−
ATTENTION ALL AIRCRAFT, GPS REPORTED 1. An Air Force facility providing service for an Air Force
UNRELIABLE (OR WAAS UNAVAILABLE) IN base would apply USAF procedures to all traffic regardless
VICINITY/AREA (position). of class.
EXAMPLE− 2. A Navy facility providing service for a Naval Air Station
“Attention all aircraft, GPS reported unreliable (or WAAS would apply USN procedures to all traffic regardless of
unavailable) in the area 30 miles south of Waco VOR.” class.
c. When a pilot reports a WAAS anomaly, b. ATC facilities, regardless of their parent
determine from the pilot what indications he or she organization (FAA, USAF, USN, USA), supporting
observes and record the information in accordance a designated military airport exclusively. This
with subparagraph b above. designation determines which military procedures
are to be applied.
EXAMPLE−
2−1−11. USE OF MARSA 1. An FAA facility supports a USAF base exclusively;
USAF procedures are applied to all traffic at that base.
a. MARSA may only be applied to military
operations specified in a letter of agreement or other 2. An FAA facility provides approach control service for a
appropriate FAA or military document. Naval Air Station as well as supporting a civil airport;
basic FAA procedures are applied at both locations by the
NOTE− FAA facility.
Application of MARSA is a military command prerogative. 3. A USAF facility supports a USAF base and provides
It will not be invoked indiscriminately by individual units approach control service to a satellite civilian airport;
or pilots. It will be used only for IFR operations requiring
USAF procedures are applied at both locations by the
its use. Commands authorizing MARSA will ensure that its
USAF facility.
implementation and terms of use are documented and
coordinated with the control agency having jurisdiction REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 1−2−5, Annotations.
over the area in which the operations are conducted. Terms
of use will assign responsibility and provide for separation c. Other ATC facilities when specified in a letter of
among participating aircraft. agreement.
2−1−6 General
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EXAMPLE− 1. For a standard formation only the aircraft

A USAF unit is using a civil airport supported by an FAA acting as the lead will squawk an ATC assigned
facility− USAF procedures will be applied as specified in beacon code. Ensure all other aircraft squawk
a letter of agreement between the unit and the FAA facility standby.
to the aircraft of the USAF unit. Basic FAA procedures will
be applied to all other aircraft. 2. For a nonstandard formation, each aircraft
should squawk an ATC assigned beacon code.
Controller discretion allows aircraft in a nonstandard
2−1−13. FORMATION FLIGHTS formation to squawk standby if operationally
advantageous.
Control formation flights as a single aircraft.
REFERENCE−
Separation responsibility between aircraft within the FAA Order JO 7610.4, Para 12−11−6, Nonstandard Formation Tactics,
formation rests with the flight leader and the pilots of subparagraph b3.
the other aircraft in the flight. This includes transition EXAMPLE−
periods when aircraft within the formation are “N123JP squawk standby.”
maneuvering to attain separation from each other to
effect individual control during join−up and Or
breakaway.
“N123SP have N123JP squawk standby.”
REFERENCE−
P/CG Term – Formation Flight d. When formation break−up is requested, issue
FAA Order JO 7610.4, Chapter 12, Section 11. Formation Flight control instructions and/or clearances which will
ICAO Annex 2, 3.1.8 Formation Flights
result in approved separation through the lead or
a. Support formation flight join−up for two directly to the requesting aircraft in the formation.
aircraft when all of the following occur: EXAMPLE−
“N5871S requesting flight break−up with N731K. N731K
1. Requested by any participating pilot. is changing destination to PHL.”
“N731K squawk 5432, turn right, fly heading zero−seven−
2. All participating pilots concur.
zero.
3. Either of the participating pilots reports the
“Center, BAMA21. BAMA23 is requesting to RTB.”
other/s in sight.
“BAMA21 have BAMA23 squawk 5544, descend and
EXAMPLE− maintain flight level one−niner−zero and change to my
“ROOK01 has EAGLE03 in sight, request formation frequency.”
join−up with EAGLE03 at flight level two zero zero.
EAGLE03 will be the lead.” “Center, BAMA21. BAMA23 is requesting to RTB.”
“BAMA23 squawk 5544. BAMA23 Radar contact
“EAGLE03 verify requesting flight join−up with (position if required). Cleared to SSC via direct. Descend
ROOK01.” and maintain flight level one−niner−zero.”
REFERENCE−
If affirmative: FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−5−8, Additional Separation for
Formation Flights.
P/CG Term− Formation Flight.
“ROOK01 climb and maintain flight level two zero zero.
Report (advise) when formation join−up is complete.” e. Military and civil formation flights in RVSM
airspace.
b. If multiple single aircraft request to join−up,
multiple formations are joining as one, or aircraft are 1. Utilize RVSM separation standards for a
joining an established formation, obtain confirmation formation flight, which consists of all RVSM
of required items listed in subparagraph 2−1−13a, approved aircraft.
from the lead aircraft. 2. Utilize non−RVSM separation standards for
REFERENCE− a formation flight above FL 290, which does not
P/CG Term − Formation Flight consist of all RVSM approved aircraft.
c. After join−up, aircraft beacon code assignment 3. If aircraft are requesting to form a formation
will be determined by formation type. flight to FL 290 or above, the controller who issues
General 2−1−7
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the clearance creating the formation flight is 2−1−15. CONTROL TRANSFER

responsible for ensuring that the proper equipment
suffix is entered for the lead aircraft. a. Transfer control of an aircraft in accordance
with the following conditions:
4. If the flight departs as a formation, and is 1. At a prescribed or coordinated location, time,
requesting FL 290 or above, the first center sector fix, or altitude; or,
must ensure that the proper equipment suffix is
entered. 2. At the time a radar handoff and frequency
change to the receiving controller have been
5. If the formation flight is below FL 290 and completed and when authorized by a facility directive
later requests FL 290 or above, the controller or letter of agreement which specifies the type and
receiving the RVSM altitude request must ensure the extent of control that is transferred.
proper equipment suffix is entered.
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−14, Coordinate Use of Airspace.
6. Upon break−up of the formation flight, the FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−4−5, Transferring Controller Handoff.
controller initiating the break−up must ensure that all FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−4−6, Receiving Controller Handoff.
aircraft or flights are assigned their proper equipment b. Transfer control of an aircraft only after
suffix. eliminating any potential conflict with other aircraft
for which you have separation responsibility.
2−1−14. COORDINATE USE OF AIRSPACE c. Assume control of an aircraft only after it is in
your area of jurisdiction unless specifically coordin-
a. Ensure that the necessary coordination has been ated or as specified by letter of agreement or a facility
accomplished before you allow an aircraft under your directive.
control to enter another controller’s area of
jurisdiction.
2−1−16. SURFACE AREAS
b. Before you issue a control instruction directly to a. Coordinate with the appropriate nonapproach
a pilot that will change the aircraft’s heading, route, control tower on an individual aircraft basis before
speed, or altitude, you must ensure that coordination issuing a clearance which would require flight within
has been completed with all controllers whose area of a surface area for which the tower has responsibility
jurisdiction is affected by those instructions unless unless otherwise specified in a letter of agreement.
otherwise specified by a letter of agreement or facility
REFERENCE−
directive. If your control instruction will be relayed to FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 4−3−1, Letters of Agreement.
the pilot through a source other than another radar 14 CFR Section 91.127, Operating on or in the Vicinity of an Airport
controller (FSS, New York Radio, San Francisco in Class E Airspace.
P/CG Term − Surface Area.
Radio, another pilot, etc.), you are still responsible to
ensure that all required coordination is completed. b. Coordinate with the appropriate control tower
for transit authorization when you are providing radar
NOTE− traffic advisory service to an aircraft that will enter
1. It is good operating practice for controllers to confirm another facility’s airspace.
that required coordination has been/will be effected,
especially in unusual circumstances, such as recently NOTE−
modified sector configurations, airspace changes, route The pilot is not expected to obtain his/her own
changes, etc. authorization through each area when in contact with a
radar facility.
2. Ensuring that all required coordination has been
completed does not necessarily imply that the controller c. Transfer communications to the appropriate
issuing the control instruction directly to the pilot has to facility, if required, prior to operation within a surface
perform the coordination action. area for which the tower has responsibility.
REFERENCE− REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−15, Control Transfer. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−17, Radio Communications.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−5−10, Adjacent Airspace. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−1−11, Surface Area Restrictions.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−4−5 , Transferring Controller Handoff. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−6−1, Application.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−4−6, Receiving Controller Handoff. 14 CFR Section 91.129, Operations in Class D Airspace.
2−1−8 General
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JO 7110.65Z
2−1−17. RADIO COMMUNICATIONS NOTE−

AIM, paragraph 5−3−1, ARTCC Communications, informs
a. Transfer radio communications before an pilots that they are expected to maintain a listening watch
aircraft enters the receiving controller’s area of on the transferring controller’s frequency until the time, fix,
jurisdiction unless otherwise coordinated or specified or altitude specified.
by a letter of agreement or a facility directive. PHRASEOLOGY−
CONTACT (facility name or location name and terminal
b. Transfer radio communications by specifying function), (frequency).
the following:
If required,
NOTE−
Radio communications transfer procedures may be AT (time, fix, or altitude).
specified by a letter of agreement or contained in the route
description of an MTR as published in the DOD Planning c. Controllers must, within a reasonable amount of
AP/1B (AP/3). time, take appropriate action to establish/restore
communications with all aircraft for which a
1. The facility name or location name and communications transfer or initial contact to his/her
terminal function to be contacted. TERMINAL: Omit sector is expected/required.
the location name when transferring communications
NOTE−
to another controller within your facility, or, when the For the purposes of this paragraph, a reasonable amount
tower and TRACON share the same name (for of time is considered to be 5 minutes from the time the
example, Phoenix Tower and Phoenix TRACON). aircraft enters the controller’s area of jurisdiction or comes
within range of radio/communications coverage. Commu-
EXCEPTION. Controllers must include the name of nications include two−way VHF or UHF radio contact,
the facility when instructing an aircraft to change data link, or high frequency (HF) radio through an
frequency for final approach guidance. approved third−party provider such as New York Radio or
San Francisco Radio.
2. Frequency to use except the following may be
omitted: d. ERAM facilities, beginning with initial audio
contact with an aircraft, must utilize the voice
(a) FSS frequency. communication indicator to reflect the current status
of voice communications.
(b) Departure frequency if previously given
or published on a SID chart for the procedure issued. e. In situations where an operational advantage
will be gained, and following coordination with the
(c) TERMINAL: receiving controller, you may instruct aircraft on the
ground to monitor the receiving controller’s
(1) Ground or local control frequency if in frequency.
your opinion the pilot knows which frequency is in
EXAMPLE−
use. “Monitor Tower.”
(2) The numbers preceding the decimal “Monitor Ground.”
point if the ground control frequency is in the “Monitor Ground Point Seven.”
121 MHz bandwidth. “Monitor Ground, One Two Zero Point Eight.”
EXAMPLE− f. In situations where a sector has multiple
“Contact Tower.” frequencies or when sectors are combined using
“Contact Ground.” multiple frequencies and the aircraft will remain
“Contact Ground Point Seven.” under your jurisdiction, transfer radio communica-
“Contact Ground, One Two Zero Point Eight.” tion by specifying the following:
“Contact Huntington Radio.”
“Contact Departure.” PHRASEOLOGY−
“Contact Los Angeles Center, One Two Three Point Four.” (Identification) CHANGE TO MY FREQUENCY (state
frequency).
3. Time, fix, altitude, or specifically when to EXAMPLE−
contact a facility. You may omit this when “United two twenty-two change to my frequency one two
compliance is expected upon receipt. three point four.”
General 2−1−9
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REFERENCE− PHRASEOLOGY−
AIM, Para 4−2−3, Contact Procedures. UNABLE (requested operation).
g. Avoid issuing a frequency change to helicopters
known to be single-piloted during air-taxiing, and when necessary,
hovering, or low-level flight. Whenever possible,
(reason and/or additional instructions.)
relay necessary control instructions until the pilot is
able to change frequency. d. State the words “STAND BY.”
NOTE− NOTE−
Most light helicopters are flown by one pilot and require “STAND BY” is not an approval or denial. The controller
the constant use of both hands and feet to maintain control. acknowledges the request and will respond at a later time.
Although Flight Control Friction Devices assist the pilot, REFERENCE−
changing frequency near the ground could result in FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−21, Traffic Advisories.
inadvertent ground contact and consequent loss of control. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−9−3, Methods.
Pilots are expected to advise ATC of their single-pilot
status if unable to comply with a frequency change.
2−1−19. WAKE TURBULENCE
REFERENCE−
AIM, Para 4−3−14, Communications.
a. Apply wake turbulence procedures to an aircraft
h. In situations where the controller does not want operating behind another aircraft when wake
the pilot to change frequency but the pilot is expecting turbulence separation is required.
or may want a frequency change, use the following NOTE−
phraseology. Paragraph 5−5−4, Minima, subparagraphs g and h specify
PHRASEOLOGY− the required radar wake turbulence separations.
REMAIN THIS FREQUENCY. Time-based separations are contained in paragraph
3−9−6, Same Runway Separation, paragraph 3−9−7, Wake
REFERENCE− Turbulence Separation for Intersection Departures,
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−7−1, Clearance Information.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−12−9, Communication Transfer. paragraph 3−9−8, Intersecting Runway Separation,
paragraph 3−9−9, Nonintersecting Converging Runway
Operations, paragraph 3−10−3, Same Runway Separa-
2−1−18. OPERATIONAL REQUESTS tion, paragraph 3−10−4, Intersecting Runway Separation,
paragraph 6−1−4, Adjacent Airport Operation, paragraph
Respond to a request from another controller, a pilot 6−1−5, Arrival Minima, and paragraph 6−7−5, Interval
or vehicle operator by one of the following verbal Minima.
means: b. The separation minima must continue to
a. Restate the request in complete or abbreviated touchdown for all IFR aircraft not making a visual
terms followed by the word “APPROVED.” The approach or maintaining visual separation.
phraseology “APPROVED AS REQUESTED” may REFERENCE−
be substituted in lieu of a lengthy readback. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−9−5, Approach Separation
Responsibility.
PHRASEOLOGY−
(Requested operation) APPROVED. 2−1−20. WAKE TURBULENCE
CAUTIONARY ADVISORIES
or
a. Issue wake turbulence cautionary advisories
APPROVED AS REQUESTED. including the position, altitude if known, and
b. State restrictions followed by the word direction of flight to aircraft operating behind an
“APPROVED.” aircraft that requires wake turbulence separation
when:
PHRASEOLOGY−
REFERENCE−
(Restriction and/or additional instructions, requested AC 90−23, Aircraft Wake Turbulence, Pilot Responsibility, Para 11.
operation) APPROVED. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−5−4, Minima, subpara g.
c. State the word “UNABLE” and, time permit- 1. TERMINAL. VFR aircraft not being radar
ting, a reason. vectored are behind the larger aircraft.
2−1−10 General
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JO 7110.65Z
2. IFR aircraft accept a visual approach or visual W, and NW). This method must be terminated at the
separation. pilot’s request.
REFERENCE− 3. Distance from aircraft in miles.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−4−1, Visual Approach.
4. Direction in which traffic is proceeding
3. TERMINAL. VFR arriving aircraft that have and/or relative movement of traffic.
previously been radar vectored and the vectoring has
NOTE−
been discontinued.
Relative movement includes closing, converging, parallel
b. Issue cautionary information to any aircraft if in same direction, opposite direction, diverging, overtaking,
your opinion, wake turbulence may have an adverse crossing left to right, crossing right to left.
effect on it. When traffic is known to be a Super 5. If known, type of aircraft and altitude.
aircraft, include the word Super in the description. REFERENCE−
When traffic is known to be a Heavy aircraft, include FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−4−21, Description of Aircraft Types.
the word Heavy in the description. PHRASEOLOGY−
TRAFFIC, (number) O’CLOCK,
NOTE−
Wake turbulence is generated when an aircraft produces or when appropriate,
lift. Because the location of wake turbulence is difficult to
determine, the controller is not responsible for anticipating (direction) (number) MILES, (direction)−BOUND and/or
its existence or effect. Aircraft flying through a (relative movement),
Super/Heavy aircraft’s flight path may have an increased
chance of a wake encounter. and if known,
REFERENCE−
AC 90−23, Aircraft Wake Turbulence. (type of aircraft and altitude).
P/CG Term− Aircraft Classes.
P/CG Term− Wake Turbulence.
or
PHRASEOLOGY−
CAUTION WAKE TURBULENCE (traffic information). When appropriate,
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−2−1, Visual Separation. (type of aircraft and relative position), (number of feet)
FEET ABOVE/BELOW YOU.
2−1−21. TRAFFIC ADVISORIES
If altitude is unknown,
Unless an aircraft is operating within Class A airspace
or omission is requested by the pilot, issue traffic ALTITUDE UNKNOWN.
advisories to all aircraft (IFR or VFR) on your EXAMPLE−
frequency when, in your judgment, their proximity “Traffic, eleven o’clock, one zero miles, southbound,
may diminish to less than the applicable separation converging, Boeing Seven Twenty Seven, one seven
minima. Where no separation minima applies, such thousand.”
“Traffic, twelve o’clock, one five miles, opposite direction,
as for VFR aircraft outside of Class B/Class C
altitude unknown.”
airspace, or a TRSA, issue traffic advisories to those “Traffic, ten o’clock, one two miles, southeast bound,
aircraft on your frequency when in your judgment one thousand feet below you.”
their proximity warrants it. Provide this service as
6. When requested by the pilot, issue radar
follows:
vectors to assist in avoiding the traffic, provided the
a. To radar identified aircraft: aircraft to be vectored is within your area of
jurisdiction or coordination has been effected with
1. Azimuth from aircraft in terms of the 12−hour the sector/facility in whose area the aircraft is
clock, or operating.
2. When rapidly maneuvering aircraft prevent 7. If unable to provide vector service, inform the
accurate issuance of traffic as in 1 above, specify the pilot.
direction from an aircraft’s position in terms of the REFERENCE−
eight cardinal compass points (N, NE, E, SE, S, SW, FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−18, Operational Requests.
General 2−1−11
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8. Inform the pilot of the following when traffic V−O−R two zero three five.”
you have issued is not reported in sight: “Traffic, numerous aircraft, vicinity of Delia airport.”
c. For aircraft displaying Mode C, not radar
(a) The traffic is no factor.
identified, issue indicated altitude.
(b) The traffic is no longer depicted on radar. EXAMPLE−
PHRASEOLOGY− “Traffic, one o’clock, six miles, eastbound, altitude
TRAFFIC NO FACTOR/NO LONGER OBSERVED, indicates six thousand five hundred.”
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−1−6, Traffic Information.
or FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−2−1, Visual Separation.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−6−10, VFR Departure Information.
(number) O’CLOCK TRAFFIC NO FACTOR/NO
LONGER OBSERVED, 2−1−22. UNMANNED AIRCRAFT SYSTEM
(UAS) ACTIVITY INFORMATION.
or
a. Issue UAS advisory information for known
(direction) TRAFFIC NO FACTOR/NO LONGER UAS activity, when in your judgment their proximity
OBSERVED. warrants it. If known, include position, distance,
b. To aircraft that are not radar identified: course, type of unmanned aircraft (UA), and altitude.
EXAMPLE−
1. Distance and direction from fix. “U−A−S activity, 12 o’clock, 1 mile, southbound, quad
copter, 400 feet and below.”
2. Direction in which traffic is proceeding.
“Unmanned aircraft system activity, 2 miles east of
3. If known, type of aircraft and altitude. Brandywine Airport, 300 feet and below.”
b. Issue UAS advisory information for pilot−re-
4. ETA over the fix the aircraft is approaching,
ported or tower−observed activity, when in your
if appropriate.
judgment, their proximity warrants it. If known,
PHRASEOLOGY− include position, altitude, course, and type. Continue
TRAFFIC, (number) MILES/MINUTES (direction) OF to issue advisories to potentially impacted aircraft for
(airport or fix), (direction)−BOUND, at least 15 minutes following the last report.
and if known, EXAMPLE−
“U−A−S activity reported, 12 o’clock, 1 mile, altitude
(type of aircraft and altitude), reported one thousand two hundred.”
“Unmanned aircraft system activity observed, 1 mile east
ESTIMATED (fix) (time), of Trenton Airport, altitude unknown.”
or 2−1−23. BIRD ACTIVITY INFORMATION

a. Issue advisory information on pilot-reported,
TRAFFIC, NUMEROUS AIRCRAFT VICINITY
tower-observed, or radar-observed and pilot-verified
(location).
bird activity. Include position, species or size of birds,
If altitude is unknown, if known, course of flight, and altitude. Do this for at
least 15 minutes after receipt of such information
ALTITUDE UNKNOWN. from pilots or from adjacent facilities unless visual
observation or subsequent reports reveal the activity
EXAMPLE−
“Traffic, one zero miles east of Forsythe V−O−R, is no longer a factor.
Southbound, M−D Eighty, descending to one six EXAMPLE−
thousand.” “Flock of geese, one o’clock, seven miles, northbound, last
“Traffic, reported one zero miles west of Downey V−O−R, reported at four thousand.”
northbound, Apache, altitude unknown, estimated Joliet “Flock of small birds, southbound along Mohawk River,
V−O−R one three one five.” last reported at three thousand.”
“Traffic, eight minutes west of Chicago Heights V−O−R, “Numerous flocks of ducks, vicinity Lake Winnebago,
westbound, Mooney, eight thousand, estimated Joliet altitude unknown.”
2−1−12 General
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JO 7110.65Z
b. Relay bird activity information to adjacent c. Potential sector overload.

facilities and to FSSs whenever it appears it will
d. Emergency situations.
become a factor in their areas.
e. Special flights/operations.
2−1−24. TRANSFER OF POSITION f. Aircraft/pilot activity, including unmanned
RESPONSIBILITY aircraft system (UAS) operation that is considered
suspicious, as prescribed in FAA Order JO 7610.4,
The transfer of position responsibility must be paragraph 7−3−1, and for information more specific
accomplished in accordance with the “Standard to UAS, FAA Order JO 7210.3, paragraph 2−1−32.
Operating Practice (SOP) for the Transfer of Position
REFERENCE−
Responsibility,” and appropriate facility directives P/CG Term − Suspicious UAS.
each time operational responsibility for a position is
transferred from one specialist to another. 2−1−27. PILOT DEVIATION NOTIFICATION
When it appears that the actions of a pilot constitute
2−1−25. WHEELS DOWN CHECK a pilot deviation, notify the pilot, workload
USA/USN permitting.
PHRASEOLOGY−
Remind aircraft to check wheels down on each
(Identification) POSSIBLE PILOT DEVIATION ADVISE
approach unless the pilot has previously reported YOU CONTACT (facility) AT (telephone number).
wheels down for that approach.
REFERENCE−
NOTE− FAA Order JO 8020.16, Air Traffic Organization Aircraft Accident and
Aircraft Incident Notification, Investigation, and Reporting, Chapter
The intent is solely to remind the pilot to lower the wheels, 11, Para 3, Air Traffic Facility Responsibilities.
not to place responsibility on the controller.
a. Tower must issue the wheels down check at an 2−1−28. TCAS RESOLUTION ADVISORIES
appropriate place in the pattern.
a. When an aircraft under your control jurisdiction
PHRASEOLOGY− informs you that it is responding to a TCAS
CHECK WHEELS DOWN. Resolution Advisory (RA), do not issue control
b. Approach/arrival control, GCA must issue the instructions that are contrary to the RA procedure that
wheels down check as follows: a crew member has advised you that they are
executing. Provide safety alerts regarding terrain or
1. To aircraft conducting ASR, PAR, or radar obstructions and traffic advisories for the aircraft
monitored approaches, before the aircraft starts responding to the RA and all other aircraft under your
descent on final approach. control jurisdiction, as appropriate.
2. To aircraft conducting instrument approaches b. Unless advised by other aircraft that they are
and remaining on the radar facility’s frequency, also responding to a TCAS RA, do not assume that
before the aircraft passes the outer marker/final other aircraft in the proximity of the responding
approach fix. aircraft are involved in the RA maneuver or are aware
PHRASEOLOGY− of the responding aircraft’s intended maneuvers.
WHEELS SHOULD BE DOWN. Continue to provide control instructions, safety
alerts, and traffic advisories as appropriate to such
2−1−26. SUPERVISORY NOTIFICATION aircraft.
NOTE−
Ensure supervisor/controller-in-charge (CIC) is When notified by the pilot of an RA, the controller is not
aware of conditions which impact sector/position prohibited from issuing traffic advisories and safety alerts.
operations including, but not limited to, the REFERENCE−
following: FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−6, Safety Alert.
a. Weather.
c. Once the responding aircraft has begun a
b. Equipment status. maneuver in response to an RA, the controller is not
General 2−1−13
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responsible for providing approved separation NOTE−

between the aircraft that is responding to an RA and The operations supervisor/CIC is responsible for system
any other aircraft, airspace, terrain or obstructions. acceptance of a non−RVSM aircraft beyond the initial
Responsibility for approved separation resumes sector−to−sector coordination following the pilot request
to access the airspace. Operations supervisor/CIC
when one of the following conditions are met:
responsibilities are defined in FAA Order JO 7210.3,
Chapter 6, Section 9, Reduced Vertical Separation
1. The responding aircraft has returned to its
Minimum (RVSM).
assigned altitude, or
2. Ensure sector−to−sector coordination for all
2. A crew member informs you that the TCAS non−RVSM aircraft operations within RVSM
maneuver is completed and you observe that airspace.
approved separation has been reestablished, or
3. Inform the operational supervisor/CIC when
3. The responding aircraft has executed an a non−RVSM exception flight is denied clearance
alternate clearance and you observe that approved into RVSM airspace or is removed from RVSM
separation has been reestablished. airspace.
NOTE− b. Non−RVSM aircraft transitioning RVSM air-

1. AC 120−55, Air Carrier Operational Approval and Use space.
of TCAS II, suggests pilots use the following phraseology
Ensure that operations supervisors/CICs are made
to notify controllers during TCAS events. When a TCAS RA
may affect an ATC clearance, inform ATC when beginning
aware when non−RVSM aircraft are transitioning
the maneuver, or as soon as workload permits. through RVSM airspace.
EXAMPLE− c. Apply appropriate separation standards and

1. “New York Center, United 321, TCAS RA.” remove any aircraft from RVSM airspace that advises
it is unable RVSM due to equipment while en route.
NOTE−
2. When the RA has been resolved, the flight crew should d. Use “negative RVSM” in all verbal ground−to−
advise ATC they are returning to their previously assigned ground communications involving non−RVSM
clearance or subsequent amended clearance. aircraft while cleared to operate within RVSM
EXAMPLE− airspace.
2. “New York Center, United 321, clear of conflict, EXAMPLE−
returning to assigned altitude.” “Point out Baxter1 climbing to FL 360, negative RVSM.”
e. For the following situations, use the associated
phraseology:
2−1−29. RVSM OPERATIONS
1. To deny clearance into RVSM airspace.
Controller responsibilities must include but not be
PHRASEOLOGY−
limited to the following:
“UNABLE CLEARANCE INTO RVSM AIRSPACE.”
a. Non−RVSM aircraft operating in RVSM 2. To request a pilot to report when able to
airspace. resume RVSM.
PHRASEOLOGY−
1. Ensure non-RVSM aircraft are not permitted
“REPORT ABLE TO RESUME RVSM.”
in RVSM airspace unless they meet the criteria of
excepted aircraft and are previously approved by the f. In the event of a change to an aircraft’s RVSM
operations supervisor/CIC. The following aircraft are eligibility, amend the RVSM qualifier (“W”) in the
excepted: DOD, DOD-certified aircraft operated by ICAO equipment string in order to properly identify
NASA (T38, F15, F18, WB57, S3, and U2 aircraft non−RVSM aircraft on the controller display.
only), MEDEVAC, manufacturer aircraft being NOTE−
flown for development/certification, and Foreign Changing the equipment suffix instead of amending the
State aircraft. These exceptions are accommodated equipment string may result in incorrect revisions to other
on a workload or traffic-permitting basis. ICAO qualifiers.
2−1−14 General
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JO 7110.65Z
REFERENCE− obstructions and traffic advisories for the aircraft

AIM, Para 5−1−9, International Flight Plan (FAA Form 7233−4) IFR
Flights (For Domestic or International Flights). responding to the TAWS alert and all other aircraft
AIM, TBL 5−1−4 Aircraft COM, NAV, and Approach Equipment under your control jurisdiction, as appropriate.
Qualifiers.
b. Once the responding aircraft has begun a
g. ATC may allow aircraft to remain in RVSM
maneuver in response to TAWS alert, the controller is
airspace using reduced vertical separation minima
not responsible for providing approved separation
after the loss of a transponder or Mode C altitude
between the aircraft that is responding to a TAWS
reporting.
alert and any other aircraft, airspace, terrain or
NOTE− obstructions. Responsibility for approved separation
In a transponder out situation, the aircraft’s altitude−keep- resumes when one of the following conditions are
ing capabilities required for flight in RVSM airspace met:
should remain operational.
REFERENCE− 1. The responding aircraft has returned to its
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−5−1, Vertical Separation Minima. assigned altitude, or
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−3−8, Aircraft Equipment Suffix.
14 CFR Section 91.215 ATC Transponder and Altitude Reporting 2. A crew member informs you that the TAWS
Equipment and Use.
Advisory Circular AC 91−85B, Authorization of Aircraft and
maneuver is completed and you observe that
Operators for Flight in Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) approved separation has been reestablished, or
Airspace.
3. The responding aircraft has executed an
2−1−30. TERRAIN AWARENESS WARNING alternate clearance and you observe that approved
SYSTEM (TAWS) ALERTS separation has been reestablished.
a. When an aircraft under your control jurisdiction

2−1−31. “BLUE LIGHTNING” EVENTS
informs you that it is responding to a TAWS (or other
on−board low altitude) alert, do not issue control Ensure that the supervisor/controller−in−charge
instructions that are contrary to the TAWS procedure (CIC) is notified of reports of possible human
that a crew member has advised you that they are trafficking. These may be referred to as “Blue
executing. Provide safety alerts regarding terrain or Lightning” events.
General 2−1−15
6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 2. Flight Plans and Control Information
2−2−1. RECORDING INFORMATION 2−2−4. MILITARY DVFR DEPARTURES

a. Record flight plan information required by the TERMINAL
type of flight plan and existing circumstances. Use Forward departure times on all DVFR departures
authorized abbreviations when possible. from joint-use airports to the military operations
NOTE− office.
Generally, all military overseas flights are required to NOTE−
clear through a specified military base operations office 1. Details for handling air carrier and nonscheduled civil
(BASOPS). Pilots normally will not file flight plans directly DVFR flight data are contained in FAA Order JO 7610.4,
with an FAA facility unless a BASOPS is not available. Special Operations.
BASOPS will, in turn, forward the IFR flight notification
2. Civil pilots departing DVFR from a joint-use airport
message to the appropriate center.
will include the phrase “DVFR to (destination)” in their
b. EN ROUTE. When flight plans are filed directly initial call-up to an FAA-operated tower.
with the center, record all items given by the pilot
either on a flight progress strip/flight data entry or on 2−2−5. IFR TO VFR FLIGHT PLAN CHANGE
a voice recorder. If the latter, enter in box 26 of the Request a pilot to contact the appropriate FSS if the
initial flight progress strip the sector or position pilot informs you of a desire to change from an IFR
number to identify where the information may be to a VFR flight plan.
found in the event search and rescue (SAR) activities
become necessary. 2−2−6. IFR FLIGHT PROGRESS DATA
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−3−2, En Route Data Entries. Forward control information from controller to
controller within a facility, then to the receiving
2−2−2. FORWARDING INFORMATION facility as the aircraft progresses along its route.
Where appropriate, use computer equipment in lieu
a. Except during EAS FDP operation, forward the of manual coordination procedures. Do not use the
flight plan information to the appropriate ATC remarks section of flight progress strips in lieu of
facility, FSS, or BASOPS and record the time of filing voice coordination to pass control information.
and delivery on the form. Ensure that flight plan and control information is
correct and up-to-date. When covered by a letter of
b. EN ROUTE. During EAS FDP operation, the
agreement/facility directive, the time requirements of
above manual actions are required in cases where the
subparagraph a may be reduced, and the time
data is not forwarded automatically by the computer.
requirements of subparagraph b1 and paragraph
NOTE− 2−2−11, Forwarding Amended and UTM Data,
During EAS FDP operation, data is exchanged between subparagraph a may be increased up to 15 minutes
interfaced automated facilities and both the data and time when facilitated by automated systems or mandatory
of transmission are recorded automatically. radar handoffs; or if operationally necessary because
c. EN ROUTE. Forward proposed tower en route of manual data processing or nonradar operations, the
flight plans and any related amendments to the time requirements of subparagraph a may be
appropriate departure terminal facility. increased.
NOTE−
2−2−3. FORWARDING VFR DATA 1. The procedures for preparing flight plan and control
information related to altitude reservations (ALTRVs) are
TERMINAL contained in FAA Order JO 7210.3, paragraph 8−1−2,
Facility Operation and Administration, ALTRV Flight
Forward aircraft departure times to FSSs or military Data Processing. Development of the methods for assuring
operations offices when they have requested them. the accuracy and completeness of ALTRV flight plan and
Forward other VFR flight plan data only if requested control information is the responsibility of the military
by the pilot. liaison and security officer.
Flight Plans and Control Information 2−2−1

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
2. The term facility in this paragraph refers to centers and altitude if it results in these aircraft having less than
terminal facilities when operating in an en route capacity. 10 minutes separation at the facilities’ boundary,
a. Forward the following information at least unless (otherwise) specified in a Letter of Agreement
15 minutes before the aircraft is estimated to enter the (LOA).
receiving facility’s area: 13. Any additional nonroutine operational
1. Aircraft identification. information pertinent to flight safety.
NOTE−
2. Number of aircraft if more than one, heavy
EN ROUTE. This includes alerting the receiving controller
aircraft indicator “H/” if appropriate, type of aircraft, that the flight is conducting celestial navigation training.
and aircraft equipment suffix.
REFERENCE−
3. Assigned altitude and ETA over last reporting FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 9−2−2, Celestial Navigation Training.
point/fix in transferring facility’s area or assumed b. Forward position report over last reporting
departure time when the departure point is the last point in the transferring facility’s area if any of the
point/fix in the transferring facility’s area. following conditions exist:
4. Altitude at which aircraft will enter the 1. Time differs more than 3 minutes from
receiving facility’s area if other than the assigned estimate given.
altitude.
2. Requested by receiving facility.
5. True airspeed.
3. Agreed to between facilities.
6. Point of departure.
7. Route of flight remaining. 2−2−7. MANUAL INPUT OF COMPUTER-
8. Destination airport and clearance limit if ASSIGNED BEACON CODES
other than destination airport. When a flight plan is manually entered into the
9. ETA at destination airport (not required for computer and a computer-assigned beacon code has
military or scheduled air carrier aircraft). been forwarded with the flight plan data, insert the
beacon code in the appropriate field as part of the
10. Altitude requested by the aircraft if assigned input message.
altitude differs from requested altitude (within a
facility only).
2−2−8. ALTRV INFORMATION
NOTE−
When an aircraft has crossed one facility’s area and EN ROUTE
assignment at a different altitude is still desired, the pilot
will reinitiate the request with the next facility. When an aircraft is a part of an approved ALTRV,
REFERENCE−
forward only those items necessary to properly
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−5−8, Anticipated Altitude Changes. identify the flight, update flight data contained in the
11. When flight plan data must be forwarded ALTRV APVL, or revise previously given
manually and an aircraft has been assigned a beacon information.
code by the computer, include the code as part of the
flight plan. 2−2−9. COMPUTER MESSAGE
NOTE− VERIFICATION
When an IFR aircraft, or a VFR aircraft that has been
EN ROUTE
assigned a beacon code by the EAS and whose flight plan
will terminate in another facility’s area, cancels ATC Unless your facility is equipped to automatically
service or does not activate the flight plan, send a remove obtain acknowledgment of receipt of transferred data,
strips (RS) message on that aircraft via the EAS keyboard, when you transfer control information by computer
the FDIO keyboard or call via service F.
message, obtain, via Service F, acknowledgment that
12. Longitudinal separation being used in the receiving center has received the message and
non−radar operations between aircraft at the same verification of the following:
2−2−2 Flight Plans and Control Information

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
a. Within the time limits specified by a letter of 2−2−11. FORWARDING AMENDED AND
agreement or when not covered by a letter of UTM DATA
agreement, at least 15 minutes before the aircraft is
estimated to enter the receiving facility’s area, or at a. Forward any amending data concerning previ-
the time of a radar handoff, or coordination for ously forwarded flight plans except that revisions to
transfer of control: ETA information in paragraph 2−2−6, IFR Flight
Progress Data, need only be forwarded when the time
1. Aircraft identification. differs by more than 3 minutes from the estimate
2. Assigned altitude. given.
3. Departure or coordination fix time. PHRASEOLOGY−

(Identification), REVISED (revised information).
b. Any cancellation of IFR or EAS generated VFR
flight plan. EXAMPLE−
“American Two, revised flight level, three three zero.”
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−2−6, IFR Flight Progress Data.
“United Eight Ten, revised estimate, Front Royal two zero
zero five.”
2−2−10. TRANSMIT PROPOSED FLIGHT
PLAN “Douglas Five Zero One Romeo, revised altitude, eight
thousand.”
EN ROUTE
“U.S. Air Eleven Fifty−one, revised type, heavy Boeing
a. Transmit proposed flight plans which fall Seven Sixty-seven.”
within an ARTCC’s Proposed Boundary Crossing
REFERENCE−
Time (PBCT) parameter to adjacent ARTCC’s via the FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−2−6, IFR Flight Progress Data.
Computer B network during hours of inter-center
computer operation. In addition, when the route of b. Computer acceptance of an appropriate input
flight of any proposed flight plan exceeds 20 ele- message fulfills the requirement for sending amended
ments external to the originating ARTCC’s area, data. During EAS FDP operations, the amendment
NADIN must be used to forward the data to all data are considered acknowledged on receipt of a
affected centers. computer update message or a computer−generated
flight progress strip containing the amended data.
b. During nonautomated operation, the proposed
flight plans must be sent via NADIN to the other NOTE−
centers involved when any of the following 1. The successful utilization of automation equipment
conditions are met: requires timely and accurate insertion of changes and/or
new data.
1. The route of flight external to the originating
center’s area consists of 10 or more elements and the 2. If a pilot is not issued a computer-generated
ADR/ADAR/AAR and if amendment data is not entered into
flight will enter 3 or more other center areas.
the computer, the next controller will have incorrect route
NOTE− information.
An element is defined as either a fix or route as specified in
FAA Order JO 7110.10, Flight Services, paragraph 5−3−3, c. Forward any amended control information and
Control Messages for Formatted IFR Flight Plans. record the action on the appropriate flight progress
strip. Additionally, when a route or altitude in a
2. The route of flight beyond the first point of
previously issued clearance is amended within
exit from the originating center’s area consists of
30 minutes of an aircraft’s proposed departure time,
10 or more elements, which are primarily fixes
the facility that amended the clearance must
described in fix-radial-distance or latitude/longitude
coordinate the amendment with the receiving facility
format, regardless of the number of other center areas
via verbal AND automated means to ensure timely
entered.
passage of the information. If the automated means of
3. The flight plan remarks are too lengthy for coordination are unavailable, then verbal coordina-
interphone transmission. tion is sufficient.

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
NOTE− 2−2−13. FORWARDING FLIGHT PLAN

The term “receiving” facility means the ATC facility that DATA BETWEEN U.S. ARTCCs AND
is expected to transmit the amended clearance to the CANADIAN ACCs
intended aircraft/pilot.
EN ROUTE
d. EN ROUTE. Effect manual coordination on any
interfacility flight plan data that is not passed through a. Domestic. (Continental U.S./Canadian airspace
automated means. except Alaska) Proposed departure flight plans and
en route estimates will be handled on a 30 minute lead
e. EN ROUTE. When a controller receives a UTM time (or as bilaterally agreed) between any ACC and
notification to an FDIO only facility, they must effect ARTCC.
manual coordination for the flight plan data. In
b. International. Any route changes (except SIDs)
addition, the controller must verify the flight plan
must be forwarded to the appropriate Oceanic/Pre-
data to the receiving facility within three minutes of
oceanic ACC or ARTCC with an optimum lead time
the transfer of control point estimate.
of 30 minutes or as soon as this information becomes
NOTE− available.
FDIO only facilities are facilities with FDIO but without
STARS.
c. Initially, if a flight goes from U.S. airspace into
Canadian airspace and returns to U.S. airspace, the
ACC will be responsible for forwarding the flight
2−2−12. AIRBORNE MILITARY FLIGHTS plan data to the appropriate ARTCC by voice
transmission except for flights which traverse
Forward to FSSs the following information received mutually agreed on airways/fixes. These airways/
from airborne military aircraft: fixes will be determined on a case-by-case basis and
will be based on time and distance considerations at
a. IFR flight plans and changes from VFR to IFR the service area office.
flight plans.
2−2−14. TELETYPE FLIGHT DATA
b. Changes to an IFR flight plan as follows:
FORMAT− U.S. ARTCCs − CANADIAN ACCs
1. Change in destination: EN ROUTE
(a) Aircraft identification and type. The exchange of flight plan data between Canadian
ACCs and U.S. ARTCCs must be made as follows:
(b) Departure point.
a. The U.S. ARTCCs will transmit flight data to
(c) Original destination. the Canadian ACCs in one of the following formats:
(d) Position and time. 1. NADIN II input format as described in the

NAS Management Directives (MDs) for:
(e) New destination. (a) Flight Plan Messages:
(f) ETA. (1) Active.
(g) Remarks including change in fuel exhaus- (2) Proposed.
tion time. (b) Amendment messages.
(h) Revised ETA. (c) Cancellation messages.
2. Change in fuel exhaustion time. (d) Response Messages to Canadian Input:
NOTE− (1) Acknowledgment messages.

This makes current information available to FSSs for relay (2) Error messages.
to military bases concerned and for use by centers in the
event of two−way radio communications failure. (3) Rejection messages.
2−2−4 Flight Plans and Control Information

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
2. Transport Canada (TC) ACC Flight Strip NOTE−

Format: Where the data to be printed on the ACC strip Every effort should be made to ensure the aircraft is
form exceeds the strip form field size, the NADIN II returned to the original filed flight plan/altitude as soon as
input format in 1 above will be used. Input conditions warrant.
sequentially fields 1 through 8 in paragraph 2−2−6,
IFR Flight Progress Data, subparagraph a. b. If the route of flight is altered due to a pilot
request, “NRP” must be removed from the remarks
b. TC’s ACCs will transmit flight data to the FAA
section of the flight plan.
ARTCCs in the following format:
1. NADIN II input format as described in NAS
MDs for: c. “NRP” must not be entered in the remarks
section of a flight plan, unless prior coordination is
(a) Flight Plan Messages: accomplished with the ATCSCC or as prescribed by
(1) Active. international NRP flight operations procedures.
(2) Proposed.
(b) Amendment messages. d. The en route facility within which an
(c) Cancellation messages. international flight entering the conterminous U.S.
requests to participate in the NRP must enter “NRP”
(d) Correction messages.
in the remarks section of the flight plan.
2−2−15. NORTH AMERICAN ROUTE
PROGRAM (NRP) INFORMATION REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−4, Operational Priority.
a. “NRP” must be retained in the remarks section FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−3−2, En Route Data Entries.
of the flight plan if the aircraft is moved due to FAA Order JO 7210.3, Chapter 18, Section 17, North American Route
weather, traffic, or other tactical reasons. Program.

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 3. Flight Progress Strips
2−3−1. GENERAL reported or is observed (valid Mode C) leaving the

altitude.
Unless otherwise authorized in a facility directive,
use flight progress strips to post current data on 3. Preplanning may be accomplished in red
air traffic and clearances required for control and pencil.
other air traffic control services. To prevent
misinterpretation when data is hand printed, use b. Manually prepared strips must conform to the
standard hand-printed characters. format of machine-generated strips and manual strip
En route: Flight progress strips must be posted. preparation procedures will be modified simultan-
eously with the operational implementation of
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 6−1−6, Flight Progress Strip Usage. changes in the machine-generated format.
(See FIG 2−3−1.)
a. Maintain only necessary current data and
remove the strips from the flight progress boards c. Altitude information may be written in
when no longer required for control purposes. To thousands of feet provided the procedure is
correct, update, or preplan information: authorized by the facility manager, and is defined in
1. Do not erase or overwrite any item. Use an a facility directive, i.e., 5,000 feet as 5, and 2,800 as
“X” to delete a climb/descend and maintain arrow, an 2.8.
at or above/below symbol, a cruise symbol, and NOTE−
unwanted altitude information. Write the new altitude A slant line crossing through the number zero and
information immediately adjacent to it and within the underline of the letter “s” on handwritten portions of flight
same space. progress strips are required only when there is reason to
believe the lack of these markings could lead to
2. Do not draw a horizontal line through an misunderstanding. A slant line crossing through the
altitude being vacated until after the aircraft has number zero is required on all weather data.
Flight Progress Strips 2−3−1

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
FIG 2−3−1
Standard Recording of Hand-printed Characters
Typed Hand Printed Typed Hand Printed
A T
B U U
C V
D W
E X
F Y
G Z
I 1
J 2
K 3
L 4
M 5
N 6
O 7
P 8
Q 9
R 0
S S
2−3−2 Flight Progress Strips

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
2−3−2. EN ROUTE DATA ENTRIES

FIG 2−3−2
Flight Progress Strip
(7230−19)
a. Information recorded on the flight progress Block Information Recorded

strips (FAA Forms 7230−19) must be entered in the 14. Actual time over previous fix, or actual
correspondingly numbered spaces: departure time entered on first fix posting after
departure.
TBL 2−3−1
14a. Plus time expressed in minutes from the
previous fix to the posted fix.
Block Information Recorded 15. Center−estimated time over fix (in hours and
1. Verification symbol if required. minutes), or clearance information for
departing aircraft.
2. Revision number.
DSR−Not used. 16. Arrows to indicate if aircraft is departing (↑) or
arriving (↓).
3. Aircraft identification.
17. Pilot−estimated time over fix.
4. Number of aircraft if more than one, heavy
aircraft indicator “H/” if appropriate, type of 18. Actual time over fix, time leaving holding fix,
aircraft, and aircraft equipment suffix. arrival time at nonapproach control airport, or
symbol indicating cancellation of IFR flight
5. Filed true airspeed. plan for arriving aircraft, or departure time
6. Sector number. (actual or assumed).
7. Computer identification number if required. 19. Fix. For departing aircraft, add proposed
8. Estimated ground speed. departure time.
9. Revised ground speed or strip request (SR) 20. Altitude information (in hundreds of feet) or as
originator. noted below.
10. Strip number. NOTE− Altitude information may be written in
DSR− Strip number/Revision number. thousands of feet provided the procedure is
11. Previous fix. authorized by the facility manager, and is
12. Estimated time over previous fix. defined in a facility directive, i.e. FL 330 as 33,
5,000 feet as 5, and 2,800 as 2.8.
13. Revised estimated time over previous fix.

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
Block Information Recorded Block Information Recorded

20a. OPTIONAL USE, when voice recorders are 26. Pertinent remarks, minimum fuel, point
operational; out/radar vector/speed adjustment information
REQUIRED USE, when the voice recorders or sector/position number (when applicable in
are not operating and strips are being use at the accordance with paragraph 2−2−1, Recording
facility. This space is used to record reported Information), or NRP.
RA events. The letters RA followed by a climb 27. Mode 3/A beacon code if applicable.
or descent arrow (if the climb or descent action
is reported) and the time (hhmm) the event is 28. Miscellaneous control data (expected further
reported. clearance time, time cleared for approach,
etc.).
21. Next posted fix or coordination fix. 29−30. Transfer of control data and coordination
22. Pilot’s estimated time over next fix. indicators.
23. Arrows to indicate north (↑), south (↓), east
(→), or west (←) direction of flight if required. b. Latitude/longitude coordinates may be used to
24. Requested altitude. define waypoints and may be substituted for
NOTE− Altitude information may be written in nonadapted NAVAIDs in space 25 of domestic en
thousands of feet provided the procedure is route flight progress strips provided it is necessary to
authorized by the facility manager, and is accommodate a random RNAV or GNSS route
defined in a facility directive, i.e., FL 330 as 33, request.
5,000 feet as 5, and 2,800 as 2.8.
c. Facility air traffic managers may authorize the
25. Point of origin, route as required for control optional use of spaces 13, 14, 14a, 22, 23, 24, and 28
and data relay, and destination.
for point out information, radar vector information,
speed adjustment information, or transfer of control
data.

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
2−3−3. OCEANIC DATA ENTRIES

FIG 2−3−3
a. The ATOP system displays information on Block Information Recorded

electronic flight progress strips and, in the event of a 9. Requested flight level, if applicable.
catastrophic system failure, will print flight progress 10. Previously reported position.
strips with data in the corresponding numbered
11. Actual time over previously reported position.
spaces:
12. Last reported position.
TBL 2−3−2
13. Actual time over last reported position.
14. Next reporting position.
Block Information Recorded
15. In−conformance pilot’s estimate or
1. Mode 3/A beacon code, if applicable. controller−accepted pilot’s estimate for next
2. Number of aircraft, if more than one, and type reporting position.
of aircraft. 16. Future reporting position(s).
3. Aircraft identification. 17. System estimate for future reporting
4. Reduced separation flags. position(s).
Indicators are available for: 18. Departure airport or point of origin.
M − Mach Number Technique (MNT),
R − Reduced MNT, 19. Destination airport or filed point of flight
D or 3 − Distance−based longitudinal termination.
separation using 50 NM (D) or 30 NM (3), and 20. Indicators. Indicators and toggles for
W− Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum displaying or suppressing the display of the
(RVSM). route of flight (F), second flight profile (2),
These flags are selectable for aircraft whose radar contact (A), annotations (&), degraded
flight plans contain the required equipment Required Navigation Performance (RNP,
qualifiers for each separation criteria. indicator R) and clearance restrictions (X).
5. Controlling sector number. 21. Coordination indicator(s).
6. Filed airspeed or assigned Mach number/True 22. Annotations.
airspeed. 23. Clearance restrictions and conditions (may be
7. Reported flight level. May contain an indicator multiple lines).
for a flight that is climbing (↑) or descending 24. Strip number and total number of strips (printed
(↓). Reports from Mode C, ADS or position strips only).
reports are displayed in that order of
preference. b. Standard annotations and abbreviations for
8. Cleared flight level. May contain an indicator Field 22 may be specified by facility directives.
for a future conditional altitude ( * ) that cannot
be displayed.

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
2−3−4. TERMINAL DATA ENTRIES Facility managers can authorize omissions and/or
a. Arrivals: optional use of spaces 2A, 8A, 8B, 9A, 9B, 9C, and
10−18, if no misunderstanding will result. These
Information recorded on the flight progress strips
omissions and/or optional uses must be specified in a
(FAA Forms 7230−7.1, 7230−7.2, and 7230−8) must
facility directive.
be entered in the correspondingly numbered spaces.
FIG 2−3−4
TBL 2−3−3 Block Information Recorded

8B. OPTIONAL USE, when voice recorders are
Block Information Recorded operational;
REQUIRED USE, when the voice recorders
1. Aircraft identification. are not operating and strips are being used at
2. Revision number (FDIO locations only). the facility. This space is used to record
2A. Strip request originator. (At FDIO locations reported RA events when the voice recorders
this indicates the sector or position that are not operational and strips are being used at
requested a strip be printed.) the facility. The letters RA followed by a climb
3. Number of aircraft if more than one, heavy is reported) and the time (hhmm) the event is
aircraft indicator “H/” if appropriate, type of reported.
aircraft, and aircraft equipment suffix.
9. Altitude (in hundreds of feet) and remarks.
4. Computer identification number if required.
NOTE− Altitude information may be written in
5. Secondary radar (beacon) code assigned.
thousands of feet provided the procedure is
6. (FDIO Locations.) The previous fix will be authorized by the facility manager, and is
printed. defined in a facility directive, i. e., FL 230 as
(Non−FDIO Locations.) Use of the inbound 23, 5,000 feet as 5, and 2,800 as 2.8.
airway. This function is restricted to facilities
9A. Minimum fuel, destination airport/point out/
where flight data is received via interphone
radar vector/speed adjustment information.
when agreed upon by the center and terminal
Air traffic managers may authorize in a facility
facilities.
directive the omission of any of these items,
7. Coordination fix. except minimum fuel, if no misunderstanding
8. Estimated time of arrival at the coordination will result.
fix or destination airport. NOTE− Authorized omissions and optional use of
8A. OPTIONAL USE. spaces must be specified in the facility directive
concerning strip marking procedures.
9B. OPTIONAL USE.
9C. OPTIONAL USE.
10−18. Enter data as specified by a facility directive.
Radar facility personnel need not enter data in
these spaces except when nonradar procedures
are used or when radio recording equipment is
inoperative.

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
b. Departures: Facility managers can authorize omissions and/or

optional use of spaces 2A, 8A, 8B, 9A, 9B, 9C, and
Information recorded on the flight progress strips 10−18, if no misunderstanding will result. These
(FAA Forms 7230−7.1, 7230−7.2, and 7230−8) shall omissions and/or optional uses shall be specified in a
be entered in the correspondingly numbered spaces. facility directive.
FIG 2−3−5

9. Computer−generated: Route, destination,
and remarks. Manually enter altitude/altitude
5. Secondary radar (beacon) code assigned. restrictions in the order flown, if appropriate,
6. Proposed departure time. and remarks.
7. Requested altitude. 9. Hand−prepared: Clearance limit, route,
NOTE− Altitude information may be written in altitude/altitude restrictions in the order flown,
thousands of feet provided the procedure is if appropriate, and remarks.
authorized by the facility manager, and is NOTE− Altitude information may be written in
defined in a facility directive, i. e., FL 230 as thousands of feet provided the procedure is
23, 5,000 feet as 5, and 2,800 as 2.8. authorized by the facility manager, and is
defined in a facility directive, i.e., FL 230 as 23,
8. Departure airport.
5,000 feet as 5, and 2,800 as 2.8.
8A. OPTIONAL USE.
9A. OPTIONAL USE.
9B. OPTIONAL USE.
9C. OPTIONAL USE.
Items, such as departure time, runway used for
takeoff, check marks to indicate information
forwarded or relayed, may be entered in these
spaces.

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
c. Overflights: Facility managers can authorize omissions and/or

optional use of spaces 2A, 8A, 8B, 9A, 9B, 9C, and
Information recorded on the flight progress strips 10−18, if no misunderstanding will result. These
(FAA Forms 7230−7.1, 7230−7.2, and 7230−8) shall omissions and/or optional uses shall be specified in a
be entered in the correspondingly numbered spaces. facility directive.
FIG 2−3−6

9. Altitude and route of flight through the
terminal area.
5. Secondary radar (beacon) code assigned.
NOTE− Altitude information may be written in
6. Coordination fix. thousands of feet provided the procedure is
7. Overflight coordination indicator (FDIO authorized by the facility manager, and is
locations only). defined in a facility directive, i.e., FL 230 as 23,
NOTE− The overflight coordination indicator 5,000 feet as 5, and 2,800 as 2.8.
identifies the facility to which flight data has 9A. OPTIONAL USE.
been forwarded. 9B. OPTIONAL USE.
8. Estimated time of arrival at the coordination 9C. OPTIONAL USE.
fix.
8A. OPTIONAL USE.
NOTE−
National standardization of items (10 through 18) is not
practical because of regional and local variations in
operating methods; e.g., single fix, multiple fix, radar,
tower en route control, etc.

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
d. Air traffic managers at automated terminal EXAMPLE−

radar facilities may waive the requirement to use “N12345.”
flight progress strips provided: “TN5552Q.”
“AAl192.”
1. Backup systems such as multiple radar “LN751B.”
sites/systems or single site radars with CENRAP are NOTE−
utilized. The letter “L” is not to be used for air carrier/air taxi
MEDEVAC aircraft.
2. Local procedures are documented in a facility
directive. These procedures should include but not be b. Military Aircraft.
limited to: 1. Prefixes indicating branch of service and/or
(a) Departure areas and/or procedures. type of mission followed by the last 5 digits of the
serial number (the last 4 digits for CFC and CTG).
(b) Arrival procedures. (See TBL 2−3−6 and TBL 2−3−7.)
(c) Overflight handling procedures. 2. Pronounceable words of 3, 4, 5, and 6 letters
(d) Transition from radar to nonradar. followed by a 4−, 3−, 2−, or 1−digit number.
EXAMPLE−
(e) Transition from ARTS to non−ARTS.
“SAMP Three One Six.”
(f) Transition from ASR to CENRAP. 3. Assigned double-letter 2−digit flight number.
(g) Transition to or from ESL. 4. Navy or Marine fleet and training command
3. No misunderstanding will occur as a result of aircraft, one of the following:
no strip usage. (a) The service prefix and 2 letters (use
4. Unused flight progress strips, facility de- phonetic alphabet equivalent) followed by 2 or
veloped forms and/or blank notepads shall be 3 digits.
provided for controller use. TBL 2−3−6
5. Facilities shall revert to flight progress strip Branch of Service Prefix

usage if backup systems referred to in subparagraph Prefix Branch
d1 are not available. A U.S. Air Force
e. Air traffic managers at FDIO locations may C U.S. Coast Guard
authorize reduced lateral spacing between fields so as G Air or Army National Guard
to print all FDIO data to the left of the strip R U.S. Army
perforation. When using FAA Form 7230−7.2, all VM U.S. Marine Corps
items will retain the same relationship to each other VV U.S. Navy
as they do when the full length strip (FAA CFC Canadian Forces
Form 7230−7.1) is used. CTG Canadian Coast Guard
TBL 2−3−7
2−3−5. AIRCRAFT IDENTITY
Military Mission Prefix
Indicate aircraft identity by one of the following
Prefix Mission
using combinations not to exceed seven alphanumer-
E Medical Air Evacuation
ic characters:
F Flight Check
a. Civil aircraft, including the air-carrier letter-di- L LOGAIR (USAF Contract)
git registration number which can include the letter RCH AMC (Air Mobility Command)
“T” for air taxi, the letter “L” for MEDEVAC, or the S Special Air Mission
3-letter company designator specified in FAA Order
JO 7340.2, Contractions, followed by the trip or flight (b) The service prefix and a digit and a letter
number. Use the operating air carrier’s company (use phonetic alphabet equivalent) followed by 2 or
name in identifying equipment interchange flights. 3 digits.

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
5. Aircraft carrying the President, Vice change the requirement to use the letter “Z” as a suffix to
President, and/or their family members will use the the aircraft identification.
identifiers in the following tables. See TBL 2−3−8 REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−4−20, Aircraft Identification.
and TBL 2−3−9. FAA Order JO 7610.4, Chapter 12, Section 10, USAF Undergraduate
Flying Training (UFT)/Pilot Instructor Training (PIT)/Introduction To
TBL 2−3−8 Fighter Fundamentals.
President and Family
2−3−8. AIRCRAFT EQUIPMENT SUFFIX
Service President Family
a. The aircraft equipment suffix identifying
Air Force AF1 EXEC1F
communication, navigation and surveillance (CNS)
Marine VM1 EXEC1F capability is generated by automation using the
Navy VV1 EXEC1F equipment codes of the ICAO flight plan. To change
Army RR1 EXEC1F a suffix, the CNS equipment codes must be modified,
Coast Guard C1 EXEC1F allowing automation to translate them into the proper
Guard G1 EXEC1F suffix. If using unsupported automation platforms
Commercial EXEC1 EXEC1F (OFDPS and FDP2000), verbally coordinate changes
with adjacent supported facilities.
TBL 2−3−9
b. ERAM and ATOP are best suited for making
Vice President and Family
changes to the equipment codes in an ICAO flight
Service Vice President Family plan. For FDIO entries, if uncertain of the proper
Air Force AF2 EXEC2F format to correctly amend an equipment code,
Marine VM2 EXEC2F verbally coordinate the change with the appropriate
Navy VV2 EXEC2F
en route facility.
Army RR2 EXEC2F NOTE−
Directly changing the equipment suffix with a symbol
Coast Guard C2 EXEC2F
preceded by a slant instead of amending the aircraft
Guard G2 EXEC2F equipment codes may unintentionally alter or delete other
Commercial EXEC2 EXEC2F equipment codes.
c. Special-use. Approved special-use identifiers. c. For VFR operations, indicate the aircraft’s
transponder and navigation capabilities by adding the
appropriate symbol, preceded by a slant (See
2−3−6. AIRCRAFT TYPE TBL 2−3−10).
Use the approved aircraft type designator, in d. GNSS-equipped aircraft:
accordance with FAA Order 7360.1, Aircraft Type 1. Have an equipment suffix of /G, /L, /S, or /V.
Designators.
2. May be determined by executing an ICAO
flight plan readout and verifying a filed “G” in the
2−3−7. USAF/USN UNDERGRADUATE ICAO equipment list.
PILOTS
3. May be determined by verifying with the pilot
To identify aircraft piloted by solo USAF/USN that the aircraft is GNSS-equipped.
undergraduate student pilots (who may occasionally e. When forwarding this information, state the
request revised clearances because they normally are aircraft type followed by the word “slant” and the
restricted to flight in VFR conditions), the aircraft appropriate phonetic letter equivalent of the suffix.
identification in the flight plan shall include the letter EXAMPLE−
“Z” as a suffix. Do not use this suffix, however, in “Cessna Three−ten slant Tango.”
ground-to-air communication. “A−Ten slant November.”
NOTE− “F−Sixteen slant Papa.”
USAF solo students who have passed an instrument “Seven−sixty−seven slant Golf.”
certification check may penetrate cloud layers in climb or NOTE−
descent only. Requests for revised clearances to avoid /H and /O are intended for ATC use only. These suffixes are
clouds in level flight can still be expected. This does not not published in the Aeronautical Information Manual.

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
2−3−9. CLEARANCE STATUS holding instructions have been included in the

aircraft’s original clearance. Show detailed holding
Use an appropriate clearance symbol followed by a information following the dash when holding differs
dash (−) and other pertinent information to clearly from the established pattern for the fix; i.e., turns, leg
show the clearance status of an aircraft. To indicate lengths, etc.
delay status use:
b. The symbols “F” or “O” to indicate the
a. The symbol “H” at the clearance limit when clearance limit when a delay is not anticipated.
TBL 2−3−10
Aircraft Equipment Suffixes
Separation
Navigation Capability Transponder Capability Suffix
Standard
Any Failed transponder /H

Any Failed Mode C /O
No RNAV, No GNSS Transponder with Mode C /W
RNAV, No GNSS Transponder with Mode C /Z
RVSM GNSS Transponder with Mode C /L
No transponder /X
No DME Transponder, no Mode C /T
Transponder with Mode C /U
No transponder /D
DME Transponder, no Mode C /B
Transponder with Mode C /A
No transponder /M
Non−RVSM TACAN Transponder, no Mode C /N
Transponder with Mode C /P
RNAV, No transponder /Y
Transponder, no Mode C /C
No GNSS Transponder with Mode C /I
No transponder /V
GNSS Transponder, no Mode C /S
Transponder with Mode C /G

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
2−3−10. CONTROL SYMBOLOGY TBL 2−3−12

Miscellaneous Abbreviations
Use authorized control and clearance symbols or
abbreviations for recording clearances, reports, and Abbreviation Meaning
instructions. Control status of aircraft must always be BC Back course approach
current. You may use: CT Contact approach
a. Plain language markings when it will aid in FA Final approach
understanding information. FMS Flight management system approach
b. Locally approved identifiers. Use these only GPS GPS approach
within your facility and not on teletypewriter or I Initial approach
interphone circuits. ILS ILS approach
c. Plain sheets of paper or locally prepared forms MA Missed approach
to record information when flight progress strips are NDB Nondirectional radio beacon approach
not used. (See TBL 2−3−11 and TBL 2−3−12.) OTP VFR conditions−on−top
d. Control Information Symbols. PA Precision approach
(See FIG 2−3−7 and FIG 2−3−8.) PT Procedure turn
REFERENCE− RA Resolution advisory (Pilot reported
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−5−3, Exceptions. TCAS event)
TBL 2−3−11 RH Runway heading
Clearance Abbreviations RNAV Area navigation approach
Abbreviation Meaning RP Report immediately upon passing
A Cleared to airport (point of intended (fix/altitude)
landing) RX Report crossing
B Center clearance delivered SA Surveillance approach
C ATC clears (when clearance relayed SI Straight−in approach
through non−ATC facility) TA TACAN approach
CAF Cleared as filed TL Turn left
D Cleared to depart from the fix TR Turn right
F Cleared to the fix VA Visual approach
H Cleared to hold and instructions issued VR VOR approach
L Cleared to land
N Clearance not delivered
O Cleared to the outer marker
PD Cleared to climb/descend at pilot’s
discretion
Q Cleared to fly specified sectors of a
NAVAID defined in terms of courses,
bearings, radials or quadrants within a
designated radius.
T Cleared through (for landing and takeoff
through intermediate point)
V Cleared over the fix
X Cleared to cross (airway, route, radial) at
(point)
Z Tower jurisdiction

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
FIG 2−3−7
Control Information Symbols [Part 1]

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
FIG 2−3−8
Control Information Symbols [Part 2]

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 4. Radio and Interphone Communications
2−4−1. RADIO COMMUNICATIONS or other information by using “Wilco,” “Roger,”

“Affirmative,” or other words or remarks with their
Use radio frequencies for the special purposes for aircraft identification.
which they are intended. A single frequency may be b. Altitudes contained in charted procedures, such as
used for more than one function except as follows: departure procedures, instrument approaches, etc., need
not be read back unless they are specifically stated by the
TERMINAL. When combining positions in the tower, controller.
do not use ground control frequency for airborne c. Initial read back of a taxi, departure or landing
communications. clearance should include the runway assignment,
including left, right, center, etc. if applicable.
NOTE−
2. Until a pilot acknowledges a controller’s clearance or
Due to the limited number of frequencies assigned to
instruction, a controller cannot know if a pilot will comply
towers for the ground control function, it is very likely that
with the clearance or remain as previously cleared.
airborne use of a ground control frequency could cause
interference to other towers or interference to your aircraft EXAMPLE−
from another tower. When combining these functions, it is “Climbing to Flight Level three three zero, United Twelve”
recommended combining them on local control. The ATIS or “November Five Charlie Tango, roger, cleared to land
may be used to specify the desired frequency. runway four left.”
REFERENCE−
P/CG Term – Air Traffic Clearance.
2−4−2. MONITORING P/CG Term – ATC Instructions.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, 3−7−2. Taxi and Ground Movement
Monitor interphones and assigned radio frequencies Operations.
continuously. FAA Order JO 7110.65, 10−4−4. Communications Failure.
AIM Para 4-2-3, Contact Procedures.
NOTE− AIM Para 4-4-7 Pilot Responsibility upon Clearance Issuance.
AIM Para 6-4-1, Two-way Radio Communications Failure.
Although all FAA facilities, including RAPCONs and Federal Register, April 1, 1999 14 CFR Part 91 Pilot Responsibility for
RATCFs, are required to monitor all assigned frequencies Compliance with ATC Clearances and Instructions.
continuously, USAF facilities may not monitor all
unpublished discrete frequencies.
2−4−4. AUTHORIZED INTERRUPTIONS
2−4−3. PILOT ACKNOWLEDGMENT/READ As necessary, authorize a pilot to interrupt his/her
BACK communications guard.
Ensure pilots acknowledge all Air Traffic Clearances NOTE−
and ATC Instructions. When a pilot reads back an Air Some users have adopted procedures to ensure uninterrup-
ted receiving capability with ATC when a pilot with only
Traffic Clearance or ATC Instruction:
one operative communications radio must interrupt
a. Ensure that items read back are correct. his/her communications guard because of a safety related
problem requiring airborne communications with his/her
b. Ensure the read back of hold short instructions, company. In this event, pilots will request approval to
whether a part of taxi instructions or a LAHSO abandon guard on the assigned ATC frequency for a
clearance. mutually agreeable time period. Additionally, they will
inform controllers of the NAVAID voice facility and the
c. Ensure pilots use call signs and/or registration company frequency they will monitor.
numbers in any read back acknowledging an Air
Traffic Clearance or ATC Instruction.
2−4−5. AUTHORIZED TRANSMISSIONS
NOTE−
1. ATC Clearance/Instruction Read Back guidance for Transmit only those messages necessary for air traffic
pilots in the AIM states: control or otherwise contributing to air safety.
a. Although pilots should read back the “numbers,” unless
REFERENCE−
otherwise required by procedure or controller request, FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 3−2−2, Authorized Messages Not Directly
pilots may acknowledge clearances, control instructions, Associated with Air Traffic Services.
Radio and Interphone Communications 2−4−1

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
2−4−6. FALSE OR DECEPTIVE 1. Identification of aircraft.

COMMUNICATIONS 2. Identification of ATC unit.
Take action to detect, prevent, and report false, 3. Message (if any).
deceptive, or phantom controller communications to
4. The word “over” if required.
an aircraft or controller. The following must be
accomplished when false or deceptive communica- b. Subsequent radio transmissions from the same
tions occur: sector/position must use the same format, except the
identification of the ATC unit may be omitted.
a. Correct false information.
TERMINAL. You may omit aircraft identification
b. Broadcast an alert to aircraft operating on all after initial contact when conducting the final portion
frequencies within the area where deceptive or of a radar approach.
phantom transmissions have been received. REFERENCE−
EXAMPLE−
“Attention all aircraft. False ATC instructions have been
2−4−9. ABBREVIATED TRANSMISSIONS
received in the area of Long Beach Airport. Exercise
extreme caution on all frequencies and verify Transmissions may be abbreviated as follows:
instructions.”
a. Use the identification prefix and the last 3 digits
c. Collect pertinent information regarding the or letters of the aircraft identification after
incident. communications have been established with a U.S.
civil aircraft using the aircraft registration as
d. Notify the operations supervisor of the false,
identification.
deceptive, or phantom transmission and report all
relevant information pertaining to the incident. b. Do not abbreviate:
1. Similar sounding aircraft identifications.
2−4−7. AUTHORIZED RELAYS 2. Aircraft call signs, including:
a. Relay operational information to aircraft or (a) Aircraft having an International Civil
aircraft operators as necessary. Do not agree to handle Aviation Organization three letter designator (ICAO
such messages on a regular basis. Give the source of 3LD) and other aircraft with an FAA authorized call
any such message you relay. sign (U.S. special or local).
(b) Aircraft with a military call sign.
b. Relay official FAA messages as required.
3. Foreign aircraft using the foreign civil
NOTE−
The FAA Administrator and Deputy Administrator will
registration number as identification.
sometimes use code phrases to identify themselves in REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−4−15, Emphasis for Clarity.
air-to-ground communications as follows: FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−4−20, Aircraft Identification.
Administrator: “SAFEAIR ONE.” FAA Order JO 7610.12, Assignment and Authorization of Call Sign
Deputy Administrator: “SAFEAIR TWO.” Designators and Associated Telephonies.
EXAMPLE− c. Omit the facility identification after communi-

“Miami Center, Jetstar One, this is SAFEAIR ONE, cation has been established.
(message).”
d. Transmit the message immediately after the
c. Relay operational information to military callup (without waiting for the aircraft’s reply) when
aircraft operating on, or planning to operate on IRs. the message is short and receipt is generally assured.
e. Omit the word “over” if the message obviously
2−4−8. RADIO MESSAGE FORMAT requires a reply.
Use the following format for radio communications 2−4−10. INTERPHONE TRANSMISSION
with an aircraft: PRIORITIES
a. Sector/position on initial radio contact: Give priority to interphone transmissions as follows:
2−4−2 Radio and Interphone Communications

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
a. First priority. Emergency messages including c. Caller states the type of coordination to be
essential information on aircraft accidents or accomplished when advantageous. For example,
suspected accidents. After an actual emergency has handoff or APREQ.
passed, give a lower priority to messages relating to
d. The caller states the message.
that accident.
e. The receiver states the response to the caller’s
b. Second priority. Clearances and control message followed by the receiver’s operating initials.
instructions.
f. The caller states his or her operating initials.
c. Third priority. Movement and control messages
EXAMPLE−
using the following order of preference when
1.
possible: Caller: “Denver High, R Twenty−five.”
1. Progress reports.
Receiver: “Denver High.”
2. Departure or arrival reports.
Caller: “Request direct Denver for Northwest Three
3. Flight plans. Twenty−eight.”
d. Fourth priority. Movement messages on VFR
aircraft. Receiver: “Northwest Three Twenty−eight direct Denver
approved. H.F.”
2−4−11. PRIORITY INTERRUPTION Caller: “G.M.”

2.
Use the words “emergency” or “control” for
Receiver: “Denver High, Go ahead override.”
interrupting lower priority messages when you have
an emergency or control message to transmit. Caller: “R Twenty−five, Request direct Denver for
Northwest Three Twenty−eight.”
2−4−12. INTERPHONE MESSAGE FORMAT
Receiver: “Northwest Three Twenty−eight direct Denver
Use the following format for interphone intra/interfa- approved. H.F.”
cility communications:
Caller: “G.M.”
a. Both the caller and receiver identify their
3.
facility and/or position in a manner that ensures they Caller: (“Bolos” is a departure gate in Houston ARTCC’s
will not be confused with another position. Sabine sector)−“Bolos, Houston local.”
NOTE−
Other means of identifying a position, such as substituting Receiver: “Bolos.”
departure or arrival gate/fix names for position identifica-
tion, may be used. However, it must be operationally Caller: “Request Flight Level three five zero for American
beneficial, and the procedure fully covered in a letter of Twenty−five.”
agreement or a facility directive, as appropriate.
EXAMPLE− Receiver: “American Twenty−five Flight Level three five
Caller: “Albuquerque Center Sixty Three, Amarillo zero approved, A.C.”
Departure.”
Caller: “G.M.”
Receiver: “Albuquerque Center.” 4.
Caller: “Sector Twelve, Ontario Approach, APREQ.”
b. Between two facilities which utilize numeric
position identification, the caller must identify both
Receiver: “Sector Twelve.”
facility and position.
EXAMPLE− Caller: “Cactus Five forty−two heading one three zero and
Caller: “Albuquerque Sixty Three, Fort Worth Eighty climbing to one four thousand.”
Two.”

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
Receiver: “Cactus Five forty−two heading one three zero b. The word super must be used as part of the
and climbing to one four thousand approved. B.N.” identification in all communications with or about
super aircraft.
Caller: “A.M.”
c. The word heavy must be used as part of the
5. identification in all communications with or about
Caller: “Zanesville, Columbus, seventy−three line, heavy aircraft.
handoff.”
d. EN ROUTE. The use of the words super or
Receiver: “Zanesville.” heavy may be omitted except as follows:
1. In communications with a terminal facility
Caller: “Five miles east of Appleton VOR, United Three
about super or heavy aircraft operations.
Sixty−six.”
2. In communications with or about super or
Receiver: “United Three Sixty−six, radar contact, A.Z.” heavy aircraft with regard to an airport where the en
route center is providing approach control service.
Caller: “M.E.”
3. In communications with or about super or
g. Identify the interphone voice line on which the heavy aircraft when the separation from a following
call is being made when two or more such lines are aircraft may become less than 5 miles by approved
collocated at the receiving operating position. procedure.
EXAMPLE− 4. When issuing traffic advisories.
“Washington Center, Washington Approach on the Fifty EXAMPLE−
Seven line.” “United Fifty−Eight Heavy.”
“Chicago Center, O’Hare Tower handoff on the Departure NOTE−
West line.” Most airlines will use the word “super” or “heavy”
following the company prefix and flight number when
h. TERMINAL. The provisions of subparagraphs establishing communications or when changing frequen-
a, b, c, e, f, g, and paragraph 2−4−13, Interphone cies within a terminal facility’s area.
Message Termination, may be omitted provided: e. When in radio communications with “Air Force
1. Abbreviated standard coordination proce- One” or “Air Force Two,” do not add the heavy
dures are contained in a facility directive describing designator to the call sign. State only the call sign “Air
the specific conditions and positions that may utilize Force One/Two” regardless of the type aircraft.
an abbreviated interphone message format; and
2−4−15. EMPHASIS FOR CLARITY
2. There will be no possibility of misunder-
standing which positions are using the abbreviated a. Treat aircraft with similar sounding aircraft
procedures. identifications by emphasizing appropriate digits,
letters, or similar sounding words to aid in
distinguishing between similar sounding aircraft
2−4−13. INTERPHONE MESSAGE identifications. Do not abbreviate similar sounding
TERMINATION aircraft identifications.
REFERENCE−
Terminate interphone messages with your operating FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−4−20, Aircraft Identification.
initials. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−4−9, Abbreviated Transmissions.
b. Treat aircraft with similar sounding call signs
2−4−14. WORDS AND PHRASES by restating the call sign after the flight number.
EXAMPLE−
a. Use the words or phrases in radiotelephone and “United Thirty−one United.”
interphone communication as contained in the P/CG “American Thirty−one American.”
or, within areas where Controller Pilot Data Link NOTE−
Communications (CPDLC) is in use, the phraseology Similar sounding call signs procedures may apply to ICAO
contained in the applicable CPDLC message set. 3LD U.S. special, local, or military call sign.

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
c. Notify each pilot concerned when communicat- O Oscar OSSCAH

ing with aircraft having similar sounding P Papa PAHPAH
identifications. Q Quebec KEHBECK
EXAMPLE− R Romeo ROWME OH
“United Thirty−one United, Miami Center, U.S. Air S Sierra SEEAIRAH
Thirty−one is also on this frequency, acknowledge.” T Tango TANGGO
U Uniform YOUNEE FORM
“U.S. Air Thirty−one U.S. Air, Miami Center, United
V Victor VIKTAH
Thirty−one is also on this frequency, acknowledge.”
W Whiskey WISSKEY
d. Notify the operations supervisor−in−charge of X X−ray ECKSRAY
any duplicate call signs or phonetically similar− Y Yankee YANGKEY
sounding call signs when the aircraft are operating
Z Zulu ZOOLOO
simultaneously within the same sector.
REFERENCE− NOTE−
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 2−1−14, Aircraft Identification Problems. Syllables to be emphasized in pronunciation are in bold
face.
2−4−16. ICAO PHONETICS
Use the ICAO pronunciation of numbers and 2−4−17. NUMBERS USAGE
individual letters. (See the ICAO radiotelephony State numbers as follows:
alphabet and pronunciation in TBL 2−4−1.)
a. Serial numbers. The separate digits.
TBL 2−4−1
EXAMPLE−
ICAO Phonetics
Character Word Pronunciation
Number Statement
0 Zero ZE−RO
11,495 “One one four niner five.”
1 One WUN
20,069 “Two zero zero six niner.”
2 Two TOO
3 Three TREE b. Altitudes or flight levels:
4 Four FOW−ER
1. Altitudes. Pronounce each digit in the number
5 Five FIFE
of hundreds or thousands followed by the word
6 Six SIX
“hundred” or “thousand” as appropriate.
7 Seven SEV−EN
8 Eight AIT EXAMPLE−
9 Nine NIN−ER
Number Statement
A Alfa ALFAH 10,000 “One zero thousand.”
B Bravo BRAHVOH 11,000 “One one thousand.”
C Charlie CHARLEE 17,900 “One seven thousand niner
hundred.”
D Delta DELLTAH
E Echo ECKOH NOTE−
F Foxtrot FOKSTROT Altitudes may be restated in group form for added clarity
G Golf GOLF if the controller chooses.
H Hotel HOHTELL EXAMPLE−
I India INDEE AH
J Juliett JEWLEE ETT Number Statement
K Kilo KEYLOH 10,000 “Ten thousand.”
L Lima LEEMAH 11,000 “Eleven thousand.”
M Mike MIKE 17,900 “Seventeen thousand niner
N November NOVEMBER hundred.”

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
2. Flight levels. The words “flight level” seconds or more are stated as succeeding quarter
followed by the separate digits of the flight level. minute.
EXAMPLE− EXAMPLE−
Flight Level Statement Time Statement

180 “Flight level one eight zero.” 1415:06 “Time, one four one five.”
275 “Flight level two seven five.” 1415:10 “Time, one four one five and
one−quarter.”
3. MDA/DH Altitudes. The separate digits of
the MDA/DH altitude. 4. Abbreviated time. The separate digits of the
minutes only.
EXAMPLE−
EXAMPLE−
MDA/DH Altitude Statement
Time Statement
1,320 “Minimum descent altitude,
one three two zero.” 1415 “One five.”
486 “Decision height, four eight 1420 “Two zero.”
six.”
d. Field elevation. The words “field elevation”
c. Time: followed by the separate digits of the elevation.
1. General time information. The four separate EXAMPLE−
digits of the hour and minute/s in terms of UTC.
Elevation Statement
EXAMPLE−
17 feet “Field elevation, one seven.”
817 feet “Field elevation, eight one seven.”
UTC Time (12 hour) Statement
2,817 feet “Field elevation, two eight one seven.”
0715 1:15 a.m. CST “Zero seven one five.”
1915 1:15 p.m. CST “One niner one five.” e. The number “0” as “zero” except where it is
used in approved “group form” for authorized aircraft
2. Upon request. The four separate digits of the call signs, and in stating altitudes.
hours and minute/s in terms of UTC followed by the
local standard time equivalent; or the local time EXAMPLE−
equivalent only. Local time may be based on the
24−hour clock system, and the word “local” or the As Zero As Group
time zone equivalent must be stated when other than “Field elevation one six zero.” “Western five thirty.”
UTC is referenced. The term “ZULU” may be used “Heading three zero zero.” “EMAIR One Ten.”
to denote UTC. “One zero thousand five “Ten thousand five hundred.”
hundred.”
EXAMPLE−
f. Altimeter setting. The word “altimeter” fol-
UTC Time Time Statement lowed by the separate digits of the altimeter setting.
(24 hour) (12 hour) EXAMPLE−
2230 1430 PST 2:30 p.m. “Two two three zero,
one four three zero
Pacific or Local.” or Setting Statement
“Two−thirty P−M.” 30.01 “Altimeter, three zero zero one.”
3. Time check. The word “time” followed by the g. Surface wind. The word “wind” followed by the
four separate digits of the hour and minutes, and separate digits of the indicated wind direction to the
nearest quarter minute. Fractions of a quarter minute nearest 10−degree multiple, the word “at” and the
less than eight seconds are stated as the preceding separate digits of the indicated velocity in knots, to
quarter minute; fractions of a quarter minute of eight include any gusts.

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
EXAMPLE− 121.5 MHz “One two one point five.”

“Wind zero three zero at two five.” 135.275 MHz “One three five point two seven.”
“Wind two seven zero at one five gusts three five.” 302 kHz “Three zero two kiloHertz.”
h. Heading. The word “heading” followed by the
three separate digits of the number of degrees, 2. USAF/USN. Local channelization numbers
omitting the word “degrees.” Use heading may be used in lieu of frequencies for locally based
360 degrees to indicate a north heading. aircraft when local procedures are established to
ensure that local aircraft and ATC facilities use the
EXAMPLE− same channelization.
EXAMPLE−
Heading Statement
5 degrees “Heading zero zero five.”
Frequency Statement
30 degrees “Heading zero three zero.”
275.8 MHz “Local channel one six.”
360 degrees “Heading three six zero.”
i. Radar beacon codes. The separate digits of the 3. Issue TACAN frequencies by stating the
4−digit code. assigned two or three−digit channel number.
EXAMPLE− l. Speeds.
1. The separate digits of the speed followed by
Code Statement “knots” except as required by paragraph 5−7−2,
1000 “One zero zero zero.” Methods.
2100 “Two one zero zero.” EXAMPLE−
j. Runways. The word “runway,” followed by the

Speed Statement
separate digits of the runway designation. For a
parallel runway, state the word “left,” “right,” or 250 “Two five zero knots.”
“center” if the letter “L,” “R,” or “C” is included in the 190 “One niner zero knots.”
designation.
2. The separate digits of the Mach number
EXAMPLE− preceded by “Mach.”
EXAMPLE−
Designation Statement
3 “Runway Three.”
Mach Number Statement
8L “Runway Eight Left.”
1.5 “Mach one point five.”
27R “Runway Two Seven Right.”
0.64 “Mach point six four.”
k. Frequencies. 0.7 “Mach point seven.”
1. The separate digits of the frequency, inserting m. Miles. The separate digits of the mileage
the word “point” where the decimal point occurs. followed by the word “mile.”
(a) Omit digits after the second digit to the EXAMPLE−
right of the decimal point. “Three zero mile arc east of Nottingham.”
“Traffic, one o’clock, two five miles, northbound, D−C
(b) When the frequency is in the L/MF band, Eight, flight level two seven zero.”
include the word “kiloHertz.”
EXAMPLE− 2−4−18. NUMBER CLARIFICATION
a. If deemed necessary for clarity, and after stating
Frequency Statement numbers as specified in paragraph 2−4−17, Numbers
126.55 MHz “One two six point five five.” Usage, controllers may restate numbers using either
369.0 MHz “Three six niner point zero.” group or single-digit form.

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
EXAMPLE− g. Radar facilities having ASR or PAR but not

“One Seven Thousand, Seventeen Thousand.” providing approach control service. State the name
“Altimeter Two Niner Niner Two, Twenty Nine Ninety of the facility, followed by the letters “G−C−A.”
Two.”
“One Two Six Point Five Five, One Twenty Six Point Fifty EXAMPLE−
Five.” “Corpus Christi G−C−A.”
“Davison G−C−A.”
2−4−19. FACILITY IDENTIFICATION
2−4−20. AIRCRAFT IDENTIFICATION
Identify facilities as follows:
Use the full identification in reply to aircraft with
a. Airport traffic control towers. State the name of similar sounding identifications. For other aircraft,
the facility followed by the word “tower.” Where the same identification may be used in reply that the
military and civil airports are located in the same pilot used in his/her initial callup except use the
general area and have similar names, state the name correct identification after communications have
of the military service followed by the name of the been established. Identify aircraft as follows:
military facility and the word “tower.”
a. U.S. registry aircraft. State one of the following:
EXAMPLE− REFERENCE−
“Columbus Tower.” FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−4−8, Radio Message Format.
“Barksdale Tower.” FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−4−9, Abbreviated Transmissions.
“Navy Jacksonville Tower.” FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−4−15, Emphasis for Clarity.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−4−17, Numbers Usage.
b. Air route traffic control centers. State the name 1. Civil. State the prefix “November” when
of the facility followed by the word “center.” establishing initial communications with U.S.
c. Approach control facilities, including registered aircraft followed by the ICAO phonetic
RAPCONs, RATCFs, and ARACs. State the name of pronunciation of the numbers/letters of the aircraft
the facility followed by the word “approach.” Where registration. The controller may state the aircraft
military and civil facilities are located in the same type, the model, the manufacturer’s name, followed
general area and have similar names, state the name by the ICAO phonetic pronunciation of the
of the military service followed by the name of the numbers/letters of the aircraft registration if used by
military facility and the word “approach.” the pilot on the initial or subsequent call.
“Denver Approach.” Air traffic controller’s initiated call:
“Griffiss Approach.”
“Navy Jacksonville Approach.” “November One Two Three Four Golf.”
“November One Two Three Four.”
d. Functions within a terminal facility. State the
name of the facility followed by the name of the Responding to pilot’s initial or subsequent call:
function.
EXAMPLE− “Jet Commander One Two Three Four Papa.”
“Boston Departure.” “Bonanza One Two Three Four Tango.”
“LaGuardia Clearance Delivery.” “Sikorsky Six Three Eight Mike Foxtrot.”
“O’Hare Ground.” NOTE−
e. When calling or replying on an interphone line If aircraft identification becomes a problem when the
procedures specified above are used, see paragraph
which connects only two non−VSCS equipped
2−4−15, Emphasis for Clarity.
facilities, you may omit the facility name.
2. Aircraft having an ICAO 3LD and other FAA
EXAMPLE−
authorized call sign (U.S. special or local). State the
“Bradford High, Handoff.”
call sign followed by the flight number in group form.
f. Flight service stations. State the name of the
NOTE−
station followed by the word “radio.” “Group form” is the pronunciation of a series of numbers
EXAMPLE− as the whole number, or pairs of numbers they represent
“Leesburg Radio.” rather than pronouncing each separate digit. The use of

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
group form may, however, be negated by four-digit “Air Guard One Three Five Eight Six.”
identifiers or the placement of zeros in the identifier. “Army Copter Three Two One Seven Six.”
EXAMPLE− NOTE−
“American Fifty−Two.” If aircraft identification becomes a problem, the
“Delta One Hundred.” procedures reflected in FAA Order JO 7210.3, Facility
“Eastern Metro One Ten.” Operation and Administration, paragraph 2−1−14, Air-
“General Motors Thirty Fifteen.” craft Identification Problems, will apply.
“United One Zero One.”
(b) Special military operations. State one of
“Delta Zero One Zero.”
“TWA Ten Zero Four.” the following followed by the last 5 digits of the serial
number:
NOTE−
For clarity, aircraft having an ICAO 3LD and other FAA (c) Air evacuation flights. “AIR EVAC,”
authorized call sign may be pronounced using single digits “MARINE AIR EVAC,” or “NAVY AIR EVAC.”
if necessary.
EXAMPLE−
EXAMPLE− “Air Evac One Seven Six Five Two.”
“United Five One Seven.”
“United Five Seven Zero.” (d) Rescue flights. (Service name)
“RESCUE.”
NOTE−
For procedures that address similar sounding call signs, EXAMPLE−
see paragraph 2−4−15, Emphasis for Clarity. “Air Force Rescue Six One Five Seven Niner.”
REFERENCE− (e) Air Mobility Command. “REACH.”
FAA Order JO 7610.12, Assignment and Authorization of Call Sign
Designators and Associated Telephonies. EXAMPLE−
“Reach Seven Eight Five Six Two.”
3. Air taxi and commercial operators not having
FAA authorized call signs. State the prefix “TANGO” (f) Special Air Mission. “SAM.”
on initial contact, if used by the pilot, followed by the EXAMPLE−
registration number. The prefix may be dropped in “Sam Niner One Five Six Two.”
subsequent communications.
(g) USAF Contract Aircraft “LOGAIR.”
EXAMPLE−
EXAMPLE−
“Tango Mooney Five Five Five Two Quebec.”
“Logair Seven Five Eight Two Six.”
“Tango November One Two Three Four.”
(h) Military tactical and training:
4. Air carrier/taxi ambulance. State the prefix
“MEDEVAC” if used by the pilot, followed by the (1) U.S. Air Force, Air National Guard,
call sign and flight number in group form. Military District of Washington priority aircraft, and
EXAMPLE− USAF civil disturbance aircraft. Pronounceable
“MEDEVAC Delta Fifty-One.” words of 3 to 6 letters followed by a 1 to 5 digit
number.
5. Civilian air ambulance. State the word
“MEDEVAC” followed by the numbers/letters of the EXAMPLE−
“Paul Two Zero.”
registration number.
“Pat One Five Seven.”
EXAMPLE− “Gaydog Four.”
“MEDEVAC Two Six Four Six.” NOTE−
6. U.S. military. State one of the following: When the “Z” suffix described in paragraph 2−3−7,
USAF/USN Undergraduate Pilots, is added to identify
(a) The service name, followed by the word aircraft piloted by USAF undergraduate pilots, the call
“copter,” when appropriate, and the last 5 digits of the sign will be limited to a combination of six characters.
serial number. (2) Navy or Marine fleet and training
EXAMPLE− command aircraft. The service name and 2 letters, or
“Navy Five Six Seven One Three.” a digit and a letter (use letter phonetic equivalents),
“Coast Guard Six One Three Two Seven.” followed by 2 or 3 digits.

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
EXAMPLE− TBL 2−4−2

“Navy Golf Alfa Two One.” DOT and FAA Alphanumeric Identifiers
“Marine Four Charlie Two Three Six.” and Call Signs
7. Presidential aircraft and Presidential family Official Identifier Call Sign

aircraft: Secretary of Transportation DOT−1 Transport−1
Deputy Secretary of DOT−2 Transport−2
(a) When the President is aboard a military Transportation
aircraft, state the name of the military service, Administrator, FAA−1 Safeair−1
followed by the word “One.” Federal Aviation Administration
Deputy Administrator, FAA−2 Safeair−2
EXAMPLE− Federal Aviation Administration
“Air Force One.”
“Army One.”
10. Other Special Flights.
“Marine One.” (a) Flight Inspection of navigational aids.
State the call sign “FLIGHT CHECK” followed by
(b) When the President is aboard a civil the digits of the registration number.
aircraft, state the words “Executive One.”
EXAMPLE−
“Flight Check Three Niner Six Five Four.”
(c) When a member of the President’s family
is aboard any aircraft, if the U.S. Secret Service or the (b) USAF aircraft engaged in aerial sam-
White House Staff determines it is necessary, state the pling/surveying missions. State the call sign “SAMP”
words “Executive One Foxtrot.” followed by the last three digits of the serial number.
EXAMPLE−
REFERENCE− “SAMP Three One Six.”
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 9−2−17, SAMP Flights.
8. Vice Presidential aircraft:
11. Use a pilot’s name in identification of an
(a) When the Vice President is aboard a aircraft only in special or emergency situations.
military aircraft, state the name of the military b. Foreign registry. State one of the following:
service, followed by the word “Two.”
1. Civil. State the aircraft type or the manufac-
EXAMPLE− turer’s name followed by the letters/numbers of the
“Air Force Two.” full aircraft registration, or state the letters or digits of
“Army Two.” the full aircraft registration. Do not abbreviate.
“Marine Two.”
EXAMPLE−
“Citation C−G−L−R−B.”
(b) When the Vice President is aboard a civil
“C−G−L−R−B.”
aircraft, state the words “Executive Two.”
NOTE−
(c) When a member of the Vice President’s 1. Letters may be spoken individually or phonetically.
family is aboard any aircraft, if the U.S. Secret 2. Some foreign civil aircraft registrations begin with a
Service or the White House Staff determines it is number.
necessary, state the words “Executive Two Foxtrot.” REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−4−9, Abbreviated Transmissions.
REFERENCE− 2. ICAO 3LD. State the associated telephony
followed by the flight number in group form, or
9. DOT and FAA flights. The following separate digits may be used if that is the format used
alphanumeric identifiers and radio/interphone call by the pilot. Do not abbreviate.
signs are established for use in air/ground communi- EXAMPLE−
cations when the Secretary of Transportation, Deputy “Scandinavian Sixty−eight.”
Secretary of Transportation, FAA Administrator or “Scandinavian Six Eight.”
FAA Deputy Administrator have a requirement to 3. Foreign Military. Except for military services
identify themselves. (See TBL 2−4−2.) identified in FAA Order JO 7340.2, Contractions,

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
state the name of the country and the military service c. General Aviation and Air Taxi:
followed by the separate digits or letters of the
1. Manufacturer’s model or type designator.
registration or call sign. For military services listed in
FAA Order JO 7340.2, state the approved telephony 2. Manufacturer’s name, or add color when
followed by the separate digits of the flight number. considered advantageous.
“Canforce Five Six Two Seven.” “Tri−Pacer.”
“Brazilian Air Force Five Three Two Seven.” “P A Twenty−Two.”
“Cessna Four−Oh−One.”
2−4−21. DESCRIPTION OF AIRCRAFT “Blue and white King Air.”
“Airliner.”
TYPES
“Sikorsky S−Seventy−Six.”
Except for super and heavy aircraft, describe aircraft d. When issuing traffic information to aircraft
as follows when issuing traffic information. following a super aircraft, specify the word super
a. Military: before the manufacturer’s name and model.
1. Military designator, with numbers spoken in e. When issuing traffic information to aircraft
group form, or following a heavy aircraft, specify the word heavy
before the manufacturer’s name and model.
2. Service and type, or
EXAMPLE−
3. Type only if no confusion or misidentifica- “Super A-Three-Eighty” or “Super
tion is likely. A-three-eighty-eight.”
“Heavy C-Seventeen.”
b. Air Carrier: “Heavy Boeing Seven Forty-Seven.”
1. Manufacturer’s model or type designator. REFERENCE−
2. Add the manufacturer’s name, company
name or other identifying features when confusion or 2−4−22. AIRSPACE CLASSES
misidentification is likely.
EXAMPLE− A, B, C, D, E, and G airspace are pronounced in the
“L−Ten−Eleven.” ICAO phonetics for clarification. The term “Class”
“American MD−Eighty. Seven Thirty−Seven.” may be dropped when referring to airspace in
“Boeing Seven Fifty−Seven.” pilot/controller communications.
NOTE− EXAMPLE−
Pilots of “interchange” aircraft are expected to inform the “Cessna 123 Mike Romeo cleared to enter Bravo
tower on the first radio contact the name of the operating airspace.”
company and trip number followed by the company name, “Sikorsky 123 Tango Sierra cleared to enter New York
as displayed on the aircraft, and the aircraft type. Bravo airspace.”

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 5. Route and NAVAID Description
2−5−1. AIR TRAFFIC SERVICE (ATS) EXAMPLE−

ROUTES “Q One Forty−five.”
2. Low Altitude − State the letter of the route
Describe ATS routes as follows:
phonetically, followed by the number of the route in
a. VOR/VORTAC/TACAN airways or jet routes. group form.
State the word “Victor” or the letter “J” followed by EXAMPLE−
the number of the airway or route in group form. “Tango Two Ten.”
EXAMPLE−
“Victor Twelve.” 2−5−2. NAVAID TERMS
“J Five Thirty−Three.”
a. Describe NAVAIDs as follows:
b. VOR/VORTAC/TACAN alternate airways.
1. State the name or phonetic alphabet equival-
State the word “Victor” followed by the number of the
ent (location identifier) of a NAVAID when using it
airway in group form and the alternate direction.
in a routing.
EXAMPLE−
EXAMPLE−
“Victor Twelve South.”
“V6 Victor Whiskey Victor (Waterville) V45 Jackson”
c. Colored/L/MF airways. State the color of the 2. When utilized as the clearance limit, state the
airway followed by the number in group form. name of the NAVAID followed by the type of
EXAMPLE− NAVAID if the type is known.
“Blue Eighty−One.” PHRASEOLOGY−
d. Named Routes. State the words “North CLEARED TO (NAVAID name and type)
American Route” or “Bahama Route” followed by EXAMPLE−
the number of the route in group form. “Cleared to Grand Rapids VOR”
EXAMPLE− b. Describe radials, arcs, courses, bearings, and

“North American Route Sixty−Seven Bravo.” quadrants of NAVAIDs as follows:
“Bahama Route Fifty−Five Victor.” 1. VOR/VORTAC/TACAN/GPS Waypoint.
e. Air Traffic Service (ATS) routes. State the State the name of the NAVAID or GPS Waypoint
letter(s) of the route phonetically, followed by the followed by the separate digits of the radial/azimuth/
number of the route in group form. bearing (omitting the word “degrees”) and the word
“radial/azimuth/bearing.”
EXAMPLE−
“Romeo Twenty.” EXAMPLE−
“Alfa Fifty.” “Appleton Zero Five Zero Radial.”
“Golf Sixty−one.” 2. Arcs about VOR-DME/VORTAC/TACAN
“Alfa Seven Hundred.” NAVAIDs. State the distance in miles from the
f. Military Training Routes (MTRs). State the NAVAID followed by the words “mile arc,” the
letters “I−R” or “V−R” followed by the number of the direction from the NAVAID in terms of the eight
route in group form. principal points of the compass, the word “of,” and
the name of the NAVAID.
EXAMPLE−
“I−R Five Thirty−one.” EXAMPLE−
“V−R Fifty−two.” “Two Zero mile arc southwest of Kirksville VOR”
g. Published RNAV routes. 3. Quadrant within a radius of NAVAID. State

direction from NAVAID in terms of the quadrant; i.e.,
1. High Altitude − State the letter “Q” followed NE, SE, SW, NW, followed by the distance in miles
by the route number in group form. from the NAVAID.
Route and NAVAID Description 2−5−1

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
EXAMPLE− increment in single digit or group form, and the

“Cleared to fly northeast quadrant of Phillipsburg longitude increment.
VORTAC within Four Zero mile radius.”
EXAMPLE−
REFERENCE− “Kilo Delta Three Four Uniform.”
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−4−1, Route Use.
P/CG Term − Quadrant. “Kilo Delta Thirty Four Uniform.”
4. Nondirectional beacons. State the course to

2−5−3. NAVAID FIXES
or the bearing from the radio beacon, omitting the
word “degree,” followed by the words “course to” or Describe fixes determined by reference to a
“bearing from,” the name of the radio beacon, and the radial/localizer/azimuth and distance from a
words “radio beacon.” VOR-DME/VORTAC/TACAN/ILS-DME as
EXAMPLE− follows:
“Three Four Zero bearing from Randolph Radio Beacon.” a. When a fix is not named, state the name of the
5. MLS. State the azimuth to or azimuth from NAVAID followed by a specified radial/localizer/
the MLS, omitting the word “degree” followed by the azimuth, and state the distance in miles followed by
words “azimuth to” or “azimuth from,” the name of the phrase “mile fix.”
the MLS, and the term MLS. EXAMPLE−
EXAMPLE− “Appleton Zero Five Zero radial Three Seven mile fix.”
“Two Six Zero azimuth to Linburgh Runway Two Seven “Reno localizer back course Four mile fix.”
MLS.”
b. When a fix is charted on a SID, STAR, en route
6. Navigation Reference System (NRS) Waypo-
chart, or approach plate, state the name of the fix.
int. State the single letter corresponding to the ICAO
Flight Information Region (FIR) identifier, followed c. Use specific terms to describe a fix. Do not use
by the letter corresponding to the FIR subset (ARTCC expressions such as “passing Victor Twelve” or
area for the conterminous U.S.), the latitude “passing J Eleven.”
2−5−2 Route and NAVAID Description

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 6. Weather Information
2−6−1. FAMILIARIZATION a. Solicit PIREPs when requested, deemed

necessary or any of the following conditions exists or
Controllers must become familiar with pertinent is forecast for your area of jurisdiction:
weather information when coming on duty, and stay 1. Ceilings at or below 5,000 feet. These
aware of current and forecasted weather information PIREPs must include cloud bases, tops and cloud
needed to perform ATC duties. coverage when available. Additionally, when provid-
NOTE− ing approach control services, ensure that at least one
Every phase of flight has the potential to be impacted by descent/climb–out PIREP and other related phenom-
weather, and emphasis must be placed on gathering, ena is obtained each hour.
reporting and disseminating weather information.
2. Visibility (surface or aloft) at or less than 5
miles.
3. Thunderstorms and related phenomena.
2−6−2. PIREP SOLICITATION AND DISSEM-
INATION 4. Turbulence of moderate degree or greater.
5. Icing of light degree or greater.
Emphasis must be placed on the solicitation and
dissemination of Urgent (UUA) and Routine (UA) 6. Wind shear.
PIREPs. Timely dissemination of PIREPs alerts 7. Braking action reports.
pilots to weather conditions and provides information
useful to forecasters in the development of aviation 8. Volcanic ash clouds.
forecasts. PIREPs also provide information required 9. Detection of sulfur gases (SO2 or H2S),
by ATC in the provision of safe and efficient use of associated with volcanic activity, in the cabin.
airspace. This includes reports of strong frontal
activity, squall lines, thunderstorms, light to severe NOTE−
1. The smell of sulfur gases in the cockpit may indicate
icing, wind shear and turbulence (including clear air
volcanic activity that has not yet been detected or reported
turbulence) of moderate or greater intensity, braking and/or possible entry into an ash−bearing cloud. SO2 is
action, volcanic eruptions and volcanic ash clouds, identifiable as the sharp, acrid odor of a freshly struck
detection of sulfur gases in the cabin, and other match. H2S has the odor of rotten eggs.
conditions pertinent to flight safety. Controllers must
2. Pilots may forward PIREPs regarding volcanic activity
provide the information in sufficient detail to assist using the format described in the Volcanic Activity
pilots in making decisions pertinent to flight safety. Reporting Form (VAR) as depicted in the AIM, Appendix
2.
NOTE−
Routine PIREPs indicating a lack of forecasted weather REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.10, Para 8−2−5, Soliciting PIREPs.
conditions, for example, a lack of icing or turbulence, are
also valuable to aviation weather forecasters and pilots. b. Record with the PIREPs:
This is especially true when adverse conditions are
expected or forecasted but do not develop or no longer 1. Time.
exist. 2. Aircraft position.
REFERENCE− 3. Type aircraft.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−1−8, Low Level Wind
Shear/Microburst Advisories.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−3−4, Braking Action.
4. Altitude.
P/CG Term− Braking Action.
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 6−3−1, Handling of SIGMETs, CWAs, and
5. When the PIREP involves icing include:
PIREPs.
AIM, Para 7−5−9, Flight Operations in Volcanic Ash.
(a) Icing type and intensity.
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 10−3−1, SIGMET and PIREP Handling.
FAA Order JO 7110.10, Chapter 8, Section 2, Pilot Weather Report
(b) Air temperature in which icing is
(UA/UUA). occurring.
Weather Information 2−6−1

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
c. Obtain PIREPs directly from the pilot, or if the (d) Alaska Only: The FSS serving the area in
PIREP has been requested by another facility, you which the report was obtained.
may instruct the pilot to deliver it directly to that NOTE−
facility. The FSS in Alaska is responsible for long line
dissemination.
PHRASEOLOGY−
REQUEST/SAY FLIGHT CONDITIONS. Or if REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−2, Duty Priority.
appropriate,
REQUEST/SAY (specific conditions; i.e., ride, cloud, (e) Other concerned terminal or en route ATC
visibility, etc.) CONDITIONS. facilities, including non−FAA facilities.
If necessary,
OVER (fix), 2−6−3. REPORTING WEATHER CONDI-
TIONS
or
a. When the prevailing visibility at the usual point
ALONG PRESENT ROUTE, of observation, or at the tower level, is less than 4
miles, tower personnel must take prevailing visibility
or observations and apply the observations as follows:
BETWEEN (fix) AND (fix). 1. Use the lower of the two observations (tower
or surface) for aircraft operations.
d. Disseminate PIREPs as follows:
2. Forward tower visibility observations to the
1. Relay pertinent PIREP information to weather observer.
concerned aircraft in a timely manner. 3. Notify the weather observer when the tower
NOTE− observes the prevailing visibility decrease to less than
Use the word gain and/or loss when describing to pilots the 4 miles or increase to 4 miles or more.
effects of wind shear on airspeed.
b. Describe the wind as calm when the wind
EXAMPLE− velocity is less than three knots.
“Delta Seven Twenty−one, a Boeing Seven Thirty−seven, REFERENCE−
previously reported wind shear, loss of two five knots at FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−5−3, Tailwind Components.
four hundred feet.” FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−10−4, Intersecting
“Alaska One, a Boeing Seven Thirty−seven, previously Runway/Intersecting Flight Path Separation.
reported wind shear, gain of two−five knots between niner c. Forward current weather changes to the
hundred and six hundred feet, followed by a loss of five zero appropriate control facility as follows:
knots between five hundred feet and the surface.”
1. When the official weather changes to a
REFERENCE−
AIM, Para 7−1−22, Wind Shear PIREPs. condition:
2. EN ROUTE. Relay all operationally signifi- (a) Less than a 1,000−foot ceiling or below
cant PIREPs to the facility weather coordinator. the highest circling minimum, whichever is greater.
REFERENCE− (b) Where the visibility is less than 3 miles.
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 6−3−1, Handling of SIGMETs, CWAs, and
PIREPs.
(c) Where conditions improve to values
greater than those listed in (a) and (b).
3. TERMINAL. Relay all operationally signifi-
cant PIREPs to: 2. When changes which are classified as special
weather observations during the time that weather
(a) The appropriate intrafacility positions. conditions are below 1,000−foot ceiling or the
highest circling minimum, whichever is greater, or
(b) The OS/CIC for long line dissemination less than 3 miles visibility.
via an FAA approved electronic system (for example,
AIS−R, or similar systems); or, d. Towers at airports where military turbo−jet en
route descents are routinely conducted must also
(c) Outside Alaska: The overlying ARTCC’s report the conditions to the ARTCC even if it is not the
Flight Data Unit for long−line dissemination. controlling facility.
2−6−2 Weather Information

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
e. If the receiving facility informs you that weather 3. HEAVY.

reports are not required for a specific time period, 4. EXTREME.
discontinue the reports.
NOTE−
f. EN ROUTE. When you determine that weather Weather and Radar Processor (WARP) does not display
reports for an airport will not be required for a specific light intensity.
time period, inform the FSS or tower of this PHRASEOLOGY−
determination. AREA OF (Intensity) PRECIPITATION BETWEEN
(number) O’CLOCK AND (number) O’CLOCK, (number)
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−10−2, Forwarding Approach MILES, MOVING (direction) AT (number) KNOTS, TOPS
Information by Nonapproach Control Facilities. (altitude). AREA IS (number) MILES IN DIAMETER.
EXAMPLE−
2−6−4. ISSUING WEATHER AND CHAFF 1. “Area of heavy precipitation between ten o’clock and
AREAS two o’clock, one five miles. Area is two five miles in
diameter.”
a. Controllers must issue pertinent information on 2. “Area of heavy to extreme precipitation between ten
observed/reported weather and chaff areas to o’clock and two o’clock, one five miles. Area is two five
potentially affected aircraft. Define the area of miles in diameter.”
coverage in terms of: REFERENCE−
P/CG Term− Precipitation Radar Weather Descriptions.
1. Azimuth (by referring to the 12−hour clock)
d. TERMINAL: In STARS, correlate precipitation
and distance from the aircraft and/or
descriptors from subparagraph c as follows:
2. The general width of the area and the area of 1. Level 1 = LIGHT
coverage in terms of fixes or distance and direction
from fixes. 2. Level 2 = MODERATE
NOTE− 3. Levels 3 and 4 = HEAVY

Weather significant to the safety of aircraft includes 4. Levels 5 and 6 = EXTREME
conditions such as funnel cloud activity, lines of
thunderstorms, embedded thunderstorms, large hail, wind e. When precipitation intensity information is not
shear, microbursts, moderate to extreme turbulence available.
(including CAT), and light to severe icing. PHRASEOLOGY−
REFERENCE− AREA OF PRECIPITATION BETWEEN (number)
AIM, Para 7−1−12, ATC Inflight Weather Avoidance Assistance. O’CLOCK AND (number) O’CLOCK, (number) MILES.
PHRASEOLOGY− MOVING (direction) AT (number) KNOTS, TOPS
WEATHER/CHAFF AREA BETWEEN (number) (altitude). AREA IS (number) MILES IN DIAMETER,
O’CLOCK AND (number) O’CLOCK (number) MILES, INTENSITY UNKNOWN.
and/or (number) MILE BAND OF WEATHER/CHAFF EXAMPLE−
FROM (fix or number of miles and direction from fix) TO “Area of precipitation between one o’clock and three
(fix or number of miles and direction from fix). o’clock, three five miles moving south at one five knots, tops
flight level three three zero. Area is three zero miles in
b. Inform any tower for which you provide diameter, intensity unknown.”
approach control services of observed precipitation
NOTE−
on radar which is likely to affect their operations. Phraseology using precipitation intensity descriptions is
c. Use the term “precipitation” when describing only applicable when the radar precipitation intensity
radar−derived weather. Issue the precipitation information is determined by NWS radar equipment or
NAS ground based digitized radar equipment with weather
intensity from the lowest descriptor (LIGHT) to the
capabilities. This precipitation may not reach the surface.
highest descriptor (EXTREME) when that informa-
tion is available. Do not use the word “turbulence” in f. EN ROUTE. When issuing Air Route Surveil-
describing radar−derived weather. lance Radar (ARSR) precipitation intensity use the
following:
1. LIGHT.
1. Describe the lowest displayable precipitation
2. MODERATE. intensity as MODERATE.

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
2. Describe the highest displayable precipita- altitude set by the pilot, which may be the SID/STAR
tion intensity as HEAVY to EXTREME. published top or bottom altitude.
REFERENCE−
PHRASEOLOGY− FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−2−5, Route or Altitude Amendments.
AREA OF (Intensity) PRECIPITATION BETWEEN FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−6−1, Application.
(number) O’CLOCK and (number) O’CLOCK, (number) FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−6−2, Methods.
MILES, MOVING (direction) AT (number) KNOTS, TOPS 3. If a pilot enters your area of jurisdiction
(altitude). If applicable, AREA IS (number) MILES IN already deviating for weather, advise the pilot of any
DIAMETER. additional weather which may affect the route.
EXAMPLE− NOTE−
1. “Area of moderate precipitation between ten o’clock When aircraft are deviating around weather and
and one o’clock, three zero miles moving east at two zero transitioning from sector to sector, unless previously
knots, tops flight level three seven zero. coordinated, the receiving controller should not assume
2. “Area of moderate precipitation between ten o’clock that the transferring controller has issued weather
and three o’clock, two zero miles. Area is two five miles in affecting the aircraft’s route of flight.
diameter.” 4. If traffic and airspace (i.e., special use
g. Controllers must ensure that the highest airspace boundaries, LOA constraints) permit,
available level of precipitation intensity within their combine the approval for weather deviation with a
area of jurisdiction is displayed unless operational/ clearance on course.
equipment limitations exist. PHRASEOLOGY−
DEVIATION (restrictions if necessary) APPROVED,
h. When requested by the pilot, provide radar WHEN ABLE, PROCEED DIRECT (name of
navigational guidance and/or approve deviations NAVAID/WAYPOINT/FIX)
around weather or chaff areas. In areas of significant
weather, plan ahead and be prepared to suggest, upon or
pilot request, the use of alternative routes/altitudes.
1. An approval for lateral deviation authorizes WHEN ABLE, FLY HEADING (degrees), VECTOR TO
the pilot to maneuver left or right within the limits of JOIN (airway) AND ADVISE.
the lateral deviation area. EXAMPLE−
REFERENCE− 1. “Deviation 20 degrees right approved, when able
AIM, Subpara 7−1−12b1(a) ATC Inflight Weather Avoidance proceed direct O’Neill VORTAC and advise.” En Route:
Assistance The corresponding fourth line entry is “D20R/ONL” or
2. When approving a weather deviation for an “D20R/F.”
aircraft that had previously been issued a crossing 2. “Deviation 30 degrees left approved, when able fly
altitude, including climb via or descend via heading zero niner zero, vector to join J324 and advise.”
clearances, issue an altitude to maintain and, if En Route: In this case the free text character limitation
necessary, assign a speed along with the clearance to prevents use of fourth line coordination and verbal
deviate. If you intend on clearing the aircraft to coordination is required.
resume the procedure, advise the pilot. 5. If traffic or airspace prevents you from
PHRASEOLOGY− clearing the aircraft on course at the time of the
DEVIATION (restrictions, if necessary) APPROVED, approval for a weather deviation, instruct the pilot to
MAINTAIN (altitude), (if necessary) MAINTAIN (speed), advise when clear of weather.
(if applicable) EXPECT TO RESUME (SID/STAR, etc.) AT PHRASEOLOGY−
(NAVAID, fix/waypoint). DEVIATION (restrictions if necessary) APPROVED,
NOTE− ADVISE CLEAR OF WEATHER.
After a climb via or descend via clearance has been issued, EXAMPLE−
a vector/deviation off of a SID/STAR cancels all published “Deviation North of course approved, advise clear of
altitude and speed restrictions on the procedure. The weather.”
aircraft’s Flight Management System (FMS) may be unable En Route: In this case the corresponding fourth line entry
to process crossing altitude restrictions once the aircraft is “DN,” and the receiving controller must provide a
leaves the SID/STAR lateral path. Without an assigned clearance to rejoin the route in accordance with paragraph
altitude, the aircraft’s FMS may revert to leveling off at the 2−1−15c.

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
i. When a deviation cannot be approved as the corresponding fourth line entry is “D20R/ONL” or
requested because of traffic, take an alternate course “D20R/F.”
of action that provides positive control for traffic 2. The absence of a NAVAID, waypoint, or /F in
resolution and satisfies the pilot’s need to avoid the fourth line indicates that:
weather.
(a) The pilot has been authorized to deviate
PHRASEOLOGY− for weather only, and the receiving controller must
UNABLE REQUESTED DEVIATION, FLY HEADING provide a clearance to rejoin the route in accordance
(heading), ADVISE CLEAR OF WEATHER
with paragraph 2−1−15c.
or EXAMPLE−
“Deviation twenty degrees right approved, advise clear of
UNABLE REQUESTED DEVIATION, TURN (number of weather.”
degrees) DEGREES (left or right) VECTOR FOR
(b) The free text character limitation prevents
TRAFFIC, ADVISE CLEAR OF WEATHER,
the use of fourth line coordination. Verbal coordina-
EXAMPLE− tion is required.
“Unable requested deviation, turn thirty degrees right
vector for traffic, advise clear of weather.” EXAMPLE−
“Deviation 30 degrees left approved, when able fly
j. When forwarding weather deviation informa- heading zero niner zero, vector to join J324 and advise.”
tion, the transferring controller must clearly l. The supervisory traffic management
coordinate the nature of the route guidance service coordinator−in−charge/operations supervisor/
being provided. This coordination should include, controller−in−charge must verify the digitized radar
but is not limited to: assigned headings, suggested weather information by the best means available
headings, pilot−initiated deviations. Coordination (e.g., pilot reports, local tower personnel, etc.) if the
can be accomplished by: verbal, automated, or weather data displayed by digitized radar is reported
predetermined procedures. Emphasis should be made as questionable or erroneous. Errors in weather radar
between: controller assigned headings, suggested presentation must be reported to the technical
headings, or pilot initiated deviations. operations technician and the air traffic supervisor
EXAMPLE− must determine if the digitized radar derived weather
“(call sign) assigned heading three three zero for weather data is to be displayed and a NOTAM distributed.
avoidance” NOTE−
“(call sign) deviating west, pilot requested…” Anomalous propagation (AP) is a natural occurrence
REFERENCE− affecting radar and does not in itself constitute a weather
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−14, Coordinate Use Of Airspace. circuit failure.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−4−5, Transferring Controller Handoff.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−4−6, Receiving Controller Handoff.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−4−9, Prearranged Coordination. 2−6−5. DISSEMINATING OFFICIAL WEATH-
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−4−10, En Route Fourth Line Data
Block Usage. ER INFORMATION
k. En Route Fourth Line Data Transfer TERMINAL. Observed elements of weather informa-
tion must be disseminated as follows:
1. The inclusion of a NAVAID, waypoint, or /F
a. General weather information, such as “large
in the fourth line data indicates that the pilot has been
breaks in the overcast,” “visibility lowering to the
authorized to deviate for weather and must rejoin the
south,” or similar statements which do not include
route at the next NAVAID or waypoint in the route of
specific values, and any elements derived directly
flight.
from instruments, pilots, or radar may be transmitted
REFERENCE− to pilots or other ATC facilities without consulting the
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−4−10, En Route Fourth Line Data
Block Usage.
weather reporting station.
EXAMPLE− b. Specific values, such as ceiling and visibility,
“Deviation twenty degrees right approved, when able may be transmitted if obtained by one of the
proceed direct O’Neill VORTAC and advise.” In this case, following means:

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
1. You are properly certificated and acting as a. Controllers must broadcast a hazardous inflight
official weather observer for the elements being weather advisory on all frequencies, except emergen-
reported. cy frequency, upon receipt of hazardous weather
information. Controllers are required to disseminate
NOTE−
USAF controllers do not serve as official weather data based on the operational impact on the sector or
observers. area of control jurisdiction. Pilots requesting
additional information must be directed to contact the
2. You have obtained the information from the nearest Flight Service.
official observer for the elements being reported.
NOTE−
3. The weather report was composed or verified The inclusion of the type and number of weather advisory
by the weather station. responsible for the hazardous inflight weather advisory is
optional.
4. The information is obtained from a FAA PHRASEOLOGY−
approved automation surface weather system. ATTENTION ALL AIRCRAFT. HAZARDOUS WEATHER
INFORMATION (SIGMET, Convective SIGMET,
c. Differences between weather elements ob- AIRMET, Urgent Pilot Weather Report (UUA), or Center
served from the tower and those reported by the Weather Advisory (CWA), Number or Numbers) FOR
weather station must be reported to the official (specific weather phenomenon) WITHIN (geographical
observer for the element concerned. area), AVAILABLE ON FLIGHT SERVICE
FREQUENCIES.
2−6−6. HAZARDOUS INFLIGHT WEATHER b. Terminal facilities have the option to limit
ADVISORY hazardous weather information broadcasts as fol-
lows: Tower cab and approach control facilities may
Controllers must advise pilots of hazardous weather opt to broadcast hazardous weather information alerts
that may impact operations within 150 NM of their only when any part of the area described is within 50
sector or area of jurisdiction. Hazardous weather NM of the airspace under their jurisdiction.
information contained in the advisories includes REFERENCE−
Airmen’s Meteorological Information (AIRMET), AIM, Chapter 7, Section 1, Meteorology, Para 7−1−5 through Para
7−1−7.
Significant Meteorological Information (SIGMET),
Convective SIGMET (WST), Urgent Pilot Weather c. EN ROUTE. ERAM. Controllers must electron-
Reports (UUA), and Center Weather Advisories ically acknowledge hazardous weather information
(CWA). Facilities must review alert messages to messages after appropriate action has been taken.
determine the geographical area and operational NOTE−
impact of hazardous weather information. Advisories EN ROUTE. While hazardous weather information is
are not required if aircraft on your frequency(s) will commonly distributed via the SIGMET View, it is possible
not be affected. to receive the information via the GI View.

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 7. Altimeter Settings
2−7−1. CURRENT SETTINGS is using and the pressure in the local area and better enable
him/her to choose a more advantageous setting within the
a. Current altimeter settings must be obtained limitations of 14 CFR Section 91.121.
from direct-reading instruments or directly from
2. TERMINAL. To all departures. Unless spe-
weather reporting stations.
cifically requested by the pilot, the altimeter setting
REFERENCE− need not be issued to local aircraft operators who have
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Chapter 2, Section 10, Wind/Altimeter
Information. requested this omission in writing or to scheduled air
carriers.
b. If a pilot requests the altimeter setting in
REFERENCE−
millibars, ask the nearest weather reporting station FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−9−1, Departure Information.
for the equivalent millibar setting.
3. TERMINAL. To arriving aircraft on initial
c. USAF/USA. Use the term “Estimated Altim- contact or as soon as possible thereafter. The tower
eter” for altimeter settings reported or received as may omit the altimeter if the aircraft is sequenced or
estimated. vectored to the airport by the approach control having
REFERENCE− jurisdiction at that facility.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−9−1, Departure Information. REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−10−1, Landing Information. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−7−10, Approach Information.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−7−10, Approach Information. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−10−2, Approach Information.
4. EN ROUTE. For the destination airport to
2−7−2. ALTIMETER SETTING ISSUANCE arriving aircraft, approximately 50 miles from the
BELOW LOWEST USABLE FL destination, if an approach control facility does not
a. TERMINAL. Identify the source of an altimeter serve the airport.
setting when issued for a location other than the 5. In addition to the altimeter setting provided
aircraft’s departure or destination airport. on initial contact, issue changes in altimeter setting to
b. EN ROUTE. Identify the source of all altimeter aircraft executing a nonprecision instrument
settings when issued. approach as frequently as practical when the official
weather report includes the remarks “pressure falling
PHRASEOLOGY− rapidly.”
(If the altimeter is one hour old or less),
THE (facility name) ALTIMETER (setting). d. If the altimeter setting must be obtained by the
pilot of an arriving aircraft from another source,
or instruct the pilot to obtain the altimeter setting from
that source.
(If the altimeter is more than one hour old),
NOTE−
THE (facility name) ALTIMETER (setting) MORE THAN
1. The destination altimeter setting, whether from a local
ONE HOUR OLD.
or remote source, is the setting upon which the instrument
c. Issue the altimeter setting: approach is predicated.
2. Approach charts for many locations specify the source
1. To en route aircraft at least one time while
of altimeter settings as non−FAA facilities, such as
operating in your area of jurisdiction. Issue the setting
UNICOMs.
for the nearest reporting station along the aircraft’s
route of flight: e. When issuing clearance to descend below the
lowest usable flight level, advise the pilot of the
NOTE−
altimeter setting of the weather reporting station
14 CFR Section 91.121(1) requires that the pilot set his/her
altimeter to the setting of a station along his/her route of nearest the point the aircraft will descend below that
flight within 100 miles of the aircraft if one is available. flight level. Local directives may delegate this
However, issuance of the setting of an adjacent station responsibility to an alternate sector when Optimized
during periods that a steep gradient exists will serve to Profile Descents (OPD) commence in sectors
inform the pilot of the difference between the setting he/she consisting entirely of Class A airspace.
Altimeter Settings 2−7−1

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
f. Department of Defense (DOD) aircraft that are PHRASEOLOGY−

authorized to operate in restricted areas, MOAs, and ALTIMETER (setting), SET THREE ONE ZERO ZERO
ATC assigned airspace areas on “single altimeter UNTIL REACHING THE FINAL APPROACH FIX.
settings” (CFR Exemption 2861A), must be issued
altimeter settings in accordance with standard or
procedures while the aircraft are en route to and from
the restricted areas, MOAs, and ATC assigned ALTIMETER (setting), SET THREE ONE ZERO ZERO
PRIOR TO REACHING (mandatory/crossing altitude or
airspace areas.
1,500 feet AGL, whichever is lower).
NOTE− NOTE−
The DOD is responsible for conducting all “single 1. Aircraft with Mode C altitude reporting will be
altimeter setting” operations within the boundaries of displayed on the controller’s radar scope with a uniform
MOAs, restricted areas, and ATCAAs. Under an LOA, the altitude offset above the assigned altitude. With an actual
DOD provides safe altitude clearance between DOD altimeter of 31.28 inches Hg, the Mode C equipped aircraft
aircraft and other aircraft operating within, above, and will show 3,300 feet when assigned 3,000 feet. This will
below the MOAs, restricted areas, and ATCAAs with occur unless local directives authorize entering the
appropriate clearance of terrain. altimeter setting 31.00 into the computer system regardless
REFERENCE− of the actual barometric pressure.
FAA Order JO 7610.4, Appendix 22, Grant of Exemption No. 2861A -
Single Altimeter Setting For Frequent Transit of FL180. 2. Flight Standards will implement high barometric
pressure procedures by NOTAM defining the geographic
g. When the barometric pressure is greater than
area affected.
31.00 inches Hg., issue the altimeter setting and:
3. Airports unable to accurately measure barometric
1. En Route/Arrivals. Advise pilots to remain pressures above 31.00 inches Hg. will report the
set on altimeter 31.00 until reaching final approach barometric pressure as “missing” or “in excess of
segment. 31.00 inches of Hg.” Flight operations to or from those
airports are restricted to VFR weather conditions.
2. Departures. Advise pilots to set altimeter
REFERENCE−
31.00 prior to reaching any mandatory/crossing AIM, Para 7−2−2, Procedures.
altitude or 1,500 feet AGL, whichever is lower. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−10−1, Landing Information.
2−7−2 Altimeter Settings

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 8. Runway Visibility Reporting− Terminal
2−8−1. FURNISH RVR VALUES not representative of the associated runway, the data
must not be used.
Where RVR equipment is operational, irrespective of
subsequent operation or nonoperation of navigational b. Issue both mid-point and roll-out RVR when the
or visual aids for the application of RVR as a takeoff value of either is less than 2,000 feet and the
or landing minima, furnish the values for the runway touchdown RVR is greater than the mid−point or
in use in accordance with paragraph 2−8−3, Termi- roll−out RVR.
nology.
c. Local control must issue the current RVR to
NOTE− each aircraft prior to landing or departure in
Readout capability of different type/model RVR equipment
varies. For example, older equipment minimum readout
accordance with subparagraphs a and b.
value is 600 feet. Newer equipment may have minimum
readout capability as low as 100 feet. Readout value
2−8−3. TERMINOLOGY
increments also may differ. Older equipment have
minimum readout increments of 200 feet. New equipment a. Provide RVR information by stating the
increments below 800 feet are 100 feet. runway, the abbreviation RVR, and the indicated
REFERENCE− value. When issued along with other weather
FAA Order 6560.10, Runway Visual Range (RVR).
FAA Order 6750.24, Instrument Landing System (ILS) and Ancillary elements, transmit these values in the normal
Electronic Component Configuration & Perf. Req. sequence used for weather reporting.
EXAMPLE−
2−8−2. ARRIVAL/DEPARTURE RUNWAY “Runway One Four RVR Two Thousand Four Hundred.”
VISIBILITY
b. When two or more RVR systems serve the
a. Issue current touchdown RVR for the runway(s) runway in use, report the indicated values for the
in use: different systems in terms of touchdown, mid, and
1. When prevailing visibility is 1 mile or less rollout as appropriate.
regardless of the value indicated. EXAMPLE−
2. When RVR indicates a reportable value “Runway Two Two Left RVR Two Thousand, rollout
regardless of the prevailing visibility. One Thousand Eight Hundred.”
NOTE− “Runway Two Seven Right RVR One Thousand,

Reportable values are RVR 6,000 feet or less. mid Eight Hundred, rollout Six Hundred.”
3. When it is determined from a reliable source c. When there is a requirement to issue an RVR
that the indicated RVR value differs by more than value and a visibility condition greater or less than the
400 feet from the actual conditions within the area of reportable values of the equipment is indicated, state
the transmissometer, the RVR data is not acceptable the condition as “MORE THAN” or “LESS THAN”
and must not be reported. the appropriate minimum or maximum readable
NOTE− value.
A reliable source is considered to be a certified weather
observer, automated weather observing system, air traffic EXAMPLE−
controller, flight service specialist, or pilot. “Runway Three Six RVR more than Six Thousand.”
4. When the observer has reliable reports, or has “Runway Niner RVR One Thousand, rollout less than
otherwise determined that the instrument values are Six Hundred.”
Runway Visibility Reporting− Terminal 2−8−1

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
d. When a readout indicates a rapidly varying EXAMPLE−

visibility condition (1,000 feet or more for RVR), “Runway Two Four RVR Two Thousand, variable
report the current value followed by the range of One Thousand Six Hundred to Three Thousand.”
visibility variance. REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−8−1, Furnish RVR Values.
2−8−2 Runway Visibility Reporting− Terminal

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 9. Automatic Terminal Information

Service Procedures
2−9−1. APPLICATION 2. When runway braking action reports are

received that indicate runway braking is worse than
Use the ATIS, where available, to provide advance
that which is included in the current ATIS broadcast.
noncontrol airport/terminal area and meteorological
information to aircraft. 3. When there is a change in any other pertinent
a. Identify each ATIS message by a phonetic letter data, such as runway change, instrument approach in
code word at both the beginning and the end of the use, new or canceled NOTAMs/PIREPs update, etc.
message. Automated systems will have the phonetic b. When a pilot acknowledges that he/she has
letter code automatically appended. Exceptions may received the ATIS broadcast, controllers may omit
be made where omissions are required because of those items contained in the broadcasts if they are
special programs or equipment. current. Rapidly changing conditions will be issued
1. Each alphabet letter phonetic word must be by ATC, and the ATIS will contain the following:
used sequentially, except as authorized in subpara- EXAMPLE−
graph a2, beginning with “Alpha,” ending with “Latest ceiling/visibility/altimeter/wind/(other condi-
“Zulu,” and repeated without regard to the beginning tions) will be issued by approach control/tower.”
of a new day. Identify the first resumed broadcast c. Controllers must ensure that pilots receive the
message with “Alpha” or the first assigned alphabet most current pertinent information by taking the
letter word in the event of a broadcast interruption of following actions, as applicable:
more than 12 hours.
1. When a pilot does not state the appropriate
2. Specific sequential portions of the alphabet ATIS code on initial contact, ask the pilot to confirm
may be assigned between facilities or an arrival and receipt of the current ATIS information.
departure ATIS when designated by a letter of
agreement or facility directive. EXAMPLE−
“Verify you have information CHARLIE.”
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 10−4−1, Automatic Terminal Information
“Information CHARLIE current. Advise when you have
Service (ATIS). CHARLIE.”
b. The ATIS recording must be reviewed for 2. When a pilot is unable to receive the ATIS,
completeness, accuracy, speech rate, and proper issue the current weather, runway in use, approach/
enunciation before being transmitted. departure information, pertinent NOTAMs, and
airport conditions.
c. Arrival and departure messages, when broad-
cast separately, need only contain information EXAMPLE−
appropriate for that operation. “Wind two five zero at one zero. Visibility one zero. Ceiling
four thousand five hundred broken. Temperature three four.
Dew point two eight. Altimeter three zero one zero.
2−9−2. OPERATING PROCEDURES ILS−DME Runway Two Seven Approach in use. Departing
Maintain an ATIS message that reflects the most Runway Two Two Right. Hazardous Weather Information
for (geographical area) available on Flight Service
current arrival and departure information.
Frequencies. Braking Action advisories are in effect.”
a. Make a new recording when any of the
d. Advise aircraft of changes to the ATIS code by
following occur:
broadcasting the change on all appropriate frequen-
1. Upon receipt of any new official weather cies. The broadcast must include changes to pertinent
regardless of whether there is or is not a change in operational information, when known, that necessi-
values. tated the ATIS change.
Automatic Terminal Information Service Procedures 2−9−1

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
EXAMPLE− observation purposes at those locations that are so

“Attention all aircraft, information ALPHA current.” equipped. The ASOS Operator Interface Device (OID)
displays the magnetic wind as “MAG WND” in the
“Attention all aircraft, information BRAVO current. auxiliary data location in the lower left−hand portion of the
MICROBURST advisories in effect.” screen. Other OID displayed winds are true and are not to
be used for operational purposes.
“Attention all aircraft, information CHARLIE current. REFERENCE−
Numerous flocks of ducks in the immediate vicinity of FAA Order JO 7900.5, Surface Weather Observing Table 3−2.
(name) airport, altitude unknown.” FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 10−2−1, Position Duties and
Responsibilities.
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−9−3, Content. 5. Instrument approach and runway in use.
NOTE− b. Man−Portable Air Defense Systems
1. No additional acknowledgement is required when a (MANPADS) alert and advisory. Specify the nature
controller broadcasts information subsequent to the pilot’s
and location of threat or incident, whether reported or
initial acknowledgement of the ATIS. Requiring each
aircraft to acknowledge receipt of pertinent changes observed and by whom, time (if known), and
(broadcast) after initial confirmation of the ATIS could notification to pilots to advise ATC if they need to
significantly impact workload. divert.
2. Pertinent conditions are those that have a clear decisive EXAMPLE−
relevance to the safety of air traffic. As noted in paragraph 1. “MANPADS alert. Exercise extreme caution.
2−1−2, Duty Priority, there are many variables involved MANPADS threat reported by TSA, Chicago area.”
that make it virtually impossible to develop a standard list “Advise on initial contact if you want to divert.”
of changes that are classified as relevant to every 2. “MANPADS alert. Exercise extreme caution.
conceivable situation. Each set of circumstances must be MANPADS attack observed by tower one−half mile
evaluated on its own merit, and when more than one action northwest of airfield at one−two−five−zero Zulu.” “Advise
is required, controllers must exercise their best judgment on initial contact if you want to divert.”
based on the facts and circumstances known to them.
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 10−2−13, MANPADS Alert.
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 2−1−10, Handling MANPADS Incidents.
2−9−3. CONTENT
c. Terminal facilities must include reported
a. Include the following in ATIS broadcast as unauthorized laser illumination events on the ATIS
appropriate: broadcast for one hour following the last report.
1. Airport/facility name. Include the time, location, altitude, color, and
direction of the laser as reported by the pilot.
2. Phonetic letter code.
PHRASEOLOGY−
3. Time of the latest weather sequence (UTC). UNAUTHORIZED LASER ILLUMINATION EVENT,
4. Weather information consisting of: (UTC time), (location), (altitude), (color), (direction).
EXAMPLE−
(a) Wind direction and velocity. UNAUTHORIZED LASER ILLUMINATION EVENT, AT
(b) Visibility. 0100z, 8 MILE FINAL RUNWAY 18R AT 3,000 FEET,
GREEN LASER FROM THE SOUTHWEST.
(c) Obstructions to vision. REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 10−2−14, Unauthorized Laser
(d) Present weather consisting of: sky condi- Illumination of Aircraft.
tion, temperature, dew point, altimeter, a density FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 2−1−29, Reporting Unauthorized Laser
altitude advisory when appropriate, and other Illumination of Aircraft.
pertinent remarks included in the official weather d. The ceiling/sky condition, visibility, and
observation. Always include weather observation obstructions to vision may be omitted if the ceiling is
remarks of lightning, cumulonimbus, and towering above 5,000 feet and the visibility is more than
cumulus clouds. 5 miles.
NOTE− EXAMPLE−
ASOS/AWOS is to be considered the primary source of A remark may be made, “The weather is better than
wind direction, velocity, and altimeter data for weather five thousand and five.”
2−9−2 Automatic Terminal Information Service Procedures

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
e. Instrument/visual approach/es in use. Specify j. Runway Condition Codes “3/3/3” and the
landing runway/s unless the runway is that to which statement “Slippery When Wet.”
the instrument approach is made. Before advertising EXAMPLE−
non-precision approaches, priority should be given to “Runway (number) condition codes three, three, three,
available precision, then APV approaches. Slippery When Wet at one two five five Zulu.”
f. Departure runway/s (to be given only if different NOTE−

A Slippery When Wet FICON NOTAM indicates a runway
from landing runway/s or in the instance of a
has failed a friction survey, for example, due to excessive
“departure only” ATIS). rubber build−up. Airport Operators will notify ATCT
operational personnel of this concern and issue a FICON
g. Taxiway closures which affect the entrance or
NOTAM prior to the expected arrival of rain. The FICON
exit of active runways, other closures which impact NOTAM will be canceled when the rain has ended and the
airport operations, other NOTAMs and PIREPs runway environment is determined to be dry by the Airport
pertinent to operations in the terminal area. Inform Operator.
pilots of where hazardous weather is occurring and
k. Runway Condition codes “X/X/X.” When a
how the information may be obtained. Include
FICON NOTAM indicates these values, the
available information of known bird activity.
statement “Runway Condition Codes Missing” must
REFERENCE− be included on the ATIS broadcast.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, 2−1−23, Bird Activity Information.
EXAMPLE−
h. When a runway length has been temporarily or “Runway (number) condition codes missing at one three
permanently shortened, ensure that the word four seven Zulu.”
“WARNING” prefaces the runway number, and that NOTE−
the word “shortened” is also included in the text of the A FICON NOTAM may be generated with “X/X/X” instead
message. of Runway Condition Codes. This will occur when the
NOTAM user interface is not functioning correctly;
1. Available runway length, as stated in the however, a FICON NOTAM is still present.
NOTAM, must be included in the ATIS broadcast.
l. Other optional information as local conditions
This information must be broadcast for the duration
dictate in coordination with ATC. This may include
of the construction project.
such items as VFR arrival frequencies, temporary
2. For permanently shortened runways, facilit- airport conditions, LAHSO operations being con−
ies must continue to broadcast this information for a ducted, or other perishable items that may appear
minimum of 30 days or until the Chart Supplement only for a matter of hours or a few days on the ATIS
U.S. has been updated, whichever is longer. message.
PHRASEOLOGY− m. When all 3 runway segments (touchdown,

WARNING, RUNWAY (number) HAS BEEN midpoint, and rollout) are reporting a code of 6, the
SHORTENED, (length in feet) FEET AVAILABLE. Airport Operator will notify ATC that runway
condition codes are no longer reportable.
EXAMPLE−
“Warning, Runway One-Zero has been shortened, n. Low level wind shear/microburst when repor-
niner-thousand eight hundred and fifty feet available.” ted by pilots or is detected on a wind shear detection
i. Runway Condition Codes (RwyCC) when system.
provided. Include the time of the report. REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−1−8, Low Level Wind
PHRASEOLOGY− Shear/Microburst Advisories.
RUNWAY (number) condition codes (first value, second o. A statement which advises the pilot to read back
value, third value) AT (time), instructions to hold short of a runway. The air traffic
EXAMPLE− manager may elect to remove this requirement
“Runway Two Seven, condition codes two, two, one at one 60 days after implementation provided that removing
zero one eight Zulu.” the statement from the ATIS does not result in
REFERENCE−
increased requests from aircraft for read back of hold
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−3−1, Landing Area Condition. short instructions.
Automatic Terminal Information Service Procedures 2−9−3

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
p. Instructions for the pilot to acknowledge receipt four thousand five hundred broken. Temperature three four.
of the ATIS message by informing the controller on Dew point two eight. Altimeter three zero one zero.
initial contact. ILS−DME Runway Two Seven Approach in use. Departing
Runway Two Two Right. Hazardous Weather Information
EXAMPLE−
for (geographical area) available on Flight Service
“Boston Tower Information Delta. One four zero zero Zulu.
Frequencies. Advise on initial contact you have Delta.”
Wind two five zero at one zero. Visibility one zero. Ceiling
2−9−4 Automatic Terminal Information Service Procedures

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 10. Team Position Responsibilities
2−10−1. EN ROUTE OR OCEANIC SECTOR (f) Assist the radar associate position in
TEAM POSITION RESPONSIBILITIES coordination when needed.
a. En Route or Oceanic Sector Team Concept and (g) Scan radar display. Correlate with flight
Intent: There are no absolute divisions of progress strip information or EDST data, as
responsibilities regarding position operations. The applicable.
tasks to be completed remain the same whether one,
(h) Ensure computer entries are completed on
two, or three people are working positions within a
instructions or clearances you issue or receive.
sector. The team, as a whole, has responsibility for the
safe and efficient operation of that sector. (i) Ensure strip marking and/or electronic
flight data entries are completed on instructions or
b. Terms. The following terms will be used in
clearances you issue or receive.
en route facilities for the purpose of standardization:
(j) Adjust equipment at radar position to be
1. Sector. The area of control responsibility
usable by all members of the team.
(delegated airspace) of the en route sector team, and
the team as a whole. (k) The radar controller must not be respon-
sible for G/G communications when precluded by
2. Radar Position (R). That position which is in
VSCS split functionality.
direct communication with the aircraft and which
uses radar information as the primary means of (l) At ERAM facilities, ensure the situation
separation. display accurately reflects the status of all SAAs that
impact their area of control responsibility.
3. Radar Associate (RA). That position some-
times referred to as “D−Side” or “Manual 2. Radar Associate Position:
Controller.”
(a) Ensure separation.
4. Radar Coordinator Position (RC). That
(b) Where available, use EDST to plan,
position sometimes referred to as “Coordinator,”
organize, and expedite the flow of traffic.
“Tracker,” or “Handoff Controller” (En Route).
(c) Initiate control instructions.
5. Radar Flight Data (FD). That position
commonly referred to as “Assistant Controller” or (d) Operate interphones.
“A−Side” position.
(e) Accept and initiate nonautomated hand-
6. Nonradar Position (NR). That position which offs, and ensure radar position is made aware of the
is usually in direct communication with the aircraft actions.
and which uses nonradar procedures as the primary
means of separation. (f) Assist the radar position by accepting or
initiating automated handoffs which are necessary for
c. Primary responsibilities of the En Route Sector the continued smooth operation of the sector, and
Team Positions: ensure that the radar position is made immediately
aware of any action taken.
1. Radar Position:
(g) Coordinate, including pointouts.
(h) Monitor radios when not performing
(b) Initiate control instructions.
higher priority duties.
(c) Monitor and operate radios.
(i) Scan flight progress strips and/or EDST
(d) Accept and initiate automated handoffs. data. Correlate with radar data.
(e) Assist the radar associate position with (j) Manage flight progress strips and/or
nonautomated handoff actions when needed. electronic flight data.
Team Position Responsibilities 2−10−1

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
(k) Ensure computer entries are completed on (e) Request/receive and disseminate weather,
instructions issued or received. Enter instructions NOTAMs, NAS status, traffic management, and
issued or received by the radar position when aware Special Use Airspace status messages.
of those instructions. (f) Manually prepare flight progress strips
(l) As appropriate, ensure strip marking when automation systems are not available.
and/or EDST data entries are completed on (g) Enter flight data into computer.
instructions issued or received, and record instruc-
tions issued or received by the radar position when (h) Forward flight data via computer.
aware of them. (i) Assist facility/sector in meeting situation
(m) Adjust equipment at radar associate objectives.
position to be usable by all members of the team. 5. En Route Nonradar Position:
(n) Where authorized, perform EDST data (a) Ensure separation.
entries to keep the activation status of designated
Airspace Configuration Elements current. (b) Initiate control instructions.
(o) At ERAM facilities, scan the radar (c) Monitor and operate radios.
associate display for electronically distributed (d) Accept and initiate transfer of control,
information, evaluate the information, and take communications, and flight data.
action as appropriate.
(e) Ensure computer entries are completed on
3. Radar Coordinator Position: instructions or clearances issued or received.
(a) Perform interfacility/intrafacility/sector/ (f) Ensure strip marking is completed on
position coordination of traffic actions. instructions or clearances issued or received.
(b) Advise the radar position and the radar (g) Facilities utilizing nonradar positions may
associate position of sector actions required to modify the standards contained in the radar associate,
accomplish overall objectives. radar coordinator, and radar flight data sections to
accommodate facility/sector needs, i.e., nonradar
(c) Perform any of the functions of the
coordinator, nonradar data positions.
en route sector team which will assist in meeting
situation objectives.
2−10−2. TERMINAL RADAR/NONRADAR
(d) The RC controller must not be responsible TEAM POSITION RESPONSIBILITIES
for monitoring or operating radios when precluded by
VSCS split functionality. a. Terminal Radar Team Concept and Intent:
There are no absolute divisions of responsibilities
NOTE− regarding position operations. The tasks to be
The Radar Position has the responsibility for managing the
completed remain the same whether one, two, or
overall sector operations, including aircraft separation
and traffic flows. The Radar Coordinator Position assumes three people are working positions within a
responsibility for managing traffic flows and the Radar facility/sector. The team, as a whole, has
Position retains responsibility for aircraft separation when responsibility for the safe and efficient operation of
the Radar Coordinator Position is staffed. that facility/sector.
4. Radar Flight Data: b. Terms. The following terms will be used in
terminal facilities for the purposes of standardization.
(a) Operate interphone.
1. Facility/Sector. The area of control responsi-
(b) Assist Radar Associate Position in
bility (delegated airspace) of the radar team, and the
managing flight progress strips.
team as a whole.
(c) Receive/process and distribute flight
2. Radar Position (R). That position which is in
progress strips.
direct communication with the aircraft and which
(d) Ensure flight data processing equipment uses radar information as the primary means of
is operational, except for EDST capabilities. separation.
2−10−2 Team Position Responsibilities

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
3. Radar Associate Position (RA). That position the continued smooth operation of the facility/sector
commonly referred to as “Handoff Controller” or and ensure that the Radar Position is made
“Radar Data Controller.” immediately aware of any actions taken.
4. Radar Coordinator Position (RC). That (g) Coordinate, including point outs.
position commonly referred to as “Coordinator,” (h) Scan flight progress strips. Correlate with
“Tracker,” “Sequencer,” or “Overhead.” radar data.
5. Radar Flight Data (FD). That position (i) Manage flight progress strips.
commonly referred to as “Flight Data.”
(j) Ensure computer entries are completed on
6. Nonradar Position (NR). That position which instructions issued or received, and enter instructions
is usually in direct communication with the aircraft issued or received by the Radar Position when aware
and which uses nonradar procedures as the primary of those instructions.
means of separation.
(k) Ensure strip marking is completed on
c. Primary Responsibilities of the Terminal Radar instructions issued or received, and write instructions
Team Positions: issued or received by the Radar Position when aware
1. Radar Position: of them.
(a) Ensure separation. (l) Adjust equipment at Radar Associate
Position to be usable by all members of the Radar
(b) Initiate control instructions. Team.
(c) Monitor and operate radios. 3. Radar Coordinator Position:
(d) Accept and initiate automated handoffs. (a) Perform interfacility/sector/position
(e) Assist the Radar Associate Position with coordination of traffic actions.
nonautomated handoff actions when needed. (b) Advise the Radar Position and the Radar
(f) Assist the Radar Associate Position in Associate Position of facility/sector actions required
coordination when needed. to accomplish overall objectives.
(g) Scan radar display. Correlate with flight (c) Perform any of the functions of the Radar
progress strip information. Team which will assist in meeting situation
objectives.
(h) Ensure computer entries are completed on
NOTE−
instructions or clearances you issue or receive. The Radar Position has the responsibility of managing the
(i) Ensure strip marking is completed on overall sector operations, including aircraft separation
instructions or clearances you issue or receive. and traffic flows. The Radar Coordinator Position assumes
responsibility for managing traffic flows and the Radar
(j) Adjust equipment at Radar Position to be Position retains responsibility for aircraft separation when
usable by all members of the team. the Radar Coordinator Position is staffed.
2. Radar Associate Position: 4. Radar Flight Data:
(a) Ensure separation. (a) Operate interphones.
(b) Initiate control instructions. (b) Process and forward flight plan
information.
(c) Operate interphones.
(c) Compile statistical data.
(d) Maintain awareness of facility/sector
activities. (d) Assist facility/sector in meeting situation
objectives.
(e) Accept and initiate nonautomated
handoffs. 5. Terminal Nonradar Position:
(f) Assist the Radar Position by accepting or (a) Ensure separation.

initiating automated handoffs which are necessary for (b) Initiate control instructions.

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
(c) Monitor and operate radios. (a) Ensure separation.

(d) Accept and initiate transfer of control, (b) Initiate control instructions.
communications and flight data. (c) Monitor and operate communications
(e) Ensure computer entries are completed on equipment.
instructions or clearances issued or received. (d) Utilize tower radar display(s).
(f) Ensure strip marking is completed on (e) Utilize alphanumerics.
instructions or clearances issued or received. (f) Assist the Tower Associate Position with
(g) Facilities utilizing nonradar positions may coordination.
modify the standards contained in the radar associate, (g) Scan tower cab environment.
radar coordinator, and radar flight data sections to
accommodate facility/sector needs, i.e., nonradar (h) Ensure computer entries are completed
coordinator, nonradar data positions. for instructions or clearances issued or received.
(i) Ensure strip marking is completed for
instructions or clearances issued or received.
2−10−3. TOWER TEAM POSITION
RESPONSIBILITIES (j) Process and forward flight plan
information.
a. Tower Team Concept and Intent: There are no
absolute divisions of responsibilities regarding (k) Perform any functions of the Tower Team
position operations. The tasks to be completed which will assist in meeting situation objectives.
remain the same whether one, two, or three people are 2. Tower Associate Position(s):
working positions within a facility/sector. The team,
as a whole, has responsibility for the safe and efficient
operation of that facility/sector. (b) Operate interphones.
b. Terms: The following terms will be used in (c) Maintain awareness of tower cab
terminal facilities for the purpose of standardization. activities.
1. Tower Cab: The area of control responsibility (d) Utilize alphanumerics.

(delegated airspace and/or airport surface areas) of (e) Utilize tower radar display(s).
the tower team, and the team as a whole. (f) Assist Tower Position by accepting/
2. Tower Position(s) (LC or GC): That position initiating coordination for the continued smooth
which is in direct communications with the aircraft operation of the tower cab and ensure that the Tower
and ensures separation of aircraft in/on the area of Position is made immediately aware of any actions
jurisdiction. taken.
3. Tower Associate Position(s): That position (g) Manage flight plan information.
commonly referred to as “Local Assist,” “Ground (h) Ensure computer entries are completed
Assist,” “Local Associate,” or “Ground Associate.” for instructions issued or received and enter
4. Tower Cab Coordinator Position (CC): That instructions issued or received by a Tower Position.
position commonly referred to as “Coordinator.” (i) Ensure strip marking is completed for
instructions issued or received and enter instructions
5. Flight Data (FD): That position commonly
issued or received by a Tower Position.
referred to as “Flight Data.”
3. Tower Coordinator Position:
6. Clearance Delivery (CD): That position
commonly referred to as “Clearance.” (a) Perform interfacility/position coordina-
tion for traffic actions.
c. Primary responsibilities of the Tower Team
(b) Advise the tower and the Tower Associate
Positions:
Position(s) of tower cab actions required to
1. Tower Position(s) (LC or GC): accomplish overall objectives.
2−10−4 Team Position Responsibilities

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
(c) Perform any of the functions of the Tower (f) Utilize alphanumerics.
Team which will assist in meeting situation
5. Clearance Delivery:
objectives.
(a) Operate communications equipment.
NOTE−
The Tower Positions have the responsibility for aircraft (b) Process and forward flight plan
separation and traffic flows. The Tower Coordinator information.
Position assumes responsibility for managing traffic flows
and the Tower Positions retain responsibility for aircraft (c) Issue clearances and ensure accuracy of
separation when the Tower Coordinator Position is staffed. pilot read back.
4. Flight Data: (d) Assist tower cab in meeting situation
objectives.
(a) Operate interphones.
(e) Operate tower equipment.
(b) Process and forward flight plan
information. (f) Utilize alphanumerics.
NOTE−
(c) Compile statistical data.
The Tower Positions have the responsibility for aircraft
(d) Assist tower cab in meeting situation separation and traffic flows. The Tower Coordinator
objectives. Position assumes responsibility for managing traffic flows
and the Tower Positions retain responsibility for aircraft
(e) Observe and report weather information. separation when the Tower Coordinator Position is staffed.

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Chapter 3. Airport Traffic Control− Terminal

Section 1. General
3−1−1. PROVIDE SERVICE REFERENCE−

FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 1−1−11, Constraints Governing
Supplements and Procedural Deviations.
Provide airport traffic control service based only FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 10−1−7, Use of Active Runways.
upon observed or known traffic and airport
conditions. a. Ground control must obtain approval from local
control before authorizing an aircraft or a vehicle to
NOTE−
cross or use any portion of an active runway. The
When operating in accordance with CFRs, it is the
responsibility of the pilot to avoid collision with other
coordination must include the point/intersection at
aircraft. However, due to the limited space around terminal the runway where the operation will occur.
locations, traffic information can aid pilots in avoiding PHRASEOLOGY−
collision between aircraft operating within Class B, CROSS (runway) AT (point/intersection).
Class C, or Class D surface areas and the terminal radar
service areas, and transiting aircraft operating in b. When the local controller authorizes another
proximity to terminal locations. controller to cross an active runway, the local
controller must verbally specify the runway to be
3−1−2. PREVENTIVE CONTROL crossed and the point/intersection at the runway
where the operation will occur preceded by the word
Provide preventive control service only to aircraft “cross.”
operating in accordance with a letter of agreement.
PHRASEOLOGY−
When providing this service, issue advice or CROSS (runway) AT (point/intersection).
instructions only if a situation develops which
requires corrective action. c. The ground controller must advise the local
controller when the coordinated runway operation is
NOTE−
1. Preventive control differs from other airport traffic complete. This may be accomplished verbally or
control in that repetitious, routine approval of pilot action through visual aids as specified by a facility directive.
is eliminated. Controllers intervene only when they
d. USA/USAF/USN NOT APPLICABLE. Autho-
observe a traffic conflict developing.
rization for aircraft/vehicles to taxi/proceed on or
2. Airfield Operating instructions, Memorandums of along an active runway, for purposes other than
Understanding, or other specific directives used exclus- crossing, must be provided via direct communica-
ively by the Department of Defense (DOD) satisfies the tions on the appropriate local control frequency. This
criteria in paragraph 3−1−2 above.
authorization may be provided on the ground control
frequency after coordination with local control is
3−1−3. USE OF ACTIVE RUNWAYS completed for those operations specifically described
in a facility directive.
The local controller has primary responsibility for
operations conducted on the active runway and must NOTE−
control the use of those runways. Positive coordina- The USA, USAF, and USN establish local operating
tion and control is required as follows: procedures in accordance with, respectively, USA, USAF,
and USN directives.
NOTE−
Exceptions may be authorized only as provided in e. The local controller must coordinate with the
paragraph 1−1−11, Constraints Governing Supplements ground controller before using a runway not
and Procedural Deviations, and FAA Order JO 7210.3, previously designated as active.
Facility Operation and Administration, paragraph
REFERENCE−
10−1−7, Use of Active Runways, where justified by FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−1−4, Coordination Between Local and
extraordinary circumstances at specific locations. Ground Controllers.
General 3−1−1
JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
3−1−4. COORDINATION BETWEEN LOCAL NOTE−

AND GROUND CONTROLLERS “PROCEED AS REQUESTED” is not approved phraseol-
ogy for instructing aircraft, vehicles, equipment, or
Local and ground controllers must exchange personnel to cross or operate on a runway.
information as necessary for the safe and efficient use NOTE−
of airport runways and movement areas. This may be Establishing hold lines/signs is the responsibility of the
accomplished via verbal means, flight progress strips, airport manager. Standards for surface measurements,
other written information, or automation displays. As markings, and signs are contained in the following
a minimum, provide aircraft identification and Advisory Circulars; AC 150/5300−13, Airport Design;
applicable runway/intersection/taxiway information AC 150/5340−1, Standards for Airport Markings, and
AC 150/5340−18, Standards for Airport Sign Systems. The
as follows:
operator is responsible to properly position the aircraft,
vehicle, or equipment at the appropriate hold line/sign or
a. Ground control must notify local control when
designated point. The requirements in paragraph 3−1−12,
a departing aircraft has been taxied to a runway other Visually Scanning Runways, remain valid as appropriate.
than one previously designated as active.
REFERENCE−
REFERENCE− FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−7−4, Runway Proximity.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−1−3, Use of Active Runways. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−8−2, Touch-and-Go or Stop-and-Go or
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 10−1−6, Selecting Active Runways. Low Approach.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−10−10, Altitude Restricted Low
Approach.
b. Ground control must notify local control of any AC 150/5300−13, Airport Design.
aircraft taxied to an intersection for takeoff. This AC 150/5340−1G, Standards for Airport Markings.
notification may be accomplished by verbal means or 14 CFR Section 91.129, Operations in Class D Airspace.
AIM, Para 2−2−3, Obstruction Lights.
by flight progress strips. P/CG Term − Runway in Use/Active Runway/Duty Runway.
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−9−7, Wake Turbulence Separation for
Intersection Departures.
3−1−6. TRAFFIC INFORMATION
c. When the runways in use for landing/departing a. Describe vehicles, equipment, or personnel on
aircraft are not visible from the tower or the aircraft or near the movement area in a manner which will
using them are not visible on radar, advise the assist pilots in recognizing them.
local/ground controller of the aircraft’s location EXAMPLE−
before releasing the aircraft to the other controller. “Mower left of runway two seven.”
“Trucks crossing approach end of runway two five.”
“Workman on taxiway Bravo.”
“Aircraft left of runway one eight.”
3−1−5. VEHICLES/EQUIPMENT/PERSON-
NEL NEAR/ON RUNWAYS b. Describe the relative position of traffic in an
easy to understand manner, such as “to your right” or
a. Vehicles, equipment, and personnel in direct “ahead of you.”
communications with the control tower may be
EXAMPLE−
authorized to operate up to the edge of an active
1. “Traffic, U.S. Air MD−Eighty on downwind leg to your
runway surface when necessary. Provide advisories left.”
as specified in paragraph 3−1−6, Traffic Information, 2. “King Air inbound from outer marker on straight-in
and paragraph 3−7−5, Precision Approach Critical approach to runway one seven.”
Area, as appropriate. 3. “Traffic, Boeing 737 on 2−mile final to the parallel
runway, runway two six right, cleared to land. Caution
PHRASEOLOGY− wake turbulence.”
PROCEED AS REQUESTED; (and if necessary,
additional instructions or information). c. When using a CTRD , you may issue traffic
advisories using the standard radar phraseology prescribed
b. Ensure that the runway to be used is free of all in paragraph 2−1−21, Traffic Advisories.
known ground vehicles, equipment, and personnel
REFERENCE−
before a departing aircraft starts takeoff or a landing FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−10−10, Altitude Restricted Low
aircraft crosses the runway threshold. Approach.
3−1−2 General
6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
3−1−7. POSITION DETERMINATION conditions around the periphery of an airport. It does not
detect wind shear beyond that limitation.
Determine the position of an aircraft, personnel or REFERENCE−
equipment before issuing taxi instructions, takeoff FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 10−3−3, Low Level Wind
clearance, or authorizing personnel, and/or equip- Shear/Microburst Detection Systems.
ment to proceed onto the movement area. (a) If an alert is received, issue the airport
NOTE−
wind and the displayed field boundary wind.
When possible, positions of aircraft, vehicles, equipment PHRASEOLOGY−
and/or personnel may be determined visually or through WIND SHEAR ALERT. AIRPORT WIND (direction) AT
use of a display system. When ATC is unable to determine (velocity). (Location of sensor) BOUNDARY WIND
position visually or via a display system, position reports (direction) AT (velocity).
may be used.
(b) If multiple alerts are received, issue an
advisory that there are wind shear alerts in
3−1−8. LOW LEVEL WIND SHEAR/ two/several/all quadrants. After issuing the advisory,
MICROBURST ADVISORIES issue the airport wind in accordance with paragraph
3−9−1, Departure Information, followed by the field
a. When low level wind shear/microburst is boundary wind most appropriate to the aircraft
reported by pilots, Integrated Terminal Weather operation.
System (ITWS), or detected on wind shear detection
PHRASEOLOGY−
systems such as LLWAS NE++, LLWAS−RS, WSP,
WIND SHEAR ALERTS TWO/SEVERAL/ALL
or TDWR, controllers must issue the alert to all QUADRANTS. AIRPORT WIND (direction) AT (velocity).
arriving and departing aircraft. Continue the alert to (Location of sensor) BOUNDARY WIND (direction) AT
aircraft until it is broadcast on the ATIS and pilots (velocity).
indicate they have received the appropriate ATIS
code. A statement must be included on the ATIS for (c) If requested by the pilot, issue specific
20 minutes following the last report or indication of field boundary wind information even though the
the wind shear/microburst. LLWAS may not be in alert status.
NOTE−
PHRASEOLOGY−
The requirements for issuance of wind information remain
LOW LEVEL WIND SHEAR (or MICROBURST, as
valid as appropriate under this paragraph, paragraph
appropriate) ADVISORIES IN EFFECT.
3−9−1, Departure Information, and paragraph 3−10−1,
NOTE− Landing Information.
Some aircraft are equipped with Predictive Wind Shear
2. Wind shear detection systems, including
(PWS) alert systems that warn the flight crew of a potential
wind shear up to 3 miles ahead and 25 degrees either side TDWR, WSP, LLWAS NE++ and LLWAS−RS
of the aircraft heading at or below 1200’ AGL. Pilot reports provide the capability of displaying microburst alerts,
may include warnings received from PWS systems. wind shear alerts, and wind information oriented to
REFERENCE−
the threshold or departure end of a runway. When
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−6−2, PIREP Solicitation and detected, the associated ribbon display allows the
Dissemination. controller to read the displayed alert without any need
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−9−3, Content.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−10−1, Landing Information. for interpretation.
b. At facilities without ATIS, ensure that wind (a) If a wind shear or microburst alert is
shear/microburst information is broadcast to all received for the runway in use, issue the alert
arriving and departing aircraft for 20 minutes information for that runway to arriving and departing
following the last report or indication of wind aircraft as it is displayed on the ribbon display.
shear/microburst. PHRASEOLOGY−
(Runway) (arrival/departure) WIND SHEAR/
1. At locations equipped with LLWAS, the local MICROBURST ALERT, (windspeed) KNOT GAIN/LOSS,
controller must provide wind information as follows: (location).
NOTE− EXAMPLE−
The LLWAS is designed to detect low level wind shear 17A MBA 40K − 3MF
General 3−1−3
JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
PHRASEOLOGY− MICROBURST INFORMATION FOR RUNWAY

RUNWAY 17 ARRIVAL MICROBURST ALERT 40 KNOT (runway number) ARRIVAL/DEPARTURE NOT
LOSS 3 MILE FINAL. AVAILABLE.”
EXAMPLE− NOTE−
17D WSA 25K+ 2MD The geographic situation display (GSD) is a supervisory
PHRASEOLOGY− planning tool and is not intended to be a primary tool for
RUNWAY 17 DEPARTURE WIND SHEAR ALERT microburst or wind shear.
25 KNOT GAIN 2 MILE DEPARTURE. c. Wind Shear Escape Procedures.
(b) If requested by the pilot or deemed 1. If an aircraft under your control informs you
appropriate by the controller, issue the displayed that it is performing a wind shear escape, do not issue
wind information oriented to the threshold or control instructions that are contrary to pilot actions.
departure end of the runway. ATC should continue to provide safety alerts
PHRASEOLOGY− regarding terrain or obstacles and traffic advisories
(Runway) DEPARTURE/THRESHOLD WIND (direction) for the escape aircraft, as appropriate.
AT (velocity). EXAMPLE−
(c) LLWAS NE++ or LLWAS−RS may detect “Denver Tower, United 1154, wind shear escape.”
a possible wind shear/microburst at the edge of the NOTE−
system but may be unable to distinguish between a Aircraft that execute a wind shear escape maneuver will
usually conduct a full power climb straight ahead and will
wind shear and a microburst. A wind shear alert
not accept any control instructions until onboard systems
message will be displayed, followed by an asterisk, advise the crew or the pilot in command (PIC) advises ATC
advising of a possible wind shear outside of the that the escape maneuver is no longer required.
system network. REFERENCE−
NOTE− P/CG Term – Wind Shear Escape
LLWAS NE++ when associated with TDWR can detect 2. Unless advised by additional aircraft that they
wind shear/microbursts outside the network if the TDWR are also performing an escape procedure, do not
fails. presume that other aircraft in the proximity of the
PHRASEOLOGY− escape aircraft are responding to wind shear
(Appropriate wind or alert information) POSSIBLE WIND alerts/events as well. Continue to provide control
SHEAR OUTSIDE THE NETWORK. instructions, safety alerts, and traffic advisories, as
(d) If unstable conditions produce multiple appropriate.
alerts, issue an advisory of multiple wind shear/ 3. Once the responding aircraft has initiated a
microburst alerts followed by specific alert or wind wind shear escape maneuver, the controller is not
information most appropriate to the aircraft opera- responsible for providing approved separation
tion. between the aircraft that is responding to an escape
PHRASEOLOGY− and any other aircraft, airspace, terrain, or obstacle.
MULTIPLE WIND SHEAR/MICROBURST ALERTS Responsibility for approved separation resumes
(specific alert or wind information). when one of the following conditions are met:
(e) The LLWAS NE++ and LLWAS−RS are (a) Departures:
designed to operate with as many as 50 percent of the (1) A crew member informs ATC that the
total sensors inoperative. When all three remote wind shear escape maneuver is complete and ATC
sensors designated for a specific runway arrival or observes that approved separation has been re-estab-
departure wind display line are inoperative then the lished, or
LLWAS NE++ and LLWAS−RS for that runway (2) A crew member informs ATC that the
arrival/departure must be considered out of service. escape maneuver is complete and has resumed a
When a specific runway arrival or departure wind previously assigned departure clearance/routing.
display line is inoperative and wind shear/microburst
activity is likely; (for example, frontal activity, (b) Arrivals:
convective storms, PIREPs), the following statement (1) A crew member informs ATC that the
must be included on the ATIS, “WIND SHEAR AND escape maneuver is complete, and
3−1−4 General
6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
(2) The aircrew has executed an alternate 3. To provide a direction or suggested headings
clearance or requested further instructions. to VFR aircraft as a method for radar identification or
as an advisory aid to navigation.
NOTE−
When the escape procedure is complete, the flight crew PHRASEOLOGY−
must advise ATC they are returning to their previously (Identification), PROCEED (direction)−BOUND, (other
assigned clearance or request further instructions. instructions or information as necessary),
EXAMPLE− or
“Denver Tower, United 1154, wind shear escape complete,
resuming last assigned heading/(name) DP/clearance.” (identification), SUGGESTED HEADING (degrees),
Or (other instructions as necessary).
NOTE−
“Denver Tower, United 1154, wind shear escape complete, It is important that the pilot be aware of the fact that the
request further instructions.” directions or headings being provided are suggestions or
are advisory in nature. This is to keep the pilot from being
inadvertently misled into assuming that radar vectors (and
3−1−9. USE OF TOWER RADAR DISPLAYS other associated radar services) are being provided when,
in fact, they are not.
a. Uncertified tower display workstations must be
used only as an aid to assist controllers in visually 4. To provide information and instructions to
locating aircraft or in determining their spatial aircraft operating within the surface area for which
relationship to known geographical points. Radar the tower has responsibility.
services and traffic advisories are not to be provided EXAMPLE−
using uncertified tower display workstations. “TURN BASE LEG NOW.”
General information may be given in an easy to NOTE−
understand manner, such as “to your right” or “ahead Unless otherwise authorized, tower radar displays are
of you.” intended to be an aid to local controllers in meeting their
responsibilities to the aircraft operating on the runways or
EXAMPLE− within the surface area. They are not intended to provide
“Follow the aircraft ahead of you passing the river at the radar benefits to pilots except for those accrued through a
stacks.” “King Air passing left to right.” more efficient and effective local control position. In
REFERENCE− addition, local controllers at nonapproach control towers
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 10−5−3, Functional Use of Certified must devote the majority of their time to visually scanning
Tower Radar Displays. the runways and local area; an assurance of continued
positive radar identification could place distracting and
b. Local controllers may use certified tower radar
operationally inefficient requirements upon the local
displays for the following purposes: controller. Therefore, since the requirements of para-
1. To determine an aircraft’s identification, graph 5−3−1, Application, cannot be assured, the radar
functions prescribed above are not considered to be radar
exact location, or spatial relationship to other aircraft.
services and pilots should not be advised of being in “radar
NOTE− contact.”
This authorization does not alter visual separation c. Additional functions may be performed
procedures. When employing visual separation, the
provided the procedures have been reviewed and
provisions of paragraph 7−2−1, Visual Separation, apply
unless otherwise authorized by the Service Area Director
authorized by appropriate management levels.
of Air Traffic Operations. REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−5−4, Minima.
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−3−2, Primary Radar Identification
Methods. 3−1−10. OBSERVED ABNORMALITIES
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−3−3, Beacon/ADS−B Identification
Methods. When requested by a pilot or when you deem it
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−3−4, Terminal Automation Systems necessary, inform an aircraft of any observed
Identification Methods. abnormal aircraft condition.
2. To provide aircraft with radar traffic PHRASEOLOGY−
advisories. (Item) APPEAR/S (observed condition).
General 3−1−5
JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
EXAMPLE− 3−1−13. ESTABLISHING TWO−WAY

“Landing gear appears up.” COMMUNICATIONS
“Landing gear appears down and in place.”
“Rear baggage door appears open.” Pilots are required to establish two-way radio
communications before entering the Class D
airspace. If the controller responds to a radio call
3−1−11. SURFACE AREA RESTRICTIONS with, “(a/c call sign) standby,” radio communications
a. If traffic conditions permit, approve a pilot’s have been established and the pilot can enter the
request to cross Class C or Class D surface areas or Class D airspace. If workload or traffic conditions
exceed the Class C or Class D airspace speed limit. prevent immediate provision of Class D services,
Do not, however, approve a speed in excess of inform the pilot to remain outside the Class D
250 knots (288 mph) unless the pilot informs you a airspace until conditions permit the services to be
higher minimum speed is required. provided.
NOTE− PHRASEOLOGY−
14 CFR Section 91.117 permits speeds in excess of (A/c call sign) REMAIN OUTSIDE DELTA AIRSPACE
250 knots (288 mph) when so required or recommended in AND STANDBY.
the airplane flight manual or required by normal military REFERENCE−
operating procedures. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−2−1, Visual Separation.
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−16, Surface Areas. 3−1−14. GROUND OPERATIONS WHEN
b. Do not approve a pilot’s request or ask a pilot to VOLCANIC ASH IS PRESENT
conduct unusual maneuvers within surface areas of When volcanic ash is present on the airport surface,
Class B, C, or D airspace if they are not essential to and to the extent possible:
the performance of the flight.
a. Avoid requiring aircraft to come to a full stop
EXCEPTION. A pilot’s request to conduct aerobatic while taxiing.
practice activities may be approved, when operating
b. Provide for a rolling takeoff for all departures.
in accordance with a letter of agreement, and the
activity will have no adverse effect on safety of the air NOTE−
traffic operation or result in a reduction of service to When aircraft begin a taxi or takeoff roll on ash
other users. contaminated surfaces, large amounts of volcanic ash will
again become airborne. This newly airborne ash will
REFERENCE− significantly reduce visibility and will be ingested by the
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 5−4−8, Aerobatic Practice Areas.
engines of following aircraft.
NOTE− REFERENCE−
These unusual maneuvers include unnecessary low passes, AIM, Para 7−5−9, Flight Operations in Volcanic Ash.
unscheduled flybys, practice instrument approaches to
altitudes below specified minima (unless a landing or
touch-and-go is to be made), or any so-called “buzz jobs” 3−1−15. GROUND OPERATIONS RELATED
wherein a flight is conducted at a low altitude and/or a high TO THREE/FOUR−HOUR TARMAC RULE
rate of speed for thrill purposes. Such maneuvers increase
hazards to persons and property and contribute to noise When a request is made by the pilot−in−command of
complaints. an aircraft to return to the ramp, gate, or alternate
deplaning area due to the Three/Four−Hour Tarmac
Rule:
3−1−12. VISUALLY SCANNING RUNWAYS
a. Provide the requested services as soon as
a. Local controllers must visually scan runways to operationally practical, or
the maximum extent possible.
b. Advise the pilot−in−command that the reques-
b. Ground control must assist local control in ted service cannot be accommodated because it
visually scanning runways, especially when runways would create a significant disruption to air traffic
are in close proximity to other movement areas. operations.
3−1−6 General
6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
NOTE− (Identification) EXPECT A (number) MINUTE DELAY

Facility procedures, including actions that constitute a DUE TO (ground and/or landing and/or departing)
significant disruption, vary by airport and must be TRAFFIC,
identified in the facility directive pertaining to the
Three/Four−Hour Tarmac Rule. or
PHRASEOLOGY−
(Identification) TAXI TO (ramp, gate, or alternate (Identification) UNABLE DUE TO OPERATIONAL
deplaning area) VIA (route). DISRUPTION.
REFERENCE−
or DOT Rule, Enhancing Airline Passenger Protections, 14 CFR, Part
259, commonly referred to as the Three/Four−Hour Tarmac Rule.
General 3−1−7
6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 2. Visual Signals
3−2−1. LIGHT SIGNALS 3−2−3. RECEIVER-ONLY

ACKNOWLEDGMENT
Use ATC light signals from TBL 3−2−1 to control
aircraft and the movement of vehicles, equipment, To obtain acknowledgment from an aircraft equipped
and personnel on the movement area when radio with receiver only, request the aircraft to do the
communications cannot be employed. following:
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−10−10, Altitude Restricted Low a. Fixed-wing aircraft:
Approach.
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 4−3−1, Letters of Agreement. 1. Between sunrise and sunset:
(a) Move ailerons or rudders while on the
3−2−2. WARNING SIGNAL
ground.
Direct a general warning signal, alternating red and
green, to aircraft or vehicle operators, as appropriate, (b) Rock wings while in flight.
when: 2. Between sunset and sunrise: Flash naviga-
NOTE− tion or landing lights.
The warning signal is not a prohibitive signal and can be
followed by any other light signal, as circumstances b. Helicopters:
permit.
1. Between sunrise and sunset:
a. Aircraft are converging and a collision hazard
exists. (a) While hovering, either turn the helicopter
toward the controlling facility and flash the landing
b. Mechanical trouble exists of which the pilot light or rock the tip path plane.
might not be aware.
(b) While in flight, either flash the landing
c. Other hazardous conditions are present which light or rock the tip path plane.
call for intensified pilot or operator alertness. These
conditions may include obstructions, soft field, ice on 2. Between sunset and sunrise: Flash landing
the runway, etc. light or search light.
TBL 3−2−1
ATC Light Signals
Meaning
Movement of vehicles,
Color and type of signal Aircraft on the ground Aircraft in flight
equipment and personnel
Steady green Cleared for takeoff Cleared to land Cleared to cross; proceed; go
Flashing green Cleared to taxi Return for landing (to be followed Not applicable
by steady green at the proper time)
Steady red Stop Give way to other aircraft and Stop
continue circling
Flashing red Taxi clear of landing area or Airport unsafe− Do not land Clear the taxiway/runway
runway in use
Flashing white Return to starting point on Not applicable Return to starting point on
airport airport
Alternating red and green General Warning Signal− General Warning Signal− Exercise General Warning Signal−
Exercise Extreme Caution Extreme Caution Exercise Extreme Caution
Visual Signals 3−2−1

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 3. Airport Conditions
3−3−1. LANDING AREA CONDITION (a) Use the runway number, followed by the
RwyCC, for each of the three runway segments, and
If you observe or are informed of any condition which include the time of the report.
affects the safe use of a landing area:
EXAMPLE−
NOTE− “Runway Two−Seven, condition codes two, two, three at
1. The airport management/military operations office is one zero one eight zulu.”
responsible for observing and reporting the condition of
the landing area.
(b) When an update to the RwyCC is
provided, verbally issue to all aircraft until the ATIS
2. It is the responsibility of the agency operating the broadcast can be updated.
airport to provide the tower with current information
regarding airport conditions. EXAMPLE−
“Runway (number) condition codes two, three, one.”
3. A disabled aircraft on a runway, after occupants are REFERENCE−
clear, is normally handled by flight standards and airport Advisory Circular AC 150/5200−30D, Airport Winter Safety and
management/military operations office personnel in the Operations
same manner as any obstruction; e.g., construction 2. Issue FICON NOTAMs upon pilot request,
equipment. workload permitting.
a. Relay the information to the airport manager/ f. In the absence of RwyCC, issue to aircraft only
military operations office concerned. factual information, as reported by the airport
b. Copy verbatim any information received and operator or pilots concerning the condition of the
record the name of the person submitting it. runway surface, describing the accumulation of
precipitation.
c. Confirm information obtained from other than EXAMPLE−
authorized airport or FAA personnel unless this “All runways covered by compacted snow 6 inches deep.”
function is the responsibility of the military REFERENCE−
operations office. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−7−12, Airport Conditions.
NOTE−
Civil airport managers are required to provide a list of 3−3−2. CLOSED/UNSAFE RUNWAY
airport employees who are authorized to issue information INFORMATION
concerning conditions affecting the safe use of the airport.
If an aircraft requests to takeoff, land, or
d. If you are unable to contact the airport touch-and-go on a closed or unsafe runway, inform
management or operator, issue a NOTAM publiciz- the pilot the runway is closed or unsafe, and
ing an unsafe condition and inform the management
or operator as soon as practicable. a. If the pilot persists in his/her request, quote
him/her the appropriate parts of the NOTAM
EXAMPLE− applying to the runway and inform him/her that a
“DISABLED AIRCRAFT ON RUNWAY.’’ clearance cannot be issued.
NOTE− b. Then, if the pilot insists and in your opinion the
1. Legally, only the airport management/military opera-
intended operation would not adversely affect other
tions office can close a runway.
traffic, inform him/her that the operation will be at
2. Military controllers are not authorized to issue his/her own risk.
NOTAMs. It is the responsibility of the military operations
office. PHRASEOLOGY−
RUNWAY (runway number) CLOSED/UNSAFE.
e. Runway Condition Codes (RwyCC).
If appropriate, (quote NOTAM information),
1. Furnish RwyCC, as received from the Airport
Operator, to aircraft via the ATIS. UNABLE TO ISSUE DEPARTURE/LANDING/TOUCH−
Airport Conditions 3−3−1

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
AND−GO CLEARANCE. braking action in other than the approved terms, ask
DEPARTURE/LANDING/TOUCH−AND−GO WILL BE him/her to categorize braking action in these terms.
AT YOUR OWN RISK.
NOTE−
c. Except as permitted by paragraph 4−8−7, The term “nil” is used to indicate bad or no braking action.
Side-Step Maneuver, where parallel runways are b. Include type of aircraft from which the report is
served by separate ILS systems and one of the received.
runways is closed, the ILS associated with the closed
EXAMPLE−
runway should not be used for approaches unless not “Braking action medium, reported by a heavy Boeing
using the ILS would have an adverse impact on the Seven Sixty−Seven.”
operational efficiency of the airport. “Braking action poor, reported by a Boeing Seven
REFERENCE− Thirty−Seven.”
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−10−5, Landing Clearance.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−7−12, Airport Conditions.
c. If the braking action report affects only a
portion of a runway, obtain enough information from
the pilot to describe the braking action in terms easily
3−3−3. TIMELY INFORMATION
understood by other pilots.
Issue airport condition information necessary for an EXAMPLE−
aircraft’s safe operation in time for it to be useful to “Braking action poor first half of runway, reported by a
the pilot. Include the following, as appropriate: Boeing Seven Fifty−Seven.”
“Braking action good to medium beyond the intersection
a. Construction work on or immediately adjacent of Runway Two Seven, reported by an Airbus Three
to the movement area. Twenty−One.”
b. Rough portions of the movement area. NOTE−
Descriptive terms, such as the first or the last half of the
c. Braking conditions caused by ice, snow, slush, runway, should normally be used rather than landmark
or water. descriptions, such as opposite the fire station, south of a
d. Snowdrifts or piles of snow on or along the taxiway, etc. Landmarks extraneous to the landing runway
are difficult to distinguish during low visibility, at night, or
edges of the area and the extent of any plowed area.
anytime a pilot is busy landing an aircraft.
e. Parked aircraft on the movement area. d. Issue the runway surface condition and/or the
f. Irregular operation of part or all of the airport Runway Condition Reading (RCR), if provided, to all
lighting system. USAF and ANG aircraft. Issue the RCR to other
aircraft upon pilot request.
g. Volcanic ash on any airport surface area and
EXAMPLE−
whether the ash is wet or dry (if known).
“Ice on runway, RCR zero five, patchy.”
NOTE− NOTE−
Braking action on wet ash may be degraded. Dry ash on the USAF offices furnish RCR information at airports serving
runway may necessitate minimum use of reverse thrust. USAF and ANG aircraft.
h. Other pertinent airport conditions. REFERENCE−
REFERENCE− FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−3−5, Braking Action Advisories.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−9, Reporting Essential Flight
Information. 3−3−5. BRAKING ACTION ADVISORIES
Approach.
a. When runway braking action reports are
received from pilots which include the terms
“medium,” “poor,” or “nil,” or whenever weather
3−3−4. BRAKING ACTION
conditions are conducive to deteriorating or rapidly
Furnish quality of braking action, as received from changing runway conditions, include on the ATIS
pilots, to all aircraft as follows: broadcast the statement “Braking Action Advisories
are in effect.”
a. Describe the quality of braking action using the
REFERENCE−
terms “good,” “good to medium,” “medium,” FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 10−4−1, Automatic Terminal Information
“medium to poor,” “poor,” or “nil.” If the pilot reports Service (ATIS).
3−3−2 Airport Conditions

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
b. During the time Braking Action Advisories are NOTE−

in effect, take the following action: The standard emergency phraseology for a pilot requesting
an arresting system to be raised for immediate engagement
1. Issue the latest braking action report for the is:
runway in use to each arriving and departing aircraft
early enough to be of benefit to the pilot. When “BARRIER − BARRIER − BARRIER”
possible, include reports from super or heavy aircraft
when the arriving or departing aircraft is a super or or
heavy.
“CABLE − CABLE − CABLE.”
2. If no report has been received for the runway 2. Requested by military authority; e.g., airfield
of intended use, issue an advisory to that effect. manager, supervisor of flying, mobile control officer,
PHRASEOLOGY− etc.
NO BRAKING ACTION REPORTS RECEIVED FOR
RUNWAY (runway number). NOTE−
USAF. Web barriers at the departure end of the runway may
3. Advise the Airport Operator that runway remain in the up position when requested by the senior
braking action reports of “good to medium,” operational commander. The IFR Enroute Supplement and
“medium,” “medium to poor,” “poor,” or “nil” have AP-1 will describe specific barrier configuration. ATC will
been received. advise transient aircraft of the barrier configuration using
the phraseology in subparagraph c, below.
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 4−3−1, Letters of Agreement. 3. A military jet aircraft is landing with known
4. Solicit PIREPs of runway braking action. or suspected radio failure or conditions (drag
chute/hydraulic/electrical failure, etc.) that indicate
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para, 2−9−3, Content. an arresting system may be needed. Exceptions are
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−9−1, Departure Information. authorized for military aircraft which cannot engage
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−10−1, Landing Information. an arresting system (C−9, C−141, C−5, T−39, etc.)
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−6−2, PIREP Solicitation and and should be identified in a letter of agreement
Dissemination. and/or appropriate military directive.
c. When requested by military authority due to
3−3−6. ARRESTING SYSTEM OPERATION freezing weather conditions or malfunction of the
a. For normal operations, arresting systems activating mechanism, the barrier/cable may remain
remotely controlled by ATC must remain in the in a raised position provided aircraft are advised.
retracted or down position. PHRASEOLOGY−
NOTE− YOUR DEPARTURE/LANDING WILL BE TOWARD/
1. USN− Runway Arresting Gear− barriers are not OVER A RAISED BARRIER/CABLE ON RUNWAY
operated by ATC personnel. Readiness/rigging of the (number), (location, distance, as appropriate).
equipment is the responsibility of the operations d. Inform civil and U.S. Army aircraft whenever
department. rubber supported cables are in place at the approach
2. A request to raise a barrier or hook cable means the end of the landing runway, and include the distance of
barrier or cable on the departure end of the runway. If an the cables from the threshold. This information may
approach end engagement is required, the pilot or military be omitted if it is published in the Domestic Notices
authority will specifically request that the approach end webpage, International Notices webpage, or the DOD
cable be raised. FLIP.
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7610.4, Chapter 9, Section 3. Aircraft Arresting System, EXAMPLE−
Single Frequency Approach (SFA), Simulated Flameout “Runway One Four arresting cable one thousand feet from
(SFO)/Emergency Landing Pattern (ELP) Operations, Celestial threshold.”
Navigation (CELNAV) Training, Para 9−3−1 through Para 9−3−8.
e. When arresting system operation has been
b. Raise aircraft arresting systems whenever:
requested, inform the pilot of the indicated
1. Requested by a pilot. barrier/cable position.
Airport Conditions 3−3−3

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
PHRASEOLOGY− malfunction or vehicle/aircraft encroachment into the

(Identification), BARRIER/CABLE INDICATES critical area.
UP/DOWN. CLEARED FOR TAKEOFF/TO LAND.
d. Operation of the FFM remote sensing unit will
f. Time permitting, advise pilots of the availability be based on the prevailing weather. The FFM remote
of all arresting systems on the runway in question sensing unit must be operational when the weather is
when a pilot requests barrier information. below CAT II ILS minimums.
g. If an aircraft engages a raised barrier/cable, REFERENCE−
FAA Order 6750.24, Appendix A, Abnormal Checklist
initiate crash alarm procedures immediately.
e. When the remote status unit indicates that the
h. For preplanned practice engagements not localizer FFM is in alarm (aural warning following
associated with emergencies, crash alarm systems the preset delay) and:
need not be activated if, in accordance with local
military operating procedures, all required notifica- 1. The aircraft is outside the middle marker
tions are made before the practice engagement. (MM) or in the absence of a MM, ½ mile final, check
for encroachment of those portions of the critical area
REFERENCE− that can be seen from the tower. It is understood that
the entire critical area may not be visible due to low
ceilings and poor visibility. The check is strictly to
3−3−7. FAR FIELD MONITOR (FFM) RE- determine possible causal factors for the out-of-toler-
MOTE STATUS UNIT ance situation. If the alarm has not cleared prior to the
aircraft’s arriving at the MM or in the absence of a
a. To meet the demand for more facilities capable MM, ½ mile final, immediately issue an advisory that
of operating under CAT III weather, Type II the FFM remote status sensing unit indicates the
equipment is being upgraded to Integrity Level 3. localizer is unreliable.
This integrity level will support operations which
place a high degree of reliance on ILS guidance for 2. The aircraft is between the MM or ½ mile
positioning through touchdown. final and the inner marker (IM), or if the IM is not
installed, the CAT II Missed Approach Point (MAP),
b. Installation of the FFM remote status indicating immediately issue an advisory that the FFM remote
units is necessary to attain the integrity necessary to status sensing unit indicates the localizer is
meet internationally agreed upon reliability values in unreliable.
support of CAT III operations on Type II ILS
PHRASEOLOGY−
equipment. The remote status indicating unit used in
CAUTION, MONITOR INDICATES RUNWAY (number)
conjunction with Type II equipment adds a third LOCALIZER UNRELIABLE.
integrity test; thereby, producing an approach aid
which has integrity capable of providing Level 3 3. The aircraft has passed the IM or the CAT II
service. MAP (if the IM is not installed) there is no action
requirement. Although the FFM has been modified
c. The remote status sensing unit, when installed in with filters which dampen the effect of false alarms,
the tower cab, will give immediate indications of you may expect alarms when aircraft are located
localizer out-of-tolerance conditions. The alarm in between the FFM and the localizer antenna either on
the FFM remote status sensing unit indicates an landing or on takeoff.
inoperative or an out-of-tolerance localizer signal; REFERENCE−
e.g., the course may have shifted due to equipment FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−7−12, Airport Conditions.
3−3−4 Airport Conditions

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 4. Airport Lighting
3−4−1. EMERGENCY LIGHTING b. As required by the pilot.

Whenever you become aware that an emergency has TBL 3−4−2
or will occur, take action to provide for the operation VASI Intensity Setting−Two Step System
of all appropriate airport lighting aids as required.
Step Period/Condition
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 10−4−2, Lighting Requirements.
High Day−Sunrise to sunset.
Low Night−Sunset to sunrise.
3−4−2. RUNWAY END IDENTIFIER LIGHTS
TBL 3−4−3
(REIL) VASI Intensity Setting−Three Step System
When separate on−off controls are provided, operate Step Period/Condition
runway end identifier lights:
High Day−Sunrise to sunset.
a. When the associated runway lights are lighted. Medium Twilight−From sunset to 30 minutes after
Turn the REIL off after: sunset and from 30 minutes before sunrise
to sunrise,* and during twilight in Alaska.
1. An arriving aircraft has landed. Low Night−Sunset to sunrise.
2. A departing aircraft has left the traffic pattern *During a 1 year period, twilight may vary 26 to 43 minutes between
25 and 49N latitude.
area.
3. It is determined that the lights are of no NOTE−
The basic FAA standard for VASI systems permits
further use to the pilot. independent operation by means of photoelectric device.
b. As required by facility directives to meet local This system has no on−off control feature and is intended
conditions. for continuous operation. Other VASI systems in use
include those that are operated remotely from the control
c. As requested by the pilot. tower. These systems may consist of either a photoelectric
intensity control with only an on−off switch, a two step
d. Operate intensity setting in accordance with the
intensity system, or a three step intensity system.
values in TBL 3−4−1 except as prescribed in
REFERENCE−
subparagraphs b and c above. FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 10−6−5, Visual Approach Slope Indicator
(VASI) Systems.
TBL 3−4−1 FAA Order 6850.2, Visual Guidance Lighting Systems.
REIL Intensity Setting−Three Step System
Settings Visibility 3−4−4. PRECISION APPROACH PATH
INDICATORS (PAPI)
Day Night
3 Less than 2 miles Less than 1 mile PAPI systems with remote on−off switching shall be
2 2 to 5 miles inclusive 1 to but not including 3 operated when they serve the runway in use and
miles where intensities are controlled in accordance with
1 When requested 3 miles or more TBL 3−4−4 except:
a. As required by local facility directives to meet
3−4−3. VISUAL APPROACH SLOPE local conditions.
INDICATORS (VASI) b. As requested by the pilot.
VASI systems with remote on−off switching must be NOTE−
operated when they serve the runway in use and The basic FAA standard for PAPI systems permits
where intensities are controlled in accordance with independent operation by means of photoelectric device.
TBL 3−4−2 and TBL 3−4−3 except: This system has no on−off control feature and is intended
for continuous operation. Other PAPI systems in use
a. As required by facility directives to meet local include those that are operated remotely from the control
conditions. tower. These systems may consist of either a photoelectric
Airport Lighting 3−4−1

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
intensity control with only an on−off switch, or a five−step 3−4−6. ALS INTENSITY SETTINGS
intensity system.
When operating ALS as prescribed in paragraph
REFERENCE− 3−4−5, Approach Lights, operate intensity controls in
FAA Order 6850.2, Visual Guidance Lighting Systems.
accordance with the values in TBL 3−4−5 except:
TBL 3−4−4 a. When facility directives specify other settings
PAPI Intensity Setting − Five Step System to meet local atmospheric, topographic, and twilight
conditions.
Step Period/Condition b. As requested by the pilot.
5 On Pilot Request c. As you deem necessary, if not contrary to pilot’s
4 Day − Sunrise to sunset request.
3 Night − Sunset to sunrise
TBL 3−4−5
2 On Pilot Request
ALS Intensity Setting
1 On Pilot Request
*During a 1 year period, twilight may vary 26 to 43 minutes Visibility
between 25 and 49N latitude. Step (Applicable to runway served by lights)
Day Night
5 Less than 1 mile* When requested
4 1 to but not including 3 miles When requested
3−4−5. APPROACH LIGHTS 3 3 to but not including 5 miles Less than 1 mile*
2 5 to but not including 7 miles 1 to 3 miles inclusive
Operate approach lights:
1 When requested Greater than 3 miles
a. Between sunset and sunrise when one of the *and/or 6,000 feet or less of the RVR on the runway served by
the ALS and RVR.
NOTE−
1. They serve the landing runway. Daylight steps 2 and 3 provide recommended settings
applicable to conditions in subparagraphs b and c. At
2. They serve a runway to which an approach is night, use step 4 or 5 only when requested by a pilot.
being made but aircraft will land on another runway.
3−4−7. SEQUENCED FLASHING LIGHTS
b. Between sunrise and sunset when the ceiling is (SFL)
less than 1,000 feet or the prevailing visibility is Operate Sequenced Flashing Lights:
5 miles or less and approaches are being made to:
NOTE−
SFL are a component of the ALS and cannot be operated
1. A landing runway served by the lights.
when the ALS is off.
2. A runway served by the lights but aircraft are a. When the visibility is less than 3 miles and
landing on another runway. instrument approaches are being made to the runway
served by the associated ALS.
3. The airport, but landing will be made on a b. As requested by the pilot.
runway served by the lights.
c. As you deem necessary, if not contrary to pilot’s
c. As requested by the pilot. request.
d. As you deem necessary, if not contrary to pilot’s 3−4−8. MALSR/ODALS

request. Operate MALSR/ODALS that have separate on−off
and intensity setting controls in accordance with
NOTE−
In the interest of energy conservation, the ALS should be TBL 3−4−6 and TBL 3−4−7 except:
turned off when not needed for aircraft operations. a. When facility directives specify other settings
REFERENCE−
to meet local atmospheric, topographic, and twilight
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−4−6, ALS Intensity Settings. conditions.
3−4−2 Airport Lighting

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
b. As requested by the pilot. 3−4−10. RUNWAY EDGE LIGHTS

c. As you deem necessary, if not contrary to pilot’s Operate the runway edge light system/s serving the
request. runway/s in use as follows:
TBL 3−4−6 a. Between sunset and sunrise, turn the lights on:
Two Step MALS/One Step RAIL/Two Step ODALS
1. For departures. Before an aircraft taxies onto
Settings Visibility the runway and until it leaves the Class B, Class C, or
Day Night Class D surface area.
MALS/ODALS Hi Less than Less than 2. For arrivals:
RAIL On 3 miles 3 miles
MALS/ODALS Low When requested 3 miles or more (a) IFR aircraft−Before the aircraft begins
RAIL Off final approach, or
*At locations providing part−time control tower service, if (b) VFR aircraft−Before the aircraft enters
duplicate controls are not provided in the associated FSS, the
MALSR/ODALS must be set to low intensity during the hours the Class B, Class C, or Class D surface area, and
of darkness when the tower is not staffed.
(c) Until the aircraft has taxied off the landing
runway.
TBL 3−4−7
Three Step MALS/Three Step RAIL/ b. Between sunrise and sunset, turn the lights on as
Three Step ODALS shown in subparagraphs a1 and a2 when the surface
Settings Visibility visibility is less than 2 miles.
Day Night c. As required by facility directives to meet local
3 Less than 2 miles Less than 1 mile conditions.
2 2 to 5 miles inclusive 1 to but not including
3 miles*
d. Different from subparagraphs a, b, or c above,
when:
1 When requested 3 miles or more
*At locations providing part−time control tower service, if 1. You consider it necessary, or
duplicate controls are not provided in the FSS on the airport,
the air−to−ground radio link shall be activated during the hours 2. Requested by a pilot and no other known
of darkness when the tower is unmanned. If there is no radio aircraft will be adversely affected.
air−to−ground control, the MALSR/ODALS shall be set on
intensity setting 2 during the hours of darkness when the tower NOTE−
is not staffed. Pilots may request lights to be turned on or off contrary to
subparagraphs a, b, or c. However, 14 CFR Part 135
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 10−6−2, Operation of Lights When Tower
operators are required to land/takeoff on lighted
is Closed. runways/heliport landing areas at night.
e. Do not turn on the runway edge lights when a
3−4−9. ALSF−2/SSALR NOTAM closing the runway is in effect.
a. When the prevailing visibility is 3/4 mile or less NOTE−
or the RVR is 4,000 feet or less, operate the ALSF−2 Application concerns use for takeoffs/landings/
system as follows: approaches and does not preclude turning lights on for use
of unaffected portions of a runway for taxiing aircraft,
1. As requested by the pilot. surface vehicles, maintenance, repair, etc.
2. As you deem necessary if not contrary to pilot REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 10−6−3, Incompatible Light System
request. Operation.
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 10−6−9, Runway Edge Lights Associated
b. Operate the SSALR system when the condi- With Medium Approach Light System/Runway Alignment Indicator
tions in subparagraph a are not a factor. Lights.

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
3−4−11. HIGH INTENSITY RUNWAY, NOTE−

RUNWAY CENTERLINE, AND TOUCHDOWN When going from a given brightness step setting to a lower
ZONE LIGHTS setting, rotation of the brightness control to a point below
the intended step setting and then back to the appropriate
Operate high intensity runway and associated runway step setting will ensure that the MALSR will operate at the
centerline and touchdown zone lights in accordance appropriate brightness.
with TBL 3−4−8, except: REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−4−14, Medium Intensity Runway
Lights.
a. Where a facility directive specifies other
settings to meet local conditions.
3−4−13. HIRL CHANGES AFFECTING RVR
b. As requested by the pilot. Keep the appropriate approach controller or PAR
c. As you deem necessary, if not contrary to pilot controller informed, in advance if possible, of HIRL
request. changes that affect RVR.
TBL 3−4−8 3−4−14. MEDIUM INTENSITY RUNWAY

HIRL, RCLS, TDZL Intensity Setting LIGHTS (MIRL)
Operate MIRL or MIRL which control the associated
Step Visibility
MALSR in accordance with TBL 3−4−10, except:
Day Night
5 Less than 1 mile* When requested a. As requested by the pilot.
4 1 to but not including Less than 1 mile* b. As you deem necessary, if not contrary to the
2 miles* pilot’s request.
3 2 to but not including 1 to but not including
3 miles 3 miles* TBL 3−4−10
2 When requested 3 to 5 miles inclusive MIRL Intensity Setting
1 When requested More than 5 miles Step Visibility
*and/or appropriate RVR equivalent. Day Night
3 Less than 2 miles Less than 1 mile
2 2 to 3 miles 1 to 3 miles
3−4−12. HIRL ASSOCIATED WITH MALSR 1 When requested More than 3 miles
Operate HIRL which control the associated MALSR REFERENCE−

FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−4−12, HIRL Associated With MALSR.
in accordance with TBL 3−4−9, except:
a. As requested by the pilot. 3−4−15. HIGH SPEED TURNOFF LIGHTS
b. As you deem necessary, if not contrary to the Operate high speed turnoff lights:
pilot’s request. a. Whenever the associated runway lights are used
for arriving aircraft. Leave them on until the aircraft
TBL 3−4−9 has either entered a taxiway or passed the last light.
HIRL Associated with MALSR
b. As required by facility directives to meet local
Step Visibility conditions.
Day Night c. As requested by the pilot.
5 Less than 1 mile When requested
4 1 to but not including Less than 1 mile 3−4−16. TAXIWAY LIGHTS
2 miles
3 2 to but not including 1 to but not including Operate taxiway lights in accordance with
3 miles 3 miles TBL 3−4−11, TBL 3−4−12, or TBL 3−4−13 except:
2 When requested 3 to 5 miles inclusive a. Where a facility directive specifies other
1 When requested More than 5 miles settings or times to meet local conditions.
3−4−4 Airport Lighting

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
b. As requested by the pilot. 3−4−18. ROTATING BEACON

c. As you deem necessary, if not contrary to pilot If controls are provided, turn the rotating beacon on:
request.
a. Between sunset and sunrise.
TBL 3−4−11 b. Between sunrise and sunset when the reported
Three Step Taxiway Lights ceiling or visibility is below basic VFR minima.
Step Visibility
Day Night 3−4−19. RUNWAY STATUS LIGHTS (RWSL)
3 Less than 1 mile When requested TERMINAL
2 When requested Less than 1 mile
1 When requested 1 mile of more
RWSL is equipped with automatic intensity settings
and must be operated on a continuous basis except
TBL 3−4−12 under the following conditions:
Five Step Taxiway Lights a. If a pilot or vehicle report indicates any portion
Step Visibility of the RWSL system is on and is not able to accept an
Day Night
ATC clearance; then
5 Less than 1 mile When requested 1. ATC must visually scan the entire runway. If
4 When requested Less than 1 mile the runway is observed to be clear and the lights are
3 When requested 1 mile or more still illuminated, then the lights must be turned off and
1&2 When requested When requested clearance re-issued.
2. If a portion of the runway is not visible from
TBL 3−4−13 the tower, ATC must visually scan the ASDE system.
One Step Taxiway Lights If the runway is observed to be clear and the lights are
Day Night still illuminated, then the lights must be turned off and
Less than 1 mile On clearance re-issued.
b. When the RWSL Operational Status displays
NOTE−
AC 150/5340-30, Design and Installation Details for “Lost Comm with System,” consider the RWSL
Airport Visual Aides, contains recommended brightness system out of service until checked and confirmed to
levels for variable setting taxiway lights. be operational by technical operations personnel.
c. Once RWSL systems are turned off, they must
3−4−17. OBSTRUCTION LIGHTS remain off until returned to service by technical
operations personnel.
If controls are provided, turn the lights on between
sunset and sunrise. d. Upon pilot request, adjust the light intensity.

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 5. Runway Selection
3−5−1. SELECTION b. When conducting aircraft operations on other

than the advertised active runway, state the runway in
a. Except where a “runway use” program is in use.
effect, use the runway most nearly aligned with the
wind when 5 knots or more or the “calm wind”
runway when less than 5 knots (set tetrahedron 3−5−2. STOL RUNWAYS
accordingly) unless use of another runway: Use STOL runways as follows:
NOTE− a. A designated STOL runway may be assigned
1. If a pilot prefers to use a runway different from that only when requested by the pilot or as specified in a
specified, the pilot is expected to advise ATC. letter of agreement with an aircraft operator.
2. At airports where a “runway use” program is
established, ATC will assign runways deemed to have the
b. Issue the measured STOL runway length if the
least noise impact. If in the interest of safety a runway pilot requests it.
different from that specified is preferred, the pilot is
expected to advise ATC accordingly. ATC will honor such 3−5−3. TAILWIND COMPONENTS
requests and advise pilots when the requested runway is
noise sensitive.
When authorizing use of runways and a tailwind
component exists, always state both wind direction
REFERENCE−
FAA Order 8400.9, National Safety and Operational Criteria for
and velocity.
Runway Use Programs. NOTE−
1. Will be operationally advantageous, or The wind may be described as “calm” when appropriate.
REFERENCE−
2. Is requested by the pilot. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−6−3, Reporting Weather Conditions.
Runway Selection 3−5−1

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 6. Airport Surface Detection Procedures
3−6−1. EQUIPMENT USAGE 3−6−3. INFORMATION USAGE

a. The operational status of ASDE systems must a. ASDE system derived information may be used
be determined during the relief briefing, or as soon as to:
possible after assuming responsibility for the 1. Formulate clearances and control instruc-
associated position. tions to aircraft and vehicles on the movement area.
b. Use ASDE systems to augment visual observa- REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 3−6−2, ATC Surveillance Source Use.
tion of aircraft landing or departing, and aircraft or
vehicular movements on runways and taxiways, or 2. Position aircraft and vehicles using the
other parts of the movement area. movement area.
1. ASDE systems with safety logic must be 3. Determine the exact location of aircraft and
operated continuously. vehicles, or spatial relationship to other aircraft/
vehicles on the movement area.
2. ASDE systems without safety logic must be
operated: 4. Monitor compliance with control instructions
by aircraft and vehicles on taxiways and runways.
(a) Continuously between sunset and sunrise.
5. Confirm pilot reported positions.
(b) When visibility is less than the most
6. Provide directional taxi information, as
distant point in the active movement area, or
appropriate.
(c) When, in your judgment, its use will assist PHRASEOLOGY−
you in the performance of your duties at any time. TURN (left/right) ON THE TAXIWAY/RUNWAY YOU ARE
APPROACHING.
3−6−2. IDENTIFICATION b. Do not provide specific navigational guidance
(exact headings to be followed) unless an emergency
a. To identify an observed target/track on an exists or by mutual agreement with the pilot.
ASDE system display, correlate its position with one
or more of the following: NOTE−
It remains the pilot’s responsibility to navigate visually via
1. Pilot/vehicle operator position report. routes to the clearance limit specified by the controller and
to avoid other parked or taxiing aircraft, vehicles, or
2. Controller’s visual observation. persons in the movement area.
3. An identified target observed on the ASR or c. Do not allow an aircraft to begin departure roll
CTRD. or cross the landing threshold whenever there is an
b. An observed target/track on an ASDE system unidentified target/track displayed on the runway.
display may be identified as a false target by visual
observation. If the area containing a suspected false 3−6−4. SAFETY LOGIC ALERT
target is not visible from the tower, an airport RESPONSES
operations vehicle or pilots of aircraft operating in the When the system generates an alert, the controller
area may be used to conduct the visual observation. must immediately assess the situation visually and as
c. After positive verification that a target is false, presented on the ASDE system display, then take
through pilot/vehicle operator position report or appropriate action as follows:
controller visual observation, the track may be a. When an arrival aircraft (still airborne, prior to
temporarily dropped, which will remove the target the landing threshold) activates a warning alert, the
from the display and safety logic processing. A controller must issue go−around instructions.
notation must be made to FAA Form 7230−4, Daily (Exception: Alerts involving known formation
Record of Facility Operation, when a track is flights, as they cross the landing threshold, may be
temporarily dropped. disregarded if all other factors are acceptable.)
Airport Surface Detection Procedures 3−6−1

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
The intent of this paragraph is that an aircraft does not land FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−9−8, Intersecting Runway/Intersecting
Flight Path Operations.
on the runway, on that approach, when the safety logic FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−10−4, Intersecting
system has generated a warning alert. A side−step Runway/Intersecting Flight Path Separation.
maneuver or circle to land on another runway satisfies this
requirement. d. For other safety logic system alerts, issue
REFERENCE− instructions/clearances based on good judgment and
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−8−1, Sequence/Spacing Application. evaluation of the situation at hand.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−9−6, Same Runway Separation.
P/CG Term− Go Around.
b. When an arrival aircraft activates a warning 3−6−5. RADAR−ONLY MODE

alert to a taxiway, the controller must issue go−around
instructions.
Radar−only mode is an enhancement of the ASDE−X
c. When two arrival aircraft, or an arrival aircraft and ASSC systems which allows the system to stay
and a departing aircraft activate an alert, the operational with safety logic processing, despite a
controller will issue go−around instructions or take critical fault in the Multilateration (MLAT) subsys-
appropriate action to ensure intersecting runway tem. The system stays in full core alert status under
separation is maintained. radar−only mode without data block capability.
3−6−2 Airport Surface Detection Procedures

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 7. Taxi and Ground Movement Procedures
3−7−1. GROUND TRAFFIC MOVEMENT 2. “PROCEED AS REQUESTED” is not approved

phraseology for instructing aircraft, vehicles, equipment,
Issue by radio or directional light signals specific or personnel to cross or operate on a runway.
instructions which approve or disapprove the
movement of aircraft, vehicles, equipment, or c. Do not use the word “cleared” in conjunction
personnel on the movement area except where with authorization for aircraft to taxi or equipment/
permitted in an LOA. vehicle/personnel operations. Use the prefix “taxi,”
“proceed,” or “hold,” as appropriate, for aircraft
REFERENCE− instructions and “proceed” or “hold” for equipment/
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 4−3−1, Letters of Agreement.
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 4−3−2, Appropriate Subjects. vehicles/personnel.
a. Do not issue conditional instructions that are d. Intersection departures may be initiated by a
dependent upon the movement of an arrival aircraft controller or a controller may authorize an
on or approaching the runway or a departure aircraft intersection departure if a pilot requests. Issue the
established on a takeoff roll. Do not say, “Line up and measured distance from the intersection to the
wait behind landing traffic,” or “Taxi/proceed across runway end rounded “down” to the nearest 50 feet to
Runway Three−Six behind departing/landing Cita- any pilot who requests and to all military aircraft,
tion.” The above requirements do not preclude unless use of the intersection is covered in
issuing instructions to follow an aircraft observed to appropriate directives.
be operating on the movement area in accordance NOTE−
with an ATC clearance/instruction and in such a 1. Exceptions are authorized where specific military
manner that the instructions to follow are not aircraft routinely make intersection takeoffs and proced-
ambiguous. ures are defined in appropriate directives. The authority
exercising operational control of such aircraft ensures that
b. Do not issue unconditional instructions when all pilots are thoroughly familiar with these procedures,
authorizing movement on a runway/taxiway for the including the usable runway length from the applicable
purpose of airfield checks or other airport operations. intersection.
Instructions must ensure positive control with 2. Some airports publish “declared distances” for a
specific instructions to proceed on a runway or particular runway. These are published in the Chart
movement area, and as necessary, hold short Supplement U.S. or the Aeronautical Information
instructions. Publication (AIP) and there is no requirement that facility
REFERENCE− personnel be aware of them. These distances are a means
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−1−3, Use of Active Runways. of satisfying airport design criteria and are intended to be
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−7−2, Taxi and Ground Movement used by pilots and/or operators for preflight performance
Operations.
planning only. There are no special markings, signing, or
EXAMPLE− lighting associated with declared distances and they do not
“Airport 1, proceed on Runway 26R, hold short of Runway limit the actual runway available for use by an aircraft.
18L.” Therefore, they cannot be used for any air traffic control
purpose. If pilots inquire about the existence of declared
“Airport 1 proceed on taxi way B, hold short of distances, refer them to the Chart Supplement U.S. or AIP.
Runway18L.”
PHRASEOLOGY−
“Airport 1 proceed on Runway 26R.” (additional RUNWAY (number) AT (taxiway designator)
instructions as necessary.) INTERSECTION DEPARTURE (remaining length) FEET
AVAILABLE.
REFERENCE−
NOTE− FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−9−4, Line Up and Wait (LUAW).
1. The following are examples of unconditional instruc-
tions and are not approved for use: “THE FIELD IS e. Do not use the term “full length” when the
YOURS,” “CLEARED ON ALL SURFACES,” “THE runway length available for departures has been
AIRPORT IS YOURS,” and “PROCEED ON ALL temporarily shortened. On permanently shortened
RUNWAYS AND TAXIWAYS.” runways, do not use the term “full length” until the
Taxi and Ground Movement Procedures 3−7−1

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
Chart Supplement U.S. is updated to include the or

change(s).
TAXI/CONTINUE TAXIING/PROCEED VIA (route),
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 10-3-12, Airport Construction.
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 10-3-13, Change in Runway Length Due or
to Construction.
ON (runway number or taxiways, etc.),
3−7−2. TAXI AND GROUND MOVEMENT
OPERATIONS or
Issue the route for the aircraft/vehicle to follow on the TO (location),

movement area in concise and easy to understand
terms. The taxi clearance/route must include the or
specific route to follow. When a taxi clearance to a
runway is issued to an aircraft, confirm the aircraft (direction),
has the correct runway assignment.
or
NOTE−
1. A pilot’s read back of taxi instructions with the runway ACROSS RUNWAY (number), at (runway/taxiway).
assignment can be considered confirmation of runway
assignment. or
2. Movement of aircraft or vehicles on nonmovement
areas is the responsibility of the pilot, the aircraft operator, VIA (route), HOLD SHORT OF (location)
or the airport management.
or
a. When authorizing an aircraft to taxi or a vehicle
to proceed on the movement area, specify the taxi FOLLOW (traffic) (restrictions as necessary)
instructions/route. If it is the intent to hold the
aircraft/vehicle short of: or
1. A runway: issue the route up to the runway BEHIND (traffic).
hold short point. When issuing a runway crossing
clearance, include specific instructions on where to EXAMPLE−
cross the runway; “Cross Runway Two−Eight Left, at taxiway Alpha, hold
short of Runway Two−Eight Right.”
2. Any other point along the route, issue:
(a) the route up to the hold short point, or “Taxi/continue taxiing/proceed to the hangar.”
(b) the entire route and then state the hold “Taxi/continue taxiing/proceed straight ahead then via
short instructions. ramp to the hangar.”
After issuing a crossing clearance, specify the taxi “Taxi/continue taxiing/proceed on Taxiway Charlie, hold
instructions/route an aircraft/vehicle is to follow, if short of Runway Two−Seven.”
not previously issued.
NOTE− or
The absence of holding instructions authorizes an
aircraft/vehicle to cross all taxiways that intersect the taxi “Taxi/continue taxing/proceed on Charlie, hold short of
route. Runway Two−Seven.”
PHRASEOLOGY−
b. When authorizing an aircraft to taxi to an
HOLD POSITION.
assigned takeoff runway, state the departure runway
HOLD FOR (reason) followed by the specific taxi route. Issue hold short
instructions, in accordance with subparagraph a
CROSS (runway), at (runway/taxiway) above, when an aircraft will be required to hold short
of a runway or other points along the taxi route.
3−7−2 Taxi and Ground Movement Procedures

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
NOTE− (runway)”, or
If the specific taxi route ends into a connecting taxiway with Cross (runways) at (runway/taxiway).
the same identifier (for example, taxiway “A” connects EXAMPLE−
with Taxiway “A1”) at the approach end of the runway, the “Cross Runway One−Six Left at Taxiway Bravo, hold short
connecting taxiway may be omitted from the clearance. of Runway One−Six Right.”
PHRASEOLOGY− “Cross Runway One−Six Left and Runway One−Six Right
RUNWAY (number), TAXI VIA (route as necessary). at Taxiway Bravo.”
REFERENCE−
or FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 10−3−11 Multiple Runway Crossings.
d. When an aircraft/vehicle is instructed to

RUNWAY (number), TAXI VIA (route as necessary)(hold “follow” traffic and requires a runway crossing, issue
short instructions as necessary).”
a runway crossing clearance in addition to the follow
EXAMPLE− instructions and/or hold short instructions, as
“Runway Three−Six Left, taxi via taxiway Alpha, hold applicable.
short of taxiway Charlie.”
EXAMPLE−
“Follow (traffic), cross Runway Two−Seven Right, at
or
Taxiway Whiskey”
“Runway Three−Six Left, taxi via Alpha, hold short of
or
Charlie.”
“Follow (traffic), cross Runway Two Seven−Right at
or
Taxiway Whiskey, hold short of Runway Two−Seven Left.”
“Runway Three−Six Left, taxi via taxiway Alpha, hold e. Issue a crossing clearance to vehicles for each
short of Runway Two−Seven Right.” runway their route crosses. A vehicle must have
crossed a previous runway before another runway
or crossing clearance may be issued.
“Runway Three−Six Left, taxi via Charlie, cross Runway NOTE−
Two−Seven Left, hold short of Runway Two−Seven Right.” A clearance is required for vehicles to operate on any
active, inactive, or closed runway except for vehicles
or operating on closed runways in accordance with a Letter
of Agreement (LOA).
“Runway Three−Six Left, taxi via Alpha, Charlie, cross f. Vehicles that have been issued a clearance onto
Runway One−Zero.” a runway to conduct runway operations are
c. Issue a crossing clearance to aircraft for each authorized to cross intersecting runways, unless
runway their route crosses. An aircraft must have otherwise restricted. Issue hold short instructions as
crossed a previous runway before another runway needed.
crossing clearance may be issued. At those airports NOTE−
where the taxi distance between runway centerlines Vehicles should not normally use runways as transition
is 1,300 feet or less, multiple runway crossings may routes to other parts of the airfield. These movements are
be issued with a single clearance. The air traffic not considered runway operations and the use of
manager must submit a request to the appropriate alternative routes is preferred.
Service Area Director of Air Traffic Operations and g. Crossing of active runway(s) by aircraft/vehi-
receive approval before authorizing multiple runway cle(s):
crossings.
1. During departure operations, ensure that
NOTE− aircraft/vehicles intending to cross a runway do not
Controllers should avoid crossing points that are not cross the runway holding position markings until the
perpendicular or nearly perpendicular to the runway to be controller visually observes the departure aircraft in
crossed, (for example, reverse high speed taxiways). a turn, or the departure aircraft has passed the point
PHRASEOLOGY− where the crossing aircraft/vehicle is located,
“Cross (runway) at( runway/taxiway), hold short of regardless of altitude, unless authorized in FAA Or-

JO
JO 7110.65Z
7110.65R CHG
7110.65Z CHG
2 1 12/2/21
3/15/07
6/17/21
der JO 7110.65, paragraph 3−10−10, Altitude

Restricted Low Approach. “American Sixty Three, hold short of Runway Two Three
Left, traffic one mile final.”
REFERENCE−
AIM, Runway Position Holding Markings, Subpara 2−3−5a.
FAA Order 7110.65, Para 3−10−10, Altitude Restricted Low Approach. “American Sixty Three, Roger.”
2. During arrival operations, ensure the follow-
“American Sixty Three, read back hold instructions.”
ing:
3. “OPS Three proceed via taxiway Charlie hold short of
(a) An aircraft/vehicle has completed cross- Runway Two Seven.”
ing prior to the arriving aircraft crossing the landing
threshold, or or
REFERENCE−
P/CG Term − Clear of the Runway. “OPS Three proceed via Charlie hold short of Runway Two
Seven.”
(b) A crossing aircraft/vehicle will not cross
the runway holding position markings until the
“OPS Three, Roger.”
arrival has landed and either:
(1) The controller has confirmed by verbal “OPS Three, read back hold instructions.”
commitment from the pilot that the arriving aircraft NOTE−
will exit the runway prior to the point at which the Read back hold instructions phraseology may be initiated
crossing is intended, or for any point on a movement area when the controller
believes the read back is necessary.
(2) The controller visually observes the
aircraft exiting the runway prior to the point at which i. Issue progressive taxi/ground movement
the crossing is intended, or instructions when:
1. A pilot/operator requests.
(3) The arriving aircraft has passed the
point at which the crossing is intended. 2. The specialist deems it necessary due to
REFERENCE− traffic or field conditions, e.g., construction or closed
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−10−4, Intersecting taxiways.
Runway/Intersecting Flight Path Separation.
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 10−3−7, Land and Hold Short Operations 3. Necessary during reduced visibility,
(LAHSO). especially when the taxi route is not visible from the
h. Request a read back of runway hold short tower.
instructions when it is not received from the NOTE−
pilot/vehicle operator. Progressive instructions may include step−by−step
PHRASEOLOGY− directions and/or directional turns.
READ BACK HOLD INSTRUCTIONS. REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−7−4, Runway Proximity.
EXAMPLE− FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−11−1, Taxi and Ground Movement
1. “American Four Ninety Two, Runway Three Six Left, Operation.
taxi via taxiway Charlie, hold short of Runway Two Seven j. Issue instructions to expedite a taxiing aircraft or
Right.” a moving vehicle.
or PHRASEOLOGY−
TAXI WITHOUT DELAY (traffic if necessary).
“American Four Ninety Two, Runway Three Six Left, taxi
EXIT/PROCEED/CROSS (runway/taxiway) at
via Charlie, hold short of Runway Two Seven Right.”
(runway/taxiway) WITHOUT DELAY.
“American Four Ninety Two, Roger.” k. Issue instructions to aircraft/vehicle to hold
short of an approach/departure hold area when
“American Four Ninety Two, read back hold instructions.” required.
2. “Cleveland Tower, American Sixty Three is ready for PHRASEOLOGY−
departure.” HOLD SHORT OF (runway) APPROACH

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
NOTE−
HOLD SHORT OF (runway)DEPARTURE Establishing hold lines/signs is the responsibility of the
airport manager. The standards for surface measurements,
markings, and signs are contained in AC 150/5300−13,
Airport Design; AC 150/5340−1, Standards for Airport
3−7−3. GROUND OPERATIONS Markings, and AC 150/5340−18, Standards for Airport
Sign Systems. The operator is responsible for properly
positioning the aircraft, vehicle, or equipment at the
Avoid clearances which require: appropriate hold line/sign or designated point. The
requirements in paragraph 3−1−12, Visually Scanning
a. Super or heavy aircraft to use greater than Runways, remain valid as appropriate.
normal taxiing power. REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−7−2, Taxi and Ground Movement
Operations.
b. Small aircraft or helicopters to taxi in close FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−10−10, Altitude Restricted Low
proximity to taxiing or hover-taxi helicopters. Approach.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−1−5, Vehicles/Equipment/Personnel on
Runways.
NOTE−
Use caution when taxiing smaller aircraft/helicopters in
the vicinity of larger aircraft/helicopters. Controllers may 3−7−5. PRECISION APPROACH CRITICAL
use the words rotor wash, jet blast, or prop wash when AREA
issuing cautionary advisories.
a. ILS critical area dimensions are described in
EXAMPLE− FAA Order 6750.16, Siting Criteria for Instrument
“Follow Boeing 757, Runway Three−Six Left, taxi via Landing Systems. Aircraft and vehicle access to the
Alpha, Caution jet blast.” ILS critical area must be controlled to ensure the
integrity of ILS course signals whenever the official
or weather observation is a ceiling of less than 800 feet
or visibility less than 2 miles. Do not authorize
When appropriate,
vehicles/aircraft to operate in or over the critical area,
“Follow CH−53, Runway Two−One, taxi via Bravo, except as specified in subparagraph a1, whenever an
Caution rotor wash.” arriving aircraft is inside the ILS outer marker (OM)
or the fix used in lieu of the OM unless the arriving
REFERENCE− aircraft has reported the runway in sight or is circling
AC 90−23, Aircraft Wake Turbulence, Para 10 and Para 11.
to land on another runway.
PHRASEOLOGY−
HOLD SHORT OF (runway) ILS CRITICAL AREA.
3−7−4. RUNWAY PROXIMITY NOTE−
All available weather sources METARs/SPECI/PIREPS/
Hold a taxiing aircraft or vehicle clear of the runway Controller observations are reported ceilings and/or
as follows: visibilities and must be disseminated as described in FAA
Order JO 7110.65 and FAA Order JO 7210.3.
a. Instruct aircraft or vehicle to hold short of a REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−6−2 PIREP Solicitation and
specific runway. Dissemination.
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 2−9−2, Receipt and Dissemination of
Weather Observations.
b. Instruct aircraft or vehicle to hold at a specified FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 10−3−1, SIGMENT and PIREP Handling.
point. FAA Order JO 7900.5, Para 6.4d, Equipment for Sky Condition.
1. LOCALIZER CRITICAL AREA

c. Issue traffic information as necessary.
(a) Do not authorize vehicle or aircraft
PHRASEOLOGY− operations in or over the area when an arriving
HOLD SHORT OF/AT (runway number or specific point), aircraft is inside the ILS OM or the fix used in lieu of
(traffic or other information). the OM when the official weather observation is a

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
ceiling of less than 800 feet or visibility less than 2 NOTE−

miles, except: Signs and markings are installed by the airport operator to
define the ILS critical area. No point along the longitudinal
axis of the aircraft is permitted past the hold line for
(1) A preceding arriving aircraft on the holding purposes. The operator is responsible to properly
same or another runway that passes over or through position the aircraft, vehicle, or equipment at the
the area while landing or exiting the runway. appropriate hold line/sign or designated point. The
requirements in paragraph 3−1−12, Visually Scanning
Runways, remain valid as appropriate.
(2) A preceding departing aircraft or
REFERENCE−
missed approach on the same or another runway that AC150/5340−1, Standards for Airport Markings.
passes through or over the area.
3−7−6. PRECISION OBSTACLE FREE ZONE
(b) In addition to subparagraph a1(a), when (POFZ) AND FINAL APPROACH OBSTACLE
the official weather observation indicates a ceiling of CLEARANCE SURFACES (OCS)
less than 200 feet or RVR 2,000 feet, do not authorize a. Ensure the POFZ is clear of traffic (aircraft or
vehicles or aircraft operations in or over the area vehicles) when an aircraft on a vertically−guided
when an arriving aircraft is inside the middle marker, final approach is within 2 miles of the runway
or in the absence of a middle marker, 1/2 mile final. threshold and the official weather observation
indicates the ceiling is below 300 feet or visibility is
2. GLIDESLOPE CRITICAL AREA. Do not less than 3/4 SM to protect aircraft executing a missed
authorize vehicles or aircraft operations in or over the approach.
area when an arriving aircraft is inside the ILS OM or NOTE−
the fix used in lieu of the OM unless the arriving Only horizontal surfaces (e.g., the wings) can penetrate the
aircraft has reported the runway in sight or is circling POFZ, but not the vertical surfaces (e.g., fuselage or tail).
to land on another runway when the official weather Three hundred feet (300) is used because ATC does not
observation indicates a ceiling of less than 800 feet or measure ceilings in fifty (50) foot increments.
visibility less than 2 miles. b. Ensure the final approach OCS (e.g., ILS /LPV
W, X, and Y surfaces) are clear of aircraft/vehicles
b. Operators commonly conduct “coupled” or when an aircraft on the vertically−guided approach is
“autoland” approaches to satisfy maintenance, within 2 miles of the runway threshold and the official
training, or reliability program requirements. weather observation indicates the ceiling is below
Promptly issue an advisory if the critical area will not 800 feet or visibility is less than 2 SM to protect
be protected when an arriving aircraft advises that a aircraft executing a missed approach.
“coupled,” “CATIII,” “autoland,” or similar type NOTE−
approach will be conducted and the official weather 1. The POFZ and the close−in portion of the final
observation indicates a ceiling of 800 feet or more, or approach obstacle clearance surfaces protect aircraft
the visibility is 2 miles or more. executing a missed approach.
2. Vehicles that are less than 10 feet in height, necessary
PHRASEOLOGY− for the maintenance of the airport and/or navigation
ILS CRITICAL AREA NOT PROTECTED. facilities operating outside the movement area, are exempt.
c. If it is not possible to clear the POFZ or OCS
c. The Department of Defense (DOD) is author- prior to an aircraft reaching a point 2 miles from the
ized to define criteria for protection of precision runway threshold and the weather is less than
approach critical areas at military controlled airports. described in subparagraph a or b above, issue traffic
This protection is provided to all aircraft operating at to the landing aircraft.
that military controlled airport. Waiver authority for NOTE−
DOD precision approach critical area criteria rests The POFZ and/or OCS must be cleared as soon as
with the appropriate military authority. practical.

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
PHRASEOLOGY− “United 623, in the event of missed approach, taxiing

(ACID), IN THE EVENT OF MISSED APPROACH aircraft right of runway.”
(issue traffic).
“Delta 1058, in the event of missed approach, vehicle left
TAXIING AIRCRAFT/VEHICLE LEFT/RIGHT OF of runway.”
RUNWAY. REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−1−6, Traffic Information.
EXAMPLE− AC 150/5300−13, Airport Design.
FIG 3−7−1
Precision Obstacle Free Zone (POFZ)

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 8. Spacing and Sequencing
3−8−1. SEQUENCE/SPACING
APPLICATION or
Establish the sequence of arriving and departing UNABLE OPTION, (alternate instructions).
aircraft by requiring them to adjust flight or ground
or
operation, as necessary, to achieve proper spacing.
PHRASEOLOGY− UNABLE (type of option), OTHER OPTIONS
CLEARED FOR TAKEOFF. APPROVED.
NOTE−
CLEARED FOR TAKEOFF OR HOLD SHORT/HOLD IN 1. The “Cleared for the Option” procedure will permit an
POSITION/TAXI OFF THE RUNWAY (traffic). instructor pilot/flight examiner/pilot the option to make a
touch-and-go, low approach, missed approach, stop-
EXTEND DOWNWIND. and-go, or full stop landing. This procedure will only be
used at those locations with an operational control tower
MAKE SHORT APPROACH. and will be subject to ATC approval. After ATC approval
of the option, the pilot should inform ATC as soon as
NUMBER (landing sequence number), possible of any delay on the runway during their
stop-and-go or full stop landing.
FOLLOW (description and location of traffic), 2. For proper helicopter spacing, speed adjustments may
be more practical than course changes.
or if traffic is utilizing another runway,
3. Read back of hold short instructions apply when hold
TRAFFIC (description and location) LANDING RUNWAY instructions are issued to a pilot in lieu of a takeoff
(number of runway being used). clearance.
REFERENCE−
TRAFFIC (description and location) LANDING THE FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−7−2, Taxi and Ground Movement
PARALLEL RUNWAY Operations.
AIM, Para 4−3−22, Option Approach.
CIRCLE THE AIRPORT.

3−8−2. TOUCH-AND-GO OR STOP-AND-GO
MAKE LEFT/RIGHT THREE−SIXTY/TWO SEVENTY. OR LOW APPROACH
GO AROUND (additional instructions as necessary). Consider an aircraft cleared for touch-and-go,

stop-and-go, or low approach as an arriving aircraft
CLEARED TO LAND. until it touches down (for touch-and-go), or makes a
complete stop (for stop-and-go), or crosses the
CLEARED: landing threshold (for low approach), and thereafter
as a departing aircraft.
TOUCH−AND−GO, REFERENCE−
or FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−1−5, Vehicles/Equipment/Personnel on
Runways.
STOP−AND−GO, FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−9−7, Wake Turbulence Separation for
or
LOW APPROACH. 3−8−3. SIMULTANEOUS SAME DIRECTION

OPERATION
CLEARED FOR THE OPTION,
Authorize simultaneous, same direction operations
or on parallel runways, on parallel landing strips, or on
a runway and a parallel landing strip only when the
OPTION APPROVED, following conditions are met:
Spacing and Sequencing 3−8−1

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
a. Operations are conducted in VFR conditions 3−8−4. SIMULTANEOUS OPPOSITE

unless visual separation is applied. DIRECTION OPERATION
b. Two-way radio communication is maintained Authorize simultaneous opposite direction opera-
with the aircraft involved and pertinent traffic tions on parallel runways, on parallel landing strips,
information is issued. or on a runway and a parallel landing strip only when
the following conditions are met:
c. The distance between the parallel runways or
a. Operations are conducted in VFR conditions.
landing strips is in accordance with those specified in
TBL 3−8−1. b. Two-way radio communication is maintained
with the aircraft involved and pertinent traffic
TBL 3−8−1 information is issued.
Same Direction Distance Minima
PHRASEOLOGY−
TRAFFIC (description) ARRIVING/DEPARTING/LOW
Minimum distance (feet)
Aircraft category between parallel
APPROACH, OPPOSITE DIRECTION ON PARALLEL
RUNWAY/LANDING STRIP.
Edges of
Runway c. The distance between the runways or landing
adjacent strips or
centerlines
runway and strip strips is in accordance with the minima in
Category I or 300 200 TBL 3−8−2.
Category II
If either aircraft is a 500 400 TBL 3−8−2
Category III Opposite Direction Distance Minima
If either aircraft is a 700 600 Minimum distance (feet)
Heavy Type of Operation between parallel
Edges of
NOTE− Runway adjacent strips
1. Aircraft Categories specified in TBL 3−8−1 are Same centerlines or runway and
Runway Separation (SRS) categories as indicated in strip
paragraph 3−9−6, Same Runway Separation. Between sunrise and 1,400 1,400
2. When conducting Simultaneous Same Direction sunset
Operations (SSDO), applicable Wake Turbulence provi- Between sunset and 2,800 Not authorized
sions apply. sunrise
3−8−2 Spacing and Sequencing

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 9. Departure Procedures and Separation
3−9−1. DEPARTURE INFORMATION g. Issue braking action for the runway in use as
received from pilots when braking action advisories
Provide current departure information, as appropri- are in effect.
ate, to departing aircraft.
REFERENCE−
a. Departure information contained in the ATIS FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−7−2, Altimeter Setting Issuance Below
Lowest Usable FL.
broadcast may be omitted if the pilot states the FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−1−8, Low Level Wind
appropriate ATIS code. Shear/Microburst Advisories.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−3−5, Braking Action Advisories.
b. Issue departure information by including the P/CG Term− Braking Action Advisories.
following: h. Runway Condition Codes. Furnish RwyCC, as
received from the Airport Operator, to aircraft via the
1. Runway in use. (May be omitted if pilot states
ATIS.
“have the numbers.”)
i. For opposite direction departure operations,
2. Surface wind from direct readout dial, wind controllers may verbally issue the RwyCC, as
shear detection system, or automated weather identified in the FICON NOTAM, in reverse order.
observing system information display. (May be Controllers must not include reversed RwyCC on the
omitted if pilot states “have the numbers.”) ATIS broadcast.
3. Altimeter setting. (May be omitted if pilot j. When the ATIS is unavailable, and when the
states “have the numbers.”) runway length available for departure has been
REFERENCE− temporarily shortened, controllers must ensure that
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−7−1, Current Settings. pilots receive the runway number combined with a
c. Time, when requested. shortened announcement for all departing aircraft.
PHRASEOLOGY−
d. Issue the official ceiling and visibility, when RUNWAY (NUMBER) SHORTENED
available, to a departing aircraft before takeoff as
EXAMPLE−
follows:
“Runway Two-Seven shortened.”
1. To a VFR aircraft when weather is below
VFR conditions. 3−9−2. DEPARTURE DELAY INFORMATION
2. To an IFR aircraft when weather is below USA/USAF/USN NOT APPLICABLE
VFR conditions or highest takeoff minima, When gate-hold procedures are in effect, issue the
whichever is greater. following departure delay information as appropri-
NOTE− ate:
Standard takeoff minimums are published in 14 CFR REFERENCE−
Section 91.175(f). Takeoff minima other than standard are FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 10−4−3, Gate Hold Procedures.
prescribed for specific airports/runways and published in a. Advise departing aircraft the time at which the
a tabular form supplement to the FAA instrument approach pilot can expect to receive engine startup advisory.
procedures charts and appropriate FAA Forms 8260.
PHRASEOLOGY−
e. Issue the route for the aircraft/vehicle to follow GATE HOLD PROCEDURES ARE IN EFFECT. ALL
on the movement area in concise and easy to AIRCRAFT CONTACT (position) ON (frequency) FOR
understand terms. The taxi clearance must include the ENGINE START TIME. EXPECT ENGINE START/TAXI
specific route to follow. (time).
f. USAF NOT APPLICABLE. An advisory to b. Advise departing aircraft when to start engines
“check density altitude” when appropriate. and/or to advise when ready to taxi.
PHRASEOLOGY−
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 2−10−6, Broadcast Density Altitude START ENGINES, ADVISE WHEN READY TO TAXI,
Advisory.
Departure Procedures and Separation 3−9−1

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
or make radio frequency or radar beacon changes before

the aircraft reaches 2,500 feet above the surface.
ADVISE WHEN READY TO TAXI.
REFERENCE−
c. If the pilot requests to hold in a delay absorbing FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−2−1, Visual Separation.
area, the request must be approved if space and traffic
conditions permit. 3−9−4. LINE UP AND WAIT (LUAW)
d. Advise all aircraft on GC/FD frequency upon a. The intent of LUAW is to position aircraft for an
termination of gate hold procedures. imminent departure. Authorize an aircraft to line up
and wait, except as restricted in subparagraph g, when
PHRASEOLOGY− takeoff clearances cannot be issued because of traffic.
GATE HOLD PROCEDURES NO LONGER IN EFFECT.
Issue traffic information to any aircraft so authorized.
Traffic information may be omitted when the traffic
3−9−3. DEPARTURE CONTROL is another aircraft which has landed on or is taking off
INSTRUCTIONS the runway and is clearly visible to the holding
Inform departing IFR, SVFR, VFR aircraft receiving aircraft. Do not use conditional phrases such as
radar service, and TRSA VFR aircraft of the “behind landing traffic” or “after the departing
following: aircraft.”
a. Before takeoff. b. First state the runway number followed by the

line up and wait clearance.
1. Issue the appropriate departure control PHRASEOLOGY−
frequency and beacon code. The departure control RUNWAY (number), LINE UP AND WAIT.
frequency may be omitted if a SID has been or will be
NOTE−
assigned and the departure control frequency is When using LUAW, an imminent departure is one that will
published on the SID. not be delayed beyond the time that is required to ensure a
PHRASEOLOGY− safe operation. An aircraft should not be in LUAW status
DEPARTURE FREQUENCY (frequency), SQUAWK for more than 90 seconds without additional instructions.
(code). c. Procedures.
2. Inform all departing IFR military turboprop/ 1. At facilities without a safety logic system or
turbojet aircraft (except transport and cargo types) to facilities with the safety logic system in the limited
change to departure control frequency. If the local configuration:
controller has departure frequency override, transmit
urgent instructions on this frequency. If the override (a) Do not issue a landing clearance to an
capability does not exist, transmit urgent instructions aircraft requesting a full−stop, touch−and−go,
on the emergency frequency. stop−and−go, option, or unrestricted low approach on
the same runway with an aircraft that is holding in
PHRASEOLOGY− position or taxiing to line up and wait until the aircraft
CHANGE TO DEPARTURE.
in position starts takeoff roll.
3. USAF. USAF control towers are authorized PHRASEOLOGY−
to inform all departing IFR military transport/cargo RUNWAY (number), CONTINUE, TRAFFIC HOLDING
type aircraft operating in formation flight to change IN POSITION,
to departure control frequency before takeoff.
or
b. After takeoff.
1. When the aircraft is about 1/2 mile beyond the RUNWAY (number) (pattern instructions as appropriate)
runway end, instruct civil aircraft, and military TRAFFIC HOLDING IN POSITION.
transport, and cargo types to contact departure EXAMPLE−
control, provided further communication with you is “American 528, Runway Two−Three continue, traffic
not required. holding in position.”
2. Do not request departing military turboprop/ “Twin Cessna Four Four Golf, Runway One−Niner Right,
turbojet aircraft (except transport and cargo types) to base approved, traffic holding in position.”
3−9−2 Departure Procedures and Separation

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
4. Only one aircraft at a time is permitted to line

“Baron Two Five Foxtrot, Runway One−Niner, extend up and wait on the same runway.
downwind, tower will call your base, traffic holding in
position.” 5. Document on FAA Form 7230−4, Daily
Record of Facility Operation, the following: “LUAW
(b) Do not authorize an aircraft to LUAW if at INT of RWY (number) and TWY (name) IN
an aircraft has been cleared to land, touch−and−go, EFFECT” when using runway as a departure−only
stop−and–go, option, or unrestricted low approach on runway. “LUAW at INT of RWY (number) and TWY
the same runway. (name) SUSPENDED” when runway is not used as
2. Except when reported weather conditions are a departure−only runway.
less than ceiling 800 feet or visibility less than 2 g. Do not authorize an aircraft to line up and wait
miles, facilities using the safety logic system in the at anytime when the intersection is not visible from
full core alert mode: the tower.
(a) May issue a landing clearance for a h. Do not authorize aircraft to simultaneously line
full−stop, touch−and−go, stop−and−go, option, or up and wait on the same runway, between sunrise and
unrestricted low approach to an arriving aircraft with sunset, unless the local assist/local monitor position
an aircraft holding in position or taxiing to LUAW on is staffed.
the same runway, or i. USN. Do not authorize aircraft to line up and
(b) May authorize an aircraft to LUAW when wait simultaneously on intersecting runways.
an aircraft has been cleared for a full stop, PHRASEOLOGY−
touch−and−go, stop−and−go, option, or unrestricted CONTINUE HOLDING,
low approach on the same runway.
or
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−10−5, Landing Clearance.
TAXI OFF THE RUNWAY.
d. When an aircraft is authorized to line up and REFERENCE−
wait, inform it of the closest traffic within 6−flying FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−10−10, Altitude Restricted Low
Approach.
miles requesting a full−stop, touch−and−go, stop−
and− go, option, or unrestricted low approach to the j. When aircraft are authorized to line up and wait
same runway. on runways that intersect, traffic must be exchanged
between that aircraft and the aircraft that is authorized
EXAMPLE− to line up and wait, depart, or arrive to the intersecting
“United Five, Runway One Eight, line up and wait. Traffic runway(s).
a Boeing Seven Thirty Seven, six mile final.
EXAMPLE−
e. Do not authorize an aircraft to line up and wait “United Five, Runway Four, line up and wait, traffic
when the departure point is not visible from the tower, holding Runway Three−One.”
unless the aircraft’s position can be verified by ASDE “Delta One, Runway Three−One, line up and wait, traffic
or the runway is used for departures only. holding Runway Four.”
f. An aircraft may be authorized to line up and wait Or, when issuing traffic information to an arrival aircraft
at an intersection between sunset and sunrise under and an aircraft that is holding on runway(s) that
the following conditions: intersect(s):
1. The procedure must be approved by the “Delta One, Runway Four, line up and wait, traffic landing
appropriate Service Area Director of Air Traffic Runway Three−One.”
Operations. “United Five, Runway Three−One, cleared to land. Traffic
holding in position Runway Four.”
2. The procedure must be contained in a facility
directive. Or, when issuing traffic information to a departing aircraft
and an aircraft that is holding on runway(s) that
3. The runway must be used as a departure−only intersect(s):
runway.

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
“Delta One, Runway Three−One, line up and wait, traffic departing the full length of the runway if there are no
departing Runway Four.” aircraft holding for departure at an intersection for that
“United Five, Runway Four, cleared for takeoff, traffic same runway.
holding in position Runway Three−One.”
o. Do not use the term “full length” when the
REFERENCE− runway length available for departure has been
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−9−8, Intersecting Runway/Intersecting
Flight Path Operations. temporarily shortened. On permanently shortened
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−10−4, Intersecting runways, do not use the term “full length” until the
Runway/Intersecting Flight Path Separation.
Chart Supplement U.S. is updated to include the
k. When a local controller delivers or amends an change(s).
ATC clearance to an aircraft awaiting departure and NOTE−
that aircraft is holding short of a runway or is holding The use of the term “full length” could be interpreted by the
in position on a runway, an additional clearance must pilot(s) as the available runway length prior to the runway
be issued to prevent the possibility of the aircraft being shortened.
inadvertently taxiing onto the runway and/or
p. Whenever a runway length has been temporar-
beginning takeoff roll. In such cases, append one of
ily or permanently shortened, state the word
the following ATC instructions as appropriate:
“shortened” immediately following the runway
1. HOLD SHORT OF RUNWAY, or number as part of the line up and wait clearance.
2. HOLD IN POSITION. 1. The addition of “shortened” must be included
in the line up and wait clearance for the duration of the
l. USAF/USN. When issuing additional instruc-
construction project when the runway is temporarily
tions or information to an aircraft holding in takeoff
shortened.
position, include instructions to continue holding or
taxi off the runway, unless it is cleared for takeoff. 2. The addition of “shortened” must be included
in the line up and wait clearance until the Chart
PHRASEOLOGY−
CONTINUE HOLDING, Supplement U.S. is updated to include the change(s)
when the runway is permanently shortened.
or PHRASEOLOGY−
RUNWAY (number) SHORTENED, LINE UP AND WAIT.
TAXI OFF THE RUNWAY. EXAMPLE−
REFERENCE− “Runway Two-Seven shortened, line up and wait.”
Approach. REFERENCE−
m. When authorizing an aircraft to line up and FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 10-3-13, Change in Runway Length Due
to Construction.
wait at an intersection, state the runway intersection.
PHRASEOLOGY− 3−9−5. ANTICIPATING SEPARATION
RUNWAY (number) AT (taxiway designator), LINE UP
AND WAIT. Takeoff clearance need not be withheld until
n. When two or more aircraft call the tower ready prescribed separation exists if there is a reasonable
for departure, one or more at the full length of a assurance it will exist when the aircraft starts takeoff
runway and one or more at an intersection, state the roll.
location of the aircraft at the full length of the runway REFERENCE−
P/CG Term − Clear of the Runway.
when authorizing that aircraft to line up and wait.
PHRASEOLOGY− 3−9−6. SAME RUNWAY SEPARATION
RUNWAY (number), FULL−LENGTH, LINE UP AND
WAIT. Separate a departing aircraft from a preceding
departing or arriving aircraft using the same runway
EXAMPLE−
“American Four Eighty Two, Runway Three−Zero full by ensuring that it does not begin takeoff roll until:
length, line up and wait.” a. The other aircraft has departed and crossed the
NOTE− runway end or turned to avert any conflict. (See
The controller need not state the location of the aircraft FIG 3−9−1.) If you can determine distances by

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
reference to suitable landmarks, the other aircraft CATEGORY I small single−engine propeller driven
needs only be airborne if the following minimum aircraft weighing 12,500 lbs. or less, and all helicopters.
distance exists between aircraft: (See FIG 3−9−2.)
CATEGORY II small twin−engine propeller driven
1. When only Category I aircraft are involved− aircraft weighing 12,500 lbs. or less.
3,000 feet.
CATEGORY III all other aircraft.
2. When a Category I aircraft is preceded by a
Category II aircraft− 3,000 feet. b. A preceding landing aircraft is clear of the
runway. (See FIG 3−9−3.)
3. When either the succeeding or both are
Category II aircraft− 4,500 feet. FIG 3−9−3
Preceding Landing Aircraft Clear of Runway
4. When either is a Category III aircraft−
6,000 feet.
5. When the succeeding aircraft is a helicopter,
visual separation may be applied in lieu of using
distance minima.
FIG 3−9−1
Same Runway Separation
[View 1]
REFERENCE−
P/CG Term− Clear of the Runway.
WAKE TURBULENCE APPLICATION
c. Do not issue clearances which imply or indicate

approval of rolling takeoffs by super or heavy aircraft
except as provided in paragraph 3−1−14, Ground
Operations When Volcanic Ash is Present.
d. Do not issue clearances to a small aircraft to line
FIG 3−9−2
up and wait on the same runway behind a departing
[View 2] super or heavy aircraft to apply the necessary
intervals.
REFERENCE−
AC 90−23, Aircraft Wake Turbulence.
e. The minima in paragraph 5−5−4, Minima,

subparagraph g, may be applied in lieu of the time
interval requirements in subparagraphs f, g, and h.
When paragraph 5−5−4, Minima, is applied, ensure
that the appropriate radar separation exists at or prior
to the time an aircraft becomes airborne.
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 2–1–16, Authorization for Separation
Services by Towers.
NOTE− FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 10–5–3, Functional Use of Certified
Aircraft same runway separation (SRS) categories are Tower radar Displays.
specified in FAA Order JO 7360.1, Aircraft Type NOTE−
Designators and based upon the following definitions: 1. The pilot may request additional separation, but should
make this request before taxiing on the runway.

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
2. Takeoff clearance to the following aircraft should not be FIG 3−9−5

issued until the time interval has passed after the preceding Same Runway Separation
aircraft begins takeoff roll.
f. Separate aircraft taking off from the same
runway or a parallel runway separated by less than
2,500 feet (See FIG 3−9−4):
1. Heavy, large, or small behind super − 3
minutes.
2. Heavy, large, or small behind heavy − 2
minutes.
FIG 3−9−4
FIG 3−9−6
Parallel Runway Separated by Less than 700 Feet
g. Separate a small behind a B757 aircraft by 2

minutes when departing:
1. The same runway or a parallel runway 2. A parallel runway separated by 700 feet or
separated by less than 700 feet. (See FIG 3−9−5 and more if projected flight paths will cross. (See
FIG 3−9−6.) FIG 3−9−7).

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
FIG 3−9−7 2. Heavy, large, or small behind heavy − 2

Parallel Runway Separated by 700 Feet or More minutes.
Projected Flight Paths Cross
3. Small behind B757 − 2 minutes.
j. Separate an aircraft behind another aircraft that
has departed or made a low/missed approach when
utilizing opposite direction takeoffs or landings on
the same or parallel runways separated by less than
2,500 feet by the following minima:
minutes.
minutes
k. Separate a small aircraft behind a B757 that has
departed or made a low/missed approach by 3
minutes when utilizing opposite direction takeoffs or
h. Separate aircraft departing from a parallel landings from:
runway separated by 2,500 feet or more if projected 1. The same runway or a parallel runway
flight paths will cross (See FIG 3−9−8): separated by less than 700 feet.
1. Heavy, large, or small behind super − 3 2. A parallel runway separated by 700 feet or
minutes. more if projected flight paths will cross.
2. Heavy, large, or small behind heavy − 2 l. Do not approve pilot requests to deviate from the
minutes. required intervals contained in subparagraphs f
through k.
FIG 3−9−8 PHRASEOLOGY−
Parallel Runways Separated by 2,500 feet or More HOLD FOR WAKE TURBULENCE.
REFERENCE−
m. Separate a small aircraft behind a large aircraft

(except B757) that has departed or made a
low/missed approach when utilizing opposite
direction takeoffs on the same runway by 3 minutes
unless a pilot has initiated a request to deviate from
the time interval. In the latter case, issue a wake
turbulence cautionary advisory before clearing the
aircraft for takeoff. Controllers must not initiate or
suggest a waiver of the time interval.
NOTE−
A request for takeoff does not initiate a waiver request.
i. Separate aircraft when operating on a runway n. Inform aircraft when it is necessary to hold in
with a displaced landing threshold if projected flight order to provide the required time interval.
paths will cross when either a departure follows an
arrival or an arrival follows a departure by the 3−9−7. WAKE TURBULENCE SEPARATION
following minima: FOR INTERSECTION DEPARTURES
1. Heavy, large, or small behind super − 3 a. Apply the following wake turbulence criteria
minutes. for intersection departures:

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
1. Separate a small aircraft weighing 12,500 lbs. NOTE−

or less taking off from an intersection on the same Aircraft conducting touch-and-go and stop-and-go
runway (same or opposite direction takeoff) behind a operations are considered to be departing from an
departing small aircraft weighing more than 12,500 intersection.
lbs. by ensuring that the aircraft does not start takeoff REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−8−2, Touch−and−Go or Stop−and−Go
roll until at least 3 minutes after the preceding aircraft or Low Approach.
has taken off.
b. The time interval is not required when:
2. Separate a small aircraft taking off from an
1. A pilot has initiated a request to deviate from
intersection on the same runway (same or opposite
the time intervals contained in subparagraph a1 or a2.
direction takeoff) behind a departing large aircraft
(except B757) by ensuring that the aircraft does not NOTE−
start takeoff roll until at least 3 minutes after the A request for takeoff does not initiate a waiver request; the
preceding aircraft has taken off. request for takeoff must be accomplished by a request to
deviate from the time interval.
3. Separate a small aircraft taking off from an 2. USA NOT APPLICABLE. The intersection
intersection (same or opposite direction takeoff) is 500 feet or less from the departure point of the
behind a preceding departing B757 aircraft by preceding aircraft and both aircraft are taking off in
ensuring that the small aircraft does not start takeoff the same direction.
roll until at least 3 minutes after the B757 has taken
off from: 3. Successive touch-and-go or stop-and-go
operations are conducted with any aircraft following
(a) The same runway or a parallel runway an aircraft in the pattern that requires wake turbulence
separated by less than 700 feet. separation, or an aircraft departing the same runway
(b) Parallel runways separated by 700 feet or that requires wake turbulence separation in
more, or parallel runways separated by 700 feet or accordance with subparagraphs a1, a2, a3, or a4
more with the runway thresholds offset by 500 feet or (except for super aircraft), provided the pilot is
more, if projected flight paths will cross. maintaining visual separation/spacing behind the
preceding aircraft. Issue a wake turbulence
4. Separate aircraft departing from an cautionary advisory and the position of the larger
intersection on the same runway (same or opposite aircraft.
direction takeoff), parallel runways separated by less NOTE−
than 2,500 feet, and parallel runways separated by Not authorized with a Super as the lead or departure
less than 2,500 feet with the runway thresholds offset aircraft.
by 500 feet or more, by ensuring that the aircraft does REFERENCE−
not start take-off roll until the following intervals FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−5−4, Minima, subpara g.
exist after the preceding aircraft has taken off: FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−2−1, Visual Separation.
NOTE− 4. If action is initiated to reduce the separation

Apply paragraph 3−9−6, Same Runway Separation, between successive touch-and-go or stop-and-go
subparagraph f to parallel runways separated by less than operations, apply the appropriate separation con-
2,500 feet with runway thresholds offset by less than 500 tained in subparagraph a1, a2, a3, or a4.
feet.
c. When applying the provision of subparagraph b:
(a) Heavy, large, or small behind super - 4
1. Issue a wake turbulence advisory before
minutes.
clearing the aircraft for takeoff.
(b) Heavy, large, or small behind heavy - 3
2. Do not clear the intersection departure for an
minutes.
immediate takeoff.
5. Inform aircraft when it is necessary to hold in 3. Issue a clearance to permit the trailing aircraft
order to provide the required time interval. to deviate from course enough to avoid the flight path
PHRASEOLOGY− of the preceding aircraft when applying subparagraph
HOLD FOR WAKE TURBULENCE. b1 or b2.

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
4. Separation requirements in accordance with REFERENCE−

paragraph 3−9−6, Same Runway Separation, must
P/CG Term – Landing Roll.
also apply.
FIG 3−9−10
REFERENCE−
Intersecting Runway Separation
3−9−8. INTERSECTING RUNWAY/INTER-

SECTING FLIGHT PATH OPERATIONS
a. Issue traffic information to each aircraft
operating on intersecting runways.
b. Separate departing aircraft from another
aircraft using an intersecting runway by ensuring that
the departure does not begin takeoff roll until one of
the following exists:
REFERENCE−
1. The preceding aircraft has departed and

passed the intersection or is turning to avert any WAKE TURBULENCE APPLICATION
conflict. (See FIG 3−9−9).
3. Separate aircraft taking off behind a
FIG 3−9−9 departing or landing aircraft on an intersecting
Intersecting Runway Separation runway if flight paths will cross (See FIG 3−9−11 and
FIG 3−9−12):
NOTE−
Takeoff clearance to the following aircraft should not be
issued until the appropriate time interval has passed after
the preceding aircraft began takeoff roll.
(a) Heavy, large, or small behind super − 3
minutes.
(b) Heavy, large, or small behind heavy − 2
minutes.
(c) Small behind B757 − 2 minutes.
FIG 3−9−11
Departure Behind Departure on Intersecting Runway
2. A preceding arriving aircraft (See

FIG 3−9−10).
(a) Is clear of the landing runway, or
(b) Has completed the landing roll on the
runway and will hold short of the intersection, or
(c) Has completed the landing roll and is
observed turning at an exit point prior to the
intersection, or
(d) Has passed the intersection.

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
FIG 3−9−12 2. A preceding arriving aircraft has completed

Departure Behind Arrival on Intersecting Runway the landing roll and will hold short of the projected
intersection, passed the projected intersection, or has
crossed over the departure runway (See FIG 3−9−14
and FIG 3−9−15 ).
FIG 3−9−14
4. Pilot requests to deviate from the required

time intervals must not be approved if the preceding
aircraft requires wake turbulence separation.
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−5−4, Minima, Subpara g.
FIG 3−9−15
3−9−9. NONINTERSECTING CONVERGING
RUNWAY OPERATIONS
a. Separate departing aircraft from an aircraft
using a nonintersecting runway when the flight paths
intersect by ensuring that the departure does not begin
takeoff roll until one of the following exists:
REFERENCE−

crossed the departure runway, or is turning to avert
any conflict. (See FIG 3−9−13).
FIG 3−9−13
b. If the extended centerline of a runway crosses a

converging runway or the extended centerline of a
converging runway at a distance of 1 NM or less from
either departure end, apply the provisions of
paragraph 3−9−8, Intersecting Runway/ Intersecting
Flight Path Operations, unless the facility is using
aids specified in a facility directive, (may include but
are not limited to, Arrival/Departure Window
(ADW), ASDE−X Virtual Runway Intersection Point
(VRIP), cut−off points or automation). (See
FIG 3−9−16 and FIG 3−9−17.)
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 10-3-15, Go-Around/Missed Approach.

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
FIG 3−9−16 FIG 3−9−18

Intersecting Runway Separation Intersecting Runway Separation
NOTE−
Takeoff clearance to the following aircraft should not be
issued until the time interval has passed from when the
FIG 3−9−17 preceding aircraft began takeoff roll.
d. Separate aircraft departing behind a landing
aircraft on a crossing runway if the departure will fly
through the airborne path of the arrival (See
FIG 3−9−19):
minutes.
minutes.
FIG 3−9−19
c. Separate aircraft taking off behind a departing

aircraft on a crossing runway if projected flight paths
will cross (See FIG 3−9−18):

minutes.

minutes. e. Do not approve pilot requests to deviate from
the required time interval if the preceding aircraft
3. Small behind B757 − 2 minutes. requires wake turbulence separation.

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
REFERENCE− FIG 3−9−20

FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−8−3, Successive or Simultaneous Runway/Taxiway Proximity
Departures.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−8−5, Departures and Arrivals on
Parallel or Nonintersecting Diverging Runways.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−5−4, Minima, Subpara g.
3−9−10. TAKEOFF CLEARANCE

a. When issuing a clearance for takeoff, first state
the runway number followed by the takeoff
clearance.
PHRASEOLOGY−
RUNWAY (number), CLEARED FOR TAKEOFF.
EXAMPLE−
“RUNWAY TWO SEVEN, CLEARED FOR TAKEOFF.”
NOTE−
Turbine−powered aircraft may be considered ready for
takeoff when they reach the runway unless they advise
otherwise.
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−3−1, Departure Terminology.
b. When clearing an aircraft for takeoff from an
intersection, state the runway intersection.
PHRASEOLOGY−
RUNWAY (number) AT (taxiway designator) CLEARED
FOR TAKEOFF.
c. When two or more aircraft call the tower ready e. At those airports where the airport configuration
for departure, one or more at the full length of a does not allow for an aircraft to completely cross one
runway and one or more at an intersection, state the runway and hold short of the departure runway and/or
location of the aircraft at the full length of the runway where airports do not have runway hold markings
when clearing that aircraft for takeoff. between runways, state the runway to be crossed with
the takeoff clearance if the aircraft is not able to
PHRASEOLOGY−
RUNWAY (number), FULL LENGTH, CLEARED FOR
complete a runway crossing before reaching its
TAKEOFF. departure runway.
EXAMPLE−
“American Four Eighty Two, Runway Three Zero full PHRASEOLOGY−
length, cleared for takeoff.” CROSS RUNWAY (number), RUNWAY (number)
CLEARED FOR TAKEOFF.
d. The controller must ensure that all runways
along the taxi route that lead to the departure runway EXAMPLE−
are crossed before the takeoff clearance is issued, “CROSS RUNWAY TWO FOUR LEFT, RUNWAY TWO
except as stated in paragraph 3−9−10e. FOUR RIGHT, CLEARED FOR TAKEOFF.”

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
FIG 3−9−21 U.S. is updated to include the change(s) when the

Runway/Taxiway Proximity runway is permanently shortened.
PHRASEOLOGY−
RUNWAY (number) SHORTENED, CLEARED FOR
TAKEOFF.
EXAMPLE−
“Runway Two-Seven shortened, cleared for takeoff.”
PHRASEOLOGY−
RUNWAY (number) AT (taxiway designator)
INTERSECTION DEPARTURE SHORTENED,
EXAMPLE−
“Runway Two-Seven at Juliet, intersection departure
shortened, cleared for takeoff.”
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 10-3-13, Change in Runway Length Due
to Construction.
h. USAF. When an aircraft is cleared for takeoff,

REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 10−3−10, Takeoff Clearance. inform it of the closest traffic within 6 miles on final
P/CG Term − Clear of the Runway. approach to the same runway. If the approaching
f. Do not use the term “full length” when the aircraft is on a different frequency, inform it of the
runway length available for departure has been departing aircraft.
temporarily shortened. On permanently shortened i. USA/USN/USAF. Issue surface wind and
runways, do not use the term “full length” until the takeoff clearance to aircraft.
Chart Supplement U.S. is updated to include the
change(s). PHRASEOLOGY−
RUNWAY (number), WIND (surface wind in direction and
NOTE− velocity). CLEARED FOR TAKEOFF.
The use of the term “full length” could be interpreted by the
pilot(s) as the available runway length prior to the runway
being shortened. 3−9−11. CANCELLATION OF TAKEOFF
g. Whenever a runway length has been temporar- CLEARANCE
ily or permanently shortened, state the word
Cancel a previously issued clearance for takeoff and
“shortened” immediately following the runway
inform the pilot of the reason if circumstances
number as part of the takeoff clearance. This
require. Once an aircraft has started takeoff roll,
information must be issued in conjunction with the
cancel the takeoff clearance only for the purpose of
takeoff clearance.
safety.
1. The addition of “shortened” must be included
NOTE−
in the takeoff clearance for the duration of the In no case should a takeoff clearance be canceled after an
construction project when the runway is temporarily aircraft has started its takeoff roll solely for the purpose of
shortened. meeting traffic management requirements/EDCT.
2. The addition of “shortened” must be included PHRASEOLOGY−
in the takeoff clearance until the Chart Supplement CANCEL TAKEOFF CLEARANCE (reason).

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 10. Arrival Procedures and Separation
3−10−1. LANDING INFORMATION sectional charts. This does not preclude the use of the
legs of the traffic pattern as reporting points.
Provide current landing information, as appropriate,
NOTE−
to arriving aircraft. Landing information contained in
At some locations, VFR checkpoints are depicted on
the ATIS broadcast may be omitted if the pilot states sectional aeronautical and terminal area charts. In
the appropriate ATIS code. Runway, wind, and selecting geographical fixes, depicted VFR checkpoints
altimeter may be omitted if a pilot uses the phrase are preferred unless the pilot exhibits a familiarity with the
“have numbers.” Issue landing information by local area.
including the following: h. Ceiling and visibility if either is below basic
NOTE− VFR minima.
Pilot use of “have numbers” does not indicate receipt of the
i. Low level wind shear or microburst advisories
ATIS broadcast.
when available.
a. Specific traffic pattern information (may be REFERENCE−
omitted if the aircraft is to circle the airport to the left). FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−1−8 , Low Level Wind
Shear/Microburst Advisories.
PHRASEOLOGY−
j. Issue braking action for the runway in use as
ENTER LEFT/RIGHT BASE.
received from pilots when braking action advisories
STRAIGHT−IN. are in effect.
REFERENCE−
MAKE STRAIGHT−IN. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−3−5 , Braking Action Advisories.
k. Runway Condition Codes. Furnish RwyCC, as
STRAIGHT−IN APPROVED. received from the Airport Operator, to aircraft via the
ATIS.
RIGHT TRAFFIC.
l. For opposite direction arrival operations,
MAKE RIGHT TRAFFIC. controllers may verbally issue the RwyCC, as
identified in the FICON NOTAM, in reverse order.
RIGHT TRAFFIC APPROVED. Controllers must not include reversed RwyCC on the
ATIS broadcast.
CONTINUE.
m. If the pilot does not indicate the appropriate
NOTE− ATIS code, and when a runway has been shortened,
Additional information should normally be issued with
controllers must ensure that pilots receive the runway
instructions to continue. Example: “continue, report one
mile final”; “continue, expect landing clearance two mile number combined with a shortened announcement
final”; etc. for all arriving aircraft.
b. Runway in use. 3−10−2. FORWARDING APPROACH

c. Surface wind. INFORMATION BY NONAPPROACH
CONTROL FACILITIES
d. Altimeter setting.
a. Forward the following, as appropriate, to the
REFERENCE− control facility having IFR jurisdiction in your area.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−7−1, Current Settings.
You may eliminate those items that, because of local
e. Any supplementary information. conditions or situations, are fully covered in a letter
of agreement or a facility directive.
f. Clearance to land.
1. When you clear an arriving aircraft for a
g. Requests for additional position reports. Use visual approach.
prominent geographical fixes which can be easily REFERENCE−
recognized from the air, preferably those depicted on FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−4−1 , Visual Approach.
Arrival Procedures and Separation 3−10−1

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
2. Aircraft arrival time. (a) When a Category I aircraft is landing

behind a Category I or II− 3,000 feet.
3. Cancellation of IFR flight plan. (See FIG 3−10−2.)
4. Information on a missed approach,
FIG 3−10−2
unreported, or overdue aircraft.
5. Runway in use.
6. Weather as required.
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−6−3, Reporting Weather Conditions.
b. When the weather is below 1,000 feet or 3 miles

or the highest circling minimums, whichever is
greater, issue current weather to aircraft executing an
instrument approach if it changes from that on the
ATIS or that previously forwarded to the center/
approach control.
(b) When a Category II aircraft is landing

3−10−3. SAME RUNWAY SEPARATION behind a Category I or II− 4,500 feet.
(See FIG 3−10−3.)
a. Separate an arriving aircraft from another
aircraft using the same runway by ensuring that the FIG 3−10−3
arriving aircraft does not cross the landing threshold Same Runway Separation
until one of the following conditions exists or unless
authorized in paragraph 3−10−10, Altitude Restricted
Low Approach.
1. The other aircraft has landed and is clear of

the runway. (See FIG 3−10−1.) Between sunrise and
sunset, if you can determine distances by reference to
suitable landmarks and the other aircraft has landed,
it need not be clear of the runway if the following
minimum distance from the landing threshold exists:
REFERENCE−
P/CG Term − Clear of the Runway.
2. The other aircraft has departed and crossed
FIG 3−10−1 the runway end. (See FIG 3−10−4). If you can
Same Runway Separation determine distances by reference to suitable
landmarks and the other aircraft is airborne, it need
not have crossed the runway end if the following
minimum distance from the landing threshold exists:
(a) Category I aircraft landing behind

Category I or II− 3,000 feet.
(b) Category II aircraft landing behind

Category I or II− 4,500 feet.
(c) When either is a category III aircraft−

6,000 feet. (See FIG 3−10−5.)
3−10−2 Arrival Procedures and Separation

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
FIG 3−10−4 FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−10−10, Altitude Restricted Low
Same Runway Separation Approach.
EXAMPLE−
1. “Runway two seven left cleared to land, caution wake
turbulence, heavy Boeing 747 departing runway two seven
right.”
2. “Number two follow Boeing 757 on 2-mile final.
Caution wake turbulence.”
3. “Traffic, Boeing 737 on 2−mile final to the parallel
runway, runway two six right, cleared to land. Caution
wake turbulence.”
3−10−4. INTERSECTING RUNWAY/INTER-

SECTING FLIGHT PATH SEPARATION
FIG 3−10−5
Same Runway Separation Issue traffic information to each aircraft operating on
intersecting runways.
a. Separate an arriving aircraft using one runway

from another aircraft using an intersecting runway or
a nonintersecting runway when the flight paths
intersect by ensuring that the arriving aircraft does
not cross the landing threshold or flight path of the
other aircraft until one of the following conditions
exists:
REFERENCE−

3. When the succeeding aircraft is a helicopter, passed the intersection/flight path or is airborne and
visual separation may be applied in lieu of using turning to avert any conflict.
distance minima. (See FIG 3−10−6 and FIG 3−10−7.)
FIG 3−10−6
WAKE TURBULENCE APPLICATION Intersecting Runway Separation
b. Issue wake turbulence advisories, and the

position, altitude if known, and the direction of flight
of:
1. The super or heavy to aircraft landing behind

a departing/arriving super or heavy on the same or
parallel runways separated by less than 2,500 feet.
2. The B757/large aircraft to a small aircraft

landing behind a departing/arriving B757/large
aircraft on the same or parallel runways separated by
less than 2,500 feet.
REFERENCE−
AC 90−23, Aircraft Wake Turbulence, Para 12, Pilot Responsibility.

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
FIG 3−10−7 FIG 3−10−9

Intersecting Runway Separation Intersection Runway Separation
NOTE−
When visual separation is being applied by the tower,
appropriate control instructions and traffic advisories
must be issued to ensure go around or missed approaches
avert any conflict with the flight path of traffic on the other
runway.
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−2−1, Visual Separation, subpara a2.
b. “USA/USAF/USN NOT APPLICABLE.” An

2. A preceding arriving aircraft is clear of the aircraft may be authorized to takeoff from one
landing runway, completed landing roll and will hold runway while another aircraft lands simultaneously
short of the intersection/flight path, or has passed the on an intersecting runway or an aircraft lands on one
intersection/flight path. runway while another aircraft lands simultaneously
(See FIG 3−10−8 and FIG 3−10−9.) on an intersecting runway, or an aircraft lands to hold
short of an intersecting taxiway or some other
predetermined point such as an approach/departure
FIG 3−10−8 flight path using procedures specified in the current
Intersection Runway Separation LAHSO directive. The procedure must be approved
by the air traffic manager and be in accordance with
a facility directive. The following conditions apply:
NOTE−
Application of these procedures does not relieve
controllers from the responsibility of providing other
appropriate separation contained in this order.
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 10−3−7, Land and Hold Short Operations
(LAHSO).
1. A simultaneous takeoff and landing operation

must only be conducted in VFR conditions.
2. Instruct the landing aircraft to hold short of
the intersecting runway being used by the aircraft
taking off. In the case of simultaneous landings and
no operational benefit is lost, restrict the aircraft of
the lesser weight category (if known). LAHSO
clearances must only be issued to aircraft that are

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
listed in the current LAHSO directive, whose LAHSO directive, with no reports that braking action
Available Landing Distance (ALD) does not exceed is less than good.
the landing distance requirement for the runway
7. There is no tailwind for the landing aircraft
condition.
restricted to hold short of the intersection. The wind
PHRASEOLOGY− may be described as “calm” when appropriate.
HOLD SHORT OF RUNWAY (runway number), (traffic, REFERENCE−
type aircraft or other information). FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−6−3, Reporting Weather Conditions.
NOTE− 8. The aircraft required landing distances are

Pilots who prefer to use the full length of the runway or a listed in the current LAHSO directive.
runway different from that specified are expected to advise
ATC prior to landing. 9. STOL aircraft operations are in accordance
with a letter of agreement with the aircraft
3. Issue traffic information to both aircraft operator/pilot or the pilot confirms that it is a STOL
involved and obtain an acknowledgment from each. aircraft.
Request a read back of hold short instructions when
they are not received from the pilot of the restricted WAKE TURBULENCE APPLICATION
aircraft.
EXAMPLE−
c. Separate aircraft landing behind a departing
1. “Runway one eight cleared to land, hold short of aircraft on a crossing runway if the arrival will fly
runway one four left, traffic, (type aircraft) landing runway through the airborne path of the departure by the
one four left.” appropriate radar separation or the following
interval: (See FIG 3−10−10):
(When pilot of restricted aircraft responds with only 1. Heavy, large, or small behind super − 3
acknowledgment):
minutes.
“Runway one four left cleared to land, traffic, (type 2. Heavy, large, or small behind heavy − 2
aircraft) landing runway one eight will hold short of the minutes.
intersection.”
“Read back hold short instructions.” d. Issue wake turbulence cautionary advisories,
2. “Runway three six cleared to land, hold short of runway the position, altitude if known, and direction of flight
three three, traffic, (type aircraft) departing runway three of the super, heavy, or B757 to:
three.” REFERENCE−
AC 90−23, Aircraft Wake Turbulence, Para 11, Pilot Responsibility.
“Traffic, (type aircraft) landing runway three six will hold
FIG 3−10−10
short of the intersection, runway three three cleared for
takeoff.”
4. Issue the measured distance from the landing

threshold to the hold short point rounded “down” to
the nearest 50−foot increment if requested by either
aircraft.
EXAMPLE−
“Five thousand fifty feet available.”
5. The conditions in subparagraphs b2, 3, and 4
must be met in sufficient time for the pilots to take
other action, if desired, and no later than the time
landing clearance is issued.
6. Land and Hold Short runways must be free of
any contamination as described in the current

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
1. All aircraft landing on a crossing runway FIG 3−10−12

behind a departing super or heavy, or a small aircraft Intersecting Runway Separation
landing on a crossing runway behind a departing
B757, if the arrival flight path will cross the takeoff
path behind the departing aircraft rotation point. (See
FIG 3−10−11.)
FIG 3−10−11
EXAMPLE−
“Runway niner cleared to land. Caution wake turbulence,
Boeing Seven Fifty Seven landing runway three six.”
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−4−4, Approaches to Multiple Runways.
3−10−5. LANDING CLEARANCE

a. When issuing a clearance to land, first state the
EXAMPLE− runway number followed by the landing clearance. If
“Runway niner cleared to land. Caution wake turbulence, the landing runway is changed, controllers must
heavy C−One Forty One departing runway one five.” preface the landing clearance with “Change to
2. All VFR aircraft landing on a crossing runway” followed by the runway number.
runway behind an arriving super or heavy, and VFR Controllers must then restate the runway number
small aircraft landing on a crossing runway behind a followed by the landing clearance.
B757, if the arrival flight paths will cross. (See PHRASEOLOGY−
FIG 3−10−12.) RUNWAY (number) CLEARED TO LAND.
Or
CHANGE TO RUNWAY (number, RUNWAY (number)

CLEARED TO LAND.
NOTE−
The purpose of the “change to runway” phraseology and
restating the runway number is to emphasize to the pilot
that they are being cleared to land on a runway other than
what they were expecting.
b. When you become aware that an aircraft is
aligned with the wrong surface, inform the pilot and:
1. Issue control instructions/clearances, or

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
“United four twenty three, go−around, you appear to “Delta One, Runway One−Eight, continue, traffic holding
be aligned with the wrong runway.” in position.”
“American sixty three, go−around, you appear to be “Delta One, Runway One−Eight, cleared to land. Traffic
aligned with a taxiway.” holding in position.”
“Twin Cessna Four Four Golf, Runway One-Niner base
approved, traffic holding in position.”
“Southwest two thirty nine, you appear to be aligned “Baron Two Five Foxtrot, Runway One-Niner Right extend
with Runway 27 Left (pertinent information), Runway downwind, tower will call your base, traffic holding in
27 Left, cleared to land.” position.”
e. USA/USN/USAF. Issue runway identifier
2. If time permits, verify the pilot is aligned with along with surface wind when clearing an aircraft to
the correct runway. Issue control instructions/clear- land, touch and go, stop and go, low approach, or the
ances as necessary. option.
PHRASEOLOGY−
EXAMPLE−
RUNWAY (number), WIND (surface wind direction and
“Twin Cessna four one four lima bravo, verify you are
velocity), CLEARED TO LAND.
aligned with Runway 27 Left.”
NOTE−
REFERENCE− A clearance to land means that appropriate separation on
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−6−4, Safety Logic Alert Responses. the landing runway will be ensured. A landing clearance
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−10−8, Withholding Landing Clearance.
does not relieve the pilot from compliance with any
previously issued restriction.
c. Procedures.
f. Whenever a runway length has been temporarily
or permanently shortened, state the word “shortened”
1. Facilities without a safety logic system or immediately following the runway number as part of
facilities with the safety logic system inoperative or the landing clearance. This information must be
in the limited configuration must not clear an aircraft issued in conjunction with the landing clearance.
for a full−stop, touch−and−go, stop−and−go, option,
1. The addition of “shortened” must be included
or unrestricted low approach when a departing
in the landing clearance for the duration of the
aircraft has been instructed to line up and wait or is
construction project when the runway is temporarily
holding in position on the same runway. The landing
shortened.
clearance may be issued once the aircraft in position
has started takeoff roll. 2. The addition of “shortened” must be included
in the landing clearance until the Chart Supplement
2. Facilities using safety logic in the full core U.S. is updated to include the change(s) when the
alert runway configuration may issue a landing runway is permanently shortened.
clearance, full−stop, touch−and−go, stop−and−go, PHRASEOLOGY−
option, or unrestricted low approach to an arriving RUNWAY (number) SHORTENED, CLEARED TO LAND.
aircraft with an aircraft holding in position or taxiing EXAMPLE−
to LUAW on the same runway except when reported “Runway Two-Seven shortened, cleared to land.”
weather conditions are less than ceiling 800 feet or g. If landing clearance is temporarily withheld,
visibility less than 2 miles. insert the word “shortened” immediately after the
runway number to advise the pilot to continue.
d. Inform the closest aircraft that is requesting a PHRASEOLOGY−
full−stop, touch−and−go, stop−and−go, option, or RUNWAY (number) SHORTENED, CONTINUE.
unrestricted low approaches when there is traffic EXAMPLE−
authorized to line up and wait on the same runway. “Runway Two-Seven shortened, continue.”

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
REFERENCE− 3−10−8. WITHHOLDING LANDING

FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 10-3-13, Change in Runway Length Due CLEARANCE
to Construction.
Do not withhold a landing clearance indefinitely even
though it appears a violation of Title 14 of the Code
3−10−6. ANTICIPATING SEPARATION of Federal Regulations has been committed. The
a. Landing clearance to succeeding aircraft in a apparent violation might be the result of an
landing sequence need not be withheld if you observe emergency situation. In any event, assist the pilot to
the positions of the aircraft and determine that the extent possible.
prescribed runway separation will exist when the
aircraft crosses the landing threshold. Issue traffic 3−10−9. RUNWAY EXITING
information to the succeeding aircraft if a preceding a. Instruct aircraft where to turn-off the runway
arrival has not been previously reported and when after landing, when appropriate, and advise the
traffic will be departing prior to their arrival. aircraft to hold short of a runway or taxiway if
EXAMPLE− required for traffic.
“American Two Forty−Five, Runway One−Eight, cleared PHRASEOLOGY−
to land, number two following a United Seven−Thirty− TURN LEFT/RIGHT (taxiway/runway),
Seven two mile final. Traffic will depart prior to your
arrival.” or
“American Two Forty−Five, Runway One−Eight, cleared IF ABLE, TURN LEFT/RIGHT (taxiway/runway)
to land. Traffic will depart prior to your arrival.”
NOTE− and if required
Landing sequence number is optional at tower facilities
where the arrival sequence to the runway is established by HOLD SHORT OF (runway).
the approach control. NOTE−
b. Anticipating separation must not be applied Runway exiting or taxi instructions should not normally be
when conducting LUAW operations, except as issued to an aircraft prior to, or immediately after,
touchdown.
authorized in paragraph 3−10−5c2. Issue applicable
traffic information when using this provision. b. Taxi instructions must be provided to the
aircraft by the local controller when:
EXAMPLE−
“American Two Forty−Five, Runway One−Eight, cleared 1. Compliance with ATC instructions will be
to land. Traffic will be a Boeing Seven−Fifty−Seven required before the aircraft can change to ground
holding in position.” control, or
REFERENCE−
P/CG Term− Clear of the Runway. 2. The aircraft will be required to enter an active
runway in order to taxi clear of the landing runway.
3−10−7. LANDING CLEARANCE WITHOUT EXAMPLE−
VISUAL OBSERVATION “U.S. Air Ten Forty Two, turn right next taxiway, cross
runway two one, contact ground point seven.”
When an arriving aircraft reports at a position where
he/she should be seen but has not been visually “U.S. Air Ten Forty Two, turn right on Alfa/next taxiway,
observed, advise the aircraft as a part of the landing cross Bravo, hold short of Charlie, contact ground point
clearance that it is not in sight and restate the landing seven.”
runway. NOTE−
1. An aircraft is expected to taxi clear of the runway unless
PHRASEOLOGY− otherwise directed by ATC. Pilots must not exit the landing
NOT IN SIGHT, RUNWAY (number) CLEARED TO runway on to an intersecting runway unless authorized by
LAND. ATC. In the absence of ATC instructions, an aircraft should
NOTE− taxi clear of the landing runway by clearing the hold
Aircraft observance on the CTRD satisfies the visually position marking associated with the landing runway even
observed requirement. if that requires the aircraft to protrude into or enter another

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
taxiway/ramp area. This does not authorize an aircraft to over unprotected personnel or small aircraft on or near the
cross a subsequent taxiway or ramp after clearing the runway.
landing runway. 2. This authorization includes altitude restricted low
REFERENCE− approaches over preceding landing or taxiing aircraft.
Restricted low approaches are not authorized over aircraft
2. The pilot is responsible for ascertaining when the in takeoff position or departing aircraft.
aircraft is clear of the runway by clearing the runway
PHRASEOLOGY−
holding position marking associated with the landing
CLEARED LOW APPROACH AT OR ABOVE (altitude).
runway.
TRAFFIC (description and location).
c. Ground control and local control must protect a REFERENCE−
taxiway/runway/ramp intersection if an aircraft is FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−1−5, Vehicles/Equipment/Personnel on
Runways.
required to enter that intersection to clear the landing FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−1−6, Traffic Information.
runway. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−2−1, Light Signals.
REFERENCE− FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−9−4, Line Up and Wait (LUAW).
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 10−1−7, Use of Active Runways. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−10−3, Same Runway Separation.
d. Request a read back of runway hold short
instructions when not received from the pilot. 3−10−11. CLOSED TRAFFIC
EXAMPLE− Approve/disapprove pilot requests to remain in
“American Four Ninety−two, turn left at Taxiway Charlie,
closed traffic for successive operations subject to
hold short of Runway 27 Right.”
local traffic conditions.
or PHRASEOLOGY−
LEFT/RIGHT (if required) CLOSED TRAFFIC
“American Four Ninety−two, turn left at Charlie, hold APPROVED. REPORT (position if required),
short of Runway 27 Right.”
or
“American Four Ninety Two, Roger.”
UNABLE CLOSED TRAFFIC, (additional information as
“American Four Ninety−two, read back hold required).
instructions.”
NOTE−
NOTE− Segregated traffic patterns for helicopters to runways and
Read back hold instructions phraseology may be initiated other areas may be established by letter of agreement or
for any point on a movement area when the controller other local operating procedures.
believes the read back is necessary. REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−7−4, Runway Proximity.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−9−4, Line Up and Wait (LUAW).
3−10−10. ALTITUDE RESTRICTED LOW FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−10−3, Same Runway Separation.
APPROACH
A low approach with an altitude restriction of not less 3−10−12. OVERHEAD MANEUVER
than 500 feet above the airport may be authorized
Issue the following to arriving aircraft that will
except over an aircraft in takeoff position or a
conduct an overhead maneuver:
departure aircraft. Do not clear aircraft for restricted
altitude low approaches over personnel unless airport a. Pattern altitude and direction of traffic. Omit
authorities have advised these personnel that the either or both if standard or when you know the pilot
approaches will be conducted. Advise the approach- is familiar with a nonstandard procedure.
ing aircraft of the location of applicable ground
PHRASEOLOGY−
traffic, personnel, or equipment. PATTERN ALTITUDE (altitude). RIGHT TURNS.
NOTE−
b. Request for report on initial approach.
1. The 500 feet restriction is a minimum. Higher altitudes
should be used when warranted. For example, 1,000 feet is PHRASEOLOGY−
more appropriate for super or heavy aircraft operating REPORT INITIAL.

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
c. “Break” information and request for pilot zero at one four, right turns, report initial.”
report. Specify the point of “break” only if
nonstandard. Request the pilot to report “break” if “Alfa Kilo Two Two, report break.”
required for traffic or other reasons.
“Alfa Kilo Two Two, cleared to land.”
PHRASEOLOGY−
BREAK AT (specified point). e. Timely and positive controller action is required
to prevent a conflict when an overhead pattern could
REPORT BREAK. extend into the path of a departing or a missed
approach aircraft. Local procedures and/or coordina-
d. Overhead maneuver patterns are developed at tion requirements should be set forth in an
airports where aircraft have an operational need to appropriate letter of agreement, facility directive,
conduct the maneuver. An aircraft conducting an base flying manual etc., when the frequency of
overhead maneuver is VFR and the IFR flight plan is occurrence warrants.
canceled when the aircraft reaches the “initial point”
on the initial approach portion of the maneuver. The
existence of a standard overhead maneuver pattern 3−10−13. SIMULATED FLAMEOUT (SFO)
does not eliminate the possible requirement for an APPROACHES/EMERGENCY LANDING
aircraft to conform to conventional rectangular PATTERN (ELP) OPERATIONS/PRACTICE
patterns if an overhead maneuver cannot be PRECAUTIONARY APPROACHES
approved. a. Authorize military aircraft to make SFO/ELP/
NOTE− practice precautionary approaches if the following
Aircraft operating to an airport without a functioning conditions are met:
control tower must initiate cancellation of the IFR flight 1. A letter of agreement or local operating
plan prior to executing the overhead maneuver or after
procedure is in effect between the military flying
landing.
organization and affected ATC facility.
FIG 3−10−13 (a) Include specific coordination, execution,
Overhead Maneuver and approval procedures for the operation.
(b) The exchange or issuance of traffic
information as agreed to in any interfacility letter of
agreement is accomplished.
(c) Include a statement in the procedure that
clarifies at which points SFOs/ELPs may/may not be
terminated. (See FIG 3−10−14 and FIG 3−10−16.)
2. Traffic information regarding aircraft in radio
communication with or visible to tower controllers
which are operating within or adjacent to the
flameout maneuvering area is provided to the
SFO/ELP aircraft and other concerned aircraft.
3. The high-key altitude or practice precaution-
ary approach maneuvering altitudes of the aircraft
EXAMPLE−
concerned are obtained prior to approving the
“Air Force Three Six Eight, Runway Six, wind zero seven
zero at eight, pattern altitude six thousand, report initial.”
approach. (See FIG 3−10−14 and FIG 3−10−16.)
NOTE−
“Air Force Three Six Eight, break at midfield, report 1. Practice precautionary/SFO/ELP approaches are
break.” authorized only for specific aircraft. Any aircraft, however,
might make precautionary approaches, when engine
“Air Force Three Six Eight, cleared to land.” failure is considered possible. The practice precautionary
approach maneuvering area/altitudes may not conform to
“Alfa Kilo Two Two, Runway Three One, wind three three the standard SFO/ELP maneuvering area/altitudes.

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
2. SFO/ELP approaches generally require high descent 3. At low key, issue low approach clearance or
rates. Visibility ahead and beneath the aircraft is greatly alternate instructions.
restricted.
REFERENCE−
3. Pattern adjustments for aircraft conducting SFOs and FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−8−1, Sequence/Spacing Application.
ELPs may impact the effectiveness of SFO and ELP FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 10−1−7, Inflight Emergencies Involving
Military Fighter-type Aircraft.
training. FAA Order JO 7610.4, Para 9−3−7, Simulated Flameout
REFERENCE− (SFO)/Emergency Landing Pattern (ELP) Operations.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−8−12, Low Approach and
Touch-and-Go. c. For straight−in simulation flameout
FAA Order JO 7610.4, Para 9−3−7, Simulated Flameout approaches:
(SFO)/Emergency Landing Pattern (ELP) Operations.
b. For overhead SFO/ELP approaches: 1. Request a position report from aircraft

conducting straight−in SFO approaches.
1. Request a report at the entry point.
PHRASEOLOGY−
PHRASEOLOGY− REPORT (distance) MILE SIMULATED FLAMEOUT
REPORT (high or low) KEY (as appropriate). FINAL.
2. Request a report at low key. 2. At the appropriate position on final (normally
PHRASEOLOGY− no closer than 3 miles), issue low approach clearance
REPORT LOW KEY. or alternate instruction. (See FIG 3−10−15.)

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
FIG 3−10−14
Simulated Flameout [1]

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
FIG 3−10−15
Simulated Flameout [2]
FIG 3−10−16
Emergency Landing Pattern

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 11. Helicopter Operations
3−11−1. TAXI AND GROUND MOVEMENT TO (location, heliport, helipad, operating/movement area,
OPERATION active/inactive runway).
a. When necessary for a wheeled helicopter to taxi AVOID (aircraft/vehicles/personnel).

on the surface, use the phraseology in para- If required,
graph 3−7−2, Taxi and Ground Movement
Operations. REMAIN AT OR BELOW (altitude).
NOTE− CAUTION (wake turbulence or other reasons above).
Ground taxiing uses less fuel than hover-taxiing and
minimizes air turbulence. However, under certain LAND AND CONTACT TOWER,
conditions, such as rough, soft, or uneven terrain, it may
become necessary to hover/air-taxi for safety considera- or
tions. Helicopters with articulating rotors (usually designs
with three or more main rotor blades) are subject to HOLD FOR (reason− takeoff clearance, release,
“ground resonance” and may, on rare occasions, suddenly landing/taxiing aircraft, etc.).
lift off the ground to avoid severe damage or destruction.
NOTE−
b. When requested or necessary for a helicopter/ Air-taxi is the preferred method for helicopter movements
VTOL aircraft to proceed at a slow speed above the on airports provided ground operations/conditions permit.
surface, normally below 20 knots and in ground Air-taxi authorizes the pilot to proceed above the surface
effect, use the following phraseology, supplemented either via hover-taxi or flight at speeds more than 20 knots.
as appropriate with the phraseology in paragraph Unless otherwise requested or instructed, the pilot is
3−7−2, Taxi and Ground Movement Operations. expected to remain below 100 feet AGL. The pilot is solely
responsible for selecting a safe airspeed for the
PHRASEOLOGY− altitude/operation being conducted.
HOVER-TAXI (supplemented, as appropriate, from REFERENCE−
paragraph 3−7−2, Taxi and Ground Movement P/CG Term − Air Taxi.
Operations.) AIM, Para 4−3−17, VFR Helicopter Operations at Controlled Airports.
CAUTION (dust, blowing snow, loose debris, taxiing light WAKE TURBULENCE APPLICATION
aircraft, personnel, etc.).
d. Avoid clearances which require small aircraft or
NOTE−
Hover-taxiing consumes fuel at a high burn rate, and
helicopters to taxi in close proximity to taxiing or
helicopter downwash turbulence (produced in ground hover-taxi helicopters.
effect) increases significantly with larger and heavier REFERENCE−
helicopters. AC 90−23, Aircraft Wake Turbulence, Para 10 and Para 11.
REFERENCE−
P/CG Term− Hover Taxi. 3−11−2. HELICOPTER TAKEOFF
AIM, Para 4−3−17, VFR Helicopter Operations at Controlled Airports. CLEARANCE
c. When requested or necessary for a helicopter to a. Issue takeoff clearances from movement areas
proceed expeditiously from one point to another, other than active runways or in diverse directions
normally below 100 feet AGL and at airspeeds above from active runways, with additional instructions as
20 knots, use the following phraseology, supplemen- necessary. Whenever possible, issue takeoff clear-
ted as appropriate with the phraseology in ance in lieu of extended hover−taxi or air−taxi
paragraph 3−7−2, Taxi and Ground Movement operations.
Operations.
PHRASEOLOGY−
PHRASEOLOGY− (Present position, taxiway, helipad, numbers) MAKE
AIR-TAXI: RIGHT/LEFT TURN FOR (direction, points of compass,
heading, NAVAID radial) DEPARTURE/DEPARTURE
VIA (direct, as requested, or specified route) ROUTE (number, name, or code), AVOID (aircraft/
vehicles/personnel),
Helicopter Operations 3−11−1

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
a. A preceding, departing helicopter has left the

or takeoff area. (See FIG 3−11−1.)
REMAIN (direction) OF (active runways, parking areas, FIG 3−11−1
passenger terminals, etc.). Helicopter Departure Separation
CAUTION (power lines, unlighted obstructions, trees,

wake turbulence, etc.).

b. If takeoff is requested from non−movement
areas, an area not authorized for helicopter use, or an
area off the airport, and, in your judgment, the
operation appears to be reasonable, use the following
phraseology instead of the takeoff clearance in
subparagraph a.
PHRASEOLOGY−
DEPARTURE FROM (requested location) WILL BE AT
YOUR OWN RISK (additional instructions, as necessary).
USE CAUTION (if applicable). b. A preceding, arriving helicopter has taxied off
the landing area. (See FIG 3−11−2.)
c. Unless agreed to by the pilot, do not issue
downwind takeoffs if the tailwind exceeds 5 knots. FIG 3−11−2
Helicopter Departure Separation
NOTE−
A pilot request to takeoff from a given point in a given
direction constitutes agreement.
3−11−3. HELICOPTER DEPARTURE

SEPARATION
Separate a departing helicopter from other heli-

copters by ensuring that it does not takeoff until one
of the following conditions exists:
NOTE−
Helicopters performing air-taxiing operations within the
boundary of the airport are considered to be taxiing
aircraft.
3−11−2 Helicopter Operations

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
3−11−4. HELICOPTER ARRIVAL FIG 3−11−5

SEPARATION Helicopter Arrival Separation
Separate an arriving helicopter from other helicopters

by ensuring that it does not land until one of the
a. A preceding, arriving helicopter has come to a
stop or taxied off the landing area.
(See FIG 3−11−3 and FIG 3−11−4.)
FIG 3−11−3
Helicopter Arrival Separation
3−11−5. SIMULTANEOUS LANDINGS OR

TAKEOFFS
Authorize helicopters to conduct simultaneous
landings or takeoffs if the distance between the
landing or takeoff points is at least 200 feet and the
courses to be flown do not conflict. Refer to surface
markings to determine the 200 foot minimum, or
instruct a helicopter to remain at least 200 feet from
FIG 3−11−4 another helicopter. (See FIG 3−11−6.)
Helicopter Arrival Separation
FIG 3−11−6
Simultaneous Helicopter Landings or Takeoffs
b. A preceding, departing helicopter has left the

landing area. (See FIG 3−11−5.)
Helicopter Operations 3−11−3

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
3−11−6. HELICOPTER LANDING

CLEARANCE CAUTION (power lines, unlighted obstructions, wake tur-
bulence, etc.).
a. Issue landing clearances to helicopters going to
movement areas other than active runways or from CLEARED TO LAND.
diverse directions to points on active runways, with b. If landing is requested to non-movement areas,
additional instructions as necessary. Whenever an area not authorized for helicopter use, or an area
possible, issue a landing clearance in lieu of extended off the airport, and, in your judgment, the operation
hover−taxi or air−taxi operations. appears to be reasonable, use the following
phraseology instead of the landing clearance in
PHRASEOLOGY−
MAKE APPROACH STRAIGHT−IN/CIRCLING LEFT/
subparagraph a.
RIGHT TURN TO (location, runway, taxiway, helipad, PHRASEOLOGY−
Maltese cross) ARRIVAL/ARRIVAL ROUTE (number, LANDING AT (requested location) WILL BE AT YOUR
name, or code). OWN RISK (additional instructions, as necessary). USE
CAUTION (if applicable).
HOLD SHORT OF (active runway, extended runway
c. Unless agreed to by the pilot, do not issue
centerline, other).
downwind landings if the tailwind exceeds 5 knots.
REMAIN (direction/distance; e.g., 700 feet, 1 1/2 miles) NOTE−
OF/FROM (runway, runway centerline, other helicopter/ A pilot request to land at a given point from a given
aircraft). direction constitutes agreement.
3−11−4 Helicopter Operations

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 12. Sea Lane Operations
3−12−1. APPLICATION FIG 3−12−2

Sea Lane Departure Operations
Where sea lanes are established and controlled, apply
the provisions of this section.
3−12−2. DEPARTURE SEPARATION

Separate a departing aircraft from a preceding
departing or arriving aircraft using the same sea lane
by ensuring that it does not commence takeoff until:
a. The other aircraft has departed and crossed the
end of the sea lane or turned to avert any conflict. (See
FIG 3−12−1). If you can determine distances by
reference to suitable landmarks, the other aircraft
need only be airborne if the following minimum
distance exists between aircraft:
1. When only Category I aircraft are involved− b. A preceding landing aircraft has taxied out of
1,500 feet. the sea lane.
2. When a Category I aircraft is preceded by a NOTE−
Category II aircraft− 3,000 feet. Due to the absence of braking capability, caution should be
3. When either the succeeding or both are exercised when instructing a float plane to hold a position
as the aircraft will continue to move because of prop
Category II aircraft− 3,000 feet.
generated thrust. Therefore, clearance to line up and wait
4. When either is a Category III aircraft− should be followed by takeoff or other clearance as soon as
6,000 feet. (See FIG 3−12−2.) is practical.
FIG 3−12−1
Sea Lane Departure Operations
3−12−3. ARRIVAL SEPARATION
Separate an arriving aircraft from another aircraft
using the same sea lane by ensuring that the arriving
aircraft does not cross the landing threshold until one
of the following conditions exists:
a. The other aircraft has landed and taxied out of
the sea lane. Between sunrise and sunset, if you can
determine distances by reference to suitable
landmarks and the other aircraft has landed, it need
not be clear of the sea lane if the following minimum
distance from the landing threshold exists:
Sea Lane Operations 3−12−1

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
1. When a Category I aircraft is landing behind lane if the following minimum distance from the
a Category I or II− 2,000 feet. (See FIG 3−12−3.) landing threshold exists:
FIG 3−12−3
1. When only Category I aircraft are involved−
Sea Lane Arrival Operations 1,500 feet.
2. When either is a Category II aircraft−
3,000 feet.
3. When either is a Category III aircraft−
6,000 feet. (See FIG 3−12−6.)
FIG 3−12−5
Sea Lane Arrival Operations
2. When a Category II aircraft is landing behind

a Category I or II− 2,500 feet. (See FIG 3−12−4.)
FIG 3−12−4
[View 2]
FIG 3−12−6
b. The other aircraft has departed and crossed the

end of the sea lane or turned to avert any conflict. (See
FIG 3−12−5.) If you can determine distances by
reference to suitable landmarks and the other aircraft
is airborne, it need not have crossed the end of the sea
3−12−2 Sea Lane Operations

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Chapter 4. IFR
Section 1. NAVAID Use Limitations
4−1−1. ALTITUDE AND DISTANCE FIG 4−1−1

LIMITATIONS Application of Altitude and Distance Limitations
[Application 1]
When specifying a route other than an established
airway or route, do not exceed the limitations in the
table on any portion of the route which lies within
controlled airspace. (For altitude and distance
limitations, see TBL 4−1−1, TBL 4−1−2, and
TBL 4−1−3) (For correct application of altitude and
distance limitations see FIG 4−1−1 and FIG 4−1−2.)
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−1−5, Fix Use.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−6−2, Methods.
TBL 4−1−1
VOR/VORTAC/TACAN NAVAIDs
Normal Usable Altitudes and Radius Distances
Distance
Class Altitude
(miles)
FIG 4−1−2
T 12,000 and below 25 Application of Altitude and Distance Limitations
L Below 18,000 40 [Application 2]
H Below 14,500 40
H 14,500 − 17,999 100
H 18,000 − FL 450 130
H Above FL 450 100
TBL 4−1−2
L/MF Radio Beacon (RBN)
Usable Radius Distances for All Altitudes
Distance
Class Power (watts)
(miles)
CL Under 25 15
MH Under 50 25
H 50 − 1,999 50
HH 2,000 or more 75
TBL 4−1−3 4−1−2. EXCEPTIONS

ILS
Usable Height and Distance* Altitude and distance limitations need not be applied
when any of the following conditions are met:
Height (feet) Distance
above transmitter (miles from transmitter) a. Routing is initiated by ATC or requested by the
4,500 10 (for glideslope)
pilot and radar monitoring is provided.
4,500 18 (for localizer) EXCEPTION-
*Use the current flight check height/altitude limitations if GNSS equipped aircraft /G, /L, /S, and /V not on a
different from the above minima. random impromptu route.
NAVAID Use Limitations 4−1−1

JO
JO 7110.65Z
7110.65R CHG
7110.65Z CHG
2 1 12/2/21
3/15/07
6/17/21
NOTE− 4−1−5. FIX USE

1. Except for GNSS-equipped aircraft /G, /L, /S, and /V, not
on a random impromptu route, paragraph 5−5−1, Request aircraft position reports only over fixes
Application, requires radar separation be provided to shown on charts used for the altitude being flown,
RNAV aircraft operating at and below FL450 on Q routes except as follows:
or random RNAV routes, excluding oceanic airspace. NOTE−
2. When a clearance is issued beyond the altitude and/or Waypoints filed in random RNAV routes automatically
distance limitations of a NAVAID, in addition to being become compulsory reporting points for the flight unless
responsible for maintaining separation from other aircraft otherwise advised by ATC.
and airspace, the controller is responsible for providing a. Unless the pilot requests otherwise, use only
aircraft with information and advice related to significant those fixes shown on high altitude en route charts,
deviations from the expected flight path. high altitude instrument approach procedures charts,
REFERENCE− and SID charts when clearing military turbojet
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−3, Procedural Preference.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−4−2, Route Structure Transitions.
single-piloted aircraft.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−1−6, Deviation Advisories.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−5−1, Application.
b. Except for military single-piloted turbojet
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 6−5−4, Minima Along Other Than aircraft, unpublished fixes may be used if the name of
Established Airways or Routes. the NAVAID and, if appropriate, the radial/course/
AIM, Para 5-1-8c, Direct Flights.
AIM, Para 5-1-8d, Area Navigation (RNAV). azimuth and frequency/channel are given to the pilot.
P/CG Term - Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS)[ICAO]. An unpublished fix is defined as one approved and
planned for publication which is not yet depicted on
b. Operational necessity requires and approval has
the charts or one which is used in accord with the
been obtained from the Frequency Management and
following:
Flight Inspection Offices to exceed them.
REFERENCE−
c. Requested routing is via an MTR. FAA Order 8260.3, United States Standard for Terminal Instrument
Procedures (TERPS), Chapter 17, Basic Holding Criteria..
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−6−2, Methods. 1. Unpublished fixes are formed by the en route
radial and either a DME distance from the same
NAVAID or an intersecting radial from an off-route
4−1−3. CROSSING ALTITUDE VOR/VORTAC/TACAN. DME must be used in lieu
of off-route radials, whenever possible.
Use an altitude consistent with the limitations of the
aid when clearing an aircraft to cross or hold at a fix. 2. Except where known signal coverage restric-
tions exist, an unpublished fix may be used for ATC
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−6−2, Methods. purposes if its location does not exceed NAVAID
altitude and distance limitation, and when off-route
radials are used, the angle of divergence meets the
4−1−4. VFR-ON-TOP criteria prescribed below.
Use a route not meeting service volume limitations NOTE−
Unpublished fixes should not negate the normal use of
only if an aircraft requests to operate “VFR-on-top”
published intersections. Frequent routine use of an
on this route. unpublished fix would justify establishing a fix.
Aircraft equipped with TACAN only are expected to: FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−1−1, Altitude and Distance
Limitations.
1. Define route of flight between TACAN or VORTAC 3. Do not hold aircraft at unpublished fixes
NAVAIDs in the same manner as VOR-equipped aircraft. below the lowest assignable altitude dictated by
terrain clearance for the appropriate holding pattern
2. Except in Class A airspace, submit requests for airspace area (template) regardless of the MEA for
“VFR-on-top” flight where insufficient TACAN or the route being flown.
VORTAC NAVAIDs exist to define the route.
REFERENCE−
4. When the unpublished fix is located on an
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−6−2, Methods. off-route radial and the radial providing course
4−1−2 NAVAID Use Limitations

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
guidance, it must be used consistent with the must increase ½ degree per NM; e.g., 130 NM would
following divergence angles: require 88 degrees.
(a) When holding operations are involved c. Fixes contained in the route description of
with respect to subparagraphs (b) and (c) below, the MTRs are considered filed fixes.
angle of divergence must be at least 45 degrees. d. TACAN-only aircraft (type suffix M, N, or P)
possess TACAN with DME, but no VOR or LF
(b) When both NAVAIDs involved are navigation system capability. Assign fixes based on
located within 30 NM of the unpublished fix, the TACAN or VORTAC facilities only.
minimum divergence angle is 30 degrees.
NOTE−
(c) When the unpublished fix is located over TACAN-only aircraft can never be held overhead the
30 NM from the NAVAID generating the off-course NAVAID, be it TACAN or VORTAC.
radial, the minimum divergence angle must increase e. DME fixes must not be established within the
1 degree per NM up to 45 NM; e.g., 45 NM would no-course signal zone of the NAVAID from which
require 45 degrees. inbound holding course information would be
derived.
(d) When the unpublished fix is located
REFERENCE−
beyond 45 NM from the NAVAID generating the FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−5−3, NAVAID Fixes.
off-course radial, the minimum divergence angle FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−6−2, Methods.
NAVAID Use Limitations 4−1−3

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JO 7110.65Z
Section 2. Clearances
4−2−1. CLEARANCE ITEMS REFERENCE−

FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−2−8, IFR−VFR and VFR−IFR Flights.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−5−7, Altitude Information.
Issue the following clearance items, as appropriate, in
the order listed below:
4−2−2. CLEARANCE PREFIX
a. Aircraft identification.
a. Prefix a clearance, information, or a request for
b. Clearance limit. information which will be relayed to an aircraft
through a non−ATC facility by stating “A−T−C
1. When the clearance limit is an airport, the
clears,” “A−T−C advises,” or “A−T−C requests.”
word “airport” must follow the airport name.
b. Flight service stations and ARTCC Flight Data
PHRASEOLOGY−
CLEARED TO (destination) AIRPORT.
Units must prefix a clearance with the appropriate
phrase: “ATC clears,” “ATC advises,” etc.
2. When the clearance limit is a NAVAID, and
the NAVAID type is known, the type of NAVAID 4−2−3. DELIVERY INSTRUCTIONS
must follow the NAVAID name.
Issue specific clearance delivery instructions, if
PHRASEOLOGY− appropriate.
CLEARED TO (NAVAID name and type).
3. When the clearance limit is an intersection or 4−2−4. CLEARANCE RELAY
waypoint, and the type is known, the type must follow
the intersection or waypoint name. Relay clearances verbatim.
REFERENCE−
PHRASEOLOGY− FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 10−4−4, Communications Failure.
CLEARED TO (intersection or waypoint name and type).
c. Standard Instrument Departure (SID) or 4−2−5. ROUTE OR ALTITUDE
vectors, where applicable. AMENDMENTS
d. Route of flight including ADR/ADAR/AAR a. Amend route of flight in a previously issued

when applied. clearance by one of the following:
1. State which portion of the route is being
e. Altitude data in the order flown.
amended and then state the amendment.
f. Mach number, if applicable. PHRASEOLOGY−
g. USAF. When issuing a clearance to an airborne CHANGE (portion of route) TO READ (new portion of
route).
aircraft containing an altitude assignment, do not
include more than one of the following in the same 2. State the amendment to the route and then
transmission: state that the rest of the route is unchanged.
PHRASEOLOGY−
1. Frequency change.
(Amendment to route), REST OF ROUTE UNCHANGED.
2. Transponder change. 3. Issue a clearance “direct” to a point on the
3. Heading. previously issued route.
PHRASEOLOGY−
4. Altimeter setting. CLEARED DIRECT (fix,waypoint).
5. Traffic information containing an altitude. Or
CLEARED DIRECT (destination) AIRPORT.
h. Holding instructions. NOTE−
i. Any special information. Clearances authorizing “direct” to a point on a previously
issued route do not require the phrase “rest of route
j. Frequency and beacon code information. unchanged.” However, it must be understood where the
Clearances 4−2−1
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previously cleared route is resumed. When necessary, “rest

of route unchanged” may be used to clarify routing. “Climb via SID except maintain Flight Level Two Three
Zero.”
4. Issue the entire route by stating the
amendment. NOTE−
1. Restating previously issued altitude to “maintain” is an
EXAMPLE− amended clearance. If altitude to “maintain” is changed or
(Cessna 21A has been cleared to the Airville Airport via restated, whether prior to departure or while airborne and
V41 Delta VOR V174 Alfa VOR, direct Airville Airport, previously issued altitude restrictions are omitted, altitude
maintain 9000. After takeoff, the aircraft is rerouted via restrictions are canceled, including SID/STAR altitude
V41 Frank intersection, V71 Delta VOR, V174 Alfa VOR. restrictions if any.
The controller issues one of the following as an amended 2. Crossing altitudes and speed restrictions on Obstacle
clearance): Departure Procedure/s (ODP/s) cannot be canceled or
amended by ATC.
1. “Cessna Two One Alfa change Victor Forty−One Delta
to read Victor Forty−One Frank, Victor Seventy−One c. Issue an amended clearance if a speed
Delta.” restriction is declined because it cannot be complied
with concurrently with a previously issued altitude
2. “Cessna Two One Alfa cleared via Victor Forty−One restriction.
Frank, Victor Seventy−One Delta, rest of route un-
changed.” EXAMPLE−
(An aircraft is cleared to cross Gordonsville VOR at
11,000. Shortly thereafter he/she is cleared to reduce
3. “Cessna Two One Alfa cleared via Victor Forty−One his/her airspeed to 300 knots. The pilot informs the
Frank, Victor Seventy−One Delta, Victor One Seventy− controller he/she is unable to comply with both clearances
Four Alfa V−O−R, direct Airville airport, maintain Niner simultaneously. The controller issues an amended
Thousand.” clearance as follows):
b. When route or altitude in a previously issued “Cross Gordonsville VOR at One One Thousand. Then,
clearance is amended, restate all applicable altitude reduce speed to Three Zero Zero.”
restrictions. NOTE−
The phrase “do the best you can” or comparable phrases
EXAMPLE−
are not valid substitutes for an amended clearance with
1. (A departing aircraft is cleared to cross Ollis altitude or speed restrictions.
intersection at or above 3,000; Gordonsville VOR at or
REFERENCE−
above 12,000; maintain FL 200. Shortly after departure the
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−18, Operational Requests.
altitude to be maintained is changed to FL 240. Because FAA Order JO 7110.65, Section 6, Vectoring, Para 5−6−2, Methods.
altitude restrictions remain in effect, the controller issues FAA Order JO 7110.65, Section 7, Speed Adjustment, Para 5−7−2,
an amended clearance as follows): Methods.
d. Air traffic control specialists should avoid route

“Amend altitude. Cross Ollis intersection at or above and/or altitude changes for aircraft participating in
Three Thousand; cross Gordonsville V−O−R at or above the North American Route Program (NRP) and that
One Two Thousand; maintain Flight Level Two Four are displaying “NRP” in the remarks section of their
Zero.”
flight plan.
(Shortly after departure, altitude restrictions are no longer NOTE−
applicable, the controller issues an amended clearance as Air traffic control specialists retain the latitude necessary
follows): to tactically resolve conflicts. Every effort should be made
to ensure the aircraft is returned to the original filed flight
“Climb and maintain Flight Level Two Four Zero.” plan/altitude as soon as conditions warrant.
REFERENCE−
2. (An aircraft is cleared to climb via a SID with published FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−4, Operational Priority.
altitude restrictions. Shortly after departure the top FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−2−15, North American Route Program
altitude is changed to FL 230 and compliance with the (NRP) Information.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−3−2, En Route Data Entries.
altitude restrictions is still required, the controller issues FAA Order JO 7210.3, Chapter 18, Section 17, North American Route
an amended clearance as follows): Program.
4−2−2 Clearances
6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
4−2−6. THROUGH CLEARANCES PHRASEOLOGY−

(Aircraft call sign), ARE YOU ABLE TO MAINTAIN
You may clear an aircraft through intermediate stops. YOUR OWN TERRAIN AND OBSTRUCTION
PHRASEOLOGY− CLEARANCE UNTIL REACHING (appropriate
CLEARED THROUGH (airport) TO (fix). MVA/MIA/MEA/OROCA)
NOTE−
Pilots of pop−up aircraft are responsible for terrain and
4−2−7. ALTRV CLEARANCE
obstacle clearance until reaching minimum instrument
Use the phrase “via approved altitude reservation altitude (MIA) or minimum en route altitude (MEA). Pilot
flight plan,” if the aircraft will operate in an approved compliance with an approved FAA procedure or an ATC
ALTRV. instruction transfers that responsibility to the FAA;
therefore, do not assign (or imply) specific course guidance
PHRASEOLOGY− that will (or could) be in effect below the MIA or MEA.
VIA APPROVED ALTITUDE RESERVATION (mission EXAMPLE−
name) FLIGHT PLAN. “November Eight Seven Six, are you able to provide your
NOTE− own terrain and obstruction clearance between your
An ALTRV normally includes the departure, climb, cruise, present altitude and six thousand feet?”
and arrival phases of flight up to and including holding 2. If the pilot is able to maintain their own
pattern or point/time at which ATC provides separation
terrain and obstruction clearance, issue the appropri-
between aircraft.
ate IFR clearance as prescribed in paragraph 4−2−1,
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−3−3, Abbreviated Departure
Clearance Items, and paragraph 4−5−6, Minimum En
Clearance. Route Altitudes.
3. If the pilot states that they are unable to
4−2−8. IFR−VFR AND VFR−IFR FLIGHTS maintain terrain and obstruction clearance, instruct
the pilot to maintain VFR and to state intentions.
a. Clear an aircraft planning IFR operations for the
initial part of flight and VFR for the latter part to the 4. If appropriate, apply the provisions of
fix at which the IFR part ends. paragraph 10−2−7, VFR Aircraft In Weather
Difficulty, or paragraph 10−2−9, Radar Assistance
b. Treat an aircraft planning VFR for the initial Techniques, as necessary.
part of flight and IFR for the latter part as a VFR
departure. Issue a clearance to this aircraft when it 4−2−9. CLEARANCE ITEMS
requests IFR clearance approaching the fix where it
proposes to start IFR operations. The phraseology The following guidelines must be utilized to facilitate
CLEARED TO (destination) AIRPORT AS FILED the processing of airfile aircraft:
may be used with abbreviated departure clearance a. Ensure the aircraft is within your area of
procedures. jurisdiction unless otherwise coordinated.
REFERENCE−
b. Obtain necessary information needed to
Clearance. provide IFR service.
c. When an aircraft changes from VFR to IFR, the c. Issue clearance to destination, short range
controller must assign a beacon code to Mode-C clearance, or an instruction to the pilot to contact an
equipped aircraft that will allow MSAW alarms. FSS if the flight plan cannot be processed. If
clearance is to destination airport, the phraseology
d. When VFR aircraft operating below the CLEARED TO (destination) AIRPORT must be
minimum altitude for IFR operations requests an IFR used. If clearance is to a NAVAID, state the name of
clearance and the pilot informs you, or you are aware, the NAVAID followed by the type of NAVAID, if the
that they are unable to climb in VFR conditions to the type is known. If clearance is to an intersection or
minimum IFR altitude: waypoint and the type is known, the type must follow
1. Before issuing a clearance, ask if the pilot is the intersection or waypoint name.
able to maintain terrain and obstruction clearance NOTE−
during a climb to the minimum IFR altitude. These procedures do not imply that the processing of
Clearances 4−2−3
JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
airfiles has priority over another ATC duty to be 2. Airports without an air/ground communica-
performed. tions station:
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−2−1, Recording Information. PHRASEOLOGY−
(Call sign) REPORT CANCELLATION OF IFR THIS
FREQUENCY OR WITH FLIGHT SERVICE.
4−2−10. CANCELLATION OF IFR FLIGHT
PLAN Or
a. If necessary, before instructing an IFR aircraft
arriving at an airport not served by an air traffic (Call sign) REPORT CANCELLATION OF IFR THIS
control tower or flight service station to change to the FREQUENCY OR WITH (FSS serving the area or the ATC
controlling facility).
common traffic advisory frequency, provide the pilot
with instructions on how to cancel his/her IFR flight EXAMPLE−
plan. “N13WA report cancellation of IFR this frequency or with
McAlester Radio.”
1. Airports with an air/ground communications
station: b. Respond to a pilot’s cancellation of his/her IFR
flight plan as follows:
PHRASEOLOGY−
(Call sign) REPORT CANCELLATION OF IFR ON PHRASEOLOGY−
(frequency). (Call sign) IFR CANCELLATION RECEIVED.
4−2−4 Clearances
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JO 7110.65Z
Section 3. Departure Procedures
4−3−1. DEPARTURE TERMINOLOGY NOTE−

Presidential detail is responsible for ensuring the accuracy
Avoid using the term “takeoff” except to actually of the destination airport.
clear an aircraft for takeoff or to cancel a takeoff PHRASEOLOGY−
clearance. Use such terms as “depart,” “departure,” or DESTINATION AS FILED.
“fly” in clearances when necessary.
c. Departure Procedures.
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−9−9, Takeoff Clearance. 1. Specify direction of takeoff/turn or initial
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−9−11, Cancellation of Takeoff heading to be flown after takeoff as follows:
Clearance.
(a) Locations with Airport Traffic Control
Service−Specify direction of takeoff/turn or initial
4−3−2. DEPARTURE CLEARANCES
heading as necessary, consistent with published:
Include the following items in IFR departure (1) Departure Procedures (DP). If an
clearances: aircraft is vectored off a published Standard
NOTE− Instrument Departure (SID) or Obstacle Departure
When considered necessary, controllers or pilots may Procedure (ODP), that vector cancels the DP and
initiate read backs of a clearance. Some pilots may be ATC becomes responsible for separation from terrain
required by company rule to do so. and /or obstructions. IFR aircraft must be assigned an
a. Always include the airport of departure when altitude.
issuing a departure clearance for relay to an aircraft (2) Diverse Vector Areas (DVA). The
by an FSS, dispatcher, etc. assignment of an initial heading using a DVA can be
given to the pilot as part of the initial clearance, but
b. Clearance Limit.
must be given no later than with the takeoff clearance.
1. Specify the destination airport when practi- Once airborne, an aircraft assigned headings within
cable, even though it is outside controlled airspace. the DVA can be vectored below the MVA/MIA.
Issue short range clearances as provided for in any Controllers cannot interrupt an aircraft’s climb in the
procedures established for their use. DVA until the aircraft is at or above the MVA/MIA.
NOTE−
(a) When the clearance limit is an airport, the
1. It is important for controllers to understand that there
word “airport” must follow the airport name. can be differences in published climb gradients applicable
PHRASEOLOGY− to individual departure procedures serving the same
CLEARED TO (destination) AIRPORT airport or runway. Assigning a different departure
procedure without the pilot being able to re−brief may
(b) When the clearance limit is a NAVAID result in the pilot rejecting the new procedure.
and the NAVAID type is known, the type of NAVAID 2. When a departure clearance includes a SID, concurrent
must follow the NAVAID name. use of a diverse vector area (DVA) is not permitted.
PHRASEOLOGY− REFERENCE−
CLEARED TO (NAVAID name and type) AIM, Para 5−2−7, Departure Control.
AIM, Para 5−2−9, Instrument Departure Procedures (DP) − Obstacle
(c) When the clearance limit is an intersection Departure Procedures (ODP) and Standard Instrument Departures
(SID).
or waypoint and the type is known, the type must
follow the intersection or waypoint name. (b) Locations without Airport Traffic Control
Service, but within a Class E surface area specify
PHRASEOLOGY−
direction of takeoff/turn or initial heading if
CLEARED TO (intersection or waypoint name and type)
necessary. Obtain/solicit the pilot’s concurrence
2. For Air Force One (AF1) operations, do not concerning a turn or heading before issuing them in
specify the destination airport. a clearance.
Departure Procedures 4−3−1

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NOTE− DEPART (direction or runway).

Direction of takeoff and turn after takeoff can be
obtained/solicited directly from the pilot, or relayed by an TURN LEFT/RIGHT.
FSS, dispatcher, etc., as obtained/solicited from the pilot.
WHEN ENTERING CONTROLLED AIRSPACE
(c) At all other airports− Do not specify (instruction), FLY HEADING (degrees) UNTIL
direction of takeoff/turn after takeoff. If necessary to REACHING (altitude, point, or fix) BEFORE
specify an initial heading to be flown after takeoff, PROCEEDING ON COURSE.
issue the initial heading so as to apply only within
controlled airspace. FLY A (degree) BEARING/AZIMUTH FROM/TO (fix)
UNTIL (time),
2. Where an ODP has been published for a
location and pilot compliance is necessary to ensure or
separation, include the procedure as part of the ATC
clearance. Additionally, when an ODP is included in UNTIL REACHING (fix or altitude),
the clearance and the Visual Climb over Airport
(VCOA) is requested by the pilot or assigned by ATC and if required,
when it is the only procedure published in the ODP,
BEFORE PROCEEDING ON COURSE.
include an instruction to remain within the published
visibility of the VCOA. EXAMPLE−
“Verify right turn after departure will allow compliance
EXAMPLE− with local traffic pattern,”or “Verify this clearance will
“Depart via the (airport name)(runway number) obstacle allow compliance with terrain or obstruction avoidance.”
departure procedure. Remain within (number of miles)
miles of the (airport name) during visual climb” if NOTE−
applicable. Or, If a published IFR departure procedure is not included in
“Depart via the (graphic ODP name) obstacle departure an ATC clearance, compliance with such a procedure is the
procedure. Remain within (number of miles) miles of the pilot’s prerogative.
(airport name) during visual climb” if applicable. 4. SIDs:
NOTE−
1. Pilots will advise ATC of their intent to use the VCOA (a) Assign a SID (including transition if
option when requesting their IFR clearance. necessary). Assign an ADR/ADAR, when applicable
2. Some aircraft are required by 14 CFR 91.175 to depart
or the route filed by the pilot, when a SID is not
a runway under IFR using the ODP absent other established for the departure route to be flown, or the
instructions from ATC. pilot has indicated that he/she does not wish to use a
SID.
3. IFR takeoff minimums and obstacle departure proced-
ures are prescribed for specific airports/runways and NOTE−
published in either a textual, or graphic form with the label Departure procedure descriptive text contained within
(OBSTACLE) in the procedure title, and documented on an parentheses (for example, “Jimmy One (RNAV)
appropriate FAA Form 8260. To alert pilots of their Departure”) is not included in departure clearance
existence, instrument approach procedure charts are phraseology.
annotated with a symbol: PHRASEOLOGY−
(SID name and number) DEPARTURE.
(SID name and number) DEPARTURE, (transition name)

TRANSITION.
3. Compatibility with a procedure issued may EXAMPLE−
be verified by asking the pilot if items obtained/ “Stroudsburg One Departure.”
solicited will allow him/her to comply with local “Stroudsburg One Departure, Sparta Transition.”
traffic pattern, terrain, or obstruction avoidance.
NOTE−
PHRASEOLOGY− If a pilot does not wish to use a SID issued in an ATC
FLY RUNWAY HEADING. clearance, or any other SID published for that location,
he/she is expected to advise ATC.
4−3−2 Departure Procedures

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(b) If it is necessary to assign a crossing (a) 9,000’ AGL or higher.

altitude which differs from the SID altitude
(b) If unable 9,000’ AGL or higher, then the
emphasize the change to the pilot.
highest available altitude below 9,000’ AGL.
PHRASEOLOGY−
(SID name and number) DEPARTURE, EXCEPT CROSS 2. Assign the altitude requested by the pilot.
(revised altitude information). 3. Assign an altitude, as near as possible to the
EXAMPLE− altitude requested by the pilot, and
“Stroudsburg One Departure, except cross Quaker at
(a) Inform the pilot when to expect clearance
five thousand.”
to the requested altitude unless instructions are
“Astoria Two Departure, except cross Astor waypoint at six contained in the specified SID, or
thousand.” (b) If the requested altitude is not expected to
(c) Specify altitudes when they are not be available, inform the pilot what altitude can be
included in the SID. expected and when/where to expect it.
PHRASEOLOGY− 4. Use one of the following when the SID
(SID name and number) DEPARTURE. CROSS (fix) AT contains published crossing restrictions:
(altitude).
(a) Instruct aircraft to “Climb via SID.”
EXAMPLE−
“Stroudsburg One Departure. Cross Jersey intersection at (b) Instruct the aircraft to “Climb via SID
four thousand. Cross Range intersection at six thousand.” except maintain (altitude)” when a top altitude is not
published or when it is necessary to issue an interim
“Engle Two departure. Cross Pilim waypoint at or above altitude.
five thousand. Cross Engle waypoint at or above seven
EXAMPLE−
thousand. Cross Gorge waypoint at niner thousand.”
“Cleared to Johnston Airport, Scott One departure, Jonez
d. Route of flight. Specify one or more of the transition, Q One Forty−five. Climb via SID.”
following:
“Cleared to Johnston Airport, Scott One departure, Jonez
1. Airway, route, course, heading, azimuth, arc, transition, Q One Forty−five, Climb via SID except
or vector. maintain flight level one eight zero.”
2. The routing a pilot can expect if any part of “Cleared to Johnston Airport, Scott One departure, Jonez
the route beyond a short range clearance limit differs transition, Q One Forty−five, Climb Via SID except
from that filed. maintain flight level one eight zero, expect flight level three
five zero one zero minutes after departure.”
PHRASEOLOGY−
EXPECT FURTHER CLEARANCE VIA (airways, routes, NOTE−
or fixes.) 1. Use of “Climb via SID Except Maintain” to emphasize
a published procedural constraint is an inappropriate use
e. Altitude. Use one of the following in the order of this phraseology.
of preference listed.
2. Considering the principle that the last ATC clearance
NOTE− issued has precedence over the previous, the phraseology
Turbojet aircraft equipped with afterburner engines may “maintain (altitude)” alone cancels previously issued
occasionally be expected to use afterburning during their altitude restrictions, including SID/STAR altitude restric-
climb to the en route altitude. When so advised by the pilot, tions, unless they are restated or modified.
the controller may be able to plan his/her traffic to REFERENCE−
accommodate the high performance climb and allow the FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−2−5, Route or Altitude Amendments.
pilot to climb to his/her planned altitude without AIM, Para 4−4−10, Adherence to Clearance.
restriction. 5. When a SID does not contain published
REFERENCE− crossing restrictions and/or is a SID with a Radar
P/CG, Climb Via, Top Altitude
Vector segment or a Radar Vector SID; or a SID is
1. To the maximum extent possible, Air Force constructed with a Radar Vector segment and
One will be cleared unrestricted climb to: contains published crossing restrictions after the

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vector segment, instruct aircraft to “MAINTAIN expected altitude change and at what fix/time to expect
(altitude).” clearance to 15,000 feet. The clearance will read: “Climb
and maintain one three thousand. Expect one five thousand
NOTE−
at San Jose. One seven thousand is not available.”
1. 14 CFR Section 91.185, says that in the event of a
two-way radio communication failure, in VFR conditions REFERENCE−
or if VFR conditions are encountered after the failure, the Clearance.
pilot must continue the flight under VFR and land as soon FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−8−2, Initial Heading.
as practicable. That section also says that when the failure FAA Order JO 7110.65 Para 4−2−5, Route or Altitude Amendments.
occurs in IFR conditions the pilot must continue flight at AIM, Para 4−4−10, Adherence to Clearance.
the highest of the following altitudes or flight levels for the
route segment being flown: 4−3−3. ABBREVIATED DEPARTURE
a. The altitude or flight level assigned in the last ATC CLEARANCE
clearance received.
b. The minimum altitude (converted, if appropriate, to a. Issue an abbreviated departure clearance if its
minimum flight level as prescribed in 14 CFR Sec- use reduces verbiage and the following conditions are
tion 91.121(c)) for IFR operations. (This altitude should be met:
consistent with MEAs, MOCAs, etc.) REFERENCE−
c. The altitude or flight level ATC has advised may be FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−2−8, IFR-VFR and VFR-IFR Flights.
expected in a further clearance.
1. The route of flight filed with ATC has not
2. If the expected altitude is the highest of the preceding been changed by the pilot, company, operations
choices, the pilot should begin to climb to that expected officer, input operator, or in the stored flight plan
altitude at the time or fix specified in the clearance. The program prior to departure.
choice to climb to the expected altitude is not applicable if
the pilot has proceeded beyond the specified fix or if the NOTE−
time designated in the clearance has expired. A pilot will not accept an abbreviated clearance if the route
of flight filed with ATC has been changed by him/her or the
PHRASEOLOGY− company or the operations officer before departure.
CLIMB AND MAINTAIN (the altitude as near as possible He/she is expected to inform the control facility on initial
to the pilot’s requested altitude). EXPECT (the requested radio contact if he/she cannot accept the clearance. It is the
altitude or an altitude different from the requested altitude) responsibility of the company or operations officer to
AT (time or fix), inform the pilot when they make a change.
and if applicable, 2. All ATC facilities concerned have sufficient
route of flight information to exercise their control
(pilot’s requested altitude) IS NOT AVAILABLE. responsibilities.
EXAMPLE− NOTE−
1. A pilot has requested flight level 350. Flight level 230 The route of flight information to be provided may be
is immediately available and flight level 350 will be covered in letters of agreement.
available at the Appleton zero five zero radial 35 mile fix.
3. When the flight will depart IFR, destination
The clearance will read:
“Climb and maintain flight level two three zero. Expect airport information is relayed between the facilities
flight level three five zero at Appleton zero five zero radial concerned prior to departure.
three five mile fix.” EXAMPLE−
2. A pilot has requested 9,000 feet. An altitude restriction 1. A tower or flight service station relay of destination
is required because of facility procedures or requirements. airport information to the center when requesting
Assign the altitude and advise the pilot at what fix/time the clearance:
pilot may expect the requested altitude. The clearance “Request clearance for United Four Sixty-One to
could read: O’Hare.”
“Climb and maintain five thousand. Expect niner 2. A center relay to the tower or flight service station when
thousand one zero minutes after departure.” initiating a clearance:
3. A pilot has requested 17,000 feet which is unavailable. “Clearance for United Four Sixty-One to O’Hare.”
You plan 15,000 feet to be the pilot’s highest altitude prior NOTE−
to descent to the pilot’s destination but only 13,000 feet is Pilots are expected to furnish the facility concerned with
available until San Jose VOR. Advise the pilot of the destination airport information on initial radio call-up.

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This will provide the information necessary for detecting 2. A SID does not contain published crossing
any destination airport differences on facility relay. restrictions and/or is a SID with a Radar Vector
4. The assigned altitude, according to the segment or is a Radar Vector SID.
provisions in paragraph 4−3−2, Departure Clear-
ances, subparagraph e, is stated in the clearance. 3. A SID is constructed with a Radar Vector
segment and contains published crossing restrictions
b. If it is necessary to modify a filed route of flight after the vector segment.
in order to achieve computer acceptance due, for
example, to incorrect fix or airway identification, the PHRASEOLOGY−
contraction “FRC,” meaning “Full Route Clearance CLEARED TO (destination) AIRPORT;
Necessary,” or “FRC/(fix),” will be added to the
and as appropriate,
remarks. “FRC” or “FRC/(fix)” must always be the
first item of intra-center remarks. When “FRC” or (SID name and number) DEPARTURE,
“FRC/(fix)” appears on a flight progress strip, the THEN AS FILED.
controller issuing the ATC clearance to the aircraft
must issue a full route clearance to the specified fix, When the SID does not contain published crossing
or, if no fix is specified, for the entire route. restrictions and/or is a SID with a Radar Vector segment or
a Radar Vector SID; or is a SID with a radar vector
EXAMPLE− segment and contains published crossing restrictions after
“Cleared to Missoula International Airport, Chief Two the vector segment.
Departure to Angley; direct Salina; then as filed; maintain
one seven thousand.” MAINTAIN (altitude); (additional instructions or
NOTE− information).
Changes, such as those made to conform with traffic flows
and preferred routings, are only permitted to be made by Or when a SID contains published crossing restrictions,
the pilot (or his/her operations office) or the controller
responsible for initiating the clearance to the aircraft. CLIMB VIA SID.
c. Specify the destination airport in the clearance. CLIMB VIA SID EXCEPT MAINTAIN (altitude);
(additional instructions or information).
d. When no changes are required in the filed route,
state the phrase: “Cleared to (destination) airport, If a SID is not assigned,
([SID name and number] and SID transition, as
appropriate); then, as filed.” If a SID is not assigned, CLEARED TO (destination) AIRPORT AS FILED.
follow with “As filed.” If required, add any additional MAINTAIN (altitude);
instructions or information, including requested
altitude if different than assigned. and if required,
e. Use one of the following when the SID contains (additional instructions or information).
published crossing restrictions:
EXAMPLE−
1. Instruct aircraft to “Climb via SID.” “Cleared to Reynolds Airport; David Two Departure,
Kingham Transition; then, as filed. Maintain niner
2. Instruct aircraft to “Climb via SID except thousand. Expect flight level four one zero, one zero
maintain (altitude)” when a top altitude is not minutes after departure.”
published or when it is necessary to issue an interim
altitude. “Cleared to Reynolds Airport; David Two Departure,
Kingham Transition; then, as filed. Climb via SID.”
NOTE−
Use of “Climb via SID Except Maintain” to emphasize a “Cleared to Reynolds Airport; David Two Departure,
published procedural constraint is an inappropriate use of Kingham Transition; then, as filed. Climb via SID except
this phraseology. maintain flight level two four zero. Expect flight level four
f. Instruct aircraft to MAINTAIN (altitude) when: one zero, one zero minutes after departure.
1. No SID is assigned. “Cleared to Reynolds Airport as filed. Maintain niner

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thousand. Expect flight level four one zero, one zero South Boston Victor Twenty Greensboro. Maintain
minutes after departure.” eight thousand, report leaving four thousand.”
NOTE− “Cleared to Reynolds Airport; South Boston One

1. SIDs are excluded from “cleared as filed” procedures. Departure; then, as filed, except change route to read South
Boston Victor Twenty Greensboro; climb via SID.”
2. If a pilot does not wish to accept an ATC clearance to
fly a SID, he/she is expected to advise ATC or state “Cleared to Reynolds Airport; South Boston One
“NO SID” in his/her flight plan remarks. Departure; then, as filed, except change route to read South
REFERENCE− Boston Victor Twenty Greensboro; climb via SID except
P/CG, Climb Via, Top Altitude maintain flight level one eight zero, expect flight level three
one zero one zero minutes after departure.”
g. When a filed route will require revisions, the
controller responsible for initiating the clearance to “Cleared to Reynolds Airport as filed, except change route
the aircraft must either: to read South Boston Victor Twenty Greensboro. Maintain
eight thousand, report leaving four thousand.”
1. Issue a FRC/FRC until a fix.
“Cleared to Reynolds Airport via Victor Ninety-one
2. Specify the assigned altitude to maintain, or Albany, then as filed. Maintain six thousand.”
Climb Via SID, or Climb Via SID except maintain h. In a nonradar environment specify one, two, or
(altitude), as appropriate. more fixes, as necessary, to identify the initial route
PHRASEOLOGY− of flight.
1. Specify the destination airport, when practic-
Or when the SID does not contain published crossing able, followed by the word “airport” even though it is
restrictions and/ or is a SID with a Radar Vector segment outside controlled airspace.
or a Radar Vector SID
PHRASEOLOGY−
(SID name and number) DEPARTURE, CLEARED TO (destination) AIRPORT
(transition name) TRANSITION; THEN, AS FILED,
EXCEPT CHANGE ROUTE TO READ (amended route 2. When the clearance limit is a NAVAID, the
portion). MAINTAIN (altitude); type of NAVAID must follow the NAVAID name.
Or when the SID contains published crossing restrictions, PHRASEOLOGY−

CLEARED TO (NAVAID name and type)
CLIMB VIA SID
3. When the clearance limit is an intersection or
CLIMB VIA SID EXCEPT MAINTAIN (altitude). waypoint and the type is known, the type must follow
and if required, the intersection or waypoint name.
(additional instructions or information). PHRASEOLOGY−

CLEARED TO (intersection or waypoint name and type)
If a SID is not assigned, EXAMPLE−
The filed route of flight is from Hutchinson V10 Emporia,
CLEARED TO (destination) AIRPORT AS FILED, thence V10N and V77 to St. Joseph. The clearance will
EXCEPT CHANGE ROUTE TO READ (amended route read:
portion). MAINTAIN (altitude); “Cleared to Watson Airport as filed via Emporia, maintain
Seven Thousand.”
and if required,
i. Do not apply these procedures when a pilot
(additional instructions or information). requests a detailed clearance or to military operations
EXAMPLE− conducted within ALTRV, stereo routes, operations
“Cleared to Reynolds Airport; South Boston One above FL 600, and other military operations requiring
Departure; then, as filed, except change route to read special handling.

12/2/21
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JO 7110.65Z
Departure clearance procedures and phraseology for (aircraft identification) HOLD FOR RELEASE, EXPECT
military operations within approved altitude reservations, (time in hours and/or minutes) DEPARTURE DELAY.
military operations above FL 600, and other military
operations requiring special handling are contained in c. Release Times.
separate procedures in this order or in a LOA, as 1. Release times must be issued to pilots when
appropriate. necessary to specify the earliest time an aircraft may
REFERENCE− depart.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−2−7, ALTRV Clearance.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 9−2−14, Military Operations Above FL NOTE−
600. A release time is a departure restriction issued to a pilot
(either directly or through authorized relay) to separate a
departing aircraft from other traffic.
4−3−4. DEPARTURE RELEASE, HOLD FOR
RELEASE, RELEASE TIMES, DEPARTURE 2. The facility issuing a release time to a pilot
RESTRICTIONS, AND CLEARANCE VOID must issue a time check. A release time using a
TIMES specified number of minutes does not require a time
check.
Assign departure restrictions, clearance void times, PHRASEOLOGY−
or release times to separate departures from other (aircraft identification) RELEASED FOR DEPARTURE
traffic or to restrict or regulate the departure flow. AT (time in hours and/or minutes),
Departures from an airport without an operating
control tower must be issued either a departure and if required,
release, a hold for release, or a release time.
IF NOT OFF BY (time), ADVISE (facility) NOT LATER
REFERENCE− THAN (time) OF INTENTIONS.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 10−3−1, Overdue Aircraft.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 10−4−1, Traffic Restrictions.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 10−4−3, Traffic Resumption. TIME (time in hours, minutes, and nearest quarter minute).
a. Departure Release. When conditions allow, (aircraft identification) RELEASED FOR DEPARTURE
release the aircraft as soon as possible. IN (number of minutes) MINUTES
PHRASEOLOGY− and if required,
To another controller,
(aircraft identification) RELEASED. IF NOT OFF IN (number of minutes) MINUTES, ADVISE
(facility) OF INTENTIONS WITHIN (number of minutes)
To a flight service specialist, or Flight Data MINUTES.
Communication Specialist (FDCS).
d. When expect departure clearance times
ADVISE (aircraft identification) RELEASED FOR (EDCT) are assigned through traffic management
DEPARTURE. programs, excluding overriding call for release
(CFR) operations as described in subparagraph e, the
To a pilot at an airport without an operating control tower, departure terminal must, to the extent possible, plan
(aircraft identification) RELEASED FOR DEPARTURE.
ground movement of aircraft destined to the affected
b. Hold For Release (HFR). airport(s) so that flights are sequenced to depart no
earlier than 5 minutes before, and no later than 5
1. “Hold for release” instructions must be used minutes after the EDCT. Do not release aircraft on
to inform a pilot or a controller that a departure their assigned EDCT if a ground stop (GS) applicable
clearance is not valid until additional instructions are to that aircraft is in effect, unless approval has been
received. received from the originator of the GS.
REFERENCE− e. Call for Release (CFR). When CFR is in effect,
P/CG Term − Hold for Release.
release aircraft so they are airborne within a window
2. When issuing hold for release instructions, that extends from 2 minutes prior and ends 1 minute
include departure delay information. after the assigned time, unless otherwise coordinated.

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1. Subparagraph e applies to all facilities. CLEARANCE VOID IF NOT OFF BY (clearance void
2. Coordination may be verbal, electronic, or written. time),
1. If an aircraft has begun to taxi or requests taxi and if required,

in a manner consistent with meeting the EDCT, the IF NOT OFF BY (clearance void time), ADVISE (facility)
aircraft must be released. Additional coordination is NOT LATER THAN (time) OF INTENTIONS.
not required.
TIME (time in hours, minutes, and the nearest quarter
2. If an aircraft requests taxi or clearance for minute).
departure inconsistent with meeting the EDCT
window, ask the pilot to verify the EDCT. Or
(a) If the pilot’s EDCT is the same as the FAA CLEARANCE VOID IF NOT OFF IN (number of minutes)
EDCT, the aircraft is released consistent with the MINUTES
EDCT.
and if required,
(b) If the pilot’s EDCT is not the same as the
FAA EDCT, refer to Trust and Verify note below. IF NOT OFF IN (number of minutes) MINUTES, ADVISE
3. If an aircraft requests taxi too late to meet the (facility) OF INTENTIONS WITHIN (number of minutes)
MINUTES.
EDCT, contact the ATCSCC through the appropriate
TMU.
4−3−5. GROUND STOP
NOTE−
(Trust & Verify) EDCTs are revised by Air Carriers and Do not release an aircraft if a ground stop (GS)
Traffic Management for changing conditions en route or at applicable to that aircraft is in effect, without the
affected airport(s). Terminal controllers’ use of aircraft approval of the originator of the GS.
reported EDCT for departure sequencing should be
verified with the appropriate TMU prior to departure if this
can be accomplished without the aircraft incurring delay 4−3−6. DELAY SEQUENCING
beyond the EDCT reported by the aircraft. The preferred
method for verification is the Flight Schedule Monitor When aircraft elect to take delay on the ground before
(FSM). If the EDCT cannot be verified without incurring departure, issue departure clearances to them in the
additional delay, the aircraft should be released based on order in which the requests for clearance were
the pilot reported EDCT. The aircraft operator is originally made if practicable.
responsible for operating in a manner consistent to meet
the EDCT.
4−3−7. FORWARD DEPARTURE DELAY
f. Clearance Void Times. INFORMATION
1. When issuing clearance void times at airports Inform approach control facilities and/or towers of
without an operating control tower, provide alterna- anticipated departure delays.
tive instructions requiring the pilots to advise ATC of
their intentions no later than 30 minutes after the
clearance void time if not airborne. 4−3−8. COORDINATION WITH RECEIVING
FACILITY
2. The facility delivering a clearance void time
to a pilot must issue a time check. A void time issued a. Coordinate with the receiving facility before the
using a specified number of minutes does not require departure of an aircraft if the departure point is less
a time check. than 15 minutes flying time from the transferring
facility’s boundary unless an automatic transfer of
NOTE−
If the clearance void time expires, it does not cancel the data between automated systems will occur, in which
departure clearance or IFR flight plan. It withdraws the case, the flying time requirement may be reduced to
pilot’s authority to depart IFR until a new departure 5 minutes or replaced with a mileage from the
release/release time has been issued by ATC and boundary parameter when mutually agreeable to both
acknowledged by the pilot. facilities.

12/2/21
6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z CHG 1
JO 7110.65Z
Agreements requiring additional time are encouraged VFR DEPARTURE AUTHORIZED. CONTACT (facility)
between facilities that need earlier coordination. However, ON (frequency) AT (location or time if required) FOR
when agreements establish mandatory radar handoff CLEARANCE.
procedures, coordination needs only be effected in a timely
b. If the facility/sector responsible for issuing the
manner prior to transfer of control.
clearance is unable to issue a clearance, inform the
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Chapter 5, Section 4, Transfer of Radar
pilot, and suggest that the delay be taken on the
Identification, Para 5−4−1, Application. ground. If the pilot insists upon taking off VFR and
obtaining an IFR clearance in the air, inform the
b. The actual departure time or a subsequent strip
facility/sector holding the flight plan of the pilot’s
posting time must be forwarded to the receiving
intentions and, if possible, the VFR departure time.
facility unless assumed departure times are agreed
upon and that time is within 3 minutes of the actual
departure time. 4−3−10. FORWARDING DEPARTURE TIMES
TERMINAL
4−3−9. VFR RELEASE OF IFR DEPARTURE Unless alternate procedures are prescribed in a letter
of agreement or automatic departure messages are
When an aircraft which has filed an IFR flight plan being transmitted between automated facilities,
requests a VFR departure through a terminal facility, forward departure times to the facility from which
FSS, ARTCC Flight Data Unit, or air/ground you received the clearance and also to the terminal
communications station: departure controller when that position is involved in
a. After obtaining, if necessary, approval from the the departure sequence.
facility/sector responsible for issuing the IFR NOTE−
clearance, you may authorize an IFR flight planned 1. Letters of agreement prescribing assumed departure
aircraft to depart VFR. Inform the pilot of the proper times or mandatory radar handoff procedures are
frequency and, if appropriate, where or when to alternatives for providing equivalent procedures.
contact the facility responsible for issuing the 2. The letters “DM” flashing in the data block signify
clearance. unsuccessful transmission of a departure message.

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 4. Route Assignment
4−4−1. ROUTE USE PHRASEOLOGY−

VIA;
Clear aircraft via routes consistent with the altitude
stratum in which the operation is to be conducted by (name of NAVAID) (specified) RADIAL/COURSE/
one or more of the following: AZIMUTH,
NOTE− or
Except for certain NAVAIDs/routes used by scheduled air
carriers or authorized for specific uses in the control of IFR (fix) AND (fix),
aircraft, Air Traffic Service (ATS) routes, and NAVAIDs
established for use at specified altitudes are shown on or
U.S. government charts or DOD FLIP charts.
RADIALS OF (ATS route) AND (ATS route).
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−5−2, NAVAID Terms. c. Random routes.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−1−2, Exceptions.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−5−6, Minimum En Route Altitudes. 1. When not being radar monitored,
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−6−1, Application. GNSS-equipped RNAV aircraft on random RNAV
routes must be cleared via or reported to be
a. Designated ATS routes.
established on a point-to-point route.
PHRASEOLOGY− (a) The points must be published NAVAIDs,
VIA: waypoints, fixes or airports recallable from the
aircraft’s navigation database. The points must be
VICTOR (color) (airway number)(the word Romeo when
RNAV for existing Alaska routes),
displayed on controller video maps or depicted on the
controller chart displayed at the control position.
or When applying nonradar separation the maximum
distance between points must not exceed 500 miles.
J (route number) (the word Romeo when RNAV for existing (b) Protect 4 miles either side of the route
Alaska routes),
centerline.
or (c) Assigned altitudes must be at or above the
highest MIA along the projected route segment being
Q (route number) flown, including the protected airspace of that route
segment.
or
2. Impromptu
Tango (route number) PHRASEOLOGY−
DIRECT (name of NAVAID/waypoint/fix/airport)
or
NOTE−
A random impromptu routing is a direct course initiated by
SUBSTITUTE (ATS route) FROM (fix) to (fix),
ATC or requested by the pilot during flight. Aircraft are
cleared from their present position to a NAVAID, waypoint,
fix, or airport.
or
3. Point-to-Point
IR (route number). PHRASEOLOGY−
After (fix) proceed direct (fix)
CROSS/JOIN VICTOR/(color) (airway number), (number
NOTE−
of miles) MILES (direction) OF (fix).
A point-to-point route segment begins and ends with a
b. Radials, courses, azimuths to or from published NAVAID, waypoint, fix, or airport.
NAVAIDs. d. DME arcs of NAVAIDS.
Route Assignment 4−4−1

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
e. Radials, courses, azimuths, and headings of EXAMPLE−

departure or arrival routes. “Direct SUNOL.”
“Direct to the Appleton three one zero radial two five mile
f. SIDs/STARs. fix.”
g. Vectors. “Direct 32 degrees, 45 minutes north, 105 degrees, 37
minutes west.”
h. Fixes defined in terms of degree-distance from “Offset eight miles right of Victor six.”
NAVAIDs for special military operations. REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−3−8, Aircraft Equipment Suffix.
i. Courses, azimuths, bearings, quadrants, or FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−5−3, NAVAID Fixes.
radials within a radius of a NAVAID. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−1−2, Exceptions.
PHRASEOLOGY− FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 6−5−4, Minima Along Other Than
CLEARED TO FLY (general direction from NAVAID) OF Established Airways or Routes.
(NAVAID name and type) BETWEEN (specified) P/CG Term - Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS)[ICAO].
COURSES TO/BEARINGS FROM/RADIALS (NAVAID
name when a NDB) WITHIN (number of miles) MILE 4−4−2. ROUTE STRUCTURE TRANSITIONS
RADIUS,
To effect transition within or between route
or structures, clear an aircraft by one or more of the
following methods, based on NAVAIDs or RNAV:
CLEARED TO FLY (specified) QUADRANT OF (NAVAID
name and type) WITHIN (number of miles) MILE RADIUS. a. Vector aircraft to or from radials, courses, or
EXAMPLE− azimuths of the ATS route assigned.
1. “Cleared to fly east of Allentown VORTAC between the
zero four five and the one three five radials within four zero b. Assign a SID/STAR.
mile radius.” c. Clear departing or arriving aircraft to climb or
2. “Cleared to fly east of Crystal Lake radio beacon descend via radials, courses, or azimuths of the ATS
between the two two five and the three one five courses to route assigned.
Crystal Lake within three zero mile radius.”
3. “Cleared to fly northeast quadrant of Philipsburg
d. Clear departing or arriving aircraft directly to or
VORTAC within four zero mile radius.” between the NAVAIDs forming the ATS route
assigned.
j. Fixes/waypoints defined in terms of:
e. Clear aircraft to climb or descend via the ATS
1. Published name; or route on which flight will be conducted.
2. Degree-distance from NAVAIDs; or
f. Clear aircraft to climb or descend on specified
3. Latitude/longitude coordinates, state the radials, courses, or azimuths of NAVAIDs.
latitude and longitude in degrees and minutes
including the direction from the axis such as North or g. Clear RNAV aircraft between designated or
West; or established ATS routes via random RNAV routes to
a NAVAID, waypoint, airport or fix on the new route.
4. Offset from published or established ATS Provide radar monitoring to aircraft transitioning via
route at a specified distance and direction for random random RNAV routes.
(impromptu) RNAV Routes.
EXCEPTION. GNSS−equipped aircraft /G, /L, /S,
PHRASEOLOGY−
DIRECT (fix/waypoint) and /V on point−to−point routes, or transitioning
between two point−to−point routes via an impromptu
DIRECT TO THE (facility) (radial) (distance) FIX. route.
REFERENCE−
DIRECT (number degrees) DEGREES, (number FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−1−2, Exceptions.
minutes) MINUTES (north or south), (number degrees) FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−4−1, Route Use.
DEGREES, (number minutes) MINUTES (east or west).
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 6−5−4, Minima Along Other Than
Established Airways Or Routes.
OFFSET (distance) RIGHT/LEFT OF (route). P/CG Term − Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS)[ICAO].
4−4−2 Route Assignment

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
4−4−3. DEGREE-DISTANCE ROUTE b. The following special military operations are

DEFINITION FOR MILITARY OPERATIONS authorized to define routes, or portions of routes, by
degree-distance fixes:
EN ROUTE
1. Airborne radar navigation, radar bomb
a. Do not accept a military flight plan whose route scoring (RBS), and airborne missile programming
or route segments do not coincide with designated conducted by the USAF, USN, and RAF.
airways or jet routes or with a direct course between
NAVAIDs unless it is authorized in subparagraph b 2. Celestial navigation conducted by the USAF,
and meets the following degree-distance route USN, and RAF.
definition and procedural requirements: 3. Target aircraft operating in conjunction with
air defense interceptors, and air defense interceptors
1. The route or route segments must be defined
while en route to and from assigned airspace.
in the flight plan by degree-distance fixes composed
of: 4. Missions conducted above FL 450.
(a) A location identifier; 5. USN fighter and attack aircraft operating in
positive control airspace.
(b) Azimuth in degrees magnetic; and
6. USN/USMC aircraft, TACAN equipped,
(c) Distance in miles from the NAVAID used. operating within the Honolulu FIR/Hawaiian airways
EXAMPLE− area.
“MKE 030025.” 7. USAF/USN/USMC aircraft flight planned to
2. The NAVAIDs selected to define the operate on MTRs.
degree-distance fixes must be those authorized for 8. USAF Air Mobility Command (AMC)
use at the altitude being flown and at a distance within aircraft operating on approved station-keeping
the published service volume area. equipment (SKE) routes in accordance with the
3. The distance between the fixes used to define conditions and limitations listed in FAA Exemption
the route must not exceed: No. 4371 to 14 CFR Section 91.177(a)(2) and
14 CFR Section 91.179(b)(1).
(a) Below FL 180− 80 miles;
(b) FL 180 and above− 260 miles; and 4−4−4. ALTERNATIVE ROUTES
When any part of an airway or route is unusable
(c) For celestial navigation routes, all
because of NAVAID status, clear aircraft that are not
altitudes− 260 miles.
RNAV capable via one of the following alternative
4. Degree-distance fixes used to define a route routes:
must be considered compulsory reporting points a. A route depicted on current U.S. Government
except that an aircraft may be authorized by ATC to charts/publications. Use the word “substitute”
omit reports when traffic conditions permit. immediately preceding the alternative route in
5. Military aircraft using degree-distance route issuing the clearance.
definition procedures must conduct operations in b. A route defined by specifying NAVAID radials,
accordance with the following: courses, or azimuths.
(a) Unless prior coordination has been c. A route defined as direct to or between
effected with the appropriate air traffic control NAVAIDs.
facility, flight plan the departure and the arrival d. Vectors.
phases to conform with the routine flow of traffic
NOTE−
when operating within 75 miles of the departure and Inform area navigation aircraft that will proceed to the
the arrival airport. Use defined routes or airways or NAVAID location of the NAVAID outage.
direct courses between NAVAIDs or as otherwise
required to conform to the normal flow of traffic. 4−4−5. CLASS G AIRSPACE
(b) Flight plans must be filed at least 2 hours Include routes through Class G airspace only when
before the estimated time of departure. requested by the pilot.
Route Assignment 4−4−3

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
NOTE− flight routing within a protected segment is amended,

1. Separation criteria are not applicable in Class G coordination must be accomplished as follows:
airspace. Traffic advisories and safety alerts are
applicable within Class G airspace to aircraft that are in (a) ATCS: with TMU.
direct communication with ATC.
2. Flight plans filed for random RNAV routes through (b) Terminal facility TMU: with overlying
Class G airspace are considered a request by the pilot. ARTCC TMU.
3. Flight plans containing MTR segments in/through
Class G airspace are considered a request by the pilot. (c) ARTCC TMU (for amendments outside
REFERENCE−
their facility): with ATCSCC.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−1, ATC Service.
P/CG − Class G Airspace. b. EN ROUTE. Do not issue revised routing
P/CG − Uncontrolled Airspace.
clearances that will take an aircraft off its flight plan
route past the last fix in your facility’s airspace, unless
4−4−6. DIRECT CLEARANCES requested by the pilot or operational necessity
a. Unless operational necessity dictates, do not dictates.
issue a routing clearance that will take an aircraft off
NOTE−
of its flight plan route if: Nothing in this paragraph must preclude a controller from
1. The aircraft is part of a known traffic issuing a routing clearance that conforms to a letter of
management initiative. agreement or standard operating procedure within their
own facility or between facilities, is required to maintain
2. The part of the route under consideration for separation or comply with traffic flow management
the direct routing is within a protected segment. If a initiatives.
4−4−4 Route Assignment

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 5. Altitude Assignment and Verification
4−5−1. VERTICAL SEPARATION MINIMA Aircraft

On course
degrees Assign Examples
Operating
magnetic
Separate instrument flight rules (IFR) aircraft using
Above FL 410 0 through 179 Odd cardinal FL 450,
the following minima between altitudes: flight levels at FL 490,
intervals of FL 530
a. Up to and including FL 410− 1,000 feet. 4,000 feet
beginning with
FL 450
b. Apply 2,000 feet at or above FL 290 between 180 through 359 Odd cardinal FL 430,
non−RVSM aircraft and all other aircraft at or above flight levels at FL 470,
FL 290. intervals of FL 510
4,000 feet
beginning with
c. Above FL 410− 2,000 feet, except: FL 430
One way Any course Any cardinal FL 270,
1. In oceanic airspace, above FL 450 between a routes (except altitude or FL 280,
in composite flight level FL 290,
supersonic and any other aircraft− 4,000 feet. systems) below FL 410 FL 300,
or any odd FL 310,
2. Above FL 600 between military aircraft− cardinal flight FL 410,
level above FL 430,
5,000 feet. FL 410 FL 450
NOTE− Within an Any course Any altitude or

ALTRV flight level
Oceanic separation procedures are supplemented in
Chapter 8; Section 7, Section 8, Section 9 , and Section 10. In aerial Any course Altitude blocks 050B080,
refueling as requested. FL 180B220,
REFERENCE− tracks and Any altitude or FL 280B310
anchors flight level
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−5−5, Vertical Application.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 6−6−1, Application. REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 9−2−14, Military Operations Above FL FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−5−3, Exceptions.
600. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−7−5, Altitude Assignments.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 9−3−2, Separation Minima.
4−5−3. EXCEPTIONS
4−5−2. FLIGHT DIRECTION
When traffic, meteorological conditions, or aircraft
Clear aircraft at altitudes according to the operational limitations prevent assignment of
TBL 4−5−1. altitudes prescribed in paragraph 4−5−2, Flight
Direction, assign any cardinal altitude or flight level
below FL 410 or any odd cardinal flight level at or
TBL 4−5−1
above FL 410 without regard to direction of flight as
Altitude Assignment
follows:
Aircraft
On course NOTE−
degrees Assign Examples
Operating
magnetic
See paragraph 2−3−10, Control Symbology, for control
abbreviations and symbols to be used in conjunction with
Below 3,000 Any course Any altitude
feet above
this paragraph.
surface a. For traffic conditions, take this action only if
At and below 0 through 179 Odd cardinal 3,000, 5,000, one of the following conditions exists:
FL 410 altitude or FL 310,
flight levels at FL 330 1. Aircraft remain within a facility’s area and
intervals of
2,000 feet
prior approval is obtained from other affected
180 through 359 Even cardinal 4,000, 6,000,
positions or sectors or the operations are covered in
altitude or FL 320, a Facility Directive.
flight levels at FL 340
intervals of 2. Aircraft will proceed beyond the facility’s
2,000 feet area and specific operations and procedures
Altitude Assignment and Verification 4−5−1

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
permitting random altitude assignment are covered in TBL 4−5−3

a letter of agreement between the appropriate Minimum FL Adjustment
facilities.
Altimeter Setting Adjustment Factor
b. Military aircraft are operating on random routes 29.92” or higher None
and prior approval is obtained from the facility 29.91” to 29.42” 500 feet
concerned.
29.41” to 28.92” 1,000 feet
c. For meteorological conditions, take this action 28.91” to 28.42” 1,500 feet
only if you obtain prior approval from other affected 28.41” to 27.92” 2,000 feet
positions or sectors within your facility and, if
necessary, from the adjacent facility concerned.
4−5−6. MINIMUM EN ROUTE ALTITUDES
d. For aircraft operational limitations, take this
(MEA)
action only if the pilot informs you the available
appropriate altitude exceeds the operational limita- Except as provided in subparagraphs a and b below,
tions of his/her aircraft and only after you obtain prior assign altitudes at or above the MEA for the route
approval from other affected positions or sectors segment being flown. When a lower MEA for
within your facility and, if necessary, from the subsequent segments of the route is applicable, issue
adjacent facility concerned. the lower MEA only after the aircraft is over or past
e. For mission requirements, take this action only the Fix/NAVAID beyond which the lower MEA
when the aircraft is operating on an MTR. applies unless a crossing restriction at or above the
higher MEA is issued.
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−7−5, Altitude Assignments. a. An aircraft may be cleared below the MEA but
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 9−3−2, Separation Minima.
not below the MOCA for the route segment being
flown if the altitude assigned is at least 300 feet above
4−5−4. LOWEST USABLE FLIGHT LEVEL the floor of controlled airspace and one of the
following conditions are met:
If a change in atmospheric pressure affects a usable
flight level in your area of jurisdiction, use NOTE−
TBL 4−5−2 to determine the lowest usable flight Controllers must be aware that in the event of radio
level to clear aircraft at or above 18,000 feet MSL. communications or GNSS failure, a pilot will climb to the
MEA for the route segment being flown.
TBL 4−5−2 1. For aircraft using VOR, VORTAC or
Lowest Usable FL TACAN for navigation, this applies only within 22
Altimeter Setting Lowest Usable FL
miles of that NAVAID.
29.92” or higher 180 2. When radar procedures are used, the
29.91” to 28.92” 190 following actions are taken:
28.91” to 27.92” 200
(a) In the absence of a published MOCA,
REFERENCE− assign altitudes at or above the MVA or MIA along
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 9−3−2, Separation Minima. the route of flight, and
(b) Lost communications instructions are
4−5−5. ADJUSTED MINIMUM FLIGHT
issued.
LEVEL
3. The aircraft is GNSS equipped.
When the prescribed minimum altitude for IFR
operations is at or above 18,000 feet MSL and the b. An aircraft may be cleared to operate on jet
atmospheric pressure is less than 29.92”, add the routes below the MEA (but not below the prescribed
appropriate adjustment factor from TBL 4−5−3 to the minimum altitude for IFR operations) or above the
flight level equivalent of the minimum altitude in feet maximum authorized altitude if, in either case, radar
to determine the adjusted minimum flight level. service is provided.
4−5−2 Altitude Assignment and Verification

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Minimum en route and maximum authorized altitudes for FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−2−8, IFR-VFR and VFR-IFR Flights.
certain jet route segments have been established above the FAA Order JO 7110.65, Chapter 5, Section 6, Para 5−6−1, Application.
floor of the jet route structure due to limitations on FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−7−5, Altitude Assignments.
navigational signal coverage.
c. Where a higher altitude is required because of an 4−5−7. ALTITUDE INFORMATION
MEA, the aircraft must be cleared to begin climb to Issue altitude instructions as follows:
the higher MEA as follows: REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−2−1, Clearance Items.
1. If no MCA is specified, prior to or
immediately after passing the fix where the higher a. Altitude to maintain or cruise. When issuing
MEA is designated. (See FIG 4−5−1) cruise in conjunction with an airport clearance limit
and an unpublished route will be used, issue an
FIG 4−5−1 appropriate crossing altitude to ensure terrain
No MCA Specified clearance until the aircraft reaches a fix, point, or
route where the altitude information is available to
the pilot. When issuing a cruise clearance to an airport
which does not have a published instrument
approach, a cruise clearance without a crossing
restriction may be issued.
PHRASEOLOGY−
MAINTAIN/CRUISE (altitude). MAINTAIN (altitude)
UNTIL (time, fix, waypoint),
or
(number of miles or minutes) MILES/MINUTES PAST (fix,

2. If a MCA is specified, prior to the fix so as to
waypoint).
cross the fix at or above the MCA. (See FIG 4−5−2)
CROSS (fix, point, waypoint),
FIG 4−5−2
MCA Specified or
INTERCEPT (route) AT OR ABOVE (altitude), CRUISE

(altitude).
NOTE−
1. The crossing altitude must assure IFR obstruction
clearance to the point where the aircraft is established on
a segment of a published route or instrument approach
procedure.
2. When an aircraft is issued a cruise clearance to an
airport which does not have a published instrument
approach procedure, it is not possible to satisfy the
d. GNSS MEAs may be approved on published requirement for a crossing altitude that will ensure terrain
ATS routes. Air traffic may assign GNSS MEAs to clearance until the aircraft reaches a fix, point, or route
where altitude information is available to the pilot. Under
GNSS−equipped aircraft where established.
those conditions, a cruise clearance without a crossing
NOTE− restriction authorizes a pilot to determine the minimum
On high altitude ATS routes, the GNSS MEA is FL180 IFR altitude as prescribed in 14 CFR Section 91.177 and
unless published higher. descend to it at pilot discretion if it is lower than the altitude
e. Where MEAs have not been established, clear specified in the cruise clearance.
an aircraft at or above the minimum altitude for IFR b. Instructions to climb or descend including
operations prescribed by 14 CFR Section 91.177. restrictions, as required. Specify a time restriction

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
reference the UTC clock reading with a time check. AT (time). CLIMB/DESCEND AND MAINTAIN (altitude)
If you are relaying through an authorized communi- WHEN ESTABLISHED AT LEAST (number of miles or
cations provider, such as New York Radio, San minutes) MILES/MINUTES PAST (fix, waypoint) ON THE
Francisco Radio, FSS, etc., advise the radio operator (NAVAID) (specified) RADIAL.
CLIMB/DESCEND TO REACH (altitude) AT (time or fix,
to issue the current time to the aircraft when the
waypoint),
clearance is relayed. The requirement to issue a time
check must be disregarded if the clearance is issued or
via Controller Pilot Data Link Communications
(CPDLC). A POINT (number of miles) MILES (direction) OF (name
of DME NAVAID),
EXCEPTION. If you are in direct, two-way,
VHF/UHF voice communication with the pilot and or
the aircraft is in radar contact, you may specify an
elapsed time interval restriction, in full minute MAINTAIN (altitude) UNTIL (time (issue time check), fix,
increments only, without any reference to the UTC waypoint), THEN CLIMB/DESCEND AND MAINTAIN
clock. The time restriction begins once the clearance (altitude).
has been acknowledged by the pilot.
Through relay:
EXAMPLE−
1. “United Four Seventeen, climb to reach one three
CLIMB TO REACH (altitude) AT (time) (issue a time
thousand at two two one five.”
check).
“Time two two one one and one−quarter.”
The pilot is expected to be level at 13,000 feet at 2215 UTC. Or
2. Through Relay−“Speedbird Five, climb to reach flight
level three−five zero at one−two−one−five, time” (Issue a Using a time interval while in radar contact and in direct
time check). controller to pilot, two-way, VHF/UHF voice
communication:
3. In radar contact and in direct controller to pilot,
two-way, VHF/UHF voice communication - “United Four
CLIMB/DESCEND TO REACH/LEAVE (altitude)
Seventeen, descend to reach flight level three five zero
WITHIN (number) MINUTES, MAINTAIN (altitude).
within two minutes.” The time restriction begins once the
Or
clearance has been acknowledged by the pilot.
4. “United Four Seventeen climb to leave flight level three CLIMB/DESCEND TO REACH/LEAVE (altitude) IN
three zero within two minutes, maintain flight level three (number) MINUTES OR LESS, MAINTAIN (altitude).
five zero.”
c. Specified altitude for crossing a specified fix or
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 1−2−1, Word Meanings. waypoint; or, specified altitude for crossing a
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−4−17, Numbers Usage. distance (in miles) and direction from a specified fix
PHRASEOLOGY− or waypoint.
CLIMB/DESCEND AND MAINTAIN (altitude). PHRASEOLOGY−
CROSS (fix, waypoint) AT (altitude).
If required, CROSS (fix, waypoint) AT OR ABOVE/BELOW (altitude).
CROSS (number of miles) MILES (direction) OF (name of
AFTER PASSING (fix, waypoint), fix, waypoint) AT (altitude).
CROSS (number of miles) MILES (direction) OF (name of
or fix, waypoint) AT OR ABOVE/BELOW (altitude).
AT (time) (time in hours, minutes, and nearest quarter d. A specified altitude over a specified fix for that
minute). portion of a descent clearance where descent at pilot’s
discretion is permissible. At any other time it is
CLIMB/DESCEND TO REACH (altitude) practicable, authorize climb/descent at pilot’s
AT (time (issue time check) or fix, waypoint), discretion.
or PHRASEOLOGY−
CLIMB/DESCEND AT PILOT’S DISCRETION.

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
EXAMPLE− 2. Any other time that authorization to descend at pilot’s

“United Four Seventeen, descend and maintain six thou- discretion is intended, it must be specifically stated by the
sand.” controller.
NOTE− 3. The pilot may need to know of any future restrictions
The pilot is expected to commence descent upon receipt of that might affect the descent, including those that may be
the clearance and to descend at the suggested rates issued in another sector, in order to properly plan a descent
specified in the AIM, paragraph 4−4−10, Adherence to at pilot’s discretion.
Clearance, until reaching the assigned altitude of
4. Controllers need to be aware that the descent rates in
6,000 feet.
the AIM are only suggested and aircraft will not always
EXAMPLE− descend at those rates.
“United Four Seventeen, descend at pilot’s discretion, REFERENCE−
maintain six thousand.” P/CG Term− Pilot’s Discretion.
NOTE− e. When a portion of a climb/descent may be

The pilot is authorized to conduct descent within the authorized at the pilot’s discretion, specify the
context of the term “at pilot’s discretion” as described in altitude the aircraft must climb/descend to followed
the AIM. by the altitude to maintain at the pilot’s discretion.
EXAMPLE− PHRASEOLOGY−
“United Four Seventeen cross Lakeview V−O−R at or CLIMB/DESCEND NOW TO (altitude), THEN
above flight level two zero zero, descend and maintain CLIMB/DESCEND AT PILOT’S DISCRETION
six thousand.” MAINTAIN (altitude).
NOTE− EXAMPLE−
The pilot is authorized to conduct descent “at pilot’s “United Three Ten, descend now to flight level two eight
discretion” until reaching Lakeview VOR. The pilot must zero, then descend at pilot’s discretion maintain flight level
comply with the clearance provision to cross the Lakeview two four zero.”
VOR at or above FL 200, and after passing Lakeview VOR, NOTE−
the pilot is expected to descend at the rates specified in the 1. The pilot is expected to commence descent upon receipt
AIM until reaching the assigned altitude of 6,000 feet. of the clearance and to descend as prescribed in the AIM,
EXAMPLE− paragraph 4−4−10, Adherence to Clearance, until FL 280.
“United Four Seventeen, cross Lakeview V−O−R at and At that point, the pilot is authorized to continue descent to
maintain six thousand.” FL 240 within context of the term “at pilot’s discretion” as
described in the AIM.
NOTE−
The pilot is authorized to conduct descent “at pilot’s 2. Controllers need to be aware that the descent rates are
discretion,” but must comply with the clearance provision only suggested and aircraft will not always descend at
to cross Lakeview VOR at 6,000 feet. those rates.
EXAMPLE− f. When the “pilot’s discretion” portion of a
“United Four Seventeen, descend now to flight level two climb/descent clearance is being canceled by
seven zero, cross Lakeview V−O−R at or below one zero assigning a new altitude, inform the pilot that the new
thousand, descend and maintain six thousand.” altitude is an “amended altitude.”
NOTE− EXAMPLE−
The pilot is expected to promptly execute and complete “American Eighty Three, amend altitude, descend and
descent to FL 270 upon receipt of the clearance. After maintain Flight Level two six zero.”
reaching FL 270, the pilot is authorized to descend “at NOTE−
pilot’s discretion” until reaching Lakeview VOR. The pilot American Eighty Three, at FL 280, has been cleared to
must comply with the clearance provision to cross descend at pilot’s discretion to FL 240. Subsequently, the
Lakeview VOR at or below 10,000 feet. After Lakeview altitude assignment is changed to FL 260. Therefore, pilot’s
VOR, the pilot is expected to descend at the rates specified discretion is no longer authorized.
in the AIM until reaching 6,000 feet.
g. Altitude assignments involving more than one
NOTE−
altitude.
1. A descent clearance which specifies a crossing altitude
authorizes descent at pilot’s discretion for that portion of PHRASEOLOGY−
the flight to which the crossing altitude restriction applies. MAINTAIN BLOCK (altitude) THROUGH (altitude).

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
h. Instructions to vertically navigate SIDs/STARs 3. To adjust speeds prior to reaching waypoints with
with published crossing restrictions (Climb Via/De- published speed restrictions.
scend Via).
NOTE−
1. When established on the SID/STAR. When cleared for SIDs that contain published speed
restrictions, the pilot must comply with those speed
2. When navigating a published route inbound restrictions independent of any “climb via” clearance.
to the STAR. Clearance to “climb via” authorizes pilots:
1. When used in the IFR departure clearance, in a PDC,
3. When cleared direct to a waypoint/fix DCL or when subsequently cleared after departure to a
without a published altitude, assign a crossing waypoint depicted on a SID, to join a procedure after
altitude. departure or resume a procedure.
2. When vertical navigation is interrupted and an altitude
PHRASEOLOGY− is assigned to maintain which is not contained on the
DESCEND VIA (STAR name and number). published procedure, to climb from that previously-as-
signed altitude at pilot’s discretion to the altitude depicted
DESCEND VIA (STAR name and number and runway for the next waypoint. ATC must ensure obstacle clearance
transition number) until the aircraft is established on the lateral and vertical
path of the SID.
DESCEND VIA (STAR name and number and runway 3. Once established on the depicted departure, to climb and
number). to meet all published or assigned altitude and speed
restrictions.
CLIMB VIA (SID name and number). REFERENCE−
PROCEED DIRECT (fix/waypoint),CROSS (waypoint/fix) FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−5−6, Minimum En Route Altitudes.
at (altitude) THEN DESCEND VIA (STAR name and FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−5−9, Separation From Obstructions.
P/CG − Climb Via, Descend Via.
number)
NOTE−
EXAMPLE−
Pilots cleared for vertical navigation using the phraseo-
“Descend via the Eagul Five arrival.”
logy “descend via” or “climb via” must inform ATC, upon
initial contact, of the altitude leaving, the runway
“Descend via the Wynde Eight Arrival, Runway 28 right
transition or landing direction if assigned (STARs), and
transition.”
any assigned restrictions not published on the procedure.
“Descend via the Lendy One Arrival, Runway 22 left.” EXAMPLE−
“Delta One Twenty One leaving flight level one niner zero,
“Climb via the Dawgs Four Departure.” descending via the Eagul Five arrival runway two-six
transition.”
“Proceed direct Denis, cross Denis at or above flight
level two zero zero, then descend via the Mmell One “Delta One Twenty One leaving flight level one niner zero
arrival.” for one two thousand, descending via the Eagul Five
NOTE− arrival, runway two-six transition.”
Pilots must comply with all published speed restrictions on
SIDs/STARs, independent of a climb via or descend via “JetBlue six zero two leaving flight level two one zero
clearance. descending via the Ivane Two arrival landing south.”
Clearance to “descent via” authorizes pilots:
1. To descend at pilot discretion to meet published “Cactus Seven Eleven leaving two thousand climbing via
restrictions on a STAR. Pilots navigating on a STAR must the Laura Two departure.”
maintain the last assigned altitude until receiving
clearance to descend via. Once leaving an altitude, the “Cactus Seven Eleven leaving two thousand for one-six
pilot may not return to that altitude without an ATC thousand, climbing via the Laura Two departure.”
clearance. REFERENCE−
2. When cleared direct to a waypoint, to descend at pilot AIM, Para 5-2-8, Instrument Departure Procedures (DP) − Obstacle
Departure Procedures (ODP) and Standard Instrument Departures
discretion to meet restrictions on the procedure. ATC
(SID).
assumes obstacle clearance responsibility for aircraft not P/CG − Top Altitude, Bottom Altitude.
yet established or taken off of a procedure. AIM, Para 5-4-1, Standard Terminal Arrival (STAR) Procedures.

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
4. A “descend via” clearance must not be used direct Dvine, Climb via the Suzan Two departure except
where procedures contain only published “expect” cross Mkala at or above seven thousand.”
altitude and/or speed restrictions.
NOTE−
NOTE− In Example 2, the aircraft will join the Suzan Two departure
Pilots are not expected to comply with published “expect” at Dvine, at the published altitude, and then comply with
restrictions in the event of lost communications, unless the published lateral path and any published speed or
ATC has specifically advised the pilot to expect these altitude restrictions. The aircraft will climb so as to cross
restrictions as part of a further clearance. Mkala at or above 7,000; remainder of the departure must
be flown as published.
5. “Descend via” may be used on procedures
that contain both “expect” and required altitude and 8. When an aircraft has been issued an interim
speed restrictions only if altitude and/or speed altitude and after departure ATC can subsequently
restrictions or alternate restrictions are issued for the clear the aircraft to climb to the original top altitude
fix/waypoint associated with all expect restrictions. published in a SID that contains published crossing
restrictions, instruct aircraft to “climb via SID.”
6. “Descend via” clearances may also be issued When issuing a different altitude and compliance
if an aircraft is past all fixes/waypoints that have with published restrictions is still required, instruct
expect restrictions. aircraft to “climb via SID except maintain (altitude).”
7. If it is necessary to assign a crossing altitude
PHRASEOLOGY−
which differs from the STAR or SID altitude, CLIMB VIA SID.
emphasize the change to the pilot.
PHRASEOLOGY− CLIMB VIA SID EXCEPT MAINTAIN (altitude).
DESCEND VIA (STAR name and number) ARRIVAL, EXAMPLE−
EXCEPT CROSS (fix, point, waypoint), (revised altitude 1. (An aircraft was issued the Teddd One departure, “climb
information). via SID” in the IFR departure clearance. An interim
EXAMPLE− altitude of 10,000 was issued instead of the published top
“United 454 descend via the Haris One Arrival, except altitude of FL 230; after departure ATC is able to issue the
cross Haris at or above one six thousand.” published top altitude): “Climb via SID.”
NOTE− NOTE−
The aircraft should track laterally and vertically on the In Example 1, the aircraft will track laterally and vertically
Haris One Arrival and should descend so as to cross Haris on the Teddd One departure and initially climb to 10,000;
at or above 16,000; remainder of the arrival must be flown Once re-issued the “climb via” clearance the interim
as published. altitude is canceled aircraft will continue climb to FL230
PHRASEOLOGY− while complying with published restrictions.
CLIMB VIA SID, EXCEPT CROSS (fix, point, waypoint), EXAMPLE−
(revised altitude information). 2. (Using Example 1, after departure ATC is able to issue
an altitude higher than the published top altitude): “Climb
CLIMB VIA (SID name and number), EXCEPT CROSS via SID except maintain flight level two six zero.”
(fix, point, waypoint), (revised altitude information).
EXAMPLE− NOTE−
1. “Climb via SID except cross Mkala at or above seven In Example 2, the aircraft will track laterally and vertically
thousand.” on the Teddd One departure and initially climb to 10,000;
once issued “climb via” clearance to FL260 the aircraft
NOTE− will continue climb while complying with published
In Example 1, the aircraft will comply with the assigned restrictions.
SID departure lateral path and any published speed and
altitude restrictions and climb so as to cross Mkala at or 9. If it is necessary to assign an interim altitude
above 7,000; remainder of the departure must be flown as or assign a bottom or top altitude not contained on a
published. STAR or SID, the provisions of subparagraph 4−5−7h
EXAMPLE− may be used in conjunction with subparagraph
2. (There is a published altitude at Dvine WP): “Proceed 4−5−7a.

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
PHRASEOLOGY− obtained...unless an amended clearance is obtained”

DESCEND VIA THE (STAR name and number) ARRIVAL (except when an emergency exists).
EXCEPT AFTER (fix) MAINTAIN (revised altitude 2. A pilot is therefore expected to advise the controller if
information).
a clearance cannot be accepted when the clearance is
EXAMPLE− issued. “We will try” and other such acknowledgements do
“United 454 descend via the Eagul Five Arrival, except not constitute pilot acceptance of an ATC clearance.
after Geeno maintain one zero thousand.” 3. Controllers are expected to issue ATC clearances which
NOTE− conform with normal aircraft operational capabilities and
The aircraft should track laterally and vertically on the do not require “last minute” amendments to ensure
Eagul Five Arrival and should descend so as to comply approved separation.
with all speed and altitude restrictions until reaching 4. “Expedite” is not to be used in lieu of appropriate
Geeno and then maintain 10,000. Upon reaching 10,000, restrictions to ensure separation.
aircraft should maintain 10,000 until cleared by ATC to
REFERENCE−
continue to descend. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 10−1−3, Providing Assistance.
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−7−1, Clearance Information.
AIM, Para 5−4−1, Standard Terminal Arrival (STAR) Procedures. 4−5−8. ANTICIPATED ALTITUDE CHANGES
PHRASEOLOGY− If practicable, inform an aircraft when to expect climb
CLIMB VIA SID EXCEPT AFTER (waypoint name), or descent clearance or to request altitude change
MAINTAIN (altitude). from another facility.
EXAMPLE− PHRASEOLOGY−
“Climb via SID except after Baret, maintain flight level one EXPECT HIGHER/LOWER IN (number of miles or
niner zero.” minutes) MILES/MINUTES,
NOTE−
or
1. Considering the principle that the last ATC clearance
issued has precedence over the previous, the phraseology
AT (fix). REQUEST ALTITUDE/FLIGHT LEVEL
“maintain (altitude)” alone cancels previously issued
CHANGE FROM (name of facility).
altitude restrictions, including SID/STAR altitude
restrictions unless they are restated or modified, and
If required,
authorizes an unrestricted climb or descent. Speed
restrictions remain in effect unless the controller explicitly
AT (time, fix, or altitude).
cancels the speed restrictions.
REFERENCE−
2. Restate “climb/descend via” and then use “except” or FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−2−6, IFR Flight Progress Data.
“except maintain” phraseology to modify published
restrictions or assign a new top/bottom altitude. Use 4−5−9. ALTITUDE CONFIRMATION−
“resume” phraseology with “maintain” to rejoin a route NONRADAR
and assign a new altitude where compliance with published
altitude restrictions is not required. a. Request a pilot to confirm assigned altitude on
REFERENCE− initial contact and when position reports are received
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−2−5, Route or Altitude Amendments. unless:
AIM, Para 4−4−10 Adherence to Clearance. NOTE−
AIM, Para 5−2−8. Instrument Departure Procedures (DP) − Obstacle For the purpose of this paragraph, “initial contact” means
Departure Procedures (ODP) and Standard Instrument Departures a pilot’s first radio contact with each sector/position.
(SID).
1. The pilot states the assigned altitude, or
i. When a pilot is unable to accept a clearance,
issue revised instructions to ensure positive control 2. You assign a new altitude to a climbing or
and approved separation. descending aircraft, or
NOTE− 3. TERMINAL. The aircraft was transferred to

1. 14 CFR Section 91.123 states that a pilot is not allowed you from another sector/position within your facility
to deviate from an ATC clearance “that has been (intrafacility).

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
PHRASEOLOGY− VERIFY ASSIGNED FLIGHT LEVEL (flight level).

(In level flight situations),
b. USA. Reconfirm all pilot altitude read backs.
VERIFY AT (altitude/flight level).
PHRASEOLOGY−
(In climbing/descending situations), (If altitude read back is correct),
AFFIRMATIVE (altitude).
(if aircraft has been assigned an altitude below the lowest
useable flight level), (If altitude read back is not correct),
NEGATIVE. CLIMB/DESCEND AND MAINTAIN
VERIFY ASSIGNED ALTITUDE (altitude). (altitude),
(If aircraft has been assigned a flight level at or above the or

lowest useable flight level),
NEGATIVE. MAINTAIN (altitude).

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 6. Holding Aircraft
4−6−1. CLEARANCE TO HOLDING FIX NOTE−

Additional delay information is not used to determine pilot
Consider operational factors such as length of delay, action in the event of two-way communications failure.
holding airspace limitations, navigational aids, Pilots are expected to predicate their actions solely on the
altitude, meteorological conditions when necessary provisions of 14 CFR Section 91.185.
to clear an aircraft to a fix other than the destination PHRASEOLOGY−
airport. Issue the following: EXPECT FURTHER CLEARANCE (time),
a. Clearance limit (if any part of the route beyond and if required,
a clearance limit differs from the last routing cleared,
ANTICIPATE ADDITIONAL (time in minutes/hours)
issue the route the pilot can expect beyond the
MINUTE/HOUR DELAY AT (fix),
clearance limit).
PHRASEOLOGY− or
EXPECT FURTHER CLEARANCE VIA (routing).
ANTICIPATE ADDITIONAL (time in minutes/hours)
EXAMPLE− MINUTE/HOUR EN ROUTE DELAY.
“Expect further clearance via direct Stillwater V−O−R, EXAMPLE−
Victor Two Twenty-Six Snapy intersection, direct Newark.” 1. “Expect further clearance one niner two zero,
b. Holding instructions. anticipate additional three zero minute delay at Sweet.”
2. “Expect further clearance one five one zero, anticipate
1. Holding instructions may be eliminated when additional three zero minute en route delay.”
you inform the pilot that no delay is expected. 2. When additional holding is expected in an
approach control area, state the total additional
2. When the assigned procedure or route being
terminal delay.
flown includes a charted pattern, you may omit all
holding instructions except the charted holding PHRASEOLOGY−
direction and the statement “as published.” Always EXPECT FURTHER CLEARANCE (time),
issue complete holding instructions when the pilot
and if required,
requests them.
NOTE− ANTICIPATE ADDITIONAL (time in minutes/hours)
The most generally used holding patterns are depicted on MINUTE/HOUR TERMINAL DELAY.
U.S. Government or commercially produced low/high 3. TERMINAL. When terminal delays exist or
altitude en route, area, and STAR Charts. are expected, inform the appropriate center or
PHRASEOLOGY− approach control facility so that the information can
CLEARED TO (fix), HOLD (direction), AS PUBLISHED, be forwarded to arrival aircraft.
4. When delay is expected, issue items in
or
subparagraphs a and b at least 5 minutes before the
CLEARED TO (fix), NO DELAY EXPECTED. aircraft is estimated to reach the clearance limit. If the
traffic situation requires holding an aircraft that is less
c. EFC. Do not specify this item if no delay is than 5 minutes from the holding fix, issue these items
expected. immediately.
NOTE−
1. When additional holding is expected at any 1. The AIM indicates that pilots should start speed
other fix in your facility’s area, state the fix and your reduction when 3 minutes or less from the holding fix. The
best estimate of the additional delay. When more than additional 2 minutes contained in the 5−minute require-
one fix is involved, state the total additional en route ment are necessary to compensate for different
delay (omit specific fixes). pilot/controller ETAS at the holding fix, minor differences
Holding Aircraft 4−6−1

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
in clock times, and provision for sufficient planning and routing to the new clearance limit is valid and
reaction times. verbiage will be reduced.
2. When holding is necessary, the phrase “delay PHRASEOLOGY−
indefinite” should be used when an accurate estimate of the VIA LAST ROUTING CLEARED.
delay time and the reason for the delay cannot immediately
be determined; i.e., disabled aircraft on the runway, 3. Assigned altitude if different from present
terminal or center sector saturation, weather below altitude.
landing minimums, etc. In any event, every attempt should NOTE−
be made to provide the pilot with the best possible estimate Except in the event of a two-way communications failure,
of his/her delay time and the reason for the delay. when a clearance beyond a fix has not been received, pilots
Controllers/supervisors should consult, as appropriate, are expected to hold as depicted on U.S. Government or
with personnel (other sectors, weather forecasters, the commercially produced (meeting FAA requirements)
airport management, other facilities, etc.) who can best low/high altitude en route and area or STAR charts. If no
provide this information. holding pattern is charted and holding instructions have
not been issued, pilots should ask ATC for holding
PHRASEOLOGY− instructions prior to reaching the fix. If a pilot is unable to
DELAY INDEFINITE, (reason if known), EXPECT obtain holding instructions prior to reaching the fix, the
FURTHER CLEARANCE (time). (After determining the pilot is expected to hold in a standard pattern on the course
reason for the delay, advise the pilot as soon as possible.) on which the aircraft approached the fix and request
EXAMPLE− further clearance as soon as possible.
“Cleared to Drewe, hold west, as published, expect further
clearance via direct Sidney V−O−R one three one five, 4−6−3. DELAYS
anticipate additional two zero minute delay at Woody.”
a. Advise your supervisor or flow controller as
“Cleared to Aston, hold west on Victor two twenty-five, soon as possible when you delay or expect to delay
seven mile leg, left turns, expect further clearance one aircraft.
niner two zero, anticipate additional one five minute
terminal delay.” b. When arrival delays reach or are anticipated to
reach 30 minutes, take the following action:
“Cleared to Wayne, no delay expected.”
1. EN ROUTE. The center responsible for
“Cleared to Wally, hold north, as published, delay transferring control to an approach control facility or,
indefinite, snow removal in progress, expect further for a nonapproach control destination, the center in
clearance one one three zero.” whose area the aircraft will land must issue total delay
information as soon as possible after the aircraft
enters the center’s area. Whenever possible, the delay
4−6−2. CLEARANCE BEYOND FIX information must be issued by the first center
a. If no delay is expected, issue a clearance beyond controller to communicate with the aircraft.
the clearance limit as soon as possible and, whenever REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−14−9, ERAM Computer Entry of Hold
possible, at least 5 minutes before the aircraft reaches Information.
the fix.
2. TERMINAL. When tower en route control
b. Include the following items when issuing service is being provided, the approach control
clearance beyond a clearance limit: facility whose area contains the destination airport
must issue total delay information as soon as possible
1. Clearance limit or approach clearance. after the aircraft enters its approach control area.
2. Route of flight. Specify one of the following: Whenever possible, the delay information must be
issued by the first terminal controller to communicate
(a) Complete details of the route (airway, with the aircraft.
route, course, fix(es), azimuth course, heading, arc, or
vector.) 3. Unless a pilot requests delay information, the
actions specified in subparagraphs 1 and 2 above may
(b) The phrase “via last routing cleared.” Use be omitted when total delay information is available
this phrase only when the most recently issued to pilots via ATIS.
4−6−2 Holding Aircraft

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
(Airport) ARRIVAL DELAYS (time in minutes/hours). Due to turbulence, a turboprop requests to exceed the
recommended maximum holding airspeed. ATCS may
clear the aircraft into a pattern that protects for the
4−6−4. HOLDING INSTRUCTIONS airspeed request, and must advise the pilot of the maximum
holding airspeed for the holding pattern airspace area.
When issuing holding instructions, specify:
PHRASEOLOGY−
a. Direction of holding from the fix/waypoint. “MAXIMUM HOLDING AIRSPEED IS TWO ONE ZERO
KNOTS.”
b. Holding fix or waypoint.
NOTE−
4−6−5. VISUAL HOLDING POINTS
The holding fix may be omitted if included at the beginning You may use as a holding fix a location which the pilot
of the transmission as the clearance limit. can determine by visual reference to the surface if
c. Radial, course, bearing, track, azimuth, airway, he/she is familiar with it.
or route on which the aircraft is to hold. PHRASEOLOGY−
HOLD AT (location) UNTIL (time or other condition.)
d. Leg length in miles if DME or RNAV is to be REFERENCE−
used. Specify leg length in minutes if the pilot FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−1−4, Visual Holding of VFR Aircraft.
requests it or you consider it necessary.
4−6−6. HOLDING FLIGHT PATH DEVIATION
e. Direction of holding pattern turns only if left
turns are to be made, the pilot requests it, or you Approve a pilot’s request to deviate from the
consider it necessary. prescribed holding flight path if obstacles and traffic
conditions permit.
PHRASEOLOGY−
HOLD (direction) OF (fix/waypoint) ON (specified radial,
course, bearing, track, airway, azimuth(s), or route.) 4−6−7. UNMONITORED NAVAIDs
If leg length is specified, Separate an aircraft holding at an unmonitored

NAVAID from any other aircraft occupying the
(number of minutes/miles) MINUTE/MILE LEG. course which the holding aircraft will follow if it does
not receive signals from the NAVAID.
If direction of turn is specified,
4−6−8. ILS PROTECTION/CRITICAL AREAS
LEFT/RIGHT TURNS.
When the official weather observation indicates a
f. Issue maximum holding airspeed advisories ceiling of less than 800 feet or visibility of 2 miles, do
when an aircraft is: not authorize aircraft to hold below 5,000 feet AGL
1. Approved to exceed the maximum airspeed inbound toward the airport on or within 1 statute mile
of a pattern, and is cleared into a holding pattern that of the localizer between the ILS OM or the fix used
will protect for the greater speed; or in lieu of the OM and the airport. USAF. The holding
restriction applies only when an arriving aircraft is
2. Observed deviating from the holding pattern between the ILS OM or the fix used in lieu of the OM
airspace area; or and the runway.
REFERENCE−
3. Cleared into an airspeed restricted holding FAA Order 8260.3, United States Standard for Terminal Instrument
pattern in which the icon has not been published. Procedures (TERPS), Chapter 17, Basic Holding Criteria.
Holding Aircraft 4−6−3

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 7. Arrival Procedures
4−7−1. CLEARANCE INFORMATION 2. Arrival procedure descriptive text contained within

parentheses (for example, “Devine One (RNAV) Arrival”)
Clear an arriving aircraft to a clearance limit by are not included in arrival clearance phraseology.
specifying the following:
c. Altitude instructions, as follows:
a. Name of fix or airport. 1. Assigned altitude; or
PHRASEOLOGY− 2. Instructions to vertically navigate on the
STAR/FMSP or STAR/FMSP transition.
Or
CLEARED TO (NAVAID name and type if known). EXAMPLE−
Or “Bayview Three Arrival, Helen Transition, maintain Flight
CLEARED TO (intersection or waypoint name and type if Level Three Three Zero.”
known). “Descend via the Civit One Arrival.”
“Descend via the Lendy One Arrival, Runway 22 left.”
b. Route of flight including a STAR/RNAV
STAR/FMSP and STAR/RNAV STAR/FMSP trans- “Cross JCT at Flight Level Two Four Zero.”
ition, if appropriate. Assign a STAR/RNAV “Descend via the Coast Two Arrival.”
STAR/FMSP and STAR/RNAV STAR/FMSP trans- “Civit One Arrival, Descend and Maintain Flight Level
ition to any aircraft in lieu of other routes; e.g., Two Four Zero.”
airways or preferential arrival routes when the REFERENCE−
routings are the same. The clearance must include the FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−5−7, Altitude Information.
AIM, Para 5−4−1, Standard Terminal Arrival (STAR) Procedures.
name and transition, if necessary, of the STAR/RNAV
STAR/FMSP to be flown. d. Issue holding instructions, EFC, and additional
delay information as required.
TERMINAL: When the STAR/RNAV STAR/FMSP
transition is designed to provide course guidance to e. Instructions regarding further communications
multiple runways, the facility must state intended as appropriate.
runway number on initial contact, or as soon as REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−17, Radio Communications.
practical. If the runway assignment, or any
subsequent runway change, is not issued prior to
10 NM from the runway transition waypoint, radar 4−7−2. ADVANCE DESCENT CLEARANCE
vectors to final must be provided. EN ROUTE
PHRASEOLOGY− Take the following action when exercising control of
(STAR/RNAV STAR/FMSP name and number) ARRIVAL. aircraft landing at an airport located in an adjacent
(STAR/RNAV STAR/FMSP name and number) ARRIVAL, center’s control area near the common boundary:
(transition name) TRANSITION.
CHANGE/AMEND TRANSITION TO (runway number). a. Coordinate with the receiving facility for a
CHANGE/AMEND TRANSITION TO (runway number) lower altitude and issue a clearance to the aircraft as
TURN LEFT/RIGHT or HEADING (heading) FOR appropriate.
VECTOR TO FINAL APPROACH COURSE.
b. Initiate this action at a distance sufficient from
EXAMPLE− destination to allow for normal descent and speed
“Rosewood One arrival.”
reduction.
“Rosewood One arrival, Delta transition.”
“Change transition to Runway 09 right.”
“Amend transition to Runway 22 left, turn right heading 4−7−3. SINGLE FREQUENCY
180 for vector to final approach course.” APPROACHES (SFA)
NOTE− TERMINAL
1. If a civil pilot does not wish to use a STAR issued in an
ATC clearance or any other STAR published for that Where SFA procedures for military single-piloted
location, the pilot is expected to advise ATC. turbojet aircraft on an IFR flight plan are contained in
Arrival Procedures 4−7−1

JO
JO 7110.65Z
7110.65R CHG
7110.65Z CHG
2 1 12/2/21
3/15/07
6/17/21
a letter of agreement, do not require a radio frequency c. If practicable, use a frequency common to both
change after the aircraft begins approach or after the GCA unit and approach control to minimize
initial contact during an en route descent until a frequency changes.
landing or low approach has been completed except
d. When a GCA unit is not able to communicate on
under the following conditions:
a common frequency, a change to a GCA frequency
REFERENCE− may be authorized.
FAA Order JO 7610.4, Special Operations, Para 9−3−6, Single
Frequency Approach (SFA). e. When a nonradar approach will be made,
P/CG Term − Single-Piloted Aircraft.
aircraft may be instructed to change to tower
a. During daylight hours while the aircraft is in frequency when:
VFR conditions. 1. The reported ceiling is at or above 1,500 feet
b. On pilot request. and visibility is 5 statute miles or more.
2. The aircraft reports able to proceed by visual
c. When pilot cancels IFR flight plan.
reference to the surface.
d. In an emergency situation. 3. The aircraft requests and is cleared for a
e. When aircraft is cleared for visual approach. contact approach.
4. The aircraft is cleared for a visual approach.
4−7−4. RADIO FREQUENCY AND RADAR f. Avoid making frequency/radar beacon changes
BEACON CHANGES FOR MILITARY after an aircraft begins a high altitude approach.
AIRCRAFT g. In the event of a missed approach, do not require
a frequency/radar beacon change before the aircraft
When military single-piloted turbojet aircraft will
reaches the missed approach altitude, the MEA, or the
conduct an approach wholly or partly in IFR
MVA.
conditions or at night, take the following action:
NOTE− 4−7−5. MILITARY TURBOJET EN ROUTE
It is known that the mental distraction and the inadvertent DESCENT
movement of aircraft controls resulting from the pilot’s
turning, reaching, or leaning to change frequencies can Provide military turbojet aircraft the same arrival
induce spatial disorientation (vertigo). procedures that are provided for nonmilitary turbojet
a. Avoid radio frequency and radar beacon aircraft except:
changes to the maximum extent that communications NOTE−
capabilities and traffic will permit. However, when It is the responsibility of the pilot to request a high altitude
changes are required: approach if he/she does not want normal arrival handling.
a. An en route descent may be used in a nonradar
1. Give instructions early enough to allow the
environment; however, radar capability should exist
change before the aircraft reaches the approach fix or
which will permit the aircraft to be vectored to the
handoff point.
final approach course of a published high altitude
2. Keep frequency/radar beacon changes to a instrument approach procedure or PAR/ASR
minimum below 2,500 feet above the surface. approach. Do not use this procedure if other than
normal vectoring delays are anticipated.
3. Avoid requiring frequency/radar beacon
changes during the time the aircraft is making a turn. b. Prior to issuance of a descent clearance below
the highest initial approach fix altitude established for
b. When traffic volume requires, a frequency any high altitude instrument approach procedure for
other than the one used by aircraft making approaches the destination airport inform the aircraft:
may be assigned for use in transferring control to the
1. Type of approach to expect.
approach control facility.
EXAMPLE−
TERMINAL “Expect V−O−R approach to runway three two.”
4−7−2 Arrival Procedures

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
2. Radar vectors will be provided to the final 5. For SVFR, the direction from which the
approach course. aircraft will enter Class B, Class C, Class D, or
EXAMPLE− Class E surface area and any altitude restrictions that
“Expect surveillance/precision approach to runway one were issued; or
seven; radar vectors to final approach course.” 6. For aircraft executing a contact approach the
3. Current weather whenever the ceiling is position of the aircraft.
below 1,000 feet (USAF: 1,500 feet) or the highest NOTE−
circling minimum whichever is greater, or when the Specific time requirements are usually stated in a letter of
visibility is less than 3 miles. agreement.
EXAMPLE− b. Forward the following information to approach
“Expect ILS approach to runway eight; radar vectors to control facilities before transfer of control
localizer course. Weather (reported weather).” jurisdiction:
c. If ATIS is provided and the pilot advises he/she NOTE−
has received the current ATIS broadcast before the Transfer points are usually specified in a letter of
descent clearance in subparagraph b is issued, omit agreement.
those items in subparagraph b that are contained in the 1. Aircraft identification.
broadcast. 2. Type of aircraft and appropriate aircraft
d. To avoid requiring an aircraft to fly at low equipment suffix.
altitudes for an excessive distance, descent clearance 3. ETA or actual time, and proposed or actual
should be issued at a point determined by adding 10 altitude over clearance limit. The ETA need not be
to the first two digits of the flight level. given if the arrival information is being forwarded
EXAMPLE− during a radar handoff.
For FL 370, 37 10 = 47 miles. 4. Clearance limit (when other than the
NOTE− destination airport) and EFC issued to the aircraft.
Turbojet en route descents are based on a rate of descent Clearance limit may be omitted when provided for in
of 4,000 to 6,000 feet per minute. a letter of agreement.
e. Do not terminate the en route descent of an 5. Time, fix, or altitude when control responsi-
aircraft without the consent of the pilot except as bility is transferred to the approach control facility.
required by radar outage or an emergency situation. This information may be omitted when provided for
REFERENCE− in a letter of agreement.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−8−4, Altitude Assignment for Military
High Altitude Instrument Approaches. PHRASEOLOGY−
(Identification), (type of aircraft), ESTIMATED/OVER
(clearance limit), (time), (altitude), EFC (time).
4−7−6. ARRIVAL INFORMATION
If required,
EN ROUTE
a. Forward the following information to nonap- YOUR CONTROL,
proach control towers soon enough to permit
or
adjustment of the traffic flow or to FSSs (Alaska
Only) soon enough to provide local airport advisory YOUR CONTROL AT (time, fix or altitude).
where applicable:
1. Aircraft identification. 4−7−7. WEATHER INFORMATION
2. Type of aircraft. EN ROUTE

When an available official weather report indicates
3. ETA.
weather conditions are below a 1,000−foot
4. Type of instrument approach procedure the (USAF: 1,500−foot) ceiling or below the highest
aircraft will execute; or circling minimum, whichever is higher, or less than

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
three-miles visibility for the airport concerned, 1. Approach clearance or type approach to be
transmit the weather report and changes classified as expected if two or more approaches are published and
special weather observations to an arriving aircraft the clearance limit does not indicate which will be
prior to or as part of the approach clearance when: used.
a. It is transmitted directly to the pilot via center 2. Runway if different from that to which the
controller-to-pilot communications. instrument approach is made.
b. It is relayed through a communications station 3. Surface wind.
other than an air carrier company radio or through a
nonapproach control facility. You may do this by 4. Ceiling and visibility if the reported ceiling at
telling the station or nonapproach control facility to the airport of intended landing is below 1,000 feet or
issue current weather. below the highest circling minimum, whichever is
greater, or the visibility is less than 3 miles.
4−7−8. BELOW MINIMA REPORT BY PILOT 5. Altimeter setting for the airport of intended
landing.
If an arriving aircraft reports weather conditions are REFERENCE−
below his/her landing minima: FAA Order JO 7110.65, Chapter 2, Section 7, Altimeter Settings.
NOTE− b. Upon pilot request, controllers must inform

Determination that existing weather/visibility is adequate pilots of the frequency where automated weather data
for approach/landing is the responsibility of the may be obtained and, if appropriate, that airport
pilot/aircraft operator. weather is not available.
a. Issue appropriate instructions to the aircraft to PHRASEOLOGY−
hold or proceed to another airport. (Airport) AWOS/ASOS WEATHER AVAILABLE ON
(frequency).
b. Adjust, as necessary, the position in the landing
sequence of any other aircraft desiring to make 1. ASOS/AWOS must be set to provide one
approaches and issue approach clearances accord- minute weather at uncontrolled airports that are
ingly. without ground−to−air weather broadcast capability
by a CWO, NWS or FSS observer.
4−7−9. TRANSFER OF JURISDICTION 2. Controllers will consider the long−line
disseminated weather from an automated weather
Transfer radio communications and control respons- system at an uncontrolled airport as trend information
ibility early enough to allow the receiving facility to only and must rely on the pilot for the current weather
clear an aircraft beyond the clearance limit before the information for that airport.
aircraft reaches it.
3. Controllers must issue the last long−line
disseminated weather to the pilot if the pilot is unable
4−7−10. APPROACH INFORMATION to receive the ASOS/AWOS broadcast.
a. Both en route and terminal approach control NOTE−
sectors must provide current approach information to Aircraft destined to uncontrolled airports, which have
aircraft destined to airports for which they provide automated weather data with broadcast capability, should
approach control services. This information must be monitor the ASOS/AWOS frequency to ascertain the
provided on initial contact or as soon as possible current weather at the airport. The pilot should advise the
thereafter. Approach information contained in the controller when he/she has received the broadcast weather
and state his/her intentions.
ATIS broadcast may be omitted if the pilot states the
appropriate ATIS code. For pilots destined to an c. Issue any known changes classified as special
airport without ATIS, items 3−5 below may be weather observations as soon as possible. Special
omitted after the pilot advises receipt of the weather observations need not be issued after they are
automated weather; otherwise, issue approach included in the ATIS broadcast and the pilot states the
information by including the following: appropriate ATIS code.

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
d. Advise pilots when the ILS on the runway in use NOTE−

is not operational if that ILS is on the same frequency The local controller has the responsibility to determine
as an operational ILS serving another runway. whether or not conditions are adequate for the use of
STARS data on the CTRD where a facility directive
EXAMPLE− authorizes its use for the transfer of arrival data.
“Expect visual approach runway two five right,
REFERENCE−
runway two five right I−L−S not operational.” FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 12−6−4, Use of STARS Quick Look
REFERENCE− Functions.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−7−2, Altimeter Setting Issuance Below
Lowest Usable FL.
c. Where the collocated or satellite tower has
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−10−2, Approach Information. STARS data displayed on its CTRD, the STARS
14 CFR Section 91.129 Operations in Class D Airspace, modify or quick look functions may be used to
Subpara (d)(2).
forward arrival data provided that a facility directive
e. TERMINAL: If multiple runway transitions are at the collocated tower or a letter of agreement with
depicted on a STAR procedure, advise pilots of the the satellite tower exists which outlines procedures
runway assignment on initial contact or as soon as for using STARS for transferring this data.
possible thereafter.
d. Forward the following information to centers:
4−7−11. ARRIVAL INFORMATION BY 1. Where two or more instrument approach

APPROACH CONTROL FACILITIES procedures are published for the airport, the
particular procedure which an aircraft can expect or
TERMINAL that it will be vectored toward the airport for a visual
a. Forward the following information to nonap- approach.
proach control towers soon enough to permit 2. Highest altitude being used by the approach
adjustment of the traffic flow or to FSSs soon enough control facility at the holding fix.
to provide local airport advisory where applicable:
3. Average time interval between successive
1. Aircraft identification. approaches.
2. Type of aircraft. 4. Arrival time of aircraft over the holding fix or,
if control has been transferred to you before an
3. ETA.
aircraft has reached the fix, a statement or other
4. Type of instrument approach procedure the indication acknowledging receipt of control
aircraft will execute; or responsibility.
5. For SVFR, the direction from which the 5. Revised EFC if different by 10 minutes or
aircraft will enter Class B, Class C, Class D, or more from that issued by the center.
Class E surface area and any altitude restrictions that 6. Missed approaches if they affect center
were issued; or operations.
6. For aircraft executing a contact approach, the 7. Information relating to an unreported or
position of the aircraft. overdue aircraft.
NOTE−
Specific time requirements are usually stated in a letter of 4−7−12. AIRPORT CONDITIONS
agreement.
a. EN ROUTE. Before issuing an approach
b. Forward the following information to the tower clearance, and subsequently as changes occur, inform
when the tower and TRACON are part of the same an aircraft of any abnormal operation of approach and
facility: landing aids and of destination airport conditions that
1. Aircraft identification. you know of which might restrict an approach or
landing. This information may be omitted if it is
2. Type aircraft if required for separation contained in the ATIS broadcast and the pilot states
purposes. that he/she has received the appropriate ATIS code.
3. Type of instrument approach procedure NOTE−
and/or runway if differing from that in use. 1. Airport conditions information, in the provision of en

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
route approach control service, does not include the 1. Before or when an approach clearance is
following: issued.
a. The airport surface environment other than the landing 2. Before an en route descent clearance is
area(s) (e.g. TAXIWAY, APRON or SERVICE keyword issued.
NOTAMs).
3. TERMINAL. Prior to departure.
b. Obstruction information (e.g. OBST NOTAMs) for
aircraft that will be cleared for an instrument approach. 4. As soon as possible after receipt of any
subsequent changes in previously issued RwyCC
c. Information pertaining to cold temperature compensa- information.
tion.
d. RwyCC may be issued in lieu of the complete
2. When advised of special use airspace (SUA) or military
FICON NOTAM. Issue the complete FICON
training route (MTR) activation, appropriate action is
NOTAM upon pilot request, workload permitting.
taken to separate nonparticipating IFR aircraft from those
activities when required, and/or to issue applicable EXAMPLE−
advisories as warranted. When meeting this requirement, Boston Runway Two Seven, field condition, three, three,
there is no requirement for controllers to additionally issue three, one hundred percent, two inches dry snow over
the associated D NOTAM activating that SUA or MTR to compacted snow. Observed at one five three zero zulu.
the pilot. Accordingly, D NOTAMs for SUA that contain the NOTE−
accountability codes SUAE, SUAC, and SUAW are not RwyCC may be transmitted via the ATIS as prescribed in
required to be issued. paragraphs 2−9−3, Content; 3−3−1, Landing Area
3. Although a pilot may have obtained NOTAM Condition; 3−9−1, Departure Information; and 3−10−1,
information during pre−flight briefings, airport conditions Landing Information.
may have changed in flight. Therefore a pilot stating, or a e. TERMINAL. Where RCRs are provided,
controller asking, if they “have the NOTAMS” does not transmit this information to USAF and ANG aircraft.
relieve the controller of the responsibility of issuing airport Issue the RCR to other aircraft upon pilot request.
conditions that might restrict an approach or landing.
Additionally, controller instructions to contact FSS to NOTE−
USAF offices furnish RCR information at airports serving
obtain the NOTAMs does not relieve the controller of their
USAF and ANG aircraft.
responsibilities specified in this paragraph.
REFERENCE−
b. TERMINAL. On first contact or as soon as FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−9−3, Content.
possible thereafter, and subsequently as changes FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−3−1, Landing Area Condition.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−9−1, Departure Information.
occur, inform an aircraft of any abnormal operation FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−10−1, Landing Information.
of approach and landing aids and of destination
airport conditions that you know of which might 4−7−13. SWITCHING ILS RUNWAYS
restrict an approach or landing. This information may
be omitted if it is contained in the ATIS broadcast and TERMINAL
the pilot states the appropriate ATIS code. When a change is made from one ILS to another at
REFERENCE− airports equipped with multiple systems which are
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Chapter 3, Section 3, Airport Conditions. not used simultaneously, coordinate with the
c. Issue RwyCC contained in a FICON NOTAM to facilities which use the fixes formed by reference to
aircraft in accordance with one of the following: these NAVAIDs.

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 8. Approach Clearance Procedures
4−8−1. APPROACH CLEARANCE chart and a specific procedure is to be flown),
a. Clear aircraft for “standard” or “special” CLEARED (ILS/LDA) APPROACH, GLIDESLOPE

instrument approach procedures only. UNUSABLE.
1. To require an aircraft to execute a particular
(To authorize a pilot to execute an ILS or an LDA approach
instrument approach procedure, specify in the when the glideslope is out of service)
approach clearance the name of the approach as
published on the approach chart. Where more than CLEARED LOCALIZER APPROACH
one procedure is published on a single chart and a
specific procedure is to be flown, amend the approach (When the title of the approach procedure contains “or
clearance to specify execution of the specific LOC”)
approach to be flown. If only one instrument
approach of a particular type is published, the CANCEL APPROACH CLEARANCE (additional
approach needs not be identified by the runway instructions as necessary)
reference.
(When it is necessary to cancel a previously issued
2. An aircraft conducting an ILS or LDA approach clearance)
approach must be advised at the time an approach
clearance is issued when the glideslope is reported out EXAMPLE−
of service, unless the title of the published approach “Cleared Approach.”
procedure allows (for example, ILS or LOC Rwy 05). “Cleared (V-O-R/I-L-S/Localizer) Approach.”
“Cleared L-D-A Runway Three-Six Approach.”
3. Standard instrument approach procedures “Cleared Localizer Back Course Runway One-Three
(SIAP) must begin at an initial approach fix (IAF) or Approach.”
an intermediate fix (IF) if there is not an IAF. “Cleared (GPS/RNAV Z) Runway Two-Two Approach.”
“Cleared BRANCH ONE Arrival and (ILS/RNAV) Runway
4. Where adequate radar coverage exists, radar
One-Three Approach.”
facilities may vector aircraft to the final approach “Cleared I-L-S Runway Three-Six Approach, glideslope
course in accordance with paragraph 5−9−1, Vectors unusable.”
to Final Approach Course, and paragraph 5−9−2, “Cleared S-D-F Approach.”
Final Approach Course Interception. “Cleared G-L-S Approach.”
5. Where adequate radar coverage exists, radar NOTE−
facilities may clear an aircraft to any fix 3 NM or more 1. Clearances authorizing instrument approaches are
prior to the FAF, along the final approach course, at issued on the basis that, if visual contact with the ground
is made before the approach is completed, the entire
an intercept angle not greater than 30 degrees.
approach procedure will be followed unless the pilot
6. Controllers must not disapprove a pilot receives approval for a contact approach, is cleared for a
request to cold temperature compensate in conjunc- visual approach, or cancels their IFR flight plan.
tion with the issuance of an approach clearance. 2. Approach clearances are issued based on known traffic.
PHRASEOLOGY− The receipt of an approach clearance does not relieve the
CLEARED (type) APPROACH. pilot of his/her responsibility to comply with applicable
Parts of Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations and the
CLEARED APPROACH. notations on instrument approach charts which levy on the
pilot the responsibility to comply with or act on an
(To authorize a pilot to execute his/her choice of instrument instruction; for example, “Straight-in minima not
approach), authorized at night,” “Procedure not authorized when
glideslope/glidepath not used,” “Use of procedure limited
CLEARED (specific procedure to be flown) APPROACH. to aircraft authorized to use airport,” or “Procedure not
authorized at night” or Snowflake icon with associated
(Where more than one procedure is published on a single temperature.
Approach Clearance Procedures 4−8−1

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
3. In some cases, the name of the approach, as published, requested compensating altitude if possible. This
is used to identify the approach, even though a component eliminates pilots having to climb once on the approach.
of the approach aid, other than the localizer on an ILS is REFERENCE−
inoperative. FAA Order 8260.3, United States Standard for Terminal Instrument
Procedures (TERPS).
4. Where more than one procedure to the same runway is P/CG Term – Cold Temperature Compensation.
published on a single chart, each must adhere to all final AIM, Para 5-1-17, Cold Temperature Operations.
approach guidance contained on that chart, even though AIM, Para 5-5-4, Instrument Approach.
each procedure will be treated as a separate entity when 11. There are some systems, for example, Enhanced Flight
authorized by ATC. Vision System (EFVS), which allow pilots to conduct
Instrument Approach Procedures (IAP) when the reported
5. The use of alphabetical identifiers in the approach
weather is below minimums prescribed on the IAP to be
name with a letter from the end of the alphabet; for
flown.
example, X, Y, Z, such as “HI TACAN Z Rwy 6L or
RNAV(GPS) Y Rwy 04”, denotes multiple straight-in REFERENCE−
14 CFR § 91.175(l).
approaches to the same runway that use the same approach P/CG Term − EFVS.
aid.
b. For aircraft operating on unpublished routes,
6. Alphabetical suffixes with a letter from the beginning of issue the approach clearance only after the aircraft is:
the alphabet; for example, A, B, C, denote a procedure that
does not meet the criteria for straight-in landing minimums 1. Established on a segment of a published route
authorization. or instrument approach procedure, or (See
7. 14 CFR Section 91.175(j) requires a pilot to receive a FIG 4−8−1)
clearance to conduct a procedure turn when vectored to a EXAMPLE−
final approach course or fix, conducting a timed approach, The aircraft is established on a segment of a published
or when the procedure specifies “NO PT.” route at 5,000 feet. “Cleared V-O-R Runway Three Four
Approach.”
8. An aircraft which has been cleared to a holding fix and
prior to reaching that fix is issued a clearance for an FIG 4−8−1
approach, but not issued a revised routing; that is, Approach Clearance Example
“proceed direct to....” may be expected to proceed via the
last assigned route, a feeder route (if one is published on the
approach chart), and then to commence the approach as
published. If, by following the route of flight to the holding
fix, the aircraft would overfly an IAF or the fix associated\
with the beginning of a feeder route to be used, the aircraft
is expected to commence the approach using the published
feeder route to the IAF or from the IAF as appropriate; that
is, the aircraft would not be expected to overfly and return
to the IAF or feeder route.
9. Approach name items contained within parenthesis; for
example, RNAV (GPS) Rwy 04, are not included in
approach clearance phraseology.
10. Pilots are required to advise ATC when intending to
apply cold temperature compensation to instrument
approach segments. Pilots must advise ATC of the amount
of compensation required for each affected segment on
initial contact or as soon as possible. Pilots are not 2. Assigned an altitude to maintain until the
required to advise ATC when correcting on the final aircraft is established on a segment of a published
segment only. Controllers may delay the issuance of an route or instrument approach procedure. (See FIG
approach clearance to comply with approved separation 4-8-2.)
requirements when informed that a pilot will apply cold EXAMPLE−
temperature compensation (CTC). Pilots will not apply Aircraft 1 is cleared direct LEFTT. The MVA in the area is
altitude compensation, unless authorized, when assigned 3,000 feet, and the aircraft is at 4,000 feet. “Cross LEFTT
an altitude prior to an approach clearance. Consideration at or above three thousand five hundred, cleared RNAV
should be given to vectoring aircraft at or above the Runway One Eight Approach.”
4−8−2 Approach Clearance Procedures

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
angle of intercept is 90 degrees or less, the aircraft

The MVA in the area is 3,000 feet and Aircraft 2 is at 3,000 must be instructed to conduct a straight-in approach
feet. “Cleared direct LEFTT direct CENTR, maintain three if ATC does not want the pilot to execute a procedure
thousand until CENTR, cleared straight-in RNAV Runway turn or hold-in-lieu of procedure turn. (See
One Eight Approach.”
FIG 4−8−3)
FIG 4−8−2 PHRASEOLOGY−
Approach Clearance Example CLEARED STRAIGHT-IN (type) APPROACH
NOTE−
1. Restate “cleared straight-in” in the approach clear-
ance even if the pilot was advised earlier to expect a
straight-in approach.
2. Some approach charts have an arrival holding pattern
depicted at the IAF using a “thin line” holding symbol. It
is charted where holding is frequently required prior to
starting the approach procedure so that detailed holding
instructions are not required. The arrival holding pattern
is not authorized unless assigned by ATC.
EXAMPLE−
“Cleared direct SECND, maintain at or above three
thousand until SECND, cleared straight-in ILS Runway
One-Eight approach.”
REFERENCE−
AIM, Para 5-4-5, Instrument Approach Procedure Charts.
NOTE− AIM, Para 5-4-9, Procedure Turn and Hold-in-lieu of Procedure Turn.
1. The altitude assigned must assure IFR obstruction FIG 4−8−3
clearance from the point at which the approach clearance Approach Clearance Example
is issued until established on a segment of a published route For Aircraft On a Conventional Approach
or instrument approach procedure.
2. If the altitude assignment is VFR-on-top, it is
conceivable that the pilot may elect to remain high until
arrival over the final approach fix which may require the
pilot to circle to descend so as to cross the final approach
fix at an altitude that would permit landing.
3. An aircraft is not established on an approach until at or
above an altitude published on that segment of the
approach.
REFERENCE−
FAA Order 8260.3 United States Standard for Terminal Instrument
Procedures (TERPS), Para 10-2.
c. Except for visual approaches, do not clear an

aircraft direct to the FAF unless it is also an IAF,
wherein the aircraft is expected to execute the
depicted procedure turn or hold-in-lieu of procedure
turn.
d. Intercept angles greater than 90 degrees may be
used when a procedure turn, a hold-in-lieu of
procedure turn pattern, or arrival holding is depicted
and the pilot will execute the procedure.
e. If a procedure turn, hold-in-lieu of procedure
turn, or arrival holding pattern is depicted and the

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
EXAMPLE− execute a hold-in-lieu procedure turn. “Cleared direct

Aircraft 1 can be cleared direct to XYZ VORTAC, or CENTR, maintain at or above three thousand until CENTR,
SECND because the intercept angle is 90 degrees or less. cleared straight-in RNAV Runway One-Eight Approach.”
2. Established on a heading or course direct to
Aircraft 2 cannot be cleared to XYZ VORTAC because the
intercept angle is greater than 90 degrees.
the IF at an angle not greater than 90 degrees,
provided the following conditions are met:
Aircraft 2 can be cleared to SECND if allowed to execute (a) Assign an altitude in accordance with b2
the hold-in-lieu of procedure turn pattern. that will permit a normal descent to the FAF.
f. Except when applying radar procedures, timed NOTE−
or visual approaches, clear an aircraft for an approach Controllers should expect aircraft to descend at
to an airport when the preceding aircraft has landed approximately 150-300 feet per nautical mile when
or canceled IFR flight plan. applying guidance in subparagraph h2(a).
g. Where instrument approaches require radar (b) Radar monitoring is provided to the IF.
monitoring and radar services are not available, do (c) The SIAP must identify the intermediate
not use the phraseology “cleared approach,” which fix with the letters “IF.”
allows the pilot his/her choice of instrument
approaches. (d) For procedures where an IAF is pub-
lished, the pilot is advised to expect clearance to the
RNAV APPLICATION IF at least 5 miles from the fix.
EXAMPLE−
h. For RNAV−equipped aircraft operating on “Expect direct CENTR for RNAV Runway One-Eight
unpublished routes, issue approach clearance for Approach.”
conventional or RNAV SIAP including approaches 3. Established on a heading or course direct to a
with RF legs only after the aircraft is: (See fix between the IF and FAF, at an intercept angle not
FIG 4−8−4). greater than 30 degrees, and assigned an altitude in
1. Established on a heading or course direct to accordance with b2.
the IAF at an intercept angle not greater than 90 EXAMPLE−
degrees and is assigned an altitude in accordance with Aircraft 1 is more than 5 miles from SHANN. The minimum
b2. Radar monitoring is required to the IAF for altitude for IFR operations (14 CFR Section 91.177) along
RNAV (RNP) approaches when no hold−in−lieu of the flight path to SHANN is 3,000 feet. SHANN is a step
procedure turn is executed. down fix between the IF/IAF (CENTR) and the FAF. To
clear Aircraft 1 to SHANN, ATC must ensure the intercept
EXAMPLE− angle for the intermediate segment at SHANN is not
Aircraft 1 can be cleared direct to CENTR. The intercept greater than 30 degrees and must be cleared to an altitude
angle at that IAF is 90 degrees or less. The minimum that will allow a normal descent to the FAF. “Cleared direct
altitude for IFR operations (14 CFR, section 91.177) along SHANN, cross SHANN at or above three thousand, cleared
the flight path to the IAF is 3,000 feet. If a hold in lieu of RNAV Runway One-Eight Approach.”
procedure turn pattern is depicted at an IAF and a TAA is
REFERENCE−
not defined, the aircraft must be instructed to conduct a FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−6−2, Methods.
straight-in approach if ATC does not want the pilot to FAA Order JO 7110.65, Chapter 5, Section 9, Radar Arrivals.

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
FIG 4−8−4 3. Do not clear aircraft direct to any waypoint

Approach Clearance Example beginning or within an RF leg.
For RNAV Aircraft
4. Do not assign fix/waypoint crossing speeds in
excess of charted speed restrictions.
NOTE−
1. RNAV approaches (containing RF legs) that commence
at 10,000 feet or above require special procedures that will
be site specific and specified in a facility directive.
2. An RF leg is defined as a curved segment indicating a
constant radius circular path about a defined turn center
that begins at a waypoint. RF legs may have maximum
airspeeds charted for procedural containment that must be
followed.
3. If an aircraft is vectored off the procedure, expect the
aircraft to request a return to an IAF.
FIG 4−8−5
Radius to Fix (RF) and Track to Fix (TF)
EXAMPLE−
Aircraft 2 cannot be cleared direct to CENTR unless the
aircraft is allowed to execute the hold-in-lieu of procedure
turn. The intercept angle at that IF/IAF is greater than
90 degrees. The minimum altitude for IFR operations
(14 CFR Section 91.177) along the flight path to the IAF is
3,000 feet. “Cleared direct CENTR, maintain at or above
three thousand until CENTR, cleared RNAV Runway
One-Eight approach.” The pilot is expected to proceed
direct CENTR and execute the hold-in-lieu of procedure
turn.
Aircraft 2 can be cleared direct LEFTT. The intercept angle

at that IAF is 90 degrees or less. The minimum altitude for
IFR operations (14 CFR Section 91.177) along the flight
path to the IAF is 3,000 feet. “Cleared direct LEFTT,
maintain at or above three thousand until LEFTT, cleared
NOTE−
RNAV Runway One-Eight Approach.” The pilot does not
1. The segment between THIRD and FORTH in
have to be cleared for a straight-in approach since no
FIG 4−8−5 is an RF leg.
hold-in-lieu of procedure turn pattern is depicted at
LEFTT. 2. The straight segments between waypoints in FIG 4−8−5
are TF legs.
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Chapter 5, Section 9, Radar Arrivals. j. Where a terminal arrival area (TAA) has been
i. Clear RNAV−equipped aircraft conducting established to support RNAV approaches, use the
RNAV instrument approach procedures that contain procedures under subparagraph b above. (See
radius to fix (RF) legs: FIG 4−8−6.)
1. Via published transitions, or NOTE−
1. Aircraft that are within the lateral boundary of a TAA,
2. In accordance with subparagraph h. and at or above the TAA minimum altitude, are established

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
on the approach and may be issued an approach clearance l. During times when pilots report GPS anomalies,
without an altitude restriction. request the pilot’s intentions and/or clear that aircraft
2. The TAA minimum altitude may be higher than the for an alternative approach, if available and
MVA/MIA. If an aircraft is below the TAA minimum operational. Announce to other aircraft requesting an
altitude, it must either be assigned an altitude to maintain RNAV approach that GPS is reported unavailable and
until established on a segment of a published route or request intentions.
instrument approach procedure, or climbed to the TAA REFERENCE−
altitude. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−10, NAVAID Malfunctions.
EXAMPLE−
Aircraft 1: The aircraft is at or above the minimum TAA m. When clearing an aircraft for an RNAV
altitude and within the lateral boundary of the TAA. approach, and a GPS NOTAM is published (a WAAS
“Cleared R−NAV Runway One Eight Approach.” NOTAM is not issued), both GPS and WAAS may
Aircraft 2: The MVA is 3000 feet and the aircraft is level at become unavailable. Therefore, when a GPS
4000 feet. The TAA minimum altitude is 4200 feet. The anomaly is reported, request the pilot’s intentions.
aircraft must be assigned an altitude to maintain until
established on a segment of the approach. “Cross RIGHT NOTE−
at or above three thousand, cleared R−NAV Runway One WAAS UNAVAILABLE NOTAMs are published to indicate
Eight Approach.” a failure of a WAAS system component. Airborne
Aircraft 3: The aircraft is inbound to the CHARR IAF on an GPS/WAAS equipment may revert to GPS−only operation
unpublished direct route at 7,000 feet. The minimum IFR which satisfies the requirements for basic RNAV (GPS)
altitude for IFR operations (14 CFR Section 91.177) along approaches to the airport of intended landing or filed
this flight path to the IAF is 5,000 feet. “Cleared direct alternate airport, if airborne equipment is approved for
CHARR, maintain at or above five thousand until entering such operations.
the TAA, cleared RNAV Runway One−Eight Approach.”
4−8−2. CLEARANCE LIMIT
FIG 4−8−6
Basic “T” and TAA Design Issue approach or other clearances, as required,
specifying the destination airport as the clearance
limit if airport traffic control service is not provided
even though this is a repetition of the initial clearance.
PHRASEOLOGY−
CLEARED TO (destination) AIRPORT
4−8−3. RELAYED APPROACH CLEARANCE

TERMINAL
Include the weather report, when it is required and
available, when an approach clearance is relayed
through a communication station other than an air
carrier company radio. You may do this by telling the
station to issue current weather.
4−8−4. ALTITUDE ASSIGNMENT FOR

MILITARY HIGH ALTITUDE INSTRUMENT
APPROACHES
k. When GPS TESTING NOTAMs are published Altitudes above those shown on the high altitude
and testing is actually occurring, inform pilots instrument approach procedures chart may be
requesting or cleared for a RNAV approach that GPS specified when required for separation.
may not be available and request intentions. Do not NOTE−
resume RNAV approach operations until certain that To preclude the possibility of aircraft exceeding
GPS interference is no longer a factor or such GPS rate-of-descent or airspeed limitations, the maximum
testing exercise has ceased. altitudes which may be assigned for any portion of the high

12/2/21
6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z CHG 1
JO 7110.65Z
altitude instrument approach procedure will be determined c. Do not issue clearances, such as “extend
through coordination between the ATC facility concerned downwind leg,” which might cause an aircraft to
and the military authority which originated the high exceed the circling approach area distance from the
altitude instrument approach procedure. runways within which required circling approach
REFERENCE− obstacle clearance is assured.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−7−5, Military Turbojet En Route
Descent.
4−8−7. SIDE−STEP MANEUVER
4−8−5. SPECIFYING ALTITUDE TERMINAL
Specify in the approach clearance the altitude shown Side-step Maneuver. When authorized by an instru-
in the approach procedures when adherence to that ment approach procedure, you may clear an aircraft
altitude is required for separation. When vertical for an approach to one runway and inform the aircraft
separation will be provided from other aircraft by that landing will be made on a parallel runway.
pilot adherence to the prescribed maximum,
EXAMPLE−
minimum, or mandatory altitudes, the controller may “Cleared I−L−S Runway seven left approach. Side-step to
omit specifying the altitude in the approach runway seven right.”
clearance.
NOTE−
NOTE− Side-step maneuvers require higher weather minima/
Use FAA or NGA instrument approach procedures charts MDA. These higher minima/MDA are published on the
appropriate for the aircraft executing the approach. instrument approach charts.
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−3−2, Closed/Unsafe Runway
4−8−6. CIRCLING APPROACH Information.
P/CG Term − Side−step Maneuver.
a. Circling approach instructions may only be
given for aircraft landing at airports with operational
4−8−8. COMMUNICATIONS RELEASE
control towers.
If an IFR aircraft intends to land at an airport not
b. Include in the approach clearance instructions
served by a tower or FSS, approve a change to the
to circle to the runway in use if landing will be made
advisory service frequency when you no longer
on a runway other than that aligned with the direction
require direct communications.
of instrument approach. When the direction of the
circling maneuver in relation to the airport/runway is PHRASEOLOGY−
required, state the direction (eight cardinal compass CHANGE TO ADVISORY FREQUENCY APPROVED.
points) and specify a left or right base/downwind leg NOTE−
as appropriate. An expeditious frequency change permits the aircraft to
receive timely local airport traffic information in
PHRASEOLOGY− accordance with AC 90−66, Non−Towered Airport Flight
CIRCLE TO RUNWAY (number), Operations.
or
4−8−9. MISSED APPROACH
CIRCLE (direction using eight cardinal compass points) Except in the case of a VFR aircraft practicing an
OF THE AIRPORT/RUNWAY FOR A LEFT/RIGHT
instrument approach, an approach clearance automat-
BASE/DOWNWIND TO RUNWAY (number).
ically authorizes the aircraft to execute the missed
NOTE− approach procedure depicted for the instrument
Where standard instrument approach procedures (SIAPs) approach being flown. An alternate missed approach
authorize circling approaches, they provide a basic
procedure as published on the appropriate FAA Form
minimum of 300 feet of obstacle clearance at the MDA
within the circling area considered. The dimensions of 8260 or appropriate military form may be assigned
these areas, expressed in distances from the runways, vary when necessary. After an aircraft commences a
for the different approach categories of aircraft. In some missed approach, it may be vectored at or above the
cases a SIAP may otherwise restrict circling approach MVA/MIA, or follow the provisions of paragraph
maneuvers. 5−6−3, Vectors Below Minimum Altitude.

JO
JO 7110.65Z
7110.65R CHG
7110.65Z CHG
2 1 12/2/21
3/15/07
6/17/21
NOTE− at night,” or a Snowflake icon indicating mandatory

1. Alternate missed approach procedures are published on cold temperature compensation.
the appropriate FAA Form 8260 or appropriate military REFERENCE−
form and require a detailed clearance when they are issued AIM, Para 5−1−17, Cold Temperature Operations.
to the pilot. AIM, Para 5−5−4, Instrument Approach.
AIM, Para 5−5−5, Missed Approach.
2. In the event of a missed approach involving a turn,
unless otherwise cleared, the pilot will proceed to the 4−8−11. PRACTICE APPROACHES
missed approach point before starting that turn.
Except for military aircraft operating at military
3. Pilots must advise ATC when intending to apply cold
temperature compensation and of the amount of airfields, ensure that neither VFR nor IFR practice
compensation required. Pilots will not apply altitude approaches disrupt the flow of other arriving and
compensation, unless authorized, when assigned an departing IFR or VFR aircraft. Authorize, withdraw
altitude if provided an initial heading to fly or radar vectors authorization, or refuse to authorize practice
in lieu of published missed approach procedures. approaches as traffic conditions require. Normally,
Consideration should be given to vectoring aircraft at or approaches in progress should not be terminated.
above the requested compensating altitude if possible. NOTE−
REFERENCE− The priority afforded other aircraft over practice
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−8−11, Practice Approaches. instrument approaches is not intended to be so rigidly
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−6−3, Vectors Below Minimum Altitude. applied that it causes grossly inefficient application of
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−8−3, Successive or Simultaneous
Departures. services.
FAA Order 8260.19, Flight Procedures and Airspace, Para 8−6−6 a. Separation.
FAA Order 8260.3, United States Standard for Terminal Instrument
Procedures (TERPS), Para 2−8−1 and Chapter 16. 1. IFR aircraft practicing instrument ap-
proaches must be afforded approved separation in
accordance with Chapter 3, Chapter 4, Chapter 5,
4−8−10. APPROACH INFORMATION Chapter 6, and Chapter 7 minima until:
Specify the following in the approach clearance when (a) The aircraft lands, and the flight is
the pilot says he/she is unfamiliar with the procedure: terminated, or
a. Initial approach altitude. (b) The pilot cancels the flight plan.
2. Where procedures require application of IFR
b. Direction and distance from the holding fix
separation to VFR aircraft practicing instrument
within which procedure turn is to be completed.
approaches, IFR separation in accordance with
c. Altitude at which the procedure turn is to be Chapter 3, Chapter 4, Chapter 5, Chapter 6, and
made. Chapter 7 must be provided. Controller responsibil-
ity for separation begins at the point where the
d. Final approach course and altitude. approach clearance becomes effective. Except for
e. Missed approach procedures if considered super or heavy aircraft, 500 feet vertical separation
necessary. may be applied between VFR aircraft and between a
VFR and an IFR aircraft.
PHRASEOLOGY−
REFERENCE−
INITIAL APPROACH AT (altitude), PROCEDURE TURN FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 6−4−4, Practice Instrument Approaches.
AT (altitude), (number) MINUTES/MILES (direction), FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 10−4−5, Practice Instrument Approaches.
FINAL APPROACH ON (name of NAVAID) (specified)
3. Where separation services are not provided to
COURSE/RADIAL/AZIMUTH AT (altitude).
VFR aircraft practicing instrument approaches, the
f. Applicable notations on instrument approach controller must;
charts which levy on the pilot the responsibility to
(a) Instruct the pilot to maintain VFR.
comply with or act on an instruction; for example,
“Straight-in minima not authorized at night,” (b) Advise the pilot that separation services
“Procedure not authorized when glideslope/glidepath are not provided.
not used,” “Use of procedure limited to aircraft PHRASEOLOGY−
authorized to use airport,” “Procedure not authorized “(Aircraft identification) MAINTAIN VFR, PRACTICE

12/2/21
6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z CHG 1
JO 7110.65Z
APPROACH APPROVED, NO SEPARATION SERVICES 4−8−11 a2, separation must be provided throughout
PROVIDED.” the procedure including the missed approach. If the
(c) Provide traffic information or advise the practice approach is conducted in accordance with
pilot to contact the appropriate facility. paragraph 4−8−11 a3, separation services are not
required during the missed approach.
4. If an altitude is assigned, including at or
REFERENCE−
above/below altitudes, the altitude specified must FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−2−1, Visual Separation.
meet MVA, minimum safe altitude, or minimum IFR
altitude criteria.
4−8−12. LOW APPROACH AND TOUCH-
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−7−5, Altitude Assignments. AND-GO
5. All VFR aircraft must be instructed to Consider an aircraft cleared for a touch-and-go, low
maintain VFR on initial contact or as soon as possible approach, or practice approach as an arriving aircraft
thereafter. until that aircraft touches down or crosses the landing
NOTE− threshold; thereafter, consider the aircraft as a
This advisory is intended to remind the pilot that even departing aircraft. Before the aircraft begins its final
though ATC is providing IFR-type instructions, the pilot is descent, issue the appropriate departure instructions
responsible for compliance with the applicable parts of the the pilot is to follow upon completion of the approach
CFR governing VFR flight. (in accordance with paragraph 4−3−2, Departure
b. Missed Approaches. Clearances). Climb-out instructions must include a
specific heading or a route of flight and altitude,
1. Unless alternate instructions have been except when the aircraft will maintain VFR and
issued, IFR aircraft are automatically authorized to contact the tower.
execute the missed approach depicted for the
instrument approach being flown. EXAMPLE−
“After completing low approach, climb and maintain six
REFERENCE− thousand. Turn right, heading three six zero.”
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−8−9, Missed Approach.
2. VFR aircraft are not automatically authorized “Maintain VFR, contact tower.”
to execute the missed approach procedure. This
authorization must be specifically requested by the (Issue other instructions as appropriate.)
pilot and approved by the controller. When a missed NOTE−
approach has been approved and the practice Climb-out instructions may be omitted after the first
approach is conducted in accordance with paragraph approach if instructions remain the same.

12/2/21
6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z CHG 1
JO 7110.65Z
Chapter 5. Radar
Section 1. General
5−1−1. PRESENTATION AND EQUIPMENT PHRASEOLOGY−

PERFORMANCE PRIMARY RADAR UNAVAILABLE (describe location).
RADAR SERVICES AVAILABLE ON TRANSPONDER OR
a. Provide radar services only if you are personally ADS−B EQUIPPED AIRCRAFT ONLY.
satisfied that the radar presentation and equipment NOTE−
performance is adequate for the service being 1. Advisory may be omitted when provided on ATIS and
provided. pilot indicates having ATIS information.
NOTE− 2. This provision is to authorize secondary radar only
The provision of radar services is not limited to the distance operations where there is no primary radar available and
and altitude parameters obtained during the commission- the condition is temporary.
ing flight check. FAA Order 8200.1, United States Standard
(c) A secondary radar system is the only
Flight Inspection Manual, Chapter 14, Surveillance,
describes the surveillance flight inspection procedures.
source of radar data for the area of service.
TERMINAL. Advise pilots when these conditions
b. Notify the OS/CIC of any radar malfunctions or exist.
unexpected outages. Advise adjacent facilities when
NOTE−
appropriate. Advisory may be omitted when provided on ATIS or by
REFERENCE− other appropriate notice to pilots.
Information. b. TERMINAL. Do not use secondary radar only
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Chapter 3, Chapter 7, Chapter 10 Section 5, to conduct surveillance (ASR) final approaches
and Chapter 12 Section 6.
unless an emergency exists and the pilot concurs.
c. All procedures and requirements relating to
5−1−2. ATC SURVEILLANCE SOURCE USE ATC services using secondary radar targets apply to
Use approved ATC Surveillance Sources. ATC services provided to targets derived from
ADS-B and WAM.
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−2−13, Inoperative or Malfunctioning NOTE−
Interrogator. Targets derived from WAM cannot be used to provide 3 NM
separation in the EAS. 3 NM targets are not derived from
a. Secondary radar may be used as the sole display
WAM within the EAS.
source as follows:
REFERENCE−
1. In Class A airspace. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−1−2, Exceptions.
REFERENCE− FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−5−1, Application.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−2−14, Failed Transponder in Class A FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 6−5−4, Minima Along Other Than
Airspace. Established Airways or Routes.
14 CFR Section 91.135, Operations in Class A Airspace. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Chapter 6, Nonradar.
2. Outside Class A airspace, or where mix of FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 3−6−2, ATC Surveillance Source Use.
Class A airspace/non−Class A airspace exists, only
when: 5−1−3. ELECTRONIC ATTACK (EA) ACTIVI-
TY
(a) Additional coverage is provided by
secondary radar beyond that of the primary radar, or a. Refer all EA activity requests to the appropriate
center supervisor.
(b) The primary radar is temporarily unusable
REFERENCE−
or out of service. Advise pilots when these conditions FAA Order JO 7610.4, Chapter 2, Section 7, Electronic Attack (EA)
exist, or and Testing Coordination.
General 5−1−1
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NOTE− or
EA activity can subsequently result in a request to apply
EA videos to the radar system which may necessitate the RESUME BUZZER ON (frequency band or channel).
decertification of the narrowband search radar. The
Systems Engineer should be consulted concerning the
effect of EA on the operational use of the narrowband radar 5−1−4. MERGING TARGET PROCEDURES
prior to approving/disapproving requests to conduct
EA activity. a. Except while they are established in a holding
pattern, apply merging target procedures to all radar
b. When EA activity interferes with the opera- identified:
tional use of radar:
1. Aircraft at 10,000 feet and above.
1. EN ROUTE. Request the responsible mili-
tary unit or aircraft, if initial request was received 2. Turbojet aircraft regardless of altitude.
directly from pilot, to suspend the activity. REFERENCE−
P/CG Term − Turbojet Aircraft.
2. TERMINAL. Request suspension of the
activity through the ARTCC. If immediate cessation 3. Presidential aircraft regardless of altitude.
of the activity is required, broadcast the request
directly to the EA aircraft on the emergency b. Issue traffic information to those aircraft listed
frequency. Notify the ARTCC of direct broadcast as in subparagraph a whose targets appear likely to
soon as possible. merge unless the aircraft are separated by more than
the appropriate vertical separation minima.
c. When previously suspended activity will no
EXAMPLE−
longer interfere:
“Traffic twelve o’clock, seven miles, eastbound, MD−80, at
1. EN ROUTE. Inform the NORAD unit or one seven thousand.”
aircraft that it may be resumed.
“United Sixteen and American Twenty-five, traffic
2. TERMINAL. Inform the ARTCC or aircraft twelve o’clock, one zero miles, opposite direction,
that it may be resumed. Obtain approval from the eastbound seven twenty seven at flight level three three
ARTCC prior to broadcasting a resume clearance zero, westbound MD−Eighty at flight level three one zero.”
directly to the aircraft. c. When both aircraft in subparagraph b are in
d. In each stop request, include your facility name, RVSM airspace, and vertically separated by 1,000
type of EA activity (chaff dispensing− feet, if either pilot reports they are unable to maintain
“stream”/“burst” or electronic jamming− “buzzer”), RVSM due to turbulence or mountain wave, vector
radar band affected and, when feasible, expected either aircraft to avoid merging with the target of the
duration of suspension. other aircraft.
BIG PHOTO (identification, if known) (name) “Delta One Twenty Three, fly heading two niner zero,
CENTER/TOWER/APPROACH CONTROL. vector for traffic. Traffic twelve o’clock, one zero miles,
opposite direction, MD−80 eastbound at flight level three
To stop EA activity: two zero.”
d. If the pilot requests, vector his/her aircraft to
STOP STREAM/BURST IN AREA (area name) (degree and
avoid merging with the target of previously issued
distance from facility),
traffic.
or NOTE−
Aircraft closure rates are so rapid that when applying
STOP BUZZER ON (frequency band or channel). merging target procedures, controller issuance of traffic
must be commenced in ample time for the pilot to decide if
To resume EA activity: a vector is necessary.
RESUME STREAM/BURST, e. If unable to provide vector service, inform the

pilot.
5−1−2 General
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NOTE− 5−1−8. POSITION REPORTING

The phraseology “Unable RVSM due turbulence (or
mountain wave)” is only intended for severe turbulence or If necessary, you may request an aircraft to provide an
other weather encounters with altitude deviations of estimate or report over a specific fix. After an aircraft
approximately 200 feet or more. receives the statement “radar contact” from ATC, it
discontinues reporting over compulsory reporting
points. It resumes normal position reporting when
5−1−5. HOLDING PATTERN SURVEIL- ATC informs it “radar contact lost” or “radar service
LANCE terminated.”
REFERENCE−
Provide radar surveillance of outer fix holding pattern P/CG Term− Radar Contact.
airspace areas, or any portions thereof, shown on your
radar scope (displayed on the video map or scribed on a. When required, inform an aircraft of its position
the map overlay) whenever aircraft are holding there. with respect to a fix or airway.
Attempt to detect any aircraft that stray outside the PHRASEOLOGY−
area. If you detect an aircraft straying outside the area, OVER/PASSING (fix).
assist it to return to the assigned airspace.
(Number of miles) MILES FROM (fix).
(Number of miles) MILES (direction) OF (fix, airway, or

5−1−6. DEVIATION ADVISORIES
location).
Inform an aircraft when it is observed in a position
CROSSING/JOINING/DEPARTING (airway or route).
and on a track which will obviously cause the aircraft
to deviate from its protected airspace area. If INTERCEPTING/CROSSING (name of NAVAID)
necessary, help the aircraft to return to the assigned (specified) RADIAL.
protected airspace.
NOTE− 5−1−9. RADAR SERVICE TERMINATION
1. RNAV ATS routes have a width of 8 miles and laterally a. Inform aircraft when radar service is terminat-
protected airspace of 4 miles on each side of the route
ed.
centerline
PHRASEOLOGY−
2. Navigation system performance requirements for
RADAR SERVICE TERMINATED (nonradar routing if
operations on RNAV ATS routes require the aircraft system required).
be capable of remaining within 2 miles of the route
centerline. Aircraft approaching this limit may be b. Radar service is automatically terminated and
experiencing a navigation system error or failure. the aircraft needs not be advised of termination when:
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−2−5, Route or Altitude Amendments. 1. Termination of radar monitoring when conducting
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−9−3, Methods. simultaneous ILS approaches is prescribed in para-
FAA Order JO 7400.2, Para 20−5−2, RNAV Route Criteria.
AC 90-100A, U.S. Terminal and En Route Area Navigation (RNAV) graph 5−9−7, Simultaneous Independent Approaches−
Operations, Para 8a. Navigation System Accuracy. Dual & Triple.
2. Termination of radar monitoring where PAR equipment
is used to monitor approaches is prescribed in
5−1−7. MANUAL FIX POSTING paragraph 5−13−3, Monitor Information.
EN ROUTE 1. An aircraft cancels its IFR flight plan, except
within Class B airspace, Class C airspace, TRSA, or
Manually record the observed or reported time over where basic radar service is provided.
a fix at least once for each controlled aircraft in your
sector of responsibility when the flight progress 2. An aircraft conducting an instrument, visual,
recording components of the EAS FDP are not or contact approach has landed or has been instructed
operational. to change to advisory frequency.
REFERENCE−
3. At tower-controlled airports where radar
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 6−1−6, Flight Progress Strip Usage. coverage does not exist to within 1/2 mile of the end
General 5−1−3
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of the runway, arriving aircraft must be informed 5. TERMINAL. An aircraft completes a radar
when radar service is terminated. approach.
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 10−5−6, Radar Tolerances. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−6−12, Service Provided When Tower is
4. TERMINAL. An arriving VFR aircraft re- Inoperative.
ceiving radar service to a tower-controlled airport
within Class B airspace, Class C airspace, TRSA, or
where basic radar service is provided has landed, or
to all other airports, is instructed to change to tower
or advisory frequency.
5−1−4 General
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Section 2. Beacon/ADS−B Systems
5−2−1. ASSIGNMENT CRITERIA c. Code 4000 should be assigned when aircraft are
operating on a flight plan specifying frequent or rapid
a. General. changes in assigned altitude in more than one stratum
1. Mode 3/A is designated as the common or other category of flight not compatible with a
military/civil mode for air traffic control use. discrete code assignment.
2. Make beacon code assignments to only NOTE−
1. Categories of flight that can be assigned Code 4000
ADS−B and/or transponder−equipped aircraft.
include certain flight test aircraft, MTR missions, aerial
NOTE− refueling operation requiring descent involving more than
Aircraft equipped with ADS−B are also still required to one stratum, ALTRVs where continuous monitoring of ATC
have an operable transponder. The ATC−assigned beacon frequencies is not required and frequent altitude changes
code is one of the required message elements of ADS−B are approved, and other flights requiring special handling
Out. by ATC.
b. Unless otherwise specified in this section, a 2. Military aircraft operating in restricted/warning areas
facility directive, or a letter of agreement, issue or on VR routes will squawk 4000 unless another code has
beacon codes assigned by the computer. Computer− been assigned or coordinated with ATC.
assigned codes may be modified as required.
5−2−2. RADAR BEACON CODE CHANGES
NOTE−
The computer will assign only discrete beacon codes unless Unless otherwise specified in a directive or a letter of
all the discrete codes allocated to a facility are in use. agreement or coordinated at the time of handoff, do
1. TERMINAL. Aircraft that will remain within not request an aircraft to change from the code it was
the terminal facility’s delegated airspace must be squawking in the transferring facility’s area until the
assigned a code from the code subset allocated to the aircraft is within your area of responsibility.
terminal facility. REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−2−8, IFR-VFR and VFR-IFR Flights.
2. TERMINAL. Unless otherwise specified in a FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−3−3, Beacon/ADS−B Identification
facility directive or a letter of agreement, aircraft that Methods.
will enter an adjacent facility’s delegated airspace

must be assigned a beacon code assigned by the 5−2−3. EMERGENCY CODE ASSIGNMENT
ARTCC computer. Assign codes to emergency aircraft as follows:
NOTE−
a. Code 7700 when the pilot declares an
This will provide the adjacent facility advance information
on the aircraft and will cause auto−acquisition of the emergency and the aircraft is not radar identified.
aircraft prior to handoff. When an airborne aircraft that PHRASEOLOGY−
has been assigned a beacon code by the ARTCC computer SQUAWK MAYDAY ON 7700.
and whose flight plan will terminate in another facility’s
NOTE−
area cancels ATC service, appropriate action should be
Instead of displaying “7700” in the data block, ERAM will
taken to remove flight plan information on that aircraft.
display “EMRG,” and STARS/MEARTS will display
PHRASEOLOGY− “EM.”
SQUAWK THREE/ALFA (code),
b. After radio and radar contact have been
or established, you may request other than single−pilot-
ed helicopters and single−piloted turbojet aircraft to
SQUAWK (code). change from Code 7700 to a computer−assigned
REFERENCE− discrete code.
NOTE−
Methods.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−3−4, Terminal Automation Systems 1. The code change, based on pilot concurrence, the
Identification Methods. nature of the emergency, and current flight conditions, will
Beacon/ADS−B Systems 5−2−1

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signify to other ATC facilities that the aircraft in distress is 5−2−6. UNMANNED AIRCRAFT SYSTEMS
identified and under ATC control. (UAS) LOST LINK
2. Pilots of single−piloted helicopters and single−piloted Code 7400 may be transmitted by unmanned aircraft
turbojet aircraft may be unable to change transponder systems (UAS) when the control link between the
settings during an emergency.
aircraft and the pilot is lost. Lost link procedures are
PHRASEOLOGY− programmed into the flight management system and
RADAR CONTACT (position). IF FEASIBLE, SQUAWK associated with the flight plan being flown.
(code).
When you observe a Code 7400 display, do the
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−3−3, Beacon/ADS−B Identification following:
Methods. NOTE−
c. The following must be accomplished on a Instead of displaying “7400” in the data block, ERAM will
Mode C equipped VFR aircraft which is in display “LLNK,” and STARS/MEARTS will display “LL.”
emergency but no longer requires the assignment of a. Determine the lost link procedure, as outlined in
Code 7700: the Special Airworthiness Certificate or Certificate of
Waiver or Authorization (COA).
1. TERMINAL. Assign a beacon code that will
permit terminal minimum safe altitude warning b. Coordinate, as required, to allow UAS to
(MSAW) alarm processing. execute the lost link procedure.
c. Advise the OS/CIC, when feasible, so the event
2. EN ROUTE. An appropriate keyboard entry
can be documented.
must be made to ensure en route MSAW (EMSAW)
alarm processing. d. If you observe or are informed by the PIC that
the UAS is deviating from the programmed Lost Link
procedure, or is encountering another anomaly, treat
5−2−4. RADIO FAILURE the situation in accordance with FAA Order
JO 7110.65 Chapter 10, Section 1, paragraph
When you observe a Code 7600 display, apply the
10−1−1c.
procedures in paragraph 10−4−4, Communications
Failure. NOTE−
1. The available lost link procedure should, at a minimum,
NOTE− include lost link route of flight, lost link orbit points, lost
1. An aircraft experiencing a loss of two−way radio link altitudes, communications procedures and preplanned
communications capability can be expected to squawk flight termination points if the event recovery of the UAS is
Code 7600. deemed unfeasible.
2. Instead of displaying “7600” in the data block, ERAM 2. Each lost link procedure may differ and is dependent
will display “RDOF,” and STARS/MEARTS will display upon airframe and operation. These items are contained in
“RF.” the flight’s Certificate of Authorization or Waiver (COA)
REFERENCE− and must be made available to ATC personnel in their
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−3−3, Beacon/ADS−B Identification simplest form at positions responsible for Unmanned
Methods. Aircraft (UAs).
3. Some UA airframes (Global Hawk) will not be
5−2−5. HIJACK/UNLAWFUL INTERFER- programmed upon the NAS Automation roll out to squawk
ENCE 7400. These airframes will continue to squawk 7600 should
a lost link occur. The ATC Specialist must apply the same
When you observe a Code 7500 display, apply the procedures described above.
procedures in paragraph 10−2−6, Hijacked Aircraft.
NOTE−
5−2−7. VFR CODE ASSIGNMENTS
Instead of displaying “7500” in the data block, ERAM will a. For VFR aircraft receiving radar advisories,
display “HIJK,” and STARS/MEARTS will display “HJ.” issue a computer−assigned beacon code.
REFERENCE−
1. If the aircraft is outside of your area of
Methods. responsibility and an operational benefit will be
5−2−2 Beacon/ADS−B Systems

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gained by retaining the aircraft on your frequency for 5−2−8. BEACON CODES FOR PRESSURE
the purpose of providing services, ensure that SUIT FLIGHTS AND FLIGHTS ABOVE FL
coordination has been effected: 600
(a) As soon as possible after positive Special use Mode 3/A codes are reserved for certain
identification, and pressure suit flights and aircraft operations above FL
600 in accordance with FAA Order JO 7610.4,
(b) Prior to issuing a control instruction or Special Operations.
providing a service other than a safety alert/traffic
a. Ensure that these flights remain on one of the
advisory.
special use codes if filed in the flight plan, except:
NOTE− b. When unforeseen events cause more than one
Safety alerts/traffic advisories may be issued to an aircraft
aircraft to be in the same or adjacent ARTCC’s
prior to coordination if an imminent situation may be
averted by such action. Coordination should be effected as airspace at the same time on the same special use
soon as possible thereafter. discrete code, if necessary, you may request the pilot
to make a code change, squawk standby, or stop
b. Instruct an IFR aircraft that cancels its IFR squawk as appropriate.
flight plan and is not requesting radar advisory
NOTE−
service, or a VFR aircraft for which radar advisory 1. Current FAA automation systems track multiple targets
service is being terminated, to squawk VFR. on the same beacon code with much greater reliability than
PHRASEOLOGY− their predecessors, and a code change may not be
SQUAWK VFR. necessary for such flights.
2. The beacon code is often preset on the ground for such
or flights and is used throughout the flight profile, including
operations below FL 600. Due to equipment inaccessibili-
SQUAWK 1200. ty, the flight crew may not be able to accept transponder
NOTE− changes identified in this subparagraph.
1. Aircraft not in contact with ATC may squawk 1255 in 3. In case of emergency, Code 7700 can still be activated.
lieu of 1200 while en route to/from or within designated Instead of displaying “7700” in the data block, ERAM will
firefighting areas. display “EMRG,” and STARS/MEARTS will display
“EM.”
2. VFR aircraft that fly authorized SAR missions for the
REFERENCE−
USAF or USCG may be advised to squawk 1277 in lieu of
1200 while en route to/from or within the designated search Methods.
area.
3. VFR gliders should squawk 1202 in lieu of 1200. 5−2−9. AIR DEFENSE EXERCISE BEACON
Gliders operate under some flight and maneuvering CODE ASSIGNMENT
limitations. They may go from essentially stationary targets EN ROUTE
while climbing and thermaling to moving targets very
quickly. They can be expected to make radical changes in Ensure exercise FAKER aircraft remain on the
flight direction to find lift and cannot hold altitude in a exercise flight plan filed discrete beacon code.
response to an ATC request. Gliders may congregate NOTE−
together for short periods of time to climb together in 1. NORAD will ensure exercise FAKER aircraft flight
thermals and may cruise together in loose formations while plans are filed containing discrete beacon codes from the
traveling between thermals. Department of Defense code allocation specified in FAA
Order JO 7610.4, Special Operations, Appendix 6.
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.66, National Beacon Code Allocation Plan. 2. NORAD will ensure that those FAKER aircraft assigned
the same discrete beacon code are not flight planned in the
c. When an aircraft changes from VFR to IFR, same or any adjacent ARTCC’s airspace at the same time.
assign a beacon code to Mode C equipped aircraft that (Simultaneous assignment of codes will only occur when
will allow MSAW alarms. operational requirements necessitate.)
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−3−3, Beacon/ADS−B Identification FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−3−3, Beacon/ADS−B Identification
Methods. Methods.

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5−2−10. STANDBY OPERATION PHRASEOLOGY−

(Identification) RESET TRANSPONDER, SQUAWK
You may instruct an aircraft operating on an assigned (appropriate code).
code to change the transponder/ADS−B to “standby” b. Inform an aircraft when its transponder appears
position: to be inoperative or malfunctioning.
a. When approximately 15 miles from its PHRASEOLOGY−
destination and you no longer desire operation of the (Identification) YOUR TRANSPONDER APPEARS
transponder/ADS−B; or INOPERATIVE/MALFUNCTIONING, RESET, SQUAWK
(appropriate code).
b. When necessary to reduce clutter in a c. Ensure that the subsequent control position in
multi−target area, provided you instruct the pilot to the facility or the next facility, as applicable, is
return the transponder/ADS−B to “normal” position notified when an aircraft transponder is malfunction-
as soon as possible thereafter. ing/inoperative.
SQUAWK STANDBY, FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−3−3, Beacon/ADS−B Identification
Methods.
or
5−2−13. INOPERATIVE OR
SQUAWK NORMAL. MALFUNCTIONING INTERROGATOR
REFERENCE− Inform aircraft concerned when the ground interro-
Methods.
gator appears to be inoperative or malfunctioning.
PHRASEOLOGY−
(Name of facility or control function) BEACON
5−2−11. CODE MONITOR INTERROGATOR INOPERATIVE/MALFUNCTIONING.
REFERENCE−
a. Continuously monitor the codes assigned to FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−1−2, ATC Surveillance Source Use.
aircraft operating within your area of responsibility. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−3−3, Beacon/ADS−B Identification
Methods.
Additionally, monitor Code 1200, Code 1202, Code
1255, and Code 1277 unless your area of
responsibility includes only Class A airspace. During 5−2−14. FAILED TRANSPONDER OR
periods when ring−around or excessive VFR target ADS−B OUT TRANSMITTER
presentations derogate the separation of IFR traffic, Disapprove a request or withdraw a previously issued
the monitoring of VFR Code 1200, Code 1202, Code approval to operate with a failed transponder or
1255, and Code 1277 may be temporarily discontin- ADS−B Out solely on the basis of traffic conditions
ued. or other operational factors.
REFERENCE−
b. When your area of responsibility contains or is FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−1−2, ATC Surveillance Source Use.
immediately adjacent to a restricted area, warning FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−3−3, Beacon/ADS−B Identification
area, VR route, or other category where Code 4000 is Methods.
appropriate, monitor Code 4000 and any other code
used in lieu of 4000. 5−2−15. VALIDATION OF MODE C
READOUT
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 3−6−3, Monitoring of Mode 3/A Radar Ensure that Mode C altitude readouts are valid after
Beacon Codes.
accepting an interfacility handoff, initial track start,
track start from coast/suspend tabular list, or during
5−2−12. FAILURE TO DISPLAY ASSIGNED and after an unreliable Mode C readout, except as
BEACON CODE OR INOPERATIVE/MAL- follows:
FUNCTIONING TRANSPONDER NOTE−
Consider a Mode C readout unreliable when any condition,
a. Inform an aircraft with an operable transponder not just those that display an indicator in the Data Block,
that the assigned beacon code is not being displayed. exists that indicates that the Mode C may be in error.

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a. CTRD−equipped tower cabs are not required to 1. Issue the correct altimeter setting and confirm
validate Mode C altitude readouts after accepting the pilot has accurately reported the altitude.
interfacility handoffs from TRACONs according to PHRASEOLOGY−
the procedures in paragraph 5−4−3, Methods, (Location) ALTIMETER (appropriate altimeter), VERIFY
subparagraph a4. ALTITUDE.
b. ERAM facilities are not required to validate 2. If the altitude readout continues to be invalid:
Mode C altitude readouts after accepting interfacility (a) Instruct the pilot to turn off the altitude-
handoffs from other ERAM facilities, except: reporting part of his/her transponder and include the
reason; and
1. After initial track start or track start from
coast is required, or (b) Notify the operations supervisor-in-
charge of the aircraft call sign.
2. During and after the display of a missing,
PHRASEOLOGY−
unreasonable, exceptional, or otherwise unreliable
STOP ALTITUDE SQUAWK. ALTITUDE DIFFERS BY
Mode C readout indicator. (number of feet) FEET.
c. Consider an altitude readout valid when: f. Whenever you observe an invalid Mode C
readout at or above FL 180, unless the aircraft is
1. It varies less than 300 feet from the pilot
descending below Class A airspace:
reported altitude, or
1. Verify that the pilot is using 29.92 inches of
PHRASEOLOGY−
(If aircraft is known to be operating below the lowest
mercury as the altimeter setting and has accurately
useable flight level), reported the altitude.
PHRASEOLOGY−
SAY ALTITUDE. VERIFY USING TWO NINER NINER TWO AS YOUR
ALTIMETER SETTING.
or
(If aircraft is known to be operating at or above the lowest
(If aircraft is known to be operating at or above the lowest useable flight level),
useable flight level),
VERIFY FLIGHT LEVEL.
SAY FLIGHT LEVEL. 2. If the Mode C readout continues to be invalid:
2. You receive a continuous readout from an (a) Instruct the pilot to turn off the altitude-
aircraft on the airport and the readout varies by less reporting part of his/her transponder and include the
than 300 feet from the field elevation, or reason; and
NOTE− (b) Notify the operational supervisor-in-
A continuous readout exists only when the altitude filter charge of the aircraft call sign.
limits are set to include the field elevation.
PHRASEOLOGY−
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−2−21, Altitude Filters.
STOP ALTITUDE SQUAWK. ALTITUDE DIFFERS BY
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−14−5, Selected Altitude Limits. (number of feet) FEET.
3. You have correlated the altitude information g. Whenever possible, inhibit altitude readouts on
in your data block with the validated information in all consoles when a malfunction of the ground
a data block generated in another facility (by verbally equipment causes repeated invalid readouts.
coordinating with the other controller) and your
readout is exactly the same as the readout in the other 5−2−16. ALTITUDE CONFIRMATION−
data block. MODE C
Request a pilot to confirm assigned altitude on initial
d. When unable to validate the readout, do not use
contact unless:
the Mode C altitude information for separation.
NOTE−
e. Whenever you observe an invalid Mode C For the purpose of this paragraph, “initial contact” means
readout below FL 180: a pilot’s first radio contact with each sector/position.

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a. The pilot states the assigned altitude, or PHRASEOLOGY−

(If the altitude read back is correct),
b. You assign a new altitude to a climbing or a
descending aircraft, or AFFIRMATIVE (altitude).
c. The Mode C readout is valid and indicates that
(If the altitude read back is not correct),
the aircraft is established at the assigned altitude, or
d. TERMINAL. The aircraft was transferred to NEGATIVE. CLIMB/DESCEND AND MAINTAIN
you from another sector/position within your facility (altitude),
(intrafacility).
or
PHRASEOLOGY−
(In level flight situations),VERIFY AT (altitude/flight NEGATIVE. MAINTAIN (altitude).
level).
REFERENCE−
(In climbing/descending situations), Methods.
(if aircraft has been assigned an altitude below the lowest 5−2−18. AUTOMATIC ALTITUDE
useable flight level), REPORTING
VERIFY ASSIGNED ALTITUDE (altitude). Inform an aircraft when you want it to turn on/off the
automatic altitude reporting feature of its
or transponder.
(If aircraft has been assigned a flight level at or above the PHRASEOLOGY−
lowest useable flight level), SQUAWK ALTITUDE,
VERIFY ASSIGNED FLIGHT LEVEL (flight level). or

REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−3−3, Beacon/ADS−B Identification STOP ALTITUDE SQUAWK.
Methods. NOTE−
Controllers should be aware that not all aircraft have a
5−2−17. ALTITUDE CONFIRMATION− capability to disengage the altitude squawk independently
NON−MODE C from the beacon code squawk. On some aircraft both
functions are controlled by the same switch.
a. Request a pilot to confirm assigned altitude on REFERENCE−
initial contact unless: FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−2−15, Validation of Mode C Readout.
NOTE− Methods.
For the purpose of this paragraph, “initial contact” means P/CG Term − Automatic Altitude Report.
a pilot’s first radio contact with each sector/position.
1. The pilot states the assigned altitude, or 5−2−19. INFLIGHT DEVIATIONS FROM
TRANSPONDER/MODE C REQUIREMENTS
2. You assign a new altitude to a climbing or a BETWEEN 10,000 FEET AND 18,000 FEET
descending aircraft, or
Apply the following procedures to requests to deviate
3. TERMINAL. The aircraft was transferred to from the Mode C transponder requirement by aircraft
you from another sector/position within your facility operating in the airspace of the 48 contiguous states
(intrafacility). and the District of Columbia at and above 10,000 feet
PHRASEOLOGY− MSL and below 18,000 feet MSL, excluding the
(In level flight situations),VERIFY AT (altitude/flight airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL.
level).
NOTE−
1. 14 CFR Section 91.215(b) provides, in part, that all U.S.
(In climbing/descending situations),VERIFY ASSIGNED
registered civil aircraft must be equipped with an operable,
ALTITUDE/FLIGHT LEVEL (altitude/flight level).
coded radar beacon transponder when operating in the
b. USA. Reconfirm all pilot altitude read backs. altitude stratum listed above. Such transponders must have

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a Mode 3/A 4096 code capability, replying to Mode 3/A 5−2−20. BEACON TERMINATION
interrogation with the code specified by ATC, or a Mode S
capability, replying to Mode 3/A interrogations with the Inform the pilot when you want their aircraft’s
code specified by ATC. The aircraft must also be equipped transponder and ADS−B Out turned off.
with automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment PHRASEOLOGY−
having a Mode C capability that automatically replies to
Mode C interrogations by transmitting pressure altitude STOP SQUAWK.
information in 100−foot increments.
2. The exception to 14 CFR Section 91.215 (b) is 14 CFR (For a military aircraft when you do not know if the military
Section 91.215(b)(5) which states: except balloons, service requires that it continue operating on another
gliders, and aircraft without engine−driven electrical mode),
systems.
STOP SQUAWK (mode in use).
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Chapter 20, Temporary Flight Restrictions. REFERENCE−
a. Except in an emergency, do not approve inflight Methods.
requests for authorization to deviate from 14 CFR
Section 91.215(b)(5)(i) requirements originated by 5−2−21. ALTITUDE FILTERS
aircraft without transponder equipment installed.
TERMINAL
b. Approve or disapprove other inflight deviation
Set altitude filters to display Mode C altitude readouts
requests, or withdraw approval previously issued to
to encompass all altitudes within the controller’s
such flights, solely on the basis of traffic conditions
jurisdiction. Set the upper limits no lower than
and other operational factors.
1,000 feet above the highest altitude for which the
c. Adhere to the following sequence of action controller is responsible. In those stratified positions,
when an inflight VFR deviation request is received set the lower limit to 1,000 feet or more below the
from an aircraft with an inoperative transponder or lowest altitude for which the controller is responsible.
Mode C, or is not Mode C equipped: When the position’s area of responsibility includes
down to an airport field elevation, the facility will
1. Suggest that the aircraft conduct its flight in normally set the lower altitude filter limit to
airspace unaffected by the CFRs. encompass the field elevation so that provisions of
2. Suggest that the aircraft file an IFR flight paragraph 2−1−6, Safety Alert, and para-
plan. graph 5−2−15, Validation of Mode C Readout,
subparagraph c2 may be applied. Air traffic
3. Suggest that the aircraft provide a VFR route managers may authorize temporary suspension of
of flight and maintain radio contact with ATC. this requirement when target clutter is excessive.
d. Do not approve an inflight deviation unless the
aircraft has filed an IFR flight plan or a VFR route of 5−2−22. INOPERATIVE OR
flight is provided and radio contact with ATC is MALFUNCTIONING ADS-B TRANSMITTER
maintained. a. Except as provided in paragraph 5−2−24,
e. You may approve an inflight deviation request inform an aircraft when the ADS−B transmitter
which includes airspace outside your jurisdiction appears to be inoperative or malfunctioning. Notify
without the prior approval of the adjacent ATC the OS/CIC of the aircraft call sign and location of
sector/facility providing a transponder/Mode C status aircraft.
report is forwarded prior to control transfer. PHRASEOLOGY−
YOUR ADS−B TRANSMITTER APPEARS TO BE
f. Approve or disapprove inflight deviation INOPERATIVE / MALFUNCTIONING.
requests within a reasonable period of time or advise
when approval/disapproval can be expected. b. If a malfunctioning ADS−B transmitter is
jeopardizing the safe execution of air traffic control
REFERENCE−
functions, instruct the aircraft to stop ADS−B
Methods. transmissions, and notify the OS/CIC.

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PHRASEOLOGY− PHRASEOLOGY−
STOP ADS−B TRANSMISSIONS, AND IF ABLE, STOP ADS−B TRANSMISSIONS, AND IF ABLE,
SQUAWK THREE/ALFA (code). SQUAWK THREE/ALFA (code).
NOTE− NOTE−
Not all aircraft have a capability to disengage the ADS−B Not all aircraft are capable of disengaging the ADS−B
transmitter independently from the beacon code squawk. transmitter independently from the transponder.
5−2−23. ADS−B ALERTS 5−2−24. ADS−B OUT OFF OPERATIONS
a. Call Sign Mis−Match (CSMM). A CSMM alert Operators of aircraft with functional ADS−B Out
will occur when the transmitted ADS−B Flight avionics installed and requesting an exception from
Identification (FLT ID) does not match the flight plan the requirement to transmit at all times must obtain
aircraft identification. Inform the aircraft of the authorization from FAA System Operations Security.
CSMM. The OS/CIC should inform you of any ADS−B Out
OFF operations in your area of jurisdiction.
PHRASEOLOGY−
YOUR ADS−B FLIGHT ID DOES NOT MATCH YOUR a. Do not inform such aircraft that their ADS−B
FLIGHT PLAN AIRCRAFT IDENTIFICATION. transmitter appears to be inoperative.
b. Duplicate ICAO Address. If the broadcast b. Do not approve any pilot request for ADS−B
ICAO address is shared with one or more flights in the Out OFF operations. Notify the OS/CIC of the
same ADS−B Service Area (regardless of altitude), request, including the aircraft call sign and location.
and radar reinforcement is not available, target NOTE−
resolution may be lost on one or both targets. 14 CFR Section 91.225(f) requires, in part, that “each
person operating an aircraft equipped with ADS–B Out
NOTE−
must operate this equipment in the transmit mode at all
Duplicate ICAO Address Alerts appear as “DA” and are
times unless otherwise authorized by the FAA when that
associated with the Data Block (DB) on STARS systems.
aircraft is performing a sensitive government mission for
Duplicate ICAO Address Alerts appear as “DUP” and are
national defense, homeland security, intelligence or law
associated with the DB on MEARTS systems. Duplicate
enforcement purposes, and transmitting would compro-
ICAO Address Alerts appear as “Duplicate 24−bit
mise the operations security of the mission or pose a safety
Address” at the AT Specialist Workstation on ERAM
risk to the aircraft, crew, or people and property in the air
systems.
or on the ground.”
c. If a CSMM or Duplicate ICAO address is REFERENCE−
jeopardizing the safe execution of air traffic control FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−2−22, Inoperative or Malfunctioning
ADS−B Transmitter.
functions, instruct the aircraft to stop ADS−B FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 5–4–9, ADS−B Out OFF Operations.
transmissions, and notify the OS/CIC. FAA Order JO 7110.67, Para 11, Responsibilities.

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 3. Radar Identification
5−3−1. APPLICATION 2. Visual reporting points used for RADAR identification

are limited to those most used by pilots and whose range
Before you provide radar service, establish and and azimuth have been determined by supervisory
maintain radar identification of the aircraft involved, personnel.
except as provided in paragraph 5−5−1, Application, c. Observing a target make an identifying turn or
subparagraphs b2, b3 and in paragraph 8−5−5, Radar turns of 30 degrees or more, provided the following
Identification Application. conditions are met:
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−1−9, Use of Tower Radar Displays.
NOTE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−1−1, Presentation and Equipment Use of identifying turns or headings which would cause the
Performance. aircraft to follow normal IFR routes or known VFR flight
paths might result in misidentification. When these
circumstances cannot be avoided, additional methods of
5−3−2. PRIMARY RADAR IDENTIFICATION
identification may be necessary.
METHODS
1. Except in the case of a lost aircraft, a pilot
Identify a primary, radar beacon, or ADS−B target by position report is received which assures you that the
using one of the following methods: aircraft is within radar coverage and within the area
being displayed.
a. Observing a departing aircraft target within
1 mile of the takeoff runway end at airports with an 2. Only one aircraft is observed making these
operating control tower, provided one of the turns.
following methods of coordination is accomplished. 3. For aircraft operating in accordance with an
1. A verbal rolling/boundary notification is IFR clearance, you either issue a heading away from
issued for each departure, or an area which will require an increased minimum IFR
altitude or have the aircraft climb to the highest
2. A nonverbal rolling/boundary notification is minimum altitude in your area of jurisdiction before
used for each departure aircraft. you issue a heading.
Nonverbal notification can be accomplished via the use of FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−12−11, Surveillance Unusable.
a manual or electronic “drop tube” or automation.
b. Observing a target whose position with respect 5−3−3. BEACON/ADS−B IDENTIFICATION
to a fix (displayed on the video map, scribed on the METHODS
map overlay, or displayed as a permanent echo) or a When using only Mode 3/A radar beacon or ADS−B
visual reporting point (whose range and azimuth from to identify a target, use one of the following methods:
the radar antenna has been accurately determined and a. Request the pilot to activate the “IDENT”
made available to the controller) corresponds with a feature of the transponder/ADS−B and then observe
direct position report received from an aircraft, and the identification display.
the observed track is consistent with the reported
PHRASEOLOGY−
heading or route of flight. If a TACAN/VORTAC is
IDENT.
located within 6,000 feet of the radar antenna, the SQUAWK (code) AND IDENT.
TACAN/VORTAC may be used as a reference fix for
radar identification without being displayed on the b. Request the pilot to change to a specific discrete
video map or map overlay. or nondiscrete code, as appropriate, and then observe
the target or code display change. If a code change is
NOTE− required in accordance with Section 2, Beacon/ADS−
1. Establishment of radar identification through use of B Systems, of this chapter, use the codes specified
DME position information can be complicated by the fact
therein.
that some military TACANs are not collocated with
frequency−paired VORs and might be separated from them c. Request the pilot to change their transponder/
by as much as 31 miles. ADS−B to “standby.” After you observe the target
Radar Identification 5−3−1

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disappear for sufficient scans to assure that loss of c. A displaced data block must be updated at all
target resulted from placing the transponder/ADS−B times.
in “standby” position, request the pilot to return the REFERENCE−
transponder to normal operation and then observe the FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−1−9, Use of Tower Radar Displays.
reappearance of the target.
PHRASEOLOGY− 5−3−5. QUESTIONABLE IDENTIFICATION
SQUAWK STANDBY, a. Use more than one method of identification
when proximity of targets, duplication of observed
then
action, or any other circumstances cause doubt as to
SQUAWK NORMAL. target identification.
d. EN ROUTE. An aircraft may be considered b. If identification is questionable for any reason,

identified when the full data block is automatically take immediate action to re−identify the aircraft or
associated with the target symbol of an aircraft that is terminate radar service. Identify the aircraft as
squawking a discrete code assigned by the computer. follows:
NOTE− 1. As described in paragraph 5−3−2, Primary
Paired LDBs in ERAM do not display a beacon code. Radar Identification Methods, or paragraph 5−3−3,
PHRASEOLOGY−
Beacon/ADS−B Identification Methods.
SQUAWK (4 digit discrete code), 2. En route. Ensure that all primary targets are
displayed when radar identification is lost or is
or, if aircraft’s altitude reporting capability is turned off, questionable.
SQUAWK (4 digit discrete code), SQUAWK ALTITUDE. REFERENCE−
NOTE−
The AIM informs pilots to adjust Mode C transponders and 5−3−6. POSITION INFORMATION
ADS−B with altitude reporting capability activated unless
deactivation is requested by ATC. “Squawk altitude” is Inform an aircraft of its position whenever radar
included here to provide applicable phraseology. identification is established by means of identifying
REFERENCE− turns or by any of the beacon identification methods
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−1−9, Use of Tower Radar Displays. outlined in paragraph 5−3−3, Beacon/ADS−B
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−3−6, Position Information.
Identification Methods. Position information need
not be given when identification is established by
5−3−4. TERMINAL AUTOMATION SYSTEMS position correlation or when a departing aircraft is
IDENTIFICATION METHODS identified within 1 mile of the takeoff runway end.
TERMINAL
5−3−7. IDENTIFICATION STATUS
a. Consider an auto-acquired aircraft as identified
when the data block is displayed and is visible to you, a. Inform an aircraft of radar contact when:
and one of the following conditions exist: 1. Initial radar identification in the ATC system
1. The radar or beacon identification procedures is established.
have been used to confirm the identity of the tagged 2. Subsequent to loss of radar contact or
target. terminating radar service, radar identification is
2. The aircraft is being handed off using a NAS reestablished.
automated system and one of the following does not PHRASEOLOGY−
appear in the data block: “CST,” “NAT,” “NT,” RADAR CONTACT (position if required).
“AMB,” “OLD,” or “TRK.” b. Inform an aircraft when radar contact is lost.
b. Use the data block to maintain target identity PHRASEOLOGY−
unless it is in a coast status or displaced from the RADAR CONTACT LOST (alternative instructions when
appropriate target. required).
5−3−2 Radar Identification

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
5−3−8. TARGET MARKERS until the aircraft has exited the sector or delegated
airspace, and all potential conflicts have been
EN ROUTE
resolved; including an aircraft that is a point out. The
Retain data blocks that are associated with the data block must display flight identification and
appropriate target symbol in order to maintain altitude information, as a minimum.
continuous identity of aircraft. Retain the data block NOTE−
until the aircraft has exited the sector or delegated Where delegated airspace extends beyond Class B and/or
airspace, and all potential conflicts have been Class C airspace, the following will apply: If a VFR
resolved; including an aircraft that is a point out. The aircraft is clear of Class B and Class C airspace and radar
data block must display flight identification and services have been terminated then retention of the data
altitude information, as a minimum. The displayed block is no longer required.
altitude may be assigned, interim, or reported. b. During prearranged coordination procedures,
ERAM: When you have separation responsibility for the controllers who penetrate another controller’s
an aircraft and a paired track exists, display a full data airspace must display data block information of that
block (FDB). controller’s aircraft which must contain, at a
minimum, the position symbol and altitude
information.
5−3−9. TARGET MARKERS
REFERENCE−
TERMINAL FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−14, Coordinate Use of Airspace.
a. Retain data blocks that are associated with the FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−4−8, Automated Information Transfer
(AIT).
appropriate target symbol in order to maintain FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−4−9, Prearranged Coordination.
continuous identity of aircraft. Retain the data block FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 3−7−7, Prearranged Coordination.
Radar Identification 5−3−3

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 4. Transfer of Radar Identification
5−4−1. APPLICATION 1. In response to a handoff or point out;

To provide continuous radar service to an aircraft and 2. In anticipation of a handoff or point out; or
facilitate a safe, orderly, and expeditious flow of 3. In conjunction with a request for control of an
traffic, it is often necessary to transfer radar aircraft.
identification of an aircraft from one controller to
another. This section describes the terms, methods, f. Traffic Observed. The term used to inform the
and responsibilities associated with this task. controller issuing the traffic restrictions that the
Interfacility and intrafacility transfers of radar traffic is identified and that the restrictions issued are
identification must be accomplished in all areas of understood and will be complied with.
radar surveillance except where it is not operationally
feasible. Where such constraints exist, they must be: 5−4−3. METHODS
a. Covered in letters of agreement which clearly a. Transfer the radar identification of an aircraft by
state that control will not be based upon a radar at least one of the following methods:
handoff, or 1. Physically point to the target on the receiving
b. Coordinated by the transferring and receiving controller’s display.
controllers for a specified period of time. 2. Use landline voice communications.
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−3−8, Coordination with Receiving 3. Use automation capabilities.
Facility. NOTE−
Automated handoff capabilities are only available when
5−4−2. TERMS FDP is operational.
a. Handoff. An action taken to transfer the radar 4. TERMINAL. Use the “Modify” or “Quick
identification of an aircraft from one controller to Look” functions for data transfer between the
another controller if the aircraft will enter the TRACON and tower cab only if specific procedures
receiving controller’s airspace and radio communica- are established in a facility directive. The local
tions with the aircraft will be transferred. controller has the responsibility to determine whether
or not conditions are adequate for the use of STARS
b. Radar Contact. The term used to inform the data on the TDW.
controller initiating a handoff that the aircraft is REFERENCE−
identified and approval is granted for the aircraft to FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 12−6−4, Use of Stars Quick Look
enter the receiving controller’s airspace. Functions.
c. Point Out. An action taken by a controller to b. When making a handoff, point-out, or issuing
transfer the radar identification of an aircraft to traffic restrictions, relay information to the receiving
another controller and radio communications will not controller in the following order:
be transferred. 1. The position of the target relative to a fix, map
symbol, or radar target known and displayed by both
d. Point Out Approved. The term used to inform
the receiving and transferring controller. Mileage
the controller initiating a point out that the aircraft is
from the reference point may be omitted when
identified and that approval is granted for the aircraft
relaying the position of a target if a full data block
to enter the receiving controller’s airspace, as
associated with the target has been forced on the
coordinated, without a communications transfer or
receiving controller’s radar display.
the appropriate automated system response.
EXAMPLE−
e. Traffic. A term used to transfer radar “Point out, Southwest of Richmond VOR . . ..”
identification of an aircraft to another controller for
2. The aircraft identification, as follows:
the purpose of coordinating separation action. Traffic
is normally issued: (a) The aircraft call sign, or
Transfer of Radar Identification 5−4−1

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(b) The discrete beacon code of the aircraft TRAFFIC OBSERVED,

during interfacility point-outs only, if both the
receiving and the transferring controllers agree. or
NOTE− UNABLE (appropriate information, as required).

Acceptance of a point-out using the discrete beacon code
as the aircraft’s identification constitutes agreement. d. If any doubt as to target identification exists
after attempting confirmation in accordance with this
(c) EN ROUTE. The Computer Identification section, apply the provisions of paragraph 5−3−5,
Number (CID) during intrafacility point-outs. Questionable Identification.
EXAMPLE− REFERENCE−
“Point Out, Southwest of Richmond VOR, C-I-D 123…” FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−2−15, Validation of Mode C Readout.
3. The assigned altitude, appropriate

restrictions, and information that the aircraft is 5−4−4. TRAFFIC
climbing or descending, if applicable, except when a. When using the term “traffic” for coordinating
inter/intrafacility directives ensure that the altitude separation, the controller issuing traffic must issue
information will be known by the receiving appropriate restrictions.
controller.
b. The controller accepting the restrictions must
NOTE−
be responsible to ensure that approved separation is
When physically pointing to the target, you do not have to
state the aircraft position.
maintained between the involved aircraft.
4. Advise the receiving controller of pertinent

5−4−5. TRANSFERRING CONTROLLER
information not contained in the data block or
HANDOFF
available flight data unless covered in an LOA or
facility directive. Pertinent information may include: Unless otherwise coordinated or specified in an LOA
or facility directive, the transferring controller must:
(a) Assigned heading.
a. Complete a handoff prior to an aircraft entering
(b) Speed/altitude restrictions.
the airspace delegated to the receiving controller.
(c) Observed track or deviation from the last
b. Verbally obtain the receiving controller’s
route clearance.
approval prior to making any changes to an aircraft’s
(d) Any other pertinent information. flight path, altitude, speed, or data block information
while the handoff is being initiated or after
PHRASEOLOGY−
HANDOFF/POINT−OUT/TRAFFIC (aircraft position), acceptance.
(aircraft ID or discrete beacon code), (altitude, c. Advise the receiving controller of pertinent
restrictions, and other pertinent information, if information not contained in the data block or flight
applicable).
progress strip, including:
c. When receiving a handoff, point-out, or traffic
1. Assigned heading.
restrictions, respond to the transferring controller as
follows: 2. Airspeed restrictions.
PHRASEOLOGY− 3. Altitude information issued.
(Aircraft ID) (restrictions, if applicable) RADAR
CONTACT, 4. Observed track or deviation from the last
route clearance.
or
5. The beacon code, if different from that
(aircraft ID or discrete beacon code) (restrictions, if normally used or previously coordinated.
applicable) POINT-OUT APPROVED, 6. Any other pertinent information.
or d. Initiate verbal coordination to verify the
position of primary or nondiscrete targets, except for
5−4−2 Transfer of Radar Identification

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
intrafacility automated handoffs in STARS, ERAM, FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 4−3−8, Automated Information Transfer
(AIT).
or MEARTS in Fused Display Mode.
e. Initiate verbal coordination before transferring 5−4−6. RECEIVING CONTROLLER
control of a track when “CST,” “FAIL,” “NONE,” HANDOFF
“IF,” “NT,” or “TRK” is displayed in the data block.
The receiving controller must:
f. Advise the receiving controller if radar
a. Ensure that the target position corresponds with
monitoring is required.
the position given by the transferring controller or
REFERENCE− that there is an appropriate association between an
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−4−2, Route Structure Transitions. automated data block and the target being transferred
before accepting a handoff.
g. Consider the target being transferred as
REFERENCE−
identified on the receiving controller’s display when FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−14, Coordinate Use of Airspace.
the receiving controller acknowledges receipt FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−15, Control Transfer.
verbally or accepts the automated handoff. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−4−5, Transferring Controller Handoff.
b. Issue restrictions that are needed for the aircraft

h. Prior to transferring communications:
to enter your sector safely before accepting the
1. Resolve any potential violations of adjacent handoff.
airspace and potential conflicts with other aircraft in c. Comply with restrictions issued by the
your area of jurisdiction. transferring controller unless otherwise coordinated.
2. Coordinate with any controller whose area of d. After accepting a handoff from another facility,
jurisdiction the aircraft will transit prior to entering confirm the identification of a primary target by
the receiving controller’s area of jurisdiction. advising the aircraft of its position, and of a
3. Forward to the receiving controller any nondiscrete beacon target by observing a code
restrictions issued to ensure separation. change, an “ident” reply, or a “standby” squawk
unless one of these was used during handoff. These
4. Comply with restrictions issued by the provisions do not apply at those towers and GCAs
receiving controller. that have been delegated the responsibility for
providing radar separation within designated areas by
i. Comply with the provisions of paragraph the overlying approach control facility and the
2−1−17, Radio Communications. To the extent aircraft identification is assured by sequencing or
possible, transfer communications when the handoff positioning prior to the handoff.
has been accepted.
REFERENCE−
NOTE− FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−9−5, Approach Separation
Before the STARS “modify/quick look” function is used to Responsibility.
effect a handoff, a facility directive that specifies e. Consider a beacon target’s identity to be
communication transfer points is required. confirmed when:
j. After transferring communications, continue to 1. The data block associated with the target
comply with the requirements of subparagraphs h1 being handed off indicates the computer assigned
and h2. discrete beacon code is being received; or
k. Before releasing control of the aircraft, issue 2. You observe the deletion of a discrete code
restrictions to the receiving controller that are that was displayed in the data block; or
necessary to maintain separation from other aircraft
NOTE−
within your area of jurisdiction. When the beacon code received from the aircraft does not
REFERENCE− match the computer assigned beacon code, the code
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−14, Coordinate Use of Airspace. received (ERAM, MEARTS) or the site−adapted code
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−15, Control Transfer.
(received, computer−assigned, or both for STARS) will be
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−4−8, Automated Information Transfer displayed in the data block. When the aircraft changes to
(AIT). the computer assigned code, the code is automatically

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
removed from the data block. In this instance, the (b) TERMINAL: Automated point out ap-
observance of code removal from the data block satisfies proval may be utilized in lieu of verbal provided the
confirmation requirements. procedures are contained in a facility directive/LOA.
3. You observe the numeric display of a discrete 2. Obtain the receiving controller’s approval
code that an aircraft has been instructed to squawk or before making any changes to an aircraft’s flight path,
reports squawking. altitude, speed, or data block information after the
f. Take the identified action prior to accepting point out has been approved.
control of a track when the following indicators are 3. Comply with restrictions issued by the
displayed in the data block: receiving controller unless otherwise coordinated.
1. “AMB”: advise the other facility that a 4. Be responsible for subsequent radar handoffs
disparity exists between the position declared by their and communications transfer, including flight data
computer and that declared by your STARS system. revisions and coordination, unless otherwise agreed
to by the receiving controller or as specified in a LOA.
2. “NAT” or “NT”: advise the other facility if a
disparity exists between the position declared by their b. The receiving controller must:
computer and the actual target position.
1. Ensure that the target position corresponds
3. “DATA,” “CST,” “NONE,” or “OLD”: with the position given by the transferring controller
initiate verbal coordination. or that there is an association between a computer
data block and the target being transferred prior to
g. ERAM: Notify the OS/CIC when a MISM is approving a point out.
displayed in the data block.
2. Be responsible for separation between point
h. Advise the transferring controller as soon as out aircraft and other aircraft for which he/she has
possible if you will delay the climb or descent of the separation responsibility.
aircraft through the vertical limits of that controller’s
area of jurisdiction, unless otherwise specified in an 3. Issue restrictions necessary to provide
LOA or a facility directive. separation from other aircraft within his/her area of
jurisdiction.
5−4−7. POINT OUT 5−4−8. AUTOMATED INFORMATION

TRANSFER (AIT)
a. The transferring controller must:
Transfer radar identification, altitude control, and/or
1. Obtain approval before permitting an aircraft en route fourth line control information, without
to enter the receiving controller’s delegated airspace. verbal coordination under the following conditions:
(a) EN ROUTE: Automated approval may be a. During radar handoff; and
utilized in lieu of verbal approval. If the receiving b. Via information displayed in full data blocks;
controller takes no action, revert to verbal proce- and
dures.
c. When following procedures specified in your
NOTE−
facility AIT directive and/or LOA.
1. Use fourth line data for aircraft not on their flight plan
route. NOTE−
Information transferred using AIT procedures may be
2. Where specified in a letter of agreement, some facilities
bi−directional, and may involve more than two sectors.
may restrict interfacility automated point outs.
Complete coordination, awareness of traffic flow, and
REFERENCE− understanding of each position’s responsibilities concern-
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−10−1, En Route Or Oceanic Sector
ing AIT procedures cannot be overemphasized.
Team Responsibilities.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−4−3, Methods. REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−4−10, En Route Fourth Line Data FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−4−10, En Route Fourth Line Data
Block Usage. Block Usage.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−14−3, Computer Entry of Flight Plan FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 4−3−8, Automated Information Transfer
Information. (AIT).

12/2/21
6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z CHG 1
JO 7110.65Z
5−4−9. PREARRANGED COORDINATION REFERENCE−

FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−4−8, Automated Information Transfer
(AIT).
Prearranged coordination allowing aircraft under FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 4−3−8, Automated Information Transfer
your control to enter another controller’s area of (AIT).
jurisdiction may only be approved provided
d. Coordination format for assigned headings
procedures are established and published in a facility
must use the designation character “H” preceding a
directive/LOA in accordance with FAA Order JO
three−digit number.
7210.3, paragraph 3−6−6, Prearranged Coordination.
EXAMPLE−
NOTE− H080, H270
Under no circumstances may one controller permit an
aircraft to enter another’s airspace without proper e. Aircraft assigned a heading until receiving a fix
coordination. Coordination can be accomplished by or joining a published route must be designated with
several means; i.e., radar handoff, automated information assigned heading format followed by the fix or route.
transfer, verbal, point−out, and by prearranged
coordination procedures identified in a facility directive EXAMPLE−
that clearly describe the correct application. Airspace H080/ALB, 080/J121, PH/ALB
boundaries should not be permitted to become barriers to NOTE−
the efficient movement of traffic. In addition, complete 1. The notation “PH” may be used to denote present
coordination, awareness of traffic flow, and understanding heading.
of each position’s responsibility concerning penetration of
2. The character “H” may be omitted as a prefix to the
another’s airspace cannot be overemphasized.
heading assignment only if necessary due to character field
REFERENCE− limitations, and it does not impede understanding.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−4−3, Methods. f. Coordination format for weather deviations
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−4−8, Automated Information Transfer
(AIT). must use the designated characters:
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 3−6−6, Prearranged Coordination. D-deviation
L-left
5−4−10. EN ROUTE FOURTH LINE DATA R-right
BLOCK USAGE N-north
E-east
a. The fourth line of the data block must be S-south
displayed. When used for forwarding control W-west
information, only the specified messages listed in this /F – direct next NAVAID/waypoint
section may be used. Any additional control D+2 headings – deviate between.
information must be forwarded via other
NOTE−
communications methods. Free text may be used by 1. Two digits specify turns in degrees and must include
individual sector teams for recording information the direction character(s). Three digits specify heading(s).
team deems appropriate for managing the sector, but
2. The inclusion of a /NAVAID, /waypoint, or /F indicates
must be removed prior to initiation of identification
that the pilot has been authorized to deviate for weather
transfer.
and must rejoin the route at the next NAVAID, waypoint, or
REFERENCE− fix in the route of flight in accordance with the phraseology
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−4−5, Transferring Controller Handoff, in paragraph 2−6−4.
subpara b.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−4−8, Automated Information Transfer EXAMPLE−
(AIT).
D90/ATL, DL/KD75U, D090/F
b. The en route fourth line data block area must be
used for coordination purposes only in association 3. The absence of a NAVAID, waypoint, or /F indicates that
with radar identified aircraft. the pilot has been authorized to deviate for weather only,
and the receiving controller must provide a clearance to
c. When automated information transfer (AIT) rejoin the route in accordance with subparagraph
procedures are applied, en route fourth line usage for 2−1−15c.
transfer of control information must be specifically EXAMPLE−
defined within facility AIT directive. DN, D20L, D30R, D080+120

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
g. Coordination format for assigned airspeeds EXAMPLE−

must use the designation character “S” preceding a RQ170, RQ410
three−digit number.
k. Coordination format for aircraft requesting a
NOTE−
route change must use the designation “RQ/”
A “+” notation may be added to denote an assigned speed
at or greater than the displayed value. A “−” notation may preceding a specific fix identifier.
be added to denote an assigned speed at or less than the
displayed value. EXAMPLE−
RQ/LAX, RQ/NEUTO
EXAMPLE−
S210, S250, S250+, S280−
l. The acceptance of a handoff by the receiving
h. Aircraft assigned a Mach number must use the controller must constitute receipt of the information
designation “M” preceding the two−digit assigned contained within the en route fourth line data block.
value. This information must not be modified outside of the
EXAMPLE− controller’s area of jurisdiction unless verbally
M80, M80+, M80− coordinated or specified in a Letter of Agreement or
REFERENCE− Facility Directive. It is the responsibility of the
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−4−10, En Route Fourth Line Data receiving controller to advise the transferring
Block Usage, subpara g NOTE. controller if any information is not understood, or
i. Aircraft authorized to conduct celestial needs to be revised.
navigation training within 30 NM of the route
centerline specified within the en route clearance. NOTE−
Due to system and character limitations the usage of these
EXAMPLE−
standardized entries may require additional support via
CELNAV
facility directive in order to provide complete coordination.
j. Coordination format for aircraft requesting an
altitude change must use the designation characters m. All other control information must be
“RQ” preceding a three−digit number. coordinated via other methods.

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 5. Radar Separation
5−5−1. APPLICATION (3) Narrowband radar operations−

10 miles; and
a. Radar separation must be applied to all RNAV
aircraft operating at and below FL450 on Q routes or (d) Radar separation is maintained between
random RNAV routes, excluding oceanic airspace. the radar-identified aircraft and all observed primary,
ASR−9/Full Digital Radar Primary Symbol, and
EXCEPTION. GNSS-equipped aircraft /G, /L, /S, secondary radar targets until nonradar separation is
and /V on point−to−point routes, or transitioning established from the aircraft not radar identified; and
between two point−to−point routes via an impromptu
(e) When the aircraft involved are on the same
route.
relative heading, the radar-identified aircraft is
REFERENCE− vectored a sufficient distance from the route of the
FAA Order JO 7110.5, Para 2−3−8, Aircraft Equipment Suffixes.
FAA Order JO 7110.5, TBL 2−3−10, Aircraft Equipment Suffixes aircraft not radar identified to assure the targets are
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−4−1, Route Use. not superimposed prior to issuing the clearance to
AIM, Para 5−1−8, Area Navigation (RNAV). climb/descend.
AIM, Para 5−3−4, Area Navigation (RNAV) Routes.
P/CG Term − Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS)[ICAO]. REFERENCE−
P/CG Term − Global Positioning Satellite/ Wide Area Augmentation FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−1−2, Exceptions.
Minimum En Route IFR Altitude (GPS/WAAS MEA). FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−4−1, Route Use.
P/CG Term – Parallel Offset Route. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−3−1, Application.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−5−8, Additional Separation for
b. Radar separation may be applied between: Formation Flights.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−9−5, Approach Separation
1. Radar identified aircraft. Responsibility.
4. A radar-identified aircraft and one not
2. An aircraft taking off and another radar
radar-identified that is in transit from oceanic
identified aircraft when the aircraft taking off will be
airspace or non-radar offshore airspace into an area of
radar-identified within 1 mile of the runway end.
known radar coverage where radar separation is
3. A radar-identified aircraft and one not applied as specified in paragraph 8−5−5, Radar
radar-identified when either is cleared to climb/ Identification Application, until the transiting aircraft
descend through the altitude of the other provided: is radar-identified or the controller establishes other
approved separation in the event of a delay or
(a) The performance of the radar system is inability to establish radar identification of the
adequate and, as a minimum, primary radar targets or transiting aircraft.
ASR−9/Full Digital Radar Primary Symbol targets
REFERENCE−
are being displayed on the display being used within FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−2−6, IFR Flight Progress Data.
the airspace within which radar separation is being FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−1−1, Presentation and Equipment
Performance.
applied; and FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−3−1, Application.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 8−1−8, Use of Control Estimates.
(b) Flight data on the aircraft not radar- FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 8−5−5, Radar Separation.
identified indicate it is a type which can be expected
to give adequate primary/ASR−9/Full Digital Radar 5−5−2. TARGET SEPARATION
Primary Symbol return in the area where separation Apply radar separation:
is applied; and
a. Between the centers of primary radar targets;
(c) The airspace within which radar separa- however, do not allow a primary target to touch
tion is applied is not less than the following number another primary target or a beacon control slash.
of miles from the edge of the radar display:
b. Between the ends of beacon control slashes.
(1) When less than 40 miles from the c. Between the end of a beacon control slash and
antenna− 6 miles; the center of a primary target.
(2) When 40 miles or more from the d. All−digital displays. Between the centers of
antenna− 10 miles; digital targets; do not allow digital targets to touch.
Radar Separation 5−5−1

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−9−7, Simultaneous Independent In the event of an unexpected ISR on one or more aircraft,
Approaches− Dual & Triple.
the ATCS working that aircraft must transition from 3-mile
to 5-mile separation, or establish some other form of
5−5−3. TARGET RESOLUTION approved separation (visual or vertical) as soon as
feasible. This action must be timely, but taken in a
a. A process to ensure that correlated radar targets reasonable fashion, using the controller’s best judgment,
or digitized targets do not touch. as not to reduce safety or the integrity of the traffic
situation. For example, if ISR appears when an aircraft is
b. Mandatory traffic advisories and safety alerts
established on final with another aircraft on short final, it
must be issued when this procedure is used. would be beneficial from a safety perspective to allow the
NOTE− trailing aircraft to continue the approach and land rather
This procedure must not be provided utilizing mosaic radar than terminate a stabilized approach.
systems. 3. If TRK appears in the data block, handle in
c. Target resolution must be applied as follows: accordance with paragraph 5−3−7, Identification
Status, subparagraph b, and take appropriate steps to
1. Between the edges of two primary targets or establish non-radar separation.
the edges of primary digitized targets.
4. ADS-B may be integrated as an additional
2. Between the end of the beacon control slash surveillance source when operating in FUSION
and the edge of a primary target or primary digitized mode. The display of ADS-B targets is permitted and
target. does not require radar reinforcement.
3. Between the ends of two beacon control NOTE−
slashes. ADS-B surveillance must only be used when operating in
FUSION.
5−5−4. MINIMA 5. The use of ADS-B only information may be

used to support all radar requirements associated with
Separate aircraft by the following minima: any published instrument procedure that is annotated
a. TERMINAL. Single Sensor ASR or Digital “Radar Required”.
Terminal Automation System (DTAS): 6. The ADS-B Computer Human Interface
NOTE−
(CHI) may be implemented by facilities on a sector by
Includes single sensor long range radar mode. sector or facility wide basis when the determination
is made that utilization of the ADS-B CHI provides
1. When less than 40 miles from the antenna− an operational advantage to the controller.
3 miles.
c. EBUS, Terminal Mosaic/Multi-Sensor Mode
2. When 40 miles or more from the antenna− NOTE−
5 miles. Mosaic/Multi−Sensor Mode combines radar input from 2
3. For single sensor ASR−9 with Mode S, when to 16 sites into a single picture utilizing a mosaic grid
composed of radar sort boxes.
less than 60 miles from the antenna− 3 miles.
1. Below FL 600− 5 miles.
4. For single sensor ASR−11 MSSR Beacon,
when less than 60 miles from the antenna− 3 miles. 2. At or above FL 600− 10 miles.
NOTE− 3. Facility directives may specify 3 miles for
Wake turbulence procedures specify increased separation areas meeting all of the following conditions:
minima required for certain classes of aircraft because of (a) Radar site adaptation is set to single
the possible effects of wake turbulence. sensor.
b. TERMINAL. FUSION: (b) Significant operational advantages can be
1. Fusion target symbol – 3 miles. obtained.
2. When displaying ISR in the data block- 5 (c) Within 40 miles of the antenna.
miles. (d) Up to and including FL 230.
5−5−2 Radar Separation

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
(e) Facility directives specifically define the approved areas. It is not required for and does not affect the
area where the separation can be applied and define use of radar for 3 NM separation.
the requirements for displaying the area on the 4. When transitioning from terminal to en route
controller’s display. control, 3 miles increasing to 5 miles or greater,
REFERENCE− provided:
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 8−2−1, Three Mile Airspace Operations.
(a) The aircraft are on diverging routes/
4. When transitioning from terminal to en route courses, and/or
control, 3 miles increasing to 5 miles or greater,
provided: (b) The leading aircraft is and will remain
faster than the following aircraft; and
(a) The aircraft are on diverging routes/
courses, and/or (c) Separation constantly increasing and the
first center controller will establish 5 NM or other
(b) The leading aircraft is and will remain appropriate form of separation prior to the aircraft
faster than the following aircraft; and departing the first center sector; and
(c) Separation constantly increasing and the (d) The procedure is covered by a letter of
first center controller will establish 5 NM or other agreement between the facilities involved and limited
appropriate form of separation prior to the aircraft to specified routes and/or sectors/positions.
departing the first center sector; and
REFERENCE−
(d) The procedure is covered by a letter of FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 8−2−1, Three Mile Airspace Operations.
agreement between the facilities involved and limited e. MEARTS Mosaic Mode:
to specified routes and/or sectors/positions.
1. Below FL 600- 5 miles.
d. ERAM:
2. At or above FL 600- 10 miles.
1. Below FL 600- 5 miles. 3. For areas meeting all of the following
2. At or above FL 600- 10 miles. conditions – 3 miles:
3. Up to and including FL 230 where all the (a) Radar site adaptation is set to single sensor
following conditions are met – 3 miles: mode.
(a) Within the 3 NM separation area, and: NOTE−
1. Single Sensor Mode displays information from the
(1) Within 40 NM of the preferred radar; or radar input of a single site.
(2) Within 60 NM of the preferred radar 2. Procedures to convert MEARTS Mosaic Mode to
MEARTS Single Sensor Mode at each PVD/MDM will be
when using ASR−9 with Mode S or ASR−11 MSSR
established by facility directive.
Beacon; or
(b) Significant operational advantages can be
(3) When operating in track−based display obtained.
mode.
(c) Within 40 NM of the sensor or within 60
(b) The preferred sensor and/or ADS−B is NM of the sensor when using ASR−9 with Mode S or
providing reliable targets. ASR−11 MSSR Beacon and within the 3 NM
(c) Facility directives specifically define the separation area.
3 NM separation area. (d) Up to and including FL230.
(d) The 3 NM separation area is displayable (e) Facility directives specifically define the
on the video map. area where the separation can be applied and define
(e) Involved aircraft are displayed using the 3 the requirements for displaying the area on the
NM target symbol. controller’s PVD/MDM.
NOTE− 4. MEARTS Mosaic Mode Utilizing Single
ADS−B allows the expanded use of 3 NM separation in Source Polygon (San Juan CERAP and Honolulu

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
Control Facility only) when meeting all of the 1. When operating within 2,500 feet of the flight
following conditions– 3 miles: path of the leading aircraft over the surface of the
earth and less than 1,000 feet below:
(a) Up to and including FL230 within 40
miles from the antenna or within 60 NM when using (a) TERMINAL. Behind super:
ASR−9 with Mode S or ASR−11 MSSR Beacon and
targets are from the adapted sensor. (1) Heavy - 6 miles.
(b) The single source polygon must be (2) Large - 7 miles.

displayed on the controller’s PVD/MDM. (3) Small - 8 miles.
(c) Significant operational advantages can be (b) EN ROUTE. Behind super - 5 miles,
obtained. unless the super is operating at or below FL240 and
(d) Facility directives specifically define the below 250 knots, then:
single source polygon area where the separation can (1) Heavy - 6 miles.
be applied and specify procedures to be used.
(2) Large - 7 miles.
(e) Controller must commence a transition to
achieve either vertical separation or 5 mile lateral (3) Small - 8 miles.
separation in the event that either target is not from
(c) Behind heavy:
the adapted sensor.
(1) Heavy - 4 miles.
f. STARS Multi−Sensor Mode:
NOTE− (2) Large or small - 5 miles.
1. In Multi−Sensor Mode, STARS displays targets as filled 2. Separate small aircraft behind a B757 by 4
and unfilled boxes, depending upon the target’s distance
miles when operating within 2,500 feet of the flight
from the radar site providing the data. Since there is
presently no way to identify which specific site is providing
path of the leading aircraft over the surface of the
data for any given target, utilize separation standards for earth and/or less than 500 feet below.
targets 40 or more miles from the antenna. 3. TERMINAL. When departing parallel
2. When operating in STARS Single Sensor Mode, if TRK runways separated by less than 2,500 feet, the 2,500
appears in the data block, handle in accordance with feet requirement in subparagraph 2 is not required
paragraph 5−3−7, Identification Status, subparagraph b, when a small departs the parallel runway behind a
and take appropriate steps to establish nonradar B757. Issue a wake turbulence cautionary advisory
separation. and instructions that will establish lateral separation
3. TRK appears in the data block whenever the aircraft is in accordance with subparagraph 2. Do not issue
being tracked by a radar site other than the radar currently instructions that will allow the small to pass behind
selected. Current equipment limitations preclude a target the B757.
from being displayed in the single sensor mode; however,
a position symbol and data block, including altitude NOTE−
information, will still be displayed. Therefore, low altitude 1. The application of paragraph 5−8−3, Successive or
alerts must be provided in accordance with paragraph Simultaneous Departures, satisfies this requirement.
2−1−6, Safety Alert. 2. Consider runways separated by less than 700 feet as a
single runway because of the possible effects of wake
WAKE TURBULENCE APPLICATION turbulence.
g. Separate aircraft operating directly behind or WAKE TURBULENCE APPLICATION

following an aircraft conducting an instrument
approach by the minima specified and in accordance h. In addition to subparagraph g, separate an
with the following: aircraft landing behind another aircraft on the same
NOTE− runway, or one making a touch-and-go, stop-and-go,
Consider parallel runways less than 2,500 feet apart as a or low approach by ensuring the following minima
single runway because of the possible effects of wake will exist at the time the preceding aircraft is over the
turbulence. landing threshold:

12/2/21
6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z CHG 1
JO 7110.65Z
NOTE− 5−5−5. VERTICAL APPLICATION

Consider parallel runways less than 2,500 feet apart as a
single runway because of the possible effects of wake
Aircraft not laterally separated, may be vertically
turbulence. separated by one of the following methods:
a. Assign altitudes to aircraft, provided valid
1. Small behind large− 4 miles. Mode C altitude information is monitored and the
applicable separation minima is maintained at all
2. Small behind heavy− 6 miles.
times.
If the landing threshold cannot be determined, apply REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−5−1, Vertical Separation Minima.
the above minima as constant or increasing at the FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−2−15, Validation of Mode C Readout.
closest point that can be determined prior to the FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−7−3, Separation.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−8−3, Separation.
landing threshold. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−9−4, Separation.
i. TERMINAL. When NOWGT is displayed in an b. Assign an altitude to an aircraft after the aircraft
aircraft data block, provide 10 miles separation previously at that altitude has been issued a
behind the preceding aircraft and 10 miles separation climb/descent clearance and is observed (valid
to the succeeding aircraft. Mode C), or reports leaving the altitude.
NOTE−
j. TERMINAL. 2.5 nautical miles (NM) separa- 1. Consider known aircraft performance characteristics,
tion is authorized between aircraft established on the pilot furnished and/or Mode C detected information which
final approach course within 10 NM of the landing indicate that climb/descent will not be consistent with the
runway when operating in FUSION, or single sensor rates recommended in the AIM.
slant range mode if the aircraft remains within 40 2. It is possible that the separation minima described in
miles of the antenna and: paragraph 4−5−1 , Vertical Separation Minima, para-
graph 7−7−3 , Separation, paragraph 7−8−3 , Separation,
1. The leading aircraft’s weight class is the same or paragraph 7−9−4, Separation, might not always be
or less than the trailing aircraft; maintained using subparagraph b. However, correct
application of this procedure will ensure that aircraft are
2. Super and heavy aircraft are permitted to safely separated because the first aircraft must have
participate in the separation reduction as the trailing already vacated the altitude prior to the assignment of that
aircraft only; altitude to the second aircraft.
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−3, Procedural Preference.
3. An average runway occupancy time of FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−5−1, Vertical Separation Minima.
50 seconds or less is documented; FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−2−15, Validation of Mode C Readout.
4. CTRDs are operational and used for quick
glance references; 5−5−6. EXCEPTIONS
a. Do not use Mode C to effect vertical separation
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−1−9 , Use of Tower Radar Displays. with an aircraft on a cruise clearance, contact
approach, or as specified in paragraph 5−15−4,
5. Turnoff points are visible from the control System Requirements, subparagraph f3.
tower. REFERENCE−
REFERENCE− FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−4−6, Contact Approach.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−19, Wake Turbulence. P/CG Term − Cruise.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−5−7, Passing or Diverging. b. Assign an altitude to an aircraft only after the
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−5−9, Separation from Obstructions. aircraft previously at that altitude is observed at or
Departures. passing through another altitude separated from the
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−9−5, Approach Separation first by the appropriate minima when:
Responsibility.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−6−7, Sequencing. 1. Severe turbulence is reported.
FAA Order JO 7110.65 Para 7−8−3, Separation.
2. Aircraft are conducting military aerial
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 10−4−10, Reduced Separation on Final. refueling.

JO
JO 7110.65Z
7110.65R CHG
7110.65Z CHG
2 1 12/2/21
3/15/07
6/17/21
REFERENCE− with an angular difference of at least 45 degrees, is

FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 9−2−13, Military Aerial Refueling. considered a correct application of this paragraph.
3. The aircraft previously at that altitude has
(b) The tracks are monitored to ensure that the
been issued a climb/descent at pilot’s discretion.
primary targets, beacon control slashes, FUSION
c. EN ROUTE. When the position symbol target symbols, or full digital terminal system
associated with the data block falls more than one primary and/or beacon target symbols will not touch.
history behind the actual aircraft target or there is no
target symbol displayed, the Mode C information in 3. Although approved separation may be
the data block must not be used for the purpose of discontinued, the requirements of paragraph 5−5−4,
determining separation. Minima, subparagraph g must be applied when wake
turbulence separation is required.
REFERENCE−
5−5−7. PASSING OR DIVERGING FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 1−2−2, Course Definitions.
a. TERMINAL. In accordance with the following NOTE−

criteria, all other approved separation may be Apply en route separation rules when using multi−sensor
discontinued and passing or diverging separation mode.
applied when: b. EN ROUTE. Vertical separation between
1. Single Site ASR or FUSION Mode aircraft may be discontinued when they are on
opposite courses as defined in paragraph 1−2−2,
(a) Aircraft are on opposite/reciprocal Course Definitions; and
courses and you have observed that they have passed
each other; or aircraft are on same or crossing 1. You are in communications with both aircraft
courses/assigned radar vectors and one aircraft has involved; and
crossed the projected course of the other, and the
2. You tell the pilot of one aircraft about the
angular difference between their courses/assigned
other aircraft, including position, direction, type; and
radar vectors is at least 15 degrees.
NOTE− 3. One pilot reports having seen the other
Two aircraft, both assigned courses and/or radar vectors aircraft and that the aircraft have passed each other;
with an angular difference of at least 15 degrees, is and
considered a correct application of this paragraph.
4. You have observed that the radar targets have
(b) The tracks are monitored to ensure that the passed each other; and
primary targets, beacon control slashes, FUSION
target symbols, or full digital terminal system 5. You have advised the pilots if either aircraft
primary and/or beacon target symbols will not touch. is classified as a super or heavy aircraft.
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 1−2−2, Course Definitions. 6. Although vertical separation may be discon-
tinued, the requirements of paragraph 5−5−4,
2. Single Site ARSR or FUSION Mode when Minima, subparagraph g must be applied when wake
target refresh is only from an ARSR or when in turbulence separation is required.
FUSION Mode − ISR is displayed.
EXAMPLE−
(a) Aircraft are on opposite/reciprocal “Traffic, twelve o’clock, Boeing Seven Twenty Seven,
courses and you have observed that they have passed opposite direction. Do you have it in sight?”
each other; or aircraft are on same or crossing
courses/assigned radar vectors and one aircraft has (If the answer is in the affirmative):
crossed the projected course of the other, and the
angular difference between their courses/assigned “Report passing the traffic.”
radar vectors is at least 45 degrees.
(When pilot reports passing the traffic and the radar
NOTE− targets confirm that the traffic has passed, issue
Two aircraft, both assigned courses and/or radar vectors appropriate control instructions.)

12/2/21
6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z CHG 1
JO 7110.65Z
5−5−8. ADDITIONAL SEPARATION FOR 3. For single sensor ASR−9 with Mode S, when
FORMATION FLIGHTS less than 60 miles from the antenna – 3 miles.
Because of the distance allowed between formation 4. For single sensor ASR−11 MSSR Beacon,
aircraft and lead aircraft, additional separation is when less than 60 miles from the antenna – 3 miles.
necessary to ensure the periphery of the formation is 5. FUSION:
adequately separated from other aircraft, adjacent
airspace, or obstructions. Provide supplemental (a) Fusion target symbol – 3 miles.
separation for formation flights as follows: (b) When ISR is displayed – 5 miles.
a. Separate a standard formation flight by adding NOTE−
1 mile to the appropriate radar separation minima. When operating in FUSION, distances from the antenna
listed in paragraph 5−5−9, a1 through a4, do not apply.
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−13, Formation Flights. b. TERMINAL. Vertical separation of aircraft
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−5−1, Application. above a prominent obstruction depicted on the radar
P/CG Term − Formation Flight. display and contained within a buffer area may be
discontinued after the aircraft has passed the
b. Separate two standard formation flights from obstruction.
each other by adding 2 miles to the appropriate
separation minima. c. EAS. Apply the radar separation minima
specified in paragraph 5−5−4, Minima.
c. Separate a nonstandard formation flight by
applying the appropriate separation minima to the
5−5−10. ADJACENT AIRSPACE
perimeter of the airspace encompassing the
nonstandard formation or from the outermost aircraft a. If coordination between the controllers
of the nonstandard formation whichever applies. concerned has not been effected, separate
radar-controlled aircraft from the boundary of
d. If necessary for separation between a adjacent airspace in which radar separation is also
nonstandard formation and other aircraft, assign an being used by the following minima:
appropriate beacon code to each aircraft in the
REFERENCE−
formation or to the first and last aircraft in-trail. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−14 , Coordinate Use of Airspace.
NOTE− 1. When less than 40 miles from the antenna−
The additional separation provided in paragraph 5−5−8, 1 1/2 miles.
Additional Separation for Formation Flights, is not
normally added to wake turbulence separation when a 2. When 40 miles or more from the antenna−
formation is following a heavier aircraft since none of the 2 1/2 miles.
formation aircraft are likely to be closer to the heavier
3. EAS:
aircraft than the lead aircraft (to which the prescribed
wake turbulence separation has been applied). (a) Below Flight Level 600− 2 1/2 miles.
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 9−2−13 , Military Aerial Refueling.
(b) Flight Level 600 and above− 5 miles.
b. Separate radar-controlled aircraft from the
5−5−9. SEPARATION FROM boundary of airspace in which nonradar separation is
OBSTRUCTIONS being used by the following minima:
1. When less than 40 miles from the antenna−
a. TERMINAL. Separate aircraft from prominent 3 miles.
obstructions depicted on the radar display by the
following minima: 2. When 40 miles or more from the antenna−
5 miles.
1. When less than 40 miles from the antenna−
3 miles. 3. EAS:
(a) Below Flight Level 600− 5 miles.
2. When 40 miles or more from the antenna−
5 miles. (b) Flight Level 600 and above− 10 miles.

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c. The provisions of subparagraphs a and b do not a. When less than 40 miles from the antenna−
apply to VFR aircraft being provided Class B, Class 3 miles from edge of scope.
C, or TRSA services. Ensure that the targets of these
aircraft do not touch the boundary of adjacent b. When 40 miles or more from the antenna−
airspace. 5 miles from edge of scope.
d. VFR aircraft approaching Class B, Class C, c. EAS:

Class D, or TRSA airspace which is under the 1. Below Flight Level 600− 5 miles.
control jurisdiction of another air traffic control
facility should either be provided with a radar handoff 2. Flight Level 600 and above− 10 miles.
or be advised that radar service is terminated, given
their position in relation to the Class B, Class C, 5−5−12. BEACON TARGET
Class D, or TRSA airspace, and the ATC frequency, DISPLACEMENT
if known, for the airspace to be entered. These actions
should be accomplished in sufficient time for the pilot When using a radar target display with a previously
to obtain the required ATC approval prior to entering specified beacon target displacement to separate a
the airspace involved, or to avoid the airspace. beacon target from a primary target, adjacent
airspace, obstructions, or terrain, add a 1 mile
5−5−11. EDGE OF SCOPE correction factor to the applicable minima. The
maximum allowable beacon target displacement
Separate a radar-controlled aircraft climbing or which may be specified by the facility air traffic
descending through the altitude of an aircraft that has manager is 1/2 mile.
been tracked to the edge of the scope/display by the
REFERENCE−
following minima until nonradar separation has been FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 3−6−4, Monitoring of Mode 3/A Radar
established: Beacon Codes.

12/2/21
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JO 7110.65Z
Section 6. Vectoring
5−6−1. APPLICATION PHRASEOLOGY−

TURN LEFT/RIGHT HEADING (degrees).
Vector aircraft:
FLY HEADING (degrees).
a. In controlled airspace for separation, safety,
noise abatement, operational advantage, confidence FLY PRESENT HEADING.
maneuver, or when a pilot requests.
DEPART (fix) HEADING (degrees).
b. In Class G airspace only upon pilot request and
as an additional service. 2. The number of degrees, in group form, to turn
and the direction of turn, or
c. At or above the MVA or the minimum IFR PHRASEOLOGY−
altitude except as authorized for radar approaches, TURN (number of degrees) DEGREES LEFT/RIGHT.
radar departures, special VFR, VFR operations, or by
paragraph 5−6−3, Vectors Below Minimum Altitude. 3. For NO-GYRO procedures, the type of
vector, direction of turn, and when to stop turn.
NOTE−
PHRASEOLOGY−
VFR aircraft not at an altitude assigned by ATC may be
THIS WILL BE A NO-GYRO VECTOR,
vectored at any altitude. It is the responsibility of the pilot
to comply with the applicable parts of CFR Title 14.
TURN LEFT/RIGHT.
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−5−6, Minimum En Route Altitudes. STOP TURN.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−5−2, Priority.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−5−4, Altitude Assignment. b. When initiating a vector, advise the pilot of the
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−7−5, Altitude Assignments.
14 CFR Section 91.119, Minimum Safe Altitudes: General. purpose, and if appropriate, what to expect when
radar navigational guidance is terminated.
d. In airspace for which you have control
jurisdiction, unless otherwise coordinated. PHRASEOLOGY−
VECTOR TO (fix or airway).
e. So as to permit it to resume its own navigation
within radar coverage. VECTOR TO INTERCEPT (name of NAVAID) (specified)
RADIAL.
f. Operating special VFR only within Class B,
Class C, Class D, or Class E surface areas. VECTOR FOR SPACING.
g. Operating VFR at those locations where a (if appropriate) EXPECT DIRECT (NAVAID, waypoint,
special program is established, or when a pilot fix)
requests, or you suggest and the pilot concurs.
VECTOR TO FINAL APPROACH COURSE,
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−2−1, Visual Separation.
or if the pilot does not have knowledge of the type of
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−5−3, Separation. approach,
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 9−4−4, Separation Minima. VECTOR TO (approach name) FINAL APPROACH
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Chapter 12, Section 1, Terminal VFR Radar
Services.
COURSE.
NOTE−
Determine optimum routing based on factors such as wind,
5−6−2. METHODS weather, traffic, pilot requests, noise abatement, adjacent
sector requirement, and letters of agreement.
a. Vector aircraft by specifying:
c. When vectoring or approving course deviations,
1. Direction of turn, if appropriate, and assign an altitude to maintain and, if necessary, a
magnetic heading to be flown, or speed, when:
Vectoring 5−6−1
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1. The vector or approved deviation is off an or

assigned procedure which contains altitude or speed
restrictions, i.e., instrument approach, etc. FLY HEADING (degrees). WHEN ABLE, PROCEED DIR-
ECT (name of fix),
2. The previously issued clearance included
crossing restrictions. or
RESUME (SID/STAR/transition/procedure).
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−2−5, Route or Altitude Amendments. REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Chapter 4, Section 1, NAVAID Use
3. The vector or approved deviation is off an Limitations.
assigned procedure that contains published altitude or FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−5−7, Altitude Information.
speed restrictions, i.e., SID, STAR, and a clearance to f. Aircraft instructed to resume a procedure which
Climb Via/Descend Via has been issued. contains published crossing restrictions (SID/STAR)
must be issued/reissued all applicable restrictions or
d. When vectoring or approving an aircraft to
be instructed to Climb Via/Descend Via.
deviate off of a procedure, advise the pilot if you
intend on clearing the aircraft to resume the PHRASEOLOGY−
procedure. CLEARED DIRECT (NAVAID, fix, waypoint) CROSS
(NAVAID, fix, waypoint) AT/AT OR ABOVE/AT OR
PHRASEOLOGY− BELOW (altitude), then CLIMB VIA/DESCEND VIA
FLY HEADING (degrees), MAINTAIN (altitude), (if (SID/STAR)
necessary, MAINTAIN (speed)), EXPECT TO RESUME
(SID, STAR, etc.). EXAMPLE−
“Cleared direct Luxor, then descend via the Ksino One
DEVIATION (restrictions if necessary) APPROVED, arrival.”
MAINTAIN (altitude), (if necessary, MAINTAIN (speed)), “Cleared direct HITME, cross HITME at or above one one
EXPECT TO RESUME (SID, STAR, etc.) AT (NAVAID, fix, thousand, then climb via the Boach Five departure.”
waypoint). g. Aircraft may not be vectored off an Obstacle
NOTE− Departure Procedure (ODP), or issued an altitude
After a climb via or descend via clearance has been issued, lower than published altitude on an ODP, until at or
a vector/deviation off of a SID/STAR cancels all published above the MVA/MIA, at which time the ODP is
altitude and speed restrictions on the procedure. The canceled.
aircraft’s Flight Management System (FMS) may be unable
to process crossing altitude restrictions once the aircraft NOTE−
leaves the SID/STAR lateral path. Without an assigned Once an aircraft has been vectored off an Obstacle
altitude, the aircraft’s FMS may revert to leveling off at the Departure Procedure, the procedure is canceled and ATC
altitude set by the pilot, which may be the SID/STAR cannot clear the aircraft to resume the ODP.
published top or bottom altitude. REFERENCE−
P/CG − Obstacle Departure Procedure.
e. Provide radar navigational guidance until the
aircraft is: h. Aircraft vectored off an RNAV route must be
recleared to the next waypoint or as requested by the
1. Established within the airspace to be pilot.
protected for the nonradar route to be flown, or
i. When flight data processing is available, update
2. On a heading that will, within a reasonable the route of flight in the computer unless an
distance, intercept the nonradar route to be flown, and operational advantage is gained and coordination is
accomplished.
3. Informed of its position unless the aircraft is
RNAV, FMS, or DME equipped and being vectored j. Inform the pilot when a vector will take the
toward a VORTAC/TACAN or waypoint and within aircraft across a previously assigned nonradar route.
the service volume of the NAVAID.
PHRASEOLOGY−
PHRASEOLOGY− EXPECT VECTOR ACROSS (NAVAID radial)
(Position with respect to course/fix along route), (airway/route/course) FOR (purpose).
RESUME OWN NAVIGATION, REFERENCE−
5−6−2 Vectoring
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JO 7110.65Z
5−6−3. VECTORS BELOW MINIMUM avoidance when IFR aircraft are below the minimum IFR
ALTITUDE altitude (MVA, MIA, MEA) and are taken off departure/
missed approach procedures, or if issued go−around
a. TERMINAL. As described in facility direc- instructions, except after conducting a visual approach.
tives, when vectoring a departing IFR aircraft, or one ATC does not assume this responsibility when utilizing a
executing a missed approach, when ISR is not Diverse Vector Area (DVA) or when operating on SIDs with
displayed in the full data block and before it reaches or without a published range of headings in the departure
the minimum altitude for IFR operations if separation route description.
from prominent obstacles shown on the radar scope b. After reaching the first MVA/MIA sector, all
is applied in accordance with one of the following: subsequent MVA/MIA sectors encountered must be
1. The flight path is 3 miles or more from the met.
obstacle and the aircraft is climbing to an altitude at REFERENCE−
least 1,000 feet above the obstacle, vector the aircraft P/CG Term − Obstacle.
to maintain at least 3 miles separation from the P/CG Term − Obstruction.
P/CG Term − Prominent Obstacle.
obstacle until the aircraft reports leaving an altitude
above the obstacle, or; c. At those locations where diverse vector areas
2. The flight path is less than 3 miles from the (DVA) have been established, radar facilities may
obstacle and the aircraft is climbing to an altitude at vector aircraft below the MVA/MIA within the DVA
least 1,000 feet above the obstacle, vector the aircraft described in facility directives.
to increase lateral separation from the obstacle until
d. At those locations using radar SIDs, radar
the 3 mile minimum is achieved or until the aircraft
facilities may vector aircraft below the MVA/MIA, in
reports leaving an altitude above the obstacle, or;
accordance with facility directives.
3. Radar facilities may vector aircraft below the
MVA/MIA, provided: e. At locations that vector aircraft conducting a
go−around or missed approach, use authorized
(a) No prominent obstacles are within 10 NM headings and display those prominent obstacles
of the departure end of runway (DER). stipulated in facility directives until reaching the
(b) Aircraft must be allowed an uninterrupted MVA/MIA.
climb to meet the MVA/MIA within 10 NM of the REFERENCE−
DER. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−8−1, Procedures.
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 3−8−5, Establishing Diverse Vector Area/s
NOTE− (DVA).
ATC assumes responsibility for terrain and obstacle FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 10−3−15, Go−Around/Missed Approach.
Vectoring 5−6−3
6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 7. Speed Adjustment
5−7−1. APPLICATION (d) Ensure that aircraft are allowed to operate

in a clean configuration as long as circumstances
Keep speed adjustments to the minimum necessary to permit.
achieve or maintain required or desired spacing.
Avoid adjustments requiring alternate decreases and (e) Keep the number of speed adjustments per
increases. Terminate speed adjustments when no aircraft to the minimum required to achieve and
longer needed. maintain spacing.
NOTE− b. Do not assign speed adjustment to aircraft:
It is the pilot’s responsibility and prerogative to refuse
speed adjustment that he/she considers excessive or 1. At or above FL 390 without pilot consent.
contrary to the aircraft’s operating specifications.
2. Executing a published high altitude instru-
a. Consider the following when applying speed ment approach procedure.
control:
3. In a holding pattern.
1. Determine the interval required and the point REFERENCE−
at which the interval is to be accomplished. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−6−4, Holding Instructions.
2. Implement speed adjustment based on the 4. Inside the final approach fix on final or a point
following principles. 5 miles from the runway, whichever is closer to the
runway.
(a) Priority of speed adjustment instructions
c. At the time approach clearance or a climb
is determined by the relative speed and position of the
via/descend via clearance is issued, previously
aircraft involved and the spacing requirement.
assigned speeds must be restated if required.
(b) Speed adjustments are not achieved
d. Approach clearances or climb via/descend via
instantaneously. Aircraft configuration, altitudes,
clearances cancel any previously assigned speeds.
and speed determine the time and distance required to
Pilots are expected to make their own speed
accomplish the adjustment.
adjustments to fly the approach, SID, or STAR unless
3. Use the following techniques in speed control assigned speeds are restated.
situations: NOTE−
Pilots are required to comply with published speed
(a) Compensate for compression when
restrictions.
assigning air speed adjustment in an in-trail situation
by using one of the following techniques: e. A speed restriction published as part of a
SID/STAR is canceled when an aircraft is vectored
(1) Reduce the trailing aircraft first. off, or a deviation from the SID/STAR is approved.
(2) Increase the leading aircraft first. If necessary, assign a speed in conjunction with the
vector or approval to deviate.
(b) Assign a specific airspeed if required to
NOTE−
maintain spacing. The last published speed on a STAR will be maintained by
(c) Allow increased time and distance to the aircraft until ATC deletes it, assigns a new speed, issues
a vector, assigns a direct route or issues an approach
achieve speed adjustments in the following
clearance.
situations:
f. When issuing speed adjustments to aircraft
(1) Higher altitudes. cleared along a route or procedure that has published
(2) Greater speed. speed restrictions, if feasible, advise the pilot where
you intend on allowing the aircraft to resume the
(3) Clean configurations. published speed.
Speed Adjustment 5−7−1

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
NOTE− MAINTAIN (specific speed) KNOTS OR GREATER.

If it is anticipated that an aircraft will be allowed to resume
the published speeds on a procedure, advising the pilot DO NOT EXCEED (speed) KNOTS.
where that may occur avoids flight crews from
unnecessarily deleting speeds from the Flight Management MAINTAIN MAXIMUM FORWARD SPEED.
System.
MAINTAIN SLOWEST PRACTICAL SPEED.
g. Express speed adjustments in terms of knots
based on indicated airspeed (IAS) in 5−knot INCREASE/REDUCE SPEED:
increments. At or above FL 240, speeds may be
expressed in terms of Mach numbers in 0.01 incre- TO (specified speed in knots),
ments for turbojet aircraft with Mach meters
(i.e., Mach 0.69, 0.70, 0.71, etc.). or
NOTE−
TO MACH (Mach number),
1. Pilots complying with speed adjustment instructions
(published or assigned) should maintain a speed within
or
plus or minus 10 knots or 0.02 Mach number of the
specified speed.
(number of knots) KNOTS.
2. When assigning speeds to achieve spacing between
EXAMPLE−
aircraft at different altitudes, consider that ground speed
“Increase speed to Mach point seven two.”
may vary with altitude. Further speed adjustment may be “Reduce speed to two five zero.”
necessary to attain the desired spacing. “Reduce speed twenty knots.”
3. Controllers should anticipate pilots will begin “Maintain two eight zero knots.”
adjusting speed at the minimum distance necessary prior “Maintain maximum forward speed.”
to a published speed restriction so as to cross the NOTE−
waypoint/fix at the published speed. Once at the published 1. A pilot operating at or above 10,000 feet MSL on an
speed, controllers should expect pilots will maintain the assigned speed adjustment greater than 250 knots is
published speed until additional adjustment is required to expected to comply with 14 CFR Section 91.117(a) when
comply with further published restrictions or ATC assigned cleared below 10,000 feet MSL, within domestic airspace,
speed restrictions. without notifying ATC. Pilots are expected to comply with
REFERENCE− the other provisions of 14 CFR Section 91.117 without
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−6−1, Application. notification.
2. Speed restrictions of 250 knots do not apply to aircraft
operating beyond 12 NM from the coastline within the
5−7−2. METHODS U.S. Flight Information Region, in offshore Class E
airspace below 10,000 feet MSL. However, in airspace
a. Instruct aircraft to:
underlying a Class B airspace area designated for an
1. Maintain present/specific speed. airport, or in a VFR corridor designated through such a
Class B airspace area, pilots are expected to comply with
2. Maintain specified speed or greater/less. the 200 knot speed limit specified in 14 CFR
3. Maintain the highest/lowest practical speed. Section 91.117(c). (See 14 CFR Sections 91.117(c) and
91.703.)
4. Increase or reduce to a specified speed or by
3. The phrases “maintain maximum forward speed” and
a specified number of knots. “maintain slowest practical speed” are primarily intended
PHRASEOLOGY− for use when sequencing a group of aircraft. As the
SAY AIRSPEED. sequencing plan develops, it may be necessary to
determine the specific speed and/or make specific speed
SAY MACH NUMBER. assignments.
MAINTAIN PRESENT SPEED. b. To obtain pilot concurrence for a speed

adjustment at or above FL 390, as required by
MAINTAIN (specific speed) KNOTS. paragraph 5−7−1, Application, use the following
phraseology.
5−7−2 Speed Adjustment

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JO 7110.65Z
(Speed adjustment), IF UNABLE ADVISE. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−4−17, Numbers Usage.
EXAMPLE−
e. When issuing speed adjustments to aircraft
“Reduce speed to one niner zero, if unable advise.”
cleared on procedures with published speed
c. Simultaneous speed reduction and descent can restrictions, specify the point at which the issued
be extremely difficult, particularly for turbojet restriction begins, ends, or changes the published
aircraft. Specifying which action is to be accom- restrictions.
plished first removes any doubt the pilot may have as
PHRASEOLOGY−
to controller intent or priority. Specify which action is CROSS (fix/waypoint) AT (speed).
expected first when combining speed reduction with
a descent clearance. MAINTAIN (speed) UNTIL (fix/waypoint),
1. Speed reductions prior to descent.
THEN (additional instructions).
PHRASEOLOGY−
REDUCE SPEED: RESUME PUBLISHED SPEED.
TO (specified speed), COMPLY WITH SPEED RESTRICTIONS.
or (if required) EXCEPT (alternate instructions).
(number of knots) KNOTS. DELETE SPEED RESTRICTIONS.
THEN, DESCEND AND MAINTAIN (altitude). CLIMB/DESCEND VIA (SID/STAR name and number)
2. Speed reduction following descent. (transition if required.)
NOTE−
PHRASEOLOGY−
1. Aircraft will meet all published speed restrictions when
DESCEND AND MAINTAIN (altitude).
on any route or procedure with published speed restrictions
regardless of climb via or descend via clearance.
THEN, REDUCE SPEED:
2. Due to variations of aircraft types, Flight Management
TO (specified speed in knots), Systems, and environmental conditions, ATC should
anticipate that aircraft will begin speed adjustments at
or varying locations along cleared routes or procedures that
contain published speed restrictions.
TO MACH (Mach number), 3. Issuing speed adjustments to aircraft flying procedures
with published speed restrictions may impact the pilot’s
or ability to fly the intended flight profile of the procedure.
(number of knots) KNOTS. EXAMPLE−
1. “Cross Alisa at two two zero knots, then climb via the
NOTE−
TIMMY One departure.”
When specifying descent prior to speed reduction, consider
the maximum speed requirements specified in 14 CFR NOTE−
Section 91.117. It may be necessary for the pilot to level off The aircraft will maintain the ATC assigned speed until
temporarily and reduce speed prior to descending below Alisa waypoint and will then comply with the speed
10,000 feet MSL. restrictions on the TIMMY One departure.
d. Specify combined speed/altitude fix crossing EXAMPLE−
2. “Cross Alisa at one zero thousand, then climb via the
restrictions.
TIMMY One departure, except maintain two two zero
PHRASEOLOGY− knots.”
CROSS (fix) AT AND MAINTAIN (altitude) AT (specified NOTE−
speed) KNOTS. The aircraft will maintain the ATC assigned speed of two
EXAMPLE− two zero knots and will not meet any published speed
“Cross Robinsville at and maintain six thousand at restrictions. Aircraft will meet all published altitude
two three zero knots.” restrictions after Alisa.

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EXAMPLE− (a) Assign a speed not less than 200 knots, or

3. “Maintain two two zero knots until BALTR then resume
published speed.”
(b) Assign a speed not less than 150 knots
when the aircraft is within 20 flying miles of the
NOTE− runway threshold.
The ATC assigned speed assignment of two two zero knots
would apply until BALTR. The aircraft would then comply d. To departures:
with the published speed restrictions. 1. Turbojet aircraft: assign a speed not less than
EXAMPLE− 230 knots.
4. “Descend via the KEPEC Two arrival, except after
NIPZO maintain one eight zero knots.”
2. Reciprocating and turboprop aircraft: assign
a speed not less than 150 knots.
NOTE−
The aircraft will comply with all published restrictions. e. To helicopters: Assign a speed not less than 60
After NIPZO, the aircraft will continue to comply with knots.
altitude restrictions, but will comply with the ATC assigned REFERENCE−
speed adjustment. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−7−2, Methods.
REFERENCE− f. Lower speeds may be assigned when opera-
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−4−17, Numbers Usage. tionally advantageous.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−7−1, Application. NOTE−
1. A pilot operating at or above 10,000 feet MSL on an
assigned speed adjustment greater than 250 knots is
5−7−3. SPEED ASSIGNMENTS
expected to comply with 14 CFR Section 91.117(a) when
When assigning airspeeds, use the following: cleared below 10,000 feet MSL, within domestic airspace,
without notifying ATC. Pilots are expected to comply with
a. To aircraft operating between FL 280 and the other provisions of 14 CFR Section 91.117 without
10,000 feet, a speed not less than 250 knots or the notification.
equivalent Mach number. 2. Speed restrictions of 250 knots do not apply to aircraft
NOTE− operating beyond 12 NM from the coastline within the U.S.
1. On a standard day the Mach numbers equivalent to Flight Information Region, in offshore Class E airspace
250 knots CAS (subject to minor variations) are: below 10,000 feet MSL. However, in airspace underlying
FL 240−0.6 a Class B airspace area designated for an airport, or in a
FL 250−0.61 VFR corridor designated through such a Class B airspace
FL 260−0.62 area, pilots are expected to comply with the 200 knot speed
FL 270−0.64 limit specified in 14 CFR Section 91.117(c). (See 14 CFR
FL 280−0.65 Sections 91.117(c) and 91.70).
FL 290−0.66. 3. The phrases “maintain maximum forward speed” and
2. A pilot will advise if unable to comply with the speed “maintain slowest practical speed” are primarily intended
assignment. for use when sequencing a group of aircraft. As the
sequencing plan develops, it may be necessary to
b. To aircraft operating beneath Class B airspace
determine the specific speed and/or make specific speed
or in a VFR corridor designated through Class B assignments.
airspace: assign a speed not more than 200 knots. REFERENCE−
c. To arrival aircraft operating below 10,000 feet: 14 CFR Sections 91.117(c) and 91.703.
1. Turbojet aircraft:
5−7−4. TERMINATION
(a) Assign a speed not less than 210 knots,
Advise aircraft when speed adjustments are no longer
except for the aircraft as specified in subparagraph b
needed.
above, or
a. Advise aircraft to “resume normal speed” when
(b) Assign a speed not less than 170 knots ATC-assigned speed adjustments are no longer
when the aircraft is within 20 flying miles of the required and no published speed restrictions apply.
runway threshold.
PHRASEOLOGY−
2. Reciprocating and turboprop aircraft: RESUME NORMAL SPEED.
5−7−4 Speed Adjustment

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
NOTE− speed and ATC wants aircraft to meet subsequent

“Resume normal speed” is only used where there is no published speed restrictions on the route or
underlying published speed restriction. It does not delete procedure.
speed restrictions on upcoming segments of flight and does
not relieve the pilot of those speed restrictions which are PHRASEOLOGY−
applicable to 14 CFR Section 91.117. RESUME PUBLISHED SPEED
REFERENCE−
b. Instruct aircraft to “comply with speed FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−5−7, Altitude Information.
restrictions” applicable to the charted procedure or d. Advise aircraft when either ATC assigned speed
route being flown. adjustments or published speed restrictions are no
PHRASEOLOGY− longer required.
COMPLY WITH SPEED RESTRICTIONS PHRASEOLOGY−
NOTE− DELETE SPEED RESTRICTIONS
The phraseology “comply with restrictions” requires NOTE−
compliance with all altitude and/or speed restrictions When deleting published restrictions, ATC must ensure
depicted on the procedure. obstacle clearance until aircraft are established on a route
REFERENCE−
where no published restrictions apply. This does not relieve
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−6−2, Methods. the pilot of those speed restrictions which are applicable to
14 CFR Section 91.117.
c. Advise aircraft to “resume published speed” REFERENCE−
when aircraft have been assigned an unpublished FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−7−1, Application.

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JO 7110.65Z
Section 8. Radar Departures
5−8−1. PROCEDURES pilot may brief the changes in advance of entering the
runway.
a. When vectoring a departing aircraft on a radar
SID, concurrent use of a diverse vector area (DVA) is c. Issue an altitude to maintain with the initial
not permitted. heading when the heading will take the aircraft off a
departure procedure that contains both a published
b. When the departure route description on a radar lateral path to a waypoint and crossing restrictions.
SID contains the phrase, “Fly assigned heading,” “as
assigned by ATC,” or similar phrases, with a d. When conducting simultaneous parallel run-
published range of headings in the route description, way departures utilizing RNAV SIDs, advise aircraft
assign headings or vectors as needed not to exceed of the initial fix/waypoint on the RNAV route.
those headings in the published range until reaching PHRASEOLOGY−
the MVA/MIA. RNAV to (fix/waypoint), RUNWAY (number), CLEARED
FOR TAKEOFF.
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−6−3, Vectors Below Minimum Altitude. EXAMPLE−
“RNAV to MPASS, Runway Two−Six Left, cleared for
takeoff.”
NOTE−
a. Before departure, assign the initial heading 1. TERMINAL. A purpose for an initial waypoint advisory
consistent with either a SID being flown or DVA, if is not necessary since pilots associate this advisory with the
applicable, when a departing aircraft is to be vectored flight path to their planned route of flight. Pilots must
immediately after takeoff. At locations that have a immediately advise ATC if a different RNAV SID is entered
DVA, concurrent use of both a SID and DVA is not in the aircraft FMS.
permitted. 2. The SID transition is not restated as it is contained in the
ATC clearance.
PHRASEOLOGY−
FLY RUNWAY HEADING. 3. Aircraft cleared via RNAV SIDs designed to begin with
TURN LEFT/RIGHT, HEADING (degrees). a vector to the initial waypoint are assigned a heading
before departure.
NOTE−
1. TERMINAL. A purpose for the heading is not REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−9−9, Nonintersecting Converging
necessary, since pilots operating in a radar environment Runway Operations.
associate assigned headings with vectors to their planned FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−3−2, Departure Clearances.
route of flight. AIM, Para 5−2−7, Departure Control.
2. ATC assumes responsibility for terrain and obstacle

avoidance when IFR aircraft are below the minimum IFR 5−8−3. SUCCESSIVE OR SIMULTANEOUS
altitude (MVA, MIA, MEA) and are taken off departure/ DEPARTURES
missed approach procedures, or if issued go−around TERMINAL
instructions, except after conducting a visual approach.
ATC does not assume this responsibility when utilizing a Separate aircraft departing from the same airport/he-
Diverse Vector Area (DVA) or when operating on SIDs with liport or adjacent airports/heliports in accordance
or without a published range of headings in the departure with the following minima provided radar identifica-
route description. tion with the aircraft will be established within 1 mile
REFERENCE− of the takeoff runway end/helipad and courses will
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−3−2, Departure Clearances. diverge by at least the minimum required, as stated
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−6−3, Vectors Below Minimum Altitude.
below.
b. At locations with both SIDs and DVAs, an NOTE−
amended departure clearance is required to cancel a 1. FAA Order 8260.46, Departure Procedure (DP)
previously assigned SID and subsequently utilize a Program, and FAA Order 8260.3, United States Standard
DVA or vice versa. The amended clearance must be for Terminal Instrument Procedures (TERPS), Volume 4,
provided to the pilot in a timely manner so that the establishes guidelines for IFR departure turning proce-
Radar Departures 5−8−1

JO
JO 7110.65Z
7110.65R CHG
7110.65Z CHG
2 1 12/2/21
3/15/07
6/17/21
dures which assumes a climb to 400 feet above the FIG 5−8−3
departure end of runway (DER) elevation before a turn is Simultaneous Departures
commenced. TERPS criteria ensures obstacle clearance
with a climb gradient of 200 feet per nautical mile from the
DER. “Immediately after departure” is considered to be
any turn that provides at least the minimum required
divergence that commences no later than 2 miles from the
DER.
2. Consider known aircraft performance characteristics
when applying initial separation to successive departing
aircraft.
3. When one or both of the departure surfaces is a helipad,
use the takeoff course of the helicopter as a reference,
comparable to the centerline of a runway and the helipad
NOTE−
center as the threshold.
This procedure does not apply when wake turbulence
a. Between successive departures from the same separation is required.
runway/helipad or parallel runways/helicopter take- REFERENCE−
off courses separated by less than 2,500 feet− 1 mile Intersection Departures.
if courses diverge by 15 degrees or more immediately FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−9−8, Intersecting Runway/Intersecting
after departure. (See FIG 5−8−1, FIG 5−8−2, and Flight Path Operations.
FIG 5−8−3.) FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−5−4, Minima, Subparagraph g.
FIG 5−8−1
b. Between simultaneous departures departing in
Successive Departures the same direction from parallel runways/helicopter
takeoff courses, authorize simultaneous takeoffs if
the centerlines/takeoff courses are separated by at
least 2,500 feet and courses diverge by 15 degrees or
more immediately after departure. (See FIG 5−8−4,
and FIG 5−8−5.)
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−5−4, Minima, Subparagraph g.
c. When both aircraft are flying an RNAV SID:

1. Between successive departures from the
same runway– 1 mile if courses diverge by 10 degrees
or more immediately after departure. (See
FIG 5−8−1.)
FIG 5−8−2 NOTE−
Simultaneous Departures This procedure does not apply when wake turbulence
separation is required.
2. Between simultaneous departures from par-
allel runways/helicopter takeoff courses, authorize
simultaneous takeoffs if the centerlines/takeoff
courses are separated by at least 2,500 feet and
courses diverge by 10 degrees or more immediately
after departure. (See FIG 5−8−4, and FIG 5−8−5.)
NOTE−
RNAV SIDs specific to this paragraph are those SIDs
constructed with a specific lateral path that begins at the
DER.
5−8−2 Radar Departures

12/2/21
6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z CHG 1
JO 7110.65Z
FIG 5−8−4 FIG 5−8−7

Parallel Runway Departures Intersecting Runway Departures
FIG 5−8−5
Parallel Helicopter Course Departures
FIG 5−8−8
Intersecting Helicopter Course Departures
d. Between aircraft departing from diverging

runways:
1. Nonintersecting runways. Authorize simulta-
neous takeoffs if runways diverge by 15 degrees or
more. (See FIG 5−8−6.)
FIG 5−8−6 NOTE−

Nonintersecting Runway Departures This procedure does not apply when wake turbulence
separation is required.
REFERENCE−
5−8−4. DEPARTURE AND ARRIVAL

TERMINAL. Except as provided in paragraph
5−8−5, Departures and Arrivals on Parallel or
Nonintersecting Diverging Runways, separate a
departing aircraft from an arriving aircraft on final
approach by a minimum of 2 miles if separation will
increase to a minimum of 3 miles (5 miles when 40
miles or more from the antenna) within 1 minute after
2. Intersecting runways and/or helicopter take- takeoff.
off courses which diverge by 15 degrees or more.
NOTE−
Authorize takeoff of a succeeding aircraft when the 1. This procedure permits a departing aircraft to be
preceding aircraft has passed the point of runway released so long as an arriving aircraft is no closer than
and/or takeoff course intersection. When applicable, 2 miles from the runway at the time. This separation is
apply the procedure in paragraph 3−9−5, Anticipating determined at the time the departing aircraft commences
Separation. (See FIG 5−8−7 and FIG 5−8−8.) takeoff roll.

JO
JO 7110.65Z
7110.65R CHG
7110.65Z CHG
2 1 12/2/21
3/15/07
6/17/21
2. Consider the effect surface conditions, such as ice, FIG 5−8−10

snow, and other precipitation, may have on known aircraft Parallel Thresholds are Even
performance characteristics, and the influence these
conditions may have on the pilot’s ability to commence
takeoff roll in a timely manner.
5−8−5. DEPARTURES AND ARRIVALS ON

PARALLEL OR NONINTERSECTING
DIVERGING RUNWAYS
TERMINAL. Authorize simultaneous operations
between an aircraft departing on a runway and an
aircraft on final approach to another parallel or
nonintersecting diverging runway if the departure
course diverges immediately by at least 30 degrees
from the missed approach course until separation is b. When parallel runway thresholds are staggered
applied and provided one of the following conditions and:
are met:
NOTE− 1. The arriving aircraft is approaching the
When one or both of the takeoff/landing surfaces is a nearer runway: the centerlines are at least 1,000 feet
helipad, consider the helicopter takeoff course as the apart and the landing thresholds are staggered at least
runway centerline and the helipad center as the threshold. 500 feet for each 100 feet less than 2,500 the
a. When parallel runway thresholds are even, the centerlines are separated. (See FIG 5−8−11 and
runway centerlines are at least 2,500 feet apart. (See FIG 5−8−12.)
FIG 5−8−9 and FIG 5−8−10.)
FIG 5−8−11
FIG 5−8−9 Parallel Thresholds are Staggered
Parallel Thresholds are Even
5−8−4 Radar Departures

12/2/21
6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z CHG 1
JO 7110.65Z
FIG 5−8−12 c. When nonintersecting runways diverge by

Parallel Thresholds are Staggered 15 degrees or more and runway edges do not touch.
(See FIG 5−8−14.)
FIG 5−8−14
Diverging Nonintersecting Runways
NOTE−
In the event of a missed approach by an aircraft requiring
wake turbulence separation behind it, apply the procedures
in paragraph 3−9−6, Same Runway Separation and/or
paragraph 3−9−8, Intersecting Runway/Intersecting
Flight Path Operations to ensure that the larger aircraft
does not overtake or cross in front of an aircraft departing
from the adjacent parallel runway.
REFERENCE−
2. The arriving aircraft is approaching the
d. When the aircraft on takeoff is a helicopter, hold
farther runway: the runway centerlines separation
the helicopter until visual separation is possible or
exceeds 2,500 feet by at least 100 feet for each
apply the separation criteria in subparagraphs a, b, or
500 feet the landing thresholds are staggered. (See
c.
FIG 5−8−13.)
REFERENCE−
FIG 5−8−13 FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−8−4, Departure and Arrival.
Parallel Thresholds are Staggered

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 9. Radar Arrivals
5−9−1. VECTORS TO FINAL APPROACH scope; for a precision approach, the line length must
COURSE extend at least the maximum range of the localizer;
for a nonprecision approach, the line length must
Except as provided in paragraph 7−4−2, Vectors for
extend at least 10 NM outside the approach gate; and
Visual Approach, vector arriving aircraft to intercept
the final approach course: 2. The maximum range selected on the radar
display is 150 NM; or
a. At least 2 miles outside the approach gate unless
one of the following exists: 3. An adjacent radar display is set at 125 NM or
less, configured for the approach in use, and is
1. When the reported ceiling is at least 500 feet utilized for the vector to the final approach course.
above the MVA/MIA and the visibility is at least
3 miles (report may be a PIREP if no weather is 4. If unable to comply with subparagraphs 1, 2,
reported for the airport), aircraft may be vectored to or 3 above, issue the clearance in accordance with
intercept the final approach course closer than 2 miles paragraph 4−8−1, Approach Clearance.
outside the approach gate but no closer than the REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−8−1, Approach Clearance.
approach gate. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−9−2, Final Approach Course
Interception.
2. If specifically requested by the pilot, aircraft
may be vectored to intercept the final approach
5−9−2. FINAL APPROACH COURSE
course inside the approach gate but no closer than the
INTERCEPTION
final approach fix.
a. Assign headings that will permit final approach
EXCEPTION. Conditions 1 and 2 above do not
course interception on a track that does not exceed the
apply to RNAV aircraft being vectored for a GPS or
interception angles specified in TBL 5−9−1.
RNAV approach.
TBL 5−9−1
b. Provide a minimum of 1,000 feet vertical
Approach Course Interception Angle
separation between aircraft on opposite base legs
unless another form of approved separation is Distance from interception Maximum interception
established during turn-on to final approach. point to approach gate angle
Less than 2 miles or triple 20 degrees
c. For a precision approach, at an altitude not simultaneous approaches in
above the glideslope/glidepath or below the use
minimum glideslope intercept altitude specified on 2 miles or more 30 degrees
the approach procedure chart. (45 degrees for helicopters)
d. For a nonprecision approach, at an altitude b. If deviations from the final approach course are
which will allow descent in accordance with the observed after initial course interception, apply the
published procedure. following:
NOTE− 1. Outside the approach gate: apply procedures
A pilot request for an “evaluation approach,” or a in accordance with subparagraph a, if necessary,
“coupled approach,” or use of a similar term, indicates the vector the aircraft for another approach.
pilot desires the application of subparagraphs a and b.
2. Inside the approach gate: inform the pilot of
e. EN ROUTE. The following provisions are the aircraft’s position and ask intentions.
required before an aircraft may be vectored to the
final approach course: PHRASEOLOGY−
(Ident) (distance) MILE(S) FROM THE AIRPORT,
1. The approach gate and a line (solid or (distance) MILE(S) RIGHT/LEFT OF COURSE, SAY
broken), depicting the final approach course starting INTENTIONS.
at or passing through the approach gate and extending NOTE−
away from the airport, be displayed on the radar The intent is to provide for a track course intercept angle
Radar Arrivals 5−9−1

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
judged by the controller to be no greater than specified by 1. Established on a segment of a published route
this procedure. or instrument approach procedure, or see FIG 5−9−1
REFERENCE− Example 1.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Chapter 5, Section 9, Radar Arrivals, and
Section 10, Radar Approaches− Terminal.
FIG 5−9−1
c. EN ROUTE. When using a radar scope range Arrival Instructions
above 125 NM, the controller must solicit and receive
a pilot report that the aircraft is established on the
final approach course. If the pilot has not reported
established by the final approach gate, inform the
pilot of his/her observed position and ask intentions.
NOTE−
It may be difficult to accurately determine small distances
when using very large range settings.
5−9−3. VECTORS ACROSS FINAL

APPROACH COURSE
Inform the aircraft whenever a vector will take it
across the final approach course and state the reason
for such action.
NOTE−
In the event you are unable to so inform the aircraft, the
pilot is not expected to turn inbound on the final approach
course unless approach clearance has been issued.
PHRASEOLOGY−
EXPECT VECTORS ACROSS FINAL FOR (purpose).
EXAMPLE−
“EXPECT VECTORS ACROSS FINAL FOR SPACING.”
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−9−2, Final Approach Course
Interception.
5−9−4. ARRIVAL INSTRUCTIONS

Issue all of the following to an aircraft before it
reaches the approach gate:
a. Position relative to a fix on the final approach
course. If none is portrayed on the radar display or if
none is prescribed in the procedure, issue position
information relative to the navigation aid which
provides final approach guidance or relative to the
airport.
b. Vector to intercept the final approach course if
required.
c. Approach clearance except when conducting a
radar approach. Issue approach clearance only after
the aircraft is:
5−9−2 Radar Arrivals

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
EXAMPLE− FIG 5−9−2

1. Aircraft 1 was vectored to the final approach course but Arrival Instructions
clearance was withheld. It is now at 4,000 feet and
established on a segment of the instrument approach
procedure. “Seven miles from X-RAY. Cleared I−L−S
runway three six approach.” (See FIG 5−9−1.)
2. Aircraft 2 is being vectored to a published segment of
the final approach course, 4 miles from LIMA at 2,000 feet.
The MVA for this area is 2,000 feet. “Four miles from
LIMA. Turn right heading three four zero. Maintain
two thousand until established on the localizer. Cleared
I−L−S runway three six approach.” (See FIG 5−9−1.)
3. Aircraft 3 is being vectored to intercept the final
approach course beyond the approach segments, 5 miles
from Alpha at 5,000 feet. the MVA for this area is 4,000 feet.
“Five miles from Alpha. Turn right heading three three
zero. Cross Alpha at or above four thousand. Cleared
I−L−S runway three six approach.” (See FIG 5−9−1.)
4. Aircraft 4 is established on the final approach course
beyond the approach segments, 8 miles from Alpha at
6,000 feet. The MVA for this area is 4,000 feet. “Eight miles
from Alpha. Cross Alpha at or above four thousand.
Cleared I−L−S runway three six approach.”
(See FIG 5−9−1.)
2. Assigned an altitude to maintain until the
aircraft is established on a segment of a published
route or instrument approach procedure.
EXAMPLE−
The aircraft is being vectored to the intermediate fix
FORRE for an RNAV approach. “Seven miles from
FORRE, cleared direct FORRE, cross FORRE at or above
four thousand, cleared RNAV runway one eight
approach.”
NOTE−
1. The altitude assigned must assure IFR obstruction
clearance from the point at which the approach clearance
is issued until established on a segment of a published route
or instrument approach procedure.
2. If the altitude assignment is VFR-on-top, it is
conceivable that the pilot may elect to remain high until
arrival over the final approach fix which may require the
pilot to circle to descend so as to cross the final approach
fix at an altitude that would permit landing.
3. Aircraft being vectored to the intermediate fix in
FIG 5−9−2 must meet all the provisions described in
subparagraph 4−8−1h2.

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
d. Instructions to do one of the following: 2. Aircraft 2: The aircraft is in the left base area of the TAA.
“One five miles from LEFTT, Cleared R-NAV Runway One
NOTE− Eight Approach.”
The principal purpose of this paragraph is to ensure that
frequency changes are made prior to passing the final 3. Aircraft 3: The aircraft is in the right base area of the
approach fix. However, at times it will be desirable to retain TAA. “Four miles from RIGHT, Cleared R-NAV Runway
an aircraft on the approach control frequency to provide a One Eight Approach.”
single-frequency approach or other radar services. When FIG 5−9−3
this occurs, it will be necessary to relay tower clearances Basic “T” Design
or instructions to preclude changing frequencies prior to
landing or approach termination.
1. Monitor local control frequency, reporting to
the tower when over the approach fix.
2. Contact the tower on local control frequency.
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−8−8, Communications Release.
3. Contact the final controller on the appropriate

frequency if radar service will be provided on final on
a different frequency.
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−10−8, Final Controller Changeover.
4. When radar is used to establish the final

approach fix, inform the pilot that after being advised
that he/she is over the fix he/she is to contact the tower
on local control frequency.
EXAMPLE−
“Three miles from final approach fix. Turn left heading
zero one zero. Maintain two thousand until established on
the localizer. Cleared I−L−S runway three six approach. I
will advise when over the fix.”
“Over final approach fix. Contact tower one one eight

point one.”
NOTE−
ARSR may be used for establishment of initial approach
and intermediate approach fixes only. ASR must be used to
5−9−5. APPROACH SEPARATION
establish the final approach fix.
RESPONSIBILITY
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−9−2, Final Approach Course a. The radar controller performing the approach
Interception. control function is responsible for separation of radar
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−9−7, Simultaneous Independent
Approaches− Dual & Triple. arrivals unless visual separation is provided by the
tower, or a letter of agreement/facility directive
e. Where a Terminal Arrival Area (TAA) has been authorizes otherwise. Radar final controllers ensure
established to support RNAV approaches, inform the that established separation is maintained between
aircraft of its position relative to the appropriate IAF aircraft under their control and other aircraft
and issue the approach clearance. (See FIG 5−9−3.) established on the same final approach course.
EXAMPLE− NOTE−
1. Aircraft 1: The aircraft is in the straight in area of the The radar controller may be a controller in an ARTCC, a
TAA. “Seven miles from CENTR, Cleared R−NAV Runway terminal facility, or a tower controller when authorized to
One Eight Approach.” perform the approach control function in a terminal area.

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
REFERENCE− FIG 5−9−4

FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−19, Wake Turbulence. Simultaneous Dependent Approaches
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Section 5, Radar Separation, Para 5−5−1,
Application.
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 2−1−16, Authorization for Separation
Services by Towers.
b. When timed approaches are being conducted,

the radar controller must maintain the radar
separation specified in paragraph 6−7−5, Interval
Minima, until the aircraft is observed to have passed
the final approach fix inbound (nonprecision
approaches) or the OM or the fix used in lieu of the
outer marker (precision approaches) and is within 5
miles of the runway on the final approach course or
until visual separation can be provided by the tower.
REFERENCE−
Interception. EXAMPLE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−9−6, Parallel Dependent Approaches. In FIG 5−9−4, Aircraft 2 is 1.0 mile from Aircraft 1.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 6−7−2, Approach Sequence.
Approved radar separation must be maintained between
Aircraft 1 and Aircraft 3.
5−9−6. SIMULTANEOUS DEPENDENT 3. Provide a minimum of 1.5 miles radar
APPROACHES
separation diagonally between successive aircraft on
TERMINAL adjacent final approach courses when runway
centerlines are more than 3,600 feet but no more than
a. Apply the following minimum separation when
8,300 feet apart.
conducting simultaneous dependent approaches:
FIG 5−9−5
1. Provide a minimum of 1,000 feet vertical or Simultaneous Dependent Approaches
a minimum of 3 miles radar separation between
aircraft during turn on.
2. Provide a minimum of 1 mile radar separation
diagonally between successive aircraft on adjacent
final approach courses when runway centerlines are
at least 2,500 feet but no more than 3,600 feet apart.

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
EXAMPLE− 2. Simultaneous dependent approaches may only be

In FIG 5−9−5, Aircraft 2 is 1.5 miles from Aircraft 1, and conducted where instrument approach charts specifically
Aircraft 3 is 1.5 miles or more from Aircraft 2. Approved authorize simultaneous approaches.
radar separation must be maintained between aircraft on
1. Apply this separation standard only after
the same final.
aircraft are established on the parallel final approach
4. Provide a minimum of 2 miles radar course.
separation diagonally between successive aircraft on 2. Straight-in landings will be made.
adjacent final approach courses where runway
centerlines are more than 8,300 feet but no more than 3. Missed approach procedures do not conflict.
9,000 feet apart. 4. Aircraft are informed that approaches to both
runways are in use. This information may be provided
FIG 5−9−6 through the ATIS.
Simultaneous Dependent Approaches
5. Approach control must have the interphone
capability of communicating directly with the local
controller at locations where separation
responsibility has not been delegated to the tower.
NOTE−
The interphone capability is an integral part of this
procedure when approach control has the sole separation
responsibility.
REFERENCE−
Responsibility.
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 2−1−16, Authorization for Separation
Services by Towers.
c. Consideration should be given to known factors
that may in any way affect the safety of the instrument
approach phase of flight, such as surface wind
direction and velocity, wind shear alerts/reports,
severe weather activity, etc. Closely monitor weather
activity that could impact the final approach course.
Weather conditions in the vicinity of the final
approach course may dictate a change of approach in
EXAMPLE− use.
In FIG 5−9−6, Aircraft 2 is 2 miles from heavy Aircraft 1. REFERENCE−
Aircraft 3 is a small aircraft and is 6 miles from Aircraft 1. Interception.
*The resultant separation between Aircraft 2 and 3 is at
least 4.7 miles. 5−9−7. SIMULTANEOUS INDEPENDENT
5. Provide the minimum approved radar separa- APPROACHES− DUAL & TRIPLE
tion between aircraft on the same final approach TERMINAL
course. a. Apply the following minimum separation when
REFERENCE− conducting simultaneous independent approaches:
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Section 5, Radar Separation, Para 5−5−4,
Minima. 1. Provide a minimum of 1,000 feet vertical or
a minimum of 3 miles radar separation between
b. The following conditions are required when
aircraft :
applying the minimum radar separation on adjacent
final approach courses allowed in subparagraph a: (a) during turn−on to parallel final approach,
or
NOTE−
1. Established on RNP (EoR) operations are not (b) until aircraft are established on a
authorized in conjunction with simultaneous dependent published segment of an approach authorized for
approaches. Established on RNP (EoR) operations.

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
NOTE− second or faster, the system processing time is 3

Aircraft are considered EoR on an initial or intermediate seconds or faster, and under the following conditions:
segment of an instrument approach authorized for EoR
operations after the approach clearance has been issued, 1. Dual parallel runway centerlines are at least
read back by the pilot and the aircraft is observed on the 3,200 feet apart, or dual parallel runway centerlines
published procedure (lateral and vertical path, and within are at least 2,500 feet apart with a 2.5 to 3.0 offset
any procedure specified speed restriction), and is approach to either runway.
conducting a simultaneous independent parallel approach
2. Triple parallel runway centerlines are at least
with an authorized simultaneous instrument approach to a
parallel runway. 3,400 feet apart, or triple parallel runway centerlines
are at least 2,500 feet apart with a 2.5 to 3.0 offset
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 10−4−6, Simultaneous Independent approach to both outside runways, or triple parallel
Approaches. runway centerlines are at least 2,500 feet apart, a
P/CG Term – Required Navigation Performance (RNP).
P/CG Term – Established on RNP Concept.
single 2.5 to 3.0 offset approach to either outside
runway while parallel approaches to the remaining
2. Dual parallel runway centerlines are at least two runways are separated by at least 3,400 feet.
3,600 feet apart, or dual parallel runway centerlines
NOTE−
are at least 3,000 feet apart with a 2.5 to 3.0 offset Aircraft without functioning ADS−B Out are restricted
approach to either runway. from utilizing these high update rate (HUR) procedures
3. Triple parallel approaches may be conducted unless an alternative HUR surveillance source providing
when: one−second or faster target report updating is utilized.
3. A surveillance update rate of at least 1 second
(a) Parallel runway centerlines are at least is required for monitoring the no transgression zone
3,900 feet apart; or (NTZ) when conducting simultaneous independent
(b) Parallel runway centerlines are at least approaches to the runway centerline spacing (RCLS)
3,000 feet apart, a 2.5 to 3.0 offset approach to both provided in this paragraph.
outside runways; or NOTE−
1. HUR procedures cannot be conducted if notified that a
(c) Parallel runway centerlines are at least one second update rate is not being provided.
3,000 feet apart, a single 2.5 to 3.0 offset approach
2. Where RCLS is ≤3400 feet, the normal operating zone
to either outside runway while parallel approaches to
(NOZ) is constant at 700 feet; and for RCLS ≥3400 feet, the
the remaining two runways are separated by at least
no transgression zone (NTZ) remains constant at 2000 feet.
3,900 feet.
4. Provide the minimum applicable radar
(d) Parallel approaches to airports where the separation between aircraft on the same final
airport field elevation is more than 2,000 feet MSL approach course.
require the use of the final monitor aid (FMA) system.
c. A color digital display set to a 4 to 1 (4:1) aspect
4. Provide the minimum applicable radar ratio (AR) with visual and aural alerts, such as the
separation between aircraft on the same final STARS final monitor aid (FMA), and a surveillance
approach course. update rate at 4.8 seconds or faster must be used to
NOTE− monitor approaches where:
Except when conducting an EoR operation, no two aircraft 1. Dual parallel runway centerlines are at least
will be assigned the same altitude during turn−on to final. 3,000 and less than 4,300 feet apart.
All three aircraft will be assigned altitudes which differ by
a minimum of 1,000 feet. Example: 3,000, 4,000, 5,000; 2. Triple parallel runway centerlines are at least
7,000, 8,000, 9,000. 3,000 but less than 5,000 feet apart.
3. Triple parallel approaches to airports where
the airport field elevation is more than 2,000 feet
MSL require use of the FMA system.
b. At locations with high update rate surveillance, NOTE−
simultaneous independent approaches may be At locations where the airfield elevation is 2000 feet or less,
conducted where the surveillance update rate is 1 FMA is not required to monitor the NTZ for runway

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
centerlines 4,300 feet or greater for dual runways, and NOTE−

5,000 feet or greater for triple operations. 1. Separate monitor controllers, each with transmit/re-
ceive and override capability on the local control
d. The following conditions must be met when frequency, must ensure aircraft do not penetrate the
conducting dual or triple simultaneous independent depicted NTZ. For PRM approaches, a transmit−only
approaches: secondary “PRM frequency” is also used. Facility
directives must define responsibility for providing the
NOTE− minimum applicable longitudinal separation between
Simultaneous independent approaches may only be aircraft on the same final approach course.
conducted where instrument approach charts specifically
authorize simultaneous approaches. 2. The aircraft is considered the center of the primary
radar return for that aircraft, or, if an FMA or other color
REFERENCE−
final monitor aid is used, the center of the digitized target
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 10-4-6, Simultaneous Approaches
(Dependent/Independent). of that aircraft, for the purposes of ensuring an aircraft
does not penetrate the NTZ. The provisions of paragraph
1. Straight-in landings will be made. 5−5−2, Target Separation, apply also.
2. All appropriate communication, navigation, 7. Communications transfer to the tower
and surveillance systems are operating normally. controller’s frequency must be completed prior to
losing 1,000 feet vertical or 3 miles radar separation
3. Inform aircraft that simultaneous between aircraft.
independent approaches are in use, or when runway
centerlines are less than 4,300 feet, PRM approaches e. The following procedures must be used by the
are in use, prior to aircraft departing an outer fix. This final monitor controllers:
information may be provided through the ATIS. 1. For PRM approaches, provide position
REFERENCE−
information to an aircraft that is left/right of the
P/CG Term − Precision Runway Monitor (PRM) System. depicted final approach course centerline, and in your
judgment is continuing on a track that may penetrate
4. Clear the aircraft to descend to the the NTZ.
appropriate glideslope/glidepath intercept altitude
soon enough to provide a period of level flight to PHRASEOLOGY−
dissipate excess speed. Provide at least 1 mile of (Aircraft call sign) I SHOW YOU (left/right) OF THE
FINAL APPROACH COURSE.
straight flight prior to the final approach course
intercept. 2. Instruct the aircraft to return to the correct
final approach course when aircraft are observed to
NOTE− overshoot the turn-on or to continue on a track which
Not applicable to approaches with RF legs.
will penetrate the NTZ.
5. An NTZ is established an equal distance PHRASEOLOGY−
between extended runway final approach courses and YOU HAVE CROSSED THE FINAL APPROACH
must be depicted on the monitor display. The primary COURSE. TURN (left/right) IMMEDIATELY AND
responsibility for navigation on the final approach RETURN TO THE FINAL APPROACH COURSE,
course rests with the pilot. Control instructions and or
information are issued only to ensure separation TURN (left/right) AND RETURN TO THE FINAL
between aircraft and to prevent aircraft from APPROACH COURSE.
penetrating the NTZ. 3. Instruct aircraft on the adjacent final
approach course to alter course to avoid the deviating
NOTE−
aircraft when an aircraft is observed penetrating or in
Where RCLS is ≤3400 feet, the normal operating zone
(NOZ) is constant at 700 feet; and for RCLS ≥3400 feet, the your judgment will penetrate the NTZ.
no transgression zone (NTZ) remains constant at 2000 feet. NOTE−
For PRM approaches, an instruction that may include a
6. Monitor all approaches regardless of weather. descent to avoid the deviating aircraft should only be used
Monitor local control frequency to receive any when there is no other reasonable option available to the
aircraft transmission. Issue control instructions as controller. In such a case, the descent must not put the
necessary to ensure aircraft do not enter the NTZ. aircraft below the MVA.

12/2/21
6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z CHG 1
JO 7110.65Z
TRAFFIC ALERT, (call sign), TURN (right/left) P/CG − Precision Runway Monitor (PRM) System.
P/CG − Simultaneous Close Parallel Approaches.
IMMEDIATELY HEADING (degrees), P/CG − PRM Approach.
CLIMB/DESCEND AND MAINTAIN (altitude).
b. PRM approaches must be assigned when
4. Terminate radar monitoring when one of the conducting instrument approaches to dual and triple
following occurs: parallel runways with runway centerlines separated
(a) Visual separation is applied. by less than 4,300 feet.
(b) The aircraft reports the approach lights or 5−9−9. SIMULTANEOUS OFFSET
runway in sight. INSTRUMENT APPROACHES (SOIA)
(c) The aircraft is 1 mile or less from the TERMINAL
runway threshold, if procedurally required and
a. Simultaneous offset instrument approaches
contained in facility directives.
(SOIA) may be conducted at FAA designated airports
5. Do not inform the aircraft when radar that have an authorization issued by the Director,
monitoring is terminated. Operations−Headquarters, AJT−2, in coordination
with AFS with parallel runways that have centerlines
6. Do not apply the provisions of paragraph
separated by at least 750 feet and less than 3,000 feet
5−13−1, Monitor on PAR Equipment, for simultan-
with one final approach course offset by 2.5 to 3.0
eous independent approaches.
degrees; and
f. Consideration should be given to known factors 1. Provide a minimum of 1,000 feet vertical or
that may in any way affect the safety of the instrument a minimum of 3 miles radar separation between
approach phase of flight when simultaneous aircraft during turn−on to final approaches.
independent approaches, or PRM approaches, if
NOTE−
applicable, are being conducted to parallel runways.
Communications transfer to the tower controller’s
Factors include, but are not limited to, wind frequency must be completed prior to losing vertical
direction/velocity, windshear alerts/reports, severe separation between aircraft.
weather activity, etc. Closely monitor weather
activity that could impact the final approach course. 2. Provide the minimum applicable radar
Weather conditions in the vicinity of the final separation between aircraft on the same final
approach course may dictate a change of approach in approach course.
use. 3. Provide the minimum applicable radar
REFERENCE− separation between the trailing offset aircraft of a
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−1−9, Radar Service Termination. leading SOIA pair and the lead straight-in aircraft in
Interception.
the subsequent SOIA pair when the parallel runways
have centerlines separated by less than 2,500 feet.
REFERENCE−
5−9−8. SIMULTANEOUS INDEPENDENT FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−5−4, Minima.
CLOSE PARALLEL APPROACHES –PRECI-
b. The following conditions are required when
SION RUNWAY MONITOR (PRM)
applying the minimum separation between lead
APPROACHES
straight-in and offset trailing approaches with
TERMINAL glideslope courses or vertical navigation authorized
in subparagraph a above:
When conducting PRM approaches, apply all
pertinent provisions of paragraph 5−9−7 and the 1. Straight−in landings will be made.
following: 2. All appropriate communication, navigation,
a. PRM approaches may only be conducted when and surveillance systems are operating normally.
charted in the approach title, and where instrument 3. Inform aircraft that PRM approaches are in
approach charts specifically authorize simultaneous use prior to aircraft departing an outer fix. This
approaches. information may be provided through the ATIS.

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
4. Clear the aircraft to descend to the course centerline, and in your judgment is continuing
appropriate glideslope/glidepath intercept altitude on a track that may penetrate the NTZ.
soon enough to provide a period of level flight to PHRASEOLOGY−
dissipate excess speed. Provide at least 1 mile of (Aircraft call sign) I SHOW YOU (left/right) OF THE
straight flight prior to the final approach course FINAL APPROACH COURSE.
intercept.
2. Instruct the aircraft to return immediately to
NOTE− the correct final approach course when aircraft are
Not applicable to approaches with RF legs. observed to overshoot the turn−on or continue on a
5. A no transgression zone (NTZ) is established track which will penetrate the NTZ.
an equal distance between extended runway final PHRASEOLOGY−
approach courses and must be depicted on the YOU HAVE CROSSED THE FINAL APPROACH
monitor display. The NTZ begins prior to the point COURSE. TURN (left/right) IMMEDIATELY AND
where adjacent inbound aircraft first lose vertical RETURN TO FINAL APPROACH COURSE.
separation and extends to a point coincident with the
or
location of the offset approach MAP. The primary
responsibility for navigation on the final approach TURN (left/right) AND RETURN TO THE FINAL
course rests with the pilot. Control instructions and APPROACH COURSE.
information are issued only to ensure separation
between aircraft and to prevent aircraft from 3. Instruct aircraft on the adjacent final
penetrating the NTZ. approach course to alter course to avoid the deviating
aircraft when an aircraft is observed penetrating or in
NOTE− your judgment will penetrate the NTZ.
Where RCLS is ≤3400 feet, the normal operating zone
(NOZ) is constant at 700 feet; and for RCLS ≥3400 feet, the NOTE−
no transgression zone (NTZ) remains constant at 2000 feet. An instruction that may include a descent to avoid the
deviating aircraft should only be used when there is no
6. Monitor all approaches regardless of weather. other reasonable option available to the controller. In such
Monitor local control frequency to receive any a case, the descent must not put the aircraft below the MVA.
aircraft transmission. Issue control instructions as PHRASEOLOGY−
necessary to ensure aircraft do not enter the NTZ. TRAFFIC ALERT, (call sign), TURN (left/right)
IMMEDIATELY HEADING (DEGREES), CLIMB AND
7. Separate monitor controllers, each with MAINTAIN (altitude).
transmit/receive and override capability on the local
control frequency, must ensure aircraft do not 4. Terminate radar monitoring when one of the
penetrate the depicted NTZ. Facility directives must following occurs:
define the responsibility for providing the minimum (a) The lead straight in aircraft passes the end
applicable longitudinal separation between aircraft of the NTZ nearest the runway threshold.
on the same final approach course and the minimum
(b) The trailing offset aircraft passes the end
applicable longitudinal separation between the
of the NTZ nearest the runway threshold and has
trailing offset aircraft of a leading SOIA pair and the
reported the lead straight in aircraft in sight.
lead straight in aircraft in the subsequent SOIA pair
when the parallel runways have centerlines separated (c) The aircraft begins the visual segment of
by less than 2,500 feet. the approach.
NOTE− 5. Do not inform the aircraft when radar
The aircraft is considered the center of the digitized target monitoring is terminated.
for that aircraft for the purposes of ensuring an aircraft
does not penetrate the NTZ.
6. Do not apply the provisions of paragraph
5−13−1, Monitor on PAR Equipment, for simultan-
c. The following procedures must be used by the eous approaches.
final monitor controllers:
d. Advise the pilot of the trailing offset aircraft of
1. Provide position information to an aircraft traffic on the adjacent lead straight−in approach
that is (left/right) of the depicted final approach course, if that traffic will be a factor in the visual

12/2/21
6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z CHG 1
JO 7110.65Z
segment of the approach. The provisions of between aircraft on adjacent final approach courses
paragraph 7−2−1, Visual Separation, subparagraph need not be applied.
a1, concerning visual separation between aircraft 3. For runways less than 2,500 feet apart,
being provided by the tower must not be applied to whenever the ceiling is less than 500 feet above the
aircraft conducting SOIAs. MVA, wake vortex spacing between aircraft on
NOTE− adjacent final approach courses, as described in
Once advised, the pilot is authorized to continue past the paragraph 5−5−4, Minima, must be applied unless
offset approach MAP if all of the following conditions are acceptable mitigating techniques and operational
met: The pilot has the straight-in approach traffic in sight procedures have been documented and verified by an
and expects the traffic to remain in sight; the pilot advises
AFS safety assessment and authorized by the
ATC that the traffic is in sight; and the pilot has the runway
environment in sight. Otherwise, it is the pilot’s Director, Operations-Headquarters, AJT-2. The wake
responsibility to execute a missed approach at the offset turbulence mitigation techniques employed will be
approach MAP. based on each airport’s specific runway geometry and
meteorological conditions and implemented through
e. Ensure that the trailing offset aircraft is
local facility directives.
positioned to facilitate the flight crew’s ability to see
the lead straight in traffic from the nominal 4. Issue all applicable wake turbulence advi-
clear-of-clouds point to the offset approach MAP so sories.
that the flight crew can remain separated from that REFERENCE−
traffic visually from the offset approach MAP to the FAA Order JO 8260.49, Para 13.0, Wake Turbulence Requirements.
runway threshold. Approaches.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−20, Wake Turbulence Cautionary
NOTE− Advisories.
After accepting a clearance for an offset PRM approach, FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−5−4, Minima.
pilots must remain on the offset approach course until
h. Consideration should be given to known factors
passing the offset approach MAP prior to alignment with
the runway centerline. Between the offset approach MAP that may in any way affect the safety of the instrument
and the runway threshold, the pilot of the offset approach approach phase of flight when conducting SOIA to
aircraft assumes visual separation responsibility from the parallel runways. Factors include but are not limited
aircraft on the straight-in approach, which means to wind direction/velocity, wind−shear alerts/reports,
maneuvering the aircraft as necessary to avoid the straight severe weather activity, etc. Closely monitor weather
in approach traffic until landing, and providing wake activity that could impact the final approach course.
turbulence avoidance, if necessary. Weather conditions in the vicinity of the final
f. In the visual segment between the offset approach course may dictate a change of the approach
approach MAP and the runway threshold, if the pilot in use.
of the trailing offset aircraft loses visual contact with REFERENCE−
the lead straight-in traffic, the pilot must advise ATC FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−1−9, Radar Service Termination.
as soon as practical and follow the published missed Interception.
approach procedure. If necessary, issue alternate
missed approach instructions. 5−9−10. SIMULTANEOUS INDEPENDENT
g. Wake turbulence requirements between aircraft APPROACHES TO WIDELY-SPACED
on adjacent final approach courses inside the offset PARALLEL RUNWAYS WITHOUT FINAL
approach MAP are as follows (standard in-trail wake MONITORS
separation must be applied between aircraft on the TERMINAL
same approach course):
a. Simultaneous independent approaches to
1. When runways are at least 2,500 feet apart, widely-spaced parallel runways may only be
there are no wake turbulence requirements between conducted where instrument approach charts spe-
aircraft on adjacent final approach courses. cifically authorize simultaneous approaches.
2. For runways less than 2,500 feet apart, b. Apply the following minimum separation when
whenever the ceiling is greater than or equal to conducting simultaneous independent approaches to
500 feet above the MVA, wake vortex spacing runway centerlines that are separated by more than

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
9,000 feet with a field elevation at or below 5,000 feet 5. Separate final and local controllers are
MSL, or 9,200 feet between runway centerlines with required for each final. Aircraft on the final must be
a field elevation above 5,000 feet MSL: on the appropriate final controller frequency for that
runway.
1. Provide a minimum of 1,000 feet vertical or
a minimum of 3 miles radar separation between 6. Transfer of communication to the tower
aircraft: controller’s frequency must be specified in a facility
(a) during turn-on to parallel final approach, directive and/or Letter of Agreement.
or d. The following procedures must be used by the
(b) conducting EoR operations, until aircraft final approach controllers:
are established on a published segment of an NOTE−
approach authorized for EoR operations. There is no requirement for establishment of a NTZ.
NOTE−
1. Instruct the aircraft to return to the correct
Aircraft are considered EoR on an initial or intermediate
segment of an instrument approach authorized for EoR
final approach course when that aircraft is observed
operations after the approach clearance has been issued, to overshoot the turn-on or continue on a track which
read back by the pilot and the aircraft is observed on the deviates from the final approach course in the
published procedure (lateral and vertical path, and within direction of the adjacent approach course.
any procedure specified speed restriction), and is
conducting a simultaneous independent parallel approach PHRASEOLOGY−
with an authorized simultaneous instrument approach to a YOU HAVE CROSSED THE FINAL APPROACH
parallel runway. COURSE. TURN (left/right) IMMEDIATELY AND
RETURN TO THE FINAL APPROACH COURSE,
REFERENCE− or
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 10-4-7, Simultaneous Widely-Spaced
Parallel Operations. TURN (left/right) AND RETURN TO THE FINAL
P/CG Term – Required Navigation Performance (RNP). APPROACH COURSE.
P/CG Term – Established on RNP Concept.
2. Instruct aircraft on adjacent final approach
2. Provide the minimum applicable radar course to alter course to avoid the deviating aircraft
separation between aircraft on the same final when an aircraft is observed, or in the controller’s
approach course. judgment, has deviated from the final approach
REFERENCE− course in the direction of the adjacent approach
course.
c. The following conditions are required when
PHRASEOLOGY−
applying the minimum separation on widely−spaced TRAFFIC ALERT, (call sign), TURN (left/right)
parallel courses allowed in subparagraph b: IMMEDIATELY HEADING (degrees), CLIMB AND
1. Straight-in landings will be made. MAINTAIN (altitude)
2. The approach system, radar, and appropriate e. Consideration should be given to known factors
frequencies are operating normally. that may in any way affect the safety of the instrument
approach phase of flight when simultaneous
3. Inform aircraft that simultaneous approaches approaches are being conducted to parallel runways.
are in use prior to aircraft departing an outer fix. This Factors include, but are not limited to, wind
information may be provided through the ATIS. direction/velocity, wind-shear alerts/reports, severe
weather activity, etc. Closely monitor weather
4. Clear an aircraft to descend to the appropriate
activity that could impact the final approach course.
glideslope/glidepath intercept altitude soon enough
Weather conditions in the vicinity of the final
to provide a period of level flight to dissipate excess
approach course may dictate a change of approach in
speed. Provide at least 1 mile of straight flight prior
use.
to the final approach course intercept.
REFERENCE−
NOTE− FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−9−2, Final Approach Course
Not applicable to approaches with RF legs. Interception.

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
5−9−11. TRANSITIONAL PROCEDURE issued to increase separation between the applicable

When aircraft are conducting simultaneous aircraft. These control instructions must establish
dependent, independent, or any approaches allowing approved separation (for example, altitude and/or
for reduced separation, and one of the aircraft lateral separation via divergence). In addition, wake
executes a go-around or has its approach clearance turbulence cautionary advisories must be issued in
terminated and prior to losing the approved reduced accordance with paragraph 2−1−20, Wake
separation, control instructions must be expeditiously Turbulence Cautionary Advisories.

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 10. Radar Approaches− Terminal
5−10−1. APPLICATION provide service based solely on official weather, i.e., hourly
and special observations.
a. Provide radar approaches in accordance with
3. Issue any known changes classified as special
standard or special instrument approach procedures.
weather observations as soon as possible. Special
b. A radar approach may be given to any aircraft weather observations need not be issued after they are
upon request and may be offered to aircraft in distress included in the ATIS broadcast and the pilot states the
regardless of weather conditions or to expedite appropriate ATIS broadcast code.
traffic. 4. Pertinent information on known airport
NOTE− conditions if they are considered necessary to the safe
Acceptance of a radar approach by a pilot does not waive operation of the aircraft concerned.
the prescribed weather minima for the airport or for the 5. Lost communication procedures as specified
particular aircraft operator concerned. The pilot is
in paragraph 5−10−4, Lost Communications.
responsible for determining if the approach and landing
are authorized under the existing weather minima. b. Before starting final approach:
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−9−2, Final Approach Course 1. ASR approach procedures may be prescribed for
Interception.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−12−10, Elevation Failure. specific runways, for an airport/heliport, and for
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−8−1a, Approach Clearance helicopters only to a “point-in-space,“ i.e., a MAP from
P/CG Term EFVS which a helicopter must be able to proceed to the landing
5−10−2. APPROACH INFORMATION area by visual reference to a prescribed surface route.
2. Occasionally, helicopter PAR approaches are available
a. Issue the following information to an aircraft to runways where conventional PAR approaches have been
that will conduct a radar approach. Current approach established. In those instances where the two PAR
information contained in the ATIS broadcast may be approaches serve the same runway, the helicopter
omitted if the pilot states the appropriate ATIS approach will have a steeper glide slope and a lower
broadcast code. All items listed below, except for decision height. By the controllers designating the
subparagraph 3 may be omitted after the first approach to be flown, the helicopter pilot understands
approach if repeated approaches are made and no which of the two approaches he/she has been vectored for
change has occurred. Transmissions with aircraft in and which set of minima apply.
this phase of the approach should occur approxim- 1. Inform the aircraft of the type of approach,
ately every minute. runway, airport, heliport, or other point, as
REFERENCE− appropriate, to which the approach will be made.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−7−10, Approach Information. Specify the airport name when the approach is to a
1. Altimeter setting. secondary airport.
PHRASEOLOGY−
2. If available, ceiling and visibility if the THIS WILL BE A P−A−R/SURVEILLANCE APPROACH
ceiling at the airport of intended landing is reported TO:
below 1,000 feet or below the highest circling
minimum, whichever is greater, or if the visibility is RUNWAY (runway number),
less than 3 miles. Advise pilots when weather
information is available via the Automated Weather or
Observing System (AWOS)/Automated Surface
Observing System (ASOS) and, if requested, issue (airport name) AIRPORT, RUNWAY (runway number),
the appropriate frequency.
or
NOTE−
Automated weather observing systems may be set to (airport name) AIRPORT/HELIPORT.
provide one minute updates. This one minute data may be
useful to the pilot for possible weather trends. Controllers THIS WILL BE A COPTER P−A−R APPROACH TO:
Radar Approaches− Terminal 5−10−1

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
b. Instruct the aircraft when to start and stop turn.

RUNWAY (runway number),
PHRASEOLOGY−
or TURN LEFT/RIGHT. STOP TURN.
c. After turn on to final approach has been made
(airport name) AIRPORT, RUNWAY (runway number), and prior to the aircraft reaching the approach gate,
instruct the aircraft to make half-standard rate turns.
or
PHRASEOLOGY−
(airport name) AIRPORT/HELIPORT. MAKE HALF-STANDARD RATE TURNS.
2. For surveillance approaches, specify the REFERENCE−
location of the MAP in relation to the runway/airport/ Interception.
heliport. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−12−10, Elevation Failure.
PHRASEOLOGY−
MISSED APPROACH POINT IS (distance) MILE(S) 5−10−4. LOST COMMUNICATIONS
FROM RUNWAY/AIRPORT/HELIPORT,
When weather reports indicate that an aircraft will
or for a point-in-space approach, likely encounter IFR weather conditions during the
approach, take the following action as soon as
A MISSED APPROACH POINT (distance) MILE(S) possible after establishing radar identification and
(direction from landing area) OF (airport name) radio communications (may be omitted after the first
AIRPORT/HELIPORT. approach when successive approaches are made and
EXAMPLE− the instructions remain the same):
Helicopter point-in-space approach:
NOTE−
Air traffic control facilities at U.S. Army and U.S. Air Force
“Army copter Zulu Two, this will be a surveillance
installations are not required to transmit lost communica-
approach to a missed approach point, three point five miles
tions instructions to military aircraft. All military facilities
south of Creedon Heliport.”
will issue specific lost communications instructions to civil
REFERENCE− aircraft when required.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−12−10, Elevation Failure.
a. If lost communications instructions will require
c. Inform an aircraft making an approach to an
the aircraft to fly on an unpublished route, issue an
airport not served by a tower that no traffic or landing
appropriate altitude to the pilot. If the lost
runway information is available for that airport.
communications instructions are the same for both
PHRASEOLOGY− pattern and final, the pattern/vector controller must
NO TRAFFIC OR LANDING RUNWAY INFORMATION issue both. Advise the pilot that if radio communica-
AVAILABLE FOR THE AIRPORT. tions are lost for a specified time interval (not more
REFERENCE− than 1 minute) on vector to final approach, 15 seconds
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−7−2, Altimeter Setting Issuance Below on a surveillance final approach, or 5 seconds on a
Lowest Usable FL.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−9−2, Final Approach Course PAR final approach to:
Interception.
1. Attempt contact on a secondary or a tower
frequency.
5−10−3. NO-GYRO APPROACH
2. Proceed in accordance with visual flight rules
When an aircraft will make a no-gyro surveillance or if possible.
a PAR approach:
3. Proceed with an approved nonradar
a. Before issuing a vector, inform the aircraft of approach, or execute the specific lost communica-
the type of approach. tions procedure for the radar approach being used.
PHRASEOLOGY− NOTE−
THIS WILL BE A NO-GYRO SURVEILLANCE/P−A−R The approved procedures are those published on the FAA
APPROACH. Forms 8260 or applicable military document.
5−10−2 Radar Approaches− Terminal

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
IF NO TRANSMISSIONS ARE RECEIVED FOR (time FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−9−2, Final Approach Course
Interception.
interval) IN THE PATTERN OR FIVE/FIFTEEN FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−10−2, Approach Information.
SECONDS ON FINAL APPROACH, ATTEMPT FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−12−10, Elevation Failure.
CONTACT ON (frequency), AND
5−10−5. RADAR CONTACT LOST
if the possibility exists,
If radar contact is lost during an approach and the
PROCEED VFR. IF UNABLE: aircraft has not started final approach, clear the
aircraft to an appropriate NAVAID/fix for an
if approved, instrument approach.
REFERENCE−
PROCEED WITH (nonradar approach), MAINTAIN FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−9−2, Final Approach Course
(altitude) UNTIL ESTABLISHED ON/OVER FIX/ Interception.
NAVAID/APPROACH PROCEDURE, FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−10−14, Final Approach Abnormalities.
or
5−10−6. LANDING CHECK
(alternative instructions). USA/USN. Advise the pilot to perform landing
check while the aircraft is on downwind leg and in
PHRASEOLOGY− time to complete it before turning base leg. If an
USN. For ACLS operations using Mode I, IA, and II,
incomplete pattern is used, issue this before handoff
IF NO TRANSMISSIONS ARE RECEIVED FOR to the final controller for a PAR approach, or before
FIVE SECONDS AFTER LOSS OF DATA LINK, starting descent on final approach for surveillance
ATTEMPT CONTACT ON (frequency), AND approach.
PHRASEOLOGY−
if the possibility exists, PERFORM LANDING CHECK.
REFERENCE−
PROCEED VFR. IF UNABLE: FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−9−2, Final Approach Course
Interception.
if approved, FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−12−10, Elevation Failure.
PROCEED WITH (nonradar approach), MAINTAIN 5−10−7. POSITION INFORMATION

(altitude) UNTIL ESTABLISHED ON/OVER FIX/ Inform the aircraft of its position at least once before
NAVAID/APPROACH PROCEDURE,
starting final approach.
or PHRASEOLOGY−
(Number) MILES (direction) OF (airport name)
(alternative instructions). AIRPORT,
b. If the final approach lost communications or

instructions are changed, differ from those for the
(number) MILES (direction) OF (airport name) AIRPORT
pattern, or are not issued by the pattern controller, ON DOWNWIND/BASE LEG.
they must be issued by the final controller.
REFERENCE−
Interception.
c. If the pilot states that he/she cannot accept a lost FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−12−10, Elevation Failure.
communications procedure due to weather condi-
tions or other reasons, request the pilot’s intention. 5−10−8. FINAL CONTROLLER
CHANGEOVER
NOTE−
The pilot is responsible for determining the adequacy of When instructing the aircraft to change frequency for
lost communications procedures with respect to aircraft final approach guidance, include the name of the
performance, equipment capability, or reported weather. facility.

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
CONTACT (name of facility) FINAL CONTROLLER ON FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−9−2, Final Approach Course
Interception.
(frequency). FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−12−10, Elevation Failure.
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−9−2, Final Approach Course 5−10−12. LOW APPROACH AND TOUCH-
Interception. AND-GO
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−9−4, Arrival Instructions.
Before an aircraft which plans to execute a low
approach or touch-and-go begins final descent, issue
5−10−9. COMMUNICATIONS CHECK appropriate departure instructions to be followed
On initial contact with the final controller, ask the upon completion of the approach. Climb-out
aircraft for a communication check. instructions must include a specific heading and
altitude except when the aircraft will maintain VFR
PHRASEOLOGY−
(Aircraft call sign), (name of facility) FINAL
and contact the tower.
CONTROLLER. HOW DO YOU HEAR ME? PHRASEOLOGY−
REFERENCE− AFTER COMPLETING LOW APPROACH/TOUCH AND
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−9−2, Final Approach Course GO:
Interception.
CLIMB AND MAINTAIN (altitude).
5−10−10. TRANSMISSION TURN (right or left) HEADING (degrees)/FLY RUNWAY

ACKNOWLEDGMENT HEADING,
After contact has been established with the final or
controller and while on the final approach course,
instruct the aircraft not to acknowledge further MAINTAIN VFR, CONTACT TOWER,
transmissions.
PHRASEOLOGY− or
DO NOT ACKNOWLEDGE FURTHER TRANS-
MISSIONS. (other instructions as appropriate).
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−9−2, Final Approach Course This may be omitted after the first approach if instructions
Interception. remain the same.
REFERENCE−
5−10−11. MISSED APPROACH Interception.
Before an aircraft starts final descent for a full stop
landing and weather reports indicate that any portion
of the final approach will be conducted in IFR 5−10−13. TOWER CLEARANCE
conditions, issue a specific missed approach a. When an aircraft is on final approach to an
procedure approved for the radar approach being airport served by a tower, obtain a clearance to land,
conducted. touch-and-go, or make low approach. Issue the
PHRASEOLOGY− clearance and the surface wind to the aircraft.
YOUR MISSED APPROACH PROCEDURE IS (missed
approach procedure).
b. If the clearance is not obtained or is canceled,
inform the aircraft and issue alternative instructions.
NOTE−
1. The specific missed approach procedure is published on PHRASEOLOGY−
FAA Form 8260−4 or applicable military document. TOWER CLEARANCE CANCELED/NOT RECEIVED
(alternative instructions).
2. USAF. At locations where missed approach instruc-
tions are published in base flying regulations, controllers REFERENCE−
need not issue missed approach instructions to locally Interception.
assigned/attached aircraft. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−12−10, Elevation Failure.
5−10−4 Radar Approaches− Terminal

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
5−10−14. FINAL APPROACH REFERENCE−

ABNORMALITIES Interception.
Instruct the aircraft if runway environment not in
sight, execute a missed approach if previously given;
or climb to or maintain a specified altitude and fly a 5−10−15. MILITARY SINGLE FREQUENCY
specified course whenever the completion of a safe APPROACHES
approach is questionable because one or more of the
following conditions exists. The conditions in a. Utilize single frequency approach procedures
subparagraphs a, b, and c do not apply after the as contained in a letter of agreement.
aircraft passes decision height on a PAR approach. b. Do not require a frequency change from aircraft
EXAMPLE− on a single frequency approach after the approach has
Typical reasons for issuing missed approach instructions: begun unless:
“Radar contact lost.”
“Too high/low for safe approach.” 1. Landing or low approach has been
“Too far right/left for safe approach.” completed.
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−12−7, Position Advisories.
2. The aircraft is in visual flight rules (VFR)
conditions during daylight hours.
a. Safety limits are exceeded or radical target
deviations are observed. 3. The pilot requests the frequency change.
b. Position or identification of the aircraft is in 4. An emergency situation exists.
doubt.
5. The aircraft is cleared for a visual approach.
c. Radar contact is lost or a malfunctioning radar
is suspected. 6. The pilot cancels instrument flight rules
(IFR).
PHRASEOLOGY−
(Reason) IF RUNWAY/APPROACH LIGHTS/RUNWAY c. Accomplish the following steps to complete
LIGHTS NOT IN SIGHT, EXECUTE MISSED communications transfer on single frequency
APPROACH/(alternative instructions). approaches after completion of a handoff:
NOTE−
If the pilot requests, approval may be granted to proceed 1. Transferring controller: Position transmitter
with the approach via ILS or another navigational selectors to preclude further transmissions on the
aid/approach aid. special use frequencies.
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−10−5, Radar Contact Lost. 2. Receiving controller: Position transmitter
and receiver selectors to enable communications on
d. Airport conditions or traffic preclude approach
the special use frequencies.
completion.
PHRASEOLOGY− 3. Do not require or expect the flight to check on
EXECUTE MISSED APPROACH/(alternative instruc- frequency unless an actual frequency change is
tions), (reason). transmitted to the pilot.

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 11. Surveillance Approaches− Terminal
5−11−1. ALTITUDE INFORMATION NOTE−

Pilots are normally expected to furnish the aircraft
Provide recommended altitudes on final approach if approach category to the controller when it is determined
the pilot requests. If recommended altitudes are that the surveillance approach will terminate in a circle to
requested, inform the pilot that recommended land maneuver. If this information is not voluntarily given,
altitudes which are at or above the published MDA solicit the aircraft approach category from the pilot, and
will be given for each mile on final. then issue him/her the applicable circling MDA.
PHRASEOLOGY−
REFERENCE− PREPARE TO DESCEND IN (number) MILE(S).
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 10−5−7, Recommended Altitudes for
Surveillance Approaches.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−11−5, Final Approach Guidance. for straight-in approaches,
PHRASEOLOGY−
MINIMUM DESCENT ALTITUDE (altitude).
RECOMMENDED ALTITUDES WILL BE PROVIDED
FOR EACH MILE ON FINAL TO MINIMUM DESCENT
for circling approaches,
ALTITUDE/CIRCLING MINIMUM DESCENT
ALTITUDE.
REQUEST YOUR AIRCRAFT APPROACH CATEGORY.
(Upon receipt of aircraft approach category),
PUBLISHED CIRCLING MINIMUM DESCENT
5−11−2. VISUAL REFERENCE REPORT
ALTITUDE (altitude).
Aircraft may be requested to report the runway,
approach/runway lights, or airport in sight. Heli- 5−11−4. DESCENT INSTRUCTIONS
copters making a “point-in-space” approach may be When an aircraft reaches the descent point, issue one
requested to report when able to proceed to the of the following as appropriate:
landing area by visual reference to a prescribed REFERENCE−
surface route. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−12−10, Elevation Failure.
a. Unless a descent restriction exists, advise the
PHRASEOLOGY−
REPORT (runway, approach/runway lights or airport) IN aircraft to descend to the MDA.
SIGHT. PHRASEOLOGY−
(Number) MILES FROM RUNWAY/AIRPORT/
REPORT WHEN ABLE TO PROCEED VISUALLY TO HELIPORT. DESCEND TO YOUR MINIMUM DESCENT
AIRPORT/HELIPORT. ALTITUDE.
b. When a descent restriction exists, specify the
prescribed restriction altitude. When the aircraft has
5−11−3. DESCENT NOTIFICATION
passed the altitude limiting point, advise to continue
a. Issue advance notice of where descent will descent to MDA.
begin and issue the straight-in MDA prior to issuing PHRASEOLOGY−
final descent for the approaches. (Number) MILES FROM RUNWAY/AIRPORT/
HELIPORT. DESCEND AND MAINTAIN (restriction
NOTE− altitude).
The point at which descent to the minimum descent altitude
is authorized is the final approach fix unless an altitude DESCEND TO YOUR MINIMUM DESCENT ALTITUDE.
limiting stepdown-fix is prescribed.
b. When it is determined that the surveillance 5−11−5. FINAL APPROACH GUIDANCE
approach will terminate in a circle to land maneuver, a. Issue course guidance, inform the aircraft when
request the aircraft approach category from the pilot. it is on course, and frequently inform the aircraft of
After receiving the aircraft approach category, any deviation from course. Transmissions with
provide him/her with the applicable circling MDA aircraft on surveillance final approach should occur
prior to issuing final descent for the approach. approximately every 15 seconds.
Surveillance Approaches− Terminal 5−11−1

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
PHRASEOLOGY− in-space” approach, he/she reports able to proceed to

HEADING (heading), the landing area by visual reference to a prescribed
surface route.
ON COURSE,
c. When approach guidance is discontinued in
or accordance with subparagraph a and the aircraft has
reported the runway or approach/runway lights in
SLIGHTLY/WELL LEFT/RIGHT OF COURSE. sight, advise the aircraft of its position and to proceed
NOTE− visually.
Controllers should not key the radio transmitter
PHRASEOLOGY−
continuously during radar approaches to preclude a
(Distance) MILE(S) FROM RUNWAY/AIRPORT/
lengthy communications block. The decision on how often
HELIPORT,
transmitters are unkeyed is the controller’s prerogative.
b. Issue trend information, as required, to indicate or
target position with respect to the extended runway
centerline and to describe the target movement as OVER MISSED APPROACH POINT.
appropriate corrections are issued. Trend information
PROCEED VISUALLY (additional instructions/clearance
may be modified by the terms “RAPIDLY” and
as required.)
“SLOWLY” as appropriate.
d. When approach guidance is discontinued in
EXAMPLE−
“Going left/right of course.” accordance with subparagraph a above and the
“Left/right of course and holding/correcting.” aircraft has not reported the runway or approach/run-
way lights in sight, advise the aircraft of its position
c. Inform the aircraft of its distance from the and to execute a missed approach unless the runway
runway, airport/heliport, or MAP, as appropriate, or approach/runway lights are in sight or, if a
each mile on final. “point-in-space” approach, unless able to proceed
PHRASEOLOGY− visually.
(Number) MILE(S) FROM RUNWAY/AIRPORT/
PHRASEOLOGY−
HELIPORT OR MISSED APPROACH POINT.
(Distance) MILE(S) FROM RUNWAY,
d. Recommended altitudes must be furnished, if
requested, in accordance with paragraph 5−11−1, or
Altitude Information.
OVER MISSED APPROACH POINT.
PHRASEOLOGY− IF RUNWAY,
If requested,
or
ALTITUDE SHOULD BE (altitude).
APPROACH/RUNWAY LIGHTS NOT IN SIGHT,
5−11−6. APPROACH GUIDANCE EXECUTE MISSED APPROACH/(missed approach
instructions). (Additional instructions/clearance, as
TERMINATION
required.)
a. Discontinue surveillance approach guidance
when: (Distance and direction) FROM AIRPORT/HELIPORT/
MISSED APPROACH POINT.
1. Requested by the pilot.
IF UNABLE TO PROCEED VISUALLY, EXECUTE
2. In your opinion, continuation of a safe MISSED APPROACH. (Additional instructions/clear-
approach to the MAP is questionable. ance, if required.)
3. The aircraft is over the MAP. NOTE−
Terminal instrument approach procedures and flight
b. Surveillance approach guidance may be inspection criteria require establishment of a MAP for each
discontinued when the pilot reports the runway or procedure including the point to which satisfactory radar
approach/runway lights in sight or if a “point- guidance can be provided.
5−11−2 Surveillance Approaches− Terminal

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 12. PAR Approaches− Terminal
5−12−1. GLIDEPATH NOTIFICATION b. Issue trend information as required, to indicate

target position with respect to the azimuth and
Inform the aircraft when it is approaching glidepath elevation cursors and to describe target movement as
(approximately 10 to 30 seconds before final appropriate corrections are issued. Trend information
descent). may be modified by the terms “RAPIDLY” or
PHRASEOLOGY− “SLOWLY,” as appropriate.
APPROACHING GLIDEPATH.
EXAMPLE−
“Going above/below glidepath.”
5−12−2. DECISION HEIGHT (DH) “Going right/left of course.”
NOTIFICATION “Above/below glidepath and coming down/up.”
“Above/below glidepath and holding.”
Provide the DH to any pilot who requests it. “Left/right of course and holding/correcting.”
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−12−7, Position Advisories.
DECISION HEIGHT (number of feet). FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−13−3, Monitor Information.
5−12−3. DESCENT INSTRUCTION 5−12−5. DISTANCE FROM TOUCHDOWN

When an aircraft reaches the point where final Inform the aircraft of its distance from touchdown at
descent is to start, instruct it to begin descent. least once each mile on final approach.
BEGIN DESCENT. (Number of miles) MILES FROM TOUCHDOWN.
5−12−4. GLIDEPATH AND COURSE 5−12−6. DECISION HEIGHT

INFORMATION
Inform the aircraft when it reaches the published
a. Issue course guidance and inform the aircraft decision height.
when it is on glidepath and on course, and frequently PHRASEOLOGY−
inform the aircraft of any deviation from glidepath or AT DECISION HEIGHT.
course. Transmissions with aircraft on precision final
approach should occur approximately every
5−12−7. POSITION ADVISORIES
5 seconds.
PHRASEOLOGY− a. Continue to provide glidepath and course
HEADING (heading). information prescribed in paragraph 5−12−4, Glide-
path and Course Information, subparagraphs a and b,
ON GLIDEPATH. until the aircraft passes over threshold.
NOTE−
ON COURSE,
Glidepath and course information provided below decision
height is advisory only. 14 CFR Section 91.175 outlines
or
pilot responsibilities for descent below decision height.
SLIGHTLY/WELL ABOVE/BELOW GLIDEPATH. b. Inform the aircraft when it is passing over the
approach lights.
SLIGHTLY/WELL LEFT/RIGHT OF COURSE.
PHRASEOLOGY−
NOTE− OVER APPROACH LIGHTS.
Controllers should not key the radio transmitter
continuously during radar approaches to preclude a c. Inform the aircraft when it is passing over the
lengthy communications block. The decision on how often landing threshold and inform it of its position with
transmitters are unkeyed is the controller’s prerogative. respect to the final approach course.
PAR Approaches− Terminal 5−12−1

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
PHRASEOLOGY− NOTE−
OVER LANDING THRESHOLD, (position with respect to Communications transfer instructions should be delayed
course). slightly until the aircraft is on the landing roll-out to
REFERENCE−
preclude diversion of the pilot’s attention during transition
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−10−14, Final Approach Abnormalities. and touchdown.
REFERENCE−
5−12−8. APPROACH GUIDANCE
TERMINATION
5−12−10. ELEVATION FAILURE
a. Discontinue precision approach guidance
when: a. If the elevation portion of PAR equipment fails
during a precision approach:
1. Requested by the pilot.
1. Discontinue PAR instructions and tell the
2. In your opinion, continuation of a safe aircraft to take over visually or if unable, to execute
approach to the landing threshold is questionable. a missed approach. If the aircraft executes a missed
approach, apply subparagraph 2 below.
3. The aircraft passes over landing threshold.
PHRASEOLOGY−
4. The pilot reports the runway/approach lights NO GLIDEPATH INFORMATION AVAILABLE. IF
in sight and requests to or advises that he/she will RUNWAY, APPROACH/RUNWAY LIGHTS, NOT IN
proceed visually. SIGHT, EXECUTE MISSED APPROACH/(alternative
instructions).
NOTE−
A pilot’s report of “runway in sight” or “visual” is not a 2. If a surveillance approach, ASR or PAR
request to proceed visually. without glide slope, is established for the same
b. When precision approach guidance is discon- runway, inform the aircraft that a surveillance
tinued in accordance with subparagraph a, advise the approach can be given. Use ASR or the azimuth
aircraft of its position and to proceed visually. portion of the PAR to conduct the approach and apply
Chapter 5, Radar, Section 11, Surveillance
PHRASEOLOGY− Approaches− Terminal. When the PAR azimuth is
(Distance) MILE(S) FROM TOUCHDOWN, PROCEED used, inform the pilot that mileage information will
VISUALLY (additional instructions/clearance as be from touchdown, and at those runways where
required).
specific minima have been established for PAR
c. After a pilot has reported the runway/approach without glideslope, inform the pilot that the PAR
lights in sight and requested to or advised that he/she azimuth will be used for the approach.
will proceed visually, and has been instructed to EXAMPLE−
proceed visually, all PAR approach procedures must 1. Approach information when PAR azimuth used:
be discontinued. “This will be a surveillance approach to runway three six.
Mileages will be from touchdown.”
d. Continue to monitor final approach and
or
frequency. Pilots must remain on final controller’s “This will be a surveillance approach to runway three six
frequency until touchdown or otherwise instructed. using P−A−R azimuth. Mileages will be from touchdown.”
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−10−14, Final Approach Abnormalities.
2. Descent Instructions:
“Five miles from touchdown, descend to your minimum
descent altitude/minimum altitude.”
5−12−9. COMMUNICATION TRANSFER REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−10−2, Approach Information.
Issue communications transfer instructions. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−11−4, Descent Instructions.
PHRASEOLOGY− b. If the elevation portion of the PAR equipment is

CONTACT (terminal control function) (frequency, if inoperative before starting a precision approach,
required) AFTER LANDING. apply subparagraph a2.
5−12−2 PAR Approaches− Terminal

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
5−12−11. SURVEILLANCE UNUSABLE NOTE−

The display of the NAVAID or DME fix in accordance with
PAR approaches may be conducted when the ASR is
paragraph 5−3−2, Primary Radar Identification Methods,
unusable provided a nonradar instrument approach is not required provided the NAVAID or DME fix can be
will position the aircraft over a navigational aid or correlated on a PAR scope.
DME fix within the precision radar coverage, or an
adjacent radar facility can provide a direct radar
handoff to the PAR controller.
PAR Approaches− Terminal 5−12−3

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 13. Use of PAR for Approach

Monitoring− Terminal
5−13−1. MONITOR ON PAR EQUIPMENT PHRASEOLOGY−

(Reason), RADAR MONITORING NOT AVAILABLE,
USAF not applicable. Aircraft conducting precision (alternative instructions).
or nonprecision approaches must be monitored by NOTE−
PAR equipment if the PAR final approach course Approach monitoring is a vital service, but during the
coincides with the NAVAID final approach course approach, the controller acts primarily as a safety observer
from the final approach fix to the runway and one of and does not actually guide the aircraft. Loss of the radar
the following conditions exists: monitoring capability (and thus availability) is no reason
to terminate an otherwise good instrument approach.
NOTE−
Advise the pilot that radar contact has been lost (or other
1. The provisions of this section do not apply to monitoring
reason as appropriate), that radar monitoring is not
simultaneous approaches.
available, and of actions for the pilot to take in either
2. This procedure is used in PAR facilities operated by the proceeding with or breaking off the approach; i.e., contact
FAA and other military services at joint-use civil/military tower, remain on PAR frequency, etc.
locations and military installations during the operational
hours of the PAR. 5−13−3. MONITOR INFORMATION
a. The reported weather is below basic VFR When approaches are monitored, take the following
minima. action:
b. USA Not applicable. At night. a. Advise the pilot executing a nonprecision
approach that glidepath advisories are not provided.
c. Upon request of the pilot. Do this prior to the pilot beginning the final descent.
REFERENCE−
PHRASEOLOGY−
Approaches− Dual & Triple. GLIDEPATH ADVISORIES WILL NOT BE PROVIDED.
b. Inform the aircraft when passing the final
5−13−2. MONITOR AVAILABILITY approach fix (nonprecision approaches) or when
passing the outer marker or the fix used in lieu of the
a. Inform the aircraft of the frequency on which outer marker (precision approaches).
monitoring information will be transmitted if it will
PHRASEOLOGY−
not be the same as the communication frequency used PASSING (FIX).
for the approach.
c. Advise the pilot of glidepath trend information
PHRASEOLOGY− (precision approaches) and course trend information
RADAR MONITORING ON LOCALIZER VOICE
to indicate target position and movement with respect
(frequency),
to the elevation or azimuth cursor when the aircraft
and if applicable, target corresponds to a position of well above/below
the glidepath or well left/right of course and
CONTACT (terminal control function) (frequency, if whenever the aircraft exceeds the radar safety limits.
required) AFTER LANDING. Repeat if no correction is observed.
b. If the approach is not monitored, inform the EXAMPLE−
aircraft that radar monitoring is not available. Course trend information:
“(Ident), well right/left of P−A−R course, drifting further
PHRASEOLOGY− right/left.”
RADAR MONITORING NOT AVAILABLE.
c. If conditions prevent continued monitor after Glidepath trend information:
“(Ident), well above/below P−A−R glidepath.”
the aircraft is on final approach, advise the pilot. State
REFERENCE−
the reason and issue alternate procedures as FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−12−4, Glidepath and Course
appropriate. Information.
Use of PAR for Approach Monitoring− Terminal 5−13−1

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
d. If, after repeated advisories, the aircraft is PHRASEOLOGY−

observed proceeding outside the safety limits or a (Position with respect to course or glidepath). IF NOT
radical target deviation is observed, advise the VISUAL, ADVISE YOU EXECUTE MISSED APPROACH
aircraft if unable to proceed visually, to execute a (alternative instructions).
missed approach. Issue a specific altitude and e. Provide monitor information until the aircraft is
heading if a procedure other than the published over the landing threshold or commences a circling
missed approach is to be executed. approach.
5−13−2 Use of PAR for Approach Monitoring− Terminal

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 14. Automation− En Route
5−14−1. CONFLICT ALERT (CA) AND 5−14−2. EN ROUTE MINIMUM SAFE

MODE C INTRUDER (MCI) ALERT ALTITUDE WARNING (E-MSAW)
a. When a CA or MCI alert is displayed, evaluate a. When an E-MSAW alert is displayed, immedi-
the reason for the alert without delay and take ately analyze the situation and take the appropriate
appropriate action. action to resolve the alert.
REFERENCE−
NOTE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−6, Safety Alert. Caution should be exercised when issuing a clearance to an
aircraft in reaction to an E-MSAW alert to ensure that
b. If another controller is involved in the alert, adjacent MIA areas are not a factor.
initiate coordination to ensure an effective course of REFERENCE−
action. Coordination is not required when immediate FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−6, Safety Alert.
action is dictated. b. The controller may suppress the display of an
c. Suppressing/Inhibiting CA/MCI alert. E-MSAW alert from his/her control position with the
application of one of the following suppress/inhibit
1. The controller may suppress the display of a computer functions:
CA/MCI alert from a control position with the 1. The specific alert suppression message may
application of one of the following suppress/inhibit be used to inhibit the E-MSAW alerting display on a
computer functions: single flight for a specific alert.
(a) The Conflict Suppress (CO) function may 2. The indefinite alert suppression message
be used to suppress the CA/MCI display between must be used exclusively to inhibit the display of
specific aircraft for a specific alert. E-MSAW alerts on aircraft known to be flying at an
altitude that will activate the alert feature of one or
NOTE−
See NAS−MD−678 for the EARTS conflict suppress more MIA areas within an ARTCC.
message. NOTE−
1. The indefinite alert suppression message will remain in
(b) The Group Suppression (SG) function effect for the duration of the referenced flight’s active status
must be applied exclusively to inhibit the displaying within the ARTCC unless modified by controller action.
of alerts among military aircraft engaged in special
2. The indefinite alert suppression message would
military operations where standard en route separa- typically apply to military flights with clearance to fly
tion criteria does not apply. low-level type routes that routinely require altitudes below
NOTE− established minimum IFR altitudes.
Special military operations where the SG function would c. The computer entry of a message suppressing or
typically apply involve those activities where military inhibiting E-MSAW alerts constitutes acknowledg-
aircraft routinely operate in proximities to each other that
ment for the alert and indicates that appropriate action
are less than standard en route separation criteria; i.e., air
refueling operations, ADC practice intercept operations, has or will be taken to resolve the situation.
etc.
2. The computer entry of a message suppressing 5−14−3. COMPUTER ENTRY OF FLIGHT

a CA/MCI alert constitutes acknowledgment for the PLAN INFORMATION
alert and signifies that appropriate action has or will a. Altitude
be taken.
1. The altitude field(s) of the data block must
3. The CA/MCI alert may not be suppressed or always reflect the current status of the aircraft unless
inhibited at or for another control position without otherwise specified in an appropriate facility
being coordinated. directive.
Automation− En Route 5−14−1

JO
JO 7110.65Z
7110.65R CHG
7110.65Z CHG
2 1 12/2/21
3/15/07
6/17/21
2. Unless otherwise specified in a facility 5−14−4. ENTRY OF REPORTED ALTITUDE

directive or letter of agreement, do not modify Whenever Mode C altitude information is either not
assigned or interim altitude information prior to available or is unreliable, enter reported altitudes into
establishing communication with an aircraft that is the computer as follows:
outside your area of jurisdiction unless verbal
coordination identifying who will modify the data NOTE−
Altitude updates are required to assure maximum accuracy
block has been accomplished.
in applying slant range correction formulas.
NOTE− a. When an aircraft reaches the assigned altitude.
1. A local interim altitude (LIA) can be used as a means of b. When an aircraft at an assigned altitude is issued
recording interfacility coordination.
a clearance to climb or descend.
2. Conflict probe in EDST does not probe for the LIA. c. A minimum of each 10,000 feet during climb to
or descent from FL 180 and above.
3. Whenever an aircraft is cleared to maintain an
altitude different from that in the flight plan database, 5−14−5. SELECTED ALTITUDE LIMITS
enter into the computer one of the following:
The display of Mode C targets and limited data blocks
(a) The new assigned altitude if the aircraft is necessary for application of Merging Target
will (climb or descend to and) maintain the new Procedures. Sectors must ensure the display of
altitude, or Mode C targets and data blocks by entering
appropriate altitude limits and display filters to
include, as a minimum, the altitude stratum of the
(b) An interim altitude if the aircraft will
sector plus:
(climb or descend to and) maintain the new altitude
for a short period of time and subsequently be a. 1,200 feet above the highest and below the
recleared to the altitude in the flight plan database or lowest altitude or flight level of the sector where
a new altitude or a new interim altitude, or 1,000 feet vertical separation is applicable; and
b. 2,200 feet above the highest and below the
ERAM lowest flight level of the sector where 2,000 feet
vertical separation is applicable.
(c) A procedure altitude if the aircraft is NOTE−
cleared to vertically navigate (VNAV) on a 1. The data block, for purposes of this paragraph, must
SID/STAR with published restrictions, or contain the Mode C altitude and call sign or beacon code
at a minimum.
(d) Where appropriate for interfacility hand- 2. Exception to these requirements may be authorized for
offs, an LIA when the assigned altitude differs from specific altitudes in certain ARTCC sectors if defined in
the coordinated altitude unless verbally coordinated appropriate facility directives and approved by the
or specified in a letter of agreement or facility respective service area operations directorate.
directive.
5−14−6. SECTOR ELIGIBILITY
NOTE−
The use of the OK function is allowed to override
A facility directive may be published, in accordance with
JO 7210.3, paragraph 8−2−7, Waiver to Interim Altitude sector eligibility only when one of the following
Requirements, deleting the interim altitude computer entry conditions is met:
requirements of subparagraph 3. a. Prior coordination is effected.
b. Flight Plan Route Data b. The flight is within the control jurisdiction of
the sector.
This information must not be modified outside of the
controller’s area of jurisdiction unless verbally 5−14−7. COAST TRACKS
coordinated or specified in a Letter of Agreement or Do not use coast tracks in the application of either
Facility Directive. radar or nonradar separation criteria.
5−14−2 Automation− En Route

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
5−14−8. CONTROLLER INITIATED COAST 3. Enter an EFC time via a hold message, the
TRACKS Hold Data Menu, or the Hold View.
a. Initiate coast tracks only in Flight Plan Aided 4. Enter non-published holding instructions via
Tracking (FLAT) mode, except “free” coast tracking a hold message or the Hold Data Menu.
may be used as a reminder that aircraft without
corresponding computer-stored flight plan informa- NOTE−
The ERAM hold message allows automatic calculation and
tion are under your control.
reporting of aggregate delays.
NOTE−
1. To ensure tracks are started in FLAT mode, perform a b. Unless otherwise specified in a facility
start track function at the aircraft’s most current reported directive, verbally coordinate non-published holding
position, then immediately “force” the track into coast instructions when handing off an aircraft in hold
tracking by performing another start function with “CT” status to another ERAM sector.
option in field 64. Making amendments to the stored route
with trackball entry when the aircraft is rerouted, and c. An EFC time entered into the Hold Data Menu,
repositioning the data block to coincide with the aircraft’s Hold View, or the hold message constitutes
position reports are methods of maintaining a coast track coordination of the EFC between ERAM sectors.
in FLAT mode. REFERENCE−
2. EBUS does not have the capability to initiate coast FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 8−2−9, ERAM Hold Information Facility
Directive Requirements.
tracks.
b. Prior to initiating a coast track, ensure that a
5−14−10. ERAM VISUAL INDICATOR OF
departure message or progress report corresponding
SPECIAL ACTIVITY AIRSPACE (SAA)
with the aircraft’s current position is entered into the
STATUS
computer.
c. As soon as practicable after the aircraft is in Sector controllers shall ensure the situation display
radar surveillance, initiate action to cause radar accurately reflects the status of all SAAs that impact
tracking to begin on the aircraft. their area of control responsibility. When “SAA
DOWN” is displayed in the Outage View, manually
create visual indicators on the situation display to
5−14−9. ERAM COMPUTER ENTRY OF
reflect changes to airspace status.
HOLD INFORMATION
NOTE−
a. When an aircraft is issued holding instructions, The “SAA DOWN” message in the Outage View means that
the delay is ATC initiated, and the EFC is other than SAA status is no longer being updated. The status of each
“no delay expected:” SAA at the time of the failure, whether “on” or “off”, will
1. Enter a hold message. continue to be displayed. Status changes will not be
automatically updated on the display until the outage is
2. Maintain a paired track. resolved.
Automation− En Route 5−14−3

12/2/21
6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z CHG 1
JO 7110.65Z
Section 15. Standard Terminal Automation

Replacement System (STARS)−Terminal
5−15−1. APPLICATION use of terminal automation systems, all pertinent

flight data of that position must be transferred or
STARS may be used for identifying aircraft assigned
terminated.
a discrete beacon code, maintaining identity of
targets, and performing handoffs of these targets b. Inform other interfaced facilities of scheduled
between controllers. All procedures for the terminal and unscheduled shutdowns.
domain related to air traffic control services using c. Initiate a track/tag on all aircraft to the
STARS apply to the FUSION target. maximum extent possible. As a minimum, aircraft
identification should be entered, and automated
5−15−2. RESPONSIBILITY handoff functions should be used.
This equipment does not relieve the controller of the d. Assigned altitude, if displayed, must be kept
responsibility to ensure proper identification, main- current at all times. Climb and descent arrows, where
tenance of identity, handoff of the correct target available, must be used to indicate other than level
associated with the alphanumeric data, and separa- flight.
tion of aircraft.
e. When operating in FUSION mode, the assigned
or pilot reported altitude must be displayed and kept
5−15−3. FUNCTIONAL USE current when the aircraft is in level flight.
In addition to other uses specified herein, terminal f. The automatic altitude readout of an aircraft
automation may be used for the following functions: under another controller’s jurisdiction may be used
a. Tracking. for vertical separation purposes without verbal
coordination provided:
b. Tagging.
1. Operation is conducted using single-site
c. Handoff. radar coverage or when operating in FUSION mode.
d. Altitude information. 2. Prearranged coordination procedures are
REFERENCE− contained in a facility directive in accordance with
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−2−21, Altitude Filters. paragraph 5−4−9, Prearranged Coordination, and
e. Coordination. FAA Order JO 7210.3, paragraph 3−6−7, Pre-
arranged Coordination.
f. Ground speed.
3. Do not use Mode C to effect vertical
g. Identification. separation within a Mosaic radar configuration.
5−15−4. SYSTEM REQUIREMENTS 5−15−5. INFORMATION DISPLAYED

Use terminal automation systems as follows: a. Two-letter ICAO designators or three-letter
NOTE− designators, as appropriate, must be used unless
Locally developed procedures, operating instructions, and program limitations dictate the use of a single letter
training material are required because of differences in alpha prefix.
equipment capability. Such locally developed procedures
must be supplemental to those contained in this section and b. Use of the inhibit/select functions to remove
must be designed to make maximum use of the STARS displayed information no longer required must be in
equipment. accordance with local directives, which should
ensure maximum required use of the equipment.
a. Inform all appropriate positions before termin-
ating or reinstating use of the terminal automation c. Information displayed must be in accordance
system at a control position. When terminating the with national orders and specified in local directives.
Standard Terminal Automation Replacement System (STARS)−Terminal 5−15−1

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
5−15−6. CA/MCI 4. CA/MCI alert may not be suppressed or

inhibited at or for another control position without
a. When a CA or MCI alert is displayed, evaluate being coordinated.
the reason for the alert without delay and take
appropriate action.
5−15−7. INHIBITING MINIMUM SAFE
REFERENCE− ALTITUDE WARNING (MSAW)
a. Inhibit MSAW processing of VFR aircraft and
b. If another controller is involved in the alert,
aircraft that cancel instrument flight rules (IFR) flight
initiate coordination to ensure an effective course of
plans unless the pilot specifically requests otherwise.
action. Coordination is not required when immediate
action is dictated. REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 10−2−7, VFR Aircraft in Weather
Difficulty.
c. Suppressing/Inhibiting CA/MCI alert. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 10−2−8, Radar Assistance to VFR
Aircraft in Weather Difficulty.
1. The suppress function may be used to
suppress the display of a specific CA/MCI alert. b. A low altitude alert may be suppressed from the
control position. Computer entry of the suppress
2. The inhibit function must only be used to message constitutes an acknowledgment for the alert
inhibit the display of CA for aircraft routinely and indicates that appropriate action has or will be
engaged in operations where approved separation taken.
criteria do not apply.
NOTE− 5−15−8. TRACK SUSPEND FUNCTION
Examples of operations where approved separation Use the track suspend function only when data block
criteria do not apply are ADC practice intercept operations
overlap in holding patterns or in proximity of the final
and air shows.
approach create an unworkable situation. If necessary
3. Computer entry of a message suppressing a to suspend tracks, those which are not displaying
CA/MCI alert constitutes acknowledgment for the automatic altitude readouts must be suspended. If the
alert and signifies that appropriate action has or will condition still exists, those displaying automatic
be taken. altitude readouts may then be suspended.
5−15−2 Standard Terminal Automation Replacement System (STARS)−Terminal

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Chapter 6. Nonradar
Section 1. General
6−1−1. DISTANCE FIG 6−1−1

Adjacent Airport Operation −− Arrival
Use mileage-based (DME and/or ATD) procedures
and minima only when direct pilot/controller VHF or
UHF voice communications are maintained.
6−1−2. NONRECEIPT OF POSITION

REPORT
When a position report affecting separation is not

received, take action to obtain the report no later than
5 minutes after the aircraft was estimated over the fix. FIG 6−1−2
REFERENCE−
Adjacent Airport Operation −− Departure
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 9−2−6, IFR Military Training Routes.
6−1−3. DUPLICATE POSITION REPORTS
Do not require an aircraft to make the same position

report to more than one facility.
6−1−4. ADJACENT AIRPORT OPERATION
TERMINAL 6−1−5. ARRIVAL MINIMA

TERMINAL
The ATC facility having control jurisdiction at a. Separate IFR aircraft landing behind an arriving
adjacent airports must separate arriving or departing aircraft to the same runway:
IFR aircraft on a course that will cross the flight path 1. Behind super:
of an aircraft requiring wake turbulence separation in
accordance with the following: (a) Heavy or large − 3 minutes.
(b) Small − 4 minutes.
a. Heavy, large, or small behind super − 3 minutes.
2. Behind heavy:
b. Heavy, large, or small behind heavy − 2 (a) Heavy or large − 2 minutes.
minutes.
(b) Small − 3 minutes.
c. Small behind B757 - 2 minutes. 3. Small behind B757 − 3 minutes.
General 6−1−1
JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
b. Separate IFR aircraft landing behind an arriving FIG 6−1−3

aircraft to a parallel runway separated by less than Arrival Minima Landing Behind an Arriving
2,500 feet, or a crossing runway if projected flight Aircraft Requiring Wake Turbulence Separation
paths will cross:
minutes.
minutes.
6−1−2 General
6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 2. Initial Separation of Successive

Departing Aircraft
6−2−1. MINIMA ON DIVERGING COURSES FIG 6−2−2

Minima on Diverging Courses
Separate aircraft that will fly courses diverging by
45 degrees or more after departing the same or
adjacent airports by use of one of the following
minima:
NOTE−
1. Consider known aircraft performance characteristics
when applying initial separation to successive departing
aircraft.
2. When one or both of the departure surfaces is a helipad,
use the takeoff course of the helicopter as a reference,
comparable to the centerline of a runway and the helipad
center as the threshold.
a. When aircraft will fly diverging courses: 3. Within 13 miles DME/ATD after takeoff −
3 miles until courses diverge. (See FIG 6−2−3.)
1. Immediately after takeoff − 1 minute until
courses diverge. (See FIG 6−2−1.) FIG 6−2−3
FIG 6−2−1
b. TERMINAL. Between aircraft departing in the

same direction from different runways whose
centerlines are parallel and separated by at least
3,500 feet, authorize simultaneous takeoffs when the
2. Within 5 minutes after takeoff− 2 minutes aircraft will fly diverging courses immediately after
until courses diverge. (See FIG 6−2−2.) takeoff. (See FIG 6−2−4.)
Initial Separation of Successive Departing Aircraft 6−2−1

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
FIG 6−2−4 FIG 6−2−5

Minima on Diverging Courses Minima on Diverging Courses
2. Intersecting runways. Authorize takeoff of a

succeeding aircraft when the preceding aircraft has
passed the point of runway intersection, and
c. TERMINAL. Between aircraft that will fly
(a) The runways diverge by 30 degrees or
diverging courses immediately after takeoff from
more. (See FIG 6−2−6.)
diverging runways: (See FIG 6−2−5.)
FIG 6−2−6
1. Nonintersecting runways. Authorize simul-
taneous takeoffs when either of the following
conditions exist:
(a) The runways diverge by 30 degrees or

more.
(b) The distance between runway centerlines

at and beyond the points where takeoffs begin is at
least:
(1) 2,000 feet and the runways diverge by

15 to 29 degrees inclusive.
(2) 3,500 feet and the runways diverge by

less than 15 degrees.
6−2−2 Initial Separation of Successive Departing Aircraft

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
(b) The runways diverge by 15 to 29 degrees 10,000 feet or below or outside of 10 miles from the
inclusive and the preceding aircraft has commenced DME NAVAID. (See FIG 6−2−8 and FIG 6−2−9.)
a turn. (See FIG 6−2−7.)
FIG 6−2−8
FIG 6−2−7
Minima on Same Course
FIG 6−2−9
6−2−2. MINIMA ON SAME COURSE

Separate aircraft that will fly the same course when
the following aircraft will climb through the altitude
assigned to the leading aircraft by using a minimum
of 3 minutes until the following aircraft passes
through the assigned altitude of the leading aircraft;
or 5 miles between DME equipped aircraft; RNAV
equipped aircraft using ATD; and between DME and
ATD aircraft provided the DME aircraft is either
Initial Separation of Successive Departing Aircraft 6−2−3

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 3. Initial Separation of Departing

and Arriving Aircraft
6−3−1. SEPARATION MINIMA e. When takeoff direction is other than in

subparagraph d, the departing aircraft takes off so
Separate a departing aircraft from an arriving aircraft
that it is established on a course diverging by at least
making an instrument approach to the same airport by
45 degrees from the reciprocal of the final approach
using one of the following minima until vertical or
course 5 minutes before the arriving aircraft is
lateral separation is achieved:
estimated at the airport or before it starts procedure
a. TERMINAL. When takeoff direction differs by turn. (See FIG 6−3−2 and FIG 6−3−3.)
at least 45 degrees from the reciprocal of the final
approach course, the departing aircraft takes off
before the arriving aircraft leaves a fix inbound not FIG 6−3−2
less than 4 miles from the airport. Separation Minima
b. TERMINAL. When takeoff direction is other

than in subparagraph a, the departing aircraft takes off
so that it is established on a course diverging by at
least 45 degrees from the reciprocal of the final
approach course before the arriving aircraft leaves a
fix inbound not less than 4 miles from the airport.
c. TERMINAL. When the absence of an appropri-
ate fix precludes the application of subparagraphs a or
b and at airports where approach control service is not
provided, the separation in subparagraphs d or e must
be applied.
d. When takeoff direction differs by at least
45 degrees from the reciprocal of the final approach
course, the departing aircraft takes off 3 minutes FIG 6−3−3
before the arriving aircraft is estimated at the airport. Separation Minima
(See FIG 6−3−1.)
FIG 6−3−1
Separation Minima
Initial Separation of Departing and Arriving Aircraft 6−3−1

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
6−4−1. APPLICATION 1. A departing aircraft follows a preceding

aircraft which has taken off from the same or adjacent
Separate aircraft longitudinally by requiring them to airport. (See FIG 6−4−1.)
do one of the following, as appropriate:
FIG 6−4−1
a. Depart at a specified time. Minima on Same Course
44 Knots or More Separation
b. Arrive at a fix at a specified time.
PHRASEOLOGY−
CROSS (fix) AT OR BEFORE (time).
CROSS (fix) AT OR AFTER (time).
c. Hold at a fix until a specified time.
d. Change altitude at a specified time or fix.

REFERENCE−
2. A departing aircraft follows a preceding
en route aircraft which has reported over a fix serving
6−4−2. MINIMA ON SAME, CONVERGING, the departure airport. (See FIG 6−4−2.)
OR CROSSING COURSES
FIG 6−4−2
Separate aircraft on the same, converging, or crossing Minima on Converging Courses
courses by an interval expressed in time or distance, 44 Knots or More Separation
using the following minima:
a. When the leading aircraft maintains a speed at

least 44 knots faster than the following aircraft −
5 miles between DME equipped aircraft; RNAV
ATD aircraft provided the DME aircraft is either
10,000 feet or below or outside of 10 miles from the
DME NAVAID, or 3 minutes between other aircraft
if, in either case, one of the following conditions is
met:
Longitudinal Separation 6−4−1

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
3. An en route aircraft follows a preceding en 2. A departing aircraft follows a preceding

route aircraft which has reported over the same fix. en route aircraft which has reported over a fix serving
(See FIG 6−4−3.) the departure airport. (See FIG 6−4−5.)
FIG 6−4−3
FIG 6−4−5
Minima on Crossing Courses
Minima on Converging Courses
b. When the leading aircraft maintains a speed at

least 22 knots faster than the following aircraft −
10 miles between DME equipped aircraft; RNAV 3. An en route aircraft follows a preceding
equipped aircraft using ATD; and between DME and en route aircraft which has reported over the same fix.
ATD aircraft provided the DME aircraft is either (See FIG 6−4−6.)
10,000 feet or below or outside of 10 miles from the
DME NAVAID; or 5 minutes between other aircraft FIG 6−4−6
if, in either case, one of the following conditions Minima on Crossing Courses
exists: 22 Knots or More Separation
1. A departing aircraft follows a preceding
aircraft which has taken off from the same or an
adjacent airport. (See FIG 6−4−4.)
FIG 6−4−4
6−4−2 Longitudinal Separation

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
c. When an aircraft is climbing or descending 3. Between RNAV aircraft that are operating
through the altitude of another aircraft: along an RNAV route that is eight miles or less in
width− 10 miles provided the following conditions
1. Between DME equipped aircraft; RNAV
are met:
ATD aircraft provided the DME aircraft is either (a) The descending aircraft is leading or the
10,000 feet or below or outside of 10 miles from the climbing aircraft is following.
DME NAVAID− 10 miles, if the descending aircraft
is leading or the climbing aircraft is following. (b) The aircraft were separated by not more
(See FIG 6−4−7 and FIG 6−4−8.) than 4,000 feet when the altitude change started.
FIG 6−4−7 FIG 6−4−9

Descending Through Another Aircraft’s Descending Through Another
Altitude DME Separation Aircraft’s Altitude Timed Separation
FIG 6−4−8
Climbing Through Another Aircraft’s
Altitude DME Separation
FIG 6−4−10
Climbing Through Another
Aircraft’s Altitude Timed Separation
2. Between other aircraft− 5 minutes, if all of the

(See FIG 6−4−9 and FIG 6−4−10.)
(a) The descending aircraft is leading or
climbing aircraft is following.
(b) The aircraft are separated by not more
than 4,000 feet when the altitude change started.
(c) The change is started within 10 minutes
after a following aircraft reports over a fix reported
over by the leading aircraft or has acknowledged a
clearance specifying the time to cross the same fix.

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
d. When the conditions of subparagraphs a, b, or FIG 6−4−14

c cannot be met− 20 miles between DME equipped Minima for Crossing Courses Separation
aircraft; RNAV equipped aircraft using ATD; and
between DME and ATD aircraft provided the DME
aircraft is either 10,000 feet or below or outside of
10 miles from the DME NAVAID; or 10 minutes
between other aircraft.
(See FIG 6−4−11, FIG 6−4−12, FIG 6−4−13,
FIG 6−4−14, FIG 6−4−15, and FIG 6−4−16.)
FIG 6−4−11
Minima for Same Course Separation FIG 6−4−15
Climbing Through Another
Aircraft’s Altitude Separation
FIG 6−4−12
Minima for Crossing Courses Separation
FIG 6−4−16
Descending Through Another
Aircraft’s Altitude Separation
FIG 6−4−13
Minima for Same Course Separation

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
e. Between aircraft, when one aircraft is using FIG 6−4−19

DME/ATD and the other is not− 30 miles if both the Minima for Opposite Courses Separation
(See FIG 6−4−17 and FIG 6−4−18.)
FIG 6−4−17
Minima for Same Course Separation
NOTE−
RNAV route segments that have been expanded in the
proximity to reference facilities for slant-range effect are
not to be considered “expanded” for purposes of applying
separation criteria in this paragraph.
FIG 6−4−18 a. Both aircraft have reported passing NAVAIDs,

Minima for Crossing Courses Separation DME fixes, or waypoints indicating they have passed
each other. (See FIG 6−4−20.)
FIG 6−4−20
Minima for Opposite Courses Separation
1. The aircraft using DME/ATD derives dis- NOTE−

tance information by reference to the same NAVAID It is not intended to limit application of this procedure only
or waypoint over which the aircraft not using to aircraft operating in opposite directions along the same
DME/ATD has reported. airway or radial. This procedure may also be applied to
aircraft established on diverging airways or radials of the
2. The aircraft not using DME/ATD is within same NAVAID.
15 minutes of the NAVAID.
b. Both aircraft have reported passing the same
intersection/waypoint and they are at least 3 minutes
6−4−3. MINIMA ON OPPOSITE COURSES apart.
Separate aircraft traveling opposite courses by c. Two RNAV aircraft have reported passing the
assigning different altitudes consistent with the same position and are at least 8 miles apart if
approved vertical separation from 10 minutes before, operating along a route that is 8 miles or less in width;
until 10 minutes after they are estimated to pass. or 18 miles apart if operating along an expanded
Vertical separation may be discontinued after one of route; except that 30 miles must be applied if
the following conditions is met: (See FIG 6−4−19.) operating along that portion of any route segment

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
defined by a navigation station requiring extended radio communication with each other concur, you
usable distance limitations beyond 130 miles. may authorize the following aircraft to maintain
longitudinal separation of 10 minutes; or 20 miles
d. An aircraft utilizing RNAV and an aircraft between DME equipped aircraft; RNAV equipped
utilizing VOR have reported passing the same aircraft using ATD; and between DME and ATD
position and the RNAV aircraft is at least 4 miles aircraft provided the DME aircraft is either
beyond the reported position when operating along a 10,000 feet or below or outside of 10 miles from the
route that is 8 miles or less in width; 9 miles beyond DME NAVAID.
the point when operating along an expanded route;
except that 15 miles must be applied if operating PHRASEOLOGY−
MAINTAIN AT LEAST ONE ZERO MINUTES/
along that portion of any route segment defined by a
TWO ZERO MILES SEPARATION FROM (ident).
navigation station requiring extended usable distance
limitation beyond 130 miles; or 3 minutes apart
whichever is greater. 6−4−5. RNAV AIRCRAFT ALONG VOR
AIRWAYS/ROUTES
NOTE−
Except for GNSS-equipped aircraft /G, /L, /S, and /V, not on Advise the pilot to use DME distances when applying
a random impromptu route, paragraph 5−5−1, Applica- DME separation to an RNAV aircraft operating along
tion, requires radar separation be provided to RNAV VOR airways/routes.
aircraft operating at and below FL450 on Q routes or PHRASEOLOGY−
random RNAV routes, excluding oceanic airspace. USE DME DISTANCES.
NOTE−
6−4−4. SEPARATION BY PILOTS ATD derived from area navigation devices having
slant-range correction will not coincide with the direct
When pilots of aircraft on the same course in direct DME readout.

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
6−5−1. SEPARATION METHODS separation until reaching the 6−mile point. Reversing
direction, the same aircraft would require vertical
Separate aircraft by one of the following methods: separation before passing the 6−mile point. Due to the
a. Clear aircraft on different airways or routes nature of GPS equipment, issue crossing restrictions in
reference to the next waypoint, since the pilot receives
whose widths or protected airspace do not overlap.
tracking “to” data rather than tracking “from” the last
b. Clear aircraft below 18,000 to proceed to and waypoint.
report over or hold at different geographical locations b. Use TBL 6−5−1 and TBL 6−5−2 to determine
determined visually or by reference to NAVAIDs. the distance required for various divergence angles to
c. Clear aircraft to hold over different fixes whose clear the airspace to be protected. For divergence that
holding pattern airspace areas do not overlap each falls between two values, use the lesser divergence
other or other airspace to be protected. value to obtain the distance.
d. Clear departing aircraft to fly specified TBL 6−5−1
headings which diverge by at least 45 degrees. Non−DME Divergence
Distance Minima
6−5−2. MINIMA ON DIVERGING RADIALS Divergence (Degrees) Distance (NM)
a. Consider separation to exist between aircraft: 15 16
1. Established on radials of the same NAVAID 20 12
that diverge by at least 15 degrees when either aircraft 25 10
is clear of the airspace to be protected for the other 30 8
aircraft. 35 7
2. With non−VOR/DME based navigational 45 6
equipment established on tracks of the same 55 5
waypoint that diverge by at least 15 degrees when 90 4
either aircraft is clear of the airspace to be protected NOTE: This table is for non−DME application only.
for the other aircraft.
TBL 6−5−2
FIG 6−5−1
Divergence
Minima on Diverging Radials
Distance Minima
Divergence Distance (NM)

(Degrees)
Fl 180 through
Below FL 180
FL 450
15 17 18
20 13 15
25 11 13
30 9 11
35 8 11
45 7 11
55 6 11
NOTE−
90 5 11
The procedure may be applied to converging as well as
diverging aircraft. (See FIG 6−5−1.) The aircraft depicted NOTE: This table is for DME application and
6 miles from the NAVAID/waypoint would require vertical compensates for DME slant-range error.
Lateral Separation 6−5−1

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
NOTE− NOTE−
For altitudes of 3,000 feet or less above the elevation of the The other airspace to be protected may be a MOA, a
NAVAID, DME slant-range error is negligible and the holding pattern, airway or route, ATCAA, Warning Area,
values in TBL 6−5−1 may be used. Restricted Area, Prohibited Area, etc.
1. At 35 miles or less from the NAVAID−
6−5−3. DME ARC MINIMA 5 miles.
Apply lateral DME separation by requiring aircraft 2. More than 35 miles from the NAVAID−
using DME to fly an arc about a NAVAID at a 10 miles.
specified distance using the following minima: PHRASEOLOGY−
(See FIG 6−5−2.) VIA (number of miles) MILE ARC (direction) OF (name of
DME NAVAID).
FIG 6−5−2
DME Arc Minima
6−5−4. MINIMA ALONG OTHER THAN
ESTABLISHED AIRWAYS OR ROUTES
Protect airspace along other than established airways
or routes as follows: (See FIG 6−5−4.)
FIG 6−5−4
Minima Along Other Than
Established Airways or Routes
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−5−2, NAVAID Terms.
a. Between different arcs about a NAVAID

regardless of direction of flight:
1. At 35 miles or less from the NAVAID−
10 miles.
2. More than 35 miles from the NAVAID−
20 miles.
b. Between an arc about a NAVAID and other
airspace to be protected: (See FIG 6−5−3.) REFERENCE−
P/CG Term− Airway.
FIG 6−5−3 P/CG Term− Route.
DME Arc Minima a. Direct courses and course changes of 15 degrees
or less:
1. Via NAVAIDs or radials FL 600 and below−
4 miles on each side of the route to a point 51 miles
from the NAVAID, then increasing in width on a
4 1/2 degree angle to a width of 10 miles on each side
of the route at a distance of 130 miles from the
NAVAID.
2. Via degree-distance fixes for aircraft author-
ized under paragraph 4−4−3, Degree−Distance Route
Definition for Military Operations.
(a) Below FL 180− 4 miles on each side of the
route.
6−5−2 Lateral Separation

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
(b) FL 180 to FL 600 inclusive− 10 miles on provided non−radar separation may be cleared via an
each side of the route. impromptu route when the following conditions are
met:
3. Via degree-distance fixes for RNAV flights
above FL 450− 10 miles on each side of the route. (a) The impromptu route segment must not
exceed the distance to the nearest available recallable
NOTE−
Except for GNSS-equipped aircraft /G, /L, /S, and /V, not on fix/waypoint consistent with the direction of flight;
a random impromptu route, paragraph 5−5−1, Applica- and
tion, requires radar separation be provided to RNAV (b) Assigned altitudes must be at or above the
aircraft operating at and below FL450 on Q routes or highest MIA along the projected route segment being
random RNAV routes, excluding oceanic airspace.
flown; and
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−4−2, Route Structure Transitions. (c) Aircraft conducting the impromptu route
P/CG Term - Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS)[ICAO].
must be separated vertically from other aircraft until
established on the new point−to−point route.
4. GNSS-equipped RNAV aircraft provided
REFERENCE−
non-radar separation on random RNAV routes must FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−4−1, Route Use.
be cleared via or reported to be established on FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−4−2, Route Structure Transitions.
point-to-point route segments.
b. When course change is 16 degrees through
(a) The points must be published NAVAIDs, 90 degrees, protect the airspace on the overflown side
waypoints, fixes, or airports recallable from the beginning at the point where the course changes as
aircraft’s navigation database. The points must be follows: (See FIG 6−5−5.)
displayed on controller video maps or depicted on the
controller chart displayed at the control position. The FIG 6−5−5
maximum distance between points must not exceed Overflown Side Minima
500 miles. 16 to 90 Degrees
(b) Protect 4 miles either side of the route

centerline.
(c) Assigned altitudes must be at or above the
highest MIA along the projected route segment being
flown, including the protected airspace of that route
segment.
EXAMPLE−
A pilot has filed a point−to−point route from XYZ to ABC
at 13,000 feet. Departure procedures from the originating
airport place the aircraft a significant distance from XYZ;
however, the aircraft can establish itself along the route
segment from XYZ to ABC. Ascertain when the pilot is
established on the point−to−point route segment and at an
altitude that meets or exceeds the highest MVA/MIA
projected along the route of flight, then issue a clearance.
“Verify when you are established on the XYZ to ABC route
segment at or above 6,000 feet.”
(d) When the GNSS aircraft is being provided
radar service and is transitioning to non-radar
airspace, provide clearance direct to the named point
in non-radar airspace in accordance with subpara- 1. Below FL 180− same as subparagraphs a1 or
graphs a4(a) through (c). 2.
2. FL 180 to FL 230 inclusive− 14 miles.
5. If transitioning between two random point−
to−point routes, GNSS−equipped aircraft being 3. Above FL 230 to FL 600 inclusive− 17 miles.

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
c. When course change is 91 degrees through FIG 6−5−7

180 degrees, protect the airspace on the overflown RNAV Minima
side beginning at the point where the course changes
as follows: (See FIG 6−5−6.)
1. Below FL 180− same as subparagraphs a1 or

2.
2. FL 180 to FL 230 inclusive− 28 miles.
3. Above FL 230 to FL 600 inclusive− 34 miles.
FIG 6−5−6
Overflown Side Minima
91 to 180 Degrees
a. When operating along a route that is 8 miles or

less in width− 4 miles.
b. When operating along an expanded route−
9 miles, except that 15 miles must be applied along
that portion of any route segment requiring extended
usable distance limitation beyond 130 miles of the
reference facility.
NOTE−
Except for GNSS-equipped aircraft /G, /L, /S, and /V, not on
a random impromptu route, paragraph 5−5−1, Applica-
tion, requires radar separation be provided to RNAV
aircraft operating at and below FL450 on Q routes or
random RNAV routes, excluding oceanic airspace.
FIG 6−5−8
RNAV Minima
d. After the course changes specified in subpara-

graphs b or c have been completed and the aircraft is
back on course, the appropriate minima in
subparagraph a may be used.
6−5−5. RNAV MINIMA− DIVERGING/

CROSSING COURSES
Consider lateral separation to exist when an RNAV

aircraft is beyond the point where the lateral protected
airspace of that aircraft has ceased to overlap the
lateral protected airspace of another by at least:
(See FIG 6−5−7 and FIG 6−5−8.)

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 6. Vertical Separation
6−6−1. APPLICATION 6−6−2. EXCEPTIONS

Assign an altitude to an aircraft after the aircraft Assign an altitude to an aircraft only after the aircraft
previously at that altitude has reported leaving the previously at that altitude has reported at or passing
altitude. through another altitude separated from the first by
PHRASEOLOGY− the appropriate minimum when:
REPORT LEAVING/REACHING (altitude/flight level).
a. Severe turbulence is reported.
REPORT LEAVING ODD/EVEN ALTITUDES/FLIGHT b. Aircraft are conducting military aerial
LEVELS. refueling.
(If aircraft is known to be operating below the lowest REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 9−2−13, Military Aerial Refueling.
useable flight level),
c. The aircraft previously at the altitude has been:
SAY ALTITUDE.
1. Issued a clearance permitting climb/descent
or at pilot’s discretion.
(If aircraft is known to be operating at or above the lowest 2. Cleared to CRUISE (altitude). However, do
useable flight level), not use Mode C to effect separation with an aircraft
on a cruise clearance.
SAY FLIGHT LEVEL.
NOTE−
An aircraft assigned a cruise clearance is assigned a block
or
of airspace from the minimum IFR altitude up to and
including the assigned cruising altitude, and climb/descent
If aircraft’s position relative to the lowest useable flight
within the block is at pilot’s discretion. When the pilot
level is unknown),
verbally reports leaving an altitude in descent, he/she may
not return to that altitude.
SAY ALTITUDE OR FLIGHT LEVEL.
REFERENCE−
NOTE− P/CG Term − Cruise.
Consider known aircraft performance characteristics,
pilot furnished and/or Mode C detected information which
indicate that climb/descent will not be consistent with the 6−6−3. SEPARATION BY PILOTS
rates recommended in the AIM.
REFERENCE−
When pilots of aircraft in direct radio communication
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−3, Procedural Preference. with each other during climb and descent concur, you
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−5−1, Vertical Separation Minima. may authorize the lower aircraft, if climbing, or the
upper aircraft, if descending, to maintain vertical
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−9−4, Separation. separation.
Vertical Separation 6−6−1

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 7. Timed Approaches
6−7−1. APPLICATION REFERENCE−

Timed approaches using either nonradar procedures Responsibility.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 6−7−4, Level Flight Restriction.
or radar vectors to the final approach course may be FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 6−7−7, Missed Approaches.
used at airports served by a tower if the following
conditions are met: a. Clear the succeeding aircraft for approach, to
descend to the altitude vacated by the preceding
NOTE− aircraft, and to leave the final approach fix inbound
These procedures require NAVAIDs and standard/special (nonprecision approach) or the outer marker or the fix
instrument approach procedures or adequate radar
used in lieu of the outer marker inbound (precision
coverage which permit an aircraft to:
approach) at a specified time; or when using radar to
1. Hold at a fix located on the approach course or to be sequence and position aircraft on the final approach
radar vectored to the final approach course for a course, vector aircraft to cross the final approach
straight-in approach in accordance with the minima fix/outer marker or the fix used in lieu of the outer
specified in paragraph 6−7−5, Interval Minima. marker in compliance with paragraph 6−7−5, Interval
Minima.
2. Proceed in the direction of the airport along the
approach course crossing the holding/approach fix at a FIG 6−7−1
specified altitude if required. Timed Approach Procedures
Using ILS and Longitudinal Separation Only
3. Continue descent for an approach to destination
airport.
a. Direct communication is maintained with the
aircraft until the pilot is instructed to contact the
tower.
b. If more than one missed approach procedure is
available, none require course reversal.
c. If only one missed approach procedure is
available, the following conditions are met:
1. Course reversal is not required.
2. Reported ceiling and visibility are equal to or
greater than the highest prescribed circling mini-
mums for the instrument approach procedure in use.
NOTE−
Determination of whether or not an existing ceiling meets
minima is accomplished by comparing MDA (MSL) with
ceiling (AGL) plus the airport elevation. NOTE−
FIG 6−7−1 depicts the application of timed approach
REFERENCE−
procedures using an ILS and applying longitudinal
separation only. Using an interval of 2 minutes between
successive approaches, the #1 and #2 aircraft have already
6−7−2. APPROACH SEQUENCE passed the outer locator (LOM) on final approach, and the
#3 aircraft has been cleared for approach and to depart the
When an aircraft passes the final approach fix LOM 2 minutes after the #2 aircraft reported leaving the
inbound (nonprecision approach) or the outer marker LOM inbound on final approach. After aircraft in the
or the fix used in lieu of the outer marker inbound approach sequence depart the holding/approach fix
(precision approach), issue clearances for a succeed- (LOM) inbound, vertical separation is no longer provided
ing timed approach in accordance with the following: and longitudinal separation is utilized.
Timed Approaches 6−7−1

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
REFERENCE− (nonprecision approach) or the outer marker or the fix

Interception. used in lieu of the outer marker (precision approach)
when paragraph 6−7−2, Approach Sequence, sub-
b. If an alternative missed approach procedure is paragraph b is applied, clear the second aircraft for an
not available and weather conditions are less than approach early enough to allow at least 1 minute of
required by paragraph 6−7−1, Application, subpara- level flight before crossing the final approach
graph c, clear the succeeding aircraft for an approach fix/outer marker or the fix used in lieu of the outer
when the preceding aircraft has landed or canceled its marker.
IFR flight plan.
FIG 6−7−2 6−7−5. INTERVAL MINIMA
Timed Approach Procedures Using a Bearing on an
NDB and Longitudinal and Vertical Separation a. Except as provided in subparagraph b, use a
2−minute or a 5−mile radar interval as the minimum
between successive approaches.
REFERENCE−
Responsibility.
b. Use the following time or radar interval as the

minimum interval:
1. Behind super:
(a) Heavy − 3 minutes or 6 miles.
(b) Large − 3 minutes or 7 miles.
NOTE−
FIG 6−7−2 depicts the application of timed approach (c) Small − 4 minutes or 8 miles.
procedures using a holding/approach fix on a bearing of an
2. Small behind heavy − 3 minutes or 6 miles.
NDB and applying a combination of longitudinal and
vertical separation. The #3 aircraft has been instructed to c. Increase the interval, as necessary, taking into
descend to 2,000 after the #2 aircraft has reported account the:
departing the holding/approach fix inbound and leaving
2,000 at point A. The #2 aircraft has departed the 1. Relative speeds of the aircraft concerned.
holding/approach fix inbound at the designated time,
2. Existing weather conditions.
maintaining 2,000 until cleared for approach at point A.
The #1 aircraft has been sighted, enabling the controller to 3. Distance between the approach fix and the
issue approach clearance to the #2 aircraft at point A. airport.
c. Release the aircraft to the tower before it reaches 4. Type of approach being made.
the final approach fix.
6−7−6. TIME CHECK
6−7−3. SEQUENCE INTERRUPTION
Issue a time check to an aircraft before specifying a
Interrupt the established timed approach sequence if time to leave the approach fix inbound unless the
necessary to allow an aircraft to execute a different aircraft is vectored to the final approach course.
type of approach.
6−7−7. MISSED APPROACHES
6−7−4. LEVEL FLIGHT RESTRICTION
a. If weather conditions are such that an aircraft
If the weather report indicates an aircraft will be in will likely miss an approach, issue an alternative
IFR conditions over the final approach fix missed approach procedure to the next aircraft.
6−7−2 Timed Approaches

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
b. If an aircraft misses an approach, allow the next subparagraph b is applied and the first aircraft misses
aircraft to continue the approach if it has been an approach, retain radar control or clear the second
assigned an alternative missed approach procedure. aircraft to maintain the last assigned altitude
Retain radar control or hold any remaining aircraft at (minimum holding altitude) and return to the
assigned altitudes until traffic conditions permit the holding/approach fix to hold until traffic conditions
issuance of approach clearances. permit the issuance of approach clearances.
c. When paragraph 6−7−2, Approach Sequence,
Timed Approaches 6−7−3

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Chapter 7. Visual
Section 1. General
7−1−1. CLASS A AIRSPACE 7−1−3. APPROACH CONTROL SERVICE

RESTRICTIONS FOR VFR ARRIVING AIRCRAFT
Issue the following where procedures have been
Do not apply visual separation or issue VFR or established for arriving VFR aircraft to contact
“VFR-on-top” clearances in Class A airspace. approach control for landing information:
a. Wind, runway, and altimeter setting at the
airport of intended landing. This information may be
7−1−2. VFR CONDITIONS omitted if contained in the ATIS broadcast and the
pilot states the appropriate ATIS code or if the pilot
a. You may clear aircraft to maintain “VFR uses the phrase, “have numbers.”
conditions” if one of the following conditions exists: NOTE−
Pilot use of “have numbers” does not indicate receipt of the
1. The pilot of an aircraft on an IFR flight plan ATIS broadcast.
requests a VFR climb/descent. b. Traffic information on a workload permitting
basis.
2. TERMINAL. The clearance will result in
noise abatement benefits where part of the IFR c. Time or place at which the aircraft is to contact
departure route does not conform to an FAA- the tower on local control frequency for further
approved noise abatement route or altitude. landing information.
d. An aircraft may be instructed to contact
PHRASEOLOGY− approach control for landing and traffic information
MAINTAIN VFR CONDITIONS.
upon initial contact with the tower.
MAINTAIN VFR CONDITIONS UNTIL (time or fix). REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−6−2, Service Availability.
MAINTAIN VFR CONDITIONS ABOVE/BELOW
(altitude).
7−1−4. VISUAL HOLDING OF VFR
CLIMB/DESCEND VFR, AIRCRAFT
TERMINAL
and if required,
When it becomes necessary to hold VFR aircraft at
BETWEEN (altitude) AND (altitude) visual holding fixes, take the following actions:
or a. Clear aircraft to hold at selected, prominent

geographical fixes which can be easily recognized
ABOVE/BELOW (altitude). from the air, preferably those depicted on sectional
charts.
b. When, in your judgment, there is reason to NOTE−
believe that flight in VFR conditions may become At some locations, VFR checkpoints are depicted on
impractical, issue an alternative clearance which will Sectional Aeronautical and Terminal Area Charts. In
ensure separation from all other aircraft for which selecting geographical fixes, depicted VFR checkpoints
you have separation responsibility. are preferred unless the pilot exhibits a familiarity with the
local area.
IF UNABLE, (alternative procedure), AND ADVISE. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−6−5, Visual Holding Points.
General 7−1−1
JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
b. Issue traffic information to aircraft cleared to

hold at the same fix.
PHRASEOLOGY−
HOLD AT (location) UNTIL (time or other condition),
TRAFFIC (description) HOLDING AT (fix, altitude if

known),
or
PROCEEDING TO (fix) FROM (direction or fix).

REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−6−5, Holding.
7−1−2 General
6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 2. Visual Separation
7−2−1. VISUAL SEPARATION (f) ATCTs at adjacent airports may be

authorized to apply visual separation between their
Visual separation may be applied when other traffic and the other facility’s traffic. All provisions of
approved separation is assured before and after the FAA Order JO 7110.65, paragraph 7−2−1a1, still
application of visual separation. To ensure that other apply.
separation will exist, consider aircraft performance,
wake turbulence, closure rate, routes of flight, known NOTE−
Additional requirements are listed in FAA Order
weather conditions, and aircraft position. Weather
JO 7210.3, paragraph 10−3−9, Visual Separation.
conditions must allow the aircraft to remain within
sight until other separation exists. Visual separation 2. Pilot-applied visual separation.
is not authorized when the lead aircraft is a super. (a) Maintain communication with at least one
REFERENCE− of the aircraft involved and ensure there is an ability
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−20, Wake Turbulence Cautionary to communicate with the other aircraft.
Advisories.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−21, Traffic Advisories. (b) The pilot sees another aircraft and is
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−9−5, Approach Separation instructed to maintain visual separation from the
Responsibility. aircraft as follows:
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−4−1, Visual Approach.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−4−2, Vectors for Visual Approach. (1) Tell the pilot about the other aircraft.
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 4−3−2, Appropriate Subjects.
Include position, direction, type, and, unless it is
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 10−3−9, Visual Separation. obvious, the other aircraft’s intention.
P/CG Term − Visual Approach.
P/CG Term − Visual Separation. (2) Obtain acknowledgment from the pilot
that the other aircraft is in sight.
a. TERMINAL. Visual separation may be applied
between aircraft up to but not including FL180 under (3) Instruct the pilot to maintain visual
the following conditions: separation from that aircraft.
1. Tower-applied visual separation. PHRASEOLOGY−
(ACID), TRAFFIC, (clock position and distance),
(a) Maintain communication with at least one (direction) BOUND, (type of aircraft), (intentions and
of the aircraft involved or ensure there is an ability to other relevant information).
communicate immediately with applicable military
aircraft as prescribed in paragraph 3−9−3, Departure If required,
(ACID), REPORT TRAFFIC IN SIGHT or DO YOU HAVE
Control Instructions, subparagraph a2.
IT IN SIGHT?
(b) The tower visually observes the aircraft,
issues timely traffic advisories, and provides visual If the pilot reports traffic in sight, or the answer is in the
affirmative,
separation between the aircraft.
(c) Issue control instructions as necessary to (ACID), MAINTAIN VISUAL SEPARATION
ensure continued separation between the applicable NOTE−
aircraft. Towers must use the procedures contained in paragraph
3−1−6, Traffic Information, subparagraph b or c, as
(d) Do not apply visual separation between appropriate.
successive departures when departure routes and/or (c) If the pilot reports the traffic in sight and
aircraft performance preclude maintaining separa- will maintain visual separation from it (the pilot must
tion. state both), the controller may “approve” the
(e) The use of tower-applied visual separation operation instead of restating the instructions.
is not authorized when wake turbulence separation is PHRASEOLOGY−
required. (ACID), APPROVED.
Visual Separation 7−2−1

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
Pilot-applied visual separation between aircraft is (ACID), TRAFFIC, (clock position and distance),
achieved when the controller has instructed the pilot to (direction) BOUND, (type of aircraft), (intentions and
maintain visual separation and the pilot acknowledges other relevant information). If required, (ACID), REPORT
with their call sign or when the controller has approved TRAFFIC IN SIGHT or DO YOU HAVE IT IN SIGHT? If
pilot-initiated visual separation. the pilot reports traffic in sight, or the answer is in the
REFERENCE− affirmative, (ACID), MAINTAIN VISUAL SEPARATION
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−4−5, Transferring Controller Handoff.
(d) If the pilot reports the traffic in sight and
(d) If aircraft are on converging courses, will maintain visual separation (the pilot must state
inform the other aircraft of the traffic and that visual both), the controller may “approve” the operation
separation is being applied. instead of restating the instructions.
(ACID), TRAFFIC, (clock position and distance), (ACID), APPROVED.
(direction) BOUND, (type of aircraft), HAS YOU IN NOTE−
SIGHT AND WILL MAINTAIN VISUAL SEPARATION. Pilot-applied visual separation between aircraft is
(e) Advise the pilots if the targets appear achieved when the controller has instructed the pilot to
maintain visual separation and the pilot acknowledges
likely to merge.
with their call sign or when the controller has approved
NOTE− pilot-initiated visual separation.
Issue this advisory in conjunction with the instruction to (e) If the aircraft are on converging courses,
maintain visual separation, the advisory to the other
inform the other aircraft of the traffic and that visual
aircraft of the converging course, or thereafter if the
controller subsequently becomes aware that the targets are separation is being applied.
merging. (f) Advise the pilots if the radar targets appear
EXAMPLE− likely to merge.
“Targets appear likely to merge.” NOTE−
(f) Control of aircraft maintaining visual Issue this advisory in conjunction with the instruction to
maintain visual separation, the advisory to the other
separation may be transferred to an adjacent
aircraft of the converging course, or thereafter if the
position/sector/facility. Coordination procedures controller subsequently becomes aware that the targets are
must be specified in an LOA or facility directive. merging.
REFERENCE− EXAMPLE−
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 4-3-1, Letters of Agreement.
“Radar targets appear likely to merge.”
b. EN ROUTE. Visual separation may be used up PHRASEOLOGY−
to but not including FL 180 when the following (ACID) TRAFFIC, (clock position and distance),
conditions are met: (direction)−BOUND, (type of aircraft), ON
CONVERGING COURSE, HAS YOU IN SIGHT AND
1. Direct communication is maintained with one WILL MAINTAIN VISUAL SEPARATION.
of the aircraft involved and there is an ability to REFERENCE−
communicate with the other. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−4−1, Visual Approach.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−4−2, Vectors for Visual Approach.
2. A pilot sees another aircraft and is instructed
to maintain visual separation from it as follows: (g) Advise the pilots if either aircraft is a
heavy.
(a) Tell the pilot about the other aircraft (h) Issue wake turbulence cautionary
including position, direction, and type. If it is not advisories in accordance with paragraph 2−1−20.
obvious, include the other aircraft’s intentions.
c. Nonapproach control towers may be authorized
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−21, Traffic Advisories. to provide visual separation between aircraft within
surface areas or designated areas when approved
(b) Obtain acknowledgment from the pilot
separation is provided before and after the application
that the other aircraft is in sight.
of visual separation. The nonapproach control tower
(c) Instruct the pilot to maintain visual must apply the procedures contained in subparagraph
separation from that aircraft. a1 or a2, when applying visual separation.
7−2−2 Visual Separation

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
PHRASEOLOGY− application of visual separation is an IFR control function

VISUAL SEPARATION APPROVED BETWEEN (ACID) that must be applied by the Approach/Departure/En Route
AND (ACID), facility. Separation requirements also apply to VFR
aircraft when IFR, Class B, Class C or TRSA separation
and for departing aircraft, services are required.
REFERENCE−
(departing/succeeding aircraft) (ACID), RELEASED. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−8−11, Practice Approaches.
d. If the nonapproach control tower controller FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−4−2, Vectors for Visual Approach.
states to the radar controller that they will provide FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−7−1, Application.
visual separation between arrivals, departures/ar- FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−7−2, Issuance of EFC.
rivals and/or successive departures, and states the call FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−7−3, Separation.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−7−4, Helicopter Traffic.
signs of all aircraft involved, the radar controller can FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−7−5, Altitude Assignments.
approve the application of visual separation as FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−7−6, Approach Interval.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−7−7, TRSA Departure Information.
requested. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−8−2, Class C Services.
PHRASEOLOGY− FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−8−4, Establishing Two−Way
VISUAL SEPARATION APPROVED and for Communications.
departing/succeeding aircraft, (ACIDs) RELEASED FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−8−5, Altitude Assignments.
NOTE− FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−9−1, Application.
A nonapproach control tower by accepting authorization
for visual separation becomes responsible for ensuring FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−9−6, Helicopter Traffic.
that separation. Separation of IFR aircraft before and after FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−9−7, Altitude Assignments.
Visual Separation 7−2−3

12/2/21
6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z CHG 1
JO 7110.65Z
Section 3. VFR-On-Top
7−3−1. VFR-ON-TOP
or
a. You may clear an aircraft to maintain
“VFR-on-top” if the pilot of an aircraft on an IFR NO TOPS REPORTS.
flight plan requests the clearance.
PHRASEOLOGY− IF NOT ON TOP AT (altitude), MAINTAIN (altitude), AND
MAINTAIN VFR-ON-TOP. ADVISE.
NOTE− MAINTAIN VFR-ON-TOP.
1. When an aircraft has been cleared to maintain
“VFR-on-top,” the pilot is responsible to fly at an c. Do not clear an aircraft to maintain “VFR-on-
appropriate VFR altitude, comply with VFR visibility and top” between sunset and sunrise to separate holding
distance from cloud criteria, and to be vigilant so as to see aircraft from each other or from en route aircraft
and avoid other aircraft. The pilot is also responsible to unless restrictions are applied to ensure the
comply with instrument flight rules applicable to the flight appropriate IFR vertical separation.
(e.g., adherence to ATC clearances).
PHRASEOLOGY−
2. Although IFR separation is not applied, controllers MAINTAIN VFR-ON-TOP AT OR ABOVE/BELOW/
must continue to provide traffic advisories and safety BETWEEN (altitudes).
alerts, and apply merging target procedures to aircraft EXAMPLE−
operating VFR-on-top. “Maintain VFR-on-top at or above one three thousand
REFERENCE− five hundred.”
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−1−4, Merging Target Procedures.
“Maintain VFR-on-top at or below one two thousand
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−1−1, Class A Airspace Restrictions. five hundred.”
AIM, Para 5−5−13, VFR−on−top.
14 CFR Section 91.157, Special VFR Weather Minimums. “Maintain VFR-on-top at or between six thousand and
14 CFR Section 91.159, VFR Cruising Altitude or Flight Level.
one zero thousand.”
b. You may clear an aircraft to climb through d. When, in your judgment, there is reason to
clouds, smoke, haze, or other meteorological believe that flight in VFR conditions may become
formations and then to maintain “VFR-on-top” if the impractical, issue an alternative clearance which will
following conditions are met: ensure separation from all other aircraft for which
1. The pilot requests the clearance. you have separation responsibility.
2. You inform the pilot of the reported height of PHRASEOLOGY−
the tops of the meteorological formation, or IF UNABLE, (alternative procedure), AND ADVISE.
REFERENCE−
3. You inform the pilot that no top report is FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 9−3−3, VFR-On-Top.
available.
7−3−2. ALTITUDE FOR DIRECTION OF
4. When necessary, you ensure separation from FLIGHT
all other traffic for which you have separation
responsibility by issuing an alternative clearance. Inform an aircraft maintaining “VFR-on-top” when
a report indicates the pilot is not complying with
5. When an aircraft is climbing to and reports 14 CFR Section 91.159(a).
reaching “VFR-on-top,” reclear the aircraft to
NOTE−
maintain “VFR-on-top.” As required by 14 CFR Section 91.159(a), the appropriate
PHRASEOLOGY− VFR altitudes for aircraft (not in a holding pattern of
CLIMB TO AND REPORT REACHING VFR-ON-TOP, 2 minutes or less, or turning) operating more than
3,000 feet above the surface to and including 18,000 feet
and MSL:
TOPS REPORTED (altitude), Magnetic courses 0−179− odd cardinal altitudes plus
VFR-On-Top 7−3−1
JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
500 feet; e.g., 3,500, 5,500. DIRECTION OF FLIGHT ARE:
Magnetic courses 180−359− even cardinal altitudes plus more than 3,000 feet above the surface to FL 180:
500 feet; e.g., 4,500, 8,500.
PHRASEOLOGY− ODD/EVEN ALTITUDES/FLIGHT LEVELS PLUS
VFR-ON-TOP CRUISING LEVELS FOR YOUR FIVE HUNDRED FEET.
7−3−2 VFR-On-Top
6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 4. Approaches
7−4−1. VISUAL APPROACH TURN RIGHT/LEFT HEADING (degrees) VECTOR FOR

VISUAL APPROACH TO (airport name).
A visual approach is an ATC authorization for an
aircraft on an IFR flight plan to proceed visually and (If appropriate)
clear of clouds to the airport of intended landing. A
visual approach is not a standard instrument approach WEATHER NOT AVAILABLE.
procedure and has no missed approach segment. An NOTE−
aircraft unable to complete a landing from a visual At airports where weather information is not available, a
approach must be handled as any go−around and pilot request for a visual approach indicates that descent
appropriate IFR separation must be provided until the and flight to the airport can be made visually and clear of
aircraft lands or the pilot cancels their IFR flight plan. clouds.
REFERENCE−
a. At airports with an operating control tower, FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−9−1, Vectors to Final Approach
aircraft executing a go−around may be instructed to Course.
enter the traffic pattern for landing and an altitude FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−4−3, Clearance for Visual Approach.
assignment is not required. The pilot is expected to FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−4−4, Approaches to Multiple Runways.
climb to pattern altitude and is required to maintain FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−6−7, Sequencing.
terrain and obstruction clearance. ATC must maintain
applicable separation from other aircraft.
7−4−3. CLEARANCE FOR VISUAL
b. At airports without an operating control tower, APPROACH
aircraft executing a go−around are expected to
ARTCCs and approach controls may clear aircraft for
complete a landing as soon as possible or contact ATC
visual approaches using the following procedures:
for further clearance. ATC must maintain separation
from other IFR aircraft. NOTE−
Towers may exercise this authority when authorized by a
REFERENCE−
LOA with the facility that provides the IFR service, or by
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−20, Wake Turbulence Cautionary a facility directive at collocated facilities.
Advisories.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−10−2, Forwarding Approach a. Controllers may initiate, or pilots may request,
Information by Nonapproach Control Facilities. a visual approach even when an aircraft is being
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−2−1, Visual Separation. vectored for an instrument approach and the pilot
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 10−3−15, Go−around/Missed Approach. subsequently reports:
P/CG Term – Go−around.
AIM, Para 5−4−23, Visual Approach. 1. The airport or the runway in sight at airports
with operating control towers.
7−4−2. VECTORS FOR VISUAL APPROACH 2. The airport in sight at airports without a
control tower.
A vector for a visual approach may be initiated if the
reported ceiling at the airport of intended landing is b. Resolve potential conflicts with all other
at least 500 feet above the MVA/MIA and the aircraft, advise an overtaking aircraft of the distance
visibility is 3 miles or greater. At airports without to the preceding aircraft and speed difference, and
weather reporting service there must be reasonable ensure that weather conditions at the airport are VFR
assurance (e.g. area weather reports, PIREPs, etc.) or that the pilot has been informed that weather is not
that descent and flight to the airport can be made available for the destination airport. Upon pilot
visually, and the pilot must be informed that weather request, advise the pilot of the frequency to receive
information is not available. weather information where AWOS/ASOS is avail-
PHRASEOLOGY−
able.
(Ident) FLY HEADING PHRASEOLOGY−
(Call sign) (control instructions as required) CLEARED
or VISUAL APPROACH RUNWAY (number);
Approaches 7−4−1
JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
STARS functions may be used provided a facility

or directive or LOA specifies control and communica-
tion transfer points.
(Call sign) (control instructions as required) CLEARED
VISUAL APPROACH TO (airport name) f. In addition to the requirements of paragraph
7−4−2, Vectors for Visual Approach, and subpara-
(and if appropriate) graphs a, b, c, d, and e, ensure that the location of the
destination airport is provided when the pilot is asked
WEATHER NOT AVAILABLE to report the destination airport in sight.
or g. In those instances where airports are located in
close proximity, also provide the location of the
VERIFY THAT YOU HAVE THE (airport) WEATHER. airport that may cause the confusion.
REFERENCE− EXAMPLE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−2−1, Visual Separation. “Cessna Five Six November, Cleveland Burke Lakefront
c. Clear an aircraft for a visual approach when: Airport is at 12 o’clock, 5 miles. Cleveland Hopkins
Airport is at 1 o’clock 12 miles. Report Cleveland Hopkins
1. The aircraft is number one in the approach in sight.”
sequence, or REFERENCE−
2. At locations with an operating control tower,
the aircraft is to follow a preceding aircraft and the 7−4−4. APPROACHES TO MULTIPLE
pilot reports the preceding aircraft in sight and is RUNWAYS
instructed to follow it, or
a. All aircraft must be informed that approaches
NOTE−
are being conducted to parallel, intersecting, or
The pilot need not report the airport/runway in sight.
converging runways. This may be accomplished
3. At locations with an operating control tower, through use of the ATIS.
the pilot reports the airport or runway in sight but not
b. When conducting visual approaches to multiple
the preceding aircraft. Radar separation must be
runways ensure the following:
maintained until visual separation is provided.
REFERENCE− 1. Do not permit the respective aircrafts’
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−2−1, Visual Separation primary radar targets/fusion target symbols to touch
d. All aircraft following a heavy, or a small aircraft unless visual separation is being applied.
following a B757, must be informed of the airplane 2. When the aircraft flight paths intersect,
manufacturer and/or model. ensure approved separation is maintained until visual
EXAMPLE− separation is applied.
“Cessna Three Four Juliet, following a Boeing 757, 12 c. The following conditions apply to visual
o’clock, six miles.” approaches being conducted simultaneously to
parallel, intersecting, and converging runways, as
or
appropriate:
“Cessna Three Four Juliet, following a Seven fifty seven, 1. Parallel runways separated by less than 2,500
12 o’clock, six miles.” feet. Unless approved separation is maintained, an
REFERENCE− aircraft must report sighting a preceding aircraft
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−4−21, Description of Aircraft Types. making an approach (instrument or visual) to the
NOTE− adjacent parallel runway. When an aircraft reports
Visual separation is not authorized when the lead aircraft another aircraft in sight on the adjacent final approach
is a super. course and visual separation is applied, controllers
REFERENCE− must advise the succeeding aircraft to maintain visual
separation. Do not permit an aircraft to overtake
e. Inform the tower of the aircraft’s position prior another aircraft when wake turbulence separation is
to communications transfer at controlled airports. required.
7−4−2 Approaches
6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
2. Parallel runways separated by 2,500 feet but established on the extended centerline of the assigned
less than 4,300 feet. runway.
3. Variances between heading assigned to intercept the
(a) When aircraft are approaching from extended centerline of the runway and aircraft ground
opposite base legs, or one aircraft is turning to final track are expected due to the effect of wind and course
and another aircraft is established on the extended corrections after completion of the turn and pilot
centerline for the adjacent runway, approved acknowledgment of a visual approach clearance.
separation is provided until the aircraft are: 4. Procedures using Radius−to−Fix legs that intercept
(1) Established on a heading or established final may be used in lieu of the 30−degree intercept
provisions contained in this paragraph.
on a direct course to a fix or cleared on an RNAV/
instrument approach procedure which will intercept 3. Parallel runways separated by 4,300 feet or
the extended centerline of the runway at an angle not more.
greater than 30 degrees, and, (a) When the flight paths do not intersect,
visual approaches may be conducted simultaneously
(2) One pilot has acknowledged receipt of
provided that approved separation is maintained until
a visual approach clearance and the other pilot has
one of the aircraft has been issued and the pilot has
acknowledged receipt of a visual or instrument
acknowledged receipt of the visual approach
approach clearance.
clearance.
(b) When aircraft are approaching from the (b) Visual approaches may be conducted to
same side of the airport and the lead aircraft is one runway while visual or instrument approaches
assigned the nearer runway, approved separation is are conducted simultaneously to other runways,
maintained or pilot−applied visual separation is provided the conditions of subparagraph (a) are met.
provided by the succeeding aircraft until intercepting
the farther adjacent runway extended centerline. (c) Provided the flight paths do not intersect,
when the provisions of subparagraphs (a) and (b) are
(c) Provided that aircraft flight paths do not met, it is not necessary to apply any other type of
intersect, when the provisions of subparagraphs (a) or separation with aircraft on the adjacent final approach
(b) are met, it is not necessary to apply any other type course.
of separation with aircraft on the adjacent final (d) Each aircraft must either be assigned a
approach course. heading or established on a direct course to a fix or
(d) When aircraft are approaching from the cleared on an RNAV/instrument approach procedure
same side of the airport and the lead aircraft is which will allow the aircraft to intercept the extended
assigned the farther runway, the succeeding aircraft centerline of the runway at an angle not greater than
must be assigned a heading that will intercept the 30 degrees.
extended centerline of the nearer runway at an angle NOTE−
not greater than 30 degrees. Approved separation 1. The intent of the 30 degree intercept angle is to reduce
must be maintained or pilot−applied visual separation the potential for overshoots of the extended centerline of
the runway and preclude side-by-side operations with one
must be provided by the succeeding aircraft until it is
or both aircraft in a “belly-up” configuration during the
established on the extended centerline of the nearer turn. Aircraft performance, speed, and the number of
runway. degrees of the turn are factors to be considered when
NOTE− vectoring aircraft to parallel runways.
1. The intent of the 30 degree intercept angle is to reduce 2. The 30−degree intercept angle is not necessary when
the potential for overshoots of the extended centerline of approved separation is maintained until the aircraft are
the runway and preclude side−by−side operations with one established on the extended centerline of the assigned
or both aircraft in a “belly−up” configuration during the runway.
turn. Aircraft performance, speed, and the number of 3. Variances between heading assigned to intercept the
degrees of the turn are factors to be considered when extended centerline of the runway and aircraft ground
vectoring aircraft to parallel runways.
track are expected due to the effect of wind and course
2. The 30−degree intercept angle is not necessary when corrections after completion of the turn and pilot
approved separation is maintained until the aircraft are acknowledgment of a visual approach clearance.
JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
4. Procedures using Radius-to-Fix legs that intercept final same runway and has been instructed to follow that
may be used in lieu of 30-degree intercept provisions aircraft.
contained in this paragraph.
PHRASEOLOGY−
4. Intersecting and converging runways. Visual (Ident) CLEARED (name of CVFP) APPROACH.
approaches may be conducted simultaneously with
visual or instrument approaches to other runways,
provided: 7−4−6. CONTACT APPROACH
Clear an aircraft for a contact approach only if the

(a) Approved separation is maintained until
the aircraft conducting the visual approach has been
issued, and the pilot has acknowledged receipt of, the a. The pilot has requested it.
visual approach clearance.
NOTE−
(b) When aircraft flight paths intersect, When executing a contact approach, the pilot is
approved separation must be maintained until visual responsible for maintaining the required flight visibility,
separation is provided. cloud clearance, and terrain/obstruction clearance.
Unless otherwise restricted, the pilot may find it necessary
NOTE− to descend, climb, and/or fly a circuitous route to the
Although simultaneous approaches may be conducted to airport to maintain cloud clearance and/or terrain/
intersecting runways, staggered approaches may be obstruction clearance. It is not in any way intended that
necessary to meet the airport separation requirements controllers will initiate or suggest a contact approach to a
specified in paragraph 3−10−4, Intersecting Runway/In- pilot.
tersecting Flight Path Separation.
b. The reported ground visibility is at least
REFERENCE− 1 statute mile.
c. A standard or special instrument approach
procedure has been published and is functioning for
the airport of intended landing.
7−4−5. CHARTED VISUAL FLIGHT d. Approved separation is applied between
PROCEDURES (CVFP). USA/USN NOT aircraft so cleared and other IFR or SVFR aircraft.
APPLICABLE When applying vertical separation, do not assign a
fixed altitude but clear the aircraft at or below an
Clear an aircraft for a CVFP only when the following altitude which is at least 1,000 feet below any IFR
conditions are met: traffic but not below the minimum safe altitude
prescribed in 14 CFR Section 91.119.
a. There is an operating control tower.
NOTE−
b. The published name of the CVFP and the 14 CFR Section 91.119 specifies the minimum safe altitude
landing runway are specified in the approach to be flown:
clearance, the reported ceiling at the airport of (a) Anywhere.
intended landing is at least 500 feet above the (b) Over congested areas.
MVA/MIA, and the visibility is 3 miles or more, (c) Other than congested areas. To provide for an
unless higher minimums are published for the emergency landing in the event of power failure and
without undue hazard to persons or property on the
particular CVFP.
surface.
(d) Helicopters. May be operated at less than the
c. When using parallel or intersecting/converging
minimums prescribed in (b) and (c) above if the operation
runways, the criteria specified in paragraph 7−4−4, is conducted without hazard to persons or property on the
Approaches to Multiple Runways, are applied. surface.
d. An aircraft not following another aircraft on the e. An alternative clearance is issued when weather
approach reports sighting a charted visual landmark, conditions are such that a contact approach may be
or reports sighting a preceding aircraft landing on the impracticable.
7−4−4 Approaches
6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
PHRASEOLOGY−
CLEARED CONTACT APPROACH,
And if required,
AT OR BELOW (altitude) (routing).
IF NOT POSSIBLE, (alternative procedures), AND

ADVISE.
6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 5. Special VFR (SVFR)
7−5−1. AUTHORIZATION b. SVFR operations may be authorized for aircraft

operating in or transiting a Class B, Class C, Class D,
a. SVFR operations in weather conditions less or Class E surface area when the primary airport is
than basic VFR minima are authorized: reporting VFR but the pilot advises that basic VFR
REFERENCE− cannot be maintained.
NOTE−
1. At any location not prohibited by 14 CFR The basic requirements for issuance of a SVFR clearance
Part 91, Appendix D or when an exemption to in subparagraph a apply with the obvious exception that
14 CFR Part 91 has been granted and an associated weather conditions at the controlling airport are not
LOA established. 14 CFR Part 91 does not prohibit required to be less than basic VFR minima.
SVFR helicopter operations.
2. Only within the lateral boundaries of Class B, 7−5−2. PRIORITY
Class C, Class D, or Class E surface areas, below
a. SVFR flights may be approved only if arriving
10,000 feet MSL.
and departing IFR aircraft are not delayed.
3. Only when requested by the pilot. EXAMPLE−
4. On the basis of weather conditions reported at 1. A SVFR aircraft has been cleared to enter a Class B,
the airport of intended landing/departure. Class C, Class D, or Class E surface area and subsequently
an IFR aircraft is ready to depart or is in position to begin
REFERENCE− an approach. Less overall delay might accrue to the IFR
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−5−6, Climb to VFR.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−5−7, Ground Visibility Below One aircraft if the SVFR aircraft is allowed to proceed to the
Mile. airport and land, rather than leave, a Class B, Class C,
Class D, or Class E surface area or be repositioned to
5. When weather conditions are not reported at
provide IFR priority.
the airport of intended landing/departure and the pilot
advises that VFR cannot be maintained and requests 2. A SVFR aircraft is number one for takeoff and located
SVFR. in such a position that the number two aircraft, an IFR
flight, cannot taxi past to gain access to the runway. Less
PHRASEOLOGY− overall delay might accrue to the IFR aircraft by releasing
CLEARED TO ENTER/OUT OF/THROUGH, (name) the SVFR departure rather than by having the aircraft taxi
SURFACE AREA down the runway to a turnoff point so the IFR aircraft could
be released first.
and if required,
NOTE−
(direction) OF (name) AIRPORT (specified routing), The priority afforded IFR aircraft over SVFR aircraft is not
and intended to be so rigidly applied that inefficient use of
airspace results. The controller has the prerogative of
MAINTAIN SPECIAL V−F−R CONDITIONS, permitting completion of a SVFR operation already in
progress when an IFR aircraft becomes a factor if better
and if required, overall efficiency will result.
b. Inform an aircraft of the anticipated delay when
AT OR BELOW (altitude below 10,000 feet MSL)
a SVFR clearance cannot be granted because of IFR
or as applicable under an exemption from 14 CFR traffic. Do not issue an EFC or expected departure
Part 91, time.
PHRASEOLOGY−
CLEARED FOR (coded arrival or departure procedure) EXPECT (number) MINUTES DELAY, (additional
ARRIVAL/DEPARTURE, (additional instructions as instructions as necessary).
required).
REFERENCE−
REFERENCE− FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−4, Operational Priority.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−4−22, Airspace Classes. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−6−1, Application.
Special VFR (SVFR) 7−5−1

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
7−5−3. SEPARATION the surface and adhere to the following aircraft

separation minima:
a. Apply non-radar or visual separation between:
1. Between a SVFR helicopter and an arriving
1. SVFR fixed wing aircraft. or departing IFR aircraft:
2. SVFR fixed-wing aircraft and SVFR (a) 1/2 mile. If the IFR aircraft is less than
Helicopters. 1 mile from the landing airport.
3. SVFR fixed-wing aircraft and IFR aircraft. (b) 1 mile. If the IFR aircraft is 1 mile or
more from the airport.
NOTE−
1. Vertical separation is authorized between SVFR fixed 2. 1 mile between SVFR helicopters. This
wing aircraft and IFR aircraft as prescribed in FAA Order separation may be reduced to 200 feet if:
JO 7110.65, paragraph 7−5−4, Altitude Assignments (a) Both helicopters are departing simultan-
2. Due to the requirements for SVFR fixed-wing aircraft to eously on courses that diverge by at least 30 degrees
maintain 1-mile flight visibility and to remain clear of and:
clouds, radar separation is not authorized during SVFR (1) The tower can determine this separation
fixed-wing operations. Radar vectors are authorized, as
by reference to surface markings; or
prescribed in paragraph 5−6−1, Application, subpara-
graph f, to expedite the entrance, exit, and transition of (2) One of the departing helicopters is
SVFR fixed-wing aircraft through the appropriate surface instructed to remain at least 200 feet from the other.
area. NOTE−
REFERENCE− 1. Vertical separation is authorized between SVFR
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Chapter 6, Nonradar. helicopters and IFR aircraft as prescribed in FAA Order JO
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−5−4, Altitude Assignment.
7110.65, paragraph 7−5−4, Altitude Assignments.
2. Radar separation as prescribed in Chapter 5 may be
b. Apply non-radar, visual, or IFR radar applied provided that the facility conducting the operation
separation between: is authorized to provide radar separation services in
accordance with FAA Order JO 7210.3, paragraph 10-5-3,
1. SVFR Helicopters.
Functional Use of Certified Tower Radar Displays
2. SVFR Helicopters and IFR aircraft. (CTRD), subparagraph b5, and subparagraph d. Facilities
that are not delegated airspace or separation responsibil-
NOTE− ity must use CTRDs in accordance with FAA Order JO
1. Vertical separation is authorized between SVFR 7110.65, paragraph 3−1−9, Use of Tower Radar Displays,
helicopters and IFR aircraft as prescribed in FAA Order subparagraph b.
JO 7110.65, paragraph 7−5−4, Altitude Assignments.
REFERENCE−
2. Radar separation as prescribed in Chapter 5 may be FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−4, Operational Priority.
applied provided that the facility conducting the operation FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−2−1, Visual Separation.
is authorized to provide radar separation services in FAA Order JO 7110.65, Chapter 6, Nonradar.
accordance with FAA Order JO 7210.3, paragraph 10-5-3, FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 10-5-3, Functional Use of Certified Tower
Functional Use of Certified Tower Radar Displays Radar Displays.
(CTRD), subparagraph b5, and subparagraph d. Facilities
that are not delegated airspace or separation responsibil- 7−5−4. ALTITUDE ASSIGNMENT
ity must use CTRDs in accordance with FAA Order JO Do not assign a fixed altitude when applying vertical
7110.65, paragraph 3−1−9, Use of Tower Radar Displays, separation, but clear the SVFR aircraft at or below an
subparagraph b. altitude which is at least 500 feet below any
c. Alternate SVFR helicopter separation minima conflicting IFR traffic but not below the MSA
may be established when warranted by the volume prescribed in 14 CFR Section 91.119.
and/or complexity of local helicopter operations. PHRASEOLOGY−
Alternate SVFR helicopter separation minima must MAINTAIN SPECIAL V−F−R CONDITIONS AT OR
be established with an LOA with the helicopter BELOW (altitude).
operator which must specify, as a minimum, that NOTE−
SVFR helicopters are to maintain visual reference to 1. SVFR aircraft are not assigned fixed altitudes to
7−5−2 Special VFR (SVFR)

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
maintain because of the clearance from clouds 7−5−7. GROUND VISIBILITY BELOW 1 MILE
requirement.
14 CFR Part 91 does not prohibit helicopter SVFR
2. The MSAs are: flight when the visibility is less than 1 mile. Treat
(a) Over congested areas, an altitude at least 1,000 feet
requests for SVFR fixed wing operations as follows
above the highest obstacle, and
when the ground visibility is officially reported at an
(b) Over other than congested areas, an altitude at least
500 feet above the surface. airport as less than 1 mile:
(c) Helicopters may be operated at less than the a. Inform departing aircraft that ground visibility
minimum altitudes prescribed in (a) and (b) above. is less than 1 mile and that a clearance cannot be
REFERENCE− issued.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−6−1, Application. b. Inform arriving aircraft, operating outside of a
14 CFR Section 91.119, Minimum Safe Altitudes: General. Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E surface area, that
ground visibility is less than 1 mile and that, unless an
7−5−5. LOCAL OPERATIONS emergency exists, a clearance cannot be issued.
a. Authorize local SVFR operations for a specified c. Inform arriving aircraft, operating VFR/SVFR
period (series of landings and takeoffs, etc.) upon within a Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E surface
request if the aircraft can be recalled when traffic or area, that ground visibility is less than 1 mile and
weather conditions require. Where warranted, LOAs request the pilot to advise intentions.
may be consummated. PHRASEOLOGY−
PHRASEOLOGY− (Name of airport) VISIBILITY LESS THAN 1 MILE.
LOCAL SPECIAL V−F−R OPERATIONS IN THE ADVISE INTENTIONS.
IMMEDIATE VICINITY OF (name) AIRPORT ARE NOTE−
AUTHORIZED UNTIL (time). MAINTAIN SPECIAL Clear an aircraft to land at an airport with an operating
V−F−R CONDITIONS. control tower, traffic permitting, if the pilot reports the
REFERENCE− airport in sight. The pilot is responsible to continue to the
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 4−3−2, Appropriate Subjects. airport or exit the surface area. 14 CFR Section 91.157
b. Control facilities may also authorize an FSS to prohibits VFR aircraft (other than helicopters) from
transmit SVFR clearances so that only one aircraft at landing at any airport within a surface area when ground
visibility is less than 1 mile. A pilot could inadvertently
a time operates in the Class B, Class C, Class D, or
encounter conditions that are below SVFR minimums after
Class E surface areas unless pilots agree that they entering a surface area due to rapidly changing weather.
will maintain visual separation with other aircraft The pilot is best suited to determine the action to be taken
operating in the Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E since pilots operating under SVFR between sunrise and
surface areas. Such authorization concerning visual sunset are not required to be instrument rated, and the
separation by pilots must be contained in a LOA possibility exists that flight visibility may not be the same
between the control facility and the FSS. as ground visibility. 14 CFR Section 91.3 authorizes a pilot
REFERENCE−
encountering an inflight emergency requiring immediate
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 4−3−3, Developing LOA. action to deviate from any rule of 14 CFR Part 91 to the
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−4, Operational Priority. extent required to meet that emergency. Flight into adverse
weather conditions may require the pilot to execute the
7−5−6. CLIMB TO VFR emergency authority granted in 14 CFR Section 91.3 and
continue inbound to land.
Authorize an aircraft to climb to VFR upon request if
d. Authorize scheduled air carrier aircraft in the
the only weather limitation is restricted visibility.
U.S. to conduct operations if ground visibility is not
PHRASEOLOGY− less than 1/2 statute mile.
CLIMB TO V−F−R WITHIN (name) SURFACE
NOTE−
AREA/WITHIN (a specified distance) MILES FROM
14 CFR Part 121 permits landing or takeoff by domestic
(airport name) AIRPORT, MAINTAIN SPECIAL V−F−R
scheduled air carriers where a local surface restriction to
CONDITIONS UNTIL REACHING V−F−R.
visibility is not less than 1/2 statute mile, provided all turns
REFERENCE−
after takeoff or before landing and all flights beyond
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−4−22, Airspace Classes. 1 statute mile from the airport boundary can be
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−5−1, Authorization. accomplished above or outside the area so restricted. The
Special VFR (SVFR) 7−5−3

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
pilot is solely responsible for determining if the nature of a clearance cannot be issued unless an emergency
the visibility restriction will permit compliance with the exists.
provisions of 14 CFR Part 121.
c. Request the intentions of an arriving aircraft
e. Clear an aircraft to fly through the Class B,
operating within a Class B, Class C, Class D, or
Class C, Class D, or Class E surface area if the
Class E surface area.
aircraft reports flight visibility is at least 1 statute
mile. NOTE−
Clear an aircraft to land at an airport with an operating
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−4, Operational Priority. control tower, traffic permitting, if the pilot reports the
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−5−1, Authorization. airport in sight. The pilot is responsible to continue to the
airport or exit the surface area. 14 CFR Section 91.157
7−5−8. FLIGHT VISIBILITY BELOW 1 MILE prohibits VFR aircraft (other than helicopters) from
landing at any airport within a surface area when flight
Treat requests for SVFR fixed-wing operations as visibility is less than 1 mile. A pilot could inadvertently
follows when weather conditions are not reported at encounter conditions that are below SVFR minimums after
an airport and the pilot advises the flight visibility is entering a surface area due to rapidly changing weather.
less than 1 mile: The pilot is best suited to determine the action to be taken
since pilots operating under SVFR between sunrise and
NOTE− sunset are not required to be instrument rated, and the
14 CFR Part 91 prescribes the visibility for basic VFR and possibility exists that flight visibility may not be the same
SVFR operations as the official reported ground visibility as ground visibility. 14 CFR Section 91.3 authorizes a pilot
at airports where provided and landing or takeoff “flight encountering an inflight emergency requiring immediate
visibility” where there is no official reported ground action to deviate from any rule of 14 CFR Part 91 to the
visibility. extent required to meet that emergency. Flight into adverse
a. Inform departing aircraft that a clearance cannot weather conditions may require the pilot to execute the
be issued. emergency authority granted in 14 CFR Section 91.3 and
continue inbound to land.
b. Inform arriving aircraft operating outside of a REFERENCE−
Class B, Class C, Class D or Class E surface area that FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−4, Operational Priority.
7−5−4 Special VFR (SVFR)

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 6. Basic Radar Service

to VFR Aircraft− Terminal
7−6−1. APPLICATION provided unless the pilot states that the service is not
requested. Arriving aircraft are assumed to want
a. Basic radar services for VFR aircraft must
radar service unless the pilot states “Negative radar
include:
service,” or makes a similar comment.
1. Safety alerts.
2. Traffic advisories. 7−6−3. INITIAL CONTACT
3. Limited radar vectoring when requested by An aircraft sighted by the local controller at the time
the pilot. of first radio contact may be positioned in the landing
sequence after coordination with approach control.
4. Sequencing at locations where procedures
have been established for this purpose and/or when 7−6−4. IDENTIFICATION
covered by a LOA.
Identify the aircraft before taking action to position it
b. Apply the procedures contained in paragraph in the approach sequence.
7−1−3, Approach Control Service for VFR Arriving
Aircraft, when arriving VFR aircraft are handled by
7−6−5. HOLDING
approach control and provide vectoring service in
accordance with Chapter 5, Radar, Section 7, Speed Hold VFR aircraft over the initial reporting fix or a fix
Adjustment, in addition to the radar services near the airport when holding is required to establish
prescribed in paragraph 5−6−1, Application, and an approach sequence.
paragraph 5−6−2, Methods. REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−1−4, Visual Holding of VFR Aircraft.
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−16, Surface Areas.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−6−1, Application. 7−6−6. APPROACH SEQUENCE
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Chapter 12, Section 1, Terminal VFR Radar
Services. Do not assign landing sequence numbers, when
AIM, Para 4−1−18, Terminal Radar Services for VFR Aircraft.
establishing aircraft in the approach sequence, unless
this responsibility has been delegated in a LOA or
7−6−2. SERVICE AVAILABILITY facility directive.
a. Inform aircraft on initial contact whenever this NOTE−
service cannot be provided because of radar outage The landing sequence is ordinarily established by the
and apply paragraph 7−1−3, Approach Control tower.
Service for VFR Arriving Aircraft.
7−6−7. SEQUENCING
b. Provide the service, to the extent possible using
an available frequency, if an aircraft desires the a. Establish radar contact before instructing a VFR
service but cannot communicate on the appropriate aircraft to enter the traffic pattern at a specified point
frequencies. Aircraft which do not desire radar or vectoring the aircraft to a position in the approach
service may be fitted into the landing sequence by the sequence. Inform the pilot of the aircraft to follow
tower. Coordination of these aircraft must be when the integrity of the approach sequence is
accomplished with the approach control unless a dependent on following a preceding aircraft. Ensure
facility directive/LOA prescribes otherwise. Nonpar- visual contact is established with the aircraft to follow
ticipating aircraft must, to the extent possible, be and provide instruction to follow that aircraft.
given the same landing sequence they would have PHRASEOLOGY−
received had they been sequenced by radar vectors. FOLLOW (description) (position, if necessary).
c. Radar sequencing to the primary airport, when b. Direct a VFR aircraft to a point near the airport
local procedures have been developed, must be to hold when a position is not available in the
Basic Radar Service to VFR Aircraft− Terminal 7−6−1

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
approach sequence for the runway in use. The aircraft 7−6−10. VFR DEPARTURE INFORMATION
may be vectored to another runway after coordination Inform departing VFR aircraft who request radar
with the tower. traffic advisories when to contact departure control
c. Apply the following procedures to a VFR and the frequency to use. Provide traffic advisories in
aircraft being radar sequenced: accordance with paragraph 2−1−21, Traffic Advisor-
ies, after the departure is radar identified.
1. The provisions of paragraph 5−5−4, Minima, NOTE−
subparagraphs g and h. Departing aircraft desiring traffic information are
2. When parallel runways are less than 2,500 expected to request the service and to state their proposed
direction of flight upon initial contact with ground control.
feet apart, do not permit a super or heavy aircraft to
overtake any aircraft, nor a B757 or other large 7−6−11. TERMINATION OF SERVICE
aircraft to overtake a small aircraft established on
final within the facility’s area of responsibility. Basic radar services should be provided to the extent
possible, workload permitting. Terminate radar
service to aircraft landing at airports other than those
7−6−8. CONTROL TRANSFER where sequencing service is provided at a sufficient
distance from the airport to permit the pilot to change
a. Inform the tower of the aircraft’s position and
to the appropriate frequency for traffic and airport
then instruct the pilot to contact the tower.
information.
b. The aircraft may be instructed to contact the PHRASEOLOGY−
tower prior to the tower being advised of the aircraft’s RADAR SERVICE TERMINATED, SQUAWK ONE TWO
position provided: ZERO ZERO,
1. The tower advises the aircraft is in sight, and or

2. Space is available in the landing sequence. SQUAWK VFR,
c. Instruct the pilot to contact the tower at the
then
appropriate point when the approach control STARS
track data is being displayed on the tower’s TDW CHANGE TO ADVISORY FREQUENCY APPROVED,
display, the aircraft is tagged by STARS, and a facility
directive specifies change of communications and or
control jurisdiction points.
CONTACT (frequency identification),
NOTE−
The point at which an aircraft is instructed to contact the
or
tower is determined by prior coordination between the
tower and approach control and will vary, depending on
FREQUENCY CHANGE APPROVED.
the runway in use, weather, etc. The transfer of
communications ordinarily occurs at least 5 miles from the
runway. The point for the transfer of communications
7−6−12. SERVICE PROVIDED WHEN
should be a sufficient distance from the airport to permit TOWER IS INOPERATIVE
the tower to properly sequence the aircraft, but not at a a. Provide the following services during hours
distance that could derogate the provision of radar traffic when the tower is not in operation:
information service.
1. Wind direction and velocity.
NOTE−
7−6−9. ABANDONED APPROACH Issue information provided from the FSS or WSO.
Otherwise, inform the pilot that wind information is not
Instruct the aircraft to change to approach control for available.
sequencing when an aircraft, under tower control,
abandons the approach and coordination with 2. Traffic information.
approach control reveals no immediate space in the 3. Inform aircraft when radar service is
approach sequence. terminated.
7−6−2 Basic Radar Service to VFR Aircraft− Terminal

12/2/21
6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z CHG 1
JO 7110.65Z
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−1−9, Radar Service Termination.
b. Do not assign landing sequence.
Basic Radar Service to VFR Aircraft− Terminal 7−6−3

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 7. Terminal Radar Service

Area (TRSA)− Terminal
7−7−1. APPLICATION 7−7−5. ALTITUDE ASSIGNMENTS

Apply TRSA procedures within the designated a. Altitude information contained in a clearance,
TRSA in addition to the basic services described in instruction, or advisory to VFR aircraft must meet
Chapter 7, Visual, Section 6, Basic Radar Service to MVA, MSA, or minimum IFR altitude criteria.
VFR Aircraft− Terminal.
REFERENCE−
REFERENCE− FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−5−2, Flight Direction.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−2−1, Visual Separation. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−5−3, Exceptions.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−5−6, Minimum En Route Altitudes.
7−7−2. ISSUANCE OF EFC b. If required, issue altitude assignments, consis-

tent with the provisions of 14 CFR Section 91.119.
Inform the pilot when to expect further clearance
when VFR aircraft are held either inside or outside the NOTE−
TRSA. The MSAs are:
1. Over congested areas, an altitude at least 1,000 feet
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−2−1, Visual Separation. above the highest obstacle; and
2. Over other than congested areas, an altitude at least

7−7−3. SEPARATION 500 feet above the surface.
Separate VFR aircraft from VFR/IFR aircraft by any c. When necessary to assign an altitude for
one of the following: separation purposes to VFR aircraft contrary to
a. Visual separation, as specified in paragraph 14 CFR Section 91.159, advise the aircraft to resume
7−2−1, Visual Separation, paragraph 7−4−2, Vectors altitudes appropriate for the direction of flight when
for Visual Approach, and paragraph 7−6−7, Sequen- the altitude assignment is no longer needed for
cing. separation or when leaving the TRSA.
Issue wake turbulence cautionary advisories in accor- RESUME APPROPRIATE VFR ALTITUDES.
dance with paragraph 2−1−20, Wake Turbulence REFERENCE−
Cautionary Advisories. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−8−11, Practice Approaches.
b. 500 feet vertical separation. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−2−1, Visual Separation.
c. Target resolution, except when ISR is being

displayed. 7−7−6. APPROACH INTERVAL
NOTE−
Apply the provisions of paragraph 5−5−4, Minima, The tower must specify the approach interval.
subparagraphs g and h, when wake turbulence separation REFERENCE−
is required. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−2−1, Visual Separation.
REFERENCE−
7−7−7. TRSA DEPARTURE INFORMATION
7−7−4. HELICOPTER TRAFFIC
a. At controlled airports within the TRSA, inform
Helicopters need not be separated from other a departing aircraft proposing to operate within the
helicopters. Traffic information must be exchanged, TRSA when to contact departure control and the
as necessary. frequency to use. If the aircraft is properly equipped,
REFERENCE−
ground control or clearance delivery must issue the
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−2−1, Visual Separation. appropriate beacon code.
Terminal Radar Service Area (TRSA)− Terminal 7−7−1

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
NOTE− d. Aircraft departing satellite controlled airports

Departing aircraft are assumed to want TRSA service that will penetrate the TRSA should be provided the
unless the pilot states, “negative TRSA service,” or makes same service as those aircraft departing the primary
a similar comment. Pilots are expected to inform the airport. Procedures for handling this situation must be
controller of intended destination and/or route of flight and
covered in a letter of agreement or facility directives,
altitude.
as appropriate.
b. Provide separation until the aircraft leaves the
TRSA. e. Procedures for handling aircraft departing
c. Inform VFR participating aircraft when leaving uncontrolled satellite airports must be advertised in a
the TRSA. facility bulletin and service provided accordingly.
REFERENCE−
PHRASEOLOGY− FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−2−1, Visual Separation.
LEAVING THE (name) TRSA,
and as appropriate,
RESUME OWN NAVIGATION, REMAIN THIS

FREQUENCY FOR TRAFFIC ADVISORIES, RADAR
SERVICE TERMINATED, SQUAWK ONE TWO ZERO
ZERO.
7−7−2 Terminal Radar Service Area (TRSA)− Terminal

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 8. Class C Service− Terminal
7−8−1. APPLICATION REFERENCE−

Apply Class C service procedures within the
designated Class C airspace and the associated outer 7−8−3. SEPARATION
area. Class C services are designed to keep ATC
informed of all aircraft within Class C airspace, not Separate VFR aircraft from IFR aircraft by any one of
to exclude operations. Two-way radio communica- the following:
tions and operational transponder are normally a. Visual separation as specified in paragraph
required for operations within Class C airspace, but 7−2−1, Visual Separation, paragraph 7−4−2, Vectors
operations without radio communications or for Visual Approach, and paragraph 7−6−7, Sequen-
transponder can be conducted by LOA, facility cing.
directive, or special arrangement with Class C
NOTE−
airspace controlling facility. Issue wake turbulence cautionary advisories in accord-
REFERENCE− ance with paragraph 2−1−20, Wake Turbulence
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−2−1, Visual Separation. Cautionary Advisories.
14 CFR Section 91.215, ATC Transponder and Altitude Reporting
Equipment and Use. b. 500 feet vertical separation;
c. Target resolution, except when ISR is being
7−8−2. CLASS C SERVICES
displayed.
a. Class C services include the following: NOTE−
1. Sequencing of all aircraft to the primary Apply the provisions of paragraph 5−5−4, Minima,
subparagraphs g and h, when wake turbulence separation
airport. is required.
2. Standard IFR services to IFR aircraft. REFERENCE−
3. Separation, traffic advisories, and safety
alerts between IFR and VFR aircraft. 7−8−4. ESTABLISHING TWO-WAY
4. Mandatory traffic advisories and safety alerts COMMUNICATIONS
between VFR aircraft. Class C service requires pilots to establish two-way
b. Provide Class C services to all aircraft operating radio communications before entering Class C
within Class C airspace. airspace. If the controller responds to a radio call
with, “(a/c call sign) standby,” radio communications
c. Provide Class C services to all participating have been established and the pilot can enter Class C
aircraft in the outer area. airspace. If workload or traffic conditions prevent
d. Aircraft should not normally be held. However, immediate provision of Class C services, inform the
if holding is necessary, inform the pilot of the pilot to remain outside Class C airspace until
expected length of delay. conditions permit the services to be provided.
e. When an outage occurs, affecting the preferred PHRASEOLOGY−
radar sensor, advise aircraft that Class C services are (A/c call sign) REMAIN OUTSIDE CHARLIE AIRSPACE
AND STANDBY.
not available and, if appropriate, when to contact the
REFERENCE−
tower, except when other radar resources are FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−2−1, Visual Separation.
available and to the extent that coverage is sufficient,
continue to provide radar services.
7−8−5. ALTITUDE ASSIGNMENTS
NOTE−
Limited radar coverage in one portion of a Class C area a. When necessary to assign altitudes to VFR
does not justify denial of Class C radar service in the entire aircraft, assign altitudes that meet the MVA, MSA, or
area. minimum IFR altitude criteria.
Class C Service− Terminal 7−8−1

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
b. Aircraft assigned altitudes which are contrary to services as those aircraft departing the primary
14 CFR Section 91.159 must be advised to resume airport. Procedures for handling this situation must be
altitudes appropriate for the direction of flight when covered in a LOA or a facility directive, as
the altitude is no longer needed for separation, when appropriate.
leaving the outer area, or when terminating Class C
service. b. Aircraft departing uncontrolled airports within
Class C airspace must be handled using procedures
PHRASEOLOGY− advertised in a Letter to Airmen.
RESUME APPROPRIATE VFR ALTITUDES.
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−2−1, Visual Separation. 7−8−8. TERMINATION OF SERVICE
7−8−6. EXCEPTIONS Unless aircraft are landing at secondary airports or

have requested termination of service while in the
a. VFR helicopters need not be separated from outer area, provide services until the aircraft departs
IFR helicopters. Traffic information and safety alerts the associated outer area. Terminate Class C service
must be issued as appropriate. to aircraft landing at other than the primary airport at
b. Hot air balloons need not be separated from IFR a sufficient distance from the airport to allow the pilot
aircraft. Traffic information and safety alerts must be to change to the appropriate frequency for traffic and
issued as appropriate. airport information.
PHRASEOLOGY−
7−8−7. ADJACENT AIRPORT OPERATIONS CHANGE TO ADVISORY FREQUENCY APPROVED,
a. Aircraft that will penetrate Class C airspace or

after departing controlled airports within or adjacent
to Class C airspace must be provided the same CONTACT (facility identification).
7−8−2 Class C Service− Terminal

12/2/21
6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z CHG 1
JO 7110.65Z
Section 9. Class B Service Area− Terminal
7−9−1. APPLICATION VFR traffic from IFR traffic flows when a radar outage
occurs.
Apply Class B services and procedures within the
designated Class B airspace. b. Approve/deny requests from VFR aircraft to
operate in Class B airspace based on workload,
a. No person may operate an aircraft within operational limitations and traffic conditions.
Class B airspace unless:
c. Inform the pilot when to expect further
1. The aircraft has an operable two-way radio clearance when VFR aircraft are held either inside or
capable of communications with ATC on appropriate outside Class B airspace.
frequencies for that Class B airspace. d. Inform VFR aircraft when leaving Class B
2. The aircraft is equipped with the applicable airspace.
operating transponder and automatic altitude report- PHRASEOLOGY−
ing equipment specified in paragraph (a) of 14 CFR LEAVING (name) BRAVO AIRSPACE,
Section 91.215, except as provided in paragraph (d)
of that section. and as appropriate,
RESUME OWN NAVIGATION, REMAIN THIS

7−9−2. VFR AIRCRAFT IN CLASS B FREQUENCY FOR TRAFFIC ADVISORIES, RADAR
AIRSPACE SERVICE TERMINATED, SQUAWK ONE TWO ZERO
ZERO.
a. VFR aircraft must obtain an ATC clearance to
operate in Class B airspace. 7−9−3. METHODS
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−18, Operational Requests. a. To the extent practical, clear large turbine
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−4−22, Airspace Classes. engine-powered airplanes to/from the primary airport
PHRASEOLOGY− using altitudes and routes that avoid VFR corridors
CLEARED THROUGH/TO ENTER/OUT OF BRAVO and airspace below the Class B airspace floor where
AIRSPACE, VFR aircraft are operating.
NOTE−
and as appropriate,
Pilots operating in accordance with VFR are expected to
advise ATC if compliance with assigned altitudes,
VIA (route). MAINTAIN (altitude) WHILE IN BRAVO
headings, or routes will cause violation of any part of the
AIRSPACE.
CFR.
or b. Vector aircraft to remain in Class B airspace
after entry. Inform the aircraft when leaving and
CLEARED AS REQUESTED. reentering Class B airspace if it becomes necessary to
extend the flight path outside Class B airspace for
(Additional instructions, as necessary.)
spacing.
REMAIN OUTSIDE BRAVO AIRSPACE. (When NOTE−
necessary, reason and/or additional instructions.) 14 CFR Section 91.131 states that “Unless otherwise
authorized by ATC, each person operating a large turbine
NOTE−
engine-powered airplane to or from a primary airport for
1. Assignment of radar headings, routes, or altitudes is
which a Class B airspace area is designated must operate
based on the provision that a pilot operating in accordance
at or above the designated floors of the Class B airspace
with VFR is expected to advise ATC if compliance will
area while within the lateral limits of that area.” Such
cause violation of any part of the CFR.
authorization should be the exception rather than the rule.
2. Separation and sequencing for VFR aircraft is REFERENCE−
dependent upon radar. Efforts should be made to segregate FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−1−6, Deviation Advisories.
Class B Service Area− Terminal 7−9−1

JO
JO 7110.65Z
7110.65R CHG
7110.65Z CHG
2 1 12/2/21
3/15/07
6/17/21
c. Aircraft departing controlled airports within for Visual Approach, and paragraph 7−6−7, Sequen-
Class B airspace will be provided the same services cing.
as those aircraft departing the primary airport. NOTE−
REFERENCE− Issue wake turbulence cautionary advisories in accor-
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−18, Operational Requests. dance with paragraph 2−1−20, Wake Turbulence
Cautionary Advisories.
7−9−4. SEPARATION REFERENCE−
P/CG Term − Lateral Separation.
a. Standard IFR services to IFR aircraft. P/CG Term − Radar Separation.
P/CG Term − Target Resolution.
P/CG Term − Visual Separation.
b. VFR aircraft must be separated from VFR/IFR
aircraft/ helicopter/rotorcraft that weigh more than
19,000 pounds and turbojets by no less than: 7−9−5. TRAFFIC ADVISORIES
1. 1 ½ miles separation, or a. Provide mandatory traffic advisories and safety

alerts, between all aircraft.
NOTE−
When ISR is being displayed, discontinue 1 ½ −NM b. Apply merging target procedures in accordance
separation. with paragraph 5−1−4, Merging Target Procedures.
2. 500 feet vertical separation, or
7−9−6. HELICOPTER TRAFFIC
NOTE−
Apply the provisions of paragraph 5−5−4, Minima, when VFR helicopters need not be separated from VFR or
wake turbulence separation is required. IFR helicopters. Traffic advisories and safety alerts
must be issued as appropriate.
3. Visual separation, as specified in
paragraph 7−2−1, Visual Separation,
paragraph 7−4−2, Vectors for Visual Approach, and 7−9−7. ALTITUDE ASSIGNMENTS
paragraph 7−6−7, Sequencing. a. Altitude information contained in a clearance,
NOTE− instruction, or advisory to VFR aircraft must meet
Issue wake turbulence cautionary advisories in accor- MVA, MSA, or minimum IFR altitude criteria.
dance with paragraph 2−1−20, Wake Turbulence
b. Issue altitude assignments, if required, consis-
Cautionary Advisories.
tent with the provisions of 14 CFR Section 91.119.
c. For the application of Class Bravo airspace NOTE−
separation requirements, the V-22 Osprey must be The MSAs are:
treated as a helicopter/rotorcraft. 1. Over congested areas, an altitude at least 1,000 feet
above the highest obstacle,
d. VFR aircraft must be separated from all
2. Over other than congested areas, an altitude at least
VFR/IFR aircraft which weigh 19,000 pounds or less 500 feet above the surface.
by a minimum of:
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−5−2, Flight Direction.
1. Target resolution, except when ISR is being FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−5−3, Exceptions.
displayed, or FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−5−6, Minimum En Route Altitudes.
2. 500 feet vertical separation, or c. Aircraft assigned altitudes which are contrary to
14 CFR Section 91.159 must be advised to resume
NOTE−
1. Apply the provisions of paragraph 5−5−4, Minima,
altitudes appropriate for the direction of flight when
when wake turbulence separation is required. the altitude assignment is no longer required or when
leaving Class B airspace.
2. Aircraft weighing 19,000 pounds or less are listed in
FAA Order JO 7360.1, Aircraft Type Designators. PHRASEOLOGY−
RESUME APPROPRIATE VFR ALTITUDES.
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7360.1, Para 2−2, How Designators are Formulated.
7−9−8. APPROACH INTERVAL
3. Visual separation, as specified in paragraph
7−2−1, Visual Separation, paragraph 7−4−2, Vectors The tower must specify the approach interval.
7−9−2 Class B Service Area− Terminal

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Chapter 8. Offshore/Oceanic Procedures

Section 1. General
8−1−1. ATC SERVICE c. Radar separation, as specified in Chapter 5,

Radar, where radar coverage is adequate.
Provide air traffic control service in oceanic
controlled airspace in accordance with the procedures 8−1−5. ALTIMETER SETTING
in this chapter except when other procedures/minima
are prescribed in a directive or a letter of agreement. Within oceanic control areas, unless directed and/or
charted otherwise, altitude assignment must be based
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 1−1−10, Procedural Letters of Agreement on flight levels and a standard altimeter setting of
(LOA). 29.92 inches Hg.
8−1−2. OPERATIONS IN OFFSHORE 8−1−6. RECEIPT OF POSITION REPORTS

AIRSPACE AREAS When a position report affecting separation is not
received, take action to obtain the report no later than
Provide air traffic control service in offshore airspace
10 minutes after the control estimate, unless
areas in accordance with procedures and minima in
otherwise specified.
this chapter. For those situations not covered by this
chapter, the provisions in this Order must apply.
8−1−7. OCEANIC ERROR REPORT
PROCEDURES
8−1−3. VFR FLIGHT PLANS
FAA Order 7110.82 establishes procedures for
VFR flights in Oceanic FIRs may be conducted in reporting Gross Navigation Errors (GNE), height
meteorological conditions equal to or greater than errors, time(longitudinal) errors, intervention, and
those specified in 14 CFR Section 91.155, Basic VFR Special Area of Operations (SAO) verification in
weather minimums. Operations on a VFR flight plan oceanic airspace. This data is needed for risk
are permitted only between sunrise and sunset and modeling activities to support separation standard
only within: reductions.
a. Miami, Houston, and San Juan Oceanic Control 8−1−8. USE OF CONTROL ESTIMATES
Areas (CTAs) below FL 180.
Control estimates are the estimated position of
b. Within the Oakland FIR when operating less aircraft, with reference to time as determined by the
than 100 NM seaward from the shoreline within ATC automation system in use or calculated by the
controlled airspace. controller using known wind patterns, previous
c. All Oceanic FIR airspace below the Oceanic aircraft transit times, pilot progress reports, and pilot
CTAs. estimates. These estimates may be updated through
the receipt of automated position reports and/or
manually updated by the controller. Control estimates
8−1−4. TYPES OF SEPARATION must be used when applying time−based separation
minima.
Separation must consist of at least one of the
following:
8−1−9. RVSM OPERATIONS
a. Vertical separation; Controller responsibilities for non−RVSM aircraft
b. Horizontal separation, either; operating in RVSM airspace must include but not be
limited to the following:
1. Longitudinal; or
a. Ensure non−RVSM aircraft are not permitted in
2. Lateral; RVSM airspace unless they meet the criteria of
General 8−1−1
JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
excepted aircraft and are previously approved by the 3. Aircraft being utilized for mercy or
operations supervisor/CIC. humanitarian purposes;
b. In addition to those aircraft listed in Chapter 2, 4. Within the Oakland, Anchorage, and Arctic
Section 1, paragraph 2−1−29, RVSM Operations in FIR’s, an aircraft transporting a spare engine
this order, the following aircraft operating within mounted under the wing.
oceanic airspace or transiting to/from oceanic
airspace are excepted: (a) These exceptions are accommodated on a
1. Aircraft being initially delivered to the State workload or traffic-permitting basis.
of Registry or Operator; (b) All other requirements contained in
2. Aircraft that was formerly RVSM approved paragraph 2−1−29, RVSM Operations are applicable
but has experienced an equipment failure and is being to this section.
flown to a maintenance facility for repair in order to REFERENCE−
meet RVSM requirements and/or obtain approval; FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−29, RVSM Operations.
8−1−2 General
6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 2. Coordination
8−2−1. GENERAL is estimated to cross the control boundary or at such

other point or time agreed upon by the two units.
ARTCCs must:
c. The transferring unit must forward to the
a. Forward to appropriate ATS facilities, as a flight accepting unit any changed flight plan or control data
progresses, current flight plan and control which are pertinent to the transfer.
information.
d. The accepting unit must notify the transferring
b. Coordinate flight plan and control information unit if it is unable to accept control under the terms
in sufficient time to permit the receiving facility to specified, or it must specify the changes or conditions
analyze the data and to effect any necessary required so that the aircraft can be accepted.
additional coordination. This may be specified in a
e. The accepting unit must not alter the clearance
letter of agreement.
of an aircraft that has not yet reached the transfer of
c. Coordinate with adjacent ATS facilities when control point without the prior approval of the
airspace to be protected will overlap the common transferring unit.
boundary. f. Where nonradar separation minima are being
d. Forward revisions of estimates of 3 minutes or applied, the transfer of air-ground communications
more to the appropriate ATS facility. with an aircraft must be made 5 minutes before the
time at which the aircraft is estimated to reach the
e. Coordinate with adjacent facilities on IFR and boundary unless otherwise agreed to by the control
VFR flights to ensure the continuation of appropriate and/or communication units concerned.
air traffic services.
8−2−3. AIR TRAFFIC SERVICES
8−2−2. TRANSFER OF CONTROL AND INTERFACILITY DATA COMMUNICATIONS
COMMUNICATIONS (AIDC)
a. Only one air traffic control unit must control an Where interfacility data communications capability
aircraft at any given time. has been implemented, its use for ATC coordination
should be accomplished in accordance with regional
b. The control of an aircraft must be transferred Interface Control Documents, and supported by
from one control unit to another at the time the aircraft letters of agreement between the facilities concerned.
Coordination 8−2−1
6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
8−3−1. APPLICATION FIG 8−3−1

Same Courses
a. Longitudinal separation must be applied so that
the spacing between the estimated positions of the
aircraft being separated is never less than a prescribed
minimum.
NOTE−
Consider separation to exist when the estimated positions
of the aircraft being separated are never less than a
prescribed minimum.
b. In situations where one aircraft requires a

different time−based longitudinal standard than
another, apply the larger of the two standards between
the aircraft concerned.
c. Longitudinal separation expressed in distance

may be applied as prescribed in Chapter 6, Nonradar.
d. In situations where an update to a control

estimate indicates that the minimum being applied no
2. Crossing tracks. Ensure that the estimated
longer exists, controllers must ensure that separation
spacing at the point of intersection is not less than the
is reestablished. Issue traffic information as
applicable minimum required. (See FIG 8−3−2.)
necessary.
FIG 8−3−2
Crossing Courses
8−3−2. SEPARATION METHODS
a. For the purpose of application of longitudinal

separation, the terms same track must be considered
identical to same course, reciprocal tracks must be
considered identical to reciprocal courses, and
crossing tracks, must be considered identical to
crossing courses.
NOTE−
Refer to paragraph 1−2−2, Course Definitions.
b. Separate aircraft longitudinally in accordance

with the following:
1. Same track. Ensure that the estimated

spacing between aircraft is not less than the
applicable minimum required. (See FIG 8−3−1.)

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
3. Reciprocal tracks: b. Routes:

(a) Ensure that aircraft are vertically separ- 1. The aircraft follow the same track or
ated for a time interval equal to the applicable continuously diverging tracks, and
minimum required before and after the aircraft are 2. The aircraft concerned have reported over a
estimated to pass. (See FIG 8−3−3.) common point; or
3. If the aircraft have not reported over a
FIG 8−3−3 common point, the appropriate time interval being
Reciprocal Courses applied between aircraft exists and will exist at the
common point; or,
4. If a common point does not exist, the
appropriate time interval being applied between
aircraft exists and will exist at significant points along
each track.
c. Altitudes: The aircraft concerned are in level,
climbing or descending flight.
d. Mach Number Assignment:
1. A Mach number (or, when appropriate, a
range of Mach numbers) must be issued to each
aircraft unless otherwise prescribed on the basis of
(b) Vertical separation may be discontinued ICAO regional agreement.
after one of the following conditions are met: NOTE−
(1) Both aircraft have reported passing a 1. The application of Mach number technique requires
pilots to strictly adhere to the last assigned Mach number
significant point and the aircraft are separated by at
(or range of Mach numbers), even during climbs and
least the applicable minimum required for the same descents, unless revised by ATC. Turbojet aircraft must
direction longitudinal spacing; (See FIG 8−3−4.) or request ATC approval before making any changes. If it is
essential to make an immediate temporary change in the
FIG 8−3−4 Mach number (e.g., due to turbulence), ATC must be
Vertical Separation notified as soon as possible that such a change has been
made.
2. When it is necessary to issue crossing restrictions to
ensure the appropriate time interval, it may be impossible
for an aircraft to comply with both the clearance to meet the
crossing restrictions and the clearance to maintain a
single, specific Mach number.
REFERENCE−
ICAO DOC 9426−AN/924, Part II, Section 2, Para 2.3.4, Para 2.4.7,
and Para 2.5.3.
EXAMPLE−
(2) Both aircraft have reported passing
“Maintain Mach point eight four or greater.”
ground-based NAVAIDs or DME fixes indicating “Maintain Mach point eight three or less.”
that they have passed each other. “Maintain Mach point eight two or greater; do not exceed
Mach point eight four.”
8−3−3. MACH NUMBER TECHNIQUE e. Longitudinal Minima:

When the Mach number technique is applied,
The use of Mach number technique allows for the minimum longitudinal separation must be:
application of reduced longitudinal separation 1. 10 minutes, provided that:
minima. The following conditions must be met when
the Mach number technique is being applied: (a) The preceding aircraft maintains a Mach
number equal to, or greater than that maintained by
a. Aircraft Types: Turbojet aircraft only. the following aircraft; or

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
(b) When the following aircraft is faster than (d) 6 minutes, if the preceding aircraft is
the preceding aircraft, at least 10 minutes exists until Mach 0.05 faster than the following aircraft;
another form of separation is achieved; or
(e) 5 minutes, if the preceding aircraft is
2. Between 9 and 5 minutes inclusive, provided Mach 0.06 faster than the following aircraft.
that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a Mach NOTE−
number greater than the following aircraft in A “rule−of−thumb” may be applied to assist in providing
accordance with the following: the required estimated spacing over the oceanic exit point
when either conflict probe is not in use or when requested
(a) 9 minutes, if the preceding aircraft is
by another facility. This rule−of−thumb can be stated as
Mach 0.02 faster than the following aircraft; follows: For each 600 NM in distance between the entry
(b) 8 minutes, if the preceding aircraft is and exit points of the area where the Mach Number
Mach 0.03 faster than the following aircraft; Technique is used, add 1 minute for each 0.01 difference in
Mach number for the two aircraft concerned to compensate
(c) 7 minutes, if the preceding aircraft is for the fact that the second aircraft is overtaking the first
Mach 0.04 faster than the following aircraft; aircraft. (See TBL 8−3−1.)
TBL 8−3−1
Application of the Mach Number Technique When the Following Aircraft is Faster
Distance to Fly and Separation (in Minutes) Required at Entry Point

Difference in
001−600 NM 601−1200 NM 1201−1800 NM 1801−2400 NM 2401−3000 NM
Mach
0.01 . . . . . . . . . . 11 12 13 14 15
0.02 . . . . . . . . . . 12 14 16 18 20
0.03 . . . . . . . . . . 13 16 19 22 25
0.04 . . . . . . . . . . 14 18 22 26 30
0.05 . . . . . . . . . . 15 20 25 30 35
0.06 . . . . . . . . . . 16 22 28 34 40
0.07 . . . . . . . . . . 17 24 31 38 45
0.08 . . . . . . . . . . 18 26 34 42 50
0.09 . . . . . . . . . . 19 28 37 46 55
0.10 . . . . . . . . . . 20 30 40 50 60

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
8−4−1. APPLICATION 2. When reduced route protected airspace is

applicable, and the protected airspace of the flight
Separate aircraft by assigning different flight paths paths do not overlap; or (See FIG 8−4−2.)
whose widths or protected airspace do not overlap.
FIG 8−4−2
Within that portion of the Gulf of Mexico Low Separation Methods
Offshore airspace, use 12 NM between aircraft whose
flight paths are defined by published Grid System
waypoints.
NOTE−
1. The Grid System is defined as those waypoints
contained within the Gulf of Mexico Low Offshore airspace
and published on the IFR Vertical Flight Reference Chart.
2. Lateral separation minima is contained in:
Section 7, North Atlantic ICAO Region.
Section 8, Caribbean ICAO Region.
Section 9, Pacific ICAO Region.
Section 10, North American ICAO Region− 3. When aircraft are crossing an oceanic
Arctic CTA. boundary and are entering an airspace with a larger
lateral minimum than the airspace being exited; and
8−4−2. SEPARATION METHODS (a) The smaller separation exists at the
boundary; and
Lateral separation exists for:
(b) Flight paths diverge by 15 or more until
a. Nonintersecting flight paths: the larger minimum is established. (See FIG 8−4−3.)
1. When the required distance is maintained FIG 8−4−3
between the flight paths; or (See FIG 8−4−1.) Separation Methods
FIG 8−4−1
Separation Methods

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
b. Intersecting flight paths with constant and same d. Intersecting flight paths with variable width
width protected airspace when either aircraft is at or protected airspace when either aircraft is at or beyond
beyond a distance equal to the applicable lateral a distance equal to the sum of the protected airspace
separation minimum measured perpendicular to the of both flight paths measured perpendicular to the
flight path of the other aircraft. (See FIG 8−4−4.) flight path of the other aircraft. Measure protected
airspace for each aircraft perpendicular to its flight
FIG 8−4−4 path at the first point or the last point, as applicable,
Separation Methods of protected airspace overlap.
NOTE−
In FIG 8−4−5, the protected airspace for westbound
flight A is distance “a” (50 miles), and for southwestbound
flight B, distance “b” (10 miles). Therefore, the sum of
distances “a” and “b”; i.e., the protected airspace of
Aircrafts A and B, establishes the lateral separation
minimum (60 miles) applicable for either flight relevant to
the other.
FIG 8−4−6
Separation Methods
c. Intersecting flight paths with constant but

different width protected airspace when either
aircraft is at or beyond a distance equal to the sum of
the protected airspace of both flight paths measured
perpendicular to the flight path of the other aircraft.
(See FIG 8−4−5.)
FIG 8−4−5
Separation Methods
NOTE−
(See FIG 8−4−6.) At the first point of protected airspace
overlap, the protected airspace for westbound flight A is
distance “a” (50 miles), and for southbound flight B,
distance “b” (40 miles). The sum of distances “a” and “b”
(90 miles) establishes the lateral separation minimum
applicable in this example for either flight as it approaches
the intersection. For example, Aircraft B should be
vertically separated from Aircraft A by the time it reaches
point “p.”

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
FIG 8−4−7 FIG 8−4−8

Separation Methods Reduction of Route Protected Airspace
b. At and above FL 240, reduce the width of the

protected airspace to 10 miles on each side of the
route centerline to a distance of 114.29 miles from the
NOTE− NAVAID, then increasing in width on a 5 angle from
(See FIG 8−4−7.) Distance “a” (50 miles) and “b” the route centerline, as measured at the NAVAID, to
(30 miles) are determined at the last point of protected
the maximum width allowable within the lateral
airspace overlap. The sum of the distances “a” and “b”
(80 miles) establishes the lateral separation minima
minima; for example, 60 miles of protected airspace
applicable for either flight after it passes beyond the on each side of the centerline; i.e., a lateral separation
intersection. For example, Aircraft B could be cleared to, minimum of 120 miles. (See FIG 8−4−9.)
or through, Aircraft A’s altitude after passing point “r.”
FIG 8−4−9
Reduction of Route Protected Airspace
8−4−3. REDUCTION OF ROUTE

PROTECTED AIRSPACE
When routes have been satisfactorily flight checked

and notice has been given to users, reduction in route
protected airspace may be made as follows:
a. Below FL 240, reduce the width of the protected

airspace to 5 miles on each side of the route centerline
to a distance of 57.14 miles from the NAVAID, then
increasing in width on a 5 angle from the route
centerline, measured at the NAVAID, to the
maximum width allowable within the lateral minima;
for example, 50 miles of protected airspace on each
side of centerline; i.e., a lateral minimum of
100 miles. (See FIG 8−4−8.)

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
8−4−4. TRACK SEPARATION 2. NDB:
Apply track separation between aircraft by requiring (a) Consider separation to exist between
aircraft to fly specified tracks or radials and with aircraft established on tracks of the same NAVAID
specified spacings as follows: that diverge by at least 30 degrees and one aircraft is
at least 15 miles from the NAVAID. This separation
a. Same NAVAID: must not be used when one or both aircraft are
inbound to the aid unless the distance of the aircraft
1. VOR/VORTAC/TACAN. Consider separa- from the facility can be readily determined by
tion to exist between aircraft established on radials of reference to the NAVAID. Use TBL 8−4−2 to
the same NAVAID that diverge by at least 15 degrees determine the flight distance required for various
when either aircraft is clear of the airspace to be divergence angles to clear the airspace to be
protected for the other aircraft. Use TBL 8−4−1 to protected. For divergence that falls between
determine the flight distance required for various two values, use the lesser value to obtain the distance.
divergence angles and altitudes to clear the airspace (See FIG 8−4−11.)
to be protected. (See FIG 8−4−10.)
TBL 8−4−2
TBL 8−4−1
Divergence-Distance Minima (NDB)
Divergence-Distance Minima Distance (mile)
VOR/VORTAC/TACAN
Divergence (degrees) FL 240
FL 230 and
through
Distance (mile) below
FL 450
Divergence (degrees) Fl 240
FL 230 and 30 15 17
through
below 45 13 14
FL 450
15−25 17 18 60 9 10
26−35 11 13 75 7 8
36−90 8 11 90 6 7
Note: This table compensates for DME slant range Note: This table compensates for DME slant range
error. error.
FIG 8−4−11
FIG 8−4−10 Track Separation NDB
Track Separation VOR

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
(b) Clear aircraft navigating on NDB facilit- c. Dead Reckoning (DR):

ies in accordance with paragraph 2−5−2, NAVAID
1. Consider separation to exist between aircraft
Terms.
established on tracks that diverge by at least
b. Different NAVAIDs: Separate aircraft using 45 degrees when one aircraft is at least 15 miles from
different navigation aids by assigning tracks so that the point of intersection of the tracks. This point may
their protected airspace does not overlap. be determined either visually or by reference to a
(See FIG 8−4−12.) ground−based navigation aid. (See FIG 8−4−13.)
FIG 8−4−13
FIG 8−4−12 Track Separation
Track Separation Dead Reckoning
Different NAVAIDs

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 5. Offshore/Oceanic Transition Procedures
8−5−1. ALTITUDE/FLIGHT LEVEL a. Before the outbound crosses the offshore/

TRANSITION oceanic boundary; and
When vertical separation is applied between aircraft b. 15 minutes before the aircraft are estimated to
crossing the offshore/oceanic airspace boundary pass. (See FIG 8−5−2.)
below FL 180, control action must be taken to ensure FIG 8−5−2
that differences between the standard altimeter Transitioning From Offshore to Oceanic Airspace
setting (QNE) and local altimeter setting (QNH) do Opposite Direction
not compromise separation. (See FIG 8−5−1.)
FIG 8−5−1
Standard and Local Altimeter Setting Differences
8−5−4. SAME DIRECTION

When transitioning from an offshore airspace area to
oceanic airspace or while within oceanic airspace,
apply 5 minutes minimum separation when a
following aircraft on the same course is climbing
through the altitude of the preceding aircraft if the
a. The preceding aircraft is level at the assigned
altitude and is maintaining a speed equal to or greater
8−5−2. COURSE DIVERGENCE than the following aircraft; and
When aircraft are entering oceanic airspace, b. The minimum of 5 minutes is maintained
separation will exist in oceanic airspace when: between the preceding and following aircraft; and
c. The following aircraft is separated by not more
a. Aircraft are established on courses that diverge than 4,000 feet from the preceding aircraft when the
by at least 15 degrees until oceanic lateral separation climb clearance is issued; and
is established, and
d. The following aircraft commences climb within
b. The aircraft are horizontally radar separated and 10 minutes after passing:
separation is increasing at the edge of known radar
1. An exact reporting point (DME fix or
coverage.
intersection formed from NAVAIDs) which the
preceding aircraft has reported; or
8−5−3. OPPOSITE DIRECTION 2. A radar observed position over which the
When transitioning from an offshore airspace area to preceding aircraft has been observed; and
oceanic airspace, an aircraft may climb through e. The following aircraft is in direct
opposite direction oceanic traffic provided vertical communication with air traffic control until vertical
separation above that traffic is established: separation is established. (See FIG 8−5−3.)
Offshore/Oceanic Transition Procedures 8−5−1

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
FIG 8−5−3 c. The performance of the radar/system is

Transitioning From Offshore to Oceanic Airspace adequate;
Same Direction
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−1−1, Presentation and Equipment
Performance.
d. Flight data on the aircraft that has not been radar

identified indicate that it is equipped with a standard
transponder and there is no known information that
the transponder is not operating;
e. Radar separation standards are maintained
between the radar identified aircraft and any other
observed targets until the transitioning aircraft is
radar identified or non-radar separation is estab-
lished;
f. The facility has identified areas of known radar
coverage, incorporated those areas into facility
standard operating procedures (SOP), and provided
training to the controllers.
g. This procedure is also applicable to aircraft in
transit from oceanic airspace into Guam Control Area
(CTA), San Juan CTA and Honolulu CTA radar
8−5−5. RADAR IDENTIFICATION coverage areas.
APPLICATION
h. EXCEPTION: This procedure is not authorized
Radar separation standards may be applied between
if there is insufficient time for the controller to
radar identified aircraft and another aircraft not yet
establish other approved separation in the event of a
identified that is in transit from oceanic airspace or
delay or inability to establish radar identification of
non-radar offshore airspace into an area of known
the transiting aircraft taking into consideration
radar coverage where radar separation is applied
factors such as aircraft performance characteristics,
provided:
type, and speed; weather, traffic conditions;
a. Direct radio communications is maintained workload; frequency congestion; etc.
with one of the aircraft involved and there is an ability REFERENCE−
to communicate with the other; FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−2−6, IFR Flight Progress Data,
subpara 2-2-6.b.
b. The transiting aircraft is RNAV equipped; FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 8−1−8, Use of Control Estimates.
8−5−2 Offshore/Oceanic Transition Procedures

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 6. Separation from Airspace Reservations
8−6−1. TEMPORARY STATIONARY FIG 8−6−2

AIRSPACE RESERVATIONS Temporary Stationary Airspace Reservations
Vertical Separation
Separate aircraft from a temporary stationary
reservation by one of two methods:
a. Laterally: Clear aircraft so that the protected
airspace along the route of flight does not overlap the
geographical area of the stationary reservation.
(See FIG 8−6−1.)
FIG 8−6−1
Temporary Stationary Airspace Reservations
Lateral Separation
8−6−2. REFUSAL OF AVOIDANCE

CLEARANCE
If a pilot refuses to accept a clearance to avoid a
reservation, inform him/her of the potential hazard,
advise him/her that services will not be provided
while the flight is within the reservation and, if
possible, inform the appropriate using agency.
8−6−3. TEMPORARY MOVING AIRSPACE
RESERVATIONS
b. Vertically: Clear aircraft so that vertical Separate aircraft from a temporary moving airspace
separation exists while the aircraft is within a reservation by one of the following methods:
geographical area defined as the stationary reserva- a. Laterally: Clear aircraft so that the protected
tion plus a buffer around the perimeter equivalent to airspace along the route of flight does not overlap the
one-half the lateral separation minimum. (time-dependent) geographical area of the moving
(See FIG 8−6−2.) airspace reservation.
b. Longitudinally: Clear aircraft so that the
appropriate longitudinal minimum exists ahead of the
first or behind the last aircraft operating within the
reservation.
c. Vertically: Clear aircraft so that vertical
separation exists while the aircraft is within a
(time-dependent) geographical area defined as the
moving airspace reservation plus a buffer around the
perimeter equivalent to one-half the lateral separation
minimum.
Separation from Airspace Reservations 8−6−1

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 7. North Atlantic ICAO Region
8−7−1. APPLICATION (a) At least 10 minutes longitudinal separa-

tion exists at the point where the tracks diverge; and
Provide air traffic control services in the North
Atlantic ICAO Region with the procedures and (b) At least 5 minutes longitudinal separation
minima contained in this section except when noted will exist where minimum lateral separation is
otherwise. achieved (whichever is estimated to occur first);
(1) At or before the next significant point
8−7−2. VERTICAL SEPARATION (normally within ten degrees of longitude along
track(s)), or
Provide vertical separation in accordance with
(2) Within 90 minutes of the time the
Chapter 4, IFR, Section 5, Altitude Assignment and
following aircraft passes the common point, or
Verification.
(3) Within 600 NM of the common point.
8−7−3. LONGITUDINAL SEPARATION 3. Apply 15 minutes between all other turbojet
aircraft.
In accordance with Chapter 8, Offshore/Oceanic
Procedures, Section 3, Longitudinal Separation, c. Nonturbojet operations:
apply the following: 1. Apply 20 minutes between aircraft operating
in the West Atlantic Route System (WATRS), or
a. Supersonic flight:
2. Apply 30 minutes between aircraft operating
1. 10 minutes provided that: outside of the WATRS.
(a) both aircraft are in level flight at the same NOTE−
Mach number or the aircraft are of the same type and The WATRS area is defined as beginning at a point
are both operating in cruise climb, and one of the 2700’N/7700’W direct to 2000’N/6700’W direct to
following; 1800’N/6200’W direct to 1800’N/6000’W direct to
3830’N/6000’W direct to 3830’N/6915’W, thence
(1) The aircraft concerned have reported counterclockwise along the New York Oceanic CTA/FIR
over a common point; or, boundary to the Miami Oceanic CTA/FIR boundary,
thence southbound along the Miami Oceanic CTA/FIR
(2) If the aircraft have not reported over a boundary to the point of beginning.
common point, the appropriate time interval being
applied between aircraft exists and will exist at the d. Clear an aircraft for an ADS-B In Trail
common point; or, Procedure (ITP) climb or descent provided the
following conditions are satisfied:
(3) If a common point does not exist, the
1. The ITP climb or descent has been requested
appropriate time interval being applied between
by the pilot;
aircraft exists and will exist at significant points along
each track. 2. The aircraft identification of each reference
aircraft in the ITP request exactly matches the Item 7
2. 15 minutes between aircraft in supersonic - aircraft identification of the corresponding aircraft’s
flight not covered in subparagraph a1 above. filed flight plan;
b. Turbojet operations (subsonic flight): 3. The reported ITP distance between the ITP
1. Apply the prescribed minima in accordance aircraft and any reference aircraft is 15 NM or more;
with paragraph 8−3−3, Mach Number Technique; or 4. Both the ITP aircraft and reference aircraft
are either on:
2. Where tracks diverge from the common point
and the following aircraft is maintaining a greater (a) same identical tracks and any turn at a
Mach Number than the preceding aircraft: waypoint shall be limited to less than 45 degrees; or
North Atlantic ICAO Region 8−7−1

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
(b) same tracks with no turns permitted that NOTE−

reduce required separation during the ITP. 1. Required Communication Performance (RCP).
NOTE− 2. Required Surveillance Performance (RSP).
Same identical tracks are where the angular difference is 2. Aircraft on reciprocal tracks may be cleared
zero degrees. to climb or descend to or through the altitude(s)
5. No speed or route change clearance shall be occupied by another aircraft provided:
issued to the ITP aircraft until the ITP climb or (a) An ADS-C position report on at least one
descent is completed; of the aircraft has been received beyond the passing
6. The altitude difference between the ITP point, and
aircraft and any reference aircraft shall be 2000 ft or (b) The aircraft have passed each other by the
less; applicable separation minimum.
7. No instruction to amend speed, altitude or NOTE−
route shall be issued to any reference aircraft until the ATOP has been designed to check for the above criteria
ITP climb or descent is completed; prior to allowing the minima to be provided.
3. When an ADS-C periodic or waypoint
8. The maximum closing speed between the ITP
change event report is overdue by 3 minutes, the
aircraft and each reference aircraft shall be Mach
controller must take action to obtain an ADS-C
0.06; and
report.
9. The ITP aircraft shall not be a reference 4. If no report is received within 6 minutes of the
aircraft in another ITP clearance. time the original report was due, the controller must
NOTE− take action to apply another form of separation.
ATOP is designed to check for the above criteria prior to
allowing the minima to be provided. 5. Aircraft on the same track may be cleared to
climb or descend through the level of another aircraft
e. Minima based on distance using Automatic provided:
Dependent Surveillance – Contract (ADS-C):
(a) The longitudinal distance between the
1. Apply the minima as specified in TBL 8−7−1 aircraft is determined from near simultaneous
between aircraft on the same track within airspace ADS−C demand reports and the ATOP software is
designated for Required Navigation Performance used to ensure the following conditions are met;
(RNP), provided:
(b) The longitudinal distance between the
(a) Direct controller/pilot communication via aircraft, as determined in a) above, is not less than:
voice or Controller Pilot Data Link Communications
(1) 15 NM when the preceding aircraft is at
(CPDLC) is established, and
the same speed or faster than the following aircraft;
(b) The required ADS-C periodic reports are or
maintained and monitored by an automated flight (2) 25 NM when the following aircraft is
data processor (for example, ATOP). not more than Mach 0.02 faster than the preceding
TBL 8−7−1
aircraft
ADS−C Criteria (c) The altitude difference between aircraft is
Minima
not more than 2000 ft;
Maximum (d) The clearance is for a climb or descent of
RCP RSP
ADS-C 4000 ft or less;
See See
Standard RNP Periodic
Note Note (e) Both aircraft are filed as single flights not
Reporting
1 2 flying in formation with other aircraft;
Interval
50 NM 10 240 180 27 minutes (f) Both aircraft are in level flight at a single
50 NM 4 240 180 32 minutes altitude;
30 NM 4 240 180 10 minutes (g) Both aircraft are same direction;
8−7−2 North Atlantic ICAO Region

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
(h) Neither aircraft are on a weather devia- track−keeping capability of the aircraft has been reduced
tion; for any reason.
(i) Neither aircraft have an open CPDLC d. 90 NM or 1 and 1/2 degrees latitude between
request for a weather deviation; aircraft not approved for RNP 4 or RNP 10 and
which:
(j) Neither aircraft are on an offset with a
rejoin clearance; and 1. Operate on routes or in areas within WATRS,
the San Juan CTA/FIR or the Atlantic portion of the
(k) The clearance is issued with a restriction Miami CTA/FIR;
that ensures vertical separation is re−established
within 15 minutes from the first demand report 2. Operate between points in the U.S. or
request. Canada, and Bermuda;
3. Operate west of 55 West between the U.S.,
8−7−4. LATERAL SEPARATION Canada, or Bermuda and points in the Caribbean
ICAO Region.
Procedures, Section 4, Lateral Separation, apply the e. 120 NM or 2 degrees latitude between aircraft
following: not covered by subparagraphs a, c or d above.
a. 30 NM to (at a minimum, RNP−4, RCP 240, and NOTE−
RSP 180) approved aircraft operating within airspace Tracks may be spaced with reference to their difference in
designated for RNP−4 when direct controller/pilot latitude, provided that in any interval of 10 degrees of
communications, via voice or Controller Pilot Data longitude the change in latitude of at least one of the tracks
Link Communications (CPDLC), and the required does not exceed 3 degrees when operating south of
ADS−C contracts are maintained and monitored by 58North.
an automated flight data processor (e.g., ATOP).
b. 50 NM between Required Navigation Perform- 8−7−5. PROCEDURES FOR WEATHER
ance (RNP 4 or RNP 10) approved aircraft which: DEVIATIONS IN NORTH ATLANTIC (NAT)
AIRSPACE
1. Operate on routes or in areas within WATRS,
the San Juan CTA/FIR or the Atlantic portion of the Aircraft must request an ATC clearance to deviate.
Miami Oceanic CTA/FIR; or Since aircraft will not fly into known areas of
weather, weather deviation requests should take
2. Operate in the New York Oceanic CTA/FIR priority over routine requests. If there is no traffic in
outside of WATRS. the horizontal dimension, ATC must issue clearance
NOTE− to deviate from track; or if there is conflicting traffic
This reduced lateral separation must not be used if in the horizontal dimension, ATC separates aircraft
track−keeping capability of the aircraft has been reduced by establishing vertical separation. If there is
for any reason. conflicting traffic and ATC is unable to establish the
c. 60 NM or 1 degree latitude between: required separation, ATC must:
1. Supersonic aircraft operating above FL 275. a. Advise the pilot unable to issue clearance for
requested deviation;
2. Aircraft which have MNPS or NAT HLA
authorization and which: b. Advise the pilot of conflicting traffic; and
(a) Operate within NAT HLA; or c. Request pilot’s intentions.
(b) Are in transit to or from NAT HLA; or PHRASEOLOGY−
UNABLE (requested deviation), TRAFFIC IS (call sign,
(c) Operate for part of their flight within, position, altitude, direction), ADVISE INTENTIONS.
above, or below NAT HLA.
NOTE−
NOTE− 1. The pilot will advise ATC of intentions by the most
This reduced lateral separation must not be used if expeditious means available.
North Atlantic ICAO Region 8−7−3

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
2. In the event that pilot/controller communications

cannot be established or a revised ATC clearance is not
available, pilots will follow the procedures outlined in the
Regional Supplementary Procedures, ICAO Doc. 7030.
8−7−4 North Atlantic ICAO Region

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 8. Caribbean ICAO Region
8−8−1. APPLICATION (a) At least 10 minutes longitudinal separa-

tion exists at the point where the tracks diverge; and
Provide air traffic control services in the Caribbean
ICAO Region with the procedures and minima (b) At least 5 minutes longitudinal separation
contained in this section except when noted will exist where minimum lateral separation is
otherwise. achieved (whichever is estimated to occur first);
(1) At or before the next significant point
8−8−2. VERTICAL SEPARATION (normally within ten degrees of longitude along
Provide vertical separation in accordance with track(s)), or
Chapter 4, IFR, Section 5, Altitude Assignment and (2) Within 90 minutes of the time the
Verification. following aircraft passes the common point, or
(3) Within 600 NM of the common point; or
8−8−3. LONGITUDINAL SEPARATION
3. Apply 15 minutes between all other turbojet
Provide longitudinal separation between aircraft as aircraft.
follows:
c. Turbojet operations below FL 200 (subsonic
a. Supersonic flight:
flight):
1. 10 minutes provided both aircraft are in level
Apply 20 minutes between turbojet aircraft operating
flight at the same Mach number or the aircraft are of
below FL 200 in the San Juan Oceanic (outside the
the same type and are both operating in cruise climb,
WATRS area), Miami Oceanic and Houston Oceanic
and one of the following;
CTAs/FIRs.
(a) Both aircraft have reported over a
common point; or, d. Nonturbojet operations.
(b) If both aircraft have not reported over a 1. Apply 20 minutes between aircraft operating
common point, the appropriate time interval being in the WATRS; or
applied between aircraft exists and will exist at the 2. Apply 20 minutes between aircraft operating
common point; or, below FL 200 in the Miami Oceanic, Houston
(c) If a common point does not exist, the Oceanic and San Juan CTAs/FIRs; or
appropriate time interval being applied between 3. Apply 30 minutes between aircraft operating
aircraft exists and will exist at significant points along outside of the WATRS in the New York CTA/FIR.
each track.
NOTE−
2. 15 minutes between all other aircraft. The WATRS area is defined as beginning at a point
2700’N/7700’W direct to 2000’N/6700’W direct to
b. Turbojet operations at or above FL 200 in the 1800’N/6200’W direct to 1800’N/6000’W direct to
Miami Oceanic, Houston Oceanic and San Juan 3830’N/6000’W direct to 3830’N/6915’W, thence
CTAs/FIRs and all altitudes in the West Atlantic counterclockwise along the New York Oceanic CTA/FIR
Route System (WATRS) and New York Oceanic boundary to the Miami Oceanic CTA/FIR boundary,
CTA/FIR (subsonic flight): thence southbound along the Miami Oceanic CTA/FIR
boundary to the point of beginning.
1. Apply the prescribed minima in accordance
with paragraph 8−3−3, Mach Number Technique; or e. Clear an aircraft for an ADS-B In Trail
Procedure (ITP) climb or descent provided the
2. In the New York CTA/FIR, where tracks following conditions are satisfied:
diverge from the common point and the following
aircraft is maintaining a greater Mach number than 1. The ITP climb or descent has been requested
the preceding aircraft: by the pilot;
Caribbean ICAO Region 8−8−1

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
2. The aircraft identification of each reference TBL 8−8−1

aircraft in the ITP request exactly matches the Item 7 ADS−C Criteria
- aircraft identification of the corresponding aircraft’s Minima
filed flight plan; Maximum
3. The reported ITP distance between the ITP ADS-C
aircraft and any reference aircraft is 15 NM or more; Standard RNP RCP RSP Periodic
Reporting
4. Both the ITP aircraft and reference aircraft Interval
are either on: 50 NM 10 240 180 27 minutes
(a) same identical tracks and any turn at a 50 NM 4 240 180 32 minutes
waypoint shall be limited to less than 45 degrees; or 30 NM 4 240 180 10 minutes
(b) same tracks with no turns permitted that 2. Aircraft on reciprocal tracks may be cleared
reduce required separation during the ITP. to climb or descend to or through the altitude(s)
NOTE− occupied by another aircraft provided:
Same identical tracks are where the angular difference is (a) An ADS-C position report on at least one
zero degrees. of the aircraft has been received beyond the passing
5. No speed or route change clearance shall be point, and
issued to the ITP aircraft until the ITP climb or (b) The aircraft have passed each other by the
descent is completed; applicable separation minimum.
6. The altitude difference between the ITP NOTE−
aircraft and any reference aircraft shall be 2000 ft or ATOP has been designed to check for the above criteria
less; prior to allowing the minima to be provided.
3. When an ADS-C periodic or waypoint
7. No instruction to amend speed, altitude or
change event report is overdue by 3 minutes, the
route shall be issued to any reference aircraft until the
controller must take action to obtain an ADS-C
ITP climb or descent is completed;
report.
8. The maximum closing speed between the ITP 4. If no report is received within 6 minutes of the
aircraft and each reference aircraft shall be Mach time the original report was due, the controller must
0.06; and take action to apply another form of separation.
9. The ITP aircraft shall not be a reference 5. Aircraft on the same track may be cleared to
aircraft in another ITP clearance. climb or descend through the level of another aircraft
NOTE− provided:
ATOP is designed to check for the above criteria prior to (a) The longitudinal distance between the
allowing the minima to be provided.
aircraft is determined from near simultaneous
f. Minima based on distance using Automatic ADS−C demand reports and the ATOP software is
Dependent Surveillance – Contract (ADS-C): used to ensure the following conditions are met;
1. Apply the minima as specified in TBL 8−8−1 (b) The longitudinal distance between the
between aircraft on the same track within airspace aircraft, as determined in a) above, is not less than:
designated for Required Navigation Performance (1) 15 NM when the preceding aircraft is at
(RNP), provided: the same speed or faster than the following aircraft;
(a) Direct controller/pilot communication via or
voice or Controller Pilot Data Link Communications (2) 25 NM when the following aircraft is
(CPDLC) is established, and not more than Mach 0.02 faster than the preceding
(b) The required ADS-C periodic reports are aircraft
maintained and monitored by an automated flight (c) The altitude difference between aircraft is
data processor (for example, ATOP). not more than 2000 ft;
8−8−2 Caribbean ICAO Region

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
(d) The clearance is for a climb or descent of c. 60 NM between:

4000 ft or less;
1. Supersonic aircraft operating above FL 275
(e) Both aircraft are filed as single flights not within the New York oceanic CTA/FIR.
flying in formation with other aircraft;
2. Supersonic aircraft operating at or above
(f) Both aircraft are in level flight at a single FL 450 not covered in subparagraph 1 above.
altitude;
3. Aircraft which have MNPS or NAT HLA
(g) Both aircraft are same direction; authorization and which:
(h) Neither aircraft are on a weather devia- (a) Operate within NTA HLA; or
tion;
(b) Are in transit to or from NAT HLA; or
(i) Neither aircraft have an open CPDLC
(c) Operate for part of their flight within,
request for a weather deviation;
above, or below NAT HLA.
(j) Neither aircraft are on an offset with a
NOTE−
rejoin clearance; and This reduced lateral separation must not be used if
(k) The clearance is issued with a restriction track−keeping capability of the aircraft has been reduced
that ensures vertical separation is re−established for any reason.
within 15 minutes from the first demand report d. 90 NM between aircraft not approved for RNP 4
request. or RNP 10 and which:
1. Operate within WATRS; or
8−8−4. LATERAL SEPARATION
2. Operate west of 55 West between the U.S.,
In accordance with Chapter 8, Offshore/Oceanic Canada, or Bermuda and points in the Caribbean
Procedures, Section 4, Lateral Separation, apply the ICAO Region.
following:
e. 100 NM between aircraft operating west of
a. 30 NM to (at a minimum, RNP−4, RCP 240, and 55West not covered by subparagraphs a, c, or d
RSP 180) approved aircraft operating within airspace above.
designated for RNP−4 when direct controller/pilot
communications, via voice or Controller Pilot Data f. 120 NM between aircraft operating east of
Link Communications (CPDLC), and the required 55West.
ADS−C contracts are maintained and monitored by
an automated flight data processor (e.g., ATOP). 8−8−5. VFR CLIMB AND DESCENT
b. 50 NM between Required Navigation Perform- a. In the Houston, Miami, and San Juan CTAs, IFR
ance (RNP 4 or RNP 10) approved aircraft which: flights may be cleared to climb and descend in VFR
1. Operate on routes or in areas within WATRS, conditions only:
the San Juan CTA/FIR or the Atlantic portion of the 1. When requested by the pilot; and
Miami Oceanic CTA/FIR; or
2. Between sunrise and sunset.
2. Operate in the New York Oceanic CTA/FIR
b. Apply the following when the flight is cleared:
outside of WATRS; or
1. If there is a possibility that VFR conditions
3. Operate in the Houston Oceanic CTA/FIR or
may become impractical, issue alternative
the Gulf of Mexico portion of the Miami CTA/FIR.
instructions.
NOTE−
This reduced lateral separation must not be used if 2. Issue traffic information to aircraft that are
track−keeping capability of the aircraft has been reduced not separated in accordance with the minima in this
for any reason. section.
Caribbean ICAO Region 8−8−3

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 9. Pacific ICAO Region
8−9−1. APPLICATION 3. The reported ITP distance between the ITP

aircraft and any reference aircraft is 15 NM or more;
Provide air traffic control services in the Pacific
ICAO Region with the procedures and minima 4. Both the ITP aircraft and reference aircraft
contained in this section except when noted are either on:
otherwise.
(a) Same identical tracks and any turn at a
waypoint shall be limited to less than 45 degrees; or
8−9−2. VERTICAL SEPARATION (b) same tracks with no turns permitted that
reduce required separation during the ITP.
Provide vertical separation in accordance with
Chapter 4, IFR, Section 5, Altitude Assignment and NOTE−
Verification. Same identical tracks are where the angular difference is
zero degrees.
5. No speed or route change clearance shall be
8−9−3. LONGITUDINAL SEPARATION issued to the ITP aircraft until the ITP climb or
descent is completed;
Procedures, Section 3, Longitudinal Separation, 6. The altitude difference between the ITP
apply the following: aircraft and any reference aircraft shall be 2000 ft or
less;
a. Minima based on time:
7. No instruction to amend speed, altitude or
1. 15 minutes between aircraft; or route shall be issued to any reference aircraft until the
2. 10 minutes between turbojet aircraft whether ITP climb or descent is completed;
in level, climbing or descending flight, provided that 8. The maximum closing speed between the ITP
the aircraft concerned follow the same track or aircraft and each reference aircraft shall be Mach
continuously diverging tracks until some other form 0.06; and
of separation is provided; or
9. The ITP aircraft shall not be a reference
3. The prescribed minima in accordance with aircraft in another ITP clearance.
paragraph 8−3−3, Mach Number Technique.
NOTE−
4. Reciprocal track aircraft − Where lateral ATOP is designed to check for the above criteria prior to
separation is not provided, vertical separation must allowing the minima to be provided.
be provided at least 10 minutes before and after the c. Minima based on distance using Automatic
time the aircraft are estimated to pass or are estimated Dependent Surveillance − Contract (ADS−C):
to have passed.
1. Apply the minima as specified in TBL 8−9−1,
b. Clear an aircraft for an ADS-B In Trail ADS−C Criteria, between aircraft on the same track
Procedure (ITP) climb or descent provided the within airspace designated for Required Navigation
following conditions are satisfied: Performance (RNP), provided:
1. The ITP climb or descent has been requested (a) Direct controller/pilot communication via
by the pilot; voice or Controller Pilot Data Link Communications
(CPDLC) is established, and
2. The aircraft identification of each reference
aircraft in the ITP request exactly matches the Item 7 (b) The required ADS−C periodic reports are
- aircraft identification of the corresponding aircraft’s maintained and monitored by an automated flight
filed flight plan; data processor (e.g., ATOP);
Pacific ICAO Region 8−9−1

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
TBL 8−9−1 (c) The altitude difference between aircraft is

ADS−C Criteria not more than 2000 ft;
Minima (d) The clearance is for a climb or descent of
Maximum 4000 ft or less;
ADS-C
(e) Both aircraft are filed as single flights not
Standard RNP RCP RSP Periodic
flying in formation with other aircraft;
Reporting
Interval (f) Both aircraft are in level flight at a single
50 NM 10 240 180 27 minutes altitude;
50 NM 4 240 180 32 minutes (g) Both aircraft are same direction;
30 NM 4 240 180 10 minutes
(h) Neither aircraft are on a weather devia-
tion;
2. Aircraft on reciprocal tracks may be cleared
to climb or descend to or through the altitude(s) (i) Neither aircraft have an open CPDLC
occupied by another aircraft provided that: request for a weather deviation;
(a) An ADS−C position report on at least one (j) Neither aircraft are on an offset with a
of the aircraft has been received beyond the passing rejoin clearance; and
point, and (k) The clearance is issued with a restriction
(b) The aircraft have passed each other by the that ensures vertical separation is re−established
applicable separation minimum. within 15 minutes from the first demand report
request.
NOTE−
ATOP has been designed to check for the above criteria d. Minima based on distance without ADS−C:
prior to allowing the minima to be provided. 1. Apply 50 NM between aircraft cruising,
3. When an ADS−C periodic or waypoint climbing or descending on the same track or
change event report is overdue by 3 minutes, the reciprocal track that meet the requirements for and
controller must take action to obtain an ADS−C are operating within airspace designated for RNP−10
report. operations provided:
4. If no report is received within 6 minutes of the (a) Direct controller/pilot communication via
time the original report was due, the controller must voice or CPDLC is maintained; and
take action to apply another form of separation. (b) Separation is established by ensuring that
at least 50 NM longitudinal separation minima exists
5. Aircraft on the same track may be cleared to
between aircraft positions as reported by reference to
climb or descend through the level of another aircraft
the same waypoint.
provided:
(1) Same track aircraft − whenever pos-
(a) The longitudinal distance between the sible ahead of both; or
ADS−C demand reports and the ATOP software is (2) Reciprocal track aircraft − provided
used to ensure the following conditions are met; that it has been positively established that the aircraft
have passed each other.
(b) The longitudinal distance between the
aircraft, as determined in a) above, is not less than: 2. Distance verification must be obtained from
each aircraft at least every 24 minutes to verify that
(1) 15 NM when the preceding aircraft is at separation is maintained.
the same speed or faster than the following aircraft;
or 3. If an aircraft fails to report its position within
3 minutes after the expected time, the controller must
(2) 25 NM when the following aircraft is take action to establish communication. If commu-
not more than Mach 0.02 faster than the preceding nication is not established within 8 minutes after the
aircraft time the report should have been received, the
8−9−2 Pacific ICAO Region

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
controller must take action to apply another form of 8−9−5. PROCEDURES FOR WEATHER
separation. DEVIATIONS AND OTHER
CONTINGENCIES IN OCEANIC
NOTE− CONTROLLED AIRSPACE
When same track aircraft are at, or are expected to reduce
to, the minima, speed control techniques should be applied Aircraft must request an ATC clearance to deviate.
in order to maintain the required separation. Since aircraft will not fly into known areas of
weather, weather deviation requests should take
priority over routine requests. If there is no traffic in
the horizontal dimension, ATC must issue clearance
8−9−4. LATERAL SEPARATION
to deviate from track; or if there is conflicting traffic
in the horizontal dimension, ATC separates aircraft
by establishing vertical separation. If there is
Procedures, Section 4, Lateral Separation, apply the
conflicting traffic and ATC is unable to establish
following:
approved separation, ATC must:
a. Within areas where Required Navigation a. Advise the pilot unable to issue clearance for
Performance 10 (RNP−10) separation and proced- requested deviation;
ures are authorized, apply 50 NM to RNP−10 b. Advise the pilot of conflicting traffic; and
approved aircraft.
c. Request pilot’s intentions.
b. Apply 30 NM to (at a minimum, RNP−4, RCP PHRASEOLOGY−
240, and RSP 180) approved aircraft operating within UNABLE (requested deviation), TRAFFIC IS (call sign,
airspace designated for RNP−4 when direct con- position, altitude, direction), SAY INTENTIONS.
troller/pilot communications, via voice or Controller NOTE−
Pilot Data Link Communications (CPDLC), and the 1. The pilot will advise ATC of intentions by the most
required ADS−C contracts are maintained and expeditious means available.
monitored by an automated flight data processor 2. In the event that pilot/controller communications
(e.g., ATOP). cannot be established or a revised AT clearance is not
available, pilots will follow the procedures outlined in the
c. Apply 100 NM to aircraft not covered by Regional Supplementary Procedures, ICAO Doc 7030 and
subparagraphs a and b. Chart Supplements.
Pacific ICAO Region 8−9−3

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 10. North American ICAO Region
8−10−1. APPLICATION (b) same tracks with no turns permitted that

reduce required separation during the ITP.
Provide air traffic control services in the North
American ICAO Region with the procedures and NOTE−
minima contained in this section. Same identical tracks are where the angular difference is
zero degrees.
8−10−2. VERTICAL SEPARATION 5. No speed or route change clearance shall be

issued to the ITP aircraft until the ITP climb or
Provide vertical separation in accordance with: descent is completed;
a. Chapter 4, IFR, Section 5, Altitude Assignment 6. The altitude difference between the ITP
and Verification; and aircraft and any reference aircraft shall be 2000 ft or
less;
b. Facility directives depicting the transition
between flight levels and metric altitudes. 7. No instruction to amend speed, altitude or
route shall be issued to any reference aircraft until the
8−10−3. LONGITUDINAL SEPARATION ITP climb or descent is completed;
8. The maximum closing speed between the ITP
aircraft and each reference aircraft shall be Mach
Procedures, Section 3, Longitudinal Separation,
apply the following: 0.06; and
9. The ITP aircraft shall not be a reference
a. Minima based on time:
aircraft in another ITP clearance.
1. 15 minutes between turbojet aircraft. NOTE−
2. The prescribed minima in accordance with ATOP is designed to check for the above criteria prior to
paragraph 8−3−3, Mach Number Technique. allowing the minima to be provided.
c. Minima based on distance using Automatic
3. 20 minutes between other aircraft.
Dependent Surveillance – Contract (ADS-C) in the
b. Clear an aircraft for an ADS-B In Trail Anchorage Oceanic and Anchorage Continental
Procedure (ITP) climb or descent provided the CTAs only:
following conditions are satisfied: NOTE−
1. The ITP climb or descent has been requested The minima described in this paragraph are not applicable
by the pilot; within airspace in the Anchorage Arctic CTA.
1. Apply the minima as specified in
2. The aircraft identification of each reference
TBL 8−10−1 between aircraft on the same track
aircraft in the ITP request exactly matches the Item 7
within airspace in the Anchorage Oceanic and
- aircraft identification of the corresponding aircraft’s
Anchorage Continental CTAs designated for
filed flight plan;
Required Navigation Performance (RNP), provided:
3. The reported ITP distance between the ITP
(a) Direct controller/pilot communication via
aircraft and any reference aircraft is 15 NM or more;
voice or Controller Pilot Data Link Communications
4. Both the ITP aircraft and reference aircraft (CPDLC) is established, and
are either on:
(b) The required ADS-C periodic reports are
(a) same identical tracks and any turn at a maintained and monitored by an automated flight
waypoint shall be limited to less than 45 degrees; or data processor (for example, ATOP).
North American ICAO Region 8−10−1

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
TBL 8−10−1 (2) 25 NM when the following aircraft is

ADS−C Criteria not more than Mach 0.02 faster than the preceding
aircraft.
Minima
Maximum (c) The altitude difference between aircraft is
ADS-C not more than 2000 ft;
Standard RNP RCP RSP Periodic (d) The clearance is for a climb or descent of
Reporting 4000 ft or less;
Interval
50 NM 10 240 180 27 minutes (e) Both aircraft are filed as single flights not
50 NM 4 240 180 32 minutes flying in formation with other aircraft;
30 NM 4 240 180 10 minutes (f) Both aircraft are in level flight at a single
altitude;
2. Aircraft on reciprocal tracks in the (g) Both aircraft are same direction;
Anchorage Oceanic and Anchorage Continental (h) Neither aircraft are on a weather devia-
CTAs may be cleared to climb or descend to or tion;
through the altitude(s) occupied by another aircraft
provided: (i) Neither aircraft have an open CPDLC
request for a weather deviation;
(a) An ADS-C position report on at least one
of the aircraft has been received beyond the passing (j) Neither aircraft are on an offset with a
point, and rejoin clearance; and
(k) The clearance is issued with a restriction
(b) The aircraft have passed each other by the that ensures vertical separation is re−established
applicable separation minimum. within 15 minutes from the first demand report
NOTE− request.
ATOP has been designed to check for the above criteria d. Minima based on DME/RNAV:
prior to allowing the minima to be provided.
Apply the following DME/RNAV minima in Control
3. When an ADS-C periodic or waypoint 1234H, Control 1487H, and the Norton Sound High
change event report is overdue by 3 minutes, the Control areas to turbojet aircraft established on or
controller must take action to obtain an ADS-C transitioning to the North Pacific (NOPAC) Route
report. System.
4. If no report is received within 6 minutes of the 1. 30 NM between aircraft when DME reports or
time the original report was due, the controller must radar observations are used to establish the distance,
take action to apply another form of separation. otherwise at least 40 NM based on RNAV must be
applied; and
5. Aircraft on the same track may be cleared to
climb or descend through the level of another aircraft 2. Unless both aircraft are radar identified, both
provided: aircraft must provide DME/RNAV distance reports
via direct voice that indicates the appropriate
(a) The longitudinal distance between the separation exists; and
3. Application of DME/RNAV separation with-
ADS−C demand reports and the ATOP software is
out direct voice communications may not continue
used to ensure the following conditions are met;
for more than 90 minutes; and
(b) The longitudinal distance between the 4. The preceding aircraft is assigned the same or
aircraft, as determined in a) above, is not less than: greater Mach number than the following aircraft; and
(1) 15 NM when the preceding aircraft is at 5. Both aircraft must be advised of the other
the same speed or faster than the following aircraft; aircraft involved, including the distance relative to
or the flights.
8−10−2 North American ICAO Region

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
EXAMPLE− b. 30 NM to (at a minimum, RNP−4, RCP 240, and

“Maintain Mach point eight four, same direction traffic, RSP 180) approved aircraft operating within the
twelve o’clock, three five miles.” Anchorage Oceanic CTA and Anchorage Continental
REFERENCE− CTA when direct controller/pilot communications,
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−21, Traffic Advisories. via voice or Controller Pilot Data Link
Communications (CPDLC), and the required
8−10−4. LATERAL SEPARATION ADS−C contracts are maintained and monitored by
an automated flight data processor (for example,
In accordance with Chapter 8, Offshore/Oceanic ATOP).
Procedures, Section 4, Lateral Separation, apply the
NOTE−
following: The minimum described in subparagraph b is not
a. 50 NM to RNP−10 approved aircraft within applicable within airspace in the Anchorage Arctic CTA.
areas where RNP−10 separation and procedures are c. 90 NM to aircraft not covered by subparagraphs
authorized, a or b.
North American ICAO Region 8−10−3

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Chapter 9. Special Flights

Section 1. General
9−1−1. GENERAL NOTE−

1. FAA flight inspection aircraft will file flight plans using
Provide aircraft engaged in the flight inspection of the call sign “FLIGHT CHECK” during flight inspections
NAVAIDs with maximum assistance. Unless other- or when inbound to conduct flight inspections. Flight plan
wise agreed to, maintain direct contact with the pilot remarks may indicate type NAVAID inspection to be
and exchange information regarding known traffic in accomplished; e.g. “FC OKC P.”
the area and his/her intentions. 2. Authorized non-FAA Service Providers conducting
Flight Validation activities use the call sign “FLIGHT
NOTE−
VAL.” Although these activities are similar to Flight
1. Many flight inspections are accomplished using
Inspection activities, no additional priority is granted with
automatic recording equipment, and an uninterrupted
this call sign.
flight is necessary for successful completion of the mission.
The workload for the limited number of aircraft engaged in
these activities requires strict adherence to a schedule. 9−1−3. FLIGHT CHECK AIRCRAFT
2. Flight inspection operations which require special
a. Provide special handling, as required, to
participation of ground personnel, specific communica-
expedite flight inspection of NAVAIDs and RADAR
tions, or radar operation capabilities are considered to
require special handling. These flights are coordinated
by flight check aircraft.
with appropriate facilities before departure. NOTE−
REFERENCE− Certain flight inspection maneuvers require operations in
FAA Order 8200.1, United States Standard Flight Inspection Manual. close proximity to the surface. These maneuvers can only
FAA Order 8240.41, Flight Inspection/Air Traffic On−Site be performed during daylight visual meteorological
Coordination Requirements. conditions. Preplanned automatic flight places the
following limitations on the capability of the pilot to adhere
to normal ATC clearances:
9−1−2. SPECIAL HANDLING 1. Route of flight − orbital from 6 nautical miles to a
maximum of 40 nautical miles from the facility depending
a. Clear the aircraft according to pilot request as
on the type of inspection. During commissioning flight
soon as practicable. Do not ask the pilot to deviate checks all SIDs, STARs, airways, DME fixes, and
from his/her planned action except to preclude an approaches must be flown.
emergency situation. 2. Altitude assignment − from 1,000 feet above the
REFERENCE− antenna site up to the minimum en route altitude (MEA).
FAA Order 8240.41, Flight Inspection/Air Traffic On−Site REFERENCE−
Coordination Requirements, Appendix 1, describes certain flight FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−4, Operational Priority.
inspection maneuvers in detail. FAA Order 8240.41, Flight Inspection/Air Traffic On−Site
Coordination Requirements, Appendix 1, describes certain flight
b. Issue radar advisories to the flight inspection inspection maneuvers in detail.
aircraft where adequate coverage exists and to the
b. Avoid changes in the route or altitude from that
extent permitted by workload.
filed by the pilot in the initial flight plan.
c. Suggest flight path adjustments, as required, for c. Do not impose air traffic control delays in the
any aircraft which will enter or penetrate an area in flight except to preclude emergency situations.
which a flight inspection function is being performed.
d. Do not change the previously assigned discrete
d. Provide special handling, as required, to FAA beacon code of special radar accuracy flight check
aircraft conducting flight inspections using the call aircraft.
sign “Flight Check.” The call sign “Flight Check (Nr)
REFERENCE−
recorded” indicates automated flight inspections are FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 7−1−2, Special Radar Accuracy Checks.
in progress in terminal areas. FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 10−5−4, ASR Performance Checks.
General 9−1−1
6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 2. Special Operations
9−2−1. AIRCRAFT CARRYING NOTE−

DANGEROUS MATERIALS An ATC clearance must be obtained by the pilot before
discontinuing conventional navigation to begin celestial
a. Provide the following special handling to navigation training. The pilot will advise when discontinu-
military aircraft or military contracted aircraft ing celestial navigation and resuming conventional
carrying dangerous materials when: navigation. Celestial navigation training will be conducted
within 30 NM of the route centerline specified in the
1. The words “dangerous cargo,” or “inert en route clearance unless otherwise authorized by ATC.
devices,” or both are contained in the remarks section During celestial navigation training, the pilot will advise
of the filed flight plan, or ATC before initiating any heading changes which exceed
NOTE− 20 degrees.
1. Certain types of military flights carrying dangerous b. Within conterminous U.S. airspace, limit
materials require strict adherence to military regulations celestial navigation training to transponder-equipped
and flight planning along carefully selected routes. These aircraft within areas of ARTCC radar coverage.
flights must avoid heavily populated areas.
c. Prior to control transfer, ensure that the
2. “Inert devices” are devices containing no dangerous
receiving controller is informed of the nature of the
materials but closely resembling nuclear or explosive items
celestial navigation training leg.
that are classified as dangerous and could be easily
mistaken for their dangerous counterparts. REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−2−6, IFR Flight Progress Data.
2. The pilot uses these words in radio
communication. 9−2−3. EXPERIMENTAL AIRCRAFT
b. If it becomes necessary to issue a clearance to OPERATIONS
amend the route/altitude, advise the pilot: a. When notified that an experimental aircraft
1. Of the proposed change, and requires special handling:
NOTE−
2. The amount of delay to expect if it is 14 CFR Section 91.319(d)(3) requires that each person
necessary to maintain the present route/altitude. operating an aircraft with an experimental certificate must
c. When it becomes necessary for the pilot to notify the control tower of the experimental nature of the
aircraft when operating into or out of airports with
refuse a clearance amending his/her route/altitude,
operating control towers.
he/she will advise if the traffic delay is acceptable or
if an alternate route/altitude is desired. In such cases, 1. Clear the aircraft according to pilot requests
offer all possible assistance. as traffic permits and if not contrary to ATC
procedures.
d. When the aircraft is provided an en route
descent, do not vector the aircraft from the planned 2. Once approved, do not ask the pilot to deviate
route unless the pilot concurs. from a planned action except to preclude an
emergency situation.
e. Use special patterns and routings in areas where
they have been developed for these flights. If special b. At locations where volume or complexity of
patterns and routings have not been developed, experimental aircraft operations warrant, a letter of
employ normal procedures. agreement may be consummated between the facility
and operator.
9−2−2. CELESTIAL NAVIGATION TRAINING
9−2−4. FAA RESEARCH AND
EN ROUTE DEVELOPMENT FLIGHTS
a. Approve flight plans specifying celestial When coordinated in advance and traffic permits,
navigation only when it is requested for USAF or approve requests for special flight procedures from
USN aircraft. aircraft participating in FAA research and develop-
Special Operations 9−2−1

JO
JO 7110.65Z
7110.65R CHG
7110.65Z CHG
2 1 12/2/21
3/15/07
6/17/21
ment test activities. These special procedures must be b. Unless otherwise covered in a letter of
applied to participating aircraft/vehicles. agreement between the military scheduling activity
and the concerned FAA facility, clear aircraft to exit
NOTE−
Special flight procedures for FAA research and develop- an MTR.
ment test activities must be approved by the facility air PHRASEOLOGY−
traffic manager prior to their use. CLEARED TO (destination/clearance limit) FROM IR
(designator/exit fix) VIA (route).
MAINTAIN (altitude).
9−2−5. FLYNET
c. If the provisions of subparagraph a above
Provide expeditious handling for U.S. Government, cannot be accomplished, MTRs may be designated
civil or military aircraft using the code name for MARSA operations. To preclude an inadvertent
“FLYNET.” Relay the code name as an element in the compromise of MARSA standards by ATC,
remarks position of the flight plan. appropriate MARSA application for such routes must
be covered in a letter of agreement with the military
NOTE− scheduling activity. Establish separation between
The code name “FLYNET” indicates that an aircraft is
aircraft as soon as practicable after operation on the
transporting a nuclear emergency team or a disaster
control team to the location of a potential or actual nuclear
designated MARSA route is ended.
accident or an accident involving chemical agents or NOTE−
hazardous materials. It is in the public interest that they For designated MARSA routes, the military assumes
reach their destination as rapidly as possible. responsibility for separation for MTR aircraft that have
REFERENCE− passed the primary/alternate entry fix until separation is
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−4, Operational Priority. established by ATC after operations on the MARSA route
FAA Order JO 7610.4, Para 12−4−1, “FLYNET” Flights, Nuclear are completed.
Emergency Teams.
d. The lateral airspace to be protected along an
MTR is the designated width of the route.
9−2−6. IFR MILITARY TRAINING ROUTES
e. Prior to an aircraft entering an MTR, request the
a. Except for aircraft operating in the same altitude pilot’s estimate for the route’s exit/alternate exit fix,
reservation, clear aircraft into an MTR provided the pilot’s requested altitude after exiting and, if
separation will be applied between successive aircraft applicable, the number of reentries on a Strategic
unless otherwise covered in a letter of agreement Training Range (STR).
between the military scheduling activity and the PHRASEOLOGY−
concerned ATC facility. (Call sign) VERIFY YOUR EXIT FIX ESTIMATE AND
REQUESTED ALTITUDE AFTER EXIT,
PHRASEOLOGY−
CLEARED INTO IR (designator). and if applicable,
MAINTAIN (altitude),
THE NUMBER OF REENTRIES.
or
f. Forward estimates for exit/alternate exit fixes,
MAINTAIN IR (designator) ALTITUDE(S), requested altitude after exit, and, if applicable, the
number of reentries on the STR.
or
g. Apply the procedures of paragraph 6−1−2,
MAINTAIN AT OR BELOW (altitude), Nonreceipt of Position Report, based upon the pilot’s
estimate for the route exit fix.
or
h. Clearance may be issued to amend or restrict
CRUISE (altitude), operations on a route for ATC considerations. Where
a route has been designated MARSA in accordance
and if required, with subparagraph c, ATC must not amend or restrict
operations in such a manner as to compromise
CROSS (fix) AT OR LATER THAN (time). MARSA provisions.
9−2−2 Special Operations

12/2/21
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NOTE− 15−minute period, he/she will squawk 7700 for a period of

When MARSA is provided through route scheduling and 1 minute; all other times he/she will squawk 7600.
circumstances prevent the pilot from entering the route
j. Impose delays, if needed, to eliminate conflict
within established time limits, it must be the responsibility
of the pilot to inform the ATC facility and advise his/her
with nonparticipating IFR aircraft when necessary to
intentions. preclude denial of IR usage. Advise the pilot of the
expected length and reason for delay.
i. If an aircraft on an IR experiences a two-way
radio communications failure and you are unable to 9−2−7. INTERCEPTOR OPERATIONS
determine if the aircraft is proceeding VFR in
accordance with 14 CFR Section 91.185(b) or the Provide maximum assistance to expedite the
aircraft has not been positively radar identified: movement of interceptor aircraft on active air defense
(scrambles) missions until the unknown aircraft is
1. Provide separation to the destination airport identified in accordance with the policies and
based on the aircraft complying with the following: procedures published in FAA Order JO 7610.4,
(a) Maintain to the exit/alternate exit fix the Special Operations.
higher of the following altitudes: NOTE−
The FAA and the military have mutually agreed to the
(1) The minimum IFR altitude for each of implementation of policies and procedures for control of
the remaining route segment(s) remaining on the air defense interceptor operations. Effective coordination
route. and cooperation between FAA and the military at all levels
are essential if policy objectives are to be met.
(2) The highest altitude assigned in the last
ATC clearance. a. The ADCF initiating the SCRAMBLE must
identify the mission as an active air defense mission.
(b) Depart the exit/alternate exit fix at the
appropriate altitude specified in subparagraph (a) b. ATC services must be used for active air defense
above, then climb/descend to the altitude filed in the missions insofar as the circumstances and situation
flight plan for the remainder of the flight, or permits.
NOTE− c. Upon request, the ATC facility must expedite

In the event of a two-way communications failure, ATC will transfer of the control jurisdiction of the interceptors
be based on the following anticipated pilot action at the exit to the requesting ADCF.
fix. Unless otherwise covered in a letter of agreement, and
if the pilot is unable to comply with the VFR provisions of 9−2−8. SPECIAL INTEREST SITES
14 CFR Section 91.185/FLIP IFR Supplement, the pilot
will exercise his/her emergency authority, squawk a. Immediately relay any reports or information
transponder Code 7700, depart the exit/alternate exit fix regarding unusual aircraft activities in the vicinity of
and climb/descend (continuing to squawk 7700) to the special interest sites such as nuclear power plants,
altitude filed in the flight plan. Subsequent transponder power plants, dams, refineries, etc., to supervisory/
operations will be in accordance with paragraph 10−4−4, CIC personnel.
Communications Failure. Air traffic controller action from
the exit fix is as prescribed in paragraph 10−1−1, NOTE−
Emergency Determinations. Air traffic controllers have no responsibilities to monitor or
observe aircraft in the vicinity of special interest sites
(c) Proceed in accordance with the lost unless directed by supervisory/CIC personnel.
communication procedure contained in letters of
agreement. 9−2−9. SPECIAL AIR TRAFFIC RULES
(SATR) AND SPECIAL FLIGHT RULES
2. Continue to monitor the last ATC assigned
AREA (SFRA)
discrete code.
NOTE− The Code of Federal Regulations prescribes special
Pilots who experience a two-way radio failure will adjust air traffic rules for aircraft operating within the
their transponder to Code 7700 during climb/descent to boundaries of certain designated airspace. These
altitude filed for the next leg of the flight plan; then change areas are listed in 14 CFR Part 93 and can be found
to Code 7600 for a period of 15 minutes. At the end of each throughout the NAS. Procedures, nature of opera-

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tions, configuration, size, and density of traffic vary 3. Aircraft with operating transponders, but
among the identified areas. without operating Mode C (altitude), require specific
authorization from ATC to operate in the SFRA. ATC
a. Special Flight Rules Areas are areas of airspace
must coordinate with the Domestic Events Network
wherein the flight of aircraft is subject to special air
(DEN) before approval.
traffic rules set forth in 14 CFR Part 93, unless
otherwise authorized by air traffic control. Not all 4. Aircraft flying too low for radar coverage
areas listed in 14 CFR Part 93 are Special Flight Rules must be instructed to report landing or exiting the
Areas, but special air traffic rules apply to all areas SFRA. Keep flight progress strips on these aircraft
designated as SFRA. until pilot reports landing or exiting the SFRA. If a
flight progress strip does not exist for the aircraft,
REFERENCE−
14 CFR Part 93, Special Air Traffic Rules. record the call sign, transponder code, entry point (for
P/CG, SPECIAL AIR TRAFFIC RULES (SATR) example, north, northeast, east), and time of entry
P/CG, SPECIAL FLIGHT RULES AREA (SFRA)
into the SFRA.
b. Each person operating an aircraft to, from, or PHRASEOLOGY−
within airspace designated as a SATR area or SFRA (Call sign), REPORT LANDING OR LEAVING THE
must adhere to the special air traffic rules set forth in SFRA.
14 CFR Part 93, as applicable, unless otherwise 5. United States military, law enforcement, and
authorized or required by ATC. aeromedical flights are exempt from filing flight
plans.
9−2−10. ATC SECURITY SERVICES FOR b. Establishing two−way Communications.
THE WASHINGTON, DC, SPECIAL FLIGHT
1. Pilots must establish two−way radio
RULES AREA (DC SFRA)
communications with ATC prior to entering the
Provide ATC security services at locations where security service area. Responding to a radio call with,
procedures are required for tracking aircraft in “(a/c call sign) standby,” establishes radio
security services airspace. ATC security services are communications and the pilot may enter the area,
designed to support the national security mission of provided all other security requirements have been
the FAA and other agencies. Two−way radio satisfied.
communications, flight planning, and an operational 2. Aircraft requesting security services should
transponder on an assigned code are required for not normally be held. However, if holding is
operations in the designated area. necessary or workload/traffic conditions prevent
a. When the assigned code is observed, advise the immediate provision of ATC security services,
aircraft to proceed on course/as requested but to inform the pilot to remain outside the designated area
remain outside of Class B, C, and/or D airspace as until conditions permit the provision of ATC security
appropriate. services. Inform the pilot of the expected length of
delay.
PHRASEOLOGY−
(ACID) TRANSPONDER OBSERVED PROCEED ON PHRASEOLOGY−
COURSE/AS REQUESTED; REMAIN OUTSIDE (class) (A/C call sign) REMAIN OUTSIDE OF THE (location)
AIRSPACE. AND STANDBY. EXPECT (time) MINUTES DELAY.
c. Termination of Service.
1. Maintain continuous security tracking of
VFR aircraft operating in the designated area to assist 1. If the aircraft is not landing within the
security forces in situational awareness. Immediately designated area, provide security services until the
report all instances of loss of radio communication or aircraft exits the area and then advise the aircraft to
the inability to conduct security tracking of an aircraft squawk VFR and that frequency change is approved.
to the operations supervisor (OS)/CIC and wait for PHRASEOLOGY−
instructions. SQUAWK VFR, FREQUENCY CHANGE APPROVED.
2. Basic separation services to aircraft, for or

example, IFR, SVFR, Class B, Class C, TRSA, do not
apply to ATC security tracking. CONTACT (facility identification).

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2. When an aircraft is landing at an airport inside 3. Additionally, some departments and agencies
the area, instruct the pilot to remain on the assigned that perform special missions have been assigned
transponder code until after landing. coded identifiers to permit them to apprise ATC of
PHRASEOLOGY− ongoing mission activities and solicit special air
(ACID) REMAIN ON YOUR ASSIGNED TRANSPONDER traffic assistance.
CODE UNTIL YOU LAND, FREQUENCY CHANGE REFERENCE−
APPROVED. FAA Order 7110.67, Air Traffic Management Security Services for
Special Operations.
3. Using approved handoff functionality, trans-
NOTE−
fer the data blocks of all security tracked aircraft that As specified in paragraph 2−1−4, Operational Priority,
will enter another sector/position for coordination of priority of handling for aircraft operating with coded
aircraft information/location. Upon acceptance of the identifiers will be the same as that afforded to SAR aircraft
transferred information, instruct the pilot to contact performing a SAR mission.
the next sector/positions’ frequency.
c. Assistance to law enforcement aircraft opera-
tions.
9−2−11. SECURITY NOTICE (SECNOT)
1. Provide the maximum assistance possible to
Upon receiving notification of a SECNOT, the law enforcement aircraft, when requested, in helping
controller must forward all information on the subject them locate suspect aircraft.
aircraft to the OS/CIC. If information is not known,
broadcast call sign on all frequencies and advise the 2. Communicate with law enforcement aircraft,
OS/CIC of the response. when possible and if requested, on a frequency not
paired with your normal communications frequen-
REFERENCE−
P/CG Term − Security Notice. cies.
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Chapter 20, Section 9, Security Notice
(SECNOT). 3. Do not allow assistance to law enforcement
aircraft to violate any required separation minima.
9−2−12. LAW ENFORCEMENT OPERA- 4. Do not assist VFR law enforcement aircraft in
TIONS any way that will create a situation which, in your
a. In the event information is received pertaining judgment, places the aircraft in unsafe proximity to
to stolen aircraft, the controller must forward all terrain or other aircraft.
information to the OS/CIC for reporting on the
Domestic Events Network (DEN). 9−2−13. MILITARY AERIAL REFUELING
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 2−7−7, Cooperation With Law
Authorize aircraft to conduct aerial refueling along
Enforcement Agencies. published or special tracks at their flight plan
b. Special law enforcement operations. altitudes, unless otherwise requested.
PHRASEOLOGY−
1. Special law enforcement operations include CLEARED TO CONDUCT REFUELING ALONG
inflight identification, surveillance, interdiction and (number) TRACK,
pursuit activities performed in accordance with
official civil and/or military mission responsibilities. or
2. To facilitate accomplishment of these special
FROM (fix) TO (fix),
missions, exemptions from specified parts of Title 14
of the Code of Federal Regulations have been granted and
to designated departments and agencies. However, it
is each organization’s responsibility to apprise ATC MAINTAIN BLOCK (altitude) THROUGH (altitude),
of their intent to operate under an authorized
exemption before initiating actual operations. or
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 19−3−1, Authorizations and Exemptions COMMENCING AT (altitude), DESCENDING TO
from Title 14, Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR). (altitude).

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NOTE− d. After MARSA has been declared, you should

1. During aerial refueling, tanker aircraft are responsible avoid issuing course or altitude changes prior to
for receiver aircraft communication with ATC and for their rendezvous.
navigation along the track.
NOTE−
2. Aerial refueling airspace is not sterilized airspace and Altitude or course changes issued will automatically void
other aircraft may transit this airspace provided vertical or MARSA.
lateral separation is provided from refueling aircraft.
e. Do not use the altitude vacated during the
3. MARSA begins between the tanker and receiver when refueling operation until the refueling aircraft has
the tanker and receiver(s) have entered the air refueling reported reaching the next IFR altitude.
airspace and the tanker advises ATC that he/she is
REFERENCE−
accepting MARSA. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 6−6−2, Exceptions.
4. MARSA ends between the tanker and receiver when the f. Approve requests by the tanker pilot for vectors
tanker advises ATC that the tanker and receiver aircraft are or alternative routes or altitudes as follows:
vertically positioned within the air refueling airspace and
ATC advises MARSA is terminated. 1. Furnish vectors or alternative altitudes at any
REFERENCE−
time.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−11, Use of MARSA. 2. Furnish nonradar routes only after the
Formation Flights. refueling aircraft have passed the ARCP.
FAA Order JO 7610.4, Chapter 10, Aerial Refueling.
NOTE−
a. Provide radar assistance to the rendezvous for 1. To meet a training requirement that aerial refueling be
participating aircraft: accomplished in a nonradar environment, the military has
requested that vectors be furnished only upon request.
1. When requested, and 2. The tanker commander is responsible for coordinating
2. By providing vertical separation prior to all inflight requests with other aircraft in the refueling
MARSA declaration. mission before submission of such requests to the center.
3. Normally, aircraft conducting aerial refueling opera-
b. Do not request receiver aircraft that have been tions will utilize at least three consecutive altitudes.
cleared to conduct air refueling and have departed the
ARIP to: g. Unless a vector or alternative route has been
furnished, clear the aircraft to depart the refueling
1. Make code changes when less than 5 miles track at a navigational reference point or egress fix.
from the tanker.
h. Request an aircraft to report the ARIP, ARCP, or
2. Squawk standby when less than 1 mile or egress fix as necessary.
more than 3 miles from the tanker. PHRASEOLOGY−
NOTE− REPORT:
Requests for receiver aircraft to make code changes during
air refueling diverts the receiver pilot’s attention during a A−R−I−P,
critical phase of flight.
or
c. When issuing an initial air refueling clearance,
you may request a receiver to squawk standby when A−R−C−P,
the receiver reaches a point 3 miles from the tanker.
NOTE− or
1. Receiver aircraft will squawk normal when separation
from the tanker is greater than 3 miles. EGRESS FIX.
2. Once rendezvous is completed, heading and altitude i. Expect the following procedures in addition to
assignments may be made with the tanker concurrence with those required by the appropriate parts of Title 14 of
MARSA remaining in effect. the Code of Federal Regulations in the event of
two-way communications failure:
3. Upon rendezvous completion, the tanker must keep
receiver aircraft within 3 miles of the tanker until MARSA 1. The tanker will depart the track from the
is terminated. highest altitude in the block.

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2. The receiver will depart the track from the aircraft seriously affects the range and mission objectives.
lowest altitude in the block. Radar separation is the preferred method of separating a
subsonic aircraft both from another subsonic aircraft or
3. Aircraft will squawk 7600 for at least from a supersonic aircraft.
2 minutes prior to departing the track.
1. Paragraph 4−5−1, Vertical Separation Min-
REFERENCE− ima: 5,000 feet.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 9−2−14, Military Operations Above FL
600. NOTE−
1. The security requirements of the military services
9−2−14. MILITARY OPERATIONS ABOVE preclude the transmission of actual altitude information on
FL 600 the air/ground or landline circuits. Altitude information for
the day should be readily available to the controllers at
Control aircraft operating above FL 600 using the their positions of operation. The classification require-
following procedures: ments of the altitude information remains unchanged.
2. Pilots will report their altitude, using the coded plan,
a. Flight plans involving supersonic flight are
and intended flight profile on initial contact with each
required 16 hours in advance of proposed departure ARTCC.
times for processing and approval by the ARTCCs
concerned. The originating ARTCC, where the flight 2. Paragraph 6−5−4, Minima Along Other Than
plan is first filed, may waive the 16−hour advance Established Airways or Routes: Protect the airspace
filing requirement. 25 miles either side of the route centerline. For turns
by supersonic aircraft, protect the airspace 75 miles
b. The route of flight must be defined by at least on the overflown side and 25 miles on the other side.
one high altitude fix within each ARTCC area For turns by subsonic aircraft, protect the airspace
without regard to the distance between fixes. 34 miles on the overflown side and 25 miles on the
Additionally, the entry and exit points of turns of other side.
90 degrees or more will be designated.
REFERENCE−
c. Elapsed times from takeoff to the first fix in each FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−3−3, Abbreviated Departure
Clearance.
ARTCC area must be included in the route of flight.
d. The ARTCC which originates the flight plan 9−2−15. MILITARY SPECIAL USE
must forward departure times to all ARTCCs FREQUENCIES
responsible for processing the flight plan. a. Assign special use frequency to:
e. Approval of the flight plan indicates approval of NOTE−
both route and flight levels (if stated) including Special use frequencies are assigned to ARTCCs in such a
manner that adjacent ARTCCs will not have the same
operations below FL 600 (aerial refueling).
frequency. They are to be used within the ARTCC area
PHRASEOLOGY− jurisdiction from the established FL base of the high
CLEARED AS FILED VIA ROUTE AND FLIGHT altitude sectors and above. Each high altitude sector
LEVELS. should have the capability to use the special use frequency
REFERENCE− on a shared basis.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 9−2−13, Military Aerial Refueling.
1. USAF, U.S. Navy, and Air National Guard
f. Separation. Use the following as minima in lieu (ANG) single-pilot jet aircraft formations operating
of the corresponding type of separation prescribed in: at night or in instrument weather conditions.
NOTE− Formations of five or more USAF aircraft deploying
The primary method described to provide separation either to a continental U.S. staging base or nonstop to
between two supersonic aircraft is to descend the aircraft an overseas location are authorized to use special use
at the lower FL and provide vertical separation since the frequencies at any time. Normally these deployments
aircraft at the higher FL may not be able to climb rapidly will be conducted within an altitude reservation.
enough to establish the required separation. Another
aspect which should be considered is that supersonic 2. U−2 and B−57 (pressure suit flights) aircraft
aircraft during turns, either programmed or as the result of at all altitudes/FLs except where terminal operations
vectors, will lose a few thousand feet. Vectoring supersonic require the assignment of other frequencies.

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NOTE− hazardous material contamination. Honor inflight

Aerial refueling operations may require that aircraft leave clearance requests for altitude and route changes to
the special use frequency for communications with the the maximum extent possible. Other IFR aircraft may
tanker. This will occur when the receiver is approximately be recleared so that requests by SAMP aircraft are
200 miles from the ARCP. The tanker aircraft will remain
honored. Separation standards as outlined in this
on the ARTCC assigned frequency and will relay
clearances to the receiver as required. An alternate means
order must be applied in all cases.
of communications between the tanker and receiver is HF REFERENCE−
radio. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−4, Operational Priority.
3. All aircraft during supersonic flight. FAA Order JO 7610.4, Para 4−4−4, Avoidance of Hazardous Radiation
Areas.
NOTE−
Pilots are expected to request assignment of the special use
9−2−18. AWACS/NORAD SPECIAL
frequency in the remarks section of the flight plan or before
entering supersonic flight. B−57 aircraft engaged in FLIGHTS
pressure suit operations will use the static call sign KITE Do not delay E−3 AWACS aircraft identified as
and flights will normally be conducted from Dover, “AWACS/NORAD Special” flights. The following
Eielson, Ellington, Hickman, Howard, Kirtland, and
control actions are acceptable while expediting these
McClellan Air Force Bases.
aircraft to the destination orbit.
4. E−3A AWACS mission crews when opera-
tions are being conducted as an MRU in accordance a. En route altitude changes +/– 2,000 feet from the
with appropriate letters of agreement. requested flight level.
b. The special use frequency may be assigned as b. Radar vectors or minor route changes that do
“backup” for the high-altitude sector when direct not impede progress towards the destination orbit.
communications are essential because of a potential NOTE−
emergency control situation. NORAD has a requirement to position E−3 AWACS aircraft
at selected locations on a time-critical basis. To the extent
c. Do not assign the special use frequency to the possible these flights will utilize routes to the destination
aircraft in subparagraph a1 above, when they will orbit that have been precoordinated with the impacted ATC
operate in airspace assigned for special military facilities. To identify these flights, the words “AWACS/
operations. NORAD SPECIAL” will be included as the first item in the
remarks section of the flight plan.
9−2−16. AVOIDANCE OF AREAS OF

NUCLEAR RADIATION 9−2−19. WEATHER RECONNAISSANCE
FLIGHTS
a. Advise pilots whenever their proposed flight
path will traverse a reported or forecasted area of TEAL and NOAA mission aircraft fly reconnais-
hazardous radiation and reroute the aircraft when sance flights to gather meteorological data on winter
requested by the pilot. storms, (NWSOP missions), hurricanes and tropical
cyclones (NHOP missions). The routes and timing of
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7610.4, Para 4−4−4, Avoidance of Hazardous Radiation
these flights are determined by movement of the
Areas. storm areas and not by traffic flows.
b. Inform pilots when an airfield of intended a. When a dropsonde release time is received from
landing lies within a reported or forecasted area of a TEAL or NOAA mission aircraft, workload and
hazardous radiation and request the pilot to advise priorities permitting, controllers must advise the
his/her intentions. mission aircraft of any traffic estimated to pass
through the area of the drop at altitudes below that of
9−2−17. SAMP FLIGHTS the mission aircraft. This traffic advisory must
include:
Provide special handling to U.S. Government and
1. Altitude.
military aircraft engaged in aerial sampling/survey-
ing missions, sampling for nuclear, chemical, or 2. Direction of flight.

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3. ETA at the point closest to drop area (or at the RBS or other site and includes:
fix/intersection where drop will occur). 1. Flying a zigzag pattern on both the left and right side
of the flight plan route centerline. Altitude deviations are
NOTE− made in conjunction with the lateral maneuvering.
A dropsonde is a 14−inch long cardboard cylinder about 2. Lateral deviations from the route centerline will not
2.75 inches in diameter, that weighs approximately normally exceed 12 miles. Altitude variations must not
14 ounces (400 grams), and has a parachute attached. exceed plus or minus 1,000 feet of the assigned flight level;
When released from the aircraft it will fall at a rate of i.e., confined within a 2,000 foot block.
approximately 2,500 feet per minute. Controllers should
recognize that a dropsonde released at FL 310 will be a a. Specific route segment on which the maneuver
factor for traffic at FL 210 four minutes later. It is the will take place.
aircraft commanders responsibility to delay release of
dropsondes if traffic is a factor. Aircraft commanders will b. Distance of maximum route deviation from the
delay release of dropsondes based solely upon traffic as centerline in miles.
issued by ATC.
c. Altitude.
b. When advised that an airborne TEAL or NOAA
PHRASEOLOGY−
aircraft is requesting a clearance via CARCAH, issue
CLEARED TO CONDUCT EVASIVE ACTION
the clearance in accordance with Chapter 4, IFR, MANEUVER FROM (fix) TO (fix),
Section 2, Clearances.
REFERENCE− and
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−2−1, Clearance Items.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−2−2, Clearance Prefix. (number of miles) EITHER SIDE OF CENTERLINE,
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−2−3, Delivery Instructions.
c. If a TEAL or NOAA mission aircraft must be and

contacted but is out of VHF, UHF, and HF radio
range, advise the supervisory traffic management MAINTAIN (altitude) THROUGH (altitude),
coordinator−in−charge.
and
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 5−3−4, Weather Reconnaissance Flights.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−4, Operational Priority. COMPLETE MANEUVER AT (fix) AT (altitude).
d. Aircraft operations associated with a Weather

Reconnaissance Area (WRA) must be conducted in 9−2−21. NONSTANDARD FORMATION/
accordance with the Memorandum of Agreement CELL OPERATIONS
between the National Oceanic and Atmospheric
Administration Aircraft Operations Center, U.S. Air Occasionally the military is required to operate in a
Force Reserve Command 53rd Weather Reconnais- nonstandard cell formation and controllers should be
sance Squadron, and the Federal Aviation knowledgeable of the various tactics employed and
Administration Air Traffic Organization in Support the procedures used.
of the National Hurricane Operations Plan (FAA REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7610.4, Chapter 12, Section 11, Formation Flight.
Order JO 7610.4, Appendix 3), and the associated
letters of agreement. a. Formation leaders are responsible for obtaining
ATC approval to conduct nonstandard formation/cell
operations.
9−2−20. EVASIVE ACTION MANEUVER
b. When nonstandard formation/cell operations
Approve a pilot request to conduct an evasive action
have been approved, controllers must assign
maneuver only on the basis of a permissible traffic
sufficient altitudes to allow intra-cell vertical spacing
situation. Specify the following items, as necessary,
of 500 feet between each aircraft in the formation.
when issuing approval:
NOTE− c. Control nonstandard formation/cell operations
The “evasive action” maneuver is performed by a on the basis that MARSA is applicable between the
bomber/fighter bomber aircraft at or above FL 250 along participating aircraft until they establish approved
a 60 NM long segment of the flight plan route overlying a separation which is acknowledged by ATC.

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d. Apply approved separation criteria between the NOTE−

approved nonstandard formation/cell envelope and A letter of agreement is not required for nonparticipating
nonparticipating aircraft. aircraft to transit deactivated/released airspace.
REFERENCE−
e. Clear aircraft operating in a nonstandard FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 9−3−4, Transiting Active SUA/ATCAA.
formation/cell to the breakup fix as the clearance 1. Open Skies (F and D) Treaty flights transiting
limit. Forward data pertaining to route or altitude SUA/ATCAA will be handled in the following
beyond the breakup point to the center concerned as manner:
a part of the routine flight plan information.
(a) The ATC facility controlling the Open
f. EN ROUTE. If the breakup occurs in your area, Skies (F and D) Treaty flight must advise the using
issue appropriate clearances to authorize transition agency, or appropriate ATC facility, upon initial
from formation to individual routes or altitudes. If a notification and when the aircraft is 30 minutes from
breakup cannot be approved, issue an appropriate the SUA/ATCAA boundary; and
clearance for the flight to continue as a formation. (1) For active SUA/ATCAA with an ATC
facility, coordinate and execute the transit of Open
9−2−22. OPEN SKIES TREATY AIRCRAFT Skies (F and D) Treaty aircraft.
REFERENCE−
a. Open Skies aircraft will be identified by the call FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 9−3−4, Transiting Active SUA/ATCAA.
sign “OSY” (Open Skies) followed by the flight (2) For active SUA/ATCAA without an
number and a one−letter mission suffix. ATC facility, the using agency must deactivate/re-
EXAMPLE− lease the SUA/ATCAA to permit the Open Skies (F
OSY123D and D) Treaty aircraft to transit as filed in proximity
Mission suffixes: to the active SUA/ATCAA. When deactivating/re-
*F = Observation Flights (Priority). leasing the SUA/ATCAA for this purpose, the using
*D = Demonstration Flights (Priority). agency is only required to deactivate/release the
*T = Transit Flights (Nonpriority). portion of the SUA/ATCAA to the controlling agency
NOTE− that is necessary to provide approved separation.
1. Observation/Demonstration flights are conducted
under rigid guidelines outlined in the Treaty on Open Skies
(b) The using agency must deactivate/release
that govern sensor usage, maximum flight distances, the SUA/ATCAA, or portion thereof, no later than 15
altitudes and priorities. minutes prior to the Open Skies (F and D) Treaty
aircraft reaching the SUA/ATCAA boundary.
2. Transit flights are for the sole purpose of moving an
Open Skies aircraft from airport to airport in preparation (c) If the controlling agency is unable to
for an actual Open Skies “F” or “D” mission. confirm with the using agency that all conflicting
activities in the SUA/ATCAA have ceased, the Open
b. Provide priority and special handling to
Skies aircraft must not be permitted access to the
expedite the movement of an Open Skies observation
SUA/ATCAA.
or demonstration flight.
REFERENCE−
REFERENCE− FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 9−3−2, Separation Minima.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−4, Operational Priority, subpara l.
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 5−3−5, Open Skies Treaty Aircraft Priority 2. Return SUA/ATCAA to the using agency, if
Flights (F and D). requested, within (15) minutes after the Open Skies
Treaty on Open Skies, Treaty Document, 102−37.
(F and D) Treaty aircraft clears the SUA/ATCAA.
c. Open Skies (F and D) Treaty aircraft, while d. Clear the aircraft according to the filed flight
maintaining compliance with ATC procedures, must plan.
have priority over activities in special use airspace
(SUA)/Air Traffic Control Assigned Airspace 1. Do not ask the pilot to deviate from the
(ATCAA). Open Skies (F and D) Treaty aircraft are planned action or route of flight except to preclude an
nonparticipating aircraft and must be allowed to emergency situation or other higher priority aircraft.
transit SUA/ATCAA as filed after appropriate and 2. Do not impose air traffic control delays
timely coordination has been accomplished between except to preclude emergency situations or other
the using agency and controlling agency. higher priority aircraft.

12/2/21
6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z CHG 1
JO 7110.65Z
NOTE−
If for reasons of flight safety the route or altitude must be
changed, return the aircraft to the filed flight plan route as
soon as practical.

12/2/21
6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z CHG 1
JO 7110.65Z
Section 3. Special Use, ATC−Assigned Airspace, and

Stationary ALTRVs
9−3−1. APPLICATION NOTE−

Nonparticipating aircraft refers to those aircraft for which
Apply the procedures in this section to aircraft you have separation responsibility and which have not
operating in proximity to special use, ATC-assigned been authorized by the using agency to operate in/through
airspace (ATCAA), and stationary ALTRVs unless the special use airspace, ATCAA, or stationary ALTRV.
the airspace is designated an alert area/controlled VFR traffic is not prohibited from transiting stationary
firing area or one of the following conditions exist: ALTRVs or transitional hazard areas (THA).
NOTE− a. Assign an altitude consistent with paragraph
These procedures are not applicable to Alert Areas or 4−5−2, Flight Direction, and 4−5−3, Exceptions,
Controlled Firing Areas. which is at least 500 feet (above FL 290-1000 feet)
REFERENCE− above/below the upper/lower limit of the prohibited/
P/CG Term − Special Use Airspace. restricted/warning area/MOA/ATCAA/stationary
a. The pilot informs you that permission has been ALTRV.
obtained from the using agency to operate in the REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 2-1-18, Prohibited/Restricted Areas and
airspace. Stationary ALTRVs.
b. The using agency informs you they have given b. Provide radar separation of 3 miles (FL 600 and
permission for the aircraft to operate in the airspace. above − 6 miles) from the special use airspace,
NOTE− ATCAA, or stationary ALTRV peripheral boundary.
Using agency permission may be relayed to the pilot. EXCEPTIONS:
c. The restricted/warning area, MOA, ATCAA, or 1. Some prohibited/restricted/warning areas are
stationary ALTRV has been released to the established for security reasons or to contain
controlling agency. hazardous activities not involving aircraft operations.
Where facility management has identified these areas
d. The aircraft is on an approved ALTRV, unless as outlined in FAA Order JO 7210.3, Facility
the airspace area in question is an ATCAA. Operation and Administration, vector aircraft to
NOTE− remain clear of the peripheral boundary.
Mission project officers are responsible for obtaining
2. For stationary ALTRVs issued for the
approval for ALTRV operations within prohibited/
restricted/warning areas, MOAs, and stationary ALTRVs.
purpose of space launch or reentry operations, ensure
aircraft remain clear of the peripheral boundary.
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 9−3−4, Transiting Active SUA/ATCAA. c. Clear aircraft on airways or routes whose widths
e. Operations in special use airspace and or protected airspace do not overlap the peripheral
stationary ALTRVs located in offshore/oceanic boundary.
airspace will be conducted in accordance with the d. For stationary ALTRVs and temporary flight
procedures in Chapter 8, Offshore/Oceanic restrictions (TFR) issued for the purpose of space
Procedures. launch or reentry operations to protect aircraft hazard
areas (AHA):
9−3−2. SEPARATION MINIMA 1. Do not allow nonparticipating aircraft to
Unless clearance of nonparticipating aircraft in/ operate in an AHA unless real−time notifications of
through/adjacent to a prohibited/restricted/warning the actual start of activity and end of activity of the
area/MOA/ATCAA/stationary ALTRV is provided AHA is provided to affected facilities via ATO Space
for in a letter of agreement (LOA) or letter of Operations coordination.
procedure (LOP), separate nonparticipating aircraft 2. Do not provide ATC services to aircraft at
from active special use airspace, ATCAAs, and airports that lie within an AHA unless real−time
stationary ALTRVs by the following minima: notifications of the actual start of activity and end of
Special Use, ATC−Assigned Airspace, and Stationary ALTRVs 9−3−1

JO
JO 7110.65Z
7110.65R CHG
7110.65Z CHG
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3/15/07
6/17/21
activity of the AHA is provided to affected facilities PHRASEOLOGY−

via ATO Space Operations coordination. MAINTAIN VFR-ON-TOP AT LEAST 500 FEET
ABOVE/BELOW (upper/lower limit of airspace) ACROSS
REFERENCE−
(name or number of airspace) BETWEEN (fix) AND (fix);
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 20−6−4, Airports within Aircraft Hazard
Areas and Transitional Hazard Areas.
and if the airspace is an ATCAA,
e. For NOTAMs issued for the purpose of space
launch or reentry operations to protect THAs: (name of ATCAA) IS ATC ASSIGNED AIRSPACE.
REFERENCE−
1. Aircraft may enter provided they are not FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−1−1, Class A Airspace Restrictions.
holding, loitering, or hovering, and are cleared on:
b. Clear the aircraft via a routing which provides
(a) Routing approved by ATO Space Opera- approved separation from the airspace.
tions that has an angular difference of 30 through 150 c. Exception: Some Prohibited/Restricted Areas
degrees from the launch/reentry course, or are established for security reasons or to contain
(b) Crossing courses that have an angular hazardous activities not involving aircraft operations.
difference of 45 through 135 degrees from the The addition of 500 (or 1,000) feet to the upper/lower
launch/reentry course. limit of these Prohibited/Restricted Areas is not
required if the areas have been identified by facility
NOTE− management.
The intent is to provide a crossing angle that accounts for
the effects of wind. REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 2−1−18, Prohibited/Restricted Areas.
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 1−2−2, Course Definitions.
9−3−4. TRANSITING ACTIVE SUA/ATCAA
2. Do not provide ATC services to aircraft at
airports that lie within a THA unless real−time If a LOA/LOP has been coordinated with the Using
notifications of the actual start of activity and end of Agency and permission has been granted to transit the
activity of the THA is provided to affected facilities area:
via ATO Space Operations coordination. a. Comply with the instruction/clearances issued
REFERENCE− by the Using Agency and provide the applicable
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 20−6−4, Airports within Aircraft Hazard separation minima between aircraft when two or
Areas and Transitional Hazard Areas. more aircraft are transiting the area; or
NOTE−
9−3−3. VFR-ON-TOP Some Using Agencies are also air traffic control facilities.
If the aircraft’s route, track, or altitude may cause it b. If unable to comply with instructions/clear-
to enter an active Prohibited/Restricted/Warning ances, clear the aircraft in accordance with
Area, MOA, or ATCAA: paragraph 9−3−2, Separation Minima.
NOTE−
a. Inform the pilot to conduct flight “VFR−on− The FAA has no jurisdictional authority over the use of
top” at least 500 feet above the upper limit or below nonjoint use prohibited/restricted/warning area airspace;
the lower limit of the airspace (subject to paragraph therefore, clearance cannot be issued for flight therein
7−3−1, VFR−on−top); or without the appropriate approval.
9−3−2 Special Use, ATC−Assigned Airspace, and Stationary ALTRVs

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 4. Fuel Dumping
9−4−1. INFORMATION REQUIREMENTS 2. 2,000 feet below it.

When information is received that an aircraft plans to 3. 5 miles radar.
dump fuel, determine the route and altitude it will fly
and the weather conditions in which the operation 4. 5 miles laterally.
will be conducted.
b. VFR radar-identified aircraft by 5 miles and in
9−4−2. ROUTING accordance with paragraph 5−6−1, Application.
Except when it is dumping fuel for emergency

reasons, an aircraft in either VFR or IFR conditions 9−4−5. INFORMATION DISSEMINATION
may be requested to fly a different route.
a. If you are in contact with an aircraft when it
9−4−3. ALTITUDE ASSIGNMENT starts dumping fuel, inform other controllers and
facilities which might be concerned. Facilities
If an aircraft is dumping fuel in IFR conditions, assign concerned must broadcast an advisory on appropriate
an altitude at least 2,000 feet above the highest radio frequencies at 3−minute intervals until the
obstacle within 5 miles of the route or pattern being dumping stops.
flown.
PHRASEOLOGY−
ATTENTION ALL AIRCRAFT.
9−4−4. SEPARATION MINIMA
FUEL DUMPING IN PROGRESS OVER (location) AT
Separate known aircraft from the aircraft dumping (altitude) BY (type aircraft) (flight direction).
fuel as follows:
b. Broadcast a terminating advisory when the fuel
a. IFR aircraft by one of the following: dumping operation is completed.
1. 1,000 feet above it; or in accordance with PHRASEOLOGY−
paragraph 4−5−1, Vertical Separation Minima, ATTENTION ALL AIRCRAFT.
whichever is greater. FUEL DUMPING OVER (location) TERMINATED.
Fuel Dumping 9−4−1

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 5. Jettisoning of External Stores
9−5−1. JETTISONING OF EXTERNAL 2. FAA and Headquarters, USAF, have agreed to allow
STORES FAA facilities to vector USAF, Air Force Reserve, and
Air National Guard aircraft for jettisoning of all external
stores; i.e., tip tanks, JATO racks, special weapons, etc.
At locations where a drop area has been established Any similar vectoring service given to civil operators and
for radar assistance in jettisoning of external stores, civil aircraft companies operating Air Force type aircraft
provide vectoring service upon request to: requires written agreement between the FAA and the user
to relieve the FAA of possible liability. The regional
NOTE− counsel’s office acts for FAA in executing this agreement.
1. Where required, a mutually satisfactory drop area for a. USAF, ANG, and Air Force Reserve aircraft at
the jettisoning of external stores will be determined by any time.
radar-equipped towers and centers in cooperation with the
local USAF units, Air Division, or civil operators and civil b. Civil operators and civil aircraft when a written
aircraft companies concerned. agreement is in effect for your location.
Jettisoning of External Stores 9−5−1

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 6. Unmanned Free Balloons
9−6−1. APPLICATION attempted by communication with the “chase plane,”

telephone contact with the operator, pilot, or ground
FIG 9−6−1 observation reports.
Shapes of 11 Million Cubic Feet Balloon
at Various Altitudes NOTE−
Some operators have equipped their balloons with
transponder beacons in addition to a radar reflection
device or material required by 14 CFR Section 101.35, but
at cruise altitude, the balloon’s communications equipment
and transponder, if so equipped, are operated intermit-
tently to conserve battery energy.
c. With pilot concurrence, provide separation
between aircraft and balloons when you are satisfied
that the balloon information is sufficiently reliable to
provide the service. Do not attempt to separate
aircraft from the balloon by using vertical separation
unless you have accurate balloon altitude informa-
tion.
d. Provide traffic advisories to all affected aircraft
during initial contact specifying the balloon’s known
or estimated position, direction of movement, and
Apply the following procedures, as appropriate, altitude as “unknown” or “reported,” as appropriate.
when unmanned free balloons are within airspace for NOTE−
which you have control jurisdiction: Unless ATC requires otherwise, operators of unmanned
NOTE− free balloons are required to monitor the course of the
These procedures apply to unmanned free balloons that balloon and record its position at least every two hours. As
carry payloads as described in 14 CFR Sec- required in 14 CFR Section 101.39a, balloon position
tion 101.1(a)(4). Payloads may weigh several reports are not forwarded by the operator unless requested
hundred pounds and the physical shape of the balloons by ATC.
change at various altitudes/flight levels. (See FIG 9−6−1.) PHRASEOLOGY−
Balloon and payload ascend at an average rate of 400 feet UNMANNED FREE BALLOON OVER (name of location),
a minute. Over the descent area, the payload is normally
released from the balloon and descends by parachute at a or
minimum rate of 1,000 feet a minute. The balloon is
normally deflated automatically when the payload is ESTIMATED OVER (name of location), MOVING
released. The operator is required to advise ATC 1 hour in (direction of movement).
advance of descent in accordance with 14 CFR
Section 101.39. LAST REPORTED ALTITUDE AT (altitude as reported by
a. Post the balloon flight on flight progress strips the operator or determined from pilot report),
along the planned trajectory and revise routing as
or
tracking/position reports require.
NOTE− ALTITUDE UNKNOWN.
The prelaunch notice information should be posted on
flight progress strips for planning and operational e. To transfer flight following responsibility of
purposes. balloons between facilities or between controllers,
forward the following information when available:
b. Radar flight follow balloons to the extent that
REFERENCE−
equipment capabilities permit. If radar flight 14 CFR Section 101.37, Notice Requirements.
following is not possible, tracking should be 14 CFR Section 101.39, Balloon Position Reports.
Unmanned Free Balloons 9−6−1

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
1. Identification and type; e.g., Flight 804 d. If radar contact with the balloon is lost,
Balloon. broadcast an advisory to all aircraft operating in the
airspace affected by the derelict balloon at 10−minute
2. Last known position and altitude.
intervals continuing until the derelict balloon is no
3. General direction of movement and speed. longer a factor.
4. ETA over facility boundary, sector boundary, PHRASEOLOGY−
or other point if believed to be reasonably accurate. ADVISORY TO ALL AIRCRAFT.
5. Other pertinent information. DERELICT BALLOON REPORTED IN THE VICINITY

OF (location),
6. If in radar contact, physically point out the
target to the receiving controller. or
7. The name and the telephone number of the
ESTIMATED IN VICINITY OF (location),
location where tracking is being accomplished.
REFERENCE− or
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 9−6−2, Derelict Balloons.
REPORTED OVER (location),
9−6−2. DERELICT BALLOONS
or
Balloons become derelict when a moored balloon
slips its mooring and becomes a hazard to air RADAR REPORTED OVER (location).
navigation or when an unmanned free balloon flight
cannot be terminated as planned. When this occurs: LAST REPORTED ALTITUDE/FLIGHT LEVEL AT
(altitude/flight level as reported by operator or pilot
a. In the case of a moored balloon which has report),
slipped its moorings, issue traffic advisories.
or
b. In the case of an unmanned free balloon, flight
follow the balloon and, to the extent possible, provide ALTITUDE/FLIGHT LEVEL UNKNOWN.
aircraft under your control separation from the
balloon. e. Transfer flight following responsibility as
outlined in paragraph 9−6−1, Application, subpara-
c. Forward balloon position information received graph e.
from pilot reports or derived from radar returns to REFERENCE−
your supervisor for further dissemination. FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 19−5−2, Derelict Balloons/Objects.
9−6−2 Unmanned Free Balloons

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 7. Parachute Operations
9−7−1. COORDINATION b. Issue advisory information to the jump aircraft

and to nonparticipating aircraft as necessary for the
Coordinate any pertinent information prior to and at
safe conduct of the jump operation.
the end of each parachute jump or series of jumps
which begins or ends in your area of jurisdiction with
other affected ATC facilities/sectors. 9−7−4. OTHER CONTROL AIRSPACE
NOTE− Handle notifications to conduct jump operations in
14 CFR Section 105.15 prescribes the information other Class E airspace as follows:
required from each person requesting authorization or
submitting notification for nonemergency parachute a. Issue a traffic advisory to the jump aircraft
jumping activity. before the jump. Include aircraft type, altitude, and
REFERENCE− direction of flight of all known traffic which will
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 19−4−1, Nonemergency Parachute Jump transit the airspace within which the jump will be
Operations.
14 CFR Part 105, Parachute Operations.
conducted.
NOTE−
9−7−2. CLASS A, CLASS B, AND CLASS C 14 CFR Section 105.13, Radio Equipment and Use
AIRSPACE Requirements, prescribes that, except when otherwise
authorized by ATC, parachute jumping is not allowed in or
a. Authorize parachute operations only within into Class E airspace unless radio communications have
airspace designated for the jumping activity. been established between the aircraft and the FAA ATC
facility having jurisdiction over the affected airspace of the
b. Separate aircraft, other than those participating first intended exit altitude at least 5 minutes before the
in the jump operation, from the airspace authorized jumping activity is to begin for the purpose of receiving
for the jumping activity. information in the aircraft about known air traffic in the
c. Impose, as necessary, any conditions and vicinity of the jump aircraft.
restrictions which in your judgment would promote b. Issue advisories to all known aircraft which will
the safety of the operation. transit the airspace within which the jump operations
REFERENCE− will be conducted. Advisories must consist of the
14 CFR Section 105.25, Parachute Operations in Designated location, time, duration, and altitude from which the
Airspace.
jump will be made.
9−7−3. CLASS D AIRSPACE c. When time or numbers of aircraft make
individual transmissions impractical, advisories to
TERMINAL nonparticipating aircraft may be broadcast on
Handle requests to conduct jump operations in or into appropriate control frequencies, or when available,
Class D airspace in which there is a functioning the ATIS broadcast.
control tower as follows:
d. When requested by the pilot and to the extent
a. Authorize parachute jumping with respect to possible, assist nonparticipating aircraft to avoid the
known or observed traffic. airspace within which the jump will be conducted.
Parachute Operations 9−7−1

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 8. Unidentified Flying Object (UFO) Reports
9−8−1. GENERAL center, such as the National UFO Reporting Center,

etc.
a. Persons wanting to report UFO/unexplained b. If concern is expressed that life or property
phenomena activity should contact a UFO/ might be endangered, report the activity to the local
unexplained phenomena reporting data collection law enforcement department.
Unidentified Flying Object (UFO) Reports 9−8−1

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Chapter 10. Emergencies

Section 1. General
10−1−1. EMERGENCY DETERMINATIONS 4. The intended emergency landing airport and

the planned landing runway.
a. An emergency can be either a Distress or an
Urgency condition as defined in the “Pilot/Controller 5. An ETE to the emergency landing airport.
Glossary.” EXAMPLE−
“Aircraft, N123B, pilot incapacitation, 12 miles southwest
b. A pilot who encounters a Distress condition of KOJC, landing KIXD airport. Emergency Autoland in
should declare an emergency by beginning the initial 13 minutes on runway 36.”
communication with the word “Mayday,” preferably
NOTE−
repeated three times. For an Urgency condition, the 1. System configurations may vary between manufactur-
word “Pan-Pan” should be used in the same manner. ers. All systems should be configured to transmit enough
c. If the words “Mayday” or “Pan−Pan” are not information for the controller to respond effectively to the
emergency.
used but you believe an emergency or an urgent
situation exists, handle it as though it were an 2. In the event of frequency congestion, an Emergency
emergency. Autoland system may transmit on 121.5 or CTAF instead of
the last assigned ATC frequency.
d. Because of the infinite variety of possible
emergency situations, specific procedures cannot be 10−1−3. PROVIDING ASSISTANCE
prescribed. However, when you believe an emer-
gency exists or is imminent, select and pursue a Provide maximum assistance to aircraft in distress.
course of action which appears to be most appropriate Enlist the services of available radar facilities
under the circumstances and which most nearly operated by the FAA, the military services, and the
conforms to the instructions in this manual. Federal Communications Commission, as well as
their emergency services and facilities, when the pilot
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 9−2−6, IFR Military Training Routes.
requests or when you deem necessary.
REFERENCE−
10−1−2. OBTAINING INFORMATION
a. Use the information provided or solicit more 10−1−4. RESPONSIBILITY
information as necessary to assist the distressed a. If you are in communication with an aircraft in
aircraft. Provide assistance that is consistent with the distress, handle the emergency and coordinate and
requests of the pilot. If you believe an alternative direct the activities of assisting facilities. Transfer
course of action may prove more beneficial, transmit this responsibility to another facility only when you
your recommendation(s) to the pilot. feel better handling of the emergency will result.
REFERENCE− b. When you receive information about an aircraft
14 CFR § 91.3 Responsibilities and authority of pilot in command.
in distress, forward detailed data to the center in
b. If an emergency was declared by an Emergency whose area the emergency exists.
Autoland system, the aircraft may transmit the
NOTE−
following: 1. Centers serve as the central points for collecting
1. Callsign. information, for coordinating with SAR, and for
conducting a communications search by distributing any
2. That Emergency Autoland has been activat- necessary ALNOTs concerning:
ed. a. Overdue or missing IFR aircraft.
b. Aircraft in an emergency situation occurring in
3. Position (mileage and direction) relative to a their respective area.
nearby airport. c. Aircraft on a combination VFR/IFR or an airfiled
General 10−1−1
JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
IFR flight plan and 30 minutes have passed since the pilot 10−1−5. COORDINATION
requested IFR clearance and neither communication nor
radar contact can be established with it. For SAR purposes, Coordinate efforts to the extent possible to assist any
these aircraft are treated the same as IFR aircraft. aircraft believed overdue, lost, or in emergency
d. Overdue or missing aircraft which have been status.
authorized to operate in accordance with special VFR
clearances.
10−1−6. AIRPORT GROUND EMERGENCY
2. Notifying the center about a VFR aircraft emergency
allows provision of IFR separation if considered necessary.
TERMINAL
REFERENCE−
a. When an emergency occurs on the airport
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 10−2−5, Emergency Situations. proper, control other air and ground traffic to avoid
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 10−3−2, Information to be Forwarded to conflicts in the area where the emergency is being
ARTCC.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 10−3−3, Information to be Forwarded to handled. This also applies when routes within the
RCC. airport proper are required for movement of local
emergency equipment going to or from an emergency
c. If the aircraft involved is operated by a foreign which occurs outside the airport proper.
air carrier, notify the center serving the departure or
destination point, when either point is within the U.S., NOTE−
Aircraft operated in proximity to accident or other
for relay to the operator of the aircraft.
emergency or disaster locations may cause hindrances to
airborne and surface rescue or relief operations.
d. The ARTCC must be responsible for receiving Congestion, distraction or other effects, such as wake
and relaying all pertinent ELT signal information to turbulence from nearby airplanes and helicopters, could
the appropriate authorities. prevent or delay proper execution of these operations.
REFERENCE−
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 10−2−10, Emergency Locator FAA Order JO 7210.3, Chapter 20, Temporary Flight Restrictions.
14 CFR Section 91.137, Temporary Flight Restrictions.
Transmitter (ELT) Signals.
b. Workload permitting, monitor the progress of
e. When consideration is given to the need to emergency vehicles responding to a situation. If
escort an aircraft in distress, evaluate the close necessary, provide available information to assist
formation required by both aircraft. Special consider- responders in finding the accident/incident scene.
ation should be given if the maneuver takes the
aircraft through the clouds.
10−1−7. INFLIGHT EMERGENCIES
f. Before a determination is made to have an INVOLVING MILITARY FIGHTER-TYPE
aircraft in distress be escorted by another aircraft, ask AIRCRAFT
the pilots if they are familiar with and capable of a. The design and complexity of military
formation flight. fighter-type aircraft places an extremely high
workload on the pilot during an inflight emergency.
1. Do not allow aircraft to join up in formation The pilot’s full attention is required to maintain
during emergency conditions, unless: control of the aircraft. Therefore, radio frequency and
transponder code changes should be avoided and
(a) The pilots involved are familiar with and radio transmissions held to a minimum, especially
capable of formation flight. when the aircraft experiencing the emergency is at
low altitude.
(b) They can communicate with one another,
and have visual contact with each other. b. Pilots of military fighter−type aircraft, nor-
mally single engine, experiencing or anticipating loss
2. If there is a need for aircraft that are not of engine power or control may execute a flameout
designated as search and rescue aircraft to get closer pattern in an emergency situation. Circumstances
to one another than radar separation standards allow, may dictate that the pilot, depending on the position
the maneuver must be accomplished, visually, by the and nature of the emergency, modify the pattern
aircraft involved. based on actual emergency recovery requirements.
10−1−2 General
6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
c. Military airfields with an assigned flying REFERENCE−

FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−10−13, Simulated Flameout (SFO)
mission may conduct practice emergency ap- Approaches/Emergency Landing Pattern (ELP) Operations/Practice
proaches. Participating units maintain specific Precautionary Approaches.
procedures for conducting these operations.
General 10−1−3
6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 2. Emergency Assistance
10−2−1. INFORMATION REQUIREMENTS 12. Number of people on board.

a. Start assistance as soon as enough information 13. Point of departure and destination.
has been obtained upon which to act. Information 14. Emergency equipment on board.
requirements will vary, depending on the existing
situation. Minimum required information for inflight
emergencies is: 10−2−2. FREQUENCY CHANGES
NOTE− Although 121.5 MHz and 243.0 MHz are emergency

In the event of an ELT signal see paragraph 10−2−10, frequencies, it might be best to keep the aircraft on the
Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT) Signals. initial contact frequency. Change frequencies only
when there is a valid reason.
1. Aircraft identification and type.
2. Nature of the emergency. 10−2−3. AIRCRAFT ORIENTATION
3. Pilot’s desires. Orientate an aircraft by the means most appropriate
b. After initiating action, obtain the following to the circumstances. Recognized methods include:
items or any other pertinent information from the a. Radar.
pilot or aircraft operator, as necessary:
b. NAVAIDs.
NOTE−
1. Emergency Autoland systems may not provide all of the c. Pilotage.
required information for emergencies. Use the information
d. Sighting by other aircraft.
provided to develop an appropriate course of action to
assist the aircraft.
10−2−4. ALTITUDE CHANGE FOR
2. If an emergency has been declared by an Emergency
Autoland system, transmissions to the aircraft may go IMPROVED RECEPTION
unanswered. When you consider it necessary and if weather and
3. Normally, do not request this information from military circumstances permit, recommend that the aircraft
fighter−type aircraft that are at low altitudes (for example, maintain or increase altitude to improve
on approach, immediately after departure, on a low level communications or radar.
route). However, request the position of an aircraft that is
NOTE−
not visually sighted or displayed on radar if the location is Aircraft with high-bypass turbofan engines (such as B747)
not given by the pilot. encountering volcanic ash clouds have experienced total
1. Aircraft altitude. loss of power to all engines. Damage to engines due to
volcanic ash ingestion increases as engine power is
2. Fuel remaining in time. increased, therefore, climb while in the ash cloud is to be
avoided where terrain permits.
3. Pilot reported weather.
REFERENCE−
4. Pilot capability for IFR flight. AIM, Para 7−5−9, Flight Operations in Volcanic Ash.
5. Time and place of last known position.

10−2−5. EMERGENCY SITUATIONS
6. Heading since last known position.
Consider that an aircraft emergency exists and inform
7. Airspeed. the RCC or ARTCC if:
8. Navigation equipment capability. NOTE−
USAF facilities are only required to notify the ARTCC.
9. NAVAID signals received.
a. An emergency is declared by any of the
10. Visible landmarks. following:
11. Aircraft color. 1. The pilot.
Emergency Assistance 10−2−1

JO
JO 7110.65Z
7110.65R CHG
7110.65Z CHG
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3/15/07
6/17/21
2. Facility personnel. Inform that facility of the situation. If the aircraft is

unable to communicate with the control facility, relay
3. Officials responsible for the operation of the
information and clearances.
aircraft.
b. The following must be accomplished on a
4. A system−generated transmission from an
Mode C equipped VFR aircraft which is in
aircraft.
emergency but no longer requires the assignment of
b. There is unexpected loss of radar contact and Code 7700:
radio communications with any IFR or VFR aircraft.
c. Reports indicate it has made a forced landing, is permit terminal minimum safe altitude warning
about to do so, or its operating efficiency is so (MSAW) alarm processing.
impaired that a forced landing will be necessary.
2. EN ROUTE. An appropriate keyboard entry
d. Reports indicate the crew has abandoned the must be made to ensure en route MSAW (EMSAW)
aircraft or is about to do so. alarm processing.
e. An emergency transponder code is displayed or
reported. 10−2−8. RADAR ASSISTANCE TO VFR
AIRCRAFT IN WEATHER DIFFICULTY
NOTE−
EN ROUTE. ERAM: Code 7700 causes an emergency a. If a VFR aircraft requests radar assistance when
indicator to blink in the data block. it encounters or is about to encounter IFR weather
f. Intercept or escort aircraft services are required. conditions, ask the pilot if he/she is qualified for and
capable of conducting IFR flight.
g. The need for ground rescue appears likely.
b. If the pilot states he/she is qualified for and
h. An Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT) capable of IFR flight, request him/her to file an IFR
signal is heard or reported. flight plan and then issue clearance to destination
REFERENCE− airport, as appropriate.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 10−1−3 , Providing Assistance.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 10−2−10 , Emergency Locator c. If the pilot states he/she is not qualified for or not
Transmitter (ELT) Signals.
capable of conducting IFR flight, or if he/she refuses
to file an IFR flight plan, take whichever of the
10−2−6. HIJACKED AIRCRAFT following actions is appropriate:
Hijack attempts or actual events are a matter of 1. Inform the pilot of airports where VFR
national security and require special handling. Policy conditions are reported, provide other available
and procedures for hijack situations are detailed in pertinent weather information, and ask if he/she will
FAA Order JO 7610.4, Special Operations. FAA elect to conduct VFR flight to such an airport.
Order JO 7610.4 describes reporting requirements,
air crew procedures, air traffic procedures and escort 2. If the action in subparagraph 1 above is not
or interceptor procedures for hijack situations. feasible or the pilot declines to conduct VFR flight to
another airport, provide radar assistance if the pilot:
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7610.4, Chapter 7, Procedures for Handling Suspicious (a) Declares an emergency.
Flight Situations and Hijacked Aircraft.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−2−11 , Code Monitor. (b) Refuses to declare an emergency and you
have determined the exact nature of the radar services
10−2−7. VFR AIRCRAFT IN WEATHER the pilot desires.
DIFFICULTY
3. If the aircraft has already encountered IFR
a. If VFR aircraft requests assistance when it conditions, inform the pilot of the appropriate
encounters or is about to encounter IFR weather terrain/obstacle clearance minimum altitude. If the
conditions, determine the facility best able to provide aircraft is below appropriate terrain/obstacle clear-
service. If a frequency change is necessary, advise the ance minimum altitude and sufficiently accurate
pilot of the reason for the change, and request the position information has been received or radar
aircraft contact the appropriate control facility. identification is established, furnish a heading or
10−2−2 Emergency Assistance

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
radial on which to climb to reach appropriate 10−2−10. EMERGENCY LOCATOR

terrain/obstacle clearance minimum altitude. TRANSMITTER (ELT) SIGNALS
d. The following must be accomplished on a When an ELT signal is heard or reported:

Mode C equipped VFR aircraft which is in a. EN ROUTE. Notify the Rescue Coordination
emergency but no longer requires the assignment of Center (RCC).
Code 7700: NOTE−
FAA Form 7210−8, ELT INCIDENT, contains standardized
format for coordination with the RCC.
permit terminal minimum safe altitude warning
REFERENCE−
(MSAW) alarm processing. FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 9−3−1, FAA Form 7210−8, ELT Incident.
2. EN ROUTE. An appropriate keyboard entry b. TERMINAL. Notify the ARTCC which will
must be made to ensure en route MSAW (EMSAW) coordinate with the RCC.
alarm processing. NOTE−
1. Operational ground testing of emergency locator
transmitters (ELTs) has been authorized during the first
10−2−9. RADAR ASSISTANCE 5 minutes of each hour. To avoid confusing the tests with an
actual alarm, the testing is restricted to no more than three
TECHNIQUES
audio sweeps.
Use the following techniques to the extent possible 2. Controllers can expect pilots to report aircraft position
when you provide radar assistance to a pilot not and time the signal was first heard, aircraft position and
qualified to operate in IFR conditions: time the signal was last heard, aircraft position at
maximum signal strength, flight altitude, and frequency of
a. Avoid radio frequency changes except when the emergency signal (121.5/243.0). (See AIM, para-
necessary to provide a clear communications graph 6−2−4, Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT).)
channel. c. TERMINAL. Attempt to obtain fixes or
bearings on the signal.
b. Make turns while the aircraft is in VFR
conditions so it will be in a position to fly a straight d. Solicit the assistance of other aircraft known to
course while in IFR conditions. be operating in the signal area.
e. TERMINAL. Forward fixes or bearings and any
c. Have pilot lower gear and slow aircraft to other pertinent information to the ARTCC.
approach speed while in VFR conditions.
NOTE−
d. Avoid requiring a climb or descent while in a Fix information in relation to a VOR or VORTAC (radial-
turn if in IFR conditions. distance) facilitates accurate ELT plotting by RCC and
should be provided when possible.
e. Avoid abrupt maneuvers. f. EN ROUTE. When the ELT signal strength
indicates the signal may be emanating from
f. Vector aircraft to VFR conditions.
somewhere on an airport or vicinity thereof, notify
g. The following must be accomplished on a the on-site technical operations personnel and the
Mode C equipped VFR aircraft which is in Regional Operations Center (ROC) for their actions.
emergency but no longer requires the assignment of This action is in addition to the above.
Code 7700: g. TERMINAL. When the ELT signal strength
indicates the signal may be emanating from
1. TERMINAL. Assign a beacon code that will somewhere on the airport or vicinity thereof, notify
permit terminal minimum safe altitude warning the on-site technical operations personnel and the
(MSAW) alarm processing. ARTCC for their action. This action is in addition to
2. EN ROUTE. An appropriate keyboard entry the above.
must be made to ensure en route MSAW (EMSAW) h. Air traffic personnel must not leave their
alarm processing. required duty stations to locate an ELT signal source.

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
NOTE− respect to the safety of other aircraft, ground

Portable handcarried receivers assigned to air traffic facilities, and personnel.
facilities (where no technical operations personnel are
available) may be loaned to responsible airport personnel NOTE−
or local authorities to assist in locating the ELT signal Emergency handling is discretionary and should be based
source. on the situation. With certain types of threats, plans may
call for a low-key action or response.
i. EN ROUTE. Notify the RCC and the ROC if
5. Issue or relay clearances to a new destination
signal source is located/terminated.
if requested.
j. TERMINAL. Notify the ARTCC if signal 6. When a pilot requests technical assistance or
source is located/terminated. if it is apparent that a pilot may need such assistance,
REFERENCE− do NOT suggest what actions the pilot should take
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 10−1−4, Responsibility.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 10−2−1, Information Requirements. concerning a bomb, but obtain the following
information and notify your supervisor who will
contact the FAA aviation explosives expert:
10−2−11. AIRCRAFT BOMB THREATS
NOTE−
a. When information is received from any source This information is needed by the FAA aviation explosives
that a bomb has been placed on, in, or near an aircraft expert so that he/she can assess the situation and make
for the purpose of damaging or destroying such immediate recommendations to the pilot. The aviation
aircraft, notify your supervisor or the facility air explosives expert may not be familiar with all military
traffic manager. If the threat is general in nature, aircraft configurations but he/she can offer technical
handle it as a “Suspicious Activity.” When the threat assistance which would be beneficial to the pilot.
is targeted against a specific aircraft and you are in (a) Type, series, and model of the aircraft.
contact with the suspect aircraft, take the following
(b) Precise location/description of the bomb
actions as appropriate:
device if known.
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7610.4, Chapter 7, Procedures for Handling Suspicious (c) Other details which may be pertinent.
Flight Situations and Hijacked Aircraft.
NOTE−
1. Advise the pilot of the threat. The following details may be of significance if known, but
it is not intended that the pilot should disturb a suspected
2. Inform the pilot that technical assistance can bomb/bomb container to ascertain the information: The
be obtained from an FAA aviation explosives expert. altitude or time set for the bomb to explode, type of
NOTE− detonating action (barometric, time, anti-handling, remote
An FAA aviation explosive expert is on call at all times and radio transmitter), power source (battery, electrical,
may be contacted by calling the FAA Operations mechanical), type of initiator (blasting cap, flash bulb,
Center, Washington, DC, Area Code 202−267−3333, chemical), and the type of explosive/incendiary charge
ETN 521−0111, or DSN 851−3750. Technical advice can (dynamite, black powder, chemical).
be relayed to assist civil or military air crews in their search b. When a bomb threat involves an aircraft on the
for a bomb and in determining what precautionary action ground and you are in contact with the suspect
to take if one is found.
aircraft, take the following actions in addition to those
3. Ask the pilot if he/she desires to climb or discussed in the preceding paragraphs which may be
descend to an altitude that would equalize or reduce appropriate:
the outside air pressure/existing cabin air pressure
1. If the aircraft is at an airport where tower
differential. Issue or relay an appropriate clearance
control or FSS advisory service is not available, or if
considering MEA, MOCA, MRA, and weather.
the pilot ignores the threat at any airport, recommend
NOTE− that takeoff be delayed until the pilot or aircraft
Equalizing existing cabin air pressure with outside air operator establishes that a bomb is not aboard in
pressure is a key step which the pilot may wish to take to accordance with 14 CFR Part 121. If the pilot insists
minimize the damage potential of a bomb.
on taking off and in your opinion the operation will
4. Handle the aircraft as an emergency and/or not adversely affect other traffic, issue or relay an
provide the most expeditious handling possible with ATC clearance.

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
REFERENCE− c. If the aircraft wishes to divert to the airport

14 CFR Section 121.538, Airplane Security.
location provided, obtain an estimated arrival time
2. Advise the aircraft to remain as far away from from the pilot and advise your supervisor.
other aircraft and facilities as possible, to clear the
runway, if appropriate, and to taxi to an isolated or
designated search area. When it is impractical or if the 10−2−13. MANPADS ALERT
pilot takes an alternative action; e.g., parking and
When a threat or attack from Man−Portable Air
off-loading immediately, advise other aircraft to
Defense Systems (MANPADS) is determined to be
remain clear of the suspect aircraft by at least
real, notify and advise aircraft as follows:
100 yards if able.
NOTE−
a. Do not withhold landing clearance. To the
Passenger deplaning may be of paramount importance and extent possible, issue information on MANPADS
must be considered before the aircraft is parked or moved threats, confirmed attacks, or post−event activities in
away from service areas. The decision to use ramp facilities time for it to be useful to the pilot. The pilot or parent
rests with the pilot, aircraft operator/airport manager. company will determine the pilot’s actions.
c. If you are unable to inform the suspect aircraft b. MANPADS information will be disseminated
of a bomb threat or if you lose contact with the via the ATIS and/or controller−to−pilot
aircraft, advise your supervisor and relay pertinent transmissions.
details to other sectors or facilities as deemed
necessary. c. Disseminate via controller−to−pilot transmis-
sion until the appropriate MANPADS information is
d. When a pilot reports the discovery of a bomb or broadcast via the ATIS and pilots indicate they have
suspected bomb on an aircraft which is airborne or on received the appropriate ATIS code. MANPADS
the ground, determine the pilot’s intentions and information will include nature and location of threat
comply with his/her requests in so far as possible. or incident, whether reported or observed and by
Take all of the actions discussed in the preceding whom, time (if known), and when transmitting to an
paragraphs which may be appropriate under the individual aircraft, a request for pilot’s intentions.
existing circumstances.
PHRASEOLOGY−
e. The handling of aircraft when a hijacker has or ATTENTION (aircraft identification), MANPADS ALERT.
EXERCISE EXTREME CAUTION. MANPADS THREAT/
is suspected of having a bomb requires special
ATTACK/POST−EVENT ACTIVITY OBSERVED/
considerations. Be responsive to the pilot’s requests REPORTED BY (reporting agency) (location) AT (time, if
and notify supervisory personnel. Apply hijacking known). (When transmitting to an individual aircraft) SAY
procedures and offer assistance to the pilot according INTENTIONS.
to the preceding paragraphs, if needed.
EXAMPLE−
“Attention Eastern Four Seventeen, MANPADS alert.
Exercise extreme caution. MANPADS threat reported by
10−2−12. EXPLOSIVE DETECTION K−9
TSA, LaGuardia vicinity. Say intentions.”
TEAMS
“Attention all aircraft, MANPADS alert. Exercise extreme
Take the following actions should you receive an caution. MANPADS post−event activity observed by tower
aircraft request for the location of the nearest south of airport at two−one−zero−zero Zulu.”
explosive detection K−9 team.
d. Report MANPADS threat/attack/post–event
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 2−1−12, Explosives Detection K−9 Teams.
activity via the ATIS and/or controller–to–pilot
transmissions until notified otherwise by the
a. Obtain the aircraft identification and position Domestic Events Network (DEN) Air Traffic
and advise your supervisor of the pilot request. Security Coordinator (ATSC).
b. When you receive the nearest location of the REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−9−3, Content.
explosive detection K−9 team, relay the information FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 2−1−10, Handling MANPADS Incidents.
to the pilot. FAA Order JO 7610.4, Para 16-1-3, Responsibilities.

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
10−2−14. UNAUTHORIZED LASER runways, equipment on the runway, construction, or other

ILLUMINATION OF AIRCRAFT possible airport hazards when selecting a suitable airport.
a. When a laser event is reported to an air traffic b. Consideration to the provisions of subpara-
facility, broadcast on all appropriate frequencies a graph a and paragraph 10−2−16, Guidance to
general caution warning every five minutes for Emergency Airport, must be used in conjunction with
20 minutes following the last report. the information derived from any automated
emergency airport information source.
PHRASEOLOGY−
UNAUTHORIZED LASER ILLUMINATION EVENT, 10−2−16. GUIDANCE TO EMERGENCY
(location), (altitude).
AIRPORT
b. Terminal facilities must include reported
a. When necessary, use any of the following for
unauthorized laser illumination events on the ATIS
guidance to the airport:
broadcast for one hour following the last report.
Include the time, location, altitude, color, and 1. Radar.
direction of the laser as reported by the pilot. 2. Following another aircraft.
NOTE− 3. NAVAIDs.
All personnel can expect aircrews to regard lasers as an
inflight emergency and may take evasive action to avoid 4. Pilotage by landmarks.
laser illumination. Additionally, other aircraft may request 5. Compass headings.
clearance to avoid the area.
REFERENCE− b. Consideration to the provisions of
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−9−3, Content. paragraph 10−2−15, Emergency Airport
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 2−1−29, Reporting Unauthorized Laser Recommendation, must be used in conjunction with
Illumination of Aircraft.
the information derived from any automated
emergency airport information source.
10−2−15. EMERGENCY AIRPORT
RECOMMENDATION 10−2−17. EMERGENCY OBSTRUCTION
a. Consider the following factors when recom- VIDEO MAP (EOVM)
mending an emergency airport: a. The EOVM is intended to facilitate advisory
1. Remaining fuel in relation to airport service to an aircraft in an emergency situation
distances. wherein an appropriate terrain/obstacle clearance
minimum altitude cannot be maintained. It must only
2. Weather conditions. be used and the service provided under the following
NOTE− conditions:
Depending on the nature of the emergency, certain weather
phenomena may deserve weighted consideration when
1. The pilot has declared an emergency, or
recommending an airport; e.g., a pilot may elect to fly 2. The controller has determined that an
farther to land at an airport with VFR instead of IFR emergency condition exists or is imminent because of
conditions. the pilot’s inability to maintain an appropriate
3. Airport conditions. terrain/obstacle clearance minimum altitude.
4. NAVAID status. NOTE−
Appropriate terrain/obstacle clearance minimum altitudes
5. Aircraft type. may be defined as Minimum IFR Altitude (MIA), Minimum
En Route Altitude (MEA), Minimum Obstruction Clear-
6. Pilot’s qualifications. ance Altitude (MOCA), or Minimum Vectoring Altitude
7. Vectoring or homing capability to the (MVA).
emergency airport. b. When providing emergency vectoring service,
NOTE− the controller must advise the pilot that any headings
In the event of an Emergency Autoland system activation, issued are emergency advisories intended only to
the system will select a suitable airport and advise ATC. direct the aircraft toward and over an area of lower
The Emergency Autoland system does not consider closed terrain/obstacle elevation.

12/2/21
6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z CHG 1
JO 7110.65Z
NOTE− 10−2−19. REPORTING DEATH, ILLNESS,

Altitudes and obstructions depicted on the EOVM are the OR OTHER PUBLIC HEALTH RISK ON
actual altitudes and locations of the obstacle/terrain and BOARD AIRCRAFT
contain no lateral or vertical buffers for obstruction
clearance. a. If an air traffic controller receives a report of the
REFERENCE− death of person, an illness, and/or other public health
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 3−8−4, Emergency Obstruction Video
Map (EOVM). risk obtain the following information and notify the
operations manager in charge (OMIC)/operations
10−2−18. VOLCANIC ASH supervisor (OS)/controller-in-charge (CIC) as soon
as possible.
a. If a volcanic ash cloud is known or forecast to
be present: 1. Call sign.
1. Relay all information available to pilots to 2. Number of suspected cases of illness on
ensure that they are aware of the ash cloud’s position board.
and altitude(s).
2. Suggest appropriate reroutes to avoid the area 3. Nature of the illnesses or other public health
of known or forecast ash clouds. risk, if known.
NOTE− 4. Number of persons on board.

Volcanic ash clouds are not normally detected by airborne
or air traffic radar systems. 5. Number of deaths, if applicable.
b. If advised by an aircraft that it has entered a 6. Pilot’s intent (for example, continue to
volcanic ash cloud and indicates that a distress destination or divert).
situation exists:
1. Consider the aircraft to be in an emergency 7. Any request for assistance (for example,
situation. needing emergency medical services to meet the
aircraft at arrival).
2. Do not initiate any climb clearances to
turbine−powered aircraft until the aircraft has exited b. The OMIC/OS/CIC must relay the information
the ash cloud. to the DEN as soon as possible.
3. Do not attempt to provide escape vectors NOTE−
without pilot concurrence. 1. If the ATC facility is not actively monitoring the DEN or
NOTE− does not have a dedicated line to the DEN, they must call
1. The recommended escape maneuver is to reverse course into the DEN directly via 844−432−2962 (toll free).
and begin a descent (if terrain permits). However, it is the 2. Except in extraordinary circumstances, such as a
pilot’s responsibility to determine the safest escape route situation requiring ATC intervention, follow-on coordina-
from the ash cloud. tion regarding the incident will not involve ATC
2. Controllers should be aware of the possibility of frequencies.
complete loss of power to any turbine−powered aircraft
3. The initial report to a U.S. ATC facility may be passed
that encounters an ash cloud.
from a prior ATC facility along the route of flight.
REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 10−2−4, Altitude Change for Improved REFERENCE−
Reception. FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 2-1-33, Reporting Death, Illness, or Other
AIM, Para 7−5−9, Flight Operations in Volcanic Ash. Public Health Risk On Board Aircraft.

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 3. Overdue Aircraft
10−3−1. OVERDUE AIRCRAFT/OTHER 10−3−2. INFORMATION TO BE

SITUATIONS FORWARDED TO ARTCC
a. Consider an aircraft to be overdue and initiate TERMINAL
the procedures stated in this section to issue an When an aircraft is considered to be in emergency
ALNOT when neither communications nor radar status that may require SAR procedures, or an IFR
contact can be established and 30 minutes have aircraft is overdue, the terminal facility must alert the
passed since: appropriate ARTCC and forward the following
NOTE− information, as available:
The procedures in this section also apply to an aircraft
a. Flight plan, including color of aircraft, if
referred to as “missing” or “unreported.”
known.
1. Its ETA over a specified or compulsory
b. Time of last transmission received, by whom,
reporting point or at a clearance limit in your area.
and frequency used.
2. Its clearance void time. c. Last position report and how determined.
3. A VFR or IFR aircraft arriving at an airport d. Aircraft beacon code.
not served by an air traffic control tower or flight
service station fails to cancel a flight plan after e. Number of persons on board.
receiving instructions on how to cancel. f. Fuel status.
NOTE− g. Facility working aircraft and frequency.
If you have reason to believe that an aircraft is overdue
prior to 30 minutes, take the appropriate action h. Last known position, how determined, time,
immediately. estimated present position, and maximum range of
flight of the aircraft based on remaining fuel and
b. Consider an aircraft to be in an emergency
airspeed.
status and initiate ALNOT procedures in this section
immediately when there is an abnormal simultaneous i. Position of other aircraft near aircraft’s route of
loss of radar and communications with an IFR aircraft flight, when requested.
or VFR/SVFR aircraft receiving flight following j. Whether or not an ELT signal has been heard or
services. This situation may be applicable to an reported in the vicinity of the last known position.
aircraft operating in a non-radar environment and an
unexpected/abnormal loss of communications oc- k. Other pertinent information.
curs. REFERENCE−
c. The ARTCC in whose area the aircraft is FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 10−2−5, Emergency Situations.
reported as overdue, missing or lost will make these NOTE−
determinations and takes any subsequent action FSSs serve as the central points for collecting and
required. disseminating information on an overdue or missing
aircraft which is not on an IFR flight plan. Non−FSS ATC
d. If you have reason to believe that an aircraft is facilities that receive telephone calls or other inquiries
overdue prior to 30 minutes, take the appropriate regarding these flights must refer these calls and inquiries
action immediately. to the appropriate FSS.
e. The center in whose area the aircraft is first

10−3−3. INFORMATION TO BE
unreported or overdue will make these determina-
FORWARDED TO RCC
tions and takes any subsequent action required.
REFERENCE− EN ROUTE
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−3−4, Departure Release, Hold for
Release, Release Times, Departure Restrictions, and Clearance Void
When an aircraft is considered to be in emergency
Times. status or an IFR aircraft is overdue, the ARTCC must
Overdue Aircraft 10−3−1

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
alert the RCC and forward the following information, discretion, the ALNOT may be issued to cover the
as available: maximum range of the aircraft.
a. Facility and person calling. NOTE−
1. An ALNOT must be issued before the RCC can begin
b. Flight plan, including color of aircraft, if search and rescue procedures.
known.
2. Flight plan information on military aircraft is available
c. Time of last transmission received, by whom, at the FSS serving as a tie-in station for the departure or
and frequency used. destination airport. FAA tie-in stations for airports in the
continental U.S. are listed in FAA Order JO 7350.8,
d. Last position report and how determined. Location Identifiers. In the West Flight Services Area
e. Aircraft beacon code. Office, tie−in stations are listed in service area
publications entitled, “Flight Plan Routing and Airport
f. Action taken by reporting facility and proposed Search Directory.” For flights with overseas departure
action. points, the information is available through the destination
FSS or the appropriate IFSS.
g. Number of persons on board.
b. Upon receipt of an INREQ or ALNOT, check
h. Fuel status.
the position records to determine whether the aircraft
i. Facility working aircraft and frequency. has contacted your facility. Notify the originator of
the results or status of this check within one hour of
j. Last known position, how determined, time,
the time the alert was received. Retain the alert in an
estimated present position, and maximum range of
active status, and immediately notify the originator of
flight of the aircraft based on remaining fuel and
subsequent contact, until cancellation is received.
airspeed.
k. Position of other aircraft near aircraft’s route of c. Include pertinent information in the ALNOT
flight, when requested. that will aid the RCC and SAR Teams in conducting
the SAR mission. When known, include:
l. Whether or not an ELT signal has been heard or
reported in the vicinity of the last known position. 1. Last known position.
m. Other pertinent information. 2. Time.

REFERENCE− 3. Aircraft beacon code.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 10−2−5, Emergency Situations.
d. When information is obtained not previously
NOTE− contained in the ALNOT, issue an amended ALNOT
FSSs serve as the central points for collecting and to update information that will assist the SAR
disseminating information on an overdue or missing providers.
aircraft which is not on an IFR flight plan. Non−FSS ATC
facilities that receive telephone calls or other inquiries
regarding these flights must refer these calls and inquiries 10−3−5. RESPONSIBILITY TRANSFER TO
to the appropriate FSS. RCC
10−3−4. ALNOT EN ROUTE
EN ROUTE Transfer responsibility for further search to the RCC

when one of the following occurs:
a. In addition to routing to the regional office
operations center for the area in which the facility is a. Thirty minutes have elapsed after the estimated
located, issue an ALNOT to all centers and Area B aircraft fuel exhaustion time.
circuits, generally 50 miles on either side of the route b. The aircraft has not been located within one
of flight from the last reported position to destination. hour after ALNOT issuance.
Include the original or amended flight plan, as
appropriate, and the last known position of the c. The ALNOT search has been completed with
aircraft. At the recommendation of the RCC or at your negative results.
10−3−2 Overdue Aircraft

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
10−3−6. LAST KNOWN POSITION DETERM- aircraft known to be operating near the aircraft in
INATION distress.
d. Forward this information to the RCC or the
a. To assist the RCC and SAR Teams in the ARTCC as appropriate.
conduct of the SAR mission, provide the most
accurate latitude and longitude available to the FAA
10−3−7. ALNOT CANCELLATION
using en route and terminal radar sensor data near the
aircraft’s last known position. EN ROUTE
a. When directed by the RCC, cancel the
b. If necessary to prevent an undue delay, utilize
ALNOT when the aircraft is located or the search
any available method to determine the initial latitude
and longitude. Follow-up as soon as possible with a is abandoned.
formal latitude and longitude using the appropriate b. Include pertinent information in the
terminal or en route facility data extraction tools. cancellation that will aid the RCC, SAR Teams, and
FAA SAR management to include the location where
c. If available, solicit the assistance of other the aircraft or wreckage was found.
Overdue Aircraft 10−3−3

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 4. Control Actions
10−4−1. TRAFFIC RESTRICTIONS operators or pilots of other aircraft concur. This

concurrence must be maintained for a period of
IFR traffic which could be affected by an overdue or
30 minutes after the suspension period has expired.
unreported aircraft must be restricted or suspended
REFERENCE−
unless radar separation is used. The facility FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−3−4, Departure Release, Hold for
responsible must restrict or suspend IFR traffic for a Release, Release Times, Departure Restrictions, and Clearance Void
period of 30 minutes following the applicable time Times.
listed in subparagraphs a through e:
10−4−4. COMMUNICATIONS FAILURE
a. The time at which approach clearance was
delivered to the pilot. Take the following actions, as appropriate, if
two-way radio communications are lost with an
b. The EFC time delivered to the pilot. aircraft:
c. The arrival time over the NAVAID serving the NOTE−
destination airport. 1. When an IFR aircraft experiences two-way radio
communications failure, air traffic control is based on
d. The current estimate, either the control anticipated pilot actions. Pilot procedures and recom−
facility’s or the pilot’s, whichever is later, at: mended practices are set forth in the AIM, CFRs, and
pertinent military regulations.
1. The appropriate en route NAVAID or fix, and
2. Should the pilot of an aircraft equipped with a coded
2. The NAVAID serving the destination airport. radar beacon transponder experience a loss of two-way
e. The release time and, if issued, the clearance radio capability, the pilot can be expected to adjust the
void time. transponder to reply on Mode 3/A Code 7600.
REFERENCE− a. In the event of lost communications with an

FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−3−4, Departure Release, Hold for aircraft under your control jurisdiction use all
Release, Release Times, Departure Restrictions, and Clearance Void appropriate means available to reestablish communi-
Times.
cations with the aircraft. These may include, but are
not limited to, emergency frequencies, NAVAIDs that
10−4−2. LIGHTING REQUIREMENTS are equipped with voice capability, FSS, New York
a. EN ROUTE. At nontower or non−FSS loca- Radio, San Francisco Radio, etc.
tions, request the airport management to light all NOTE−
runway lights, approach lights, and all other required 1. New York Radio and San Francisco Radio are operated
airport lighting systems for at least 30 minutes before by Collins Aerospace (formerly ARINC, Incorporated)
the ETA of the unreported aircraft until the aircraft under contract with the FAA for communications services.
has been located or for 30 minutes after its fuel supply These Radio facilities have the capability of relaying
is estimated to be exhausted. information to/from ATC facilities throughout the country.
2. Aircraft communications addressing and reporting
b. TERMINAL. Operate runway lights, approach system (ACARS) or selective calling (SELCAL) may be
lights, and all other required airport lighting systems utilized to reestablish radio communications with suitably
for at least 30 minutes before the ETA of the equipped aircraft. ACARS can be utilized by contacting
unreported aircraft until the aircraft has been located San Francisco Radio at (800)−621−0140 or New York
or for 30 minutes after its fuel supply is estimated to Radio at (800) 645−1095. Provide the aircraft call sign,
be exhausted. approximate location, and contact instructions. In order to
REFERENCE− utilize the SELCAL system, the SELCAL code for the
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−4−1, Emergency Lighting. subject aircraft must be known. If the SELCAL code is not
contained in the remarks section of the flight plan, contact
10−4−3. TRAFFIC RESUMPTION the pertinent air carrier dispatch office to determine the
code. Then contact San Francisco Radio (for aircraft over
After the 30−minute traffic suspension period has the Pacific, U.S. or Mexico) or New York Radio (for aircraft
expired, resume normal air traffic control if the over the Atlantic, Gulf of Mexico, or Caribbean) and
Control Actions 10−4−1

JO
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3/15/07
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provide the aircraft call sign, SELCAL code, approximate 3. Request the aircraft to change to “stand-by”
location, and contact instructions. for sufficient time for you to be sure that the lack of
b. Broadcast clearances through any available a target is the result of the requested action.
means of communications including the voice feature
of NAVAIDs. PHRASEOLOGY−
REPLY NOT RECEIVED, (appropriate instructions).
NOTE−
1. Some UHF equipped aircraft have VHF navigation (Action) OBSERVED, (additional instructions/informa-
equipment and can receive 121.5 MHz. tion if necessary).
2. “Any available means” includes the use of FSS and
New York Radio or San Francisco Radio. d. Broadcast a clearance for the aircraft to proceed
REFERENCE− to its filed alternate airport at the MEA if the aircraft
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−2−2, Clearance Prefix. operator concurs.
c. Attempt to re-establish communication by
REFERENCE−
having the aircraft use its transponder or make turns FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−2−4, Radio Failure.
to acknowledge clearances and answer questions. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 9−2−6, IFR Military Training Routes.
Request any of the following in using the
transponder: e. If radio communications have not been (re)
established with the aircraft after 5 minutes, consider
1. Request the aircraft to reply Mode 3/A
the aircraft’s or pilot’s activity to be suspicious and
“IDENT.”
report it to the OS/CIC per FAA Order JO 7610.4,
2. Request the aircraft to reply on Code 7600 or Chapter 7, Procedures for Handling Suspicious Flight
if already on Code 7600, the appropriate stratum Situations and Hijacked Aircraft, and paragraph
code. 2−1−26f, Supervisory Notification, of this order.
10−4−2 Control Actions

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 5. Miscellaneous Operations
10−5−1. EXPLOSIVE CARGO a. The emergency equipment crew.

TERMINAL
When you receive information that an emergency b. The airport management.
landing will be made with explosive cargo aboard,
inform the pilot of the safest or least congested airport c. The appropriate military agencies, when
areas. Relay the explosive cargo information to: requested by the pilot.
Miscellaneous Operations 10−5−1

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 6. Oceanic Emergency Procedures
10−6−1. APPLICATION 1. Following the alert phase when further

attempts to establish communications with the
The procedures in this section are to be used solely in aircraft and more widespread inquiries are
oceanic airspace. unsuccessful; or
2. When the fuel on board is considered to be
10−6−2. PHASES OF EMERGENCY exhausted or to be insufficient for the aircraft to reach
safety; or
Emergency phases are described as follows:
3. When information is received which indi-
a. Uncertainty phase (INCERFA). When there is cates that the operating efficiency of the aircraft has
concern about the safety of an aircraft or its been impaired to the extent that a forced landing is
occupants, an INCERFA exists: likely; or
1. When communication from an aircraft has 4. When information is received or it is
not been received within 30 minutes after the time a reasonably certain that the aircraft is about to make or
communication should have been received or after has made a forced landing.
the time an unsuccessful attempt to establish
communication with such aircraft was first made, 10−6−3. ALERTING SERVICE AND
whichever is earlier; or SPECIAL ASSISTANCE
2. When an aircraft fails to arrive within a. Provide alerting service to:
30 minutes after the time of arrival last estimated by
1. All aircraft receiving ATC service;
the pilot or by the ATC units, whichever is later.
2. All other aircraft which have filed a flight
b. Alert phase (ALERFA). When there is plan or which are otherwise known to the ATC unit;
apprehension about the safety of an aircraft and its and
occupants, an ALERFA exists:
3. Any aircraft known or believed to be the
1. Following the uncertainty phase when subject of unlawful interference.
subsequent attempts to establish communications
with the aircraft, or inquiries to other relevant sources b. When alerting service is required, the responsi-
have failed to reveal any information about the bility for coordinating such service must, unless
aircraft; or otherwise established by letter of agreement, rest
with the facility serving the FIR or CTA:
2. When information has been received which
1. Within which the aircraft was flying at the
indicates that the operating efficiency of the aircraft
time of last air-ground radio contact; or
has been impaired but not to the extent that a forced
landing is likely; or 2. Which the aircraft was about to enter if the
last air-ground contact was established at or close to
3. When communication from an aircraft has the boundary; or
not been received within 60 minutes after the time a
communication should have been received or after 3. Within which the point of destination is
the time an unsuccessful attempt to establish located if the aircraft:
communication with such aircraft was first made, (a) Was not equipped with suitable two-way
whichever is earlier. radio communications equipment; or
c. Distress phase (DETRESFA). When there is (b) Was not under obligation to transmit
reasonable certainty that the aircraft and its occupants position reports.
are threatened by grave and imminent danger, a REFERENCE−
DETRESFA exists: FAA Order JO 7110.65, Chapter 8, Section 2, Coordination.
Oceanic Emergency Procedures 10−6−1

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
c. The responsible Area Control Center (ACC) 5. The air traffic unit which made the last radio
must serve as the control point for: contact, the time, and the frequency used.
1. Collecting all information relevant to a state 6. The aircraft’s last position report, how it was
of emergency of an aircraft; received, and what facility received it.
2. Forwarding that information to the appropri- 7. Color and distinctive marks of aircraft.
ate RCC; and 8. Any action taken by reporting office.
3. Coordinating with other facilities concerned. 9. Other pertinent remarks.
d. The responsibility of the ACC to provide h. An INCERFA phase ends with the receipt of
alerting service for military aircraft may be waived any information or position report on the aircraft.
upon a written or recorded request from a military Cancel the INCERFA by a message addressed to the
agency. In this case, the military request must state same stations as the INCERFA message.
that the military agency assumes full responsibility 1. An ALERFA ends when:
for their aircraft while the aircraft are operating in the
oceanic airspace. (a) Evidence exists that would ease apprehen-
sion about the safety of the aircraft and its occupants;
e. Responsibility to provide alerting service for or
flight operations conducted under the “due regard” or
(b) The concerned aircraft lands. Cancel the
“operational” prerogative of military aircraft is
ALERFA message by a message addressed to the
assumed by the military. When “due regard”
same stations as the ALERFA message.
operations are scheduled to end with aircraft filed
under ICAO procedures, the ACC may, if specified in 2. A DETRESFA ends when the:
a letter of agreement, assume responsibility for (a) Aircraft successfully lands; or
alerting service at proposed time filed.
(b) RCC advises of a successful rescue; or
f. In the event of INCERFA, ALERFA, or
DETRESFA, notify the following: (c) RCC advises of termination of SAR
activities. Cancel the DETRESFA by a message
1. When practicable, the aircraft operator. addressed to the same stations as the DETRESFA
message.
2. The appropriate RCC.
i. A separate chronological record should be kept
3. Aeronautical stations having en route com- on each ALERFA and DETRESFA together with a
munications guard responsibilities at the point of chart which displays the projected route of the
departure, along or adjacent to the route of flight, and aircraft, position reports received, route of
at the destination. interceptor aircraft, and other pertinent information.
4. ACCs having jurisdiction over the proposed
route of flight from the last reported position to the 10−6−4. INFLIGHT CONTINGENCIES
destination airport. a. If an aircraft over water requests weather, sea
g. INCERFA, ALERFA, and DETRESFA mes- conditions, ditching information, and/or assistance
sages must include the following information, if from surface vessels, or if the controller feels that this
available, in the order listed: information may be necessary for aircraft safety, it
should be requested from the RCC. Also, an
1. INCERFA, ALERFA, or DETRESFA appropriate AMVER SURPIC should be asked for if
according to the phase of the emergency. requested by the aircraft or deemed beneficial by
control personnel.
2. Agency and person originating the message.
NOTE−
3. Nature of the emergency. The AMVER Center can deliver, in a matter of minutes, a
SURPIC of vessels in the area of a SAR incident, including
4. Significant flight plan information. their predicted positions and their characteristics.
10−6−2 Oceanic Emergency Procedures

12/2/21
6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z CHG 1
JO 7110.65Z
b. In all cases of aircraft ditching, the airspace (c) Type aircraft.

required for SAR operations must be determined by
(d) Route if appropriate.
the RCC. The ACC must block that airspace until the
RCC advises the airspace is no longer required. An (e) Altitude vacated.
International Notice to Air Missions (NOTAM) must
be issued describing the airspace affected. (f) Other information.
EXAMPLE−
c. The following actions will be taken in the event “Attention all aircraft in the vicinity of Trout, a northbound
an aircraft must make an emergency descent: D-C Ten on A-T-S Route Alfa Seven Hundred is making an
1. In the event an aircraft requests an emergency emergency descent from flight level three three zero.”
(Repeat as you deem appropriate.)
descent:
5. If traffic conditions permit, provide traffic
(a) Issue a clearance to the requested altitude
information to the affected aircraft.
if approved separation can be provided.
6. Immediately after an emergency broadcast or
(b) Advise the aircraft of the traffic, and
traffic information has been made, issue appropriate
request its intentions if traffic prevents an
clearances or instructions, as necessary, to all aircraft
unrestricted descent.
involved.
PHRASEOLOGY−
ATC ADVISES (aircraft identification) UNABLE TO
APPROVE UNRESTRICTED DESCENT. 10−6−5. SERVICES TO RESCUE AIRCRAFT
TRAFFIC (traffic information).
a. Provide IFR separation between the SAR and
REQUEST INTENTIONS.
the aircraft in distress, except when visual or radar
2. In the event an aircraft is making or will make contact has been established by the search and rescue
an emergency descent without a clearance: aircraft and the pilots of both aircraft concur, IFR
separation may be discontinued.
(a) Advise other aircraft of the emergency
descent. b. Clear the SAR aircraft to a fixed clearance limit
PHRASEOLOGY− rather than to the aircraft in distress, which is a
ATC ADVISES (aircraft identification/all aircraft) BE moving fix. Issue route clearances that are consistent
ALERT FOR EMERGENCY DESCENT IN THE VICINITY with that of the distressed aircraft.
OF (latitude/longitude) FROM (altitude/FL) TO
(altitude/FL).
c. Advise the rescue aircraft, as soon as
practicable, of any factors that could adversely affect
(b) Advise other aircraft when the emergency its mission; e.g., unfavorable weather conditions,
descent is complete. anticipated problems, the possibility of not being able
PHRASEOLOGY− to approve an IFR descent through en route traffic,
(Aircraft identification/all aircraft) EMERGENCY etc.
DESCENT AT (location) COMPLETED.
d. Advise the appropriate rescue agency of all
3. Upon notification that an aircraft is making an pertinent information as it develops.
emergency descent through other traffic, take action
immediately to safeguard all aircraft concerned. e. Forward immediately any information about the
action being taken by the RCC, other organizations,
4. When appropriate, broadcast by ATC com- or aircraft to the aircraft concerned.
munications, by radio navigation aids, and/or through
aeronautical communication stations/services an f. Advise the aircraft operator of the current status
emergency message to all aircraft in the vicinity of the of the SAR operation as soon as practicable.
descending aircraft. Include the following informa- g. Since prompt, correct, and complete informa-
tion: tion is the key to successful rescue operations, ensure
that this information is swiftly and smoothly supplied
(a) Location of emergency descent.
to those organizations actively engaged in rescue
(b) Direction of flight. operations.
Oceanic Emergency Procedures 10−6−3

12/2/21
6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z CHG 1
JO 7110.65Z
Section 7. Ground Missile Emergencies
10−7−1. INFORMATION RELAY 2. The airspace to be protected for the route

being flown.
When you receive information concerning a ground
missile emergency, notify other concerned facilities b. Vertical separation− 6,000 feet above the
and take action to have alerting advisories issued by: surface over the emergency location.
a. EN ROUTE. Air carrier company radio sta-
tions for each VFR company aircraft which is or will
be operating in the vicinity of the emergency. 10−7−3. VFR MINIMA
b. EN ROUTE. FSSs adjacent to the emergency Advise all known VFR aircraft which are, or will be,
location. operating in the vicinity of a ground missile
emergency, to avoid the emergency location by 1 mile
c. TERMINAL. Relay all information concerning
laterally or 6,000 feet vertically, or by a greater
a ground missile emergency to the ARTCC within
distance or altitude, when suggested by the notifying
whose area the emergency exists and disseminate as
official.
a NOTAM.
REFERENCE−
P/CG Term − Notice to Air Missions.
10−7−4. SMOKE COLUMN AVOIDANCE
10−7−2. IFR AND SVFR MINIMA Advise all aircraft to avoid any observed smoke
Reroute IFR and SVFR aircraft as necessary to avoid columns in the vicinity of a ground missile
the emergency location by one of the following emergency.
minima, or by greater minima when suggested by the
notifying official:
10−7−5. EXTENDED NOTIFICATION
a. Lateral separation− 1 mile between the
emergency location and either of the following: EN ROUTE
1. An aircraft under radar control and the When reports indicate that an emergency will exist
emergency location which can be accurately for an extended period of time, a Notice to Air
determined by reference to the radar scope. Missions may be issued.
Ground Missile Emergencies 10−7−1

12/2/21
6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z CHG 1
JO 7110.65Z
Chapter 11. Traffic Management Procedures

Section 1. General
11−1−1. DUTY RESPONSIBILITY Operation and Administration, and as designated by

facility directive.
a. The mission of the traffic management system
is to balance air traffic demand with system capacity 6. Ensure changes to TBM operations and TMIs
to ensure the maximum efficient utilization of the are implemented in a timely manner.
NAS. b. OS/CIC must:
b. TBFM must be used to the maximum extent 1. Keep the TMU and affected sectors apprised
feasible in preference to miles-in-trail initiatives. of situations or circumstances that may cause
congestion or delays.
c. It is recognized that the ATCS is integral in the
execution of the traffic management mission. 2. Coordinate with the TMU and personnel
providing air traffic services to develop appropriate
NOTE−
TBM operations or TMIs for sectors and airports in
Complete details of TBM, traffic management initiatives
and programs can be found in FAA Order JO 7210.3,
their area of responsibility.
Facility Operation and Administration. 3. Continuously review TBM operations and
TMIs affecting their area of responsibility and
11−1−2. DUTIES AND RESPONSIBILITIES coordinate with TMU for extensions, revisions, or
cancellations.
a. Supervisory Traffic Management Coordinator−
4. Ensure that TBM operations and TMIs are
in−Charge (STMCIC) must:
carried out by personnel providing air traffic services.
1. Ensure an operational briefing is conducted at 5. Where authorized, perform data entries to
least once during the day and evening shifts. keep the activation status of designated EDST
Participants must include, at a minimum, the Airspace Configuration Elements current.
STMCIC, Operations Supervisor−in−Charge
(OSMIC)/Controller−in−Charge (CIC) and other 6. Perform assigned actions in the event of an
interested personnel as designated by facility EDST outage or degradation, in accordance with the
management. Discussions at the meeting should requirements of FAA Order JO 7210.3, Facility
include meteorological conditions (present and Operation and Administration, and as designated by
forecasted), staffing, equipment status, runways in facility directive.
use, Airport Arrival Rate (AAR), TBM use, and 7. Ensure changes to TBM operations and TMIs
Traffic Management Initiatives (TMIs) (present and are implemented in a timely manner.
anticipated). c. Personnel providing air traffic services must:
2. Assume responsibility for TMC duties when 1. Ensure that TBM operations and TMIs are
not staffed. enforced within their area of responsibility. TBM
3. Ensure that TBM operations and TMIs are operations and TMIs do not have priority over
carried out by personnel providing traffic manage- maintaining:
ment services. (a) Separation of aircraft.
4. Where authorized, perform EDST data (b) Procedural integrity of the sector.
entries to keep the activation status of designated 2. Keep the OS/CIC and TMU apprised of
EDST Airspace Configuration Elements current. situations or circumstances that may cause conges-
5. Perform assigned actions in the event of an tion or delays.
EDST outage or degradation, in accordance with the 3. Continuously review TBM operations and
requirements of FAA Order JO 7210.3, Facility TMIs affecting their area of responsibility and
General 11−1−1
JO
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3/15/07
6/17/21
coordinate with OS/CIC and TMU for extensions, 3. When departure scheduling or Call for
revisions, or cancellations. Release is in effect, release aircraft so they are
airborne within a window that extends from 2
4. Where authorized, perform data entries to
minutes prior and ends 1 minute after the assigned
keep the activation status of designated EDST
time, unless otherwise coordinated.
Airspace Configuration Elements current.
NOTE−
5. Perform assigned actions in the event of an Coordination may be verbal, electronic, or written.
EDST outage or degradation, in accordance with the
requirements of FAA Order JO 7210.3, Facility
Operation and Administration, and as designated by 11−1−3. TIME BASED FLOW
facility directive. MANAGEMENT (TBFM)
d. ARTCCs, unless otherwise coordinated, must: During periods of metering, personnel providing air
traffic services must:
1. Support TBFM operations and monitor
TBFM equipment to improve situational awareness a. Display TBFM schedule information on the
for a system approach to TBM operations. situation display.
2. Monitor arrival flow for potential metering b. Comply with TBFM-generated metering times
actions/changes and, if necessary, initiate within +/- 1 minute.
coordination with all facilities to discuss the change
1. If TBFM−generated metering time accuracy
to the metering plan.
within +/− 1 minute cannot be used for specific
e. TRACONs, unless otherwise coordinated, aircraft due to significant jumps in the delay
must: countdown timer (DCT), then TMIs may be used
1. Support TBFM operations and monitor between those aircraft such as miles−in−trail (MIT)
TBFM equipment to improve situational awareness or minutes−in−trail (MINIT) to assist in delay
for a system approach to TBM operations. absorption until stability resumes.
2. Monitor arrival flow for potential metering 2. An exception to the requirement to comply
actions/changes and, if necessary, initiate within +/- 1 minute may be authorized for certain
coordination with all facilities to discuss the change ARTCC sectors if explicitly defined in an appropriate
to the metering plan. facility directive.
3. Schedule internal departures in accordance c. When compliance is not possible, coordinate

with specific written procedures and agreements with OS/CIC, personnel providing traffic
developed with overlying ARTCCs and adjacent management services, and adjacent facilities/sectors
facilities. as appropriate.
f. ATCTs, unless otherwise coordinated, must: NOTE−

TBFM accuracy of generated metering times is predicated
1. Monitor TBFM equipment to improve on several factors, including vectoring outside of TBFM
situational awareness for a system approach to TBM route conformance boundaries (route recovery logic),
operations. certain trajectory ground speed calculations, and when
TMU resequences a specific flight or flight list. Caution
2. When equipped, and departure scheduling is should be used in these situations to minimize impact on
in effect, use automation to obtain a departure release surrounding sector traffic and complexity levels, flight
time from the TBM system. efficiencies, and user preferences.
11−1−2 General
6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Chapter 12. Canadian Airspace Procedures

Section 1. General Control
12−1−1. APPLICATION communications with the appropriate ATC agency

prior to entering the airspace.
Where control responsibility within Canadian
airspace has been formally delegated to the FAA by e. Class E airspace. Airspace within which both
the Transport Canada Aviation Group, apply basic IFR and VFR flights are permitted, but for VFR flight
FAA procedures except for the Canadian procedures there are no special requirements.
contained in this chapter. f. Class F airspace. Airspace of defined dimen-
NOTE− sions within which activities must be confined
In 1985, the U.S. and Canada established an agreement because of their nature, or within which limitations
recognizing the inherent safety of the ATC procedures are imposed upon aircraft operations that are not a
exercised by the other country. This agreement permits the part of those activities, or both. Special use airspace
use of ATC procedures of one country when that country is may be classified as Class F advisory or Class F
exercising ATC in the airspace over the territory of the restricted.
other country insofar as they are not inconsistent with, or
repugnant to, the laws and regulations or unique g. Class G airspace. Uncontrolled airspace
operational requirements of the country over whose within which ATC has neither the authority nor
territory such airspace is located. Accordingly, this responsibility for exercising control over air traffic.
chapter was revised to include only those Canadian
procedures that must be used because of a Canadian 12−1−3. ONE THOUSAND−ON−TOP
regulatory or unique operational requirement.
Clear an aircraft to maintain “at least 1,000 feet-on-
12−1−2. AIRSPACE CLASSIFICATION top” in lieu of “VFR−on−top,” provided:
a. The pilot requests it.
a. Class A airspace. Controlled airspace within
which only IFR flights are permitted. Airspace NOTE−
It is the pilot’s responsibility to ensure that the requested
designated from the base of all controlled high level
operation can be conducted at least 1,000 feet above all
airspace up to and including FL 600. cloud, haze, smoke, or other formation, with a flight
b. Class B airspace. Controlled airspace within visibility of 3 miles or more. A pilot’s request can be
which only IFR and Controlled VFR (CVFR) flights considered as confirmation that conditions are adequate.
are permitted. Includes all controlled low level b. The pilot will not operate within Class A or
airspace above 12,500 feet ASL or at and above the Class B airspace.
minimum en route IFR altitude, (whichever is higher)
up to but not including 18,000 feet ASL. ATC 12−1−4. SEPARATION
procedures pertinent to IFR flights must be applied to
CVFR aircraft. Apply a lateral, longitudinal, or vertical separation
minimum between aircraft operating in accordance
NOTE− with an IFR or CVFR clearance, regardless of the
The CVFR pilot is responsible to maintain VFR flight and weather conditions.
visual reference to the ground at all times.
c. Class C airspace. Controlled airspace within 12−1−5. DEPARTURE CLEARANCE/
which both IFR and VFR flights are permitted, but COMMUNICATION FAILURE
VFR flights require a clearance from ATC to enter.
Base controller action regarding radio failures in
d. Class D airspace. Controlled airspace within Canadian airspace on the requirement for pilots to
which both IFR and VFR flights are permitted, but comply with Canadian Airspace Regulations, which
VFR flights do not require a clearance from ATC to are similar to 14 CFR Section 91.185; however, the
enter, however, they must establish two−way following major difference must be considered when
General Control 12−1−1

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
planning control actions. Except when issued 12−1−7. SPECIAL VFR (SVFR)
alternate radio failure instructions by ATC, pilots will
NOTE−
adhere to the following: If flying a turbine-powered
Pilots do not have to be IFR qualified to fly SVFR at night,
(turboprop or turbojet) aircraft and cleared on nor does the aircraft have to be equipped for IFR flight.
departure to a point other than the destination,
proceed to the destination airport in accordance with a. Within a control zone where there is an airport
the flight plan, maintaining the last assigned altitude controller on duty, approve or refuse a pilot’s request
or flight level or the minimum en route IFR altitude, for SVFR on the basis of current or anticipated IFR
whichever is higher, until 10 minutes beyond the traffic only. If approved, specify the period of time
point specified in the clearance (clearance limit), and during which SVFR flight is permitted.
then proceed at altitude(s) or flight level(s) filed in the
b. Within a control zone where there is no airport
flight plan. When the aircraft will enter U.S. airspace
controller on duty, authorize or refuse an aircraft’s
within 10 minutes after passing the clearance limit,
request for SVFR on the basis of:
the climb to the flight planned border crossing
altitude is to be commenced at the estimated time of 1. Current or anticipated IFR traffic, and
crossing the Canada/U.S. boundary.
2. Official ceiling and visibility reports.
12−1−6. PARACHUTE JUMPING c. Canadian SVFR weather minimums for:
Do not authorize parachute jumping without prior
1. Aircraft other than helicopters. Flight visi-
permission from the appropriate Canadian authority.
bility (ground visibility when reported) 1 mile.
NOTE−
Canadian regulations require written authority from the 2. Helicopters. Flight visibility (ground visi-
Ministry of Transport. bility when available) 1/2 mile.
12−1−2 General Control

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Chapter 13. Decision Support Tools

Section 1. ERAM − En Route
13−1−1. DESCRIPTION restarted before transfer of control, unless otherwise

coordinated.
En Route Decision Support Tool (EDST) is an
integrated function of ERAM that is used by the NOTE−
sector team in performing its strategic planning The requirement in subparagraph 13−1−2e does not apply
to aircraft entering a non EDST facility.
responsibilities. EDST uses flight plan data, forecast
winds, aircraft performance characteristics, and track
data to derive expected aircraft trajectories, and to 13−1−3. TRIAL PLANNING
predict conflicts between aircraft and between When EDST is operational at the sector and when
aircraft and special use or designated airspace. It also sector priorities permit, use the trial plan capability to
provides trial planning and enhanced flight data evaluate:
management capabilities.
a. Solutions to predicted conflicts.
13−1−2. CONFLICT DETECTION AND b. The feasibility of granting user requests.

RESOLUTION c. The feasibility of removing a flight direction
a. Actively scan EDST information for predicted constraint (i.e., inappropriate altitude for direction of
aircraft-to-aircraft and aircraft-to-airspace alerts. flight) for an aircraft.
d. The feasibility of removing a static restriction
b. When a conflict probe alert is displayed,
for an aircraft.
evaluate the alert and take appropriate action as early
as practical, in accordance with duty priorities.
13−1−4. CONFLICT PROBE-BASED
c. Prioritize the evaluation and resolution of CLEARANCES
conflict probe alerts to ensure the safe, expeditious,
and efficient flow of air traffic. When the results of a trial plan based upon a user
request indicate the absence of alerts, every effort
NOTE−
should be made to grant the user request, unless the
Conflict probe alerts are based on standard radar
separation. Conflict probe does not account for instances
change is likely to adversely affect operations at
in which greater separation may be needed (e.g., another sector.
non-standard formations, A380) or where reduced
separation is permitted (e.g., 3mile airspace). 13−1−5. THE AIRCRAFT LIST (ACL),
d. When a conflict probe alert is displayed and DEPARTURE LIST (DL) AND FLIGHT DATA
when sector priorities permit, give consideration to MANAGEMENT
the following in determining a solution: a. The ACL must be used as the sector team’s
1. Solutions that involve direct routing, altitude primary source of flight data.
changes, removal of a flight direction constraint b. Actively scan EDST to identify automated
(i.e., inappropriate altitude for direction of flight), notifications that require sector team action.
and/or removal of a static restriction for one or more
pertinent aircraft. c. When an ACL or DL entry has a Remarks
indication, the Remarks field of the flight plan must
2. Impact on surrounding sector traffic and be reviewed. Changes to the Remarks field must also
complexity levels, flight efficiencies, and user be reviewed.
preferences.
d. Highlighting an entry on the ACL or DL must
e. When the Stop Probe feature is activated for an be used to indicate the flight requires an action or
aircraft, conflict probe for that aircraft shall be special attention.
ERAM − En Route 13−1−1

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
e. The Special Posting Area (SPA) should be used b. When the Coordination Menu is used and the
to group aircraft that have special significance flight plan is subsequently changed, remove the
(e.g., aircraft to be sequenced, air refueling missions, yellow coding from the Coordination Indicator after
formations). any appropriate action has been taken.
f. Sector teams shall post flight progress strips for
any non-radar flights. 13−1−7. HOLDING
g. A flight progress strip shall be posted for any For flights in hold, use the Hold View, Hold Data
flight plan not contained in the EAS. Menu, hold message, a flight progress strip, or a
h. Sector teams shall post any flight progress facility approved worksheet, to annotate holding
strip(s) that are deemed necessary for safe or efficient instructions, in accordance with facility directives.
operations. The sector team shall comply with all
applicable facility directives to maintain posted flight 13−1−8. RECORDING OF CONTROL DATA
progress strips.
a. All control information not otherwise recorded
i. The Drop Track Delete option shall be used in via automation recordings or voice recordings must
accordance with facility directives. be manually recorded using approved methods.
b. When a verbal point out has been approved,
13−1−6. MANUAL COORDINATION AND
remove the yellow color coding on the ACL.
THE COORDINATION MENU
c. When the ACL or DL Free Text Area is used to
a. Where automated coordination with a facility is
enter control information, authorized abbreviations
not available (e.g., an international facility, a VFR
must be used. You may use:
tower), use the Coordination Menu or a flight
progress strip to annotate manual coordination status, 1. The clearance abbreviations authorized in
in accordance with facility directives. TBL 13−1−1.
TBL 13−1−1
Clearance Abbreviations
A Cleared to airport (point of intended landing)
B Center clearance delivered
C ATC clears (when clearance relayed through non−ATC facility)
CAF Cleared as filed
D Cleared to depart from the fix
F Cleared to the fix
H Cleared to hold and instructions issued
N Clearance not delivered
O Cleared to the outer marker
PD Cleared to climb/descend at pilot’s discretion
Q Cleared to fly specified sectors of a NAVAID defined in terms of courses, bearings, radials,
or quadrants within a designated radius
T Cleared through (for landing and takeoff through intermediate point)
V Cleared over the fix
X Cleared to cross (airway, route, radial) at (point)
Z Tower jurisdiction
13−1−2 ERAM − En Route

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
2. The miscellaneous abbreviations authorized d. When the ACL or DL Free Text Area is used to
in TBL 13−1−2. enter control information, the Free Text Area must
remain open and visible. When no longer relevant,
3. The EDST equivalents for control informa- the information entered into the Free Text Area must
tion symbols authorized in TBL 13−1−3. be updated or deleted.
e. Control information entered in the Free Text
4. Plain language markings when it will aid in Area must be used for reference purposes only.
understanding information. NOTE−
Information entered into the Free Text Area does not pass
5. Locally approved abbreviations. on handoff and, if necessary, must be coordinated.
TBL 13−1−2
Miscellaneous Abbreviations
BC Back course approach
CT Contact approach
FA Final approach
FMS Flight management system approach
GPS GPS approach
I Initial approach
ILS ILS approach
MA Missed approach
NDB Nondirectional radio beacon approach
OTP VFR conditions−on−top
PA Precision approach
PT Procedure turn
RA Resolution advisory (Pilot−reported TCAS event)
RH Runway heading
RNAV Area navigation approach
RP Report immediately upon passing (fix/altitude)
RX Report crossing
SA Surveillance approach
SI Straight−in approach
TA TACAN approach
TL Turn left
TR Turn right
VA Visual approach
VR VOR approach

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
TBL 13−1−3 Abbreviation Meaning

EDST Equivalents for Control Information Symbols
− From−to (route, time, etc.)
Abbreviation Meaning Indicates a block altitude assignment.
T dir Depart (direction if specified) Altitudes are inclusive, and the first
(Alt)B(Alt)
↑ Climb and maintain altitude must be lower than the
second (Example 310B370)
↓ Descend and maintain
Clearance void if aircraft not off
CR Cruise V time
ground by time
AT At CL Pilot canceled flight plan
X Cross Information or revised information
M Maintain +info+
forwarded
Join or intercept (airway, jet route, Other than assigned altitude reported
/airway **alt**
track, or course) Example: **50**
= While in controlled airspace ARC mi. dir. DME arc of VORTAC or TACAN
WICA While in control area Contact (facility) or (freq.), (time, fix,
dir ECA Enter control area or altitude if appropriate). Insert
C freq.
frequency only when it is other than
dir OOCA Out of control area
standard
Cleared to enter surface area.
dir ESA R Radar contact
Indicated direction of flight by
appropriate compass letter(s) R alt Requested altitude
Through surface area and altitude R/ Radar service terminated
indicated direction of flight by RX Radar Contact Lost
appropriate compass letter(s).
TSA alt RV Radar vector
Maintain special VFR conditions
(altitude if appropriate) while in RVX Pilot resumed own navigation
surface area HO Handoff completed
Aircraft requested to adjust speed to E Emergency
250 K
250 knots W Warning
Aircraft requested to reduce speed Point out initiated. Indicate the
−20 K
20 knots P appropriate facility, sector, or
Aircraft requested to increase speed position.
+30 K
30 knots FUEL Minimum fuel
Local Special VFR operations in the EFC time Expect further clearance at (time)
vicinity of (name) airport are
− fix Direct to fix
SVFR authorized until (time). Maintain
special VFR conditions (altitude if FRC Full route clearance
appropriate) IAF Initial approach fix
B4 Before NORDO No Radio
AF After or Past PT Procedure turn
/ Until RLS Release
*instructions* Alternate instructions REQ Request
REST Restriction SI Straight in
AOB At or Below
AOA At or Above

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
13−1−9. ACKNOWLEDGEMENT OF 2. Data used to model an individual aircraft’s trajectory

AUTOMATED NOTIFICATION includes route of flight, assigned and interim altitudes,
application/removal of an adapted restriction for that
a. The EDST Inappropriate Altitude for Direction flight, and aircraft type.
of Flight (IAFDOF) feature must be used in the
b. An exception to the requirement to enter or
automatic mode (i.e., IAFDOF Manual must remain
update interim altitudes may be authorized for certain
deselected) unless otherwise authorized in a facility
ARTCC sectors if explicitly defined in an appropriate
directive.
facility directive.
b. Completion of any required coordination for NOTE−
IAFDOF must be acknowledged on the ACL by Conflict probe accuracy in assigning alert notification is
removing the IAFDOF coding. dependent upon entry/update of a flight’s interim altitude.
c. Completion of appropriate coordination for an
Unsuccessful Transmission Message (UTM) must be 13−1−11. DELAY REPORTING
acknowledged on the ACL by removing the UTM a. Adhere to all applicable delay reporting
coding. directives.
d. Issuance of the Expect Departure Clearance b. Delay information must be recorded. Delay
Time (EDCT) to the pilot or other control facility information may be automatically recorded via use of
must be acknowledged on the DL by removing the the ERAM Hold Data Menu, ERAM Hold View, a
EDCT coding. hold message, or manually on flight progress strips or
facility-approved worksheets, in accordance with the
e. IAFDOF, UTM, or EDCT coding must be
facility-defined standard.
acknowledged only after the appropriate action has
been completed. NOTE−
When using the ERAM Hold Data Menu or Hold View,
f. The first sector which displays Embedded Route delays are automatically recorded when the aircraft is
Text (ERT) coding must issue and send/acknowledge cleared out of hold.
the route prior to initiating a hand-off unless verbally
coordinated or as specified in appropriate facility 13−1−12. OVERDUE AIRCRAFT
directives. Do not send/acknowledge ERT coding
unless the sector has track control for the flight or it Upon receipt of the overdue aircraft notification take
has been otherwise coordinated. appropriate actions set forth in Chapter 10, Section 3,
Overdue aircraft.
g. Route Action Notifications (RAN) such as ATC NOTE−
preferred routes or route processing errors must be ESDT overdue aircraft notification is based on radar track
amended at the first control position that displays the data. Updating an aircraft’s route of fight will remove the
RAN unless verbally coordinated or as specified in overdue aircraft notification.
appropriate facility directives. Do not remove RAN
coding unless the sector has track control or it has 13−1−13. USE OF GRAPHICS PLAN
been otherwise coordinated. DISPLAY (GPD)
a. Graphic depictions of flight trajectories may be
13−1−10. CURRENCY OF TRAJECTORY used only to aid in situational awareness and strategic
INFORMATION planning.
a. The sector team shall perform automation b. Do not use trajectory−based positions as a
entries in a timely manner. substitute for radar track position.
NOTE− c. Do not use trajectory−based altitude in lieu of
1. Conflict probe accuracy requires timely updates of data Mode C for altitude confirmation.
used to model each flight’s trajectory. If this data is not
current, the aircraft entries and notification of probe d. Do not use the GPD for radar identification,
results for surrounding sectors and facilities, as well as the position information, transfer of radar identification,
subject sector, may be misleading. radar separation, correlation, or pointouts.

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
13−1−14. FORECAST WINDS 13−1−17. AIRSPACE CONFIGURATION

ELEMENTS
In the event that current forecast wind data are not
available, continue use of conflict probe and trial a. Airspace Configuration Elements are:
planning with appropriate recognition that alert and 1. Special Activity Airspace (SAA).
trajectory data may be affected.
2. Airport Stream Filters (ASF).
13−1−15. INTERFACILITY CONNECTIVITY 3. Adapted restrictions.
In the event of a loss of connectivity to an adjacent b. Where assigned as a sector responsibility by

ERAM facility, continue use of EDST with facility directive, the sector team shall update
appropriate recognition that alert data may be Airspace Configuration Elements to reflect current
affected. status.
NOTE−
Unless otherwise covered in an LOA or facility directive,
13−1−16. SURVEILLANCE AND FLIGHT activating or scheduling the SAA in the Airspace Status
DATA OUTAGES View does NOT constitute coordination for activation of
In the event of a surveillance or flight data outage, airspace.
electronic flight data may be used to support c. For Airspace Configuration Elements desig-
situational awareness while the facility transitions to nated as a sector responsibility, notify the operational
alternate automation capabilities or non radar supervisor when the status of an Airspace Configura-
procedures. tion Element has been modified.

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Section 2. ATOP − Oceanic
The following procedures are applicable to the (b) Unless otherwise prescribed in subpara-
operation of the ATOP Oceanic Air Traffic Control graph a3, controllers must utilize the results from
(ATC) System. conflict probe to initiate and maintain the prescribed
separation minima.
13−2−1. DESCRIPTION 2. Conflict Resolution.
a. The ATOP ATC System is utilized in designated (a) When a controller is alerted to a conflict,
en route/oceanic airspace. ATOP includes both which will occur in his/her sector, take the
surveillance and flight data processing, which appropriate action to resolve the conflict.
provides the controllers with automated decision
(b) The controller responsible for resolving a
support tools to establish, monitor and maintain
conflict must evaluate the alert and take appropriate
separation between aircraft, and aircraft to airspace
action as early as practical, in accordance with duty
and terrain.
priorities, alert priority, and operational
b. ATOP capabilities include: considerations.
1. MEARTS based radar surveillance (c) Unless otherwise specified in facility
processing. directives, the controller must take immediate action
to resolve any “red” conflicts.
2. Conflict Prediction and Reporting.
3. Overriding Conflict Probe.
3. Automatic Dependent Surveillance−
Broadcast (ADS−B). (a) Controllers must not override conflict
probe except for the following situations:
4. Automatic Dependent Surveillance−
Contract (ADS−C). (1) The application of a separation standard
not recognized by conflict probe listed in subpara-
5. Controller Pilot Data Link Communications graph a8(a), or as identified by facility directive.
(CPDLC).
(2) When action has been taken to resolve
6. ATS Interfacility Data Communications the identified conflict and separation has been
(AIDC). ensured, or
7. Additional Decision Support Tools used (3) Control responsibility has been dele-
primarily for situational awareness. gated to another sector or facility, or
8. Electronic Flight Data including Electronic (4) Other situations as specified in facility
Flight Strips. directives.
(b) Controllers must continue to ensure that
13−2−2. CONFLICT DETECTION AND separation is maintained until the overridden conflict
RESOLUTION is resolved.
The controller must use the most accurate informa- 4. Use of Probe when Issuing Clearances. Uti-
tion available to initiate, monitor, and maintain lize conflict probe results when issuing a clearance to
separation. ensure that any potential conflict has been given
thorough consideration.
a. Apply the following procedures in airspace
where conflict probe is being utilized as a decision 5. Use of Probe when Accepting Manual
support tool: Transfers. Prior to manually accepting an aircraft
transfer from an external facility ensure that the
1. Conflict Probe Results.
coordinated flight profile is accurately entered,
(a) Controllers must assume that the conflict conflict probe initiated and, if necessary, action is
probe separation calculations are accurate. taken to resolve any potential conflicts.
ATOP − Oceanic 13−2−1

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
6. Trial Probe. The controller can utilize trial b. Additional Decision Support Tools: These
probe to assess whether there are any potential support tools include: range/bearing, time of passing,
conflicts with a proposed clearance or when intercept angle, the aircraft situation display (ASD)
performing manual coordination. and electronic flight data.
NOTE− 1. The results provided by these additional
Once initiated, trial probe does not take into account any decision support/controller tools can be used by the
changes made to the proposed profile or to any other flight controller for maintaining situational awareness and
profile in the system. It is an assessment by conflict probe
monitoring flight profile information, and for
of the current situation at the time the controller enters the
trial probe. A trial probe does not alleviate the controller establishing and maintaining separation standards
from performing a conflict probe when issuing a clearance not supported by probe, or when probe is unavailable.
or accepting a transfer. 2. Under no circumstances must the controller
7. System Unable to Perform Conflict Probe for utilize any of the additional decision support tools to
a Specific Aircraft. override probe results when the applicable separation
standard is supported by probe and none of the other
(a) If a flight’s profile becomes corrupted, conditions for overriding probe apply.
conflict probe may not be able to correctly monitor
separation for that flight. Take the necessary steps to
correct an aircraft’s flight plan when conflict probe 13−2−3. INFORMATION MANAGEMENT
could not be performed.
a. Currency of Information: The sector team is
(b) In addition, after verifying flight plan data responsible for ensuring that manually entered data is
accuracy, utilize other decision support tools to accurate and timely. Ensure that nonconformant
establish and maintain the appropriate separation messages are handled in a timely manner and that the
minima until such time that conflict probe can be flight’s profile is updated as necessary.
utilized. NOTE−
8. Conflict Probe Limitations. Conflict probe accuracy requires timely updates of data
used to model each flight’s trajectory. If this data is not
(a) Conflict Probe does not support the current, the aircraft flight profile and probe results may be
following separation minima: misleading.
(1) Subparagraph 8−4−2a2 − Nonintersect- b. Data Block Management.

ing paths. 1. Ensure that the data block reflects the most
(2) Subparagraph 8−4−2d − Intersecting current flight information and controller applied
flight paths with variable width protected airspace. indicators as specified in facility directives.
(3) Subparagraph 8−4−3a − Reduction of 2. Ensure that appropriate and timely action is
Route Protected Airspace, below FL 240. taken when a special condition code is indicated in the
data block.
(4) Subparagraph 8−4−3b − Reduction of
Route Protected Airspace, at and above FL 240. c. Electronic Flight Strip Management.
(5) Subparagraph 8−4−4a1 − Same 1. Electronic flight strips must be maintained in
NAVAID: VOR/VORTAC/TACAN. accordance with facility directives and the following:
(6) Subparagraph 8−4−4a2 − Same (a) Annotations. Ensure that annotations are
NAVAID: NDB. kept up to date.
(7) Subparagraph 8−4−4c − Dead Reckon- (b) Reduced Separation Flags. Ensure the
ing. flags listed below are selected appropriately for each
flight:
(8) Paragraph 8−5−4 − Same Direction.
(1) M− Mach Number Technique (MNT).
(9) Paragraph 8−8−5 − VFR Climb and
Descent. (2) R− Reduced MNT.
13−2−2 ATOP − Oceanic

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
(3) D− Distance−based longitudinal. NOTE−

The use of the CPDLC message set ensures the proper
(4) W− Reduced Vertical Separation Mini- “closure” of CPDLC exchanges.
mum (RVSM).
b. Transfer of Communications to the Next
(c) Degraded RNP. Select when an aircraft
Facility.
has notified ATC of a reduction in navigation
capability that affects the applicable separation 1. When the receiving facility is capable of
minima. CPDLC communications, the data link transfer is
(d) Restrictions. Ensure restrictions accu- automatic and is accomplished within facility
rately reflect the cleared profile. adapted parameters.
d. Queue Management. 2. When a receiving facility is not CPDLC

capable, the transfer of communications must be
1. Manage all sector and coordination queues in
made in accordance with local directives and Letters
accordance with the appropriate message priority and
of Agreement (LOAs).
the controller’s priority of duties.
2. In accordance with facility directives, ensure c. Abnormal conditions.
that the messages directed to the error queue are
1. If any portion of the automated transfer fails,
processed in a timely manner.
the controller should attempt to initiate the transfer
e. Window/List Management. manually. If unable to complete the data link transfer,
the controller should advise the pilot to log on to the
1. Ensure that the situation display window title
next facility and send an End Service (EOS) message.
bar is not obscured by other windows and/or lists.
NOTE− 2. If CPDLC fails, voice communications must
The title bar changes color to denote when priority be utilized until CPDLC connections can be
information on the ASD is being obscured or is out of view. reestablished.
2. In accordance with facility directives, ensure
3. If the CPDLC connection is lost on a specific
that designated windows and/or lists are displayed at
aircraft, the controller should send a connection
all times.
request message (CR1) or advise the pilot via backup
communications to log on again.
13−2−4. CONTROLLER PILOT DATA LINK
COMMUNICATIONS (CPDLC) 4. If CPDLC service is to be canceled, the
controller must advise the pilot as early as possible to
a. Means of communication. facilitate a smooth transition to voice communica-
1. When CPDLC is available and CPDLC tions. Workload permitting, the controller should also
connected aircraft are operating outside of VHF advise the pilot of the reason for the termination of
coverage, CPDLC must be used as the primary means data link.
of communication.
5. When there is uncertainty that a clearance
2. Voice communications may be utilized for was delivered to an aircraft via CPDLC, the controller
CPDLC aircraft when it will provide an operational must continue to protect the airspace associated with
advantage and/or when workload or equipment the clearance until an appropriate operational
capabilities demand. response is received from the flight crew. If an
expected operational response to a clearance is not
3. When CPDLC is being utilized, a voice
received, the controller will initiate appropriate
backup must exist (e.g., HF, SATCOM, Third party).
action to ensure that the clearance was received by the
4. When a pilot communicates via CPDLC, the flight crew. On initial voice contact with aircraft
response should be via CPDLC. preface the message with the following:
5. To the extent possible, the CPDLC message PHRASEOLOGY−
set should be used in lieu of free text messages. (Call Sign) CPDLC Failure, (message).
ATOP − Oceanic 13−2−3

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
13−2−5. COORDINATION b. When otherwise specified in facility directives

or LOA.
In addition to the requirements set forth in Chapter 8,
Offshore/Oceanic Procedures, Section 2, Coordina- 13−2−6. TEAM RESPONSIBILITIES −
tion, automated coordination must constitute MULTIPLE PERSON OPERATION
complete coordination between ATOP sectors, both
internally and between sectors across adjacent ATOP a. When operating in a multiple controller
facilities, except: operation at a workstation, ensure all ATC tasks are
completed according to their priority of duties.
a. When the aircraft is in conflict with another in b. Multiple controller operation must be accom-
the receiving sector, or plished according to facility directives.
13−2−4 ATOP − Oceanic

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Appendix A. Standard Operating Practice (SOP) for

the Transfer of Position Responsibility
1. PURPOSE d. In the final part of the relief process, the

specialist being relieved monitors and reviews the
This appendix prescribes the method and step−by−
position to ensure that nothing has been overlooked
step process for conducting a position relief briefing
or incorrectly displayed and that the transfer of
and transferring position responsibility from one
position responsibility occurred with a complete
specialist to another.
briefing.
2. DISCUSSION
3. TERMS
a. In all operational facilities, the increase in
traffic density and the need for the expeditious The following terms are important for a complete
movement of traffic without compromising safety understanding of this SOP:
have emphasized the importance of the position relief a. Status Information Area (SIA). Manual or
process. automatic displays of the current status of position
b. The contents, methods, and practices used for related equipment and operational conditions or
position relief and briefings vary among personnel, procedures.
and pertinent information is often forgotten or b. Written Notes. Manually recorded items of
incompletely covered. Major problems occur information kept at designated locations on the
whenever there is a heavy reliance upon memory, position of operation. They may be an element of the
unsupported by routines or systematic reminders. Status Information Area/s.
This SOP addresses the complete task of transferring
position responsibility and the associated relief c. Checklist. An ordered listing of items to be
briefing. covered during a position relief.
c. Position relief unavoidably provides workload 4. PRECAUTIONS

for specialists at the time of relief. The intent of this a. Specialists involved in the position relief
SOP is to make the transfer of position responsibility process should not rush or be influenced to rush.
take place smoothly and to ensure a complete transfer
b. During position operation, each item of status
of information with a minimum amount of workload.
information which is or may be an operational factor
The method takes advantage of a self−briefing
for the relieving specialist should be recorded as soon
concept in which the relieving specialist obtains
as it is operationally feasible so that it will not be
needed status information by reading from the Status
forgotten or incorrectly recorded.
Information Area/s to begin the relief process. Up to
the moment information related to the control of c. Extra care should be taken when more than one
aircraft or vehicular movements requires verbal specialist relieves or is being relieved from a position
exchanges between specialists during the relief at the same time; e.g., combining or decombining
process. The method also specifies the moment when positions. Such simultaneous reliefs should be
the transfer of position responsibility occurs. approached with caution.
Standard Operating Practice (SOP) for the Transfer of Position Responsibility Appendix A−1
JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
5. RESPONSIBILITIES c. The relieving specialist and the specialist being

relieved must share equal responsibility for the
a. The specialist being relieved must be
completeness and accuracy of the position relief
responsible for ensuring that any pertinent status
briefing.
information of which he/she is aware is relayed to the
relieving specialist and is either: d. The specialists engaged in a position relief must
1. Accurately displayed in the Status conduct the relief process at the position being
Information Area/s for which he/she has relieved unless other procedures have been
responsibility, or established and authorized by the facility air traffic
manager.
2. Relayed to the position having responsibility
for accurately displaying the status information. NOTE−
The “sharing” of this responsibility means that the
b. The relieving specialist must be responsible for specialist being relieved is obligated to provide a complete,
ensuring that, prior to accepting responsibility for the accurate briefing and the relieving specialist is obligated
position, any unresolved questions pertaining to the to ensure that a briefing takes place and is to his/her total
operation of the position are resolved. satisfaction.
6. STEP−BY−STEP PROCESS
a. PREVIEW THE POSITION
Relieving Specialist Specialist Being Relieved
1. Follow checklist and review the Status Information
Area(s).
NOTE−
This sub-step may be replaced by an authorized pre−position briefing provided an equivalent review of checklist items is
accomplished.
2. Observe position equipment, operational situation, and
the work environment.
3. Listen to voice communications and observe other
operational actions.
4. Observe current and pending aircraft and vehicular
traffic and correlate with flight and other movement
information.
5. Indicate to the specialist being relieved that the position
has been previewed and that the verbal briefing may begin.
NOTE−
Substeps 6a2, 3, and 4 may be conducted concurrently or in any order.
Appendix A−2 Standard Operating Practice (SOP) for the Transfer of Position Responsibility
6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
b. VERBAL BRIEFING
1. Brief the relieving specialist on the abnormal status of
items not listed on the Status Information Area(s) as well as
on any items of special interest calling for verbal
explanation or additional discussion.
2. Brief on reported weather and other weather related
information.
3. Brief on traffic if applicable.
4. Brief communication status of all known aircraft ex-
cept for ERAM facilities using Voice Communication
Indicator (VCI).
5. Ask questions necessary to ensure a complete
understanding of the operational situation.
6. Completely answer any questions asked.
c. ASSUMPTION OF POSITION RESPONSIBILITY

1. Make a statement or otherwise indicate to the specialist
being relieved that position responsibility has been
assumed.
2. Release the position to the relieving specialist and
mentally note the time.
d. REVIEW THE POSITION

1. Check, verify, and update the information obtained in
steps 6a and b.
2. Check position equipment in accordance with existing
directives.
3. Review checklist, Status Information Area/s, written
notes, and other prescribed sources of information and
advise the relieving specialist of known omissions, updates,
or inaccuracies.
4. Observe overall position operation to determine if
assistance is needed.
5. If assistance is needed, provide or summon it as
appropriate.
6. Advise the appropriate position regarding known Status
Information Area(s) omissions, updates, or inaccuracies.
7. Sign-on the relieving specialist with the time as noted in
step 6c2.
8. Sign off the position in accordance with existing
directives or otherwise indicate that the relief process is
complete.
Standard Operating Practice (SOP) for the Transfer of Position Responsibility Appendix A−3
6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
Appendix B. Standard Operating Practice (SOP) for

Aircraft Deviating for Weather Near Active Special
Activity Airspace (SAA)
The procedures listed below must be applied and related equipment and operational conditions or
contained in a facility SOP when aircraft deviate procedures.
into and/or near an active or scheduled SAA: b. Special Activity Airspace (SAA). Airspace of
defined dimensions as an Alert Area, Controlled
1. PURPOSE
Firing Area, Military Operations Area (MOA),
This appendix prescribes the method and step−by− Prohibited Area, Restricted Area or Warning Area.
step process for handling aircraft deviations for c. Deviations. A departure from a current
weather near active Special Activity Airspace (SAA). clearance, such as an off course maneuvers to avoid
The procedures are intended to work in parallel to the weather or turbulence.
preventive procedures outlined in FAA Order
JO 7210.3, Facility Operation and Administration, d. Using Agency. The using agency is the military
subparagraph 18−2−4a9, which must be applied unit or other organization whose activity established
when weather is scheduled to impact an active or the requirement for the SAA. The using agency is
scheduled SAA. responsible for ensuring that:
1. The airspace is used only for its designated
2. DISCUSSION purpose.
a. In all operational facilities, the increase in 2. Proper scheduling procedures are established
traffic density and the need for the expeditious and utilized.
movement of traffic without compromising safety 3. The controlling agency is kept informed of
have emphasized the importance of handling aircraft changes in scheduled activity, to include the
deviations for weather in the vicinity of active SAA. completion of activities for the day.
b. The methods, and practices used for handling 4. A point of contact is made available to enable
aircraft requesting or initiating deviations off of their the controlling agency to verify schedules, and
filed route due to weather require time critical coordinate access for emergencies, weather
responses to the request or in response to observed diversions, etc.
course deviations. Major issues can occur whenever
5. An ATC facility may be designated as the
there is a heavy reliance upon reactive control actions
using agency for joint−use areas when that facility
when not performed according to this handbook and
has been granted priority for use of the airspace in a
the procedures outlined in FAA Order JO 7210.3.
joint−use letter of procedure or letter of agreement.
c. Course deviations in areas near active SAA’s 4. PRECAUTIONS
increase the workload for specialists at the time of
their request or observation. The intent of this SOP is a. Unless clearance of nonparticipating aircraft
to make the handling of the requested deviation or to in/through/adjacent to an active SAA is provided for
correct the observed course deviation take place in a Letter of Agreement or Letter of Procedure, any
smoothly and to ensure a safe operation with a clearance issued to a nonparticipating aircraft must
minimum amount of workload. ensure separation from that SAA by the appropriate
minima specified in paragraph 9−3−2.
3. TERMS b. The specialist receiving a request for a route
The following terms are important for a complete deviation in the vicinity of an active SAA cannot
understanding of this SOP: issue a clearance into the active SAA airspace, unless
the provisions of paragraph 9−3−4 of this handbook
a. Status Information Area (SIA). Manual or are applied. The FAA has no jurisdictional authority
automatic displays of the current status of position over the use of non−joint use
Standard Operating Practice (SOP) for Aircraft Deviating for Weather Near Active Special Appendix B−1
JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
prohibited/restricted/warning area airspace; (c) Assist the aircraft in exiting the SAA.
therefore, clearance cannot be issued for flight 3. If the handoff or point out is unsuccessful, the
therein without appropriate approval. controller must:
c. If the specialist is able to coordinate approval for (a) If able, advise the Using Agency of the pi-
entry into the SAA from the using agency, a clearance lot’s actions.
to the aircraft complying with the provisions (b) Provide safety alerts and traffic advi-
coordinated with the using agency can be issued; the sories, as appropriate.
specialist must notify the OS/CIC of this situation and
(c) Assist the aircraft in exiting the SAA as
of subsequent requests or deviations from other
quickly as the weather allows.
aircraft in the same area.
(d) Continue to coordinate with the Using
d. Use of Code 7700 for aircraft deviations into Agency until the situation is resolved.
active SAA is not encouraged, particularly in 4. If no approval to enter the SAA is given by the
situations involving multiple aircraft. Positive
using agency:
identification of aircraft may be lost if an aircraft
deviates from flight plan track, particularly in the (a) The specialist must advise the aircraft re-
event of a momentary loss of radar or other questing the course deviation, or deviating toward the
interruption in tracking. SAA, the status of the SAA, and that no clearance can
be issued permitting entry into the airspace or;
5. RESPONSIBILITY: (b) If an alternative course, which remains
If a deviation occurs that causes an aircraft to enter clear of the active SAA, is available, offer it to the pi-
SAA the air traffic team must follow the procedures lot of the aircraft in question.
outlined below: 5. If the pilot of the nonparticipating aircraft
exercises their discretion to deviate from that
a. Attempt the following: clearance which ensures separation from an active
1. Handoff the aircraft to the Using Agency and SAA, and the track of the aircraft will not maintain the
transfer communications; or required minima from an active SAA, controllers
must ascertain if the pilot is exercising emergency
2. Point Out the aircraft to the Using Agency. authority:
The controller must:
(a) If so, provide assistance and obtain infor-
(a) Continue to provide safety alerts and traf- mation as provided in Chapter 10, Emergencies.
fic advisories, as appropriate, to the affected aircraft. (b) If not, provide appropriate pilot deviation
(b) Continue to coordinate with the Using notification as specified in paragraph 2−1−26, Pilot
Agency until the situation is resolved. Deviation Notification.
Appendix B−2 Standard Operating Practice (SOP) for Aircraft Deviating for Weather Near Active Special
12/2/21 Pilot/Controller Glossary
PILOT/CONTROLLER
GLOSSARY
PURPOSE
a. This Glossary was compiled to promote a common understanding of the terms used in the Air Traffic
Control system. It includes those terms which are intended for pilot/controller communications. Those terms
most frequently used in pilot/controller communications are printed in bold italics. The definitions are primarily
defined in an operational sense applicable to both users and operators of the National Airspace System. Use of
the Glossary will preclude any misunderstandings concerning the system’s design, function, and purpose.
b. Because of the international nature of flying, terms used in the Lexicon, published by the International
Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO), are included when they differ from FAA definitions. These terms are
followed by “[ICAO].” For the reader’s convenience, there are also cross references to related terms in other parts
of the Glossary and to other documents, such as the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) and the Aeronautical
Information Manual (AIM).
c. This Glossary will be revised, as necessary, to maintain a common understanding of the system.
EXPLANATION OF CHANGES
d. Terms Added:
AIRBORNE REROUTE (ABRR)
ARRIVAL/DEPARTURE WINDOW (ADW)
AUTOMATED TERMINAL PROXIMITY ALERT (ATPA)
AVIATION WATCH NOTIFICATION MESSAGE
CLOSED LOOP CLEARANCE
COLD TEMPERATURE CORRECTION
CONSOLIDATED WAKE TURBULENCE (CWT)
CONSTRAINT SATISFACTION POINT (CSP)
COUPLED SCHEDULING (CS)/ EXTENDED METERING (XM)
DELAY COUNTDOWN TIMER (DCT)
DEPARTURE VIEWER
EN ROUTE TRANSITION WAYPOINT
GROUND−BASED INTERVAL MANAGEMENT−SPACING (GIM−S), SPEED ADVISORY
INTEGRATED DEPARTURE/ARRIVAL CAPABILITY (IDAC)
METER REFERENCE ELEMENT (MRE)
METER REFERENCE POINT LIST (MRP)
OPEN LOOP CLEARANCE
PLAN, EXECUTE, REVIEW, TRAIN, IMPROVE (PERTI)
PLANVIEW GRAPHICAL USER INTERFACE (PGUI)
PRE−DEPARTURE REROUTE (PDRR)
REROUTE IMPACT ASSESSMENT (RRIA)
ROUTE AMENDMENT DIALOG (RAD)
RUNWAY TRANSITION WAYPOINT
SPACE LAUNCH AND RENTRY AREA
SPEED ADVISORY
SURFACE METERING PROGRAM
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Pilot/Controller Glossary 12/2/21
SURFACE VIEWER
SUSPICIOUS UAS
TERMINAL FLIGHT DATA MANAGER (TFDM)
TERMINAL SEQUENCING AND SPACING (TSAS)
TIME−BASED MANAGEMENT (TBM)
TIMELINE GRAPHICAL USER INTERFACE (TGUI)
TOP OF DESCENT (TOD)
TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT INITIATIVE (TMI)
TRAJECTORY−BASED OPERATIONS (TBO)
WAKE RE−CATEGORIZATION (RECAT)
e. Terms Deleted:
ACTUAL CALCULATED LANDING TIME (ACLT)
AIRPORT STREAM FILTER (ASF)
ARRIVAL AIRCRAFT INTERVAL (AAI)
ARRIVAL SECTOR ADVISORY LIST
ARRIVAL SEQUENCING PROGRAM
CENTER TRACON AUTOMATION SYSTEM (CTAS)
COLD TEMPERATURE COMPENSATION
DELAY TIME
EN ROUTE SPACING PROGRAM (ESP)
FREEZE CALCULATED LANDING TIME
METER FIX TIME/SLOT TIME (MFT)
METERING POSITION(S)
METERING POSITION LIST
METER LIST
METER LIST DISPLAY INTERVAL
TENTATIVE CALCULATED LANDING TIME (TCLT)
TRANSITION WAYPOINT
VERTEX
VERTEX TIME OF ARRIVAL
f. Terms Modified:
AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL SYSTEM COMMAND CENTER (ATCSCC)
ARRIVAL SECTOR
COMMON ROUTE
EN ROUTE TRANSITION
FLIGHT SERVICE STATION (FSS)
METER FIX ARC
METERING
NATIONAL FLIGHT DATA DIGEST (NFDD)
NOTICE TO AIRMEN (NOTAM)
OFF−ROUTE OBSTRUCTION CLEARANCE ALTITUDE (OROCA)
RUNWAY TRANSITION
SEGMENTS OF A SID/STAR
TIME BASED FLOW MANAGEMENT (TBFM)
TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT PROGRAM ALERT
TRANSITION
WEATHER RECONNAISSANCE AREA (WRA)
g. Editorial/format changes were made where necessary. Revision bars were not used due to the insignificant
nature of the changes.
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A
AAR− ACLS−
(See AIRPORT ARRIVAL RATE.) (See AUTOMATIC CARRIER LANDING
SYSTEM.)
ABBREVIATED IFR FLIGHT PLANS− An
authorization by ATC requiring pilots to submit only ACROBATIC FLIGHT− An intentional maneuver
that information needed for the purpose of ATC. It involving an abrupt change in an aircraft’s attitude, an
includes only a small portion of the usual IFR flight abnormal attitude, or abnormal acceleration not
plan information. In certain instances, this may be necessary for normal flight.
only aircraft identification, location, and pilot (See ICAO term ACROBATIC FLIGHT.)
request. Other information may be requested if (Refer to 14 CFR Part 91.)
needed by ATC for separation/control purposes. It is ACROBATIC FLIGHT [ICAO]− Maneuvers inten-
frequently used by aircraft which are airborne and tionally performed by an aircraft involving an abrupt
desire an instrument approach or by aircraft which are change in its attitude, an abnormal attitude, or an
on the ground and desire a climb to VFR-on-top. abnormal variation in speed.
(See VFR-ON-TOP.)
ACTIVE RUNWAY−
(Refer to AIM.)
(See RUNWAY IN USE/ACTIVE RUNWAY/DUTY
ABEAM− An aircraft is “abeam” a fix, point, or RUNWAY.)
object when that fix, point, or object is approximately ACTUAL NAVIGATION PERFORMANCE
90 degrees to the right or left of the aircraft track. (ANP)−
Abeam indicates a general position rather than a (See REQUIRED NAVIGATION
precise point. PERFORMANCE.)
ABORT− To terminate a preplanned aircraft ADDITIONAL SERVICES− Advisory information

maneuver; e.g., an aborted takeoff. provided by ATC which includes but is not limited to
the following:
ABRR− a. Traffic advisories.
(See AIRBORNE REROUTE) b. Vectors, when requested by the pilot, to assist
ACC [ICAO]− aircraft receiving traffic advisories to avoid observed
traffic.
(See ICAO term AREA CONTROL CENTER.)
c. Altitude deviation information of 300 feet or
ACCELERATE-STOP DISTANCE AVAILABLE− more from an assigned altitude as observed on a
The runway plus stopway length declared available verified (reading correctly) automatic altitude
and suitable for the acceleration and deceleration of readout (Mode C).
an airplane aborting a takeoff. d. Advisories that traffic is no longer a factor.
ACCELERATE-STOP DISTANCE AVAILABLE e. Weather and chaff information.
[ICAO]− The length of the take-off run available plus f. Weather assistance.
the length of the stopway if provided. g. Bird activity information.
ACDO− h. Holding pattern surveillance. Additional ser-
(See AIR CARRIER DISTRICT OFFICE.)
vices are provided to the extent possible contingent
only upon the controller’s capability to fit them into
ACKNOWLEDGE− Let me know that you have the performance of higher priority duties and on the
received and understood this message. basis of limitations of the radar, volume of traffic,
frequency congestion, and controller workload. The
ACL− controller has complete discretion for determining if
(See AIRCRAFT LIST.) he/she is able to provide or continue to provide a
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service in a particular case. The controller’s reason ADVISORY SERVICE− Advice and information
not to provide or continue to provide a service in a provided by a facility to assist pilots in the safe
particular case is not subject to question by the pilot conduct of flight and aircraft movement.
and need not be made known to him/her. (See ADDITIONAL SERVICES.)
(See TRAFFIC ADVISORIES.) (See LOCAL AIRPORT ADVISORY.)
(Refer to AIM.) (See RADAR ADVISORY.)
(See SAFETY ALERT.)
ADF− (See TRAFFIC ADVISORIES.)
(Refer to AIM.)
(See AUTOMATIC DIRECTION FINDER.)
ADW−
ADIZ− (See ARRIVAL DEPARTURE WINDOW)
(See AIR DEFENSE IDENTIFICATION ZONE.) AERIAL REFUELING− A procedure used by the
military to transfer fuel from one aircraft to another
ADLY− during flight.
(See ARRIVAL DELAY.) (Refer to VFR/IFR Wall Planning Charts.)
AERODROME− A defined area on land or water
ADMINISTRATOR− The Federal Aviation Admin- (including any buildings, installations and equip-
istrator or any person to whom he/she has delegated ment) intended to be used either wholly or in part for
his/her authority in the matter concerned. the arrival, departure, and movement of aircraft.
ADR− AERODROME BEACON [ICAO]− Aeronautical
beacon used to indicate the location of an aerodrome
(See AIRPORT DEPARTURE RATE.)
from the air.
ADS [ICAO]− AERODROME CONTROL SERVICE [ICAO]− Air
(See ICAO term AUTOMATIC DEPENDENT traffic control service for aerodrome traffic.
SURVEILLANCE.) AERODROME CONTROL TOWER [ICAO]− A
unit established to provide air traffic control service
ADS−B− to aerodrome traffic.
(See AUTOMATIC DEPENDENT
AERODROME ELEVATION [ICAO]− The eleva-
SURVEILLANCE−BROADCAST.)
tion of the highest point of the landing area.
ADS−C− AERODROME TRAFFIC CIRCUIT [ICAO]− The
(See AUTOMATIC DEPENDENT specified path to be flown by aircraft operating in the
SURVEILLANCE−CONTRACT.) vicinity of an aerodrome.
AERONAUTICAL BEACON− A visual NAVAID
ADVISE INTENTIONS− Tell me what you plan to displaying flashes of white and/or colored light to
do. indicate the location of an airport, a heliport, a
landmark, a certain point of a Federal airway in
ADVISORY− Advice and information provided to mountainous terrain, or an obstruction.
assist pilots in the safe conduct of flight and aircraft (See AIRPORT ROTATING BEACON.)
movement. (Refer to AIM.)
(See ADVISORY SERVICE.)
AERONAUTICAL CHART− A map used in air
navigation containing all or part of the following:
ADVISORY FREQUENCY− The appropriate fre-
topographic features, hazards and obstructions,
quency to be used for Airport Advisory Service.
navigation aids, navigation routes, designated
(See LOCAL AIRPORT ADVISORY.) airspace, and airports. Commonly used aeronautical
(See UNICOM.) charts are:
(Refer to ADVISORY CIRCULAR NO. 90-66.) a. Sectional Aeronautical Charts (1:500,000)−
(Refer to AIM.) Designed for visual navigation of slow or medium
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speed aircraft. Topographic information on these g. Standard Terminal Arrival (STAR) Charts−
charts features the portrayal of relief and a judicious Designed to expedite air traffic control arrival
selection of visual check points for VFR flight. procedures and to facilitate transition between en
Aeronautical information includes visual and radio route and instrument approach operations. Each
aids to navigation, airports, controlled airspace, STAR procedure is presented as a separate chart and
permanent special use airspace (SUA), obstructions, may serve a single airport or more than one airport in
and related data. a given geographical location.
b. VFR Terminal Area Charts (1:250,000)− h. Airport Taxi Charts− Designed to expedite the
Depict Class B airspace which provides for the efficient and safe flow of ground traffic at an airport.
control or segregation of all the aircraft within Class These charts are identified by the official airport
B airspace. The chart depicts topographic informa- name; e.g., Ronald Reagan Washington National
tion and aeronautical information which includes Airport.
visual and radio aids to navigation, airports, (See ICAO term AERONAUTICAL CHART.)
controlled airspace, permanent SUA, obstructions, AERONAUTICAL CHART [ICAO]− A representa-
and related data. tion of a portion of the earth, its culture and relief,
specifically designated to meet the requirements of
c. En Route Low Altitude Charts− Provide
air navigation.
aeronautical information for en route instrument
navigation (IFR) in the low altitude stratum. AERONAUTICAL INFORMATION MANUAL
Information includes the portrayal of airways, limits (AIM)− A primary FAA publication whose purpose
of controlled airspace, position identification and is to instruct airmen about operating in the National
frequencies of radio aids, selected airports, minimum Airspace System of the U.S. It provides basic flight
en route and minimum obstruction clearance information, ATC Procedures and general instruc-
altitudes, airway distances, reporting points, perma- tional information concerning health, medical facts,
nent SUA, and related data. Area charts, which are a factors affecting flight safety, accident and hazard
part of this series, furnish terminal data at a larger reporting, and types of aeronautical charts and their
scale in congested areas. use.
d. En Route High Altitude Charts− Provide AERONAUTICAL INFORMATION PUBLICA-
aeronautical information for en route instrument TION (AIP) [ICAO]− A publication issued by or with
navigation (IFR) in the high altitude stratum. the authority of a State and containing aeronautical
Information includes the portrayal of jet routes, information of a lasting character essential to air
identification and frequencies of radio aids, selected navigation.
airports, distances, time zones, special use airspace, (See CHART SUPPLEMENT U.S.)
and related information. AERONAUTICAL INFORMATION SERVICES
(AIS)− A facility in Silver Spring, MD, established
e. Instrument Approach Procedure (IAP) Charts−
by FAA to operate a central aeronautical information
Portray the aeronautical data which is required to
service for the collection, validation, and dissemina-
execute an instrument approach to an airport. These
tion of aeronautical data in support of the activities of
charts depict the procedures, including all related
government, industry, and the aviation community.
data, and the airport diagram. Each procedure is
The information is published in the National Flight
designated for use with a specific type of electronic
Data Digest.
navigation system including NDB, TACAN, VOR,
(See NATIONAL FLIGHT DATA DIGEST.)
ILS RNAV and GLS. These charts are identified by
the type of navigational aid(s)/equipment required to AFFIRMATIVE− Yes.
provide final approach guidance. AFIS−
f. Instrument Departure Procedure (DP) Charts− (See AUTOMATIC FLIGHT INFORMATION
SERVICE − ALASKA FSSs ONLY.)
Designed to expedite clearance delivery and to
facilitate transition between takeoff and en route AFP−
operations. Each DP is presented as a separate chart (See AIRSPACE FLOW PROGRAM.)
and may serve a single airport or more than one AHA−
airport in a given geographical location. (See AIRCRAFT HAZARD AREA.)
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AIM− limited than those provided by a radar approach

(See AERONAUTICAL INFORMATION control.
MANUAL.)
AIR ROUTE TRAFFIC CONTROL CENTER
AIP [ICAO]− (ARTCC)− A facility established to provide air traffic
(See ICAO term AERONAUTICAL control service to aircraft operating on IFR flight
INFORMATION PUBLICATION.) plans within controlled airspace and principally
during the en route phase of flight. When equipment
AIR CARRIER DISTRICT OFFICE− An FAA field capabilities and controller workload permit, certain
office serving an assigned geographical area, staffed advisory/assistance services may be provided to VFR
with Flight Standards personnel serving the aviation aircraft.
industry and the general public on matters related to (See EN ROUTE AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL
the certification and operation of scheduled air SERVICES.)
carriers and other large aircraft operations. (Refer to AIM.)
AIR DEFENSE EMERGENCY− A military emer- AIR TAXI− Used to describe a helicopter/VTOL
gency condition declared by a designated authority. aircraft movement conducted above the surface but
This condition exists when an attack upon the normally not above 100 feet AGL. The aircraft may
continental U.S., Alaska, Canada, or U.S. installa- proceed either via hover taxi or flight at speeds more
tions in Greenland by hostile aircraft or missiles is than 20 knots. The pilot is solely responsible for
considered probable, is imminent, or is taking place. selecting a safe airspeed/altitude for the operation
(Refer to AIM.) being conducted.
(See HOVER TAXI.)
AIR DEFENSE IDENTIFICATION ZONE (ADIZ)− (Refer to AIM.)
An area of airspace over land or water in which the
ready identification, location, and control of all AIR TRAFFIC− Aircraft operating in the air or on an
aircraft (except for Department of Defense and law airport surface, exclusive of loading ramps and
enforcement aircraft) is required in the interest of parking areas.
national security. (See ICAO term AIR TRAFFIC.)
Note: ADIZ locations and operating and flight plan AIR TRAFFIC [ICAO]− All aircraft in flight or
requirements for civil aircraft operations are operating on the maneuvering area of an aerodrome.
specified in 14 CFR Part 99.
AIR TRAFFIC CLEARANCE− An authorization by
(Refer to AIM.) air traffic control for the purpose of preventing
AIR NAVIGATION FACILITY− Any facility used collision between known aircraft, for an aircraft to
in, available for use in, or designed for use in, aid of proceed under specified traffic conditions within
air navigation, including landing areas, lights, any controlled airspace. The pilot-in-command of an
apparatus or equipment for disseminating weather aircraft may not deviate from the provisions of a
information, for signaling, for radio-directional visual flight rules (VFR) or instrument flight rules
finding, or for radio or other electrical communica- (IFR) air traffic clearance except in an emergency or
tion, and any other structure or mechanism having a unless an amended clearance has been obtained.
similar purpose for guiding or controlling flight in the Additionally, the pilot may request a different
air or the landing and takeoff of aircraft. clearance from that which has been issued by air
(See NAVIGATIONAL AID.)
traffic control (ATC) if information available to the
pilot makes another course of action more practicable
AIR ROUTE SURVEILLANCE RADAR− Air route or if aircraft equipment limitations or company
traffic control center (ARTCC) radar used primarily procedures forbid compliance with the clearance
to detect and display an aircraft’s position while en issued. Pilots may also request clarification or
route between terminal areas. The ARSR enables amendment, as appropriate, any time a clearance is
controllers to provide radar air traffic control service not fully understood, or considered unacceptable
when aircraft are within the ARSR coverage. In some because of safety of flight. Controllers should, in
instances, ARSR may enable an ARTCC to provide such instances and to the extent of operational
terminal radar services similar to but usually more practicality and safety, honor the pilot’s request.
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14 CFR Part 91.3(a) states: “The pilot in command traffic while minimizing delays. The following
of an aircraft is directly responsible for, and is the functions are located at the ATCSCC:
final authority as to, the operation of that aircraft.” a. Central Altitude Reservation Function
THE PILOT IS RESPONSIBLE TO REQUEST AN (CARF). Responsible for coordinating, planning,
AMENDED CLEARANCE if ATC issues a and approving special user requirements under the
clearance that would cause a pilot to deviate from a Altitude Reservation (ALTRV) concept.
rule or regulation, or in the pilot’s opinion, would (See ALTITUDE RESERVATION.)
place the aircraft in jeopardy. b. Airport Reservation Office (ARO). Monitors
(See ATC INSTRUCTIONS.) the operation and allocation of reservations for
(See ICAO term AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL unscheduled operations at airports designated by the
CLEARANCE.) Administrator as High Density Airports. These
AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL− A service operated by airports are generally known as slot controlled
appropriate authority to promote the safe, orderly and airports. The ARO allocates reservations on a first
expeditious flow of air traffic. come, first served basis determined by the time the
(See ICAO term AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL request is received at the ARO.
SERVICE.) (Refer to 14 CFR Part 93.)
(See CHART SUPPLEMENT U.S.)
AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL CLEARANCE [ICAO]−
Authorization for an aircraft to proceed under c. U.S. Notice to Air Missions (NOTAM) Office.
conditions specified by an air traffic control unit. Responsible for collecting, maintaining, and distrib-
uting NOTAMs for the U.S. civilian and military, as
Note 1: For convenience, the term air traffic control
clearance is frequently abbreviated to clearance well as international aviation communities.
when used in appropriate contexts. (See NOTICE TO AIR MISSIONS.)
Note 2: The abbreviated term clearance may be d. Weather Unit. Monitor all aspects of weather
prefixed by the words taxi, takeoff, departure, en for the U.S. that might affect aviation including cloud
route, approach or landing to indicate the particular cover, visibility, winds, precipitation, thunderstorms,
portion of flight to which the air traffic control clear- icing, turbulence, and more. Provide forecasts based
ance relates. on observations and on discussions with meteorolo-
gists from various National Weather Service offices,
AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL SERVICE− FAA facilities, airlines, and private weather services.
(See AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL.)
e. Air Traffic Organization (ATO) Space Opera-
AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL SERVICE [ICAO]− A tions and Unmanned Aircraft System (UAS); the
service provided for the purpose of: Office of Primary Responsibility (OPR) for all space
a. Preventing collisions: and upper class E tactical operations in the National
Airspace System (NAS).
1. Between aircraft; and
2. On the maneuvering area between aircraft AIR TRAFFIC SERVICE− A generic term meaning:
and obstructions. a. Flight Information Service.
b. Expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of b. Alerting Service.
air traffic. c. Air Traffic Advisory Service.
AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL SPECIALIST− A person d. Air Traffic Control Service:
authorized to provide air traffic control service. 1. Area Control Service,
(See AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL.) 2. Approach Control Service, or
(See FLIGHT SERVICE STATION.) 3. Airport Control Service.
(See ICAO term CONTROLLER.)
AIR TRAFFIC SERVICE (ATS) ROUTES − The
AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL SYSTEM COMMAND term “ATS Route” is a generic term that includes
CENTER (ATCSCC)− An Air Traffic Tactical “VOR Federal airways,” “colored Federal airways,”
Operations facility responsible for monitoring and “jet routes,” and “RNAV routes.” The term “ATS
managing the flow of air traffic throughout the NAS, route” does not replace these more familiar route
producing a safe, orderly, and expeditious flow of names, but serves only as an overall title when listing
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the types of routes that comprise the United States AIRCRAFT CLASSES− For the purposes of Wake
route structure. Turbulence Separation Minima, ATC classifies
aircraft as Super, Heavy, Large, and Small as follows:
AIRBORNE− An aircraft is considered airborne
a. Super. The Airbus A-380-800 (A388) and the
when all parts of the aircraft are off the ground.
Antonov An-225 (A225) are classified as super.
AIRBORNE DELAY− Amount of delay to be b. Heavy− Aircraft capable of takeoff weights of
encountered in airborne holding. 300,000 pounds or more whether or not they are
operating at this weight during a particular phase of
AIRBORNE REROUTE (ABRR)− A capability flight.
within the Traffic Flow Management System used for c. Large− Aircraft of more than 41,000 pounds,
the timely development and implementation of maximum certificated takeoff weight, up to but not
tactical reroutes for airborne aircraft. This capability including 300,000 pounds.
defines a set of aircraft−specific reroutes that address
a certain traffic flow problem and then electronically d. Small− Aircraft of 41,000 pounds or less
transmits them to En Route Automation Moderniza- maximum certificated takeoff weight.
tion (ERAM) for execution by the appropriate sector (Refer to AIM.)
controllers. AIRCRAFT CONFLICT− Predicted conflict, within
EDST of two aircraft, or between aircraft and
AIRCRAFT− Device(s) that are used or intended to airspace. A Red alert is used for conflicts when the
be used for flight in the air, and when used in air traffic predicted minimum separation is 5 nautical miles or
control terminology, may include the flight crew. less. A Yellow alert is used when the predicted
(See ICAO term AIRCRAFT.) minimum separation is between 5 and approximately
12 nautical miles. A Blue alert is used for conflicts
AIRCRAFT [ICAO]− Any machine that can derive
between an aircraft and predefined airspace.
support in the atmosphere from the reactions of the air
(See EN ROUTE DECISION SUPPORT
other than the reactions of the air against the earth’s
TOOL.)
surface.
AIRCRAFT LIST (ACL)− A view available with
AIRCRAFT APPROACH CATEGORY− A EDST that lists aircraft currently in or predicted to be
grouping of aircraft based on a speed of 1.3 times the in a particular sector’s airspace. The view contains
stall speed in the landing configuration at maximum textual flight data information in line format and may
gross landing weight. An aircraft must fit in only one be sorted into various orders based on the specific
category. If it is necessary to maneuver at speeds in needs of the sector team.
excess of the upper limit of a speed range for a (See EN ROUTE DECISION SUPPORT
category, the minimums for the category for that TOOL.)
speed must be used. For example, an aircraft which
falls in Category A, but is circling to land at a speed AIRCRAFT SURGE LAUNCH AND
in excess of 91 knots, must use the approach RECOVERY− Procedures used at USAF bases to
Category B minimums when circling to land. The provide increased launch and recovery rates in
categories are as follows: instrument flight rules conditions. ASLAR is based
on:
a. Category A− Speed less than 91 knots.
a. Reduced separation between aircraft which is
b. Category B− Speed 91 knots or more but less based on time or distance. Standard arrival separation
than 121 knots. applies between participants including multiple
c. Category C− Speed 121 knots or more but less flights until the DRAG point. The DRAG point is a
than 141 knots. published location on an ASLAR approach where
aircraft landing second in a formation slows to a
d. Category D− Speed 141 knots or more but less
predetermined airspeed. The DRAG point is the
than 166 knots.
reference point at which MARSA applies as
e. Category E− Speed 166 knots or more. expanding elements effect separation within a flight
(Refer to 14 CFR Part 97.) or between subsequent participating flights.
PCG A−6
12/2/21
b. ASLAR procedures shall be covered in a Letter AIRPORT ADVISORY AREA− The area within ten
of Agreement between the responsible USAF miles of an airport without a control tower or where
military ATC facility and the concerned Federal the tower is not in operation, and on which a Flight
Aviation Administration facility. Initial Approach Service Station is located.
Fix spacing requirements are normally addressed as (See LOCAL AIRPORT ADVISORY.)
a minimum. (Refer to AIM.)
AIRCRAFT HAZARD AREA (AHA)− Used by AIRPORT ARRIVAL RATE (AAR)− A dynamic
ATC to segregate air traffic from a launch vehicle, input parameter specifying the number of arriving
reentry vehicle, amateur rocket, jettisoned stages, aircraft which an airport or airspace can accept from
hardware, or falling debris generated by failures the ARTCC per hour. The AAR is used to calculate
associated with any of these activities. An AHA is the desired interval between successive arrival
designated via NOTAM as either a TFR or stationary aircraft.
ALTRV. Unless otherwise specified, the vertical AIRPORT DEPARTURE RATE (ADR)− A dynamic
limits of an AHA are from the surface to unlimited. parameter specifying the number of aircraft which
(See CONTINGENCY HAZARD AREA.) can depart an airport and the airspace can accept per
(See REFINED HAZARD AREA.) hour.
(See TRANSITIONAL HAZARD AREA.) AIRPORT ELEVATION− The highest point of an
airport’s usable runways measured in feet from mean
AIRCRAFT WAKE TURBULENCE CATE- sea level.
GORIES− For the purpose of Wake Turbulence (See TOUCHDOWN ZONE ELEVATION.)
Recategorization (RECAT) Separation Minima, ATC (See ICAO term AERODROME ELEVATION.)
groups aircraft into categories ranging from Category
A through Category I, dependent upon the version of AIRPORT LIGHTING− Various lighting aids that
RECAT that is applied. Specific category assign- may be installed on an airport. Types of airport
ments vary and are listed in the RECAT Orders. lighting include:
a. Approach Light System (ALS)− An airport
AIRMEN’S METEOROLOGICAL INFORMA- lighting facility which provides visual guidance to
TION (AIRMET)− In-flight weather advisories landing aircraft by radiating light beams in a
issued only to amend the Aviation Surface Forecast, directional pattern by which the pilot aligns the
Aviation Cloud Forecast, or area forecast concerning aircraft with the extended centerline of the runway on
weather phenomena which are of operational interest his/her final approach for landing. Condenser-
to all aircraft and potentially hazardous to aircraft Discharge Sequential Flashing Lights/Sequenced
having limited capability because of lack of Flashing Lights may be installed in conjunction with
equipment, instrumentation, or pilot qualifications. the ALS at some airports. Types of Approach Light
AIRMETs concern weather of less severity than that Systems are:
covered by SIGMETs or Convective SIGMETs. 1. ALSF-1− Approach Light System with
AIRMETs cover moderate icing, moderate turbu- Sequenced Flashing Lights in ILS Cat-I configura-
lence, sustained winds of 30 knots or more at the tion.
surface, widespread areas of ceilings less than 1,000 2. ALSF-2− Approach Light System with
feet and/or visibility less than 3 miles, and extensive Sequenced Flashing Lights in ILS Cat-II configura-
mountain obscurement. tion. The ALSF-2 may operate as an SSALR when
(See CONVECTIVE SIGMET.) weather conditions permit.
(See CWA.) 3. SSALF− Simplified Short Approach Light
(See SAW.) System with Sequenced Flashing Lights.
(See SIGMET.) 4. SSALR− Simplified Short Approach Light
(Refer to AIM.) System with Runway Alignment Indicator Lights.
AIRPORT− An area on land or water that is used or 5. MALSF− Medium Intensity Approach Light
intended to be used for the landing and takeoff of System with Sequenced Flashing Lights.
aircraft and includes its buildings and facilities, if 6. MALSR− Medium Intensity Approach Light
any. System with Runway Alignment Indicator Lights.
PCG A−7
6/17/21
7. RLLS− Runway Lead-in Light System approach slope guidance to aircraft during approach
Consists of one or more series of flashing lights to landing by radiating a directional pattern of high
installed at or near ground level that provides positive intensity red and white focused light beams which
visual guidance along an approach path, either indicate to the pilot that he/she is “on path” if he/she
curving or straight, where special problems exist with sees red/white, “above path” if white/white, and
hazardous terrain, obstructions, or noise abatement “below path” if red/red. Some airports serving large
procedures. aircraft have three-bar VASIs which provide two
visual glide paths to the same runway.
8. RAIL− Runway Alignment Indicator Lights−
Sequenced Flashing Lights which are installed only h. Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)− An
in combination with other light systems. airport lighting facility, similar to VASI, providing
vertical approach slope guidance to aircraft during
9. ODALS− Omnidirectional Approach Light- approach to landing. PAPIs consist of a single row of
ing System consists of seven omnidirectional either two or four lights, normally installed on the left
flashing lights located in the approach area of a side of the runway, and have an effective visual range
nonprecision runway. Five lights are located on the of about 5 miles during the day and up to 20 miles at
runway centerline extended with the first light night. PAPIs radiate a directional pattern of high
located 300 feet from the threshold and extending at intensity red and white focused light beams which
equal intervals up to 1,500 feet from the threshold. indicate that the pilot is “on path” if the pilot sees an
The other two lights are located, one on each side of equal number of white lights and red lights, with
the runway threshold, at a lateral distance of 40 feet white to the left of the red; “above path” if the pilot
from the runway edge, or 75 feet from the runway sees more white than red lights; and “below path” if
edge when installed on a runway equipped with a the pilot sees more red than white lights.
VASI.
i. Boundary Lights− Lights defining the perimeter
(Refer to FAA Order JO 6850.2, VISUAL
GUIDANCE LIGHTING SYSTEMS.) of an airport or landing area.
(Refer to AIM.)
b. Runway Lights/Runway Edge Lights− Lights
having a prescribed angle of emission used to define AIRPORT MARKING AIDS− Markings used on
the lateral limits of a runway. Runway lights are runway and taxiway surfaces to identify a specific
uniformly spaced at intervals of approximately 200 runway, a runway threshold, a centerline, a hold line,
feet, and the intensity may be controlled or preset. etc. A runway should be marked in accordance with
its present usage such as:
c. Touchdown Zone Lighting− Two rows of
transverse light bars located symmetrically about the a. Visual.
runway centerline normally at 100 foot intervals. The b. Nonprecision instrument.
basic system extends 3,000 feet along the runway.
c. Precision instrument.
d. Runway Centerline Lighting− Flush centerline (Refer to AIM.)
lights spaced at 50-foot intervals beginning 75 feet
from the landing threshold and extending to within 75 AIRPORT REFERENCE POINT (ARP)− The
feet of the opposite end of the runway. approximate geometric center of all usable runway
surfaces.
e. Threshold Lights− Fixed green lights arranged
symmetrically left and right of the runway centerline, AIRPORT RESERVATION OFFICE− Office
identifying the runway threshold. responsible for monitoring the operation of slot
f. Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL)− Two controlled airports. It receives and processes requests
synchronized flashing lights, one on each side of the for unscheduled operations at slot controlled airports.
runway threshold, which provide rapid and positive
AIRPORT ROTATING BEACON− A visual
identification of the approach end of a particular
NAVAID operated at many airports. At civil airports,
runway.
alternating white and green flashes indicate the
g. Visual Approach Slope Indicator (VASI)− An location of the airport. At military airports, the
airport lighting facility providing vertical visual beacons flash alternately white and green, but are
PCG A−8
12/2/21
Pilot/Controller Glossary
12/2/21
differentiated from civil beacons by dualpeaked (two National Airspace System (NAS). The purpose of the
quick) white flashes between the green flashes. program is to mitigate the effects of en route
(See INSTRUMENT FLIGHT RULES.) constraints. It is a flexible program and may be
(See SPECIAL VFR OPERATIONS.) implemented in various forms depending upon the
(See ICAO term AERODROME BEACON.) needs of the air traffic system.
(Refer to AIM.) AIRSPACE HIERARCHY− Within the airspace
AIRPORT SURFACE DETECTION EQUIPMENT classes, there is a hierarchy and, in the event of an
(ASDE)− Surveillance equipment specifically de- overlap of airspace: Class A preempts Class B, Class
signed to detect aircraft, vehicular traffic, and other B preempts Class C, Class C preempts Class D, Class
objects, on the surface of an airport, and to present the D preempts Class E, and Class E preempts Class G.
image on a tower display. Used to augment visual AIRSPEED− The speed of an aircraft relative to its
observation by tower personnel of aircraft and/or surrounding air mass. The unqualified term
vehicular movements on runways and taxiways. “airspeed” means one of the following:
There are three ASDE systems deployed in the NAS:
a. Indicated Airspeed− The speed shown on the
a. ASDE−3− a Surface Movement Radar. aircraft airspeed indicator. This is the speed used in
b. ASDE−X− a system that uses an X−band pilot/controller communications under the general
Surface Movement Radar, multilateration, and term “airspeed.”
ADS−B. (Refer to 14 CFR Part 1.)
c. Airport Surface Surveillance Capability b. True Airspeed− The airspeed of an aircraft
(ASSC)− A system that uses Surface Movement relative to undisturbed air. Used primarily in flight
Radar, multilateration, and ADS−B. planning and en route portion of flight. When used in
pilot/controller communications, it is referred to as
AIRPORT SURVEILLANCE RADAR− Approach
“true airspeed” and not shortened to “airspeed.”
control radar used to detect and display an aircraft’s
position in the terminal area. ASR provides range and AIRSTART− The starting of an aircraft engine while
azimuth information but does not provide elevation the aircraft is airborne, preceded by engine shutdown
data. Coverage of the ASR can extend up to 60 miles. during training flights or by actual engine failure.
AIRPORT TAXI CHARTS− AIRWAY− A Class E airspace area established in the
(See AERONAUTICAL CHART.) form of a corridor, the centerline of which is defined
by radio navigational aids.
AIRPORT TRAFFIC CONTROL SERVICE− A
(See FEDERAL AIRWAYS.)
service provided by a control tower for aircraft
(See ICAO term AIRWAY.)
operating on the movement area and in the vicinity of
an airport. (Refer to 14 CFR Part 71.)
(Refer to AIM.)
(See MOVEMENT AREA.)
(See TOWER.) AIRWAY [ICAO]− A control area or portion thereof
(See ICAO term AERODROME CONTROL established in the form of corridor equipped with
SERVICE.) radio navigational aids.
AIRPORT TRAFFIC CONTROL TOWER− AIRWAY BEACON− Used to mark airway segments
(See TOWER.) in remote mountain areas. The light flashes Morse
Code to identify the beacon site.
AIRSPACE CONFLICT− Predicted conflict of an
(Refer to AIM.)
aircraft and active Special Activity Airspace (SAA).
AIS−
AIRSPACE FLOW PROGRAM (AFP)− AFP is a
Traffic Management (TM) process administered by (See AERONAUTICAL INFORMATION
SERVICES.)
the Air Traffic Control System Command Center
(ATCSCC) where aircraft are assigned an Expect AIT−
Departure Clearance Time (EDCT) in order to (See AUTOMATED INFORMATION
manage capacity and demand for a specific area of the TRANSFER.)
PCG A−9
6/17/21
ALERFA (Alert Phase) [ICAO]− A situation wherein variations in existing atmospheric pressure or to the
apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and standard altimeter setting (29.92).
its occupants. (Refer to 14 CFR Part 91.)
(Refer to AIM.)
ALERT− A notification to a position that there
is an aircraft-to-aircraft or aircraft-to-airspace ALTITUDE− The height of a level, point, or object
conflict, as detected by Automated Problem measured in feet Above Ground Level (AGL) or from
Detection (APD). Mean Sea Level (MSL).
(See FLIGHT LEVEL.)
ALERT AREA− a. MSL Altitude− Altitude expressed in feet
(See SPECIAL USE AIRSPACE.) measured from mean sea level.
ALERT NOTICE (ALNOT)− A request originated b. AGL Altitude− Altitude expressed in feet
by a flight service station (FSS) or an air route traffic measured above ground level.
control center (ARTCC) for an extensive commu- c. Indicated Altitude− The altitude as shown by an
nication search for overdue, unreported, or missing altimeter. On a pressure or barometric altimeter it is
aircraft. altitude as shown uncorrected for instrument error
and uncompensated for variation from standard
ALERTING SERVICE− A service provided to notify atmospheric conditions.
appropriate organizations regarding aircraft in need (See ICAO term ALTITUDE.)
of search and rescue aid and assist such organizations
as required. ALTITUDE [ICAO]− The vertical distance of a level,
a point or an object considered as a point, measured
ALNOT− from mean sea level (MSL).
(See ALERT NOTICE.) ALTITUDE READOUT− An aircraft’s altitude,
transmitted via the Mode C transponder feature, that
ALONG−TRACK DISTANCE (ATD)− The hori-
is visually displayed in 100-foot increments on a
zontal distance between the aircraft’s current position
radar scope having readout capability.
and a fix measured by an area navigation system that
(See ALPHANUMERIC DISPLAY.)
is not subject to slant range errors.
(See AUTOMATED RADAR TERMINAL
ALPHANUMERIC DISPLAY− Letters and numer- SYSTEMS.)
als used to show identification, altitude, beacon code, (Refer to AIM.)
and other information concerning a target on a radar ALTITUDE RESERVATION (ALTRV)− Airspace
display. utilization under prescribed conditions normally
(See AUTOMATED RADAR TERMINAL employed for the mass movement of aircraft or other
SYSTEMS.) special user requirements which cannot otherwise be
accomplished. ALTRVs are approved by the
ALTERNATE AERODROME [ICAO]− An aero-
appropriate FAA facility.
drome to which an aircraft may proceed when it
(See AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL SYSTEM
becomes either impossible or inadvisable to proceed
COMMAND CENTER.)
to or to land at the aerodrome of intended landing.
Note: The aerodrome from which a flight departs ALTITUDE RESTRICTION− An altitude or alti-
may also be an en-route or a destination alternate tudes, stated in the order flown, which are to be
aerodrome for the flight. maintained until reaching a specific point or time.
Altitude restrictions may be issued by ATC due to
ALTERNATE AIRPORT− An airport at which an traffic, terrain, or other airspace considerations.
aircraft may land if a landing at the intended airport ALTITUDE RESTRICTIONS ARE CANCELED−
becomes inadvisable. Adherence to previously imposed altitude restric-
(See ICAO term ALTERNATE AERODROME.) tions is no longer required during a climb or descent.
ALTIMETER SETTING− The barometric pressure ALTRV−
reading used to adjust a pressure altimeter for (See ALTITUDE RESERVATION.)
PCG A−10
12/2/21
AMVER− will be no closer than 5 miles from the landing

(See AUTOMATED MUTUAL-ASSISTANCE threshold.
VESSEL RESCUE SYSTEM.)
APPROACH/DEPARTURE HOLD AREA− The
APB− locations on taxiways in the approach or departure
areas of a runway designated to protect landing or
(See AUTOMATED PROBLEM DETECTION
BOUNDARY.) departing aircraft. These locations are identified by
signs and markings.
APD− APPROACH LIGHT SYSTEM−
(See AUTOMATED PROBLEM DETECTION.) (See AIRPORT LIGHTING.)
APDIA− APPROACH SEQUENCE− The order in which
(See AUTOMATED PROBLEM DETECTION aircraft are positioned while on approach or awaiting
INHIBITED AREA.) approach clearance.
(See LANDING SEQUENCE.)
APPROACH CLEARANCE− Authorization by (See ICAO term APPROACH SEQUENCE.)
ATC for a pilot to conduct an instrument approach.
The type of instrument approach for which a APPROACH SEQUENCE [ICAO]− The order in
clearance and other pertinent information is provided which two or more aircraft are cleared to approach to
in the approach clearance when required. land at the aerodrome.
(See CLEARED APPROACH.) APPROACH SPEED− The recommended speed
(See INSTRUMENT APPROACH contained in aircraft manuals used by pilots when
PROCEDURE.) making an approach to landing. This speed will vary
(Refer to AIM.) for different segments of an approach as well as for
(Refer to 14 CFR Part 91.) aircraft weight and configuration.
APPROACH CONTROL FACILITY− A terminal APPROACH WITH VERTICAL GUIDANCE

ATC facility that provides approach control service in (APV)– A term used to describe RNAV approach
a terminal area. procedures that provide lateral and vertical guidance
but do not meet the requirements to be considered a
(See APPROACH CONTROL SERVICE.)
precision approach.
(See RADAR APPROACH CONTROL
FACILITY.) APPROPRIATE ATS AUTHORITY [ICAO]− The
relevant authority designated by the State responsible
APPROACH CONTROL SERVICE− Air traffic for providing air traffic services in the airspace
control service provided by an approach control concerned. In the United States, the “appropriate ATS
facility for arriving and departing VFR/IFR aircraft authority” is the Program Director for Air Traffic
and, on occasion, en route aircraft. At some airports Planning and Procedures, ATP-1.
not served by an approach control facility, the
ARTCC provides limited approach control service. APPROPRIATE AUTHORITY−
(See ICAO term APPROACH CONTROL a. Regarding flight over the high seas: the relevant
SERVICE.) authority is the State of Registry.
(Refer to AIM.) b. Regarding flight over other than the high seas:
the relevant authority is the State having sovereignty
APPROACH CONTROL SERVICE [ICAO]− Air over the territory being overflown.
traffic control service for arriving or departing
controlled flights. APPROPRIATE OBSTACLE CLEARANCE
MINIMUM ALTITUDE− Any of the following:
APPROACH GATE− An imaginary point used (See MINIMUM EN ROUTE IFR ALTITUDE.)
within ATC as a basis for vectoring aircraft to the (See MINIMUM IFR ALTITUDE.)
final approach course. The gate will be established (See MINIMUM OBSTRUCTION CLEARANCE
along the final approach course 1 mile from the final ALTITUDE.)
approach fix on the side away from the airport and (See MINIMUM VECTORING ALTITUDE.)
PCG A−11
6/17/21
APPROPRIATE TERRAIN CLEARANCE b. MODIFIED T− An RNAV approach design for

MINIMUM ALTITUDE− Any of the following: single or multiple runways where terrain or
(See MINIMUM EN ROUTE IFR ALTITUDE.) operational constraints do not allow for the standard
(See MINIMUM IFR ALTITUDE.) T. The “T” may be modified by increasing or
(See MINIMUM OBSTRUCTION CLEARANCE decreasing the angle from the corner IAF(s) to the IF
ALTITUDE.) or by eliminating one or both corner IAFs.
(See MINIMUM VECTORING ALTITUDE.) c. STANDARD I− An RNAV approach design for
a single runway with both corner IAFs eliminated.
APRON− A defined area on an airport or heliport Course reversal or radar vectoring may be required at
intended to accommodate aircraft for purposes of busy terminals with multiple runways.
loading or unloading passengers or cargo, refueling,
parking, or maintenance. With regard to seaplanes, a d. TERMINAL ARRIVAL AREA (TAA)− The
ramp is used for access to the apron from the water. TAA is controlled airspace established in conjunction
with the Standard or Modified T and I RNAV
(See ICAO term APRON.)
approach configurations. In the standard TAA, there
APRON [ICAO]− A defined area, on a land are three areas: straight-in, left base, and right base.
aerodrome, intended to accommodate aircraft for The arc boundaries of the three areas of the TAA are
purposes of loading or unloading passengers, mail or published portions of the approach and allow aircraft
cargo, refueling, parking or maintenance. to transition from the en route structure direct to the
nearest IAF. TAAs will also eliminate or reduce
ARC− The track over the ground of an aircraft flying feeder routes, departure extensions, and procedure
at a constant distance from a navigational aid by turns or course reversal.
reference to distance measuring equipment (DME). 1. STRAIGHT-IN AREA− A 30 NM arc
AREA CONTROL CENTER [ICAO]− An air traffic centered on the IF bounded by a straight line
control facility primarily responsible for ATC extending through the IF perpendicular to the
services being provided IFR aircraft during the en intermediate course.
route phase of flight. The U.S. equivalent facility is 2. LEFT BASE AREA− A 30 NM arc centered
an air route traffic control center (ARTCC). on the right corner IAF. The area shares a boundary
with the straight-in area except that it extends out for
AREA NAVIGATION (RNAV)− A method of 30 NM from the IAF and is bounded on the other side
navigation which permits aircraft operation on any by a line extending from the IF through the FAF to the
desired flight path within the coverage of ground− or arc.
space−based navigation aids or within the limits of
the capability of self-contained aids, or a combination 3. RIGHT BASE AREA− A 30 NM arc
of these. centered on the left corner IAF. The area shares a
boundary with the straight-in area except that it
Note: Area navigation includes performance−
extends out for 30 NM from the IAF and is bounded
based navigation as well as other operations that
do not meet the definition of performance−based
on the other side by a line extending from the IF
navigation. through the FAF to the arc.
AREA NAVI GATION (R NAV) G L O B A L
AREA NAVIGATION (RNAV) APPROACH POSITIONING SYSTEM (GPS) PRECISION
CONFIGURATION: RUNWAY MONITORING (PRM) APPROACH–
a. STANDARD T− An RNAV approach whose A GPS approach, which requires vertical guidance,
design allows direct flight to any one of three initial used in lieu of another type of PRM approach to
approach fixes (IAF) and eliminates the need for conduct approaches to parallel runways whose
procedure turns. The standard design is to align the extended centerlines are separated by less than 4,300
procedure on the extended centerline with the missed feet and at least 3,000 feet, where simultaneous close
approach point (MAP) at the runway threshold, the parallel approaches are permitted. Also used in lieu
final approach fix (FAF), and the initial approach/ of an ILS PRM and/or LDA PRM approach to
intermediate fix (IAF/IF). The other two IAFs will be conduct Simultaneous Offset Instrument Approach
established perpendicular to the IF. (SOIA) operations.
PCG A−12
12/2/21
ARMY AVIATION FLIGHT INFORMATION ASDE−

BULLETIN− A bulletin that provides air operation (See AIRPORT SURFACE DETECTION
data covering Army, National Guard, and Army EQUIPMENT.)
Reserve aviation activities. ASLAR−
ARO− (See AIRCRAFT SURGE LAUNCH AND
RECOVERY.)
(See AIRPORT RESERVATION OFFICE.)
ASR−
ARRESTING SYSTEM− A safety device consisting (See AIRPORT SURVEILLANCE RADAR.)
of two major components, namely, engaging or
catching devices and energy absorption devices for ASR APPROACH−
the purpose of arresting both tailhook and/or (See SURVEILLANCE APPROACH.)
nontailhook-equipped aircraft. It is used to prevent ASSOCIATED− A radar target displaying a data
aircraft from overrunning runways when the aircraft block with flight identification and altitude
cannot be stopped after landing or during aborted information.
takeoff. Arresting systems have various names; e.g., (See UNASSOCIATED.)
arresting gear, hook device, wire barrier cable. ATC−
(See ABORT.) (See AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL.)
(Refer to AIM.)
ATC ADVISES− Used to prefix a message of
ARRIVAL CENTER− The ARTCC having jurisdic- noncontrol information when it is relayed to an
tion for the impacted airport. aircraft by other than an air traffic controller.
(See ADVISORY.)
ARRIVAL DELAY− A parameter which specifies a
period of time in which no aircraft will be metered for ATC ASSIGNED AIRSPACE− Airspace of defined
arrival at the specified airport. vertical/lateral limits, assigned by ATC, for the
purpose of providing air traffic segregation between
ARRIVAL/DEPARTURE WINDOW (ADW)− A the specified activities being conducted within the
depiction presented on an air traffic control display, assigned airspace and other IFR air traffic.
used by the controller to prevent possible conflicts (See SPECIAL USE AIRSPACE.)
between arrivals to, and departures from, a runway.
The ADW identifies that point on the final approach ATC CLEARANCE−
(See AIR TRAFFIC CLEARANCE.)
course by which a departing aircraft must have begun
takeoff. ATC CLEARS− Used to prefix an ATC clearance
when it is relayed to an aircraft by other than an air
ARRIVAL SECTOR (En Route)− An operational traffic controller.
control sector containing one or more meter fixes on
or near the TRACON boundary. ATC INSTRUCTIONS− Directives issued by air
traffic control for the purpose of requiring a pilot to
ARRIVAL TIME− The time an aircraft touches down take specific actions; e.g., “Turn left heading two five
on arrival. zero,” “Go around,” “Clear the runway.”
(Refer to 14 CFR Part 91.)
ARSR−
(See AIR ROUTE SURVEILLANCE RADAR.) ATC PREFERRED ROUTE NOTIFICATION−
EDST notification to the appropriate controller of the
ARTCC− need to determine if an ATC preferred route needs to
(See AIR ROUTE TRAFFIC CONTROL be applied, based on destination airport.
CENTER.) (See ROUTE ACTION NOTIFICATION.)
ASDA− (See EN ROUTE DECISION SUPPORT TOOL.)
(See ACCELERATE-STOP DISTANCE ATC PREFERRED ROUTES− Preferred routes that
AVAILABLE.) are not automatically applied by Host.
ASDA [ICAO]− ATC REQUESTS− Used to prefix an ATC request
(See ICAO Term ACCELERATE-STOP when it is relayed to an aircraft by other than an air
DISTANCE AVAILABLE.) traffic controller.
PCG A−13
6/17/21
ATC SECURITY SERVICES− Communications of safety and performance equal to or better than
and security tracking provided by an ATC facility in monopulse SSR.
support of the DHS, the DOD, or other Federal ATCAA−
security elements in the interest of national security. (See ATC ASSIGNED AIRSPACE.)
Such security services are only applicable within
designated areas. ATC security services do not ATCRBS−
include ATC basic radar services or flight following. (See RADAR.)
ATC SECURITY SERVICES POSITION− The ATCSCC−

position responsible for providing ATC security (See AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL SYSTEM
COMMAND CENTER.)
services as defined. This position does not provide
ATC, IFR separation, or VFR flight following ATCT−
services, but is responsible for providing security (See TOWER.)
services in an area comprising airspace assigned to ATD−
one or more ATC operating sectors. This position
(See ALONG−TRACK DISTANCE.)
may be combined with control positions.
ATIS−
ATC SECURITY TRACKING− The continuous (See AUTOMATIC TERMINAL INFORMATION
tracking of aircraft movement by an ATC facility in SERVICE.)
support of the DHS, the DOD, or other security
elements for national security using radar (i.e., radar ATIS [ICAO]−
tracking) or other means (e.g., manual tracking) (See ICAO Term AUTOMATIC TERMINAL
INFORMATION SERVICE.)
without providing basic radar services (including
traffic advisories) or other ATC services not defined ATPA−
in this section. (See AUTOMATED TERMINAL PROXIMITY
ALERT.)
ATS SURVEILLANCE SERVICE [ICAO]– A term
used to indicate a service provided directly by means ATS ROUTE [ICAO]− A specified route designed for
of an ATS surveillance system. channeling the flow of traffic as necessary for the
provision of air traffic services.
ATC SURVEILLANCE SOURCE– Used by ATC Note: The term “ATS Route” is used to mean
for establishing identification, control and separation variously, airway, advisory route, controlled or
using a target depicted on an air traffic control uncontrolled route, arrival or departure, etc.
facility’s video display that has met the relevant
ATTENTION ALL USERS PAGE (AAUP)- The
safety standards for operational use and received
AAUP provides the pilot with additional information
from one, or a combination, of the following
relative to conducting a specific operation, for
surveillance sources:
example, PRM approaches and RNAV departures.
a. Radar (See RADAR.)
b. ADS-B (See AUTOMATIC DEPENDENT AUTOLAND APPROACH−An autoland system
SURVEILLANCE−BROADCAST.) aids by providing control of aircraft systems during
c. WAM (See WIDE AREA MULTILATERATION.) a precision instrument approach to at least decision
(See INTERROGATOR.) altitude and possibly all the way to touchdown, as
(See TRANSPONDER.) well as in some cases, through the landing rollout.
(See ICAO term RADAR.) The autoland system is a sub-system of the autopilot
(Refer to AIM.) system from which control surface management
occurs. The aircraft autopilot sends instructions to the
ATS SURVEILLANCE SYSTEM [ICAO]– A autoland system and monitors the autoland system
generic term meaning variously, ADS−B, PSR, SSR performance and integrity during its execution.
or any comparable ground−based system that enables
AUTOMATED EMERGENCY DESCENT−
the identification of aircraft.
(See EMERGENCY DESCENT MODE.)
Note: A comparable ground−based system is one
that has been demonstrated, by comparative AUTOMATED INFORMATION TRANSFER
assessment or other methodology, to have a level (AIT)− A precoordinated process, specifically
PCG A−14
12/2/21
defined in facility directives, during which a transfer advisory information on an Automated UNICOM
of altitude control and/or radar identification is system. These systems offer a variety of features,
accomplished without verbal coordination between typically selectable by microphone clicks, on the
controllers using information communicated in a full UNICOM frequency. Availability will be published
data block. in the Chart Supplement U.S. and approach charts.
AUTOMATED MUTUAL-ASSISTANCE VESSEL AUTOMATIC ALTITUDE REPORT−

RESCUE SYSTEM− A facility which can deliver, in (See ALTITUDE READOUT.)
a matter of minutes, a surface picture (SURPIC) of
vessels in the area of a potential or actual search and AUTOMATIC ALTITUDE REPORTING− That
rescue incident, including their predicted positions function of a transponder which responds to Mode C
and their characteristics. interrogations by transmitting the aircraft’s altitude
(See FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 10−6−4, in 100-foot increments.
INFLIGHT CONTINGENCIES.)
AUTOMATIC CARRIER LANDING SYSTEM−
AUTOMATED PROBLEM DETECTION (APD)− U.S. Navy final approach equipment consisting of
An Automation Processing capability that compares precision tracking radar coupled to a computer data
trajectories in order to predict conflicts. link to provide continuous information to the aircraft,
monitoring capability to the pilot, and a backup
AUTOMATED PROBLEM DETECTION approach system.
BOUNDARY (APB)− The adapted distance beyond
a facilities boundary defining the airspace within AUTOMATIC DEPENDENT SURVEILLANCE
which EDST performs conflict detection. (ADS) [ICAO]− A surveillance technique in which
aircraft automatically provide, via a data link, data
(See EN ROUTE DECISION SUPPORT TOOL.)
derived from on−board navigation and position
AUTOMATED PROBLEM DETECTION INHIB- fixing systems, including aircraft identification, four
ITED AREA (APDIA)− Airspace surrounding a dimensional position and additional data as
terminal area within which APD is inhibited for all appropriate.
flights within that airspace. AUTOMATIC DEPENDENT SURVEILLANCE−
AUTOMATED TERMINAL PROXIMITY ALERT BROADCAST (ADS-B)− A surveillance system in
(ATPA)− Monitors the separation of aircraft on the which an aircraft or vehicle to be detected is fitted
Final Approach Course (FAC), displaying a with cooperative equipment in the form of a data link
graphical notification (cone and/or mileage) when a transmitter. The aircraft or vehicle periodically
potential loss of separation is detected. The warning broadcasts its GNSS−derived position and other
cone (Yellow) will display at 45 seconds and the alert required information such as identity and velocity,
cone (Red) will display at 24 seconds prior to which is then received by a ground−based or
predicted loss of separation. Current distance space−based receiver for processing and display at an
between two aircraft on final will be displayed in line air traffic control facility, as well as by suitably
3 of the full data block of the trailing aircraft in equipped aircraft.
corresponding colors. (See AUTOMATIC DEPENDENT
SURVEILLANCE−BROADCAST IN.)
AUTOMATED WEATHER SYSTEM− Any of the (See AUTOMATIC DEPENDENT
automated weather sensor platforms that collect SURVEILLANCE−BROADCAST OUT.)
weather data at airports and disseminate the weather (See COOPERATIVE SURVEILLANCE.)
information via radio and/or landline. The systems (See GLOBAL POSITIONING SYSTEM.)
currently consist of the Automated Surface Observ- (See SPACE−BASED ADS−B.)
ing System (ASOS) and Automated Weather
Observation System (AWOS). AUTOMATIC DEPENDENT SURVEILLANCE−
BROADCAST IN (ADS−B In)− Aircraft avionics
AUTOMATED UNICOM− Provides completely capable of receiving ADS−B Out transmissions
automated weather, radio check capability and airport directly from other aircraft, as well as traffic or
PCG A−15
6/17/21
weather information transmitted from ground be based on airborne and ground transmitters in the
stations. VHF/UHF frequency spectrum.
(See AUTOMATIC DEPENDENT (See BEARING.)
SURVEILLANCE−BROADCAST OUT.) (See NONDIRECTIONAL BEACON.)
SURVEILLANCE−REBROADCAST.) AUTOMATIC FLIGHT INFORMATION SER-
VICE (AFIS) − ALASKA FSSs ONLY− The
(See FLIGHT INFORMATION
SERVICE−BROADCAST.) continuous broadcast of recorded non−control
information at airports in Alaska where a FSS
(See TRAFFIC INFORMATION
SERVICE−BROADCAST.) provides local airport advisory service. The AFIS
broadcast automates the repetitive transmission of
AUTOMATIC DEPENDENT SURVEILLANCE− essential but routine information such as weather,
BROADCAST OUT (ADS−B Out)− The transmitter wind, altimeter, favored runway, braking action,
onboard an aircraft or ground vehicle that airport NOTAMs, and other applicable information.
periodically broadcasts its GNSS−derived position The information is continuously broadcast over a
along with other required information, such as discrete VHF radio frequency (usually the ASOS/
identity, altitude, and velocity. AWOS frequency).
(See AUTOMATIC DEPENDENT AUTOMATIC TERMINAL INFORMATION SER-
VICE− The continuous broadcast of recorded
(See AUTOMATIC DEPENDENT noncontrol information in selected terminal areas. Its
SURVEILLANCE−BROADCAST IN.)
purpose is to improve controller effectiveness and to
AUTOMATIC DEPENDENT SURVEILLANCE− relieve frequency congestion by automating the
CONTRACT (ADS−C)− A data link position repetitive transmission of essential but routine
reporting system, controlled by a ground station, that information; e.g., “Los Angeles information Alfa.
establishes contracts with an aircraft’s avionics that One three zero zero Coordinated Universal Time.
occur automatically whenever specific events occur, Weather, measured ceiling two thousand overcast,
or specific time intervals are reached. visibility three, haze, smoke, temperature seven one,
dew point five seven, wind two five zero at five,
AUTOMATIC DEPENDENT SURVEILLANCE- altimeter two niner niner six. I-L-S Runway Two Five
REBROADCAST (ADS-R)− A datalink translation Left approach in use, Runway Two Five Right closed,
function of the ADS−B ground system required to advise you have Alfa.”
accommodate the two separate operating frequencies (See ICAO term AUTOMATIC TERMINAL
(978 MHz and 1090 MHz). The ADS−B system INFORMATION SERVICE.)
receives the ADS−B messages transmitted on one (Refer to AIM.)
frequency and ADS−R translates and reformats the
information for rebroadcast and use on the other AUTOMATIC TERMINAL INFORMATION SER-
frequency. This allows ADS−B In equipped aircraft VICE [ICAO]− The provision of current, routine
to see nearby ADS−B Out traffic regardless of the information to arriving and departing aircraft by
operating link of the other aircraft. Aircraft operating means of continuous and repetitive broadcasts
on the same ADS−B frequency exchange information throughout the day or a specified portion of the day.
directly and do not require the ADS−R translation AUTOROTATION− A rotorcraft flight condition in
function. which the lifting rotor is driven entirely by action of
the air when the rotorcraft is in motion.
AUTOMATIC DIRECTION FINDER− An aircraft
radio navigation system which senses and indicates a. Autorotative Landing/Touchdown Autorota-
the direction to a L/MF nondirectional radio beacon tion. Used by a pilot to indicate that the landing will
(NDB) ground transmitter. Direction is indicated to be made without applying power to the rotor.
the pilot as a magnetic bearing or as a relative bearing b. Low Level Autorotation. Commences at an
to the longitudinal axis of the aircraft depending on altitude well below the traffic pattern, usually below
the type of indicator installed in the aircraft. In certain 100 feet AGL and is used primarily for tactical
applications, such as military, ADF operations may military training.
PCG A−16
Pilot/Controller
6/17/21 Glossary 12/2/21
Pilot/Controller Glossary
c. 180 degrees Autorotation. Initiated from a convective damaging winds as indicated in Public
downwind heading and is commenced well inside the Watch Notification Messages within the Continental
normal traffic pattern. “Go around” may not be U.S. A SAW message provides a description of the
possible during the latter part of this maneuver. type of watch issued by SPC, a valid time, an
approximation of the area in a watch, and primary
AVAILABLE LANDING DISTANCE (ALD)− The hazard(s).
portion of a runway available for landing and roll-out
for aircraft cleared for LAHSO. This distance is AVIATION WEATHER SERVICE− A service
measured from the landing threshold to the provided by the National Weather Service (NWS) and
hold-short point. FAA which collects and disseminates pertinent
weather information for pilots, aircraft operators, and
AVIATION WATCH NOTIFICATION MESSAGE− ATC. Available aviation weather reports and
The Storm Prediction Center (SPC) issues Aviation forecasts are displayed at each NWS office and FAA
Watch Notification Messages (SAW) to provide an FSS.
area threat alert for the aviation meteorology (See TRANSCRIBED WEATHER BROADCAST.)
community to forecast organized severe thunder- (See WEATHER ADVISORY.)
storms that may produce tornadoes, large hail, and/or (Refer to AIM.)
PCG A−17
B
BACK-TAXI− A term used by air traffic controllers BLIND VELOCITY [ICAO]− The radial velocity of
to taxi an aircraft on the runway opposite to the traffic a moving target such that the target is not seen on
flow. The aircraft may be instructed to back-taxi to primary radars fitted with certain forms of fixed echo
the beginning of the runway or at some point before suppression.
reaching the runway end for the purpose of departure BLIND ZONE−
or to exit the runway. (See BLIND SPOT.)
BASE LEG− BLOCKED− Phraseology used to indicate that a
(See TRAFFIC PATTERN.) radio transmission has been distorted or interrupted
due to multiple simultaneous radio transmissions.
BEACON−
(See AERONAUTICAL BEACON.)
BOTTOM ALTITUDE– In reference to published
altitude restrictions on a STAR or STAR runway
(See AIRPORT ROTATING BEACON.)
transition, the lowest altitude authorized.
(See AIRWAY BEACON.)
(See MARKER BEACON.) BOUNDARY LIGHTS−
(See NONDIRECTIONAL BEACON.) (See AIRPORT LIGHTING.)
(See RADAR.) BRAKING ACTION (GOOD, GOOD TO MEDI-
UM, MEDIUM, MEDIUM TO POOR, POOR, OR
BEARING− The horizontal direction to or from any NIL)− A report of conditions on the airport
point, usually measured clockwise from true north, movement area providing a pilot with a degree/quali-
magnetic north, or some other reference point ty of braking to expect. Braking action is reported in
through 360 degrees. terms of good, good to medium, medium, medium to
(See NONDIRECTIONAL BEACON.) poor, poor, or nil.
BELOW MINIMUMS− Weather conditions below (See RUNWAY CONDITION READING.)
the minimums prescribed by regulation for the (See RUNWAY CONDITION REPORT.)
particular action involved; e.g., landing minimums, (See RUNWAY CONDITION CODES.)
takeoff minimums. BRAKING ACTION ADVISORIES− When tower
controllers receive runway braking action reports
BLAST FENCE− A barrier that is used to divert or which include the terms “medium,” “poor,” or “nil,”
dissipate jet or propeller blast. or whenever weather conditions are conducive to
BLAST PAD− A surface adjacent to the ends of a deteriorating or rapidly changing runway braking
runway provided to reduce the erosive effect of jet conditions, the tower will include on the ATIS
blast and propeller wash. broadcast the statement, “Braking Action Advisories
are in Effect.” During the time braking action
BLIND SPEED− The rate of departure or closing of advisories are in effect, ATC will issue the most
a target relative to the radar antenna at which current braking action report for the runway in use to
cancellation of the primary radar target by moving each arriving and departing aircraft. Pilots should be
target indicator (MTI) circuits in the radar equipment prepared for deteriorating braking conditions and
causes a reduction or complete loss of signal. should request current runway condition information
(See ICAO term BLIND VELOCITY.) if not issued by controllers. Pilots should also be
prepared to provide a descriptive runway condition
BLIND SPOT− An area from which radio report to controllers after landing.
transmissions and/or radar echoes cannot be
received. The term is also used to describe portions BREAKOUT− A technique to direct aircraft out of
of the airport not visible from the control tower. the approach stream. In the context of simultaneous
(independent) parallel operations, a breakout is used
BLIND TRANSMISSION− to direct threatened aircraft away from a deviating
(See TRANSMITTING IN THE BLIND.) aircraft.
PCG B−1
BROADCAST− Transmission of information for BUFFER AREA− As applied to an MVA or MIA

which an acknowledgement is not expected. chart, a depicted 3 NM or 5 NM radius MVA/MIA
(See ICAO term BROADCAST.) sector isolating a displayed obstacle for which the
BROADCAST [ICAO]− A transmission of informa- sector is established. A portion of a buffer area can
tion relating to air navigation that is not addressed to also be inclusive of a MVA/MIA sector polygon
a specific station or stations. boundary.
PCG B−2
12/2/21
C
CALCULATED LANDING TIME− A term that may CENTER’S AREA− The specified airspace within
be used in place of tentative or actual calculated which an air route traffic control center (ARTCC)
landing time, whichever applies. provides air traffic control and advisory service.
(See AIR ROUTE TRAFFIC CONTROL
CALL FOR RELEASE− Wherein the overlying
CENTER.)
ARTCC requires a terminal facility to initiate verbal
(Refer to AIM.)
coordination to secure ARTCC approval for release
of a departure into the en route environment. CENTER WEATHER ADVISORY− An unsched-
uled weather advisory issued by Center Weather
CALL UP− Initial voice contact between a facility Service Unit meteorologists for ATC use to alert
and an aircraft, using the identification of the unit pilots of existing or anticipated adverse weather
being called and the unit initiating the call. conditions within the next 2 hours. A CWA may
(Refer to AIM.) modify or redefine a SIGMET.
CANADIAN MINIMUM NAVIGATION PERFOR- (See AIRMET.)
MANCE SPECIFICATION AIRSPACE− That (See CONVECTIVE SIGMET.)
portion of Canadian domestic airspace within which (See SAW.)
MNPS separation may be applied. (See SIGMET.)
(Refer to AIM.)
CARDINAL ALTITUDES− “Odd” or “Even”
thousand-foot altitudes or flight levels; e.g., 5,000, CENTRAL EAST PACIFIC− An organized route
6,000, 7,000, FL 250, FL 260, FL 270. system between the U.S. West Coast and Hawaii.
(See ALTITUDE.) CEP−
(See FLIGHT LEVEL.) (See CENTRAL EAST PACIFIC.)
CARDINAL FLIGHT LEVELS− CERAP−
(See CARDINAL ALTITUDES.) (See COMBINED CENTER-RAPCON.)
CAT− CERTIFICATE OF WAIVER OR AUTHORIZA-
(See CLEAR-AIR TURBULENCE.) TION (COA)− An FAA grant of approval for a
specific flight operation or airspace authorization or
CATCH POINT− A fix/waypoint that serves as a waiver.
transition point from the high altitude waypoint
navigation structure to an arrival procedure (STAR) CERTIFIED TOWER RADAR DISPLAY (CTRD)−
or the low altitude ground−based navigation An FAA radar display certified for use in the NAS.
structure. CFR−
CEILING− The heights above the earth’s surface of (See CALL FOR RELEASE.)
the lowest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena CHA
that is reported as “broken,” “overcast,” or (See CONTINGENCY HAZARD AREA)
“obscuration,” and not classified as “thin” or
“partial.” CHAFF− Thin, narrow metallic reflectors of various
lengths and frequency responses, used to reflect radar
(See ICAO term CEILING.)
energy. These reflectors, when dropped from aircraft
CEILING [ICAO]− The height above the ground or and allowed to drift downward, result in large targets
water of the base of the lowest layer of cloud below on the radar display.
6,000 meters (20,000 feet) covering more than half
CHART SUPPLEMENT U.S.− A publication
the sky.
designed primarily as a pilot’s operational manual
CENTER− containing all airports, seaplane bases, and heliports
(See AIR ROUTE TRAFFIC CONTROL open to the public including communications data,
CENTER.) navigational facilities, and certain special notices and
PCG C−1
6/17/21
procedures. This publication is issued in seven the runway aligned with the instrument approach
volumes according to geographical area. procedure. When the direction of the circling
maneuver in relation to the airport/runway is
CHARTED VFR FLYWAYS− Charted VFR Fly-
required, the controller will state the direction (eight
ways are flight paths recommended for use to bypass
cardinal compass points) and specify a left or right
areas heavily traversed by large turbine-powered
downwind or base leg as appropriate; e.g., “Cleared
aircraft. Pilot compliance with recommended
VOR Runway Three Six Approach circle to Runway
flyways and associated altitudes is strictly voluntary.
Two Two,” or “Circle northwest of the airport for a
VFR Flyway Planning charts are published on the
right downwind to Runway Two Two.”
back of existing VFR Terminal Area charts.
(See CIRCLE-TO-LAND MANEUVER.)
CHARTED VISUAL FLIGHT PROCEDURE (See LANDING MINIMUMS.)
APPROACH− An approach conducted while (Refer to AIM.)
operating on an instrument flight rules (IFR) flight CIRCLING APPROACH−
plan which authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to (See CIRCLE-TO-LAND MANEUVER.)
proceed visually and clear of clouds to the airport via
visual landmarks and other information depicted on CIRCLING MANEUVER−
a charted visual flight procedure. This approach must (See CIRCLE-TO-LAND MANEUVER.)
be authorized and under the control of the appropriate CIRCLING MINIMA−
air traffic control facility. Weather minimums (See LANDING MINIMUMS.)
required are depicted on the chart. CLASS A AIRSPACE−
CHASE− An aircraft flown in proximity to another (See CONTROLLED AIRSPACE.)
aircraft normally to observe its performance during CLASS B AIRSPACE−
training or testing. (See CONTROLLED AIRSPACE.)
CHASE AIRCRAFT− CLASS C AIRSPACE−
(See CHASE.) (See CONTROLLED AIRSPACE.)
CHOP− A form of turbulence. CLASS D AIRSPACE−
a. Light Chop– Turbulence that causes slight, (See CONTROLLED AIRSPACE.)
rapid and somewhat rhythmic bumpiness without CLASS E AIRSPACE−
appreciable changes in altitude or attitude. (See CONTROLLED AIRSPACE.)
b. Moderate Chop– Turbulence similar to Light CLASS G AIRSPACE− Airspace that is not
Chop but of greater intensity. It causes rapid bumps designated in 14 CFR Part 71 as Class A, Class B,
or jolts without appreciable changes in aircraft Class C, Class D, or Class E controlled airspace is
altitude or attitude. Class G (uncontrolled) airspace.
(See TURBULENCE.) (See UNCONTROLLED AIRSPACE.)
CIRCLE-TO-LAND MANEUVER− A maneuver CLEAR AIR TURBULENCE (CAT)− Turbulence
initiated by the pilot to align the aircraft with a encountered in air where no clouds are present. This
runway for landing when a straight-in landing from term is commonly applied to high-level turbulence
an instrument approach is not possible or is not associated with wind shear. CAT is often encountered
desirable. At tower controlled airports, this maneuver in the vicinity of the jet stream.
is made only after ATC authorization has been (See WIND SHEAR.)
obtained and the pilot has established required visual (See JET STREAM.)
reference to the airport. CLEAR OF THE RUNWAY−
(See CIRCLE TO RUNWAY.) a. Taxiing aircraft, which is approaching a
(See LANDING MINIMUMS.) runway, is clear of the runway when all parts of the
(Refer to AIM.) aircraft are held short of the applicable runway
CIRCLE TO RUNWAY (RUNWAY NUMBER)− holding position marking.
Used by ATC to inform the pilot that he/she must b. A pilot or controller may consider an aircraft,
circle to land because the runway in use is other than which is exiting or crossing a runway, to be clear of
PCG C−2
12/2/21
the runway when all parts of the aircraft are beyond approach procedure to an airport; e.g., “Cleared ILS
the runway edge and there are no restrictions to its Runway Three Six Approach.”
continued movement beyond the applicable runway (See APPROACH CLEARANCE.)
holding position marking. (See INSTRUMENT APPROACH
PROCEDURE.)
c. Pilots and controllers shall exercise good
judgement to ensure that adequate separation exists
between all aircraft on runways and taxiways at (Refer to AIM.)
airports with inadequate runway edge lines or CLEARED AS FILED− Means the aircraft is cleared
holding position markings. to proceed in accordance with the route of flight filed
in the flight plan. This clearance does not include the
CLEARANCE− altitude, DP, or DP Transition.
(See AIR TRAFFIC CLEARANCE.) (See REQUEST FULL ROUTE CLEARANCE.)
(Refer to AIM.)
CLEARANCE LIMIT− The fix, point, or location to
CLEARED FOR TAKEOFF− ATC authorization
which an aircraft is cleared when issued an air traffic
for an aircraft to depart. It is predicated on known
clearance.
traffic and known physical airport conditions.
(See ICAO term CLEARANCE LIMIT.)
CLEARED FOR THE OPTION− ATC authoriza-
CLEARANCE LIMIT [ICAO]− The point to which tion for an aircraft to make a touch-and-go, low
an aircraft is granted an air traffic control clearance. approach, missed approach, stop and go, or full stop
landing at the discretion of the pilot. It is normally
CLEARANCE VOID IF NOT OFF BY (TIME)− used in training so that an instructor can evaluate a
Used by ATC to advise an aircraft that the departure student’s performance under changing situations.
clearance is automatically canceled if takeoff is not Pilots should advise ATC if they decide to remain on
made prior to a specified time. The pilot must obtain the runway, of any delay in their stop and go, delay
a new clearance or cancel his/her IFR flight plan if not clearing the runway, or are unable to comply with the
off by the specified time. instruction(s).
(See OPTION APPROACH.)
(See ICAO term CLEARANCE VOID TIME.)
(Refer to AIM.)
CLEARANCE VOID TIME [ICAO]− A time CLEARED THROUGH− ATC authorization for an
specified by an air traffic control unit at which a aircraft to make intermediate stops at specified
clearance ceases to be valid unless the aircraft airports without refiling a flight plan while en route
concerned has already taken action to comply to the clearance limit.
therewith.
CLEARED TO LAND− ATC authorization for an
aircraft to land. It is predicated on known traffic and
CLEARED APPROACH− ATC authorization for an
known physical airport conditions.
aircraft to execute any standard or special instrument
approach procedure for that airport. Normally, an CLEARWAY− An area beyond the takeoff runway
aircraft will be cleared for a specific instrument under the control of airport authorities within which
approach procedure. terrain or fixed obstacles may not extend above
(See CLEARED (Type of) APPROACH.) specified limits. These areas may be required for
(See INSTRUMENT APPROACH certain turbine-powered operations and the size and
PROCEDURE.) upward slope of the clearway will differ depending on
(Refer to 14 CFR Part 91.) when the aircraft was certificated.
(Refer to AIM.)
CLIMB TO VFR− ATC authorization for an aircraft
CLEARED (Type of) APPROACH− ATC authoriza- to climb to VFR conditions within Class B, C, D, and
tion for an aircraft to execute a specific instrument E surface areas when the only weather limitation is
PCG C−3
6/17/21
restricted visibility. The aircraft must remain clear of or preclude ATC from providing services based on
clouds while climbing to VFR. radar.
(See SPECIAL VFR CONDITIONS.) (See CHAFF.)
(Refer to AIM.) (See GROUND CLUTTER.)
(See PRECIPITATION.)
CLIMBOUT− That portion of flight operation (See TARGET.)
between takeoff and the initial cruising altitude. (See ICAO term RADAR CLUTTER.)
CLIMB VIA– An abbreviated ATC clearance that CMNPS−
requires compliance with the procedure lateral path, (See CANADIAN MINIMUM NAVIGATION
associated speed restrictions, and altitude restrictions PERFORMANCE SPECIFICATION AIRSPACE.)
along the cleared route or procedure. COA−
CLOSE PARALLEL RUNWAYS− Two parallel (See CERTIFICATE OF WAIVER OR
runways whose extended centerlines are separated by AUTHORIZATION.)
less than 4,300 feet and at least 3000 feet (750 feet for COASTAL FIX− A navigation aid or intersection
SOIA operations) for which ATC is authorized to where an aircraft transitions between the domestic
conduct simultaneous independent approach opera- route structure and the oceanic route structure.
tions. PRM and simultaneous close parallel appear in
CODES− The number assigned to a particular
approach title. Dual communications, special pilot
multiple pulse reply signal transmitted by a
training, an Attention All Users Page (AAUP), NTZ
transponder.
monitoring by displays that have aural and visual
(See DISCRETE CODE.)
alerting algorithms are required. A high update rate
surveillance sensor is required for certain runway or COLD TEMPERATURE CORRECTION− A
approach course spacing. correction in feet, based on height above airport and
temperature, that is added to the aircraft’s indicated
CLOSED LOOP CLEARANCE− A vector or reroute altitude to offset the effect of cold temperature on true
clearance that includes a return to route point and altitude.
updates ERAM to accurately reflect the anticipated
route (e.g., a QU route pick that anticipates length of COLLABORATIVE TRAJECTORY OPTIONS
vector and includes the next fix that ties into the route PROGRAM (CTOP)− CTOP is a traffic management
of flight.) program administered by the Air Traffic Control
System Command Center (ATCSCC) that manages
CLOSED RUNWAY− A runway that is unusable for demand through constrained airspace, while consid-
aircraft operations. Only the airport management/ ering operator preference with regard to both route
military operations office can close a runway. and delay as defined in a Trajectory Options Set
(TOS).
CLOSED TRAFFIC− Successive operations involv-
ing takeoffs and landings or low approaches where COMBINED CENTER-RAPCON− An air traffic
the aircraft does not exit the traffic pattern. facility which combines the functions of an ARTCC
and a radar approach control facility.
CLOUD− A cloud is a visible accumulation of (See AIR ROUTE TRAFFIC CONTROL
minute water droplets and/or ice particles in the CENTER.)
atmosphere above the Earth’s surface. Cloud differs (See RADAR APPROACH CONTROL
from ground fog, fog, or ice fog only in that the latter FACILITY.)
are, by definition, in contact with the Earth’s surface. COMMON POINT− A significant point over which
CLT− two or more aircraft will report passing or have
(See CALCULATED LANDING TIME.)
reported passing before proceeding on the same or
diverging tracks. To establish/maintain longitudinal
CLUTTER− In radar operations, clutter refers to the separation, a controller may determine a common
reception and visual display of radar returns caused point not originally in the aircraft’s flight plan and
by precipitation, chaff, terrain, numerous aircraft then clear the aircraft to fly over the point.
targets, or other phenomena. Such returns may limit (See SIGNIFICANT POINT.)
PCG C−4
12/2/21
COMMON PORTION− COMPOSITE FLIGHT PLAN− A flight plan which

(See COMMON ROUTE.) specifies VFR operation for one portion of flight and
IFR for another portion. It is used primarily in
COMMON ROUTE− That segment of a North military operations.
American Route between the inland navigation (Refer to AIM.)
facility and the coastal fix.
COMPULSORY REPORTING POINTS− Reporting
OR points which must be reported to ATC. They are
designated on aeronautical charts by solid triangles or
COMMON ROUTE− filed in a flight plan as fixes selected to define direct
(See SEGMENTS OF A SID/STAR) routes. These points are geographical locations
which are defined by navigation aids/fixes. Pilots
COMMON TRAFFIC ADVISORY FREQUENCY should discontinue position reporting over compul-
(CTAF)− A frequency designed for the purpose of sory reporting points when informed by ATC that
carrying out airport advisory practices while their aircraft is in “radar contact.”
operating to or from an airport without an operating
control tower. The CTAF may be a UNICOM, COMPUTER NAVIGATION FIX (CNF)− A
Multicom, FSS, or tower frequency and is identified Computer Navigation Fix is a point defined by a
in appropriate aeronautical publications. latitude/longitude coordinate and is required to
(See DESIGNATED COMMON TRAFFIC support Performance−Based Navigation (PBN)
ADVISORY FREQUENCY (CTAF) AREA.) operations. A five−letter identifier denoting a CNF
(Refer to AC 90-66, Non−Towered Airport Flight can be found next to an “x” on en route charts and on
Operations.) some approach charts. Eventually, all CNFs will be
labeled and begin with the letters “CF” followed by
COMPASS LOCATOR− A low power, low or three consonants (e.g., ‘CFWBG’). CNFs are not
medium frequency (L/MF) radio beacon installed at recognized by ATC, are not contained in ATC fix or
the site of the outer or middle marker of an instrument automation databases, and are not used for ATC
landing system (ILS). It can be used for navigation at purposes. Pilots should not use CNFs for point−to−
distances of approximately 15 miles or as authorized point navigation (e.g., proceed direct), filing a flight
in the approach procedure. plan, or in aircraft/ATC communications. Use of
a. Outer Compass Locator (LOM)− A compass CNFs has not been adopted or recognized by the
locator installed at the site of the outer marker of an International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO).
instrument landing system. (REFER to AIM 1−1−17b5(i)(2), Global
Positioning System (GPS).
(See OUTER MARKER.)
b. Middle Compass Locator (LMM)− A compass CONDITIONS NOT MONITORED− When an
locator installed at the site of the middle marker of an airport operator cannot monitor the condition of the
instrument landing system. movement area or airfield surface area, this
(See MIDDLE MARKER.) information is issued as a NOTAM. Usually
necessitated due to staffing, operating hours or other
(See ICAO term LOCATOR.)
mitigating factors associated with airport operations.
COMPASS ROSE− A circle, graduated in degrees, CONFIDENCE MANEUVER− A confidence man-
printed on some charts or marked on the ground at an euver consists of one or more turns, a climb or
airport. It is used as a reference to either true or descent, or other maneuver to determine if the pilot
magnetic direction. in command (PIC) is able to receive and comply with
COMPLY WITH RESTRICTIONS− An ATC ATC instructions.
instruction that requires an aircraft being vectored CONFLICT ALERT− A function of certain air traffic
back onto an arrival or departure procedure to comply control automated systems designed to alert radar
with all altitude and/or speed restrictions depicted on controllers to existing or pending situations between
the procedure. This term may be used in lieu of tracked targets (known IFR or VFR aircraft) that
repeating each remaining restriction that appears on require his/her immediate attention/action.
the procedure. (See MODE C INTRUDER ALERT.)
PCG C−5
6/17/21
CONFLICT RESOLUTION− The resolution of control authorization, operating clear of clouds with
potential conflictions between aircraft that are radar at least 1 mile flight visibility and a reasonable
identified and in communication with ATC by expectation of continuing to the destination airport in
ensuring that radar targets do not touch. Pertinent those conditions, may deviate from the instrument
traffic advisories shall be issued when this procedure approach procedure and proceed to the destination
is applied. airport by visual reference to the surface. This
Note: This procedure shall not be provided utilizing approach will only be authorized when requested by
mosaic radar systems. the pilot and the reported ground visibility at the
destination airport is at least 1 statute mile.
CONFORMANCE− The condition established when (Refer to AIM.)
an aircraft’s actual position is within the conformance
region constructed around that aircraft at its position, CONTAMINATED RUNWAY− A runway is
according to the trajectory associated with the considered contaminated whenever standing water,
aircraft’s Current Plan. ice, snow, slush, frost in any form, heavy rubber, or
other substances are present. A runway is contami-
CONFORMANCE REGION− A volume, bounded nated with respect to rubber deposits or other
laterally, vertically, and longitudinally, within which friction-degrading substances when the average
an aircraft must be at a given time in order to be in friction value for any 500-foot segment of the runway
conformance with the Current Plan Trajectory for that within the ALD fails below the recommended
aircraft. At a given time, the conformance region is minimum friction level and the average friction value
determined by the simultaneous application of the in the adjacent 500-foot segments falls below the
lateral, vertical, and longitudinal conformance maintenance planning friction level.
bounds for the aircraft at the position defined by time
and aircraft’s trajectory. CONTERMINOUS U.S.− The 48 adjoining States
and the District of Columbia.
CONSOLAN− A low frequency, long-distance
NAVAID used principally for transoceanic naviga- CONTINENTAL UNITED STATES− The 49 States
tions. located on the continent of North America and the
District of Columbia.
CONSOLIDATED WAKE TURBULENCE
(CWT)− A version of RECAT that has nine CONTINGENCY HAZARD AREA (CHA)− Used
categories, A through I, that refines the grouping of by ATC. Areas of airspace that are defined and
aircraft while optimizing wake turbulence separa- distributed in advance of a launch or reentry
tion. operation and are activated in response to a failure.
(See AIRCRAFT HAZARD AREA.)
CONSTRAINT SATISFACTION POINT (CSP)− (See REFINED HAZARD AREA.)
Meter Reference Elements (MREs) that are actively (See TRANSITIONAL HAZARD AREA.)
scheduled by TBFM. Constraint satisfaction occurs
when the Scheduled Time of Arrival generated for CONTINUE− When used as a control instruction
each metered flight conforms to all the scheduling should be followed by another word or words
constraints specified at all the applicable CSPs. clarifying what is expected of the pilot. Example:
“continue taxi,” “continue descent,” “continue
CONTACT− inbound,” etc.
a. Establish communication with (followed by the CONTROL AREA [ICAO]− A controlled airspace
name of the facility and, if appropriate, the frequency extending upwards from a specified limit above the
to be used). earth.
b. A flight condition wherein the pilot ascertains
CONTROL SECTOR− An airspace area of defined
the attitude of his/her aircraft and navigates by visual
horizontal and vertical dimensions for which a
reference to the surface.
controller or group of controllers has air traffic
(See CONTACT APPROACH.)
control responsibility, normally within an air route
(See RADAR CONTACT.)
traffic control center or an approach control facility.
CONTACT APPROACH− An approach wherein an Sectors are established based on predominant traffic
aircraft on an IFR flight plan, having an air traffic flows, altitude strata, and controller workload. Pilot
PCG C−6
12/2/21
communications during operations within a sector are so cleared receive separation services within the
are normally maintained on discrete frequencies airspace. The cloud clearance requirement for VFR
assigned to the sector. operations is “clear of clouds.”
(See DISCRETE FREQUENCY.) 3. CLASS C− Generally, that airspace from the
CONTROL SLASH− A radar beacon slash repre- surface to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation
senting the actual position of the associated aircraft. (charted in MSL) surrounding those airports that
Normally, the control slash is the one closest to the have an operational control tower, are serviced by a
interrogating radar beacon site. When ARTCC radar radar approach control, and that have a certain
is operating in narrowband (digitized) mode, the number of IFR operations or passenger enplane-
control slash is converted to a target symbol. ments. Although the configuration of each Class C
area is individually tailored, the airspace usually
CONTROLLED AIRSPACE− An airspace of consists of a surface area with a 5 NM radius, a circle
defined dimensions within which air traffic control with a 10 NM radius that extends no lower than 1,200
service is provided to IFR flights and to VFR flights feet up to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation, and
in accordance with the airspace classification. an outer area that is not charted. Each person must
a. Controlled airspace is a generic term that covers establish two-way radio communications with the
Class A, Class B, Class C, Class D, and Class E ATC facility providing air traffic services prior to
airspace. entering the airspace and thereafter maintain those
b. Controlled airspace is also that airspace within communications while within the airspace. VFR
which all aircraft operators are subject to certain pilot aircraft are only separated from IFR aircraft within
qualifications, operating rules, and equipment the airspace.
requirements in 14 CFR Part 91 (for specific (See OUTER AREA.)
operating requirements, please refer to 14 CFR 4. CLASS D− Generally, that airspace from the
Part 91). For IFR operations in any class of controlled surface to 2,500 feet above the airport elevation
airspace, a pilot must file an IFR flight plan and (charted in MSL) surrounding those airports that
receive an appropriate ATC clearance. Each Class B, have an operational control tower. The configuration
Class C, and Class D airspace area designated for an of each Class D airspace area is individually tailored
airport contains at least one primary airport around and when instrument procedures are published, the
which the airspace is designated (for specific airspace will normally be designed to contain the
designations and descriptions of the airspace classes, procedures. Arrival extensions for instrument
please refer to 14 CFR Part 71). approach procedures may be Class D or Class E
c. Controlled airspace in the United States is airspace. Unless otherwise authorized, each person
designated as follows: must establish two-way radio communications with
1. CLASS A− Generally, that airspace from the ATC facility providing air traffic services prior to
18,000 feet MSL up to and including FL 600, entering the airspace and thereafter maintain those
including the airspace overlying the waters within 12 communications while in the airspace. No separation
nautical miles of the coast of the 48 contiguous States services are provided to VFR aircraft.
and Alaska. Unless otherwise authorized, all persons 5. CLASS E− Generally, if the airspace is not
must operate their aircraft under IFR. Class A, Class B, Class C, or Class D, and it is
2. CLASS B− Generally, that airspace from the controlled airspace, it is Class E airspace. Class E
surface to 10,000 feet MSL surrounding the nation’s airspace extends upward from either the surface or a
busiest airports in terms of airport operations or designated altitude to the overlying or adjacent
passenger enplanements. The configuration of each controlled airspace. When designated as a surface
Class B airspace area is individually tailored and area, the airspace will be configured to contain all
consists of a surface area and two or more layers instrument procedures. Also in this class are Federal
(some Class B airspace areas resemble upside-down airways, airspace beginning at either 700 or 1,200
wedding cakes), and is designed to contain all feet AGL used to transition to/from the terminal or en
published instrument procedures once an aircraft route environment, en route domestic, and offshore
enters the airspace. An ATC clearance is required for airspace areas designated below 18,000 feet MSL.
all aircraft to operate in the area, and all aircraft that Unless designated at a lower altitude, Class E
PCG C−7
6/17/21
airspace begins at 14,500 MSL over the United equipment onboard the aircraft or vehicle to be
States, including that airspace overlying the waters detected.
within 12 nautical miles of the coast of the 48 (See AUTOMATIC DEPENDENT
contiguous States and Alaska, up to, but not SURVEILLANCE−BROADCAST.)
including 18,000 feet MSL, and the airspace above (See NON−COOPERATIVE SURVEILLANCE.)
FL 600. (See RADAR.)
CONTROLLED AIRSPACE [ICAO]− An airspace (See WIDE AREA MULTILATERATION.)
of defined dimensions within which air traffic control COORDINATES− The intersection of lines of
service is provided to IFR flights and to VFR flights reference, usually expressed in degrees/minutes/
in accordance with the airspace classification. seconds of latitude and longitude, used to determine
Note: Controlled airspace is a generic term which position or location.
covers ATS airspace Classes A, B, C, D, and E.
COORDINATION FIX− The fix in relation to which
CONTROLLED TIME OF ARRIVAL− Arrival time facilities will handoff, transfer control of an aircraft,
assigned during a Traffic Management Program. This or coordinate flight progress data. For terminal
time may be modified due to adjustments or user facilities, it may also serve as a clearance for arriving
options. aircraft.
CONTROLLER− COPTER−
(See AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL SPECIALIST.) (See HELICOPTER.)
CONTROLLER [ICAO]− A person authorized to CORRECTION− An error has been made in the
provide air traffic control services. transmission and the correct version follows.
CONTROLLER PILOT DATA LINK COUPLED APPROACH− An instrument approach
COMMUNICATIONS (CPDLC)− A two−way performed by the aircraft autopilot, and/or visually
digital communications system that conveys textual depicted on the flight director, which is receiving
air traffic control messages between controllers and position information and/or steering commands from
pilots using ground or satellite-based radio relay onboard navigational equipment. In general, coupled
stations. non-precision approaches must be flown manually
CONVECTIVE SIGMET− A weather advisory (autopilot disengaged) at altitudes lower than 50 feet
concerning convective weather significant to the AGL below the minimum descent altitude, and
safety of all aircraft. Convective SIGMETs are issued coupled precision approaches must be flown
for tornadoes, lines of thunderstorms, embedded manually (autopilot disengaged) below 50 feet AGL
thunderstorms of any intensity level, areas of unless authorized to conduct autoland operations.
thunderstorms greater than or equal to VIP level 4 Coupled instrument approaches are commonly flown
with an area coverage of 4/10 (40%) or more, and hail to the allowable IFR weather minima established by
3/ inch or greater.
4 the operator or PIC, or flown VFR for training and
(See AIRMET.) safety.
(See CWA.) COUPLED SCHEDULING (CS)/ EXTENDED
(See SAW.) METERING (XM)− Adds additional Constraint
(See SIGMET.) Satisfaction Points for metered aircraft along their
(Refer to AIM.) route. This provides the ability to merge flows
CONVECTIVE SIGNIFICANT METEOROLOG- upstream from the meter fix and results in a more
ICAL INFORMATION− optimal distribution of delays over a greater distance
(See CONVECTIVE SIGMET.)
from the airport, increased meter list accuracy, and
more accurate delivery to the meter fix.
COOPERATIVE SURVEILLANCE− Any surveil-
lance system, such as secondary surveillance radar COURSE−
(SSR), wide−area multilateration (WAM), or ADS− a. The intended direction of flight in the horizontal
B, that is dependent upon the presence of certain plane measured in degrees from north.
PCG C−8
12/2/21
b. The ILS localizer signal pattern usually CRUISE− Used in an ATC clearance to authorize a
specified as the front course or the back course. pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from the
(See BEARING.) minimum IFR altitude up to and including the
(See INSTRUMENT LANDING SYSTEM.) altitude specified in the clearance. The pilot may
(See RADIAL.) level off at any intermediate altitude within this block
of airspace. Climb/descent within the block is to be
CPDLC− made at the discretion of the pilot. However, once the
(See CONTROLLER PILOT DATA LINK pilot starts descent and verbally reports leaving an
COMMUNICATIONS.) altitude in the block, he/she may not return to that
CPL [ICAO]− altitude without additional ATC clearance. Further, it
is approval for the pilot to proceed to and make an
(See ICAO term CURRENT FLIGHT PLAN.)
approach at destination airport and can be used in
CRITICAL ENGINE− The engine which, upon conjunction with:
failure, would most adversely affect the performance a. An airport clearance limit at locations with a
or handling qualities of an aircraft. standard/special instrument approach procedure. The
CROSS (FIX) AT (ALTITUDE)− Used by ATC CFRs require that if an instrument letdown to an
when a specific altitude restriction at a specified fix airport is necessary, the pilot shall make the letdown
is required. in accordance with a standard/special instrument
approach procedure for that airport, or
CROSS (FIX) AT OR ABOVE (ALTITUDE)− Used b. An airport clearance limit at locations that are
by ATC when an altitude restriction at a specified fix within/below/outside controlled airspace and with-
is required. It does not prohibit the aircraft from out a standard/special instrument approach
crossing the fix at a higher altitude than specified; procedure. Such a clearance is NOT AUTHORIZA-
however, the higher altitude may not be one that will TION for the pilot to descend under IFR conditions
violate a succeeding altitude restriction or altitude below the applicable minimum IFR altitude nor does
assignment. it imply that ATC is exercising control over aircraft
(See ALTITUDE RESTRICTION.) in Class G airspace; however, it provides a means for
(Refer to AIM.) the aircraft to proceed to destination airport, descend,
CROSS (FIX) AT OR BELOW (ALTITUDE)− and land in accordance with applicable CFRs
Used by ATC when a maximum crossing altitude at governing VFR flight operations. Also, this provides
a specific fix is required. It does not prohibit the search and rescue protection until such time as the
aircraft from crossing the fix at a lower altitude; IFR flight plan is closed.
however, it must be at or above the minimum IFR (See INSTRUMENT APPROACH
altitude. PROCEDURE.)
(See ALTITUDE RESTRICTION.) CRUISE CLIMB− A climb technique employed by
(See MINIMUM IFR ALTITUDES.) aircraft, usually at a constant power setting, resulting
(Refer to 14 CFR Part 91.) in an increase of altitude as the aircraft weight
decreases.
CROSSWIND−
a. When used concerning the traffic pattern, the CRUISING ALTITUDE− An altitude or flight level
word means “crosswind leg.” maintained during en route level flight. This is a
(See TRAFFIC PATTERN.)
constant altitude and should not be confused with a
cruise clearance.
b. When used concerning wind conditions, the (See ALTITUDE.)
word means a wind not parallel to the runway or the
(See ICAO term CRUISING LEVEL.)
path of an aircraft.
(See CROSSWIND COMPONENT.) CRUISING LEVEL−
(See CRUISING ALTITUDE.)
CROSSWIND COMPONENT− The wind compo-
nent measured in knots at 90 degrees to the CRUISING LEVEL [ICAO]− A level maintained
longitudinal axis of the runway. during a significant portion of a flight.
PCG C−9
6/17/21
CSP− CTOP−
(See CONSTRAINT SATISFACTION POINT) (See COLLABORATIVE TRAJECTORY
OPTIONS PROGRAM)
CT MESSAGE− An EDCT time generated by the CTRD−
ATCSCC to regulate traffic at arrival airports. (See CERTIFIED TOWER RADAR DISPLAY.)
Normally, a CT message is automatically transferred CURRENT FLIGHT PLAN [ICAO]− The flight
from the traffic management system computer to the plan, including changes, if any, brought about by
NAS en route computer and appears as an EDCT. In subsequent clearances.
the event of a communication failure between the
traffic management system computer and the NAS, CURRENT PLAN− The ATC clearance the aircraft
the CT message can be manually entered by the TMC has received and is expected to fly.
at the en route facility. CVFP APPROACH−
(See CHARTED VISUAL FLIGHT PROCEDURE
CTA− APPROACH.)
(See CONTROLLED TIME OF ARRIVAL.) CWA−
(See ICAO term CONTROL AREA.) (See CENTER WEATHER ADVISORY and
WEATHER ADVISORY.)
CTAF− CWT−
(See COMMON TRAFFIC ADVISORY (See CONSOLIDATED WAKE
FREQUENCY.) TURBULENCE.)
PCG C−10
12/2/21
D
D−ATIS− radio altimeter and not a barometric altimeter, which
(See DIGITAL-AUTOMATIC TERMINAL makes the minima a DH.
INFORMATION SERVICE.) 3. The required visual reference means that section of
the visual aids or of the approach area which should
D−ATIS [ICAO]−
have been in view for sufficient time for the pilot to
(See ICAO Term DATA LINK AUTOMATIC
have made an assessment of the aircraft position and
TERMINAL INFORMATION SERVICE.)
rate of change of position, in relation to the desired
DA [ICAO]− flight path.
(See ICAO Term DECISION
DECISION ALTITUDE (DA)− A specified altitude
ALTITUDE/DECISION HEIGHT.)
(mean sea level (MSL)) on an instrument approach
DAIR− procedure (ILS, GLS, vertically guided RNAV) at
(See DIRECT ALTITUDE AND IDENTITY which the pilot must decide whether to continue the
READOUT.) approach or initiate an immediate missed approach if
the pilot does not see the required visual references.
DANGER AREA [ICAO]− An airspace of defined
dimensions within which activities dangerous to the DECISION HEIGHT (DH)− With respect to the
flight of aircraft may exist at specified times. operation of aircraft, means the height at which a
Note: The term “Danger Area” is not used in decision must be made during an ILS or PAR
reference to areas within the United States or any instrument approach to either continue the approach
of its possessions or territories. or to execute a missed approach.
(See ICAO term DECISION
DAS− ALTITUDE/DECISION HEIGHT.)
(See DELAY ASSIGNMENT.)
DECODER− The device used to decipher signals
DATA BLOCK− received from ATCRBS transponders to effect their
(See ALPHANUMERIC DISPLAY.) display as select codes.
DATA LINK AUTOMATIC TERMINAL INFOR- (See CODES.)
MATION SERVICE (D−ATIS) [ICAO]− The (See RADAR.)
provision of ATIS via data link. DEFENSE AREA– Any airspace of the contiguous
DCT− United States that is not an ADIZ in which the control
of aircraft is required for reasons of national security.
(See DELAY COUNTDOWN TIMER.)
DEFENSE VISUAL FLIGHT RULES− Rules
DEAD RECKONING− Dead reckoning, as applied
applicable to flights within an ADIZ conducted under
to flying, is the navigation of an airplane solely by
the visual flight rules in 14 CFR Part 91.
means of computations based on airspeed, course,
(See AIR DEFENSE IDENTIFICATION ZONE.)
heading, wind direction, and speed, groundspeed,
and elapsed time.
DECISION ALTITUDE/DECISION HEIGHT
DELAY ASSIGNMENT (DAS)− Delays are distrib-
[ICAO Annex 6]- A specified altitude or height (A/H)
uted to aircraft based on the traffic management
in the precision approach at which a missed approach
program parameters. The delay assignment is
must be initiated if the required visual reference to
calculated in 15−minute increments and appears as a
continue the approach has not been established.
table in Traffic Flow Management System (TFMS).
1. Decision altitude (DA) is referenced to mean sea
level and decision height (DH) is referenced to the DELAY COUNTDOWN TIMER (DCT)− The
threshold elevation. display of the delay that must be absorbed by a flight
2. Category II and III minima are expressed as a DH prior to crossing a Meter Reference Element (MRE)
and not a DA. Minima is assessed by reference to a to meet the TBFM Scheduled Time of Arrival (STA).
PCG D−1
6/17/21
It is calculated by taking the difference between the VTA. These calculations start at the transition point
frozen STA and the Estimated Time of Arrival (ETA). and use arrival speed segments to the vertex.
DELAY INDEFINITE (REASON IF KNOWN) DESIGNATED COMMON TRAFFIC ADVISORY
EXPECT FURTHER CLEARANCE (TIME)− FREQUENCY (CTAF) AREA− In Alaska, in
Used by ATC to inform a pilot when an accurate addition to being designated for the purpose of
estimate of the delay time and the reason for the delay carrying out airport advisory practices while
cannot immediately be determined; e.g., a disabled operating to or from an airport without an operating
aircraft on the runway, terminal or center area airport traffic control tower, a CTAF may also be
saturation, weather below landing minimums, etc. designated for the purpose of carrying out advisory
(See EXPECT FURTHER CLEARANCE (TIME).) practices for operations in and through areas with a
high volume of VFR traffic.
DEPARTURE CENTER− The ARTCC having
jurisdiction for the airspace that generates a flight to DESIRED COURSE−
the impacted airport. a. True− A predetermined desired course direction
to be followed (measured in degrees from true north).
DEPARTURE CONTROL− A function of an
approach control facility providing air traffic control b. Magnetic− A predetermined desired course
service for departing IFR and, under certain direction to be followed (measured in degrees from
conditions, VFR aircraft. local magnetic north).
(See APPROACH CONTROL FACILITY.) DESIRED TRACK− The planned or intended track
(Refer to AIM.) between two waypoints. It is measured in degrees
from either magnetic or true north. The instantaneous
DEPARTURE SEQUENCING PROGRAM− A
angle may change from point to point along the great
program designed to assist in achieving a specified
circle track between waypoints.
interval over a common point for departures.
DETRESFA (DISTRESS PHASE) [ICAO]− The
DEPARTURE TIME− The time an aircraft becomes
code word used to designate an emergency phase
airborne.
wherein there is reasonable certainty that an aircraft
DEPARTURE VIEWER− A capability within the and its occupants are threatened by grave and
Traffic Flow Management System (TFMS) that imminent danger or require immediate assistance.
provides combined displays for monitoring departure DEVIATIONS−
by fixes and departure airports. Traffic management
personnel can customize the displays by selecting the a. A departure from a current clearance, such as an
departure airports and fixes of interest. The off course maneuver to avoid weather or turbulence.
information displayed is the demand for the resource b. Where specifically authorized in the CFRs and
(fix or departure airport) in time bins with the flight requested by the pilot, ATC may permit pilots to
list and a flight history for one flight at a time. From deviate from certain regulations.
the display, flights can be selected for route DH−
amendment, one or more at a time, and the Route (See DECISION HEIGHT.)
Amendment Dialogue (RAD) screen automatically
opens for easy route selection and execution. Reroute DH [ICAO]−
options are based on Coded Departure Route (CDR) (See ICAO Term DECISION ALTITUDE/
database and Trajectory Options Set (TOS) (when DECISION HEIGHT.)
available). DIGITAL-AUTOMATIC TERMINAL INFORMA-
TION SERVICE (D-ATIS)− The service provides
DESCEND VIA– An abbreviated ATC clearance that
text messages to aircraft, airlines, and other users
requires compliance with a published procedure
outside the standard reception range of conventional
lateral path and associated speed restrictions and
ATIS via landline and data link communications to
provides a pilot-discretion descent to comply with
the cockpit. Also, the service provides a computer−
published altitude restrictions.
synthesized voice message that can be transmitted to
DESCENT SPEED ADJUSTMENTS− Speed decel- all aircraft within range of existing transmitters. The
eration calculations made to determine an accurate Terminal Data Link System (TDLS) D-ATIS
PCG D−2
12/2/21
application uses weather inputs from local automated for each control sector in en route/terminal ATC
weather sources or manually entered meteorological facilities. Discrete frequencies are listed in the Chart
data together with preprogrammed menus to provide Supplement U.S. and the DOD FLIP IFR En Route
standard information to users. Airports with D-ATIS Supplement.
capability are listed in the Chart Supplement U.S. (See CONTROL SECTOR.)
DIGITAL TARGET− A computer−generated symbol DISPLACED THRESHOLD− A threshold that is
representing an aircraft’s position, based on a primary located at a point on the runway other than the
return or radar beacon reply, shown on a digital designated beginning of the runway.
display. (See THRESHOLD.)
(Refer to AIM.)
DIGITAL TERMINAL AUTOMATION SYSTEM
(DTAS)− A system where digital radar and beacon DISTANCE MEASURING EQUIPMENT (DME)−
data is presented on digital displays and the Equipment (airborne and ground) used to measure, in
operational program monitors the system perfor- nautical miles, the slant range distance of an aircraft
mance on a real−time basis. from the DME navigational aid.
(See TACAN.)
DIGITIZED TARGET− A computer−generated
(See VORTAC.)
indication shown on an analog radar display resulting
from a primary radar return or a radar beacon reply. DISTRESS− A condition of being threatened by
serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring
DIRECT− Straight line flight between two naviga- immediate assistance.
tional aids, fixes, points, or any combination thereof.
When used by pilots in describing off-airway routes, DIVE BRAKES−
points defining direct route segments become (See SPEED BRAKES.)
compulsory reporting points unless the aircraft is DIVERSE VECTOR AREA− In a radar environ-
under radar contact. ment, that area in which a prescribed departure route
DIRECTLY BEHIND− An aircraft is considered to is not required as the only suitable route to avoid
be operating directly behind when it is following the obstacles. The area in which random radar vectors
actual flight path of the lead aircraft over the surface below the MVA/MIA, established in accordance with
of the earth except when applying wake turbulence the TERPS criteria for diverse departures, obstacles
separation criteria. and terrain avoidance, may be issued to departing
aircraft.
DISCRETE BEACON CODE−
(See DISCRETE CODE.) DIVERSION (DVRSN)− Flights that are required to
land at other than their original destination for
DISCRETE CODE− As used in the Air Traffic reasons beyond the control of the pilot/company, e.g.
Control Radar Beacon System (ATCRBS), any one periods of significant weather.
of the 4096 selectable Mode 3/A aircraft transponder
codes except those ending in zero zero; e.g., discrete DME−
codes: 0010, 1201, 2317, 7777; nondiscrete codes: (See DISTANCE MEASURING EQUIPMENT.)
0100, 1200, 7700. Nondiscrete codes are normally DME FIX− A geographical position determined by
reserved for radar facilities that are not equipped with reference to a navigational aid which provides
discrete decoding capability and for other purposes distance and azimuth information. It is defined by a
such as emergencies (7700), VFR aircraft (1200), etc. specific distance in nautical miles and a radial,
(See RADAR.) azimuth, or course (i.e., localizer) in degrees
(Refer to AIM.) magnetic from that aid.
(See DISTANCE MEASURING EQUIPMENT.)
DISCRETE FREQUENCY− A separate radio
(See FIX.)
frequency for use in direct pilot-controller commu-
nications in air traffic control which reduces DME SEPARATION− Spacing of aircraft in terms of
frequency congestion by controlling the number of distances (nautical miles) determined by reference to
aircraft operating on a particular frequency at one distance measuring equipment (DME).
time. Discrete frequencies are normally designated (See DISTANCE MEASURING EQUIPMENT.)
PCG D−3
6/17/21
DOD FLIP− Department of Defense Flight Informa- DROP ZONE− Any pre-determined area upon which
tion Publications used for flight planning, en route, parachutists or objects land after making an
and terminal operations. FLIP is produced by the intentional parachute jump or drop.
National Geospatial−Intelligence Agency (NGA) for (Refer to 14 CFR §105.3, Definitions)
world-wide use. United States Government Flight
DSP−
Information Publications (en route charts and
(See DEPARTURE SEQUENCING PROGRAM.)
instrument approach procedure charts) are incorpo-
rated in DOD FLIP for use in the National Airspace DTAS−
System (NAS). (See DIGITAL TERMINAL AUTOMATION
SYSTEM.)
DOMESTIC AIRSPACE− Airspace which overlies
the continental land mass of the United States plus DUE REGARD− A phase of flight wherein an
Hawaii and U.S. possessions. Domestic airspace aircraft commander of a State-operated aircraft
extends to 12 miles offshore. assumes responsibility to separate his/her aircraft
from all other aircraft.
DOMESTIC NOTICE− A special notice or notice
(See also FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 1−2−1,
containing graphics or plain language text pertaining
WORD MEANINGS.)
to almost every aspect of aviation, such as military
training areas, large scale sporting events, air show DUTY RUNWAY−
information, Special Traffic Management Programs (See RUNWAY IN USE/ACTIVE RUNWAY/DUTY
(STMPs), and airport−specific information. These RUNWAY.)
notices are applicable to operations within the United DVA−
States and can be found on the Domestic Notices (See DIVERSE VECTOR AREA.)
website.
DVFR−
DOWNBURST− A strong downdraft which induces
(See DEFENSE VISUAL FLIGHT RULES.)
an outburst of damaging winds on or near the ground.
Damaging winds, either straight or curved, are highly DVFR FLIGHT PLAN− A flight plan filed for a VFR
divergent. The sizes of downbursts vary from 1/2 aircraft which intends to operate in airspace within
mile or less to more than 10 miles. An intense which the ready identification, location, and control
downburst often causes widespread damage. Damag- of aircraft are required in the interest of national
ing winds, lasting 5 to 30 minutes, could reach speeds security.
as high as 120 knots. DVRSN−
DOWNWIND LEG− (See DIVERSION.)
(See TRAFFIC PATTERN.)
DYNAMIC− Continuous review, evaluation, and
DP− change to meet demands.
(See INSTRUMENT DEPARTURE PROCEDURE.)
DYNAMIC RESTRICTIONS− Those restrictions
DRAG CHUTE− A parachute device installed on imposed by the local facility on an “as needed” basis
certain aircraft which is deployed on landing roll to to manage unpredictable fluctuations in traffic
assist in deceleration of the aircraft. demands.
PCG D−4
E
EAS− an electronic means to provide a display of the
(See EN ROUTE AUTOMATION SYSTEM.) forward external scene topography (the natural or
man−made features of a place or region especially in
EDCT− a way to show their relative positions and elevation)
(See EXPECT DEPARTURE CLEARANCE through the use of imaging sensors, including but not
TIME.) limited to forward−looking infrared, millimeter wave
EDST− radiometry, millimeter wave radar, or low−light level
(See EN ROUTE DECISION SUPPORT TOOL) image intensification. An EFVS includes the display
element, sensors, computers and power supplies,
EFC− indications, and controls. An operator’s authoriza-
(See EXPECT FURTHER CLEARANCE (TIME).) tion to conduct an EFVS operation may have
provisions which allow pilots to conduct IAPs when
ELT−
the reported weather is below minimums prescribed
(See EMERGENCY LOCATOR TRANSMITTER.)
on the IAP to be flown.
EMERGENCY− A distress or an urgency condition.
EN ROUTE AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL SER-
EMERGENCY AUTOLAND SYSTEM− This VICES− Air traffic control service provided aircraft
system, if activated, will determine an optimal on IFR flight plans, generally by centers, when these
airport, plot a course, broadcast the aircraft’s aircraft are operating between departure and
intentions, fly to the airport, land, and (depending on destination terminal areas. When equipment, capa-
the model) shut down the engines. Though the system bilities, and controller workload permit, certain
will broadcast the aircraft’s intentions, the controller advisory/assistance services may be provided to VFR
should assume that transmissions to the aircraft will aircraft.
not be acknowledged. (See AIR ROUTE TRAFFIC CONTROL
CENTER.)
EMERGENCY DESCENT MODE− This automated
(Refer to AIM.)
system senses conditions conducive to hypoxia
(cabin depressurization). If an aircraft is equipped EN ROUTE AUTOMATION SYSTEM (EAS)− The
and the system is activated, it is designed to turn the complex integrated environment consisting of
aircraft up to 90 degrees, then descend to a lower situation display systems, surveillance systems and
altitude and level off, giving the pilot(s) time to flight data processing, remote devices, decision
recover. support tools, and the related communications
EMERGENCY LOCATOR TRANSMITTER equipment that form the heart of the automated IFR
(ELT)− A radio transmitter attached to the aircraft air traffic control system. It interfaces with automated
structure which operates from its own power source terminal systems and is used in the control of en route
on 121.5 MHz and 243.0 MHz. It aids in locating IFR aircraft.
downed aircraft by radiating a downward sweeping (Refer to AIM.)
audio tone, 2-4 times per second. It is designed to
EN ROUTE CHARTS−
function without human action after an accident.
(See AERONAUTICAL CHART.)
(Refer to AIM.) EN ROUTE DECISION SUPPORT TOOL (EDST)−
An automated tool provided at each Radar Associate
E-MSAW−
position in selected En Route facilities. This tool
(See EN ROUTE MINIMUM SAFE ALTITUDE
utilizes flight and radar data to determine present and
WARNING.)
future trajectories for all active and proposal aircraft
ENHANCED FLIGHT VISION SYSTEM (EFVS)− and provides enhanced automated flight data
An EFVS is an installed aircraft system which uses management.
PCG E−1
6/17/21
EN ROUTE DESCENT− Descent from the en route ESTIMATED POSITION ERROR (EPE)−
cruising altitude which takes place along the route of (See Required Navigation Performance)
flight.
ESTIMATED TIME OF ARRIVAL− The time the
EN ROUTE HIGH ALTITUDE CHARTS− flight is estimated to arrive at the gate (scheduled
(See AERONAUTICAL CHART.) operators) or the actual runway on times for
nonscheduled operators.
EN ROUTE LOW ALTITUDE CHARTS−
(See AERONAUTICAL CHART.) ESTIMATED TIME EN ROUTE− The estimated
flying time from departure point to destination
EN ROUTE MINIMUM SAFE ALTITUDE WARN-
(lift-off to touchdown).
ING (E−MSAW)− A function of the EAS that aids the
controller by providing an alert when a tracked ETA−
aircraft is below or predicted by the computer to go (See ESTIMATED TIME OF ARRIVAL.)
below a predetermined minimum IFR altitude ETE−
(MIA).
(See ESTIMATED TIME EN ROUTE.)
EN ROUTE TRANSITION− EXECUTE MISSED APPROACH− Instructions
(See SEGMENTS OF A SID/STAR.) issued to a pilot making an instrument approach
EN ROUTE TRANSITION WAYPOINT which means continue inbound to the missed
(See SEGMENTS OF A SID/STAR.) approach point and execute the missed approach
procedure as described on the Instrument Approach
EST−
Procedure Chart or as previously assigned by ATC.
(See ESTIMATED.) The pilot may climb immediately to the altitude
ESTABLISHED− To be stable or fixed at an altitude specified in the missed approach procedure upon
or on a course, route, route segment, heading, making a missed approach. No turns should be
instrument approach or departure procedure, etc. initiated prior to reaching the missed approach point.
When conducting an ASR or PAR approach, execute
ESTABLISHED ON RNP (EoR) CONCEPT– A
the assigned missed approach procedure immediately
system of au . . thorized instrument approaches,
upon receiving instructions to “execute missed
ATC procedures, surveillance, and communication
approach.”
requirements that allow aircraft operations to be
(Refer to AIM.)
safely conducted with approved reduced separation
criteria once aircraft are established on a PBN EXPECT (ALTITUDE) AT (TIME) or (FIX)− Used
segment of a published instrument flight procedure. under certain conditions to provide a pilot with an
altitude to be used in the event of two-way
ESTIMATED (EST)−When used in NOTAMs
communications failure. It also provides altitude
“EST” is a contraction that is used by the issuing
information to assist the pilot in planning.
authority only when the condition is expected to
(Refer to AIM.)
return to service prior to the expiration time. Using
“EST” lets the user know that this NOTAM has the EXPECT DEPARTURE CLEARANCE TIME
possibility of returning to service earlier than the (EDCT)− The runway release time assigned to an
expiration time. Any NOTAM which includes an aircraft in a traffic management program and shown
“EST” will be auto−expired at the designated on the flight progress strip as an EDCT.
expiration time. (See GROUND DELAY PROGRAM.)
ESTIMATED ELAPSED TIME [ICAO]− The EXPECT FURTHER CLEARANCE (TIME)− The
estimated time required to proceed from one time a pilot can expect to receive clearance beyond a
significant point to another. clearance limit.
(See ICAO Term TOTAL ESTIMATED ELAPSED EXPECT FURTHER CLEARANCE VIA (AIR-
TIME.)
WAYS, ROUTES OR FIXES)− Used to inform a
ESTIMATED OFF-BLOCK TIME [ICAO]− The pilot of the routing he/she can expect if any part of the
estimated time at which the aircraft will commence route beyond a short range clearance limit differs
movement associated with departure. from that filed.
PCG E−2
12/2/21
EXPEDITE− Used by ATC when prompt com-

pliance is required to avoid the development of an
imminent situation. Expedite climb/descent normal-
ly indicates to a pilot that the approximate best rate
of climb/descent should be used without requiring an
exceptional change in aircraft handling characteris-
tics.
PCG E−3
12/2/21
F
FAF− FILED− Normally used in conjunction with flight
(See FINAL APPROACH FIX.) plans, meaning a flight plan has been submitted to
ATC.
FALLEN HERO– Remains of fallen members of the
United States military are often returned home by FILED EN ROUTE DELAY− Any of the following
aircraft. These flights may be identified with the preplanned delays at points/areas along the route of
phrase “FALLEN HERO” added to the remarks flight which require special flight plan filing and
section of the flight plan, or they may be transmitted handling techniques.
via air/ground communications. If able, these flights a. Terminal Area Delay. A delay within a terminal
will receive priority handling. area for touch-and-go, low approach, or other
terminal area activity.
FAST FILE− An FSS system whereby a pilot files a
b. Special Use Airspace Delay. A delay within a
flight plan via telephone that is recorded and later
Military Operations Area, Restricted Area, Warning
transcribed for transmission to the appropriate air
Area, or ATC Assigned Airspace.
traffic facility. (Alaska only.)
c. Aerial Refueling Delay. A delay within an
FAWP− Final Approach Waypoint Aerial Refueling Track or Anchor.
FEATHERED PROPELLER− A propeller whose FILED FLIGHT PLAN− The flight plan as filed with
blades have been rotated so that the leading and an ATS unit by the pilot or his/her designated
trailing edges are nearly parallel with the aircraft representative without any subsequent changes or
flight path to stop or minimize drag and engine clearances.
rotation. Normally used to indicate shutdown of a FINAL− Commonly used to mean that an aircraft is
reciprocating or turboprop engine due to malfunc- on the final approach course or is aligned with a
tion. landing area.
FEDERAL AIRWAYS− (See FINAL APPROACH COURSE.)
(See FINAL APPROACH-IFR.)
(See LOW ALTITUDE AIRWAY STRUCTURE.)
(See SEGMENTS OF AN INSTRUMENT
FEEDER FIX− The fix depicted on Instrument APPROACH PROCEDURE.)
Approach Procedure Charts which establishes the FINAL APPROACH [ICAO]− That part of an
starting point of the feeder route. instrument approach procedure which commences at
FEEDER ROUTE− A route depicted on instrument the specified final approach fix or point, or where
approach procedure charts to designate routes for such a fix or point is not specified.
aircraft to proceed from the en route structure to the a. At the end of the last procedure turn, base turn
initial approach fix (IAF). or inbound turn of a racetrack procedure, if specified;
(See INSTRUMENT APPROACH or
PROCEDURE.) b. At the point of interception of the last track
specified in the approach procedure; and ends at a
FERRY FLIGHT− A flight for the purpose of:
point in the vicinity of an aerodrome from which:
a. Returning an aircraft to base. 1. A landing can be made; or
b. Delivering an aircraft from one location to 2. A missed approach procedure is initiated.
another.
FINAL APPROACH COURSE− A bearing/radial/
c. Moving an aircraft to and from a maintenance track of an instrument approach leading to a runway
base. Ferry flights, under certain conditions, may be or an extended runway centerline all without regard
conducted under terms of a special flight permit. to distance.
FIELD ELEVATION− FINAL APPROACH FIX− The fix from which the
(See AIRPORT ELEVATION.) final approach (IFR) to an airport is executed and
PCG F−1
6/17/21
which identifies the beginning of the final approach FINAL GUARD SERVICE− A value added service
segment. It is designated on Government charts by provided in conjunction with LAA/RAA only during
the Maltese Cross symbol for nonprecision periods of significant and fast changing weather
approaches and the lightning bolt symbol, conditions that may affect landing and takeoff
designating the PFAF, for precision approaches; or operations.
when ATC directs a lower-than-published
FINAL MONITOR AID− A high resolution color
glideslope/path or vertical path intercept altitude, it is
display that is equipped with the controller alert
the resultant actual point of the glideslope/path or
system hardware/software used to monitor the no
vertical path intercept.
transgression zone (NTZ) during simultaneous
(See FINAL APPROACH POINT.) parallel approach operations. The display includes
(See GLIDESLOPE INTERCEPT ALTITUDE.) alert algorithms providing the target predictors, a
(See SEGMENTS OF AN INSTRUMENT color change alert when a target penetrates or is
APPROACH PROCEDURE.) predicted to penetrate the no transgression zone
FINAL APPROACH-IFR− The flight path of an (NTZ), synthesized voice alerts, and digital mapping.
aircraft which is inbound to an airport on a final (See RADAR APPROACH.)
instrument approach course, beginning at the final FINAL MONITOR CONTROLLER− Air Traffic
approach fix or point and extending to the airport or Control Specialist assigned to radar monitor the
the point where a circle-to-land maneuver or a missed flight path of aircraft during simultaneous parallel
approach is executed. (approach courses spaced less than 9000 feet/9200
(See FINAL APPROACH COURSE.) feet above 5000 feet) and simultaneous close parallel
(See FINAL APPROACH FIX.) approach operations. Each runway is assigned a final
(See FINAL APPROACH POINT.) monitor controller during simultaneous parallel and
(See SEGMENTS OF AN INSTRUMENT simultaneous close parallel ILS approaches.
APPROACH PROCEDURE.)
FIR−
(See ICAO term FINAL APPROACH.)
(See FLIGHT INFORMATION REGION.)
FINAL APPROACH POINT− The point, applicable FIRST TIER CENTER− An ARTCC immediately
only to a nonprecision approach with no depicted adjacent to the impacted center.
FAF (such as an on airport VOR), where the aircraft
is established inbound on the final approach course FIS−B−
from the procedure turn and where the final approach (See FLIGHT INFORMATION
descent may be commenced. The FAP serves as the SERVICE−BROADCAST.)
FAF and identifies the beginning of the final FIX− A geographical position determined by visual
approach segment. reference to the surface, by reference to one or more
(See FINAL APPROACH FIX.) radio NAVAIDs, by celestial plotting, or by another
(See SEGMENTS OF AN INSTRUMENT navigational device.
APPROACH PROCEDURE.)
FIX BALANCING− A process whereby aircraft are
FINAL APPROACH SEGMENT− evenly distributed over several available arrival fixes
(See SEGMENTS OF AN INSTRUMENT reducing delays and controller workload.
APPROACH PROCEDURE.) FLAG− A warning device incorporated in certain
FINAL APPROACH SEGMENT [ICAO]− That airborne navigation and flight instruments indicating
segment of an instrument approach procedure in that:
which alignment and descent for landing are a. Instruments are inoperative or otherwise not
accomplished. operating satisfactorily, or
b. Signal strength or quality of the received signal
FINAL CONTROLLER− The controller providing
falls below acceptable values.
information and final approach guidance during PAR
and ASR approaches utilizing radar equipment. FLAG ALARM−
(See RADAR APPROACH.) (See FLAG.)
PCG F−2
12/2/21
FLAMEOUT− An emergency condition caused by a FLIGHT INSPECTION− Inflight investigation and

loss of engine power. evaluation of a navigational aid to determine whether
it meets established tolerances.
FLAMEOUT PATTERN− An approach normally (See FLIGHT CHECK.)
conducted by a single-engine military aircraft
(See NAVIGATIONAL AID.)
experiencing loss or anticipating loss of engine
power or control. The standard overhead approach FLIGHT LEVEL− A level of constant atmospheric
starts at a relatively high altitude over a runway pressure related to a reference datum of 29.92 inches
(“high key”) followed by a continuous 180 degree of mercury. Each is stated in three digits that represent
turn to a high, wide position (“low key”) followed by hundreds of feet. For example, flight level (FL) 250
a continuous 180 degree turn final. The standard represents a barometric altimeter indication of
straight-in pattern starts at a point that results in a 25,000 feet; FL 255, an indication of 25,500 feet.
straight-in approach with a high rate of descent to the (See ICAO term FLIGHT LEVEL.)
runway. Flameout approaches terminate in the type
FLIGHT LEVEL [ICAO]− A surface of constant
approach requested by the pilot (normally fullstop).
atmospheric pressure which is related to a specific
FLIGHT CHECK− A call sign prefix used by FAA pressure datum, 1013.2 hPa (1013.2 mb), and is
aircraft engaged in flight inspection/certification of separated from other such surfaces by specific
navigational aids and flight procedures. The word pressure intervals.
“recorded” may be added as a suffix; e.g., “Flight Note 1: A pressure type altimeter calibrated in
Check 320 recorded” to indicate that an automated accordance with the standard atmosphere:
flight inspection is in progress in terminal areas. a. When set to a QNH altimeter setting, will
indicate altitude;
(See FLIGHT INSPECTION.)
b. When set to a QFE altimeter setting, will
(Refer to AIM.) indicate height above the QFE reference datum;
and
FLIGHT FOLLOWING−
c. When set to a pressure of 1013.2 hPa
(See TRAFFIC ADVISORIES.) (1013.2 mb), may be used to indicate flight levels.
FLIGHT INFORMATION REGION− An airspace of Note 2: The terms ‘height’ and ‘altitude,’ used in
defined dimensions within which Flight Information Note 1 above, indicate altimetric rather than
Service and Alerting Service are provided. geometric heights and altitudes.
a. Flight Information Service. A service provided FLIGHT LINE− A term used to describe the precise
for the purpose of giving advice and information movement of a civil photogrammetric aircraft along
useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights. a predetermined course(s) at a predetermined altitude
b. Alerting Service. A service provided to notify during the actual photographic run.
appropriate organizations regarding aircraft in need FLIGHT MANAGEMENT SYSTEMS− A comput-
of search and rescue aid and to assist such er system that uses a large data base to allow routes
organizations as required. to be preprogrammed and fed into the system by
means of a data loader. The system is constantly
FLIGHT INFORMATION SERVICE− A service
updated with respect to position accuracy by
provided for the purpose of giving advice and
reference to conventional navigation aids. The
information useful for the safe and efficient conduct
sophisticated program and its associated data base
of flights.
ensures that the most appropriate aids are automati-
FLIGHT INFORMATION SERVICE− cally selected during the information update cycle.
BROADCAST (FIS−B)− A ground broadcast service FLIGHT PATH− A line, course, or track along which
provided through the ADS−B Broadcast Services an aircraft is flying or intended to be flown.
network over the UAT data link that operates on 978
(See COURSE.)
MHz. The FIS−B system provides pilots and flight
(See TRACK.)
crews of properly equipped aircraft with a cockpit
display of certain aviation weather and aeronautical FLIGHT PLAN− Specified information relating to
information. the intended flight of an aircraft that is filed
PCG F−3
6/17/21
electronically, orally, or in writing with an FSS, include general surveillance of operational safety,
third−party vendor, or an ATC facility. certification of airmen and aircraft, accident
(See FAST FILE.) prevention, investigation, enforcement, etc.
(See FILED.) FLIGHT TERMINATION− The intentional and
(Refer to AIM.) deliberate process of terminating the flight of a UA in
FLIGHT PLAN AREA (FPA)− The geographical the event of an unrecoverable lost link, loss of
area assigned to a flight service station (FSS) for the control, or other failure that compromises the safety
purpose of establishing primary responsibility for of flight.
services that may include search and rescue for VFR FLIGHT TEST− A flight for the purpose of:
aircraft, issuance of NOTAMs, pilot briefings, a. Investigating the operation/flight characteris-
inflight services, broadcast services, emergency tics of an aircraft or aircraft component.
services, flight data processing, international opera-
b. Evaluating an applicant for a pilot certificate or
tions, and aviation weather services. Large
rating.
consolidated FSS facilities may combine FPAs into
larger areas of responsibility (AOR). FLIGHT VISIBILITY−
(See FLIGHT SERVICE STATION.) (See VISIBILITY.)
(See TIE-IN FACILITY.) FLIP−
FLIGHT RECORDER− A general term applied to (See DOD FLIP.)
any instrument or device that records information FLY-BY WAYPOINT− A fly-by waypoint requires
about the performance of an aircraft in flight or about the use of turn anticipation to avoid overshoot of the
conditions encountered in flight. Flight recorders next flight segment.
may make records of airspeed, outside air
FLY HEADING (DEGREES)− Informs the pilot of
temperature, vertical acceleration, engine RPM,
the heading he/she should fly. The pilot may have to
manifold pressure, and other pertinent variables for a
turn to, or continue on, a specific compass direction
given flight.
in order to comply with the instructions. The pilot is
(See ICAO term FLIGHT RECORDER.)
expected to turn in the shorter direction to the heading
FLIGHT RECORDER [ICAO]− Any type of unless otherwise instructed by ATC.
recorder installed in the aircraft for the purpose of FLY-OVER WAYPOINT− A fly-over waypoint
complementing accident/incident investigation. precludes any turn until the waypoint is overflown
Note: See Annex 6 Part I, for specifications relating and is followed by an intercept maneuver of the next
to flight recorders. flight segment.
FLIGHT SERVICE STATION (FSS)− An air traffic FLY VISUAL TO AIRPORT−
facility which provides pilot briefings, flight plan (See PUBLISHED INSTRUMENT APPROACH
processing, en route flight advisories, search and PROCEDURE VISUAL SEGMENT.)
rescue services, and assistance to lost aircraft and FLYAWAY− When the pilot is unable to effect control
aircraft in emergency situations. FSS also relay ATC of the aircraft and, as a result, the UA is not operating
clearances, process Notices to Air Missions, and in a predictable or planned manner.
broadcast aviation weather and aeronautical
information. In Alaska, FSS provide Airport FMA−
Advisory Services. (See FINAL MONITOR AID.)
(See FLIGHT PLAN AREA.) FMS−
(See TIE-IN FACILITY.) (See FLIGHT MANAGEMENT SYSTEM.)
FLIGHT STANDARDS DISTRICT OFFICE− An FORMATION FLIGHT− More than one aircraft
FAA field office serving an assigned geographical which, by prior arrangement between the pilots,
area and staffed with Flight Standards personnel who operate as a single aircraft with regard to navigation
serve the aviation industry and the general public on and position reporting. Separation between aircraft
matters relating to the certification and operation of within the formation is the responsibility of the flight
air carrier and general aviation aircraft. Activities leader and the pilots of the other aircraft in the flight.
PCG F−4
12/2/21
This includes transition periods when aircraft within specifications, procedures and schedules contained
the formation are maneuvering to attain separation in AC 150/5320−12, Measurement, Construction,
from each other to effect individual control and and Maintenance of Skid Resistant Airport Pavement
during join-up and breakaway. Surfaces.
a. A standard formation is one in which a FSDO−
proximity of no more than 1 mile laterally or (See FLIGHT STANDARDS DISTRICT OFFICE.)
longitudinally and within 100 feet vertically from the
flight leader is maintained by each wingman. FSPD−
(See FREEZE SPEED PARAMETER.)
b. Nonstandard formations are those operating
under any of the following conditions: FSS−
1. When the flight leader has requested and ATC (See FLIGHT SERVICE STATION.)
has approved other than standard formation FUEL DUMPING− Airborne release of usable fuel.
dimensions. This does not include the dropping of fuel tanks.
2. When operating within an authorized altitude (See JETTISONING OF EXTERNAL STORES.)
reservation (ALTRV) or under the provisions of a
letter of agreement. FUEL REMAINING− A phrase used by either pilots
or controllers when relating to the fuel remaining on
3. When the operations are conducted in board until actual fuel exhaustion. When transmitting
airspace specifically designed for a special activity. such information in response to either a controller
(See ALTITUDE RESERVATION.) question or pilot initiated cautionary advisory to air
(Refer to 14 CFR Part 91.) traffic control, pilots will state the APPROXIMATE
FRC− NUMBER OF MINUTES the flight can continue
(See REQUEST FULL ROUTE CLEARANCE.) with the fuel remaining. All reserve fuel SHOULD
BE INCLUDED in the time stated, as should an
FREEZE/FROZEN− Terms used in referring to allowance for established fuel gauge system error.
arrivals which have been assigned ACLTs and to the
lists in which they are displayed. FUEL SIPHONING− Unintentional release of fuel
caused by overflow, puncture, loose cap, etc.
FREEZE HORIZON− The time or point at which an
aircraft’s STA becomes fixed and no longer fluctuates FUEL VENTING−
with each radar update. This setting ensures a (See FUEL SIPHONING.)
constant time for each aircraft, necessary for the FUSED TARGET-
metering controller to plan his/her delay technique.
(See DIGITAL TARGET)
This setting can be either in distance from the meter
fix or a prescribed flying time to the meter fix. FUSION [STARS]- the combination of all available
surveillance sources (airport surveillance radar
FREEZE SPEED PARAMETER− A speed adapted
[ASR], air route surveillance radar [ARSR], ADS-B,
for each aircraft to determine fast and slow aircraft.
etc.) into the display of a single tracked target for air
Fast aircraft freeze on parameter FCLT and slow
traffic control separation services. FUSION is the
aircraft freeze on parameter MLDI.
equivalent of the current single-sensor radar display.
FRICTION MEASUREMENT− A measurement of FUSION performance is characteristic of a
the friction characteristics of the runway pavement single-sensor radar display system. Terminal areas
surface using continuous self-watering friction use mono-pulse secondary surveillance radar (ASR
measurement equipment in accordance with the 9, Mode S or ASR 11, MSSR).
PCG F−5
G
GATE HOLD PROCEDURES− Procedures at the visual portion of an instrument approach and
selected airports to hold aircraft at the gate or other landing.
ground location whenever departure delays exceed or c. PAR. Used by ATC to inform an aircraft making
are anticipated to exceed 15 minutes. The sequence a PAR approach of its vertical position (elevation)
for departure will be maintained in accordance with relative to the descent profile.
initial call−up unless modified by flow control
(See ICAO term GLIDEPATH.)
restrictions. Pilots should monitor the ground
control/clearance delivery frequency for engine GLIDESLOPE INTERCEPT ALTITUDE− The
start/taxi advisories or new proposed start/taxi time published minimum altitude to intercept the
if the delay changes. glideslope in the intermediate segment of an
GCA− instrument approach. Government charts use the
lightning bolt symbol to identify this intercept point.
(See GROUND CONTROLLED APPROACH.)
This intersection is called the Precise Final Approach
GDP− fix (PFAF). ATC directs a higher altitude, the
(See GROUND DELAY PROGRAM.) resultant intercept becomes the PFAF.
(See FINAL APPROACH FIX.)
GENERAL AVIATION− That portion of civil
(See SEGMENTS OF AN INSTRUMENT
aviation that does not include scheduled or APPROACH PROCEDURE.)
unscheduled air carriers or commercial space
operations. GLOBAL NAVIGATION SATELLITE SYSTEM
(See ICAO term GENERAL AVIATION.) (GNSS)− GNSS refers collectively to the worldwide
positioning, navigation, and timing determination
GENERAL AVIATION [ICAO]− All civil aviation
capability available from one or more satellite
operations other than scheduled air services and
constellations. A GNSS constellation may be
nonscheduled air transport operations for remunera-
augmented by ground stations and/or geostationary
tion or hire.
satellites to improve integrity and position accuracy.
GEO MAP− The digitized map markings associated (See GROUND−BASED AUGMENTATION
with the ASR-9 Radar System. SYSTEM.)
(See SATELLITE−BASED AUGMENTATION
GLIDEPATH− SYSTEM.)
(See GLIDESLOPE.)
GLOBAL NAVIGATION SATELLITE SYSTEM
GLIDEPATH [ICAO]− A descent profile determined MINIMUM EN ROUTE IFR ALTITUDE (GNSS
for vertical guidance during a final approach. MEA)− The minimum en route IFR altitude on a
published ATS route or route segment which assures
GLIDEPATH INTERCEPT ALTITUDE−
acceptable Global Navigation Satellite System
(See GLIDESLOPE INTERCEPT ALTITUDE.)
reception and meets obstacle clearance requirements.
GLIDESLOPE− Provides vertical guidance for (Refer to 14 CFR Part 91.)
aircraft during approach and landing. The glideslope/ (Refer to 14 CFR Part 95.)
glidepath is based on the following:
GLOBAL POSITIONING SYSTEM (GPS)− GPS
a. Electronic components emitting signals which refers to the worldwide positioning, navigation and
provide vertical guidance by reference to airborne timing determination capability available from the
instruments during instrument approaches such as U.S. satellite constellation. The service provided by
ILS; or, GPS for civil use is defined in the GPS Standard
b. Visual ground aids, such as VASI, which Positioning System Performance Standard. GPS is
provide vertical guidance for a VFR approach or for composed of space, control, and user elements.
PCG G−1
6/17/21
GNSS [ICAO]− GROUND BASED AUGMENTATION SYSTEM

(See GLOBAL NAVIGATION SATELLITE (GBAS) LANDING SYSTEM (GLS)- A type of
SYSTEM .) precision IAP based on local augmentation of GNSS
data using a single GBAS station to transmit locally
GNSS MEA− corrected GNSS data, integrity parameters and
(See GLOBAL NAVIGATION SATELLITE approach information. This improves the accuracy of
SYSTEM MINIMUM EN ROUTE IFR aircraft GNSS receivers’ signal in space, enabling the
ALTITUDE.) pilot to fly a precision approach with much greater
GO AHEAD− Proceed with your message. Not to be flexibility, reliability and complexity. The GLS
used for any other purpose. procedure is published on standard IAP charts,
features the title GLS with the designated runway and
GO AROUND− Instructions for a pilot to abandon minima as low as 200 feet DA. Future plans are
his/her approach to landing. Additional instructions expected to support Cat II and CAT III operations.
may follow. Unless otherwise advised by ATC, a
GROUND−BASED INTERVAL MANAGE-
VFR aircraft or an aircraft conducting visual
MENT−SPACING (GIM−S), SPEED ADVISORY−
approach should overfly the runway while climbing
A calculated speed that will allow aircraft to meet the
to traffic pattern altitude and enter the traffic pattern
TBFM schedule at en route and TRACON boundary
via the crosswind leg. A pilot on an IFR flight plan
meter fixes.
making an instrument approach should execute the
published missed approach procedure or proceed as GROUND CLUTTER− A pattern produced on the
instructed by ATC; e.g., “Go around” (additional radar scope by ground returns which may degrade
instructions if required). other radar returns in the affected area. The effect of
(See LOW APPROACH.) ground clutter is minimized by the use of moving
(See MISSED APPROACH.)
target indicator (MTI) circuits in the radar equipment
resulting in a radar presentation which displays only
GPD− targets which are in motion.
(See GRAPHIC PLAN DISPLAY.) (See CLUTTER.)
GPS− GROUND COMMUNICATION OUTLET (GCO)−

An unstaffed, remotely controlled, ground/ground
(See GLOBAL POSITIONING SYSTEM.)
communications facility. Pilots at uncontrolled
GRAPHIC PLAN DISPLAY (GPD)− A view airports may contact ATC and FSS via VHF radio to
available with EDST that provides a graphic display a telephone connection. If the connection goes to
of aircraft, traffic, and notification of predicted ATC, the pilot can obtain an IFR clearance or close
conflicts. Graphic routes for Current Plans and Trial an IFR flight plan. If the connection goes to Flight
Plans are displayed upon controller request. Service, the pilot can open or close a VFR flight plan;
(See EN ROUTE DECISION SUPPORT TOOL.) obtain an updated weather briefing prior to takeoff;
close an IFR flight plan; or, for Alaska or MEDEVAC
GROSS NAVIGATION ERROR (GNE) − A lateral only, obtain an IFR clearance. Pilots will use four
deviation of 10 NM or more from the aircraft’s “key clicks” on the VHF radio to contact the
cleared route. appropriate ATC facility or six “key clicks” to contact
GROUND BASED AUGMENTATION SYSTEM the FSS. The GCO system is intended to be used only
(GBAS)– A ground based GNSS station which on the ground.
provides local differential corrections, integrity GROUND CONTROLLED APPROACH− A radar
parameters and approach data via VHF data broadcast approach system operated from the ground by air
to GNSS users to meet real-time performance traffic control personnel transmitting instructions to
requirements for CAT I precision approaches. The the pilot by radio. The approach may be conducted
aircraft applies the broadcast data to improve the with surveillance radar (ASR) only or with both
accuracy and integrity of its GNSS signals and surveillance and precision approach radar (PAR).
computes the deviations to the selected approach. A Usage of the term “GCA” by pilots is discouraged
single ground station can serve multiple runway ends except when referring to a GCA facility. Pilots should
up to an approximate radius of 23 NM. specifically request a “PAR” approach when a
PCG G−2
12/2/21
precision radar approach is desired or request an to the surface of the earth.

“ASR” or “surveillance” approach when a nonpreci-
sion radar approach is desired. GROUND STOP (GS)− The GS is a process that
requires aircraft that meet a specific criteria to remain
(See RADAR APPROACH.)
on the ground. The criteria may be airport specific,
GROUND DELAY PROGRAM (GDP)− A traffic airspace specific, or equipment specific; for example,
management process administered by the ATCSCC, all departures to San Francisco, or all departures
when aircraft are held on the ground. The purpose of entering Yorktown sector, or all Category I and II
the program is to support the TM mission and limit aircraft going to Charlotte. GSs normally occur with
airborne holding. It is a flexible program and may be little or no warning.
implemented in various forms depending upon the
needs of the AT system. Ground delay programs GROUND VISIBILITY−
provide for equitable assignment of delays to all (See VISIBILITY.)
system users. GS−
GROUND SPEED− The speed of an aircraft relative (See GROUND STOP.)
PCG G−3
H
HAA− is published on instrument approach charts in
(See HEIGHT ABOVE AIRPORT.) conjunction with all straight-in minimums.
(See DECISION HEIGHT.)
HAL− (See MINIMUM DESCENT ALTITUDE.)
(See HEIGHT ABOVE LANDING.)
HELICOPTER− A heavier-than-air aircraft sup-
HANDOFF− An action taken to transfer the radar ported in flight chiefly by the reactions of the air on
identification of an aircraft from one controller to one or more power-driven rotors on substantially
another if the aircraft will enter the receiving vertical axes.
controller’s airspace and radio communications with
HELIPAD− A small, designated area, usually with a
the aircraft will be transferred.
prepared surface, on a heliport, airport, landing/take-
HAT− off area, apron/ramp, or movement area used for
(See HEIGHT ABOVE TOUCHDOWN.) takeoff, landing, or parking of helicopters.
HAVE NUMBERS− Used by pilots to inform ATC HELIPORT− An area of land, water, or structure used
that they have received runway, wind, and altimeter or intended to be used for the landing and takeoff of
information only. helicopters and includes its buildings and facilities if
any.
HAZARDOUS WEATHER INFORMATION− HELIPORT REFERENCE POINT (HRP)− The
Summary of significant meteorological information geographic center of a heliport.
(SIGMET/WS), convective significant meteorologi-
cal information (convective SIGMET/WST), urgent HERTZ− The standard radio equivalent of frequency
pilot weather reports (urgent PIREP/UUA), center in cycles per second of an electromagnetic wave.
weather advisories (CWA), airmen’s meteorological Kilohertz (kHz) is a frequency of one thousand cycles
information (AIRMET/WA) and any other weather per second. Megahertz (MHz) is a frequency of one
such as isolated thunderstorms that are rapidly million cycles per second.
developing and increasing in intensity, or low HF−
ceilings and visibilities that are becoming wide-
(See HIGH FREQUENCY.)
spread which is considered significant and are not
included in a current hazardous weather advisory. HF COMMUNICATIONS−
(See HIGH FREQUENCY COMMUNICATIONS.)
HEAVY (AIRCRAFT)−
(See AIRCRAFT CLASSES.) HIGH FREQUENCY− The frequency band between
3 and 30 MHz.
HEIGHT ABOVE AIRPORT (HAA)− The height of (See HIGH FREQUENCY COMMUNICATIONS.)
the Minimum Descent Altitude above the published
HIGH FREQUENCY COMMUNICATIONS− High
airport elevation. This is published in conjunction
radio frequencies (HF) between 3 and 30 MHz used
with circling minimums.
for air-to-ground voice communication in overseas
(See MINIMUM DESCENT ALTITUDE.) operations.
HEIGHT ABOVE LANDING (HAL)− The height HIGH SPEED EXIT−
above a designated helicopter landing area used for (See HIGH SPEED TAXIWAY.)
helicopter instrument approach procedures.
(Refer to 14 CFR Part 97.) HIGH SPEED TAXIWAY− A long radius taxiway
designed and provided with lighting or marking to
HEIGHT ABOVE TOUCHDOWN (HAT)− The define the path of aircraft, traveling at high speed (up
height of the Decision Height or Minimum Descent to 60 knots), from the runway center to a point on the
Altitude above the highest runway elevation in the center of a taxiway. Also referred to as long radius
touchdown zone (first 3,000 feet of the runway). HAT exit or turn-off taxiway. The high speed taxiway is
PCG H−1
designed to expedite aircraft turning off the runway HOLDING POINT [ICAO]− A specified location,
after landing, thus reducing runway occupancy time. identified by visual or other means, in the vicinity of
which the position of an aircraft in flight is
HIGH SPEED TURNOFF− maintained in accordance with air traffic control
(See HIGH SPEED TAXIWAY.) clearances.
HIGH UPDATE RATE SURVEILLANCE– A HOLDING PROCEDURE−
surveillance system that provides a sensor update rate (See HOLD PROCEDURE.)
of less than 4.8 seconds. HOLD-SHORT POINT− A point on the runway
beyond which a landing aircraft with a LAHSO
HOLD FOR RELEASE− Used by ATC to delay an clearance is not authorized to proceed. This point
aircraft for traffic management reasons; i.e., weather, may be located prior to an intersecting runway,
traffic volume, etc. Hold for release instructions taxiway, predetermined point, or approach/departure
(including departure delay information) are used to flight path.
inform a pilot or a controller (either directly or
through an authorized relay) that an IFR departure HOLD-SHORT POSITION LIGHTS− Flashing
clearance is not valid until a release time or additional in-pavement white lights located at specified
instructions have been received. hold-short points.
(See ICAO term HOLDING POINT.) HOLD-SHORT POSITION MARKING− The
painted runway marking located at the hold-short
HOLD−IN−LIEU OF PROCEDURE TURN− A point on all LAHSO runways.
hold−in−lieu of procedure turn shall be established
over a final or intermediate fix when an approach can HOLD-SHORT POSITION SIGNS− Red and white
be made from a properly aligned holding pattern. The holding position signs located alongside the
hold−in−lieu of procedure turn permits the pilot to hold-short point.
align with the final or intermediate segment of the HOMING− Flight toward a NAVAID, without
approach and/or descend in the holding pattern to an correcting for wind, by adjusting the aircraft heading
altitude that will permit a normal descent to the final to maintain a relative bearing of zero degrees.
approach fix altitude. The hold−in−lieu of procedure (See BEARING.)
turn is a required maneuver (the same as a procedure (See ICAO term HOMING.)
turn) unless the aircraft is being radar vectored to the HOMING [ICAO]− The procedure of using the
final approach course, when “NoPT” is shown on the direction-finding equipment of one radio station with
approach chart, or when the pilot requests or the the emission of another radio station, where at least
controller advises the pilot to make a “straight−in” one of the stations is mobile, and whereby the mobile
approach. station proceeds continuously towards the other
station.
HOLD PROCEDURE− A predetermined maneuver
which keeps aircraft within a specified airspace while HOVER CHECK− Used to describe when a
awaiting further clearance from air traffic control. helicopter/VTOL aircraft requires a stabilized hover
Also used during ground operations to keep aircraft to conduct a performance/power check prior to hover
within a specified area or at a specified point while taxi, air taxi, or takeoff. Altitude of the hover will
awaiting further clearance from air traffic control. vary based on the purpose of the check.
(See HOLDING FIX.) HOVER TAXI− Used to describe a helicopter/VTOL
(Refer to AIM.) aircraft movement conducted above the surface and
in ground effect at airspeeds less than approximately
HOLDING FIX− A specified fix identifiable to a 20 knots. The actual height may vary, and some
pilot by NAVAIDs or visual reference to the ground helicopters may require hover taxi above 25 feet AGL
used as a reference point in establishing and to reduce ground effect turbulence or provide
maintaining the position of an aircraft while holding. clearance for cargo slingloads.
(See FIX.) (See AIR TAXI.)
(See VISUAL HOLDING.) (See HOVER CHECK.)
(Refer to AIM.) (Refer to AIM.)
PCG H−2
HOW DO YOU HEAR ME?− A question relating to

the quality of the transmission or to determine how
well the transmission is being received.
HZ−
(See HERTZ.)
PCG H−3
12/2/21
I
I SAY AGAIN− The message will be repeated. exiting the icing conditions before they become
worse.
IAF−
(See INITIAL APPROACH FIX.) b. Light− The rate of ice accumulation requires
occasional cycling of manual deicing systems to
IAP− minimize ice accretions on the airframe. A
(See INSTRUMENT APPROACH representative accretion rate for reference purposes is
PROCEDURE.) ¼ inch to 1 inch (0.6 to 2.5 cm) per hour on the
IAWP− Initial Approach Waypoint unprotected part of the outer wing. The pilot should
consider exiting the icing condition.
ICAO−
c. Moderate− The rate of ice accumulation
(See ICAO Term INTERNATIONAL CIVIL
AVIATION ORGANIZATION.) requires frequent cycling of manual deicing systems
to minimize ice accretions on the airframe. A
ICAO 3LD− representative accretion rate for reference purposes is
(See ICAO Term ICAO Three−Letter Designator) 1 to 3 inches (2.5 to 7.5 cm) per hour on the
ICAO Three−Letter Designator (3LD)− An ICAO unprotected part of the outer wing. The pilot should
3LD is an exclusive designator that, when used consider exiting the icing condition as soon as
together with a flight number, becomes the aircraft possible.
call sign and provides distinct aircraft identification d. Severe− The rate of ice accumulation is such
to air traffic control (ATC). ICAO approves 3LDs to that ice protection systems fail to remove the
enhance the safety and security of the air traffic accumulation of ice and ice accumulates in locations
system. An ICAO 3LD may be assigned to a not normally prone to icing, such as areas aft of
company, agency, or organization and is used instead protected surfaces and any other areas identified by
of the aircraft registration number for ATC the manufacturer. A representative accretion rate for
operational and security purposes. An ICAO 3LD is reference purposes is more than 3 inches (7.5 cm) per
also used for aircraft identification in the flight plan hour on the unprotected part of the outer wing. By
and associated messages and can be used for regulation, immediate exit is required.
domestic and international flights. A telephony Note:
associated with an ICAO 3LD is used for radio Severe icing is aircraft dependent, as are the other
communication. categories of icing intensity. Severe icing may
occur at any ice accumulation rate when the icing
ICING− The accumulation of airframe ice. rate or ice accumulations exceed the tolerance of
Types of icing are: the aircraft.
a. Rime Ice− Rough, milky, opaque ice formed by IDAC−

the instantaneous freezing of small supercooled (See INTEGRATED DEPARTURE/ARRIVAL
water droplets. CAPABILITY.)
b. Clear Ice− A glossy, clear, or translucent ice IDENT− A request for a pilot to activate the aircraft
formed by the relatively slow freezing of large transponder identification feature. This will help the
supercooled water droplets. controller to confirm an aircraft identity or to identify
c. Mixed− A mixture of clear ice and rime ice. an aircraft.
Intensity of icing: (Refer to AIM.)
a. Trace− Ice becomes noticeable. The rate of IDENT FEATURE− The special feature in the Air
accumulation is slightly greater than the rate of Traffic Control Radar Beacon System (ATCRBS)
sublimation. A representative accretion rate for equipment. It is used to immediately distinguish one
reference purposes is less than ¼ inch (6 mm) per displayed beacon target from other beacon targets.
hour on the outer wing. The pilot should consider (See IDENT.)
PCG I−1
6/17/21
IDENTIFICATION [ICAO]− The situation which symbol used to alert the pilot to nonstandard takeoff
exists when the position indication of a particular minimums and departure procedures. When depart-
aircraft is seen on a situation display and positively ing IFR from such airports or from any airports where
identified. there are no departure procedures, DPs, or ATC
facilities available, pilots should advise ATC of any
IF−
departure limitations. Controllers may query a pilot
(See INTERMEDIATE FIX.)
to determine acceptable departure directions, turns,
IF NO TRANSMISSION RECEIVED FOR or headings after takeoff. Pilots should be familiar
(TIME)− Used by ATC in radar approaches to prefix with the departure procedures and must assure that
procedures which should be followed by the pilot in their aircraft can meet or exceed any specified climb
event of lost communications. gradients.
(See LOST COMMUNICATIONS.)
IF/IAWP− Intermediate Fix/Initial Approach Way-
IFR− point. The waypoint where the final approach course
(See INSTRUMENT FLIGHT RULES.) of a T approach meets the crossbar of the T. When
designated (in conjunction with a TAA) this
IFR AIRCRAFT− An aircraft conducting flight in
waypoint will be used as an IAWP when approaching
accordance with instrument flight rules.
the airport from certain directions, and as an IFWP
IFR CONDITIONS− Weather conditions below the when beginning the approach from another IAWP.
minimum for flight under visual flight rules.
IFWP− Intermediate Fix Waypoint
(See INSTRUMENT METEOROLOGICAL
CONDITIONS.) ILS−
IFR DEPARTURE PROCEDURE− (See INSTRUMENT LANDING SYSTEM.)
(See IFR TAKEOFF MINIMUMS AND ILS CATEGORIES− 1. Category I. An ILS approach
DEPARTURE PROCEDURES.)
procedure which provides for approach to a height
(Refer to AIM.)
above touchdown of not less than 200 feet and with
IFR FLIGHT− runway visual range of not less than 1,800 feet.−
(See IFR AIRCRAFT.) 2. Special Authorization Category I. An ILS
approach procedure which provides for approach to
IFR LANDING MINIMUMS− a height above touchdown of not less than 150 feet
(See LANDING MINIMUMS.) and with runway visual range of not less than 1,400
IFR MILITARY TRAINING ROUTES (IR)− Routes feet, HUD to DH. 3. Category II. An ILS approach
used by the Department of Defense and associated procedure which provides for approach to a height
Reserve and Air Guard units for the purpose of above touchdown of not less than 100 feet and with
conducting low-altitude navigation and tactical runway visual range of not less than 1,200 feet (with
training in both IFR and VFR weather conditions autoland or HUD to touchdown and noted on
below 10,000 feet MSL at airspeeds in excess of 250 authorization, RVR 1,000 feet).− 4. Special
knots IAS. Authorization Category II with Reduced Lighting.
An ILS approach procedure which provides for
IFR TAKEOFF MINIMUMS AND DEPARTURE approach to a height above touchdown of not less
PROCEDURES− Title 14 Code of Federal than 100 feet and with runway visual range of not less
Regulations Part 91, prescribes standard takeoff rules than 1,200 feet with autoland or HUD to touchdown
for certain civil users. At some airports, obstructions and noted on authorization (no touchdown zone and
or other factors require the establishment of centerline lighting are required).− 5. Category III:
nonstandard takeoff minimums, departure proce-
dures, or both to assist pilots in avoiding obstacles a. IIIA.−An ILS approach procedure which
during climb to the minimum en route altitude. Those provides for approach without a decision height
airports are listed in FAA/DOD Instrument Approach minimum and with runway visual range of not less
Procedures (IAPs) Charts under a section entitled than 700 feet.
“IFR Takeoff Minimums and Departure Procedures.” b. IIIB.−An ILS approach procedure which
The FAA/DOD IAP chart legend illustrates the provides for approach without a decision height
PCG I−2
12/2/21
minimum and with runway visual range of not less INITIAL APPROACH SEGMENT [ICAO]− That
than 150 feet. segment of an instrument approach procedure
c. IIIC.−An ILS approach procedure which between the initial approach fix and the intermediate
provides for approach without a decision height approach fix or, where applicable, the final approach
minimum and without runway visual range fix or point.
minimum. INLAND NAVIGATION FACILITY− A navigation
aid on a North American Route at which the common
IM−
route and/or the noncommon route begins or ends.
(See INNER MARKER.)
INNER MARKER− A marker beacon used with an
IMC− ILS (CAT II) precision approach located between the
(See INSTRUMENT METEOROLOGICAL middle marker and the end of the ILS runway,
CONDITIONS.) transmitting a radiation pattern keyed at six dots per
IMMEDIATELY− Used by ATC or pilots when such second and indicating to the pilot, both aurally and
action compliance is required to avoid an imminent visually, that he/she is at the designated decision
situation. height (DH), normally 100 feet above the touchdown
zone elevation, on the ILS CAT II approach. It also
INCERFA (Uncertainty Phase) [ICAO]− A situation marks progress during a CAT III approach.
wherein uncertainty exists as to the safety of an (See INSTRUMENT LANDING SYSTEM.)
aircraft and its occupants. (Refer to AIM.)
INCREASED SEPARATION REQUIRED (ISR)– INNER MARKER BEACON−
Indicates the confidence level of the track requires 5 (See INNER MARKER.)
NM separation. 3 NM separation, 1 ½ NM INREQ−
separation, and target resolution cannot be used. (See INFORMATION REQUEST.)
INCREASE SPEED TO (SPEED)− INS−
(See SPEED ADJUSTMENT.) (See INERTIAL NAVIGATION SYSTEM.)
INSTRUMENT APPROACH−
INERTIAL NAVIGATION SYSTEM (INS)− An
(See INSTRUMENT APPROACH
RNAV system which is a form of self-contained PROCEDURE.)
navigation.
(See Area Navigation/RNAV.) INSTRUMENT APPROACH OPERATIONS
[ICAO]− An approach and landing using instruments
INFLIGHT REFUELING− for navigation guidance based on an instrument
(See AERIAL REFUELING.) approach procedure. There are two methods for
executing instrument approach operations:
INFLIGHT WEATHER ADVISORY−
(See WEATHER ADVISORY.)
a. A two−dimensional (2D) instrument approach
operation, using lateral navigation guidance only;
INFORMATION REQUEST (INREQ)− A request and
originated by an FSS for information concerning an b. A three−dimensional (3D) instrument approach
overdue VFR aircraft. operation, using both lateral and vertical navigation
INITIAL APPROACH FIX (IAF)− The fixes guidance.
depicted on instrument approach procedure charts Note: Lateral and vertical navigation guidance
refers to the guidance provided either by:
that identify the beginning of the initial approach
a) a ground−based radio navigation aid; or
segment(s).
b) computer−generated navigation data from
(See FIX.) ground−based, space−based, self−contained
(See SEGMENTS OF AN INSTRUMENT navigation aids or a combination of these.
APPROACH PROCEDURE.) (See ICAO term INSTRUMENT APPROACH
INITIAL APPROACH SEGMENT− PROCEDURE.)
(See SEGMENTS OF AN INSTRUMENT INSTRUMENT APPROACH PROCEDURE− A
APPROACH PROCEDURE.) series of predetermined maneuvers for the orderly
PCG I−3
6/17/21
transfer of an aircraft under instrument flight INSTRUMENT DEPARTURE PROCEDURE (DP)

conditions from the beginning of the initial approach CHARTS−
to a landing or to a point from which a landing may (See AERONAUTICAL CHART.)
be made visually. It is prescribed and approved for a INSTRUMENT FLIGHT RULES (IFR)− Rules
specific airport by competent authority. governing the procedures for conducting instrument
(See SEGMENTS OF AN INSTRUMENT flight. Also a term used by pilots and controllers to
APPROACH PROCEDURE.) indicate type of flight plan.
(Refer to 14 CFR Part 91.) (See INSTRUMENT METEOROLOGICAL
(Refer to AIM.) CONDITIONS.)
a. U.S. civil standard instrument approach (See VISUAL FLIGHT RULES.)
procedures are approved by the FAA as prescribed (See VISUAL METEOROLOGICAL
under 14 CFR Part 97 and are available for public CONDITIONS.)
use. (See ICAO term INSTRUMENT FLIGHT
RULES.)
b. U.S. military standard instrument approach
(Refer to AIM.)
procedures are approved and published by the
Department of Defense. INSTRUMENT FLIGHT RULES [ICAO]− A set of
c. Special instrument approach procedures are rules governing the conduct of flight under
approved by the FAA for individual operators but are instrument meteorological conditions.
not published in 14 CFR Part 97 for public use. INSTRUMENT LANDING SYSTEM (ILS)− A
(See ICAO term INSTRUMENT APPROACH precision instrument approach system which normal-
PROCEDURE.) ly consists of the following electronic components
INSTRUMENT APPROACH PROCEDURE and visual aids:
[ICAO]− A series of predetermined maneuvers by a. Localizer.
reference to flight instruments with specified (See LOCALIZER.)
protection from obstacles from the initial approach b. Glideslope.
fix, or where applicable, from the beginning of a (See GLIDESLOPE.)
defined arrival route to a point from which a landing c. Outer Marker.
can be completed and thereafter, if a landing is not (See OUTER MARKER.)
completed, to a position at which holding or en route d. Middle Marker.
obstacle clearance criteria apply. (See MIDDLE MARKER.)
(See ICAO term INSTRUMENT APPROACH e. Approach Lights.
OPERATIONS)
(See AIRPORT LIGHTING.)
INSTRUMENT APPROACH PROCEDURE (Refer to 14 CFR Part 91.)
CHARTS− (Refer to AIM.)
(See AERONAUTICAL CHART.) INSTRUMENT METEOROLOGICAL CONDI-
INSTRUMENT DEPARTURE PROCEDURE TIONS (IMC)− Meteorological conditions expressed
(DP)− A preplanned instrument flight rule (IFR) in terms of visibility, distance from cloud, and ceiling
departure procedure published for pilot use, in less than the minima specified for visual meteorolog-
graphic or textual format, that provides obstruction ical conditions.
clearance from the terminal area to the appropriate en (See INSTRUMENT FLIGHT RULES.)
route structure. There are two types of DP, Obstacle (See VISUAL FLIGHT RULES.)
Departure Procedure (ODP), printed either textually (See VISUAL METEOROLOGICAL
or graphically, and, Standard Instrument Departure CONDITIONS.)
(SID), which is always printed graphically. INSTRUMENT RUNWAY− A runway equipped
(See IFR TAKEOFF MINIMUMS AND with electronic and visual navigation aids for which
DEPARTURE PROCEDURES.) a precision or nonprecision approach procedure
(See OBSTACLE DEPARTURE PROCEDURES.) having straight-in landing minimums has been
(See STANDARD INSTRUMENT DEPARTURES.) approved.
(Refer to AIM.) (See ICAO term INSTRUMENT RUNWAY.)
PCG I−4
12/2/21
INSTRUMENT RUNWAY [ICAO]− One of the INTERMEDIATE APPROACH SEGMENT−

following types of runways intended for the (See SEGMENTS OF AN INSTRUMENT
operation of aircraft using instrument approach APPROACH PROCEDURE.)
procedures: INTERMEDIATE APPROACH SEGMENT
a. Nonprecision Approach Runway− An instru- [ICAO]− That segment of an instrument approach
ment runway served by visual aids and a nonvisual procedure between either the intermediate approach
aid providing at least directional guidance adequate fix and the final approach fix or point, or between the
for a straight-in approach. end of a reversal, race track or dead reckoning track
procedure and the final approach fix or point, as
b. Precision Approach Runway, Category I− An appropriate.
instrument runway served by ILS and visual aids
intended for operations down to 60 m (200 feet) INTERMEDIATE FIX− The fix that identifies the
decision height and down to an RVR of the order of beginning of the intermediate approach segment of an
800 m. instrument approach procedure. The fix is not
normally identified on the instrument approach chart
c. Precision Approach Runway, Category II− An as an intermediate fix (IF).
instrument runway served by ILS and visual aids (See SEGMENTS OF AN INSTRUMENT
intended for operations down to 30 m (100 feet) APPROACH PROCEDURE.)
decision height and down to an RVR of the order of
INTERMEDIATE LANDING− On the rare occasion
400 m.
that this option is requested, it should be approved.
d. Precision Approach Runway, Category III− An The departure center, however, must advise the
instrument runway served by ILS to and along the ATCSCC so that the appropriate delay is carried over
surface of the runway and: and assigned at the intermediate airport. An
1. Intended for operations down to an RVR of intermediate landing airport within the arrival center
the order of 200 m (no decision height being will not be accepted without coordination with and
applicable) using visual aids during the final phase of the approval of the ATCSCC.
landing; INTERNATIONAL AIRPORT− Relating to interna-
tional flight, it means:
2. Intended for operations down to an RVR of
the order of 50 m (no decision height being a. An airport of entry which has been designated
applicable) using visual aids for taxiing; by the Secretary of Treasury or Commissioner of
Customs as an international airport for customs
3. Intended for operations without reliance on service.
visual reference for landing or taxiing.
b. A landing rights airport at which specific
Note 1: See Annex 10 Volume I, Part I, Chapter 3, permission to land must be obtained from customs
for related ILS specifications. authorities in advance of contemplated use.
Note 2: Visual aids need not necessarily be c. Airports designated under the Convention on
matched to the scale of nonvisual aids provided. International Civil Aviation as an airport for use by
The criterion for the selection of visual aids is the international commercial air transport and/or interna-
conditions in which operations are intended to be tional general aviation.
conducted. (See ICAO term INTERNATIONAL AIRPORT.)
(Refer to Chart Supplement U.S.)
INTEGRATED DEPARTURE/ARRIVAL CAPA-
INTERNATIONAL AIRPORT [ICAO]− Any airport
BILITY (IDAC)− A Tower/TRACON departure
designated by the Contracting State in whose
scheduling capability within TBFM that allows
territory it is situated as an airport of entry and
departures to be scheduled into either an arrival flow
departure for international air traffic, where the
or an en route flow. IDAC provides a mechanism for
formalities incident to customs, immigration, public
electronic coordination of departure release times.
health, animal and plant quarantine and similar
INTEGRITY− The ability of a system to provide procedures are carried out.
timely warnings to users when the system should not INTERNATIONAL CIVIL AVIATION ORGA-
be used for navigation. NIZATION [ICAO]− A specialized agency of the
PCG I−5
6/17/21
United Nations whose objective is to develop the INTERSECTING RUNWAYS− Two or more
principles and techniques of international air runways which cross or meet within their lengths.
navigation and to foster planning and development of (See INTERSECTION.)
international civil air transport.
INTERSECTION−
a. A point defined by any combination of courses,
INTERNATIONAL NOTICE− A notice containing radials, or bearings of two or more navigational aids.
flight prohibitions, potential hostile situations, or
b. Used to describe the point where two runways,
other international/foreign oceanic airspace matters.
a runway and a taxiway, or two taxiways cross or
These notices can be found on the International
meet.
Notices website.
INTERSECTION DEPARTURE− A departure from
INTERROGATOR− The ground-based surveillance any runway intersection except the end of the runway.
radar beacon transmitter-receiver, which normally (See INTERSECTION.)
scans in synchronism with a primary radar, INTERSECTION TAKEOFF−
transmitting discrete radio signals which repetitious- (See INTERSECTION DEPARTURE.)
ly request all transponders on the mode being used to
reply. The replies received are mixed with the IR−
primary radar returns and displayed on the same plan (See IFR MILITARY TRAINING ROUTES.)
position indicator (radar scope). Also, applied to the IRREGULAR SURFACE− A surface that is open for
airborne element of the TACAN/DME system. use but not per regulations.
(See TRANSPONDER.) ISR−
(Refer to AIM.) (See INCREASED SEPARATION REQUIRED.)
PCG I−6
J
JAMMING− Denotes emissions that do not mimic JET STREAM− A migrating stream of high-speed
Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) signals winds present at high altitudes.
(e.g., GPS and WAAS), but rather interfere with the
civil receiver’s ability to acquire and track GNSS JETTISONING OF EXTERNAL STORES− Air-
signals. Jamming can result in denial of GNSS borne release of external stores; e.g., tiptanks,
navigation, positioning, timing and aircraft depen- ordnance.
dent functions.
(See FUEL DUMPING.)
JET BLAST− The rapid air movement produced by
exhaust from jet engines.
JET ROUTE− A route designed to serve aircraft JOINT USE RESTRICTED AREA−
operations from 18,000 feet MSL up to and including
flight level 450. The routes are referred to as “J” (See RESTRICTED AREA.)
routes with numbering to identify the designated
route; e.g., J105. JUMP ZONE− The airspace directly associated with
(See Class A AIRSPACE.) a Drop Zone. Vertical and horizontal limits may be
(Refer to 14 CFR Part 71.) locally defined.
PCG J−1
K
KNOWN TRAFFIC− With respect to ATC clear-
ances, means aircraft whose altitude, position, and
intentions are known to ATC.
PCG K−1
L
LAA− LANDING DISTANCE AVAILABLE (LDA)− The
(See LOCAL AIRPORT ADVISORY.) runway length declared available and suitable for a
landing airplane.
LAHSO− An acronym for “Land and Hold Short
(See ICAO term LANDING DISTANCE
Operation.” These operations include landing and AVAILABLE.)
holding short of an intersecting runway, a taxiway, a
predetermined point, or an approach/departure LANDING DISTANCE AVAILABLE [ICAO]− The
flightpath. length of runway which is declared available and
suitable for the ground run of an aeroplane landing.
LAHSO-DRY− Land and hold short operations on
LANDING MINIMUMS− The minimum visibility
runways that are dry.
prescribed for landing a civil aircraft while using an
LAHSO-WET− Land and hold short operations on instrument approach procedure. The minimum
runways that are wet (but not contaminated). applies with other limitations set forth in 14 CFR
Part 91 with respect to the Minimum Descent
LAND AND HOLD SHORT OPERATIONS−
Altitude (MDA) or Decision Height (DH) prescribed
Operations which include simultaneous takeoffs and
in the instrument approach procedures as follows:
landings and/or simultaneous landings when a
landing aircraft is able and is instructed by the a. Straight-in landing minimums. A statement of
controller to hold-short of the intersecting runway/ MDA and visibility, or DH and visibility, required for
taxiway or designated hold-short point. Pilots are a straight-in landing on a specified runway, or
expected to promptly inform the controller if the hold b. Circling minimums. A statement of MDA and
short clearance cannot be accepted. visibility required for the circle-to-land maneuver.
(See PARALLEL RUNWAYS.) Note: Descent below the MDA or DH must meet the
(Refer to AIM.) conditions stated in 14 CFR Section 91.175.
(See CIRCLE-TO-LAND MANEUVER.)
LAND−BASED AIR DEFENSE IDENTIFICA- (See DECISION HEIGHT.)
TION ZONE (ADIZ)− An ADIZ over U.S. (See INSTRUMENT APPROACH
metropolitan areas, which is activated and deactivat- PROCEDURE.)
ed as needed, with dimensions, activation dates, and (See MINIMUM DESCENT ALTITUDE.)
other relevant information disseminated via NO- (See STRAIGHT-IN LANDING.)
TAM. (See VISIBILITY.)
(See AIR DEFENSE IDENTIFICATION ZONE.) (Refer to 14 CFR Part 91.)
LANDING AREA− Any locality either on land, LANDING ROLL− The distance from the point of
water, or structures, including airports/heliports and touchdown to the point where the aircraft can be
intermediate landing fields, which is used, or brought to a stop or exit the runway.
intended to be used, for the landing and takeoff of
LANDING SEQUENCE− The order in which
aircraft whether or not facilities are provided for the
aircraft are positioned for landing.
shelter, servicing, or for receiving or discharging
(See APPROACH SEQUENCE.)
passengers or cargo.
(See ICAO term LANDING AREA.) LAST ASSIGNED ALTITUDE− The last altitude/
flight level assigned by ATC and acknowledged by
LANDING AREA [ICAO]− That part of a movement the pilot.
area intended for the landing or take-off of aircraft. (See MAINTAIN.)
LANDING DIRECTION INDICATOR− A device (Refer to 14 CFR Part 91.)
which visually indicates the direction in which LATERAL NAVIGATION (LNAV)– A function of
landings and takeoffs should be made. area navigation (RNAV) equipment which calculates,
(See TETRAHEDRON.) displays, and provides lateral guidance to a profile or
(Refer to AIM.) path.
PCG L−1
LATERAL SEPARATION− The lateral spacing of LINE UP AND WAIT (LUAW)− Used by ATC to
aircraft at the same altitude by requiring operation on inform a pilot to taxi onto the departure runway to line
different routes or in different geographical locations. up and wait. It is not authorization for takeoff. It is
(See SEPARATION.) used when takeoff clearance cannot immediately be
issued because of traffic or other reasons.
LDA− (See CLEARED FOR TAKEOFF.)
(See LOCALIZER TYPE DIRECTIONAL AID.)
LOCAL AIRPORT ADVISORY (LAA)− A service
(See LANDING DISTANCE AVAILABLE.) available only in Alaska and provided by facilities
(See ICAO Term LANDING DISTANCE that are located on the landing airport, have a discrete
AVAILABLE.) ground−to−air communication frequency or the
tower frequency when the tower is closed, automated
LF− weather reporting with voice broadcasting, and a
(See LOW FREQUENCY.) continuous ASOS/AWOS data display, other contin-
uous direct reading instruments, or manual
LIGHTED AIRPORT− An airport where runway and observations available to the specialist.
obstruction lighting is available. (See AIRPORT ADVISORY AREA.)
(Refer to AIM.) LOCAL TRAFFIC− Aircraft operating in the traffic
pattern or within sight of the tower, or aircraft known
LIGHT GUN− A handheld directional light signaling to be departing or arriving from flight in local practice
device which emits a brilliant narrow beam of white, areas, or aircraft executing practice instrument
green, or red light as selected by the tower controller. approaches at the airport.
The color and type of light transmitted can be used to (See TRAFFIC PATTERN.)
approve or disapprove anticipated pilot actions where
LOCALIZER− The component of an ILS which
radio communication is not available. The light gun
provides course guidance to the runway.
is used for controlling traffic operating in the vicinity
(See INSTRUMENT LANDING SYSTEM.)
of the airport and on the airport movement area.
(See ICAO term LOCALIZER COURSE.)
(Refer to AIM.)
(Refer to AIM.)
LIGHT-SPORT AIRCRAFT (LSA)− An LOCALIZER COURSE [ICAO]− The locus of
FAA-registered aircraft, other than a helicopter or points, in any given horizontal plane, at which the
powered-lift, that meets certain weight and DDM (difference in depth of modulation) is zero.
performance. Principally it is a single−engine aircraft
with a maximum of two seats and weighing no more LOCALIZER OFFSET− An angular offset of the
than 1,430 pounds if intended for operation on water, localizer aligned within 3 of the runway alignment.
or 1,320 pounds if not. It must be of simple design
LOCALIZER TYPE DIRECTIONAL AID (LDA)−
(fixed landing gear (except if intended for operations
A localizer with an angular offset that exceeds 3 of
on water or a glider), piston powered,
the runway alignment, used for nonprecision
nonpressurized, with a fixed or ground adjustable
instrument approaches with utility and accuracy
propeller). Performance is also limited to a maximum
comparable to a localizer, but which are not part of a
airspeed in level flight of not more than 120 knots
complete ILS.
calibrated airspeed (CAS), have a maximum
never-exceed speed of not more than 120 knots CAS (Refer to AIM.)
for a glider, and have a maximum stalling speed, LOCALIZER TYPE DIRECTIONAL AID (LDA)
without the use of lift-enhancing devices of not more PRECISION RUNWAY MONITOR (PRM)
than 45 knots CAS. It may be certificated as either APPROACH− An approach, which includes a
Experimental LSA or as a Special LSA aircraft. A glideslope, used in conjunction with an ILS PRM,
minimum of a sport pilot certificate is required to RNAV PRM or GLS PRM approach to an adjacent
operate light-sport aircraft. runway to conduct Simultaneous Offset Instrument
(Refer to 14 CFR Part 1, §1.1.) Approaches (SOIA) to parallel runways whose
PCG L−2
centerlines are separated by less than 3,000 feet and LOST LINK (LL)− An interruption or loss of the
at least 750 feet. NTZ monitoring is required to control link, or when the pilot is unable to effect
conduct these approaches. control of the aircraft and, as a result, the UA will
(See SIMULTANEOUS OFFSET INSTRUMENT perform a predictable or planned maneuver. Loss of
APPROACH (SOIA).) command and control link between the Control
(Refer to AIM) Station and the aircraft. There are two types of links:
LOCALIZER USABLE DISTANCE− The maxi- a. An uplink which transmits command instruc-
mum distance from the localizer transmitter at a tions to the aircraft, and
specified altitude, as verified by flight inspection, at b. A downlink which transmits the status of the
which reliable course information is continuously aircraft and provides situational awareness to the
received. pilot.
(Refer to AIM.)
LOST LINK PROCEDURE− Preprogrammed or
LOCATOR [ICAO]− An LM/MF NDB used as an aid
predetermined mitigations to ensure the continued
to final approach.
safe operation of the UA in the event of a lost link
Note: A locator usually has an average radius of (LL). In the event positive link cannot be established,
rated coverage of between 18.5 and 46.3 km (10
flight termination must be implemented.
and 25 NM).
LONG RANGE NAVIGATION− LOW ALTITUDE AIRWAY STRUCTURE− The

(See LORAN.)
network of airways serving aircraft operations up to
but not including 18,000 feet MSL.
LONGITUDINAL SEPARATION− The longitudi- (See AIRWAY.)
nal spacing of aircraft at the same altitude by a (Refer to AIM.)
minimum distance expressed in units of time or
miles. LOW ALTITUDE ALERT, CHECK YOUR ALTI-
(See SEPARATION.) TUDE IMMEDIATELY−
(Refer to AIM.) (See SAFETY ALERT.)
LORAN− An electronic navigational system by LOW APPROACH− An approach over an airport or
which hyperbolic lines of position are determined by runway following an instrument approach or a VFR
measuring the difference in the time of reception of approach including the go-around maneuver where
synchronized pulse signals from two fixed transmit- the pilot intentionally does not make contact with the
ters. Loran A operates in the 1750-1950 kHz runway.
frequency band. Loran C and D operate in the (Refer to AIM.)
100-110 kHz frequency band. In 2010, the U.S. Coast
Guard terminated all U.S. LORAN-C transmissions. LOW FREQUENCY (LF)− The frequency band
(Refer to AIM.) between 30 and 300 kHz.
LOST COMMUNICATIONS− Loss of the ability to (Refer to AIM.)
communicate by radio. Aircraft are sometimes LOCALIZER PERFORMANCE WITH VERTI-
referred to as NORDO (No Radio). Standard pilot CAL GUIDANCE (LPV)− A type of approach with
procedures are specified in 14 CFR Part 91. Radar vertical guidance (APV) based on WAAS, published
controllers issue procedures for pilots to follow in the on RNAV (GPS) approach charts. This procedure
event of lost communications during a radar approach takes advantage of the precise lateral guidance
when weather reports indicate that an aircraft will available from WAAS. The minima is published as a
likely encounter IFR weather conditions during the decision altitude (DA).
approach.
(Refer to 14 CFR Part 91.) LUAW−
(Refer to AIM.) (See LINE UP AND WAIT.)
PCG L−3
M
MAA− is real and requires familiarity with the subject.
(See MAXIMUM AUTHORIZED ALTITUDE.) Terrorists choose MANPADS because the weapons
are low cost, highly mobile, require minimal set−up
MACH NUMBER− The ratio of true airspeed to the time, and are easy to use and maintain. Although the
speed of sound; e.g., MACH .82, MACH 1.6. weapons have limited range, and their accuracy is
(See AIRSPEED.) affected by poor visibility and adverse weather, they
MACH TECHNIQUE [ICAO]− Describes a control can be fired from anywhere on land or from boats
technique used by air traffic control whereby turbojet where there is unrestricted visibility to the target.
aircraft operating successively along suitable routes MANDATORY ALTITUDE− An altitude depicted
are cleared to maintain appropriate MACH numbers on an instrument Approach Procedure Chart
for a relevant portion of the en route phase of flight. requiring the aircraft to maintain altitude at the
The principle objective is to achieve improved depicted value.
utilization of the airspace and to ensure that
separation between successive aircraft does not MANPADS−
decrease below the established minima. (See MAN PORTABLE AIR DEFENSE
SYSTEMS.)
MAHWP− Missed Approach Holding Waypoint
MAP−
MAINTAIN− (See MISSED APPROACH POINT.)
a. Concerning altitude/flight level, the term MARKER BEACON− An electronic navigation
means to remain at the altitude/flight level specified. facility transmitting a 75 MHz vertical fan or
The phrase “climb and” or “descend and” normally boneshaped radiation pattern. Marker beacons are
precedes “maintain” and the altitude assignment; identified by their modulation frequency and keying
e.g., “descend and maintain 5,000.” code, and when received by compatible airborne
b. Concerning other ATC instructions, the term is equipment, indicate to the pilot, both aurally and
used in its literal sense; e.g., maintain VFR. visually, that he/she is passing over the facility.
(See INNER MARKER.)
MAINTENANCE PLANNING FRICTION (See MIDDLE MARKER.)
LEVEL− The friction level specified in (See OUTER MARKER.)
AC 150/5320-12, Measurement, Construction, and (Refer to AIM.)
Maintenance of Skid Resistant Airport Pavement
Surfaces, which represents the friction value below MARSA−
which the runway pavement surface remains (See MILITARY AUTHORITY ASSUMES
acceptable for any category or class of aircraft RESPONSIBILITY FOR SEPARATION OF
operations but which is beginning to show signs of AIRCRAFT.)
deterioration. This value will vary depending on the MAWP− Missed Approach Waypoint
particular friction measurement equipment used.
MAXIMUM AUTHORIZED ALTITUDE− A pub-
MAKE SHORT APPROACH− Used by ATC to lished altitude representing the maximum usable
inform a pilot to alter his/her traffic pattern so as to altitude or flight level for an airspace structure or
make a short final approach. route segment. It is the highest altitude on a Federal
(See TRAFFIC PATTERN.) airway, jet route, area navigation low or high route,
or other direct route for which an MEA is designated
MAN PORTABLE AIR DEFENSE SYSTEMS
in 14 CFR Part 95 at which adequate reception of
(MANPADS)− MANPADS are lightweight,
navigation aid signals is assured.
shoulder−launched, missile systems used to bring
down aircraft and create mass casualties. The MAYDAY− The international radiotelephony distress
potential for MANPADS use against airborne aircraft signal. When repeated three times, it indicates
PCG M−1
6/17/21
imminent and grave danger and that immediate MHA−

assistance is requested. (See MINIMUM HOLDING ALTITUDE.)
(See PAN-PAN.)
MIA−
(Refer to AIM.)
(See MINIMUM IFR ALTITUDES.)
MCA− MICROBURST− A small downburst with outbursts
(See MINIMUM CROSSING ALTITUDE.) of damaging winds extending 2.5 miles or less. In
MDA− spite of its small horizontal scale, an intense
(See MINIMUM DESCENT ALTITUDE.) microburst could induce wind speeds as high as 150
knots
MEA− (Refer to AIM.)
(See MINIMUM EN ROUTE IFR ALTITUDE.)
MICRO-EN ROUTE AUTOMATED RADAR
MEARTS− TRACKING SYSTEM (MEARTS)− An automated
(See MICRO-EN ROUTE AUTOMATED RADAR radar and radar beacon tracking system capable of
TRACKING SYSTEM.) employing both short-range (ASR) and long-range
(ARSR) radars. This microcomputer driven system
METEOROLOGICAL IMPACT STATEMENT− provides improved tracking, continuous data record-
An unscheduled planning forecast describing ing, and use of full digital radar displays.
conditions expected to begin within 4 to 12 hours
which may impact the flow of air traffic in a specific MID RVR−
center’s (ARTCC) area. (See VISIBILITY.)
METER FIX ARC− A semicircle, equidistant from MIDDLE COMPASS LOCATOR−

a meter fix, usually in low altitude relatively close to (See COMPASS LOCATOR.)
the meter fix, used to help TBFM/ERAM calculate a MIDDLE MARKER− A marker beacon that defines
meter time, and determine appropriate sector meter a point along the glideslope of an ILS normally
list assignments for aircraft not on an established located at or near the point of decision height (ILS
arrival route or assigned a meter fix. Category I). It is keyed to transmit alternate dots and
METER REFERENCE ELEMENT (MRE)− A dashes, with the alternate dots and dashes keyed at the
constraint point through which traffic flows are rate of 95 dot/dash combinations per minute on a
managed. An MRE can be the runway threshold, a 1300 Hz tone, which is received aurally and visually
meter fix, or a meter arc. by compatible airborne equipment.
(See INSTRUMENT LANDING SYSTEM.)
METER REFERENCE POINT LIST (MRP)− A list (See MARKER BEACON.)
of TBFM delay information conveyed to the (Refer to AIM.)
controller on the situation display via the Meter
Reference Point View, commonly known as the MILES-IN-TRAIL− A specified distance between
“Meter List.” aircraft, normally, in the same stratum associated
with the same destination or route of flight.
METERING−A method of time−regulating traffic
flows in the en route and terminal environments. MILITARY AUTHORITY ASSUMES RESPONSI-
BILITY FOR SEPARATION OF AIRCRAFT
METERING AIRPORTS− Airports adapted for (MARSA)− A condition whereby the military
metering and for which optimum flight paths are services involved assume responsibility for separa-
defined. A maximum of 15 airports may be adapted. tion between participating military aircraft in the
ATC system. It is used only for required IFR
METERING FIX− A fix along an established route
operations which are specified in letters of agreement
from over which aircraft will be metered prior to
or other appropriate FAA or military documents.
entering terminal airspace. Normally, this fix should
be established at a distance from the airport which MILITARY LANDING ZONE− A landing strip used
will facilitate a profile descent 10,000 feet above exclusively by the military for training. A military
airport elevation (AAE) or above. landing zone does not carry a runway designation.
PCG M−2
12/2/21
MILITARY OPERATIONS AREA− an emergency situation but merely indicates an

(See SPECIAL USE AIRSPACE.) emergency situation is possible should any undue
delay occur.
MILITARY TRAINING ROUTES− Airspace of (Refer to AIM.)
defined vertical and lateral dimensions established
for the conduct of military flight training at airspeeds MINIMUM HOLDING ALTITUDE− The lowest
in excess of 250 knots IAS. altitude prescribed for a holding pattern which
(See IFR MILITARY TRAINING ROUTES.) assures navigational signal coverage, communica-
(See VFR MILITARY TRAINING ROUTES.)
tions, and meets obstacle clearance requirements.
MINIMUM IFR ALTITUDES (MIA)− Minimum
MINIMA− altitudes for IFR operations as prescribed in 14 CFR
(See MINIMUMS.) Part 91. These altitudes are published on aeronautical
MINIMUM CROSSING ALTITUDE (MCA)− The charts and prescribed in 14 CFR Part 95 for airways
lowest altitude at certain fixes at which an aircraft and routes, and in 14 CFR Part 97 for standard
must cross when proceeding in the direction of a instrument approach procedures. If no applicable
higher minimum en route IFR altitude (MEA). minimum altitude is prescribed in 14 CFR Part 95 or
(See MINIMUM EN ROUTE IFR ALTITUDE.)
14 CFR Part 97, the following minimum IFR
altitude applies:
MINIMUM DESCENT ALTITUDE (MDA)− The a. In designated mountainous areas, 2,000 feet
lowest altitude, expressed in feet above mean sea above the highest obstacle within a horizontal
level, to which descent is authorized on final distance of 4 nautical miles from the course to be
approach or during circle-to-land maneuvering in flown; or
execution of a standard instrument approach b. Other than mountainous areas, 1,000 feet above
procedure where no electronic glideslope is provided. the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4
(See NONPRECISION APPROACH nautical miles from the course to be flown; or
PROCEDURE.)
c. As otherwise authorized by the Administrator
MINIMUM EN ROUTE IFR ALTITUDE (MEA)− or assigned by ATC.
The lowest published altitude between radio fixes (See MINIMUM CROSSING ALTITUDE.)
which assures acceptable navigational signal cover- (See MINIMUM EN ROUTE IFR ALTITUDE.)
age and meets obstacle clearance requirements (See MINIMUM OBSTRUCTION CLEARANCE
between those fixes. The MEA prescribed for a ALTITUDE.)
Federal airway or segment thereof, area navigation (See MINIMUM SAFE ALTITUDE.)
low or high route, or other direct route applies to the (See MINIMUM VECTORING ALTITUDE.)
entire width of the airway, segment, or route between (Refer to 14 CFR Part 91.)
the radio fixes defining the airway, segment, or route.
MINIMUM OBSTRUCTION CLEARANCE ALTI-
TUDE (MOCA)− The lowest published altitude in
(Refer to 14 CFR Part 95.) effect between radio fixes on VOR airways,
(Refer to AIM.) off-airway routes, or route segments which meets
MINIMUM FRICTION LEVEL− The friction level obstacle clearance requirements for the entire route
specified in AC 150/5320-12, Measurement, Con- segment and which assures acceptable navigational
struction, and Maintenance of Skid Resistant Airport signal coverage only within 25 statute (22 nautical)
Pavement Surfaces, that represents the minimum miles of a VOR.
recommended wet pavement surface friction value (Refer to 14 CFR Part 91.)
for any turbojet aircraft engaged in LAHSO. This (Refer to 14 CFR Part 95.)
value will vary with the particular friction MINIMUM RECEPTION ALTITUDE (MRA)− The
measurement equipment used. lowest altitude at which an intersection can be
determined.
MINIMUM FUEL− Indicates that an aircraft’s fuel
supply has reached a state where, upon reaching the
destination, it can accept little or no delay. This is not MINIMUM SAFE ALTITUDE (MSA)−
PCG M−3
6/17/21
a. The minimum altitude specified in 14 CFR MINIMUM VECTORING ALTITUDE (MVA)−

Part 91 for various aircraft operations. The lowest MSL altitude at which an IFR aircraft will
b. Altitudes depicted on approach charts which be vectored by a radar controller, except as otherwise
provide at least 1,000 feet of obstacle clearance for authorized for radar approaches, departures, and
emergency use. These altitudes will be identified as missed approaches. The altitude meets IFR obstacle
Minimum Safe Altitudes or Emergency Safe clearance criteria. It may be lower than the published
Altitudes and are established as follows: MEA along an airway or J-route segment. It may be
1. Minimum Safe Altitude (MSA). Altitudes utilized for radar vectoring only upon the controller’s
depicted on approach charts which provide at least determination that an adequate radar return is being
1,000 feet of obstacle clearance within a 25-mile received from the aircraft being controlled. Charts
radius of the navigation facility, waypoint, or airport depicting minimum vectoring altitudes are normally
reference point upon which the MSA is predicated. available only to the controllers and not to pilots.
MSAs are for emergency use only and do not (Refer to AIM.)
necessarily assure acceptable navigational signal
coverage. MINUTES-IN-TRAIL− A specified interval be-
(See ICAO term Minimum Sector Altitude.) tween aircraft expressed in time. This method would
more likely be utilized regardless of altitude.
2. Emergency Safe Altitude (ESA). Altitudes
depicted on approach charts which provide at least MIS−
1,000 feet of obstacle clearance in nonmountainous
(See METEOROLOGICAL IMPACT
areas and 2,000 feet of obstacle clearance in
STATEMENT.)
designated mountainous areas within a 100-mile
radius of the navigation facility or waypoint used as MISSED APPROACH−
the ESA center. These altitudes are normally used
only in military procedures and are identified on a. A maneuver conducted by a pilot when an
published procedures as “Emergency Safe instrument approach cannot be completed to a
Altitudes.” landing. The route of flight and altitude are shown on
instrument approach procedure charts. A pilot
MINIMUM SAFE ALTITUDE WARNING
executing a missed approach prior to the Missed
(MSAW)− A function of the EAS and STARS
Approach Point (MAP) must continue along the final
computer that aids the controller by alerting him/her
approach to the MAP.
when a tracked Mode C equipped aircraft is below or
is predicted by the computer to go below a b. A term used by the pilot to inform ATC that
predetermined minimum safe altitude. he/she is executing the missed approach.
(Refer to AIM.) c. At locations where ATC radar service is
MINIMUM SECTOR ALTITUDE [ICAO]− The provided, the pilot should conform to radar vectors
lowest altitude which may be used under emergency when provided by ATC in lieu of the published
conditions which will provide a minimum clearance missed approach procedure.
of 300 m (1,000 feet) above all obstacles located in (See MISSED APPROACH POINT.)
an area contained within a sector of a circle of 46 km (Refer to AIM.)
(25 NM) radius centered on a radio aid to navigation.
MINIMUMS− Weather condition requirements MISSED APPROACH POINT (MAP)− A point
established for a particular operation or type of prescribed in each instrument approach procedure at
operation; e.g., IFR takeoff or landing, alternate which a missed approach procedure shall be executed
airport for IFR flight plans, VFR flight, etc. if the required visual reference does not exist.
(See IFR CONDITIONS.) (See MISSED APPROACH.)
(See IFR TAKEOFF MINIMUMS AND (See SEGMENTS OF AN INSTRUMENT
DEPARTURE PROCEDURES.) APPROACH PROCEDURE.)
(See LANDING MINIMUMS.)
(See VFR CONDITIONS.) MISSED APPROACH PROCEDURE [ICAO]− The
(Refer to 14 CFR Part 91.) procedure to be followed if the approach cannot be
(Refer to AIM.) continued.
PCG M−4
12/2/21
MISSED APPROACH SEGMENT− MONITOR ALERT (MA)− A function of the TFMS

(See SEGMENTS OF AN INSTRUMENT that provides traffic management personnel with a
APPROACH PROCEDURE.) tool for predicting potential capacity problems in
individual operational sectors. The MA is an
MM− indication that traffic management personnel need to
(See MIDDLE MARKER.) analyze a particular sector for actual activity and to
determine the required action(s), if any, needed to
MOA−
control the demand.
(See MILITARY OPERATIONS AREA.)
MONITOR ALERT PARAMETER (MAP)− The
MOCA− number designated for use in monitor alert
(See MINIMUM OBSTRUCTION CLEARANCE processing by the TFMS. The MAP is designated for
ALTITUDE.) each operational sector for increments of 15 minutes.
MODE− The letter or number assigned to a specific MOSAIC/MULTI−SENSOR MODE− Accepts posi-
pulse spacing of radio signals transmitted or received tional data from multiple radar or ADS−B sites.
by ground interrogator or airborne transponder Targets are displayed from a single source within a
components of the Air Traffic Control Radar Beacon radar sort box according to the hierarchy of the
System (ATCRBS). Mode A (military Mode 3) and sources assigned.
Mode C (altitude reporting) are used in air traffic
control. MOUNTAIN WAVE– Mountain waves occur when
air is being blown over a mountain range or even the
(See INTERROGATOR.)
ridge of a sharp bluff area. As the air hits the upwind
(See RADAR.)
side of the range, it starts to climb, thus creating what
(See TRANSPONDER.) is generally a smooth updraft which turns into a
(See ICAO term MODE.) turbulent downdraft as the air passes the crest of the
(Refer to AIM.) ridge. Mountain waves can cause significant
fluctuations in airspeed and altitude with or without
MODE (SSR MODE) [ICAO]− The letter or number
associated turbulence.
assigned to a specific pulse spacing of the
(Refer to AIM.)
interrogation signals transmitted by an interrogator.
There are 4 modes, A, B, C and D specified in Annex MOVEMENT AREA− The runways, taxiways, and
10, corresponding to four different interrogation other areas of an airport/heliport which are utilized
pulse spacings. for taxiing/hover taxiing, air taxiing, takeoff, and
landing of aircraft, exclusive of loading ramps and
MODE C INTRUDER ALERT− A function of parking areas. At those airports/heliports with a
certain air traffic control automated systems designed tower, specific approval for entry onto the movement
to alert radar controllers to existing or pending area must be obtained from ATC.
situations between a tracked target (known IFR or
(See ICAO term MOVEMENT AREA.)
VFR aircraft) and an untracked target (unknown IFR
or VFR aircraft) that requires immediate attention/ac- MOVEMENT AREA [ICAO]− That part of an
tion. aerodrome to be used for the takeoff, landing and
(See CONFLICT ALERT.) taxiing of aircraft, consisting of the maneuvering area
and the apron(s).
MODEL AIRCRAFT− An unmanned aircraft that is:
(1) capable of sustained flight in the atmosphere; (2) MOVING TARGET INDICATOR− An electronic
flown within visual line of sight of the person device which will permit radar scope presentation
operating the aircraft; and (3) flown for hobby or only from targets which are in motion. A partial
recreational purposes. remedy for ground clutter.
MRA−
MONITOR− (When used with communication
(See MINIMUM RECEPTION ALTITUDE.)
transfer) listen on a specific frequency and stand by
for instructions. Under normal circumstances do not MRE−
establish communications. (See METER REFERENCE ELEMENT.)
PCG M−5
6/17/21
MRP MULTICOM− A mobile service not open to public

(See METER REFERENCE POINT LIST.) correspondence used to provide communications
essential to conduct the activities being performed by
MSA−
or directed from private aircraft.
(See MINIMUM SAFE ALTITUDE.)
MSAW− MULTIPLE RUNWAYS− The utilization of a
(See MINIMUM SAFE ALTITUDE WARNING.) dedicated arrival runway(s) for departures and a
dedicated departure runway(s) for arrivals when
MTI−
feasible to reduce delays and enhance capacity.
(See MOVING TARGET INDICATOR.)
MTR− MVA−
(See MILITARY TRAINING ROUTES.) (See MINIMUM VECTORING ALTITUDE.)
PCG M−6
6/17/21
N
NAS− specified. Extended range is made possible
(See NATIONAL AIRSPACE SYSTEM.) through flight inspection determinations. Some
aids also have lesser service range due to location,
NAT HLA– terrain, frequency protection, etc. Restrictions to
(See NORTH ATLANTIC HIGH LEVEL service range are listed in Chart Supplement U.S.
AIRSPACE.)
NAVIGABLE AIRSPACE− Airspace at and above
NATIONAL AIRSPACE SYSTEM− The common the minimum flight altitudes prescribed in the CFRs
network of U.S. airspace; air navigation facilities, including airspace needed for safe takeoff and
equipment and services, airports or landing areas; landing.
aeronautical charts, information and services; rules, (Refer to 14 CFR Part 91.)
regulations and procedures, technical information,
NAVIGATION REFERENCE SYSTEM (NRS)−
and manpower and material. Included are system
The NRS is a system of waypoints developed for use
components shared jointly with the military.
within the United States for flight planning and
NATIONAL BEACON CODE ALLOCATION navigation without reference to ground based
PLAN AIRSPACE (NBCAP)− Airspace over United navigational aids. The NRS waypoints are located in
States territory located within the North American a grid pattern along defined latitude and longitude
continent between Canada and Mexico, including lines. The initial use of the NRS will be in the high
adjacent territorial waters outward to about bound- altitude environment. The NRS waypoints are
aries of oceanic control areas (CTA)/Flight intended for use by aircraft capable of point−to−point
Information Regions (FIR). navigation.
(See FLIGHT INFORMATION REGION.) NAVIGATION SPECIFICATION [ICAO]− A set of
NATIONAL FLIGHT DATA DIGEST (NFDD)− A aircraft and flight crew requirements needed to
daily (except weekends and Federal holidays) support performance−based navigation operations
publication of flight information appropriate to within a defined airspace. There are two kinds of
aeronautical charts, aeronautical publications, No- navigation specifications:
tices to Air Missions, or other media serving the a. RNP specification. A navigation specification
purpose of providing operational flight data essential based on area navigation that includes the
to safe and efficient aircraft operations. requirement for performance monitoring and
alerting, designated by the prefix RNP; e.g., RNP 4,
NATIONAL SEARCH AND RESCUE PLAN− An
RNP APCH.
interagency agreement which provides for the
effective utilization of all available facilities in all b. RNAV specification. A navigation specifica-
types of search and rescue missions. tion based on area navigation that does not include the
requirement for performance monitoring and alert-
NAVAID− ing, designated by the prefix RNAV; e.g., RNAV 5,
(See NAVIGATIONAL AID.) RNAV 1.
NAVAID CLASSES− VOR, VORTAC, and TACAN Note: The Performance−based Navigation Manual
aids are classed according to their operational use. (Doc 9613), Volume II contains detailed guidance
on navigation specifications.
The three classes of NAVAIDs are:
a. T− Terminal. NAVIGATIONAL AID− Any visual or electronic
device airborne or on the surface which provides
b. L− Low altitude.
point-to-point guidance information or position data
c. H− High altitude. to aircraft in flight.
Note: The normal service range for T, L, and H class (See AIR NAVIGATION FACILITY.)
aids is found in the AIM. Certain operational
requirements make it necessary to use some of NAVSPEC-
these aids at greater service ranges than (See NAVIGATION SPECIFICATION [ICAO].)
PCG N−1
NBCAP AIRSPACE− by the tower or to transit the Class D airspace. The

(See NATIONAL BEACON CODE ALLOCATION primary function of a nonapproach control tower is
PLAN AIRSPACE.) the sequencing of aircraft in the traffic pattern and on
the landing area. Nonapproach control towers also
NDB−
separate aircraft operating under instrument flight
(See NONDIRECTIONAL BEACON.)
rules clearances from approach controls and centers.
NEGATIVE− “No,” or “permission not granted,” or They provide ground control services to aircraft,
“that is not correct.” vehicles, personnel, and equipment on the airport
movement area.
NEGATIVE CONTACT− Used by pilots to inform
ATC that: NONCOMMON ROUTE/PORTION− That segment
a. Previously issued traffic is not in sight. It may of a North American Route between the inland
be followed by the pilot’s request for the controller to navigation facility and a designated North American
provide assistance in avoiding the traffic. terminal.
b. They were unable to contact ATC on a NON−COOPERATIVE SURVEILLANCE− Any
particular frequency. surveillance system, such as primary radar, that is not
dependent upon the presence of any equipment on the
NFDD− aircraft or vehicle to be tracked.
(See NATIONAL FLIGHT DATA DIGEST.) (See COOPERATIVE SURVEILLANCE.)
NIGHT− The time between the end of evening civil (See RADAR.)
twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight, NONDIRECTIONAL BEACON− An L/MF or UHF
as published in the Air Almanac, converted to local radio beacon transmitting nondirectional signals
time. whereby the pilot of an aircraft equipped with
(See ICAO term NIGHT.) direction finding equipment can determine his/her
NIGHT [ICAO]− The hours between the end of bearing to or from the radio beacon and “home” on or
evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning track to or from the station. When the radio beacon is
civil twilight or such other period between sunset and installed in conjunction with the Instrument Landing
sunrise as may be specified by the appropriate System marker, it is normally called a Compass
authority. Locator.
Note: Civil twilight ends in the evening when the (See AUTOMATIC DIRECTION FINDER.)
center of the sun’s disk is 6 degrees below the (See COMPASS LOCATOR.)
horizon and begins in the morning when the center
of the sun’s disk is 6 degrees below the horizon.
NONMOVEMENT AREAS− Taxiways and apron
(ramp) areas not under the control of air traffic.
NO GYRO APPROACH− A radar approach/vector
NONPRECISION APPROACH−
provided in case of a malfunctioning gyro-compass
(See NONPRECISION APPROACH
or directional gyro. Instead of providing the pilot PROCEDURE.)
with headings to be flown, the controller observes the
radar track and issues control instructions “turn NONPRECISION APPROACH PROCEDURE− A
right/left” or “stop turn” as appropriate. standard instrument approach procedure in which no
(Refer to AIM.) electronic glideslope is provided; e.g., VOR,
TACAN, NDB, LOC, ASR, LDA, or SDF
NO GYRO VECTOR− approaches.
(See NO GYRO APPROACH.)
NONRADAR− Precedes other terms and generally
NO TRANSGRESSION ZONE (NTZ)− The NTZ is means without the use of radar, such as:
a 2,000 foot wide zone, located equidistant between
a. Nonradar Approach. Used to describe
parallel runway or SOIA final approach courses, in
instrument approaches for which course guidance on
which flight is normally not allowed.
final approach is not provided by ground-based
NONAPPROACH CONTROL TOWER− Author- precision or surveillance radar. Radar vectors to the
izes aircraft to land or takeoff at the airport controlled final approach course may or may not be provided by
PCG N−2
12/2/21
ATC. Examples of nonradar approaches are VOR, route systems to and from specific coastal fixes
NDB, TACAN, ILS, RNAV, and GLS approaches. serving the North Atlantic. North American Routes
(See FINAL APPROACH COURSE.) consist of the following:
(See FINAL APPROACH-IFR.) a. Common Route/Portion. That segment of a
(See INSTRUMENT APPROACH North American Route between the inland navigation
PROCEDURE.) facility and the coastal fix.
(See RADAR APPROACH.) b. Noncommon Route/Portion. That segment of a
b. Nonradar Approach Control. An ATC facility North American Route between the inland navigation
providing approach control service without the use of facility and a designated North American terminal.
radar. c. Inland Navigation Facility. A navigation aid on
(See APPROACH CONTROL FACILITY.) a North American Route at which the common route
(See APPROACH CONTROL SERVICE.) and/or the noncommon route begins or ends.
c. Nonradar Arrival. An aircraft arriving at an d. Coastal Fix. A navigation aid or intersection
airport without radar service or at an airport served by where an aircraft transitions between the domestic
a radar facility and radar contact has not been route structure and the oceanic route structure.
established or has been terminated due to a lack of NORTH AMERICAN ROUTE PROGRAM (NRP)−
radar service to the airport. The NRP is a set of rules and procedures which are
(See RADAR ARRIVAL.) designed to increase the flexibility of user flight
(See RADAR SERVICE.) planning within published guidelines.
d. Nonradar Route. A flight path or route over NORTH ATLANTIC HIGH LEVEL AIRSPACE
which the pilot is performing his/her own navigation. (NAT HLA)− That volume of airspace (as defined in
The pilot may be receiving radar separation, radar ICAO Document 7030) between FL 285 and FL 420
monitoring, or other ATC services while on a within the Oceanic Control Areas of Bodo Oceanic,
nonradar route. Gander Oceanic, New York Oceanic East, Reykjavik,
(See RADAR ROUTE.) Santa Maria, and Shanwick, excluding the Shannon
e. Nonradar Separation. The spacing of aircraft in and Brest Ocean Transition Areas. ICAO Doc 007
accordance with established minima without the use North Atlantic Operations and Airspace Manual
of radar; e.g., vertical, lateral, or longitudinal provides detailed information on related aircraft and
separation. operational requirements.
(See RADAR SEPARATION.) NORTH PACIFIC− An organized route system
between the Alaskan west coast and Japan.
NON−RESTRICTIVE ROUTING (NRR)− Portions
of a proposed route of flight where a user can flight NOT STANDARD− Varying from what is expected
plan the most advantageous flight path with no or published. For use in NOTAMs only.
requirement to make reference to ground−based NOT STD-
NAVAIDs. (See NOT STANDARD.)
NOPAC− NOTAM−
(See NORTH PACIFIC.) (See NOTICE TO AIR MISSIONS.)
NOTAM [ICAO]− A notice containing information
NORDO (No Radio)− Aircraft that cannot or do not
concerning the establishment, condition or change in
communicate by radio when radio communication is
any aeronautical facility, service, procedure or
required are referred to as “NORDO.”
hazard, the timely knowledge of which is essential to
(See LOST COMMUNICATIONS.)
personnel concerned with flight operations.
NORMAL OPERATING ZONE (NOZ)− The NOZ a. I Distribution− Distribution by means of
is the operating zone within which aircraft flight telecommunication.
remains during normal independent simultaneous b. II Distribution− Distribution by means other
parallel ILS approaches. than telecommunications.
NORTH AMERICAN ROUTE− A numerically NOTICE TO AIR MISSIONS (NOTAM)− A notice
coded route preplanned over existing airway and containing information (not known sufficiently in
PCG N−3
advance to publicize by other means) concerning the nature, transmitted by USNOF and given system
establishment, condition, or change in any wide dissemination.
component (facility, service, or procedure of, or (See ICAO term NOTAM.)
hazard in the National Airspace System) the timely NRR−
knowledge of which is essential to personnel (See NON−RESTRICTIVE ROUTING.)
concerned with flight operations.
NRS−
(See NAVIGATION REFERENCE SYSTEM.)
NOTAM(D)− A NOTAM given (in addition to local
dissemination) distant dissemination beyond the area NUMEROUS TARGETS VICINITY (LOCA-
of responsibility of the Flight Service Station. These TION)− A traffic advisory issued by ATC to advise
NOTAMs will be stored and available until canceled. pilots that targets on the radar scope are too numerous
to issue individually.
c. FDC NOTAM− A NOTAM regulatory in (See TRAFFIC ADVISORIES.)
PCG N−4
O
OBSTACLE− An existing object, object of natural (b) 180 feet, plus the wingspan of the most
growth, or terrain at a fixed geographical location or demanding airplane, plus 20 feet per 1,000 feet of
which may be expected at a fixed location within a airport elevation.
prescribed area with reference to which vertical 2. For runways serving only small airplanes:
clearance is or must be provided during flight (a) 300 feet for precision instrument run-
operation. ways.
OBSTACLE DEPARTURE PROCEDURE (ODP)− (b) 250 feet for other runways serving small
A preplanned instrument flight rule (IFR) departure airplanes with approach speeds of 50 knots, or more.
procedure printed for pilot use in textual or graphic (c) 120 feet for other runways serving small
form to provide obstruction clearance via the least airplanes with approach speeds of less than 50 knots.
onerous route from the terminal area to the b. Inner-approach OFZ. The inner-approach OFZ
appropriate en route structure. ODPs are recom- is a defined volume of airspace centered on the
mended for obstruction clearance and may be flown approach area. The inner-approach OFZ applies only
without ATC clearance unless an alternate departure to runways with an approach lighting system. The
procedure (SID or radar vector) has been specifically inner-approach OFZ begins 200 feet from the runway
assigned by ATC. threshold at the same elevation as the runway
(See IFR TAKEOFF MINIMUMS AND threshold and extends 200 feet beyond the last light
DEPARTURE PROCEDURES.) unit in the approach lighting system. The width of the
(See STANDARD INSTRUMENT inner-approach OFZ is the same as the runway OFZ
DEPARTURES.) and rises at a slope of 50 (horizontal) to 1 (vertical)
(Refer to AIM.) from the beginning.
c. Inner-transitional OFZ. The inner transitional
OBSTACLE FREE ZONE− The OFZ is a surface OFZ is a defined volume of airspace along the
three−dimensional volume of airspace which protects sides of the runway and inner-approach OFZ and
for the transition of aircraft to and from the runway. applies only to precision instrument runways. The
The OFZ clearing standard precludes taxiing and inner-transitional surface OFZ slopes 3 (horizontal)
parked airplanes and object penetrations, except for to 1 (vertical) out from the edges of the runway OFZ
frangible NAVAID locations that are fixed by and inner-approach OFZ to a height of 150 feet above
function. Additionally, vehicles, equipment, and the established airport elevation.
personnel may be authorized by air traffic control to (Refer to AC 150/5300-13, Chapter 3.)
enter the area using the provisions of FAA Order (Refer to FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 3−1−5,
JO 7110.65, paragraph 3−1−5, Vehicles/Equipment/ Vehicles/Equipment/Personnel Near/On
Personnal Near/On Runways. The runway OFZ and Runways.)
when applicable, the inner-approach OFZ, and the
OBSTRUCTION− Any object/obstacle exceeding
inner-transitional OFZ, comprise the OFZ.
the obstruction standards specified by 14 CFR
a. Runway OFZ. The runway OFZ is a defined Part 77, Subpart C.
volume of airspace centered above the runway. The
OBSTRUCTION LIGHT− A light or one of a group
runway OFZ is the airspace above a surface whose
of lights, usually red or white, frequently mounted on
elevation at any point is the same as the elevation of
a surface structure or natural terrain to warn pilots of
the nearest point on the runway centerline. The
the presence of an obstruction.
runway OFZ extends 200 feet beyond each end of the
runway. The width is as follows: OCEANIC AIRSPACE− Airspace over the oceans of
the world, considered international airspace, where
1. For runways serving large airplanes, the
oceanic separation and procedures per the Interna-
greater of:
tional Civil Aviation Organization are applied.
(a) 400 feet, or Responsibility for the provisions of air traffic control
PCG O−1
6/17/21
service in this airspace is delegated to various OFT−

countries, based generally upon geographic proxim- (See OUTER FIX TIME.)
ity and the availability of the required resources.
OM−
OCEANIC ERROR REPORT− A report filed when (See OUTER MARKER.)
ATC observes an Oceanic Error as defined by FAA ON COURSE−
Order 7110.82, Reporting Oceanic Errors.
a. Used to indicate that an aircraft is established on
OCEANIC PUBLISHED ROUTE− A route estab- the route centerline.
lished in international airspace and charted or b. Used by ATC to advise a pilot making a radar
described in flight information publications, such as approach that his/her aircraft is lined up on the final
Route Charts, DOD En route Charts, Chart approach course.
Supplements, NOTAMs, and Track Messages. (See ON-COURSE INDICATION.)
OCEANIC TRANSITION ROUTE− An ATS route ON-COURSE INDICATION− An indication on an

established for the purpose of transitioning aircraft instrument, which provides the pilot a visual means
to/from an organized track system. of determining that the aircraft is located on the
centerline of a given navigational track, or an
ODP− indication on a radar scope that an aircraft is on a
(See OBSTACLE DEPARTURE PROCEDURE.) given track.
ONE-MINUTE WEATHER− The most recent one
OFF COURSE− A term used to describe a situation
minute updated weather broadcast received by a pilot
where an aircraft has reported a position fix or is
from an uncontrolled airport ASOS/AWOS.
observed on radar at a point not on the ATC-approved
route of flight. ONER−
(See OCEANIC NAVIGATIONAL ERROR
OFF−ROUTE OBSTRUCTION CLEARANCE AL- REPORT.)
TITUDE (OROCA)− A published altitude which
provides terrain and obstruction clearance with a OPEN LOOP CLEARANCE− Provides a lateral
1,000 foot buffer in non−mountainous areas and a vector solution that does not include a return to route
2,000 foot buffer in designated mountainous areas point.
within the United States, and a 3,000 foot buffer OPERATIONAL−
outside the US ADIZ. These altitudes are not (See DUE REGARD.)
assessed for NAVAID signal coverage, air traffic
control surveillance, or communications coverage, OPERATIONS SPECIFICATIONS [ICAO]− The
and are published for general situational awareness, authorizations, conditions and limitations associated
flight planning, and in−flight contingency use. with the air operator certificate and subject to the
conditions in the operations manual.
OFF-ROUTE VECTOR− A vector by ATC which OPPOSITE DIRECTION AIRCRAFT− Aircraft are
takes an aircraft off a previously assigned route. operating in opposite directions when:
Altitudes assigned by ATC during such vectors
provide required obstacle clearance. a. They are following the same track in reciprocal
directions; or
OFFSET PARALLEL RUNWAYS− Staggered b. Their tracks are parallel and the aircraft are
runways having centerlines which are parallel. flying in reciprocal directions; or
c. Their tracks intersect at an angle of more than
OFFSHORE/CONTROL AIRSPACE AREA− That
135.
portion of airspace between the U.S. 12 NM limit and
the oceanic CTA/FIR boundary within which air OPTION APPROACH− An approach requested and
traffic control is exercised. These areas are conducted by a pilot which will result in either a
established to provide air traffic control services. touch-and-go, missed approach, low approach,
Offshore/Control Airspace Areas may be classified stop-and-go, or full stop landing. Pilots should advise
as either Class A airspace or Class E airspace. ATC if they decide to remain on the runway, of any
PCG O−2
12/2/21
delay in their stop and go, delay clearing the runway, OR

or are unable to comply with the instruction(s). OUTER FIX− An adapted fix along the converted
(See CLEARED FOR THE OPTION.) route of flight, prior to the meter fix, for which
(Refer to AIM.) crossing times are calculated and displayed in the
ORGANIZED TRACK SYSTEM− A series of ATS metering position list.
routes which are fixed and charted; i.e., CEP, OUTER FIX ARC− A semicircle, usually about a
NOPAC, or flexible and described by NOTAM; i.e., 50−70 mile radius from a meter fix, usually in high
NAT TRACK MESSAGE. altitude, which is used by CTAS/ERAM to calculate
OTR− outer fix times and determine appropriate sector
meter list assignments for aircraft on an established
(See OCEANIC TRANSITION ROUTE.)
arrival route that will traverse the arc.
OTS− OUTER FIX TIME− A calculated time to depart the
(See ORGANIZED TRACK SYSTEM.) outer fix in order to cross the vertex at the ACLT. The
OUT− The conversation is ended and no response is time reflects descent speed adjustments and any
expected. applicable delay time that must be absorbed prior to
crossing the meter fix.
OUT OF SERVICE/UNSERVICEABLE (U/S)−
When a piece of equipment, a NAVAID, a facility or OUTER MARKER− A marker beacon at or near the
a service is not operational, certified (if required) and glideslope intercept altitude of an ILS approach. It is
immediately “available” for Air Traffic or public use. keyed to transmit two dashes per second on a 400 Hz
tone, which is received aurally and visually by
OUTER AREA (associated with Class C airspace)− compatible airborne equipment. The OM is normally
Non−regulatory airspace surrounding designated located four to seven miles from the runway threshold
Class C airspace airports wherein ATC provides radar on the extended centerline of the runway.
vectoring and sequencing on a full-time basis for all (See INSTRUMENT LANDING SYSTEM.)
IFR and participating VFR aircraft. The service (See MARKER BEACON.)
provided in the outer area is called Class C service (Refer to AIM.)
which includes: IFR/IFR−IFR separation; IFR/
OVER− My transmission is ended; I expect a
VFR−traffic advisories and conflict resolution; and
response.
VFR/VFR−traffic advisories and, as appropriate,
safety alerts. The normal radius will be 20 nautical OVERHEAD MANEUVER− A series of predeter-
miles with some variations based on site-specific mined maneuvers prescribed for aircraft (often in
requirements. The outer area extends outward from formation) for entry into the visual flight rules (VFR)
the primary Class C airspace airport and extends from traffic pattern and to proceed to a landing. An
the lower limits of radar/radio coverage up to the overhead maneuver is not an instrument flight rules
ceiling of the approach control’s delegated airspace (IFR) approach procedure. An aircraft executing an
excluding the Class C charted area and other airspace overhead maneuver is considered VFR and the IFR
as appropriate. flight plan is canceled when the aircraft reaches the
(See CONFLICT RESOLUTION.) “initial point” on the initial approach portion of the
(See CONTROLLED AIRSPACE.) maneuver. The pattern usually specifies the
following:
OUTER COMPASS LOCATOR−
a. The radio contact required of the pilot.
(See COMPASS LOCATOR.)
b. The speed to be maintained.
OUTER FIX− A general term used within ATC to c. An initial approach 3 to 5 miles in length.
describe fixes in the terminal area, other than the final
d. An elliptical pattern consisting of two 180
approach fix. Aircraft are normally cleared to these
degree turns.
fixes by an Air Route Traffic Control Center or an
Approach Control Facility. Aircraft are normally e. A break point at which the first 180 degree turn
cleared from these fixes to the final approach fix or is started.
final approach course. f. The direction of turns.
PCG O−3
g. Altitude (at least 500 feet above the convention- OVERLYING CENTER− The ARTCC facility that
al pattern). is responsible for arrival/departure operations at a
h. A “Roll-out” on final approach not less than 1/4 specific terminal.
mile from the landing threshold and not less than 300
feet above the ground.
PCG O−4
12/2/21
P
P TIME− PDRR−
(See PROPOSED DEPARTURE TIME.) (See PRE−DEPARTURE REROUTE.)
P-ACP− PERFORMANCE−BASED NAVIGATION (PBN)

(See PREARRANGED COORDINATION [ICAO]− Area navigation based on performance
PROCEDURES.) requirements for aircraft operating along an ATS
route, on an instrument approach procedure or in a
PAN-PAN− The international radio-telephony urgen- designated airspace.
cy signal. When repeated three times, indicates Note: Performance requirements are expressed in
uncertainty or alert followed by the nature of the navigation specifications (RNAV specification,
urgency. RNP specification) in terms of accuracy, integrity,
(See MAYDAY.) continuity, availability, and functionality needed for
(Refer to AIM.) the proposed operation in the context of a
particular airspace concept.
PAR−
(See PRECISION APPROACH RADAR.) PERMANENT ECHO− Radar signals reflected from
fixed objects on the earth’s surface; e.g., buildings,
PAR [ICAO]− towers, terrain. Permanent echoes are distinguished
(See ICAO Term PRECISION APPROACH from “ground clutter” by being definable locations
RADAR.) rather than large areas. Under certain conditions they
may be used to check radar alignment.
PARALLEL ILS APPROACHES− Approaches to
parallel runways by IFR aircraft which, when PERTI−
established inbound toward the airport on the (See PLAN, EXECUTE, REVIEW, TRAIN,
adjacent final approach courses, are radar-separated IMPROVE.)
by at least 2 miles. PGUI−
(See FINAL APPROACH COURSE.) (See PLANVIEW GRAPHICAL USER
(See SIMULTANEOUS ILS APPROACHES.) INTERFACE.)
PARALLEL OFFSET ROUTE− A parallel track to PHOTO RECONNAISSANCE− Military activity
the left or right of the designated or established that requires locating individual photo targets and
airway/route. Normally associated with Area Navi- navigating to the targets at a preplanned angle and
gation (RNAV) operations. altitude. The activity normally requires a lateral route
(See AREA NAVIGATION.) width of 16 NM and altitude range of 1,500 feet to
10,000 feet AGL.
PARALLEL RUNWAYS− Two or more runways at
the same airport whose centerlines are parallel. In PILOT BRIEFING− A service provided by the FSS
addition to runway number, parallel runways are to assist pilots in flight planning. Briefing items may
designated as L (left) and R (right) or, if three parallel include weather information, NOTAMS, military
runways exist, L (left), C (center), and R (right). activities, flow control information, and other items
as requested.
PBCT− (Refer to AIM.)
(See PROPOSED BOUNDARY CROSSING
TIME.) PILOT IN COMMAND− The pilot responsible for
the operation and safety of an aircraft during flight
PBN− time.
(See ICAO Term PERFORMANCE−BASED (Refer to 14 CFR Part 91.)
NAVIGATION.)
PILOT WEATHER REPORT− A report of meteoro-
PDC− logical phenomena encountered by aircraft in flight.
(See PRE−DEPARTURE CLEARANCE.) (Refer to AIM.)
PCG P−1
6/17/21
PILOT’S DISCRETION− When used in conjunc- POFZ−

tion with altitude assignments, means that ATC has (See PRECISION OBSTACLE FREE ZONE.)
offered the pilot the option of starting climb or
POINT OUT−
descent whenever he/she wishes and conducting the
(See RADAR POINT OUT.)
climb or descent at any rate he/she wishes. He/she
may temporarily level off at any intermediate POINT−TO−POINT (PTP)− A level of NRR service
altitude. However, once he/she has vacated an for aircraft that is based on traditional waypoints in
altitude, he/she may not return to that altitude. their FMSs or RNAV equipage.
PIREP− POLAR TRACK STRUCTURE− A system of

organized routes between Iceland and Alaska which
(See PILOT WEATHER REPORT.)
overlie Canadian MNPS Airspace.
PITCH POINT− A fix/waypoint that serves as a POSITION REPORT− A report over a known
transition point from a departure procedure or the low location as transmitted by an aircraft to ATC.
altitude ground−based navigation structure into the (Refer to AIM.)
high altitude waypoint system.
POSITION SYMBOL− A computer-generated
PLAN, EXECUTE, REVIEW, TRAIN, IMPROVE indication shown on a radar display to indicate the
(PERTI)− A process that delivers a one−day detailed mode of tracking.
plan for NAS operations, and a two−day outlook, POSITIVE CONTROL− The separation of all air
which sets NAS performance goals for high impact traffic within designated airspace by air traffic
constraints. PLAN: Increase lead time for identifying control.
aviation system constraint planning and goals while
utilizing historical NAS performance data and PRACTICE INSTRUMENT APPROACH− An
constraints to derive successful and/or improved instrument approach procedure conducted by a VFR
advance planning strategies. EXECUTE: Set goals or an IFR aircraft for the purpose of pilot training or
and a strategy. The Air Traffic Control System proficiency demonstrations.
Command Center (ATCSCC), FAA field facilities, PRE−DEPARTURE CLEARANCE− An application
and aviation stakeholders execute the strategy and with the Terminal Data Link System (TDLS) that
work to achieve the desired/planned outcomes. provides clearance information to subscribers,
REVIEW: Utilize post event analysis and lessons through a service provider, in text to the cockpit or
learned to define and implement future strategies and gate printer.
operational triggers based on past performance and
outcomes, both positive and negative. TRAIN: PRE−DEPARTURE REROUTE (PDRR)− A capa-
Develop training that includes rapid and continuous bility within the Traffic Flow Management System
feedback to operational personnel and provides that enables ATC to quickly amend and execute
increased data and weather knowledge and tools for revised departure clearances that mitigate en route
analytical usage and planning. IMPROVE: Imple- constraints or balance en route traffic flows.
ment better information sharing processes, PREARRANGED COORDINATION− A standard-
technologies, and procedures that improve the skills ized procedure which permits an air traffic controller
and technology needed to implement operational to enter the airspace assigned to another air traffic
insights and improvements. controller without verbal coordination. The proce-
dures are defined in a facility directive which ensures
PLANS DISPLAY− A display available in EDST approved separation between aircraft.
that provides detailed flight plan and predicted
conflict information in textual format for requested PREARRANGED COORDINATION PROCE-
Current Plans and all Trial Plans. DURES− A facility’s standardized procedure that
(See EN ROUTE DECISION SUPPORT TOOL) describes the process by which one controller shall
allow an aircraft to penetrate or transit another
PLANVIEW GRAPHICAL USER INTERFACE controller’s airspace in a manner that assures
(PGUI)− A TBFM display that provides a spatial approved separation without individual coordination
display of individual aircraft track information. for each aircraft.
PCG P−2
12/2/21
PRECIPITATION− Any or all forms of water and the distance (range) from the touchdown point on
particles (rain, sleet, hail, or snow) that fall from the the runway as displayed on the radar scope.
atmosphere and reach the surface. Note: The abbreviation “PAR” is also used to
denote preferential arrival routes in ARTCC
computers.
PRECIPITATION RADAR WEATHER DESCRIP-
TIONS− Existing radar systems cannot detect (See GLIDEPATH.)
turbulence. However, there is a direct correlation (See PAR.)
between the degree of turbulence and other weather (See PREFERENTIAL ROUTES.)
features associated with thunderstorms and the (See ICAO term PRECISION APPROACH
RADAR.)
weather radar precipitation intensity. Controllers will
(Refer to AIM.)
issue (where capable) precipitation intensity as
observed by radar when using weather and radar PRECISION APPROACH RADAR [ICAO]− Pri-
processor (WARP) or NAS ground−based digital mary radar equipment used to determine the position
radars with weather capabilities. When precipitation of an aircraft during final approach, in terms of lateral
intensity information is not available, the intensity and vertical deviations relative to a nominal approach
will be described as UNKNOWN. When intensity path, and in range relative to touchdown.
levels can be determined, they shall be described as: Note: Precision approach radars are designed to
enable pilots of aircraft to be given guidance by
a. LIGHT (< 26 dBZ) radio communication during the final stages of the
approach to land.
b. MODERATE (26 to 40 dBZ)
PRECISION OBSTACLE FREE ZONE (POFZ)−
c. HEAVY (> 40 to 50 dBZ) An 800 foot wide by 200 foot long area centered on
the runway centerline adjacent to the threshold
d. EXTREME (> 50 dBZ) designed to protect aircraft flying precision
(Refer to AC 00−45, Aviation Weather Services.) approaches from ground vehicles and other aircraft
when ceiling is less than 250 feet or visibility is less
PRECISION APPROACH− than 3/4 statute mile (or runway visual range below
4,000 feet.)
(See PRECISION APPROACH PROCEDURE.)
PRECISION RUNWAY MONITOR (PRM)
SYSTEM− Provides air traffic controllers
PRECISION APPROACH PROCEDURE− A
monitoring the NTZ during simultaneous close
standard instrument approach procedure in which an
parallel PRM approaches with precision, high update
electronic glideslope or other type of glidepath is
rate secondary surveillance data. The high update rate
provided; e.g., ILS, PAR, and GLS.
surveillance sensor component of the PRM system is
(See INSTRUMENT LANDING SYSTEM.) only required for specific runway or approach course
(See PRECISION APPROACH RADAR.) separation. The high resolution color monitoring
display, Final Monitor Aid (FMA) of the PRM
PRECISION APPROACH RADAR− Radar equip- system, or other FMA with the same capability,
ment in some ATC facilities operated by the FAA presents NTZ surveillance track data to controllers
and/or the military services at joint-use civil/military along with detailed maps depicting approaches and
locations and separate military installations to detect no transgression zone and is required for all
and display azimuth, elevation, and range of aircraft simultaneous close parallel PRM NTZ monitoring
on the final approach course to a runway. This operations.
equipment may be used to monitor certain non−radar (Refer to AIM)
approaches, but is primarily used to conduct a PREDICTIVE WIND SHEAR ALERT SYSTEM
precision instrument approach (PAR) wherein the (PWS)− A self−contained system used on board some
controller issues guidance instructions to the pilot aircraft to alert the flight crew to the presence of a
based on the aircraft’s position in relation to the final potential wind shear. PWS systems typically monitor
approach course (azimuth), the glidepath (elevation), 3 miles ahead and 25 degrees left and right of the
PCG P−3
6/17/21
aircraft’s heading at or below 1200’ AGL. Departing departure or arrival point is not listed in the Chart
flights may receive a wind shear alert after they start Supplement U.S., pilots may use that part of a
the takeoff roll and may elect to abort the takeoff. Preferred IFR Route which is appropriate for the
Aircraft on approach receiving an alert may elect to departure or arrival point that is listed. Preferred IFR
go around or perform a wind shear escape maneuver. Routes are correlated with DPs and STARs and may
be defined by airways, jet routes, direct routes
PREFERENTIAL ROUTES− Preferential routes between NAVAIDs, Waypoints, NAVAID radials/
(PDRs, PARs, and PDARs) are adapted in ARTCC DME, or any combinations thereof.
computers to accomplish inter/intrafacility controller (See CENTER’S AREA.)
coordination and to assure that flight data is posted at (See INSTRUMENT DEPARTURE
the proper control positions. Locations having a need PROCEDURE.)
for these specific inbound and outbound routes (See PREFERENTIAL ROUTES.)
normally publish such routes in local facility (See STANDARD TERMINAL ARRIVAL.)
bulletins, and their use by pilots minimizes flight (Refer to CHART SUPPLEMENT U.S.)
plan route amendments. When the workload or traffic
situation permits, controllers normally provide radar PRE-FLIGHT PILOT BRIEFING−
vectors or assign requested routes to minimize (See PILOT BRIEFING.)
circuitous routing. Preferential routes are usually
confined to one ARTCC’s area and are referred to by PREVAILING VISIBILITY−
the following names or acronyms: (See VISIBILITY.)
a. Preferential Departure Route (PDR). A specific PRIMARY RADAR TARGET− An analog or digital
departure route from an airport or terminal area to an target, exclusive of a secondary radar target,
en route point where there is no further need for flow presented on a radar display.
control. It may be included in an Instrument PRM−
Departure Procedure (DP) or a Preferred IFR Route.
(See AREA NAVIGATION (RNAV) GLOBAL
b. Preferential Arrival Route (PAR). A specific POSITIONING SYSTEM (GPS) PRECISION
arrival route from an appropriate en route point to an RUNWAY MONITORING (PRM) APPROACH.)
airport or terminal area. It may be included in a (See PRM APPROACH.)
Standard Terminal Arrival (STAR) or a Preferred IFR (See PRECISION RUNWAY MONITOR
Route. The abbreviation “PAR” is used primarily SYSTEM.)
within the ARTCC and should not be confused with PRM APPROACH− An instrument approach
the abbreviation for Precision Approach Radar. procedure titled ILS PRM, RNAV PRM, LDA PRM,
c. Preferential Departure and Arrival Route or GLS PRM conducted to parallel runways
(PDAR). A route between two terminals which are separated by less than 4,300 feet and at least 3,000
within or immediately adjacent to one ARTCC’s area. feet where independent closely spaced approaches
PDARs are not synonymous with Preferred IFR are permitted. Use of an enhanced display with
Routes but may be listed as such as they do alerting, a No Transgression Zone (NTZ), secondary
accomplish essentially the same purpose. monitor frequency, pilot PRM training, and
(See PREFERRED IFR ROUTES.) publication of an Attention All Users Page are
required for all PRM approaches. Depending on the
PREFERRED IFR ROUTES− Routes established runway spacing, the approach courses may be parallel
between busier airports to increase system efficiency or one approach course must be offset. PRM
and capacity. They normally extend through one or procedures are also used to conduct Simultaneous
more ARTCC areas and are designed to achieve Offset Instrument Approach (SOIA) operations. In
balanced traffic flows among high density terminals. SOIA, one straight−in ILS PRM, RNAV PRM, GLS
IFR clearances are issued on the basis of these routes PRM, and one offset LDA PRM, RNAV PRM or
except when severe weather avoidance procedures or GLS PRM approach are utilized. PRM procedures
other factors dictate otherwise. Preferred IFR Routes are terminated and a visual segment begins at the
are listed in the Chart Supplement U.S. If a flight is offset approach missed approach point where the
planned to or from an area having such routes but the minimum distance between the approach courses is
PCG P−4
12/2/21
3000 feet. Runway spacing can be as close as 750 intermediate approach segment of a nonprecision
feet. instrument approach. The profile descent normally
(Refer to AIM.) terminates at the approach gate or where the
glideslope or other appropriate minimum altitude is
PROCEDURAL CONTROL [ICAO]– Term used to intercepted.
indicate that information derived from an ATS
surveillance system is not required for the provision PROGRESS REPORT−
of air traffic control service. (See POSITION REPORT.)
PROCEDURAL SEPARATION [ICAO]– The sepa- PROGRESSIVE TAXI− Precise taxi instructions
ration used when providing procedural control. given to a pilot unfamiliar with the airport or issued
in stages as the aircraft proceeds along the taxi route.
PROCEDURE TURN− The maneuver prescribed
when it is necessary to reverse direction to establish PROHIBITED AREA−
an aircraft on the intermediate approach segment or (See SPECIAL USE AIRSPACE.)
final approach course. The outbound course, (See ICAO term PROHIBITED AREA.)
direction of turn, distance within which the turn must PROHIBITED AREA [ICAO]− An airspace of
be completed, and minimum altitude are specified in defined dimensions, above the land areas or territorial
the procedure. However, unless otherwise restricted, waters of a State, within which the flight of aircraft
the point at which the turn may be commenced and is prohibited.
the type and rate of turn are left to the discretion of the
pilot. PROMINENT OBSTACLE– An obstacle that meets
(See ICAO term PROCEDURE TURN.) one or more of the following conditions:
a. An obstacle which stands out beyond the
PROCEDURE TURN [ICAO]− A maneuver in
adjacent surface of surrounding terrain and immedi-
which a turn is made away from a designated track
ately projects a noticeable hazard to aircraft in flight.
followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit
the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the b. An obstacle, not characterized as low and close
reciprocal of the designated track. in, whose height is no less than 300 feet above the
departure end of takeoff runway (DER) elevation, is
Note 1: Procedure turns are designated “left” or
“right” according to the direction of the initial turn. within 10 NM from the DER, and that penetrates that
airport/heliport’s diverse departure obstacle clear-
Note 2: Procedure turns may be designated as ance surface (OCS).
being made either in level flight or while
descending, according to the circumstances of c. An obstacle beyond 10 NM from an airport/
each individual approach procedure. heliport that requires an obstacle departure procedure
(ODP) to ensure obstacle avoidance.
PROCEDURE TURN INBOUND− That point of a (See OBSTACLE.)
procedure turn maneuver where course reversal has (See OBSTRUCTION.)
been completed and an aircraft is established inbound
on the intermediate approach segment or final PROPELLER (PROP) WASH (PROP BLAST)− The
approach course. A report of “procedure turn disturbed mass of air generated by the motion of a
inbound” is normally used by ATC as a position propeller.
report for separation purposes. PROPOSED BOUNDARY CROSSING TIME−
(See FINAL APPROACH COURSE.) Each center has a PBCT parameter for each internal
(See PROCEDURE TURN.) airport. Proposed internal flight plans are transmitted
(See SEGMENTS OF AN INSTRUMENT to the adjacent center if the flight time along the
APPROACH PROCEDURE.) proposed route from the departure airport to the
center boundary is less than or equal to the value of
PROFILE DESCENT− An uninterrupted descent
PBCT or if airport adaptation specifies transmission
(except where level flight is required for speed
regardless of PBCT.
adjustment; e.g., 250 knots at 10,000 feet MSL) from
cruising altitude/level to interception of a glideslope PROPOSED DEPARTURE TIME− The time that the
or to a minimum altitude specified for the initial or aircraft expects to become airborne.
PCG P−5
6/17/21
PROTECTED AIRSPACE− The airspace on either PUBLISHED INSTRUMENT APPROACH

side of an oceanic route/track that is equal to one-half PROCEDURE VISUAL SEGMENT− A segment on
the lateral separation minimum except where an IAP chart annotated as “Fly Visual to Airport” or
reduction of protected airspace has been authorized. “Fly Visual.” A dashed arrow will indicate the visual
flight path on the profile and plan view with an
PROTECTED SEGMENT- The protected segment is associated note on the approximate heading and
a segment on the amended TFM route that is to be distance. The visual segment should be flown as a
inhibited from automatic adapted route alteration by dead reckoning course while maintaining visual
ERAM. conditions.
PT− PUBLISHED ROUTE− A route for which an IFR
(See PROCEDURE TURN.) altitude has been established and published; e.g.,
Federal Airways, Jet Routes, Area Navigation
PTP− Routes, Specified Direct Routes.
(See POINT−TO−POINT.)
PWS−
PTS− (See PREDICTIVE WIND SHEAR ALERT
(See POLAR TRACK STRUCTURE.) SYSTEM.)
PCG P−6
Q
Q ROUTE− ‘Q’ is the designator assigned to as follows: NE quadrant 000-089, SE quadrant
published RNAV routes used by the United States. 090-179, SW quadrant 180-269, NW quadrant
270-359.
QFE− The atmospheric pressure at aerodrome
elevation (or at runway threshold).
QUEUING−
QNE− The barometric pressure used for the standard
altimeter setting (29.92 inches Hg.). (See STAGING/QUEUING.)
QNH− The barometric pressure as reported by a

QUICK LOOK− A feature of the EAS and STARS
particular station.
which provides the controller the capability to
QUADRANT− A quarter part of a circle, centered on display full data blocks of tracked aircraft from other
a NAVAID, oriented clockwise from magnetic north control positions.
PCG Q−1
12/2/21
R
RAD− RADAR ALTIMETER−
(See ROUTE AMENDMENT DIALOG.) (See RADIO ALTIMETER.)
RADAR− A device that provides information on RADAR APPROACH− An instrument approach

range, azimuth, and/or elevation of objects by procedure which utilizes Precision Approach Radar
measuring the time interval between transmission (PAR) or Airport Surveillance Radar (ASR).
and reception of directional radio pulses and (See AIRPORT SURVEILLANCE RADAR.)
correlating the angular orientation of the radiated (See INSTRUMENT APPROACH
antenna beam or beams in azimuth and/or elevation. PROCEDURE.)
(See PRECISION APPROACH RADAR.)
a. Primary Radar− A radar system in which a
(See SURVEILLANCE APPROACH.)
minute portion of a radio pulse transmitted from a site
(See ICAO term RADAR APPROACH.)
is reflected by an object and then received back at that
site for processing and display at an air traffic control (Refer to AIM.)
facility. RADAR APPROACH [ICAO]− An approach,
b. Secondary Radar/Radar Beacon (ATCRBS)− A executed by an aircraft, under the direction of a radar
radar system in which the object to be detected is controller.
fitted with cooperative equipment in the form of a RADAR APPROACH CONTROL FACILITY− A
radio receiver/transmitter (transponder). Radar terminal ATC facility that uses radar and nonradar
pulses transmitted from the searching transmitter/re- capabilities to provide approach control services to
ceiver (interrogator) site are received in the aircraft arriving, departing, or transiting airspace
cooperative equipment and used to trigger a controlled by the facility.
distinctive transmission from the transponder. This
(See APPROACH CONTROL SERVICE.)
reply transmission, rather than a reflected signal, is
then received back at the transmitter/receiver site for a. Provides radar ATC services to aircraft
processing and display at an air traffic control facility. operating in the vicinity of one or more civil and/or
(See COOPERATIVE SURVEILLANCE.) military airports in a terminal area. The facility may
provide services of a ground controlled approach
(See INTERROGATOR.)
(GCA); i.e., ASR and PAR approaches. A radar
(See NON−COOPERATIVE SURVEILLANCE.)
approach control facility may be operated by FAA,
(See TRANSPONDER.) USAF, US Army, USN, USMC, or jointly by FAA
(See ICAO term RADAR.) and a military service. Specific facility nomencla-
(Refer to AIM.) tures are used for administrative purposes only and
are related to the physical location of the facility and
RADAR [ICAO]− A radio detection device which the operating service generally as follows:
provides information on range, azimuth and/or
1. Army Radar Approach Control (ARAC)
elevation of objects.
(US Army).
a. Primary Radar− Radar system which uses
2. Radar Air Traffic Control Facility (RATCF)
reflected radio signals.
(USN/FAA and USMC/FAA).
b. Secondary Radar− Radar system wherein a 3. Radar Approach Control (RAPCON)
radio signal transmitted from a radar station initiates (USAF/FAA, USN/FAA, and USMC/FAA).
the transmission of a radio signal from another
station. 4. Terminal Radar Approach Control
(TRACON) (FAA).
RADAR ADVISORY− The provision of advice and 5. Airport Traffic Control Tower (ATCT)
information based on radar observations. (FAA). (Only those towers delegated approach
(See ADVISORY SERVICE.) control authority.)
PCG R−1
6/17/21
RADAR ARRIVAL− An aircraft arriving at an RADAR ENVIRONMENT− An area in which radar

airport served by a radar facility and in radar contact service may be provided.
with the facility. (See ADDITIONAL SERVICES.)
(See NONRADAR.) (See RADAR CONTACT.)
(See RADAR SERVICE.)
RADAR BEACON− (See TRAFFIC ADVISORIES.)
(See RADAR.)
RADAR FLIGHT FOLLOWING− The observation
RADAR CLUTTER [ICAO]− The visual indication of the progress of radar−identified aircraft, whose
on a radar display of unwanted signals. primary navigation is being provided by the pilot,
wherein the controller retains and correlates the
RADAR CONTACT− aircraft identity with the appropriate target or target
symbol displayed on the radar scope.
a. Used by ATC to inform an aircraft that it is
identified using an approved ATC surveillance (See RADAR CONTACT.)
source on an air traffic controller’s display and that (See RADAR SERVICE.)
radar flight following will be provided until radar (Refer to AIM.)
service is terminated. Radar service may also be
RADAR IDENTIFICATION− The process of
provided within the limits of necessity and capability.
ascertaining that an observed radar target is the radar
When a pilot is informed of “radar contact,” he/she
return from a particular aircraft.
automatically discontinues reporting over compuls-
(See RADAR CONTACT.)
ory reporting points.
(See ATC SURVEILLANCE SOURCE.)
(See RADAR CONTACT LOST.) RADAR IDENTIFIED AIRCRAFT− An aircraft, the
(See RADAR FLIGHT FOLLOWING.) position of which has been correlated with an
(See RADAR SERVICE.) observed target or symbol on the radar display.
(See RADAR SERVICE TERMINATED.) (See RADAR CONTACT.)
(Refer to AIM.) (See RADAR CONTACT LOST.)
b. The term used to inform the controller that the RADAR MONITORING−
aircraft is identified and approval is granted for the (See RADAR SERVICE.)
aircraft to enter the receiving controllers airspace.
RADAR NAVIGATIONAL GUIDANCE−
(See ICAO term RADAR CONTACT.)
RADAR CONTACT [ICAO]− The situation which RADAR POINT OUT− An action taken by a
exists when the radar blip or radar position symbol of controller to transfer the radar identification of an
a particular aircraft is seen and identified on a radar aircraft to another controller if the aircraft will or may
display. enter the airspace or protected airspace of another
controller and radio communications will not be
RADAR CONTACT LOST− Used by ATC to inform transferred.
a pilot that the surveillance data used to determine the
aircraft’s position is no longer being received, or is no RADAR REQUIRED− A term displayed on charts
longer reliable and radar service is no longer being and approach plates and included in FDC NOTAMs
provided. The loss may be attributed to several to alert pilots that segments of either an instrument
factors including the aircraft merging with weather or approach procedure or a route are not navigable
ground clutter, the aircraft operating below radar line because of either the absence or unusability of a
of sight coverage, the aircraft entering an area of poor NAVAID. The pilot can expect to be provided radar
radar return, failure of the aircraft’s equipment, or navigational guidance while transiting segments
failure of the surveillance equipment. labeled with this term.
(See CLUTTER.) (See RADAR ROUTE.)
(See RADAR CONTACT.) (See RADAR SERVICE.)
PCG R−2
12/2/21
RADAR ROUTE− A flight path or route over which b. An aircraft conducting an instrument, visual, or
an aircraft is vectored. Navigational guidance and contact approach has landed or has been instructed to
altitude assignments are provided by ATC. change to advisory frequency.
(See FLIGHT PATH.) c. An arriving VFR aircraft, receiving radar
(See ROUTE.) service to a tower-controlled airport within Class B
airspace, Class C airspace, a TRSA, or where
RADAR SEPARATION−
sequencing service is provided, has landed; or to all
other airports, is instructed to change to tower or
RADAR SERVICE− A term which encompasses one advisory frequency.
or more of the following services based on the use of d. An aircraft completes a radar approach.
radar which can be provided by a controller to a pilot RADAR SURVEILLANCE− The radar observation
of a radar identified aircraft. of a given geographical area for the purpose of
a. Radar Monitoring− The radar flight-following performing some radar function.
of aircraft, whose primary navigation is being RADAR TRAFFIC ADVISORIES− Advisories
performed by the pilot, to observe and note deviations issued to alert pilots to known or observed radar
from its authorized flight path, airway, or route. traffic which may affect the intended route of flight
When being applied specifically to radar monitoring of their aircraft.
of instrument approaches; i.e., with precision
(See TRAFFIC ADVISORIES.)
approach radar (PAR) or radar monitoring of
simultaneous ILS,RNAV and GLS approaches, it RADAR TRAFFIC INFORMATION SERVICE−
includes advice and instructions whenever an aircraft (See TRAFFIC ADVISORIES.)
nears or exceeds the prescribed PAR safety limit or RADAR VECTORING [ICAO]− Provision of
simultaneous ILS RNAV and GLS no transgression navigational guidance to aircraft in the form of
zone. specific headings, based on the use of radar.
(See ADDITIONAL SERVICES.) RADIAL− A magnetic bearing extending from a
(See TRAFFIC ADVISORIES.) VOR/VORTAC/TACAN navigation facility.
b. Radar Navigational Guidance− Vectoring RADIO−
aircraft to provide course guidance. a. A device used for communication.
c. Radar Separation− Radar spacing of aircraft in b. Used to refer to a flight service station; e.g.,
accordance with established minima. “Seattle Radio” is used to call Seattle FSS.
(See ICAO term RADAR SERVICE.)
RADIO ALTIMETER− Aircraft equipment which
RADAR SERVICE [ICAO]− Term used to indicate makes use of the reflection of radio waves from the
a service provided directly by means of radar. ground to determine the height of the aircraft above
a. Monitoring− The use of radar for the purpose of the surface.
providing aircraft with information and advice RADIO BEACON−
relative to significant deviations from nominal flight (See NONDIRECTIONAL BEACON.)
path. RADIO DETECTION AND RANGING−
b. Separation− The separation used when aircraft (See RADAR.)
position information is derived from radar sources. RADIO MAGNETIC INDICATOR− An aircraft
RADAR SERVICE TERMINATED− Used by ATC navigational instrument coupled with a gyro compass
to inform a pilot that he/she will no longer be or similar compass that indicates the direction of a
provided any of the services that could be received selected NAVAID and indicates bearing with respect
while in radar contact. Radar service is automatically to the heading of the aircraft.
terminated, and the pilot is not advised in the RAIS−
following cases: (See REMOTE AIRPORT INFORMATION
a. An aircraft cancels its IFR flight plan, except SERVICE.)
within Class B airspace, Class C airspace, a TRSA, RAMP−
or where Basic Radar service is provided. (See APRON.)
PCG R−3
6/17/21
RANDOM ALTITUDE− An altitude inappropriate REIL−

for direction of flight and/or not in accordance with (See RUNWAY END IDENTIFIER LIGHTS.)
FAA Order JO 7110.65, paragraph 4−5−1, VER- RELEASE TIME− A departure time restriction
TICAL SEPARATION MINIMA. issued to a pilot by ATC (either directly or through an
RANDOM ROUTE− Any route not established or authorized relay) when necessary to separate a
charted/published or not otherwise available to all departing aircraft from other traffic.
users. (See ICAO term RELEASE TIME.)
RC− RELEASE TIME [ICAO]− Time prior to which an
(See ROAD RECONNAISSANCE.) aircraft should be given further clearance or prior to
which it should not proceed in case of radio failure.
RCAG−
(See REMOTE COMMUNICATIONS
REMOTE AIRPORT INFORMATION SERVICE
AIR/GROUND FACILITY.) (RAIS)− A temporary service provided by facilities,
which are not located on the landing airport, but have
RCC− communication capability and automated weather
(See RESCUE COORDINATION CENTER.) reporting available to the pilot at the landing airport.
RCO− REMOTE COMMUNICATIONS AIR/GROUND
(See REMOTE COMMUNICATIONS OUTLET.) FACILITY− An unmanned VHF/UHF transmitter/
RCR− receiver facility which is used to expand ARTCC
(See RUNWAY CONDITION READING.)
air/ground communications coverage and to facilitate
direct contact between pilots and controllers. RCAG
READ BACK− Repeat my message back to me. facilities are sometimes not equipped with emergen-
RECEIVER AUTONOMOUS INTEGRITY MON- cy frequencies 121.5 MHz and 243.0 MHz.
ITORING (RAIM)− A technique whereby a civil (Refer to AIM.)
GNSS receiver/processor determines the integrity of REMOTE COMMUNICATIONS OUTLET
the GNSS navigation signals without reference to (RCO)− An unmanned communications facility
sensors or non-DoD integrity systems other than the remotely controlled by air traffic personnel. RCOs
receiver itself. This determination is achieved by a serve FSSs. Remote Transmitter/Receivers (RTR)
consistency check among redundant pseudorange serve terminal ATC facilities. An RCO or RTR may
measurements. be UHF or VHF and will extend the communication
RECEIVING CONTROLLER− A controller/facility range of the air traffic facility. There are several
receiving control of an aircraft from another classes of RCOs and RTRs. The class is determined
controller/facility. by the number of transmitters or receivers. Classes A
through G are used primarily for air/ground purposes.
RECEIVING FACILITY− RCO and RTR class O facilities are nonprotected
(See RECEIVING CONTROLLER.) outlets subject to undetected and prolonged outages.
RECONFORMANCE− The automated process of RCO (O’s) and RTR (O’s) were established for the
bringing an aircraft’s Current Plan Trajectory into express purpose of providing ground-to-ground
conformance with its track. communications between air traffic control special-
ists and pilots located at a satellite airport for
REDUCE SPEED TO (SPEED)− delivering en route clearances, issuing departure
(See SPEED ADJUSTMENT.) authorizations, and acknowledging instrument flight
REFINED HAZARD AREA (RHA)− Used by ATC. rules cancellations or departure/landing times. As a
Airspace that is defined and distributed after a failure secondary function, they may be used for advisory
of a launch or reentry operation to provide a more purposes whenever the aircraft is below the coverage
concise depiction of the hazard location than a of the primary air/ground frequency.
Contingency Hazard Area. REMOTE PILOT IN COMMAND (RPIC)− The
(See AIRCRAFT HAZARD AREA.) RPIC is directly responsible for and is the final
(See CONTINGENCY HAZARD AREA.) authority as to the operation of the unmanned aircraft
(See TRANSITIONAL HAZARD AREA.) system.
PCG R−4
12/2/21
REMOTE TRANSMITTER/RECEIVER (RTR)− performance. Also referred to as Estimated Position

(See REMOTE COMMUNICATIONS OUTLET.) Error (EPE).
e. Estimated Position Error (EPE). A measure of
REPORT− Used to instruct pilots to advise ATC of
the current estimated navigational performance. Also
specified information; e.g., “Report passing Hamil-
referred to as Actual Navigation Performance (ANP).
ton VOR.”
f. Lateral Navigation (LNAV). A function of area
REPORTING POINT− A geographical location in navigation (RNAV) equipment which calculates,
relation to which the position of an aircraft is displays, and provides lateral guidance to a profile or
reported. path.
(See COMPULSORY REPORTING POINTS.)
g. Vertical Navigation (VNAV). A function of area
(See ICAO term REPORTING POINT.)
navigation (RNAV) equipment which calculates,
(Refer to AIM.) displays, and provides vertical guidance to a profile
or path.
REPORTING POINT [ICAO]− A specified geo-
graphical location in relation to which the position of REROUTE IMPACT ASSESSMENT (RRIA)− A
an aircraft can be reported. capability within the Traffic Flow Management
REQUEST FULL ROUTE CLEARANCE− Used System that is used to define and evaluate a potential
by pilots to request that the entire route of flight be reroute prior to implementation, with or without
read verbatim in an ATC clearance. Such request miles−in−trail (MIT) restrictions. RRIA functions
should be made to preclude receiving an ATC estimate the impact on demand (e.g., sector loads)
clearance based on the original filed flight plan when and performance (e.g., flight delay). Using RRIA,
a filed IFR flight plan has been revised by the pilot, traffic management personnel can determine whether
company, or operations prior to departure. the reroute will sufficiently reduce demand in the
Flow Constraint Area and not create excessive “spill
REQUIRED NAVIGATION PERFORMANCE over” demand in the adjacent airspace on a specific
(RNP)– A statement of the navigational performance route segment or point of interest (POI).
necessary for operation within a defined airspace.
The following terms are commonly associated with RESCUE COORDINATION CENTER (RCC)− A
RNP: search and rescue (SAR) facility equipped and
manned to coordinate and control SAR operations in
a. Required Navigation Performance Level or an area designated by the SAR plan. The U.S. Coast
Type (RNP-X). A value, in nautical miles (NM), from Guard and the U.S. Air Force have responsibility for
the intended horizontal position within which an the operation of RCCs.
aircraft would be at least 95-percent of the total flying
(See ICAO term RESCUE CO-ORDINATION
time. CENTRE.)
b. Advanced − Required Navigation Performance
(A−RNP). A navigation specification based on RNP RESCUE CO-ORDINATION CENTRE [ICAO]− A
that requires advanced functions such as scalable unit responsible for promoting efficient organization
RNP, radius−to−fix (RF) legs, and tactical parallel of search and rescue service and for coordinating the
offsets. This sophisticated Navigation Specification conduct of search and rescue operations within a
(NavSpec) is designated by the abbreviation search and rescue region.
“A−RNP”.
RESOLUTION ADVISORY− A display indication
c. Required Navigation Performance (RNP) given to the pilot by the Traffic alert and Collision
Airspace. A generic term designating airspace, Avoidance System (TCAS II) recommending a
route(s), leg(s), operation(s), or procedure(s) where maneuver to increase vertical separation relative to an
minimum required navigational performance (RNP) intruding aircraft. Positive, negative, and vertical
have been established. speed limit (VSL) advisories constitute the resolution
d. Actual Navigation Performance (ANP). A advisories. A resolution advisory is also classified as
measure of the current estimated navigational corrective or preventive.
PCG R−5
6/17/21
RESTRICTED AREA− lateral route width of 10 NM to 30 NM and an altitude

(See SPECIAL USE AIRSPACE.) range of 500 feet to 10,000 feet AGL.
(See ICAO term RESTRICTED AREA.) ROGER− I have received all of your last
RESTRICTED AREA [ICAO]− An airspace of transmission. It should not be used to answer a
defined dimensions, above the land areas or territorial question requiring a yes or a no answer.
waters of a State, within which the flight of aircraft (See AFFIRMATIVE.)
is restricted in accordance with certain specified (See NEGATIVE.)
conditions. ROLLOUT RVR−
RESUME NORMAL SPEED− Used by ATC to (See VISIBILITY.)
advise a pilot to resume an aircraft’s normal operating ROTOR WASH− A phenomenon resulting from the
speed. It is issued to terminate a speed adjustment vertical down wash of air generated by the main
where no published speed restrictions apply. It does rotor(s) of a helicopter.
not delete speed restrictions in published procedures
of upcoming segments of flight. This does not relieve ROUND−ROBIN FLIGHT PLAN− A single flight
the pilot of those speed restrictions that are applicable plan filed from the departure airport to an
to 14 CFR Section 91.117. intermediary destination(s) and then returning to the
original departure airport.
RESUME OWN NAVIGATION− Used by ATC to
ROUTE− A defined path, consisting of one or more
advise a pilot to resume his/her own navigational
courses in a horizontal plane, which aircraft traverse
responsibility. It is issued after completion of a radar
over the surface of the earth.
vector or when radar contact is lost while the aircraft
(See AIRWAY.)
is being radar vectored.
(See JET ROUTE.)
(See RADAR CONTACT LOST.)
(See PUBLISHED ROUTE.)
(See RADAR SERVICE TERMINATED.)
(See UNPUBLISHED ROUTE.)
RESUME PUBLISHED SPEED− Used by ATC to ROUTE ACTION NOTIFICATION− EDST notifi-
advise a pilot to resume published speed restrictions cation that a PAR/PDR/PDAR has been applied to the
that are applicable to a SID, STAR, or other flight plan.
instrument procedure. It is issued to terminate a speed (See ATC PREFERRED ROUTE
adjustment where speed restrictions are published on NOTIFICATION.)
a charted procedure. (See EN ROUTE DECISION SUPPORT TOOL.)
RHA− ROUTE AMENDMENT DIALOG (RAD)− A
(See REFINED HAZARD AREA.) capability within the Traffic Flow Management
System that allows traffic management personnel to
RMI−
submit or edit a route amendment for one or more
(See RADIO MAGNETIC INDICATOR.) flights.
RNAV− ROUTE SEGMENT− As used in Air Traffic Control,
(See AREA NAVIGATION (RNAV).) a part of a route that can be defined by two
RNAV APPROACH− An instrument approach navigational fixes, two NAVAIDs, or a fix and a
procedure which relies on aircraft area navigation NAVAID.
equipment for navigational guidance. (See FIX.)
(See ROUTE.)
(See AREA NAVIGATION (RNAV).)
(See ICAO term ROUTE SEGMENT.)
(See INSTRUMENT APPROACH
PROCEDURE.) ROUTE SEGMENT [ICAO]− A portion of a route to
be flown, as defined by two consecutive significant
ROAD RECONNAISSANCE (RC)− Military activ-
points specified in a flight plan.
ity requiring navigation along roads, railroads, and
rivers. Reconnaissance route/route segments are RPIC−
seldom along a straight line and normally require a (See REMOTE PILOT IN COMMAND.)
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12/2/21
RRIA− one additional light at the runway centerline in line

(See REROUTE IMPACT ASSESSMENT.) with the last two lights before the runway edge.
RSA− RUNWAY GRADIENT− The average slope, mea-
(See RUNWAY SAFETY AREA.) sured in percent, between two ends or points on a
runway. Runway gradient is depicted on Government
RTR− aerodrome sketches when total runway gradient
(See REMOTE TRANSMITTER/RECEIVER.) exceeds 0.3%.
RUNWAY− A defined rectangular area on a land RUNWAY HEADING− The magnetic direction that
airport prepared for the landing and takeoff run of corresponds with the runway centerline extended, not
aircraft along its length. Runways are normally the painted runway number. When cleared to “fly or
numbered in relation to their magnetic direction maintain runway heading,” pilots are expected to fly
rounded off to the nearest 10 degrees; e.g., Runway or maintain the heading that corresponds with the
1, Runway 25. extended centerline of the departure runway. Drift
(See PARALLEL RUNWAYS.) correction shall not be applied; e.g., Runway 4, actual
(See ICAO term RUNWAY.) magnetic heading of the runway centerline 044, fly
044.
RUNWAY [ICAO]− A defined rectangular area on a
land aerodrome prepared for the landing and takeoff RUNWAY IN USE/ACTIVE RUNWAY/DUTY
of aircraft. RUNWAY− Any runway or runways currently being
used for takeoff or landing. When multiple runways
RUNWAY CENTERLINE LIGHTING− are used, they are all considered active runways. In
(See AIRPORT LIGHTING.) the metering sense, a selectable adapted item which
RUNWAY CONDITION CODES (RwyCC)− Nu- specifies the landing runway configuration or
merical readings, provided by airport operators, that direction of traffic flow. The adapted optimum flight
indicate runway surface contamination (for example, plan from each transition fix to the vertex is
slush, ice, rain, etc.). These values range from “1” determined by the runway configuration for arrival
(poor) to “6” (dry) and must be included on the ATIS metering processing purposes.
when the reportable condition is less than 6 in any one RUNWAY LIGHTS−
or more of the three runway zones (touchdown, (See AIRPORT LIGHTING.)
midpoint, rollout). RUNWAY MARKINGS−
RUNWAY CONDITION READING− Numerical (See AIRPORT MARKING AIDS.)
decelerometer readings relayed by air traffic RUNWAY OVERRUN− In military aviation exclu-
controllers at USAF and certain civil bases for use by sively, a stabilized or paved area beyond the end of a
the pilot in determining runway braking action. runway, of the same width as the runway plus
These readings are routinely relayed only to USAF shoulders, centered on the extended runway
and Air National Guard Aircraft. centerline.
(See BRAKING ACTION.) RUNWAY PROFILE DESCENT− An instrument
RUNWAY CONDITION REPORT (RwyCR)− A flight rules (IFR) air traffic control arrival procedure
data collection worksheet used by airport operators to a runway published for pilot use in graphic and/or
that correlates the runway percentage of coverage textual form and may be associated with a STAR.
along with the depth and type of contaminant for the Runway Profile Descents provide routing and may
purpose of creating a FICON NOTAM. depict crossing altitudes, speed restrictions, and
(See RUNWAY CONDITION CODES.) headings to be flown from the en route structure to the
point where the pilot will receive clearance for and
RUNWAY END IDENTIFIER LIGHTS (REIL)− execute an instrument approach procedure. A
(See AIRPORT LIGHTING.) Runway Profile Descent may apply to more than one
RUNWAY ENTRANCE LIGHTS (REL)−An array runway if so stated on the chart.
of red lights which include the first light at the hold (Refer to AIM.)
line followed by a series of evenly spaced lights to the RUNWAY SAFETY AREA− A defined surface
runway edge aligned with the taxiway centerline, and surrounding the runway prepared, or suitable, for
PCG R−7
6/17/21
reducing the risk of damage to airplanes in the event RUNWAY TRANSITION WAYPOINT−
of an undershoot, overshoot, or excursion from the (See SEGMENTS OF A SID/STAR.)
runway. The dimensions of the RSA vary and can be
RUNWAY USE PROGRAM− A noise abatement
determined by using the criteria contained within
runway selection plan designed to enhance noise
AC 150/5300-13, Airport Design, Chapter 3.
abatement efforts with regard to airport communities
Figure 3−1 in AC 150/5300-13 depicts the RSA. The
for arriving and departing aircraft. These plans are
design standards dictate that the RSA shall be:
developed into runway use programs and apply to all
a. Cleared, graded, and have no potentially turbojet aircraft 12,500 pounds or heavier; turbojet
hazardous ruts, humps, depressions, or other surface aircraft less than 12,500 pounds are included only if
variations; the airport proprietor determines that the aircraft
b. Drained by grading or storm sewers to prevent creates a noise problem. Runway use programs are
water accumulation; coordinated with FAA offices, and safety criteria
c. Capable, under dry conditions, of supporting used in these programs are developed by the Office of
snow removal equipment, aircraft rescue and Flight Operations. Runway use programs are
firefighting equipment, and the occasional passage of administered by the Air Traffic Service as “Formal”
aircraft without causing structural damage to the or “Informal” programs.
aircraft; and, a. Formal Runway Use Program− An approved
d. Free of objects, except for objects that need to noise abatement program which is defined and
be located in the runway safety area because of their acknowledged in a Letter of Understanding between
function. These objects shall be constructed on low Flight Operations, Air Traffic Service, the airport
impact resistant supports (frangible mounted struc- proprietor, and the users. Once established, participa-
tures) to the lowest practical height with the frangible tion in the program is mandatory for aircraft operators
point no higher than 3 inches above grade. and pilots as provided for in 14 CFR Section 91.129.
(Refer to AC 150/5300-13, Airport Design, b. Informal Runway Use Program− An approved
Chapter 3.) noise abatement program which does not require a
RUNWAY STATUS LIGHTS (RWSL) SYSTEM− Letter of Understanding, and participation in the
The RWSL is a system of runway and taxiway program is voluntary for aircraft operators/pilots.
lighting to provide pilots increased situational RUNWAY VISUAL RANGE (RVR)−
awareness by illuminating runway entry lights (REL) (See VISIBILITY.)
when the runway is unsafe for entry or crossing, and
take-off hold lights (THL) when the runway is unsafe RwyCC−
for departure. (See RUNWAY CONDITION CODES.)
RUNWAY TRANSITION− RwyCR−
(See SEGMENTS OF A SID/STAR) (See RUNWAY CONDITION REPORT.)
PCG R−8
S
SAA− or aircraft/other tangible object) that safety logic has
(See SPECIAL ACTIVITY AIRSPACE.) predicted will result in an imminent collision, based
upon the current set of Safety Logic parameters.
SAFETY ALERT− A safety alert issued by ATC to
b. FALSE ALERT−
aircraft under their control if ATC is aware the aircraft
is at an altitude which, in the controller’s judgment, 1. Alerts generated by one or more false
places the aircraft in unsafe proximity to terrain, surface−radar targets that the system has interpreted
obstructions, or other aircraft. The controller may as real tracks and placed into safety logic.
discontinue the issuance of further alerts if the pilot 2. Alerts in which the safety logic software did
advises he/she is taking action to correct the situation not perform correctly, based upon the design
or has the other aircraft in sight. specifications and the current set of Safety Logic
parameters.
a. Terrain/Obstruction Alert− A safety alert issued
by ATC to aircraft under their control if ATC is aware 3. The alert is generated by surface radar targets
the aircraft is at an altitude which, in the controller’s caused by moderate or greater precipitation.
judgment, places the aircraft in unsafe proximity to c. NUISANCE ALERT− An alert in which one or
terrain/obstructions; e.g., “Low Altitude Alert, check more of the following is true:
your altitude immediately.” 1. The alert is generated by a known situation
b. Aircraft Conflict Alert− A safety alert issued by that is not considered an unsafe operation, such as
ATC to aircraft under their control if ATC is aware of LAHSO or other approved operations.
an aircraft that is not under their control at an altitude 2. The alert is generated by inaccurate secon-
which, in the controller’s judgment, places both dary radar data received by the Safety Logic System.
aircraft in unsafe proximity to each other. With the 3. One or more of the aircraft involved in the
alert, ATC will offer the pilot an alternate course of alert is not intending to use a runway (for example,
action when feasible; e.g., “Traffic Alert, advise you helicopter, pipeline patrol, non−Mode C overflight,
turn right heading zero niner zero or climb to eight etc.).
thousand immediately.” d. VALID NON−ALERT− A situation in which
Note: The issuance of a safety alert is contingent the safety logic software correctly determines that an
upon the capability of the controller to have an alert is not required, based upon the design
awareness of an unsafe condition. The course of specifications and the current set of Safety Logic
action provided will be predicated on other traffic parameters.
under ATC control. Once the alert is issued, it is
e. INVALID NON−ALERT− A situation in which
solely the pilot’s prerogative to determine what
course of action, if any, he/she will take.
the safety logic software did not issue an alert when
an alert was required, based upon the design
SAFETY LOGIC SYSTEM− A software enhance- specifications.
ment to ASDE−3, ASDE−X, and ASSC, that predicts SAIL BACK− A maneuver during high wind
the path of aircraft landing and/or departing, and/or conditions (usually with power off) where float plane
vehicular movements on runways. Visual and aural movement is controlled by water rudders/opening
alarms are activated when the safety logic projects a and closing cabin doors.
potential collision. The Airport Movement Area SAME DIRECTION AIRCRAFT− Aircraft are
Safety System (AMASS) is a safety logic system operating in the same direction when:
enhancement to the ASDE−3. The Safety Logic
a. They are following the same track in the same
System for ASDE−X and ASSC is an integral part of
direction; or
the software program.
b. Their tracks are parallel and the aircraft are
SAFETY LOGIC SYSTEM ALERTS− flying in the same direction; or
a. ALERT− An actual situation involving two real c. Their tracks intersect at an angle of less than 45
safety logic tracks (aircraft/aircraft, aircraft/vehicle, degrees.
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6/17/21
SAR− directly to the Rescue Coordination Center by

(See SEARCH AND RESCUE.) telephone.
(See FLIGHT SERVICE STATION.)
SATELLITE−BASED AUGMENTATION SYS- (See RESCUE COORDINATION CENTER.)
TEM (SBAS) − A wide coverage augmentation (Refer to AIM.)
system in which the user receives augmentation
information from a satellite−based transmitter. SEARCH AND RESCUE FACILITY− A facility
(See WIDE−AREA AUGMENTATION SYSTEM responsible for maintaining and operating a search
(WAAS.) and rescue (SAR) service to render aid to persons and
property in distress. It is any SAR unit, station, NET,
SAW– or other operational activity which can be usefully
(See AVIATION WATCH NOTIFICATION employed during an SAR Mission; e.g., a Civil Air
MESSAGE.) Patrol Wing, or a Coast Guard Station.
SAY AGAIN− Used to request a repeat of the last (See SEARCH AND RESCUE.)
transmission. Usually specifies transmission or SECNOT−
portion thereof not understood or received; e.g., “Say (See SECURITY NOTICE.)
again all after ABRAM VOR.” SECONDARY RADAR TARGET− A target derived
SAY ALTITUDE− Used by ATC to ascertain an from a transponder return presented on a radar
aircraft’s specific altitude/flight level. When the display.
aircraft is climbing or descending, the pilot should SECTIONAL AERONAUTICAL CHARTS−
state the indicated altitude rounded to the nearest 100 (See AERONAUTICAL CHART.)
feet.
SECTOR LIST DROP INTERVAL− A parameter
SAY HEADING− Used by ATC to request an aircraft number of minutes after the meter fix time when
heading. The pilot should state the actual heading of arrival aircraft will be deleted from the arrival sector
the aircraft. list.
SCHEDULED TIME OF ARRIVAL (STA)− A STA SECURITY NOTICE (SECNOT) − A SECNOT is a
is the desired time that an aircraft should cross a request originated by the Air Traffic Security
certain point (landing or metering fix). It takes other Coordinator (ATSC) for an extensive communica-
traffic and airspace configuration into account. A tions search for aircraft involved, or suspected of
STA time shows the results of the TBFM scheduler being involved, in a security violation, or are
that has calculated an arrival time according to considered a security risk. A SECNOT will include
parameters such as optimized spacing, aircraft the aircraft identification, search area, and expiration
performance, and weather. time. The search area, as defined by the ATSC, could
be a single airport, multiple airports, a radius of an
SDF− airport or fix, or a route of flight. Once the expiration
(See SIMPLIFIED DIRECTIONAL FACILITY.) time has been reached, the SECNOT is considered to
be canceled.
SEA LANE− A designated portion of water outlined
by visual surface markers for and intended to be used SECURITY SERVICES AIRSPACE − Areas
by aircraft designed to operate on water. established through the regulatory process or by
NOTAM, issued by the Administrator under title 14,
SEARCH AND RESCUE− A service which seeks CFR, sections 99.7, 91.141, and 91.139, which
missing aircraft and assists those found to be in need specify that ATC security services are required; i.e.,
of assistance. It is a cooperative effort using the ADIZ or temporary flight rules areas.
facilities and services of available Federal, state and
local agencies. The U.S. Coast Guard is responsible SEE AND AVOID− When weather conditions
for coordination of search and rescue for the Maritime permit, pilots operating IFR or VFR are required to
Region, and the U.S. Air Force is responsible for observe and maneuver to avoid other aircraft.
search and rescue for the Inland Region. Information Right-of-way rules are contained in 14 CFR Part 91.
pertinent to search and rescue should be passed SEGMENTED CIRCLE− A system of visual
through any air traffic facility or be transmitted indicators designed to provide traffic pattern
PCG S−2
12/2/21
information at airports without operating control d. Missed Approach− The segment between the
towers. missed approach point or the point of arrival at
(Refer to AIM.) decision height and the missed approach fix at the
prescribed altitude.
SEGMENTS OF A SID/STAR− (Refer to 14 CFR Part 97.)
a. En Route Transition− The segment(s) of a (See ICAO term MISSED APPROACH
SID/STAR that connect to/from en route flight. Not PROCEDURE.)
all SIDs/STARs will contain an en route transition. SELF−BRIEFING− A self−briefing is a review,
b. En Route Transition Waypoint− The NAVAID/ using automated tools, of all meteorological and
fix/waypoint that defines the beginning of the aeronautical information that may influence the pilot
SID/STAR en route transition. in planning, altering, or canceling a proposed route of
flight.
c. Common Route− The segment(s) of a SID/
STAR procedure that provides a single route serving SEPARATION− In air traffic control, the spacing of
an airport/runway or multiple airports/runways. The aircraft to achieve their safe and orderly movement in
common route may consist of a single point. Not all flight and while landing and taking off.
conventional SIDs will contain a common route. (See SEPARATION MINIMA.)
(See ICAO term SEPARATION.)
d. Runway Transition− The segment(s) of a
SID/STAR between the common route/point and the SEPARATION [ICAO]− Spacing between aircraft,
runway(s). Not all SIDs/STARs will contain a levels or tracks.
runway transition. SEPARATION MINIMA− The minimum longitudi-
e. Runway Transition Waypoint (RTW)− On a nal, lateral, or vertical distances by which aircraft are
STAR, the NAVAID/fix/waypoint that defines the spaced through the application of air traffic control
end of the common route or en route transition and the procedures.
beginning of a runway transition (In the arrival route (See SEPARATION.)
description found on the STAR chart, the last fix of SERVICE− A generic term that designates functions
the common route and the first fix of the runway or assistance available from or rendered by air traffic
transition(s)). control. For example, Class C service would denote
the ATC services provided within a Class C airspace
SEGMENTS OF AN INSTRUMENT APPROACH area.
PROCEDURE− An instrument approach procedure
may have as many as four separate segments SEVERE WEATHER AVOIDANCE PLAN
depending on how the approach procedure is (SWAP)− An approved plan to minimize the affect of
structured. severe weather on traffic flows in impacted terminal
and/or ARTCC areas. A SWAP is normally
a. Initial Approach− The segment between the
implemented to provide the least disruption to the
initial approach fix and the intermediate fix or the
ATC system when flight through portions of airspace
point where the aircraft is established on the
is difficult or impossible due to severe weather.
intermediate course or final approach course.
(See ICAO term INITIAL APPROACH SEVERE WEATHER FORECAST ALERTS−
SEGMENT.) Preliminary messages issued in order to alert users
that a Severe Weather Watch Bulletin (WW) is being
b. Intermediate Approach− The segment between
issued. These messages define areas of possible
the intermediate fix or point and the final approach
severe thunderstorms or tornado activity. The
fix.
messages are unscheduled and issued as required by
(See ICAO term INTERMEDIATE APPROACH the Storm Prediction Center (SPC) at Norman,
SEGMENT.)
Oklahoma.
c. Final Approach− The segment between the final (See AIRMET.)
approach fix or point and the runway, airport, or (See CONVECTIVE SIGMET.)
missed approach point. (See CWA.)
(See ICAO term FINAL APPROACH SEGMENT.) (See SIGMET.)
PCG S−3
6/17/21
SFA− en-route weather phenomena which may affect the

(See SINGLE FREQUENCY APPROACH.) safety of aircraft operations.
SFO− SIGNIFICANT METEOROLOGICAL INFOR-
(See SIMULATED FLAMEOUT.)
MATION−
(See SIGMET.)
SHF− SIGNIFICANT POINT− A point, whether a named
(See SUPER HIGH FREQUENCY.) intersection, a NAVAID, a fix derived from a
SHORT RANGE CLEARANCE− A clearance NAVAID(s), or geographical coordinate expressed in
issued to a departing IFR flight which authorizes IFR degrees of latitude and longitude, which is
flight to a specific fix short of the destination while established for the purpose of providing separation,
air traffic control facilities are coordinating and as a reporting point, or to delineate a route of flight.
obtaining the complete clearance. SIMPLIFIED DIRECTIONAL FACILITY (SDF)−
A NAVAID used for nonprecision instrument
SHORT TAKEOFF AND LANDING AIRCRAFT
approaches. The final approach course is similar to
(STOL)− An aircraft which, at some weight within its
that of an ILS localizer except that the SDF course
approved operating weight, is capable of operating
may be offset from the runway, generally not more
from a runway in compliance with the applicable
than 3 degrees, and the course may be wider than the
STOL characteristics, airworthiness, operations,
localizer, resulting in a lower degree of accuracy.
noise, and pollution standards.
(Refer to AIM.)
(See VERTICAL TAKEOFF AND LANDING
AIRCRAFT.) SIMULATED FLAMEOUT− A practice approach
by a jet aircraft (normally military) at idle thrust to a
SIAP− runway. The approach may start at a runway (high
(See STANDARD INSTRUMENT APPROACH key) and may continue on a relatively high and wide
PROCEDURE.) downwind leg with a continuous turn to final. It
SID− terminates in landing or low approach. The purpose
of this approach is to simulate a flameout.
(See STANDARD INSTRUMENT DEPARTURE.)
(See FLAMEOUT.)
SIDESTEP MANEUVER− A visual maneuver SIMULTANEOUS CLOSE PARALLEL AP-
accomplished by a pilot at the completion of an PROACHES− A simultaneous, independent
instrument approach to permit a straight-in landing approach operation permitting ILS/RNAV/GLS
on a parallel runway not more than 1,200 feet to either approaches to airports having parallel runways
side of the runway to which the instrument approach separated by at least 3,000 feet and less than
was conducted. 4,300−feet between centerlines. Aircraft are permit-
(Refer to AIM.) ted to pass each other during these simultaneous
SIGMET− A weather advisory issued concerning operations. Integral parts of a total system are radar,
weather significant to the safety of all aircraft. NTZ monitoring with enhanced FMA color displays
SIGMET advisories cover severe and extreme that include aural and visual alerts and predictive
turbulence, severe icing, and widespread dust or aircraft position software, communications override,
sandstorms that reduce visibility to less than 3 miles. ATC procedures, an Attention All Users Page
(AAUP), PRM in the approach name, and
(See AIRMET.)
appropriate ground based and airborne equipment.
(See CONVECTIVE SIGMET.)
High update rate surveillance sensor required for
(See CWA.)
certain runway or approach course separations.
(See ICAO term SIGMET INFORMATION.)
(See SAW.) SIMULTANEOUS (CONVERGING) DEPEND-
ENT APPROACHES- An approach operation
(Refer to AIM.)
permitting ILS/RNAV/GLS approaches to runways
SIGMET INFORMATION [ICAO]− Information or missed approach courses that intersect where
issued by a meteorological watch office concerning required minimum spacing between the aircraft on
the occurrence or expected occurrence of specified each final approach course is required.
PCG S−4
Pilot/Controller
12/2/21
6/17/21 Glossary Pilot/Controller Glossary
12/2/21
SIMULTANEOUS (CONVERGING) INDEPEND- a single UHF frequency during approach for landing.
ENT APPROACHES- An approach operation Pilots will not normally be required to change
permitting ILS/RNAV/GLS approaches to non-par- frequency from the beginning of the approach to
allel runways where approach procedure design touchdown except that pilots conducting an en route
maintains the required aircraft spacing throughout descent are required to change frequency when
the approach and missed approach and hence the control is transferred from the air route traffic control
operations may be conducted independently. center to the terminal facility. The abbreviation
“SFA” in the DOD FLIP IFR Supplement under
SIMULTANEOUS ILS APPROACHES− An “Communications” indicates this service is available
approach system permitting simultaneous ILS at an aerodrome.
approaches to airports having parallel runways
separated by at least 4,300 feet between centerlines. SINGLE-PILOTED AIRCRAFT− A military
Integral parts of a total system are ILS, radar, turbojet aircraft possessing one set of flight controls,
communications, ATC procedures, and appropriate tandem cockpits, or two sets of flight controls but
airborne equipment. operated by one pilot is considered single-piloted by
(See PARALLEL RUNWAYS.) ATC when determining the appropriate air traffic
service to be applied.
(Refer to AIM.)
(See SINGLE FREQUENCY APPROACH.)
SIMULTANEOUS OFFSET INSTRUMENT SKYSPOTTER− A pilot who has received
APPROACH (SOIA)− An instrument landing specialized training in observing and reporting
system comprised of an ILS PRM, RNAV PRM or inflight weather phenomena.
GLS PRM approach to one runway and an offset
SLASH− A radar beacon reply displayed as an
LDA PRM with glideslope or an RNAV PRM or
elongated target.
GLS PRM approach utilizing vertical guidance to
another where parallel runway spaced less than 3,000 SLDI−
feet and at least 750 feet apart. The approach courses (See SECTOR LIST DROP INTERVAL.)
converge by 2.5 to 3 degrees. Simultaneous close SLOW TAXI− To taxi a float plane at low power or
parallel PRM approach procedures apply up to the low RPM.
point where the approach course separation becomes SMALL UNMANNED AIRCRAFT SYSTEM
3,000 feet, at the offset MAP. From the offset MAP (sUAS)– An unmanned aircraft weighing less than 55
to the runway threshold, visual separation by the pounds on takeoff, including everything that is on
aircraft conducting the offset approach is utilized. board or otherwise attached to the aircraft.
(Refer to AIM)
SN−
SIMULTANEOUS (PARALLEL) DEPENDENT (See SYSTEM STRATEGIC NAVIGATION.)
APPROACHES- An approach operation permitting SPACE−BASED ADS−B (SBA)− A constellation of
ILS/RNAV/GLS approaches to adjacent parallel satellites that receives ADS−B Out broadcasts and
runways where prescribed diagonal spacing must be relays that information to the appropriate surveil-
maintained. Aircraft are not permitted to pass each lance facility. The currently deployed SBA system is
other during simultaneous dependent operations. only capable of receiving broadcasts from 1090ES−
Integral parts of a total system ATC procedures, and equipped aircraft, and not from those equipped with
appropriate airborne and ground based equipment. only a universal access transceiver (UAT). Also,
SINGLE DIRECTION ROUTES− Preferred IFR aircraft with a top−of−fuselage−mounted transponder
Routes which are sometimes depicted on high antenna (required for TCAS II installations) will be
altitude en route charts and which are normally flown better received by SBA, especially at latitudes below
in one direction only. 45 degrees.
(See PREFERRED IFR ROUTES.)
(Refer to CHART SUPPLEMENT U.S.)
SINGLE FREQUENCY APPROACH− A service SURVEILLANCE−BROADCAST OUT.)
provided under a letter of agreement to military SPACE LAUNCH AND REENTRY AREA−
single-piloted turbojet aircraft which permits use of Locations where commercial space launch and/or
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reentry operations occur. For pilot awareness, a of aerial activity, neither of which is hazardous to
rocket−shaped symbol is used to depict space launch aircraft. Alert Areas are depicted on aeronautical
and reentry areas on sectional aeronautical charts. charts for the information of nonparticipating pilots.
All activities within an Alert Area are conducted in
SPEAK SLOWER− Used in verbal communications
accordance with Federal Aviation Regulations, and
as a request to reduce speech rate.
pilots of participating aircraft as well as pilots
SPECIAL ACTIVITY AIRSPACE (SAA)− Any transiting the area are equally responsible for
airspace with defined dimensions within the National collision avoidance.
Airspace System wherein limitations may be b. Controlled Firing Area− Airspace wherein
imposed upon aircraft operations. This airspace may activities are conducted under conditions so
be restricted areas, prohibited areas, military controlled as to eliminate hazards to nonparticipating
operations areas, air ATC assigned airspace, and any aircraft and to ensure the safety of persons and
other designated airspace areas. The dimensions of property on the ground.
this airspace are programmed into EDST and can be c. Military Operations Area (MOA)− Permanent
designated as either active or inactive by screen entry. and temporary MOAs are airspace established
Aircraft trajectories are constantly tested against the outside of Class A airspace area to separate or
dimensions of active areas and alerts issued to the segregate certain nonhazardous military activities
applicable sectors when violations are predicted. from IFR traffic and to identify for VFR traffic where
(See EN ROUTE DECISION SUPPORT TOOL.) these activities are conducted. Permanent MOAs are
SPECIAL AIR TRAFFIC RULES (SATR)− Rules depicted on Sectional Aeronautical, VFR Terminal
that govern procedures for conducting flights in Area, and applicable En Route Low Altitude Charts.
certain areas listed in 14 CFR Part 93. The term Note: Temporary MOAs are not charted.
“SATR” is used in the United States to describe the (Refer to AIM.)
rules for operations in specific areas designated in the d. Prohibited Area− Airspace designated under
Code of Federal Regulations. 14 CFR Part 73 within which no person may operate
(Refer to 14 CFR Part 93.) an aircraft without the permission of the using
agency.
SPECIAL EMERGENCY− A condition of air piracy
(Refer to AIM.)
or other hostile act by a person(s) aboard an aircraft
(Refer to En Route Charts.)
which threatens the safety of the aircraft or its
passengers. e. Restricted Area− Permanent and temporary
restricted areas are airspace designated under 14 CFR
SPECIAL FLIGHT RULES AREA (SFRA)− An Part 73, within which the flight of aircraft, while not
area in the NAS, described in 14 CFR Part 93, wholly prohibited, is subject to restriction. Most
wherein the flight of aircraft is subject to special restricted areas are designated joint use and IFR/VFR
traffic rules, unless otherwise authorized by air traffic operations in the area may be authorized by the
control. Not all areas listed in 14 CFR Part 93 are controlling ATC facility when it is not being utilized
designated SFRA, but special air traffic rules apply to by the using agency. Permanent restricted areas are
all areas described in 14 CFR Part 93. depicted on Sectional Aeronautical, VFR Terminal
Area, and applicable En Route charts. Where joint
SPECIAL INSTRUMENT APPROACH PROCE-
use is authorized, the name of the ATC controlling
DURE−
facility is also shown.
(See INSTRUMENT APPROACH PROCEDURE.)
Note: Temporary restricted areas are not charted.
SPECIAL USE AIRSPACE− Airspace of defined (Refer to 14 CFR Part 73.)
dimensions identified by an area on the surface of the (Refer to AIM.)
earth wherein activities must be confined because of f. Warning Area− A warning area is airspace of
their nature and/or wherein limitations may be defined dimensions extending from 3 nautical miles
imposed upon aircraft operations that are not a part of outward from the coast of the United States, that
those activities. Types of special use airspace are: contains activity that may be hazardous to
a. Alert Area− Airspace which may contain a high nonparticipating aircraft. The purpose of such
volume of pilot training activities or an unusual type warning area is to warn nonparticipating pilots of the
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potential danger. A warning area may be located over by civil receivers. The onset of spoofing effects can
domestic or international waters or both. be instantaneous or delayed, and effects can persist
after the spoofing has ended. Spoofing can result in
SPECIAL VFR CONDITIONS− Meteorological false and potentially confusing, or hazardously
conditions that are less than those required for basic misleading, position, navigation, and/or date/time
VFR flight in Class B, C, D, or E surface areas and information in addition to loss of GNSS use.
in which some aircraft are permitted flight under
visual flight rules. SPEED ADVISORY− Speed advisories that are
(See SPECIAL VFR OPERATIONS.) generated within Time−Based Flow Management to
(Refer to 14 CFR Part 91.) assist controllers to meet the Scheduled Time of
Arrival (STA) at the meter fix/meter arc. See also
SPECIAL VFR FLIGHT [ICAO]− A VFR flight Ground−Based Interval Management−Spacing
cleared by air traffic control to operate within Class (GIM−S) Speed Advisory.
B, C, D, and E surface areas in meteorological
SQUAWK (Mode, Code, Function)− Used by ATC
conditions below VMC.
to instruct a pilot to activate the aircraft transponder
SPECIAL VFR OPERATIONS− Aircraft operating and ADS−B Out with altitude reporting enabled, or
in accordance with clearances within Class B, C, D, (military) to activate only specific modes, codes, or
and E surface areas in weather conditions less than the functions. Examples: “Squawk five seven zero
basic VFR weather minima. Such operations must be seven;” “Squawk three/alpha, two one zero five.”
requested by the pilot and approved by ATC. (See TRANSPONDER.)
(See SPECIAL VFR CONDITIONS.) STA−
(See ICAO term SPECIAL VFR FLIGHT.) (See SCHEDULED TIME OF ARRIVAL.)
SPEED− STAGING/QUEUING− The placement, integration,
(See AIRSPEED.) and segregation of departure aircraft in designated
(See GROUND SPEED.) movement areas of an airport by departure fix, EDCT,
and/or restriction.
SPEED ADJUSTMENT− An ATC procedure used to
request pilots to adjust aircraft speed to a specific STAND BY− Means the controller or pilot must
value for the purpose of providing desired spacing. pause for a few seconds, usually to attend to other
Pilots are expected to maintain a speed of plus or duties of a higher priority. Also means to wait as in
minus 10 knots or 0.02 Mach number of the specified “stand by for clearance.” The caller should
speed. Examples of speed adjustments are: reestablish contact if a delay is lengthy. “Stand by” is
not an approval or denial.
a. “Increase/reduce speed to Mach point
(number).” STANDARD INSTRUMENT APPROACH PRO-
CEDURE (SIAP)−
b. “Increase/reduce speed to (speed in knots)” or
(See INSTRUMENT APPROACH PROCEDURE.)
“Increase/reduce speed (number of knots) knots.”
STANDARD INSTRUMENT DEPARTURE (SID)−
SPEED BRAKES− Moveable aerodynamic devices A preplanned instrument flight rule (IFR) air traffic
on aircraft that reduce airspeed during descent and control (ATC) departure procedure printed for
landing. pilot/controller use in graphic form to provide
SPEED SEGMENTS− Portions of the arrival route obstacle clearance and a transition from the terminal
between the transition point and the vertex along the area to the appropriate en route structure. SIDs are
optimum flight path for which speeds and altitudes primarily designed for system enhancement to
are specified. There is one set of arrival speed expedite traffic flow and to reduce pilot/controller
segments adapted from each transition point to each workload. ATC clearance must always be received
vertex. Each set may contain up to six segments. prior to flying a SID.
(See IFR TAKEOFF MINIMUMS AND
SPOOFING− Denotes emissions of GNSS−like DEPARTURE PROCEDURES.)
signals that may be acquired and tracked in (See OBSTACLE DEPARTURE PROCEDURE.)
combination with or instead of the intended signals (Refer to AIM.)
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STANDARD RATE TURN− A turn of three degrees STEREO ROUTE− A routinely used route of flight
per second. established by users and ARTCCs identified by a
coded name; e.g., ALPHA 2. These routes minimize
STANDARD TERMINAL ARRIVAL (STAR)− A flight plan handling and communications.
preplanned instrument flight rule (IFR) air traffic
control arrival procedure published for pilot use in STNR ALT RESERVATION– An abbreviation for
graphic and/or textual form. STARs provide Stationary Altitude Reservation commonly used in
transition from the en route structure to an outer fix NOTAMs.
or an instrument approach fix/arrival waypoint in the (See STATIONARY ALTITUDE RESERVATION.)
terminal area. STOL AIRCRAFT−
(See SHORT TAKEOFF AND LANDING
STANDARD TERMINAL ARRIVAL CHARTS− AIRCRAFT.)
(See AERONAUTICAL CHART.)
STOP ALTITUDE SQUAWK− Used by ATC to
STANDARD TERMINAL AUTOMATION RE- instruct a pilot to turn off the automatic altitude
PLACEMENT SYSTEM (STARS)− reporting feature of the aircraft transponder and
(See DTAS.) ADS−B Out. It is issued when a verbally reported
altitude varies by 300 feet or more from the automatic
STAR− altitude report.
(See STANDARD TERMINAL ARRIVAL.) (See ALTITUDE READOUT.)
STATE AIRCRAFT− Aircraft used in military, (See TRANSPONDER.)
customs and police service, in the exclusive service STOP AND GO− A procedure wherein an aircraft
of any government or of any political subdivision will land, make a complete stop on the runway, and
thereof, including the government of any state, then commence a takeoff from that point.
territory, or possession of the United States or the (See LOW APPROACH.)
District of Columbia, but not including any (See OPTION APPROACH.)
government-owned aircraft engaged in carrying STOP BURST−
persons or property for commercial purposes. (See STOP STREAM.)
STATIC RESTRICTIONS− Those restrictions that STOP BUZZER−
are usually not subject to change, fixed, in place, (See STOP STREAM.)
and/or published. STOP SQUAWK (Mode or Code)− Used by ATC to
STATIONARY ALTITUDE RESERVATION instruct a pilot to stop transponder and ADS−B
(STATIONARY ALTRV)– An altitude reservation transmissions, or to turn off only specified functions
which encompasses activities in a fixed area. of the aircraft transponder (military).
Stationary ALTRVs may include activities such as (See STOP ALTITUDE SQUAWK.)
special tests of weapons systems or equipment; (See TRANSPONDER.)
certain U.S. Navy carrier, fleet, and anti−submarine STOP STREAM− Used by ATC to request a pilot to
operations; rocket, missile, and drone operations; and suspend electronic attack activity.
certain aerial refueling or similar operations. (See JAMMING.)
STEP TAXI− To taxi a float plane at full power or STOPOVER FLIGHT PLAN− A flight plan format
high RPM. which permits in a single submission the filing of a
sequence of flight plans through interim full-stop
STEP TURN− A maneuver used to put a float plane destinations to a final destination.
in a planing configuration prior to entering an active
sea lane for takeoff. The STEP TURN maneuver STOPWAY− An area beyond the takeoff runway no
should only be used upon pilot request. less wide than the runway and centered upon the
extended centerline of the runway, able to support the
STEPDOWN FIX− A fix permitting additional airplane during an aborted takeoff, without causing
descent within a segment of an instrument approach structural damage to the airplane, and designated by
procedure by identifying a point at which a the airport authorities for use in decelerating the
controlling obstacle has been safely overflown. airplane during an aborted takeoff.
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6/17/21 Glossary Pilot/Controller Glossary
12/2/21
STRAIGHT-IN APPROACH IFR− An instrument or radio. (All other services are provided by the parent
approach wherein final approach is begun without FSS.)
first having executed a procedure turn, not SUPPS− Refers to ICAO Document 7030 Regional
necessarily completed with a straight-in landing or Supplementary Procedures. SUPPS contain
made to straight-in landing minimums. procedures for each ICAO Region which are unique
(See LANDING MINIMUMS.) to that Region and are not covered in the worldwide
(See STRAIGHT-IN APPROACH VFR.) provisions identified in the ICAO Air Navigation
(See STRAIGHT-IN LANDING.) Plan. Procedures contained in Chapter 8 are based in
STRAIGHT-IN APPROACH VFR− Entry into the part on those published in SUPPS.
traffic pattern by interception of the extended runway SURFACE AREA− The airspace contained by the
centerline (final approach course) without executing lateral boundary of the Class B, C, D, or E airspace
any other portion of the traffic pattern. designated for an airport that begins at the surface and
(See TRAFFIC PATTERN.) extends upward.
STRAIGHT-IN LANDING− A landing made on a SURFACE METERING PROGRAM− A capability
runway aligned within 30 of the final approach within Terminal Flight Data Manager that provides
course following completion of an instrument the user with the ability to tactically manage surface
approach. traffic flows through adjusting desired minimum and
(See STRAIGHT-IN APPROACH IFR.) maximum departure queue lengths to balance surface
STRAIGHT-IN LANDING MINIMUMS− demand with capacity. When a demand/capacity
(See LANDING MINIMUMS.) imbalance for a surface resource is predicted, a
metering procedure is recommended.
STRAIGHT-IN MINIMUMS−
(See STRAIGHT-IN LANDING MINIMUMS.) SURFACE VIEWER− A capability within the
Traffic Flow Management System that provides
STRATEGIC PLANNING− Planning whereby situational awareness for a user−selected airport. The
solutions are sought to resolve potential conflicts. Surface Viewer displays a top−down view of an
sUAS− airport depicting runways, taxiways, gate areas,
(See SMALL UNMANNED AIRCRAFT ramps, and buildings. The display also includes icons
SYSTEM.) representing aircraft and vehicles currently on the
surface, with identifying information. In addition, the
SUBSTITUTE ROUTE− A route assigned to pilots display includes current airport configuration
when any part of an airway or route is unusable information such as departure/arrival runways and
because of NAVAID status. These routes consist of: airport departure/arrival rates.
a. Substitute routes which are shown on U.S.
SURPIC− A description of surface vessels in the area
Government charts.
of a Search and Rescue incident including their
b. Routes defined by ATC as specific NAVAID predicted positions and their characteristics.
radials or courses. (Refer to FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 10−6−4,
c. Routes defined by ATC as direct to or between INFLIGHT CONTINGENCIES.)
NAVAIDs.
SURVEILLANCE APPROACH− An instrument
SUNSET AND SUNRISE− The mean solar times of approach wherein the air traffic controller issues
sunset and sunrise as published in the Nautical instructions, for pilot compliance, based on aircraft
Almanac, converted to local standard time for the position in relation to the final approach course
locality concerned. Within Alaska, the end of evening (azimuth), and the distance (range) from the end of
civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil the runway as displayed on the controller’s radar
twilight, as defined for each locality. scope. The controller will provide recommended
altitudes on final approach if requested by the pilot.
SUPPLEMENTAL WEATHER SERVICE LOCA-
(Refer to AIM.)
TION− Airport facilities staffed with contract
personnel who take weather observations and SUSPICIOUS UAS– Suspicious UAS operations
provide current local weather to pilots via telephone may include operating without authorization,
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loitering in the vicinity of sensitive locations, (e.g., SWAP−

national security, law enforcement facilities, and (See SEVERE WEATHER AVOIDANCE PLAN.)
critical infrastructure), or disrupting normal air traffic SWSL−
operations resulting in runway changes, ground (See SUPPLEMENTAL WEATHER SERVICE
stops, pilot evasive action, etc. The report of a UAS LOCATION.)
operation alone does not constitute suspicious SYSTEM STRATEGIC NAVIGATION− Military
activity. Development of a comprehensive list of activity accomplished by navigating along a
suspicious activities is not possible due to the vast preplanned route using internal aircraft systems to
number of situations that could be considered maintain a desired track. This activity normally
suspicious. ATC must exercise sound judgment when requires a lateral route width of 10 NM and altitude
identifying situations that could constitute or indicate range of 1,000 feet to 6,000 feet AGL with some route
a suspicious activity. segments that permit terrain following.
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T
TACAN− this pertains to the act of becoming airborne after
(See TACTICAL AIR NAVIGATION.) departing a takeoff area.
TACAN-ONLY AIRCRAFT− An aircraft, normally TAKEOFF RUN AVAILABLE (TORA) – The
military, possessing TACAN with DME but no VOR runway length declared available and suitable for the
navigational system capability. Clearances must ground run of an airplane taking off.
specify TACAN or VORTAC fixes and approaches. (See ICAO term TAKEOFF RUN AVAILABLE.)
TAKEOFF RUN AVAILABLE [ICAO]− The length
TACTICAL AIR NAVIGATION (TCAN)− An of runway declared available and suitable for the
ultra-high frequency electronic rho-theta air naviga- ground run of an aeroplane take-off.
tion aid which provides suitably equipped aircraft a
continuous indication of bearing and distance to the TARGET− The indication shown on a display
TACAN station. resulting from a primary radar return, a radar beacon
(See VORTAC.) reply, or an ADS−B report. The specific target
(Refer to AIM.) symbol presented to ATC may vary based on the
surveillance source and automation platform.
TAILWIND− Any wind more than 90 degrees to the (See ASSOCIATED.)
longitudinal axis of the runway. The magnetic (See DIGITAL TARGET.)
direction of the runway shall be used as the basis for (See DIGITIZED RADAR TARGET.)
determining the longitudinal axis. (See FUSED TARGET.)
(See PRIMARY RADAR TARGET.)
TAKEOFF AREA−
(See RADAR.)
(See LANDING AREA.) (See SECONDARY RADAR TARGET.)
TAKEOFF DISTANCE AVAILABLE (TODA)– The (See ICAO term TARGET.)
takeoff run available plus the length of any remaining (See UNASSOCIATED.)
runway or clearway beyond the far end of the takeoff TARGET [ICAO]− In radar:
run available. a. Generally, any discrete object which reflects or
(See ICAO term TAKEOFF DISTANCE retransmits energy back to the radar equipment.
AVAILABLE.)
b. Specifically, an object of radar search or
TAKEOFF DISTANCE AVAILABLE [ICAO]− The surveillance.
length of the takeoff run available plus the length of TARGET RESOLUTION− A process to ensure that
the clearway, if provided. correlated radar targets do not touch. Target
TAKEOFF HOLD LIGHTS (THL)– The THL resolution must be applied as follows:
system is composed of in-pavement lighting in a a. Between the edges of two primary targets or the
double, longitudinal row of lights aligned either side edges of the ASR-9/11 primary target symbol.
of the runway centerline. The lights are focused b. Between the end of the beacon control slash and
toward the arrival end of the runway at the “line up the edge of a primary target.
and wait” point, and they extend for 1,500 feet in c. Between the ends of two beacon control slashes.
front of the holding aircraft. Illuminated red lights Note 1: Mandatory traffic advisories and safety
indicate to an aircraft in position for takeoff or rolling alerts must be issued when this procedure is used.
that it is unsafe to takeoff because the runway is Note 2: This procedure must not be used when
occupied or about to be occupied by an aircraft or utilizing mosaic radar systems or multi−sensor
vehicle. mode.
TAKEOFF ROLL − The process whereby an aircraft TARGET SYMBOL−
is aligned with the runway centerline and the aircraft (See TARGET.)
is moving with the intent to take off. For helicopters, (See ICAO term TARGET.)
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TARMAC DELAY− The holding of an aircraft on the sovereign airspace of the United States and its
ground either before departure or after landing with territories to restrict certain aircraft from operating
no opportunity for its passengers to deplane. within a defined area on a temporary basis to protect
persons or property in the air or on the ground. While
TARMAC DELAY AIRCRAFT− An aircraft whose
not all inclusive, TFRs may be issued for disaster or
pilot−in−command has requested to taxi to the ramp,
hazard situations such as: toxic gas leaks or spills,
gate, or alternate deplaning area to comply with the
fumes from flammable agents, aircraft accident/in-
Three−hour Tarmac Rule.
cident sites, aviation or ground resources engaged in
TARMAC DELAY REQUEST− A request by the wildfire suppression, or aircraft relief activities
pilot−in−command to taxi to the ramp, gate, or following a disaster. TFRs may also be issued in
alternate deplaning location to comply with the support of VIP movements, for reasons of national
Three−hour Tarmac Rule. security; or when determined necessary for the
TAS− management of air traffic in the vicinity of aerial
(See TERMINAL AUTOMATION SYSTEMS.)
demonstrations or major sporting events. NAS users
or other interested parties should contact a FSS for
TAWS− TFR information. Additionally, TFR information can
(See TERRAIN AWARENESS WARNING be found in automated briefings, NOTAM publica-
SYSTEM.) tions, and on the internet at http://www.faa.gov. The
TAXI− The movement of an airplane under its own FAA also distributes TFR information to aviation
power on the surface of an airport (14 CFR user groups for further dissemination.
Section 135.100 [Note]). Also, it describes the TERMINAL AREA− A general term used to describe
surface movement of helicopters equipped with airspace in which approach control service or airport
wheels. traffic control service is provided.
(See AIR TAXI.)
TERMINAL AREA FACILITY− A facility provid-
(See HOVER TAXI.)
ing air traffic control service for arriving and
(Refer to 14 CFR Section 135.100.)
departing IFR, VFR, Special VFR, and on occasion
(Refer to AIM.)
en route aircraft.
TAXI PATTERNS− Patterns established to illustrate (See APPROACH CONTROL FACILITY.)
the desired flow of ground traffic for the different (See TOWER.)
runways or airport areas available for use.
TERMINAL AUTOMATION SYSTEMS (TAS)−
TBM− TAS is used to identify the numerous automated
(See TIME−BASED MANAGEMENT.) tracking systems including STARS and MEARTS.
TBO− TERMINAL DATA LINK SYSTEM (TDLS)− A
(See TRAJECTORY−BASED OPERATIONS.) system that provides Digital Automatic Terminal
Information Service (D−ATIS) both on a specified
TCAS−
radio frequency and also, for subscribers, in a text
(See TRAFFIC ALERT AND COLLISION
message via data link to the cockpit or to a gate
AVOIDANCE SYSTEM.)
printer. TDLS also provides Pre−departure Clear-
TCH− ances (PDC), at selected airports, to subscribers,
(See THRESHOLD CROSSING HEIGHT.) through a service provider, in text to the cockpit or to
TDLS− a gate printer. In addition, TDLS will emulate the
Flight Data Input/Output (FDIO) information within
(See TERMINAL DATA LINK SYSTEM.)
the control tower.
TDZE−
TERMINAL FLIGHT DATA MANAGER
(See TOUCHDOWN ZONE ELEVATION.)
(TFDM)− An integrated tower flight data automation
TEMPORARY FLIGHT RESTRICTION (TFR)− A system to provide improved airport surface and
TFR is a regulatory action issued by the FAA via the terminal airspace management. TFDM enhances
U.S. NOTAM System, under the authority of United traffic flow management data integration with
States Code, Title 49. TFRs are issued within the Time−Based Flow Management (TBFM) and Traffic
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Flow Management System (TFMS) to enable available. TSAS will schedule these and the
airlines, controllers, and airports to share and non−RNP aircraft to a common merge point.
exchange real−time data. This improves surface Terminal traffic management personnel have im-
traffic management and enhances capabilities of proved situation awareness using displays that allow
TFMS and TBFM. TFDM assists the Tower for the monitoring of terminal metering operations,
personnel with surface Traffic Flow Management similar to the displays used today by center traffic
(TFM) and Collaborative Decision Making (CDM) management personnel to monitor en route metering
and enables a fundamental change in the Towers from operations.
a local airport−specific operation to a NAS−connect-
ed metering operation. The single platform TERMINAL VFR RADAR SERVICE− A national
consolidates multiple Tower automation systems, program instituted to extend the terminal radar
including: Departure Spacing Program (DSP), services provided instrument flight rules (IFR)
Airport Resource Management Tool (ARMT), aircraft to visual flight rules (VFR) aircraft. The
Electronic Flight Strip Transfer System (EFSTS), program is divided into four types service referred to
and Surface Movement Advisor (SMA). TFDM data, as basic radar service, terminal radar service area
integrated with other FAA systems such as TBFM (TRSA) service, Class B service and Class C service.
and TFMS, allows airlines, controllers, and airports The type of service provided at a particular location
to manage the flow of aircraft more efficiently is contained in the Chart Supplement U.S.
through all phases of flight from departure to arrival a. Basic Radar Service− These services are
gate. provided for VFR aircraft by all commissioned
terminal radar facilities. Basic radar service includes
TERMINAL RADAR SERVICE AREA− Airspace safety alerts, traffic advisories, limited radar
surrounding designated airports wherein ATC vectoring when requested by the pilot, and
provides radar vectoring, sequencing, and separation sequencing at locations where procedures have been
on a full-time basis for all IFR and participating VFR established for this purpose and/or when covered by
aircraft. The AIM contains an explanation of TRSA. a letter of agreement. The purpose of this service is to
TRSAs are depicted on VFR aeronautical charts. adjust the flow of arriving IFR and VFR aircraft into
Pilot participation is urged but is not mandatory. the traffic pattern in a safe and orderly manner and to
TERMINAL SEQUENCING AND SPACING provide traffic advisories to departing VFR aircraft.
(TSAS)− Extends scheduling and metering capabili- b. TRSA Service− This service provides, in
ties into the terminal area and provides metering addition to basic radar service, sequencing of all IFR
automation tools to terminal controllers and terminal and participating VFR aircraft to the primary airport
traffic management personnel. Those controllers and and separation between all participating VFR
traffic management personnel become active partici- aircraft. The purpose of this service is to provide
pants in time−based metering operations as they work separation between all participating VFR aircraft and
to deliver aircraft accurately to Constraint Satisfac- all IFR aircraft operating within the area defined as a
tion Points within terminal airspace to include the TRSA.
runway in accordance with scheduled times at those c. Class C Service− This service provides, in
points. Terminal controllers are better able to utilize addition to basic radar service, approved separation
efficient flight paths, such as Standard Instrument between IFR and VFR aircraft, and sequencing of
Approach Procedures (SIAPs) that require a VFR aircraft, and sequencing of VFR arrivals to the
Navigational Specification (NavSpec) of RNP primary airport.
APCH with Radius−to−Fix (RF) legs, or Advanced
RNP (A−RNP), through tools that support the d. Class B Service− This service provides, in
merging of mixed−equipage traffic flows. For addition to basic radar service, approved separation
example, merging aircraft flying RNP APCH AR of aircraft based on IFR, VFR, and/or weight, and
with RF, A−RNP, and non−RNP approach proce- sequencing of VFR arrivals to the primary airport(s).
dures. Additional fields in the flight plan will identify (See CONTROLLED AIRSPACE.)
those flights capable of flying the RNP APCH with (See TERMINAL RADAR SERVICE AREA.)
RF or A−RNP procedures, and those flights will be (Refer to AIM.)
scheduled for those types of procedures when (Refer to CHART SUPPLEMENT U.S.)
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TERMINAL-VERY HIGH FREQUENCY OMNI- THRESHOLD CROSSING HEIGHT− The

DIRECTIONAL RANGE STATION (TVOR)− A theoretical height above the runway threshold at
very high frequency terminal omnirange station which the aircraft’s glideslope antenna would be if
located on or near an airport and used as an approach the aircraft maintains the trajectory established by the
aid. mean ILS glideslope or the altitude at which the
(See NAVIGATIONAL AID.) calculated glidepath of an RNAV or GPS approaches.
(See VOR.) (See GLIDESLOPE.)
(See THRESHOLD.)
TERRAIN AWARENESS WARNING SYSTEM
(TAWS)− An on−board, terrain proximity alerting THRESHOLD LIGHTS−
system providing the aircrew ‘Low Altitude (See AIRPORT LIGHTING.)
warnings’ to allow immediate pilot action.
TIE-IN FACILITY– The FSS primarily responsible
TERRAIN FOLLOWING− The flight of a military for providing FSS services, including telecommu-
aircraft maintaining a constant AGL altitude above ni ca ti on s se rv i ce s fo r la nd in g f ac il it ie s o r
the terrain or the highest obstruction. The altitude of navigational aids located within the boundaries of a
the aircraft will constantly change with the varying flight plan area (FPA). Three-letter identifiers are
terrain and/or obstruction. assigned to each FSS/FPA and are annotated as tie-in
facilities in the Chart Supplement U.S., the Alaska
TETRAHEDRON− A device normally located on Supplement, the Pacific Supplement, and FAA Order
uncontrolled airports and used as a landing direction JO 7350.9, Location Identifiers. Large consolidated
indicator. The small end of a tetrahedron points in the FSS facilities may have many tie-in facilities or FSS
direction of landing. At controlled airports, the sectors within one facility.
tetrahedron, if installed, should be disregarded
(See FLIGHT PLAN AREA.)
because tower instructions supersede the indicator.
(See FLIGHT SERVICE STATION.)
(See SEGMENTED CIRCLE.)
(Refer to AIM.) TIME−BASED FLOW MANAGEMENT (TBFM)−
A foundational Decision Support Tool for
TF− time−based management in the en route and terminal
(See TERRAIN FOLLOWING.) environments. TBFM’s core function is the ability to
TFDM− schedule aircraft within a stream of traffic to reach a
(See TERMINAL FLIGHT DATA MANAGER.) defined constraint point (e.g., meter fix/meter arc) at
specified times, creating a time−ordered sequence of
TGUI− traffic. The scheduled times allow for merging of
(See TIMELINE GRAPHICAL USER traffic flows, efficiently utilizing airport and airspace
INTERFACE.) capacity while minimizing coordination and
THAT IS CORRECT− The understanding you have reducing the need for vectoring/holding. The TBFM
is right. schedule is calculated using current aircraft estimated
time of arrival at key defined constraint points based
THA− on wind forecasts, aircraft flight plan, the desired
(See TRANSITIONAL HAZARD AREA.) separation at the constraint point and other
THREE−HOUR TARMAC RULE– Rule that relates parameters. The schedule applies spacing only when
to Department of Transportation (DOT) requirements needed to maintain the desired separation at one or
placed on airlines when tarmac delays are anticipated more constraint points. This includes, but is not
to reach 3 hours. limited to, Single Center Metering (SCM), Adjacent
Center Metering (ACM), En Route Departure
360 OVERHEAD− Capability (EDC), Integrated Departure/Arrival
(See OVERHEAD MANEUVER.) Capability (IDAC), Ground−based Interval
THRESHOLD− The beginning of that portion of the Management−Spacing (GIM−S), Departure
runway usable for landing. Scheduling, and Extended/Coupled Metering.
(See AIRPORT LIGHTING.) TIME−BASED MANAGEMENT (TBM)− A
(See DISPLACED THRESHOLD.) methodology for managing the flow of air traffic
PCG T−4
12/2/21
through the assignment of time at specific points for TOI−

an aircraft. TBM applies time to manage and (See TRACK OF INTEREST.)
condition air traffic flows to mitigate
TOP ALTITUDE− In reference to SID published
demand/capacity imbalances and enhance efficiency
altitude restrictions, the charted “maintain” altitude
and predictability of the NAS. Where implemented,
contained in the procedure description or assigned by
TBM tools will be used to manage traffic even during
ATC.
periods when demand does not exceed capacity. This
will sustain operational predictability and assure the TOP OF DESCENT (TOD)− The point at which an
regional/national strategic plan is maintained. TBM aircraft begins the initial descent.
uses capabilities within TFMS, TBFM, and TFDM.
These programs are designed to achieve a specified TORA−
interval between aircraft. Different types of programs (See TAKEOFF RUN AVAILABLE.)
accommodate different phases of flight. (See ICAO term TAKEOFF RUN AVAILABLE.)
TIME GROUP− Four digits representing the hour TORCHING− The burning of fuel at the end of an
and minutes from the Coordinated Universal Time exhaust pipe or stack of a reciprocating aircraft
(UTC) clock. FAA uses UTC for all operations. The engine, the result of an excessive richness in the fuel
term “ZULU” may be used to denote UTC. The word air mixture.
“local” or the time zone equivalent shall be used to TOS−
denote local when local time is given during radio and (See TRAJECTORY OPTIONS SET)
telephone communications. When written, a time
zone designator is used to indicate local time; e.g., TOTAL ESTIMATED ELAPSED TIME [ICAO]−
“0205M” (Mountain). The local time may be based For IFR flights, the estimated time required from
on the 24-hour clock system. The day begins at 0000 takeoff to arrive over that designated point, defined
and ends at 2359. by reference to navigation aids, from which it is
intended that an instrument approach procedure will
TIMELINE GRAPHICAL USER INTERFACE be commenced, or, if no navigation aid is associated
(TGUI)− A TBFM display that uses timelines to with the destination aerodrome, to arrive over the
display the Estimated Time of Arrival and Scheduled destination aerodrome. For VFR flights, the
Time of Arrival of each aircraft to specified constraint estimated time required from takeoff to arrive over
points. The TGUI can also display pre−departure and the destination aerodrome.
scheduled aircraft. (See ICAO term ESTIMATED ELAPSED TIME.)
TIS−B− TOUCH-AND-GO− An operation by an aircraft that
(See TRAFFIC INFORMATION lands and departs on a runway without stopping or
SERVICE−BROADCAST.) exiting the runway.
TMI− TOUCH-AND-GO LANDING−
(See TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT INITIATIVE.) (See TOUCH-AND-GO.)
TMPA− TOUCHDOWN−
(See TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT PROGRAM a. The point at which an aircraft first makes
ALERT.) contact with the landing surface.
TMU− b. Concerning a precision radar approach (PAR),
(See TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT UNIT.) it is the point where the glide path intercepts the
landing surface.
TOD− (See ICAO term TOUCHDOWN.)
(See TOP OF DESCENT.)
TOUCHDOWN [ICAO]− The point where the
TODA− nominal glide path intercepts the runway.
(See TAKEOFF DISTANCE AVAILABLE.) Note: Touchdown as defined above is only a datum
(See ICAO term TAKEOFF DISTANCE and is not necessarily the actual point at which the
AVAILABLE.) aircraft will touch the runway.
PCG T−5
6/17/21
TOUCHDOWN RVR− TRACEABLE PRESSURE STANDARD− The

(See VISIBILITY.) facility station pressure instrument, with certifica-
tion/calibration traceable to the National Institute of
TOUCHDOWN ZONE− The first 3,000 feet of the Standards and Technology. Traceable pressure
runway beginning at the threshold. The area is used standards may be mercurial barometers, commis-
for determination of Touchdown Zone Elevation in sioned ASOS or dual transducer AWOS, or portable
the development of straight-in landing minimums for pressure standards or DASI.
instrument approaches.
TRACK− The actual flight path of an aircraft over the
(See ICAO term TOUCHDOWN ZONE.)
surface of the earth.
TOUCHDOWN ZONE [ICAO]− The portion of a (See COURSE.)
runway, beyond the threshold, where it is intended (See FLIGHT PATH.)
landing aircraft first contact the runway. (See ROUTE.)
(See ICAO term TRACK.)
TOUCHDOWN ZONE ELEVATION− The highest
elevation in the first 3,000 feet of the landing surface. TRACK [ICAO]− The projection on the earth’s
TDZE is indicated on the instrument approach surface of the path of an aircraft, the direction of
procedure chart when straight-in landing minimums which path at any point is usually expressed in
are authorized. degrees from North (True, Magnetic, or Grid).
(See TOUCHDOWN ZONE.) TRACK OF INTEREST (TOI)− Displayed data
representing an airborne object that threatens or has
TOUCHDOWN ZONE LIGHTING− the potential to threaten North America or National
(See AIRPORT LIGHTING.) Security. Indicators may include, but are not limited
TOWER− A terminal facility that uses air/ground to: noncompliance with air traffic control instructions
communications, visual signaling, and other devices or aviation regulations; extended loss of communica-
to provide ATC services to aircraft operating in the tions; unusual transmissions or unusual flight
vicinity of an airport or on the movement area. behavior; unauthorized intrusion into controlled
Authorizes aircraft to land or takeoff at the airport airspace or an ADIZ; noncompliance with issued
controlled by the tower or to transit the Class D flight restrictions/security procedures; or unlawful
airspace area regardless of flight plan or weather interference with airborne flight crews, up to and
conditions (IFR or VFR). A tower may also provide including hijack. In certain circumstances, an object
approach control services (radar or nonradar). may become a TOI based on specific and credible
intelligence pertaining to that particular aircraft/
(See AIRPORT TRAFFIC CONTROL SERVICE.)
object, its passengers, or its cargo.
(See APPROACH CONTROL FACILITY.)
(See APPROACH CONTROL SERVICE.) TRACK OF INTEREST RESOLUTION− A TOI
(See MOVEMENT AREA.) will normally be considered resolved when: the
(See TOWER EN ROUTE CONTROL aircraft/object is no longer airborne; the aircraft
SERVICE.) complies with air traffic control instructions, aviation
(See ICAO term AERODROME CONTROL regulations, and/or issued flight restrictions/security
TOWER.) procedures; radio contact is re−established and
(Refer to AIM.) authorized control of the aircraft is verified; the
aircraft is intercepted and intent is verified to be
TOWER EN ROUTE CONTROL SERVICE− The nonthreatening/nonhostile; TOI was identified based
control of IFR en route traffic within delegated on specific and credible intelligence that was later
airspace between two or more adjacent approach determined to be invalid or unreliable; or displayed
control facilities. This service is designed to expedite data is identified and characterized as invalid.
traffic and reduce control and pilot communication
TRAFFIC−
requirements.
a. A term used by a controller to transfer radar
TOWER TO TOWER− identification of an aircraft to another controller for
(See TOWER EN ROUTE CONTROL the purpose of coordinating separation action. Traffic
SERVICE.) is normally issued:
PCG T−6
12/2/21
1. In response to a handoff or point out, traffic information to ADS−B equipped (1090ES or

2. In anticipation of a handoff or point out, or UAT) aircraft. The source of this traffic information
is derived from ground−based air traffic surveillance
3. In conjunction with a request for control of an
sensors, typically from radar targets. TIS−B service
aircraft.
will be available throughout the NAS where there are
b. A term used by ATC to refer to one or more both adequate surveillance coverage (radar) and
aircraft. adequate broadcast coverage from ADS−B ground
TRAFFIC ADVISORIES− Advisories issued to alert stations. Loss of TIS−B will occur when an aircraft
pilots to other known or observed air traffic which enters an area not covered by the GBT network. If this
may be in such proximity to the position or intended occurs in an area with adequate surveillance coverage
route of flight of their aircraft to warrant their (radar), nearby aircraft that remain within the
attention. Such advisories may be based on: adequate broadcast coverage (ADS−B) area will view
the first aircraft. TIS−B may continue when an
a. Visual observation.
aircraft enters an area with inadequate surveillance
b. Observation of radar identified and nonidenti- coverage (radar); nearby aircraft that remain within
fied aircraft targets on an ATC radar display, or the adequate broadcast coverage (ADS−B) area will
c. Verbal reports from pilots or other facilities. not view the first aircraft.
Note 1: The word “traffic” followed by additional TRAFFIC IN SIGHT− Used by pilots to inform a
information, if known, is used to provide such controller that previously issued traffic is in sight.
advisories; e.g., “Traffic, 2 o’clock, one zero miles,
(See NEGATIVE CONTACT.)
southbound, eight thousand.”
Note 2: Traffic advisory service will be provided to
the extent possible depending on higher priority TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT INITIATIVE (TMI)−
duties of the controller or other limitations; e.g., Tools used to manage demand with capacity in the
radar limitations, volume of traffic, frequency National Airspace System (NAS.) TMIs can be used
congestion, or controller workload. Radar/ to manage NAS resources (e.g., airports, sectors,
nonradar traffic advisories do not relieve the pilot airspace) or to increase the efficiency of the
of his/her responsibility to see and avoid other operation. TMIs can be either tactical (i.e., short
aircraft. Pilots are cautioned that there are many term) or strategic (i.e., long term), depending on the
times when the controller is not able to give traffic
type of TMI and the operational need.
advisories concerning all traffic in the aircraft’s
proximity; in other words, when a pilot requests or TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT PROGRAM ALERT−
is receiving traffic advisories, he/she should not A term used in a Notice to Air Missions (NOTAM)
assume that all traffic will be issued. issued in conjunction with a special traffic
(Refer to AIM.) management program to alert pilots to the existence
of the program and to refer them to a special traffic
TRAFFIC ALERT (aircraft call sign), TURN
management program advisory message for program
(left/right) IMMEDIATELY, (climb/descend) AND
details. The contraction TMPA is used in NOTAM
MAINTAIN (altitude).
text.
(See SAFETY ALERT.)
TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT UNIT− The entity in
TRAFFIC ALERT AND COLLISION AVOID- ARTCCs and designated terminals directly involved
ANCE SYSTEM (TCAS)− An airborne collision in the active management of facility traffic. Usually
avoidance system based on radar beacon signals under the direct supervision of an assistant manager
which operates independent of ground-based equip- for traffic management.
ment. TCAS-I generates traffic advisories only.
TCAS-II generates traffic advisories, and resolution TRAFFIC NO FACTOR− Indicates that the traffic
(collision avoidance) advisories in the vertical plane. described in a previously issued traffic advisory is no
factor.
TRAFFIC INFORMATION−
TRAFFIC NO LONGER OBSERVED− Indicates
that the traffic described in a previously issued traffic
TRAFFIC INFORMATION SERVICE−BROAD- advisory is no longer depicted on radar, but may still
CAST (TIS−B)− The broadcast of ATC derived be a factor.
PCG T−7
6/17/21
TRAFFIC PATTERN− The traffic flow that is TRAJECTORY−BASED OPERATIONS (TBO)−

prescribed for aircraft landing at, taxiing on, or taking An Air Traffic Management method for strategically
off from an airport. The components of a typical planning and managing flights throughout the
traffic pattern are upwind leg, crosswind leg, operation by using Time−Based Management
downwind leg, base leg, and final approach. (TBM), information exchange between air and
a. Upwind Leg− A flight path parallel to the ground systems, and the aircraft’s ability to fly
landing runway in the direction of landing. trajectories in time and space. Aircraft trajectory is
defined in four dimensions – latitude, longitude,
b. Crosswind Leg− A flight path at right angles to altitude, and time.
the landing runway off its upwind end.
TRAJECTORY MODELING− The automated pro-
c. Downwind Leg− A flight path parallel to the cess of calculating a trajectory.
landing runway in the direction opposite to landing.
TRAJECTORY OPTIONS SET (TOS)− A TOS is an
The downwind leg normally extends between the
electronic message, submitted by the operator, that is
crosswind leg and the base leg.
used by the Collaborative Trajectory Options
d. Base Leg− A flight path at right angles to the Program (CTOP) to manage the airspace captured in
landing runway off its approach end. The base leg the traffic management program. The TOS will allow
normally extends from the downwind leg to the the operator to express the route and delay trade-off
intersection of the extended runway centerline. options that they are willing to accept.
e. Final Approach− A flight path in the direction TRANSFER OF CONTROL− That action whereby
of landing along the extended runway centerline. The the responsibility for the separation of an aircraft is
final approach normally extends from the base leg to transferred from one controller to another.
the runway. An aircraft making a straight-in approach (See ICAO term TRANSFER OF CONTROL.)
VFR is also considered to be on final approach. TRANSFER OF CONTROL [ICAO]− Transfer of
(See STRAIGHT-IN APPROACH VFR.) responsibility for providing air traffic control service.
(See TAXI PATTERNS.)
TRANSFERRING CONTROLLER− A controller/
(See ICAO term AERODROME TRAFFIC facility transferring control of an aircraft to another
CIRCUIT.)
controller/facility.
(See ICAO term TRANSFERRING
(Refer to AIM.) UNIT/CONTROLLER.)
TRAFFIC SITUATION DISPLAY (TSD)− TSD is a TRANSFERRING FACILITY−
computer system that receives radar track data from (See TRANSFERRING CONTROLLER.)
all 20 CONUS ARTCCs, organizes this data into a TRANSFERRING UNIT/CONTROLLER [ICAO]−
mosaic display, and presents it on a computer screen. Air traffic control unit/air traffic controller in the
The display allows the traffic management coordina- process of transferring the responsibility for
tor multiple methods of selection and highlighting of providing air traffic control service to an aircraft to
individual aircraft or groups of aircraft. The user has the next air traffic control unit/air traffic controller
the option of superimposing these aircraft positions along the route of flight.
over any number of background displays. These Note: See definition of accepting unit/controller.
background options include ARTCC boundaries, any
stratum of en route sector boundaries, fixes, airways, TRANSITION− The general term that describes the
military and other special use airspace, airports, and change from one phase of flight or flight condition to
geopolitical boundaries. By using the TSD, a another; e.g., transition from en route flight to the
coordinator can monitor any number of traffic approach or transition from instrument flight to
situations or the entire systemwide traffic flows. visual flight.
TRANSITION POINT− A point at an adapted
TRAJECTORY− A EDST representation of the path number of miles from the vertex at which an arrival
an aircraft is predicted to fly based upon a Current aircraft would normally commence descent from its
Plan or Trial Plan. en route altitude. This is the first fix adapted on the
(See EN ROUTE DECISION SUPPORT TOOL.) arrival speed segments.
PCG T−8
12/2/21
TRANSITIONAL AIRSPACE− That portion of TRIAL PLAN− A proposed amendment which

controlled airspace wherein aircraft change from one utilizes automation to analyze and display potential
phase of flight or flight condition to another. conflicts along the predicted trajectory of the selected
aircraft.
TRANSITIONAL HAZARD AREA (THA)− Used
by ATC. Airspace normally associated with an TRSA−
Aircraft Hazard Area within which the flight of (See TERMINAL RADAR SERVICE AREA.)
aircraft is subject to restrictions.
TSAS−
(See AIRCRAFT HAZARD AREA.) (See TERMINAL SEQUENCING AND
(See CONTINGENCY HAZARD AREA.) SPACING.)
(See REFINED HAZARD AREA.)
TSD−
TRANSMISSOMETER− An apparatus used to (See TRAFFIC SITUATION DISPLAY.)
determine visibility by measuring the transmission of
TURBOJET AIRCRAFT− An aircraft having a jet
light through the atmosphere. It is the measurement
engine in which the energy of the jet operates a
source for determining runway visual range (RVR).
turbine which in turn operates the air compressor.
(See VISIBILITY.)
TURBOPROP AIRCRAFT− An aircraft having a jet
TRANSMITTING IN THE BLIND− A transmis- engine in which the energy of the jet operates a
sion from one station to other stations in turbine which drives the propeller.
circumstances where two-way communication
cannot be established, but where it is believed that the TURBULENCE− An atmospheric phenomenon that
called stations may be able to receive the causes changes in aircraft altitude, attitude, and or
transmission. airspeed with aircraft reaction depending on
intensity. Pilots report turbulence intensity according
TRANSPONDER− The airborne radar beacon to aircraft’s reaction as follows:
receiver/transmitter portion of the Air Traffic Control a. Light − Causes slight, erratic changes in altitude
Radar Beacon System (ATCRBS) which automati- and or attitude (pitch, roll, or yaw).
cally receives radio signals from interrogators on the
b. Moderate− Similar to Light but of greater
ground, and selectively replies with a specific reply
intensity. Changes in altitude and or attitude occur
pulse or pulse group only to those interrogations
but the aircraft remains in positive control at all times.
being received on the mode to which it is set to
It usually causes variations in indicated airspeed.
respond.
(See INTERROGATOR.)
c. Severe− Causes large, abrupt changes in altitude
and or attitude. It usually causes large variations in
(See ICAO term TRANSPONDER.)
indicated airspeed. Aircraft may be momentarily out
(Refer to AIM.) of control.
TRANSPONDER [ICAO]− A receiver/transmitter d. Extreme− The aircraft is violently tossed about
which will generate a reply signal upon proper and is practically impossible to control. It may cause
interrogation; the interrogation and reply being on structural damage.
different frequencies. (See CHOP.)
(Refer to AIM.)
TRANSPONDER CODES−
TURN ANTICIPATION− (maneuver anticipation).
(See CODES.)
TVOR−
TRANSPONDER OBSERVED − Phraseology used
(See TERMINAL-VERY HIGH FREQUENCY
to inform a VFR pilot the aircraft’s assigned beacon OMNIDIRECTIONAL RANGE STATION.)
code and position have been observed. Specifically,
this term conveys to a VFR pilot the transponder TWO-WAY RADIO COMMUNICATIONS FAIL-
reply has been observed and its position correlated for URE−
transit through the designated area. (See LOST COMMUNICATIONS.)
PCG T−9
U
UHF− UNMANNED AIRCRAFT (UA)- A device used or
(See ULTRAHIGH FREQUENCY.) intended to be used for flight that has no onboard
pilot. This device can be any type of airplane,
ULTRAHIGH FREQUENCY (UHF)− The frequen-
helicopter, airship, or powered-lift aircraft.
cy band between 300 and 3,000 MHz. The bank of
Unmanned free balloons, moored balloons, tethered
radio frequencies used for military air/ground voice
aircraft, gliders, and unmanned rockets are not
communications. In some instances this may go as
considered to be a UA.
low as 225 MHz and still be referred to as UHF.
UNMANNED AIRCRAFT SYSTEM (UAS)- An
ULTRALIGHT VEHICLE− A single-occupant
unmanned aircraft and its associated elements related
aeronautical vehicle operated for sport or recreational
to safe operations, which may include control
purposes which does not require FAA registration, an
stations (ground, ship, or air based), control links,
airworthiness certificate, or pilot certification.
support equipment, payloads, flight termination
Operation of an ultralight vehicle in certain airspace
systems, and launch/recovery equipment. It consists
requires authorization from ATC.
of three elements: unmanned aircraft, control station,
(Refer to 14 CFR Part 103.) and data link.
UNABLE− Indicates inability to comply with a UNPUBLISHED ROUTE− A route for which no
specific instruction, request, or clearance. minimum altitude is published or charted for pilot
UNASSOCIATED− A radar target that does not use. It may include a direct route between NAVAIDs,
display a data block with flight identification and a radial, a radar vector, or a final approach course
altitude information. beyond the segments of an instrument approach
(See ASSOCIATED.) procedure.
(See PUBLISHED ROUTE.)
UNCONTROLLED AIRSPACE− Airspace in which
(See ROUTE.)
aircraft are not subject to controlled airspace (Class
A, B, C, D, or E) separation criteria. UNRELIABLE (GPS/WAAS)− An advisory to
pilots indicating the expected level of service of the
UNDER THE HOOD− Indicates that the pilot is
GPS and/or WAAS may not be available. Pilots must
using a hood to restrict visibility outside the cockpit
then determine the adequacy of the signal for desired
while simulating instrument flight. An appropriately
use.
rated pilot is required in the other control seat while
this operation is being conducted. UNSERVICEABLE (U/S)
(Refer to 14 CFR Part 91.) (See OUT OF SERVICE/UNSERVICEABLE.)
UNFROZEN− The Scheduled Time of Arrival (STA) UPWIND LEG−
tags, which are still being rescheduled by the (See TRAFFIC PATTERN.)
time−based flow management (TBFM) calculations.
URGENCY− A condition of being concerned about
The aircraft will remain unfrozen until the time the
safety and of requiring timely but not immediate
corresponding estimated time of arrival (ETA) tag
assistance; a potential distress condition.
passes the preset freeze horizon for that aircraft’s
stream class. At this point the automatic rescheduling (See ICAO term URGENCY.)
will stop, and the STA becomes “frozen.” URGENCY [ICAO]− A condition concerning the
UNICOM− A nongovernment communication facil- safety of an aircraft or other vehicle, or of person on
ity which may provide airport information at certain board or in sight, but which does not require
airports. Locations and frequencies of UNICOMs are immediate assistance.
shown on aeronautical charts and publications. USAFIB−
(See CHART SUPPLEMENT U.S.) (See ARMY AVIATION FLIGHT INFORMATION
(Refer to AIM.) BULLETIN.)
PCG U−1
12/2/21
V
VASI− VERY HIGH FREQUENCY OMNIDIRECTION-
(See VISUAL APPROACH SLOPE INDICATOR.) AL RANGE STATION−
(See VOR.)
VCOA−
(See VISUAL CLIMB OVER AIRPORT.) VERY LOW FREQUENCY (VLF)− The frequency
band between 3 and 30 kHz.
VDP−
VFR−
(See VISUAL DESCENT POINT.)
(See VISUAL FLIGHT RULES.)
VECTOR− A heading issued to an aircraft to provide
VFR AIRCRAFT− An aircraft conducting flight in
navigational guidance by radar.
accordance with visual flight rules.
(See ICAO term RADAR VECTORING.)
(See VISUAL FLIGHT RULES.)
VERIFY− Request confirmation of information; VFR CONDITIONS− Weather conditions equal to
e.g., “verify assigned altitude.” or better than the minimum for flight under visual
VERIFY SPECIFIC DIRECTION OF TAKEOFF flight rules. The term may be used as an ATC
(OR TURNS AFTER TAKEOFF)− Used by ATC to clearance/instruction only when:
ascertain an aircraft’s direction of takeoff and/or a. An IFR aircraft requests a climb/descent in
direction of turn after takeoff. It is normally used for VFR conditions.
IFR departures from an airport not having a control b. The clearance will result in noise abatement
tower. When direct communication with the pilot is benefits where part of the IFR departure route does
not possible, the request and information may be not conform to an FAA approved noise abatement
relayed through an FSS, dispatcher, or by other route or altitude.
means.
c. A pilot has requested a practice instrument
(See IFR TAKEOFF MINIMUMS AND approach and is not on an IFR flight plan.
DEPARTURE PROCEDURES.)
Note: All pilots receiving this authorization must
VERTICAL NAVIGATION (VNAV)– A function of comply with the VFR visibility and distance from
area navigation (RNAV) equipment which calculates, cloud criteria in 14 CFR Part 91. Use of the term
displays, and provides vertical guidance to a profile does not relieve controllers of their responsibility to
or path. separate aircraft in Class B and Class C airspace
or TRSAs as required by FAA Order JO 7110.65.
VERTICAL SEPARATION− Separation between When used as an ATC clearance/instruction, the
aircraft expressed in units of vertical distance. term may be abbreviated “VFR;” e.g., “MAINTAIN
VFR,” “CLIMB/DESCEND VFR,” etc.
(See SEPARATION.)
VERTICAL TAKEOFF AND LANDING AIR- VFR FLIGHT−
CRAFT (VTOL)− Aircraft capable of vertical climbs (See VFR AIRCRAFT.)
and/or descents and of using very short runways or VFR MILITARY TRAINING ROUTES (VR)−
small areas for takeoff and landings. These aircraft Routes used by the Department of Defense and
include, but are not limited to, helicopters. associated Reserve and Air Guard units for the
(See SHORT TAKEOFF AND LANDING purpose of conducting low-altitude navigation and
AIRCRAFT.) tactical training under VFR below 10,000 feet MSL
at airspeeds in excess of 250 knots IAS.
VERY HIGH FREQUENCY (VHF)− The frequency
band between 30 and 300 MHz. Portions of this band, VFR NOT RECOMMENDED− An advisory
108 to 118 MHz, are used for certain NAVAIDs; 118 provided by a flight service station to a pilot during
to 136 MHz are used for civil air/ground voice a preflight or inflight weather briefing that flight
communications. Other frequencies in this band are under visual flight rules is not recommended. To be
used for purposes not related to air traffic control. given when the current and/or forecast weather
PCG V−1
6/17/21
conditions are at or below VFR minimums. It does United States National Weather Service or an
not abrogate the pilot’s authority to make his/her own accredited observer.
decision. c. Prevailing Visibility− The greatest horizontal
VFR-ON-TOP− ATC authorization for an IFR visibility equaled or exceeded throughout at least half
aircraft to operate in VFR conditions at any the horizon circle which need not necessarily be
appropriate VFR altitude (as specified in 14 CFR and continuous.
as restricted by ATC). A pilot receiving this d. Runway Visual Range (RVR)− An instrumen-
authorization must comply with the VFR visibility, tally derived value, based on standard calibrations,
distance from cloud criteria, and the minimum IFR that represents the horizontal distance a pilot will see
altitudes specified in 14 CFR Part 91. The use of this down the runway from the approach end. It is based
term does not relieve controllers of their responsibil- on the sighting of either high intensity runway lights
ity to separate aircraft in Class B and Class C airspace or on the visual contrast of other targets whichever
or TRSAs as required by FAA Order JO 7110.65. yields the greater visual range. RVR, in contrast to
prevailing or runway visibility, is based on what a
VFR TERMINAL AREA CHARTS− pilot in a moving aircraft should see looking down the
(See AERONAUTICAL CHART.) runway. RVR is horizontal visual range, not slant
VFR WAYPOINT− visual range. It is based on the measurement of a
(See WAYPOINT.) transmissometer made near the touchdown point of
the instrument runway and is reported in hundreds of
VHF− feet. RVR, where available, is used in lieu of
(See VERY HIGH FREQUENCY.) prevailing visibility in determining minimums for a
particular runway.
VHF OMNIDIRECTIONAL RANGE/TACTICAL
AIR NAVIGATION− 1. Touchdown RVR− The RVR visibility
(See VORTAC.) readout values obtained from RVR equipment
serving the runway touchdown zone.
VIDEO MAP− An electronically displayed map on 2. Mid-RVR− The RVR readout values obtained
the radar display that may depict data such as airports, from RVR equipment located midfield of the runway.
heliports, runway centerline extensions, hospital
emergency landing areas, NAVAIDs and fixes, 3. Rollout RVR− The RVR readout values
reporting points, airway/route centerlines, bound- obtained from RVR equipment located nearest the
aries, handoff points, special use tracks, obstructions, rollout end of the runway.
prominent geographic features, map alignment (See ICAO term FLIGHT VISIBILITY.)
indicators, range accuracy marks, and/or minimum (See ICAO term GROUND VISIBILITY.)
vectoring altitudes. (See ICAO term RUNWAY VISUAL RANGE.)
(See ICAO term VISIBILITY.)
VISIBILITY− The ability, as determined by
atmospheric conditions and expressed in units of VISIBILITY [ICAO]− The ability, as determined by
distance, to see and identify prominent unlighted atmospheric conditions and expressed in units of
objects by day and prominent lighted objects by distance, to see and identify prominent unlighted
night. Visibility is reported as statute miles, hundreds objects by day and prominent lighted objects by
of feet or meters. night.
(Refer to 14 CFR Part 91.) a. Flight Visibility− The visibility forward from
(Refer to AIM.) the cockpit of an aircraft in flight.
a. Flight Visibility− The average forward horizon- b. Ground Visibility− The visibility at an
tal distance, from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight, aerodrome as reported by an accredited observer.
at which prominent unlighted objects may be seen c. Runway Visual Range [RVR]− The range over
and identified by day and prominent lighted objects which the pilot of an aircraft on the centerline of a
may be seen and identified by night. runway can see the runway surface markings or the
b. Ground Visibility− Prevailing horizontal visi- lights delineating the runway or identifying its
bility near the earth’s surface as reported by the centerline.
PCG V−2
12/2/21
VISUAL APPROACH− An approach conducted on equal to or greater than minimum VFR requirements.
an instrument flight rules (IFR) flight plan which In addition, it is used by pilots and controllers to
authorizes the pilot to proceed visually and clear of indicate type of flight plan.
clouds to the airport. The pilot must, at all times, have (See INSTRUMENT FLIGHT RULES.)
either the airport or the preceding aircraft in sight. (See INSTRUMENT METEOROLOGICAL
This approach must be authorized and under the CONDITIONS.)
control of the appropriate air traffic control facility. (See VISUAL METEOROLOGICAL
Reported weather at the airport must be: ceiling at or CONDITIONS.)
above 1,000 feet, and visibility of 3 miles or greater. (Refer to 14 CFR Part 91.)
(See ICAO term VISUAL APPROACH.) (Refer to AIM.)
VISUAL APPROACH [ICAO]− An approach by an VISUAL HOLDING− The holding of aircraft at

IFR flight when either part or all of an instrument selected, prominent geographical fixes which can be
approach procedure is not completed and the easily recognized from the air.
approach is executed in visual reference to terrain. (See HOLDING FIX.)
VISUAL APPROACH SLOPE INDICATOR VISUAL METEOROLOGICAL CONDITIONS−

(VASI)− Meteorological conditions expressed in terms of
visibility, distance from cloud, and ceiling equal to or
better than specified minima.
VISUAL CLIMB OVER AIRPORT (VCOA)− A (See INSTRUMENT FLIGHT RULES.)
departure option for an IFR aircraft, operating in (See INSTRUMENT METEOROLOGICAL
visual meteorological conditions equal to or greater CONDITIONS.)
than the specified visibility and ceiling, to visually (See VISUAL FLIGHT RULES.)
conduct climbing turns over the airport to the VISUAL OBSERVER (VO)− A person who is
published “climb−to” altitude from which to proceed designated by the remote pilot in command to assist
with the instrument portion of the departure. VCOA the remote pilot in command and the person
procedures are developed to avoid obstacles greater operating the flight controls of the small UAS
than 3 statute miles from the departure end of the (sUAS) to see and avoid other air traffic or objects
runway as an alternative to complying with climb aloft or on the ground.
gradients greater than 200 feet per nautical mile.
Pilots are responsible to advise ATC as early as VISUAL SEGMENT−
possible of the intent to fly the VCOA option prior to (See PUBLISHED INSTRUMENT APPROACH
departure. These textual procedures are published in PROCEDURE VISUAL SEGMENT.)
the ‘Take−Off Minimums and (Obstacle) Departure VISUAL SEPARATION− A means employed by
Procedures’ section of the Terminal Procedures ATC to separate aircraft in terminal areas and en route
Publications and/or appear as an option on a Graphic airspace in the NAS. There are two ways to effect this
ODP. separation:
(See AIM.) a. The tower controller sees the aircraft involved
VISUAL DESCENT POINT− A defined point on the and issues instructions, as necessary, to ensure that
final approach course of a nonprecision straight-in the aircraft avoid each other.
approach procedure from which normal descent from b. A pilot sees the other aircraft involved and upon
the MDA to the runway touchdown point may be instructions from the controller provides his/her own
commenced, provided the approach threshold of that separation by maneuvering his/her aircraft as
runway, or approach lights, or other markings necessary to avoid it. This may involve following
identifiable with the approach end of that runway are another aircraft or keeping it in sight until it is no
clearly visible to the pilot. longer a factor.
(See SEE AND AVOID.)
VISUAL FLIGHT RULES− Rules that govern the
procedures for conducting flight under visual
conditions. The term “VFR” is also used in the VLF−
United States to indicate weather conditions that are (See VERY LOW FREQUENCY.)
PCG V−3
6/17/21
VMC− VORTICES− Circular patterns of air created by the

(See VISUAL METEOROLOGICAL movement of an airfoil through the air when
CONDITIONS.) generating lift. As an airfoil moves through the
atmosphere in sustained flight, an area of area of low
VOICE SWITCHING AND CONTROL SYSTEM pressure is created above it. The air flowing from the
(VSCS)− A computer controlled switching system high pressure area to the low pressure area around and
that provides air traffic controllers with all voice about the tips of the airfoil tends to roll up into two
circuits (air to ground and ground to ground) rapidly rotating vortices, cylindrical in shape. These
necessary for air traffic control. vortices are the most predominant parts of aircraft
(Refer to AIM.) wake turbulence and their rotational force is
dependent upon the wing loading, gross weight, and
VOR− A ground-based electronic navigation aid speed of the generating aircraft. The vortices from
transmitting very high frequency navigation signals, medium to super aircraft can be of extremely high
360 degrees in azimuth, oriented from magnetic velocity and hazardous to smaller aircraft.
north. Used as the basis for navigation in the National
(See AIRCRAFT CLASSES.)
Airspace System. The VOR periodically identifies
(See WAKE TURBULENCE.)
itself by Morse Code and may have an additional
(Refer to AIM.)
voice identification feature. Voice features may be
used by ATC or FSS for transmitting instructions/in- VOT− A ground facility which emits a test signal to
formation to pilots. check VOR receiver accuracy. Some VOTs are
(See NAVIGATIONAL AID.) available to the user while airborne, and others are
(Refer to AIM.) limited to ground use only.
(See CHART SUPPLEMENT U.S.)
VOR TEST SIGNAL− (Refer to 14 CFR Part 91.)
(See VOT.) (Refer to AIM.)
VORTAC− A navigation aid providing VOR VR−

azimuth, TACAN azimuth, and TACAN distance (See VFR MILITARY TRAINING ROUTES.)
measuring equipment (DME) at one site. VSCS−
(See DISTANCE MEASURING EQUIPMENT.) (See VOICE SWITCHING AND CONTROL
(See NAVIGATIONAL AID.) SYSTEM.)
(See TACAN.) VTOL AIRCRAFT−
(See VOR.) (See VERTICAL TAKEOFF AND LANDING
(Refer to AIM.) AIRCRAFT.)
PCG V−4
12/2/21
W
WA− Operations Center are permitted to operate within a
(See AIRMET.) WRA. A WRA may only be established in airspace
(See WEATHER ADVISORY.) within U.S. Flight Information Regions outside of
U.S. territorial airspace.
WAAS−
(See WIDE-AREA AUGMENTATION SYSTEM.) WHEN ABLE−
a. In conjunction with ATC instructions, gives the
WAKE RE−CATEGORIZATION (RECAT)− A set pilot the latitude to delay compliance until a
of optimized wake separation standards, featuring an condition or event has been reconciled. Unlike “pilot
increased number of aircraft wake categories, in use discretion,” when instructions are prefaced “when
at select airports, which allows reduced wake able,” the pilot is expected to seek the first
intervals. opportunity to comply.
(See WAKE TURBULENCE.)
b. In conjunction with a weather deviation
WAKE TURBULENCE− A phenomenon that occurs clearance, requires the pilot to determine when he/she
when an aircraft develops lift and forms a pair of is clear of weather, then execute ATC instructions.
counter−rotating vortices. c. Once a maneuver has been initiated, the pilot is
(See AIRCRAFT CLASSES.) expected to continue until the specifications of the
(See VORTICES.) instructions have been met. “When able,” should not
(Refer to AIM.) be used when expeditious compliance is required.
WARNING AREA− WIDE-AREA AUGMENTATION SYSTEM
(See SPECIAL USE AIRSPACE.) (WAAS)− The WAAS is a satellite navigation system
consisting of the equipment and software which
WAYPOINT− A predetermined geographical posi- augments the GPS Standard Positioning Service
tion used for route/instrument approach definition, (SPS). The WAAS provides enhanced integrity,
progress reports, published VFR routes, visual accuracy, availability, and continuity over and above
reporting points or points for transitioning and/or GPS SPS. The differential correction function
circumnavigating controlled and/or special use provides improved accuracy required for precision
airspace, that is defined relative to a VORTAC station approach.
or in terms of latitude/longitude coordinates.
WIDE AREA MULTILATERATION (WAM)– A
WEATHER ADVISORY− In aviation weather distributed surveillance technology which may
forecast practice, an expression of hazardous weather utilize any combination of signals from Air Traffic
conditions not predicted in the Aviation Surface Control Radar Beacon System (ATCRBS) (Modes A
Forecast, Aviation Cloud Forecast, or area forecast, and C) and Mode S transponders, and ADS-B
as they affect the operation of air traffic and as transmissions. Multiple geographically dispersed
prepared by the NWS. ground sensors measure the time-of-arrival of the
(See AIRMET.) transponder messages. Aircraft position is deter-
(See SIGMET.) mined by joint processing of the
time-difference-of-arrival (TDOA) measurements
WEATHER RECONNAISSANCE AREA (WRA)− computed between a reference and the ground
A WRA is airspace with defined dimensions and stations’ measured time-of-arrival.
published by Notice to Air Missions, which is
established to support weather reconnaissance/re- WILCO− I have received your message, understand
search flights. Air traffic control services are not it, and will comply with it.
provided within WRAs. Only participating weather WIND GRID DISPLAY− A display that presents the
reconnaissance/research aircraft from the 53rd latest forecasted wind data overlaid on a map of the
Weather Reconnaissance Squadron and National ARTCC area. Wind data is automatically entered and
Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration Aircraft updated periodically by transmissions from the
PCG W−1
6/17/21
National Weather Service. Winds at specific WING TIP VORTICES−

altitudes, along with temperatures and air pressure (See VORTICES.)
can be viewed. WORDS TWICE−
a. As a request: “Communication is difficult.
WIND SHEAR− A change in wind speed and/or wind Please say every phrase twice.”
direction in a short distance resulting in a tearing or
b. As information: “Since communications are
shearing effect. It can exist in a horizontal or vertical
difficult, every phrase in this message will be spoken
direction and occasionally in both.
twice.”
WS−
WIND SHEAR ESCAPE− An unplanned abortive
(See SIGMET.)
maneuver initiated by the pilot in command (PIC) as
(See WEATHER ADVISORY.)
a result of onboard cockpit systems. Wind shear
escapes are characterized by maximum thrust climbs WST−
in the low altitude terminal environment until wind (See CONVECTIVE SIGMET.)
shear conditions are no longer detected. (See WEATHER ADVISORY.)
PCG W−2
12/2/21 JO 7110.65Z CHG 1
INDEX
[References are to page numbers]
A Airport Surface Detection Procedures, 3−6−1

Radar−Only Mode, 3−6−2
ABANDONED APPROACH, 7−6−2 Airport Traffic Control− Terminal, 3−1−1
ABBREVIATED DEPARTURE CLEARANCE, 4−3−4 AIRSPACE CLASSES, 2−4−11
ABBREVIATED TRANSMISSIONS, 2−4−2 AIRSPACE CLASSIFICATION, 12−1−1
ABBREVIATIONS, 1−2−3 AIT, 5−4−4
ACKNOWLEDGEMENT OF AUTOMATED ALERTING SERVICE AND SPECIAL ASSISTANCE,
NOTIFICATION, 13−1−5 10−6−1
ACL, 13−1−1 ALNOT, 10−3−2
ADDITIONAL SEPARATION FOR FORMATION ALNOT CANCELLATION, 10−3−3

FLIGHTS, 5−5−7 ALS INTENSITY SETTINGS, 3−4−2
ADJACENT AIRPORT OPERATION, 6−1−1 ALSF−2/SSALR, 3−4−3
ADJACENT AIRPORT OPERATIONS, 7−8−2 ALTERNATIVE ROUTES, 4−4−3
ADJACENT AIRSPACE, 5−5−7 Altimeter Setting (Oceanic), 8−1−1
ADJUSTED MINIMUM FLIGHT LEVEL, 4−5−2 ALTIMETER SETTING ISSUANCE BELOW
LOWEST USABLE FL, 2−7−1
ADS−B Alerts, 5−2−8
Altimeter Settings, 2−7−1
ADS−B OUT OFF OPERATIONS, 5−2−8
ALTITUDE AMENDMENTS, 4−2−1
ADS−B Systems, 5−2−1
ALTITUDE AND DISTANCE LIMITATIONS, 4−1−1
ADVANCE DESCENT CLEARANCE, 4−7−1
ALTITUDE ASSIGNMENT, 7−5−2
AIDC, 8−2−1
Altitude Assignment and Verification, 4−5−1
AIR DEFENSE EXERCISE BEACON CODE ALTITUDE ASSIGNMENT FOR MILITARY HIGH
ASSIGNMENT, 5−2−3 ALTITUDE INSTRUMENT APPROACHES,
AIR TRAFFIC SERVICE (ATS) ROUTES, 2−5−1 4−8−6
AIR TRAFFIC SERVICES INTERFACILITY DATA ALTITUDE ASSIGNMENTS, 7−7−1
COMMUNICATIONS, 8−2−1 ALTITUDE CHANGE FOR IMPROVED
AIRBORNE MILITARY FLIGHTS, 2−2−4 RECEPTION, 10−2−1
AIRCRAFT BOMB THREATS, 10−2−4 ALTITUDE CONFIRMATION− MODE C, 5−2−5
AIRCRAFT CARRYING DANGEROUS ALTITUDE CONFIRMATION− NON−MODE C,

MATERIALS, 9−2−1 5−2−6
ALTITUDE CONFIRMATION− NONRADAR, 4−5−8
Aircraft Equipment Suffix (Strips), 2−3−10
ALTITUDE FILTERS, 5−2−7
AIRCRAFT IDENTIFICATION, 2−4−8
ALTITUDE FOR DIRECTION OF FLIGHT, 7−3−1
Aircraft Identity (Strips), 2−3−9
ALTITUDE INFORMATION, 4−5−3, 5−11−1
Aircraft Orientation, 10−2−1
ALTITUDE RESTRICTED LOW APPROACH,
Aircraft Type (Strips), 2−3−10 3−10−9
AIRCRAFT TYPES, 2−4−11 ALTITUDE/FLIGHT LEVEL TRANSITION, 8−5−1
AIRPORT CONDITIONS, 3−3−1, 4−7−5 ALTRV CLEARANCE, 4−2−3
AIRPORT GROUND EMERGENCY, 10−1−2 ALTRV INFORMATION, 2−2−2
Airport Lighting, 3−4−1 ANNOTATIONS, 1−2−3
Index I−1
JO 7110.65Z CHG 1 12/2/21
ANTICIPATED ALTITUDE CHANGES, 4−5−8 AUTOMATED INFORMATION TRANSFER, 5−4−4

ANTICIPATING SEPARATION, 3−9−4 AUTOMATIC ALTITUDE REPORTING, 5−2−6
ANTICIPATING SEPARATION (ARRIVAL), 3−10−8 Automation − En Route, 5−14−1
Application, 5−7−1 AVOIDANCE OF AREAS OF NUCLEAR
RADIATION, 9−2−8
Approach Clearance Procedures, 4−8−1
APPROACH CONTROL SERVICE FOR VFR AWACS SPECIAL FLIGHTS, 9−2−8
ARRIVING AIRCRAFT, 7−1−1
APPROACH GUIDANCE TERMINATION, 5−11−2,
5−12−2 B
APPROACH INFORMATION, 4−7−4, 4−8−8, 5−10−1 Balloons, Unmanned Free, 9−6−1
APPROACH INTERVAL, 7−7−1 BEACON CODES FOR PRESSURE SUIT FLIGHTS
APPROACH LIGHTS, 3−4−2 AND FLIGHTS ABOVE FL 600, 5−2−3
APPROACH SEPARATION RESPONSIBILITY, 5−9−4 Beacon Systems, 5−2−1
APPROACH SEQUENCE, 6−7−1 BEACON TARGET DISPLACEMENT, 5−5−8
APPROACHES TO MULTIPLE RUNWAYS, 7−4−2 BEACON TERMINATION, 5−2−7
Arctic CTA, 8−10−1 BEACON/ADS−B IDENTIFICATION METHODS,

5−3−1
ARRESTING SYSTEM OPERATION, 3−3−3
Beacon/ADS−B Systems, 5−2−1
ARRIVAL INFORMATION, 4−7−3
BELOW MINIMA REPORT BY PILOT, 4−7−4
ARRIVAL INFORMATION BY APPROACH
CONTROL FACILITIES, 4−7−5 BIRD ACTIVITY INFORMATION, 2−1−12
ARRIVAL INSTRUCTIONS, 5−9−2 BLUE LIGHTNING EVENTS, 2−1−15
ARRIVAL MINIMA, 6−1−1 BRAKING ACTION, 3−3−2
Arrival Procedures, 4−7−1 BRAKING ACTION ADVISORIES, 3−3−2
Arrival Procedures and Separation (ATCT), 3−10−1
ARRIVAL SEPARATION, 3−12−1 C
ARRIVAL/DEPARTURE RUNWAY VISIBILITY,
2−8−1 Canadian Airspace Procedures, 12−1−1
ATC Assigned Airspace, 9−3−1 CANCELLATION OF IFR FLIGHT PLAN, 4−2−4
ATC SECURITY SERVICES FOR THE CANCELLATION OF TAKEOFF CLEARANCE,
WASHINGTON, DC, SPECIAL FLIGHT RULES 3−9−13
AREA (DC SFRA), 9−2−4 Caribbean ICAO Region, 8−8−1
ATC SERVICE, 2−1−1 CELESTIAL NAVIGATION TRAINING, 9−2−1
ATC SURVEILLANCE SOURCE USE, 5−1−1 CHARTED VISUAL FLIGHT PROCEDURES
ATIS Application, 2−9−1 (CVFP). USA/USN NOT APPLICABLE, 7−4−4
ATIS Content, 2−9−2 CIRCLING APPROACH, 4−8−7
ATIS Procedures, 2−9−1 CLASS A AIRSPACE, 9−7−1
ATOP − Oceanic, 13−2−1 CLASS A AIRSPACE RESTRICTIONS, 7−1−1
AUTHORIZED INTERRUPTIONS, 2−4−1 CLASS B AIRSPACE, 9−7−1
AUTHORIZED RELAYS, 2−4−2 CLASS B SEPARATION, 7−9−2
AUTHORIZED TRANSMISSIONS, 2−4−1 Class B Service Area (Terminal), 7−9−1
I−2 Index
12/2/21 JO 7110.65Z CHG 1
CLASS C AIRSPACE, 9−7−1 CONTROL ESTIMATES, 8−1−1

CLASS C SEPARATION, 7−8−1 Control Symbology (Strip), 2−3−12
Class C Service (Terminal), 7−8−1 CONTROL TRANSFER, 2−1−8, 7−6−2
CLASS C SERVICES, 7−8−1 CONTROLLER INITIATED COAST TRACKS,
5−14−3
CLASS D AIRSPACE, 9−7−1
CONTROLLER PILOT DATA LINK
CLASS G AIRSPACE, 4−4−3 COMMUNICATIONS, 13−2−3
CLEARANCE BEYOND FIX, 4−6−2 Controller Pilot Data Link Communications (CPDLC),
CLEARANCE FOR VISUAL APPROACH, 7−4−1 2−4−4, 4−5−4
CLEARANCE INFORMATION (ARRIVALS), 4−7−1 COORDINATE USE OF AIRSPACE, 2−1−8
CLEARANCE ITEMS, 4−2−1, 4−2−3 COORDINATION BETWEEN LOCAL AND
GROUND CONTROLLERS, 3−1−2
CLEARANCE LIMIT, 4−8−6
COORDINATION WITH RECEIVING FACILITY,
CLEARANCE PREFIX, 4−2−1 4−3−8
CLEARANCE RELAY, 4−2−1 COURSE DEFINITIONS, 1−2−2
Clearance Status (Strips), 2−3−11 COURSE DIVERGENCE, 8−5−1
CLEARANCE TO HOLDING FIX, 4−6−1 CPDLC, 13−2−3
CLEARANCE VOID TIMES, 4−3−7 CROSSING ALTITUDE, 4−1−2
Clearances, 4−2−1 CURRENCY OF TRAJECTORY INFORMATION,
13−1−5
CLIMB TO VFR, 7−5−3
CURRENT SETTINGS, 2−7−1
CLOSED RUNWAY INFORMATION, 3−3−1
CVFP, 7−4−4
CLOSED TRAFFIC, 3−10−9
COAST TRACKS, 5−14−2
CODE MONITOR, 5−2−4 D
COMMUNICATION TRANSFER, 5−12−2 DC SFRA, 9−2−4
COMMUNICATIONS CHECK, 5−10−4 DECISION HEIGHT, 5−12−1
COMMUNICATIONS FAILURE, 10−4−1 DECISION HEIGHT (DH) NOTIFICATION, 5−12−1
COMMUNICATIONS RELEASE, 4−8−7 Decision Support Tools, 13−1−1
COMPUTER ENTRY OF FLIGHT PLAN DEGREE-DISTANCE ROUTE DEFINITION FOR
INFORMATION, 5−14−1 MILITARY OPERATIONS, 4−4−3
COMPUTER MESSAGE VERIFICATION, 2−2−2 DELAY SEQUENCING, 4−3−8
CONFLICT ALERT (CA), 5−14−1 DELAYS, 4−6−2
CONFLICT ALERT/MODE C INTRUDER (MCI) DELIVERY INSTRUCTIONS, 4−2−1
(STARS), 5−15−2
DEPARTURE AND ARRIVAL, 5−8−3
CONFLICT DETECTION AND RESOLUTION,
13−1−1, 13−2−1 DEPARTURE CLEARANCE/COMMUNICATION
FAILURE, 12−1−1
CONFLICT PROBE-BASED CLEARANCES, 13−1−1
DEPARTURE CLEARANCES, 4−3−1
CONSTRAINTS GOVERNING SUPPLEMENTS AND
DEPARTURE CONTROL INSTRUCTIONS, 3−9−2
PROCEDURAL DEVIATIONS, 1−1−2
DEPARTURE DELAY INFORMATION, 3−9−1
CONTINGENCIES IN OCEANIC CONTROLLED
AIRSPACE, 8−9−3 DEPARTURE INFORMATION, 3−9−1
Index I−3
JO 7110.65Z CHG 1 12/2/21
Departure Procedures, 4−3−1 EMERGENCY LANDING PATTERN (ELP)

OPERATIONS, 3−10−10
Departure Procedures and Separation (ATCT), 3−9−1
EMERGENCY LIGHTING, 3−4−1
DEPARTURE RELEASE, 4−3−7
EMERGENCY LOCATOR TRANSMITTER (ELT)
DEPARTURE RESTRICTIONS, 4−3−7 SIGNALS, 10−2−3
DEPARTURE SEPARATION, 3−12−1 EMERGENCY OBSTRUCTION VIDEO MAP
DEPARTURE TERMINOLOGY, 4−3−1 (EOVM), 10−2−6
DEPARTURES AND ARRIVALS ON PARALLEL OR Emergency Procedures (Oceanic), 10−6−1
NONINTERSECTING DIVERGING RUNWAYS, EMERGENCY SITUATIONS, 10−2−1
5−8−4
EMPHASIS FOR CLARITY, 2−4−4
DERELICT BALLOONS, 9−6−2
En Route Data Entries (Strips), 2−3−3
DESCENT INSTRUCTION, 5−12−1
En Route Decision Support Tool (EDST), 13−1−1
DESCENT INSTRUCTIONS, 5−11−1
EN ROUTE FOURTH LINE DATA BLOCK USAGE,
DESCENT NOTIFICATION, 5−11−1 5−4−5
DEVIATION ADVISORIES, 5−1−3 EN ROUTE MINIMUM SAFE ALTITUDE WARNING
(E-MSAW), 5−14−1
DIRECT CLEARANCES, 4−4−4
EN ROUTE OR OCEANIC SECTOR TEAM
DISSEMINATING OFFICIAL WEATHER
POSITION RESPONSIBILITIES, 2−10−1
INFORMATION, 2−6−5
EN ROUTE TARGET MARKERS, 5−3−3
DISTANCE FROM TOUCHDOWN, 5−12−1
ENTRY OF REPORTED ALTITUDE, 5−14−2
DL, 13−1−1
EOVM, 10−2−6
DME ARC MINIMA, 6−5−2
EQUIPMENT USAGE, 3−6−1
DUPLICATE POSITION REPORTS, 6−1−1
ERAM − En Route, 13−1−1
DUTY PRIORITY, 2−1−1
ERAM COMPUTER ENTRY OF HOLD
INFORMATION, 5−14−3
E ERAM VISUAL INDICATOR OF SPECIAL

ACTIVITY AIRSPACE (SAA) STATUS, 5−14−3
E−MSAW, 5−14−1 ESTABLISHING TWO−WAY COMMUNICATIONS,
EDGE OF SCOPE, 5−5−8 3−1−6
ESTABLISHING TWO-WAY COMMUNICATIONS,
EDST, 13−1−1
7−8−1
ELECTRONIC ATTACK (EA) ACTIVITY, 5−1−1
EVASIVE ACTION MANEUVER, 9−2−9
ELEVATION FAILURE, 5−12−2 EXCEPTIONS, 4−1−1
ELT, 10−2−3 EXPEDITIOUS COMPLIANCE, 2−1−4
Emergencies, 10−1−1 EXPERIMENTAL AIRCRAFT OPERATIONS, 9−2−1
EMERGENCY AIRPORT RECOMMENDATION, EXPLOSIVE CARGO, 10−5−1
10−2−6
EXPLOSIVE DETECTION K−9 TEAMS, 10−2−5
Emergency Assistance, 10−2−1
EXTENDED NOTIFICATION, 10−7−1
Emergency Autoland, 10−1−1, 10−2−1, 10−2−6
EMERGENCY CODE ASSIGNMENT, 5−2−1
Emergency Control Actions, 10−4−1 F
EMERGENCY DETERMINATIONS, 10−1−1 FACILITY IDENTIFICATION, 2−4−8
I−4 Index
12/2/21 JO 7110.65Z CHG 1
FAILED TRANSPONDER OR ADS−B OUT

TRANSMITTER, 5−2−4
G
FAILURE TO DISPLAY ASSIGNED BEACON General Control, 2−1−1
CODE, 5−2−4 GLIDEPATH AND COURSE INFORMATION, 5−12−1
FALSE OR DECEPTIVE COMMUNICATIONS, 2−4−2 GLIDEPATH NOTIFICATION, 5−12−1
FAMILIARIZATION, 2−6−1 GPD, 13−1−5
FAR FIELD MONITOR (FFM) REMOTE STATUS Ground Missile Emergencies, 10−7−1
UNIT, 3−3−4
GROUND OPERATIONS, 3−7−5
FFM, 3−3−4
GROUND OPERATIONS RELATED TO
FINAL APPROACH ABNORMALITIES, 5−10−5 THREE/FOUR−HOUR TARMAC RULE, 3−1−6
Final Approach Course Interception, 5−9−1 GROUND OPERATIONS WHEN VOLCANIC ASH IS
FINAL APPROACH GUIDANCE, 5−11−1 PRESENT, 3−1−6
FINAL APPROACH OBSTACLE CLEARANCE GROUND STOP, 4−3−8

SURFACES, 3−7−6 GROUND TRAFFIC MOVEMENT, 3−7−1
FINAL CONTROLLER CHANGEOVER, 5−10−3 GROUND VISIBILITY BELOW ONE MILE, 7−5−3
FIX USE, 4−1−2 GUIDANCE TO EMERGENCY AIRPORT, 10−2−6
FLIGHT CHECK AIRCRAFT, 9−1−1
FLIGHT DIRECTION, 4−5−1 H
Flight Direction Exceptions, 4−5−1
HAZARDOUS INFLIGHT WEATHER ADVISORY,
Flight Plans and Control Information, 2−2−1 2−6−6
Flight Progress Strips, 2−3−1 Helicopter Arrival Separation, 3−11−3
FLIGHT VISIBILITY BELOW ONE MILE, 7−5−4 HELICOPTER DEPARTURE SEPARATION, 3−11−2
FLYNET, 9−2−2 Helicopter Landing Clearance, 3−11−4
FORECAST WINDS, 13−1−6 Helicopter Operations, 3−11−1
FORMATION FLIGHTS, 2−1−7 HELICOPTER TAKEOFF CLEARANCE, 3−11−1
FORWARD DEPARTURE DELAY INFORMATION, HELICOPTER TRAFFIC, 7−7−1, 7−9−2
4−3−8
HIGH INTENSITY RUNWAY LIGHTS, 3−4−4
FORWARDING AMENDED AND UTM DATA, 2−2−3 HIGH SPEED TURNOFF LIGHTS, 3−4−4
FORWARDING APPROACH INFORMATION BY HIJACK, 5−2−2
NONAPPROACH CONTROL FACILITIES,
3−10−1 HIJACKED AIRCRAFT, 10−2−2
FORWARDING DEPARTURE TIMES, 4−3−9 HIRL, 3−4−4
FORWARDING FLIGHT PLAN DATA BETWEEN HIRL ASSOCIATED WITH MALSR, 3−4−4
U.S. ARTCCs AND CANADIAN ACCs, 2−2−4 HIRL Changes Affecting RVR, 3−4−4
FORWARDING INFORMATION, 2−2−1 HOLD FOR RELEASE, 4−3−7
FORWARDING VFR DATA, 2−2−1 HOLDING, 7−6−1, 13−1−2
FREQUENCY CHANGES, 10−2−1 Holding Aircraft, 4−6−1
Fuel Dumping, 9−4−1 HOLDING FLIGHT PATH DEVIATION, 4−6−3
FUNCTIONAL USE, 5−15−1 HOLDING INSTRUCTIONS, 4−6−3
FURNISH RVR VALUES, 2−8−1 HOLDING PATTERN SURVEILLANCE, 5−1−3
Index I−5
JO 7110.65Z CHG 1 12/2/21
I INTERSECTING RUNWAY/INTERSECTING
FLIGHT PATH OPERATIONS, 3−9−9
ICAO PHONETICS, 2−4−5 INTERVAL MINIMA, 6−7−2
IDENTIFICATION, 3−6−1 ISSUANCE OF EFC, 7−7−1
IDENTIFICATION STATUS, 5−3−2 ISSUING WEATHER AND CHAFF AREAS, 2−6−3
IFR, 4−1−1
IFR − VFR FLIGHTS, 4−2−3 J
IFR AND SVFR MINIMA, 10−7−1
Jettisoning of External Stores, 9−5−1
IFR FLIGHT PROGRESS DATA, 2−2−1
IFR MILITARY TRAINING ROUTES, 9−2−2
IFR to VFR Flight Plan Change, 2−2−1
K
ILS PROTECTION/CRITICAL AREAS, 4−6−3 K−9 Teams, 10−2−5
INFLIGHT CONTINGENCIES, 10−6−2

INFLIGHT DEVIATIONS FROM L
TRANSPONDER/MODE C REQUIREMENTS
BETWEEN 10,000 FEET AND 18,000 FEET, LANDING AREA CONDITION, 3−3−1
5−2−6
LANDING CHECK, 5−10−3
INFLIGHT EMERGENCIES INVOLVING MILITARY
LANDING CLEARANCE, 3−10−6
FIGHTER-TYPE AIRCRAFT, 10−1−2
LANDING CLEARANCE WITHOUT VISUAL
INFLIGHT EQUIPMENT MALFUNCTIONS, 2−1−5
OBSERVATION, 3−10−8
INFORMATION TO BE FORWARDED TO ARTCC, LANDING INFORMATION, 3−10−1
10−3−1
LAST KNOWN POSITION DETERMINATION,
INFORMATION TO BE FORWARDED TO RCC, 10−3−3
10−3−1
Lateral Separation (Nonradar), 6−5−1
INFORMATION USAGE, 3−6−1
Lateral Separation (Oceanic), 8−4−1
INHIBITING MINIMUM SAFE ALTITUDE
WARNING (MSAW), 5−15−2 LAW ENFORCEMENT OPERATIONS, 9−2−5
INITIAL CONTACT, 7−6−1 LEVEL FLIGHT RESTRICTION, 6−7−2
Initial Heading, 5−8−1 Light Signals (ATCT), 3−2−1

LIGHTING REQUIREMENTS, 10−4−1
INOPERATIVE INTERRAGATOR, 5−2−4
LINE UP AND WAIT, 3−9−2
INOPERATIVE OR MALFUNCTIONING ADS-B
TRANSMITTER, 5−2−7 LOA, 1−1−2
INTERCEPTOR OPERATIONS, 9−2−3 LOCAL OPERATIONS, 7−5−3
INTERFACILITY CONNECTIVITY, 13−1−6 Longitudinal Separation (Nonradar), 6−4−1
INTERPHONE MESSAGE FORMAT, 2−4−3 Longitudinal Separation (Oceanic), 8−3−1
INTERPHONE MESSAGE TERMINATION, 2−4−4 LOST COMMUNICATIONS, 5−10−2
INTERPHONE TRANSMISSION PRIORITIES, 2−4−2 LOW APPROACH, 4−8−9
INTERPRETATIONS, 1−1−2 LOW APPROACH AND TOUCH-AND-GO, 5−10−4

Low Level Wind Shear/Microburst Advisories, 3−1−3
INTERSECTING RUNWAY SEPARATION
(ARRIVAL), 3−10−3 LOWEST USABLE FLIGHT LEVEL, 4−5−2
I−6 Index
12/2/21 JO 7110.65Z CHG 1
LUAW, 3−9−2 MIRL, 3−4−4

Miscellaneous Operations, 10−5−1
MISSED APPROACH, 4−8−7, 5−10−4
M MISSED APPROACHES, 6−7−2
MACH NUMBER TECHNIQUE, 8−3−2 MODE C INTRUDER (MCI) ALERT, 5−14−1
MALFUNCTIONING INTERROGATOR, 5−2−4 MONITOR AVAILABILITY, 5−13−1
MALFUNCTIONING TRANSPONDER, 5−2−4 MONITOR INFORMATION, 5−13−1
MALSR/ODALS, 3−4−2 MONITOR ON PAR EQUIPMENT, 5−13−1
MONITORING RADIOS, 2−4−1
Man−Portable Air Defense Systems (MANPADS) Alert,
10−2−5 MSAW, 5−15−2
MANPADS ALERT, 10−2−5
MANUAL COORDINATION AND THE URET N
COORDINATION MENU, 13−1−2
NAT, 8−7−3
MANUAL FIX POSTING, 5−1−3
NAVAID FIXES, 2−5−2
MANUAL INPUT OF COMPUTER-ASSIGNED
NAVAID MALFUNCTIONS, 2−1−5
BEACON CODES, 2−2−2
NAVAID TERMS, 2−5−1
MARSA, 2−1−6
NAVAID Use Limitations, 4−1−1
MEA, 4−5−2
NO-GYRO APPROACH, 5−10−2
MEDIUM INTENSITY RUNWAY LIGHTS, 3−4−4
NONINTERSECTING CONVERGING RUNWAY
MERGING TARGET PROCEDURES, 5−1−2 OPERATIONS, 3−9−10
SPEED ADJUSTMENT − METHODS, 5−7−2 Nonradar, 6−1−1
MILITARY AERIAL REFUELING, 9−2−5 Nonradar Initial Separation of Departing and Arriving
Aircraft, 6−3−1
MILITARY DVFR DEPARTURES, 2−2−1
Nonradar Initial Separation of Successive Departing
MILITARY OPERATIONS ABOVE FL 600, 9−2−7 Aircraft, 6−2−1
MILITARY PROCEDURES, 2−1−6 Nonradar Timed Approaches, 6−7−1
MILITARY SINGLE FREQUENCY APPROACHES, NONRECEIPT OF POSITION REPORT, 6−1−1
5−10−5 NONSTANDARD FORMATION/CELL
MILITARY SPECIAL USE FREQUENCIES, 9−2−7 OPERATIONS, 9−2−9
NORAD SPECIAL FLIGHTS, 9−2−8
MILITARY TURBOJET EN ROUTE DESCENT,
4−7−2 North American ICAO Region, 8−10−1
MINIMA ALONG OTHER THAN ESTABLISHED NORTH AMERICAN ROUTE PROGRAM (NRP)
AIRWAYS OR ROUTES, 6−5−2 INFORMATION, 2−2−5
MINIMA ON DIVERGING COURSES, 6−2−1 North Atlantic ICAO Region, 8−7−1
NOTES, 1−2−2
MINIMA ON DIVERGING RADIALS, 6−5−1
NRP, 2−2−5
MINIMA ON OPPOSITE COURSES, 6−4−5
NUMBER CLARIFICATION, 2−4−7
MINIMA ON SAME COURSE, 6−2−3
NUMBERS USAGE, 2−4−5
MINIMA ON SAME, CONVERGING, OR CROSSING
COURSES, 6−4−1
MINIMUM EN ROUTE ALTITUDES, 4−5−2 O
MINIMUM FUEL, 2−1−5 OBSERVED ABNORMALITIES, 3−1−5
Index I−7
JO 7110.65Z CHG 1 12/2/21
OBSTRUCTION LIGHTS, 3−4−5 POSITION INFORMATION, 5−3−2, 5−10−3

Oceanic Coordination, 8−2−1 Position Report (Oceanic), 8−1−1
Oceanic Data Entries, 2−3−5 POSITION REPORTING (RADAR), 5−1−3
OCEANIC ERROR REPORT PROCEDURES, 8−1−1 Position Responsibilities, 2−10−1
Oceanic Procedures, 8−1−1 PRACTICE APPROACHES, 4−8−8
Oceanic Transition Procedures, 8−5−1 PRACTICE PRECAUTIONARY APPROACHES,
3−10−10
OCS, 3−7−6
PREARRANGED COORDINATION, 5−4−5
Offshore Procedures, 8−1−1
PRECISION APPROACH CRITICAL AREA, 3−7−5
Offshore Transition Procedures, 8−5−1
PRECISION APPROACH PATH INDICATORS (PAPI),
ONE THOUSAND−ON−TOP, 12−1−1 3−4−1
OPEN SKIES TREATY AIRCRAFT, 9−2−10 PRECISION OBSTACLE FREE ZONE, 3−7−6
OPERATIONAL PRIORITY, 2−1−2 PRESENTATION AND EQUIPMENT
OPERATIONAL REQUESTS, 2−1−10 PERFORMANCE, 5−1−1
PREVENTIVE CONTROL, 3−1−1
OPERATIONS IN OFFSHORE AIRSPACE AREAS,
8−1−1 PRIMARY HOST OUTAGES, 13−1−6
OPPOSITE DIRECTION, 8−5−1 PRIMARY RADAR IDENTIFICATION METHODS,
5−3−1
OTHER CONTROL AIRSPACE, 9−7−1
PRIORITY INTERRUPTION, 2−4−3
OVERDUE AIRCRAFT, 10−3−1, 13−1−5
PROCEDURAL LETTERS OF AGREEMENT (LOA),
OVERDUE AIRCRAFT/OTHER SITUATIONS, 1−1−2
10−3−1
PROCEDURAL PREFERENCE, 2−1−2
OVERHEAD MANEUVER, 3−10−9
PROCEDURES FOR WEATHER DEVIATIONS IN
NORTH ATLANTIC (NAT) AIRSPACE, 8−7−3
P PROVIDE SERVICE, 3−1−1
Pacific ICAO Region, 8−9−1

PAPI, 3−4−1 Q
PAR Approaches − Terminal, 5−12−1 QUESTIONABLE IDENTIFICATION, 5−3−2
PARACHUTE JUMPING, 12−1−2
Parachute Operations, 9−7−1 R
PASSING OR DIVERGING, 5−5−6
Radar, 5−1−1
PHASES OF EMERGENCY, 10−6−1
Radar Approaches − Terminal, 5−10−1
PILOT ACKNOWLEDGMENT/READ BACK, 2−4−1
Radar Arrivals, 5−9−1
PILOT DEVIATION NOTIFICATION, 2−1−13
RADAR ASSISTANCE TECHNIQUES, 10−2−3
PIREP SOLICITATION AND DISSEMINATION,
2−6−1 RADAR ASSISTANCE TO VFR AIRCRAFT IN
WEATHER DIFFICULTY, 10−2−2
POFZ, 3−7−6
RADAR BEACON CHANGES FOR MILITARY
POINT OUT, 5−4−4 AIRCRAFT, 4−7−2
POSITION ADVISORIES, 5−12−1 RADAR BEACON CODE CHANGES, 5−2−1
Position Determination (Airports), 3−1−3 RADAR CONTACT LOST, 5−10−3
I−8 Index
12/2/21 JO 7110.65Z CHG 1
Radar Departures, 5−8−1 RNAV MINIMA− DIVERGING/CROSSING

COURSES, 6−5−4
Radar Identification, 5−3−1
ROTATING BEACON, 3−4−5
RADAR IDENTIFICATION APPLICATION, 8−5−2
ROUTE AMENDMENTS, 4−2−1
Radar Separation, 5−5−1
Route and NAVAID Description, 2−5−1
Radar Separation Application, 5−5−1
Route Assignment, 4−4−1
RADAR SEPARATION MINIMA, 5−5−2
ROUTE STRUCTURE TRANSITIONS, 4−4−2
RADAR SEPARATION VERTICAL APPLICATION,
5−5−5 ROUTE USE, 4−4−1
RADAR SERVICE TERMINATION, 5−1−3 RUNWAY EDGE LIGHTS, 3−4−3
RADAR−ONLY MODE, 3−6−2 RUNWAY END IDENTIFIER LIGHTS, 3−4−1
Radio and Interphone Communications, 2−4−1 RUNWAY EXITING, 3−10−8
RADIO COMMUNICATIONS, 2−1−9, 2−4−1 RUNWAY PROXIMITY, 3−7−5

Runway Selection, 3−5−1
RADIO FAILURE, 5−2−2
RUNWAY STATUS LIGHTS (RWSL), 3−4−5
RADIO FREQUENCY FOR MILITARY AIRCRAFT,
4−7−2 RVR, 2−8−1
RADIO MESSAGE FORMAT, 2−4−2 RVR/RVV, 2−8−1
RCC, 10−3−2 RVSM, 2−1−14
Receiver−Only Acknowledgment (ATCT), 3−2−1 RVSM OPERATIONS, 8−1−1
RECEIVING CONTROLLER HANDOFF, 5−4−3 RWSL, 3−4−5
RECORDING INFORMATION, 2−2−1
RECORDING OF CONTROL DATA, 13−1−2 S
REDUCED VERTICAL SEPARATION MINIMUM
(RVSM), 2−1−14 SAA, 5−14−3
SAFETY ALERT, 2−1−4
REDUCTION OF ROUTE PROTECTED AIRSPACE,
8−4−3 SAFETY LOGIC ALERT RESPONSES, 3−6−1
REFERENCES, 1−2−3 SAFETY MANAGEMENT SYSTEM (SMS), 1−1−3
REFUSAL OF AVOIDANCE CLEARANCE, 8−6−1 SAME DIRECTION, 8−5−1
REIL, 3−4−1 SAME RUNWAY SEPARATION, 3−9−4
RELAYED APPROACH CLEARANCE, 4−8−6 SAME RUNWAY SEPARATION (ARRIVAL), 3−10−2
RELEASE TIMES, 4−3−7 SAMP Flights, 9−2−8
REPORTING DEATH, ILLNESS, OR OTHER SAR, 10−3−1
PUBLIC HEALTH RISK ON BOARD SATR, 9−2−3
AIRCRAFT, 10−2−7
Sea Lane Operations, 3−12−1
REPORTING ESSENTIAL FLIGHT INFORMATION,
2−1−5 Search and Rescue, 10−3−1
REPORTING WEATHER CONDITIONS, 2−6−2 SECNOT, 9−2−5
RESEARCH AND DEVELOPMENT FLIGHTS, 9−2−1 SECTOR ELIGIBILITY, 5−14−2
RESPONSIBILITY TRANSFER TO RCC, 10−3−2 SECURITY NOTICE (SECNOT), 9−2−5

SELECTED ALTITUDE LIMITS, 5−14−2
RNAV AIRCRAFT ALONG VOR
AIRWAYS/ROUTES, 6−4−6 SELECTION, 3−5−1
Index I−9
JO 7110.65Z CHG 1 12/2/21
SEPARATION BY PILOTS, 6−4−6, 6−6−1 SPECIAL AIR TRAFFIC RULES (SATR) AND
SPECIAL FLIGHT RULES AREA (SFRA), 9−2−3
Separation from Airspace Reservations, 8−6−1
Special Flights, 9−1−1
SEPARATION FROM OBSTRUCTIONS, 5−5−7
SPECIAL HANDLING, 9−1−1
SEPARATION METHODS, 6−5−1, 8−4−1
SPECIAL INTEREST SITES, 9−2−3
SEPARATION MINIMA, 6−3−1
Special Operations, 9−2−1
SEQUENCE INTERRUPTION, 6−7−2
Special Use Airspace, 9−3−1
Sequence/Spacing Application, 3−8−1
Special VFR, 7−5−1
SEQUENCED FLASHING LIGHTS (SFL), 3−4−2 SPECIAL VFR (SVFR), 12−1−2
SERVICE PROVIDED WHEN TOWER IS SPECIFYING ALTITUDE, 4−8−7
INOPERATIVE, 7−6−2
Speed Adjustment, 5−7−1
SERVICES TO RESCUE AIRCRAFT, 10−6−3
SPEED ASSIGNMENTS, 5−7−4
SFA, 4−7−1
Standard Operating Practice (SOP) for Aircraft
SFL, 3−4−2 Deviating for Weather Near Active Special
SFRA, 9−2−4 Activity Airspace (SAA), Appendix B−1
Standard Terminal Automation Replacement System
SIDE−STEP MANEUVER, 4−8−7
(STARS), 5−15−1
SIMULATED FLAMEOUT (SFO) APPROACHES, STANDBY OPERATION, 5−2−4
3−10−10
STARS, 5−15−1
SIMULTANEOUS DEPARTURES, 5−8−1
STOL RUNWAYS, 3−5−1
SIMULTANEOUS DEPENDENT APPROACHES,
5−9−5 Stop−and−Go Low Approach, 3−8−1
SIMULTANEOUS INDEPENDENT APPROACHES SUCCESSIVE DEPARTURES, 5−8−1

TO WIDELY-SPACED PARALLEL RUNWAYS SUPERVISORY NOTIFICATION, 2−1−13
WITHOUT FINAL MONITORS, 5−9−11
SURFACE AREA RESTRICTIONS, 3−1−6
SIMULTANEOUS INDEPENDENT APPROACHES−
SURFACE AREAS, 2−1−8
DUAL & TRIPLE, 5−9−6
Surveillance Approaches − Terminal, 5−11−1
SIMULTANEOUS INDEPENDENT CLOSE
PARALLEL APPROACHES –PRECISION SURVEILLANCE UNUSABLE, 5−12−3
RUNWAY MONITOR (PRM) APPROACHES, SVFR, 7−5−1, 12−1−2
5−9−9
SWITCHING ILS RUNWAYS, 4−7−6
Simultaneous Landings or Takeoffs (Helicopter),
3−11−3
SIMULTANEOUS OFFSET INSTRUMENT T
APPROACHES (SOIA), 5−9−9
TAILWIND COMPONENTS, 3−5−1
SIMULTANEOUS OPPOSITE DIRECTION
OPERATION, 3−8−2 TAKEOFF CLEARANCE, 3−9−12
Simultaneous Same Direction Operation, 3−8−1 TARGET RESOLUTION, 5−5−2
SINGLE FREQUENCY APPROACHES, 4−7−1 TARGET SEPARATION, 5−5−1
SMOKE COLUMN AVOIDANCE, 10−7−1 TAWS, 2−1−15
SMS, 1−1−3 TAXI AND GROUND MOVEMENT OPERATION,

3−11−1
Spacing and Sequencing (ATCT), 3−8−1
TAXI AND GROUND MOVEMENT OPERATIONS,
SPECIAL ACTIVITY AIRSPACE, 5−14−3 3−7−2
I−10 Index
12/2/21 JO 7110.65Z CHG 1
Taxi and Ground Movement Procedures, 3−7−1 TRAFFIC ADVISORIES, 2−1−11

TAXIWAY LIGHTS, 3−4−4 TRAFFIC INFORMATION, 3−1−2
TBFM, 11−1−2 Traffic Management Procedures, 11−1−1
TCAS RESOLUTION ADVISORIES, 2−1−13 TRAFFIC RESTRICTIONS, 10−4−1
TEAM RESPONSIBILITIES − MULTIPLE PERSON TRAFFIC RESUMPTION, 10−4−1
OPERATION, 13−2−4
TRAFFIC − TRANSFER OF RADAR
TELETYPE FLIGHT DATA FORMAT− U.S. ARTCCs IDENTIFICATION, 5−4−2
− CANADIAN ACCs, 2−2−4
TRANSFER OF CONTROL AND
TEMPORARY MOVING AIRSPACE COMMUNICATIONS, 8−2−1
RESERVATIONS, 8−6−1
TRANSFER OF JURISDICTION, 4−7−4
TEMPORARY STATIONARY AIRSPACE
RESERVATIONS, 8−6−1 Transfer of Position (SOP), Appendix A−1
TERMINAL − TARGET MARKERS, 5−3−3 TRANSFER OF POSITION RESPONSIBILITY,
2−1−13
TERMINAL AUTOMATION SYSTEMS
IDENTIFICATION METHODS, 5−3−2 Transfer of Radar Identification, 5−4−1
Terminal Data Entries (Strips), 2−3−6 TRANSFER OR RADAR IDENTIFICATION −
METHODS, 5−4−1
Terminal Radar Service Area, 7−7−1
TRANSFERRING CONTROLLER HANDOFF, 5−4−2
TERMINAL RADAR/NONRADAR TEAM POSITION
RESPONSIBILITIES, 2−10−2 TRANSITING ACTIVE SUA/ATCAA, 9−3−2
SPEED ADJUSTMENT − TERMINATION , 5−7−4 TRANSITIONAL PROCEDURE, 5−9−13
TERMINOLOGY, 2−8−1 TRANSMISSION ACKNOWLEDGMENT, 5−10−4
TERMS − TRANSFER OF RADAR TRANSMIT PROPOSED FLIGHT PLAN, 2−2−3
IDENTIFICATION, 5−4−1
TRIAL PLANNING, 13−1−1
Terms of Reference, 1−2−1
TRSA, 7−7−1
TERRAIN AWARENESS WARNING SYSTEM
(TAWS) ALERTS, 2−1−15 TRSA DEPARTURE INFORMATION, 7−7−1
THE AIRCRAFT LIST (ACL), DEPARTURE LIST TRSA SEPARATION, 7−7−1

(DL) AND FLIGHT DATA MANAGEMENT, TYPES OF SEPARATION, 8−1−1
13−1−1
THROUGH CLEARANCES, 4−2−3
TIME BASED FLOW MANAGEMENT (TBFM), U
11−1−2
UAS, 2−1−12
TIME CHECK, 6−7−2
UFO, 9−8−1
TIMELY INFORMATION, 3−3−2
UNAUTHORIZED LASER ILLUMINATION OF
Touch−and−Go Low Approach, 3−8−1 AIRCRAFT, 2−9−2, 10−2−6
TOUCH-AND-GO, 4−8−9 Unidentified Flying Object (UFO) Reports, 9−8−1
TOUCHDOWN ZONE LIGHTS, 3−4−4 UNLAWFUL INTERFERENCE, 5−2−2
TOWER CLEARANCE, 5−10−4
UNMANNED AIRCRAFT SYSTEM (UAS)
TOWER TEAM POSITION RESPONSIBILITIES, ACTIVITY INFORMATION., 2−1−12
2−10−4
UNMANNED AIRCRAFT SYSTEMS (UAS) LOST
TRACK SEPARATION, 8−4−4 LINK, 5−2−2
TRACK SUSPEND FUNCTION, 5−15−2 Unmanned Free Balloons, 9−6−1
Index I−11
JO 7110.65Z CHG 1 12/2/21
UNMONITORED NAVAIDs, 4−6−3 VFR DEPARTURE INFORMATION, 7−6−2

UNSAFE RUNWAY INFORMATION, 3−3−1 VFR FLIGHT PLANS, 8−1−1
URET AIRSPACE CONFIGURATION ELEMENTS, VFR MINIMA, 10−7−1
13−1−6 VFR RELEASE OF IFR DEPARTURE, 4−3−9
USAF/USN Undergraduate Pilots (Strips), 2−3−10 VFR-ON-TOP, 7−3−1
USE OF ACTIVE RUNWAYS, 3−1−1 VFR-ON-TOP (NAVAID), 4−1−2
USE OF GRAPHICS PLAN DISPLAY (GPD), 13−1−5 Visual, 7−1−1
USE OF MARSA, 2−1−6 VISUAL APPROACH SLOPE INDICATORS, 3−4−1
Use of PAR for Approach Monitoring − Terminal, Visual Approaches, 7−4−1
5−13−1
VISUAL HOLDING OF VFR AIRCRAFT, 7−1−1
USE OF TOWER RADAR DISPLAYS, 3−1−5
VISUAL HOLDING POINTS, 4−6−3
VISUAL REFERENCE REPORT, 5−11−1
V VISUAL SEPARATION, 7−2−1
VALIDATION OF MODE C READOUT, 5−2−4 Visual Signals (ATCT), 3−2−1
VASI, 3−4−1 VISUALLY SCANNING RUNWAYS, 3−1−6

VOLCANIC ASH, 10−2−7
Vectoring, 5−6−1
VECTORS ACROSS FINAL APPROACH COURSE,
5−9−2
W
VECTORS BELOW MINIMUM ALTITUDE, 5−6−3
WAKE TURBULENCE, 2−1−10
VECTORS FOR VISUAL APPROACH, 7−4−1
WAKE TURBULENCE CAUTIONARY
VECTORS TO FINAL APPROACH COURSE, 5−9−1 ADVISORIES, 2−1−10
VEHICLES/EQUIPMENT/PERSONNEL NEAR/ON WAKE TURBULENCE SEPARATION FOR
RUNWAYS, 3−1−2 INTERSECTION DEPARTURES, 3−9−7
VERTICAL APPLICATION EXCEPTIONS, 5−5−5 Warning Signal (ATCT), 3−2−1
Vertical Separation (Nonradar), 6−6−1 WEATHER DEVIATIONS, 8−9−3
VERTICAL SEPARATION MINIMA, 4−5−1 Weather Deviations in North Atlantic (NAT) Airspace,
VFR − IFR FLIGHTS, 4−2−3 8−7−3
VFR AIRCRAFT IN CLASS B AIRSPACE, 7−9−1 Weather Information, 2−6−1
VFR AIRCRAFT IN WEATHER DIFFICULTY, WEATHER INFORMATION (ARRIVALS), 4−7−3

10−2−2 WEATHER RECONNAISSANCE FLIGHTS, 9−2−8
VFR Basic Radar Service (Terminal), 7−6−1 WHEELS DOWN CHECK, 2−1−13
VFR CLIMB AND DESCENT, 8−8−3 WITHHOLDING LANDING CLEARANCE, 3−10−8
VFR CODE ASSIGNMENTS, 5−2−2 WORD MEANINGS, 1−2−1
VFR CONDITIONS, 7−1−1 Words and Phrases (Communications), 2−4−4
I−12 Index
Federal Aviation JO 7110.65Z
Administration 6/17/21
BRIEFING GUIDE
U.S. DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION

FEDERAL AVIATION ADMINISTRATION
Initiated By: AJV−0

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
Table of Contents
Paragraph Title Page

Number
2−1−14 COORDINATE USE OF AIRSPACE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG-3
2−1−17 RADIO COMMUNICATIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG-3
3−6−4 SAFETY LOGIC ALERT RESPONSES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG-5
4−3−4 DEPARTURE RESTRICTIONS, CLEARANCE VOID TIMES, HOLD FOR
RELEASE, AND RELEASE TIMES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG−5
4−4−1 ROUTE USE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG-10
4−5−7 ALTITUDE INFORMATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG-3
5−3−4 TERMINAL AUTOMATION SYSTEMS IDENTIFICATION METHODS . . . BG-11
5−4−5 TRANSFERRING CONTROLLER HANDOFF . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG-11
5−4−6 RECEIVING CONTROLLER HANDOFF . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG-11
5−9−6 SIMULTANEOUS DEPENDENT APPROACHES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG-16
5−9−7 SIMULTANEOUS INDEPENDENT APPROACHES− DUAL & TRIPLE . . . BG-16
5−9−8 SIMULTANEOUS INDEPENDENT CLOSE PARALLEL APPROACHES
–PRECISION RUNWAY MONITOR (PRM) APPROACHES . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG-16
5−9−9 SIMULTANEOUS OFFSET INSTRUMENT APPROACHES (SOIA) . . . . . . . BG-16
7−4−4 APPROACHES TO MULTIPLE RUNWAYS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG-24
9−2−14 MILITARY OPERATIONS ABOVE FL 600 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG-28
10−4−4 COMMUNICATIONS FAILURE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG-3
BG−2 Briefing Guide

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
1. PARAGRAPH NUMBER AND TITLE:

2−1−14. COORDINATE USE OF AIRSPACE
2−1−17. RADIO COMMUNICATIONS
4−5−7. ALTITUDE INFORMATION
10−4−4. COMMUNICATIONS FAILURE
2. BACKGROUND: The FAA operates some telecommunication stations, and some are operated by an
external service provider under contract with the FAA. The external entity was, for many years, Aeronautical
Radio, Incorporated (ARINC). In phraseology and documentation, the term ARINC was used to advise that
communications were to occur through that service provider. Due to corporate changes, these stations are now
operated by Collins Aerospace, Incorporated (formerly ARINC). The use of the term “ARINC” in phraseology
and documentation has changed to the use of the term “New York Radio” or “San Francisco Radio.”
3. CHANGE:
OLD NEW
2−1−14. COORDINATE USE OF AIRSPACE 2−1−14. COORDINATE USE OF AIRSPACE
Title through a No Change
b. Before you issue a control instruction directly b. Before you issue a control instruction directly
to a pilot that will change the aircraft’s heading, to a pilot that will change the aircraft’s heading,
route, speed, or altitude, you must ensure that route, speed, or altitude, you must ensure that
coordination has been completed with all coordination has been completed with all
controllers whose area of jurisdiction is affected by controllers whose area of jurisdiction is affected by
those instructions unless otherwise specified by a those instructions unless otherwise specified by a
letter of agreement or facility directive. If your letter of agreement or facility directive. If your
control instruction will be relayed to the pilot control instruction will be relayed to the pilot
through a source other than another radar controller through a source other than another radar controller
(FSS, ARINC, another pilot, etc.), you are still (FSS, New York Radio, San Francisco Radio,
responsible to ensure that all required coordination another pilot, etc.), you are still responsible to
is completed. ensure that all required coordination is completed.
OLD NEW
2−1−17. RADIO COMMUNICATIONS 2−1−17. RADIO COMMUNICATIONS
Title through b3 PHRASEOLOGY No Change
c. Controllers must, within a reasonable amount of No Change
time, take appropriate action to establish/restore
communications with all aircraft for which a
communications transfer or initial contact to his/her
sector is expected/required.
NOTE− NOTE−
For the purposes of this paragraph, a reasonable For the purposes of this paragraph, a reasonable
amount of time is considered to be 5 minutes from the amount of time is considered to be 5 minutes from the
time the aircraft enters the controller’s area of jurisdic- time the aircraft enters the controller’s area of jurisdic-
tion or comes within range of radio/communications tion or comes within range of radio/communications
coverage. Communications include two−way VHF or coverage. Communications include two−way VHF or
UHF radio contact, data link, or high frequency (HF) UHF radio contact, data link, or high frequency (HF)
radio through an approved third−party provider such radio through an approved third−party provider such
as ARINC. as New York Radio or San Francisco Radio.
Briefing Guide BG−3

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
OLD NEW
4−5−7. ALTITUDE INFORMATION 4−5−7. ALTITUDE INFORMATION
Title through a NOTE 2 No Change
b. Instructions to climb or descend including b. Instructions to climb or descend including
restrictions, as required. Specify a time restriction restrictions, as required. Specify a time restriction
reference the UTC clock reading with a time check. reference the UTC clock reading with a time check.
If you are relaying through an authorized If you are relaying through an authorized
communications provider, such as ARINC, FSS, communications provider, such as New York
etc., advise the radio operator to issue the current Radio, San Francisco Radio, FSS, etc., advise the
time to the aircraft when the clearance is relayed. radio operator to issue the current time to the
The requirement to issue a time check must be aircraft when the clearance is relayed. The
disregarded if the clearance is issued via Controller requirement to issue a time check must be
Pilot Data Link Communications (CPDLC). disregarded if the clearance is issued via Controller
Pilot Data Link Communications (CPDLC).
OLD NEW
10−4−4. COMMUNICATIONS FAILURE 10−4−4. COMMUNICATIONS FAILURE
Title through NOTE 2 No Change
a. In the event of lost communications with an a. In the event of lost communications with an
aircraft under your control jurisdiction use all aircraft under your control jurisdiction use all
appropriate means available to reestablish appropriate means available to reestablish
communications with the aircraft. These may communications with the aircraft. These may
include, but not be limited to, emergency include, but are not limited to, emergency
frequencies, NAVAIDs that are equipped with voice frequencies, NAVAIDs that are equipped with voice
capability, FSS, Aeronautical Radio Incorporated capability, FSS, New York Radio, San Francisco
(ARINC), etc. Radio, etc.
NOTE− NOTE−
1. ARINC is a commercial communications corpora- 1. New York Radio and San Francisco Radio are op-
tion which designs, constructs, operates, leases or oth- erated by Collins Aerospace (formerly ARINC, Incor-
erwise engages in radio activities serving the aviation porated) under contract with the FAA for communi-
community. ARINC has the capability of relaying infor- cations services. These Radio facilities have the capa-
mation to/from subscribing aircraft throughout the bility of relaying information to/from ATC facilities
country. throughout the country.
2. Aircraft communications addressing and reporting 2. Aircraft communications addressing and reporting
system (ACARS) or selective calling (SELCAL) may be system (ACARS) or selective calling (SELCAL) may be
utilized to reestablish radio communications with utilized to reestablish radio communications with
suitably equipped aircraft. ACARS can be accessed by suitably equipped aircraft. ACARS can be utilized by
contacting the San Francisco ARINC communications contacting San Francisco Radio at (800)−621−0140 or
center, watch supervisor, at 925−294−8297 and New York Radio at (800) 645−1095. Provide the aircraft
800−621−0140. Provide ARINC the aircraft call sign, call sign, approximate location, and contact instructions.
approximate location, and contact instructions. In order In order to utilize the SELCAL system, the SELCAL code
to utilize the SELCAL system, the SELCAL code for the for the subject aircraft must be known. If the SELCAL
subject aircraft must be known. If the SELCAL code is not code is not contained in the remarks section of the flight
contained in the remarks section of the flight plan, plan, contact the pertinent air carrier dispatch office to
contact the pertinent air carrier dispatch office to determine the code. Then contact San Francisco Radio
determine the code. Then contact the San Francisco (for aircraft over the Pacific, U.S. or Mexico) or New
ARINC communications center, watch supervisor, at York Radio (for aircraft over the Atlantic, Gulf of
925−294−8297 and 800−621−0140. Provide ARINC the Mexico, or Caribbean) and provide the aircraft call sign,
aircraft call sign, SELCAL code, approximate location, SELCAL code, approximate location, and contact
and contact instructions. instructions.

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
b. Broadcast clearances through any available No Change

means of communications including the voice
feature of NAVAIDs.
NOTE− No Change
1. Some UHF equipped aircraft have VHF navigation
equipment and can receive 121.5 MHz.
2. “Any available means” includes the use of FSS and 2. “Any available means” includes the use of FSS and
ARINC. New York Radio or San Francisco Radio.
REFERENCE− No Change
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−2−2, Clearance Prefix.
1. PARAGRAPH NUMBER AND TITLE: 3−6−4. SAFETY LOGIC ALERT RESPONSES
2. BACKGROUND: Wrong surface landings are one of the ATO’s Top 5 hazards. In July of 2017, an aircraft
on a visual approach to the San Francisco International Airport (SFO) lined up to land on a taxiway at night. The
agency developed a modification to the airport surface detection equipment (ASDE) to add an alert when it
identifies an aircraft is lined up to a taxiway. The SFO incident highlighted the need for this ASDE modification.
Modifications made to the ASDE established alert parameters for taxiways that are independent of runway alert
parameters. The alert response time for a taxiway arrival is shorter than the alert time for aircraft inbound to a
runway. Given the shortened alert timeframe, aircraft that trigger a taxiway arrival alert must be issued
go−around instructions. As a result of this modification, an update to FAA Order JO 7110.65, Air Traffic Control,
3−6−4, Safety Logic Alert Response, is needed.
3. CHANGE:
OLD NEW
3−6−4. SAFETY LOGIC ALERT 3−6−4. SAFETY LOGIC ALERT
RESPONSES RESPONSES
Title through a REFERENCE No Change
Add b. When an arrival aircraft activates a warning
alert to a taxiway, the controller must issue
go−around instructions.
b through c Re−letter c through d
1. PARAGRAPH NUMBER AND TITLE: 4−3−4. DEPARTURE RESTRICTIONS, CLEARANCE

VOID TIMES, HOLD FOR RELEASE, AND RELEASE TIMES
2. BACKGROUND: While investigating multiple runway incidents involving aircraft departing from an
airport without an operating control tower, it was identified that the term “Released” or “Released for departure”
is being used by some controllers to communicate that the aircraft, having received its departure clearance (IFR
flight plan), was now released off the airport. The preamble to this section does not specifically require a
distinction. The different methods controllers are using to approve an IFR aircraft to depart from an airport
without an operating control tower may cause some confusion. ATC will now be required to state “Released for
departure” or “Hold for release” when issuing a departure clearance (IFR flight plan) to an aircraft that is
departing from an airport without an operating control tower.

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
3. CHANGE:
OLD NEW
4−3−4. DEPARTURE RESTRICTIONS, 4−3−4. DEPARTURE RELEASE, HOLD FOR
CLEARANCE VOID TIMES, HOLD FOR RELEASE, RELEASE TIMES, DEPARTURE
RELEASE, AND RELEASE TIMES RESTRICTIONS, AND CLEARANCE VOID
TIMES
Assign departure restrictions, clearance void times, Assign departure restrictions, clearance void times,
hold for release, or release times when necessary to or release times to separate departures from other
separate departures from other traffic or to restrict traffic or to restrict or regulate the departure flow.
or regulate the departure flow. Departures from an airport without an
operating control tower must be issued either a
departure release, a hold for release, or a release
time.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 10−3−1, Overdue Aircraft.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 10−4−1, Traffic Restrictions.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 10−4−3, Traffic Resumption.
a. Clearance Void Times. a. Departure Release. When conditions allow,
release the aircraft as soon as possible.
Add PHRASEOLOGY−
(aircraft identification) RELEASED.
To a flight service specialist, or Flight Data Commu-

nication Specialist (FDCS).
ADVISE (aircraft identification) RELEASED FOR

DEPARTURE.
To a pilot at an airport without an operating control

tower,
(aircraft identification) RELEASED FOR DEPAR-
TURE.
1. When issuing clearance void times at airports Delete
not served by control towers, provide alternative
instructions requiring the pilots to advise ATC of
their intentions no later than 30 minutes after the
clearance void time if not airborne.
2. The facility delivering a clearance void time Delete
to a pilot must issue a time check. A void time issued
using a specified number of minutes does not
require a time check.

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
PHRASEOLOGY− Delete
CLEARANCE VOID IF NOT OFF BY (clearance void
time),
and if required,
IF NOT OFF BY (clearance void time), ADVISE (facil-

ity) NOT LATER THAN (time) OF INTENTIONS.
TIME (time in hours, minutes, and the nearest quarter

minute).
Or
CLEARANCE VOID IF NOT OFF IN (number of min-

utes) MINUTES
and if required,
IF NOT OFF IN (number of minutes) MINUTES, AD-

VISE (facility) OF INTENTIONS WITHIN (number of
minutes) MINUTES.
b. Hold For Release (HFR). No Change
1. “Hold for release” instructions must be used 1. “Hold for release” instructions must be used
when necessary to inform a pilot or a controller that to inform a pilot or a controller that a departure
a departure clearance is not valid until additional clearance is not valid until additional instructions
instructions are received. are received.
P/CG Term− Hold for Release.
2. When issuing hold for release instructions, No Change
include departure delay information.
(Aircraft identification) CLEARED TO (destination) (aircraft identification) HOLD FOR RELEASE, EX-
AIRPORT AS FILED, MAINTAIN (altitude), PECT (time in hours and/or minutes) DEPARTURE
DELAY.
and if required,
(additional instructions or information).
HOLD FOR RELEASE, EXPECT (time in hours and/

or minutes) DEPARTURE DELAY.
3. When conditions allow, release the aircraft as Delete
soon as possible.

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
(aircraft identification) RELEASED.
To a flight service specialist, or Flight Data Communi-

cation Specialist (FDCS)
ADVISE (aircraft identification) RELEASED FOR

DEPARTURE.
To a pilot at an airport not served by a control tower,
(aircraft identification) RELEASED FOR DEPAR-

TURE.
c through c1 NOTE No Change

2. The facility issuing a release time to a pilot No Change
must issue a time check. A release time using a
specified number of minutes does not require a time
check.
(Aircraft identification) RELEASED FOR DEPAR- (aircraft identification) RELEASED FOR DEPAR-
TURE AT (time in hours and/or minutes), TURE AT (time in hours and/or minutes),
and if required, and if required,
IF NOT OFF BY (time), ADVISE (facility) NOT LAT- IF NOT OFF BY (time), ADVISE (facility) NOT LAT-
ER THAN (time) OF INTENTIONS. ER THAN (time) OF INTENTIONS.
TIME (time in hours, minutes, and nearest quarter TIME (time in hours, minutes, and nearest quarter
minute). minute).
(Aircraft identification) RELEASED FOR DEPAR- (aircraft identification) RELEASED FOR DEPAR-
TURE IN (number of minutes) MINUTES TURE IN (number of minutes) MINUTES
and if required, and if required,
IF NOT OFF IN (number of minutes) MINUTES, AD- IF NOT OFF IN (number of minutes) MINUTES, AD-
VISE (facility) OF INTENTIONS WITHIN (number of VISE (facility) OF INTENTIONS WITHIN (number of
minutes) MINUTES. minutes) MINUTES.
d. When expect departure clearance times No Change

(EDCT) are assigned through traffic management
programs, excluding overriding call for release
(CFR) operations as described in subparagraph e,
the departure terminal must, to the extent possible,
plan ground movement of aircraft destined to the
affected airport(s) so that flights are sequenced to
depart no earlier than 5 minutes before, and no later
than 5 minutes after the EDCT. Do not release
aircraft on their assigned EDCT if a ground stop
(GS) applicable to that aircraft is in effect, unless
approval has been received from the originator of
the GS.

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
e. Call for Release (CFR). When CFR is in effect, No Change

release aircraft so they are airborne within a
window that extends from 2 minutes prior and ends
1 minute after the assigned time, unless otherwise
coordinated.
NOTE− NOTE−
1. Subparagraph (e) applies to all facilities. 1. Subparagraph e applies to all facilities.
2. Coordination may be verbal, electronic, or written. No Change
e1 through e2(a) No Change
(b) If the pilot’s EDCT is not the same as the (b) If the pilot’s EDCT is not the same as the
FAA EDCT, refer to Trust and Verify Note below. FAA EDCT, refer to Trust and Verify note below.
e3 and e3 NOTE No Change
Add f. Clearance Void Times.
Add 1. When issuing clearance void times at
airports without an operating control tower,
provide alternative instructions requiring the
pilots to advise ATC of their intentions no later
than 30 minutes after the clearance void time if
not airborne.
Add 2. The facility delivering a clearance void
time to a pilot must issue a time check. A void
time issued using a specified number of minutes
does not require a time check.
Add NOTE−
If the clearance void time expires, it does not cancel
the departure clearance (IFR flight plan). It with-
draws the pilot’s authority to depart IFR until a new
departure release/release time has been issued by
ATC and acknowledged by the pilot.
Add PHRASEOLOGY−
CLEARANCE VOID IF NOT OFF BY (clearance
void time),
and if required,
IF NOT OFF BY (clearance void time), ADVISE
(facility) NOT LATER THAN (time) OF INTEN-
TIONS.
TIME (time in hours, minutes, and the nearest quar-

ter minute).
Or
CLEARANCE VOID IF NOT OFF IN (number of

minutes) MINUTES
and if required,
IF NOT OFF IN (number of minutes) MINUTES,

ADVISE (facility) OF INTENTIONS WITHIN
(number of minutes) MINUTES.

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
1. PARAGRAPH NUMBER AND TITLE: 4−4−1. ROUTE USE
2. BACKGROUND: FAA Order JO 7110.65Y, paragraph 4−4−1j3, incorrectly labels the EXAMPLE as
PHRASEOLOGY.
3. CHANGE:
OLD NEW
4−4−1. ROUTE USE 4−4−1. ROUTE USE
Title through i EXAMPLE 3 No Change
j. Fixes/waypoints defined in terms of: No Change
j1 and j2 No Change
3. Latitude/longitude coordinates, state the No Change
latitude and longitude in degrees and minutes
including the direction from the axis such as North
or West; or
“32 DEGREES, 45 MINUTES NORTH,
105 DEGREES, 37 MINUTES WEST.”
4. Offset from published or established ATS No Change
route at a specified distance and direction for
random (impromptu) RNAV Routes.
DIRECT (fix/waypoint) DIRECT (fix/waypoint)
DIRECT TO THE (facility) (radial) (distance) FIX. DIRECT TO THE (facility) (radial) (distance) FIX.
OFFSET(distance) RIGHT/LEFT OF (route). DIRECT (number degrees) DEGREES, (number

minutes) MINUTES (north or south), (number de-
grees) DEGREES, (number minutes) MINUTES
(east or west).
OFFSET (distance) RIGHT/LEFT OF (route).

“Direct SUNOL.” “Direct SUNOL.”
“Direct to the Appleton three one zero radial two five “Direct to the Appleton three one zero radial two five
mile fix.” mile fix.”
“Offset eight miles right of Victor six.” “Direct 32 degrees, 45 minutes north, 105 degrees, 37
minutes west.”
“Offset eight miles right of Victor six.”
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−3−8 Aircraft Equipment Suffix. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−3−8, Aircraft Equipment Suffix.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−5−3 NAVAID Fixes FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−5−3, NAVAID Fixes.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−1−2, Exceptions FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−1−2, Exceptions.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−5−1, Application FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−5−1, Application.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 6−5−4, Minima Along Other Than FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 6−5−4, Minima Along Other Than
Established Airways or Routes. Established Airways or Routes.
P/CG Term − Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS)[ICAO]. P/CG Term − Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS)[ICAO].

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z

5−3−4. TERMINAL AUTOMATION SYSTEMS IDENTIFICATION METHODS
5−4−5. TRANSFERRING CONTROLLER HANDOFF
5−4−6. RECEIVING CONTROLLER HANDOFF
2. BACKGROUND: In response to an Air Traffic Safety Action Program Corrective Action Request (ATSAP
CAR), changes were published in 2015 to JO 7110.65, paragraphs 2–1–14, Coordinate Use of Airspace;
5–4–5, Transferring Controller Handoff; and 5–4–6, Receiving Controller Handoff, to address contradictory
language in those paragraphs regarding controller responsibilities for coordination in certain circumstances.
However, one subparagraph in 5–4–5 and another in 5–4–6 still imply a specific point−out responsibility that was
changed as part of the CAR. That change established that the transferring controller is always responsible for an
adjacent sector point−out when the sectors involved in the handoff are in different altitude strata and the receiving
controller decides to delay the climb or descent of the aircraft into their airspace, whether that decision is made
before OR after accepting the handoff.
Paragraph 5–4–5 does not currently reflect the use of automated information transfer (AIT) procedures regarding
the transfer of communications following a subsequent handoff made by a receiving controller. Advances in
terminal and en route automation systems have eliminated the need to validate the position of primary or
nondiscrete targets during automated intrafacility handoffs in STARS and ERAM, and in MEARTS when
operating in Fused Display Mode. Automation advances have also rendered obsolete the data block status
indicators “NB,” “TU,” “AM,” “OL,” and “NX.”
3. CHANGE:
OLD NEW
5−3−4. TERMINAL AUTOMATION 5−3−4. TERMINAL AUTOMATION
SYSTEMS IDENTIFICATION METHODS SYSTEMS IDENTIFICATION METHODS
Title through a1 No Change
2. The aircraft is being handed off using a NAS 2. The aircraft is being handed off using a NAS
automated system and one of the following does not automated system and one of the following does not
appear in the data block: “CST”, “NAT”, “NT”, appear in the data block: “CST,” “NAT,” “NT,”
“AMB”, “OLD”, “NB”, “TU”, “AM”, “OL”, or “AMB,” “OLD,” or “TRK.”
“TRK”.
OLD NEW
5−4−5. TRANSFERRING CONTROLLER 5−4−5. TRANSFERRING CONTROLLER
HANDOFF HANDOFF
The transferring controller must: Unless otherwise coordinated or specified in an
LOA or facility directive, the transferring
controller must:
a. Complete a radar handoff prior to an aircraft’s a. Complete a handoff prior to an aircraft entering
entering the airspace delegated to the receiving the airspace delegated to the receiving controller.
controller.
REFERENCE− Delete

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
b. Verbally obtain the receiving controller’s b. Verbally obtain the receiving controller’s
approval prior to making any changes to an approval prior to making any changes to an
aircraft’s flight path, altitude, speed, or data block aircraft’s flight path, altitude, speed, or data block
information while the handoff is being initiated or information while the handoff is being initiated or
after acceptance, unless otherwise specified by a after acceptance.
LOA or a facility directive.
c. Ensure that, prior to transferring c. Advise the receiving controller of pertinent
communications: information not contained in the data block or
flight progress strip, including:
1. Potential violations of adjacent airspace and 1. Assigned heading.
potential conflicts between aircraft in their own area
of jurisdiction are resolved.
2. Coordination has been accomplished with all 2. Airspeed restrictions.
controllers through whose area of jurisdiction the
aircraft will pass prior to entering the receiving
controller’s area of jurisdiction unless otherwise
specified by a LOA or a facility directive.
3. Restrictions issued to ensure separation are 3. Altitude information issued.
passed to the receiving controller.
Add 4. Observed track or deviation from the last
route clearance.
Add 5. The beacon code, if different from that
normally used or previously coordinated.
Add 6. Any other pertinent information.
d. After transferring communications, continue to d. Initiate verbal coordination to verify the
comply with the requirements of subparas c1 and 2. position of primary or nondiscrete targets,
except for intrafacility automated handoffs in
STARS, ERAM, or MEARTS in Fused Display
Mode.
e. Comply with restrictions issued by the e. Initiate verbal coordination before
receiving controller unless otherwise coordinated. transferring control of a track when “CST,”
“FAIL,” “NONE,” “IF,” “NT,” or “TRK” is
displayed in the data block.
f. Comply with the provisions of Paragraph f. Advise the receiving controller if radar
2−1−17, Radio Communications, subparas a and b. monitoring is required.
To the extent possible, transfer communications
when the transfer of radar identification has been
accepted.
NOTE− Delete
Before the ARTS/STARS “modify/quick look” function
is used to transfer radar identification, a facility direc-
tive which specifies communication transfer points is
required.
Add REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4–1–2, Exceptions.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4–4–2, Route Structure Transitions.

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
g. Advise the receiving controller of pertinent g. Consider the target being transferred as
information not contained in the data block or flight identified on the receiving controller’s display
progress strip unless covered in a LOA or facility when the receiving controller acknowledges
directive. Pertinent information includes: receipt verbally or accepts the automated
handoff.
1. Assigned heading. Delete
2. Air speed restrictions. Delete
3. Altitude information issued. Delete
4. Observed track or deviation from the last route Delete
clearance.
5. The beacon code if different from that Delete
normally used or previously coordinated.
6. Any other pertinent information. Delete
h. Ensure that the data block is associated with the h. Prior to transferring communications:
appropriate target.
Add 1. Resolve any potential violations of adjacent
airspace and potential conflicts with other
aircraft in your area of jurisdiction.
Add 2. Coordinate with any controller whose area
of jurisdiction the aircraft will transit prior to
entering the receiving controller’s area of
jurisdiction.
Add 3. Forward to the receiving controller any
restrictions issued to ensure separation.
Add 4. Comply with restrictions issued by the
receiving controller.
i. Initiate verbal coordination to verify the i. Comply with the provisions of paragraph
position of primary or nondiscrete targets when 2−1−17, Radio Communications. To the extent
using the automated handoff functions except for possible, transfer communications when the
intrafacility handoffs using single−sensor systems handoff has been accepted.
or multisensory systems operating in a mosaic RDP
mode.
Add NOTE−
Before the STARS “modify/quick look” function is
used to effect a handoff, a facility directive that speci-
fies communication transfer points is required.
j. Initiate verbal coordination before transferring j. After transferring communications,
control of a track when “CST,” “FAIL,” “NONE,” continue to comply with the requirements of
“NB,” “NX,” “IF,” “NT”, or “TRK” is displayed in subparagraphs h1 and h2.
the data block.
k. Advise the receiving controller if radar k. Before releasing control of the aircraft, issue
monitoring is required. restrictions to the receiving controller that are
necessary to maintain separation from other
aircraft within your area of jurisdiction.

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
Add REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−4−6, Receiving Controller
Handoff.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−4−8, Automated Information
Transfer (AIT).
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 4−3−8, Automated Information
Transfer (AIT).
l. Issue restrictions to the receiving controller Delete
which are necessary to maintain separation from
other aircraft within your area of jurisdiction before
releasing control of the aircraft.
m. Consider the target being transferred as Delete
identified on the receiving controller’s display
when the receiving controller acknowledges receipt
verbally or has accepted an automated handoff.
n. Accomplish the necessary coordination with Delete
any intervening controllers whose area of
jurisdiction is affected by the receiving controller’s
delay in the climb or the descent of an aircraft
through the vertical limits of your area of
jurisdiction when the receiving controller advises
you of that delay before accepting the transfer of
radar identification unless otherwise specified by a
LOA or a facility directive.
OLD NEW
5−4−6. RECEIVING CONTROLLER 5−4−6. RECEIVING CONTROLLER
HANDOFF HANDOFF
Title through c No Change
d. After accepting a handoff from another d. After accepting a handoff from another facility,
controller, confirm the identity of primary target by confirm the identification of a primary target by
advising the aircraft of its position, and of a beacon advising the aircraft of its position, and of a
target by observing a code change, an “ident” reply, nondiscrete beacon target by observing a code
or a “standby” squawk unless one of these was used change, an “ident” reply, or a “standby” squawk
during handoff. These provisions do not apply at unless one of these was used during handoff. These
those towers and GCAs which have been delegated provisions do not apply at those towers and GCAs
the responsibility for providing radar separation that have been delegated the responsibility for
within designated areas by the parent approach providing radar separation within designated areas
control facility and the aircraft identification is by the overlying approach control facility and the
assured by sequencing or positioning prior to the aircraft identification is assured by sequencing or
handoff. positioning prior to the handoff.
Responsibility.
e. When using appropriate equipment, consider a e. Consider a beacon target’s identity to be
discrete beacon target’s identity to be confirmed confirmed when:
when:
1. The data block associated with the target 1. The data block associated with the target
being handed off indicates the computer assigned being handed off indicates the computer assigned
discrete beacon code is being received, or discrete beacon code is being received; or

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
2. You observe the deletion of a discrete code 2. You observe the deletion of a discrete code
that was displayed in the data block, or that was displayed in the data block; or
NOTE− NOTE−
When the aircraft generated discrete beacon code does When the beacon code received from the aircraft does
not match the computer assigned beacon code, the not match the computer assigned beacon code, the
code generated will be displayed in the data block. code received (ERAM, MEARTS) or the site−adapted
When the aircraft changes to the assigned discrete code (received, computer−assigned, or both for
code, the code disappears from the data block. In this STARS) will be displayed in the data block. When the
instance, the observance of code removal from the data aircraft changes to the computer assigned code, the
block satisfies confirmation requirements. code is automatically removed from the data block. In
this instance, the observance of code removal from the
data block satisfies confirmation requirements.
3. You observe the numeric display of a discrete No Change
code that an aircraft has been instructed to squawk
or reports squawking.
f. Take the identified action prior to accepting No Change
control of a track when the following indicators are
displayed in the data block:
1. “AMB” and “AM”: advise the other facility 1. “AMB”: advise the other facility that a
that a disparity exists between the position declared disparity exists between the position declared by
by their computer and that declared by your STARS their computer and that declared by your STARS
system. system.
2. “NAT”, “NT,” or “TU”: advise the other 2. “NAT” or “NT”: advise the other facility if a
facility if a disparity exists between the position disparity exists between the position declared by
declared by their computer and the actual target their computer and the actual target position.
position.
3. “DATA”, “CST”, “NONE”, “NX”, “OLD”, or 3. “DATA,” “CST,” “NONE,” or “OLD”:
“OL”: initiate verbal coordination. initiate verbal coordination.
g. ERAM: Notify the OS when a MISM is g. ERAM: Notify the OS/CIC when a MISM is
displayed in the data block. displayed in the data block.
h. Advise the transferring controller, prior to h. Advise the transferring controller as soon as
accepting the transfer of radar identification, that possible if you will delay the climb or descent of the
you will delay the climb or the descent of an aircraft aircraft through the vertical limits of that
through the vertical limits of the transferring controller’s area of jurisdiction, unless otherwise
controller’s area of jurisdiction, unless otherwise specified in an LOA or a facility directive.
specified in a LOA or a facility directive.
i. If you decide, after accepting the transfer of Delete
radar identification, to delay the aircraft’s climb or
descent through the vertical limits of the
transferring controller’s area of jurisdiction, advise
the transferring controller of that decision as soon
as possible.

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
1. PARAGRAPH NUMBER AND TITLE: 5−9−6. SIMULTANEOUS DEPENDENT APPROACHES
2. BACKGROUND: Recently, a question from a field facility concerning simultaneous dependent approaches
brought to light a note that was incorporated into the order in July 2012. Subsequent research found that while the
note in question clarified area navigation (RNAV) operations at the time, in the decade since there have been
numerous updates to Standards for Terminal Instrument Procedures (TERPS) orders and instrument procedure
charting requirements as a result of performance−based navigation (PBN) capabilities. In order to align with
current and planned PBN concepts in TERPS orders, the current note is being eliminated. Additionally, all
mention of Established on RNP (EoR) operations is wholly contained under simultaneous independent
approaches, and this note change is intended to close a gap with the lack of mention under dependent operations.
3. CHANGE:
OLD NEW
5−9−6. SIMULTANEOUS DEPENDENT 5−9−6. SIMULTANEOUS DEPENDENT
APPROACHES APPROACHES
Title through a5 REFERENCE No Change
b. The following conditions are required when No Change
applying the minimum radar separation on adjacent
final approach courses allowed in subparagraph a:
NOTE− NOTE−
1. Simultaneous dependent approaches involving an 1. Established on RNP (EoR) operations are not au-
RNAV approach may only be conducted when (GPS) thorized in conjunction with simultaneous dependent
appears in the approach title or a chart note states that approaches.
GPS is required.
2. Simultaneous dependent approaches may only be 2. Simultaneous dependent approaches may only be
conducted where instrument approach charts specifical- conducted where instrument approach charts specifical-
ly authorize simultaneous approaches to adjacent ly authorize simultaneous approaches.
runways.

5−9−7. SIMULTANEOUS INDEPENDENT APPROACHES− DUAL & TRIPLE
5−9−8. SIMULTANEOUS INDEPENDENT CLOSE PARALLEL APPROACHES –PRECISION RUNWAY
MONITOR (PRM) APPROACHES
5−9−9. SIMULTANEOUS OFFSET INSTRUMENT APPROACHES (SOIA)
2. BACKGROUND: The Flight Standards Service (AFS) completed a safety study,

DOT/FAA/AFS400/2017/R/14, in July 2017 concerning altitude sensitivity in the conduct of simultaneous
independent instrument approaches. The study evaluated simultaneous parallel approaches beginning at sea
level up to 6000 feet MSL. This was done to account for all airports within the NAS that could conduct these types
of approach procedures. The study found that for all operations, the collision risk associated at the study altitudes
meets the FAA target level of safety of 1x10−9. This allows the removal of the currently articulated airfield
elevations as a condition for conducting these types of simultaneous approaches. Additionally, in May 2018,
FAA Flight Standards Service, Flight Technologies and Procedures Division, (AFS−400) completed the Safety
Study of Closely Spaced Parallel Operations with High Update Rate (HUR) Surveillance
(DOT/FAA/AFS400/2018/R/22). This study showed that during the conduct of closely spaced simultaneous
parallel approaches, runway centerline spacing could be reduced provided HUR surveillance is utilized and the
processing time for presentation of the updated target reports is less than 3 seconds.

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
3. CHANGE:
OLD NEW
5−9−7. SIMULTANEOUS INDEPENDENT 5−9−7. SIMULTANEOUS INDEPENDENT
APPROACHES− DUAL & TRIPLE APPROACHES− DUAL & TRIPLE
Title through a1(b) REFERENCE No Change
2. Dual parallel runway centerlines are at least 2. Dual parallel runway centerlines are at least
3,600 feet apart, or dual parallel runway centerlines 3,600 feet apart, or dual parallel runway centerlines
are at least 3,000 feet apart with a 2.5 to 3.0 offset are at least 3,000 feet apart with a 2.5 to 3.0 offset
approach to either runway and the airport field approach to either runway.
elevation is 2,000 feet MSL or less.
NOTE− Delete
Airport field elevation requirement does not apply to
dual parallel runways that are 4,300 feet or more
apart.
3. Triple parallel approaches may be conducted 3. Triple parallel approaches may be conducted
under one of the following conditions: when:
(a) Parallel runway centerlines are at least (a) Parallel runway centerlines are at least
3,900 feet apart and the airport field elevation is 3,900 feet apart; or
2,000 feet MSL or less; or
(b) Parallel runway centerlines are at least (b) Parallel runway centerlines are at least
3,000 feet apart, a 2.5 to 3.0 offset approach to 3,000 feet apart, a 2.5 to 3.0 offset approach to
both outside runways, and the airport field elevation both outside runways; or
is 2,000 feet MSL or less; or
(c) Parallel runway centerlines are at least (c) Parallel runway centerlines are at least
3,000 feet apart, a single 2.5 to 3.0 offset 3,000 feet apart, a single 2.5 to 3.0 offset
approach to either outside runway while parallel approach to either outside runway while parallel
approaches to the remaining two runways are approaches to the remaining two runways are
separated by at least 3,900 feet, and the airport field separated by at least 3,900 feet.
elevation is 2,000 feet MSL or less.
(d) Parallel approaches to airports where the (d) Parallel approaches to airports where the
airport field elevation is more than 2,000 feet MSL airport field elevation is more than 2,000 feet MSL
require the use of the final monitor aid (FMA) require the use of the final monitor aid (FMA)
system and an approved FAA aeronautical study. system.
a4 and a4 NOTE No Change
Add
Add b. At locations with high update rate

surveillance, simultaneous independent
approaches may be conducted where the
surveillance update rate is 1 second or faster, the
system processing time is 3 seconds or faster, and
under the following conditions:
Add 1. Dual parallel runway centerlines are at
least 3,200 feet apart, or dual parallel runway
centerlines are at least 2,500 feet apart with a
2.5 to 3.0 offset approach to either runway.

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
Add 2. Triple parallel runway centerlines are at

least 3,400 feet apart, or triple parallel runway
centerlines are at least 2,500 feet apart with a
2.5 to 3.0 offset approach to both outside
runways, or triple parallel runway centerlines
are at least 2,500 feet apart, a single 2.5 to 3.0
offset approach to either outside runway while
parallel approaches to the remaining two
runways are separated by at least 3,400 feet.
Add NOTE−
Aircraft without functioning ADS−B Out are restrict-
ed from utilizing these high update rate (HUR) proce-
dures unless an alternative HUR surveillance source
providing one−second or faster target report updating
is utilized.
Add 3. A surveillance update rate of at least 1
second is required for monitoring the no
transgression zone (NTZ) when conducting
simultaneous independent approaches to the
runway centerline spacing (RCLS) provided in
this paragraph.
Add NOTE−
1. HUR procedures cannot be conducted if notified
that a one second update rate is not being provided.
Add 2. Where RCLS is ≤3400 feet, the normal operating
zone (NOZ) is constant at 700 feet; and for RCLS ≥3400
feet, the no transgression zone (NTZ) remains constant
at 2000 feet.
Add 4. Provide the minimum applicable radar
separation between aircraft on the same final
approach course.
b. A color digital display set to a 4 to 1 (4:1) aspect c. A color digital display set to a 4 to 1 (4:1) aspect
ratio (AR) with visual and aural alerts, such as the ratio (AR) with visual and aural alerts, such as the
STARS final monitor aid (FMA), and a surveillance STARS final monitor aid (FMA), and a surveillance
update rate at least 4.8 seconds must be used to update rate at 4.8 seconds or faster must be used to
monitor approaches where: monitor approaches where:
1. Dual parallel runway centerlines are at least No Change
3,000 and less than 4,300 feet apart.
2. Triple parallel runway centerlines are at least 2. Triple parallel runway centerlines are at least
3,000 but less than 5,000 feet apart and the airport 3,000 but less than 5,000 feet apart.
field elevation is 2,000 feet MSL or less.
3. Triple parallel approaches to airports where 3. Triple parallel approaches to airports where
the airport field elevation is more than 2,000 feet the airport field elevation is more than 2,000 feet
MSL require use of the FMA system and an MSL require use of the FMA system.
approved FAA aeronautical study.
NOTE− NOTE−
FMA is not required to monitor the NTZ for runway At locations where the airfield elevation is 2000 feet
centerlines 4,300 feet or greater for dual runways, and or less, FMA is not required to monitor the NTZ for
5,000 feet or greater for triple operations. runway centerlines 4,300 feet or greater for dual run-
ways, and 5,000 feet or greater for triple operations.

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
c through c2 Re−letter d through d2

3. Inform aircraft that simultaneous independent 3. Inform aircraft that simultaneous independent
approaches are in use, or when runway centerlines approaches are in use, or when runway centerlines
are less than 4,300 feet PRM approaches are in use, are less than 4,300 feet, PRM approaches are in use,
prior to aircraft departing an outer fix. This prior to aircraft departing an outer fix. This
information may be provided through the ATIS. information may be provided through the ATIS.
P/CG Term− Precision Runway Monitor (PRM) System.
4. Clear the aircraft to descend to the appropriate No Change

NOTE− No Change
5. An NTZ at least 2,000 feet wide is established 5. An NTZ is established an equal distance
an equal distance between extended runway final between extended runway final approach courses
approach courses and must be depicted on the and must be depicted on the monitor display. The
monitor display. The primary responsibility for primary responsibility for navigation on the final
navigation on the final approach course rests with approach course rests with the pilot. Control
the pilot. Control instructions and information are instructions and information are issued only to
issued only to ensure separation between aircraft ensure separation between aircraft and to prevent
and to prevent aircraft from penetrating the NTZ. aircraft from penetrating the NTZ.
Add NOTE−
Where RCLS is ≤3400 feet, the normal operating
zone (NOZ) is constant at 700 feet; and for RCLS
≥3400 feet, the no transgression zone (NTZ) remains
constant at 2000 feet.
6. Monitor all approaches regardless of weather. No Change
Monitor local control frequency to receive any
aircraft transmission. Issue control instructions as
necessary to ensure aircraft do not enter the NTZ.
NOTE− NOTE−
1. Separate monitor controllers, each with transmit/re- 1. Separate monitor controllers, each with transmit/re-
ceive and override capability on the local control fre- ceive and override capability on the local control fre-
quency, must ensure aircraft do not penetrate the de- quency, must ensure aircraft do not penetrate the de-
picted NTZ. Facility directives must define responsibil- picted NTZ. For PRM approaches, a transmit−only
ity for providing the minimum applicable longitudinal secondary “PRM frequency” is also used. Facility
separation between aircraft on the same final approach directives must define responsibility for providing the
course. minimum applicable longitudinal separation between
aircraft on the same final approach course.
2. The aircraft is considered the center of the primary No Change
radar return for that aircraft, or, if an FMA or other color
final monitor aid is used, the center of the digitized target
of that aircraft, for the purposes of ensuring an aircraft
does not penetrate the NTZ. The provisions of Paragraph
5−5−2, Target Separation, apply also.
7. Communications transfer to the tower No Change
controller’s frequency must be completed prior to
losing 1,000 feet vertical or 3 miles radar separation
between aircraft.

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
d. The following procedures must be used by the e. The following procedures must be used by the
final monitor controllers: final monitor controllers:
Add 1. For PRM approaches, provide position
information to an aircraft that is left/right of the
depicted final approach course centerline, and in
your judgment is continuing on a track that may
penetrate the NTZ.
Add PHRASEOLOGY−
(Aircraft call sign) I SHOW YOU (left/right) OF
THE FINAL APPROACH COURSE.
1. Instruct the aircraft to return to the correct 2. Instruct the aircraft to return to the correct
final approach course when aircraft are observed to final approach course when aircraft are observed to
overshoot the turn−on or to continue on a track overshoot the turn−on or to continue on a track
which will penetrate the NTZ. which will penetrate the NTZ.
PHRASEOLOGY− No Change
YOU HAVE CROSSED THE FINAL APPROACH
COURSE. TURN (left/right) IMMEDIATELY AND
RETURN TO THE FINAL APPROACH COURSE,
or
TURN (left/right) AND RETURN TO THE FINAL AP-
PROACH COURSE.
2. Instruct aircraft on the adjacent final approach 3. Instruct aircraft on the adjacent final approach
course to alter course to avoid the deviating aircraft course to alter course to avoid the deviating aircraft
when an aircraft is observed penetrating or in your when an aircraft is observed penetrating or in your
judgment will penetrate the NTZ. judgment will penetrate the NTZ.
Add NOTE−
For PRM approaches, an instruction that may in-
clude a descent to avoid the deviating aircraft should
only be used when there is no other reasonable option
available to the controller. In such a case, the descent
must not put the aircraft below the MVA.
TRAFFIC ALERT, (call sign), TURN (right/left) TRAFFIC ALERT, (call sign), TURN (right/left)
IMMEDIATELY HEADING (degrees), CLIMB AND IMMEDIATELY HEADING (degrees),
MAINTAIN (altitude). CLIMB/DESCEND AND MAINTAIN (altitude).
d3 through d5 Renumber e4 through e6
e. Consideration should be given to known factors f. Consideration should be given to known factors
that may in any way affect the safety of the that may in any way affect the safety of the
instrument approach phase of flight when instrument approach phase of flight when
simultaneous independent approaches are being simultaneous independent approaches, or PRM
conducted to parallel runways. Factors include, but approaches, if applicable, are being conducted to
are not limited to, wind direction/velocity, parallel runways. Factors include, but are not
windshear alerts/reports, severe weather activity, limited to, wind direction/velocity, windshear
etc. Closely monitor weather activity that could alerts/reports, severe weather activity, etc. Closely
impact the final approach course. Weather monitor weather activity that could impact the final
conditions in the vicinity of the final approach approach course. Weather conditions in the vicinity
course may dictate a change of approach in use. of the final approach course may dictate a change of
approach in use.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−1−13 , Radar Service Termination.
Interception.

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
OLD NEW
5−9−8. SIMULTANEOUS INDEPENDENT 5−9−8. SIMULTANEOUS INDEPENDENT
CLOSE PARALLEL APPROACHES CLOSE PARALLEL APPROACHES
–PRECISION RUNWAY MONITOR (PRM) –PRECISION RUNWAY MONITOR (PRM)
APPROACHES APPROACHES
TERMINAL No Change
Add When conducting PRM approaches, apply all
pertinent provisions of paragraph 5−9−7 and the
following:
a. PRM approaches may only be conducted when No Change
charted in the approach title, and where instrument
approach charts specifically authorize
simultaneous approaches.
P/CG− Precision Runway Monitor (PRM) System P/CG − Precision Runway Monitor (PRM) System.
P/CG−Simultaneous Close Parallel Approaches P/CG − Simultaneous Close Parallel Approaches.
P/CG − PRM Approach.
b. PRM approaches must be assigned when No Change
conducting instrument approaches to dual and triple
parallel runways with runway centerlines separated
by less than 4,300 feet.
c. Provide a minimum of 1,000 feet vertical or a Delete
minimum of 3 miles radar separation between
aircraft during turn−on to parallel or offset final
approach.
NOTE− Delete
Communications transfer to the tower controller’s fre-
quency must be completed prior to losing vertical sep-
aration between aircraft.
d. Provide the minimum applicable radar Delete
separation between aircraft on the same final
approach course.
REFERENCE− Delete
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−5−4 , Minima.
e. The following conditions must be met when Delete

conducting dual and triple PRM approaches:
1. Straight−in landings will be made. Delete
2. All appropriate communication, navigation, Delete
and surveillance systems are operating normally.
3. Inform aircraft that PRM approaches are in Delete
use prior to aircraft departing an outer fix. This
information may be provided through the ATIS.
4. Clear the aircraft to descend to the appropriate Delete
NOTE− Delete

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
5. An NTZ at least 2,000 feet wide is established Delete

an equal distance between extended runway final
approach courses and must be depicted on the
monitor display. The primary responsibility for
navigation on the final approach course rests with
the pilot. Control instructions and information are
issued only to ensure separation between aircraft
and to prevent aircraft from penetrating the NTZ.
6. Monitor all approaches regardless of weather. Delete
Monitor local control frequency to receive any
aircraft transmission. Issue control instructions as
necessary to ensure aircraft do not enter the NTZ.
7. Separate monitor controllers, each with Delete
transmit/receive and override capability on the
local control frequency, must ensure aircraft do not
penetrate the depicted NTZ. Facility directives
must define the responsibility for providing the
minimum applicable longitudinal separation
between aircraft on the same final approach course.
NOTE− Delete
The aircraft is considered the center of the digitized
target for the purposes of ensuring an aircraft does not
penetrate the NTZ.
f. The following procedures must be used by the Delete
final monitor controllers:
1. Provide position information to an aircraft Delete
that is (left/right) of the depicted final approach
course centerline, and in your judgment is
continuing on a track that may penetrate the NTZ.
(Aircraft call sign) I SHOW YOU (left/right) OF THE
FINAL APPROACH COURSE.
2. Instruct the aircraft to return immediately to Delete
the correct final approach course when aircraft are
observed to overshoot the turn−on or continue on a
track which will penetrate the NTZ.
YOU HAVE CROSSED THE FINAL APPROACH
COURSE. TURN (left/right) IMMEDIATELY AND
RETURN TO THE FINAL APPROACH COURSE.
Or
TURN (left/right) AND RETURN TO THE FINAL AP-
PROACH COURSE.
3. Instruct aircraft on the adjacent final approach Delete
course to alter course to avoid the deviating aircraft
when an aircraft is observed penetrating or in your
judgment will penetrate the NTZ.

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
NOTE− Delete
An instruction that may include a descent to avoid the
deviating aircraft should only be used when there is no
other reasonable option available to the controller. In
such a case, the descent must not put the aircraft below
the MVA.
TRAFFIC ALERT, (call sign), TURN (left/right)
IMMEDIATELY HEADING (DEGREES), CLIMB
AND MAINTAIN (altitude).
4. Terminate radar monitoring when one of the Delete
following occurs:
(a) Visual separation is applied. Delete
(b) The aircraft reports the approach lights or Delete
runway in sight.
(c) The aircraft is 1 mile or less from the Delete
runway threshold, if procedurally required, and
contained in facility directives.
5. Do not inform the aircraft when radar Delete
monitoring is terminated.
6. Do not apply the provisions of Paragraph Delete
5−13−1, Monitor on PAR Equipment, for PRM
approaches.
g. Consideration should be given to known factors Delete
that may in any way affect the safety of the
instrument approach phase of flight when PRM
approaches are being conducted to parallel
runways. Factors include, but are not limited to,
wind direction/velocity, windshear alerts/reports,
severe weather activity, etc. Closely monitor
weather activity that could impact the final
approach course. Weather conditions in the vicinity
of the final approach course may dictate a change of
the approach in use.
REFERENCE− Delete
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−1−13 , Radar Service Termination.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−9−2 , Final Approach Course
Interception.
OLD NEW
5−9−9. SIMULTANEOUS OFFSET 5−9−9. SIMULTANEOUS OFFSET
INSTRUMENT APPROACHES (SOIA) INSTRUMENT APPROACHES (SOIA)
Title through b4 NOTE No Change

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
5. A No Transgression Zone (NTZ) at least 2,000 5. A no transgression zone (NTZ) is established

feet wide is established an equal distance between an equal distance between extended runway final
extended runway final approach courses and must approach courses and must be depicted on the
be depicted on the monitor display. The NTZ begins monitor display. The NTZ begins prior to the point
prior to the point where adjacent inbound aircraft where adjacent inbound aircraft first lose vertical
first lose vertical separation and extends to a point separation and extends to a point coincident with
coincident with the location of the offset approach the location of the offset approach MAP. The
MAP. The primary responsibility for navigation on primary responsibility for navigation on the final
the final approach course rests with the pilot. approach course rests with the pilot. Control
Control instructions and information are issued instructions and information are issued only to
only to ensure separation between aircraft and to ensure separation between aircraft and to prevent
prevent aircraft from penetrating the NTZ. aircraft from penetrating the NTZ.
Add NOTE−
Where RCLS is ≤3400 feet, the normal operating
zone (NOZ) is constant at 700 feet; and for RCLS
≥3400 feet, the no transgression zone (NTZ) remains
constant at 2000 feet.
1. PARAGRAPH NUMBER AND TITLE: 7−4−4. APPROACHES TO MULTIPLE RUNWAYS
2. BACKGROUND: Visual approaches are used by air traffic control to reduce pilot and controller workload
and to expedite traffic by shortening flight paths to the airport. These approaches have been used successfully for
many years. In December 2018, the Mission Support Services, Policy Directorate, AJV−P, answered an
interpretation from the Central Service Area. In this interpretation, guidance was provided for aircraft
approaching the airport from the same side of the airport. As a result of the interpretation, content is being added
to the order to address this scenario.
3. CHANGE:
OLD NEW
7−4−4. APPROACHES TO MULTIPLE 7−4−4. APPROACHES TO MULTIPLE
RUNWAYS RUNWAYS
Title through b No Change
1. Do not permit the respective aircrafts’ 1. Do not permit the respective aircrafts’
primary radar targets to touch unless visual primary radar targets/fusion target symbols to
separation is being applied. touch unless visual separation is being applied.
2. When the aircraft flight paths intersect, ensure 2. When the aircraft flight paths intersect, ensure
approved separation is maintained until visual approved separation is maintained until visual
separation is provided. separation is applied.
c. In addition to the requirements in Paragraph c. The following conditions apply to visual
7−2−1, Visual Separation, Paragraph 7−4−1, Visual approaches being conducted simultaneously to
Approach, Paragraph 7−4−2, Vectors for Visual parallel, intersecting, and converging runways, as
Approach, and Paragraph 7−4−3, Clearance for appropriate:
Visual Approach, the following conditions apply to
visual approaches being conducted simultaneously
to parallel, intersecting, and converging runways,
as appropriate:

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
1. Parallel runways separated by less than 2,500 1. Parallel runways separated by less than 2,500
feet. Unless approved separation is provided by feet. Unless approved separation is maintained, an
ATC, an aircraft must report sighting a preceding aircraft must report sighting a preceding aircraft
aircraft making an approach (instrument or visual) making an approach (instrument or visual) to the
to the adjacent parallel runway. When an aircraft adjacent parallel runway. When an aircraft reports
reports another aircraft in sight on the adjacent final another aircraft in sight on the adjacent final
approach course and visual separation is applied, approach course and visual separation is applied,
controllers must advise the succeeding aircraft to controllers must advise the succeeding aircraft to
maintain visual separation. However, do not permit maintain visual separation. Do not permit an
a super or heavy aircraft to overtake another aircraft to overtake another aircraft when wake
aircraft. Do not permit a B757 or other large aircraft turbulence separation is required.
to overtake a small aircraft.
2. Parallel runways separated by at least 2,500 2. Parallel runways separated by 2,500 feet but
feet, but less than 4,300 feet. less than 4,300 feet.
(a) Approved separation is provided until the (a) When aircraft are approaching from
aircraft are: opposite base legs, or one aircraft is turning to
final and another aircraft is established on the
extended centerline for the adjacent runway,
approved separation is provided until the aircraft
are:
(1) Established on a heading or established No Change
on a direct course to a fix or cleared on an RNAV/
instrument approach procedure which will inter-
cept the extended centerline of the runway at an
angle not greater than 30 degrees, and,
(2) Issued an approach clearance and one (2) One pilot has acknowledged receipt of a
pilot has acknowledged receipt of a visual ap- visual approach clearance and the other pilot has
proach clearance, and, acknowledged receipt of a visual or instrument
approach clearance.
(3) The other pilot has acknowledged Delete
receipt of a visual or instrument approach
clearance.
NOTE− Delete
1. The intent of the 30 degree intercept angle is to re-
duce the potential for overshoots of the extended cen-
terline of the runway and preclude side−by−side opera-
tions with one or both aircraft in a “belly−up” configu-
ration during the turn. Aircraft performance, speed,
and the number of degrees of the turn are factors to be
considered when vectoring aircraft to parallel run-
ways.
2. Variances between heading assigned to intercept the Delete
extended centerline of the runway and aircraft ground
corrections after completion of the turn and pilot
acknowledgment of a visual approach clearance.
3. Procedures using Radius−to−Fix legs that intercept Delete
final may be used in lieu of 30−degree intercept

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
REFERENCE− Delete
FAA Publication, Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge,
Chapter 15 “Effect of Wind.”
(b) Visual approaches may be conducted to one (b) When aircraft are approaching from the
runway while visual or instrument approaches are same side of the airport and the lead aircraft is
conducted simultaneously to other runways, assigned the nearer runway, approved
provided the conditions of subpara (a) are met. separation is maintained or pilot−applied visual
separation is provided by the succeeding aircraft
until intercepting the farther adjacent runway
extended centerline.
(c) Provided aircraft flight paths do not (c) Provided that aircraft flight paths do not
intersect, and when the provisions of subparas (a) intersect, when the provisions of subparagraphs
and (b) are met, it is not necessary to apply any other (a) or (b) are met, it is not necessary to apply any
type of separation with aircraft on the adjacent final other type of separation with aircraft on the
approach course. adjacent final approach course.
Add (d) When aircraft are approaching from the
same side of the airport and the lead aircraft is
assigned the farther runway, the succeeding
aircraft must be assigned a heading that will
intercept the extended centerline of the nearer
runway at an angle not greater than 30 degrees.
Approved separation must be maintained or
pilot−applied visual separation must be
provided by the succeeding aircraft until it is
established on the extended centerline of the
nearer runway.
Add NOTE−
1. The intent of the 30 degree intercept angle is to
reduce the potential for overshoots of the extended
centerline of the runway and preclude side−by−side
operations with one or both aircraft in a “belly−up”
configuration during the turn. Aircraft performance,
speed, and the number of degrees of the turn are fac-
tors to be considered when vectoring aircraft to paral-
lel runways.
Add 2. The 30−degree intercept angle is not necessary when
approved separation is maintained until the aircraft are
established on the extended centerline of the assigned
runway.
Add 3. Variances between heading assigned to intercept the
extended centerline of the runway and aircraft ground
corrections after completion of the turn and pilot
acknowledgment of a visual approach clearance.
Add 4. Procedures using Radius−to−Fix legs that intercept
final may be used in lieu of the 30−degree intercept
3. Parallel runways separated by 4,300 feet or No Change
more.

6/17/21 JO 7110.65Z
(a) When aircraft flight paths do not intersect, (a) When the flight paths do not intersect,
visual approaches may be conducted visual approaches may be conducted
simultaneously, provided approved separation is simultaneously provided that approved separation
maintained until one of the aircraft has been issued is maintained until one of the aircraft has been
and the pilot has acknowledged receipt of the visual issued and the pilot has acknowledged receipt of the
approach clearance. visual approach clearance.
(b) Visual approaches may be conducted to one (b) Visual approaches may be conducted to one
runway while visual or instrument approaches are runway while visual or instrument approaches are
conducted simultaneously to other runways, conducted simultaneously to other runways,
provided the conditions of subpara (a) are met. provided the conditions of subparagraph (a) are
met.
(c) Provided the aircraft flight paths do not (c) Provided the flight paths do not intersect,
intersect, when the provisions of subparas (a) and when the provisions of subparagraphs (a) and (b)
(b) are met, it is not necessary to apply any other are met, it is not necessary to apply any other type
type of separation with aircraft on the adjacent final of separation with aircraft on the adjacent final
approach course. approach course.
(d) Each aircraft must either be assigned a No Change
heading or established on a direct course to a fix or
cleared on an RNAV/instrument approach
procedure which will allow the aircraft to intercept
the extended centerline of the runway at an angle
not greater than 30 degrees.
NOTE− No Change
1. The intent of the 30 degree intercept angle is to re-
duce the potential for overshoots of the extended cen-
terline of the runway and preclude side−by−side opera-
tions with one or both aircraft in a “belly−up” configu-
ration during the turn. Aircraft performance, speed,
and the number of degrees of the turn are factors to be
considered when vectoring aircraft to parallel run-
ways.
Add 2. The 30−degree intercept angle is not necessary
when approved separation is maintained until the
aircraft are established on the extended centerline of
the assigned runway.
2. Variances between heading assigned to intercept the 3. Variances between heading assigned to intercept the
extended centerline of the runway and aircraft ground extended centerline of the runway and aircraft ground
track are expected due to the effect of wind and course track are expected due to the effect of wind and course
corrections after completion of the turn and pilot corrections after completion of the turn and pilot
acknowledgment of a visual approach clearance. acknowledgment of a visual approach clearance.
3. Procedures using Radius−to−Fix legs that intercept 4. Procedures using Radius−to−Fix legs that intercept
final may be used in lieu of 30−degree intercept final may be used in lieu of 30−degree intercept
provisions contained in this paragraph. provisions contained in this paragraph.
REFERENCE− Delete
FAA Publication, Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge,
Chapter 15 “Effect of Wind.”
c4 and c4(a) No Change

(b) When aircraft flight paths intersect, No Change
approved separation must be maintained until
visual separation is provided.

JO 7110.65Z 6/17/21
NOTE− No Change
Although simultaneous approaches may be conducted
to intersecting runways, staggered approaches may be
necessary to meet the airport separation requirements
specified in Paragraph 3−10−4, Intersecting Runway/
Intersecting Flight Path Separation.
FAA Order 7110.79, Charted Visual Flight Procedures. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−7−3, Separation.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−4−5, Charted Visual Flight FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−8−3, Separation.
Procedures (CVFP). USA/USN Not Applicable. FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−9−4, Separation.
1. PARAGRAPH NUMBER AND TITLE: 9−2−14. MILITARY OPERATIONS ABOVE FL 600
2. BACKGROUND: Due to security requirements, altitude information of military operations above FL 600
are not openly transmitted on air/ground or landline circuits. Controllers and pilots use codes when relaying
altitude information that pertains to military operations above FL 600.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, paragraph 9−2−14f, Note 1, uses the term “classified” to describe the type of document
for detailing the plan for ascertaining altitude codes at the operational position. It is operationally advantageous to
allow facilities flexibility to provide controllers with information to ascertain altitude codes without specifying
use of a classified document.
3. CHANGE:
OLD NEW
9−2−14. MILITARY OPERATIONS ABOVE 9−2−14. MILITARY OPERATIONS ABOVE
FL 600 FL 600
Title through f NOTE No Change
1. Paragraph 4−5−1, Vertical Separation No Change
Minima: 5,000 feet.
NOTE− NOTE−
1. The security requirements of the military services 1. The security requirements of the military services
preclude the transmission of actual altitude informa- preclude the transmission of actual altitude informa-
tion on the air/ground or landline circuits. A classified tion on the air/ground or landline circuits. Altitude
document detailing the plan for ascertaining altitude information for the day should be readily available to
codes for the day should be readily available to the the controllers at their positions of operation. The
controllers at their positions of operation. classification requirements of the altitude informa-
tion remains unchanged.
2. Pilots will report their altitude, using the coded plan, No Change
and intended flight profile on initial contact with each
ARTCC.

Federal Aviation JO 7110.65Z CHG 1
Administration 12/2/21
BRIEFING GUIDE
U.S. DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION

FEDERAL AVIATION ADMINISTRATION
Initiated By: AJV−0

JO 7110.65Z CHG 1 12/2/21
Table of Contents
Paragraph Title Page

Number
1−2−6 ABBREVIATIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG−4
BG−5
2−1−3 PROCEDURAL PREFERENCE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG−11
2−1−9 REPORTING ESSENTIAL FLIGHT INFORMATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG−4
2−1−26 SUPERVISORY NOTIFICATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG−14
4−2−1 CLEARANCE ITEMS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG−5
4−3−2 DEPARTURE CLEARANCES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG−5
BG−15
4−8−9 MISSED APPROACH . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG−5
5−1−1 PRESENTATION AND EQUIPMENT PERFORMANCE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG−17
5−1−2 ALIGNMENT ACCURACY CHECK . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG−17
5−1−3 ATC SURVEILLANCE SOURCE USE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG−17
5−1−4 BEACON RANGE ACCURACY . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG−17
5−1−6 SERVICE LIMITATIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG−17
5−1−7 ELECTRONIC CURSOR . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG−17
5−1−11 RADAR FIX POSTING . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG−17
5−2−1 ASSIGNMENT CRITERIA . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG−21
5−2−2 DISCRETE ENVIRONMENT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG−21
5−2−3 NONDISCRETE ENVIRONMENT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG−21
5−2−4 MIXED ENVIRONMENT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG−21
5−2−5 HIJACK/UNLAWFUL INTERFERENCE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG−21
5−2−6 FUNCTION CODE ASSIGNMENTS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG−21
5−2−7 EMERGENCY CODE ASSIGNMENT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG−21
5−2−8 RADIO FAILURE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG−21
5−2−9 UNMANNED AIRCRAFT SYSTEMS (UAS) LOST LINK . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG−21
5−2−10 VFR CODE ASSIGNMENTS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG−21
5−2−11 BEACON CODE FOR PRESSURE SUIT FLIGHTS AND FLIGHTS ABOVE
FL 600 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG−21
5−2−14 CODE MONITOR . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG−21
5−3−3 BEACON/ADS−B IDENTIFICATION METHODS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG−32
5−5−6 EXCEPTIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG−17
5−6−1 APPLICATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG−5
5−6−2 METHODS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG−5
5−6−3 VECTORS BELOW MINIMUM ALTITUDE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG−5
5−8−1 PROCEDURES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG−5
5−8−2 INITIAL HEADING . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG−5
9−2−13 MILITARY AERIAL REFUELING . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG−33

12/2/21 JO 7110.65Z CHG 1
10−6−4 INFLIGHT CONTINGENCIES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG−4

10−7−1 INFORMATION RELAY . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG−4
10−7−5 EXTENDED NOTIFICATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG−4
11−1−1 DUTY RESPONSIBILITY . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG−11
11−1−2 DUTIES AND RESPONSIBILITIES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG−11
11−1−3 TIME BASED FLOW MANAGEMENT (TBFM) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . BG−11

JO 7110.65Z CHG 1 12/2/21

2−1−9. REPORTING ESSENTIAL FLIGHT INFORMATION
10−6−4. INFLIGHT CONTINGENCIES
10−7−1. INFORMATION RELAY
10−7−5. EXTENDED NOTIFICATION
2. BACKGROUND: The Federal Women’s Program (FWP) made the determination that the term Notice to
Airmen did not represent all aviators. Hence, the term itself is modified to show gender neutrality.
3. CHANGE:
OLD NEW
1−2−6. ABBREVIATIONS 1−2−6. ABBREVIATIONS
As used in this order, the abbreviations listed below No Change
have the following meanings indicated. (See TBL
1−2−1.)
TBL 1−2−1 No Change
FAA Order JO 7110.65 Abbreviations
NOTAM . . . . . . . Notice to Airmen NOTAM . . . . . . . Notice to Air Missions
OLD NEW
2−1−9. REPORTING ESSENTIAL FLIGHT 2−1−9. REPORTING ESSENTIAL FLIGHT
INFORMATION INFORMATION
Report as soon as possible to the appropriate FSS, No Change
airport manager’s office, ARTCC, approach control
facility, operations office, or military operations
office any information concerning components of
the NAS or any flight conditions which may have an
adverse effect on air safety.
NOTE− NOTE−
FSSs are responsible for classifying and disseminating FSSs are responsible for classifying and disseminating
Notices to Airmen. Notices to Air Missions.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−1−6, Service Limitations.
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 3−1−2, Periodic Maintenance.
USN, See OPNAVINST 3721.30.
OLD NEW
10−6−4. INFLIGHT CONTINGENCIES 10−6−4. INFLIGHT CONTINGENCIES
Title through a NOTE No Change
b. In all cases of aircraft ditching, the airspace b. In all cases of aircraft ditching, the airspace
required for SAR operations must be determined by required for SAR operations must be determined by
the RCC. The ACC must block that airspace until the RCC. The ACC must block that airspace until
the RCC advises the airspace is no longer required. the RCC advises the airspace is no longer required.
An International Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) must An International Notice to Air Missions (NOTAM)
be issued describing the airspace affected. must be issued describing the airspace affected.

12/2/21 JO 7110.65Z CHG 1
OLD NEW
10−7−1. INFORMATION RELAY 10−7−1. INFORMATION RELAY
c. TERMINAL. Relay all information concerning No Change
a ground missile emergency to the ARTCC within
whose area the emergency exists and disseminate as
a NOTAM.
P/CG Term − Notice to Airmen. P/CG Term − Notice to Air Missions.
OLD NEW
10−7−5. EXTENDED NOTIFICATION 10−7−5. EXTENDED NOTIFICATION
EN ROUTE No Change
When reports indicate that an emergency will exist When reports indicate that an emergency will exist
for an extended period of time, a Notice to Airmen for an extended period of time, a Notice to Air
may be issued. Missions may be issued.

4−2−1. CLEARANCE ITEMS
4−3−2. DEPARTURE CLEARANCES
4−8−9. MISSED APPROACH
5−6−1. APPLICATION
5−6−2. METHODS
5−6−3. VECTORS BELOW MINIMUM ALTITUDE
5−8−1. PROCEDURES
2. BACKGROUND: The Flight Standards Service (AFS) is revising its United States Standard for Terminal
Instrument Procedures (TERPS) criteria at the request of Air Traffic Services (AJT) to account for a lack of
criteria relating to conventional Radar Vector SIDs. In 2016, FAA Order 8260.58, United States Standard for
Performance Based Navigation (PBN) Instrument Procedure Design, was amended assuming Air Traffic would
be responsible for terrain and obstructions when aircraft are departing on PBN departure procedures by
leveraging DVAs and the controller’s use of 7110.65, paragraph 5−6−3, Vectors below Minimum Altitude.
Meanwhile, it was found there was no criteria in TERPS that accounted for Radar Vector SIDs that were not
sourced as PBN procedures. A request was made to AFS to include criteria for evaluations from the surface of the
earth on these procedures rather than depend on the use of DVAs or paragraph 5−6−3. AFS is working to publish
this criteria in 2021.
3. CHANGE:
OLD NEW
1−2−6. ABBREVIATIONS 1−2−6. ABBREVIATIONS
As used in this order, the abbreviations listed below No Change
have the following meanings indicated. (See TBL
1−2−1.)
TBL 1−2−1 No Change
FAA Order JO 7110.65 Abbreviations

JO 7110.65Z CHG 1 12/2/21
Add AAR . . . . . . . . . . Adapted arrival route

Add ADAR . . . . . . . . Adapted departure arrival route
Add ADR . . . . . . . . . . Adapted departure route
PAR . . . . . . . . . . Preferred arrival route Delete
PDAR . . . . . . . . . Preferential departure arrival route Delete
PDR . . . . . . . . . . Preferential departure route Delete
OLD NEW
4−2−1. CLEARANCE ITEMS 4−2−1. CLEARANCE ITEMS
Title through b3 PHRASEOLOGY No Change
c. Standard Instrument Departure (SID). c. Standard Instrument Departure (SID) or
vectors, where applicable.
d. Route of flight including PDR/PDAR/PAR d. Route of flight including ADR/ADAR/AAR
when applied. when applied.
OLD NEW
4−3−2. DEPARTURE CLEARANCES 4−3−2. DEPARTURE CLEARANCES
Title through c1(a)(1) No Change
(2) Diverse Vector Areas (DVA). The as- No Change
signment of an initial heading using a DVA can
be given to the pilot as part of the initial clear-
ance, but must be given no later than with the
takeoff clearance. Once airborne, an aircraft as-
signed headings within the DVA can be vectored
below the MVA/MIA. Controllers cannot inter-
rupt an aircraft’s climb in the DVA until the air-
craft is at or above the MVA/MIA.
NOTE− NOTE−
It is important for controllers to understand that there 1. It is important for controllers to understand that there
can be differences in published climb gradients appli- can be differences in published climb gradients
cable to individual departure procedures serving the applicable to individual departure procedures serving
same airport or runway. Assigning a different depar- the same airport or runway. Assigning a different
ture procedure without the pilot being able to re−brief departure procedure without the pilot being able to
may result in the pilot rejecting the new procedure. re−brief may result in the pilot rejecting the new
procedure.
Add 2. When a departure clearance includes a SID,
concurrent use of a diverse vector area (DVA) is not
permitted.
AIM, Para 5−2−7. Departure Control.
AIM, Para 5−2−9. Instrument Departure Procedures (DP) −
Obstacle Departure Procedures (ODP) and Standard Instrument
Departures (SID).

12/2/21 JO 7110.65Z CHG 1
OLD NEW
4−8−9. MISSED APPROACH 4−8−9. MISSED APPROACH
Except in the case of a VFR aircraft practicing an Except in the case of a VFR aircraft practicing an
instrument approach, an approach clearance instrument approach, an approach clearance
automatically authorizes the aircraft to execute the automatically authorizes the aircraft to execute the
missed approach procedure depicted for the missed approach procedure depicted for the
instrument approach being flown. An alternate instrument approach being flown. An alternate
missed approach procedure as published on the missed approach procedure as published on the
appropriate FAA Form 8260 or appropriate military appropriate FAA Form 8260 or appropriate military
form may be assigned when necessary. Once an form may be assigned when necessary. After an
aircraft commences a missed approach, it may be aircraft commences a missed approach, it may be
radar vectored. vectored at or above the MVA/MIA, or follow the
provisions of paragraph 5−6−3, Vectors Below
Minimum Altitude.
NOTE− No Change
1. Alternate missed approach procedures are published
on the appropriate FAA Form 8260 or appropriate
military form and require a detailed clearance when they
are issued to the pilot.
2. In the event of a missed approach involving a turn, No Change
unless otherwise cleared, the pilot will proceed to the
missed approach point before starting that turn.
3. Pilots must advise ATC when intending to apply cold No Change
temperature compensation and of the amount of
compensation required. Pilots will not apply altitude
compensation, unless authorized, when assigned an
altitude if provided an initial heading to fly or radar
vectors in lieu of published missed approach procedures.
Consideration should be given to vectoring aircraft at or
above the requested compensating altitude if possible.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−8−11, Practice Approaches.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−6−3, Vectors Below Minimum
Altitude.
Departures.
FAA Order 8260.19, Flight Procedures and Airspace, Para 8−6−6
FAA Order 8260.3, United States Standard for Terminal Instrument
Procedures (TERPS), Para 2−8−1 and Chapter 16.
OLD NEW
5−6−1. APPLICATION 5−6−1. APPLICATION
c. At or above the MVA or the minimum IFR c. At or above the MVA or the minimum IFR
altitude except as authorized for radar approaches, altitude except as authorized for radar approaches,
special VFR, VFR operations, or by Paragraph radar departures, special VFR, VFR operations,
5−6−3, Vectors Below Minimum Altitude. or by paragraph 5−6−3, Vectors Below Minimum
Altitude.

JO 7110.65Z CHG 1 12/2/21
NOTE− No Change
VFR aircraft not at an altitude assigned by ATC may
be vectored at any altitude. It is the responsibility of
the pilot to comply with the applicable parts of CFR
Title 14.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−5−6, Minimum En Route Altitudes.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−5−2, Priority.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 7−7−5, Altitude Assignments. 14 CFR
Section 91.119, Minimum Safe Altitudes: General.
OLD NEW
5−6−2. METHODS 5−6−2. METHODS
Title through c3 No Change
d. When vectoring or approving an aircraft to d. When vectoring or approving an aircraft to
deviate off of a procedure that includes published deviate off of a procedure, advise the pilot if you
altitude or speed restrictions, advise the pilot if you intend on clearing the aircraft to resume the
intend on clearing the aircraft to resume the procedure.
procedure.
FLY HEADING (degrees), MAINTAIN (altitude), (if
necessary, MAINTAIN (speed)), EXPECT TO RE-
SUME (SID, STAR, etc.).

MAINTAIN (altitude), (if necessary, MAINTAIN
(speed)), EXPECT TO RESUME (SID, STAR, etc.) AT
(NAVAID, fix, waypoint).
NOTE− No Change
After a climb via or descend via clearance has been
issued, a vector/deviation off of a SID/STAR cancels all
published altitude and speed restrictions on the proce-
dure. The aircraft’s Flight Management System (FMS)
may be unable to process crossing altitude restrictions
once the aircraft leaves the SID/STAR lateral path.
Without an assigned altitude, the aircraft’s FMS may
revert to leveling off at the altitude set by the pilot,
which may be the SID/STAR published top or bottom
altitude.
OLD NEW
5−6−3. VECTORS BELOW MINIMUM 5−6−3. VECTORS BELOW MINIMUM
ALTITUDE ALTITUDE
a. Except in en route automated environments in a. TERMINAL. As described in facility
areas where more than 3 miles separation minima is directives, when vectoring a departing IFR
required, you may vector a departing IFR aircraft, aircraft, or one executing a missed approach, when
or one executing a missed approach, within 40 miles ISR is not displayed in the full data block and
of the radar antenna and before it reaches the before it reaches the minimum altitude for IFR
minimum altitude for IFR operations if separation operations if separation from prominent obstacles
from prominent obstacles shown on the radar scope shown on the radar scope is applied in accordance
is applied in accordance with the following: with one of the following:

12/2/21 JO 7110.65Z CHG 1
1. If the flight path is 3 miles or more from the 1. The flight path is 3 miles or more from the
obstacle and the aircraft is climbing to an altitude at obstacle and the aircraft is climbing to an altitude at
least 1,000 feet above the obstacle, vector the least 1,000 feet above the obstacle, vector the
aircraft to maintain at least 3 miles separation from aircraft to maintain at least 3 miles separation from
the obstacle until the aircraft reports leaving an the obstacle until the aircraft reports leaving an
altitude above the obstacle. altitude above the obstacle, or;
2. If the flight path is less than 3 miles from the 2. The flight path is less than 3 miles from the
obstacle and the aircraft is climbing to an altitude at obstacle and the aircraft is climbing to an altitude at
least 1,000 feet above the obstacle, vector the least 1,000 feet above the obstacle, vector the
aircraft to increase lateral separation from the aircraft to increase lateral separation from the
obstacle until the 3 mile minimum is achieved or obstacle until the 3 mile minimum is achieved or
until the aircraft reports leaving an altitude above until the aircraft reports leaving an altitude above
the obstacle. the obstacle, or;
Add 3. Radar facilities may vector aircraft below
the MVA/MIA, provided:
Add (a) No prominent obstacles are within 10
NM of the departure end of runway (DER).
Add (b) Aircraft must be allowed an
uninterrupted climb to meet the MVA/MIA
within 10 NM of the DER.
Add NOTE−
ATC assumes responsibility for terrain and obstacle
avoidance when IFR aircraft are below the minimum
IFR altitude (MVA, MIA, MEA) and are taken off
departure/missed approach procedures, or if issued
go−around instructions, except after conducting a
visual approach. ATC does not assume this responsi-
bility when utilizing a Diverse Vector Area (DVA) or
when operating on SIDs with or without a published
range of headings in the departure route description.
Add b. After reaching the first MVA/MIA sector, all
subsequent MVA/MIA sectors encountered
must be met.
P/CG Term − Obstacle.
P/CG Term − Obstruction.
P/CG Term − Prominent Obstacle.
b. At those locations where diverse vector areas c. At those locations where diverse vector areas
(DVA) have been established, radar facilities may (DVA) have been established, radar facilities may
vector aircraft below the MVA/MIA within the vector aircraft below the MVA/MIA within the
DVA described in facility directives. DVA described in facility directives.
REFERENCE− Delete
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 3−8−5, Establishing Diverse Vector
Area/s (DVA).
Add d. At those locations using radar SIDs, radar
facilities may vector aircraft below the
MVA/MIA, in accordance with facility
directives.

JO 7110.65Z CHG 1 12/2/21
Add e. At locations that vector aircraft conducting

a go−around or missed approach, use authorized
headings and display those prominent obstacles
stipulated in facility directives until reaching the
MVA/MIA.
Add REFERENCE−
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−8−1, Procedures.
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 3−8−5, Establishing Diverse Vector
Area/s (DVA).
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 10−3−15, Go−Around/Missed
Approach.
OLD NEW
5−8−1. PROCEDURES 5−8−1. PROCEDURES
Use standard departure routes and channelized Delete
altitudes whenever practical to reduce coordina-
tion. Do not, however, assign these routes solely to
provide for possible radar or communication
failure.
Add a. When vectoring a departing aircraft on a
radar SID, concurrent use of a diverse vector
area (DVA) is not permitted.
Add b. When the departure route description on a
radar SID contains the phrase, “Fly assigned
heading,” “as assigned by ATC,” or similar
phrases, with a published range of headings in
the route description, assign headings or vectors
as needed not to exceed those headings in the
published range until reaching the MVA/MIA.
Add REFERENCE−
Altitude.
OLD NEW
5−8−2. INITIAL HEADING 5−8−2. INITIAL HEADING
a. Before departure, assign the initial heading to a. Before departure, assign the initial heading
be flown if a departing aircraft is to be vectored consistent with either a SID being flown or DVA,
immediately after takeoff. if applicable, when a departing aircraft is to be
vectored immediately after takeoff. At locations
that have a DVA, concurrent use of both a SID
and DVA is not permitted.
FLY RUNWAY HEADING.
TURN LEFT/RIGHT, HEADING (degrees).
NOTE− No Change
1. TERMINAL. A purpose for the heading is not
necessary, since pilots operating in a radar environment
associate assigned headings with vectors to their
planned route of flight.

12/2/21 JO 7110.65Z CHG 1
2. ATC assumes responsibility for terrain and obstacle 2. ATC assumes responsibility for terrain and obstacle
avoidance when IFR aircraft are below the minimum IFR avoidance when IFR aircraft are below the minimum IFR
altitude (MVA, MIA, MEA) and are taken off altitude (MVA, MIA, MEA) and are taken off
departure/missed approach procedures, or are issued departure/missed approach procedures, or if issued
go−around instructions, except when utilizing a Diverse go−around instructions, except after conducting a visual
Vector Area (DVA) with an aircraft departing from the approach. ATC does not assume this responsibility
surface.
when utilizing a Diverse Vector Area (DVA) or when
operating on SIDs with or without a published range of
headings in the departure route description.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−3−2, Departure Clearances.
Altitude.
Add b. At locations with both SIDs and DVAs, an
amended departure clearance is required to
cancel a previously assigned SID and
subsequently utilize a DVA or vice versa. The
amended clearance must be provided to the pilot
in a timely manner so that the pilot may brief the
changes in advance of entering the runway.
b and c Re−letter c and d

2−1−3. PROCEDURAL PREFERENCE
11−1−1. DUTY RESPONSIBILITY
11−1−2. DUTIES AND RESPONSIBILITIES
11−1−3. TIME BASED FLOW MANAGEMENT (TBFM)
2. BACKGROUND: Trajectory−Based Operations (TBO) has been identified as the foundational air traffic
management method for strategically planning, managing, and optimizing flights throughout the National
Airspace System (NAS). TBO will improve NAS throughput, predictability, flight efficiency and flexibility. The
increase in throughput is realized using time−based traffic management techniques and enabling the increased
use of precise, repeatable Performance−Based Navigation procedures. Improved predictability is achieved
through accurate and efficient end−to−end strategic planning and scheduling. Improved flight efficiency is
achieved by delivering more efficient flows into and out of major traffic hubs and the increased use of PBN.
Finally, increased operational flexibility will be achieved through increased user collaboration on preferred
trajectories and priorities to support flight operator business objectives. The current procedures do not adequately
convey TBO concepts nor do they have sufficient references or language emphasizing the importance of
Time−Based Management (TBM) and the specific use of Time−Based Flow Management (TBFM) in achieving
TBO goals.

JO 7110.65Z CHG 1 12/2/21
3. CHANGE:
OLD NEW
2−1−3. PROCEDURAL PREFERENCE 2−1−3. PROCEDURAL PREFERENCE
Add b. Use automation procedures that provide
closed loop clearances in preference to open loop
clearances to promote operational advantage for
time−based management (TBM) when
workload permits. (e.g., a QU route pick that
anticipates length of vector and includes the next
fix that ties into the route of flight.)
b and c Re−letter c and d
OLD NEW
11−1−1. DUTY RESPONSIBILITY 11−1−1. DUTY RESPONSIBILITY
b. TBFM must be used to the maximum extent No Change
feasible in preference to miles−in−trail initiatives.
NOTE− Delete
The benefits of TBFM are best realized through the
coordinated effort of all facilities supporting Perfor-
mance Based Navigation procedures or Traffic Man-
agement Initiatives (TMIs).
c. It is recognized that the ATCS is integral in the No Change
execution of the traffic management mission.
NOTE− NOTE−
Complete details of traffic management initiatives and Complete details of TBM, traffic management initia-
programs can be found in FAA Order JO 7210.3, Fa- tives and programs can be found in FAA Order JO
cility Operation and Administration. 7210.3, Facility Operation and Administration.
OLD NEW
11−1−2. DUTIES AND RESPONSIBILITIES 11−1−2. DUTIES AND RESPONSIBILITIES
a. Supervisory Traffic Management Coordinator− No Change
in−Charge (STMCIC) must:
1. Ensure an operational briefing is conducted at 1. Ensure an operational briefing is conducted at
least once during the day and evening shifts. least once during the day and evening shifts.
Participants must include, at a minimum, the Participants must include, at a minimum, the
STMCIC, Operations Supervisor−in−Charge STMCIC, Operations Supervisor−in−Charge
(OSMIC)/Controller−in−Charge (CIC) and other (OSMIC)/Controller−in−Charge (CIC) and other
interested personnel as designated by facility interested personnel as designated by facility
management. Discussions at the meeting should management. Discussions at the meeting should
include meteorological conditions (present and include meteorological conditions (present and
forecasted), staffing, equipment status, runways in forecasted), staffing, equipment status, runways in
use, Airport Arrival Rate (AAR)/Metering use, Airport Arrival Rate (AAR), TBM use, and
Parameters and Traffic Management Initiatives Traffic Management Initiatives (TMIs) (present
(TMIs) (present and anticipated). and anticipated).
2. Assume responsibility for TMC duties when No Change
not staffed.

12/2/21 JO 7110.65Z CHG 1
3. Ensure that TMIs are carried out by personnel 3. Ensure that TBM operations and TMIs are
providing traffic management services. carried out by personnel providing traffic
management services.
a4 and a5 No Change
6. Ensure changes to restrictions/metering are 6. Ensure changes to TBM operations and
implemented in a timely manner. TMIs are implemented in a timely manner.
b. OS/CIC must: No Change
1. Keep the TMU and affected sectors apprised No Change
of situations or circumstances that may cause
congestion or delays.
2. Coordinate with the TMU and personnel 2. Coordinate with the TMU and personnel
providing air traffic services to develop appropriate providing air traffic services to develop appropriate
TMIs for sectors and airports in their area of TBM operations or TMIs for sectors and airports
responsibility. in their area of responsibility.
3. Continuously review TMIs affecting their 3. Continuously review TBM operations and
area of responsibility and coordinate with TMU for TMIs affecting their area of responsibility and
extensions, revisions, or cancellations. coordinate with TMU for extensions, revisions, or
cancellations.
4. Ensure that TMIs are carried out by personnel 4. Ensure that TBM operations and TMIs are
providing air traffic services. carried out by personnel providing air traffic
services.
b5 and b6 No Change
7. Ensure changes to TMIs are implemented in 7. Ensure changes to TBM operations and
a timely manner. TMIs are implemented in a timely manner.
c. Personnel providing air traffic services must: No Change
1. Ensure that TMIs are enforced within their 1. Ensure that TBM operations and TMIs are
area of responsibility. TMIs do not have priority enforced within their area of responsibility. TBM
over maintaining: operations and TMIs do not have priority over
maintaining:
c1(a) through c2 No Change
3. Continuously review TMIs affecting their 3. Continuously review TBM operations and
area of responsibility and coordinate with OS/CIC TMIs affecting their area of responsibility and
and TMU for extensions, revisions, or coordinate with OS/CIC and TMU for extensions,
cancellations. revisions, or cancellations.
c4 and c5 No Change
d. ARTCCs, unless otherwise coordinated, must: No Change
1. Support TBFM operations and monitor 1. Support TBFM operations and monitor
TBFM equipment to improve situational awareness TBFM equipment to improve situational awareness
for a system approach to TMIs. for a system approach to TBM operations.
2. Monitor arrival flow for potential metering No Change
actions/changes and, if necessary, initiate
coordination with all facilities to discuss the change
to the metering plan.
e. TRACONs, unless otherwise coordinated, No Change
must:

JO 7110.65Z CHG 1 12/2/21
1. Support TBFM operations and monitor 1. Support TBFM operations and monitor
TBFM equipment to improve situational awareness TBFM equipment to improve situational awareness
for a system approach to TMIs. for a system approach to TBM operations.
e2 and e3 No Change
f. ATCTs, unless otherwise coordinated, must: No Change
1. Monitor TBFM equipment to improve 1. Monitor TBFM equipment to improve
situational awareness for a system approach to situational awareness for a system approach to
TMIs. TBM operations.
Add 2. When equipped, and departure scheduling
is in effect, use automation to obtain a departure
release time from the TBM system.
2. Release aircraft, when CFR is in effect, so 3. When departure scheduling or Call for
they are airborne within a window that extends from Release is in effect, release aircraft so they are
2 minutes prior and ends 1 minute after the assigned airborne within a window that extends from 2
time. minutes prior and ends 1 minute after the assigned
time, unless otherwise coordinated.
NOTE− No Change
Coordination may be verbal, electronic, or written.
OLD NEW
11−1−3. TIME BASED FLOW 11−1−3. TIME−BASED FLOW
MANAGEMENT (TBFM) MANAGEMENT (TBFM)
During periods of metering, personnel providing air No Change
traffic services must:
a. Display TBFM schedule information on the No Change
main display monitor (MDM).
b. Comply with TBFM−generated metering times No Change
within +/− 1 minute.
1. If TBFM−generated metering time accuracy 1. If TBFM−generated metering time accuracy
within +/− 1 minute cannot be used for specific within +/− 1 minute cannot be used for specific
aircraft due to significant jumps in the delay aircraft due to significant jumps in the delay
countdown timer (DCT), other TMIs may be used countdown timer (DCT), then TMIs may be used
between those aircraft such as miles−in−trail (MIT) between those aircraft such as miles−in−trail (MIT)
or minutes−in−trail (MINIT) to assist in delay or minutes−in−trail (MINIT) to assist in delay
absorption until stability resumes. absorption until stability resumes.
1. PARAGRAPH NUMBER AND TITLE: 2−1−26. SUPERVISORY NOTIFICATION
2. BACKGROUND: Suspicious Unmanned Aircraft System (UAS) operations potentially pose the same
hazardous conditions as manned aircraft to the safety of flight. Therefore, it is imperative air traffic control
personnel report any suspicious aircraft or pilot activity whether it involves manned or unmanned flights.
3. CHANGE:
OLD NEW
2−1−26. SUPERVISORY NOTIFICATION 2−1−26. SUPERVISORY NOTIFICATION
Title through e No Change

12/2/21 JO 7110.65Z CHG 1
f. Possible suspicious aircraft/pilot activity as f. Aircraft/pilot activity, including unmanned

prescribed in FAA Order JO 7610.4, paragraph aircraft system (UAS) operation that is
7−3−1. considered suspicious, as prescribed in FAA
Order JO 7610.4, paragraph 7−3−1, and for
information more specific to UAS, FAA Order
JO 7210.3, paragraph 2−1−32.
Add REFERENCE−
P/CG Term − Suspicious UAS.
1. PARAGRAPH NUMBER AND TITLE: 4−3−2. DEPARTURE CLEARANCES

2. BACKGROUND: Confusion exists concerning the soliciting of Visual Climb over Airport (VCOA)
procedures. Obstacle departure procedures (ODP) are published in the Takeoff Minimums section in the front of
the Terminal Procedures Publication. The VCOA is an option to provide an alternative method to depart from a
particular runway when the aircraft cannot meet published climb gradients, as long as the published weather
minima are met. Where VCOA procedures are published, they typically appear in addition to the textual
departure procedure within the ODP. Where both a textual departure procedure and a VCOA are published, ATC
is currently not permitted to solicit the pilot’s use of the VCOA, and the pilot is required to inform ATC of their
intent to use the VCOA before departure. There are unique circumstances where the VCOA is the only published
means to depart from a runway under instrument flight rules.
3. CHANGE:
OLD NEW
4−3−2. DEPARTURE CLEARANCES 4−3−2. DEPARTURE CLEARANCES
Title through c1(c) No Change
2. Where an obstacle departure procedure 2. Where an ODP has been published for a
(ODP) has been published for a location and pilot location and pilot compliance is necessary to ensure
compliance is necessary to ensure separation, separation, include the procedure as part of the ATC
include the procedure as part of the ATC clearance. clearance. Additionally, when an ODP is
included in the clearance and the Visual Climb
over Airport (VCOA) is requested by the pilot or
assigned by ATC when it is the only procedure
published in the ODP, include an instruction to
remain within the published visibility of the
VCOA.
“Depart via the (airport name)(runway number) “Depart via the (airport name)(runway number)
departure procedure.” obstacle departure procedure. Remain within (number
Or of miles) miles of the (airport name) during visual
“Depart via the (graphic ODP name) obstacle climb” if applicable. Or,
departure procedure.” “Depart via the (graphic ODP name) obstacle
departure procedure. Remain within (number of
miles) miles of the (airport name) during visual
climb” if applicable.
Add NOTE−
1. Pilots will advise ATC of their intent to use the
VCOA option when requesting their IFR clearance.
NOTE− 2. Some aircraft are required by 14 CFR 91.175 to
Some aircraft are required by 14 CFR 91.175 to depart depart a runway under IFR using the ODP absent other
a runway under IFR using the ODP absent other in- instructions from ATC.
structions from ATC.

JO 7110.65Z CHG 1 12/2/21
NOTE− 3. IFR takeoff minimums and obstacle departure

IFR takeoff minimums and obstacle departure proce- procedures are prescribed for specific airports/runways
dures are prescribed for specific airports/runways and and published in either a textual, or graphic form with the
published in either a textual, or graphic form with the label (OBSTACLE) in the procedure title, and
label (OBSTACLE) in the procedure title, and docu- documented on an appropriate FAA Form 8260. To alert
mented on an appropriate FAA Form 8260. To alert pilots of their existence, instrument approach procedure
pilots of their existence, instrument approach proce-
charts are annotated with a symbol:
dure charts are annotated with a symbol:
3. Do not solicit use of the Visual Climb over Delete

Airport (VCOA) option.
NOTE− Delete
Pilots will specifically advise ATC of their intent to use
the VCOA option.
4. Compatibility with a procedure issued may be 3. Compatibility with a procedure issued may be
verified by asking the pilot if items obtained/ verified by asking the pilot if items obtained/
solicited will allow him/her to comply with local solicited will allow him/her to comply with local
traffic pattern, terrain, or obstruction avoidance. traffic pattern, terrain, or obstruction avoidance.
FLY RUNWAY HEADING.
DEPART (direction or runway).
TURN LEFT/RIGHT.
WHEN ENTERING CONTROLLED AIRSPACE (in-

struction), FLY HEADING (degrees) UNTIL REACH-
ING (altitude, point, or fix) BEFORE PROCEEDING
ON COURSE.
FLY A (degree) BEARING/AZIMUTH FROM/TO (fix)

UNTIL (time),
or
UNTIL REACHING (fix or altitude),
and if required,
BEFORE PROCEEDING ON COURSE.

EXAMPLE− No Change
“Verify right turn after departure will allow compli-
ance with local traffic pattern,”or “Verify this clear-
ance will allow compliance with terrain or obstruction
avoidance.”
NOTE− No Change
If a published IFR departure procedure is not included
in an ATC clearance, compliance with such a proce-
dure is the pilot’s prerogative.
5. SIDs: 4. SIDs:

12/2/21 JO 7110.65Z CHG 1
(a) Assign a SID (including transition if (a) Assign a SID (including transition if
necessary). Assign a PDR or the route filed by the necessary). Assign an ADR/ADAR, when
pilot, only when a SID is not established for the applicable or the route filed by the pilot, when a
departure route to be flown, or the pilot has SID is not established for the departure route to be
indicated that he/she does not wish to use a SID. flown, or the pilot has indicated that he/she does not
wish to use a SID.
NOTE− No Change
Departure procedure descriptive text contained within
parentheses (for example, “Jimmy One (RNAV) Depar-
ture”) is not included in departure clearance phraseol-
ogy.
(SID name and number) DEPARTURE.
(SID name and number) DEPARTURE, (transition

name) TRANSITION.
EXAMPLE− No Change
“Stroudsburg One Departure.”
“Stroudsburg One Departure, Sparta Transition.”
NOTE− No Change
If a pilot does not wish to use a SID issued in an ATC
clearance, or any other SID published for that loca-
tion, he/she is expected to advise ATC.

5−1−1. PRESENTATION AND EQUIPMENT PERFORMANCE
5−1−2. ALIGNMENT ACCURACY CHECK
5−1−3. ATC SURVEILLANCE SOURCE USE
5−1−4. BEACON RANGE ACCURACY
5−1−6. SERVICE LIMITATIONS
5−1−7. ELECTRONIC CURSOR
5−1−11. RADAR FIX POSTING
5−5−6. EXCEPTIONS
2. BACKGROUND: In all FAA radar facilities, radar mapping is always available, and “electronic cursors”
are no longer used. In addition, alignment accuracy and beacon range accuracy are now assured by all FAA
automation systems, and direct controller actions are no longer necessary. These manual alignment checks are
still performed by some Air National Guard units that utilize legacy analog equipment for mobile deployments;
however, the U.S. Air Force will publish appropriate procedures in their own air traffic manuals until that
equipment is decommissioned.
3. CHANGE:
OLD NEW
5−1−1. PRESENTATION AND EQUIPMENT 5−1−1. PRESENTATION AND EQUIPMENT
PERFORMANCE PERFORMANCE
Provide radar service only if you are personally a. Provide radar services only if you are
satisfied that the radar presentation and equipment personally satisfied that the radar presentation and
performance is adequate for the service being equipment performance is adequate for the service
provided. being provided.

JO 7110.65Z CHG 1 12/2/21
NOTE− NOTE−
The provision of radar service is not limited to the dis- The provision of radar services is not limited to the
tance and altitude parameters obtained during the distance and altitude parameters obtained during the
commissioning flight check. FAA Order 8200.1, United commissioning flight check. FAA Order 8200.1, United
States Standard Flight Inspection Manual, Chapter 14, States Standard Flight Inspection Manual, Chapter 14,
Surveillance, describes the surveillance flight inspec- Surveillance, describes the surveillance flight inspec-
tion procedures. tion procedures.
Add b. Notify the OS/CIC of any radar
malfunctions or unexpected outages. Advise
adjacent facilities when appropriate.
Add REFERENCE−
Information.
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Chapter 3, Chapter 7, Chapter 10 Section 5,
OLD NEW
5−1−2. ALIGNMENT ACCURACY CHECK Delete
TERMINAL Delete
a. At locations not equipped with Digital Terminal Delete
Automation Systems (DTAS), during relief
briefing, or as soon as possible after assuming
responsibility for a control position, check the
operating equipment for alignment accuracy and
display acceptability. Recheck periodically
throughout the watch.
REFERENCE− Delete
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Chapter 3, Chapter 8, Chapter 9, Chapter 10,
and Chapter 11.
Comparable Military Directives.
1. Check the alignment of the radar video display Delete
by assuring that the video/digital map or overlay is
properly aligned with a permanent target of known
range and azimuth on the radar display. Where
possible, check one permanent target per quadrant.
2. Accuracy of the radar video display must be Delete
verified for digitized radar systems by using the
moving target indicator (MTI) reflectors, fixed
location beacon transponders (Parrots), beacon
real−time quality control (RTQC) symbols or
calibration performance monitor equipment
(CPME) beacon targets.
REFERENCE− Delete
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 3−7−1, Tolerance for Radar Fix
Accuracy.
3. Digital Terminal Automation Systems Delete
(DTAS) conduct continuous self−monitoring of
alignment accuracy; therefore, controller alignment
checks are not required.
OLD NEW
5−1−3. ATC SURVEILLANCE SOURCE USE 5−1−2. ATC SURVEILLANCE SOURCE USE
Title through a2 NOTE 2 No Change

12/2/21 JO 7110.65Z CHG 1
(c) A secondary radar system is the only source (c) A secondary radar system is the only source
of radar data for the area of service. When the of radar data for the area of service. TERMINAL.
system is used for separation, beacon range Advise pilots when these conditions exist.
accuracy is assured, as provided in paragraph
5−1−4, Beacon Range Accuracy. TERMINAL.
Advise pilots when these conditions exist.
NOTE− No Change
Advisory may be omitted when provided on ATIS or by
other appropriate notice to pilots.
OLD NEW
5−1−4. BEACON RANGE ACCURACY Delete
a. You may use beacon targets for separation Delete
purposes if beacon range accuracy is verified by one
of the following methods:
NOTE− Delete
1. The check for verification of beacon range accuracy
accomplished by correlation of beacon and primary
radar targets of the same aircraft is not a check of display
accuracy. Therefore, it is not necessary that it be done
using the same display with which separation is being
provided, nor the same targets being separated.
2. Narrowband and Full Digital Automation Systems: Delete
Technical operations personnel verify beacon range
accuracy for automated narrowband display equipment
and Full Digital Terminal Automation Systems.
Consequently, further verification by the controller is
unnecessary.
1. Correlate beacon and primary targets of the Delete
same aircraft (not necessarily the one being
provided separation) to assure that they coincide.
2. When beacon and primary targets of the same Delete
aircraft do not coincide, correlate them to assure
that any beacon displacement agrees with the
specified distance and direction for that particular
radar system.
3. Refer to beacon range monitoring equipment Delete
where so installed.
b. If beacon range accuracy cannot be verified, Delete
you may use beacon targets only for traffic
information.
REFERENCE− Delete
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−1−3, Radar Use.
5−1−5 Renumber 5−1−3
OLD NEW
5−1−6. SERVICE LIMITATIONS Delete
a. When radar mapping is not available, limit Delete
radar services to:
1. Separating identified aircraft targets. Delete

JO 7110.65Z CHG 1 12/2/21
2. Vectoring aircraft to intercept a PAR final Delete

approach course.
3. Providing radar service in areas that ensure no Delete
confliction with traffic on airways, other ATC areas
of jurisdiction, restricted or prohibited areas,
terrain, etc.
b. EN ROUTE. When the position symbol Delete
associated with the data block falls more than one
history behind the actual aircraft target or there is no
target symbol displayed, the Mode C information in
the data block must not be used for the purpose of
determining separation.
c. Report radar malfunctions immediately for Delete
corrective action and for dispatch of a Notice to
Airmen. Advise adjacent ATC facilities when
appropriate.
REFERENCE− Delete
Information.
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Chapter 3, Chapter 7, Chapter 10 Section 5,
OLD NEW
5−1−7. ELECTRONIC CURSOR Delete
TERMINAL Delete
a. An electronic cursor may be used to aid in Delete
identifying and vectoring an aircraft and to give
finer delineation to a video map. Do not use it as a
substitute for a video map or map overlay; e.g., to
form intersections, airway boundaries, final
approach courses, etc.
b. Fixed electronic cursors may be used to form Delete
the final approach course for surveillance
approaches conducted by military operated mobile
radar facilities.
5−1−8 through 5−1−10 Renumber 5−1−4 through 5−1−6
OLD NEW
5−1−11. RADAR FIX POSTING 5−1−7. MANUAL FIX POSTING
EN ROUTE No Change
A controller is required to manually record at least Manually record the observed or reported time over
once the observed or reported time over a fix for a fix at least once for each controlled aircraft in
each controlled aircraft in their sector of responsi- your sector of responsibility when the flight
bility only when the flight progress recording progress recording components of the EAS FDP are
components of the EAS FDP are not operational. not operational.
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 6−1−6, Flight Progress Strip Usage. FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 6−1−6, Flight Progress Strip Usage.
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 10−1−8, Flight Progress Strip Usage.
5−1−12 and 5−1−13 Renumber 5−1−8 and 5−1−9

12/2/21 JO 7110.65Z CHG 1
OLD NEW
5−5−6. EXCEPTIONS 5−5−6. EXCEPTIONS
Title through b3 No Change
Add c. EN ROUTE. When the position symbol
associated with the data block falls more than
one history behind the actual aircraft target or
there is no target symbol displayed, the Mode C
information in the data block must not be used
for the purpose of determining separation.

5−2−1. ASSIGNMENT CRITERIA
5−2−2. DISCRETE ENVIRONMENT
5−2−3. NONDISCRETE ENVIRONMENT
5−2−4. MIXED ENVIRONMENT
5−2−5. HIJACK/UNLAWFUL INTERFERENCE
5−2−6. FUNCTION CODE ASSIGNMENTS
5−2−7. EMERGENCY CODE ASSIGNMENT
5−2−8. RADIO FAILURE
5−2−9. UNMANNED AIRCRAFT SYSTEMS (UAS) LOST LINK
5−2−10. VFR CODE ASSIGNMENTS
5−2−11. BEACON CODE FOR PRESSURE SUIT FLIGHTS AND FLIGHTS ABOVE FL 600
5−2−14. CODE MONITOR
2. BACKGROUND: In the process of revising FAA Order JO 7110.66, National Beacon Code Allocation
Plan, it was observed that there were references in that order to certain beacon code practices that have not been
used for many years. The earliest secondary radar systems used two−digit ground interrogators and aircraft
transponders, which only allowed for 64 radar beacon codes. Once the current four−digit, 4096−code systems
became fully deployed across the NAS, the concepts of “function code assignments,” which were used to
coordinate the assigned altitude stratum or other operational status of a flight; and “discrete,” “nondiscrete,” and
“mixed” environments, which described whether a facility was using two−digit or four−digit beacon decoding
equipment, became obsolete.
All current FAA ATC automation platforms are equipped with fully automatic beacon decoders, and will always
force a target to appear on controllers’ displays when an aircraft transmits code 7500 (Hijack) or 7600
(Communication Failure). Those two codes, along with 7400 (UAS Lost Link) and 7700 (Emergency), are
adapted in FAA ATC automation systems to display special characters in the data block instead of showing the
beacon code itself. In ERAM, those characters are “LLNK” for 7400, “HIJK” for 7500, “RDOF” for 7600, and
“EMRG” for 7700; and in STARS and MEARTS, those characters are “LL,” “HJ,” “RF,” and “EM,” respectively.
In response to a request from FAA System Operations Security, to keep potentially sensitive flight information
from public exposure, the specific beacon code allocations for certain high−altitude flights have been moved to
FAA Order JO 7610.4, Special Operations.
3. CHANGE:
OLD NEW
5−2−1. ASSIGNMENT CRITERIA 5−2−1. ASSIGNMENT CRITERIA
Title through a1 No Change

JO 7110.65Z CHG 1 12/2/21
2. Make beacon code assignments to only No Change

ADS−B and/or transponder−equipped aircraft.
NOTE− NOTE−
Aircraft equipped with ADS−B are also still required to Aircraft equipped with ADS−B are also still required to
have an operable transponder. The ATC−assigned code have an operable transponder. The ATC−assigned
is one of the required message elements of ADS−B Out. beacon code is one of the required message elements of
ADS−B Out.
b. Unless otherwise specified in a directive or a b. Unless otherwise specified in this section, a
letter of agreement, make code assignments to facility directive, or a letter of agreement, issue
departing, en route, and arriving aircraft in beacon codes assigned by the computer.
accordance with the procedures specified in this Computer−assigned codes may be modified as
section for the code environment in which you are required.
providing ATC service. Give first preference to the
use of discrete codes.
Add NOTE−
The computer will assign only discrete beacon codes
unless all the discrete codes allocated to a facility are
in use.
Add 1. TERMINAL. Aircraft that will remain
within the terminal facility’s delegated airspace
must be assigned a code from the code subset
allocated to the terminal facility.
Add 2. TERMINAL. Unless otherwise specified in
a facility directive or a letter of agreement,
aircraft that will enter an adjacent facility’s
delegated airspace must be assigned a beacon
code assigned by the ARTCC computer.
Add NOTE−
This will provide the adjacent facility advance infor-
mation on the aircraft and will cause auto−acquisi-
tion of the aircraft prior to handoff. When an air-
borne aircraft that has been assigned a beacon code
by the ARTCC computer and whose flight plan will
terminate in another facility’s area cancels ATC ser-
vice, appropriate action should be taken to remove
flight plan information on that aircraft.
SQUAWK THREE/ALFA (code),
or
SQUAWK (code).
NOTE− Delete
A code environment is determined by an operating po-
sition’s/sector’s equipment capability to decode radar
beacon targets using either the first and second or all
four digits of a beacon code.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−3−3, Beacon/ADS−B Identification FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−3−3, Beacon/ADS−B Identification
Methods. Methods.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−3−4, Terminal Automation Systems
Identification Methods.

12/2/21 JO 7110.65Z CHG 1
Add c. Code 4000 should be assigned when aircraft

are operating on a flight plan specifying frequent
or rapid changes in assigned altitude in more
than one stratum or other category of flight not
compatible with a discrete code assignment.
Add NOTE−
include certain flight test aircraft, MTR missions,
aerial refueling operation requiring descent involving
more than one stratum, ALTRVs where continuous
monitoring of ATC frequencies is not required and
frequent altitude changes are approved, and other
flights requiring special handling by ATC.
Add 2. Military aircraft operating in restricted/warning
areas or on VR routes will squawk 4000 unless another
code has been assigned or coordinated with ATC.
OLD NEW
5−2−2. DISCRETE ENVIRONMENT Delete
a. Issue discrete beacon codes assigned by the Delete
computer. Computer−assigned codes may be
modified as required.
1. TERMINAL. Aircraft that will remain within Delete
the terminal facility’s delegated airspace must be
assigned a code from the code subset allocated to
the terminal facility.
2. TERMINAL. Unless otherwise specified in a Delete
facility directive or a letter of agreement, aircraft
that will enter an adjacent STARS facility’s
delegated airspace must be assigned a beacon code
assigned by the ARTCC computer.
NOTE− Delete
1. This will provide the adjacent facility advance
information on the aircraft and will cause auto−acquisi-
tion of the aircraft prior to handoff.
2. When an IFR aircraft, or a VFR aircraft that has been Delete
assigned a beacon code by the ARTCC computer and
whose flight plan will terminate in another facility’s area,
cancels ATC service or does not activate the flight plan,
ensure that appropriate action is taken to remove strips
(RS message) on that aircraft.
b. Make handoffs to other positions/sectors on the Delete
computer−assigned code.

JO 7110.65Z CHG 1 12/2/21
c. Coastal facilities accepting “over” traffic that Delete

will subsequently be handed−off to an oceanic
ARTCC must reassign a new discrete beacon code
to an aircraft when it first enters the receiving
facility’s airspace. The code reassignment must be
accomplished by inputting an appropriate message
into the computer and issued to the pilot while
operating in the first sector/position in the receiving
facility’s airspace.
NOTE− Delete
Per an agreement between FAA and the Department of
Defense, 17 Code subsets in the NBCAP have been
reserved for exclusive military use outside NBCAP
airspace. To maximize the use of these subsets, they
have been allocated to ARTCC’s underlying NBCAP
airspace that do not abut an oceanic ARTCC’s area. To
preclude a potential situation where two aircraft might
be in the same airspace at the same time on the same
discrete code, it is necessary to reassign an aircraft
another code as specified in subparagraph c.
REFERENCE− Delete
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−2−4, Mixed Environment.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−2−10, VFR Code Assignments.
Methods.
OLD NEW
5−2−3. NONDISCRETE ENVIRONMENT Delete
a. Assign appropriate nondiscrete beacon codes Delete
from the function codes specified in paragraph
5−2−6, Function Code Assignments.
b. Unless otherwise coordinated at the time of Delete
handoff, make handoffs to other positions/sectors
on an appropriate nondiscrete function code.
REFERENCE− Delete
Methods.
OLD NEW
5−2−4. MIXED ENVIRONMENT Delete
a. When discrete beacon code capability does not Delete
exist in your area of responsibility, comply with the
procedures specified in paragraph 5−2−3,
Nondiscrete Environment.
NOTE− Delete
In a mixed code environment, a situation may exist
where a discrete−equipped position/sector exchanges
control of aircraft with nondiscrete−equipped facilities
or vice versa.
b. When discrete beacon code capability exists in Delete
your area of responsibility:

12/2/21 JO 7110.65Z CHG 1
1. Comply with the procedures specified in Delete

paragraph 5−2−2, Discrete Environment, and
2. Unless otherwise coordinated at the time of Delete
handoff, assign aircraft that will enter the area of
responsibility of a nondiscrete−equipped position/
sector an appropriate nondiscrete function code
from the codes specified in paragraph 5−2−6,
Function Code Assignments, prior to initiating a
handoff.
REFERENCE− Delete
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−2−8, IFR−VFR and VFR−IFR
Flights.
Methods.
5−2−5 Renumber 5−2−2
OLD NEW
5−2−6. FUNCTION CODE ASSIGNMENTS Delete
Unless otherwise specified by a directive or a letter Delete
of agreement, make nondiscrete code assignments
from the following categories:
a. Assign codes to departing IFR aircraft as Delete
follows:
1. Code 2000 to an aircraft which will climb to Delete
FL 240 or above or to an aircraft which will climb
to FL 180 or above where the base of Class A
airspace and the base of the operating sector are at
FL 180, and for interfacility handoff the receiving
sector is also stratified at FL 180. The en route code
must not be assigned until the aircraft is established
in the high altitude sector.
2. Code 1100 to an aircraft which will remain Delete
below FL 240 or below FL 180 as above.
3. For handoffs from terminal facilities when so Delete
specified in a letter of agreement as follows:
(a) Within NBCAP airspace− Code 0100 to Delete
Code 0400 inclusive or any other code authorized
by the appropriate service area office.
(b) Outside NBCAP airspace− Code 1000 or Delete
one of the codes from 0100 to 0700 inclusive or any
other code authorized by the appropriate service
area office.
b. Assign codes to en route IFR aircraft as follows: Delete
NOTE− Delete
1. FL 180 may be used in lieu of FL 240 where the base
of Class A airspace and the base of the operating sector
are at FL 180, and for interfacility handoff the receiving
sector is also stratified at FL 180.

JO 7110.65Z CHG 1 12/2/21
2. The provisions of subparagraphs b2(b) and (c) may be Delete

modified by facility directive or letter of agreement when
operational complexities or simplified sectorization
indicate. Letters of agreement are mandatory when the
operating sectors of two facilities are not stratified at
identical levels. The general concept of utilizing Codes
2100 through 2500 within Class A airspace should be
adhered to.
1. Aircraft operating below FL 240 or when Delete
control is transferred to a controller whose area
includes the stratum involved.
(a) Code 1000 may be assigned to aircraft Delete
changing altitudes.
(b) Code 1100 to an aircraft operating at an Delete
assigned altitude below FL 240. Should an
additional code be operationally desirable, Code
1300 must be assigned.
2. Aircraft operating at or above FL 240 or when Delete
control is transferred to a controller whose area
includes the stratum involved.
(a) Code 2300 may be assigned to aircraft Delete
changing altitudes.
(b) Code 2100 to an aircraft operating at an Delete
assigned altitude from FL 240 to FL 330 inclusive.
Should an additional code be operationally
desirable, Code 2200 must be assigned.
(c) Code 2400 to an aircraft operating at an Delete
assigned altitude from FL 350 to FL 600 inclusive.
Should an additional code be operationally
desirable, Code 2500 must be assigned.
3. Code 4000 when aircraft are operating on a Delete
flight plan specifying frequent or rapid changes in
assigned altitude in more than one stratum or other
conditions of flight not compatible with a stratified
code assignment.
NOTE− Delete
include certain flight test aircraft, MTR missions, aerial
refueling operation requiring descent involving more
than one stratum, ALTRVs where continuous monitoring
of ATC communications facilities is not required and
frequent altitude changes are approved, and other
aircraft operating on flight plans requiring special
handling by ATC.
2. Military aircraft operating VFR or IFR in restricted/ Delete
warning areas or VFR on VR routes will adjust their
transponders to reply on Code 4000 unless another code
has been assigned by ATC or coordinated, if possible,
with ATC.

12/2/21 JO 7110.65Z CHG 1
c. Assign the following codes to arriving IFR Delete

aircraft, except military turbojet aircraft as
specified in paragraph 4−7−4, Radio Frequency and
Radar Beacon Changes for Military Aircraft:
NOTE− Delete
FL 180 may be used in lieu of FL 240 where the base
of Class A airspace and the base of the operating sec-
tor are at FL 180, and for interfacility handoff the re-
ceiving sector is also stratified at FL 180.
1. Code 2300 may be assigned for descents Delete
while above FL 240.
2. Code 1500 may be assigned for descents into Delete
and while within the strata below FL 240, or with
prior coordination the specific code utilized by the
destination controller, or the code currently
assigned when descent clearance is issued.
3. The applicable en route code for the holding Delete
altitude if holding is necessary before entering the
terminal area and the appropriate code in
subparagraphs 1 or 2.
REFERENCE− Delete
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 4−2−8, IFR−VFR and VFR−IFR
Flights.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−2−3, Nondiscrete Environment.
Methods.
OLD NEW
5−2−7. EMERGENCY CODE ASSIGNMENT 5−2−3. EMERGENCY CODE ASSIGNMENT
Assign codes to emergency aircraft as follows: No Change
a. Code 7700 when the pilot declares an No Change
emergency and the aircraft is not radar identified.
SQUAWK MAYDAY ON 7700.
Add NOTE−
Instead of displaying “7700” in the data block, ER-
AM will display “EMRG,” and STARS/MEARTS will
display “EM.”
b. After radio and radar contact have been b. After radio and radar contact have been
established, you may request other than established, you may request other than
single−piloted helicopters and single−piloted single−piloted helicopters and single−piloted
turbojet aircraft to change from Code 7700 to turbojet aircraft to change from Code 7700 to a
another code appropriate for your radar beacon computer−assigned discrete code.
code environment.
NOTE− NOTE−
1. The code change, based on pilot concurrence, the 1. The code change, based on pilot concurrence, the
nature of the emergency, and current flight conditions nature of the emergency, and current flight conditions,
will signify to other radar facilities that the aircraft in will signify to other ATC facilities that the aircraft in
distress is identified and under ATC control. distress is identified and under ATC control.

JO 7110.65Z CHG 1 12/2/21
2. Pilots of single−piloted helicopters and single−pilot- 2. Pilots of single−piloted helicopters and single−piloted
ed turbojet aircraft may be unable to reposition turbojet aircraft may be unable to change transponder
transponder controls during the emergency. settings during an emergency.
RADAR CONTACT (position). IF FEASIBLE,
SQUAWK (code).
Methods.
OLD NEW
5−2−8. RADIO FAILURE 5−2−4. RADIO FAILURE
When you observe a Code 7600 display, apply the No Change
procedures in paragraph 10−4−4, Communications
Failure.
NOTE− NOTE−
Should a transponder−equipped aircraft experience a 1. An aircraft experiencing a loss of two−way radio
loss of two−way radio communications capability, the communications capability can be expected to squawk
pilot can be expected to adjust his/her transponder to Code 7600.
Code 7600.
Add 2. Instead of displaying “7600” in the data block,
ERAM will display “RDOF,” and STARS/MEARTS
will display “RF.”
Methods.
OLD NEW
Add 5−2−5. HIJACK/UNLAWFUL
INTERFERENCE
Add When you observe a Code 7500 display, apply
the procedures in paragraph 10−2−6, Hijacked
Aircraft.
Add NOTE−
Instead of displaying “7500” in the data block,
ERAM will display “HIJK,” and STARS/MEARTS
will display “HJ.”
Add REFERENCE−
Methods.
OLD NEW
5−2−9. UNMANNED AIRCRAFT SYSTEMS 5−2−6. UNMANNED AIRCRAFT SYSTEMS
(UAS) LOST LINK (UAS) LOST LINK
Code 7400 may be displayed by unmanned aircraft Code 7400 may be transmitted by unmanned
systems (UAS) when the control link between the aircraft systems (UAS) when the control link
aircraft and the pilot is lost. Lost link procedures are between the aircraft and the pilot is lost. Lost link
programmed into the flight management system procedures are programmed into the flight
and associated with the flight plan being flown. management system and associated with the flight
plan being flown.

12/2/21 JO 7110.65Z CHG 1
When you observe a Code 7400 display, do the No Change

following:
Add NOTE−
Instead of displaying “7400” in the data block,
ERAM will display “LLNK,” and STARS/MEARTS
will display “LL.”
OLD NEW
5−2−10. VFR CODE ASSIGNMENTS 5−2−7. VFR CODE ASSIGNMENTS
a. For VFR aircraft receiving radar advisories, a. For VFR aircraft receiving radar advisories,
assign an appropriate function code or issue a computer−assigned beacon code.
computer−assigned code for the code environment
in which you are providing service.
NOTE− Delete
1. Paragraph 5−2−2 , Discrete Environment; paragraph
5−2−3, Nondiscrete Environment, and paragraph 5−2−4,
Mixed Environment, specify code assignment procedures
to follow for the three code environments.
2. Paragraph 5−2−6 , Function Code Assignments, Delete
specifies the function code allocation from which an
appropriate code for the aircraft indicated in subpara-
graph a should be selected. In the terminal environment,
additional function codes may be authorized by the
appropriate service area office.
a1 through a1(b) NOTE No Change
b. Instruct IFR aircraft which cancel an IFR flight b. Instruct an IFR aircraft that cancels its IFR
plan and are not requesting radar advisory service flight plan and is not requesting radar advisory
and VFR aircraft for which radar advisory service service, or a VFR aircraft for which radar advisory
is being terminated to squawk the VFR code. service is being terminated, to squawk VFR.
SQUAWK VFR.
or
SQUAWK 1200.
NOTE− NOTE−
1. Aircraft not in contact with an ATC facility may 1. Aircraft not in contact with ATC may squawk 1255 in
squawk 1255 in lieu of 1200 while en route to/from or lieu of 1200 while en route to/from or within designated
within the designated firefighting area(s). firefighting areas.
2. VFR aircraft which fly authorized SAR missions for 2. VFR aircraft that fly authorized SAR missions for the
the USAF or USCG may be advised to squawk 1277 in USAF or USCG may be advised to squawk 1277 in lieu
lieu of 1200 while en route to/from or within the of 1200 while en route to/from or within the designated
designated search area. search area.

JO 7110.65Z CHG 1 12/2/21
3. Gliders not in contact with an ATC facility should 3. VFR gliders should squawk 1202 in lieu of 1200.
squawk 1202 in lieu of 1200. Gliders operate under some Gliders operate under some flight and maneuvering
flight and maneuvering limitations. They may go from limitations. They may go from essentially stationary
essentially stationary targets while climbing and targets while climbing and thermaling to moving targets
thermaling to moving targets very quickly. They can be very quickly. They can be expected to make radical
expected to make radical changes in flight direction to changes in flight direction to find lift and cannot hold
find lift and cannot hold altitude in a response to an ATC
altitude in a response to an ATC request. Gliders may
request. Gliders may congregate together for short
congregate together for short periods of time to climb
periods of time to climb together in thermals and may
together in thermals and may cruise together in loose
cruise together in loose formations while traveling
between thermals. formations while traveling between thermals.
FAA Order JO 7110.66, National Beacon Code Allocation Plan.
c. When an aircraft changes from VFR to IFR, the c. When an aircraft changes from VFR to IFR,
controller must assign a beacon code to Mode C assign a beacon code to Mode C equipped aircraft
equipped aircraft that will allow MSAW alarms. that will allow MSAW alarms.
Methods.
OLD NEW
5−2−11. BEACON CODE FOR PRESSURE 5−2−8. BEACON CODES FOR PRESSURE
SUIT FLIGHTS AND FLIGHTS ABOVE FL SUIT FLIGHTS AND FLIGHTS ABOVE FL
600 600
a. Mode 3/A, Code 4400, and discrete Codes 4440 Special use Mode 3/A codes are reserved for
through 4465 are reserved for use by R−71, F−12, certain pressure suit flights and aircraft operations
U−2, B−57, pressure suit flights, and aircraft above FL 600 in accordance with FAA Order JO
operations above FL 600. 7610.4, Special Operations.
NOTE− Delete
The specific allocation of the special use codes in sub-
set 4400 is in FAA Order JO 7110.66, National Beacon
Code Allocation Plan (NBCAP).
b. Ensure that aircraft remain on Code 4400 or a. Ensure that these flights remain on one of the
one of the special use discrete codes in the 4400 special use codes if filed in the flight plan, except:
subset if filed as part of the flight plan. Except when
unforeseen events, such as weather deviations,
equipment failure, etc., cause more than one aircraft
with same Mode 3/A discrete beacon codes to be in
the same or adjacent ARTCC’s airspace at the same
time, a controller may request the pilot to make a
code change, squawk standby, or to stop squawk as
appropriate.
NOTE− Delete
Due to the inaccessibility of certain equipment to the
flight crews, Code 4400 or a discrete code from the
4400 subset is preset on the ground and will be used
throughout the flight profile including operations be-
low FL 600. Controllers should be cognizant that not
all aircraft may be able to accept the transponder
changes identified in the exception. Emergency Code
7700, however, can be activated.

12/2/21 JO 7110.65Z CHG 1
REFERENCE− Delete
Methods.
Add b. When unforeseen events cause more than
one aircraft to be in the same or adjacent
ARTCC’s airspace at the same time on the same
special use discrete code, if necessary, you may
request the pilot to make a code change, squawk
standby, or stop squawk as appropriate.
Add NOTE−
1. Current FAA automation systems track multiple
targets on the same beacon code with much greater
reliability than their predecessors, and a code change
may not be necessary for such flights.
Add 2. The beacon code is often preset on the ground for
such flights and is used throughout the flight profile,
including operations below FL 600. Due to equipment
inaccessibility, the flight crew may not be able to accept
transponder changes identified in this subparagraph.
Add 3. In case of emergency, Code 7700 can still be
activated. Instead of displaying “7700” in the data
block, ERAM will display “EMRG,” and STARS/
MEARTS will display “EM.”
Add REFERENCE−
Methods.
5−2−12 and 5−2−13 Renumber 5−2−9 and 5−2−10
OLD NEW
5−2−14. CODE MONITOR 5−2−11. CODE MONITOR
Continuously monitor the Mode 3/A radar beacon Delete
codes assigned for use by aircraft operating within
your area of responsibility when non−automated
beacon decoding equipment (e.g., 10−channel
decoder) is used to display the target symbol.
REFERENCE− Delete
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−2−6, Function Code Assignments.
NOTE− Delete
In addition to alphanumeric and control symbology
processing enhancements, the MEARTS and STARS
systems are equipped with automatic beacon decoders.
Therefore, in facilities where the automatic beacon
decoders are providing the control slash video, there is
no requirement to have the non−automated decoding
equipment operating simultaneously.
REFERENCE− Delete
FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 3−6−4, Monitoring of Mode 3/A Radar
Beacon Codes.

JO 7110.65Z CHG 1 12/2/21
a. This includes the appropriate IFR code actually a. Continuously monitor the codes assigned to
assigned and, additionally, Code 1200, Code 1202, aircraft operating within your area of
Code 1255, and Code 1277 unless your area of responsibility. Additionally, monitor Code 1200,
responsibility includes only Class A airspace. Code 1202, Code 1255, and Code 1277 unless your
During periods when ring−around or excessive area of responsibility includes only Class A
VFR target presentations derogate the separation of airspace. During periods when ring−around or
IFR traffic, the monitoring of VFR Code 1200, excessive VFR target presentations derogate the
Code 1202, Code 1255, and Code 1277 may be separation of IFR traffic, the monitoring of VFR
temporarily discontinued. Code 1200, Code 1202, Code 1255, and Code
1277 may be temporarily discontinued.
b. Positions of operation which contain or are b. When your area of responsibility contains or
immediately adjacent to a restricted area, warning is immediately adjacent to a restricted area, warning
area, VR route, or other categories where Code area, VR route, or other category where Code 4000
4000 can be assigned must monitor Code 4000 and is appropriate, monitor Code 4000 and any other
any other code used in lieu of 4000. If by local code used in lieu of 4000.
coordination with the restricted/warning area or VR
route user a code other than 4000 is to be
exclusively used, then this code must be monitored.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−2−6, Function Code Assignments. FAA Order JO 7210.3, Para 3−6−3, Monitoring of Mode 3/A
Radar Beacon Codes.
c. If a normally assigned beacon code disappears, Delete
check for a response on the following codes in the
order listed and take appropriate action:
NOTE− Delete
When Codes 7500 and/or 7600 have been preselected,
it will be necessary for the ID−SEL−OFF switches for
these codes to be left in the off position so that beacon
target for an aircraft changing to one of these codes
will disappear, thereby alerting the controller to make
the check. This check will not be required if automatic
alerting capability exists.
1. Code 7500 (hijack code). Delete
REFERENCE− Delete
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 10−2−6, Hijacked Aircraft.
2. Code 7600 (loss of radio communications Delete
code).
5−2−15 through 5−2−27 Renumber 5−2−12 through 5−2−24
1. PARAGRAPH NUMBER AND TITLE: 5−3−3. BEACON/ADS−B IDENTIFICATION METHODS
2. BACKGROUND: When FAA Order JO 7110.65 migrated from version “H” to version “J”, many
formatting changes occurred throughout the publication. During this process, the phraseology example in
subparagraph 5−3−3d was captured incorrectly resulting in verbiage that was intended as a note of instruction to
controllers being shown as phraseology to be issued to pilots. That change created an incorrect phraseology
requirement when issuing a discrete beacon code for the purpose of surveillance identification.

12/2/21 JO 7110.65Z CHG 1
3. CHANGE:
OLD NEW
5−3−3. BEACON/ADS−B IDENTIFICATION 5−3−3. BEACON/ADS−B IDENTIFICATION
METHODS METHODS
Title through c PHRASEOLOGY No Change
d. EN ROUTE. An aircraft may be considered No Change
identified when the full data block is automatically
associated with the target symbol of an aircraft that
is squawking a discrete code assigned by the
computer.
NOTE− No Change
Paired LDBs in ERAM do not display a beacon code.
SQUAWK (4 digit discrete code), AND IF YOUR SQUAWK (4 digit discrete code),
ALTITUDE REPORTING EQUIPMENT IS TURNED
OFF, SQUAWK ALTITUDE. or, if aircraft’s altitude reporting capability is turned
off,
SQUAWK (4 digit discrete code), SQUAWK

ALTITUDE.
NOTE− No Change
The AIM informs pilots to adjust Mode C transponders
and ADS−B with altitude reporting capability activated
unless deactivation is requested by ATC. “Squawk alti-
tude” is included here to provide applicable phraseolo-
gy.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 5−3−6, Position Information.
1. PARAGRAPH NUMBER AND TITLE: 9−2−13. MILITARY AERIAL REFUELING
2. BACKGROUND: In accordance with FAA Order JO 7610.4, Special Operations, paragraph 10−5−6, Flight
Plan Requirements, military aerial refueling requires a block of consecutive altitudes to conduct these operations.
These altitudes are normally requested as part of the refueling aircraft flight plan.
3. CHANGE:
OLD NEW
9−2−13. MILITARY AERIAL REFUELING 9−2−13. MILITARY AERIAL REFUELING
Authorize aircraft to conduct aerial refueling along Authorize aircraft to conduct aerial refueling
published or special tracks at their flight plan along published or special tracks at their flight
altitude, unless otherwise requested. plan altitudes, unless otherwise requested.

JO 7110.65Z CHG 1 12/2/21
CLEARED TO CONDUCT REFUELING ALONG CLEARED TO CONDUCT REFUELING ALONG
(number) TRACK, (number) TRACK,
or or
FROM (fix) TO (fix), FROM (fix) TO (fix),
and and
MAINTAIN REFUELING LEVEL (altitude), MAINTAIN BLOCK (altitude) THROUGH (altitude),
or or
MAINTAIN (altitude), COMMENCING AT (altitude), DESCENDING TO

(altitude).
or
COMMENCING AT (altitude), DESCENDING TO

(altitude).
NOTE− No Change
1. During aerial refueling, tanker aircraft are responsi-
ble for receiver aircraft communication with ATC and for
their navigation along the track.
2. Aerial refueling airspace is not sterilized airspace No Change
and other aircraft may transit this airspace provided
vertical or lateral separation is provided from refueling
aircraft.
3. MARSA begins between the tanker and receiver when No Change
the tanker and receiver(s) have entered the air refueling
airspace and the tanker advises ATC that he/she is
accepting MARSA.
4. MARSA ends between the tanker and receiver when No Change
the tanker advises ATC that the tanker and receiver
aircraft are vertically positioned within the air refueling
airspace and ATC advises MARSA is terminated.
FAA Order JO 7110.65, Para 2−1−11, Use of MARSA.
Formation Flights.
FAA Order JO 7610.4, Chapter 10, Aerial Refueling.

FAA - ORDER JO 7110.65Z - Air Traffic Control

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ORDER

SUBJ: Air Traffic Control

Distribution: ZAT-710, ZAT-464 Initiated By: AJV-0

CHANGE SUPPLEMENTS CHANGE SUPPLEMENTS

FAA Form 1320−5 (6−80) USE PREVIOUS EDITION

a. 2−1−14. COORDINATE USE OF were made in 2015 in response to an ATSAP CAR.

Explanation of Changes E of C−1

SUBJ: Air Traffic Control

5. Distribution. This change is distributed to selected offices in Washington headquarters,

7. Page Control Chart. See the page control chart attachment.

Digitally signed by ANGELA

Distribution: ZAT-710, ZAT-464 Initiated By: AJV-0

a. 2−1−14. COORDINATE USE OF were made in 2015 in response to an ATSAP CAR.

Explanation of Changes E of C−1

a. 1−2−6. ABBREVIATIONS when phrases similar to “or as assigned by ATC” are

Explanation of Changes E of C−1

e. 4−3−2. DEPARTURE CLEARANCES SURE SUIT FLIGHTS AND FLIGHTS

viation acceptance rate is replaced with arrival rate. k. Entire publication

Explanation of Changes E of C−3

Section 2. Terms of Reference

Chapter 2. General Control

Section 2. Flight Plans and Control Information

Section 3. Flight Progress Strips

Section 4. Radio and Interphone Communications

Table of Contents iii

Chapter 3. Airport Traffic Control− Terminal

Section 2. Visual Signals

Section 3. Airport Conditions

Section 4. Airport Lighting

Section 11. Helicopter Operations

Section 12. Sea Lane Operations

Section 3. Departure Procedures

Section 4. Route Assignment

Section 5. Altitude Assignment and Verification

Section 6. Holding Aircraft

Section 7. Arrival Procedures

Table of Contents vii

Section 8. Approach Clearance Procedures

Section 2. Beacon/ADS−B Systems

viii Table of Contents

Section 3. Radar Identification

Section 4. Transfer of Radar Identification

Section 5. Radar Separation

Section 7. Speed Adjustment

Section 8. Radar Departures

Section 9. Radar Arrivals

Section 10. Radar Approaches− Terminal

Section 11. Surveillance Approaches− Terminal

Section 12. PAR Approaches− Terminal

Section 13. Use of PAR for Approach Monitoring− Terminal

Section 14. Automation− En Route

Section 15. Standard Terminal Automation Replacement System

Section 2. Initial Separation of Successive Departing Aircraft

Section 3. Initial Separation of Departing and Arriving Aircraft

Section 4. Longitudinal Separation

Section 5. Lateral Separation

Section 6. Vertical Separation

Section 7. Timed Approaches

xii Table of Contents