RRB JE ME CBT 2 Full Test 1

7/18/2021 RRB JE ME CBT 2 Full Test 1 | 150 Questions MCQ Test
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RRB JE ME CBT 2 Full Test 1

150 Questions MCQ Test RRB JE (Railways Junior Engineer) CBT Mock Test Series | RRB JE ME
CBT 2 Full Test 1
Description
This mock test of RRB JE ME CBT 2 Full Test 1 for Railways helps you for every Railways entrance exam. This
contains 150 Multiple Choice Questions for Railways RRB JE ME CBT 2 Full Test 1 (mcq) to study with
solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this RRB JE ME CBT 2 Full Test 1 quiz
give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. Railways students definitely take this RRB JE ME
CBT 2 Full Test 1 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other RRB JE ME CBT 2 Full Test 1
extra questions, long questions & short questions for Railways on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1
Work done is zero for the following process
A. Constant volume
B. Free expansion
C. Throttling
D. All of the above
Solution:
For constant volume process
W = ∫PdV
Since
dV = 0
so W = 0 for constant volume process.
https://edurev.in/course/quiz/attempt/-1_RRB-JE-ME-CBT-2-Full-Test-1/323b51b2-fe97-40b6-91de-4c23ea669e7d 1/94
For free expansion work done is zero. W = 0
The process in which high-pressure fluid is converted to low pressure by using a throttle valve is Throttling. In the throttling
process enthalpy remains constant, work done is zero.
QUESTION: 2
In a reversible adiabatic process the ration is equal to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Solution:
Relationship between P - V - T for a reversible adiabatic process:
QUESTION: 3
Which of the following engine can be associated with heterogeneous combustion?
A. Spark ignition
B. Compression ignition
C. Both Spark ignition and Compression ignition
D. Neither Spark ignition nor Compression ignition
Solution:
IC Engines may be classified based on the state of air-fuel mixture present at the time of ignition in the engine cycle, the type of
ignition employed and the nature of combustion process after ignition of the air-fuel mixture.
Physical State of Mixture
Homogeneous Charge:
Premixed outside (conventional gasoline and gas engines with fuel inducted in the intake manifold)
Premixed in-cylinder: In- cylinder direct injection and port fuel injection
Heterogeneous Charge (Diesel Engine)
Ignition Type
Positive source of Ignition e.g., spark ignition
Compression ignition
Mode of Combustion
Flame propagation
Spray combustion
The combustion process in a diesel engine is heterogeneous—that is, the fuel and air are not premixed prior to initiation of
combustion. Because of heterogeneous material low speed and low pressure is generated as compared to SI engine where
homogenous mixture of fuel is used
QUESTION: 4
A frictionless heat engine can be 100% efficient only if the exhaust temperature is
A. equal to its input temperature
B. less than its input temperature
C. 0°C
D. 0 K
Solution:
Efficiency of a Reversible Heat Engine:
η = 1 when TL = 0 for any TH
A heat engine can work on 100% efficiency when there is only heat input and no heat loss.
As W = QH – QL
All the heat supplied will be used in producing the work and there will be no losses.
All the temperature scale is taken in Kelvin.
QUESTION: 5
In an Otto cycle, the heat addition and heat rejection take place at
A. constant volume and at constant pressure respectively
B. constant volume and at constant volume respectively
C. constant pressure and at constant volume respectively
D. constant pressure and at constant pressure respectively
Solution:
Otto cycle: It is the standard air cycle used in the spark ignition (SI) engines or petrol engines.
Different processes of the Otto cycle are as follows:
Process 1-2: Isentropic compression
Process 2-3: Constant volume heat addition
Process 3-4: Isentropic expansion
Process 4-1: Constant volume heat rejection.
QUESTION: 6
The rate of heat transfer through a hollow cylinder of inner and outer radii r1 and r2, respectively, depends
on
A. Difference of radii (r2 – r1)
B. Ratio of radii (r2/r1)
C. Product of radii (r2 × r1)
D. Sum of radii (r2 + r1)
Solution:
For hollow cylinder:
The rate of heat transfer through a hollow cylinder of inner and outer radii r1 and r2, respectively, depends on ratio of radii (r2/r1).
Note:
QUESTION: 7
Which of the following quantity is not a property of a system?
A. Pressure
B. Volume
C. Mass
D. None of these
Solution:
Any identifiable/observable characteristic of a system by which the physical condition of the system may be described is called
property of the system.
Some familiar properties are pressure, temperature, volume and mass.
Properties may be divided into two categories i.e. extensive (dependent of mass) and intensive (independent of mass) properties.
QUESTION: 8
In a closed system, a gas undergoes a quasi-equilibrium process as per the law P = (-4V + 10) N.m2 and
the volume of the gas, V changes from 1 m3 to 2 m3. The work done will be
A. 10 J output
B. 4 J output
C. 6 J input
D. 4 J input
Solution:
As W is positive to it is work output.

Note:
Work done on the system is negative
Work done by the system is positive
QUESTION: 9
Maximum work by an expansion of a gas in a closed system is possible when the process takes place at
constant
A. pressure
B. temperature
C. volume
D. enthalpy
Solution:
As a work done is the area under the PV diagram represents work done which is maximum for isobaric (P = c) process.
QUESTION: 10
An ideal air compressor cycle (with clearance) on p-v diagram can be represented by ________
processes.
A. One adiabatic, two isobaric, and one constant volume
B. Two adiabatic and two isobaric
C. Two adiabatic, one isobaric, and one constant volume
D. One adiabatic, one isobaric, and two constant volume
Solution:
In practical design of compressors, some clearance is required between the cylinder and piston to prevent hitting of piston to
crown of the cylinder. A compressor cycle with clearance is consists of two adiabatic processes and two isobaric processes.
QUESTION: 11
Polytropic index n is given
A.
B.
C.
D.
Solution:
QUESTION: 12
The rate of radiation of a black body at 0°C is E J/sec. The rate of radiation of this black body at 273°C will
be
A. 16 E
B. 8 E
C. 4 E
D. 2 E
Solution:
The radiation energy emitted by a black body per unit time and per unit surface area is given by
Eb = σT4 (W/m2)
where Stefan – Boltzmann constant, σ = 5.67 × 10-8 W/m2 K4, T is absolute temperature of the surface in Kelvin.
Eb = Total emissive power of a black body
For a non-black surface having an emissivity ϵ, it follows that
Eb = ϵ σT4
Calculation:
E2 = 16 E1 = 16 E
QUESTION: 13
Refrigeration is based on _________
A. First law of thermodynamics
B. Kelvin Planck’s statement of second law of thermodynamics
C. Clausius statement of second law of thermodynamics
D. Third law of thermodynamics
Solution:
Refrigeration is based on Clausius statement of second law of thermodynamics. This law states that it is impossible to develop a
device which works on a cycle and transfers heat from lower temperature to higher temperature without any external energy
input. On the other hand, heat engine works on the Kelvin Planck’s statement of second law of thermodynamics.
QUESTION: 14
A Carnot cycle refrigerator operates between 250 K and 300 K. Its coefficient of performance is
A. 6
B. 5
C. 1.2
D. 0.8
Solution:
For Carnot cycle refrigeration:
QUESTION: 15
A body subjected to coplanar non-concurrent forces will remain in a state of equilibrium if
A. ΣFx = 0
B. ΣFy = 0
C. ΣM = 0
D. All the above three
Solution:
Equations of equilibrium for Non-concurrent force System: A non-concurrent force systems will be in equilibrium if the
resultant of all forces and moments is zero.
ΣFx = 0, ΣFy = 0 and ΣM = 0
Equations of equilibrium for concurrent force System: For the concurrent forces, the lines of action of all forces met at a point
and hence the moment of those force about that point will be zero or ΣM = 0 automatically.
ΣFx = 0 and ΣFy = 0
QUESTION: 16
The maximum frictional force, which comes into play, when a body just begins to slide over the surface of
the other body, is known as
A. Limiting friction
B. Static friction
C. Dynamic friction
D. Coefficient of friction
Solution:
It has been observed that when a body, lying over another body, is gently pushed, it does not move because of the frictional
force, which prevents the motion.
If the applied force exceeds this limit, the force of friction cannot balance it and the body begins to move, in the direction of the
applied force. This maximum value of frictional force, which comes into play, when a body just begins to slide over the
surface of the other body, is known as limiting friction.
Static friction is the friction experienced by a body when it is at rest or it is the friction when the body tends to move.
QUESTION: 17
The loss of kinetic energy, during inelastic impact of two bodies having masses m1 and m2, which are
moving with velocity v1 and v2respectively, is given by
A.
B.
C.
D.
Solution:
Momentum is conserved in all collisions.
In elastic collision, kinetic energy is also conserved.
In inelastic collision, kinetic energy is not conserved. In perfectly inelastic collision, objects stick together after collision.
Conservation of momentum:
m1v1 + m2v2 = (m1 + m2) vf
Kinetic energy before collision:
Kinetic energy after collision:
Change in kinetic energy:
Loss of kinetic energy:
QUESTION: 18
Forces P, 3P, 2P and 5P act along the sides taken in order of a square. The magnitude of the resultant is
A. √3 P
B. √5 P
C. √7 P
D. None of these
Solution:
ΣFx = 3P – 5P = -2P
ΣFx = P – 2P = -P
QUESTION: 19
A block A is released from the top of smooth inclined plane and slides down the plane. Another block B is
dropped from the same point and falls vertically downwards. Which one of the following statements will
be true if the friction offered by air is negligible?
A. Both blocks will reach the ground at the same time
B. Block A reaches the ground earlier that block B
C. Both blocks will reach the ground with the same speed
D. Block B reaches the ground with a higher speed than block A
Solution:
Consider a block of mass m lying on a frictionless inclined plane of length AB = L, height = h and angle of inclination θ.
When the block is released, it moves down the plane under a force mg sin θ.
Hence the acceleration of the block down the plane is
a = g sin θ
If the block starts from rest from point A, then its velocity when it reaches the bottom B is given by
v2 – u2 = 2as
v2 – 0 = 2aL
For the block which falls vertically downward of height, h:
So, speed of both the blocks will be same.
QUESTION: 20
Two circular discs have masses in the ratio 1 : 2 and radii in the ratio 2 : 1. The ratio of their moment of
inertia about the diameter is
A. 1 : 1
B. 2 : 1
C. 4 : 1
D. 8 : 1
Solution:
Moment of inertia of a disc about its diameter:
Moment of inertia of a disc about its centre:
Calculation:
Two circular discs have masses in the ratio 1: 2 and radii in the ratio 2: 1. The ratio of their moment of inertia about the diameter
is
QUESTION: 21
A thin circular ring of mass 100 kg and radius 2 m resting on a smooth surface is subjected to a sudden
application of a tangential force of 300 N at a point on its periphery. The angular acceleration of the ring
will be
A. 1.0 rad/sec2
B. 1.5 rad/sec2
C. 2.0 rad/sec2
D. 2.5 rad/sec2
Solution:
Consider a mass m rotating around an axis, a distance r away.
Newton’s second law: F = ma
We know a = αr
(a = tangential acceleration; α = angular acceleration)
F = ma = mrα
Calculation:
F = ma = m r α
300 = 100 × 2 × α
α = 1.5 rad/s2
QUESTION: 22
Polar moment of inertia of an equilateral triangle of side ‘x’ is given by
A.
B.
C.
D.
Solution:
Consider an isosceles triangle:
For an equilateral triangle:
QUESTION: 23
If one of the walls moves in the direction of flow with uniform velocity while the other wall is stationary,
then the resulting flow between parallel walls is called ______.
A. Plug flow
B. Stoke's flow
C. Couette flow
D. Euler's flow
Solution:
Couette flow is the flow of a viscous fluid in the space between two surfaces, one of which is moving tangentially relative to the
other. The configuration often takes the form of two parallel plates or the gap between two concentric cylinders.
In plug flow, the velocity of the fluid is assumed to be constant across any cross-section of the pipe perpendicular to the axis of
the pipe. The plug flow model assumes there is no boundary layer adjacent to the inner wall of the pipe.
Stokes flow or creeping flow is a type of fluid flow where advective inertial forces are small compared with viscous forces. The
Reynolds number is low i.e. Re≪1. This is a typical situation in flows where the fluid velocities are very slow, the viscosities are
very large.
QUESTION: 24
The resultant upward pressure of the fluid on an immersed body is called
A. Net pressure
B. buoyancy
C. centre of pressure
D. None of these
Solution:
Buoyancy or upthrust, is an upward force exerted by a fluid that opposes the weight of an immersed object. Archimedes' Principle
states that the magnitude of the buoyant force on an object is equal to the weight of the fluid it displaces.
QUESTION: 25
Mercury is considered as a superior barometric fluid due to its
A. Negligible small vapour pressure
B. High specific heat
C. High specific gravity
D. Convex meniscus
Solution:
Barometer is used to determine the local atmospheric pressure.
Mercury is employed in the barometer because its density is sufficiently high for a relative short column to be obtained and
also because it has very small vapour pressure at normal temperature. High density scales down the pressure head (h) to
represent same magnitude of pressure in a tube of smaller height.
Considered a small diameter glass tube with mercury at normal temperature is inverted within a small tank of mercury, an
equilibrium will be reached.
PB = ρgh + Pv
Pv is the pressure exerted on the free surface of the mercury within the glass tube.
The vapour pressure of mercury at normal temperature and atmospheric pressure is only 0.16 Pa while the quantity ρgh is equal
to approximately 105 Pa i.e. an insignificant fraction can be neglected.
Due to its small vapour pressure mercury used to be the standard fluid for measuring absolute pressures.
QUESTION: 26
The velocity of fluid particle at the centre of the pipe section is:
A. Zero
B. Minimum
C. Maximum
D. Average of the full section
Solution:
Velocity distribution of a flow of viscous fluid through circular pipe:
The velocity is maximum when r = 0 i.e. at the centre of pipe.
Average velocity:
QUESTION: 27
The concept of stream function which is based on the principle of continuity is applicable to
A. irrotational flow only
B. two-dimensional flow only
C. three-dimensional flow only
D. uniform flow only
Solution:
It is defined as the scalar function of space and time, such that its partial derivative with respect to any direction gives the velocity
component at right angles to that direction.
It is denoted by ψ and defined only for two-dimensional flow.

Properties of Stream function:
If stream function exists, it is a possible case of fluid flow which may be rotational or irrotational
If the stream function satisfies the Laplace equation i.e. it is a case of irrotational flow
Recommended Similar Important Concept:

Velocity Potential Function:
It is defined as the scalar function of space and time, such that its negative derivative with respect to any direction gives the
velocity in that direction.
It is denoted by ϕ and defined for two-dimensional as well as three-dimensional flow.

Properties of Stream function:
If velocity potential function exists, the flow should be irrotational
If the velocity potential function satisfies the Laplace equation i.e. it is a case of steady incompressible irrotational flow
QUESTION: 28

All the terms of energy in Bernoulli’s equation have dimension of
A. Mass
B. Energy
C. Length
D. Work
Solution:
From the law of dimensional homogeneity, the constant must have the same dimensions as the other additive terms in the
equation.
Thus P/γ and v2/2g will have same dimension as z i.e. Length.
All the terms of Bernoulli’s equation:
P/γ = P/ρg = Pressure energy per unit weight of fluid or pressure head
v2/2g = Kinetic energy per unit weight or kinetic head
z = Potential energy per unit weight or potential head
QUESTION: 29
A reservoir containing water has two orifices of the same size at depths of 4 m and 9 m below the free
surface of water. The ratio of discharges through these orifices is
A. 4 : 9
B. 9 : 4
C. 2 : 3
D. 16 : 81
Solution:
For same orifice at different height:
Q ∝ √h
QUESTION: 30
Shear stress for a general fluid motion is represented by where n and A are constants.
A Newtonian fluid is given by:
A. n > 1 and A = 0
B. n = 1 and A = 0
C. n > 1 and A ≠ 0
D. n < 1 and A = 0
Solution:
For Newtonian Fluid: A = 0 and n = 1 (Example: Air, Water, Glycerin)
For Bingham Plastic: A = τ0 and n = 1(Fluid does not move or deform till there is a critical stress. Example: Toothpaste)
For Dilatant: A = 0 and n > 1 (Fluid starts ‘thickening' with increase in its apparent viscosity. Example: starch or sand suspension
or shear thickening fluid)
For Pseudo plastic: A = 0 and n < 1 (Fluid starts ‘thinning' with increase in its apparent viscosity. Example: Paint, polymer
solutions, colloidal suspensions or shear thinning fluid)
QUESTION: 31
The property of a fluid which determines its resistance to shearing stresses is called
A. Viscosity
B. Surface tension
C. Compressibility
D. None of the above
Solution:
Viscosity is a property of the fluid by which it offers resistance to shear or angular deformation.
Surface tension is the elastic tendency of a fluid surface which makes it acquire the least surface area possible. It occurs at the
interface of two liquids, due to the intermolecular force of cohesion.
Compressibility is the ability of fluid to change its volume under pressure.
QUESTION: 32
The intensity of pressure at a point in a fluid is the same in all the directions, only when
A. the fluid is frictionless and incompressible
B. The fluid is frictionless
C. There is no motion of one fluid layer relative to an adjacent layer
D. The fluid has zero viscosity and fluid is in motion
Solution:
According to Pascal’s Law, the pressure or intensity of pressure at a point in a static fluid is equal in all directions.
This law is valid for the cases of fluid flow where shear stresses do not exist. The cases are
Fluid at rest
No relative motion exists between different fluid layers. For example, fluid at a constant linear acceleration in a container
Ideal fluid flow where viscous force is negligible
QUESTION: 33
In case of centrifugal pump, manometric head is proportional to
A. N2
B. N3
C. N
D. 1/N2
Solution:
For a pump, the tangential velocity (u) and velocity of flow (Vf) are related to the manometric head (Hm) as
u ∝ Vf ∝ √Hm
u = πDN/60
⇒ √Hm ∝ DN
Hm ∝ N2
QUESTION: 34
The efficiency of a centrifugal pump is maximum when its blades are:
A. Bent forward
B. Bent backward
C. Bent forward first and then backward
D. Bent backward first and then forward
Solution:
Backward curved vanes are commonly used (though the H-Q curve is declining) because these pumps operate at high efficiency
than in case of forward curved vanes.
QUESTION: 35
The size of the lathe is expressed as:
A. Gross weight of the lathe
B. Diameter of the chuck
C. Maximum speed of the chuck
D. Swing of the lathe
Solution:
The size of a lathe machine is specified by the following points:-
The length of the bed
A maximum distance between live and dead

The height of centres from the bed
The swing diameter
The swing diameter over the bed – It refers to the largest diameter of the work that will be rotated without touching the bed
The swing diameter over carriage – It is the largest diameter of the work that will revolve over the saddle
The bore diameter of the spindle
Horsepower of the motor
QUESTION: 36
Which one of them is not a suitable condition for producing continuous chip without BUE?
A. Ductile material
B. Small speed machining
C. Large rake angle
D. Use of cutting fluid
Solution:
Discontinuous Chip
Brittle work materials
Low cutting speeds
Large feed and depth of cut
Small rake angle
High tool-chip friction
Continuous Chip (Without BUE)
Ductile work materials
High cutting speeds
Small feeds and depths
Sharp cutting edge
Large rake angle
Low tool-chip friction
Continuous Chip (With BUE)
Ductile materials
Low-to-medium cutting speeds
Large feed
Small rake angle
Tool-chip friction causes portions of a chip to adhere to rake face
Built up Edge (BUE) forms, then breaks off, cyclically
QUESTION: 37
In a turning tool, crater wear occurs on _______.
A. Base
B. Flank face
C. Rake face
D. Shank
Solution:
Crater wear occurs on the rake face. For crater, the wear temperature is the main culprit and tool diffuse into the chip material
and tool temperature is maximum at some distance from the tooltip. So crater wear starts at some distance from the tool tip.
QUESTION: 38
What is the coolant used for machining cast iron?
A. Soluble oil
B. Chemical Solution
C. Mineral oil
D. No coolant
Solution:
The reason why you can machine cast iron without using coolants is that the graphite in the cast iron acts as a lubricant in itself.
So it is generally dry for its self-lubricating property.
Machining of some materials like grey cast iron become inconvenient or difficult if any cutting fluid is employed in liquid form. In
such a case, the only air blast is recommended for cooling and cleaning.
QUESTION: 39
Facing operation is
A. machining the ends of a workpiece to produce a flat surface square with the axis
B. reducing the diameter of a work piece over a very narrow surface
C. embossing a diamond-shaped pattern on the surface of a workpiece
D. beveling the extreme end of a workpiece
Solution:
Facing is a machining operation by which the end surface of the workpiece is made flat by removing metal from it.
Undercutting/Grooving is the process of reducing the diameter of a workpiece over a narrow surface.
Knurling is an operation of embossing a diamond-shaped pattern on the surface of a workpiece.
Chamfering is the operation of bevelling the extreme end of a workpiece. It is used to remove the sharp edge of the workpiece
surface.
QUESTION: 40
A tool used in cutting an external thread is called a:
A. Twist drill
B. Tap
C. Die
D. End mill
Solution:
A tap cuts or forms a thread on the inside surface of a hole, creating a female surface which functions like a nut.
A die cuts an external thread on cylindrical material, such as a rod, which creates a male threaded piece which functions like a
bolt.
Twist drill is a rotating cutting tool, used for cutting holes in rigid materials.
End mills are tools which have cutting teeth at one end, as well as on the sides, they are used for a variety of things including
facing an edge and cutting slots or channels. A drill bit can only cut in the axial direction, but a milling bit can generally cut in all
directions.
QUESTION: 41
The grooving is an operation of:
A. Reducing the diameter of a work piece over a very narrow surface
B. beveling the extreme end of a work piece
C. enlarging the end of a hole cylindrically
D. embossing a diamond shaped pattern on the surface of work piece
Solution:
Undercutting/Grooving is the process of reducing the diameter of a workpiece over a narrow surface.
Chamfering is the operation of bevelling the extreme end of a workpiece. It is used to remove the sharp edge of the workpiece
surface.
Drilling is an operation of making a hole in the workpiece.
Reaming is an operation of finishing the previously drilled hole.
Boring is an operation of enlarging a hole already made in a workpiece.
Counter-boring is an operation of enlarging the end of the pre-existing drilled hole cylindrically.
Facing is a machining operation by which the end surface of the workpiece is made flat by removing metal from it.
Knurling is an operation of embossing a diamond-shaped pattern on the surface of a workpiece.
QUESTION: 42
In which of the following operations performed on lathe machine, chips do not occur?
A. Knurling
B. Boring
C. Reaming
D. Threading cutting
Solution:
Knurling: Knurling is a manufacturing process whereby a visually‐attractive diamond‐shaped (crisscross) pattern is cut or rolled
into metal. This pattern allows human hands or fingers to get a better grip on the knurled object that would be provided by the
originally‐smooth metal surface.
Boring: Boring always involves the enlarging of an existing hole, which may have been made by a drill or may be the result of a
core in a casting.
Reaming: Reaming removes a small amount of material from the surface of holes. It is done for two purposes: to bring holes to a
more exact size and to improve the finish of an existing hole.
Threading: It is the process of making internal or external threads on the workpiece.
Out of the above four processes except knurling, all other involves the chips. So Knurling is the right option.
QUESTION: 43
Kitchen utensils are made using:
A. Shallow drawing
B. Deep drawing
C. Nibbling
D. Perforating
Solution:

For kitchen utensils like cup shape components & hollow components the method followed is deep drawing.
What is Deep drawing?
Cup drawing or deep drawing is one of the widely used sheets metal forming operations. Cup-shaped objects, utensils, pressure
vessels, gas cylinders, cans, shells, kitchen sink sets are some of the products of deep drawing. In this process, a sheet metal
called blank is placed on a die cavity, held in position using a holding plate or holding ring and pressed against the die cavity
using a solid punch. The sheet metal attains the shape of the die cavity with a flat bottom.
QUESTION: 44
What is the major problem in hot extrusion?
A. Design of punch
B. Design of die
C. Wear and tear of die
D. Wear of punch
Solution:
Hot extrusion consists of heating suitable metals and alloys to the proper temperature and placing the heated stock in the cylinder
of an extruding press. The pressure obtained by a moving ram or piston forces the plastic metal through a die of specified shape.
One of the major problems in hot extrusion is the effect of hot metal on the equipment. Various methods are used to protect the
dies. The die may be changed and allowed to cool for each piece.
QUESTION: 45
The operation of finishing and sizing a hole produced by drilling and boring, is known as
A. Chamfering
B. Forming
C. Reaming
D. Filing
Solution:
The operation of finishing and sizing a hole produced by drilling and boring is known as reaming. Reaming removes a small
amount of material from the surface of holes.
It is done for two purposes:
1. To give a more accurate size to the hole
2. To improve the finish of an existing hole
Chemfering: Chamfering is a finishing process to make a bevel, groove or furrow in the machined part.
Filing: Filing is a method of removing excess material from a workpiece by using a file.
Forming: It is the process of plastically deforming a metal part to get the desired shape. Some of the forming techniques are
rolling, extrusion, forging etc.
QUESTION: 46
Which of the following machines does not require quick return mechanism?
A. Slotter
B. Planer
C. Shaper
D. Broaching
Solution:
A quick return mechanism is an apparatus that converts circular motion into reciprocating motion (repetitive back - and - forth
linear motion).
This mechanism is mostly used in shaping, planning and slotting machines.

The broaching is a machining operation which uses a tool called broach moving it over the workpiece to remove material, cutting
a predetermined shape. Commonly circular or odd shapes, both internal or external, are obtained by broaching.
QUESTION: 47
The main cause of rough holes during drilling is
A. feed rate is too high
B. drill point not in centre
C. drill is not sharp
D. point angle is incorrect
Solution:
The common defects in drilling are listed below:
QUESTION: 48
_______ does not contain tin as an alloying element.
A. Babbitt metal
B. White metal
C. Solder
D. All options are correct
Solution:
Babbitt metal contains Sn (Tin) = 88%, Sb (antimony) = 8%, Cu (copper) = 4%. It possesses excellent antifriction properties and
sufficient mechanical strength, so most commonly used in bearing metal.
White Metal is an alloy of Antimony, Copper and Lead.
Solders are essentially alloys of lead and tin.
QUESTION: 49
The property of a metal is said to be withstand scratching, wear, abrasion and penetration is called
_______.
A. brittleness
B. malleability
C. hardness
D. ductility
Solution:
Mechanical properties of a metal:
QUESTION: 50
The material of an engine block is
A. Brass (or) bronze
B. High speed steel (or) gun metal
C. Cast iron (or) aluminium alloy
D. copper (or) zinc
Solution:
Engine block or cylinder block is the base of the engine. Two types of cylinder blocks are used in the engine
1. Single piece casting
2. Two-piece casting
The cylinder block is made of cast iron or aluminium alloy. Inside the engine block, passage for coolant and lubricating oil are
provided.
QUESTION: 51
_________Steel is widely used for rails of a railway track.
A. Mild
B. High Carbon
C. Medium carbon
D. Low Carbon
Solution:

Low Carbon Steel:
Contain less than about 0.25 weight% of carbon (Mild Steel)
Relatively soft and weak
Outstanding ductility and toughness
High machinability and weldability
Used for Beams, Channels, Nuts, Bolts, Wires, Tin cans etc.
Medium carbon steel:

Contain 0.25 – 0.6 weight % of carbon
Stronger than low carbon steel but of low ductility and toughness
Good wear resistance
Used in Railway wheels and Railway tracks, Gears, Crankshafts etc.
High Carbon Steel:

Contain 0.6 – 1.4 weight% of Carbon
Hardest, strongest and least ductile carbon steel
Can be alloyed with carbon and other metals to form very hard and wear resistance materials
Used in Cutting tools, embossing dies, saws, concrete drills etc.
QUESTION: 52
Shock resistance of steel is increased by adding
A. Nickel
B. Chromium
C. Nickel and chromium
Solution:
Effect of Chemical Elements in Steel
Chromium (Cr): Chromium is present in certain structural steels in small amounts. It is primarily used to increase the corrosion
resistance of the material.
Nickel (Ni): In addition to its favorable effect on the corrosion resistance of steel, nickel enhances the low-temperature behavior
of the material by improving the fracture toughness.
Shock resistance of steel is increased by adding Nickel.
QUESTION: 53
The main purpose of annealing is _______.
A. To improve machinability
B. To improve magnetism
C. To increase hardness
D. To increase toughness
Solution:
Annealing refers to a wide group of heat treatment processes and is performed primarily for homogenization, recrystallization or
relief of residual stress in typical cold worked or welded components.
The purpose of annealing is to:
Increase ductility
Induce softness
Reduce Hardness
Improve machinability
QUESTION: 54
Cyaniding and Nitriding are the two methods of which of the following process?
A. Hardening
B. Case Hardening
C. Tempering
D. Normalizing
Solution:
Case hardening is a method used to harden the outer surface of low-carbon steel while leaving the centre or core soft and
ductile. Case hardening involves heating the metal to its critical temperature in some carbonaceous material. The following
methods are commonly used:
1. Pack method
2. Cyaniding
3. Nitriding
4. Induction Hardening
5. Flame hardening
Heat treatment is an operation involving heating and cooling of a metal or alloy so as to obtain certain desirable properties. A
few important heat treatment processes are:
1. Annealing
2. Normalising
3. Hardening
4. Tempering
QUESTION: 55
In a thin cylindrical shell, the ratio of longitudinal stress to hoop stress is
A. 0.5
B. 1
C. 2
D. None of these
Solution:
A thin pressure vessel having closed ends and contains a fluid under a gauge pressure ‘p’. Then the walls of the cylinder will
have a longitudinal stress as well as a circumferential stress.
Circumferential or hoop stress:
Longitudinal or axial stress:
where ‘d’ is the internal diameter and ‘t’ is the wall thickness of the cylinder.
The ratio of longitudinal stress to hoop stress
QUESTION: 56
If W be the total weight of the bar hanging fixed at one end, then elongation (δL) will be equal to _____. L
= Length of the bar, E = Young’s modulus of elasticity, A = Cross sectional area of uniform circular bar.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Solution:
Elongation of a bar due to its own weight:
λ is specific weight or unit weight of the material (Weight per unit volume), N/m3
Wx = Weight of portion below the section = λ × Ax
Stress on the element, dx = Wx/A = λx
Strain in the element, ϵ = Stress/E = λx/E
Elongation of the element, δLx = Strain × Length of Element
Total elongation:
If W is total weight of the bar, W = λ × AL
QUESTION: 57
When a cast iron specimen is subjected to a tensile test, then percentage reduction in area will be equal
to
A. 0%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 15%
Solution:
In Brittle materials under tension test undergoes brittle fracture i.e there failure plane is 90° to the axis of load and there is no
elongation in the rod that’s why the diameter remains same before and after the load. Example: Cast Iron, concrete etc
But in case of ductile materials, material first elongate and then fail, their failure plane is 45° to the axis of the load. After failure
cup-cone failure is seen. Example Mild steel, high tensile steel etc.
QUESTION: 58
A circular rod of diameter ‘d’ and length 3d is subjected to a compressive force F acting at the top point
as shown in figure. Then the stress value at bottom most support at point A.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Solution:

Force F acting at the top point will produce an equivalent load F and moment (F × d/2) at the centre of cross section:
At centre:
Due to compressive load F ⇒ Compressive axial stress σa at A
Due to bending moment M ⇒ Tensile stress σm at A
QUESTION: 59
Torsional rigidity of a solid circular shaft of diameter d is proportional to
A. d
B. d2
C. d4
D. 1/d2
Solution:
Torque per radian twist is known as torsional stiffness (k)
The parameter GJ is called torsional rigidity of the shaft.
Torsional rigidity is also defined as torque per unit angular twist.
Torsional rigidity of a solid circular shaft is proportional to d4.
QUESTION: 60
Which of the following conditions is TRUE for the shafts connected in series to each other?
A. θ1 = θ2
B. T = T1 + T2
C. θ = θ1 + θ2
D. θ1 = θ2 and T = T1 + T2
Solution:
Two shafts of different materials can be joined together is two ways:
Shafts in series:
Two shafts are said to be joined in series if the driving torque is applied at one end and the resisting torque at the other end
For shafts in series, both the shafts carry the same torque T and the total angle of twist at the resisting end is the sum of separate angles
of twist of two shafts
T1 = T2
Shafts in parallel:
If two or more shafts are rigidly fixed together such that the applied torque is shared between them then the composite shaft so formed is
said to be connected in parallel
Angle of twist for both the shafts is the same
θ1 = θ2 and T = T1 + T2
QUESTION: 61
A metallic cube is subjected to equal pressure (P) on its all the six faces. If ϵV is volumetric strain
produced, the ratio P/ϵV is called
A. Elastic modulus
B. Shear modulus
C. Bulk modulus
D. Strain Energy per unit volume
Solution:
When a body is subjected to the identical stress σ in three mutually perpendicular directions, the body undergoes uniform
changes in three directions without the distortion of the shape.
The ratio of change in volume to original volume is defined as volumetric strain (ϵV).
Bulk modulus (K)
QUESTION: 62
Shear force at any point of the beam is the algebraic sum of
A. All vertical forces
B. All horizontal forces
C. Forces on either side of the point
D. Moment of forces on either side of the point
Solution:
At any x-section of a beam, the shear force ‘F' is the algebraic sum of all the lateral components of the forces acting on either
side of the x-section.
Bending moment is the algebraic sum of the moments about an x-section of all the forces acting on either side of the section.
QUESTION: 63
The shear force obtained at the midpoint of the cantilever beam is 12 kN. What is the value of uniformly
distributed load w (kN/m) acting over the entire length, if the span length of the beam is 4 m?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Solution:
Shear force at any section X-X is given by:
FX-X = wx
At x = 2m,
FX-X = 12kN
w × 2 = 12kN
w = 6 kN/m
QUESTION: 64
Preheating of work piece is essential in welding
A. High speed steel
B. Stainless steel
C. Cast iron
D. Aluminium
Solution:
Preheating is often employed when welding cast iron, high carbon steel or alloy steel since preheating slows down the cooling
rate of that area of parent metal close to the weld itself and the weld itself and thereby prevents the formation of martensite which
accounts for hardness across the weld. The change of cracking in the heat-cooling is also minimized by preheating.
QUESTION: 65
Fluxes are used in welding in order to protect the molten metal and surfaces to be joined from:
A. Oxidation
B. Distortion and warping
C. Unequal temperature distribution
D. Dirt
Solution:
Introduction of welding flux
Flux is a fusible (easily melted) chemical compound to be applied before and during welding to prevent unwanted chemical
action during welding and thus making the welding operation easier.
These substances remove oxides from the edges to be welded and controls the fluidity of the molten metal.
The function of flux in gas welding:
To dissolve oxides and to prevent impurities and other inclusion that could affect the weld quality
Fluxes help the flow of their metal into very small gap between the metals being joined
Fluxes act as cleaning agents to dissolve and remove oxides and clean the metal for welding from dirt and other impurities
Note: Primary function of flux is to protect the surface from oxidation so don’t confuse with option ‘Dirt’.
QUESTION: 66
Submerged arc welding process is done with________
A. flux coated wire
B. gas shielding
C. flux paste cover
D. granular flux cover
Solution:
In submerged arc welding (SAW) the arc and weld zone are completely submerged under a blanket of granulated flux, instead of shielding
gas
Granular flux provides shielding to the weld pool from atmospheric gases and control of weld metal composition through presence of
alloying element in flux
A continuous wire electrode is fed into the weld
This is a common process for welding structural carbon or carbon-manganese steelwork
QUESTION: 67
Oxy-acetylene welding is categorised in
A. Arc welding
B. Gas welding
C. Chemical welding
D. Resistance welding
Solution:
Oxy‐fuel gas Welding (OFW):
In Oxy-fuel welding, the heat source is the flame produced by the combustion of fuel gas and oxygen
This welding technique has largely been replaced by other processes but it is still popular because of its portability and the low capital
investment
Acetylene is the principal fuel gas employed
Three types of flames can be obtained by varying the oxygen/acetylene (or oxygen/fuel gas) ratio named oxidizing, reducing and neutral
flame
QUESTION: 68
Brazing is done at the temperature of ________
A. More than 450°C
B. Less than 450°C
C. At 1000°C
D. At 1500°C
Solution:
Both brazing and soldering are the metal joining processes in which parent metal does not melt but only filler metal melts filling
the joint with capillary action.
If the filler metal is having melting temperature more than 450°C but lower than the melting temperature of components, then it is termed
as process of brazing or hard soldering.
However, if the melting temperature of filler metal is lower than 450°C and lower than the melting point of the material of components then
it is known as soldering or soft soldering.
QUESTION: 69
The composition of soft solder is
A. Lead - 60%, Tin - 40%
B. Lead - 37%, Tin - 63%
C. Lead - 63%, Tin - 37%
D. Lead - 50%, Tin - 50%
Solution:
Soldering is the process by which metallic materials are joined with the help of another liquified metal (solder)
Soldering can be classed as soft soldering and hard soldering.
The process of joining metals using tin-lead solders which melt below 420°C is known as soft soldering
The process of joining metals using hard solders consisting of copper, zinc, cadmium and silver which melt above 600° is known as hard
soldering
The eutectic alloy of tin-lead solder is a mixture of 63% tin and 37% lead. 63/37 solder melts at 183oC
QUESTION: 70
A collimated light beam is used to produce heat in case of
A. Percussion welding
B. Plasma welding
C. LASER welding
D. TIG welding
Solution:
Percussion welding (PEW) is a type of resistance welding that blends dissimilar metals together.
The plasma arc welding (PAW) can be considered as an advanced version of TIG welding. Like TIGW, PAW also uses the
tungsten electrode and inert gases for shielding of the molten metal.
Tungsten Inert Gas (TIG) or Gas Tungsten Arc (GTA) welding is the arc welding process in which arc is generated between non-
consumable tungsten electrode and workpiece. The tungsten electrode and the weld pool are shielded by an inert gas normally
argon and helium.
Laser Welding is a method in which work piece is melted and joined by narrow beam of intense Monochromatic Light. (Laser
Beam) When the beam strikes the job, the heat produced melts and fuses even the hardest materials.
∴ A collimated light beam is used to produce heat in case of LASER welding.
QUESTION: 71
Which type of filler rod is used in gas welding of stainless steel?
A. Pure aluminium
B. Copper silver alloy
C. Columbium stainless steel
D. Copper coated mild steel
Solution:
Columbium stainless steel is used in gas welding of stainless steel.
Stainless steel
Stainless steel is an alloy of iron, chromium, and nickel. There are many different classifications of stainless steel according to
the percentage of its alloying elements.
Pieces of wires or rods of standard diameter and length used as filler metal in the joint during gas welding process are called filler
rods or welding rods.
Types of stainless-steel filler rods:
Specially treated stainless-steel filler rods, which contain stabilizing elements such as molybdenum, columbium, zirconium,
titanium etc., are available.
The chromium percentage is also sometimes 1 to 1.5 percent more than in the base metal, to compensate the losses that may
occur during the welding operation from the base metal.
QUESTION: 72
Arc blow is a welding defect which is encountered
A. In arc welding using AC current
B. In arc welding using DC current
C. In gas welding
D. In thermit welding
Solution:
Arc blow is basically a deflection of a welding arc from its intended path i.e. the axis of the electrode. Deflection of the arc during
welding reduces the control over the handling of molten metal by making it difficult to apply the molten metal at right place. Arc
blow is mainly encountered during DC arc with straight polarity welding due to an interaction between different
electromagnetic fields in and around the welding arc.
Types of Arc blow:
Forward Arc Blow
Backward Arc Blow
QUESTION: 73
The grinding wheel is considered better, if the grinding ratio is
A. Maximum
B. Very low
C. Average
D. Minimum
Solution:
Grinding ratio is defined as
The G ratio is a measure of grinding production and reflects the amount of work a wheel can do during its useful life.
G increases with less wheel wear and/or higher metal removal. The higher it is, the better the grinding conditions, especially in
terms of longer wheel life.
QUESTION: 74
In a grinding wheel designation given by, A 60 G 7 B 23, B stands for
A. Resinoid bond
B. Rubber bond
C. Shellac bond
D. Silicate bond
Solution:
V – VITRIFIED
S – SILICATE
R – RUBBER
RF – RUBBER REINFORCED
B – RESINOID (SYNTHETIC RESINS)
BF – RESINOID REINFORCED
E – SHELLAC
Mg – MAGNESIA
In "A 60 G 7 B 23" B represents Resinoid bond.
QUESTION: 75
Glazing in grinding wheels ________ cutting capacity.
A. Has no effect on
B. Decreases
C. Increases
D. None of these
Solution:
Glazing: When a surface of the wheel develops a smooth and shining appearance, it is said to be glazed. This indicates that the
wheel is blunt, i.e. the abrasive grains are not sharp.
Glazing is caused by grinding hard materials on a wheel that has too hard a grade of bond. The abrasive particles become dull owing to
cutting the hard material. The bond is too firm to allow them to break out. The wheel loses its cutting efficiency.
Glazing of grinding wheel is more predominant in hard wheels with higher speeds. With softer wheels and relatively lower speeds, this
effect is less prominent.
QUESTION: 76
The silicon carbide abrasive is chiefly used for grinding
A. Cemented carbide
B. Ceramic
C. Cast iron
D. All of these
Solution:
Grinding wheel is a multipoint cutting tool having abrasive particles bonded together and so forming a structure.
Generally abrasive properties like hardness, toughness and resistance to fracture uniformly abrasives are classified into two
principal groups:
Natural abrasives: The natural abrasives are emery and corundum. These are impure forms of aluminium oxide.
Artificial abrasives: Artificial abrasives are silicon carbide and aluminium oxide.
Silicon Carbide: It is less hard than diamond and less tough than aluminium oxide. It is used for grinding of material of low tensile strength
like cemented carbide, stone and ceramic, grey cast iron, copper, brass, bronze, aluminium, vulcanized rubber, etc.
Aluminium Oxide: Aluminium oxide is tough and fracture resistant. It is preferred for grinding of materials of higher tensile strengths
like steel; high carbon and high-speed steel and tough bronze.
QUESTION: 77
Which of the following is a precision grinding machine type?
A. Tool and cutter grinding machine
B. Hand grinding machine
C. Flexible shaft grinding machine
D. Abrasive belt grinding machines
Solution:
Tool and cutter grinding machine is a type pf precision grinding machine.
Tool and cutter grinder machine
Simple single point tools are occasionally sharpened by hand on bench or pedestal grinder. However, tools and cutters with
complex geometry like milling cutter, drills, reamers and hobs require sophisticated grinding machine commonly known as
universal tool and cutter grinder. Present trend is to use tool and cutter grinder equipped with CNC to grind tool angles,
concentricity, cutting edges and dimensional size with high precision.
QUESTION: 78
If the grit size of grinding wheel is large, it indicates
A. the abrasive grain size is large
B. the abrasive grain size is small
C. has no relation to abrasive grain size
D. it indicates the diameter of the grinding wheel
Solution:
Grain size or Grit size
Grain or grit size is the actual size of the abrasive grain. The abrasive particles are graded by passing through sieves of
various sizes. They are indicated by a number ranging from 10 (coarse) up to 600 (very fine). Generally, a fine grit wheel gives a
smooth surface and is used for finishing work.
The number indicating the size of the grit represents the number of openings in the sieve used to size the grain. The larger the
grit size number, the finer the grit.
If the grit size of the grinding wheel is large, it indicates finer grit means smaller grain size.
QUESTION: 79
In honing the movement of the spindle is ________
A. Horizontal and reciprocating
B. Vertical and reciprocating
C. Reciprocating
D. Vertical
Solution:
Honing is a finishing process, in which a tool called hone carries out a combined rotary and reciprocating motion while the
workpiece does not perform any working motion. Most honing is done on internal cylindrical surface, such as automobile
cylindrical walls.
QUESTION: 80
Which of the following is not a gear finishing process?
A. Gear hobbing
B. Gear shaving
C. Gear lapping
D. Gear grinding
Solution:
Gear finishing processes:
(1) Conventional finishing process for years:
i) Gear shaving
ii) Gear grinding
iii) Gear honing
iv) Gear lapping
v) Gear burnishing
vi) Gear skiving

(2) Advanced finishing processes for gears:
i) Gear finishing by electrochemical honing.
ii) Gear finishing by electrochemical grinding.
iii) Gear finishing by abrasive flow finishing (AFF).

Gear hobbing:
It is the process of generating gear teeth by means of a rotating cutter referred to as a “hob”
Hobbing can be used to produce spur, Helical, & worm gears, as well as splines in almost material (ferrous and non-ferrous metals &
plastics), but not bevel or internal gears.
QUESTION: 81
Which one of the following abrasives is used for lapping gauges?
A. Aluminium oxide
B. Silicon carbide
C. Diamond
D. Boron carbide
Solution:
The material used for making laps should be softer than the workpiece being lapped. The commonly used abrasives are:
QUESTION: 82
Galvanizing is a process of applying a layer of zinc on a metal surface. It is also known as
A. Hot dip galvanization
B. Anodizing
C. Electroplating
D. Cathodizing
Solution:
Galvanization is the process of depositing a protective layer of zinc on iron or steel to avoid rusting. The most commonly used
method of galvanization is hot dip galvanizing, in which iron or steel units are submerged in a molten zinc bath.
Anodizing is the process of deposition of oxide film on a metal surface is known as anodizing and oxidation
Electroplating is defined as the deposition of metal over any metallic or non-metallic surfaces
QUESTION: 83
An oxidizing process used for aluminium and magnesium articles is called
A. Galvanising
B. Anodising
C. Parkerising
D. Sheardising
Solution:
Cementation: There are three types of cementation process for protecting metal surfaces.
Sherardizing (Zinc coating)
Calorizing (Aluminium coating)
Chromizing (Chromium coating)
Anodizing: Anodizing is used to provide a decorative and corrosion resistant coating on aluminium and its alloys only.
A thin coating of oxide on aluminium can protect the surface from corrosion.
Aluminium is ideally suited to Anodizing, although other non-ferrous metals such as magnesium and titanium also can be
anodized.
Parkerising is a process used for making thin phosphate coating on steel.
Galvanizing: It is a process of giving a protective coating of zinc on iron sheets and components to protect the surface from
corrosion. It is the process of coating of zinc by hot- dipping.
QUESTION: 84
While taking a measurement with the help of a Micrometer, which two parts of a Micrometer are used to
hold the specimen?
A. Spindle and Anvil
B. Spindle and Ratchet
C. Anvil and Ratchet
D. Anvil and Barrel
Solution:
Objects to be measured by Micrometer are placed between the measuring faces; the anvil and the spindle.
The anvil is the stationary measuring face against which parts are held until the spindle contacts the work.
It operates by measuring the space between a hard stop (anvil) and a movable surface (spindle). When a thimble is turned it
drives the spindle closer or farther away from the anvil.
QUESTION: 85
Which of the following is NOT an angle measuring device?
A. Feeler gauge
B. Sine bar
C. Bevel Protector
D. Combination set
Solution:
Sine bar, Bevel protractor and Combination Set are used to measure the angle while Feeler gauge is used to measure the
clearance between the mating part.
A feeler gauge is a tool used to measure gap widths. Feeler gauges are mostly used in engineering to measure the clearance
between two parts.
A sine bar is a precision measuring instrument for checking and setting of angles.
Bevel protector is used for measuring the angles between two faces of components.
Combination sets can be used for different types of work, like layout work, measurement and checking of angles.
The combination set has a
Protractor head
Square head
Center head and a rule
QUESTION: 86
Which of the following is not the correct method of specifying numerical value of surface roughness
mean line
A. Centre-line average (CLA) value
B. Mean-line and envelop line systems
C. R.M.S value
D. Peak-to-valley height
Solution:
Whatever may be the manufacturing process, an absolutely smooth and flat surface cannot be obtained. The machine element or
parts retain the surface irregularities left after manufacturing. The surface irregularities are usually understood in terms of surface
finish, surface roughness, surface texture or surface quality.
Evaluation of surface roughness:
1. Root mean square value: r.m.s. value
2. Centre line average (CLA) or arithmetic mean deviation (Ra)
3. Maximum peak to valley height (Rt or Rmax)
4. The average of five highest peaks and five deepest valleys in the sample (Rz)
5. The average or levelling depth of the profile (Rp)
The two most accepted methods of assessing the surface roughness are: Root mean square value and the arithmetic average or
centre line average value.
In both the methods, the surface roughness is measured as the average deviation from a nominal surface.
The value of surface roughness is expresses in micro metres (μm).
QUESTION: 87
The reflector combined with autocollimator can be used for checking
A. Alignment
B. Parallelism
C. Circularity
D. Distance between two far off points
Solution:
Auto-Collimator is an instrument used to measure small angular inclinations. It is also used to check straightness, flatness and
alignment.
A collimator is a tube for projecting parallel rays of light. It consists simply of a light source and a collimating lens (converging
lens).
The principle of working of this instrument is the basic principle of reflection of light.
Let a point source of light be placed at the principle focus of a converging lens; After passing through the lens, the beam of light becomes
parallel
If this beam of light strikes a flat reflecting surface which is perpendicular to the optical axis, it will be reflected back along its original path
and refocused at the same point
Now is the mirror is tilted by an angle θ the beam of light will be reflected back but deflected through an angle 2θ and will be focused in the
same plane as the light source but displaced to one side of it
The displacement will be, d = 2fθ where f is the focal length of the lens.
QUESTION: 88
Which of the following is not a type of a comparator?
A. Dial indicator
B. Sigma comparator
C. Optical lever
D. Interferometer
Solution:
A comparator is an indirect type of instrument with the help of which an unknown dimension of a work piece is compared with a
working standard (usually slip gauges).
Comparators are classified as:
1. Mechanical Comparators: In this mechanical means are used to get the magnification for example, gear system, levers etc.
Types:
1. Dial indicators
2. Lever comparators
3. Reed type comparator
4. Sigma comparator
5. Johansson Mikrokator Comparator
2. Electrical Comparator: In this the movement of the measuring contact is converted into an electrical signal. This electrical
signal is recorded by an instrument which can be calibrated in terms of plunger movement.
3. Optical Comparators: This type of comparator uses fundamental optical law and instead of a pointer, the edge of a shadow is
projected on to a curved graduated scale to indicate the comparison measurement.
4. Pneumatic Comparator: In these comparators, either air flow or air pressure is measured to give measurement deviation from a
standard. The response of the comparators working on air flow is quicker than those working on air pressure, but the latter are
more versatile than the former.
Interferometer: Light interference occurs when there is a difference in distance travelled by the light from the surface of a target
object to a certain point; the interferometer uses this phenomenon to measure the surface roughness of a sample.
QUESTION: 89
Dial gauge is an instrument to measure linear measurement up to an accuracy of
A. 10-1 mm
B. 10-2 mm
C. 10-3 mm
D. 10-4 mm
Solution:
Dial indicators are simple mechanical devices that convert linear displacements of a pointer to rotation of an indicator on a
circular dial.
The indicator is set to zero at a certain reference surface, and the instrument or the surface to be measured is brought into
contact with the pointer.
The movement of the indicator is read directly on the circular dial.
The typical least count that can be obtained with suitable gearing dial indicators is 0.01 mm to 0.001 mm.
It is possible to use the dial indicator as a comparator by mounting it on a stand at any suitable height.
QUESTION: 90
The critical path of the PERT chart is the
A. A path which takes the shortest time to complete the project
B. A path which takes the longest time to complete the project
C. The shortest material route
D. The longest material route
Solution:
The minimum time to complete the project is the maximum of all paths from start to finish. So a critical path is the longest path in
the network.
QUESTION: 91
The final process of a job analysis is the preparation of two statements, namely,
A. job observation and job description
B. job specification and job observation
C. job description and job specification
Solution:
Job Analysis is a primary tool to collect job-related data. The process results in collecting and recording two data sets including
job description and job specification.
JOB DESCRIPTION is an organized factual statement of job contents in the form of duties and responsibilities of a specific job.
The preparation of a job description is very important before a vacancy is advertised. It tells, in brief, the nature and type of job.
This type of document is descriptive in nature and it constitutes all those facts which are related to a job such as:
Title/ Designation of job and the location
The nature of duties and operations to be performed in that job
The nature of authority- responsibility relationships
Necessary qualifications that are required for a job
Relationship of that job with other jobs
The provision of physical and working condition or the work environment required in the performance of that job
JOB SPECIFICATION is a statement which tells us minimum acceptable human qualities which helps to perform a job. Job
specification helps in hiring an appropriate person for an appropriate position. The contents are:
Job title and designation
Educational qualifications for that title
Physical and other related attributes
Physique and mental health
Special attributes and abilities

Maturity and dependability
Relationship of that job with other jobs
QUESTION: 92
The document which contains the information about the used material sequence, detail and quantity of
raw material is classified as
A. Bill of materials
B. Bill of sequence
C. Bill of detail
D. Bill of raw materials
Solution:
Bill of materials (BOM) is also known as part list, is the document generated at the design stage, which details the structure of the
product. It provides details such as the item stock number, description, type, quantity required, material and the type of
relationship between the group of components.
BOM is the basic document used by all departments to accomplish their activities involved to finish the product.
Material requirement planning, procurement action for bought-up components, releases of orders for manufacturing, issue of
bought-out items for assembly, manufacturing items, pricing a product, detailed break-up of the cost, etc ate based on bill of
materials.
For example, if a chair is assembled, the bill of material will be four legs, two arms, back rest, glue and a box of nails.
QUESTION: 93
In a weaving operation, the parameter to be controlled is the number of defects per 10 square yards of
material. Control chart appropriate for this task is-
A. P – chart
B. C – chart
C. R – chart
D. X̅ - chart
Solution:
In a weaving operation, the parameter to be controlled is the number of defects per 10 square yards of material. Control chart
appropriate for this task is C chart.
Explanation:
Control charts are statistical tool, showing whether a process is in control or not.
Two types of process data:
Variable is a continuous data, things we can measure; Example includes length, weight, time, temperature, diameter, etc.
Attribute is a discrete data, things we count; Examples include number or percent defective items in a lot, number of defects per item etc.
Types of Control Charts:
Variable charts are meant for variable type of data. X bar and R Chart, X bar and sigma chart, chart for the individual units
Attribute charts are meant for attribute type of data. p chart, np chart, c chart, u chart, U chart
Control charts for the variable type of data (X bar and R charts)
In the x bar chart, the sample means are plotted in order to control the mean value of a variable
In R chart, the sample ranges are plotted in order to control the variability of a variable
Control charts for Attribute type data (p, c, u charts)
p-charts calculates the percent defective in sample; p-charts are used when observations can be placed in two categories such as yes
or no, good or bad, pass or fail etc.
c-charts counts the number of defects in an item; c-charts are used only when the number of occurrences per unit of measure can be
counted such as number of scratches, cracks etc.
u-chart counts the number of defects per sample; The u chart is used when it is not possible to have a sample size of a fixed size
QUESTION: 94
A PERT activity has an optimistic time of 3 days; pessimistic time of 15 days and the expected time is 7
days. The most likely time of the activity is
A. 5 days
B. 6 days
C. 7 days
D. 9 days
Solution:
The PERT (Project Evaluation and Review Technique) technique is used, when activity time estimates are stochastic in nature.
For each activity, three values of time (optimistic, most likely, pessimistic) are estimated.
Optimistic time (to) estimate is the shortest possible time required for the completion of activity
Most likely time (tm) estimate is the time required for the completion of activity under normal circumstances
Pessimistic time (tp) estimate is the longest possible time required for the completion of activity
In PERT expected time of an activity is determined by using the below given formula:
QUESTION: 95
In inventory control theory, the Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) is
A. Average level of inventory
B. Optimum lot size
C. Lot size corresponding to break-even analysis
D. Capacity of a warehouse
Solution:
Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) is that size of order which minimizes the total annual cost of carrying inventory and cost of
ordering under the assumed conditions of certainty and that annual demands. This is the quantity at which the holding cost
becomes equal to the ordering cost.
QUESTION: 96
ABC analysis deals with
A. Analysis of process chart
B. Flow of metals
C. Ordering schedule of job
D. Controlling inventory costs money
Solution:
ABC analysis is an inventory categorization method which consists in dividing items into three categories, A, B and C: A being the
most valuable items, C being the least valuable ones. This method aims to draw managers’ attention on the critical few (A - items)
and not on the trivial many (C - items).
QUESTION: 97
A stoking finds that monthly demand for a particular ball pen is 2000. The price of each pen is 0.8 rupees
and cost of placing an order is Rs. 20. The cost of stocking the pens per month is 10% of price of pen.
What is EOQ?
A. 1000
B. 2000
C. 500
D. 750
Solution:
Economic order quantity is defined as: (D = Demand, Co = Ordering cost, Ch = Holding/Carrying cost)
QUESTION: 98
The break-even point can be lowered by
A. Increasing the fixed costs
B. Increasing the variable costs
C. Decreasing the slope of the income line
D. Reducing the variable cost
Solution:
Breakeven analysis is used to find the minimum level of production required. It evaluates both fixed and variable costs.
A breakeven analysis is used to determine how much sales volume your business needs to start making a profit, based on your
fixed costs, variable costs, and selling price.
Break-even analysis consists of:
1. Fixed cost (F)
2. Variable cost (V)
3. Sales revenue (S)
In can be seen that BEP will decrease when Fixed cost and variable cost will decrease.
BEP will decrease when selling cost increase or the slope of the income line will decrease.
QUESTION: 99
Cycle time means
A. Starting time of job
B. Completion time of job
C. Time to complete job
D. Waiting time of job
Solution:
Cycle Time: It is the time required to complete one cycle of an operation from start to finish. It is different from lead time.
Lead time: It is the total time required to manufacture a product. It includes order preparation time, queue time, setup time etc.
QUESTION: 100
Which one of the following is a four-wheeled vehicle used for material handling ________?
A. Single-girder crane
B. Traveling wall crane
C. Pillar Gib crane
D. Industrial fork-lift
Solution:
A four-wheel vehicle used for material handling is the industrial fork lift.
Gasoline, propane or electric engines provide power to it.
Heavy counter weights are fitted to the rear of the units.
The front of the machine has two steel lifting arms or forks. The forks are spaced to balance the loads and are adjustable.
It is used for lifting loads and shifting them to different places in a factory.
QUESTION: 101
Which is/are abiotic component?
I. Sunlight
II. Plants
III. Water
IV. Animals
V. Soil
VI. Insects
A. II, IV, V
B. I, III, V
C. I, II, III
D. I, II, III, V
Solution:
The natural environment components can be classified into two
1. Abiotic components
2. Biotic components
Abiotic components
These components are not living but can support other living organisms. Some kinds of such organisms are given below:
Inorganic substances: The elements which are taken up by the plants with the help of sunlight and converted into food. The examples of
such inorganic elements are like nitrogen, calcium, phosphorus, hydrogen, carbon dioxide and oxygen.
Organic substances: The substances which are taken in the form of inorganic materials from the food source and are again sent back to
the environment after decomposition by decomposers. E.g. Carbohydrates, proteins, fats etc.
Physical factors: These factors have a direct effect on living organisms, which are climatic conditions like temperature, rainfall, wind,
humidity, soil and light energy which is used by the plants for the preparation of food.
Lithosphere: The outermost layer of the earth (i.e.) soil or land.
Hydrosphere: Part of the earth having water resources like oceans, rivers, ponds, and lakes.
Atmosphere: It is a cover around the earth composed by a variety of gases which protects the living organisms from various harmful
cosmic radiations.
Biotic components
The area in which life is possible is called as a biosphere. All living organism in the biosphere depends upon one another and
these organisms exist in the biosphere forming the following community.
Producers: The green plants present on earth surface which produces their own food only once by the process of photosynthesis in
sunlight, water, and carbon dioxide forms food for other organisms. E.g. Sugar, carbohydrates etc.
Consumer: This organisms directly (or) indirectly depend upon the green plants for the source of food. E.g. All animals including man.
Decomposers: These are micro-organisms which decompose the complex compounds in the dead organic matter of plants and animals
and again recycle the elements into the environment. E.g. Bacteria and fungi.
o for the given conditions:
S
Biotic Components – Plants, Animals, Fungi, Insects
Abiotic Components – Sunlight, Water, Soil.
QUESTION: 102
Excess nitrate in drinking water can cause
A. Headache, hear stress
B. Jaundice, cholera, typhoid
C. Affects nerves system, lips and tongue deadness
D. Blue baby syndrome
Solution:
An illness that begins when large amounts of nitrates in water are ingested by an infant and converted to nitrite by the digestive
system. The nitrite then reacts with oxy-haemoglobin (the oxygen-carrying blood protein) to form metheglobin, which cannot carry
oxygen. If a large enough amount of metheglobin is formed in the blood, body tissues may be deprived of oxygen, causing the
infant to develop a blue coloration of their mucous membranes and possibly digestive and respiratory problems. This condition is
also known as methemoglobinemia.
QUESTION: 103
Which of the following chemical compounds is used for causing acid rain?
A. Sulphur dioxide and Nitrogen dioxide
B. Sodium carbonate and Sodium hydroxide
C. Calcium Oxide and Hydrochloric acid
D. Potassium bicarbonate and Iron disulfide
Solution:
Acid rain is caused by a chemical reaction that begins when compounds like sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides are released into the air.
These substances can rise very high into the atmosphere, where they mix and react with water, oxygen, and other chemicals to form more
acidic pollutants, known as acid rain.
Sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides dissolve very easily in water and can be carried very far by the wind.
As a result, the two compounds can travel long distances where they become part of the rain, sleet, snow, and fog that we experience on
certain days.
QUESTION: 104
Which of the following living beings is most likely to produce greenhouse gases?
A. Bacteria
B. Fungi
C. Earthworm
D. Green Plants
Solution:
Green plants are most likely to produce greenhouse gases.
Greenhouse gases consists gases such as carbon dioxide, methane, water vapour, nitrous oxide and ozone.
These gases absorbs heat which produced from the Sun.
A greenhouse is called so because it is a house which contains green things such as plants and beneficial gasses.
QUESTION: 105
Fly ash is the environmental pollutant generated by
A. Fertilizer plant
B. Cement industry
C. Thermal power plant
D. Flour mills
Solution:
Fly ash, also known as "pulverised fuel ash" is a coal combustion product composed of fine particles that are driven out of
the boiler with the flue gases in thermal power plant.
QUESTION: 106
Which of the following is the main constituent of Biogas after Methane?
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Oxygen
C. Hydrogen
D. Ammonia
Solution:
Methane and Carbon dioxide are the main constituent of Biogas.
Methane is produced by the anaerobic bacterial decomposition of vegetable matter under water.
It is also known as marsh gas or swamp gas.
Its chemical formula is CH4.
QUESTION: 107
Chlorofluorocarbons which damage the ozone layer of the atmosphere are not used in which of the
following?
A. Refrigerator
B. Air conditioner
C. Aerosol spray
D. None of these
Solution:
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFC) are used in Refrigerator, Air conditioner and Aerosol spray.
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are nontoxic, nonflammable chemicals containing atoms of carbon, chlorine, and fluorine.
QUESTION: 108
Which of the following is not an example of a biomass energy source?
A. Wood
B. Gobar gas
C. Nuclear energy
D. Cattle dung
Solution:
Energy resources can be classified into two categories:
1. Renewable source (Non-conventional energy)
2. Non-Renewable source (Conventional energy)
Renewable energy resources are natural resources which can be regenerated continuously and are inexhaustible. They can
be used again and again in an endless manner. Examples are Wood, Solar energy, wind energy, hydropower, tidal energy,
geothermal energy, Biomass Energy etc.
Biomass Energy: Energy produced by organic matter like plants and animals are called Biomass Energy
Examples of biomass are wood, crop residues, seeds, cattle dung, sewage, agricultural wastes etc
Biogas and biofuel are examples of biomass energy
Non-Renewable energy resources are natural resources which cannot be regenerated once they are exhausted. They cannot
be used again. Examples are Oil, Coal, petroleum, natural gas, nuclear fuels etc.
QUESTION: 109
An increase in which of the following gases leads to global warming?
A. Oxygen
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Sulphur dioxide
D. Ozone
Solution:
Carbon dioxide is responsible for trapping heat energy from the Sun within the Earth's atmosphere by preventing the rays of the Sun from
escaping into the atmosphere.
This leads to an increase in the overall temperature and this phenomenon is called global warming.
QUESTION: 110
Which layer of the atmosphere has the maximum concentration of Ozone gas?
A. Troposphere
B. Stratosphere
C. Thermosphere
D. Mesosphere
Solution:
Stratosphere layer of atmosphere has the maximum concentration of Ozone gas.
Approximately 10 per cent of Ozone layer is present in Troposphere and rest of the 90 per cent found in Stratosphere layer of
atmosphere..
Ozone layer in Stratosphere atmosphere absorbs most of the ultraviolet radiation from the Sun.
Stratosphere is the second layer of atmosphere whereas Troposphere is the lowest layer of the atmosphere.
The Thermosphere is the layer of the Earth's atmosphere is above the Mesosphere.
There are five layers of atmosphere namely- Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere and Exosphere.
QUESTION: 111
Which among the following is/are output devices?
I. Scanner
II. Speaker
III. Plotter
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both II and III
D. Both I and III
Solution:
An input device is any hardware device that sends data to a computer, allowing you to interact with and control it.
An output device is any hardware that sends data from a computer to another device mostly in form of audio or video.
Scanner scans any document and sends it to computer, so it is a input device.
Speaker gets data from computer in form of audio. So it is a output device.
Plotter is printer that print vector image. It recieve data from computer and print it on paper. So it is also a output device.
QUESTION: 112
When the USB is connected to a system, its root hub is connected to the _________.
A. SCSI BUS / SCSI
B. Processor Bus
C. IDE
D. PCI Bus
Solution:
USB root hub is the software driver that connects multiple USB peripherals to the computer. Root hub is connected to the
processor through Bus.
QUESTION: 113
The first page of a web site is called its:
A. Initial page
B. Mother page
C. Home page
D. First page
Solution:
The home page is the first page that we see when a website is opened on the web browser. It is also called the start page or the
main page, though home page is a more commonly used name. It is generally made attractive and contains various hyperlinks to
different pages within the web site to attract visitors to its site. Some web sites require users to login to the web site to access the
home page.
QUESTION: 114
Why is the Caps Lock key referred to as a toggle key?
A. Because its function goes back and forth every time it is pressed
B. Because it cannot be used for entering numbers
C. Because it cannot be used to delete
D. Because it cannot be used to insert
Solution:
A toggle key toggles the input from other keys on the keyboard between different input modes.
The most commonly used toggle key is the caps lock key, which alternates the letter keys between uppercase and lowercase
Num lock is another toggle key which helps to input numerals from the numeric keyboard and is turned on by default
Scroll lock key allows arrow keys to scroll through window's contents and allows users to scroll without depending on the scroll bar
The insert key is another example of a toggle key, and it toggles between overtype mode and insert mode while entering text
QUESTION: 115
A set of programs which enables computer hardware and software to work together is called
A. System software
B. Application software
C. Open source system
D. Database management system
Solution:
System software is a type of computer program that is designed to run a computer's hardware and application programs. If we
think of the computer system as a layered model, the system software is the interface between the hardware and user
applications.
QUESTION: 116
Which electronic components were used in Fifth Generation Computers?
A. Transistors
B. Integrated Circuits
C. VLSI
D. ULSI
Solution:
Fifth Generation (Present and Future):
5th generation computers use ULSI (Ultra-Large Scale Integration) chips
Millions of transistors are placed in a single IC in ULSI chips
64-bit microprocessors have been developed during this period
Memory chips and flash memory up to 1 GB, hard disks up to 600 GB & optical disks up to 50 GB have been developed
Fifth generation computing devices, based on Artificial Intelligence, are still in development, though there are some applications, such as
voice recognition, that is being used today
Notes:
QUESTION: 117
Which of the following is used to retrieve the information through URL (e.g. http://XYZ.com) on the world
wide web?
A. Web server
B. client
C. Web browser
D. cookie
Solution:
A web browser is a software application for accessing information on the World Wide Web
URL is an acronym for Uniform Resource Locator, It is a reference to the resource on the internet
A client is a computer that connects to and uses the resources of a remote computer, or server
The server handles the request from the web browser and sends back a response to build a connection to provide web services
Cookies are messages that web servers pass to the web browser when user visit Internet sites
QUESTION: 118
In Linux and Unix CTRL+D is used to _______.
A. Cancel the currently running command
B. Turn all output stopped on screen back on (XON)
C. Erase the completed line
D. Closes the command line shell
Solution:
C TRL + D closes the command line shell. This sends an EOF (End of file) marker to shell, and shell exits when it receives this
marker. This is similar to running the exit command.
QUESTION: 119
Which of the following is an operating system?
I. Ubuntu
II. Linux
III. Unix
A. Only I
B. Only II and III
C. All I, II and III
D. No option is correct.
Solution:
Ubuntu, Linux, Unix, Microsoft Windows and macOS all fall under the category of operating systems.
An Operating system is basically a low-level system software and an important program that runs on every computer. Its basic
function is to perform basic tasks such as controlling peripherals, managing computer software and hardware resources, keeping
track of directories and files in the storage drive, sending output to the display and more.
QUESTION: 120
A computer virus is a
A. Hardware
B. Software
C. Bacteria
D. Freeware
Solution:
A computer Virus is a malicious software that, when executed replicates itself by modifying other computer programs.
The full of VIRUS is Vital Information Recourse Under Siege, because they replicate and multiply and use up computer memory
processing power with fake repetitive commands. It causes the system to become slow and keeps hanging.
QUESTION: 121
In January 2019, Krishna Sobti passed away. She was a famous ________.
A. Politician
B. Writer
C. Singer
D. Sports Person
Solution:
Krishna Sobti was a famous Hindi writer and essayist.
She had won the Sahitya Akademi Award in 1980 for her novel Zindaginama.
She was awarded the Jnanpith in 2017 for her contribution to Indian literature.
Some of her celebrated works include Daar Se Bichhudi, Mitro Marjani, Zindaginama, Dil-o-Danish etc.
QUESTION: 122
Who among the following has won Australian Open Men’s Singles 2019 title at Melbourn?
A. Rafael Nadal
B. Novak Djokovic
C. Stan Wawrinka
D. Roger Federer
Solution:
Novak Djokovic defeated Rafael Nadal to win his 7th Australian Open Men’s Singles title at Melbourn.
The resurgent world No. 1 outplayed the second-ranked Nadal 6-3, 6-2, 6-3 in a largely one-sided match.
In Women’s Singles, Japan’s Naomi Osaka clinched her maiden Australian Open Grand Slam Singles title in Melbourne.
QUESTION: 123
Which country has become the 124th member of the International Criminal Court (ICC)?
A. Singapore
B. Malaysia
C. Thailand
D. Laos
Solution:
Malaysia has become the 124th member of the International Criminal Court (ICC).
The ICC is the world's only permanent war crimes court and aims to prosecute the worst abuses when national courts are unable or
unwilling.
The headquarters of International Criminal Court is in The Hague, Netherlands.
Malaysia's capital is Kuala Lumpur and its currency is Malaysian Ringgit.
QUESTION: 124
What is the tagline for ‘Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana’?
A. More crop per acre
B. More crop per drop
C. More crop per gallon
D. More produce per drop
Solution:
“More Crop per Drop” is the tagline for ‘Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana’.
The policy was launched in the year 2015-2016 to promote farming and irrigation.
The main objective of the scheme is to converge the investments in irrigation at the farm level and provide end to end solutions to the
farmers.
QUESTION: 125
The Gross Domestic Product of a country is defined as which among the following?
A. It is the value of all the goods and services produced by the citizens of a country, both domestic and non-residents, in a
financial year.
B. It is the total value of the finished goods and services produced by the skilled citizens of a country in a financial year.
C. It is the total value of the goods and services produced in a country in a financial year.
D. It is the total value of the finished goods and services produced outside a country in a financial year.
Solution:
The Gross Domestic Product is defined as the total value of the finished goods and services produced within the boundary of a country in
a financial year.
The GDP of India has shown a growth of 8.2% in the first quarter of the FY 2018-19.
QUESTION: 126
The only Viceroy to be assassinated in India was ________.
A. Lord Wellesley
B. Lord Canning
C. Lord Mayo
D. Lord Ellenborough
Solution:
Richard Southwell Bourke, 6th Earl of Mayo also known as Lord Mayo in India was the only viceroy to be assassinated in India.
Sher Ali Afridi on 8th Feb 1872, assassinated Lord Mayo, the then viceroy of India, in Port Blair.
TRICK: "Mayo" sounds like "maaro" (to kill) similar to assassination.
QUESTION: 127
Which of the following decisive battles had established the dominion of the British in India?
A. Battle of Plassey
B. Battle of Buxar
C. Battle of Wandiwash
D. Third Battle of Panipat
Solution:
The Battle of Buxarwas fought on 22-23 October 1764 between the forces under the command of the British East India Company
led by Hector Munro and the combined armies of Mir Qasim, Nawab of Bengal till 1763; the Nawab of Awadh; and the Mughal
Emperor Shah Alam.
The combined armies of Mughals, Awadh and MirQasim were defeated by the British army.
Treaty of Allahabad was signed after the battle of Buxar.
QUESTION: 128
Which of the following folk/tribal dances is associated with Karnataka?
A. Yakashagana
B. Veedhi
C. Jatra
D. Jhora
Solution:
Yakshagana is a popular folk-theatre form of Karnataka with a long history of nearly four hundred years. It is a unique harmony of
musical tradition, eye-catching costumes, and authentic styles of dance, improvised gestures and acting with its extemporaneous
dialogue appealing to a wide range of the community. It is a vibrant and vigorous living form of theatre art.
QUESTION: 129
When did Constituent Assembly adopt Constitution?
A. 26th November 1949
B. 15th November 1949
C. 26th January 1950
D. 26th January 1949
Solution:
The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 26th November, 1949 but it came into force on 26th January,
1950.
Constitution of India is known as the supreme law of India which consists of fundamental political codes, powers, procedures,
structures and the duties of the government institutions, directive principles and the duties of the citizen.
It is the longest written constitution of any country in the world.
B.R. Ambedkar was considered to be its chief architect as he was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee.
QUESTION: 130
Ramon Magsaysay Award is named after the former President of ________.
A. Philippines
B. Thailand
C. Indonesia
D. None of these
Solution:
The Ramon Magsaysay Award is an annual award established to perpetuate former Philippine President Ramon Magsaysay's example
of integrity in governance, courageous service to the people, and pragmatic idealism within a democratic society.
The prize was established in April 1957 by the trustees of the Rockefeller Brothers Fund based in New York City with the concurrence of
the Philippine government.
QUESTION: 131
"Forests" is listed in the _________ list given in the Seventh Schedule in the Constitution of India.
A. Union
B. State
C. Global
D. Concurrent
Solution:
Through the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 five subjects were transferred from State to Concurrent List.
They are:
1. Education
2. Forests
3. Weights & Measures
4. Protection of Wild Animals and Birds
5. Administration of Justice
QUESTION: 132
Who among the following authored the book 'The Golden Threshold'?
A. Sarojani Naidu
B. Anurag Mathur
C. Mahashweta Devi
D. H.P.S. Ahluwalia
Solution:
Sarojani Naidu became the first Indian women president of the Congress at the Kanpur session in 1925.
She was the first woman to become the governor of Uttar Pradesh.
She began writing at the age of 13. Known as the Nightingale of India, she eulogised India in her poems published in three
collections, The Golden Threshold (1905), The Bird of Time (1912) and the Broken Wing (1917).
QUESTION: 133
What is Syzygy?
A. Position of sun, earth and moon in the straight line
B. Earth’s position between Sun and Moon
C. Sun and Moon position on one side of the Earth
D. The right-angle position of Moon from the Sun and Earth
Solution:
When two or more celestial bodies arrange themselves in a straight line due to their own revolution it is known as a syzygy.
All eclipses are syzygy but, not all syzygy are eclipses.
For example, the full moon and new moon are syzygy involving the lining up of the Sun, Earth and Moon so, lunar and solar eclipses are
syzygy.
QUESTION: 134
Kawal Tiger Reserve is in ________
A. Maharashtra
B. Rajasthan
C. Telangana
D. Andhra Pradesh
Solution:
Kawal Tiger Reserve is located at Jannaram mandal of Mancherial District in Telangana state of India.
QUESTION: 135
Which Pass connects the Kashmir valley with the Deosai Plains of Ladakh?
A. Aghil Pass
B. Bomdi La Pass
C. Pensi La Pass
D. Burzail Pass
Solution:
Burzail Pass connects the Kashmir valley with Deosai Plains of Ladakh.
It remains covered in snow during the winter.
QUESTION: 136
In which of the following during the emission of radioactive rays, no changes occur in the mass or
charge?
A. oxidation
B. α-emission
C. β-emission
D. γ-emission
Solution:
In γ-emission rays (Gamma rays), no changes occur in the mass/charge.
Gamma rays are electromagnetic waves of short wavelength and high frequency.
They are emitted by most radioactive sources along with alpha or beta particles
Through releasing a gamma photon it reduces to a lower energy state. Hence, Gamma rays have no electrical charge connected with
them.
Alpha rays are released by high mass whereas beta has high energy electrons.
QUESTION: 137
What is the formula of Ethanoic acid?
A. CH2O2
B. HNO3
C. C2H6
D. CH3COOH
Solution:
Acetic acid, commonly named ethanoic acid, is a colorless liquid organic compound with the chemical formula CH3COOH.
When undiluted, it is sometimes called glacial acetic acid.
QUESTION: 138
Which of the following is used in the form of an electrolyte of the dry cell (battery)?
A. Magnesium chloride and zinc chloride
B. Ammonium chloride and calcium chloride
C. Ammonium chloride and zinc chloride
D. Sodium chloride and chloride
Solution:
Ammonium chloride and zinc chloride is used in the form of an electrolyte of the dry cell (battery).
Ammonium chloride is mixed with Plaster of Paris to form a paste, with a small amount of zinc chloride added to increase the shelf life of
the battery.
Ammonium chloride paste allows current to flow.
Zinc chloride paste allows a dry-cell to conduct the electricity and provide electrical power to various substances.
Zinc chloride paste used between the space of anode and cathode electrodes in a dry cell along with moist paste of ammonium
chloride where zinc chloride acts as an electrolyte.
QUESTION: 139
Which one of the following polymeric materials is used for making bulletproof jackets?
A. Nylon 6, 6
B. Rayon
C. Kevlar
D. Dacron
Solution:
Kevlar is used for making bulletproof jackets.
Kevlar is a synthetic fiber and heat-resistant.
It absorbs the energy of a bullet and extends it over a larger area.
It consists of many application which includes racing sails, bicycle tyres, bulletproof jackets, and vests.
It was developed by an American scientist Stephanie Kwolek in the year 1965.
QUESTION: 140
Duralumin alloy consists of Al, Mn, ________.
A. Mg and Co
B. Fe and Ni
C. Zn and Ni
D. Mg and Cu
Solution:
Duralumin alloy consists of Mg, Mn, Al, and Cu.
Duralumin is a lightweight, strong, and hard alloy of aluminium, used widely in aircraft construction.
It is workable, ductile, and relatable in the normal state and can be drawn and rolled into a variety of shapes.
QUESTION: 141
The Laboratory apparatus are made of ________.
A. Flint glass
B. Crook glass
C. Soda glass
D. Pyrex glass
Solution:
The Laboratory apparatus are made of pyrex glass. Pyrex glasses are borosilicate glasses.
Some of the basic laboratory apparatus comprise of a volumetric flask, graduated cylinder, funnel, and beaker.
Flint glasses are durable and heavy characterized by their high refractive quality, clarity, and brilliance.
Crookes glasses are those which are designed to diminish the transmission of UV rays.
QUESTION: 142
Consider the following:
1. Carbon dioxide
2. Oxides of Nitrogen
3. Oxides of Sulphur
Q. Which of the above is/are the emission/emission from coal combustion at thermal power plants?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Solution:
Carbon dioxide is the emission/emission from coal combustion at thermal power plants.
Along with carbon dioxide, sulphur dioxide and nitrogen dioxide are also gaseous emissions which leads to global warming and acid rain.
These emissions are formed due to the combustion process when coal is burned to produce heat.
However, emissions depend on the quantity of coal used and the amount of sulphur present in the coal.
QUESTION: 143
Candela is the unit of ________.
A. Luminous flux
B. Luminous effect
C. Luminous pressure
D. Luminous intensity
Solution:
Candela (Cd) is the SI unit of luminous intensity.
Luminous intensity is a measure of the amount of visible light emitted from a point source per unit time per unit solid angle.
QUESTION: 144
The rotational effect of an applied force can be measured by ________.
A. Moment of Force
B. Centripetal Force
C. Impulse
Solution:
Moment of Force is defined as the rotational effect of a force on a body about an axis of rotation and its unit is Newton metre.
Centripetal Force acts towards the centre of the circular path in which a body is moving.
Impulse is the product of force and time since it is the reaction when a large force acts on a body for a very small time.
QUESTION: 145
Which quantum number is associated with the angular momentum of the electron?
A. Principal quantum number
B. Spin quantum number
C. Orbital quantum number
D. Magnetic quantum number
Solution:
The quantum mechanical state of an electron is identified by the following quantum numbers:
1. Denoted by n, the principal quantum number is always an integer and describes the electron's state.
2. The Orbital quantum number / azimuthal quantum number is denoted by l and is associated with the angular momentum (L) of the electron
due to its orbital motion. It is given by l = n - 1
3. The energy of an electron in a hydrogen atom is affected by a strong magnetic field and the quantum number which describes this
magnetic effect is called magnetic quantum number. It is denoted by ml.
4. Denoted by ms, the spin quantum number is associated with the intrinsic angular momentum of the electron.
QUESTION: 146
Which mirror is used by doctors to examine the eyes, ears, nose, and throat?
A. Concave mirror
B. Convex mirror
C. Normal mirror
D. Plane mirror
Solution:
When the object is between the centre of curvature and focus or between focus and pole of a concave mirror, the image formed is virtual,
erect and magnified.
Therefore, doctors use concave mirrors to examine the eyes, ears, nose,and throat from a close range as the image formed is enlarged
and provides a better view to the doctor.
QUESTION: 147
The intensity of light is ________ due to constructive interference.
A. zero
B. minimum
C. maximum
D. none of the above
Solution:
The non-uniform distribution of energy due to the superposition of light waves in a media is called the interference of light.
Constructive interference occurs when the crest of one wave falls on the crest of other wave or the trough of one wave falls on the
trough of the other wave.
The resultant intensity due to constructive interference is, therefore, maximum.
QUESTION: 148
Which of the following statement is correct about the value of acceleration due to gravity at the poles?
A. It will be more than at the equator
B. It will be same as at the equator
C. It will be less than at the equator
D. It will be zero
Solution:
Due to the equatorial bulge, i.e. the equator being more bulged towards the outside, the poles are nearer to the Centre of the earth, as
compared to the equatorial region.
And as the acceleration due to gravity is inversely proportional to the distance from the Centre of the earth, as the distance is less on
poles, the acceleration due to gravity(g) is more at the poles.
QUESTION: 149
The following equation is a representation of which law?
A. Boyle's Law
B. Combined Gas Law
C. Charles's Law
D. Graham's Law
Solution:
V is is a representation of the Combined Gas Law.
This law is obtained by combining Gay-Lussac's Law, Boyles's Law and Charles's Law.
Boyle's Law is represented as P 1V1 = P2V2, P is pressure and V is the volume.
Charles' Law is represented as V1T2 = V2T1, V is the volume whereas T is the temperature.
Graham's Law states that the rate of effusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of the mass of its particles.
QUESTION: 150
Which force is required to maintain a body in Uniform circular Motion?
A. The Centripetal
B. The force of Gravitation
C. Muscular force
D. Force of Friction
Solution:
The Centripetal force is required to maintain a body in Uniform Circular Motion.
Centripetal Force acts when a body moves around the other body, the force that causes this acceleration and keeps the body moving
along a circular path is acting towards the centre
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Offer Ends in 35:03:26

Work done is zero for the following process

D. All of the above

so W = 0 for constant volume process.

For free expansion work done is zero. W = 0

In a reversible adiabatic process the ration is equal to:

Which of the following engine can be associated with heterogeneous combustion?

C. Both Spark ignition and Compression ignition

D. Neither Spark ignition nor Compression ignition

A. equal to its input temperature

B. less than its input temperature

Efficiency of a Reversible Heat Engine:

η = 1 when TL = 0 for any TH

All the temperature scale is taken in Kelvin.

A. constant volume and at constant pressure respectively

B. constant volume and at constant volume respectively

C. constant pressure and at constant volume respectively

D. constant pressure and at constant pressure respectively

Different processes of the Otto cycle are as follows:

Process 1-2: Isentropic compression

Process 2-3: Constant volume heat addition

Process 3-4: Isentropic expansion

Process 4-1: Constant volume heat rejection.

A. Difference of radii (r2 – r1)

B. Ratio of radii (r2/r1)

C. Product of radii (r2 × r1)

D. Sum of radii (r2 + r1)

Which of the following quantity is not a property of a system?

As W is positive to it is work output.

A. One adiabatic, two isobaric, and one constant volume

B. Two adiabatic and two isobaric

C. Two adiabatic, one isobaric, and one constant volume

D. One adiabatic, one isobaric, and two constant volume

Polytropic index n is given

Eb = Total emissive power of a black body

For a non-black surface having an emissivity ϵ, it follows that

Refrigeration is based on _________

A. First law of thermodynamics

B. Kelvin Planck’s statement of second law of thermodynamics

C. Clausius statement of second law of thermodynamics

D. Third law of thermodynamics

For Carnot cycle refrigeration:

A body subjected to coplanar non-concurrent forces will remain in a state of equilibrium if

D. All the above three

m1v1 + m2v2 = (m1 + m2) vf

Kinetic energy before collision:

Kinetic energy after collision:

Change in kinetic energy:

Loss of kinetic energy:

A. Both blocks will reach the ground at the same time

B. Block A reaches the ground earlier that block B

D. Block B reaches the ground with a higher speed than block A

Hence the acceleration of the block down the plane is

v2 – u2 = 2as

For the block which falls vertically downward of height, h:

So, speed of both the blocks will be same.

Moment of inertia of a disc about its diameter: