Courtesy:

Led by:
GNS 101 10T
STUDY SKILLS
1. To study means not to devote time to activities aimed at extracting information. True/False
2. Studying by nature is limited to being able to go through a printed text. True/False
3. Studying involves the seeking of irrelevant details from any form of learning materials.
True/False
4. The aspects of studying include all of the following except one ______ (a) Study conditions (b)
study purpose (c) study strategies (d) study purposes
5. Study conditions plays significant roles in determining the success or otherwise of study
activities. True/False
6. A group of ________ students is recommended per study group. (a) 4-5 (b) 5-6 (c) 4-6 (d) 3-6
7. People study for diverse reasons which include all of the following except ______ (a) Leisure (b)
Personal Development (c) Examination (d) all of the above
8. _________ is reading text quickly to get a general idea of meaning. (a) Skimming (b) skiming (c)
Scanning (d) scaning
9. ______ is reading a text quickly in order to find specific information. (a) Skimming (b) skiming
(c) Scanning (d) scaning
10. Find the WPM of a student who reads 800 words in 3 minutes, 20 seconds his/her WPM is ___
(a)240WPM (b) 250WPM (c) 260WPM (d) 270WPM
11. Find the WPM of a student who reads 700 words in 6 minutes, 57 seconds his/her WPM is___
(a) 100WPM (b) 120WPM (c) 110WPM (d) 130WPM
12. Find the WPM of a student who reads 859 words in 6 minutes, 57 seconds his/her WPM is___
(a)123WPM (b) 200WPM (c) 150WPM (d) 300WPM
13. A student reads 600 words in 4 minutes, 40 seconds. Calculate his/her WPM. (a) 47WPM (b)
52WPM (c) 25WPM (d) 67WPM
14. The SQ3R include all of the following except one ________ (a) Survey (b) Question (c) Read (d)
Revise (d) Recall
15. _____ is the reading proper (a) Review (b) Revise (c) Read (d) Survey
16. _____ is the habit of moving the head from one edge of the text to the other. (a) Pointing at words
(b) Eye movement (c) Head Movement (d) Note talking
17. _______ refers to the habit of reading out the words of a text. (a) Regression (b) Sub-vocalization
(c) Vocalization (d) Pointing at words
18. _______ is a situation where reading is accompanied with the movement of the lips without
articulating the words aloud. (a) Regression (b) Sub-vocalization (c) Vocalization (d) Pointing at
words
19. ________ is the habit of going back to words, phrases and clauses that have been covered. (a)
Regression (b) Sub-vocalization (c) Vocalization (d) Pointing at words
20. All of the following people anchored your GNS 10T tutorial except ________ (a) Alabi Opeyemi
(b) Collins (c) Regina (d) Ajayi Lawrence
 Paragraph Development
1. ________ is the physical mark of the beginning of a paragraph (a) Structure (b) Identation (c)
Indentation (d) block style
2. When a line free of writing is used to separate paragraphs, the method adopted is called ______
(a) breaking style (b) Free Style (c) Block Style (d) Standard Style
3. The length of a paragraph varies with individual ______ and _______ (a) style and indentation
(b) style and pattern (c) style and intention (d) style and block
4. Argumentative pieces tend to be longer than expository and descriptive ones because of need for
_________ (a) Argument (b) Persuasiveness (c) description (d) no answer is correct
5. The sentence, which carries the main idea of a paragraph is called the __________ (a) topic
sentence (b) key note (c) main topic (d) main note
6. All of the following are various strategies adopted in the formation and the development of a
paragraph except ________ (a)Rhetorical Question (b) Definition (c) Exemplification (d)
cohesion
7. A good writer should make his/her points explicit. True/False
8. ________ method of paragraph development is used when we try to examine the ways in which
ideas, persons, places, events are similar. (a) Repetition (b) Comparison (c) Contrast (d) Cohesion
9. A paragraph contains one or main idea. True/False
10. Cohesive ties are used for all of these except ________ (a) To compare ideas (b) Thematic
Organization (c) To contrast ideas (d) To show continuity
11. ________ refers to the systematic movement from the development of one idea to the
development of another in a paragraph or between paragraphs. (a) Coherence (b) Thematic
Organization (c) Logical organization (d) Conclusion
12. Steps important in writing or paragraph development include all of the following except. (a)
Exemplification (b) Rhetorical Questioning (c) Comparison (d) All answers are correct
13. ________ deals with ensuring that, in developing a set of ideas, one completes the development
of a set before moving on to the development on to the development of another. (a) Coherence (b)
Thematic Organization (c) Logical Organization (d) No answer
14. _____ concerns the development of ideas in an order which the nature of the subject matter
allows. (a) Coherence (b) Thematic Organization (c) Logical Organization (d) No answer
15. _________ occurs when a word or expression is omitted in a construction without loss of
meaning. (a) Ellipsis (b) Elipsis (c) Ellipssis (d) No answer

Study Skills
1. The act of a reader to be able to capture large chunks of ideas in concise and brief forms is
______________? a) Reading skills b) Summarization c) Study skills d) Note taking
2. _______________ are useful for writing essays, providing answers to examination questions,
participating in seminars or tutorials. a) Summary skill b) Good summary c) Bad summary d) Efficiency
3. How many types of summary do we have? ___________
4. All of these are a type of summary except _______________ a) Brainstorming b) Paragraph c) Topic
sentence d) Formation
5. All these are types of summary except _______________ a) Topic sentence b) Sentence c) Note
making d) Paragraph
6. Short summary can also be referred to as _______________ a) Note making b) Summarization c)
Sentence d) Summary
7. Summarizing ideas contained in a sentence is referred to as? a) Complex b) Summary c) Note making
d) Short summary 8. The first task in summarization is _________________ a) Sentence formation b)
Word formation c) Identifying the topic sentence d) Paragraph
9. There are _______________ strategies of summarization
10. All of these are strategies of summarization except _____________ a) Note making b) Discounting
unnecessary rhetorical questions c) Stating the main points in your own words d) Discounting
unnecessary repetitions
11. One of these are strategies of summarization. a) Topic sentence b) Discounting unnecessary
comparison c) Including exemplification d) Including repetition
12. All of these are the points you should take note when attempting summarization
except_______________ a) Paragraph development b) The main points in the sentence c) Points of
emphasis of the sentence d) The coverage of the sentence
13. “Olu is a boy, Olu loves football, Olu played football and Olu had injury”. What is the best way to
summarize this sentence. a) Olu is a boy, he loves football, Olu played football and had injury b) Olu is a
boy who loves football, he played football and had injury c) Olu had injury d) Olu is a boy playing
football and was injured
14. ______________ is allowed in summary writing a) Repetition b) Comparison c) Idioms d) Rhetorical
questions
15. “He walk lazily about the street all day with great pride”. Summarize this in one sentence a) He walks
around with pride b) He loafs about proudly c) He walk the street with pride d) He is proud
16. Another word for COMPARISON is ________________ a) Coherence b) Contract c) Contrast d)
Compare
17. A _____________ enables us to concentrate on essential information and to see an argument or a
process as a whole. a) Sumary b) Summary c) Sammary d) Simmary
18. To summarize a paragraph the reader needs to ___________ and ____________ a) Main point/ topic
sentence b) Read/ understand c) Short/ long d) Brainstorming/ note making
19. ______________ that are repetitive and do not make new points about the idea being dealt with
should be avoided. a) Summarization b) Summary writing c) Exemplification d) Note taking
20. These are types of summarization except a) Long summary b) Short summary c) Note making d)
Brain storming
 READING COMPREHENSION
1. Understanding the main points in the text of the information entails all except a) Getting the meaning
in a text b) Recognize the structural clause c) Identifying the strategies for developing the main idea.
2. Communication involves the transfer of information from a sender to a receiver and vice versa such
that the information is well understood. a) True b) False c) I don’t know
3. A topic sentence is that sentence which contains ........................ a) the subject, verb and object. b) the
main idea c) the supporting detail. d) the choice of words
4. A topic sentence of the message could be ...................... a) the beginning of a text. b) the end of the
text c) the middle of the text d) all of the above
5. When a topic sentence is presented at the last sentence of a paragraph, it is called .................... a) main
paragraph b) additional paragraph c) periodic paragraph d) none of the above
6. Any information aside the main idea is called .......................... a) supporting detail b) additional idea c)
additional information d) Supporting clause.
7. Getting the meaning in a text involves the following except; a) Recognize the structural clause b)
Identify the Denotations and Connotations of Expression. c) Identify the main idea d) Identify the
strategies to develop the main idea.
8. It is difficult to achieve very good success in life without going through fire. Fire here means
......................... a) hell b) hard times c) danger d) pains.
9. It rained cat and dog yesterday. What form of sentence is this? a) part of speech b) figure of speech c)
idiom d) adage
10. Main ideas are developed by the authors through different techniques except; a) Paragraph b)
Definition c) Repetition d) Example and Illustration.
11. Banjo & Bisong (1985) describe comprehension as ............................... a) the ability to penetrate what
is obvious in a text. b) the ability to express oneself grammatically in a text c) the ability to assume the
main idea in a text with ease. d) the ability to understand clearly what is being expressed in a text. 12. All
these are many attempts made by language and communication scholars to define reading except; a)
Bright Mcgragor (1970) b) Fries (1963) c) Abbot Osisanya (1980) d) Smith (1978)
13. These scholars agreed that there are two aspects or levels in describing reading. They are; a) Visual
and cognitive tasks b) Visual and Audio tasks c) Audio task and cognitive tasks d) Comprehensive and
cognitive tasks
14. Reading and Comprehension are the same skills that must be taught and learnt in tertiary institution
to facilitate easy flow of knowledge. a) True b) False c) Undecided
15. ___________ describes communication as involving the giving and receiving of understandable
information, such that the reader of a text is able to respond by appropriate action or inaction. a) Banjo &
Bisong (1985) b) Abbot & Wingard (1985) c) Smith (1978) d) Olasehinde (1997)
16. A technique which the author uses to clarify or reinforce an idea he is trying to convey is _________
(a) Example b) Repetition c) Illustration d) Definition.
 17. The technique which an author uses to clarify and expand his ideas is called __________ a) Example
and Illustration b) Definition c) Repetition d) Substitution
18. The technique which an author adopts to explain some terms he feels are difficult or unfamiliar is
mainly called________ a) Example b) Illustration c) Definition d) Repetition
19. The reader should first be able to extract the meaning of text he is reading. To achieve this Banjo &
Bisong (1985) gave _______ steps to follow. a) 3 b) 6 c) 5 d) 4
20. To comprehend a text therefore depends very much on _________ a) efficient reading. b) efficient
learning. c) efficient understanding. d) reading.

CONCEPT FORMATION
1. Irregularity is a word formed from ________ a) prefixation b) suffixation c) affixation d) coinage

2. __________is the process of adding morphemes to the beginning or end of a word in order to derive
a new meaning. a) Prefixation b) Affixation c) Suffixation d) Pre-Affixation.

3. The types of morphemes in English language are _____________ a) Free and bound b) Free, bound
and inflectional c) Free, bound and derivational d) Free and derivational

4. The structure type of sentence that contains one main clause and one or more subordinate clause is
called _________ a) Simple sentence b) Complex sentence c) Multiple sentence d) Compound sentence

5. The units of language when arranged in descending order is ______________ i. Morpheme ii. Clause
iii. Sentence iv. Phrase v. Word. a) i, ii, iii, iv & v b) i, v, iv, ii & iii c) iii, iv, ii, v & i d) iii, ii, iv, v & i.
6. __________ affixation is the type of affixation that does not normally result in change of word class. a)
Inflectional b) Derivational c) Derivative d) Inflective
7. A clause and a phrase are differentiated from each other with the presence or absence of ___________
a) verb b) transitive verb c) morphemes d) finite verb
8. A noun can reflect the following except __________ a) Gender b) Neuter c) Number d) Case
9. __________ is a word which modifies or limits a verb, adjective, adverb, preposition and conjunction.
a) Noun b) Interjection c) Adjective d) Adverb
10. A word formed from the combination of free morphemes is called _________ a) compound word b)
bound word c) complex word d) Affixation
11. Pronominal Adjectives include the following except ___________ a) Demonstrative b) Emphasizing
c) Relative d) Interrogative
12. Sentences may function in all but __________ a) exclamatory b) descriptive c) imperative d)
interrogative
13. With regards to sentence structure, which of these is not a kind of sentence construction? a) Simple-
compound. b) Compound c) Simple d) Complex
14. Which among these is not a form of verb? a) transitive & intransitive b) lexical & auxiliary c)
principal & transitional d) finite & non-finite
15. What is the grammatical function of the italicized words. Victor, the health prefect, treated the
wounded students. a) Noun phrase b) In opposition to the Noun Victor c) Subject of the verb treated d) It
qualifies the verb treated
16. To err is human. To forgive divine. These are what type of verb? a) non-finite verb b) transitive verb
c) finite verb d) intransitive verb
17. Which of these sentences issues a command or express an entreaty? a) Exclamatory sentence b)
Interrogative sentence c) Commanding or entreating sentence d) Imperative sentence
18. What unit of language does the italicized words express? It is about to rain though the day is still very
young. a) Sentence b) Clause c) Phrase d) Word
19. Which is not a basic type of conjunction? a) Co-ordinating b) Demonstrating c) Subordinating d)
Correlating
20. Which is not a gender classification of noun? a) Common b) Feminine c) Masculine d) Neutral

Essay Writing
1. A piece of continuous prose on a given topic is _____________? a) Letter writing b) Formal letter c)
Introduction d) Essay writing
2. Brainstorming is the ____________ in the process of essay writing? a) Main point b) Topic sentence c)
First step d) Alternative
3. In the process of pre-writing stage, one may introduce__________ and shed some old ones. a) New
ideas b) New topics c) Arranged points d) Topic sentence
4. Brainstorming, pre-writing and ___________ are the process in essay writing? a) Point writing b)
Mam essay c) Post writing d) Essay writing
5. ___________ is an essential part of a good essay? a) Coherence b) Brainstorming c) Note taking d)
Conclusion
6. A beginning, a middle and an end was proved by what theory? a) George’s mendes b) Aristole’s theory
c) Lenz’ theory d) Ologunde’s theory
7. Essay writing is in three-tier division namely a) Introduction, End and conclusion b) Conclusion,
beginning and end c) Beginning, middle and body d) Introduction, body and conclusion
8. The most important part of essay writing is the ____________ a) End b) Introduction c) Conclusion d)
Ending
9. In ___________ the main idea is developed into a number of paragraphs a) End b) Body c) Conclusion
d) Beginning
10. The __________ brings the essay to an End? a) Introduction b) Body c) Beginning d) Conclusion
11. We have ___________ function is essay writing a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 3
12. All these are functions of essay writing except? a) Narrative b) Philosophical c) Formal d) Descriptive
13. Which of the functions provides guides, guidelines, directive etc.? a) Instructional b) Formal c)
Informal d) Argumentative
14. The story of a person told by someone else is an ___________ essay? a) Narrative b) Descriptive c)
Biographical d) Informal
15. “Education is not important in Nigeria so far there is no job opportunity” What type of function of
essay writing is this? a) Narrative b) Explanatory c) Descriptive d) Philosophical
16. A type of story that is imaginative or realistic is classified under__________ a) Narrative b)
Descriptive c) Argumentative d) Demonstrative

GNS 101 ANSWERS

STUDY SKILLS PARAGRAPH STUDY READING CONCEPT ESSAY

DEVELOPMENT SKILLS COMPREHENSION FORMATION WRITING
1) False 1) C 1. B 1. C 1. C 1) D
2) False 2) C 2. A 2. True 2. B 2) C
3) False 3) C 3. 3 3. B 3. A 3) A
4. B 4. D 4. B
4) B 4) B 4) C
5. A 5. C 5. D
5) False 5) A 6. C 6. A 6. A 5) A
6) B 6) D 7. D 7. D 7. D 6) B
7) D 7) TRUE 8. C 8. B 8. B 7) D
8) A 8) B 9. 5 9. C 9. D 8) B
9) C 9) FALSE 10. A 10. A 10. A 9) B
10) A 10) B 11. B 11. D 11. C 10) D
12. A 12. C 12. B
11) A 11) A 11) A
13. B 13. A 13. A
12) A 12) D 14. C 14. B 14. C 12) C
13) A 13) B 15. B 15. D 15. B 13) A
14) D 14) C 16. C 16. B 16. A 14) C
15) C 15) A 17. B 17. A 17. D 15) D
16) C 18. B 18. C 18. B 16) A
17) C 19. C 19. D 19. B
20. D 20. A 20. D
18) B
19) A
20) D
1. The name of the structure that houses the chlorophyll is? a. cloroplast b. chloroplast c. chromomere
d. chromomere
2. Osmosis occurs through a semi-____________ membrane. a. permeable b. permeable c. pemeable d.
permerble
3. __________ is the movement of specific molecules down a concentration gradient, passing through
the membrane via a specific carrier protein. a. diffusion b. facilitate diffusion c. facilitated movement d.
facilitated diffusion
4. One of the following does not affect rate of transpiration. a. heat b. humidity c. soil water
5. Examples of osmosis in plants and animals includes these except:?
a. The opening and closing movements of stomata b. Entry of water from the soil solution into root
hairs c. control of water content of the body fluids of vertebrates by the kidney d. inhilation of air
through the alveoli
6. Types of white blood cells includes the following except: a. monocyte b. neutrouphil c. lymphocyte
d. neutrophil
7. Minute fragments budded off from certain large cells found in the bone marrow, concerned with blood
clotting process are: a. platelets b. lymphocytes c. plasma d. polymorphs
8. The following is an example of double membraned organelle ? a. ribosome b. Centrosome c. nucleolus
d. lysosome
9. Osmosis is not a special case of diffusion? a. True b. False c. None of the above
10. As plant cells take up water by osmosis, the protoplast puts pressure on the cellulose wall and an
external pressure develops? a. True b. False c. None of the above.
11. The shrinking of the protoplasm of cells; either plants or animals, when immersed in a hypertonic
solution is called:? a. Turgidity b. plasmolysis c. Flacid osmosis d. sustainability
12. The phenomenon of soaking up water by certain materials particularly in dry or semi-dry conditions is
referred to as :? a. tropic osmosis b. imbibition c. phagocytosis d. facilitated diffusion
13. The tendency of a solution to gain water when it is seperated from pure water by a selectively
permeable membrane is referred to as :? a. osmotic potential b. osmotic balance c. Inhibitor potential d.
diffusion.
14.The cell theory was proposed by? a. Robert hook 1665 b. Pasteur 1665 c. schleiden and Schwann 1839
d. Robert brown 1831

15. Which of this is not part of the cell theory? a. all living bodies are composed of cell b. all cell comes
from pre_existing cell c. the cell is the unit structure of all living things d. dead cell are replaced by new
ones
16. Another name of cell membrane is _________? a. plasmalema b. cell wall c. epidermis d. outer layer
17. Cytoplasm is ______ a. protoplasm of cell minus the nucleus b. solid portion of the cell c. protoplasm
of the cell plus the nucleus d. the power house of the cell

18. Which of these is not an example of diffusion? a. loss of water vapor from the leaf to the air b.
exchange of dissolved gases in respiratory organism c. entry of water from the soil to root hair d. all of the
above

19. When is a cell said to be isotonic? a. when the external solution has a higher osmotic pressure than the
inner b. if the exterior solution is less concentrated than the interior solution c. if the extracellular and
intracellular solution has the same osmotic pressure d. none of the above

20. Plant cell placed in hypertonic solution will undergo a. plasmolysis b. turgidity c. rupture d.
metabolism
21. Transport of food material in plant is called_________ a. Transportation b. Translocation c.
Transpiration d. Transformation

22. Water enter plant by osmosis through a. root hair b. tap root c. stem d. branches
23. _______is the medium of transportation in animal a. vacuole b. blood c. latex d. vessel

24. cell is larger than atom a.True b.False c. Cannot Say d. I don’t know

25. Each human organism is made up of about a. 10^16 cells b. 10^14 cells c. 10^15 cells d. 10^19 cells

26. Nuclear membrane reappeared at ______stage of mitosis a. prophase b. metaphase c. anaphase d.

telophase

27. At what stage of mitosis does chromosome arrange itself on the equator of spindle a. anaphase b.
telophase c. metaphase d. prophase

28. The smallest cell are a group of bacteria called___________ a. Microplasma b. Mycoplasma c. E.
Coli.
Plasmalema

29. “Omni cellula e cellula” was stated by ______ a. Carl Radolf b. Radolf Virchow c. Pasteur d.
Friedrich Wohler

30. “Omne vivum e vive” means what? a. All living things come from living material b. Every cell is
derived from pre-existing cell c. Cell is the smallest functional unit of life d. Cell is made up of material

31. 80-90% of transpiration process is through ___________ a. Stomata b. Cuticle c. Stem d. Cortex

32. A cell that differentiate into all cell type is called ___________ a. Totipotent b. Pluripotent c. Stem
cell d. Oligopotent

33. Which of this is an organ a. Guard cells b. Liver c. Xylem bundle d. Blood

34. Which of these is not a step involved in glycolysis? a. Deamination b. Splitting of phosphorylated c.
Energy yield phase through dehydrogenation d. Phosphorylation of sugar

35. Kreb’s cycle and glycolysis occur in the _______ and _______ respectively a. cell membrane and
cytoplasm b. Mitochondrion and cell membrane c. cytoplasm and Mitochondrion d. Nucleus and
Mitochondrion

36. White blood cells is mainly responsible for? a. Combating infection and diseases b. Production of
hormones c. Formation of clot d. All of the above

37. The protein that is present in the plasma is known as a. Fibrin b. Thrombin c. Fibrinogen d.
Plasmogen

38. The main function of blood in mammals is to transport a. Excretory materials from tissues b.CO2
from lungs to tissue c. Digested food from body tissues d. Oxygen from the lungs

39. Which of this fluid-like? a. Platelets b. Plasma c. Red blood cells d. Leucoceptes
40. Which of these is concerned with the clotting of blood? a. Plasma b. Platelets c. Cytoplasm d.
Polymorph

41.Dna replication occur in? a. S phase b. G1 phase c. G2 phase d. M phase

42. The term cell was coined by a. Robert hooke b. Schwann c. Nagelli d. Purkinje

43. The region where exchange of genetic material occur in the chromosome is a. X region b. chiasmata c.
Diakinesis d. Chromomere

44. The father of microbiology is a. Anton van Leuwenhoek b. Anton van Leeuwenhook c. Anton von
Leuwenhook d. Anton van Leeuwenhoek

45. The type of cell division that enhances growth and development is a. Meiosis b. Mitosis c.
Cytoplasmic cell division d. Nuclear division

46. Which phase is microtubule and protein formed a. G1 and G2 b. G2 and S c. S and G1 d. G2 and G1

47. Hereditary material are carried on a. Cytoplasm b. nucleus c. Chromosome d. Mitochondrion

48. The vascular tissue which function for the conduction of water and mineral salt upward from root to
leaves of plant is? a. Xylem b. Sclereids c. Phloem d. Companion cell

49. Parenchymatous tissue embedded with chloroplast is called a.Sclerenchyma b. Chlorenchyma c.

Xylem d. Collenchyma

50. The thickening in collenchyma is due to _______ a. Chlorophyll present b. Elongated cell c. Deposit
of cellulose impregnated cell d. Pectin impregnated with cellulose

ANSWERS
1. B 2. B 3.d 4 5d 6b 7a 8 9b 10a 11b 12b 13a 14 c 15d 16a 17a 18c 19c 20a 21b 22a 23a 24a 25

26d 27c 28b 29b 30b 31a 32b 33b 34a 35c 36a 37c 38d 39 b 40b 41a 42a 43b 44a 45b 46a 47c 48b

49b 50b
PHY 101

HEAT AND THERMODYNAMICS

1. COVID-19 is real, and we have all been enjoined to stay safe and wear a mask. What is the
name of the thermometer being used in checking human temperature during this period of
pandemic. (A) Clinical thermometer (B) Microwave thermometer (C) Infrared thermometer (D)
All of the above (E) None of the above
2. How long will it take to heat 3kg of water from 28 degrees Celsius to 88 degrees Celsius in an
electric kettle taking 6A from a 220V supply? (Specific heat capacity of water is 4180J/kgK)
(A) 2 mins (B) 9.5 mins (C) 10 mins (D) 20 mins (E) 4620 mins
3. A thermometer with an arbitrary scale, S, of equal division registers -40 degrees X at the ice
point and 80 degrees X at the steam. What is the equivalent value?
(A) 50 degrees Celsius (B) 75 degrees Celsius (C) 40 degrees Celsius (D) 70 degrees Celsius (E)
30 degrees Celsius
4. The linear expansivity of brass is 2 x 10^-5degrees Celsius^-1. If the volume of a piece of brass
is 15cm^3 at 0 degree Celsius, what is the volume at 100 degrees Celsius?
(A) 2.51 x 10^-5 m^3 (B) 1.51 x 10^-5 m^3 (C) 3 x 10^-5 m^3 (D) 1.51 x 10^5 m^3 (E) 2.51 x
10^5 m^3
5. A substance of mass 32kg fell from a height of 46m to the ground level. Calculate the rise in
temperature of the substance. (Specific heat capacity of substance= 4.1 x 10^3 J/Kg/K).
(A) 109.95 degrees Celsius (B) 0.011 degrees Celsius (C) 0.11 Kelvin (D) 273.11 Kelvin (E)
0.121 degrees Celsius
6. How much of ice at 0 degrees Celsius should be added to 100g of water at 20 degrees Celsius
so that its final temperature will be 5 degrees Celsius? Take s.h.c of water as 4.186J/g/degrees
Celsius, Lf= 334.9J/g. (A) 6279g (B) 502350g (C) 17.6g (D) 502.3g (E) 176g
7. A copper rod is 3m long at a certain temperature. Calculate its length for a temperature rise of
100K if the expansivity of copper is 17 x 10^-6/K? (A) 3.0051 (B) 3.0017 (C) 3.5100 (D) 3.0510
(E) 3.0170
8. Which of the following liquids is the most viscous?
(A) Dry gin (B) Distilled water (C) Engine oil (D) Kerosene (E) Petrol
9. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of a body by one degree Celsius is defined
as its: (A) Calorific value (B) Water equivalent (C) Specific heat capacity (D) Thermal capacity
(E) Latent heat
10. Which of the following does not need a medium for heat transfer?
(A) Conduction (B) Radiation (C) Convection (D) All of the above (E) None of the above
11. If mass-energy equivalence is taken into account, when water is cooled to form ice, the mass
of water should?
(A) increase (B) remain unchanged (C) decrease (D) first decrease then increase (E) first increase
then decrease
12. Which of the following laws is applicable for the behavior of perfect gas?
(A) Charle’s law (B) Boyle’s law (C) Gay-Lussac law (D) All of the above (E) None of the above
13. The unit of temperature in S.I. units is? (A) Celsius (B) Centigrade (C) Fahrenheit (D) Kelvin
(E) Hot
 14. Which is more dense? (A) Hot liquid (B) Cold liquid
15. If you place a cold cup of water in the direct sunlight on a hot day, what change will take place
in the thermal energy of the particles that make up the water? (A) The particles will remain the
same (B) The solar energy will cause the particles to slow down because the sun will make the
water warmer. (C) The particles will become smaller when the sun’s energy heats the water up
(D) The solar energy will cause the water to warm up. This will cause the particles of water to
change from moving very slowly-less thermal energy (when cold) to moving quickly as they gain
thermal energy (warm up) (E) None of the above
16. 1 cal. =? (A) 1.2 J (B) 3.2 J (C) 4.2 J (D) 5.2 J (E) 6.2J
17. At night, a current of air blows from the colder land to the warmer sea and is called?
(A) Air breeze (B) Sea breeze (C) Land breeze (D) LAUTECH breeze (E) Ocean breeze
18. An Iron ball at 40 degrees Celsius is dropped in a mug containing water at 40 degrees Celsius.
The heat will? (A) not flow from iron ball to water or from water to iron ball. (B) flow from iron
ball to water (C) flow from water to iron ball (D) flow from mug to water (E) flow from mug to
iron ball
19. Calculate the specific heat of glass from the following. The temperature of a piece of glass
with a mass of 65g increases by 26 degrees Celsius when it absorbs 840J of heat.
(A) 0.5 J/gC (B) 1569045 J/gC (C) 1419600 J/gC (D) 2.01 J/gC (E) 15.67 J/gC
20. The present LAUTECH Student Union leader has his name to be?
(A) Olabiyi Olamide Anthony (B) Anthony Olamide Olabiyi (C) Olamide Anthony Olabiyi
(D) Olabiyi Anthony Olamide (E) Olamide Olabiyi Anthony

OPTICS AND LIGHT

1. When light passes through a triangular glass prism, there is dispersion because of ?
a. Diffraction of light b. Polarization of light c. The difference in the speed of the components of
light d. The interference of light waves in a glass
2. Which of the following is not a part of electromagnetic wave ?
a. X – ray b. Microwaves c. Violet ray d. Infrared radiation
3. The equation of a wave is given as Y= Asin(20t+5x). if all parameters are intheir S.I unit, what is
the period of the wave? a. 3.18s b. 10s c. 0.314s d. 0.1s
4. A periodic pulse travels a distance of 20.0m in 2s. if the frequency is 2.0 x103 Hz, Calculate the
wave length ? a. 5.0 x 10-3m b. 2.0 x 10-3m c. 5.0 x 10-4m d. 2.0 x 10-4m
5. Which of the following is NOT a characteristics of image formed by a plane mirror
a. The speed of the image and the object is the same b. It is laterally inverted
c. It is real d. It has a unit magnification
6. All of the following are characteristic of image formed by a convex mirror except?
a. It is virtual b. It is erect c. It is diminished d. It is real
7. Convex mirrors are preferred to plane mirrors as driving mirrors because?
a. The image produced is upright and clearly visible b. The image produced is erect and diminished
c. The image is laterally inverted d. It provides a wider field of view
8. An object is placed 30cm from a lens. If an image is formed on a screen 3.3m away from the lens,
calculate the magnification of the image? a. 0.11 b. 9.09 c. 0.09 d. 11
9. The phenomenon whereby a wave bends round an aperture as it passes through it is called____?
a. Refraction b. Reflection c. Interference d. Diffraction
10. When the direction of vibration of the particles of a medium is perpendicular to the direction of
travel of a wave, the wave transmitted is known as
a. Sound wave b. Mechanical wave c. Longitudinal wave d. Transverse wave
11. A man of mass 10kg is in a lift moving vertically upwards with a speed of 2ms -1, find the tension
in the cord of the lift
a. 120N b. 80N c. 20N d. 200N
12. Which of the following is used to control the amount of light entering the eye
a. Iris b. Cornea c. Pupil d. Ciliary muscle
13. All of the following are consequences of rectilinear propagation of light EXCEPT
a. Formation of mirage b. Formation of shadows c. Formation of annular eclipse d. Formation of
solar eclipse
14. Which of the following is not self- luminous
a. The Moon b. The sun c. Lighted candle d. Incandescent electric bulb
15. A radio wave has a wavelength of 150m. If the velocity of radio waves in free space is 3 x 108ms-
1
, calculate the frequency of the radio wave.
a. 2.0 x 106 Hz b. 4.5 x 1010Hz c. 5.0 x 109 Hz d. 4.5 x 106 Hz
16. The refractive index of a medium is 1.0, calculate the critical angle for the medium
a. 450 b. 900 c. 600 d. 300
17. The major difference between a transverse wave and a longitudinal wave is?
a. Diffraction b. Polarization c. Reflection d. Refraction
18. When two waves are superimposed and the resulting wave has an increase in amplitude, it is
called_______ a. Destructive interference b. Constructive interference c. Reinforced interference
d. Minimized interference
19. An object is placed in front of two plane mirrors inclined at angle 300 to each other. Determine
the number of images formed a. 12 b. 11 c. 10 d. 9
20. Which of the following is not a primary colour a. Red b. White c. Green d. Blue

mechanics 1
1. An insect is displaced on a straight line, joining the base and apex of two vertical pole of 5m height
and 6m apart. Calculate the angle above the horizontal.
(a) 47.30 (b) 39.80 (c) 33.70 (d) 30.120

2. If a player runs from his own goal post to another team goal post and then back to his own goal
post, what is the displacement of the player?
(a) 430m (b) 1000m (c) 0m (d) 100m
3. If a box at x = 5cm moves to x = 20cm and then back to the box 5cm. Find the distance covered
by the box and also the displacement respectively.
(a) 30cm, 20m (b) 30m, 0m (c) 0.3m, 0m (d) 40cm, 20m
4. A free fall motion is the motion that occur under the influence of
(a) speed (b) velocity (c) gravity (d) acceleration
5. The path following by a projectile is
(a) exponential (b) quadratic (c) linear (d) parabola
6. The slope of a distance-time graph gives
(a) velocity (b) acceleration (c) displacement (d) nil
7. Limiting value of the average acceleration when change in time tends to zero is called
(a) instantaneous velocity (b) acceleration (c) velocity (d) instantaneous acceleration
8. The time of flight for an object is 20sec and its horizontal range is 400m. What is the horizontal
component of the velocity?
(a) 5ms-1 (b) 10ms (c) 15ms-1 (d) 20ms-1
9. If an object covers equal distance in equal time interval, the object is said to have
(a) constant velocity (b) constant acceleration (c) constant deceleration (d) constant speed
10. Calculate the displacement that will be needed to get the ball into the hole on the first stroke if a
golfer takes three strokes to get this ball into the hole once he is on the green. Given that the first
stroke displaces the ball 6m north, the second stroke 3m southeast and the third stroke 2m
southwest.
a. N 16.1 E
b. 16.1 E of S
c. N 30 E
d. S 30 E
11. A boat is heading due north as it crosses a wide river with a velocity of 10km/h relative to the
water. The river has a uniform velocity of 5km/h due east. Determine the velocity of the boat with
respect to an observer on the riverbank.
a. 11.2m/s
b. 6.5m/s
c. 4.10m/s
d. 3.1m/s
12. A cyclist travelling southeast along a road at 15km/h feels a wind blowing from the southwest at
25km/hr. To a stationary observer, what are the speed and direction of the wind?
a. 20.67km/hr
b. 29.15km/hr
c. 29.76m/s
d. 60m/s
13. A boat can be rowed at 8km/h in still water. how much time is required to row 1.5km downstream
in a river moving 3km/h relative to the shore?
a. 0.12hr
b. 120s
c. 12hr
d. 1.2s
14. A jet cruising at a speed of 1000km/hr ejects hot air in the opposite direction. If the speed of the
hot air with respect to jet is 800km/hr, then find its speed with respect to the ground.
a. 500m/s
b. 200m/s
c. 200km/hr
d. 500km/hr
15. To a person moving eastwards with a velocity of 4.8km/h, rain appears to fall vertically downwards
with a speed of 6.4km/h. find the actual speed of the train.
a. 8m/s
b. 12m/s
c. 62m/s
d. 54m/s
16. A remote-controlled model airplane is flying due east in still air. The airplane travels with a speed
of 22.6m/s relative to the air. A wind suddenly begins to blow from north towards the south with
a speed of 8.7m/s. find the velocity of the airplane as seen by the controller who is standing on the
ground
a. 24.216
b. 24.216m/s
c. 34
d. 34m/sc
17. An object starts from rest with a constant acceleration of 8.00m/s2 along a straight line. Find the
speed at the end of 5s
a. 50m/s
b. 40m/s
c. 30m/s
d. 10cm/s
18. A stone is thrown straight upward with a velocity 20m/s. it is caught on its way down to a point
5m above where it was thrown. How fast was it going when it was caught?
a. 17m/s
b. 30m/s
c. 71m/s
d. 15cm/s
19. A baseball is thrown straight upwards on the moon with an initial speed of 35m/s. compute the
maximum height reached by the ball.
a. 38km
b. 0.38km
c. 83km
d. 8.3m
20. If you throw a stone, it will go farthest at an angle of?
a. 30 degree
b. 45 degree
c. 90 degree
d. 180 degree
 MECHANICS III
1. Which of the following types of elastic modulli is perculia to fluids (a) young modulus (b) bulk
modulus (c) shear modulus (d) Fluid modulus.
2. Which of the following is true about Hooke’s law (a) force is proportional to displacement (b)
extension decreases with increase in force (c) mass is proportional to force (d) force increases with
extension .
3. ________ crystal has an atom arranged at 8 corners of the cube (a) face- centered cubic (b) body
centered cubic (c) simple cubic (d) eight corners cubic.
4. Perpendicular force per unit volume is given as (a) volume (b) pressure (c) weight (d) density
5. What is used to measure atmospheric pressure (a) manometer (b) barometer (c) anemometer (d)
sphygmomanometer
6. Which of the following explain why some substances are heavy while some are light (a) difference
in mass (b) difference in volume (c) difference in density (d) air resistance
7. The ability of an object to float when it is placed in a fluid is called (a) density (b) buoyant force
(c) viscous force (d) floating force
8. Determine the upthrust on the iron cube of volume 400cm3 if its totally immersed in water of
density 1g/cm3 (a) 3.2N (b) 2.3N (c) 4N (d) 4.4N
9. Which of the following is not a phenomena of surface tension (a) it makes the liquid surface
behave like a stretched elastic membrane/skin (b) it is due to cohesive intermolecular forces of
attraction between the molecules of a liquid (c) insect running on water surface (d) occurs in solids
10. A steel wire 10m long and with a cross-sectional area of 0.01cm2 is hung from support on a mass
of 5kg is hung from its end. Calculate the new length of the wire. Young Modulus of steel is
210GPa (a) 2.38mm (b) 10.0238cm (c) 10.0024mm (d) 7.62mm
11. Calculate he energy stored in a string of length 20cm which extends to 24cm when it supports a
weight 50N (a) 2.5J (b)2J (c) 1J (d) 10J
12. A fractional change in the volume of oil is 1% when a pressure of 2 × 107 N/m2 is applied. Calculate
the bulk modulus (a) 2 × 109 N/m2 (b) 2 × 10-9 N/m2 (c) 0.5 × 109 N/m2 (d) 0.5 × 10-9 N/m2
13. A fractional change in the volume of oil is 1% when a pressure of 2 × 107 N/m2 is applied. Calculate
the compressibility factor (a) 2 × 109 N/m2 (b) 2 × 10-9 N/m2 (c) 0.5 × 109 N/m2 (d) 0.5 × 10-9 N/m2
14. A vertical steel beam in a building supports a load of 60,000N. If the length of the beam is 4m and
its cross-sectional area is 0.008m2. find the distance is it compressed along the length.[Young
Modulus of steel = 2 × 1011 Pa] (a)0.00015 (b)0.00015 (c)0.015 (d)0.15
15. A glass fiber of diameter 12µm is found to break under a load of 12g. determine the breaking stress
of the fiber (a) 1.04 × 109 N/m2 (b) 10.445 × 1012 N/m-2 (c) 36 × 109 N/m12 (d) 1.04 × 109 N/m-2
16. Determine the upthrust on the iron cube of volume 400cm3 if its totally immersed in oil of density
0.8g/cm3 (a) 3.2N (b) 2.3N (c) 4N (d) 4.4N
17. The difference between the weight in air and the weight when it is totally immersed in the water
is given by (a) Archimedes’ principle (b) floatation principle (c)weight principle (d) density
principle
18. The tendency of water to rise or fall in a capillary tube is _______ (a) angle of contact (b) surface
tension (c) capillarity (d) viscosity
19. The angle of contact of liquids that wet solid surface is ________(a) <90 (b) >90 (c)180 (d) equal
to 90
20. Which of the following does not have a high viscosity (a) glycerin (b) urine (c)engine oil (d) palm
oil
 DYNAMICS
1. Which is wrong in the following statement about Newton’s first law of motion.
a.) It implies the idea of Inertia
b.) A body will continually be at a state of rest or uniform motion in a straight line unless an external
force is acted on the body.
c.) A body will be on a straight line motion or wobbling movement neglecting external forces.
d.) A body at rest has zero velocity.
2. Newton’s second law is applicable to the following except?
a.) Linear motion
b.) Circular motion
c.) Horizontal circle
d.) A pipe at rest on a smooth plane
3. Frictional force between two surfaces obey the following except?
a.) Depends on the nature of the surface
b.) Opposes motion between the surfaces.
c.) It is dependent of the area of the surface in contact
d.) It is independent of relative velocity between the surfaces
4. A force of 30N gives a mass M1 and acceleration of 10ms-2 and a mass M2 and acceleration of 5ms-
2
. Calculate M1 and M2
a.) 6kg and 4kg respectively
b.) 4kg and 2kg respectively
c.) 3kg and 6kg respectively
d.) None of the above.
5. For every action there must be an equal and opposite reaction, this is what law?
a.) Newton’s third law
b.) Newton’s second law
c.) Eddy law
d.) Law of gravity
6. The force required to keep an object of mass M moving in a circular path is known as?
a.) Circular force
b.) Centrifugal force
c.) Centripetal force
d.) Circular or centrifugal force
7. A body of mass 20kg moves round a circle of radius 5m with a constant speed of 10ms-1. Calculate
the force towards the center.
a.) 40.2N
b.) 40N
c.) 399N
d.) 15N
8. Calculate the force between the sun and Jupiter. Assume that the mass of sun equals 2x1030kg, the
mass of Jupiter equals 1.89x1027kg, radius of Jupiter orbit equals 7.33x1011m
a.) 4x1024N
b.) 4.22x1023N
c.) 5.0x1010N
d.) None of the above
9. What type of force occurs when bodies are about to move over each other?
a.) Static force
b.) Limiting frictional force
c.) All of the above
d.) A or B
10. When is work said to be done?
a.) When a force moves its point of application through a distance.
b.) When force acts on a body at rest
c.) When a body moves in a circular motion
d.) All of the above
11. What is the unit of moment?
a.) Nm-1
b.) Nm
c.) Nm2
d.) Nm-2
12. Examples of couple include the following except?
a.) Forces in the hand of a body turning a tap.
b.) Water inside a jar.
c.) The forces experienced by two sides of suspended rectangular coil carrying a current in a magnetic
field.
d.) Forces in the driver’s hand applied to a steering wheel.
13. What is the unit for impulse?
a.) Ns
b.) Ns-1
c.) Ns2
d.) Ns-2
14. When a body collide and both momentum and kinetic energy is conserved, such collision is known
as?
a.) Perfectly elastic collision
b.) Inelastic collision
c.) Perfectly inelastic collision
d.) Elastic collision
15. A 5kg mass moving in the (+) x direction at 40ms-1 collides head on with another body of 2kg
mass moving at 50ms-1 in the (-)x direction. If the bodies stick together after collision, find their
velocity after collision.
a.) 7.14ms-1
b.) 33.33ms-1
c.) 16.66ms-1
d.) 4ms-1
16. A proton travelling at 107ms-1 collides with a stationary particle and bounces back at 2 x 106ms-1.
If the particle moves forward at 3 x 106ms-1, find its mass [ Mp = 1.67 x 10-27kg]
a.) 6.62 x 10-27kg
b.) 6.68 x 10-27kg
c.) 5.14 x 10-24kg
d.) 3.34 x 10-9kg
17. A bullet of 10g is fired into and gets embedded in a stationary block of wood of mass 10kg. if the
bullet and wood move freely with a velocity of 100ms-1, determine the initial velocity of the bullet.
a.) 101100ms-1
b.) 100100ms-1
c.) 100000ms-1
d.) None of the above
18. A collision whereby the body sticks together after the collision is known as
a.) Inelastic collision
b.) Elastic collision
c.) Perfectly elastic collision
d.) Perfectly inelastic collision
19. Calculate the gravitational attraction of two bodies apart by 5m, if the mass of the bodies are
1000kg and 1200kg.
a.) 3.2 x 10-6N
b.) 2.4 x 10-7N
c.) None of the above
d.) 20N
20. The phenomena whereby any particle escape from the atmosphere of the earth is known as?
a.) Gravitational potential
b.) Escape velocity
c.) Force of escalation
d.) Escape force

PHY 101 ANSWERS

HEAT AND WAVES, MECHANICS I MECHANICS III DYNAMICS
THERMODYNAMICS OPTICS &
LIGHT
1. C 2. B 3. B 4. B 1. CCCCC 1. CCCC 1. B D C B 1. CDCC
5. D 6. C 7. A 8. C 2. DDDDD 2. DADD BCBC 2. ACAB
9. D 10. B 11. C 12. D3. AAAAA 3. DAAB 2. D C C A 3. DABB
13. D 14. B 15. D 3. D A D A 4. ADBB
4. BBBBB 4. ACAB
16. C 17. D 18. A 4. A C A B 5. BBAB
19. A 20. C 5. BABB
CHM 101

1. The deviation of a Value from True or actual value is ________ (A) Error (B) Absolute (C) Relative
Error (d) mean Error. Answer. A

2. Errors are classified into ______ and ____ (A) determinate and Undeterminate error (B) determinate
and Indeterminate Error (C) methodical and Operative error (D) Reagent and radium error. Answer B
3. Determinate error is divided into________ (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5. Answer. A
4. Error that originates from chemical or physiochemical properties of the Analytical system is _____ (A)
Operative error (B) Methodical (C) reagent error (D) personal error. Answer B.
5. The inability of the analyst to determine the color change during titration is______ (A) Operative error
(B) Methodical error (C) reagent or apparatus error (D) Personal error. Answer D.
6. The variability inherent in the process of making measurement is……… (A) random error (B)
indeterminate error (C) A&B (D) determinate error. Answer. C
7. The degree of agreement between replicate measurement or analyses or degree of closeness of the set
of values obtained from identical measurement of a quantity pf same instrument is ………….. Answer.
Precision. anything outside this is wrong.
8. The following result were gotten from the laboratory for the determination of cyanide level in cassava.
10.1, 10.2, 9.3, 10.4, 10.5, 10.2, and 10.1, should the suspected value be rejected A. Yes b. NO. answer.
Yes
9. If the standard deviation in the determination of the oxygen in the Air is 0.200 then the probable error
is _______ (A) 0.125 (B) 0.123 (C) 0.135 (D) 0. 153 answer. C
10. If the standard deviation in the determination of the oxygen in the Air is 0.200 then the variance is
_______ (A) 0.125 (B) 0.123 (C) 0.004(D) 0.040. answer. D
11. The Tip of the pipette used during titration in the lab is broken will cause what type of error? (A)
personal error (B) operative error (C) Reagent error (D) methodical error. Answer. C
12. Carelessness of the analyst during Laboratory operation is called _____ error (A) methodical error (B)
operative error (C) Reagent error (D) determinate error. answer. B
13. The branch of chemistry that deals with weight relation between elements and compound In chemical
reactions is …. (A) thermochemistry (B) Electrochemistry (C) stoichiometry (D) none of the above.
Answer C.
14. Precise quantitative statement used to summarize a chemical reaction is ……….. Answer. Chemical
equation. Any ANSWER outside this is wrong. 14. 2H2 + O2 -------- 2H2O the mole ratio for this
reaction is (A) 2:1:0 (B) 2:1:2 (C) 2:1:1 (D) none of the above. Answer. B
15. H2S + SO2 -------- H2O + S after balancing thus, the mole ratio for the balanced equation is ______
(A) 2:1:2:2 (B) 2:2:2:2 (C)2:1:2:3 (D) 1:2:2:3 Answer. C
16. Benzene( C6H6) has an empirical Formulae of (A) CH (B) CH2 (C) C2H (d) none of the above.
answer. A
17. In a laboratory , a gaseous compound of carbon and Hydrogen contain 80% carbon by mass. The
Molar mass of the Hydrocarbon Is 30.2g. Calculate the Empirical formula of the compound (A) CH2 (B)
CH3 (C) C2H2 (D) none Of the above. Answer. B
18. In a laboratory , a gaseous compound of carbon and Hydrogen contain 80% carbon by mass. The
Molar mass of the Hydrocarbon Is 30.2g. Calculate the molecular formula of the compound (A) CH2 (B)
CH3 (C) C2H6 (D) none Of the above.C2H6 answer. C
19. What is the number of Copper atoms in one naira coin which weigh 7.39g? Assume the material from
which the coin is made contain 86% copper. [Cu= 63.5 gmol-1 ] (A) 6.02× 10 -23 (B) 6.02× 10 -22 (C)
6.02× 10 -21 (D) 6.02× 10 -20 Answer. B
20. What is the percentage by mass of Calcium in limestone(CaCO3) ? (A) 40% (B) 30% (C) 32% (D)
60% molar mass of CaCO3= 100 gmol -1. Answer A
21. .How many mL of 17 M NH3 must be diluted to 500.0 mL to make a 0.75 M solution? (a) 13 mL (b)
22 mL (c) 39 mL (d) 73 mL (e) none of these. Answer. B
22. How many grams of Ag2CO3 are required to react with 28.5 mL of 1.00 M NaOH solution? Ag2CO3
+2NaOH ---- Ag2O + Na2CO3 + H2O (a) 7.87 g (b) 3.93 g (c) 15.7 g (d) 10.8 g (e) 8.16 g. Answer B
24. How many milliliters of 0.200 M NH4OH are needed to react with 12.0 mL of 0.550 M FeCl3? FeCl3
+ 3NH4OH -----Fe(OH)3 + 3NH4Cl (a) 99.0 mL (b) 33.0 mL (c) 8.25 mL (d) 68.8 mL (e) 132 mL,
answer A
25. The mass (in grams) of FeSO4.7H2O required for preparation of 125 mL of 0.90 M solution is: (a) 16
g (b) 25 g (c) 13 g (d) 31 g (e) 43 g. Answer D.
26. How is mass of a substance connected to its amount in mole(s)? 1. Amount in mole = Mass / Molar
Mass 2. Amount in mole = Mass / Mole ratio 3. Amount in mole = Reactant mass / Molar Mass 4.
Amount in mole = Mole ratio / Molar Mass …………. Answer. 3
27. The starting point of a stoichiometric problem is _____. 1. the balanced equation 2. the amount of
reactants 3. the amount of products 4. the mole ratio Answer 1.
28. Which of the following has the largest mass of carbon per gram? A. H₂CO₃ B. CH₃CO₂H C. CH₃OH
D. CH₃CH₂OH answer D
29. One mole of (NH₄)₂Cr₂O₇ contains: A one mole of nitrogen. B four moles of hydrogen. C. one mole
of chromium. D seven moles of oxygen. Answer D
30. Which of the following is an example of herbicide? A) Sodium chlorate B) Potassium permanganate
C) Bleaching powder D) None of the above. Answer A
31. Which one of the following materials contains calcium? A) China clay B) Corundum C) Gypsum D)
Talc Answer C
32. Which of the following is a weak acid? (a) H2SO4 (b) HClO3 (c) HF (d) HCl (e) HNO3 answer C
33. Which name/formula combination is WRONG? (a) chlorous acid / HClO2 (b) dinitrogen tetroxide /
N2O4 (c) ammonium nitrate / NH4NO3 (d) copper(II) periodate / CuIO4 (e) potassium permanganate /
KMnO4. Answer D
34 Which name/formula combination is WRONG? (a) phosphorous acid / H3PO4 (b) nitrogen oxide / NO
(c) acetate ion / CH3COO- (d) sodium chromate / Na2CrO4 (e) calcium hypobromite / Ca(BrO)2 answer
A
35. Matter is made up of small particles called________ (a) atoms (b) molecules (c) elements (d)
compound. Answer. A
36. The continuous bombardment of molecules on the walls of the vessel gives rise to the _______of the
gas. (A) pressure (B) force (C) gas exert (d) collision. Answer. A
37. The quantity that relate pressure in newton's second law of motion (a) force and area ( b) volume and
force (c) momentum and area (d) distance and force . Answer. A
38. boyles law shows the relationship ---- and ---- (a) volume and pressure (b) pressure and Temperature
(c) Temperature and volume (d) A and B. Answer. A
39. Charles law shows the relationship between ____ and ____ (a) Temperature and Pressure (b) pressure
and volume (c) volume and Temperature (d) none of the above. Answer. C
40. Calculate the root mean square velocity of hydrogen, given that the density of hydrogen at STP is 0.09
kgm-3 (a) 1837.8 ms-1 (b) 1234.3 ms-1 (c) 1837.8 ms-2 (d) 1900 ms-1. Answer A
41. Calculate the root mean square velocity of oxygen as STP. The molecular mass of oxygen is
32.0gmol-1 (a) 461.3 ms-1 (b) 461.3 ms-2 (c) 519.3 ms-1 (d) 1242.3 ms-1. Answer. A
42. Calculate the root mean square velocity of nitrogen as STP molecular mass of nitrogen is 28.02 gmol-
1 (a) 429.3 ms-1 (b) 519.4 ms-2 (c) 519.3 ms-1 (d) 623.2 ms-1 . Answer. C
43. Two gases A and B have relative molecular mass of 64 and 16 respectively. Calculate the ratio of the
relatives rate of diffusion gases A and B. (A) ½ (b) 2/3 (c) 1/3 (d) 2/1. Answer. A
44. Calculate the molar concentration of the following solutions: 7.45g of Tetraoxosulphate (vi) acid in
600cm3 of solutions. [H= 1.0, S= 32.0, O= 16.0 gmol-1] (a) 0.133M (b) 0.133Moldm-3 (c) 0.113 Moldm-
3 (d) A and B. Answer. D
45. A gas occupies 12.3 liters at a pressure of 40.0 mmHg. What is the volume when the pressure is
increased to 60.0 mmHg? (A)8.2L (b) 3.4L (c) 2.3L (d) 8.22L. Answer. A
46. A gas occupies 1.56 L at 1.00 atm. What will be the volume of this gas if the pressure becomes 3.00
atm? (A) 0.52L (B) 0.005L (c) 0.25L (d) none of the above. Answer. A
47. 500.0 mL of a gas is collected at 745.0 mmHg. What will the volume be at standard pressure? (A)
0.25L (B) 409.0L (c) 222 ML (d) 490.1 ML. Answer. B
48. If a gas at 25.0 °C occupies 3.60 liters at a pressure of 1.00 atm, what will be its volume at a pressure
of 2.50 atm? (A) 1.44L (B) 144.1L (C) 114.1 L (D) 14.4L . Answer. A
49. Arrhenius concept of acid definition, defined acid as a substance that, (a) when dissolved in water,
increases the concentration of H+ (b) when dissolved in water, increases the concentration of OH+ (c)
when dissolved in water, decreases the concentration of H+ (d) when dissolved in water, increases the
concentration of OH- . Answer. A
50. Bronsted lowry stated Base as ………(a) proton donor (b) electron donor (c) proton acceptor (d)
elector acceptor. Answer. C
51. Bronsted lowry stated Acid as ………(a) proton donor (b) electron donor (c) proton acceptor (d)
elector acceptor. Answer. A
52. An acid as substance which accepts a lone pair of electrons in forming a co-ordinate bond was defined
by ------ (a) Lewis (b) Bronsted lowry (c) Arrhenius (d) none of the above. Answer. A
53. A base as substance which donate a lone pair of electrons in forming a co-ordinate bond was defined
by ------ (a) Lewis (b) Bronsted lowry (c) arrhenius (d) none of the above. Answer. A
54. Find the pH of 0.1 moldm-3 of Hydrochoric acid (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 2.3 . Answer A
55. Find the pH of 0.3 moldm- 3 of Sodium Hydroxide (a) 13.48 (b) 12 (c) 14 (d) 2.3 . Answer A
56. Find the pH of 0.05 moldm-3 phosphoric acid. (A) 0.82 (b) 13.2 (c) 12.2 (d) 0.28. Answer A
57. Find the Hydrogen ion concentration of a solution of pH 4.352. (A) 4.45 × 10- 3 moldm-3 (b) 4.5 ×
10- 3 moldm-3 (c) 3.45 × 10- 3 moldm-3 (d) none of the above. Answer. A
58. Phenolphthalein in acid is …….. (a) colorless (b) pink (c) red (d) orange. Answer. A
59. Phenolphthalein in base is …….. (a) colorless (b) pink (c) red (d) orange. Answer. B
60. Methyl orange in acid is ….. (a) colorless (b) red (c) yellow (d) none of the above. Answer. B
61. Methyl orange in base is ….. (a) colorless (b) red (c) yellow (d) none of the above. Answer. C
62. NaOH is a….. (a) weak acid (b) hard acid (c) hard base (d) strong base. Answer D
63. H2SO4 is a…… (a) hard acid (b) hard base (c) strong Acid (d) Weak base. Answer C
64. H2SO4 Is a…. (A) monoprotic (b) Diprotic (c) Triprotic (d) Biprotic. Answer. B
65. CH3COOH is a….. (a) Tripotic (b) Diprotic (c) Monoprotic (d) Biprotic. Answer. C
66. H3PO4 is a…. (A) monoprotic (b) Triprotic (c) Monoprotic (d) Diprotic. Answer. B
67. pV=nRT is the formular for….. (a) ideal gas equation (b) general Gas equation (c) Idea gas equation
(d) boyle's law answer. A
68. Gas moves …….. in a closed container (a) randomly (b) haphazardly (c) a and b (d) none of the
above. Answer A
69. Which is the strongest acid? (a) HClO4 (b) HClO3 (c) HClO2 (d) HClO (e) HF. Answer . A
70. Which one of the following is an amphoteric metal hydroxide? (a) KOH (b) Ba(OH)2 (c) Pb(OH)2 (d)
LiOH (e) Mg(OH). Answer C
MTH 101
1. Using binomial theorem to expand (2𝑥 − 3𝑦)5 , find the co-efficient of 𝑥 2 𝑦 3
(a) 1080 (b) −1008 (c) −1080 (d) 1008 C
1
2. Evaluate using binomial expression to 5 significant figures
√103
(a) 0.098533 (b) 0.097844 (c) 0.099534 (d) 0.099600 A
3. Who is the Father of Venn Diagram? _________ (a) Prof. Martin Venn (b) Prof. Joseph Venn (c) Prof.
John Venn (d) Prof. Vander Chris Venn C
4. Let 𝐴 = {𝑆𝑒𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑒𝑣𝑒𝑛 𝑚𝑒𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟𝑠 𝑏𝑒𝑡𝑤𝑒𝑒𝑛 1 𝑎𝑛𝑑 11}
𝐵 = {𝐴𝑙𝑙 𝑓𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑜𝑟𝑠 𝑜𝑓 12}
Find 𝐴 ∪ 𝐵 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐴 ⊳ 𝐵 respectively,
(a) {1,2,3,4,6,8,9,10,12} 𝑎𝑛𝑑 {1,2,4,6,8,10,12}
(b) {1,2,3,4,6,8,9,10,12} 𝑎𝑛𝑑 {1,3,4,8,10,12}
(c) {1,2,3,4,5,6,7,12} 𝑎𝑛𝑑 {1,3,6,9,12}
(d) {1,2,3,4,6,8,10,12} 𝑎𝑛𝑑 {1,3,8,10,12} D
5. Find 𝑥 if 𝑥 + 7, 2𝑥 + 19 and 1 − 3𝑥 forms an A.P
(a) −5 (b) −4 (c) −2 (d) 4 A
6. Solve for 𝑥 in 3𝑥 + 13 < 1
(a) 𝑥 < −3 (b) 𝑥 < 3 (c) 𝑥 < −4 (d) 𝑥 > 4 C
7. Solve for 𝑥 in the inequality 2⁄𝑥 ≤ 5⁄𝑥 + 2
(a) 𝑥 ≥ − 1⁄2 (b) 𝑥 ≥ −1 1⁄2 (c) 𝑥 > −1 1⁄2 (d) 𝑥 > 1 1⁄2 B
2(𝑥− 1) 3(𝑥−2)
8. Solve for 𝑥 in 3
− 4 ≥1
(a) 𝑥 ≤ 2 (b) 𝑥 ≥ −2 (c) 𝑥 ≤ 2 (d) 𝑥 ≤ −2 D
9. 4 − 3 ≢= ≢2
(a) 1 & − 4 (b) −1 & 4 (c) 1 & 4 (d) −1 & − 4 A
3 3 3 3
10. Solve for 𝑥, 20𝑥 − 2𝑥 − 6 = 0 (a) ⁄7 𝑜𝑟 − ⁄5 (b) ⁄7 𝑜𝑟 ⁄5 (c) ⁄5 𝑜𝑟 ⁄2 (d) ⁄5 𝑜𝑟 − 1⁄2
2 1 1 1
D
11. Suppose log10 12 = 1.0792, Find log10 1.2
(a) 0.0790 (b) 0.0792 (c) 0.0800 (d) 0.08 B
12. Suppose log10 2 = 0.3010, Then; log10 8?
(a) 0.9030 (b) 0.90 (c) 0.9300 (d) 1 A
4
13. Rationalize 2
√3+ √5
8 4 8 4 8 4 8 4
√3+ √5 √3+ √5 √3− √5 √3− √5
(a) 14
(b) 7 (c) 14
(d) 7
D
2 3
√7+ √5
14. Rationalize 2
√3− √11
4 2 6 3
(a) √21 − √77 + √15 + √55
4 2 6 3
(b) √21 + √77 + √15 + √55
4 2 6 3
(c) √21 − √77 − √15 + √55
 4 2 6 3
(d) √21 + √77 + √15 − √55 B
15. The 3rd term of an A.P is 23 and the 9th term is 35. Find the sum of the first 10 terms
(a) 180 (b) 210 (c) 280 (d) 128 C
16. The Second Term of a G.P is 18 and the Fourth Term is 162; Find the first term and the fifth term
respectively (a) 6 & 486 (b) 6 & 468 (c) 8 & 486 (d) 8 & 468 A
−3 −4
17. Find the determinant of matrix V = ( )
2 −6
(a) 22 (b) 26 (c) 18 (d) 24 B
𝑦
If (
𝑥 ⁄5 = (4 5
), find 𝑥, 𝑦, 𝑢 and 𝑧 respectively
18. )
3𝑢 6𝑧 9 −36
(a) 4, 25, 3 𝑎𝑛𝑑 −6 (b) −4, 25, −3 𝑎𝑛𝑑 −6 (c) 4, 25, 3 𝑎𝑛𝑑 6 (d) 4, 25, 3 𝑎𝑛𝑑 −6 D
19. A singular matrix is __________ (a) with equal row and column (b) one whose determinant is
zero (c) one whose determinant is not equal to zero (d) none of the above C
20. Two types of quadratic equations are __________ and ____________
(a) Pure and Incomplete (b) Affected and not Pure (c) Affected and Incomplete (d) All of the
above C
1
21. Find x in 10𝑥 = 0.0001
(a) 5 (b) -1 (c) -4 (d) 4
Ans: (d)
22. Simplify log 𝑥 𝑥 7
(a) -1 (b) -7 (c) 7 (d) 1
Ans: (c)
23. Find K if √128 + √18 − √𝑘 = 27
146
(a) 971-594√2 (b) (c) 2√2 − √2 (d) 3√2 + 5
729
Ans: (b)
24. Solve the equation 2√𝑥 − √4𝑥 − 11 = 1
(a) 7 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) 10
Ans: (c)
25. If the first and the last term of an AP is 6.7 and 17.1. Find its common difference if there are
14 terms in the sequence.
(a) 0.8 (b) 0.4 (c) 0.1 (d) -0.4
Ans: (a)
26. Find the two possible values of x if x-3, 3x+5 and 18x-5 are 3 consecutive terms of a GP
(a) 1/9 or 10 (b) -1/9 or 10 (c) -1/9 or -10 (d) 1/9 or -10
Ans: (b)
27. Find the sum of the first 10 terms of the AP 1+ 6+ 11+…
(a) 205 (b) 235 (c) 100 (d) 222
Ans: (b)
1 1 1
28. Find the sum to infinity of the series 1 + 3 + 9 + 27 + ⋯
(a) 2/3 (b) ½ (c) 1/3 (d) 3/2
Ans: (d)
29. If A= {1,2,3} and B= {2,3,4,5,6}. Find A-B
(a) {4,5,6} (b) (4,5,6) (c) {1} (d) {1,2,3}
Ans: (c)
30. The Original given set is often called the …
(a) Empty set (b) Null set (c) Universal set (d) Unity
Ans: (c)
31. In set theory, A ∆ B means
(a) (A-B) ∪ (B-A) (b) A ∪ B (c) A ∩ B (d) (A-B) ∩ (B-A)
Ans: (a)
32. If 𝒰 = {𝑎, 𝑏, 𝑐, 𝑑}, 𝐴 = {𝑎, 𝑏} 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐵 = {𝑏, 𝑐}. Find A' ∪ B'
(a) (a,c,d) (b) {c,d} (c) {a,d} (d) {a,c,d}
Ans: (d)
33. If (2x+1) is a factor of 𝑓(𝑥) = 4𝑥 2 + 𝑝𝑥 − 3. Find the value of P
(a) -4 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d)-2
Ans: (a)
34. Factorize 3𝑥 2 − 4𝑥 − 15
(a) (x+3) (x+5) (b) (x-3) (3x+5) (c) (x-7) (x+3) (d) (3-2x) (1+2x)
Ans: (b)

35. Solve for the values of x in the quadratic equation 𝑥 2 − 64 = 0

(a) 8 twice (b) 4 twice (c) -8 or 8 (d) -4 or 4
Ans: (c)
36. Find the sum and product of roots of the quadratic equation 𝑥 2 + 4𝑥 − 32 = 0
(a) 3 and 4 (b) 2.63 and -4.25 (c) 17/6 and -5/3 (d) -4 and -32
Ans: (d)
37. ___________ is a diagonal matrix in which the leading diagonal elements are all unity.
(a) A diagonal matrix (b) A null matrix (c) A unity matrix (d) all of the above
Ans: (c)
38. When two matrices are of the same order, each element in one equals the corresponding
element in other, they are said to be?
(a) Equal (b) Void (c) Null (d) Corresponding
Ans: (a)
39. __________ of a square matrix is the transpose of matrix C of cofactors.
(a) Cofactor (b) Inverse (c) Minor (d) Adjoint
Ans: (d)
40. The Transpose of a matrix A is the matrix obtained by
(a) deleting rows and columns (b) adding the rows and the columns (c) interchanging the
rows and the columns (d) repeating the rows and the columns
Ans: (c)
41. The second and sixth terms of an AP are 30 and 34. Find the common difference (a) 2(b)4 (c)
8 (d)6 Ans…d
42. The first term of an AP is equal to one half the common difference (d). The 8th term of the AP
is (a) 4d (b) 6d (c) 13d/2 (d) 15d/2 Ans…. d
43. The sum of the 1 and 2 term of an AP is 8 and the 10 term is 38. The sum of the 7th and 8th
st nd th

term is (a) 30 (b) 48 (c) 56 (d) 64 Ans….c

44. Which term of the series: 2187, 729, 243, ….is 1/9? (a) 4th (b)3rd (c) 10th (d)11th …….c
45. Find four geometric means between 2 and 486 (a) 2,10,98,222 (b) 2,78,101,400 (c)
2,150,300,486 (d) 6,18,54,162………………. D
46. One root of the equation 27x^2 +bx+8 =0 is known to be the square of the other. Find b (a) -
30 (b)-8(c) 27(d)1……. A
47. If the equation x^2 – 3x +1 =p(x-3) has equal roots, find the possible values of p (a) p=5 or 4
(b )p=5 or 1(c) p=1or -5 (d) p=1 or -1……B
48. Any matrix whose determinant equals zero is called? (a) null matrix(b) determinant matrix(c)
zero matrix (d) singular matrix D
49. A matrix is a collection of numbers of elements arranged in ….. and ….. (a) orders & columns
(b)rows & sizes (c) rows & columns(d) rows & orders……….C
50. The adjoints of a square matrix A is? (a) matrix of cofactors (b)transpose of minors
(c)transpose of symmetric matrix (d) transpose of cofactor matrix…. D
51. Factorize 16x^2 – 24xy -18x + 27y (a) (x-9) (2x-3) (b) (8x-9) (2x-y) (c) (8x-9)(2x+y) (d) )
(8x+9)(2x-8y) B
52. Find the value of the constant k if 4x^3 + kx^2 + 7x – 23 has a remainder 7 when divided by
2x-5 (a)8(b) -8 (c)16(d) -16 B
53. Find the largest coefficient in (3x-2) ^3 (a) 10 (b) 34 (c) 100 (d)54 D
54. Evaluate the value of (1.01) ^5, correct to four places of decimal (a) 0.0510 (b) 1.0510 (c)
3.1051 (d) 2,0151 B
55. Two sets are said to be disjoint if the cardinality of the intersection is (a) common (b) single
(c) identical (d) zero D
56. One root of the equation 27𝑥 2 +bx +8 =0 is known to be the square of the other.
Find b (a) -30 (b) -8(c) 27(d) 1 ……. A

57. Given that 𝛼 and β is the root of 𝑎𝑥 2 +bx +c=0 Find the value of 𝛼 4 𝛽 7 + 𝛼 7 𝛽 4
𝑏𝑐 4 (3𝑎𝑐−𝑏 2 ) 𝑏𝑎4 (3𝑎𝑏−𝑏2 ) 𝑏𝑐 3 (3𝑎𝑐−𝑏 2 ) 𝑏𝑐 4 (3𝑎𝑐−𝑎2 )
(a) (b) (c) (d) A
𝑎7 𝑎7 𝑎5 𝑎5
𝑝 𝑞
58. If p and q are the roots of quadratic equation: 𝑥 2 − 3𝑥 − 10 = 0 find the value of +𝑝
𝑞
−11 11 −10
(b) 10 (c) 11 (d) (ans: A)
10 11
59. If α and β are the roots of 3𝑦 2 − 6𝑦 − 2 = 0 find 𝑎−2 + 𝑏 −2
(a) 14 (b) 16 (c) 12 (d) 10 (ans: C)
2
60. For what value of K will the equation: 𝑥 − 14𝑥 + 𝑘 = 0 have equal roots?
(a) 7 (b)-7 (c) 31 (d) None of the above (ans: D)
61. What is the power of set 𝐹 = {𝑦: 𝑦 ∈ 𝑁, 6 > 𝑦}
(a) 16 (b) 32 (c) 64 (d) 128 (ans: C)
62. Find the power of set 𝐺 = {𝑝: 𝑝 ∈ 𝑝𝑟𝑖𝑚𝑒 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟𝑠 𝑙𝑒𝑠𝑠 𝑡ℎ𝑎𝑛 10}
 (a) 128 (b) 64 (c) 32 (d) 16 (ans: D)
63. Evaluate the expression (y+1) – (y-1) .
4 4

a) 3y2 + 2y5
b) 7(y4 + y2 + y)
c) 8(y3 + y1)
d) y + y2 + y3 Ans: C
64. Find the coefficient of x7 in (x+4)7.
a) 523001
b) 428700
c) 327640
d) 129024 Ans: D
65. Determine the 7th term in the expansion of (x-2y)12.
a) 6128y7
b) 59136y6
c) 52632x6
d) 39861y5 Ans: B
66. What is the middle term in the expansion of (x/2 + 6y)8?
a) 45360x4
b) 34210x3
c) 1207x4
d) 3250x5 Ans: A
67. What is the coefficient of x6 if the expression (x+4)8 is expanded?
a) 4,096
b) 16
c) 114,688
d) 448 Ans D
68. Which is equivalent to (a+b)4 ?
a) a4 + 4a3b + 4ab3 + b4
b) a4 + 5a3b + 10a2b2 + 5ab3 + b4
c) 2a4 + 4a3b + 2a2b2 + 4ab3 + 2b4
d) a4 +4a3b + 6a2b2 + 4ab3 + b4 Ans: D
69. Co-efficient of x5 in the expansion of (1+x2)5 (1+x)4 is
a) 40
b) 50
c) 30
d) 60 Ans: D
70. The coefficient of x in {(1 + x)6 + (1 + x)7 + ... + (1 + x)15} is
6

a) 16C9
b) 16C5 – 6C5
c) 16C6 – 1
d) None of these Ans: A