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Curriculum of Law Graduate Assessment Test (LAW -GAT) 2019

Sr.No Title Percentage
Constitution
1 I. World Constitutions II. Constitutional History of Pakistan 10%
III. 1973 Constitution of Pakistan
2 Jurisprudence I. English II. Islamic 10%

Civil Law I. CPC

3 II. Laws of Contract/limitation/torts/specific\ relief 20%
III. Maxims Equity

Criminal Law I. P.P.C II. Cr.P.C

4 20%
III. Law of Qisas and Diyat
Law of Evidence
5 I. Qanoon-e-Shahadat Order, 1984 20%
II. Principles
International Law
6 10%
I. Public II. Private
Cannons of Professional conduct and
7 Etiquettes of Advocate as prescribed under Chapter XII of the 05%
Pakistan Legal Practitioners & Bar Councils Rules, 1976.
8 English Legal Language 05%
Total 100%

‫بہتر یقین دہانی کے لئے برائے مہربانی ان کتابوں کو پڑھیں تاکہ آپ‬
‫مشکل سواالت‬
‫سمجھ سکیں‬
1-Criminal Law 2- Criminal Law 3- Qanoon-e-Shahadat Order

Constitutional Law Pak, and world Int- law

1. The former USSR had 15 Union Republic
2. Presidium of the Supreme Soviet consisted of 23 members.
3. Switzerland has 23 Cantons.
4. Peer is the title for the members of House of Lords.
5. Cabinet Government thrives under the cloak of Ministerial Responsibility.
6. England can never be ruined except by a Cabinet.
7. Every Lord had a right to vote by proxy which was abolished in 1868.
8. Before Reduction of Power in both Houses Pears could only be tried by pears in cases of
felony and treason.
9. The judicial Committee of Privy Council was set up by an Act of Parliament.
10. Country is the largest Local government division in England.
11. In France, Arrondissement do not play an important part in the system of Local Government.
12. The American Confederation of 13 States was created on 17 September, 1787.
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13. The American Constitution vested Residuary Powers with the States.
14. The American Sovereign is a sovereign who Rules.
16. The US President can declare war only with the consent of Senate.
17. Committees are called as Mini legislatures.
18. Misuse of the privilege of unrestricted freedom of debate in US is known as Yellow
Journalism.
20. The present Constitution of Turkey (1982) was drafted by the Legislation.

(1) Two terms tenure of US President was fixed in: Amendment was approved 1951
(3) The term of US House of Representative is: 2years
(4) Gerald Ford was US President by: Succession
(7) The Speaker of the House of Commons owes allegiance to: No Party
(8) The judges of the Indian Supreme court are appointed by: The President
(9) Indian Parliament is: Bicameral
(10) The USSR was dissolved in: 1991
(11) Perestroika was introduced in SU by: Gorbachev
(12) The objective Resolution was adopted in: 1949
(13) The number of abrogated constitutions in Pakistan is: Two
(14) The Eighth Amendment in the Constitution of Pakistan: Made the President at par with
President.
(15). The Fifth Republic was enforced in France in: 1958
(16) Debre served France as: Prime Minister
(17) Article 3 of French Constitution makes government office and parliamentary mandate:
Incompatible
(18) The French Constitutional Council comprises: 9 members
(1) The Constitution of Pakistan 1973 consists of: 280 Articles, 12 Parts, 6 Schedules.
(2) The Constitution of Pakistan 1973 was enforced on: 14th August, 1973
(4) According to law, the highest Court of Appeal is England is: House of Lords
(5) Lord Cruzan in 1923 was not chosen by George V as Prime Minister because he belonged
to: Liberal
(6) The number of Privy Council members is: 330
(7) A public bill when introduced by a private member of English Parliament is called: Individual
member bill
(9) The US President can declare war with the consent of: Senate
(10) In United States President Pro Tempore preside over the meetings of the Senate in the
absence of: Vice President
(11) By what majority from each of the central legislature, the Supreme Soviet can amend the
Constitution: Two third
(13) After how many years, local body’s elections are held in England: Three
(14) In English legal system, the smallest unit of local authority is called: Parish
(15) The President of France can be impeached only for: Misconduct
(16) Into how many departments, France has been divided: 90
(17) According to the US Constitution members of the President’s Cabinet must not be
members of: Congress
(19) A person Elected to a House in Pakistan cannot sit or vote until he has made before the
House an: Affirmation
(20) The legislative lists mentioned in Article 70(A) of the Constitution of Pakistan are: ) Federal
Legislative List and Concurrent Legislative List

(1) Highest court of appeal in U.K is: House of Lords

(2) Smallest unit of Local Government in U.K is: Parish
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(3) The US Constitution is: Rigid

(4) If both the US President and Vice-President die, the next to succeed is: President pro-
tempore of the Senate
(5) The final interpreter of US constitution is: The President
(6) The French commune can be compared to Pakistan’s Municipal Committee/Union
Council
(8) Which of the following is not an official in the administration of justice in England: Justice of
Peace
(9) The number of amendments so far made in the US Constitution is: 27
(10) Which of the following is not member of Council of Common Interests: Governors
(12) The Head of State in Pakistan is: President
(13) Voting age in different states of USA are: 18 and 21 years
(14) The inaugural session of the first Constituent Assembly of Pakistan was held in Karachi:
From 14th to 18th August, 1947
(15) Dual citizenship is a feature of: Indian Constitution
(16) The present Constitution of France was adopted by: Legislation
(17) The Presidential electors in USA cast two votes, one for the president and the other for:
Vice-Presiden
(18) The Constitution of Russian Federation was ratified in: 1993
(19) Under the 1962 Constitution of Pakistan, total number of Electors in Electoral College was:
80000
(20) Subject matter of Articles 189, 201 and 203-GG of the Constitution of Pakistan 1973 is:
Precedents
(1) The voting age in U.S. is: 18 years
(2) The number of members of Electoral College in USA is: 538
(3) There is in US: Bi-party System
(4) The membership in Electoral College of Washington DC stands at: Three
(5) The US Constitution has been amended: 27
(6) The Magna Carta was signed by the British King in: 1215
(7) The Glorious Revolution in U.K. took place in: 1689
(8) The Parliamentary Elections continued the demise of Liberal Party in: 1923
(9) The right to voting in U.K. was extended to women in: 1928
(10) The quorum for conducting business in the House of Lords in U.K. is: 3
(11) Pakistan became a Republic in: 1956
(12) The National Assembly of Pakistan consists of: 342 senate 104
(13) Pakistan so far has had: 3 Constitutions
(14) The French Revolution took place in: 1789
(15) The Constitution of French Fifth Republic was adopted in: 1956
(16) The USSR was established in: 1917
(18) Mr Leonid Breznev become President of USSR in: 1977
(19) India got independence on: August 15
(20) Indian Union comprises of: 28
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(1) The seat of Indian Supreme Court is at: New Delhi

(2) The lowest tribunal of regular court system in France is: Justices of peace
(3) India's State Executive consists of the - Chief Minister -- and his council of ministers:
(4) Three categories of citizens recognized by Indian Constitution are by: birth, descent,
registration
(5) Which of the following courts was not recognized by the Constitution of former USSR:
Military Tribunal
(6) Article --2-- of Constitution of Pakistan deals with definitions:
(7) Judiciary was separated from executive in Pakistan under Article --175-:
(8) Punishment for high treason has been provided in: Constitution of Pakistan
104 (10) - Attorney General -- has he right to speak in the parliament of Pakistan:
(11) Constitution of Pakistan has ---280--- Articles:
(12) The State of Pakistan exercises its power and authority through: President
(13) In Practice the election of US President is: Direct
(14) The term "suffrage" means: the right to vote
(15) American Constitution has: 7 articles, 21 sections
(16) King John -- was forced to sign Magna Carta Act of 1215:
(17) Central administrative system is controlled by — Cabinet — in Britain:
(1 8) The first Prime Minister of England was: Walpole
(19) King is more personalized and attractive symbol of: National unity
(20) Choice of British Prime Minister is made by the: Parliament (House of Commons)
(1). The convention for not contesting US Presidency for the 3rd time was set up by: Theodore
Roosevelt
(2). The 50 States of the USA send__ 100___ members to the Senate:
(4). USSR constitution of 1977 is know after: Brezhnev
(5). Supreme Soviet was in reality a: Rubber Stamp
(6) The Indian Constitution provides for: Direct Democracy
(7). Constituent Assembly of India passed Objectives Resolution on: 22nd January, 1947
(8). Powers of two houses in India as regards non-money bills are: Imbalanced
(9). French Constitution puts restrictions on: Judicial System
(10). Constitution of Third Republic came into force in: 1870
(11). French Ministries are notorious unstable due to: Powerful President
(12). Tactics to prevent the passage of bill are known as: Filibustering
(13). The life of the House of Common is: 5 Years
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(14). The President Judicial System of England was evolved in: 1870
(15). The Parliamentary commissioner is similar to: Chief Whip
(16). The Constitution of Pakistan was authenticated on: 14th August, 1973
(17). Prime Minister of Pakistan is appointed by: National Assembly
(18). A Magistrate is empowered to Punish for contempt of court under: Contempt of Court
Act
(19). Ordinary term of officer of Chief Election Commissioner in Pakistan in: 3 Years
(20).The control and command of Armed Forces in Pakistan lies with: President is Supreme
Commander
(1) The essence of the Presidential System of government is that, in such a system: the
executive is independent of the legislature
(2) in which of the following states could all amendments to the constitution be made without
references to the units: Former USSR
(3) "Federation is nothing but a political contrivance intended to reconcile national unity with
maintenance of the state rights" was said by: Dicey
(4) In the USA residuary powers or reserve powers are: Left to the states
(5) The "due process of law" is an essential characteristic of the judicial system of: India
(6) Dicey's principle of the "Rule Of Law" implies that: No body is above law
(b) Constitution is equal before law? Nobody is above law
(7) "Parliamentary Supremacy” is a definite feature of political system in: U.K
(8) The Soviet constitution of 1918 came into force in : 10 July,1918
(9)The Soviet constitution of 1977 comprised: Nine parts and 174 articles
(10)Which one of the following statement about the Supreme Soviet of erstwhile USSR is not
correct: Majority of its members are from working class
(11)The Highest Court Of Appeal in Brittan is: House of Lords
(13)The most important feature of local government in France is: The extreme type of
centralization
(14)The most important committee of the Indian Parliament is: The public Accounts
Committee
(15) The term "equal protection of law" used in article of 14 to the Indian constitution was
borrowed from: Britain
(16) The Legal Sovereignty in India Lies in the: People of India
(17) Which of the following can impose reasonable restrictions on the fundamental rights of
Indian citizens: Parliamen
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(19) The constitution of 1973 consists of (a) Five articles (b) Six articles (c) Seven articles (d)
Non of these
(20) Under 1973 constitution of Pakistan the cabinet is the real executive of the country it is
headed by: Prime Minister
(1) The French Constitution of 1791 was replaced by: The constitution of 1794
(2) The French constitution of fifth Republic consisted of: 15 Chapters and 90 Articles
(3) The Magna Carta 0f 1215 contains: 63 clauses
(4) “The English constitution does not exist” who said it? Tocqueville
(5) The term ‘equal protection of law’ used in Article 14 of the Indian constitution was borrowed
from: (a) Canada (b) USA (c) Germany (d) None of these
(7) The executive government of Britain consists of: One part
(8) The parliament act of 1911 as amended in 1949 has reduced considerably the powers of:
The House of Commons
(9) An important feature of The American constitution is that it is: Federal
(10) USA has two party system; that is ? Democratic and Republican Party
(11) The weakest second chamber of the federal legislature is found in: Britain
(14) France is associated with: Administrative law
(16) In which countries constitution ratification of certain amendments by the state is not
essential for changing the provisions of the constitution? Erstwhile USSR
(17) Indian Federation is mainly based on the pattern of federal system found in: Canada
(18) Which of the following federal countries has the lengthiest and most elaborate
constitution? India
(19)Which of the following article is considered as the supremacy clause of the US
constitution? Article 6
(20) Which of the following article in the constitution of Pakistan 1973, declares that “Islam shall
be the state religion”? Article 2
(i) What is the constitutional title used for the British head of State? Monarch
(ii) Parliamentary system of UK is the product of: Conventions
(iii) Which Act of parliaments protects the Independence of judiciary in UK? Bill of Rights
(iv) The office of the British Prime Minister is the creature of: Customs
(v) The English Common Law is based on: Precedents
(vi) How many US Presidents actually faced impeachment? Two
(vii) The Bill of Rights became part of US constitution in the year: 1791
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(viii) On what date the electors for the election of President are elected under the US
Constitution? 1st Tuesday of November, leap year
(ix) An Amendment in the US constitution becomes effective on its approval by the congress
and a minimum special number of states which is: ) ¾ States
(x) What is the maximum continuous period a person can be president of USA. 08 years
(xi) Upper house under Indian Constitution? Council of States/Rajya Sabha
(xii) The federating units of India are called: States
(xiii) Who appoints the governor in India? President
(xiv) The Indian Government at national level is called? Union Government
(xv) The Prime Minister of India is: LoK Sabha/House of the People)
(xvi) What is the commencing day of Pakistan Constitution 1973? 14th August 1973
(xvii) Which Article of Pakistan Constitution 1973 deal with ‘Islamic Way of life’? (Article 31)
(xviii) The Northern Areas of Pakistan are under the control of: Federal Government
(xix) Article 184 of Constitution of Pakistan 1973 provides for: Original jurisdiction of
Supreme Court
(xx) What is the ordinary life of a gubernatorial Ordinance under the Constitution of Pakistan
1973? 3 months

A.The First Constituent Assembly approved the National Flag of Pakistan in its session held on:
11th August 1947
B. According to the bogra Formula the lower house consisted of: 300 seats
C. The First Constituent Assembly declared the Federal Court as the highest Court of Pakistan
in its: Fourth Session
D. Speaker of First Constituent Assembly challenged the dismissal of Assembly in the: Sindh
Chief Court
E. The Basic Principles Committee (BPC) Submitted its 1st Report in: 1950
F. The first report of Basic Principles Committee (BPC) was: Rejected by the people
G. The Basic Principles Committee (BPC) submitted its final report on 22nd December 1952
H. According to the Bogra Formula the total member of seats of the Upper House was: 50
I. The Constituent Assembly repealed PRODA on: 20th September 1954
J. 24th October 1954, the First Constituent Assembly was dissolved by: Ghulam Muhammad
K. Second Martial Law was imposed by Gen. Yahya Khan on: 25th March 1969
M.1973 Constituent of the statesman who was sworn In as President of Pakistan Fazal Elahi
N. The Constituent of Pakistan can be amended by: Two-Third majority of both Houses
O. of Constitution of 1973 Governor Rule imposed in the province: Article 234
P. Bogra Formula was put forward in: October 1953
Q. Give the name of the law expert, who was elected as first women president of Supreme
Court Bar Association on 27th October, 2010. Asma Jahangir
R. On Which Date, Pakistan and USA signed a $375 million agreement to complete a 150 MW
Wind Power Project: 14th November 2010
S. In 1953, the Constituent Assembly comprised of 79 members out of which the Muslim
 [8]

League Parliamentary Party had: 60 members

T. The Constituent Assembly set up the Basic Principles Committee in: March 1949

D. The headquarters of ICAO are located at? Montreal

E. An agreement between a State and a multinational corporation? Not a treaty

F. A member of the International Law Commission is: Elected by the general assembly

G. The term of a member of the International Law Commission is: 5 Years

H. A candidate for the International court of justice is nominated by: The National Government

I. A Judge of the ICJ is elected by: Both the general assembly and the Security council
J, The Security council consists of: 15 members

K. An ad-hoc judge of the ICJ is? Appointed by the State

L. Tobar doctrine is related to: The recognition of a Government

M. The Vienna convention of consular relations was adopted in: 1961

N. The territorial waters of State may extend up to: 200 miles

P. The definition of aggression was adopted in: 1974

Q. The baseline is line from which the limits of: : Maritime zones are measured
R. The theory of absolute territorial sovereignty:
1: Allows a State to have absolute jurisdiction over all foreigners.
2: Advocates for exclusive right of the territorial State over water resources of an
international river.
S. The doctrine of " inter-temporal law": Means that the principle of natural justice take
precedence over other rules.
T. The eastern Greenland case rose between:Norway and Denmark
U. The diplomatic Conference on Humanitarian Law was held in:1974

V. The convention on the settlement of investment Disputes between States and Nationals of
other States came into force on: October 14, 1966

10. The declaration on the Elimination of all Forms of Intolerance and Discrimination Based on
Religion or Belief was adopted at the United Nations by consensus in: 1981
11. The Hague Convention on the Taking of Evidence Abroad in Civil or commercial Matters
(The Hague Evidence Convention) was done on: March 18, 1970
12. The protocol for the suppression of unlawful acts of violence at Airports serving
International Civil Aviation was done on: February 24, 1988

13. The United Nations Conference on the Law of the Sea was held at Geneva in: 1958
14. The second session of the United Nations Committee on economics, social and cultural
Rights was held at Geneva in: February 1988
15. The Convention for the protection of Ozone Layer was done on ?March 22, 1985
 [9]

1. Constitution of 1956 was passed from National Assembly on? 29 February, 1956
2. In formation of 1st Constitution ___ Ch. Muhammad Ali ___ played very important role
3. Constitution of 1956 was enforced on? 23rd March, 1956
4. The Constitution of 1956 was framed by the Constituent Assembly in the name of? Peoples
5. The Constitution of 1956 was to assented to by the. Governor General
6. Constitution of Pakistan, 1956 declared Pakistan as?Islamic Republic of Pakistan
7. Definition of the State was provided in Article ___3___, of the Constitution of 1956
8. Part __Two____ of the Constitution of 1956 was granting fundamental rights
9. According to the Constitution of, 1956 there shall be Parliamentary form of government
10. According to the Constitution of 1956 ___ President ___ was the Head of State
11. Minimum age to become President was held __40___, year in 1956 Constitution
12. According to the Constitution of 1956 there shall be _Uni Cameral __ legislature in country
13. According to the Constitution of 1956 ___ Federal Court _was the highest Court of country
14. According to the Constitution of 1956 Urdu and Bengali declared as National Languages
15. 1956 Constitution provided __ Federal ____ form of government for the country
16. The Constitution of 1956 was consisting ___234___ Articles, and ___13___, parts
17. Constitution of 1956 ___ Part two __ part was dealing with Fundament Rights
18. Constitution of 1956 prevails for _____2____,
19. The Constitution of 1956 was abrogated on? October, 1958
20. The Constitution of 1956 was enacted by the assembly in the name of? name of peoples
21. Strength of Membership of National Assembly According 1956 Constitution was? 310
22. Constitution of 1956 provided __ direct ___ form of election
23. Constitution of 1956 provided __ Single ___ citizenship of the citizens of the country
24. According 1956 Constitution powers and authorities were
A. In the hand of Center B. In the hands of Provinces C. Divided between (a) and (b)
25. The Constitution of 1956 suggested __ Parliamentary From ___ kind of government for
the country

1. Constitution, of 1962 was made on? 28 February, 1962

2. Constitution of 1962 was consisting? 250 Articles, and 10 parts
3. Constitution of 1962, provided ____ Presidential __ form of government
4. Constitution of 1962, provided ___ Indirect ___ election for President
5. According to Constitution of 1962, age limit to cast vote was_ 21 years
6. According to Constitution of 1962, President was elected through? Electoral College
7. According to Constitution of 1962, minimum age limit for President-ship was? 35 years
8. Article ____23___ , of the Constitution of 1962, empowered President with power of
dissolution of National Assembly
9. Under Article 13 of the Constitution of 1962 __ President can be impeached
10. The Constitution of 1962, held ______ religion for Speaker of National Assembly
A. Islam B. Non believer C. No restriction upon
11. The Constitution of 1962, provided Federation consisting center and ___2___ provinces
12. Total strength of Members of National Assembly according to Constitution of 1962, was?
218 members
13. According to Constitution of 1962, Provincial Assemblies were consisting ___218___
members
14. In initial name of the Country in 1962 Constitution was held? Republic of Pakistan
15. Through an amendment in ___ December ___ 1962, name of the State was declared
Islamic Republic of Pakistan instead of Republic of Pakistan
16. According to Constitution of 1962 ___ President ___ was Chief Executive of the Country
17. Term and Tenure of President Office in Constitution of 1962, was? 5 years
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18. According to Constitution of 1962, _Supreme Court __ was the highest Court of the country
19. Constitution of 1962, provided ___ Uni Cameral ___ Legislature
20. As per Constitution of 1962 age limit for Judge of Supreme Court was?. Sixty five years
21. As per Constitution of 1962 retiring age of High Court Judge was? Sixty years
22. As per Constitution of 1962, ______ were held National Languages
A. Urdu B. Bengali C. Both (a) and (b)
23. According to Constitution of 1962, ___ Provincial autonomy __ was given to provinces
24. Constitution of 1962 declared ___ Islamabad __ as Capital of the country
25. Article 29 of the Constitution of 1962 empowered President in absence of National
Assembly to promulgate an _ Ordinance _ with the same powers and force as an Act of the
Legislature
26. By Article 226 of the Constitution of 1962 Field Marshal Ayub Khan was become the First
___ President ___ of Pakistan
27. Constitution of 1962 was replaced by? Provisional Constitution Order of 1969
28. Constitution of 1962, was abrogated on? March, 1969
29. Constitution of 1962 remained for? Seven years
30. The Constitution of 1962 is also famous as? One man show
31. Constitution of 1962 was abrogated by? General Agha Muhammad Yahya Khan

1. Constitution of 1973 was authenticated & published in the official Gazette on 12th April, 1973
2. The Constitution of 1973 came into force on? 14th August, 1973
3. Constitution of 1973 consist? 280 Articles
4. Constitution of 1973 consist ______7 schedules
6. According to Objectives Resolution sovereignty over the entire Universe belongs to?
Almighty Allah
7. According to Objectives Resolution authority enjoyed by the peoples of Pakistan within limits
prescribed by Almighty Allah as sacred _______ Trust
8. Objectives Resolution provided that the State shall exercise its powers and authority through
__Elected representatives of peoples
9. Objectives Resolution stress that the Muslims of Pakistan shall enable to order their lives
____As per teachings of Islam
10. According to Objectives Resolution minorities shall be made? Free to serve their lives
according to their own religion
11. According to Objectives Resolution independence of the judiciary shall?. Fully secured
12. Objectives Resolution demanded that Pakistan
A. Shall play its positive role for international community B. Play model role for Muslim
Countries C. Both (a) and (b)
13. Objectives Resolution was set as __ Preamble _ in 1973 Constitution
14. The Constitution of 1973 declared Pakistan as? Islamic Republic of Pakistan
15. As per Article 1 of the Constitution territories of Pakistan shall comprise? The Province of
Balochistan, Khyber Pakhtunkhwa, Punjab Sindh, Federal Capital and FATA
16. Islam to be the State religion of Pakistan as provided in Article 2 of the Constitution of 1973
17. According to Article 2A Objectives Resolution is _ Substantive _ Part of the Constitution
18. The basic duty of every citizen of Pakistan is that ?He must be loyalty to Pakistan
19. Loyalty to state and obedience to Constitution and law is basic duty of every citizen of
Pakistan and it is provided in? Article 5 of the Constitution
20. Any person who abrogates or subverts or suspends or held in abeyance, or attempts or
conspires to abrogate or suspend or held in abeyance, the Constitution by use of force or show
of force or by any other unconstitutional means shall be guilty of? High treason
21. As per Article 6(3) _ Majlis-e-Shoora (Parliament)_ is empowered to provide punishment
of persons found guilty of high treason
 [11]

22. Definition of the State is provided in Article __7___ of the Constitution of 1973
23. Articles __29__ to __40_ of The Constitution of 1973 are providing Principles of Policy
24. Article 8 Constitution of 1973 describe any law inconsistent with or in derogation of ? To be
void Fundamental rights
25. No person shall be deprived of life or liberty save in accordance with law as provided in?
Article 9 of the Constitution of 1973
26. Articles __8_ to ____28___ of the Constitution deals with Fundamental Rights
27. Any right which has been provided by the Constitution of 1973 is called? Fundamental
right
28. Safeguards as to arrest and detention is provided in ___ Article 10__ of the Constitution
29. Article 10-A of the Constitution deals with? Right to fair trial
30. Right to fair trial is __ Fundamental __ right of every citizen of Pakistan
31. Slavery, forced labour, etc. are prohibited in Article ___11___, of the Constitution of 1973
32. Article 12 of the Constitution of 1973 provided protection against? Retrospective
punishment
33. Article 13 of the Constitution protects from? Double punishment
34. No person shall be subjected to torture for the purpose of extracting evidence is provided in
Article __14(2)___, of the Constitution 1973
35. Article 15, of the Constitution of 1973 provided freedom of? Movement
36. Freedom of assembly is provided in Article __16___ of the Constitution of 1973
37. Freedom of _ Association __ is provided in Article 17 of the Constitution of 1973
38. Article 18 of the Constitution, 1973 deals with
A. Freedom of trade B. Freedom of business or profession C. Both (a) and (b)
39. Every citizen shall have the right to have access to information in all matters of public
importance subject to regulation and reasonable restrictions imposed by law is provided in
Article __ 19A __, of The Constitution of 1973
40. Article ___21___ of the Constitution, 1973 provided safeguard against taxation for the
purpose any particular religion

What do these acronyms stand for?

WIPO: World Intellectual Property Organization
GATT: General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade
ICAO: International Civil Aviation Organization
IBRD: International Bank of Reconstruction for Development
UNESCO: United Nations Educational Scientific and Cultural Organization
(1) Provisions of Municipal Law:- are enforceable in international -relations if they are not in conflict
with international law;
(2) Select one of the following: -
(a) Public International Organizations are subjects of International Law;
(b) both Public and Private International organizations are subjects of International Law
(c) None of the above is subject of International Law.
 [12]

(3) Foreign diplomatic envoys enjoy absolute immunity from local jurisdiction in;
both civil and criminal matters.
(4) The Right of innocent passage is available to: Foreign ship

(5) Non-permanent members of the U.N. Security Council are elected for a period’ two year
(6) A successor state is legally bound to: only selected obligations;
(7) A lower riparian state: Has right to share water on an equitable basis.
(8) The Charter of the U.N. was drawn up by:- San Francisco Conference 1945.
(9) Universal Declaration on Human Rights was adopted in: 1948
(10) The judges of the I.C.J. are elected by
(a) the U.N. Security Council (b) the U.N. General Assembly (c) both
(11) Territorial Waters are: Waters within the territorial limits of a state;

1. The American Declaration of Independence was issued in: 1776

2. The number of Presidents who have served for more than 8 years: 2
3. The Vice-President of USA is elected for the term of: 4 years
5. Gerald Ford was US President by the constitution doctrine of: Heredity

6. The month and date on which declaration of independence was issued was: 4th of July
8. Article of confederation was Law over total: 13 States
9. The New Constitution of USA came into effect in: 1789
10. The new Constitution was ratified in: 1787
11. Total membership of House of Representative is: 435
12. The upper house is elected for the term of: 6 year
14. The upper House of US Congress is called: Senate
15. The Lower House of the US Congress is called House of Representatives
The US was initially formed by: 10 States none of the above
20. The American Revolution began in: 1776
21. The Philadelphia convention was attended by delegates from: 12 States
23. The American Constitution envisages the doctrine of: limited government
24. The first President of USA was George Washington
25. The first Vice-President of USA was: John Adams
 [13]

26. 1968 Presidential election winner was Richard Nixon

27. House of Representatives is the house of: People
28. According to the constitution the head of the State of USA is: The President
29. The American President is elected for the term of: 4 years
30. The age of American President must at least be: 35 years
31. The only Catholic President in USA was/is: J.F. Kennedy
32. The 22nd amendment, ratified in 1951, implemented that no President can hold office for more
than: 2 terms
33. The total number of amendments made in US constitution in over 200 years: 27
34. The number of Presidents who resigned from the office is 1
35. The American legislature consists of: 2 Houses
36. The Presiding head of the Senate is: The Vice-President

37. In case the Vice-President is not available to preside over the Senate meeting, it would then
be presided over by: The President's Pro-Tempore

38. The President of US does not require approval from the Senate when appointing
senior civil-officers, secretaries, diplomats etc: False
39. President does not require Congressional approval to declare war: False
40. President does not has authority to call for emergency meeting of Congress: False
41. Only President to have served 12 years in American history is F.D. Roosevelt

42. J.F. Kennedy was succeeded by his Vice-President: Lyndon Johnson

43. President F.D.Roosevelt was succeeded by his Vice President: H.S.Trumman
44. The Commander-in-Chief of the American revolutionary army was George
Washington
45. The number of subjects upon which the US constitution has vest power over the
federal government are 18
46. Approval or ratification of federating States in order to make amendments in the US
constitution is not required: False
47. The American constitution is the most Rigid constitution of the world: True
(3) The term of US House of Representative is: ( 2years
 [14]

(4) Gerald Ford was US President by: (c) Succession

(5) The quorum of the House of Commons is: (a) 40 members
(6) The Labour Party was founded in Britain in: (a)1900
(9) Indian Parliament is: (a) Unicameral (b) Bicameral
(10) The USSR was dissolved in: 1991
(11) Perestroika was introduced in SU by: Gorbachev
(13) The number of abrogated constitutions in Pakistan is: Two
14) The Eighth Amendment in the Constitution of Pakistan: Made the President at par with
President.
15). The Fifth Republic was enforced in France in: 1958
(16) The Bolshevik Revolution took place in: 1917

ENGLISH PORTION
1-Plaint is? The statement that represents the claim is set out
2-who is decree holder? The person whom the degree is passed
3- Aahal mad? Keep records
4- Summons mean? A notice issued for witness to appear in court
5- Corpus mean? The body of law
6-An incomplete, undetermined state of affairs. Abatement
7- An act in which things are extinguished? Abolition
8- Alter formally by notification, deletion? Amend
10- Proceedings in civil court. Action
11-written amendment, addition to an existing will. Codicil
12-To leave property in the custody of another? Consign
13-Formal written direction by a judge? Order
14-person who makes a payment is? Payor
 [15]

14-Forever of unlimited duration. Perpetuity

15-Person who accepts the proposal is? Promisee
1-It is evident from the minister’s statement that heads will roll.
People will die Transfers will take place Dismissals will occur
2. When I saw him in the morning, he looked like a duck in a thunderstorm:

Entrapped Indomitable Peaceful Distressed

3. She exhibited remarkable sang frond during the crisis

Composure Imitation Temperature Anger
4. He burnt his fingers by interfering in his neighbor’s affairs
Got rebuked Got himself into trouble Got himself insulted Burnt himself
5. He is not worth his salt if he fails at this juncture Quite worthless
6. Believe me, I am all at sea: Puzzled
7. The cooperation and esprit de corps between the soldiers and the officers was directly
responsible for their victory. Unity
8. The company has been handed over to new masters, lock, stock and barrel.
Partially Financially Administratively Completely
9. Mr. Rmzan who is one of the trustees of a big charity is suspected of feathering his own nest.
Making money unfairly being lazy in doing his work being too generous
10. All the political parties are tarred with the same brush
Possess the same defects Profess, the same policies Have the same merits
11. For the first week, the apprentice felt like a fish out of water Homeless
12. Our school is within a stone’s throw of the railway station
Very far off within a definite circumference At a short distance
13. Mrs. Hashmi has been in the blues for the last several weeks
Abroad Penniless Unwell Depressed
14. It is out of the question for only one to have a quiet meal with a set of ultras around him.
Indecent Unthinkable Unbecoming Impossible
15. The study of insects was a fascinating pursuit for him.
Entomology Anthropology Zoology Etymology
16. His friends failed to see why he should ride the high just because he had won an election
 [16]

Hate others Indulge in dreams Appear arrogant Become abnormal

17. I saw him make a wear face Feel sick Show disappointment Abuse Cry with pain
18. The General Manager of this industry is a host in himself Capable of doing as much as a
number of ordinary persons Very hospitable
19. Almost everybody has an eye on the main chance
Looks after his own welfare looks for better prospects Waits for the appropriate time
20. Let us admit that we could not heap coals of fire on his head put him to shame

Islamic Jurisprudence
1. Amam Abu Hanifa was born in Egypt. No
2. There are two kinds of evidence in Islamic Law. No
3. A Qazi can decide the case on the basis of his personal knowledge. No
4. According to Islamic Jurisprudence there are five kinds of murder. No
5. The third source of Islamic Jurisprudence is Qiyas. No
6. Imam Bukhari was born in 194 A.H. in Bukhara. Yes
7. A competent witness must be adult and sane person. Yes
8. Tazir means the punishment ordained in Quran. No
9. According to Hadith a false testimony is equal to ‘Shirk’ with Allah Almighty. No
10. A woman alone is a competent witness for murder. No
11. Hadd is a form of punishment. Yes
12. Imam Shafi was born in Syria. No
13. Imam Ahmad Ibn Hanbal was born at Baghdad in 164 A.H. Yes
14. Mandub means commendable. Yes
15. Dhimmi means a non-Muslim subject of a Muslim State. Yes
16. Hiba bil Iwad means a gift on condition of an exchange. No
17. Iqala means cancellation of consent. Yes
18. Fatawa Alamgiri was complied by Emperor Aurangzeb during his region. Yes
19. Qisas means retaliation. Yes
20. Ralaq-i-Tafweez means delegated divorce. Yes
21. The pre-Islamic Arabs used to swear by Humbul their chief. Yes
22. In the time of the Prophet (PBUH) female infanticide was not prevalent. Yes
23. Sale of dates on tree inconsideration for plucked dates was called Muhaqal. No
 [17]

24. The legislative period of Islam commenced with the Hijrat of the Prophet (PBUH)
i.e. (AD 632). Yes
25. Abu Hanifa is called the ‘upholder of private judgment’. Yes
26. Raja is the kind of talaq which separates. Yes
27. An heir or successor by contract is called dhaui’ Larham. No
28. When certain primary public rights are violated the wrong is called uquoat. No
29. The office of Imam is elective and is based on Ijma.No
30. A gift of an undivided share is called Bai-ul-wafa. No
31. The interest of wife in deferred dower is a contingent one. No\
32. Wife is entitled to lodging in the husband’s house during iddat. Yes
33. A widow is not entitled to maintainence during iddat.Yes
34. A hiba-bil-iwaz is not revocable.Yes
35. A contingent gift is valid in Muhammadan Law. Yes
36. Malik Ibn Anas was actually a traditionalist. No
37. Areeat is the grant of license to take and enjoy the usufruct of a thing. No
38. Istihsan literally means a collection of rules or principles by the method of
analogy.Yes
39. Development of Muslim Law falls into three historic period. No
40. Evidence of Five witnesses is necessary in the offence of adultery. No
41. Cyprus is the mortgaging of property. No
42. Wakf of Musha for a Mosque is valid. No
43. Do the Sunni Muslims belong principally to the Hanfi School? Yes
44. Al-Quran is the primary source of Islamic Law.Yes
45. The estate of the decesead person devolves on his heirs at the moment of his
death. Yes
46. A life estate can be created by “Wakf” under the Islamic Law. Yes
47. “True Grandfather” means a male ancestor between whom and the deceased of
a female intervenes. Yes
48. Hiba-bil-Ewaz is a sale in reality.Yes
49. A gift made by a Muslim during Marzul-Maut takes full effect. Yes
50. The father has a right to custody of a minor son aged five years. No
 [18]

51. A property which does not exist may be disposed off by a will. No
52. A death-bed gift is essentially a gift. No
53. A wakf may be inter vivos. Yes
54. Delivery of possession is not necessary for a gift. No
55. There is limit on the donor’s power to make gift. No
56. There are five kinds of Hiba under Muslim law. No
57. Sadaquah cannot be revoked.B]Yes
58. The father is bound to maintain daughter until she is married. Yes
59. Ahya-ul-Aloom was written in Arabic. B]Yes
60. Mahr muajjal is payable on death of divorce. Yes
61. Istidlal and IJTEHAD are one and the same thing. No
62. Islam recognizes / maintains all the customs of the Arabs as good law. No
63. Injunctions (Ahkams) in Islam are divided in TWO categories. Yes
64. Marriage with 5th wife when 4 are already there, is void. No
65. Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act 1939, confers upon a Muslim wife the right to
divorce her husband by judicial decree if the husband has neglected or failed to
provide her maintenance for a period of 2 years. Yes
66. A de facto guardian has the power or authority to alienate the immovable
property of the minor. No
67. A de facto guardian can refer any dispute regarding the immovable property of
the minor to any arbitration. Yes
68. The guardian of the person of the minor or the custody of the minor, is guardian
for all purposes. Yes
69. Main sources of Revenue of an Islamic state are five. Yes
70. A bequest to a person born 2 years after the testator’s death is valid. No
71. ) The first act of the Abbasids was to remove the seat of caliphate to
Damascus. Yes
72. ‘Talwih’ was written by Taftazani. Yes
73. A verse in the Holy Quran runs “difference of opinion among the people is the
grace of god”. Yes
 [19]

74. A shia female contracting marriage with a sunni becomes subject to the sunni
law. Yes
75. The most authoritative text book of the shia Law is Taudib. No
76. According to Malki’s a woman may be a qadi. No
77. The succession act was promulgated in 1925. Yes
78. Sadqa once completed by delivery is revocable. Yes
79. Writing is essential to the Validity of a gift. No
80. When the question whether a muslim is alive or dead, and it is proved that he
has not been heard for ten years. No
81. Who founded the ‘Kufa School’? Imam Abu Hanifa
82. Through a gift a Muslim can transfer his/her: 1/3rd of property
83. A plurality of husbands is called: Polyandry
84. A man is prohibited to marry his daughter on the ground of: Consanguinity

1. A widow is entitled to maintenance: (a) For one year (b) For two years (c) During
the period of Idda (d) None of these
1. A divorce by Zihar means? (a) Apostasy from Islam by a husband (b) False
accusation of adultery by husband (c) An agreement between husband and wife
to dissolve marriage (d) None of these
2. According to Pakistani law, a child is legitimate if born: Within 280 days of the
termination of marriage
3. A Muslim wife can unilaterally exercise the right of Talaq: By Tafweez
4. The dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act was enacted in? 1939
5. What is marriageable age for a male Muslim under the Pakistani Law: 18 years
6. Law governing Muslim Succession was enacted in:
(a) 1929 (b) 1961 (c) 1979 (d) None of these
7. A Muslim man dies leaving behind two widows and a daughter. The collective
share of the widows would be? ½
8. A Muslim can bequeath 1/3rd of his property to his heirs: Without the consent
of other heirs
 [20]

9. The primary sources of Islamic Law are: Two

10. Amongst the first four Caliphs, whose period of Caliphate was the longest:
(a) Hazrat Abu Bakr (R.A) (b) Hazrat Osman (R.A) (c) Hazrat Ali (R.A) (d) None
of these
11. The famous Jurist Al-qama was the pupil of: Imam Abu Hanifa
12. Ijma means: Consensus of opinion
13. Who was appointed as Qadi by Hazrat Abu Bakr (R.A)? Hazrat Ali (R.A)
14. Imam Ash-Shafi was the pupil of: Imam Abu Hanifa
15. Janayat deals with: (a) Crime (b) Torts (c) Sale (d) None of these
16. Mutawali, in a wakf may be appointed by: (a) Founder (b) Executor (c)
Both (a) & (b)
17. The leading authority on the subject of will is the: Fatawa Alamgiri
18. Who is the author of ‘Taudih’: Sadrushariat
19. The most controversial provision regarding succession in the Family Laws
Ordinance, 1961 is section: 4
20. Wakf of shares on joint stock companies is: Valid
21. A power is given to a legatee to appoint a successor under Islamic law is: Valid
22. The shia’s are divided into main subsects: Three
23. The child marriage restraint Act was Passed in: 1929
24. A child is illegitimate if born within less than 6 months
25. Estate of a deceased devolves on: Executors
26. (1) Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act was promulgated in ? 1962
27. The ________________ Property of a Muslim is heritable:
(a) Ancestral (b)Self Acquired (C) Both(a) and(b) .
28. A male ancestor between whom and deceased no female intervenes is called:
Grand Father
29. A will may b made: (a) Verbally (b) In writing (c) Both(a) AND
30. The thing bequethed must exist at the time of (b)Testator's Death
31. Gift exceeding 1/3rd of the property of donor is: Void
32. Different schools of Islamic Law denote: Systems of Interpretation.
33. Tafweez is a kind of (a) Gift (b) Will (c) Wakf (d)None of these.
 [21]

34. A gift may b revoked:?Before delivery of possession .

35. A mutawalli can only b appointed by : (a) Founder of wakf (b) Executor (c) Both
(a) and (b)
36. Law of Pre-emption concerns exclusively with: (a) Muamelat (b) Ibadat (c)
Tableegh-e-Rasalat (d) None of these
37. Literally, demand of jumping is termed as: (a) Talab-e-Ishhad (b) Talab-e-
Kasoomat (c) Talab-e-Zaroorat (d) None of these
38. Right to maintenance of wife is? Absolute
39. A marriage contracted without witnesses is: Irregular
40. Option of puberty can be exercised till the age of: (A) 21 years (b) 20 years (c)
19 years (d) None of these
41. Dower may b fixed:(a) At the time of marriage (b) After marriage (c) Both
42. Apostasy from Islam by husband operations as dissolution of marraige:
Immediately
43. Acknowledgement of legitimacy once made is: Irrevocable
44. A brother, if not appointed by court may act as a De facto Guardian
45. Alienation of immovable property by de facto guardian is ? void
46. According to Hanafi Law a gift of an undivided share (MUSHA) in a thing
capable of division is: a. Valid b. Void c. None of these
47. A gift made to a non mulism by Muslim is : Void
48. A’ makes a gift of his house to B to take effect on B’s marrying C the gift is: Void
49. A, a Muslim, makes a gift of a motor car to his sister-in-law and gives
possession of the car to her. Thereafter ‘A’ revokes the gift. The revocation is:
Void
50. In Islamic Law a waqf fo 20 years is: Void
51. “A” Hanafi Muslim executes a deed of waqf by which he deserves the whole legal
and beneficial interest to himself during the life time. Is the waqf: Void
52. Under Islamic Law: 3 kinds
53. A bequest to a child in the womb is valid if it is born within
a. 3 months of the date of will b. 4 months c. None of these
54. Under the Islamic Law Talaq is of 3 kinds
 [22]

55. Under Islamic Law, Extra- Judicial, Remedies of torts are 2 kinds
56. A bequest to an heir to the extent of legal third without the consent of other heirs
is:. Valid
57. bequest to a person who causes the death of testator intentionally is under
Sunni Law:
58. Bequest to a non-heir to the extent of one third without consent of other heirs is:
Valid
59. A wakf means? Dedication
60. A gift to take effect in future is:Void
61. Hiba-ba-Shart-ul-iwaz is a kind of: Gift
62. Paternity of a child is established if child is born after dissolution within: 280 days
63. Gift to an unborn person: Void
64. Who is the author of ‘Ahya-yl-Aloom’: Amam Ghazali
65. Hirzanat means: Guardianship of person of minor
66. Muqayada is: Sale of goods for goods
67. Mubaqala means: Sale of Wheat in ears or of a foetus in the womb
68. Ibadat are: Acts of devotion pure and simple
69. Ghasib (Usurper) Who takes or keeps the thing without permission of the
owner
70. Treaty is: An agreement between the partners of a firm
71. Will means: Testamentary disposal of testor’s property to take effect after
his death
72. Dower means: Amount of money agreed to be paid by the bridegroom to
the bride as a consideration of the marriage contract
73. Qazi means: Judge appointed by the State to perform judicial duties
74. A marriage with woman in Iddat is: Irregular
75. Representation-Principle of: Rule of Inheritance under the Islamic Law
76. Aqd means. Contract
77. Jabr means: a. Friendship b. Guardianship of marriage c. Relative d. None
78. Iddat is for: Purity
79. Obligatory means: a. Permissible b. recommended c. Abominable d. None
 [23]

80. The equivalent of Law in Islamic Legal system Ijtilhad

81. Istilhsan means: a. Preference of stronger evidence over analogy
b. Preference over Ijtihad c. Preference over poor evidence d. None of these
82. Kitab-al-Kharaj is written by: a. Abu Ibrahim b. Abu Zaid c. Abu Yousaf d. None
83. Imam Abu Hanifa was born in 80 A.H.
84. Taqlid means: To follow a school of law
85. Wakf for Limited period is: Voidable
86. Sale of money for money is called: Bai
87. Al-qama and Aswad were the pupils of:
88. Ibn Abbas b. Ibn Umar c. Ibn Masud e. None of these
89. Imam Muhammad and Imam Abu Yusaf were the disciples of: Imam Abu
Hanifa Iddat in case of death of husband is: 4 months 10 days
90. A woman is disqualified for the office of Qadi according to: Hanifis b. Malikis c.
Shafi’is d. None of these
91. According to Imam Abu Hanifa a Qadi should not be allowed to hold office for
more than: a. Three years b. Two years c. One year d. Five years e. None
92. “Tafsir-i-Ahmadi” was written by: a. Fakhrud-din-Razi b. Mulla Ji’Wan c. Baidawi
d. Ghazzali e. None of these
93. ‘Fatawa Alamgiri’ was compiled in the: a. Tenth century of the Hijra b. Fifteenth
century of the Hijra c. Eleventh century of the Hijra d. None of these
94. Mutual imprecation is called: Mubarra
95. Al-Hedayah was written by: a. Imam Malik b. Abu Hanifa c. Ibn Rushd d. Ibn
Tufail e. None of these
96. Imam Sarakhsi was the author of: a. Al-Hawi b. Al-Mabsut c. Al-Muhit d. Al-Kafi
e. None of these Aqilah means: Tribe or regiment
97. Isolated tradition is called: Ahad
98. Mutual Imprecation is called: Mubarra

100. The maximum period of gestation according to Imam Malik: 2 lunar years

101.Proper dower is called: Mahr-ul-Mithl

102. Tahkim means: Arbitration

 [24]

103.Imam Muhammad and Imam Abu Yusuf were the disciples of: Imam Abu hanifa

1. Sale of goods for goods is?a) Muraba b,Muqayada c) Musawama (d) None of these

2. The four schools of thought were founded during the reign of: Abbasids

3. Book by Imam Bukhari contains about __7000____ authentic traditions:

4. Status of a Mufti used to be that of a: Legislator

5. Analogy is rule of ______: Deduction
6. Atonement for the non-discharge of an obligation is ______:) Kafarat
7. Revelation is the __ Primary ____ source of Islmaic law:

8. There are ______ Sunni Schools of law: (a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) None of these

9. A woman is disqualified for the office of a Qadi according to ______ :

(a) Shafi’s (b) Hanafis (c) Malikis (d) None of these

10. The application of Muhammadan Law to non-muslims is entirely______ :

(a) Personal (b) Customary (c) Arbitrary (d) None of these

11. Shariat Application Act 1962 deals with ______ : Personal Law12. Each heir is
liable to the debts of a deceased ______ : Not beyond 1/3

13. Which of these properties is not heritable: Self acquired

14. Deceased survived by son’s son and a daughter. Daughter will get______ : 1/4

15. A minor of sound mind is capable of disposing of his property by will to the extent of:
(a) 1/3 (b) Full (c) ¾ (d) None of these

16. A gift of unborn person is ______ : Void

17. Talab-e-Mowasbat is made ______ : Before sale
18. A marriage with a woman before completion of her Iddat is ______ : Irregular
19. Legitimacy may be presumed from? (a) Presumptive marriage (b) Custom (c)
School certificate (d) None of these
 [25]

20. Failing the mother, the custody of a boy under the age of seven years belongs to:)
Paternal uncle

(1)Who established a prison-house for malefactors? Hazrat Abu Dakar (R A.)

(2)Who wrote the first book on science of law or usul: Imam Shafi’i
(3)Sale of dates on a tree in consideration for plucked dates is: Muzabana
(4) A woman may be a Qadi according to: Hanafis
(5) Plurality of wives is called: Polygamy
(7)The Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act was enacted in: (a) 1949 (b) 1939 (c) 1959
(d) None of these

(8)Who was appointed as first Qadi by Hazrat Abu Bakar (R.A.)? Hazrat Umar (R.A.)
(9)Who is the author of ‘Taudeh’: (a) Taftazani (b) SadruShariat (c) Ahmed Ibne-Qasim
(d) None of these

(10)A void bequest is: (a) Contingent bequest

(11)Maa’ si’ at deals with: Crime
(12) Under Islamic Law a child is legitimate if born after the dissolution of marriage and
wife remaining unmarried: Within 280 days of the termination of marriage
(13) The limit of testamentary power by Muslim is: 1/3
(14) A divorce by ILa means: (a) False accusation of adultery by husband (b) Apostasy
from Islam by husband (c) An agreement between husband and wife to dissolve
marriage (d) None of these

(15) At the time when Islamic Law came into force the kinds of marriages were in
vogue: 4
(16) Sadqa once completed by delivery is: Not revocable
(17) Ijtihad means: (a) Consensus of opinion (b) A gathering of Mujtahids (c) Law-
making (d) None of these

(18) Abu Yusuf, Muhammad and Zufar were the pupils of: Imam Abu Hanifa
(19) A collection of traditions known as ‘Musnadu’l Imam Hambal consists of traditions:
40,000
(20) The provision regarding polygamy under the Muslim Family Laws Ordinance is
 [26]

contained in Section: 6

i. Al-Risalah is name of the book authored by

a. Imam Malik b. Imam Ahmad c. Imam Bukhari d. None of these

ii. Mubarat mean. When husband and wife decide to get divorced

iii. The Federal Shariat Court declared in _ Allah Rakha Case _ that some provisions of
the Muslim Family Law Ordinance 1961 were repugnant to the Islamic injunctions.
iv. Easements are known in Islamic law as Huquq al-Irtifaq
v. The suit for pre-emption shall fail if Three different kinds of demands are not made:
vi. Shuroot in’iqad in marriage are those ?a. Which if not found, the contract will not
enforced. b. Which if not found, the contract will be irregular? c. Which if not found, the
contract will not be binding? d. None of these

vii. Zahir al-Riwayah are six books authored b . Imam Shaybani

viii. Divorce pronounced in death-illness is Invalid

ix. Legal capacity (ahliyya) in Islamic law is divided into Ahliyya al-wujoob and ahliyya
al-ada
x. Can the husband revoke the delegation of the right of divorce? No
xi. Istishab denotes The presumption of continuity
xii. `Aasaba are those whose share is not fixed and will get whatever is left.
xiii. Imam Malik bin Anas belongs to Ahl al-Ra’i
xiv. Maslaha Mursala refers to? a. A Maslaha which is neither recognized nor rejected
by Shariah b. A Maslaha which is not recognized by Shariah but which must be adopted
for its utility for Muslims c. A Maslaha which is proved by a Hadith i Mursal d. None of
these

xv. In case of divorce before consummation of marriage Half dower must be paid, if
dower was fixed..
 [27]

xvi. Bay’ al-Salam is Money for fruits but money must be paid prior to delivery
xvii. Talaqqi al-Rukban denotes?a. Divorces during travel. b. Divorce while the wife is
pregnant. c. Divorce when the agent of the husband pronounces it on his behalf. d.
None of these.

xviii. Consideration in Khula’ means Any property paid to the husband

xix. Faskh in the Hanafi School is available only on three grounds..

xx. Imam Abu Hanifah was student of Imam Hammad

Civil Procedure Civil Law I. CPC II. Laws of Contract/limitation/torts/specific relief III.
Maxims Equity

Civil Procedure on finger tips

0) framing of issues Order 14
0) Plaint Description Order 7
1) To delete/Add parties ORDER 1 RULE 10.
2) Amendment of Suit to add defendants ORDER 1 RULE 10(4)
3) Substitute service ORDER 5 RULE 20
4) Amendment of pleadings ORDER 6 RULE 17
5) Additional W.S (Rejoinder) ORDER 8 RULE 9
6) Setting aside ex-parte order 9RULE 7
7) Restoration ORDER 9 RULE 9
8) Set aside ex-parte decree ORDER 9 RULE 13
9) To order production of documents ORDER 11 RULE 14
11) Inspection of documents ORDER 11 RULE 15
12) To produce documents ORDER12 RULE 8
13) Production of documents ORDER 7 RULE 14(3)
14) To return unmarked documents ORDER 13 RULE 7(2)
15) To return marked Documents 13 RULE 9
16) Adjournment 17 RULE 1
 [28]

17) Recalling witness 18 RULE 17

18) To grant installments after decree passed ORDER 20 RULE 11(2)
19) Stay of execution ORDER 21 RULE 26
20) Delivery of immovable property ORDER 21 RULE 35
21) To break open door ORDER 21 RULE 35(3)
22) Attachments of movables of JDRs ORDER 21RULE 43
23) Attachments of Pay orders of JDRs ORDER 21RULE 45(1)
24) Attachment of salary of JDRs ORDER 21 RULE 48
25) Attachment of Immovable property of JDRs ORDER 21 RULE 54
26) Sale of attached property ORDER 21 RULE 64
27) Adjournment/stoppage of sale ORDER 21RULE 69
28) Delivery of movable property ORDER 21 RULE 9
29) To bring L.Rs on record in case of death of Plaintiff ORDER 22 RULE 3
30) To bring L.Rs on record in case of death of Defendant ORDER 22RULE 4
31) For Compromise ORDER 23 RULE 3
32) Appointment of commissioner to examine witness ORDER 26 RULE 1
33) Appointment of commissioner to make local investigation ORDER 26RULE 9
34) Appointment of commissioner to examine adjust A/Cs ORDER 26 RULE 11
35) Appointment of commissioner to make partition of immovable property ORDER26 RULE 13
36) Disclose partners names ORDER 30RULE 2
37) Appointment of guardian for minors ORDER 33RULE 1
38) Removal of guardian ORDER 32 RULE 9
39) To declare as major ORDER 32 RULE 12
40) Appointment of guardian to unsound person ORDER 32 RULE 15
41) Attachment before judgment ORDER 38 RULE 5
42) Appointment of receiver ORDER 40RULE 1
43) Regular appeal ORDER 41 RULE 1
44) Stay of execution of decree in appeal ORDER 41 RULE 5(1)
45) Restore of appeal dismissed for default ORDER 41 RULE 19
 [29]

46) Production of additional evidence in appeal ORDER 41 RULE 27

47) Second appeal ORDER 42 RULE 1 (SEC 100 CPC)
48) Review of Judgment ORDER 47 RULE 1 (114 CPC)
49) Advancement RULE 109(2)
50) Third party for C.Cs RULE188 (2)
51) Amendment of Judgments/decrees/orders ORDER Sec.152
52) To summon (Handover summons) for evidence ORDER 16 RULE 7(4)

CPC II . Laws of Contract

The Code of law which deals with Courts of Civil Judicature is called Code of Civil Procedure

The Code of Civil Procedure was enacted on21st March, 1908 (enforced on1st January, 1909)

The Code of Civil Procedure, contains___158__ sections

The Code of Civil Procedure has, __ XI ___ parts

Code of Civil Procedure consists__ 52___ Orders

A decree is an operative part of a__ Judgment ___ in civil suits for appeals

Decree _____ conclusively determines rights of the parties

Section 2, of C.P.C deals with Definitions

The term "Decree" is defined in section 2

1. All agreements are contracts if they are made by the ------- Of the parties competent to
contract Free consent
1. A sues B on a bill of exchange for Rs.500, B holds a judgment against A for Rs.1000. The two
claims being both definite pecuniary demands may be set off. The illustration is given in
Order VIII, R. 6, of C.P.C
2. As per O. VIII, R. 10, of C.P.C. Where any party from whom a written statement is so required
fails to produce the same with in fixed time before the Court
A. the Court may pronounce judgment against it B.Make any other order regarding the suit
both (a) and (b)
3. O. VIII, Rule 13, of C.P.C. deals with? List of legal representatives of defendants
4. O. IX, of C.P.C. contains__14___ Rules
 [30]

5. O. IX, of C.P.C deals with? A. Appearance of the parties B.Consequences of non appearance
of the parties Both (a) and (b)
6. As per O. IX, Rule 2, of C.P.C. where summons not served in consequence of plaintiff failure
to pay cost, the Court? May dismissed the suit
7. Where neither plaintiff nor defendant appear on fixed day of hearing the fate of the suit shall
be? Dismissed as provided in O. IX, R. 3, of C.P.C.
8. Under O. IX, Rule 5, of C.P.C. empowers the Court to dismiss the suit when summons are
unserved and plaintiff failed to apply for fresh summons? For a period of 3 months
9. When plaintiff appeared defendant does not appeared and summons are duly served the
Court may proceed ex-parte against defendant as provided by? O. IX, Rule 6, of C.P.C.
10. Ex parte order can be passed in favor of? Plaintiff
11. For setting aside ex parte order affected party needs to file? An application
12. O. IX, Rule 13, of C.P.C. deals with? Setting aside ex-parte decree against defendants
13. As per O. IX, Rule 14, of C.P.C. no decree to be set aside upon application without notice to?
Opposite party
14. O. IX-A of C.P.C. deals with? Intermediate dates after submission of application
15. Order X of C.P.C. deals with? Examination of parties by the Court
16. Order X of C.P.C. have__4___ Rules
17. At the first hearing of the suit the Court will conduct oral examination of the party or his
companion as provided in? O. X, Rule 2, of C.P.C
18. When a judge examine any party under O. X of C.P.C. he shall? Reduce such examination
into writing
19. Order XI, of C.P.C. contains__23___ Rules
20. Or. XI, of C.P.C. deals with? Discovery and inspection
21.Under O. XI, Rule 1, of C.P.C. any party of the suit can Deliver interrogatories for the
examination of the opposite party
22. The interrogatories made by any party under O. Xi, Rule 1, of C.P.C. for discovery Must be in
written form
23. A party can make interrogatories from opposite party by Filing application for permission
to do so
 [31]

24. Or. XI, Rule 7, of C.P.C. empowers Court? To set aside and strike out interrogatories if they
do not fulfill requirement of law
25. The answering party shall answer the interrogatories through affidavit as provided in? O. XI,
Rule 8, of C.P.C.
26. O. XI, Rule 13, of C.P.C. provided submission of? Affidavit of documents
27. An affidavit in answer to interrogatories shall be in Form No. __3__ in Appendix C with such
variations as circumstances may require
28. Order XII, of C.P.C. is about? Admissions
29. Order XII, of C.P.C. contains? 9 Rules
30. As per O, XII, R. 1 any party to a suit may give notice by his pleadings or otherwise in

1writing that he admits the truth of the whole or any portion of the case of? Opposite party
2. The-------- coercion ------- is physical pressure applied by any of the contracting parties
3. ------ Consideration ------is the performance of the contract
4. A proposal wen accepted becomes a --------- Promise
5. When the proposal is clearly made in words spoken or written is called? Express offer
6. An agreement between the parties upon the determination of an uncertain event is called--
contingent
7. In case of death of the promisor before the performance the liability of performance fall on--
Legal Representative
8. when each party of contract full fils the obligation of a contract it is called Actual performance
9. Of contract mean replacement of an existing contract by another contract? Novation
10. Contract of indemmity is general class of----------a. contingent b. wagering c. qasai
11. A person wlio less is to be made, is called--------- a. Indemnified b. Indemnifier
12. A person who gives the guarantee is called------- a. Surety b. guarantee c. Warrantee
13. A guarantee which extends to a series of trailered guarantee a. continuing b. General
14. The person who delivers the goods, is called---- a. bailor b. Bailee
15. The bailment of goods are security for payment of debts ‘on performance of a promise,
is called------ a. Pledge b. Guarantee
 [32]

16. -------------- means wrongful act a Fraud

17. Quality of goods include their state are--------- a. Price B. Condition c. Ownership

18. Where the delivery is physically rendered over, the delivery is called? a. Actual delivery b. Symbolic
delivery

20. Main purpose of the contract----------------? a. condition b.warantee

21. Proposal when accepted become---------? Promise b agreement

22. A proposal can be revoked----- a. By leaps of time b. a specific time

23. An agreement to agree in future is--------- a. illegal b. invalid

24. A term caveat emptor used for------- Buyer

25. The word lien means to---------goods retain

26. If goods, which are being sold, are delivered to buyer, such delivery is called actual buyer

27. The bailment of goods as security for payment of performance of a promise is called Pledge

CPC limitation, Specific Relief Tort,

1. The Limitation Act, 1908 was enacted on 7th August, 1908
2. The Limitation Act, 1908 was enforced on First day of January, 1909
3. The Limitation Act, of 1908 contains__32__sections
4. The Limitation Act of 1908 dontains___1__ Schedule
5. The Law of Limitation is not applicable to Inheritance matters
6. Definitions are provided in section__2__ of limitation Act, of 1908
7. A suit filed, appeal preferred and application made after period of limitation Would be dismissed
8. As per section 4, of The Limitation Act of 1908 where the period of limitation prescribed for any suit,
appeal or application expires on a day when the Court is closed? The suit, appeal or application may be
instituted preferred on the day when Court re-opens
9. Section 5 of Limitation Act provides Extension of limitation period in certain cases
10. Legal disability is provided in section__6___ of the Limitation Act, 1908
11. Where a person entitled to institute a suit or proceeding or make an application for the execution of
a decree is, at the time from which the period of the limitation is to be reckoned, he can institute suit,
make application or other proceeding after getting rid from
A.Insaneness B.Minority C Idiotness D.All of above
 [33]

12. The right to sue for the hire of boat accurse to A during his minority. He attains majority four
years after such accrual. He may institute his suit at any time within Five years from the date of his
attaining majority
13. A right to sue accurse to X during his minority, X dies before attaining the majority and is succeeded
by Y, his minor son. Time runs against Y from the date of His attaining majority
14. A person passes through legal disability can file suit, make application Out of limitation period
15. Section 8 of the Limitation Act deal with Special exception
16. As per section 9 of the Limitation Act, 1908 where once time has begun to run, No
subsequent disability or inability sue to can stop it
17. Sec-10 of the Limitation Act, 1908 deals with suits against express trustees and their representatives
18. Section 11 of the Limitation Act, 1908 deals with suits? Foreign Contracts
19. As per section 12, of the Limitation Act, in computing the period of limitation prescribed for any suit,
appeal or application the day from which such period is reckoned? Shall be excluded
20. In computing the period of limitation prescribed for any suit the time during which the defendant
has been absent from Pakistan and from the territories beyond Pakistan under the Administration of the
Central Government shall be? Exclude
21. Section __14___ of the Limitation Act, 1908 deals with exclusion of time of proceeding bona fide in
Court without jurisdiction
22. Articles__12_ to___25_ of the Limitation Act, 1908 deals with computation of period of limitation
23. In the case of a suit for compensation for an act, which does not give rise to cause of action unless
some specific injury actually result therefrom. The period of limitation shall be computed
From the time when the injury results
24. The time limit for right of easement is? Twenty years
25. The time limitation for filing suit for specific performance of a contract is_3 years
26. The time limitation for filing suit for breach of contract is? Three years from the time when the
contract broken
27. Time limitation for filing suit for compensation for false imprisonment is? One year
28. Time limitation for appeal under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1898 from a sentence of death
passed by the Court of Session or by a High Court in its original jurisdiction is? Seven days
29. Time limitation for appeal from a decree or order of High Court in its jurisdiction isTwenty days
30. Time limitation for appeal against decree or order of Civil Judge before Court of District Judge
is______Thirty days from the date of decree or order
 [34]

31. Time limitation for appeal against any order of criminal Court to Court of Session is? Thirty days,
from the date of order
32. Under Criminal Procedure Code, 1898 from an order of acquittal time limitation of appeal is? Six
months, from the date of order
33. Time limitation for filing application under Arbitration Act, 1940 to set aside an award or to get an
award remitted for reconsideration is? Thirty days, from the date of service of filing the award
34. The time limitation for leave to defend a suit under Order XXXVII, of C.P.C? Ten days, when the
summons are served
35. Time limitation for restoration of review petition due to absence of petitioner is? Fifteen days, from
the date when the application for review is rejected
36. Time limitation for the review of a judgment by a High Court in the exercise of its original jurisdiction
is? Twenty days, from the date of decree or order
37. Time limitation for revision under section 115, of C.P.C is? Ninety days, from the date of decision
sought to be revised
38. The time limitation for a defendant to give application to set aside ex-part decree is? A.Thirty days
from the date of decree B.Thirty days from knowledge of applicant about the decree .Both a,b)
39. Time limitation under C.P.C by a person disposed of immovable property and disputing the right of
decree holder or purchaser at a sale in execution of a decree to be put into execution is? Thirty days,
from the date of dispossession
40. Time limitation under C.P.C to set aside a sale in execution of a decree including any such application
by a judgment debtor is? Thirty days, from the date of sale
41. Time limitation for complaining of resistance or obstruction to delivery of possession of immovable
property decreed or sold in execution of a decree is? Thirty days, from the date of resistance
42. Time limitation for filling an application for re-admission of appeal dismissed for want of prosecution
is? Thirty days, from the date of dismissal
43. Time limitation for filing appeal leave as pauper is? Thirty days, from the date of the decree
appealed from
44. Time limitation for review of cases of judgment except in the cases provided in Article 161 and 162
of Limitation Act is? Ninety days
44. Time limitation for the payment of the amount of a decree by instalments is? Six months, from the
date of decree
 [35]

45. Time limitation for filing appeal under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 to the Supreme Court for
leave to appeal is? Ninety days, from the date of decree appealed from
49. Time limitation for filing application to became as legal representative due to death of plaintiff or
appellant is? Ninety days, from the date of death of deceased plaintiff or appellant
50. Time limitation for filing application to became legal representative due to death of defendant or
respondent is? Ninety days, from the death of defendant or respondent

1. The Specific Relief Act of 1877 was enacted on? 7th February, 1877
2. The Specific Relief Act, was enforced on? 1st May 1877
3. The Specific Relief Act contain__57___, sections
5. The Specific Relief Act is__ Specific__ kind of law
6. As per section 3, of Specific Relief Act every duty enforceable by law is called? Obligation
7. Any instrument (other than a will or codicil as defined by the Indian Succession Act) whereby the
destination or devolution of successive interest in movable and immovable property is disposed of or is
agreed to be disposed of is called? Settlement
8. Relief cannot be granted for agreements which are? Not enforceable by law
9. Section___5___, of the Specific Relief Act provide ways of relief granting
10. As per section 5, of The Specific Relief Act provides 5 ways through which relief can be given
11. Section _8_of the Specific Relief Act deals with cases of possession of immovable property
12. As per section 7, of the Specific Relief Act, specific relief cannot be granted for the mere purpose of
enforcing a_ Penal ___ law
13. When a person is dispossessed from immovable property without his consent he can file suit under
section___9___, of the Specific Relief Act
14. A person entitled to the possession of specific movable property may recover the same in the
manner prescribed by the? The Code of Civil Procedure
15. A, a warehouse-keeper, is charged with the delivery of certain goods to Z, which B takes out the
possession, A may? Sue B for the goods
16. The contract which may be specifically enforced are dealt by__12___, to___25__, of the Specific
Relief Act,
17. A holds certain stock in trust for B.A wrongfully disposes of the stock. The law creates an obligation
on A to restore the same and if A fails B can? File a suit against A for specific performance of contract
18. Specific performance of a Contract can be sought upon
A. Written agreements B. Oral agreement C. Both (a) and (b)
19. The Courts grant decree for specific performance in their? Discretionary power
20. Section 23, of the Specific Relief Act deals with?The persons who may obtain specific performance
of a contract

1. Which one of the following interests are not protected by the law of tort? Physical safety
2. What the Injuries Board is… a body that assesses personal injury claims
 [36]

3. What is meant by the term ‘actionable per se’? Actionable without proof of damage
3. Law of the contract is different from the law of tort in which way…? It generally concerns a
relationship between two parties only
4. Which one is the primary function of the law of tort..? Compensating the claimant
5. Which the Article 8 of the European Convention on Human Rights protects which right…? The right to
respect for private and family life
6. What are the remedies provided by the Human Rights Act 1998 are intended to regulate the activities
of whom… Public authorities
7. Which one of the following groups are required by law to be insured? Employers
8. Which of the following is not an objective of the law of tort? Imposition of moral blame
9. Which of the following is the main alternative to tort, for the provision of compensation…?. State
social security
10. What is the Compensation Act 2006 s 1 has what purpose…? To restrict the growth of the
‘compensation culture’
11. The following is not a tort described as ‘trespass to the person…? Public nuisance
12. Which of the following is not a defense to trespass to the person? Contributory negligence

1 Which of the following court cases involves a tort? Hatfield v. Blair

2. Torts are grounded in the concept of? Rights
3 Which of the following is not an element of an intentional tort? The tort did not cause the injury.
4 What is the essential difference that makes the crime of assault differ from the tort of assault? The
victim of a tort assault knew the person committing the tort meant to cause harm
5 What main element differentiates the crime of battery from the tort of battery? The unwanted touch;
we have a right to be free from bodily harm.
6 Which of the following is an example of trespass? Jim hunts on David’s land without David’s
permission. While there, Jim shoots one of David’s cows, mistaking the cow for a deer. David sells his
cows to make a living.
7 A loud bass beat that can be heard through an apartment wall (from another apartment) at Nuisance
A private nuisance affects only one family. False
8 Defamation involves: making false statements about someone.
9 Why is defamation a tort? Individuals have the right to enjoy a good reputation.
10 A written statement that damages someone’s reputation is not considered libel if it is never
11 communicated to another person than the person who wrote the statement. In other words, True
12 Which of the following constitutes slander? Melissa tells Roger that Connie stole $500 from the cash
register at work, even though
13 Credit bureaus must inform you about the information they have about you when you ask .True
14 If you purchase an item on‐line from American eagle, American eagle can keep your credit or debit
card
15 information even if you do not want them to keep it on file? False
16 Negligence involves: carelessness
This tort occurs most often in society? Negligence
 [37]

17 Why is a reasonable person test used to determine breach of duty in a negligence case? Because a
breach of duty occurs when a person does not exercise the degree of care that a reasonable person
would in the same situation.
18. If an injury that occurred as a result of negligence was not foreseeable at the time the defendant
engaged in unreasonable actions, there was no proximate cause in the tort case. With no proximate
cause, negligence will not hold up in court? True
19. Jill ran five miles yesterday, and right before she was done she fell and cut her arm so badly it
required stitches. Today, Carl bumped into Jill in the office because he was carelessly not watching
where he was going as he was spinning around and around in a hallway. The impact caused Jill’s stitches
to bleed. Jill then sued Carl for negligence, trying to recover the cost of her doctor’s bill. Jill’s negligence
will not hold in court because: It lacks proximate cause
20. Which of the following involves comparative negligence?
21. Which of the following illustrates the assumption of risk negligence defense? Yancy goes for a ride
with Jim and they crash. Jim is known for speeding.

Describe the difference between a tort and a crime. Include:

The wrong action that was committed
Crime – Harm a specific person and the welfare of society
Tort – A private wrong between at least two people
The main interference involved
Crime – Interferes with the well‐being of society
Tort – Interferes with a person’s rights
What the victim wants to recover
Crime – wants the defendant to be punished by jail or fine – want justice
Tort – money to compensate loss or injury
How the defendant is punished.
Crime – Jail/fines
Tort – have to pay money (remedy)
. In what cases does an arrest result in false imprisonment? (2 points)
If a law enforcement officer makes an arrest w/o probable cause or a warrant.
3. Write an example of libel. (1 point)Anything involving a written/printed/permanent statement.
4. Write an example of slander. (1 point) Anything involving an spoken statement.

Code of Criminal Procedure

1- Life denotes the life of a human being, unless the contrary appears from the context.
2- Whoever commits criminal breach of trust shall be punished with imprisonment of either
description for a term which may extend to seven years.
3- Arsh denotes the compensation to be paid to the victim or his heirs.
4- Without exposing the bone of the victim, the accused is said to cause Shajja-e-Khafifah.
 [38]

5- Qisas for qatl amd shall not be enforced when the offender dies before the enforcement of
Qisas.
6- An officer above the rank of constable can perform duties of an S.H.O.
7- Section 54 deals with commutation of sentence of death.
8- Section 55 deals with commutation of sentence of imprisonment for life.
9- Section 55-A deals with saving for president prerogative.
10- Section 57 deals with fraction of terms of punishment.
11- Section 63 deals with amount of fine.
12- Section 64 deals with sentence of imprisonment for nonpayment of fine.
13- Whoever causes the jurh in which the injury extends to the body cavity is said to have
caused... Jaifah.
14- Whoever by force compels, or by any deceitful mean induces a person to go from any place
is said to abduct that person.
15- Section 73 deals with solitary confinement.
16- Section 75 deals with enhanced punishment for certain offenders under chapter xii or
chapter xvii after previous conviction.
17- Section 77 deals with the act of judge when acting judicially.
18- Section 80 deals with accident in doing a lawful act.
19- Section 82 deals with act of a child under 7 years of age.
20- Section 83 deals with act of a child above 7 and under 12 years of age of immature
understanding.

21- Section 84 deals with the act of a person of unsound mind.

22- Section 94 deals with act to which a person is compelled by threats.

23- Section 95 deals with the act causing slight harm.

24- Section 96 deals with things done in private defense.

25- Section 97 deals with right of private defense of body and property.

26- Section 99 deals with the act against which there is no right of private defense.

27- Section 106 deals with right of private defense against deadly assault when there is risk of
harm to innocent person.

28- Section 107 deals with abetment of a thing.

29- Section 108 deals with abettor.

30- Section 108-A deals with abetment in Pakistan of offences outside it.

31- Section 109 deals with punishment of abetment if the act abetted committed in
consequence and where no express provision is made for its punishment.

32- The liability of abettor when one act abetted and different act done is the same, provided the
act done was a probable cause of the abatement.
33- A criminal conspiracy is an agreement between two or more persons to do or cause to be
done an illegal act or a legal act by illegal means.
 [39]

34- Electoral right means the right of person to stand or not to stand as candidate and to vote or
not to vote in election.
35- A person is said to commit house breaking by night when he commits house breaking after
sunset and before sunrise.
36- Section 110 of Pakistan Penal Code deals with Punishment of abetment if person abetted
does an act with different intention from that of Abettor.
37- Section 111 of Pakistan Penal Code deals with the liability of Abettor when one act abetted
and a different act done.
38- A criminal conspiracy is an agreement between two or more persons to do or cause to be
done an illegal act or a legal act by illegal means.
39- Badiah is not a kind of Shajjah.
40- Kidnapping includes kidnapping from Pakistan and kidnapping from lawful Guardianship.
41- Theft has been defined in section 378 of Pakistan penal code.
42- Giving False evidence is an offence under PPC according to section 191.
43- Stolen Property has been defined in section 410 of Pakistan Penal Code.
44- Thug is one who is habitually associated with any other for the purpose of Robbery or child-
stealing by means of or accompanied with Qatl.
45- Cheating has been defined under Section 415 of Pakistan Penal Code.
46- Diyat means the compensation payable to the heirs of the victim as specified in Section 323
of Pakistan Penal code.
47- Daman means the compensation determined by the court to be paid by the offender to the
victim for causing hurt not liable to Arsh.
48- Section 468 of Pakistan Penal Code deals with Forgery for the purpose of Cheating.
49- Forgery has been defined under section 463 of Pakistan Penal Code.
50- Isqat-e-Haml is an offence under section 338 of Pakistan Penal Code.
51- Kidnapping is of two types according to section 359 of Pakistan Penal code.
52- Defamation has been defined in Section 499 of Pakistan Penal Code.
53- Jurh has been defined in Section 337-B of Pakistan Penal code.
54- Punishment of Jaiffah is given in Section 337-D of Pakistan Penal Code.
55- Ghayr Jaiffah is a Jurh, which does not amount to Jaiffah.
56- Common Intention is disclosed by the facts in the evidence and circumstances of the case.
57- Public Servants includes any person who holds any office of the Government.
58- Arsh for causing Itlaf of a fingure of a hand or foot is one-fourth of the total Diyat.
59- A person is said to do a thing fraudulently if he does that thing with intent to defraud but not
otherwise.
60- A person abets an offence by abetting the commission of an offence or by abetting an act
which would be an offence.
61- According to Pakistan Penal code, "Person" includes any Company or Association or body
of Persons.
62- Whoever does anything with the intent of Causing wrongful gain in one person or wrongful
Loss to another person is said to do that thing " Dishonestly".
63- Qatl-e-Amd shall not liable to Qisas when the offender caused death of his Grand child, or
When any Wali of the deceased is the direct descendent of the offender, or When an offender is
a minor or When an offender is Insane.
64- According to Section 378 of Pakistan Penal code, the property in theft has to be moveable
property.
65- According to Pakistan Penal Code, "vessel" denotes anything made for the conveyance by
water of human beings or of property.
66- Nothing is an offence which is done in the exercise of the private defence according to
section 96 of Pakistan Penal code.
Qisas means to copy the other.
 [40]

67- Under Section 363 of Pakistan Penal Code, Punishment for Kidnapping is Seven years with
fine.
68- Right of Private Defence is primarily subject to restrictions contained in Section 99 of
Pakistan Penal Code.
69- When all the incriminating facts and circumstances are found to be incompatible with the
innocence of the accused, then the Influence of guilt can be justified.
70- House Trespass is dealt under Section 442 of Pakistan penal code.
71- Section 149 of Pakistan Penal Code creates a distinct offence.
72- Wrongful restraint has been defined under section 339 of Pakistan Penal Code.[*]1

1. The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1898 was passed or enacted on 22nd March, 1898
2. The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1898 contains __565_____ sections
3. The Cr.P.C 1898 contains ____5___ Schedules
4. The Cr.P.C 1898 is a __ Procedural law.
5. The object of Cr.P.C is To facilitate administration of justice
6. The Code of Criminal Procedure was enforced on the first day of July, 1898
7. The Cr.P.C divides offences in ___2___ kinds
8. An offence in which bail can be granted to the accused as of right is called
Bailable offence
9. An offence in which bail cannot be granted to an accused as of right are called
Non bailable offence
10. An offence in which a police-officer may in accordance with the 2nd schedule or under any
law for the time being in force arrest without warrant is called
Cognizable offence
11. Non cognizable offence is an offence in which a police-officer cannot arrest any person
without Warrant
12. The allegation made orally or in writing to a Magistrate with a view to take action under
Code of Criminal Procedure regarding an offence is called Complaint
13. Section 4(k), Cr.P.C defines Inquiry
14. According to section 4(k), Cr.P.C inquiry means a proceeding conducted by Magistrate
15. According to section 4(I) Cr.P.C investigation means a proceeding conducted by Police
16. According to section 4(m) Cr.P.C the proceeding in the course of which evidence is or may
be legally taken on oath is called Judicial proceeding
17. An act or omission made punishable by any law for the time being in force is called an
Offence
18. The term "Police Station" is defined in sub-section __.(s)___ of section 4
19. Public prosecutor means a person conducting prosecution on behalf of the .State
20. According to Cr.P.C Criminal Courts has ___2___ classes
21. High Court ____ is the Head Court of Criminal Proceeding at Provincial level
22. __ Session Court ____ is the presiding Court of a district
23. Section 9, Cr,P.C. empowers ______ with power of establishment of Court of Session Judge
and Assistant Session Judge .Provincial Government
24. Section, 14, Cr.P.C deals with appointment of Special Magistrate
25. Section 15 of Cr.P.C deals with .Benches of Magistrates
 [41]

26. Section 15, empowers ______ to pass direction for formation of Benches of Magistrates
.Provincial Government
27. A judge appointed under section 22, Cr.P.C is called Justice of Peace
28. Justice of Peace appointed under section 22, Cr.P.C by the Provincial Government enjoys his
powers as Administrative Power
29. A magistrate appointed by Provincial Government under section 30, Cr.P.C enjoys all
powers except Offences punishable with death
30. Court of Magistrate of 1st class can pass .Imprisonment for a term not exceeding three
years
31. The Court of Magistrate of 2nd class, can pass
Imprisonment not exceeding one year
32. The Court of Magistrate of 3rd class, can pass Imprisonment not exceeding one month
33. Assistant Session Judge enjoys _.Equal ____ powers with Session Judge
34. Section 37, Cr.P.C deals with Additional _ powers of Magistrate
35. Section 42, Cr.P.C bounds Public to assist Magistrate or police-officer
36. Under section 46, Cr.P.C ___ Touching ___ of body is sufficient for arrest
37. Section ___49____ Cr.P.C empowers police-officer to break, open door and windows for the
purpose of liberation of any person
38. Section 52, Cr.P.C deals with mode of search of a ___ Woman ____
39. Police-officer under section __54 of Cr.P.C may arrest any person without warrant who has
been concerned in any cognisable offence.
40. The person arrested by police shall
Not be subjected to more restraint than is necessary to prevent his escape
41. Whenever it is necessary to cause a woman to be searched the search shall be made by
Women police-constable
42. Section 55 of Cr.P.C deals with arrest of .Vagabonds and habitual robbers
43. A police-officer may, for the purpose of arresting without warrant any person whom he is
authorized to arrest peruse such person into any place in Pakistan as empowered by section
___.58____ of Cr.P.C
44. Section ___59____, Cr.P.C empowers a private person to arrest an offender
45. A police-officer making an arrest without warrant shall without unnecessary delay take or
send the person arrested before
A.Magistrate having jurisdiction
B.Before Officer in charge of the Police Station C.Both
46. Section 61, bounds police to produce any detained person before Magistrate having
jurisdiction within __24 hours ____ hours
47. It is provided in section __63____, Cr.P.C that no person who has been arrested by police
officer shall be discharged except on his own bond or on bail or under special order of
Magistrate
48. Under section 62, of Cr.P.C _______ shall report to the (Zila Nazim, District Superintendent
of Police and District Public Safety Commission) about the detention of person arrested without
warrant Station House Officer
49. If any offence has been committed in presence of Magistrate such Magistrate can arrest the
offender himself or can order to Any person to arrest the offender
 [42]

50.Every summon issued by a Court under Cr.P.C shall be in writing in duplicate and must be
signed and sealed by the Presiding officer of the Court
51. Section 69, Cr.P.C deals with Delivery of summons
52. Section 75, Cr.P.C deals with forms of Warrants of arrest
53. Warrant issued by Court under Section 75, Cr.P.C must be ___ In writing
54. Warrants has ___3___ kinds
55. A warrant directed to any police-officer may also be executed by any other police-officer
whose name is endorsed upon the warrant by the officer to whom it is directed or endorsed as
provided in section __79_____ Cr.P.C
56. Proclamation for persons absconding is made under section ___87___, Cr.P.C
57. Section __88____, Cr.P.C deals with attachment of property of proclaimed person
58. Bond for appearance of person whose summons or warrant has been issued will be taken
under _______Section 91, Cr.P.C
59. Period of limitation prescribed in section 89, Cr.P.C. for filing application for release of
attached property is __2 years ____ years from the date of attachment
60. It is provided in section _103 Cr.P.C _ Cr.P.C that search to be made in presence of two or
more respectable inhabitatns of the locality
61. Under section 105 Cr.P.C _ any Magistrte may direct a search to be made in his presence of
any place for the search of which he is competent to issue a search warrant
62. Section 109, Cr.P.C deals with security from.Vagrant and suspected person
63. Section 110 Cr.P.C , deals with security for good behaviour from habitual offenders
64. Under section ___115___ Cr.P.C the Magistrate may, if he sees sufficient cause, dispense
with the personal attendance of any person called upon to show cause why he should not be
ordered to execute a bond for keeping the peace, and may permit him to appear by a pleader
65. Section 127, Cr.P.C deals with disperse of unlawful assembly on command of
Magistrate or police officer
66. Under Section 129, a police officer not below the rank of _____ can cause military to
disperse unlawful assembly Assistant Superintendent or DSP
67. Which one from the following officers of Army can disperse unlawful assembly
Any Commissioned Officer
68. According to section 132-A, which one from the following falls in armed forces
Security Force constituted under the Federal Security Forces Act (XI-1973)
69. A conditional order for removal of public nuisances can be made by Magistrate Of 1st Class
70. Section __133____ of Cr.P.C deals with conditional order for removal of nuisance
71. Under Section 143, A Magistrate of 1st Class may order any person not to repeat or
continue, a public nuisance as defined in Pakistan Penal Code or any special or local law
72. Under section _144 Cr.P.C _____ temporary orders in urgent cases of nuisance or
apprehended danger can be made
73. Section 145, Cr.P.C deals with dispute regarding Immovable property
74. The basic ingredient to exercise power under section 145, by a Magistrate regarding
immovable property is likely to cause Breach of peace
75. Under Section 149, every police officer may interpose for the purpose of preventing and
shall, to the best of his ability prevent the commission of any cognizable offence
76. Section 146 of Cr.P.C empowers _The Magistrate _ to attach subject of dispute
 [43]

77. As under section 146, Cr.P.C order of attachment can be passed by the
The Magistrate of 1st Class
78. When the Magistrate attaches the subject of dispute, he may, if he thinks fit shall appoint a
receiver by enjoying power under .Cr.P.C.
79. Section ___.151____, of Cr.P.C. empowers a police-officer to arrest any person without
warrant, or order from a Magistrate who have any design to commit any cognizable offence
80. A police-officer may _____ interpose to prevent any injury attempted to be committed in
his view to any public property, moveable or immovable or the removal or injury of any public
landmark or buoy or other mark used for navigation Of his own authority
81. Section _154 Cr.P.C _____ deals with information of cognizable offences
82. Section 154, Cr.P.C deals with First Information Report
83. An F.I.R. has __6_____ columns
84. The registration of FIR regarding cognizable offences is _____ duty of officer in charge of
police station Statutory
85. First information report can be lodged by Officer in charge of Police Station at the
information of. Any person
86. The F.I.R. needs to be signed by Informer
87. First Information Report is Corroborative piece of evidence
88. After recording FIR it is necessary to be read over to ______ by police-officer.
Complainant or informer
89. Under section 156, Cr.P.C an officer incharge of a police station can investigate any
cognizable offence without order of Concerned Magistrate
90. Investigation against a women accused in offence of zina shall be conducted by
Police-officer not below the rank of Superintendent of Police
91. Section 156-B of Cr.P.C deals with investigation against a women accused of the offence of
Zina
92. The report send by officer incharge under Section 157, of Cr.P.C shall be submitted to
magistrate by _______Superior officer of police appointed by Provincial Government
93. Section _158___ of Cr.P.C provides procedure for submission of report under section 157 of
94. Under Section 160, Cr.P.C police officer has power to require attendance ofWitnesses
95. During process of investigation police officer records statement of witness under Section
_______.161, Cr.P.C
96. The statement recorded under section 161, Cr.P.C can Not be cross examined
97. The evidence recorded under section 161, by police officer is ___type of evidence
Corroborative
98. The question while recording evidence by police officer under section 161, of Cr.P.C must be
______ by witness .Answered
99. Section 164, of Cr.P.C deals with recording of statement before Magistrate of 1st and 2nd
class
100. Any statement recorded by Magistrate under section 164, Cr.P.C may be recorded in
presence of Accused
101. Upon statement recorded by Magistrate under section 164 needs to be given opportunity
of cross examination to Accused
102. __ is essential for recording statement under section 164, Cr.P.C A.Certification by Police
 [44]

B.Certification by Accused C.Certification by Magistrate

103. Recording of confession of accused under section 164 on oath is Inadmissible in the eye of
law
104. Section _167, Cr.P.C _ deals with procedure when investigation can bot be completed in
twenty four hours
105. An accused person can be detained in custody of police upon order of The Magistrate
106. A Magistrate authorizing under section 167, Cr.P.C detention of accused in custody of
Police______Shall record his reasons for so doing
107. Section 167, Cr.P.C, bars that the accused shall not be kept out of the prison while in
custody of the police between
A.Afternoon and evening B.Sunset and sunrise
108. Section 167, Cr.P.C deals with ________ A.Remand
109. Section 167, empowers Magistrate to send any accused within the custody of police upon
request of police for not more than _____ days
A.10 days B.12 days C.15 days
110. Section 169, Cr.P.C _, empowers police to release accused if there is deficiency of evidence
111. Police in case of deficiency of incriminating evidence can release a person
A.Without sureties B.Upon his own bond
112. Section 170, Cr.P.C deals with _________
A.Discharge of accused B.Recording of challan C.Sending of case to Magistrate
113. Under Section _______, Cr.P.C every police officer investigating a case need to record day
by day entries in diary 172,
114. The report of police officer needs to be submitted before Magistrate through
A.Officer Incharge of police section B.Court officer C.Public Prosecutor
115. The challan Form has _______ column 7 columns
116. Column No. 1, of challan form is for Complainant or informer
117. Column No. 3, of challan form is for the accused Under arrest
118. Column No. 4 of challan form deals with Accused on bail
119. Column No. 6, of challan form dealt with
A.Accused Absconder B.Accused Confessed C.Witnesses
120. Every offence shall be inquired in and tried by a Court with in local limit of whose the
offence was _______ Committed
121. Section 174, of Cr.P.C deals with Police to inquire report on suicide etc.
122. During the investigation U/S _______, police officer can summon any person to attend
investigation 175, Cr.P.C
123. Section 176, Cr.P.C empowers Magistrate to make inquiry with respect of Cause of death
124. Every offence shall ordinary be inquired in and tried by
A.Any competent Court A Court within the local limits of whose jurisdiction it was committed
125. Section 178 of Cr.P.C empowers _____ to pass order regarding cases to be decided in
various Session Divisions Provincial Government
126. As per section 185, Cr.P.C whenever a question arises as to which of two or more Courts
subordinate to the same High Court ought to inquire into or try any offence it shall be decided
by the High Court
127. When a citizen of Pakistan commits an offence at any place without and beyond the limits
 [45]

of Pakistan he may be dealt with in respect of such offence At any place within Paistan at
which he may be found
128. Section 190, Cr.P.C deals with cognizance of offence by Magistrate
129. Section 193, deals with cognizance of offence by Session Court
130. Section 194, Cr.P.C is about the cognizance of offences by High Court
131. When a complaint is made before a Magistrate regarding cognizable offence he shall
record the statement of complainant On oath
132. Under section 205, Cr.P.C Magistrate may dispense personal attendance of Accused
133. Which sections from the following deals with charge Section 221 to 230, Cr.P.C
134. The charge shall be written in Language of the Court or 135. In charge section of Law
against which the offence is said to has been committed Must be stated
136. Charge once framed can be altered by Court U/S _227, Cr.P.C _ upon an application
137. The power of amendment of charge provided under section 227, Cr.P.C is _ Discretionary
138. For every distinct offence of which any person is accused there shall be a separate charge
and every such charge shall be tried separately except in the cases mentioned in Sections 234,
235 and 239
139. Section __239___, of Cr.P.C deals with persons who may be charged and tried together
140. According section 234, three offences same kind within One year may be charged together
141. Supply of statements and documents to the accused during trial before Magistrate is dealt
by Section 242, Cr.P.C
142. Provision of section 241-A of Cr.P.C are ________Discretionary in nature
143. Under section 241-A, ______ shall be provided statements and document .Accused
144. Section _241 _ to _250-___ of Cr.P.C. deals with trial of cases before Magistrate
145. Charge will be framed under section __242______ Cr.P.C by Magistrate
146. If the accused admits that he has committed the offence (with which he is charged) his
admission shall be recorded as nearly as possible in the words used by him; and if he shows no
sufficient cause why he should not be convicted the Magistrate (may convict) him accordingly
as provided in Section 343, Cr.P.C
147. Section 245(1), Cr.P.C deals with ___________Acquittal
148. An order of acquittal under section 245(1) Cr.P.C is Appealable
149. An order of acquittal under section 245(1) Cr.P.C is appealable under section 417
150. In case where a previous conviction charged under the provisions of section 221, sub-
section (7), and the accused does not admit that he has been previously convicted as alleged in
the charge, the Magistrate may, after he has convicted the accused under section 243, or under
section 245, sub-section (2), Cr.P.C.
Shall take evidence in respect of the alleged previous conviction and, if he does so, shall
record the findings
151. Section 249-A, empowers a Magistrate to ___ Acquit ___ accused at any stage

Law of evidence Qanun-e-Shahadat, & Principle 1984 PAKISTAN, Principles

1. Qanun-e-Shahadat, 1984 was made by the President on ___ 28th October, 1984
 [46]

2. Qanun-e-Shahadat 1984, repealed The Evidence Act, 1872

3. Qanun-e-Shahadat 1984, replaced Law of Evidence 1872
4. Law of Evidence was amended and replaced with Qanun-e-Shahadat in order to bring it with
Requirement of time Conformity with the injunction of Quran and Sunnah
5. Qanun-e-Shahadat 1984, contains 166 Articles
6. Qanun-e-Shahadat 1984, does not apply to Proceedings before an Arbitrator
7. Under Qanun-e-Shahadat who is bound to determine competency of witness? Court
8. Article 2, of the Qanun-e-Shahadat deals with Definitions
9. All statements which the Court permits or requires to be made before it by witnesses in relation to
matters of fact under inquiry, such statements are called Oral Evidence
10. Article_____, of the Qanun-e-Shahadat defines "Evidence" 2(c)
11. The term "fact" is defined Article_____ of the Qanun-e-Shahadat 2(d)
12. Anything, state of things, or relation of things capable of being perceived by the senses is Fact
13. One fact is said_____ to another when the one is connected with the other in any of the ways
referred to in the provisions of Qanun-e-Shahadat to the relevancy of fact Relevant
14. Article 3, of the Qanun-e-Shahadat describe qualification of_____ Witness
15. A person who has been convicted by a Court for perjury or giving false evidence is not a competent
witness unless He mended his ways
16. A witness giving evidence in hudood cases should be Male
17. An offence of zina-bil-jabr requires either a guilty person or evidence by_4_ adults Muslim males of
integrity.
18. Principle of Tazkiya-al-Suhood is applicable to_ cases Hudood and Qisas
19. A on his trial before the Court of Session says that a deposition was improperly taken by B the
Magistrate B cannot be compelled to answer the question as to this except uponSpecial Order of
Superior Court
20 An advocate can not be bound to disclose any thing which has been done between him and his client
except. With permission of his client
21. Any matter expressed or described upon any substance by means of letters, figure or marks is called
Document
22. Article 17, of Qanun-e-Shahadat deals with Competence and numbers of witnesses
23. Article 18, of the Qanun-e-Shahadat provided that evidence may be given on facts in issue
relevant facts
 [47]

24. The rule of Res-gestae is provided in Article Article 19 of Qanun-e-Shahadat

25. The rule of plea of alibi is given is Article______ 24, Qanun-e-Shahadat
26. Rule of plea of alibi is applicable in-----------------Criminal cases
27. Article 22 of the Qanun-e-Shahadat deals with identification Parade
28. Admission is defined in Article 30_, of the Qanun-e-Shahadat
29. Article 31, of the Qanun-e-Shahadat lays down__5__ classes of persons who can make admissions
30. Article_37____ to__43___, of Qanun-e-Shahadat deals with confession.
31. As per Article 45 of the Qanun-e-Shahadat admissions are not conclusive proof of the matters
admitted but they may operate as Estoppel
32. Article_____, of Qanun-e-Shahadat deals with dying declaration. 46(1)
33. Article 64 of The Qanun-e-Shahadat deals with Opinion on relationship when relevant
34. Article 76, Qanun-e-Shahadat deals with cases where_____ evidence may be given
Primary evidence Secondary evidence
35. Article_114____ to_116____ of Qanun-e-Shahadat deals with Estoppel
36. Estoppel has __B_____, kinds
37. Article 114 Qanun-e-Shahadat deals with Estoppel of Conduct and representation
38. Article_128 of Qanun-e-Shahadat deals with legitimacy of child
39. Article 132 of Qanun-e-Shahadat deals with Examination of chief
40. Article_136_ to _138_ of The Qanun-e-Shahadat deals with leading questions
41. Article_144, of the Qanun-e-Shahadat provided that question not to be asked without reasonable
ground
42. Which Article from the following deals with impeachment of a witness? Article 151, Qanun-e-
Shahadat Order
43. A Nikah form is_ Public document ___ document
1.Qanun-e-Shahadat, 1984 was made by the President on ___28th October, 1984
2. Qanun-e-Shahadat 1984, repealed The Evidence Act, 1872
3. Qanun-e-Shahadat 1984, replaced Law of Evidence 1872
4. Law of Evidence was amended and replaced with Qanun-e-Shahadat in order to bring it with
Conformity with the injunction of Quran and Sunnah
5. Qanun-e-Shahadat 1984, contains 166 Articles
6. Qanun-e-Shahadat 1984, does not apply to Proceedings before an Arbitrator
7. Under Qanun-e-Shahadat who is bound to determine competency of witness?Court
 [48]

8. Article 2, of the Qanun-e-Shahadat deals with Definitions

9. All statements which the Court permits or requires to be made before it by witnesses in relation to
matters of fact under inquiry, such statements are called Oral Evidence
10. Article___2(c)__, of the Qanun-e-Shahadat defines "Evidence"
11. The term "fact" is defined Article___2(d) of the Qanun-e-Shahadat
12. Anything, state of things, or relation of things capable of being perceived by the senses is Fact
13. One fact is said_____ to another when the one is connected with the other in any of the ways
referred to in the provisions of Qanun-e-Shahadat to the relevancy of fact Relevant
14. Article 3, of the Qanun-e-Shahadat describe qualification of_Witness
15. A person who has been convicted by a Court for perjury or giving false evidence is not a competent
witness unless He mended his ways
16. A witness giving evidence in hudood cases should be Male
17. An offence of zina-bil-jabr requires either a guilty person or evidence by__4____ adults Muslim
males of integrity.
18. Principle of Tazkiya-al-Suhood is applicable to_______Hudood and Qisas cases
19. A child is a competent witness to testify if he is able____To understand and give rational answer
20. No public officer shall be compelled to disclose communication made to him in official confidence
when he considers that public interest would suffer by the disclosure. As provided in Article 7, Qanun-e-
Shahadat
21. A on his trial before the Court of Session says that a deposition was improperly taken by B the
Magistrate B can not be compelled to answer the question as to this except upon___Special Order of
Superior Court
22. An advocate can not be bound to disclose any thing which has been done between him and his client
except.With permission of his client
23. A, a client says to B, and advocate "I wish to obtain possession of property by use of a forged deed
on which I request you to sue". The communication, being made in furtherance of criminal purpose
is_____ disclosure Not protected from
24. Any matter expressed or described upon any substance by means of letters, figure or marks is
called Document
25. An accomplice whall be competent as witness against an accused except in cases of Qisas and Hadd
26. The term "Accomplice" means A person who is guilty associate in crime
27. Article 16 of The Qanun-e-Shahadat deals with Accomplice
 [49]

28.Article 17, of Qanun-e-Shahadat deals with Competence and numbers of witnesses

29. In financial cases when there is one male witness then the requirement of law can be fulfilled by
Two women witnesses with one male witness
30. Article 18, of the Qanun-e-Shahadat provided that evidence may be given on facts in issue and_____
Relevant facts
31. A is accused of the murder of B by beating him, whatever was said or done by A or B or the by
standers at the beating, or so, shortly before after or it as to form part of the tansaction
is_______Relevant fact
32. Relevancy of fact forming part of___ Same transaction
33. The rule of Res-gestae is provided in Article 19 of Qanun-e-Shahadat
34. The question is whether A robbed B went to fair with money in his possession and that showed it
or mentioned the fact that he had it to third person are Relevant fact
35. The rule of plea of alibi is given is Article__24, Qanun-e-Shahadat
36. Rule of plea of alibi is applicable in Criminal cases
37. The term "Res gestae" means…. Closely connected
38. Article__22__, of the Qanun-e-Shahadat deals with identification Parade
39. Identification Parade is rule of Prudence
40. The term "identification" means Proof of identity
41. The term "Parade" means Procedure of conducting identification parade
42. Identification parade is a kind of Corroborative evidence
43. Identification Parade needs to be conducted before Magistrate having jurisdiction
44. Character of person is relevant in Criminal cases
45. In criminal cases past character of a person is Countable
46. Article 24 of the Qanun-e-Shahadat deals with Facts not otherwise relevant become relevant
47. Principle of plea of alibi is provided by Article____24 of Qanun-e-Shahadat
48. The Term "alibi" means Plea of absence from place of offence occurrence
49. The question is whether A committed a crime at Peshawar on a certain day, the fact that on that day
A was at Lahore is Relevant
50. In suits for damages facts tender to enable court to determine amount are Relevant
51. A sues B for damage done by a dog of B's which B knew to be ferocious. The fact that the dog had
previously bitten x, y and z who had made complaint to B are _____ facts Relevant
 [50]

52. A statement oral or documentary which suggest any inference as to any fact in issue of relevant fact
and which is made by any person is called Admission
53. Admission is defined in Article__30___, of the Qanun-e-Shahadat
54. Admission has _3__ kinds
55. Article 31, of the Qanun-e-Shahadat lays down____5_ classes of persons who can make admissions
56. A undertakes to collect rents for B, B sues A for not collecting rent due from C to B. A denies that
rent was due from C to B, a statement by C that he owed B rent is an Admission
57. Statement made by persons to whom a party to the suit has expressly referred for information in
reference to matter in dispute are admissions in the light of Article 33
58. The question is whether horse sold by A to B is sound A says to B "Go and ask C. C knows all about it"
C's statement is An admission
59. Confession has___2__ main kinds
60. Admission is used in_____ kind of cases Civil
61. Confession is applicable in cases Criminal cases
62. Article__37___ to___43__, of Qanun-e-Shahadat deals with confession.
63. Confession on oath have_____ in law No sanctity in law
64. All confession are_but all __ are not admissions
65. Confession before police in absence of Magistrate is_Not admissible in law
66. All _____ are_____ not confessions Confession are admission
67. Extra judicial confession Needs to be proved by strong corroborative evidence
68. When accused person record his statement he will be usually Cross examined by the prosecution
69. Under Article 44, of the Qanun-e-Shahadat accused persons including an accomplice shall be liable
to Cross examination
70. As per Article 45 of the Qanun-e-Shahadat admissions are not conclusive proof of the matters
admitted but they may operate as Estoppel
71. Article__46(1___, of Qanun-e-Shahadat deals with dying declaration.
72. A wish to prove a dying declaration by B. A must proves B's death
73. Dying declaration is_____ type of evidence Weak
74. A dying declaration is_____ piece of evidence Corroborative
75. A dying declaration can not form the sole basis of conviction unless Corroborated
76. Entries in book of account as provided by Article 48 of the Qanun-e-Shahadat are
Relevant but needs to be proved by other evidence
 [51]

77. A sues B for Rs. 1000, and shows entries in his account books showing B to be intended to him this
amount Entries are relevant but are not sufficient without other evidence to prove the debt
78. Opinion of expert upon any point of law or fact is Relevant
79. The question is weather A was poisoned by B, regarding this opinion of medical officer will be
Relevant
80. A previous conviction of a person is relevant in____ cases to show bad character of that person
Criminal cases

Every lawyers should know these words

Contract a binding agreement that is enforceable by law

Consideration the process of giving careful thought to something
Negligence failure to act with the prudence of a reasonable person
Precedent an example that is used to justify similar occurrences
Infringement an act that disregards an agreement or a right
Perjury criminal offense of making false statements under oath
Statute an act passed by a legislative body
Sue institute legal proceedings against; file a suit against
Challenge a call to engage in a contest or fight
Void an empty area or space
Lewd suggestive of or tending to moral looseness
Detention a state of being confined (usually for a short time)
Parole a conditional release from imprisonment
Misdemeanor a crime less serious than a felony
Injunction a judicial remedy to prohibit a party from doing something
Summons a request to be present
Writ a legal document issued by a court or judicial officer
Frustration an act of hindering someone's plans or efforts
Bar a rigid piece of metal or wood
Bench a long seat for more than one person
Trespass enter unlawfully on someone's property
Interrogation an instance of questioning
Apprehend anticipate with dread or anxiety
Magistrate a lay judge or civil authority who administers the law
 [52]

Marshal a military officer of highest rank

Embezzlement the fraudulent appropriation of funds or property
Malpractice professional wrongdoing that results in injury or damage
Fugitive someone who is sought by law officers
Torture infliction of suffering to punish or obtain information
Acquitted declared not guilty of a specific offense or crime
Affidavit written declaration made under oath
Barrister a British lawyer who speaks in the higher courts of law
Solicitor a British lawyer who gives legal advice
Chancellor the person who is head of state (in several countries)
Equity conformity with rules or standards
Piracy the act of plagiarizing
Grill a framework of metal bars used as a partition or a grate
Class action a lawsuit brought by a representative member of a large group of
people on behalf of all members of the group
Common-law marriage a marriage relationship created by agreement and
cohabitation rather than by ceremony
Canon law the body of codified laws governing the affairs of a Christian church
Boarding the act of passengers and crew getting aboard a ship or aircraft
Jurisprudence the branch of philosophy concerned with the law
Libel a false and malicious publication
Curfew an order that after a certain time activities are prohibited
Espionage the systematic use of spies to obtain secrets
Treason a crime that undermines the offender's government
Abduction the criminal act of carrying someone away by force
Autopsy an examination and dissection of a dead body
Impeachment a formal document charging a public official with misconduct
Collective bargaining negotiation between an employer and trade union
Verdict findings of a jury on issues submitted to it for decision
Legislation the act of making or enacting laws
Repudiate refuse to acknowledge, ratify, or recognize as valid
Perpetrator someone who commits wrongdoing
Offender a person who transgresses moral or civil law
Culprit someone or something responsible for harm or wrongdoing
 [53]

Estoppel a rule of evidence whereby a person is barred from denying the truth of a
fact that has already been settled
Tenancy the act or state of being an occupant
Deed a legal document to effect a transfer of property
Surety something clearly established
Clause a separate section of a legal document
Performance the act of doing something successfully
Implied trust a trust inferred by operation of law
Foreclosure proceedings initiated to repossess the collateral for a loan
Bankruptcy a legal process for a corporation declared to be insolvent
Roundup the activity of gathering livestock together so that they can be counted
or branded or sold
Security interest any interest in a property that secures the payment of an
obligation
Juvenile delinquency an antisocial misdeed in violation of the law by a minor
Expiration a coming to an end of a contract period
Convict find or declare guilty
Ordinance an authoritative rule
Suspended supported or kept from sinking or falling by buoyancy
Sentence a string of words satisfying grammatical rules of a language
Discovery the act of finding something
Felony a serious crime, such as murder or arson
Adjudicate hear a case and sit as the judge at the trial of
Arraign accuse of a wrong or an inadequacy
Bail money forfeited if the accused fails to appear in court
Assault attack someone physically or emotionally
Dissent a difference of opinion
Non compos mentis not of sound mind, memory, or understanding
Fiat a legally binding command or decision
Evict expel or eject without recourse to legal process
Aggravated made more severe or intense especially in law
Refutation the act of determining that something is false
Force majeure a natural and unavoidable catastrophe
Complaint an expression of grievance or resentment
 [54]

CANONS OF PROFESSIONAL CONDUCT

A – Conduct with regard to other Advocates:

134. It is the duty of every Advocate to uphold at all times the dignity and high standing
of his profession, as well as his own dignity and high standing as a member thereof.
135. An advocate shall not solicit professional employment by advertisement or by any
other means. This clause shall not be construed as prohibiting the publication or use of
ordinary professional cards, name plates or conventional listing in directories, so long as
the information contained therein is limited to professional and academic qualifications,
and public offices currently held, and does not contain any matter which savors of
personal advertisement.
136. An advocate shall not employ any other person to solicit or obtain professional
employment nor remunerate another person for soliciting or obtaining professional
employment for him; nor shall he share with an unlicensed person any compensation
arising out of or incidental to professional employment, nor shall he aid or abet an
unlicensed person to practice law or to receive compensation therefor; nor shall he
knowingly accept professional employment offered to him as a result of or as incidental
to the activities of an unlicensed person.
137. An advocate shall not communicate about a subject of controversy with a party
represented by an advocate in the absence and without the consent of such advocate.
138. An advocate shall not, in the absence of the opposing counsel, communicate with
or argue before a judge or judicial officer except in open Court and upon the merits of a
contested matter pending before such judge or judicial officer; nor shall he, without
furnishing the opposing advocate with a copy thereof, address a written communication
to a judge or judicial officer concerning the merits of a contested matter pending before
such judge or judicial officer. The rule shall not apply to ex parte matters or in respect of
matters not sub-judice before the judge or judicial officer concerned.
139. A client's proffer of assistance of additional advocates should not be regarded as
evidence of want of confidence but the matter should be left .to the determination of the
client. An advocate should decline association as a colleague unless the dues of the
advocate first retained are paid.
140. Clients, not advocates, are the litigants. Whatever may be the ill-feeling existing
between clients, it should not be allowed to influence advocates in their conduct and
demeanor towards each other or toward the parties in the case. All personal clashes
between advocates should be scrupulously avoided. In the trial of a cause it is indecent
to allude to the personal history or the personal peculiarities and idiosyncrasies of
advocates appearing on the other side. Personal colloquies between advocates which
cause delay and promote unseemly wrangling should be carefully avoided.
 [55]

141. No division of fees with any person for legal services is proper except with another
advocate based upon the principle of division of work as expressed in the agreement
between the advocates.
142. Subject to the precedence of the Attorney-General and the Advocate-General, as
established by constitutional usage and practice, it is the duty of advocate to maintain
and uphold the order of precedence in accordance with the roll of advocates maintained
by the Bar Council.
143. Junior and younger members should always be respectful to senior and elder
members. The latter are expected to be not only courteous but also helpful to their junior
and younger brethren at the Bar.
144. Where more than one advocate is engaged on any side it is the right of the senior
member to lead the case and the junior members should assist him, unless the senior so
wants.
B - Conduct with regard to Clients:
145. An Advocate shall not acquire an interest adverse to a client in the property or
interest involved in the case.
146. An Advocate shall not accept employment adverse to a client or former client,
relating to a matter in reference to which he has obtained confidential information by
reason of or in the course of his employment by such client or former client provided that
an advocate, who has not been formally engaged by a person and accepted a retainer
nor received any fees for such engagement is not precluded from accepting employment
adverse to the interest of such person.
147. An advocate shall not accept professional employment without first disclosing his
relation, if any, with the adverse party, and his interest, if any, in the subject matter of
such employment.
148. An advocate shall not represent conflicting interests.
149. An advocate shall not himself or in became purchase any property at a probate,
foreclosure or judicial sale in an auction or proceeding in which such advocate appears
for a party, nor shall he accept the whole or part of the property, in respect of which he
had been engaged to conduct the case, in lieu of his remuneration, or as a reward or
bounty.
150. An advocate shall not commingle the property of client with his own, and shall
promptly report to the client the receipt by him of any money or other property belonging
to such client.
151. An advocate shall not advise the commencement of prosecution or defense of case,
unless he has been consulted in reference thereto, except when his relation to a party or
to the subject matter is such as to make proper for him to do so.
 [56]

152. An advocate in his professional capacity shall not advise the violation of any law.
This rule shall not apply to advice given in good faith, that a law is invalid.
153. It is the right of an advocate to undertake the defense of a person accused of crime,
regardless of his personal opinion, as distinguished from knowledge as to the guilt of the
accused; otherwise innocent persons and victims merely of suspicious circumstances
might be denied proper defense. Having undertaken such defense, an advocate is bound
by all fair and honorable means, to present every defense that the law of the land permits,
to the end that no person may be deprived of life or liberty, except by the process of law.
154. In fixing fees, advocates should avoid charges which over-estimate their advice and
services as well as those which undervalue them. A client's ability to pay cannot justify
charge in excess of the value of the service, though his property may justify a lesser
charge, or even none at all. The reasonable requests of a brother advocate, should also
receive special and kind consideration. In respect of widows and orphans of an advocate,
all advocates shall assist them free of charge.
In determining the amount of fee it is proper to consider; (i) the time and labor required,
the novelty and difficulty of the questions involved and the skill requisite properly to
conduct the case; (ii) whether the acceptance of employment in a particular case will
preclude the Advocate's appearance for others in cases likely to arise out of the
transaction, about which there is a reasonable expectation that otherwise he would be
employed, or will involve the loss of their business while employed in a particular case;
(iii) the customary charges of the Bar for similar service; (iv) the amount involved in the
controversy and the benefits resulting to the client from the service; (v) the contingency
of the certainty of the compensation, and (vi) the character of the employment, whether
casual or for an established and constant client. Of these considerations, none in itself is
the controlling factor. These are mere guidelines in ascertaining the real value of the
service. In fixing fees it should never be forgotten that the profession is a branch of the
administration of justice and not a mere money making trade.
155. Controversies with clients concerning compensation are to be avoided by the
advocate so far as shall be compatible with his self-respect and with his right to receive
reasonable recompense for his services. Any law suits with clients should be resorted to
only to prevent injustice, imposition or fraud.
156. Nothing operates, more certainly to create or foster popular prejudice against
advocates as a class, and to deprive the profession of that full measures of public esteem
and confidence which belongs to the proper discharge of its duties than does the false
claim, often set up by the unscrupulous in defense or questionable transactions, that it is
the duty of the advocate to do whatever may enable him to succeed in winning his client's
cause.
It is improper for an advocate to assert in argument his personal belief in the client's
innocence or in the justice of his cause. His professional duty is strictly limited to making
submissions at the Bar consistently with the interest of his client.
 [57]

An advocate owes entire devotion to the interests of the client, warm zeal in the
maintenance and defense of his rights and the exertion of his utmost learning and ability
to the end that nothing be taken or be withheld from him save by rules of law legally
applied. No fear of judicial disfavor or public unpopularity should restrain him from the full
discharge of his duty. In the judicial forum the client is entitled to the benefit of any and
every remedy and defense that is authorized by the law of the land, and he may expect
his advocate to assert every such remedy or defense. But it is steadfastly to be borne in
mind that the great trust of the advocate is to be discharged within and not without the
bounds of the law. The office of an advocate does not permit, much less does it demand
of him for any client, the violation of any law or any manner of fraud or chicanery. In doing
his professional duty to his client he must obey the voice of his own conscience and not
that of his client.
157. When an advocate is a witness for his client except as to merely formal matters,
such as the attestation or custody of an instrument and the like, he should leave the trial
of the case to other advocates. Except when essential to the ends of justice, an advocate
should avoid testifying in Court on behalf of his client.
158. In incidental matters, not effecting the merits of the cause in a trial, nor working
substantial prejudice to the rights of the client, such as forcing the opposite advocate to
trial when he is under affliction or bereavement, forcing the trial on a particular day to the
injury of the opposite advocate when no harm will result from a trial at a different time,
agreeing to an extension of time for filing written statements, cross interrogatories and
the like, the advocate must be allowed to judge himself. In such matters no client has a
right to demand that his advocate shall be ungenerous or that he does anything therein
repugnant to his own sense of honor and propriety.
C - Duty to the Court:
159. It is the duty of an advocate to maintain towards the Court a respectful attitude, not
for the sake of the temporary incumbent of the judicial office, but for the maintenance of
its supreme importance. Judges, not being wholly free to defend themselves, are
peculiarly entitled to receive the support of the Bar against unjust criticism and clamor. At
the same time whenever there is proper ground for complaint against a judicial officer, it
is the right and duty of an advocate to ventilate such grievances and seek redress thereof
legally and to protect the complainant and person affected.
160. An advocate shall not advise a person, whose testimony could establish or tend to
establish a material fact, to avoid service of process, or conceal himself or otherwise to
make his testimony unavailable.
161. An advocate shall not intentionally misquote to a judge, judicial officer or jury the
testimony of a witness, the argument of the opposing advocate or the contents of a
document; nor shall he intentionally misquote to a judge or judicial officer the language of
a book, statute or decision; nor shall he, with knowledge of its invalidity and without
disclosing such knowledge, cite as authority a decision that has been over-ruled or a
statute that has been repealed or declared unconstitutional.
 [58]

162. Marked attention and unusual hospitality on the part of an advocate to a judge or
judicial officer not called for by the personal relations of the parties, subject both the judge
and the advocate to misconstructions of motive and should be avoided. An advocate
should not communicate or argue privately with the judge as to the merits of a pending
cause and he deserves rebuke and denunciation for any advice or attempt to gain from a
judge special consideration or favor. A self-respecting independence in the discharge of
professional duty, without denial or diminution of the courtesy and respect due to the
judge's station, is the only proper foundation for cordial, personal and official relations
between the Bench and the Bar.
163. The primary duty of an advocate engaged in public prosecution is not to convict, but
to see that justice is done. The suppression of facts or the concealing of witnesses
capable of establishing the innocence of the accused is highly reprehensible.
164. Publications in newspaper by an advocate as to pending or anticipated litigation may
interfere with a fair trial in the courts and otherwise prejudice the due administration of
justice. Generally they are to be condemned. If the extreme circumstances of a particular
case justify a statement or reference to the facts should not reach the public, it is
unprofessional to make them anonymously. An ex-parte reference to the facts should not
go beyond quotation from the records and papers on file in the Court but even in extreme
cases it is better to avoid any ex-parte statement.
165. It is the duty of advocates to endeavor to prevent political considerations from
outweighing judicial fitness in the appointment and selection of judges. They should
protest earnestly and actively against the appointment or selection of persons who are
unsuitable for the Bench and thus should strive to have elevated thereto only those willing
to forego other employments, whether of a business, political or other character, which
may embarrass their free and fair consideration of the questions before them for the
decision. The aspiration of advocates for judicial positions should be governed by an
impartial estimate of their ability to add honor to the office and not by a desire for the
distinction the position may bring to themselves.
166. It is the duty of advocates to appear in Court when a matter is called and if it is so
possible to make satisfactory alternative arrangements.
167. An advocate should in general refrain from volunteering his legal opinion or
addressing any arguments in cases in which such advocate is not engaged unless called
upon to do so in open Court by a judge or judicial officer. In advancing any such opinion
he must do so with a sense of responsibility and impartiality without any regard to the
interest of any party.
D - Conduct with regard to the public generally:
168. An advocate shall not accept employment to prosecute or defend a case out of spite
or for the purpose of harassing anyone or delaying any matter; nor shall he take or
prosecute an appeal wilfully motivated to harass any one or delay any matter.
 [59]

169. An advocate should always treat adverse witnesses and parties with fairness and
due consideration, and he should never minister to the malevolence of prejudices of a
client in the trial or conduct of a cause. The client cannot be made the keeper of the
advocate's conscience in professional matters. He has no right to demand that his
advocate shall abuse the opposite party or indulge in offensive arguments. Improper
speech is not excusable on the ground that it is what the client would say if speaking in
his own behalf.
170. An advocate must decline to conduct a civil cause or to make a defense when
convinced that it is intended merely to harass or to injure the opposite party or to work
any oppression or wrong. But otherwise it is his right, and having accepted a retainer, it
becomes his duty to insist upon the judgment of the Court as to the legal merits of his
client's claim. His appearance in Court should be deemed equivalent to an assertion on
his honor that in his opinion his client's case is one proper for judicial determination.
171. No advocate is obliged to act either as adviser or advocate for every person who
may wish to become his client. He has the right to decline professional employment. Every
advocate upon his own responsibility must decide what business he will accept as an
advocate, what cause he will bring into Court for plaintiffs, and what cases he will contest
in Court for the defendants.
172. No client, corporate or individual, however powerful, nor any cause civil or political,
however important, is entitled to receive, nor should any advocate render, any service or
advice involving disloyalty to the law whose ministers advocates are, or disrespect the
judicial office, which they are bound to uphold, or corruption of any person or persons
exercising a public office or private trust, nor indulge in deception or betrayal of the public.
When rendering any such improper service or advice the advocate invites and merits
stern and just condemnation. Correspondingly, he advances the honor of his profession
and the best interest of his client when he renders service or gives advice tending to
impress upon the client and his undertaking exact compliance with the strictest principles
of moral law. He must also observe and advise his client to observe the statute law;
though until a statute shall have been finally construed and interpreted by competent
adjudication, he is free and indeed is entitled to advise as to its validity and as to what he
conscientiously believes to be its just meaning and extent. But above all, an advocate will
find his highest honor in a deserved reputation for fidelity to private trust and to public
duty as an honest man and or a patriotic and loyal citizen.
173. An advocate shall not communicate with, nor appear before a public officer, board,
committee or body, in his professional capacity, without first disclosing that he is an
advocate representing interests that may be affected by the action of such officer, board,
committee or body.
174. An advocate should not accept employment as an advocate in any matter upon the
merits of which he has previously acted in a judicial capacity.
 [60]

An advocate having once held public office or having been in the public
employment, should not, after his retirement accept employment in connection with any
matter which he has investigated or dealt with while in such office, nor employment except
in support to

Important most repeated

1. All agreements are contracts if they are made by the of the parties competent to
contract? Free consent
2. The is physical pressure applied by any of the.___ contracting parties? Coercion
3. is the performance of the contract? Consideration
4. A proposal when accepted becomes a Promise
5. When the proposal is clearly made in words spoken or written is called? Express
Offer
6. An agreement between the parties upon the determination of an uncertain event is
called? Contingent
7. In case of deth of thepromisor before the performnce the liability of performance?
Legal representative
8. When each party of contract full fils the obligation of a contract. it is called ?Actual
perfotmance
9. Replcement of an existing contract mean? Novation
10. Contract of indemmity is general class of contract? Contingent
11. A person wlio less is to be made, is called? Idemnified
12. A person who gives the guarantee is called? Surety
13. A guarantee which extends to a series of trialirred guarantee? Continuing
14. The person who delivers the goods, is called Bailor
 LAW GAT HEC held on 15 September 2019

1.Eye for eye: Qisas 2. Blood money: Diyat 35. Who is not capable of testimony: A person
3. Diyat amount mentioned in PPC: 30630 g incapable of giving rational answers
silver 4. Mufti in Islamic law: interpreter 36. Supreme court: 184(3)
5. Qiyas means: Deductions 37. Retrospective punishments under article 12
6. Section 26 of Limitation Act easement for long of 1973 constitution: No punishment for the act
time becomes certain: 20 years or omission which was not punishable by law at
7. Chalan submitted under CrPC: 173 the time of act or omission
8. If women is to be searched: 52 CrPC 38. One who comes to equity must: do equity
9. Persona non gratia: unwelcomed & 39. Section 28 of Contract Act: arbitration
undesirable person 40. If contract is breached: both compensation &
10. Diplomats are exempted from: Both Civil & party knew (Essence of Section 73 of Contract
criminal cases Act 1872)
11. Security Council is: Principle organ of UN 41. Generlia specialibus non dergant embodies:
12. The name of 1973 constitution: Islamic Special law will prevail over general
Republic of Pakistan 42. Jus Soli: Place of birth
13. Person part of parliament (Majlis e Shua): 43. Among Exhibit & Mark, which is strong in
President value: Exhibit
14. Not Source of Islamic law: Fatwa 44. If A. British, beats B, An American, in
15. Under section 47 CPC questions will be Pakistan: A is subject to: Pakistani law
determined by which court: Court executing 45. Foreign national in Pakistan: subject to
decree Pakistani law
16. Decree passed wherein defendant not 46. Will of person transferring his property to
appeared: Ex parte foreign national will be:
17. Judgement debtor: Against whom decree is 47. Session court draws power from CPC: No
passed 48. Precludes the right: Estoppel
18. Theory of command: Austin 49. Canons do not mention duty of Advocate to:
19. Legal positivism: law & morality different Employees
20. Not delegated legislation: Public bills 50. Ubi jus ibi remedium: Where there is a right
21. Volenti non fit injuria: No claim can be there is a remedy
received if injury is caused by consent 51. Acts neither encouraged nor discouraged:
22. Specific relief is claimed under: The Specific Mubah
Relief Act 1877 52. A person may not get advantage of its own
23. Ultra vires: both beyond power & against wrong: Nullus commodum capere de sua injuria
authority propria
24. If amendment is made, mutatis mutandis 53. An overseas Pakistan can cast vote? Yes
applies on other agreement: it means it applies 54. First constitution of Pakistan: Government of
on all remaining amendments India Act as amended by Independence Act of
25. One who comes to equity must divulge all 1947
facts: One who comes to equity must come with 55. If a person accepts one thing & reject the
clean hands other in same case: Expressio Unius Est
26. Mujeeb ul rehman gave 6 points in: 1966 Exclusio Alterius
27. Traffic signal: offense per se 56. 561-A CrPC: Inherent Powers of Court
28. Not valid legal defense: ignorance of law 57. First constitution assembly abrogated by:
29. Obiter dictum & ratio decidendi: Judgements Malik Ghulam Muhammad
30. If a person, not by intention, perform and 58. A judge has inclination to floodgates of
unlawful act & kills a person, it is: Qatl e Khata criticism
31. In civil case, how many witnesses are 59. Prescribe constraints of timeframe for
needed: 2 witnesses justice: Justice hurried is justice buried
32. If person has been investigated & acquitted 60. A lawyer cannot misquote
in 6 cases. FIR is launched, cause of previous
history: relevant
33. QSO repealed: Evidence Act 1872
34. Production of evidence that has become
available because of modern devices, etc under
which article of QSO: 164