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Research Mock Exam

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Some of the key takeaways from the document include the different roles in nursing research, types of research designs such as descriptive, correlational, experimental, and qualitative methods and their uses in nursing. Factors like control, sampling, and setting help define different research approaches.

Some of the main research designs discussed include descriptive research which observes phenomena, correlational research which looks at relationships between variables, experimental research which manipulates variables, and qualitative research approaches.

Rigor in quantitative research refers to the amount of control and precision exerted by the methodology. Factors like random sampling, clear and standardized data collection procedures, and control help ensure rigor.

RESEARCH REVIEWER

1. A nurse who reads research articles and incorporates research findings into nursing practice
would demonstrate which of the following research roles?

a) Consumer

b) Primary investigator

c) Collaborator

d) Producer

2. Florence Nightingale is most noted for which of the following contributions to nursing research?

a) Case study approach to research

b) Data collection and analysis

c) Framework and model development

d) Quasi-experimental study design

3. Which of the following historical events had a major impact on the funding for nursing research?

a) Development of local, national, and international nursing research conferences by Sigma Theta
Tau

b) Initiation of the Agency for Health Care Policy and Research

c) Formation of the National Institute for Nursing Research

d) Development of a Nursing Research Council as part of the American Nurses Association

4. An example of inductive reasoning is:

a) Reasoning from all chronically ill patients to a single chronically ill patient

b) Reasoning from a single diabetic patient to all diabetic patients

c) Using a standard nursing care plan to care for a specific patient

d) Using a computerized nursing care plan to care for insulin-dependent diabetic patients.

5. Quantitative and qualitative research approaches are particularly useful in nursing because they:

a) Are easy to implement.

b) Require few resources.

c) are both process oriented.

d) Balance each other by generating different types of nursing knowledge.

6. Which of the following types of research involve at least some control by the researcher to
implement the study treatment?
a) Correlational

b) Descriptive

c) Quasi-experimental

d) Experimental

7. In which type of research is there high researcher control, random sampling, and laboratory
setting?

a) Descriptive

b) Correlational

c) Quasi-experimental

d) Experimental

8. Benner (1984) emphasizes the importance of acquiring clinical knowledge and expertise
through:

a) Professional experience

b) Personal experience

c) Academic experience

9. What category of research is suggested by the following research question? "Does telephone
follow-up by nurses improve patients' compliance with their medication regimens?"

a) Applied research

b) Basic research

c) Descriptive research

d) Phenomenological research

10. A researcher investigates the effect of frequency of position change on healing of decubitus
ulcers. The study would be described as:

a) applied research

b) Basic research

c) Descriptive research

d) Phenomenological research

11. Applied research seeks to solve a clinical problem in which setting?

a) Controlled

b) Laboratory
c) Natural

d) Simulated

12. A researcher designs a study that uses a random sampling method to decrease the likelihood of
bias in the study sample. This strategy was used to implement:

a) Manipulation

b) Control

c) Data collection

d) Experimental research

13. Which of the following definitions best describes rigor in quantitative research?

a) Time frame in which the research takes place

b) Degree of aggressiveness used in acquiring the data

c) Amount of control and precision exerted by the methodology

d) Process used to synthesize findings to form conclusions from a study

14. A researcher is interested in studying stress and coping in caregivers of elderly stroke victims.
The researcher designs a study where data collection takes place in the caregiver's home. This would be
an example of which type of research setting.

a) Natural, field

b) Highly controlled, field

c) Partially controlled, laboratory

d) Highly controlled, laboratory

15. Problem identification in the research process would be equivalent to which step in the nursing
process?

a) Goal identification

b) Data interpretation

c) Identifying solutions

d) Nursing diagnosis

16. The plan in the problem-solving process is equivalent to which step in the research process?

a) Outcomes

b) Design

c) Implementation
d) Goal identification

17. The research process differs from the nursing process on which of the following?

a) Identifies new information

b) Involves abstract, critical thinking

c) Has a broader focus

d) Utilizes complex thinking

18. Which of the following would identify the specific aim or goal of the study based on the
identified problem?

a) Purpose

b) Literature review

c) Methodology

d) Assumptions

19. Research subjects in a study of quality of life (QOL) in liver transplant recipients were asked to
complete a questionnaire about their experiences following transplantation. Which of the following
would be a likely assumption the researcher made in relation to this study?

a) Subjects will complete every item on the questionnaire.

b) Subjects are able to identify a personal awareness of QOL.

c) All liver transplant recipients invited to participate in the study will complete a questionnaire

d) QOL is an important issue to liver transplant recipients.

20. Before implementing a large, multisite research investigation, a researcher conducts a smaller
study of the planned study to identify any problematic areas. This smaller study is known as a(n):

a) Abstract

b) Exploratory design

c) Pilot study

d) Proposal

21. The researcher uses which portion of the research report to capture the reader's attention?

Correct answer:

abstract

22. The sentence "The purpose of this study was to examine the relationship between health beliefs
and breast self-examination" would most likely be found in which section of a research report?
Correct answer:

abstract

23. The initial and one of the most significant steps in conducting the research process is:

a) Defining the research variables.

b) identifying the research problem.

c) Stating the research purpose.

d) Determining the feasibility of the study.

24. The purpose statement should identify the study variable(s) and what other key aspect of the
study?

a) Design

b) Measurement tools

c) Population

d) Statistics

25. One important source for identification of a research problem would be:

a) Nursing practice

b) Research textbook

c) Nursing code of ethics

d) Practice guidelines

26. In the literature report of a study on quality of life, the researcher describes two previous
investigations suggesting that spirituality is related to quality of life. This information suggests the
current study is significant because it:

a) Influences theology.

b) builds on previous research.

c) Challenges existing theory.

d) Addresses multidisciplinary concerns.

27. Feasibility is determined by examining which of the following?

a) Researcher's credibility

b) Significance of research problem

c) Availability of subjects

d) Previous studies
28. In a research proposal, the investigator notes that written permission has been obtained from
three local hospitals to access patients for the proposed study. This is an example of what aspect of a
study.

a) Reliability

b) Methodology

c) Ethics

d) Feasibility

29. A research hypothesis:

a) Predicts the expected results or outcomes of the study

b) Defines the theoretical framework for the study

c) Identifies the source of the problem under study

d) Clarifies the concepts used in the study

30. The statement "This study explores the experience of caregiving by adult daughters of parents
with Alzheimer disease" is an example of which of the following?

a) Objective

b) Question

c) Simple hypothesis

d) Complex hypothesis

31. What type of hypothesis is the following?

"Normal saline flush with heparin is more effective than normal saline flush alone in maintaining
patency of an intermittent intravenous site."

a) Simple, research

b) Complex, nondirectional

c) Complex, causal

d) Simple, directional

32. What type of hypothesis is the following?

"Cancer patients who receive music therapy complain less frequently of pain and require less pain
medication than cancer patients not receiving music therapy."

a) Complex, directional hypothesis

b) Simple, associative hypothesis


c) Simple, nondirectional hypothesis

d) Complex, null hypothesis

33. What type of hypothesis is the following?

"Low-fat diet is related to lower total cholesterol and higher HDL (high-density lipoprotein)."

a) Complex, directional, causal

b) Complex, directional, associative

c) Simple, nondirectional, research

d) Simple, directional, causal

34. The dependent variable is:

a) A stimulus or activity that is varied by the researcher.

b) The quality, property, or characteristic identified in the problem

c) A characteristic or element of the human subjects involved in the study

d) The response or outcome that the researcher wants to understand

35. Identify the independent variable in the following hypothesis:

"Cancer patients who receive music therapy complain less frequently of pain and require less pain
medication than cancer patients not receiving music therapy."

a) Relaxation therapy

b) Complaints of pain

c) Pain medication use

d) Music therapy

36. Hypotheses: "Structured preoperative support is more effective in reducing surgical patients'
perception of pain and request for analgesics than structured postoperative support."

Question: "Request for analgesics" is the:

a) Independent variable.

b) Dependent variable.

c) Attribute variable

d) Extraneous variable

37. Hypotheses: "Structured preoperative support is more effective in reducing surgical patients'
perception of pain and request for analgesics than structured postoperative support."

Question: "Perception of pain" is the:


a) Independent variable.

b) Dependent variable.

c) Attribute variable.

d) Extraneous variable

38. Hypotheses: "Structured preoperative support is more effective in reducing surgical patients'
perception of pain and request for analgesics than structured postoperative support."

Question: "Type of support" is

a) Independent variable.

b) Dependent variable

c) Attribute variable

d) Extraneous variable

39. Hypotheses: "Structured preoperative support is more effective in reducing surgical patients'
perception of pain and request for analgesics than structured postoperative support."

This hypothesis is

a) Simple, directional, research

b) Complex, nondirectional, null

c) Complex, directional, research

d) Simple, nondirectional, statistical

40. The statement below is an example of which of the following? "In this study, pain is reflected as
a score between 0 and 10 on the Post-operative Pain Rating Scale."

a) Problem statement

b) Conceptual definition

c) Associative hypothesis

d) Operational definition

41. In which section of the research report might the problem statement be located?

a) Literature review

b) Methods

c) Results

d) Implications
42. The literature review section of a research report might include a summary of which of the
following?

a) Empirical literature

b) Funding sources

c) Proposed methods and design

d) Description of study sample

43. Which of the following represents a primary source?

a) The results of a computer search related to the primary topic of interest

b) A report of a study written by the researcher who did the study

c) A published summary of the relevant research in a primary care area

d) A thesaurus that identifies key words to use in a computer search

44. At what point is the literature review conducted in a qualitative investigation?

a) Prior to study implementation

b) During study implementation

c) After study completion

d) Depends on the type of study

45. Which of the following types of information is consistently covered in a quantitative literature
review?

a) Descriptions of effective clinical outcomes

b) Anecdotal opinions of expert researchers

c) Approaches used to investigate similar problems

d) Clinical impressions of related phenomena

46. The primary purpose for reviewing relevant literature is to:

a) Select the research design.

b) Delineate the existing knowledge base of an identified problem

c) interpret previous research findings

d) develop conceptual and operational definitions of variables

47. A crucial resource for researchers conducting a literature review would be:

a) A secondary source.
b) An academic library.

c) Lay literature

d) A research mentors

48. Which of the following indexes would provide the largest number of relevant nursing sources?

a) International Nursing Index

b) Nursing Studies Index

c) Cumulative Index to Nursing & Allied Health Literature

d) Index Medicus

49. A critical aspect of beginning a database search for relevant literature on a topic of interest
involves identifying:

a) Reference management software

b) Electronic journals

c) Keywords

d) Existing knowledge

50. In the following APA formatted reference, what does the 21 refer to?

Harris, R. M., Bausell, R. B., Scott, D. E.,Hetherington, S. E., & Kavanagh, K. H. (1998). An intervention for
changing high-risk HIV behaviors of African American drug-dependent women. Research in Nursing and
Health, 21(3), pp. 239-250.

a) Volume number

b) Issue number

c) Chapter number

d) Bibliographic reference

51. One advantage of an integrative review of research is that:

a) previous research findings have been synthesized.

b) Multidisciplinary literature has been filtered out.

c) Emphasis is placed on what is not known.

d) Statistical analyses of the summarized research are conducted.

52. A study framework reflects the:

a) Blueprint for the study

b) Specific plan for data collection


c) Data analysis strategy

d) researcher's "theory" or idea about the study

53. A researcher theorizes that walking three times per week will minimize the likelihood of
premature labor in at-risk pregnant women. The researcher initiates a research program to test this
theory. This research study is attempting to validate what aspect of theory?

a) Development

b) Explanation

c) Prediction

d) Strategies for controlling outcomes

54. Which of the following is true about theoretical frameworks used in research?

a) Theories offer precise guidance in all situations.

b) Theories prove how concepts are related to one another.

c) Theories represent ultimate truth and are congruent with reality.

d) Theories are constructed by people and are tentative in nature.

55. "Abstract" is defined in research as:

a) Particular and realistic

b) Not well-defined and general

c) Well-defined and precise

d) Concrete and specific

56. Which of the following is true about the relationship between a study framework and the
hypotheses?

a) The framework and hypotheses must be congruent with each other.

b) The hypotheses are not meant to be testable, but the framework is.

c) If the hypotheses are stated, the researcher does not need to have a framework.

d) Hypotheses are inductively identified within the stated framework.

57. The framework and conceptual map for a study:

a) Are always included in the study report.

b) are usually clearly identified in the report.

c) Often must be inferred by the reader from the text of the report.

d) Should be referred to only at the end of the study.


58. Which of the following represents the most concrete term?

a) Variable

b) Concept

c) Framework

d) Construct

59. Conceptual definitions are important because:

a) The meanings of terms may differ depending on the study framework.

b) They tell others how the concept will be measured in the study.

c) they provide a dictionary definition that can be understood by everyone

d) They suggest how to precisely measure the variables of interest

60. In the research report, a theoretical statement:

a) Will always be clearly identified

b) Should only be discussed in the framework section

c) May be implied

d) Can be omitted if variables are not yet well defined

61. Which relationship diagram below best represents the following hypothesis?

"Conventional gauze dressings cause fewerskin changes in wound sites than dohydrocolloid or
hydroactive dressings."

a) Gauze dressing ----------> skin changes

b) Type of dressing ---------> skin changes

c) Type of dressing wound site

d) Gauze dressing

62. Which of the following responses best describes the relational statement that is diagrammed
below? Pain perception <------- (+) --------> Anxiety

a) Increased perception of pain causes anxiety.

b) Anxiety causes increased pain perception.

c) Pain perception and anxiety are positively related to one another

d) Pain perception and anxiety are inversely related.

63. Desriptive and inferential studies fall into which type of result?
a) Correlation

b) Quantitative

c) Qualitative

d) Central tendency

64. Results that describe and explain cannot be used to predict future outcomes? T or F

Correct answer:

True

65. Age, wrinkles, feelings, health status, occupation are examples of:

a) Dependent variables

b) Independent variables

66. Content Analysis:

a) Reading books over and over again

b) Interpreting qualitative data

c) Interpreting quantitative data

67. Categorization scheme:

a) Overlapping of groups to find a result

b) Set groups in order that do not overlap

68. Coding, data reduction, theme, and data saturation are language describing what kind of study?

Correct answer:

Qualitative

69. The effects of age and smoking habits compared to amount of dental caries. dental caries are
the...

a) Variable constant

b) Independent variable

c) Dependent variable

d) Qualitative study

70. Independent variables are also called:

Correct answer:

Predictor variables
71. Central Tendency uses the following:

a) Range,Mode, Variance

b) Mode, Median, Range

c) Mode, Median, Mean

72. Measures of dispersion in Descriptive studies include:

a) Range, Mode, Standard Deviation

b) Range, Variance, Standard Deviation

c) Z-scores, Standard Deviation

1. Potential problems with reading the results are:

a) Incomplete information, confusing information,

b) Too many researchers on one data completion

c) Population size is large

73. Quantitative Descriptive results:

a) Include univariate statistics including mean, mode, median, variance, standard deviation, -

b) Include categories and themes based on content analysis to derive implicit meanings from
findings.

74. Descriptive results are...

a) Basis for the discussion and conclusions of the study

b) Similar to introductory paragraphs

c) Opposite of results

75. Inferential results allow the reader to

a) Collect data

b) Predict the mode

c) Know if the results happened by chance or not

76. The p-value is .05 what is the incidence an event would occur by chance alone?

a) 5 out of 1000

b) 5 out of 10

c) 5 out of 100

d) 5 out of 5
77. The difference in the means of ages for the two groups was 4.2, with a 95% confidence interval
of 0.8-6.2. This means:

a) 95% were 20 years apart

b) 5% were not 6 years apart

c) 95% were between 0.8-6.2 years apart

d) 95% were only 6.2 years apart

78. P-values and confidence intervals are telling the reader how often the study was done by chance
alone. T or F?

Correct answer:

true

79. T-test is used for which type of study?

a) Parametric

b) Non-parametric

80. The Fischer, Mann-whitney, Wilcoxin, are all types of which category of inferential study?

a) Non-parametric

b) Parametric

81. The statistical test shown to measure how much two variables covary:

a) Expressed nominally

b) Expressed orderly

c) Expressed in number form 0, 1

d) Expressed in negatives -2,-3

82. Age and weight: .421 (p<.05) indicates:

a) A negative correlation; occured by chance alone, weak strength

b) A positive correlation, occurred 5 out of 100 by chance, strength is mild.

c) A positive correlation, strong strength by 5 away from 100

d) A negative correlation due to a number less than 1

83. THe larger the F-vale the more the reader can conclude: T or F?

a) True

b) False
84. A research hypothesis is a prediction that there will be a relationship while a null hypothesis is a
prediction that there will Not be a relationship or difference. T or F?

a) True

b) False

85. What should be included in “scholarly literature”? Select all that apply.

A. Research reports reported in primary sources only

B. Conceptual and theoretical literature from primary sources only

C. Published and unpublished reports of research

D. Primary and secondary sources

86. Reviews of the literature are conducted for PURPOSES OF RESEARCH as well as for the
CONSUMER OF RESEARCH. How are these reviews similar? Select all that apply.

A. Amount of literature required to be reviewed

B. Degree of critical reading required

C. Importance of conceptual literature

D. Purpose of the review

87. What are characteristics of the literature review required for a quantitative research study?
Select all that apply.

A. The review is exhaustive and must include all studies conducted in the area

B. Doctoral dissertations and masters’ theses are excellent sources of information

C. Computer-accessed materials are acceptable

D. Primary sources are not as important as secondary sources

88. Which of the following is an example of a primary source in a research study?

A. A published commentary on the findings of another study

B. A doctoral dissertation that critiques all research in the area of attention deficit disorder

C. A textbook of medical-surgical nursing

D. A journal article about a study that used large, previously unpublished databases generated by
the United States census

89. What is the best source to use when conducting a level I systematic meta-analysis of the
literature?

A. An electronic database
B. Doctoral dissertations

C. The Cochrane Statistical Methods

D. An electronic database and Doctoral dissertations

90. What is a characteristic of an audio recording of an unpublished research study reported at a


professional conference?

A. Databased literature

B. Secondary Sources

C. Are more difficult to analyze than written reports.

D. Are not useful because they are not published

91. What is the first step in the qualitative research process?

A. Data analysis

B. Sample

C. Review of literature

D. Study design

92. Which mode of clinical application for qualitative research is considered to be the sharing of
qualitative findings with the patient?

A. Insight or empathy

B. Anticipatory guidance

C. Assessment of status or progress

D. Coaching

93. Which research process steps may be noted in an article’s abstract? Select all that apply.

A. Identifying the phenomenon

B. Research question study purpose

C. Literature review

D. Design

E. Sample

F. Legal-ethical issues

G. Data-collection procedure

94. What does a level-of-evidence model use to evaluate the strength of a research study and its
findings? Select all that apply.
A. Creativity

B. Quality

C. Quantity

D. Consistency

E. Efficiency

95. What are the critiquing criteria used to judge the worth of a research study? Select all that
apply.

A. Measures

B. Objectives

C. Standards

D. Effectiveness

E. Evaluation guides

F. Questions

96. Which statement best describes qualitative research? Select all that apply.

A. Studies are conducted in natural settings.

B. Data are collected from a large number of subjects.

C. Data collected tend to be numeric.

D. The research design is systematic and subjective.

97. What does a critique of a research study always include? Select all that apply.

A. Determining its strengths and weaknesses

B. Researching similar studies

C. Using critical reading skills

D. Explaining your own personal opinions

98. For which of the following research questions would qualitative methods be most appropriate?

A. Which pain medications decrease the need for sleep medication in elderly patients?

B. What is the meaning of health for migrant farm-worker women?

C. Under what conditions does a decubitus ulcer heal most quickly?

D. How does frequency of medication administration impact the degree of pain experienced
following knee replacement surgery?
99. Which of the following phrases would be found in a report of a qualitative study?

A. “The hypothesis of this study is?”

B. “Perceived pain was measured using the Abbott pain scale?”

C. “The control group received no instruction?”

D. “Subjects were asked to relate their perceptions of pain?”

100. Which of the following phrases would be found in a report of a quantitative study?

A. “A convenience sample was chosen?”

B. “The phenomenon studied was?”

C. “Data were analyzed and interpreted?”

D. “Researchers sought to explore the meaning of the hospital experience?”

101. Which of the following hypotheses are indicative of an experimental research design? Select all
that apply.

A. Frequent irrigation of Foley catheters will be positively related to urinary tract infections.

B. The incidence of urinary tract infections will be greater in patients whose Foley catheters are
irrigated frequently than in those whose Foley catheters are irrigated less frequently.

C. Frequent irrigation of Foley catheters is associated with urinary tract infections.

D. The incidence of urinary tract infections will not differ between patients with or without Foley
catheters.

102. Which statements are part of the criteria used to judge the soundness of a stated research
question? Select all that apply.

A. A relationship between two or more variables

B. An operational definition of each variable

C. The nature of the population being tested

D. The possibility of empirical testing

103. Which criteria are used to determine testability of a hypothesis? Select all that apply.

A. Use of quantifiable words such as greater than or less than

B. A hypothesis stated in such a way that it can be clearly supported or not supported

C. The use of value-laden words in a hypothesis

D. Data-collection efforts that prove the validity of the hypothesis

104. What are the advantages to using directional hypotheses? Select all that apply.
A. The indication of the use of a theory base to derive the hypothesis

B. The provision of a specific theoretical frame of reference

C. Ensurance that findings will be generalizable

D. The indication of a nonbiased selection of subjects

105. Which one of the following statements about hypotheses is most accurate?

A. Hypotheses represent the main idea to be studied and are the foundations of research studies.

B. Hypotheses help frame a test of the validity of a theory.

C. Hypotheses provide the means to test nursing theory.

D. A hypothesis can also be called a problem statement.

106. A nurse wants to study the effectiveness of meditation on people with anxiety disorder. Which
variable would be most relevant to explore in the literature on this topic?

A. Use of meditation during childbirth

B. Meditation techniques found to be effective

C. Pain management for people with anxiety disorders

D. Outcomes of meditation when used by elderly populations

107. What is a characteristic of an independent variable?

A. It is the variable that is predicted to change.

B. It varies with a change in the dependent variable.

C. It is manipulated by the researcher.

D. It can be identified only by changes in the dependent variable.

108. Which statement is most accurate regarding hypotheses?

A. Hypotheses operationally define the dependent variables.

B. Hypotheses are statements about the relationships among variables.

C. Hypotheses describe the effect of the dependent variable on the independent variable.

D. Hypotheses must include a definition of the treatment or intervention used.

109. What is a characteristic of a hypothesis?

A. It flows from interpretation of the data collected.

B. It operationally defines the variable to be studied.

C. It eliminates the need to designate a dependent variable.


D. It implies a causative or associative relationship.

110. When should a hypothesis be developed by the researcher during the research process?

A. Before development of the research question

B. After development of the research question

C. After a research design is determined

D. Before any statistical analysis

111. Which research hypothesis is most testable?

A. There is a relationship between meditation and anxiety disorders.

B. Patients with anxiety disorders who learn meditation techniques have less anxiety than those
who do not.

C. Teaching one meditation technique to patients with anxiety disorders will be better than
teaching multiple techniques.

D. The ability to meditate causes lower anxiety in patients with anxiety disorder than those who do
not meditate.

112. What is a characteristic of a statistical hypothesis?

A. It is a null hypothesis.

B. It predicts a positive relationship among variables.

C. It is a complex hypothesis.

D. It describes data-analysis methods.

113. When will a null hypothesis be rejected?

A. There is no association among variables.

B. There is evidence of significance.

C. The independent and dependent variables are related.

D. The research hypothesis is rejected.

114. Which level is characteristic of the strength of the evidence provided by the results of a quasi-
experimental study?

A. Level I

B. Level II

C. Level III

D. Level IV
115. A researcher wants to discover why patients of certain ethnic backgrounds are reluctant to ask
for pain medication. Because there are little data in the literature on this topic, the researcher designs a
study to explore the relationships between cultural belief systems, the experience of pain, and the
effective use of medication to relieve pain. The researcher plans to use the findings of this study to
formulate hypotheses for a future study. What is a characteristic of this study?

A. It is a quasi-experimental study.

B. It will lead to level II data.

C. It has a directional hypothesis.

D. It is a hypothesis-generating study.

116. The nurse develops the following hypothesis: Elderly women receive less aggressive treatment
for breast cancer than do younger women. Which variable would be considered to be the dependent
variable?

A. Degree of treatment received

B. Age of the patient

C. Type of cancer being treated

D. Use of inpatient treatment

117. The nurse develops the following hypothesis: Elderly women receive less aggressive treatment
for breast cancer than do younger women. Which variable would be considered to be the independent
variable?

A. Degree of treatment received

B. Age of the patient

C. Type of cancer being treated

D. Use of inpatient treatment

118. The following are considered steps in the qualitative research process, except?

A. Literature review

B. Hypothesis

C. Sample

D. Data collection

119. Which of the following could be considered the “context” of a study? Select all that apply.

A. Cultural understandings and beliefs of study participants

B. The physical setting of the study

C. The sample selected for the study


D. The number of subjects in the study

120. Which beliefs guide the constructivist paradigm? Select all that apply.

A. There are multiple realities.

B. The truth is objective.

C. Context does not matter as much as truth.

D. The participant (subject) is an active part of the study

121. Which of the following are consistent with the constructivist paradigm? Select all that apply.

A. Subjectivism is valued.

B. Natural laws exist.

C. Time and place are important.

D. Generalizability is valued.

122. Which paradigm provides the basis for qualitative research?

A. Empirical analytical research

B. Constructivism

C. Postpositivism

D. Naturalistic research

123. Which type of research allows researchers to be neutral observers?

A. Qualitative research

B. Ethnographic research

C. Quantitative research

D. Case studies

124. Which type of research study can be affected by detracting values of the researcher?

A. Qualitative

B. Naturalistic

C. Ethnographic

D. Quantitative

125. What is the purpose of grounded theory?

A. To support theoretical frameworks

B. To generate theory from data


C. To develop explanatory models

D. To find significant differences among groups of people

126. Why is it important to understand the philosophy underlying each type of research?

A. Conclusions reached should be congruent with the research question.

B. The research method that best meets intended purpose of the study should be used.

C. The paradigm of the method should be the same as that of the researcher.

D. The reader should understand the level of abstraction of the study.

127. Which conceptual analysis point of the framework for rigor used for interpretive
phenomenology refers to how the study findings will continue to have meaning for the reader?

A. Resonance

B. Concreteness

C. Actualization

D. Openness

128. Which question will critique the sampling of a research project?

A. Is the strategy used for analysis compatible with the purpose of the study?

B. What is the projected significance of the work to nursing?

C. Are the informants who were chosen appropriate to inform the research?

D. What are the philosophic underpinnings of the research method?

129. Which question will critique the method of a research project?

A. Is the strategy used for analysis compatible with the purpose of the study?

B. What is the projected significance of the work to nursing?

C. Are the informants who were chosen appropriate to inform the research?

D. What are the philosophic underpinnings of the research method?

130. Which question will critique the purpose of a research project?

A. Is the strategy used for analysis compatible with the purpose of the study?

B. What is the projected significance of the work to nursing?

C. Are the informants who were chosen appropriate to inform the research?

D. What are the philosophic underpinnings of the research method?

131. Which question will critique the credibility of a research project?


A. Is the strategy used for analysis compatible with the purpose of the study?

B. Does the researcher document the research process?

C. Are the researcher’s conceptualizations true to the data?

D. Has adequate time been allowed to understand fully the phenomenon?

132. Which question will critique the auditability of a research project?

A. Is the strategy used for analysis compatible with the purpose of the study?

B. Does the researcher document the research process?

C. Are the researcher’s conceptualizations true to the data?

D. Has adequate time been allowed to fully understand the phenomenon?

133. Which question will critique the fittingness of a research project?

A. Is the strategy used for analysis compatible with the purpose of the study?

B. Does the researcher document the research process?

C. Are the researcher’s conceptualizations true to the data?

D. Has adequate time been allowed to fully understand the phenomenon?

134. What are the uses of qualitative research methods? Select all that apply.

A. Guiding nursing practice

B. Studying the effects of nursing care on an outcome variable

C. Developing survey instruments

D. Developing nursing theory

135. What are scientific criteria appropriate for qualitative research? Select all that apply.

A. Auditability

B. Credibility

C. Fittingness

D. Reliability

136. What are ethical concerns for qualitative researchers? Select all that apply.

A. Because the study emerges over time, the researcher may not anticipate and inform the
participants of a potential threat.

B. To maintain a naturalistic environment for interviews, formal documents such as consent forms
are not used.
C. Because there are so few participants in a qualitative study, no participant can opt out of the
study.

D. Because the researcher and participant interact over a period of time, relationships developed
between them may change the focus of the interaction.

137. Which of the following is most accurate regarding the grounded-theory method?

A. Data are collected using an etic perspective.

B. It is a process of constructing human experience.

C. Secondary sources are sometimes used.

D. It is an inductive approach.

138. What is the term used for the coding and clustering of data to form categories in the grounded-
theory method?

A. Theoretical sampling

B. Constant-comparative method

C. Emic method

D. Metasynthesis

139. What is a characteristic of an intrinsic case study?

A. It yields a better understanding of each case.

B. It provides a foundation to challenge a generalization.

C. It does not include quantitative data.

D. It can scrutinize only uncomplicated phenomena.

140. What is a characteristic of metasynthesis?

A. It is useful for triangulating research.

B. It synthesizes critical masses of qualitative findings.

C. It leads to a higher reliability of research findings.

D. It cannot be conducted on historical or case study findings.

141. What is meant by the “fittingness” of a research study?

A. Truth of findings as judged by the participants

B. The appropriateness of the interview questions posed

C. Faithfulness to everyday reality of the participants

D. The adequacy of the coding system used


142. How can qualitative outcome analysis be used? Select all that apply.

A. To determine the reliability of intervention outcomes in a study

B. To confirm the applicability of clinical strategies

C. To develop interventions and then test those selected

D. To build theory

143. When critiquing a qualitative study, which of the following questions are helpful in determining
the study’s auditability? Select all that apply.

A. Has adequate time been allowed to understand the phenomenon fully?

B. Can the reader follow the researcher’s thinking?

C. Are the results meaningful to individuals not involved in the research?

D. Does the researcher document the research process?

144. Which question is helpful in determining the study’s credibility?

A. Do the participants recognize the experience as their own?

B. What strategies were used to analyze the data?

C. How were human subjects protected?

D. Are the findings applicable outside the study situation?

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