STA.

IGNACIA HIGH SCHOOL

Private Time Started:___________
SANTA IGNACIA, TARLAC 2303 Time Completed:________
Time Elapsed:___________
4th FINAL EXAMINATION in MEDIA LITERACY and INFORMATION
March 20, 2020
Name:________________________ Score:____________
Grade and Section:
I. MULTIPLE CHOICE
_______1. It is the ability to access, analyze, evaluate and create media.
a. Media c. media literacy
b. Information literacy d. technology literacy
_______2. These are acquired data for specific purpose.
a. Information c. media
b. Technology d. literacy
_______3. It is the systematic application of one’s art or skill for a practical purpose.
a. Information c. media
b. Technology d. literacy
_______4. This is the skill that allows a person to recognize when information is needed and how he will be able to access, locate,
evaluate and use it effectively.
a. Information literacy c. media literacy
b. Technology literacy d. media and information literacy
_______5. It is the ability to acquire relevant information and use modern-day tools to get, manage and communicate information.
a. Information literacy c. media literacy
b. Technology literacy d. media and information literacy
_______6. This refers to how a person is able to look for relevant information from various media with the help of technology.
a. Information literacy c. media literacy
b. Technology literacy d. media and information literacy
_______7. Examples of these are radio, television, newspaper and internet.
a. Media c. literacy
b. Technology d. information
_______8. This characterize by conveying a message of information that is accurate, factual, and truthful
a. Fairness and objectivity c. truthfulness
b. Empathy d. responsibility
_______9. This is being in another person’s shoes.
a. Sympathy c. responsibility
b. Empathy d. integrity
_______10. Media practitioners are expected to show professionalism regardless of the situation they are in.
a. Responsibility and integrity c. fairness and objectivity
b. Hard working d. truthfulness
_______11. What types of work are copyrighted? Check all that apply.
a. Dramatic b. Musical c. Graphical d. Speeches
_______12. When does someone get copyright protection?
a. When the author gets paid.
b. As soon as the work is created.
c. When it is published with a © symbol.
d. When it is registered for copyright.
_______13. How long in the U.S. does copyright last?
a. Forever, as long as someone holds the copyright
b. 70 years after it is create
c. A person's life plus 70 years after death
d. It depends on the type of registration that was bought
_______14. What happens to the work after the copyright time has passed?
a. It can be bought c. There is no time-limit on copyright
b. The work must be destroyed d. It goes into the public domain
_______15. Something must have the © sign to be copyrighted.
a. True, how else would you know if it was in the public domain or not?
b. False, a work belongs to the creator whether or not there is a © symbol
_______16. What is fair use?
a. Paying the creator a fair price for the work
b. Using paid-for commercial products once and not sharing them
c. Limited copying or distribution of published works without the author's permission
d. Freeware that you obtain from the Internet
_______17. What are the four factors that determine if the use of copyrighted material falls under fair use?
a. Purpose, Content, Amount, and Market Effect
b. Purpose, Amount, Environment, and Market Effect
c. Substantiality, Use, Nature, and Market Effect
d. Purpose, Nature, Amount, and Market Effect
_______18. Non-profit and educational uses will generally weigh in favor of fair use as opposed to:
a. News Reporting c. Scientific Use
b. Commercial Use d. Respective Uses
_______19. Understanding the difference between primary and secondary sources is important because...
a. different types of sources provide different kinds of information.
b. sometimes a primary source has a greater impact in a paper than a secondary source.
c. primary sources can often be biased and provide a skewed version of history, where secondary sources usually remain
neutral.
d. all of the above
_______20. What form of digital media uses file formats with the abbreviations JPEG, PNG and TIFF
a. Images b. Photographs c. Video d. Audio
_______21. With images, audio and video, what is the usual relationship between file size and media quality
a. Smaller file = faster to download and better quality
a. Smaller file = faster to download but poorer quality
b. Bigger file = slower to download but better quality
c. Bigger file = slower to download and poorer quality
_______22. Which of the following online services does not enable the sharing of videos?
a. Sound Cloud c. Tumblr
b. Flickr d. None of the above - they all support video.
_______23. Which of the following statement is false?
a. Smartphones now have very high quality built in audio, video and photo capabilities. The results are just as good as what
can be obtained by using professional cameras and recording equipment.
b. If young people already have smartphones, they can be a handy way to generate photos, audio and video quickly. The
quality may not be great though
c. The audio, video and photo quality of smartphones is so poor that they are not worth using for research purposes.
d. Modern smartphones can produce still images of a reasonable quality. The quality of video and audio they produce is less
good, but this can be improved by using certain apps and add-on devices.
_______24. What do Audacity, Wavepad and GarageBand have in common?
a. They are all open source.
b. They are all used for audio editing and production.
c. They are all designed to work on mobile devices.
d. They are all free.
_______25. Which of the following video editing packages are available for the iPad
a. Final Cut Pro c. Avid Studio
b. iMovie d. Adobe Premiere
_______26. What different audio-visual media can be embedded into Google maps
a. Only photographs. c. Only video.
b. Photographs and video, but not audio. d. Photographs, video and audio.
_______27. What are the key differences between YouTube and Vimeo (There is more than one correct answer.)
a. Vimeo is better quality than YouTube.
b. YouTube has more users than Vimeo.
c. It is easier to download videos from YouTube than Vimeo.
d. Vimeo allows you to upload longer videos than YouTube.
_______28. Refers to the conventions, formats, symbols and narrative structures which indicate to an audience the meaning of media
messages. Symbolically, the language of electronic media work in much the same way as grammar works in print media. (UNESCO
MIL Curriculum for Teachers)
a. Media Codes, Conventions, Languages and Messages
b. Media Education
c. Media Literacy
d. Media Convergence
_______29. Refers to materials, programs, applications and the like that teachers and students use to formulate new information to aid
learning through the use, analysis, evaluation and production of interactive and hands-on media.
a. Information c. Media Convergence
b. Media Education d. Manipulative Information and
_______30. Refers to a theory that people receive and interpret media messages in the light of their own history, experience and
perspective so that different groups of people may interpret the same message in different ways
a. Internet Addiction c. Massive Open Online Course
b. Active audience d. Audience
_______31. Understanding and using mass media in either an assertive or non-assertive way, including an informed and critical
understanding of media, what techniques they employ and their effects. Also the ability to read, analyze, evaluate and produce
communication in a variety of media forms, e.g. television, print, radio, computers etc. Another understanding of the term is the
a. Media Convergence c. Media Education
b. Media and Information Literacy d. Media Literacy
_______32. Refers to virtual reality or interactive 3D and have a figurative appearance. Current examples range from 3D printer, 3D
films, holograms, etc.
a. Massive Open Online Course c. People Media
b. Three Dimensional Technology d. New Media
_______33. Refers to content organized and distributed on digital platforms.
a. New Media c. People Media
b. Media d. Netiquette
_______34. Ability to decode, analyze, evaluate and produce communication in a variety of forms.
a. Media Literacy
b. Media
c. Media Convergence
d. Media Codes, Conventions, Languages and Messages
_______35. Refers to the abilities to recognize when information is needed and to locate, evaluate, effectively use, and communicate
information in its various formats.
a. Information Literacy
b. Internet
c. Information
d. Text Information and Media
_______36. Physical object used to communicate media messages.
a. People Media c. Netiquette
a. Media d. Internet
_______37. A broad term that can cover data, knowledge derived from study, experience, or instruction, signals or symbols. In the
media world, information is often used to describe knowledge of specific events or situations that has been gathered or received by
communication, intelligence or news.
a. New (Information) Age
b. Text Information and Media
c. Information
d. Information Literacy
_______38. Which of the following is not part of 'Media Literacy'?
a. One-way. 
b. Critically analyzing media content by considering its particular presentation, its underlying political or social messages 
c. Assessing media ownership and regulation issues that may affect what media is presented in what form 
d. All of the above
_______39. The grammar includes which of the following of media?
a. The size and design of books, newspapers, and magazines 
b. The types of camera angles used on television, editing, lighting, sound effects and music to help cue viewers 
c. Use of sound effects, actualities, and voice overs on radio 
d. All of the above
_______40. The notion of media effects refers to
a. The way that companies control and direct media content. 
b. A lack of politeness in how we communicate with each other through social media. 
c. The concern that media content and mediums might affect our thinking or behavior in some way. 
d. The bodily health risks associated with electromagnetic radiation from devices like mobile phones. 
_______41. What is a main complaint critics of our commercial media system have regarding commercial media?
a. Media companies often use their influence to pursue their own interests at the expense of the public interest. 
b. Media companies waste a lot of money creating lavishly produced shows that are not popular. 
c. For-profit companies buy promising start-ups and nonprofit media companies, absorbing them or shutting them down. 
d. Media companies produce too much content for anyone to watch, creating frustration among the public. 
_______42. What refers to the exchange of information and the expression of feeling that can result in understanding?
a. Communication c. information
b. media literacy d. information literacy
_______43. A way of life or living of a person or group.
a. Lifestyle b. preference c. habit d. reference
_______44. The selecting of someone or something over another or others.
a. Lifestyle b. preference c. habit d. reference
_______45. A recurrent, often unconscious pattern of behavior that is acquired through frequent repetition.
a. Lifestyle b. preference c. habit d. reference
_______46. What type of communication wherein the process of sending and receiving messages without using words, either spoken or
written?
a. Non-verbal communication c. verbal communication
b. Communication d. sign language
_______47. What type of communication wherein the message is transmitted through the spoken words?
a. Non-verbal communication c. verbal communication
b. Communication d. speech
_______48. What refers to the ability to use digital technology, communication tools or networks to locate, evaluate, use and create
information?
a. Information literacy c. media Literacy
b. technology literacy d. media and information
_______49. What refers to the ability to read, analyze, evaluate and produce communication in a variety of media forms?
a. Information literacy c. media Literacy
b. technology literacy d. media and information
_______50. What refers to the ability to recognize when information is needed and to locate, evaluate, effectively use and communicate
information in its various formats?
a. Information literacy c. media Literacy
b. technology literacy d. media and information
_______51. What refers to the essential competencies (knowledge, skills and attitude) that allow citizens to engage with media and
other information providers effectively and develop critical thinking and life-long learning skills for socializing and becoming active
citizens?
a. Media and information literacy c. Media and platform literacy
b. Media and technology literacy d. Media and social literacy
_______52. In what age wherein the internet paved the way for faster communication and the creation of the social network?
a. Industrial age c. new age
b. electronic age d. pre-industrial age
_______53. In what age wherein the people used the power of steam, developed machine tools, established iron production, and the
manufacturing of various products (including books through the printing press)?
a. Industrial age c. new age
b. electronic age d. pre-industrial age
_______54. A digital media that are interactive, incorporate two- way communication and involve some form of computing.
a. New media c. print media
b. old media d. radio
_______55. The term "mass media" means
Means of communication
Something that comes with an accepted meaning
Means of communicating to a large group of people
A current style
_______56. What the government agency is responsible for rating television programs and films in the Philippines?
a. MTRCB b. SPG c. GMRC d. GMA
_______57. What refers to ideas or statements that are often false or exaggerated and that are spread in order to help a cause, a
political leader, a government, etc.?
a. Propaganda b. commercial c. news d. social media
_______58. What do you call the local knowledge – knowledge that is unique to a given culture or society?
a. indigenous Knowledge c. cultural knowledge
b. background knowledge d. knowledge
_______59. Is the mechanical or electronic process of reproducing identical writings or images based on an original.
a. Copying b. producing c. printing d. picturing
______60. What refers to a worldwide network of computers that use the same telecommunication protocol?
a. Internet b. website c. facebook d. Instagram

II. Identify the correct letter of the answer to the following

A. INFORMATION LITERACY B. MEDIA LITERACY C. TECHNOLOGY LITERACY
______1. James found erroneous facts in the newspaper he is reading.
______2.Peter uses his tablet to read his e-books, which he downloaded using an app.
______3. Charlene, an exchange students, tells her mother that she misses her through e-mail.
______4. The teacher told the students to go to the library for their research activity.
______5. A mother bought an alphabet chart for her four-year-old daughter.
______6. Mike is preparing a powerpoint presentation for his report in history.
______7. The Stem 6-Pasteur is researching about the effects of social media on students’ performance in class.
______8. Marie chats with her friends in London very often.
______9. We heard from the radio that there was a strong earthquake that struck Leyte yesterday.
______10. The Grade-10 students are to create a webpage of their advertisement in Economics.

III. Write “P” for print media, “B” for broadcast media , “F” for film, and “N” for new media.
______1. Unang Hirit aired on channel 7.
______2. Harry Potter Complete Series Boxed Set Collection
______3. Promotional poster uploaded in Facebook
______4. Media and Information Literacy textbook
______5. Don’t Let Me Down by The Chainsmokers in Spotify
______6. 24- Oras news program uploaded on YouTube
______7. One Punch-man manga uploaded in MyManga website
______8. Jason Bourne movie shown in theaters
______9. Philippine Daily Inquirer news paper
______10. 7 Years by Lukas Graham played on 90.7 Love Radio

Prepared by:

Ms. Mirasol Y. Verano

Subject Teacher
 STA. IGNACIA HIGH SCHOOL
Private Time Started:___________
SANTA IGNACIA, TARLAC 2303 Time Completed:________
Time Elapsed:___________
4th FINAL EXAMINATION in PHYSICAL SCIENCE
March 20, 2020
Name:________________________ Score:____________
Grade and Section:
I. MULTIPLE CHOICE
______1. It is a subatomic particle, symbol e− or β−, with a negative elementary electric charge.
a. Neutron b. Electron c. Proton d. Atom
______2. It is the smallest constituent unit of ordinary matter that has the properties of a chemical element.
a. Neutron b. Electron c. Proton d. Atom
3. It is a subatomic particle, symbol p or p+ , with a positive electric charge of +1e elementary charge and mass
slightly less than that of a neutron.
a. Neutron b. Electron c. Proton d. Atom
______4. It is a subatomic particle, symbol n or n0 , with no net electric charge and a mass slightly larger than
that of a proton.
a. Neutron b. Electron c. Proton d. Atom

______5. What type of nuclear reaction is this?

a. Alpha decay
b. Gama decay
c. Beta decay
d. No nuclear reaction
______6. It is a type of radioactive decay in which an atomic nucleus emits an alpha particle and thereby
transforms or 'decays' into an atom with a mass number that is reduced by four and an atomic number that is
reduced by two
a. Alpha Decay b. Beta Decay c. Gamma Ray d. Radiation
______7. It is a type of radioactive decay in which a beta ray (fast energetic electron or positron) and a neutrino
are emitted from an atomic nucleus.
a. Alpha Decay b. Beta Decay c. Gamma Ray d. Radiation
______8. What type of nuclear reaction is this?
a. Alpha decay
b. Gama decay
c. Beta decay
d. No nuclear reaction
______9. In atomic physics and quantum chemistry, the electron configuration is the distribution of electrons of
an atom or molecule in atomic or molecular orbitals.
a. Electron Configuration c. Periodic Table of Elements
b. Orbital Model d. Energy Levels
______10. What type of nuclear reaction is this?
a. Alpha decay
b. Gama decay
c. Beta decay
d. No nuclear reaction
______11. A measurement standard is defined as
a. a system of prefixes
b. the distance between two points
c. the exact quantity people agree to use for comparison
d. the interval between two events
______12. The prefix kilo- means ____.
a. 1,000 b. 0.01 c. 100 d. 0.001
______13. The correct symbol for the SI unit of temperature is ____.
a. . ºC b. K c. ºF d. s
______14. The SI unit that is used to measure time is the ____.
a. Kelvin b. second c. kilogram d. meter
______15. A box is 25 cm long, 6 cm wide, and 4 cm high. How many cubic centimeters of water can it
hold?
a. 600 b. 50 c. 25 d. 24
______16. Another term for technology is
a. a. applied science c. matter
b. energy d. pure science
______17. The process of gathering information through the senses is called ____.
a. analysis b. hypothesis c. observation d. inference
______18. When designing an experiment, the first step is to
a. analyze the data c. list a procedure
b. state a hypothesis d. state the problem
______19. A rule or principle that describes what happens in nature is a
a. hypothesis c. scientific law
b. problem d. theory
______20. An explanation of an event that is based on repeated observations and experiments is a
a. hypothesis c. problem
b. scientific law d. theory
______21. In an experiment to determine whether the popping of popcorn is affected by the
temperature at which it is stored, counting the popped kernels is an example of a(n)
a. conclusion c. hypothesis
b. control d. observation
______22. A standard for comparison that helps to ensure that the experimental result is caused by
the condition being tested is the ____. a. constant c. dependent variable b. control d. hypothesis
______23. A factor in an experiment that changes from the manipulation of the independent variable
is the
a. constant c. dependent variable
b. control d. hypothesis
______24. A factor that does NOT change in an experiment is the
a. constant c. dependent variable
b. control d. hypothesis
______25. Studying the effect of one thing on another in order to test a hypothesis is a(n)
a. exercise b. constant c. experiment d. problem
______26. The application of scientific knowledge to help people is ____. a. a discovery c. pure science
b. a hypothesis d. technology
______27. If you ride your bicycle down a straight road for 500 m then turn around and ride back,
your distance is ____ your displacement
a. greater than c. less than
b. equal to d. can’t determine
______28. Motion is a change in
a. time c. velocity
b. speed d. position
______39. The speed you read on a speedometer is
a. instantaneous speed c. average speed
b. constant speed d. velocity
______30. 3 m/s north is an example of a(n)
a. speed b. position c. velocity d. acceleration
______31. The relationship among speed, distance, and time is
a. t = s/d b. s = dt c. . d = t/s d. s = d/t
______32. A merry-go-round horse moves at a constant speed but at a changing
a. velocity b. inertia c. balanced force d. unbalanced force
______33. Acceleration is rate of change of
a. position b. velocity c. time d. force
______34. If you ride your bike up a hill, then ride down the other side, your acceleration is
a. all positive c. first positive, then negative
b. all negative d. first negative, then positive
______35. The equation used to find acceleration is a
a. vf – vi /t b. vi – vf /t c. v/t d. vi + vf /t
______36. A horizontal line on a velocity/time graph shows ____ acceleration.
a. positive b. changing c. negative d. zero
______37. Inertia varies depending on
a. force b. velocity c. mass d. motion
______38. Newton's first law of motion is also called the law of
a. . mass b. force c. inertia d. constant velocity
______39. The upward force on an object falling through the air is
a. air resistance b. momentum c. inertia d. terminal velocity
______40. The relationship among mass, force, and acceleration is explained by
a. conservation of momentum
b. Newton's first law of motion
c. Newton's second law of motion
d. Newton's third law of motion
______41. A feather will fall through the air more slowly than a brick because of ____
a. air resistance b. inertia c. gravity d. momentum
______42. In the absence of air, a penny and a feather that are dropped from the same height at the
same time will
a. fall at different rates c. float
b. fall at the same rate d. not have momentum
______43. When an object moves in a circular path, it accelerates toward the center of the circle as a
result of
a. centripetal force c. gravitational force
b. frictional force d. momentum
______44. For any object, the greater the force that's applied to it, the greater its
a. acceleration b. inertia c. gravity d. velocity
______45. The size of the gravitational force between two objects depends on their
a. frictional forces
b. inertia
c. masses and the distance between them
d. speed and direction
______46. As you get farther from the center of Earth, your weight will
a. decrease c. remain the same
b. increase d. can't tell from information given
______47. When a force is exerted on a box, an equal and opposite force is exerted by the box. These
forces are called forces.
a. action-reaction b. frictional c. centripetal d. gravitational
______48. A real car moving at 10 km/h has more momentum than a toy car moving at the same
speed because the real car
a. generates less friction
b. has greater mass
c. has less mass
d. has greater forward motion
______49. In the equation p = m × v, the p represents
a. friction b. momentum c. inertia d. position
______50. The statement "to every action there is an equal and opposite reaction" is
a. the law of conservation of momentum
b. Newton's first law of motion
c. Newton's second law of motion
d. Newton's third law of motion
 II. ELECTRON CONFIGURATION
INSTRUCTIONS: Write the correct long-hand or short-hand writing of each element. You may answer in a
separate sheet of paper if more space is needed. (5 POINTS EACH)

Long-hand Writing:
1. Mendelevium -
2. Tungsten -

Short-hand Writing:

3. Neodymium -
4. Nobelium -
5. Magnesium

III. Complete the table.

Atomic Mass
Element Symbol Protons Neutron Number
Number

Nitrogen

Potassium

Polonium

Radium

Prepared by:

Ms. Mirasol Y. Verano

Subject Teacher
 STA. IGNACIA HIGH SCHOOL
Private
SANTA IGNACIA, TARLAC 2303

4th FINAL EXAMINATION in DISASTER AND RISK REDUCTION

March 20, 2020
Name:________________________ Score:____________
Grade and Section: G12- GENERALS
I. MULTIPLE CHOICE. Encircle the letter.
1. __________ is a dangerous phenomenon, substance, human activity or condition that may cause loss
of life, injury or other health impacts, property damage, loss of livelihood & services, social &
economic disruption or environmental damage
a. disaster b. hazard c. risk d. exposure
2. __________ is the combination of all strengths and resources available within the community, society or
organization that can reduce the level of risk or effects of a disaster.
a. Vulnerability b. Risk c. Exposure d. Capacity
3. __________ is a dangerous phenomenon, substance, human activity or condition that may cause loss
of life, injury or other health impacts, property damage, loss of livelihood & services, social &
economic disruption or environmental damage
a. Hazard b. Risk c. Vulnerability d. Disaster
4. Which of the following is NOT a variable/ factor that aggravates or mitigates the effects of
hazards, affecting the degree or scope of a disaster
a. physical b. socio – cultural c. economic d. none of choices
5. Which of the following statement is / are TRUE about disaster risk?
a. Disaster risk is a product of exposure to hazard and vulnerability over the capacity of
the community.
b. Disaster risk could be aggravated by lack of knowledge and preparedness
c. Disaster risk can be lessen by capacitating the individuals and community on the
possible hazards
d. None of the above
6. Which of the following impact of disaster that disturb social wealth and cohesion, wellbeing and
sometimes identity which may also result to psychological distress, conflicts and other social ills
escalate.
a. Structural b. Environmental c. Socio-Economic d. Physical
7. Which of the following is a combination of Probability of an event to happen and its negative
consequences
a. Vulnerability b. Risk c. Exposure d. Capacity
8. Which of the following are the characteristics and circumstances of a community, system or asset
that make it susceptible to the damaging effects of a hazard.
a. Vulnerability b. Risk c. Exposure d. Disaster
9. Disasters frequently result in all of the following EXCEPT
a. Damage to the ecological environment
b. Destruction of a population’s homeland
c. Displacement of populations
d. Sustained public attention during the recovery
10. All of the following are TRUE about disasters EXCEPT
a. A disaster may be domestic or international
b. A disaster may be caused by nature or have human origins
c. A disaster always receives widespread media coverage.
d. A disaster may have a known and gradual onset
11. Which of the following is defined as “the propensity to incur loss”?
a. Exposure b. Risk c. Vulnerability d. Resilience
12. Which of the following is NOT a factor of vulnerability?
a. poverty b. religion c. physical disability d. mental state
13. Which of the following describes the inability of the people, organization and society to withstand the
adverse impact to hazards due to characteristics inherent to social interactions, institutions and system
of cultural values?
a. Physical c. environmental
b. social d. economic
14. Natural resources depletion and degradation is an example of which vulnerability?
a. Physical c. environmental
b. social d. economic
15. Which of the following instances makes the Philippines more vulnerable to disaster?
a. The Philippines is comprised of islands
b. Philippines is politically divided
c. The country is near the pacific ring of fire
d. Filipinos are resilient from disasters
16. __________ is the potential disaster losses, in lives, health status, livelihoods, assets and services, which
could occur to a particular community or a society over some specified future time period
a. Disaster Risk b. Disaster c. Hazard d. Disaster Management
17. Which of the following is an example of hydrometeoroligical hazard?
a. El Niño c. earthquake
b. water pollution d. volcanic eruption
18. Tsunami is an example of which hazard?
a. Geologic c. hydrometeorological
b. technological d. biological
19. Which of the following is / are example/s of technological hazards?
a. cyber terrorism c. nuclear accidents
b. epidemic diseases d. AIDS
20. Which of the following is not a common long term impact of hazards
a. psychological c. economic
b. environmental d. technological
21. Disaster is frequently described as a result of various condition except ________.
a. exposure to hazard
b. conditions of vulnerability at present
c. having enough physical, social, and attitudinal capabilities
d. insufficient capacity or measures to cope with disasters.
22. Which can't be prevented but can be anticipated generally?
a. Human-made hazards b. Disasters
b. Socio-natural Hazards c. Natural Hazards
23. Which of the following is / are the hazards from an earthquake?
a. Liquefaction b. ground shaking c. fire d. storm surge
24. Earthquake may be caused by which of the following?
a. Tectonic b. volcanic eruption c. tsunami d. landslide
25. ________ is a disruptive up-down and sideways movement or motion experienced during an
earthquake.
a. Ground shaking c. ground rupture
b. liquefaction d. faulting
26. __________ is a displacement on the ground due to movement of fault
a. Ground shaking c. ground rupture
b. liquefaction d. grounding
27. ______________ are failures in steep or hilly slopes triggered by an earthquake
a. ground shaking c. earthquake induced landslide
b. liquefaction d. erosion
28. It is a process that transforms the behavior of a body of sediments from that of a solid to that of
a liquid when subjected to extremely intense shaking.
a. ground shaking c. earthquake induced landslide
 b. liquefaction d. erosion
29. This is a series of giant sea waves commonly generated by under-the-sea earthquakes and
whose heights could be greater than 5 meters
a. tsunami b. storm surge c. tide d. thunderstorm
30. During an earthquake, which among the following is / are the safe thing/s to do?
a. Do the “duck, cover and hold” c. Stay calm
b. Secure all your belongings d. Run immediately to a safe area
31. Which of the following might be probably the cause of an earthquake?
a. An asteroid reaching the ground c. volcanic activity
b. Tectonic activity d. tsunami
32. Which among the following would be the last to do in an earthquake incident?
a. do the “duck, cover and hold”
b. secure all your family members are safe
c. retrofit your buildings/ house from earthquake
d. remove all possible falling objects
33. Which of the following brings an immediate hazard / damage to mankind?
a. lava b. tephra c. lahar d. magma
34. These are showers of airborne fine- to coarse-grained volcanic particles that fallout from the
plumes of a volcanic eruption
a. tephra fall b. lahar c. pyroclastic flows d. ballistic projectiles
35. these are turbulent mass of ejected volcanic materials (ash and rocks),mixed with hot gases
that flow downslope at very high speeds
a. tephra fall b. lahar c. pyroclastic flows d. ballistic projectiles
36. These are Volcanic materials directly ejected from the volcano’s vent with force and trajectory
a. tephra fall b. lahar c. pyroclastic flows d. ballistic projectiles
37. Which of the following could be possible means to mitigate the impact of lava flow?
a. cooling down lava by water c. bomb explosion
b. evacuation d. stay in your houses
38. Which of the following is the best way to mitigate from all volcanic hazards?
a. cooling down lava by water c. bomb explosion
b. evacuation d. stay in your houses
39. Which among the following is the most dangerous area /place from lava flows?
a. low-lying area c. mountains
b. away from 5 km danger zone d. evacuation area
40. Which of the following hazards has the widest or has a global impact?
a. lava flows b. ballistic projectiles
b. gases emission d. lahar
41. Which of the following is/ are part of the tetrahedron of fire?
a. oxygen b. fuel c. heat d. water
42. ________________ is an active principle of burning, characterized by the heat and light of
combustion
a. Tetrahedron of fire c. fuel
b. fire d. extinguishment theory
43. It is a stage of fire wherein the fire starts and there is plenty of oxygen, little heat and smoke
a. Ignition stage b. growth stage c. flash over d. decay
44. It is a stage of fire wherein all combustibles materials present are continuously burning and
maximum amount of heat is released
a. fully developed b. flash over c. decay d. growth stage
45. It is a fire extinguishment theory that is done by oxygen dilution
a. cooling b. smothering c. fuel removal d. inhibition
46. Which of the following is an example theory of fire inhibition
a. removing the fuel from the source of fire
b. covering the fire with wet cloth
c. pouring water into the fire
 d. spraying with fire extinguisher
47. Paper, wood, and plastics are examples of which class of fire?
a. Class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class K
48. Fire caused by electrical equipment / appliances could be an example of which class of fire?
a. Class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class K
49. Why do we have to target the base of the fire during fire extinguishing?
a. to cool down the temperature
b. to stop the fuel from burning
c. to remove oxygen from the tetrahedron of fire
d. all of the above
50. Which of the following should be done when the source of fire is electrical appliances /
electricity?
a. extinguish it with water
b. use fire extinguisher
c. switch off the main fuse
d. cover the appliance with wet cloth

II. IDENTIFICATION
_______________1. It refers to a key factor of hazards that describes that every organism does not know when
hazards and disasters happen.
_______________2. Naturally occurring phenomena caused either by rapid or slow on set of events.
_______________3. A hazard originating from technological or industrial conditions
_______________4. Process or phenomenon of organic origin or conveyed by biological vectors/ agents,
including exposure to pathogenic microorganisms, toxins and bioactive substances
_______________5. Geological process or phenomenon
_______________6. Process or phenomenon of atmospheric, hydrological or oceanographic nature
_______________7. Processes where human intervention is observed
_______________8. Natural processes or phenomena of atmospheric, hydrological or oceanographic nature
_______________9. Natural earth processes or phenomena often caused by shifts in tectonic plates and seismic
activity
_______________10. Processes of organic components or those transmitted by biological vectors
III. Determine the following examples if geological, hydrological, meteorological, hydro-meteorological,
biological, man-made, technological hazards.
_______________1. Dengue
_______________2. Earthquake
_______________3. Landslide
_______________4. rabies
_______________5. COVID19
_______________6. nuclear pollution
_______________7. indoor fire
_______________8. flood
_______________9. storm surge
_______________10. extreme rainfall
_______________11. liquefaction
_______________12. tsunami
_______________13. marine and coastal hazards
_______________14. meningococcemia
_______________15. flu virus
_______________16. chemical spills
_______________17. outdoor fire
_______________18. explosions
_______________19. dam breaches
_______________20. deforestation
_______________21. loss of biodiversity
_______________22. desertification
_______________23. toxic wastes

Prepared by:
 Ms. Mirasol Y. Verano
Subject Teacher

STA. IGNACIA HIGH SCHOOL

Private
SANTA IGNACIA, TARLAC 2303

4th FINAL EXAMINATION in RESEARCH PROJECT

March 20, 2020
Name:________________________ Score:____________
Grade and Section: G12- GENERALS
I. MULTIPLE CHOICE. Encircle the letter.
1. Which of the following terms is synonymous with the word ‘investigation’, which you tend to ask questions to
probe and examine something but it does not involved any stages?
a. Research b. Inquiry c. Education d. Variable
2. It is a scientific, experimentation, or inductive manner of thinking. This also involves asking questions but it will
follow series of stages that cannot be interchanged?
a. Research b. Inquiry c. Education d. Variable
3. It is your way of obtaining knowledge about your surroundings?
a. Research b. Variable c. Education d. Learning
4. What characteristic of research states that it must take place in an organized and orderly manner?
a. Clarity b. Systematic c. Relevance d. Timeliness
5. What characteristic of research states that it must deal with facts, not with mere opinions arising from
assumptions, generalizations, predictions or conclusions?
a. Systematic b. Relevance c. Objectiveness d. Accuracy
6. What type of research shows relationships or connectedness of two factors, circumstances, or agents called
variables that affect the research?
a. Correlational research c. Explanatory research
b. Descriptive research d. Action research
7. This requires non-numerical data, which means that the research uses words rather than numbers to express the
results, the inquiry or investigation?
a. Quantitative research c. Qualitative research
b. Primary data d. Secondary data
8. These are obtained through direct observation or contact with people, objects, artifacts, paintings, etc.?
a. Primary data c. Secondary data
b. Positive approach d. Naturalistic approach
9. Some people think of quantitative research as complex because of its use of _____?
a. Hypotheses c. Numerical data
b. Factual data d. Theories
10. It is a method of research that aims at knowing what a big number of people think and feel about some
sociological issues?
a. Survey research c. True experimental research
b. Quasi-experimental research d. RRL
11. A study designed to depict the participants in an accurate way
a. Correlational study b. Descriptive research
b. Quasi-Experimental research d. Experimental research
12. A research that applies systematic empirical investigation of observable phenomena via statistical, mathematical
or computational techniques.
a. Qualitative research c. quantitative research
b. descriptive research d. Experimental research
13. Research is asking a question and _____________________________
a. writing a research paper c. finding out answer
b. computing data d. experimenting
14. Quantitative method of research in which you have 2 or more quantitative variables from the same group of
subjects, & you are trying to determine if there is a relationship
a. Correlational study c. Descriptive research
b. Quasi-Experimental research d. Experimental research
15. Quantitative research is important because it is reliable and ________________
a. special b. objective c. bias d. descriptive
16. One important goal in conducting research is to

a. Advance the personal and professional qualification of practitioner

b. Produce evidence based practice
c. Focus direction of the research
d. Describe characteristics of a population
17. The first step in the research process begins with generating research ideas for research problems and synthesis.
a. Formulating research designs and methodology
b. Establishing problems and synthesis
c. Collecting data
d. Drawing conclusion and recommendations
18. Salinity is a variable that affect the growth of seaweeds. To which of the variables does salinity fall?
a. Independent variable c. Control variable
b. Dependent variable d. moderate variable
19. The first step in research is identifying a topic, conceptualizing a research topic would include
a. Title of research
b. Finding a focus
c. Where to start
d. Discuss with fellow researchers
20. A statement that makes a specific prediction between one to two variables.
a. Problem
b. Hypotheses
c. Gap in literature
d. Proposition
21. One important basic question asked about the research title.
a. Do they meet basic questions asked?
b. Does the title describe what the study is all about?
c. What are the factors that affect the skills of teachers
d. Thinks of a topic in research which can be made and used as the title of the study.
22. An introduction answers question about the problem, one of these is.
a. What is the methodology?
b. Why is it a problem?
c. What are the conclusions?
d. What are the recommendations?
23. The problem statement is
a. Background of the study
b. The verbalization and articulation as well as the analysis of the “question” in which the researcher wants the
research to answer.
c. Description of the issues
d. Analysis of the question
24. The purpose of a background study is to
a. Report observation or research results.
b. Help you to prove the relevance of your research question and to further develop the thesis
c. Go to the library to gather data
d. Complete the research
25. A hypothesis is not the research answer , but rather
a. A theory to be tested
b. A proposal to be tested and evaluated
c. Imaginary terms or situations
d. It is an assumption in a thesis
26. A statement about the population or populations being examined that states that there is no effect, no change or
relationship.
a. Alternative hypothesis
b. Null hypothesis
c. Research hypothesis
d. Independent and dependent hypothesis
27. There are several sources of research. These are published writings and reports that critique or reports on primary
sources and can be found in periodical and references books.
a. Primary sources
b. Secondary sources
c. Tertiary sources
d. Non- documentary searching
28. Organized related literature and studies to inform the reader of what is
a. A researchable area
b. A known and conflicting area
c. A research area of interest
d. A broad area of research
29. Component of research process wherein it describes properly the relationship of variables is
a. Assumptions c. Research design
b. Data processing d. Theoretical framework
30. A popular system of referencing is the APA format also called
a. A brief citation of the sources in text and full citations and all work cited in the text.
b. Author- date method of parenthetical documentation or in text citation.
c. Footnotes and endnotes used to acknowledge the source of the idea or authorship.
d. A list of citation of sources whereby each citation is given description historical and textual explanation.
31. Plagiarism is to
a. Use inappropriate statistical techniques in order to obtain favorable results and enhance the significance of one’s
research.
b. Present someone else’s ideas or work as your own.
c. Publish the same paper in two different journals without informing the editor.
d. Discuss with your colleagues data from the paper that you are reviewing for a journal
32. Paraphrasing is
a. Harm that is physical, financial, or psychological experienced by the participants.
b. Using someone’s idea in own words to restate the author’s ideas and acknowledge to give credits to the original
author.
c. Minimizing harm and risk to human lives
d. Making derogatory comments and personal attacks in the review of author’s submitted work.
33. Written documents such as books, periodicals, magazines, journals, newspapers and legal citations.
a. Primary sources
b. Related literature
c. Secondary sources
d. Related studies
34. Previous studies that involves similar variables including theses, dissertations, scholarly written papers, studies,
published and unpublished.
a. Primary sources c. Related literature
b. Related studies d. Secondary sources
35. The purpose of review of related literature and studies is to inform the reader about what already is known, what
is not known or research blank spots.
a. Blind spots/ conflicting areas
b. Unexplored areas
c. Research gap
d. Irrelevant statement
36. A written or visual presentation that explains either graphically or in narrative form, the main things to be
studies, the key factors, concepts or variables and the assumed relationship among them.
a. Independent variable c. Theoretical variable
b. Conceptual variable d. Dependent variable
37. One of the qualities of good researcher that he keeps on inventing unique, new, and original researches is
a. Efficient c. Resourceful
b. Creative d. Scientific
38. It is response variable which is observed and measured to determine the effect of stimulus variable is
a. Intervening variable c. Independent variable
b. Moderate variable d. Dependent variable
39. A statement showing the research design and methodology or the entire process of research using a theory or
theories for developing a hypothesis.
a. Conceptual framework
b. Theoretical framework
c. Independent variable
d. Dependent variable
40. In interpreting hypothesis test result, any result that lies outside of the confidence level, can be
a. Confirmed c. Accepted
b. Rejected d. Alternated
41. In a final research output, the ____________ is referred to the “bottom line”.
a. Appendices c. Conclusions
b. References d. Recommendations
42. In a non-random sampling technique, the researcher uses _________ sampling when they include people that are
available as they are easily recruited.
a. Quota c. Convenience
b. Purposive d. Cluster
43. This technique is not a non-random sampling technique
a. Quota b. Purposive
 c. Convenience d. Cluster
44. In one of the items below, it illustrates how recommendation in a research report should be stated: “Increase
enrollment through marketing campaign” this illustrates a recommendation that is
a. Specifically stated c. Time - bound
b. Measurable d. Result orient
45. The element in the front matter of a thesis that ensures the use of other works cited is in accordance with legal requirements.
a. Title page
b. Approval sheet
c. Copyright page
d. Acknowledgement
46. Which of the following refers to large scale collaboration in research?
a. Information and computer technology
b. Middleware
c. Cyber infrastructure
d. E – research
47. In writing the front matter of a thesis, the ________carries the names and signature of adviser and panel of examiners.
a. Title page c. Copyright page
b. Acknowledgement d. Approval sheet
48. Which of the following qualitative approaches describe individual experiences of a phenomenon?
a. Phenomenology c. Case studies
b. Ethnography d. Grounded theory
49. In organizing the research report, the chapter title assumes the ____________headings.
a. Multilevel headings c. First level
b. Third level d. Second level
50. For appropriate sub - heading of thesis elements, the statistical tools or treatment are cited in.
a. Sampling techniques
b. Data analysis
c. Data gathering procedure
d. Research problem
II.Identify whether the following is classified as ACTION, APPLIED, PURE, DESCRIPTIVE, EXPLORATORY, EXPLANATORY,
or CORRELATION research.
______________1.Vygotsky’s Zone of Proximal Development
______________2. The Effects of Wrestling TV Programs to the Behavior of Children
______________3. Textbook vs. ICT Instruction in the High School Level
______________4. Favorite Koreanovelas among Teenagers in the Metro
______________5. Experiences of Female Inmates in the Correctional Institution
______________6. Solving Tardiness in the Grade 7 Level
______________7. Improving the Oral Reading Skills of Senior High School Students
______________8. Difficulties Encountered by SHS Students in Research
______________9. Stories of Street Children
______________10. Technology Transfer on Improving Rice Production in the Philippines
A. Identify the Dependent and Independent variable in each sentence.
______________1. A study was done to find if different tire treads affect the braking distance of a car.
______________2. The time it takes to run a mile depends on the person’s running speed.
______________3. The height of bean plants depends on the amount of water they receive.
______________4. The higher the temperature of the air in the oven, the faster a cake will bake.
______________5. Lemon trees receiving the most water produced the most lemons.
______________6. An investigation found that more bushels of potatoes were produced when the soil was fertilized more.
______________7. Students measured the temperature of the water at different depths in Lake ______________8. Skywalker and
found that the temperature varied.
______________9. The amount of pollution produced by cars was measured for cars using gasoline containing different amounts of
lead.
______________10. Four groups of rats are first massed and then fed identical diets except for the amount of vitamin A they
receive. Each group gets a different amount. After 3 weeks on the diet, the rats’ masses are measured again to see if there has been
a decrease.
______________11. Students of different ages were given the same puzzle to assemble. The puzzle assembly time was measured.
III.- TRUE OR FALSE
Write TRUE if the statement is correct and if FALSE write the correct answer of the underlined word.
______________1. The process of inquiry-based learning is composed of asking, investigating, creating, discussing, and
interpreting.
______________2. Inquiry-based learning nurture students’ passions and talents.
______________3. Research is a process of executing various attitudinal acts.
______________4. The scientific method teaches grit, perseverance, growth mindset and self-regulation.
_____________6. Research requires a person to engage in lower order thinking strategies such as interpreting, analyzing,
synthesizing, criticizing, appreciating, creating to discover the truths.
______________7. Accuracy refers to the provision of correct or accurate data.
______________8. Being objective refers to the characteristic of doing processes in an organize or orderly manner.
______________9. To work independently provides the purpose of not being influenced by others through one source of
knowledge or spoon feeding.
______________10. Relevance refers to the expression of ideas by using simple, direct, concise, and correct language.
______________11. Triangulation of simultaneously collecting both quantitative and qualitative data, merging the data, and using
the results to best understand the research problem.

Prepared by:

Ms. Mirasol Y. Verano

Subject Teacher