ILIGAN MEDICAL CENTER COLLEGE

College of Nursing & Midwifery

CHN Evaluation Exam

NAME: ___________________________ COURSE & YR: ________ DATE: ________

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct ANSWER for each of the following questions.
Write your LETTER answers on the separate sheet paper.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

Situation 1: Specific defenses of the body involve the immune system. Nurses should
be knowledgeable on the importance of immunity in the prevention of communicable
diseases.

1. The state of being protected against a particular disease is known as _____

a. Antigen b. Immunity c. Phagocytes d. Enzymes
2. What is the job of B cells?
a. To produce antigen c. To produce enzymes
b. To produce antibodies d. To produce lymphocytes
3. Which is the leading cause of death worldwide?
a. Viruses c. Poor hygiene
b. Communicable diseases d. Contaminated water
4. The time interval between the first exposure to the appearance  of the first signs
and symptoms is called:
a. Prodromal sign c. Incubation period
b. Stage of illness d. Convalescence
5. A person who harbors the microorganism but does not manifest the signs and
symptoms of the disease is called:
a. Contact b. Infected c. Suspected d. Carrier
6. Which is the single most effective way to prevent disease?
a. Get vaccinated c. Drink plenty of water
b. Perform general handwashing d. Wash food properly
7. Which of the following groups of individuals is most susceptible to infection?
a. Middle-aged adults b. Young adults c. Young children d. Newborn infants

Situation 2: Tuberculosis has been declared an emergency for sometime in the

country by the WHO.

8. DOTS is a comprehensive strategy to cure TB. The primary element of DOTS is:
a. Health workers counsel and observe their patients swallow each anti-TB
medications and monitor progress until cured
b. Regular drug supply
c. Political will in terms of manpower and funding
d. Sputum microscopy services
9. In the TB control program, the DOH has specific objectives, one of which is the
prevention of TB among children. Which one below is this program?
a. Sputum collection and examination c. Tuberculin skin testing
d. EPI for BCG vaccine d. Maternal and child health nursing
10. Category I of the PTB regimen is prescribed to all of the following, EXCEPT:
a. A new sputum positive PTB patient
b. Seriously ill patient with extensive parenchymal involvement
c. Seriously ill patient with extra-pulmonary form of PTB
d. Previously treated patient classified as relapse or failure
11. The source of PTB infection is through which of the following?
a. Contamination of portable water c. Direct contact with infected person
 b. Crowded living patterns d. Sexual intercourse
12. Which of the following statements is a primary preventive measure for PTB?
a. Provide public health nursing outreach services
b. BCG vaccination of newborns and grade 1 school entrants
c. Make available medical and X-ray facilities
d. Educate the public on the mode of transmission and methods of control of PTB

Situation 3. An increase in the incidence of communicable diseases is commonly

observed among countries with young population. Communicable disease prevention
program is an important function of the public health nurse in the improvement of the
quality of life.

13. As a nursing intervention for preventing injury when a rabid patient is in

convulsion, the nurse tells the family or watcher to:
a. Call the nurse when the client suffers from convulsion
b. Give sedative so the patient can sleep
c. Stay with the patient all the time
d. Restrain the patient and ring the bell
14. Carlito is bitten by a dog. The nurse interviewed Carlito and his father to take
the history before seeing the doctor. The nurse instructed the father not to kill the
dog because the dog will be:
a. Given a vaccine b. Confined c. Observed for 10 to 14 days d. Be examined
15. Tuberculosis is primarily a respiratory disease caused by tubercle bacilli.
Which mode of transmission is extremely contagious.
a. ingestion of food b. airborne c. animal handling d. skin contact
16. Which of the following is a priority objective in PTB control?
a. sputum treatment c. reduction of risk
b. distribution of medicine d. referral to health center
17. When an older person is affected with PTB, which of the following measures will
you advise to effectively prevent the spread of the disease to other members of the
family.
a. Cover mouth and nose when coughing or sneezing b. Isolate the person
c. X-ray members of the family d. Continue taking medications
18. The world health organization is concerned of the unnecessary deaths of children
below 5 years old in developing countries, and trying to fight this unnecessary deaths
according to WHO, the most common cause of death among these under 5 years old
children is:
a. Diarrhea b. Pneumonia c. Malaria d. Malnutrition
19. The nurse reads the client’s Mantaux skin test as positive. The nurse notes that the
previous tests werenegative. The client becomes upset and asks the nurse what this
means. The nurse response is based on the understanding that the client has:
a. No evidence of tuberculosis c. Client has systemic tuberculosis
b. Pulmonary tuberculosis d. Exposure to tuberculosis
20. The nurse is caring for the client diagnosed with tuberculosis. Which of the
following assessments,if made by the nurse, are not consistent with the usual clinical
presentation of tuberculosis.
a. Non productive or productive cough c. Anorexia and weight loss
b. Chills and night sweats d. High grade fever
21. The nurse is teaching the client with tuberculosis about dietary elements that
should increased in the diet. The nurse suggests that the client increase intake of:
a. Meats and citrus fruits c. Grains and broccoli
b. Eggs and spinach d. Potatoes and fish
22. The nurse has given the client with tuberculosis instructions for proper and disposal
of respiratory secretions. The nurse evaluates that the client understands the
instructions if the client verbalizes to:
a. Wash hands at least four times a day
b. Turn the head to the side if coughing or sneezing
 c. Discard the used tissues in the plastic bag
d. Brush the teeth and rinse the mouth once a day
23. Mang Jose, 42 years old, went to the Chest Center to avail of the free Direct
Sputum Smear Microscopy. Which among the following is a contraindication for sputum
collection?
a. Pleural effusion c. Hemoptysis
b. TB meningitis d. Miliary TB
24.Mang Jose began his treatment regimen for tuberculosis. He complains of frequent
tingling sensation of his feet. Which among the following diets shout be encouraged?
a. Fish b. Kangkong c. Milk d. Beef

Situation 4: Abel complained of dizziness, vomiting, headache and numbness of the

face especially around the mouth after 45 minutes of eating shellfish. He was rushed to
the hospital and was diagnosed with Paralytic Shellfish Poisoning (PCP) or Red Tide
Poisoning.

25. In addition to the above mentioned signs and symptoms manifested by Abel, he
may also manifest the following:
a. Blurred vision and rapid rise in the blood pressure
b. Seizures, bradycardia, hematemesis and chest pain
c. Tachycardia, dysphagia, paresthesia and ataxia
d. Floating sensation, hypertension, bradycardia and abdominal pain
26. Which of the following statement is not true about red tide poisoning?
a. The toxin is totally destroyed upon cooking
b. Symptoms occur within minutes or several hours after ingestion of poisonous
shellfish
c. It is caused by a plankton
d. Symptoms include tingling sensation and paresthesia
27. Nurse Nena is giving health education to the family of Abel regarding Red Tide
Poisoning. Abel asked the nurse, “Does cooking the shellfish make it safe to eat?”
Nurse Nena best response is:
a. “Yes, as long as you cook the shellfish properly at a boiling point.”
b. “No, the poisons are not destroyed by cooking.”
c. “Yes, the toxins are easily destroyed by heat.”
d. “No, the toxins are destroyed by freezing.”
28. The mother of Abel asked Nurse Nena, “Which sea foods can transmit red tide
poisoning to human?” The nurse response included the following sea foods, except:
a. crab meat c. clams and mussels
b. oysters and scallops d. sea cucumber
29. Management of Red Tide Poisoning includes:
a. Do not induce vomiting
b. Giving of medications
c. Give coconut milk and sodium bicarbonate
d. The toxin is totally destroyed upon cooking

Stituation 5: Rabies remains a public health problem in the Philippines. Approximately

300 to 600 Filipinos die of rabies every year. The Philippines has one of the highest
prevalence rates of rabies in the whole world.

30. Perla, while on her way home from work, was bitten by a stray dog. Nurse Amy
asked Dolores what she did immediately after the incident. Perla’s response indicates
correct understanding of first aid measure when she says that:
a. I went to the hospital and reported the incident
b. I ran after the dog and had bitten it too
c. I washed my wound immediately with soap and water
d. I went to the drug store and bought 500 mg antibiotics
31. Nurse Amy interviewed Perla and her mother at the Emergency Room to take the
history before seeing a doctor. The nurse told Perla’s mother not to kill the dog because
the dog will be:
a. Injected with a vaccine
b. Confined at a veterinary clinic
c. Observed for 14 days
d. Treated with antibiotics against rabies
32. Considering that rabies is one of the most acutely fatal infections which causes the
death of approximately 300 to 600 Filipinos annually, voluntary pre-exposure
prophylaxis among people who are at risk is highly recommended. These people
include:
a. Barangay tanod officials patrolling the streets at night, side walk vendors,
veterinarians and animal handlers
b. All people living within an area where there are dogs that roam their
neighborhood
c. Pet owners, animal handlers, health personnel working in anti-rabies units and
children below 15 years old
d. Pregnant women, side walk vendors, pet owners, veterinarians and infants
33. What is the most common caused of death in patients with Rabies?
a. Seizures c. Hemorrhage
b. Respiratory Paralysis d. Hydrophobia

Situation 6:The nurse is aware of the misuse of antibiotics , which resulted to the
emergence of new strains of microorganisms that proves to effect a catastophic effect
on human health.

34. The period between the first exposure and multiplication of the SARS causative
agent would be:
a. 2-10 days b. 5-11 days c. 1-20 days d. 1-5 days
35. SARS remains to be an enigma among health practitioners and had proven its
virulence. The nurse knows that the virus could be categorized as:
a. Rhabdovirus b. Togavirus c. Coronavirus d. Paramyxovirus
36. Which of the following best defines standards precaution?
a. These are guidelines created to prevent transmission of microorganisms in
hospitals
b. It is a strategy of assuming that all patients are infectious, and using barrier
protections during nurse-client interactions
c. These are precautions based on contagious or epidemiologically significant
organisms are recognized.
d. It pertains to the use of handwashing.
37. In managing individuals with SARS, the nurse should be aware of the different signs
and symptoms of the disease. Which among the following characterize the prodromal
phase:
a. The patient is usually not infectious at this time.
b. Dry hacking cough is present
c. Fever is present, but does not rise beyond 38oC
d. The patient requires mechanical ventilation at this stage
38. Handwashing deters the spread of microorganisms. A nurse involved in the care of
a patient diagnosed with SARS should:
a. Perform handwashing before client contact
b. Perform handwashing after eating
c. Perform handwashing after food preparation
d. Perform handwashing before using the toilet
39. Pertussis is becoming communicable during which stage of illness?
a. Catarrhal stage b. Paroxysmal stage
c. Convalescence d. All of these
40. To prevent whooping cough, which of the following vaccines should be given to
infants?
a. DPT b. BCG c. OPV d. MMR
41. The hallmark of diagnosis of Diabetes Mellitus is the presence of
a. Hypoglycemia b. Polydipsia c. Hyperglycemia d. Polyuria
42. Screening or Hypertension is defined as sustained
a. Systolic BP of 120 mmHg and DBP of 90 mmHg
b. Systolic BP of 100 mmHg and DBP of 90 mmHg
c. Systolic BP of 140 mmHg or more and DBP of 90 mmHg or more
d. Systolic BP of 90 mmHg or below and DBP of 60 mmHg or below
43. Predisposing factors of Asthma can be develop both genetic and environmental
components and genetic factor include the following except:
a. Status b. Allergy c. Genetic predisposition d. Race and gender
44. The burden of NCD like Heart and Blood vessels is mainly due to the following
except:
a. Hypertension c. Ischemic Heart disease
b. Stroke d. Congenital disease
45. Pregnant women should be prevented from Varicella infection because this can
lead to:
a. congenital varicella syndrome c. fetal varicella infection
b. pregnancy varicella infection d. pregnancy congenital syndrome
46. Koplik’s spots in the pathognomonic symptoms of this disease
a. Rubella b. Small Pox c. Rubeola d. Roseola infantum
47. Dengue fever is caused by
a. Flavivirus b. Aedes aegypti c. Dengue mosquito d. Day biting mosquito
48. Which of the following characteristics o Type I Diabetes Mellitus is not true
a. Fasting hyperglycemia despite availability of insulin
b. Lack of insulin due to damaged pancreas
c. Genetic or may be acquired due to viruses
d. Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus
49. This is not a risk factor of Cerebrovascular disease
a. Cigarette smoking b. Early age c. Hypertension d. Excessive alcohol intake
50. A public health nurse that provides assistance in the assessment of the skills of
auxiliary health workers in NCD prevention and control
a. Health educator c. Community organizer
b. Health trainer d. Health care researcher
51. Organizing and mobilizing the community in taking action for the reduction of risk
factors of NCD
a. Health educator c. Community organizer
b. Health trainer d. Health care researcher
52. A NCD public health nurse that conducts community assessments, epidemiological
studies and intervention studies
a. Health educator c. Community organizer
b. Health trainer d. Health care research

TRUE OR FALSE. Write TRUE if the statement is correct and FALSE if the statement is
wrong. Write your answer on the separate answer sheet provided. NO ERASURES.

1. The first prenatal visit should be made during second trimester of pregnancy
2. Reproductive health care provision should be focused only on pregnant mother
and other displaced people with reproductive health problem
3. The kind and amount of carbohydrate in the diet play a role in the prevention and
treatment of tooth decay, diabetes and hyperglycemia.
4. A balanced diet is one that contains all selected nutrients and some substances
found naturally in food, in proper amounts and proportions needed by the body to
function well.
 5. Maternal German measles (rubella) acquired during pregnancy is one of the
most common causes of Congenital Heart disease.
6. The incidence of coronary arterial disease in women before 60 years of age is far
more than individuals in the general population.
7. Nicotine decreases or inactivates blood pressure activity, no need for cessation
of cigarette smoking to all individuals with hypertensive and coronary heart
disease.
8. Malignant disease is totally curable if early detected and treated properly
9. Diabetes Mellitus in general was found to be common among men than in
women.
10. Older persons are vulnerable to adverse drug reactions due to changes in the
immune system as well as the aging process of various organs.
11. Beliefs and values as well as health practice need to be considered in providing
care and health services to attain improving quality of life for older persons in
various community setting.
12. Rehabilitation services of the hearing impaired individual is an example of
primary prevention of deafness.
13. Osteoporosis increases in female after menopause, while in men the incidence
increase after the age of 70.

MATCHING TYPE. Match Column A to Column B. Write your letter answer on the other sheet
of paper. NO ERASURES

A B

1.Rabies a.Whooping cough

2.Tuberculosis b.Clostridium tetani
3.Leprosy c.Itchmite
4.Schistosomiasis d.Mycobacterium leprae
5.Filariasis e.Develop during pregnancy
6.Malaria f.Stroke
7.Chicken pox g.Malignant cell
8.Tetanus h.Wuchereria bancrofti
9.Scabies i.Emphysema
10.Pertussis j.Bilhariasis
11.Gestational DM k.Schistosoma aponicum
12.Chronic obstructive Pulmunary disease l.Essential/Idiopathic
13.Cerebrovascular disease m.Direct sputum smear microscopy
14.Primary Hypertension n.Plasmodium falciparum
15.Cancer o.Varicella zoster virus