Republic of the Philippines

Department of Education
National Capital Region
SCHOOLS DIVISION OFFICE
QUEZON CITY
Nueva Ecija St., Bago Bantay, Quezon City
www.depedqc.ph

DIAGNOSTIC TEST IN SCIENCE GRADE 8

School Year 2018-2019
Name: __________________________________________ Score: _____________
Grade & Section: __________________________________ Date: ______________

Directions: Read each question carefully. Choose the letter of the BEST answer and write the letter on
your paper.

1. Digestion of which of the following would be affected the most if the liver were severely damaged?
A. carbohydrates B. proteins C. lipids D. starch

2. Insufficient intake of nutrients can cause nutrition disorder. Same thing with excessive nutrients intake. What
could possibly happen to a person with high calories intake?
A. The person can have anemia because of deficient iron.
B. The person can become malnourished and lose weight.
C. The person can be obese gaining too much weight.
D. The person can have weak soft bones because of too much body fats.

For item numbers 3-4 refer to the diagram below.

3. What can we infer from the diagram of food plate?

A. Smallest portion is consist of grains like rice and rice products.
B. One-half of your plate must include nutrients rich food as fruits and vegetables.
C. Fruits and grains are equally important food and good to develop healthy body.
D. Vegetables and grains must be in equal amount for it aids for the growth and development of the body.

4. Inside the box are some events during cell division:

1. Chromosomes line up at the equatorial plane

2. Nuclear membrane reform and surround the chromosome.
3. Chromosomes condense become shorter and thicker.
4. Sister chromatids divide and move to the opposite poles

Which would be the correct order of these events?

A. 1 – 2 – 3 – 4 B. 3 – 1 – 4 – 2 C. 4 – 2 – 1 – 3 D. 2 – 3 – 1 – 4

5. Interphase refers to the period that follows one cell division and precedes another. Which of the following
statement does NOT describe the events during interphase?
A. It is divided into three sub stages: Gap 1, S phase, Gap 2.
B. During this stage, the cell does not divide; it merely grows.
C. Mitosis occupies the largest phase of interphase.
D. It includes the period of DNA replication in preparation for cell division.

6. In humans, the haploid chromosome number is ___________.

A. 23 B. 46 C. 12 D. 92
7. Ian’s parents have both widow’s peak hairline but Ian has straight hairline. Assume that window’s peak (W) is
dominant over straight (w) hairline. What are the genotypes of Ian’s parents?
A. Ww x Ww B. WW x ww C. Ww x ww D. WW x WW

8. The basic taxonomy unit is ___________.

A. Family B. kingdom C. order D. species

9. Observe the genus and species name of domesticated dog and wolf, can they produce fertile offspring?
A. No, because they have different appearance and behavior.
B. Yes, because they are both animals and carnivores.
C. Yes, because they belong to the same genus.
D. No, because they belong to different species.

10. What will happen if all the producers like plants will be gone?
A. Oxygen level will decrease in the atmosphere making it difficult for other organisms to breath
B. Primary consumers will eventually die affecting the rest of the members of the food chain.
C. Light energy coming from the sun will not be utilized.
D. All of the choices are correct.

11. What happens to the level of energy as you go up in each level of the energy pyramid?
A. energy level remains the same. C. energy level increases
B. energy level fluctuates D. energy level decreases

12. In tropical forests, over 90% of the moisture is cycled through transpiration in plants. What specific part of the
plants do transpiration usually occur?
A. roots B. stems C. leaves D. fruits

13. Among the given statements, the human activity that has negative impact to the environment is _____.
A. Conducting reforestation and cover cropping.
B. Developing research aimed towards the conservation of wildlife.
C. Using insecticides to eliminate pests that compete with humans for food.
D. Strengthen the implementation of laws concerning biodiversity protection.

14. Scientists observed that most earthquakes occur most frequently in places located along a/an ________.
A. fault B. fault scarp C. fissure D. fracture

15. Which information is relevant to determine the Richter magnitude of an earthquake?

A. duration of the earthquake C. length of seismic wave record
B. damage of the earthquake D. measured of the amplitude of surface waves

16. Which is the best thing to do after a tsunami?

I. Secure the important documents.
II. Listen to updates.
III. Return to your home.
IV. Check yourself and family members of injuries.

A. I and II only B. II and III only C. II and IV only D. III and IV only

For numbers 17-18, refer to the figure below.

17. Among the parts labeled I to III, which is most likely the S waves?
A. I B. II C. III D. I and III

18. Which of the following statements best describes the S waves?

A. travel through solids only. C. fastest among the three seismic waves.
B. slower than the surface waves. D. causes the destruction the Earth’s surface.
19. PAGASA issued PSWS #4. What does it mean?
A. Winds of greater than 60kph to 100kph may be expected in at least 24 hrs.
B. Evacuation to safer shelters should have been completed by now.
C. Damage to affected communities can be moderately heavy.
D. Rice and corn crops suffer heavy losses.

20. Why is Philippine prone to typhoon?

A. Philippines is made of thousands of island C. Philippines is surrounds by water
B. Philippines is situated in the typhoon belt. D. Philippines is a tropical country

21. Which of the following minor members of the solar system has a highly elliptical orbit?
A. asteroid B. comet C. meteoroids D. all of the above

22. How many years will it take a comet to orbit the sun?
A. 1-24 years B. 25- 50 years C. 51 – 74 years D. 75 – 100 years

23. Where can we find the asteroid belt?

A. between Venus and Earth C. between Mars and Jupiter
B. between Earth and Mars D. between Jupiter and Saturn

24. What causes a “meteor showers”?

A. Comets as it orbits the sun.
B. Meteoroid that burns up when it enters the earth’s atmosphere.
C. Meteorites that burns up when it enters the earth’s atmosphere.
D. Asteroids that are found in the asteroid belts are burn up in the solar system.

25. An object will move to a longer distance if the person will exert
A. greater force to a massive object C. less force to a massive object
B. greater force to a less massive object D. less force to a less massive object

26. Two boys are pushing a stalled jeepney on one side of the street, but the jeepney did not move at all. What can
you infer about this?
A. The force exerted by the boys is less than the force of jeepney.
B. The force exerted by the jeepney is greater than the boys.
C. The force exerted by the jeepney and the boys is equal.
D. The force exerted by the jeepney is less.

27. Which of the following object morning at constant speed will be harder to stop?
A. a car B. a bus C. an ambulance D. a garbage track

28. Acceleration is directly proportional to the net force and inversely proportional to the mass, when expressed
through mathematical equation it will be.
A. a = B. a=Fm C. a = D. a = F + m

29. Which of the following SI units is equal to N. m?

A. Joule B. Newton C. Pascal D. Watt

30. It is the work done per unit time.

A. acceleration B. energy C. power D. speed

31. It is often called the energy in motion

A. chemical energy B. heat energy C. kinetic energy D. potential energy

For question number 32, please refer to the figure of a child on a swing.

32. Which point/s I the KE of the girl zero?

A. A, B B. C, D C. D, E D. A, E
33. Given the following materials, arrange the materials where sound will travel from slowest to fastest.
I. Water II. Copper C. Oxygen
A. I, II and III B. III, I and II C. III, II and I D. II, I and III

34. It is the process by which light in separated into different colors because of the differences in angles of
refraction.
A. dispersion B. polarization C. reflection D. spectrum

35. Study the illustration below: Which color is the most bent?

A. Indigo B. Violet C. Orange D. Red

36. The quantity of thermal energy absorbed or given off by the body.
A. cold B. heat C. temperature D. thermo dynamic

37. Which of the following is measured by a thermometer?

A. the number of molecules the object has C. the quality of materials and component
B. the amount of substancecontained D. the degree of hotness or coldness

38. Where can the meteors be most likely to be found in the diagram?

A. A B. B C. C D. none of the above

39. How are gases and liquids similar in properties?

A. Both have molecules that move randomly.
B. Both have molecules held together in a rigid pattern.
C. Both have molecules with very high forces of attraction.
D. Both can evaporate when sufficient heat is added to then.

40. Which diagram shows arrangement of gas particles inside the syringe when you pull the
player?
A. C.

B. D.

41 Study the figures of candles below. What does the decrease in length of the candle indicates?
Figure 1 Figure 2 Figure 3

I. Candle underwent physical change.

II. Candle underwent chemical change.
III. Candle does not undergo changes at all.

A. I only B. II only C. I and III only D. I and II only

42. Bread placed into toaster turns brown then black if left too long. What is needed for this chemical change to
take place?
A. A certain amount of time had to pass. C. Heat energy had to be taken away.
B. Heat energy had to be added. D. The bread had to be taken out of the wrapper.

43. Which of the following statements is/are true about the atom 63Cu29?
I. This atom has 29 protons
II. This atom has 29 neutrons
III. This atom has 29 electrons

A. I B. I and II C. I and III D. II and III

44. How many protons and neutrons are in the nucleus of an atom of the silicon isotope which has the mass
number 30?
Proton Neutrons
A 14 16
B 14 16
C 14 30
D 16 14

A. D B. C C. B D. A

45. Ana tom has an atomic number of 11 and mass number of 23. How many particles will it have?
A. 11 protons and 23 neutrons C. 11 protons and 12 neutrons
B. 11 protons and 11 neutrons D. 11 protons and 12 electrons

46. Why Mendeleev’s arrangement in his periodic table was widely accepted?
A. The organized the first 14 known elements.
B. He listed all the elements in the correct order in the periodic table.
C. He predicted the existence and properties of undiscovered elements.
D. He was the first to notice a pattern of similar properties among elements.

47. Which of the following statements is/are true about the atom 63Cu29?
I. This atom has 29 protons
II. This atom has 29 neutrons
III. This atom has 29 electrons

A, I B. I and II C. I and III D. II and III

48. Metallic property of an atom increase from top to bottom and decreases from left to right
of the periodic table. Which of the following diagram is that of a metallic atom?

A. B. C. D.

49. The atoms of the most active nonmetals have ________

A. Small atomic radii and high ionization energies.
B. Small atomic radii and low ionization energies.
C. Large atomic radii and low ionization energies.
D. Large atomic radii and high ionization energies.

50. As the elements are considered from the left to the right of Period 3, which sequence in properties occurs?
A. metal → metalloid → nonmetal C. metalloid → metal → nonmetal
B. metal → nonmetal → metalloid D. nonmetal → metalloid → metal