2000+ Prometric Questions PDF

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2000+ Prometic Dental Questions V.2018

Important Notices
It’s important to understand that this is a reference source and it’s based on people’s experience
and referred to some sources for verification none the less … we are human and we can do
mistakes… but this is the best we can do – OziDent Team._OziDent Team.
We cannot guarantee Success but we are the best possible choice with the highest success rate.
Authors
• Original File By Dr. A. A. Al-Samari
• Edited by Dr. Mohsen S. Ozaibi (OziDent.com)
Contact
Please contact me at mail@ozident.com for further information or correction
Aslo visit our website www.ozident.com

Goodluck
www.ozident.com | mail@ozidnt.com | Special Thanks to Dr. Al-Samari

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1) Tooth number 26, had a root canal treatment since two years, upon x-ray you found a radiolucency
with bone resorption along one of the roots
• Ca(OH)2
• resection of the whole root
• redo RCT
• periodontal currettage
2) ?After doing apicoectomy for a tooth when can we place a crown

• months 2-1
• months 3-2
• months 4-3
3) Post should set passively in root canal and crown should set with slight resistance
• Both statement are false
• Both statement are true
• First statement is true and second is false
• First statement is false and seconds statement is true
4) Patient with pain on the upper right area, and the patient can not tell the tooth causes the pain, what
is the least reliable way to do test pulp
• Cold test
• Hot test
• Electric test
• Stimulation the dentine
5) In RCT, over preparation of the outer wall of the outer curvature of the canal with inflexible
instrument will cause
• Zipping
• Perforation
• Elbow formation
• Ledge formation
• Crazing
6) which most important action of inflammation which causes pulp necrosis ?

• odntoblast degeneration/ destruction
• odontoblast Aspiration
• dilatation of vessel/ vascular dilation
• leukocytes diapedesis
7) Most important sealer criteria to be success

• High viscosity
• High retention
• High strength
• can add colorant
• High resilience
8) Simplifill apical seal used with which system

• Protaper
• Reciprocal
• Revo S
• All

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9) During endo pt is complaining of pain with percussion what is the cause/what u suspect? or
Patient with pain on #15 and this tooth undergo with RCT but he still has pain on percussion,what u
?suspect
• apical periodontitis
• secondery apical periodontitis
• over instrumentation
• over medication
• Impact debris fragment
10) To treat non vital tooth with open apex when doing access openning with gates glidden bur take
care to
• Remove all dentin
• Remove minimal dentine
• Follow conservative method
11) The narrowest canal found in a three root maxillary first molar is the
• Mesio-buccal canal in 3 canals
• Disto-buccal canal
• Palatal canal
• Disto-palatal canal
• Mesio-palatal canal in 4 canals
12) Patient came to your clinic with dull pain in the #6, no response to the pulp tester, in radiographs it
shows 3mm of radiolucency at the apex of the root Diagnosis is
• Chronic apical periodontitis
• Acute apical periodontitis
• Acute periodontitis with abscess
• Chronic apical abscess
13) Tooth no 11 trauma with crown fracture and Rct,it has narrow canal and a post and core treatment is
scheduled The choice for post and core is
• Carbon fiber post
• Cast post and cor e
• Threaded stainless steel post with amalgam core
Carbon color present esthetic problem – Cast post Indicated for small teeth Can't be used in small canals
14) Single rooted anterior tooth has endodontic treatment is best treated by
• Casted post and core
• Performed post and composite
• Performed post and amalgam
• Composite post and core
15) THE SUCSES OFINTRAPULPAL I NJECTION DEPENDON

• TYPE OF ANESTHESIA
• VASOCONESTROCTOR
• BACK PRESSURE OF NEEDLE
• DEPTH OF PENETRATED NEEDLE
16) When resection the tip of root in apexectomy, the cut shoud be
• Perpendicular to the long axis of tooth
• Paraller to long axis
• Acut angle
• Obtuse angle
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17) Rct treated central incisors, bluish color,no pain no radiographic chen Most likely
• Dentin remnants
• Blood products
• Coronal GP
18) If the initial working length film shows the tip of a file to be greater than 1 mm from the ideal
location, the clinician should
• Correct the length and begin instrumentation
• Move the file to 1 mm short of the ideal length and expose a film
• Interpolate the variance, correct the position of the stop to this distance, and expose the film
• Confirm the working length with an apex locator
• Position the file at the root apex and expose a film
19) To locate the canal orifice use

• Barite probe
• Endo spreader
• Endo file with curved tip
• Round bur
Also, endodontic explorer is used to search for canal orifices
20) Positive rake

• K file
• K reamer
• ProFile d Protaper

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21) What is most flexible

• K file
• reamer
• barbed broach
22) furcations and accessory canals that connect pulp to periodontium

• quite common in mandibular molars
• quite common in both upper and lower molars
Accessory canals were demonstrated in the furcation region in 28 4% of the total sample; 29 4% in mandibular)
(molars, and 27 4% in maxillary molars
23) pt with swelling , relatted to decayed lower molar, allergic to penicillin what do you do
• RCT first, amoxicilllin after
• amoxicillin first, RCT after
• clindamycin first and RCT after
• RCT first and clindamycin after
24) Diabetic with pain and abscess and allergy to penicillin

• Start working and prescribe clarithramycin
• Prescribe clarithramycin then start work
25) The least effective irrigant against E feacalis

▪ sodium hypochlorite\ Naocl
Tetracycline
▪ Iodine
▪ Chlorohexidine
26) causes of post operative pain after RCT

▪ reminent of periapical pulp tissue
over-instrumentation
• wrong Woring length determination
• all of the above
27) There is cervical perforation during RCT and the BMP is not complete When will u close the defect
• Immediately before completing the BMP
• After completing the BMP but before the obturation
• After obturation and crown placement
• Keep patient under observation
28) Crown and root perforation

• respond to MTA
• use matrix with hydroxyapatite and seal with G I
• And 2 1
• root canal filling
29) extra canal found in root frm whch

▪ apical one third
▪ Dense side

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▪ Medial Portion
30) Which of the following is the appropriate file for removing gutta-percha from root canals
▪ K file
▪ H file
▪ Flexo file
▪ S file
▪ Rat tail type
31) when to use heated/ thermoplasticized GP

• irregularities in canal
• curved and small after prep
• when lateral condensation in difficult
32) Pt complain from pain in tooth of amalgam On pulp test not accurate Which test do to verify pulp test
for offending tooth
• Anesthesia
• percussion
• preparation
33) Success of rotary endo

• Pre Coronal flaring
• Use of EDTA
• irrigation
34) After RCT, for insertion of post dowel

• Post applied pressure
• Post should be lose
• Insert it without pressure but with retention
35) overfilling of RCT can cause an Inflammation reaction

• ZOE cause a higher reaction
• Real Seal Cause higher reaction than ZOE
• Real Seal Has lower reaction than ZOE and epoxy resin
36) When doing re-endo to remove GP , best method is

• Chemical
• Mechanical
• Heat
• Chemically , mechanical
37) pt come to clinic, amulgum filled tooth with severe pain pt says i cant survive plz extract tooth on clincal
exmination every thing is good radiograph clear which treatmnt not for this
• restoration
• rct
• extraction
38) Extraction via rotating movement

• cental incisors

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• canine
• premolars
• molars
39) In case of bad odor in the entrance of the pulp we

• Extract the tooth
• Remove the pulp
• RCT
• None
40) CMCP contains phenol in concentration

▪ %50
▪ %35
▪ % 65
▪ %5
41) The basic difference between K files and reamers is

• The number of spirals or flutes per unit length
• The geometric cross section
• The depth of flutes
• The direction of the spirals
42) The ideal post drill for most posterior teeth is

• gates glidden size 3
• peeso drill size 3-6
• profile size 60-70
• peeso drill size 2-3
43) Female patient came to your clinic with continuous severe pain related to 1st maxillary molar After
examination dentist diagnose the tooth is carious and has irreversible pulpits He decides to do RCT After
enough time for
anesthetization, the patient won’t allow the dentist to touch the tooth due to severe pain Dentist should
• Give another appointment to the patient with description of antibiotics
• Extraction
• Intra-pulpal anesthesia
44) Silane coupling agent for wetting wall of pulp

• Decreases wall tension
• Increases wall tension
45) Thermomechanical technique of obturation is

• Thermafil
• Obtura
• Ultrafil
• McSpadden
46) What are the disadvantages of mcspadden technique in obturation

• Increase time
• Increase steps
• Difficult in curved canals, overfilling occurs & Requires much practice to perfect
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• All the above
47) Continuous condensation technique in gp filling is

• obtura I
• obtura II
• ultrafill
• System B all the others are thermal technique
48) Technique of endo fill where we use continuous condensation

• vertical condensation
49) How many canals can be present in the mandibular 2nd molar
▪ 1,2,3or 4
▪ or 4 2,3
▪ or 4 3
▪3
50) Which of the following canals in 14 is most difficult to locate

▪ palatal
▪ Distobuccal
▪ Mesiobuccal
▪ All of above
51) Which of the following locations would a perforation demonstrate the best prognosis
▪ Floor of the pulp chamber
▪ b Apical 1\3 of roof
▪ Coronal 1\3 of root
▪ Middle 1\3 of root
52) Broken instrument during RCT, best prognosis if broken at

• Apical 1/3
• Middle 1/3
• Cervical 1/3
53) While rct if u penetrate the furcation area of roots what u will do
• Mineral Trioxide Aggregate ( MTA )
• caoh
• formocresol
54) MTA used with

• Non vital apexification
• Vital and non vital therapy
55) The mineral trioxide aggregate ( MTA ) is best material for

▪ Indirect pulp capping
▪ Apexogenesis direct pulp capping
▪ Apexofication

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Root canal obturation

all except a
(MTA Direct Pulp Capping / Apexification / Perfuration/ Internal&External Resportion / Root End Filling)
56) When root perforation we close it by

oGI
b Caoh MTA is the best material
▪ Silver point
▪ Composite
57) Immature tooth with external apical third resorption

• Ca(OH)2 application
• Apexofication & GP filling
58) Actual destruction of micro-organisms in the root canal is attributed mainly to

• Proper antibiotic thereby
• Effective use of medicament
• Mechanical preparation and irrigation of the canal
• None of the above
59) Patient during recurrent normal check he had diffirent sense on percussion on his tooth and x_ray
?widening lamina dura apical 3rd
• Chronic apical priodontitis
• Chronic abcess
60) A tooth very painful to percussion, doesn’t respond to heat, cold or the electric pulp tester The most
probable diagnosis is
• Reversible pulpitis
• Irreversible pulpitis
61) ,Patient came with severe pain related to right 1st mandibular molar, there's no swelling related
pulp test is negative, no evidence in radiograph Diagnosis
• Acute periodontal abscess
• Suppurative periodontal abscess
62) Which not compatible to the pulp

• GIC
• Zinc phosphate cement
• Zinc polycarboxylate cement

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63) Which of the following materials has been shown to simulate reparative dentine formation most
effectively when applied to the pulpal wall of a very deep cavity
• Copalite varnish
• Calcium hydroxide preparation Dycal
• Zinc phosphate cement
• Anhydrous class inomer cement
64) Calcium hydroxide is best pulp capping material because

• It has best seal over pulp
• It is alkaline + less irritating to pulp
• It induces reparation dentine formation
65) RCT contraindicated in

• Vertical fracture of root
• Diabetic Pt
• Periodontally involved teeth
66) All these are contraindicated to RCT EXCEPT

• Non restorable tooth
• Vertical root fracture
• Tooth with insufficient tooth support d Pt who has diabetes or hypertension
67) Gutta percha contains mainly

• Gutta percha b ZINC oxide
c ZINC phosphate
Matrix gutta percha 20% Filler zinc oxide 66% Radiopacifier heavy metal sulfates 11% Plasticizer waxes and/or)
(resins 3%
68) Component of Gutta percha

a 50% Gp & 50% ZOE b 20% Gp & 70% ZOE
69) ?Endo central minimal with mesial caries Restoration

• Composite
• Fiberpost + mesial composite
• Cast post/crown
70) For root canal treated tooth u choose to put post & amalgam this depends on
• remaining coronal/ tooth structure
• root divergence
• presence of wide root
71) othersPost crown is indicated in the following case

• Insufficient coronal tooth portion
• Loss of enamel but dentine is still left in crown
• Insufficient root portion of tooth
• Middle third fracture of root
• Erosion of tooth substance
72) For post preparation we should leave ……mm of GP

• 2mm
• 10mm
c 5mm ( 4 – 5 mm )
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73) Amount of GP should after post preparation

• mm b 4-5 mm 1
c. mm 10
d. None of the above
74) Main function of adrenaline during endodontic surgery

• vasoconstrictor
• haemostatic agent
• reduce system of lidocaine
• increase duration of anesthesia
75) Which of the following endodontic failure may be retreated only with surgery
• Missed major canal
• Persistent interappointment pain c Post and core
d Short canal filling
76) Which of the following failure may be treated nonsurgically

• Post filling that has removed
• Severe apical perforation
• Very narrow canal with a periapical lesion and the apex can not be reached
77) The PH of the calcium hydroxide is

a 72
b. 12
c. 19
d 55
78) Hyperemia results in

• Trauma of occlusion b Pain of short duration
c. Radiographic changes
d. All of above
79) Extra canal in upper 6 presents in which root/4th canal in upper first molar is found

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• Lingual to MBC
• Buccal to MBC
• Distal to MBC
80) selom 2 canal in which tooth of uppr molar

• distobucal
• mesiobucal
81) The following canals may be found in an upper molar

i. Mesio-buccal
ii. Disto-buccal
iii. Mesio-palatal\ MB2
iv. Disto-lingual
v. Palatal
b. i+ii+iv
c. i+ii+iv+v
d. ii+iii+iv+v e i+ii+iii+v
82) which part of root canal diameter is the smallest

• Radigraphical apex
• Apical foramin
• Apical constriction
83) What is the smallest area in root canal

• apex in radiograph
• cementoenamel junction
• dentinoenamel junction d cementodentinal junction
84) Formocresol when used should be

• Full Saturated
• Half saturated
• Fifth saturated
85) The irrigation solution is good because

• Lubricate the canals
• Flushes the debris
• All of the above
86) The most widely used irrigant displaying optimal cleansing bactericidal properties is
• Formocresol
• Sodium Hypochlorite
• Saline
• Hydrogen peroxide
• Gultraldehyde
87) Irrigation solution for RCT, when there is infection and draining from the canal is

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• Sodium hypochlorite
• Iodine potassium
• Sodium hypochlorite and iodine potassium or H2O2
88) years old Pt with pathological exposure in 35 Management 21

• Direct pulp capping
• Indirect pulp capping c Root canal treatment
89) Direct pulp capping is done in

• Primary molar
• Primary incisor
• Permanent molar only on permanent teeth
90) Indirect pulp capping is done in

• Primary molar
• Premolar and molar
• Incisors
• All the above
91) During instrumentation, sudden disappear of root canal due to

• Bifurcation of main canal
• Apical perforation
• Calcification
92) A stabilized root fracture with evidence of hyper-calcification of pulpal space requires
• No further treatment
• Endotherapy with gutta percha
• Endotherapy with Ca(OH)2
• Surgical removal of apical segment
• Post retained crown
93) In combined endo-perio problem

• Start with endodontic
• Start with periodontic
• Deep scaling and root planning
94) AH26 is root canal sealer consists of

• ZOE
• Steroids
• Epoxy resin
• All of the above
95) Biologically active sealer which promote peri-apical healing contains

• ZnO Engenol
• Cortico-steroids c Ca(OH)2
d. Silver-points
e. Zinc phosphate
96) By aging, pulp tissue will

• Decrease in collagen fibers

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• Increase cellularity and vascularity c Decrease in size
97) Diagnosis prior to RCT should always be based on

• Good medical and dental history
• Proper clinical examination
• Result of pulp vitality test
• A periapical radiographs e All of the above
98) Naocl is used in RCT

• Oxidative effect
• irrigant solution of choice
• efficacy increasing with diluting
• Better result when used combined with alcohol
99) Which of the following may be used to disinfect gutta percha points\ Disinfection of GP is done by
• Boiling
• Autoclave
• Chemical solutions Naocl
• Dry heat sterilization
100) To disinfect gutta percha points use

• h2o2
• Naocl b a & b %2 5
(The primary GP points selected should be sterilized with Naocl, H2O2 or Chlorhexidine)
101) The micro tensile strength of a bonding composite restoration is

• Increased by 50% if clohexidine is used prior to binding
• Increased by 70% if CHX is used prior to bonding
• Reduced if benzo… is used as a cavity disinfectant prior to bonding
102) Rideal-Walker test is the test for detecting activity of

• Disinfection
• Antibiotics
• Sterealization by dry heat
• Sterealization by wet heat
103) Which one of the following is a disadvantage of autoclaving endodontics instruments

• It can dull the sharp edges of instruments
• All forms of bacteria are not destroyed by it
• Compared to other technique it takes too long to sterilize
104) The radiographic criteria used for evaluating the success of endodontic therapy
• Reduction of the size of the periapical lesion
• No response to percussion and palpation test
• Extension of the sealer cement through lateral canals

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105) If the maxillary first molar is found to have four canals, the fourth canal is likely found
• In the disto-buccal root b In the mesio-buccal root
c. In the palatal root
106) What is the basis for current endodontic therapy of a periapical lesion
• Due to rich collateral circulation system, the perpical area usually heals despite the condition of the root canal
• If the source of periapical irritation is removed, the potential for periapical healing is good
• Strong intracanal medications are required to sterilized the canal and periapical area to promote healing
• Periapical lesions, especially apical cyst, must be treated by surgical intervention
107) Endodontically treated 2nd maxillary premolar with moderate m & d caries is best restored by
• Amalgam
• crown c 4/3 Full crown
d Onlay
108) Female came needing to endodontic for central insicor, and have medial composite restorations in
?the mesial and distal walls, and have attrition in the insicial edge the best restoration
• Jacket crown b Full crown
c Metal crown
109) Microbial virulent produced by root bacteria is collagenase from spirochete

• True
• False
110) Bacteria in endodontic pathosis mostly is

• Porphyromonas endodontalis obligate anaerobic
• Streptococcus mutans
• Streptococcus anaerobic
111) Bacteria in root canal pathosis

• Mixed anaerobe and aerobe
• single anaerobes obligatory
• aerobes only
• Non of the above
112) Chronic suppurative periodontitis

• Pt complains from moderate pain b Fistula with drain
c Pulp polyp is open coronal carious lesion

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113) A young 12 years old boy presents with reddish over-growth of tissue, protending from carious
?exposure in lower molar What may be the possible diagnosis
• Pulp polyp
• Pulpal hyperemia
• C Varicosed polyp
• D Pulpal granuloma
• E Gum boil
114) Acute periodontal\periapical abscess associated with

• Widening of the PDL
• Fistula present\ pus discharge
• Swelling enlargement in tooth site
115) Acute periapical abscess characterized by

• Varying degree of pain
• Varying degree of swelling
• Some time not shown on the radiograph d All the above
116) A pt comes to you with severe pain and symptoms of acute apical abscess The most important
aspect of treatment is
• prescribing antibiotics
• relief of pain
• drainage of pus
• removal of necrotic debris from root canal
117) ?When do we do incision and drainage

• Indurated diffuse swelling
• Sinus tract
• Chronic apical periodontitis d Acute apical periodontitis
118) Physiological reaction of edema on vital pulp

• Decrease tissue fluid by decompression of blood vessel b Increase blood preasure
c Necrosis of pulp due to hyperoxia and anaryxia
119) Pulp oedema

• has no effect on vascular system
• fluid is compressed in the vessels limiting the intercellular pressure c Interstitial pressure increased due to
increased vascularity
d causes necrosis of the pulp tissues
120) Microabscess on vital pulp starts necrosis of small part and

sequela of destruction cycle and full repair
• True b False

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121) For the extripation of entire pulp, necrotic debris, and foreign material, one should use
• Raemers
• Files
• Barbed broaches
• Burs
• Plain broaches
122) broach in endodontic is used for pulp extirpation in straight canals

• True
• False
123) Pt feels pain of short duration after class II restoration Diagnosis is

• Reversible pulpitis (hyperemia)
• Periodontitis
124) Irreversible pulpits

• normal
• vital
• necrotic
• vital but abnormal
125) Emergency endodontic should not be started before

• Establishing the pain
• Check restorability of the tooth c Establishing the diagnosis
126) The fundamental rule in the endodontic emergencies is

• control pain by inflammatory non steroid b diagnosis is certain
127) Pulp chamber in lower 1st molar is mesially located

• True
• False
128) Radiopacity at the apex of a tooth with chronic pulpitis\ deep carious lesion related to lateral
surface of root
• Condensing osteitis\ chronic focal sclerosing osteomyelitis
• Cemental dysplasia
• Perapical granuloma radiolucency
129) Patient with radiopacity in the periapical area of a 1st mandibular molar with a wide carious lesion
and a bad periodontal condition is
• condensing osteosis
• hypercementosis
130) Extra canal if present in mandibular incisor will be

• Lingual
• Distal
131) The access opening in lower incisor

• Round

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• Oval
• Triangular
132) acess cavity of lat inciror

• oval
• triangular
133) The accesses opening for a maxillary premolar is most frequently

• Oval
• Square
• Triangular
134) Outline of 2nd molar access opening

• Triangular with the base mesially
135) The outline form of maxillary molar access opening is triangular The base of this triangle is directed
toward
• Buccal
• Palatal
• Mesial
• Distal
136) The correct access cavity preparation for the mandibular 2nd molar is
• Oval
• Quadrilateral
• Round
c Triangular
Upper central triangle lateral & canine ovoid 1st & 2nd premolar ovoid 1st & 2nd molar)
(triangle\ Lower anteriors ovoid 1st & 2nd premolar ovoid 1st & 2nd molar triangle or trapezoid
137) The walls of the access cavity should be

• Divergent
• Convergent
• Parallel
• with an angle
138) Acute periapical cyst and acute periodontal cyst are differentiated by
• Vitality test
• Radiograph
• Clinical examination
139) The most common cause of endodontic pathosis is bacteria

• True
• False
140) Palatal canal in upper molars is curved

• Buccally
• Palatally
• Distally

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141) To obturate the canal the most important step is

• Cleaning and shaping of the canal
• Irrigation of the canal
142) Aim to shape apical 3rd of the root

• widening apex
• Permit irrigation to reach apical 3rd
• permit GP to fill
• For good sealer achieve
143) The most important in RCT is seal

• Apical 1/3
• Middle 1/3
• Cervical 1/3
144) Mechanochemical preparation during RCT mainly aims to

• Widening of the apex
• Master cone reaches the radiographic apex
• Proper debridement of the apical part of the canal
145) Pt complains from severe spontaneous pain related to upper 6 It responds to vitality test no pain on
percussion, diagnosis is
• Reversible pulpitis
• Acute apical periodotitis
146) irreversible pulpitis is

• lingering severe pain on cold
• pain on percussion
• short sharp pain on cold
• pain on heat
148) Patient is suffering a pain during sleep the diagnosis is

a. Inflammation of dentin
b. Inflammation of enamel
c. Inflammation of cementum d Inflammation of pulp
149) Buccal object role in dental treatment of maxillary teeth

a. MB root appears distal to P if cone is directed M to D
d DB root appears mesial to P if cone is directed M to D
150) When using the buccal object rule in horizontal angulation, the lingual object in relation to the buccal
object
a. Move away from the x-ray tube head b Move with the x-ray tube head
c. Move in an inferior direction from the x-ray tube head
d. Move in a superior direction from the x-ray tube head
e. None of the above
151) Lateral canal is detected by

a. Radiograph
b. Tactile sensation

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c. By clinical examination
152) Pulp stone

a. Cause discomfort and pain b Free in pulp chamber
c None of the above
153) Pulp stone can be the following EXCEPT

a. present freely in the pulp
b. Cause discomfort & pain to the patient
c. In radiographs, small spheroidal radiopaque
d. False stone occurs due to dystrophic dentin
154) Among the reasons that molar teeth are more difficult to treat endodontically than anterior teeth
a. Molar have more complex canal configuration
b. Molar tend to have greater canal curvature c a and b
d None of the above
155) It is recommended to avoid an intraligamental injection when the planned dental treatment is
a. Pulp extirpation b Pulpotomy
c. Full crown preparation
d. a and b
156) local anesthesia in periodontal ligament what effect on pulp

a. Cease for 30 min
b. The same
c. Great reduce
d. Slight reduce
157) The root canal treated teeth has the best prognosis when the root canal is instrumented and
obturated
a. To the radiograph apex
b. mm beyond the radiograph apex 1
c. mm short of the radiograph apex 2-1
d. mm short of the radiograph apex 4-3
158) Pulpal pain may not be referred from

a. The right maxilla to the left maxilla
b. The third molar to the ear
c. A max molar to the sinus
d. An incompletely fractured tooth
e. A max cuspid to ear
159) Spontaneous pulpal pain is indicative of

a. Reversible pulpitis b Irreversible pulpitis
c. Neurotic pulp
d. Hyperplastic pulp
e. Atrophic pulp

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160) Internal Resorption

a. Painful
b. Seldom differentiated external resorption c Can occur in primary teeth
161) Teeth that are discolored as a result of internal resorption of the pulp may turn
a. Yellow
b. Dark brown c Pink
d Green
162) Discoloration of endo treated teeth

a. Hemorrhage after trauma
b. Incomplete remove GP from the pulp chamber
c. Incomplete removal of pulp tissue
163) ?Patient with esthetic concern having dark central bcz of trauma treatment
a. Crown
b. Veneer
c. endo
d. Endo+internal bleaching
164) Treatment of internal resorption involves

a. Complete extirpation of the pulp to arrest the resorption process
b. Enlarging the canal apical to the resorbed area for better access
c. Utilizing a silver cone and sealer to fill the irregularities in the resorbed area
d. Filling the canal and defect with amalgam
e. Sealing sodium hypochlorite in the canal to remove the inflammatory tissue necrotic in the area of the
resorption
complete extirpation of the pulp to arrest the resorption process then pack the canal with calcium hydroxide paste)
By the next visit, the calcium hydroxide necrotized any remaining tissues in the canal and the necrotic remnants are
(readily removed by irrigation with sodium hypochlorite and complete RCT
165) In case of internal resorption your ttt is

a. Ca(OH)2 application
b. Formocresol medicament
c. Zinoxide eugenol
166) Sensitivity to palpation and percussion indicates

a. Reversible pulpitis
b. Irreversible pulpitis
c. Neurotic pulp
d. Hyperplastic pulpitis
e. Inflammation of the periradicular tissues
167) Pain on percussion before endodontic treatment indicates

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a. Reversible pulpitis
c. Pulp necrosis
d. Inflammation of periodontal tissues
e. Exposed dentine
168) Apexification is procedure that

a. Finds the most apical stop of the guttpercha in RCT
b. Induces the formation of a mineral barrier in the apical region of incompletely root
c. Is new in the endodontic field
d. Involves the surgical removal of the apical region of the root and placement of a retrograde filling material
169) The preferred material used in apexification is

a. Zinc phosphate cement
b. Zinc polycarboxylate cement c Calcium hydroxide
d Dycal
170) years pt came with necrotic pulp in upper central with root apex not close yet best treatment 10
a. calcium hydroxide
b. Calcific barrier\Apexfication
c. apexfication with gutta percha filling
d. gutta percha filling
171) to differentiate between vital and non vital pulp

a. Electric
b. Percussion
c. Palpitation
d. Xray
172) Thermal pulp test principle of

a. blood supply of pulp b nerve supply of pulp
c AO fibers
173) The normal response of a vital pulp to the thermal testing is

a. No response
b. Lingering painful response
c. Hypersensitive painful response
d. Painful response that disappears soon after stimulus is removed
174) The normal response of an inflamed pulp to the thermal testing is

a. No response
b. Lingering painful response
c. Hypersensitive painful response
d. Painful response that disappears soon after stimulus is removed
175) The normal response of a vital pulp to the electric pulp testing is
a. No response
b. Higher than that of the control teeth

23
c. Lower than that of the control teeth

d. In a range similar to that of the control teeth
176) Electric pulp tester on the young is not accurate because

a. Late appearance of Fibers A
b. Late appearance of Fibers C
c. Early appearance of fibers A
d. Early appearance of fibers C
177) Immature tooth has less sensation of cold & hot due to
a. Short root
b. Incomplete innervations
c. Wide pulp chamber
178) Electric pulp tester on the young is not accurate because

a. Short root
b. Incomplete innervations
c. Wide pulp chamber
179) Asymptomatic tooth has a necrotic pulp, a broken lamina dura, and circumscribed radiolucency of
long duration The periradicular diagnosis
a. Acute apical periodontitis b Chronic apical periodontitis
c. Acute exacerbation of chronic apical periodontitis
d. Abscess
180) A Pt with severe periradicular pain has a necrotic pulp, a broken lamina dura, and circumscribed
radiolucency of long duration The periradicular diagnosis
a. Acute apical periodontitis
b. Chronic apical periodontitis
c. Acute exacerbation of chronic apical periodontitis
d. Abscess
181) A Pt present in severe pain The periapical area over the involved tooth is inflamed and swollen The
tooth is mobile and depressible in its socket with a diffused radiolucency The diagnosis is
a. Acute apical periodontitis
b. Chronic apical periodontitis
c. Acute exacerbation of chronic apical periodontitis d Abscess
182) The use of the rubber dam in endodontics is

a. Frequently required b An established rule
c. Not required
d. Time consuming
e. Dictated by Pt comfort
183) Endomethasone is a root canal sealer that

a. Dissolves in fluid so it weakens the root canal filling
b. Very toxic containing formaldehyde

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c. Contains corticosteroids d All the above
184) EPOXY RESIN/ Endo seale a contains formaldehyde toxic

b. contains corticosteroids
c. resorbable so it weakens the endofill
d. all
185) Cause that master G P not reach working length\apex although it is the same size of last file
a. Dentin debris\Residual remnants
b. Ledge formation c a &b
d None of the above
186) Filling in RCT must finish

a. Exactly up the radiographic apex
b. Few millimeters before apex
c. At the half distance between apex and the pulp chamber
d. Filling the pulp chamber
187) Small access opening in upper centeral incisor leads to

a. Complete removal of the pulp b Incomplete removal of the pulp
c Conservative restoration
188) A restoration of anterior teeth with RCT, abraded incisal edge & small m&d caries is by
a. Ceramometal crown
b. Composite laminated
c. Veneer
189) When take an x-ray to pregnant lady, we use all of these methods EXCEPT
a. Digital x-ray
b. High sensitive film
c. Paralleling tech (long cone) 16 inch d Bisecting algle (short cone) 8 inch
e Lead apron with thyroid collar
190) xray give real root length

a. Parallel tech
b. Bisecting tech
191) When takin a peri apical radiograph to determine the working length it’s best to use a long cone x-
?ray why
a. To reduce magnification
b. To reduce scattered radiation

25
192) ?When xray cone is not properly pointed what happens

a. Cone cut
b. Overlap
c. Elongation
d. Shortening
193) the inner lyer of xray cone which rduce the spread of radiology
a. filter
b. collimator
c. anoid
194) When take x-ray we should stand

a. feets away in 90 - 135 angle 6
195) All are irrigation for canals EXCEPT

a. Saline
b. Hydrogen peroxide
c. Naocl d RC prep
196) Disadvantages of digital x-ray EXCEPT

a. Large disk space storage b Clarity and resolution
c Expensive
197) Digital radiography is a technique that shows transition from white to black Its main advantage is the
ability to manipulate the image by computer
a. 1st T, 2nd F
b. 1st F, 2nd T c Both T
d Both F
198) Ideal properties of RC filling\obturation material is the following EXCEPT

a. Radiolucent in radiograph
b. not irritate the surrounding tissue\Biocompatible
c. Easily removable when retreatment is necessary
d. Stable and less dimensional change after insertion
199) Very important part in endo treatment

a. Complete debridement of the canal
200) False negative response of an electric pulp test given

a. After trauma
b. Periodontal disease
c. In teenager
201) Young with open apex, examination test

a. Reliable
b. Non reliable
c. None of the above

26
202) Tooth requires RCT with bone resorption Terminate RCT at

a. Radiographic apex
b. mm short of radiographic apex 1-5 0
f mm beyond radiographic apex 1-5 0
Some suggest that the WL 1 mm short of the radiographic apex with normal apical anatomy 1 5 mm with bone but)
(no root resorption 2 mm with bone and root resorption
203) Which intracanal medicament causes protein coagulation

a. Formocresol
b. Naocl
c. Hydrogen peroxide
204) Pt came with pain awaken her from sleep at 2 am and could'nt sleep later
a. reversible pulpitis b Irreversible pulpitis
c Periodontal pain
205) ,Pt with severe pain in lower left mandibular molar, examination positive pulp test & percussion test
no radiographic abnormality, rt side have recent fpd upper
a. Chronic apical periodontits b Actue apical periodontitis
c. Apical abcess
206) Red color endo file acccording ADA

a. b 25 20
c. 30
d. 35
207) File #40 means

a. is the diameter at d1 40 0
b. is from d1 to d16 40 0
208) The tip of size 20 endo file is

a 0 02 mm
b 0 2 mm
209) To get file size 24, the following length should be cut from file size 20
a. 1mm b 2mm
c. 3mm
d. 4mm
210) Contraindications for endo treatment EXCEPT

a. non strategic tooth
b. non restorable teeth
c. vertical fracture teeth
d. tooth with large periapical lesion

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211) Osteogensis during endodontic surgery aimed to prevent

a. fibrous in growth
b. growth factor
c. formation of blood
212) During endodontic surgery the irrigation solution used is

a. Saline
b. EDTA
c. Naocl
213) Irrigant that kills e-faecalis

a. naoh
b. mtad or mta
c. saline
g chlorohexidine
,MTAD is more effective than Naocl in killing E faecalis Naocl is more effective than MTA in killing E faecalis)
(Chlorhexidine also can be used to kill E faecalis
214) Which of these canal irrigants is unable to kill E feacalis

a. NaOH
b. MTA
c. Chlorhexidine
215) Irrigation solution for RCT causes protein coagulation is

a. Sodium hypochlorite
b. Iodine potassium
c. Formocresol
216) Why we use caoh between visits in RCT

a. antibacterial
b. formation hard tissue
c. primary seal
d. resorption pathology
217) Weeping canal we use

a. g p b caoh
h Formocresol
discontinuation of the use of the tissue-irritating antiseptics followed by 2–3 weeks of calcium hydroxide in the root)
(canal The chemically-induced exudation will then have stopped and the root canal can be dried and obturated
218) Root canal treated tooth & exposed to oral environment When you should do re-endo after
a. month 1
b. months 2

28
c. weeks 2
d. days 6
219) The easiest endo retreatment in

a. Over obturation w GP
b. Under obturation w GP c Weeping canals
d Obturated w silver cone
220) The decision to retreat substandard endodontics shoud be based on

a. Radiographic evaluation of the endodontic treatment quality
b. periapical pathology
c. patient symptoms
d. physical exploration of the root canal type and quality seal
e. restorative treatment plan
221) For retreatment of endo tooth removal of GP is done by

a. broach
b. reamer
c. H file d Solvent
222) Tug back refers to

a. Retention of GP inside the canal
b. Fluidity of GP
223) After u did RCT to your pt he came back to the clinic after few days with sever pain on biting, you did
x-ray and it revealed that the RCT filling is very good, but u saw radiopaque, thin ( film like ) spot on the
?lateral border of the root what is the most probable diagnosis
a. Accessory canal
b. Vertical root canal fracture
c. Perforation
224) Tracing of GP used for

a. origin of periapical pathosis
b. acute periapical periodontitis
c. periodontal abscess
d. none
225) A patient presents with a draining sinus tract in labial vestibule of a maxillary central incisor To
confirm your diagnosis about the origin of pathoses you should
a. Open the concerned root chamber
b. Taking the bite-wing radiograph
c. Thread gutta-percha through the root canal and expose a radiograph d Thread gutta-percha through the
tract and expose a radiograph
e Measure the periodontal pocket
226) Pt comes with siuns u make gp tracing & take radiograph the gp appears in lateral surface of the
root

29
a. periodontal abscess
b. periodontitis
c. lateral acessory canal
227) Dental student using thermoplastized g p What is the main problem he may face
a. Extrusion of G P from the canal\overfilling occurs
b. Inability to fill the proper length
c. Failure to use maser cone at proper length
i Ledge
(This method can be used in curved canals)
228) Before doing vitality pulp test, the tooth must be

a. Moist
b. Dry
c. Moist or dry not affect
d. None
229) The most superior way to test the vitality of the tooth with
a. Ice pack
b. Chloro ethyl
c. Endo special ice/ endodontic ice spray
j Cold water spray
(Cold test by Endo Ice and percussion test are the two most important tests in vitality diagnosis)
230) ?Best way to know pulp status and integrity
a. Cold test
b. Electric test
c. Anesthesia
d. Percussion
231) least test used for pain diagnosis

a. Thermal
b. Electric
c. Cavity test
232) Anesthetic testing/ intraligamentery injection is most effective in localizing pain to which of the
?following
a. Specific tooth
b. Mandible or maxilla
c. Across the midline of the face
d. Posterior tooth
233) Testing a tooth with porcelain fused to metal with

a. Cold test
b. Cold and hot
c. Cold with rubber dam

30
)234 The best test for vitality of crowned tooth is

a Cold with rupper dam or hot thermal testing
)235 Crown and root perforation

a respond to MTA
b use matrix with hydroxyapatite and seal with G I
c. a &b
d. root canal filling
236) While u were preparing a canal u did a ledge, then u used EDTA with the file, this may lead to
a. perforation of the strip
237) You make ledge in the canal You want to correct this What is the most complication occur in this
step
a. Creation false canal
b. Apical zip c Stripping
d perforation
238) Removing of dentine in dangerous zone to cementum is

a. perforation\Apical perforation
b. ledge
c. stripping\Lateral perforation
k zipping
(Stripping is a lateral perforation caused by over instrumentation through a thin wall danger zone in the root)
239) Follow up of RCT after 3 years, RCT failed best treatment is to

a. Extraction of the tooth
b. Redo the RCT \Retreatment
c. Apicoectomy
240) Amputation\ Radisectomy means

a. Surgical removal of the apical portion of the root b Removal of one or more roots
c. The root and the crown are cut lengthwise
d. None
241) Hemisection means

a. Surgical removal of the apical portion of the root
b. Removal of one or more roots
l None
Hemisection is the process of cutting a tooth with two roots in half Each half tooth consists of half the crown and)
(one root
242) Apecectomy means

a. Surgical removal of the apical portion of the root
b. Removal of one or more roots

31

d. None
243) ?What is the material which we use after apecoectomy

a. Citric acid b EDTA
c. Tetracycline
244) Root end resection, what is the conditioning

a. citric acid
b. tetracycline c EDTA
245) Apiceoctomy what is the right statement

a. Incisor with an adequate RCT and 9mm lesion
b. Lateral incisor with good condensing RCT but swelling and pain 14 day after the treatment, the tooth
asymptom before the obturation
c. First upper premolar with lesion on the buccal root
246) ?Retrograde filling is indicated in what condition

a. Max central incisor with good filling with 9 mm radiolucency
b. Max pre with post and core buccal root with 4 mm short filling and radiolucency at the apex but the palatal
root with good filling
c. 1st molar with MBR and DBR short filling and platal root with fracture instrument
247) At which temperature that gutta percha reaches the alpha temp
a 42 - 48 c
b 50 – 60
c 80 – 70
d. 100c
248) In a curved root u bent a file by

a. Put gauze on the file & bend it by hand
b. Bend the file by pliers
c. by bare finger
d. By twist
249) How do you know if there are 2 canals in the same root
a. Radiographically with 2 files inside the root
b. The orifices are close to each other
250) Best way to detect presence of 2 canals

a. putting 2 files & take x-ray
251) The best way to remove silver point

a. Steiglitz pliers\ pliers and hemostats
b. Ultrasonic tips
c. H files
d. Hatchet
252) Patency filing

32
a. push the file apically to remove any block at the apex

b. rotate the file circumferentially at the walls to remove any block of lateral canals
c. rotary files circumferentially at the walls to remove any block of lateral canals
d. file with bleaching agent
253) Tooth with full crown need RCT, you did the RCT through the crown, what is the best restoration to
maintain the resistance of the crown
a. Glass ionomer resin with definite restoration
b. Amalgam
254) Pt comes with pain, When drinking hot tea Pain continues for 10 minutes diagnosis
a. irreversible pulpitis
b. necrotic
255) Over extended GP should removed using

a. Ultrasonic vibrating b Dissolving agent
c. Rotary or round bur
d. Surgery
256) 3rd generation of apexo locator

a. Uses with all pts
b. Needs more research
c. Increases chair time
d. Decreases radiographic film need
257) In endo, one of sealer property is to be flowable (or wetability), to enhance this quality we can mix it
with a material that have
a. Low surface tension
b. High surface tension
258) Adding of surfactant to irrigation solution during RCT to increase wettability of canal walls by
a. lowering surface tension
b. increasing surface tension
c. Passing through dentinal tubules
259) Which condition is an apical lesion that develop acute exacerbation of chronic apical abscess
a. Granuloma
b. Phoenix abscess
c. Cyst
d. Non of above
260) Acute exacerbation of chronic pulpitis

a. Reversible pulpitis b Irreversible pulpitis
c Acute periodontitis

33
261) The patient has dull pain and swelling and the periapical x-ray shows apical radiolucency your
diagnosis will be
a. Acute periodontal abscess
b. Chronic periodontal abscess with swelling
262) Sealer is used in RCT to

a. Fill in voids
b. Increase strength of RC filling
c. Disinfect the canal
263) Post graduated student uses mta the prognosis depends on prevent
a. immediate suture
b. disturbance during closure of wound
c. using a flab
264) Panorama x-ray is used for

a. Periapical tissues
b. Interproximal caries
c. Giving complete picture for upper and lower jaws
d. None
265) Patient came to your clinic complaining of pain, upon examination you can’t find a cause What’s the
next logical step to do in investigation
a. Panoramic x-ray
b. CT Scan
c. MRI
d. Regular tomography
266) what is the concept of Pro-taper system

a. Step down tech
b. Step back tech
c. Crown down tech
267) Niti rotary manufacture instruction for technique

a. step back
b. step down
c. hybrid
d. crown down
268) The main link between the pulp and the periodontium is
a. Apical foramen
b. Dentinal tubules
c. Accessory canals
d. PDL
269) Apical foramen

a. content in the apex of root
b. detected by apexolocator
c. in the lateral canal
d. releted to orifice
(In anatomy the apical foramen is the opening at the apex of the root of a tooth)

34
270) Using a larger file while reducing the length in endodontics is called
a. Step back
271) Pain in central incisors from

a. Central & lateral incisors
b. Lateral & canine
c. Canine & premolar
d. Premolar & molar
272) To treat non vital tooth with open apex when doing access opening with gates glidden drills take
care to avoid
a. Remove all dentin
b. Remove minimal dentine
c. Follow conservative method
273) GG 1 # tip diameter same as which file size

a. 20
b. 40
c. d 50 30
274) When take x-ray in upper premolar to locate lingual root using mesial shift it will appear
a. distal
b. buccal
c. lingual d mesial
275) While taking X-ray for upper right first premolar with two equal roots using mesial slob, its lingual
root will move [comparing to the zygomatic process]
a. distal b Mesial
c. Palatal
d. Lingual
276) While dentist making biomechanical preparation by using NI TI file it broken this is because the
property of
a. elastisity and memory
b. rigidity and memory c axial fatigue
m tarnish
(The most important reasons for fracture of Ni/Ti rotary files are the cyclic fatigue and torsional stresses)
277) Best root canal material primary central incisor

a. iodoform

35
b. Guttapercha
c. Formacresol
Iodoform, ca(oh)2 and ZOE are root canal materials for the primary teeth but iodoform and ca(oh)2 are more better)
(than ZOE
278) ?After doing normal RCT for a tooth with apical periodontitis when can we place a crown
a. Immediately after finishing the RCT & the pain will be severe for few days or weeks
b. We make temporary crown for function & aesthetic & wait for the healing 4- 8 months
c. We make temporary crown for function & aesthetic & wait for the healing 12-24 months
d. non of the above
279) pt with trauma to upper incisor, small pulp exposure, when you do cold test you have normal
?response no lingering pain, tooth sensitive to touch, diagnosis
a. asymptomatic irreversible pulpitis
b. symptomatic irreversible pulpitis
c. asymptomatic reversible pulpitis and acute periapical periodontitis
280) When you do RCT and you want to prescribe an antibiotic What's the drug of choice
a. clindamycine
b. erythromycin c penicillin
d metronidazol
281) Toilet of cavity is

a. Removal of debris by washing with H2O
b. Removal of debris by cold air spray
c. Removal of debris by hot air spray
d. Washing the cavity with soap solution
e. Washing the cavity with medicament
282) While examining the RCT done by other dentist, you find a case where the radiograph shows
densely packed gutta-percha in coronal third but poorly packed in apical third, the most likely cause is
a. Excessive packing of dentine chips in apical one third
b. Failure to coat accessing cones with sealers
c. Failure to obtain proper depth of penetration with compacting instrument
d. Too much root canal sealer
e. Use of accessory cones with fine tips
(compacting instrument = spreder)

36
283) Recapitulation is
a. Uses successively larger files to flare the canals
b. Removing the debris with smaller instruments than the instruments that go to apex
c. Circumferential filing with H files
d. Using various types of files and reamers to enlarge canals
e. Irrigation of canals with sodium hypochlorite
284) The exact description of healing in endo treatment with radiolucency related to apex and fistula
a. disappear of radiolucency
b. asymptomatic tooth
c. decrease in radiolucency d disappear of fistula
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
,Cementum contains cell like bone It is yellow in color in vital

extracted or avulsed tooth But in non vital tooth, its color is dark
a. True
b. False
)286 Enamel tufts are

a. Extensions of odontoblasts to DEJ enamel spindles
b. Enamel rods change direction c Enamel rods get crowded
)287 Skeletal bone of skull develops from

a. Neurocranium ossification
b. Intramembranous ossification
c. Endochondral ossification
288) Yellow-brown hypomineralization of enamel with or without hypoplasia can be treated by

a. Acid-pumice microabrasion
)289 trigeminal nerve problem

a. Facial nerve problem
b. Oculomotor nerve problem
c. Trochlear nerve problem d All of above
)290 Pterygomandibular raphe

a. Insertion and origin of superior pharyngeal constrictor & buccinators M
b. muscles
c. should be medial to the injection d all of the above
291) The ratio of organic to inorganic material is approximately the same in

a. cementum and dentin

37
b. compact bone and cementum

c. spongy bone and dentin
d. alveolar compact bone and spongy bone
e. all of the above
(cementum 45/55 dentin 30/ 70 bone 35/ 65)
)292 Hardest portion enamel

a. longitunal enamel
b. striar of rezitus
c. hunter band
293) When tooth erupt it's attached to which part of epith

a. Lamina Dura b Lamina Lucida
c Lamina densa
294) Mandibular foramen is

a. Above occlusal plane in elderly people
b. At the occlusal plane in adult
c. Below the occlusal plane in children d All of the above
295) The nasopalatine bone forms a triangle will be parallel to an imaginary lines extended between
cemento-enamel junctions of adjacent teeth
a. True
b. False
296) Endocranial ossification occurs in

a. Mandibular body
b. Maxillary sutures
c. Cranial sutures d syncodrosis
297) What is the number of pharyngeal branchial arches

a. b 5 4
c. 6
d. 7
298) Most used sugar substitute

a. Sorbitol
b. Mannitol
c. Insulin
d. Xylitol tooth-friendly & non fermentable sugar
299) What the influence of xylitol

a. It causes caries b Safe to the teeth
c. Increase saliva
d. Decrease saliva

38
300) 1st Pharyngeal arch called

a. maxillary arch
b. mand arch = arch I
c. thyroid = arch III
d. hyoid = arch II
301) The lower lip originate from

a. Mandible branch of pharyngeal arch
b. lingual branch of pharyngeal arch
302) Skeletal face is from

a. Neural crest
b. Paraxial mesoderm
c. Lateral plate mesoderm
303) Arterial blood supply to floor of mouth

a. Lingual
b. Inf Alv
c. Buccal
d. mental
304) Inorganic materials in bone compromise

a 65%
b 25%
c %10
d 95%
305) Which cranial nerve that petrous part of temporal bone houses
a. Trigeminal n V
b. Facial n VI
c. Vagus n IX
d. Vestibalcochealer n VII
)306 Gag reflex

a Vagus if Motor
b Glossopharyngeal if sensory
307) Lateral pterygoid muscle has how many origin

a. b 2 1
c. 5
d. 7
308) pt asked to move the jaw to right which muscle contracted

a. Rt lateral pterygoid b Lt lateral pterygoid

39
c. Rt medial pterygoid
d. Lt medial pterygoid
309) ?Dentin contains which type of collagen fibers

a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type Ill
d. Type IV
310) Which muscles down ward mandible

a. digastrics
b. lat pterygoid
c. medial pterygoid
311) Embryo becomes fetus in

a. 1st week
b. 1st month
c. 2nd month d 3rd month
312) What is the name of first pharyngeal branchial arch

a. Maxillary b Mandibular
c. Thyroid
d. hyoid
313) Stomodeum and foregut separated by

a. buccopharyngeal arch
b. ectodermal cleft
)The stomodeum is separated from the anterior end of the fore-gut by the buccopharyngeal membrane)
314) Many parts of bones are originally cartilaginous that replaced by bone
a. True
b. False
315) Oral diaphragm consists mainly of\ Muscle that form floor of the mouth
a. Tongue
b. Geniohyoid muscle
c. Digastric muscle d Mylohyoid muscle
316) Masseter muscle extends from lower border of zygomatic arch to lateral border of ramus and angel
of the mandible
a. True
b. False

40
317) Extend of temporalis behind infratemporal fossa of temporal bone insert in coronoid process
a. True
b. False
318) Palpating temples, which muscle

a. L pterygoid
b. M pterygoid c Temporalis
d Masseter
319) Main arterial supply in face is facial artery and superficial temporal artery
a. True
b. False
320) Mandible is the 1st bone calcified in skull but clavicles start first but in same embryological time
a. True
b. False
321) Mandible formed before frontal bone

a. True
b. False
322) Maxilla is formed

a. before mandible
b. same with mandible
c. slightly after mandible
d. none of the above
323) Development of maxillary process and medial frontal process in medial elongation of central portion
a. True b False
324) All are single bone in skull except

a. Occipital
b Iacrimal facial
c Parietal cranial
d Sphenoid
325) Some bones are formed by endochondral ossification like long bone, flat bone by intramembranous
ossification and some bones by endochondral and intramembranous ossification
a. True
b. False
326) Flat bone grows by endochondral ossification

a. True

41
b. False
327) Facial nerve supply

a. Masseter muscle
b. Temporal muscle c Buccinator muscle
d Mylohyoid muscle
328) Muscles of facial expressions are all innervated by facial nerve

a. True
b. False
329) Cranial nerves are

a. nerves 12
b. nerve 14
c. nerve 10
d. nerve 16
330) The nerve which supplies the tongue and may be anesthetized during nerve block injection
a. V
b. VII
c. IX
d. XII
331) While performing cranial nerve examination you notice that the patient is unable to raise his
eyebrows, hold eyelids closed, symmetrically smile or evert his lower lip This may indicate
a. Trigeminal nerve problem b Facial nerve problem
c. Oculomotor nerve problem
d. Trochlear nerve problem
e. All of the above
332) Dentine composition

a. inorganic by wgt % 65-60
b. water by wgt %25
c. organic by wgt %43
(inorganic by volume\ 13% water by volume\ 20% organic by volume % 70 )
333) tertiary dentin occurs due to

a. occlusal trauma
b. recurrent caries
c. attrition dentin d all of the above
334) Mastoid process is a part of

a. Temporal bone
b. Parietal bone
c. Occipital bone
335) Parotid duct opens opposite in 2nd Mandibular molars

42
a. True b False
336) parotid duct is opposite to

a. maxilary premolar
b. maxilary 1st molar c maxilary 2nd molar
d mandibular 1st molar
337) Hard palate consists of the following

a. Palatal maxillray process & Ethmoid bone
b. Palatal maxillary process & Sphenoid bone c Palatal maxillary process & Palatine bone
d Palatal maxillary process & Temporal bone
338) Blood supply of the palate is from

a. Greater palatine artery
b. Lesser palatine artery
c. Facial artery
d. Long sphenopalatine artery
e. Anatomising braches from all of the above
339) Upper teeth palatal mucosa supplied by

a. Nasopalatine
b. Anterior palatine\Greater palatine
c. Post superior alveolar nerve d A & B
340) Nerve supply MB root of upper 6

a. middle SA
b. Anterior SA
c. Posterior SA
d. Incisive
341) The 1st cervical vertebrae is

a. Atlas
b. Axis
(Atlas , 2 Axis , 3 Longus colli 4,5,6, 7 prominens 1 (
342) Cartilaginous joints in the body affect bone growth

a. True
b. False
343) In geriatric Pt , cementum on the root end will

a. Become thinned and almost nonexistent b Become thicker and irregular
c. Render apex to locater useless
d. Often not be seen on the radiograph
e. Indicate pathosis
344) c shape root in whch tooth

a. lower 1st molar

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b. lower 2nd molar

c. upper 2nd molar
d. upper 1st molar
345) Which of the following is the longest in the dental arch

a. Maxilliary central incisor
b. Maxilliary second premolar
c. Mandibular canine d Maxilliary canine
346) Cell that can give more than one type

a. Fibroblast
b. Odontoblast
c. Mesenchymal cell
347) The roof of mandibular ( glenoid ) fossa consists of

a. Thin compact bone
b. Spongy bone
c. Cancellous bone
348) Pass throw parotid gland

a. Facial nerve
b. Facial arteries
c. External carotid veins
349) A U- shaped radiopaque structure in the upper 1st molar x-ray is

a. The zygomatic process
b. Maxillary sinus wall
350) Muscles of the tongue are

a. 17
b. 18
c. 19
d. 20
351) Loss of sensation in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue is related to paralysis of
a. Lingual nerve
b. Hypoglossal nerve
c. Chorda tympani nerve
ant 2/3 lingual n for the sensation & chorda tympani n for the taste post 1/3 both taste & sensation by)
(glossopharngeal n Motor by hypoglossal
352) Tongue develops from

a. Mandibular arch & tuberculum impar
b. 1st branchial arch
353) Mandibular foramen in young children is

a. At level of occlusal plane
b. Above the level of occlusal plane
c. Anterior the level of occlusal plane

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d. Below the level of occlusal plane
354) oval radiolucency between roots of upper central incisors

a. Incisive foramen
b. Radicular cyst
c. Granuloma
d. Absess
355) The cell primary site of ATP production is

a. Mitochondria
b. Lysosomes
c. Nucleus
d. Nucleolus
e. Vacuoles
356) The organelle most directly involved in cellular aerobic respiration is 1700
a. ribosome
b. mitochondrion
c. nucleus
d. Lysosome
e. Golgi apparatus
357) The organelle most closely associated with the manufacture of proteins within the cell
a. Ribosome
b. Lysosome
c. Nucleolus
d. Cell wall
e. Cell membrane
358) The packing and sorting of protein is the function of

a. Endoplasmic reticulum b Golgi apparatus
c. Mitochondria
d. Nucleus
359) The process of cell engulfing particle is called

a. Endocytosis
b. Exocytosis
c. Phagocytosis
d. Pinocytosis
360) The process of attraction of neutrophils to a site of local tissue injury is called
a. Phagocytosis
b. Diapedesis c Chemotaxis
d Epistaxis
361) Action of Histamine

a. Vasodilatation
b. Permeability

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c. Chemokinesis
d. Bronchoconstriction e All of the obove
362) Tooth germs of primary teeth arise from

a. Dental lamina
b. Dental follicle
c. Enamel organ
d. Epithelial cell of malassez
(Tooth germ = Tooth bud tooth germs of permanent teeth arrise from dental lamina too)
363) Epithelial cells

a. Rest of malassez decrease with age
b. Rest of malassez increase with age
c. Hertwig sheath entirely disappear after dentinogenesis
d. Epithelial remnants could proliferate to periapical granuloma
364) ?Which is the most Likely cause of periodontal cyst

a. Cell Rest of Malassez
b. Cell rest of serss
c. Cell of Hertwig sheath
365) which of the following events occurs during dentinogenesis

a. Odontoblasts become long cuboidal
b. The matrix and proteoglycans maturate with collagen fibers
366) Mandibular branch of trigeminal nerve leaves the skull through

a. Foramen rotundum b Foramen ovale
c. Superior orbital fissure
d. Inferior orbital fissure
e. Jugular foramen
367) Foramen ovale is in the following bone

a. Temporal
b. Occipital c Sphenoid
368) The optic foramen canal is a part of

a. Frontal bone
b. Sphenoid bone
c. Ethmoid bone
369) Optic nerve coming from which bone

a. sphenoid bone
b. zygomatic
c. palatal
370) The inferior alveolar nerve is branch of

a. Mandibular nerve
b. Posterior mandibular alveolar nerve

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c. Anterior mandibular alveolar nerve
371) The lower teeth are supplied with

a. Maxillary nerve
b. Infra orbital c Mandibular
d All of the above
372) The following structures open into the middle meatus

a. Nasolacrimal duct
b. Posterior ethmoidal sinus
c. Maxillary sinus
d. Sphenoid sinus
e. Anterior ethmoidal sinus
f. a, b & d
g. a &b h c & e
i All of the above
(Maxillary sinus, anterior ethmoidal sinus and middle ethmoidal sinus)
373) Ligaments associated with TMJ

a. Tempromandibular
b. Sphenomandibular
c. Stylomandibular d All of the above
374) The body secrets antibody against antigen using which cells
a. T lymphocyte b B lymphocyte
375) Body defends itself by antibodies from

a. B lymphocytes
b. T lymphocytes
c. Plasma cell
376) What supply the gingival buccal tissue of premolars, canines and incisors
a. Long buccal nerve
b. Inferior alveolar nerve
c. Superior alveolar nerve
& Mental nerve of the Inferior alveolar nerve innervates the mandibular buccal gingiva in the premolars, canines)
(incisors maxillary buccal gingiva by superior alveolar nerve
377) maxillary molar nerve supply superior alvolar nerve

a. inferior
b. anterior
c. middle
d. possterior
378) Drainage of tip of the tongue

a. Submandibular lymph nodes

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b. Submental lymph nodes
379) Cementum in cervical 2/3 has

a. Acellular intrinsic fiber
b. Acellular extrinsic fiber more Sharpeys fibers
c. Cellular mixed fibers
d. Intermediate cementum
380) What is the dominant type of fibers found in cementum

a. longitudinal
b. Circular
c. Sharpey's fiber
381) In cementum which fiber

a. shrpeys
b. tranceptal
c. gingival
382) Fibers which completely embedded in cementation and pass from cementation of one tooth to the
cementation of adjacent tooth is
a. Sharpey's fiber
b. Transceptal fibers
c. Longitudinal fibers
383) Cementum is formed from

a. Cementoblasts
b. Fibroblasts
c. Cementicles
384) Lower anterior teeth labial mucosa supplied by

a. Mental nerve
b. Inferior dental nerve
c. Buccal nerve
385) Buccal branch of trigeminal is

a. Sensory
b. Motor
c. Psychomotor
d. Sensory and motor
386) Buccal branch of facial is

a. Sensory b Motor
c Mixed
387) Coronal suture is between

a. Occipital and temporal bone b Frontal and parietal bones
c Occipital and tympanic bone

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388) In 6 weeks of intrauterine life, the development starts The oral epithelium is stratified squamous
epithelium will thickened and gives dental lamina
a. true
b. false
(The development of dental lamina occurs in 6 weeks of intrauterine life & continues to 15 years after birth )
389) ?Sharp pain is due to which type of fibers

a A fibers transmit sharp pain
b. B fibers
c. C fibers transmit dull or aching pain
390) Acceptable theory for dental pain

a. hydrodynamic
b. fluid movement
c. direct transduction
391) Enamel
a. Repair by ameloblasts
b. Permeability reduces with age
c. Permeability increases with age
d. Permeable to some ions semipermeable
392) Hunter Schreger bands are white and dark lines that appear in
a. Enamel when view in horizontal ground b Enamel when view in longitudinal ground
c. Dentin when view in horizontal ground
d. Dentin when view in longitudinal ground
393) At which location in enamel is the density of enamel crystals is lowest

a. Prismless enamel b DEJ
c. Center of enamel Prisms
d. Edge of enamel Prisms
e. Facial enamel
(The density of enamel decrases from the surface to the DEJ)
394) Distinguishing between right & left canines can be determined

a. because distal concavities are larger
b. with a line bisecting the facial surface the tip lies distally
c. others
395) Pulp with age

a. reduces collagen fiber
b. Increases cellular in pulp
c. decreases pulp chamber size
396) Killing of bacteria is

a. Bacteriostatic

49
b. Bactericidal
397) Mandibular 1st permanent molar looks in morphology as

a. primary 1st mand molar b primary 2nd mand molar
c. primary 1st max molar
d. primary 2nd max molar
398) In the pulp

a. Cell rich zone contains fibroblasts
b. Cell free zone contains capillaries and nerve networks
c. Odonotbalstic layer contains odontoblasts d All of the above
399) Glenoid fossa\Mandibular fossa is found in

a. orbital cavity
b. nasal cavity
c. middle cranial fossa d Temporal bone
400) Endocrine and exocrine gland is

a. pancreas Ovaries & testes also
b. Pituitary gland
c. Thyroid gland
d. Salivary gland
e. Sweat gland
401) The movement of polymorphic cells in the gaps of intracellular to the blood capillary outside it called
a. Porosity
b. Slinking
c. Diapedesis
402) The best definition to odontoblast

a. It’s subjacent to predentine & odontoblastic process
b. Odontoblast cell is more in the cellular pulp than radicular
403) 2nd maxillary premolar contact area

a. Middle of the middle third with buccal embrasure wider than lingual embrasure
b. Middle of the middle third with lingual embrasure wider than buccal embrasure
c. Cervical to the incisal third
404) Distal fissure of premolar contact oppose

a. Middle of the middle third & buccal fissure is wider than lingual
b. Cervical line & lingual fissure is wider than buccal
c. Middle of the middle third & vice versa d Cervical of the middle third & vice versa
405) Which of the following teeth has a contact area between the incisal\occlusal third and middle third
a. 1st maxillary premolar

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b. 1st mandibular premolar

c. 1st maxillary molar
d. Central mandible Incisor
406) Distal surface for first upper premolar, contact with the neighboring teeth
a. in the middle with buccal vastness wider than lingual one
b. in the middle with lingual vastness wider than bucccaly one M-middle, D- occlusal
407) Maternal immunity that passed from mother to the fetus through the placenta, IgG & IgA is
considered
a. Natural passive immunity
b. Natural active immunity
c. Acquired passive immunity
d. Acquired active immunity
408) Carbohydrate is digested in

a. mouth
b. small intestine
c. large intestine
d. none
409) Carbohydrate is essential for

a. Building the body
b. Supplying the body with energy
c. a+b
d. none
410) The food which build new cells

a. Carbohydrates b Proteins
c. Fats
d. Minerals
411) what the name of the depressions present on molars in the middle and between the cusps
a. Developmental grooves
412) in the normal tissues, the basal cell layer adheres to

a. Prickle cell layer
413) pt unable to raise his eyebrows, hold eyelids closed , symmetrical smile or evert his lower lip this due
to injury of
a. trigeminal N b facial N
c. oculomotor N
d. trochlear N
e. all
414) Facial n paralysis due to

51
a. upper nerve block b lower nerve block
(IAN or Infra-orbital N block )
415) if upper portion of faical nerve paralysis, listen loudly which bone effective
a. stapedius b tympanic
416) Pt with paralysis of left side for 15 days including the eye, upper and lower lips , anterior third of the
?tongue , cannot raise the eyebrow , which injury of facial nerve is this due to
a. Injury to Parotid gland
b. After the origin or chorda tympani
c. Upper part of facial nerve
417) PT HAS 1/2 FACE PARALYSIS,SHE CAN MOVE LITTLE BIT HER UPPER EYE LID,LITTLE BIT UPPER AND
? LOWER LIP AT WHICH PLACE FACIAL NERVE IS AFFECTED
a. In parotid gl
b. After origin of chorda tympani c At higher level
d At sub mandibular region
418) Unable to close eye we test

a. Occulomotor b Facial
419) After a minor head injury a young patient was unable to close his left eye and had drooling of saliva
from left angle of mouth He is suffering from
a. VIIth nerve injury
b. Vth nerve injury
c. IIIrd nerve injury
d. Combined VIIth and IIIrd nerve injury
420) Unable to open eye we test

a. Occulomotor
b. Facial
421) Oculomotor nerve problem will cause

a. superior constructor m
b. downward and lateral movement of eye
c. construct eye pupil
422) Inferior orbital fissure located

52
a. Lateral wall & floor of of orbit

b. The medial part of orbit
c. Between the two wings of sphenoid
423) Anomalis during initiation and profilration of tooth germ will lead to
a. Amelogenasis imberfecta
b. Dentinogenasis imberfecta apposition
c. Dentinal dysplasia histodifferentiation
d Oligodontia Oligodontia, Supernumerary teeth & Geminated/ fused teeth
424) Enamel rods form the main structure of enamel, they extend from the DEJ toward the dental pulp
a. true b false
Enamel rods/ enamel prisms form the main structure of the enamel It’s the basic and the largest structural)
(elements of the enamel These rods extend from the dentinoenamel junction DEJ toward the enamel
425) role of myoepithelial cells in salivary glands
a. Secret saliva
b. Contraction when the gland stimulated to secret saliva
)429 Duct of submandibular gland is

a. Wharton
b. Bartholin
c. Barvenous
d. Stensen Duct of parotid gland
)430 duct open near circumferential papillae

a. Von ebner
b. Specious gland
c. Stenson duct
)431 Tooth buds generally initiated after birth are

a. Entire permanent dentition
b. All permanent and some primary teeth
c. First and second premolars and second and third molars only
d. It is very variable
e. Lower central incisors only
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
)432 walls defect in perio what is the best graft to treat this defect 2
a. Cortical freeze dried bone allograft
b. Cancellous freeze dried bone allograft c All are the same
)433 ?wall defect treatment what is the superior bone fill 3

a. freezed dried

53
b. cortical
c. cancellous
d. all are the same bone fill effect
)434 Patients with high caries activity have low PH and the PH falls on the lower level
a. Carbohydrate retained to the tooth has prolonged effect
b. After rinsing by 10 % glucose, the PH falls within 2 – 3 minutes below the critical level of PH and remain for
about 30 – 50 minutes
c. Fall the PH below the critical level of PH, the enamel can be remineralized
)435 During perio surg For the pt with chronic periodontitis we found carter how is it removed
a. Osteotomy b Osteoplasty
c Gingivectomy
)436 The powered toothbrush invented in

a 1929
b 1939
c 1959
d 1969
(The 1st electric toothbrush was invented in Switzerland in 1954 by Dr Philippe Guy Woog)
437) To prevent perio problem, most effective method is

a. Community program
b. Removal of plaque c Patient education
d Water fluoridation
438) the relationship between the working end of instrument and the tooth surface is know as
a. adaptation
b. angulation
c. activation
d. accessibility
439) You should treat ANUG until the disease completely removed Otherwise, it will change to necrotic
ulcerative gingivitis
a. Both sentences are true
b. Both sentences are false c 1st true, 2nd false
d 1st false, 2nd true
440) Supra calculus all true EXCEPT

a. Hard and rough

54
b. Easy to detach
c. Has component of saliva
441) Water irrigation device

a. prevent plaque formation
b. completely removes plaque c dilute bactetial toxins
442) Radiographically interdental bone appears perpendicular to the CEJ _ if the CEJ of many number of
adjacent teeth are not in the same level, the interdental bone will appear or create angulations, the both
statements are
a. First true
b. Both true
c. Both false d Second true
443) In diabetic patient, periodontium affected by which cells

a. Neutrophil
b. Macrophages
444) Canine miler class II recession which flap

a. Full thickness with full split
b.Full thickness with partial split
c. Connective tissue graft with full split
d.Connective tissue graft with partial split
445) Patient with sensitivity may be due to

a. crack
b. gap between tooth and restoration
446) hemiseptal fracture/ hemiseptum defect

a. Horizontal recession - one wall fracture
b. Horizontal recession - two walls fracture
c. Horizontal recession - three walls fracture
447) Which of the following may cause gingival enlargement

a Phenyntoin Dilantin
b. Cyclosporine
c. Nifedipine ( a calcium channel blocker )
d. Aspirin
(The highest incidence of drug induced gingival hyperplasia/ gingival enlargement is reported to phenytoin/ Dialantin)
448) Ataxic epilepsy patients - what are their most common dental problem
a. adontia
b. malocclusion

55
c. trauma
d. gingival hyperplasia due to medication
449) Sharping of hand instrument mounted air driven better than unmounted due to
a. Fine grift
b. Sterilization
c. Ability to curve instrument
450) Unmounted sharpening instruments are better than mounted because

a. has finer grains
b. don't alter the bevel of the instrument
c. easier to sterilize
d. less particles of the instruments are removed
Unmounted stones are preferred as they are kinder on instrument by removing less metal in the sharpening)
(process
451) In order to activation of periodontal instruments the blade should make angle with facial surface of
the tooth
a 45 90
b 90 180
c 30 15
452) Sharpening the curette and sickle, the cutting edge should be at angle
a 50-60
b 70-80
c 90-80
d 60- 70
453) Hand cutting instruments are composed of

a. Handle and neck
b. Handle and blade only c Handle, shank and blade
d. Handle, neck and shank
e. Handle, neck, shank, and blade
454) In standard instrument for proper work the cutting edge should be
a. perpendicular to the handle
b. parallel to the handle
c. acute angle
d. inverted angle
455) Which of the following is the only antibiotic in periodontal therapy to which all strains of A
?actinomycetemcomitans are susceptible
a. Ciprofloxacin

56
b. Erythromycin
c. Amoxicillin
d. Macrolides
e. Tetracycline
456) ?Bacteria which can invade epithelium

a. Porphyromonas Gingivalis
b. Fusobacterium
c. Streptococcus mutans
d. Capnocytophaga
457) ?What does the local drug (antiseptic) delivery system, Perio-chip, contain
a. Minocycline b Chlorhexidine
c. Metronidazole
d. Tetracycline
458) ?Which is not present in saliva

a. Lactoferrin
b. Antibodies
c. Potassium
d. Proteolytic enzyme
459) Salivary gland role in maintaining tooth and bacteria integrity on the oral cavity is done by
a. Bacterial clearance
b. Remineralization
c. Buffering and direct anti-bacterial role d Bacterial clearance and reminerlization
460) The periodontal tissues \ Periodontium comprise which of the following tissues
a. Gingiva and the PDL
b. Gingival, PDL, and alveolar bone
c. Gingival, PDL, alveolar bone, and cementum
d. Gingival, PDL, alveolar bone, cementum, and enamel
461) waiting 6 months after crwen lingthining in anterior teeth

a. pdl maturing
b. epithilial
462) Colour of normal gingiva is interplay between

a. Keratin- vascularity – melanin- epithelial thickness
463) Treatment of gingival trauma from faulty oral hygiene is mainly

a. To advice the patient to change their faulty habits immediately

57
b. Reassure the patient that it will disappear by itself

c. To buy a new brush
464) Which of the following statement is true regarding dental calculus

a. It is composed entirely of inorganic material
b. It is dens in nature and has a rough surface
c. It is mineralized dental plaque
d. All of the above e b & c only
f None of the above
465) calculus made up of

a. mateia alba
b. food debris
c. minerlize plaqe
466) Dental plaque is formed after

a. hours 6
b. hours 12
c. hours 24
d. hours 48
467) Main use of dental floss

a. Remove calculus
b. Remove over hang
c. Remove bacterial plaque d Remove food debris
468) What is the benefit of rinsing the mouth with water

a. Plaque removal
b. calculus removal
c. washing the food debris
d. Prevent the formation of plaque
e. Dilute the concentration of bacteria if C is not present you pick this
469) The water rins devices for periodontal therapy has a main goal which is
a. remove plaque
b. prevent plaque attachment
c. dilute bacterial toxin
d. remove dental pocket
470) Calculus induces further periodontal lesion due to

a. Directly stimulates inflammation b more plaque adhere to it
c irritate the gingiva

58
471) Floss used to

a. Remove interproximal plaque
b. Remove overhangs
c. Stimulate gingival
472) Plaque consists of

a. Bacteria
b. Inorganic material
c. Food
473) At the begining of the operation day in the clinic, you should start the water/air spray for three
minutes in order to get rid of which type of microorganisms
a. Streptococcus mutans
b. Streptococcus salivarius c pseudomonas aurignossa
( Legionella pneumophila, Mycobacterium spp , Pseudomonas aeruginosa, and Staphylococcus spp )
474) Subgingival scaling and root planning is done by

a. Gracey Curette
b. Hoe
c. Chisel
475) The subgingival scaler

a. Universale
b. Gracey curette
476) Difference between Gracey and universal curette

a. Section of gracey is hemicircular and in universal triangular
b. Gracey has one cutting edge while universal has two
c. Gracey used for cutting in specific area while universal is in any area
d. Universal 90 not offset, gracey 60 offset
e. a and d
f. a, b and c g b, c and d
477) which used for special area

a. Gracey
b. universal scalar
478) Gracey 13/14

a. Mesial posterior b Distal posterior

59
479) Currently the only effective preventive measure for periodontal disesse (a part from limited use of
antiseptic solutions) is
a. Regular and rough removal of dental plaque
b. Salt flouridation
c. Dental health education
480) Periodontal ligament fibers in the middle third of the root is

a. Oblique
b. Horizontal
c. Transeptal
481) Gingival hyperplasia related to phenytoin therapy is

a. Most common on lingual surface
b. Most common in older Pt
c. Strongly related to phenytoin dosage d Strongly related to poor oral hygiene
482) Which of the following statement is true for the reported relationship of periodontal disease and
diabetes mellitus
a. The reported incidence of periodontal disease in the diabetes is less than that for non diabetic
b. Pts with history of diabetes of less than 10 years have more periodontal disease destruction than those with
history of longer than 10 years
c. The prevalence of periodontal disease increases with the advancing age of the diabetic
d. The prevalence of periodontal disease increases with the better metabolic coronal of the diabetic state
483) Which one of the following is least likely to contribute to bad oral breath
a. Periodontal disease b Denture
c. Faulty restoration
d. Carious lesions
484) Denture sith calculus before repair & send to lab you have to clean with
a. Ultrasonic
b. chemical immersion
485) Which one of the following is not a characteristic of dentinal hypersensitivity

a. It is one of the most successfully treated chronic dental problems
b. % Its prevalence range from 8 to 30

60
c. The majority of the Pts who experience it are from 20 to 40 years of age
d. One source of the irritation that leads to hypersensitivity is improper tooth brushing
Dentin hypersensitivity is a common clinical condition that is difficult to treat because the treatment outcome is not)
(consistently successful
486) Hypersensitivity is due to

a. Exposed dentine with opened dentinal tubules
b. Obliterated dentinal tubule
487) Which statement concerning sensitive teeth is false

a. Small dentin exposure can result in sensitivity
b. The extent of dental hard tissue loss always correlates with sensitivity
c. A wide variety of clinical condition can cause teeth to become sensitive
d. Oral hygiene habits and diet can contribute to clinical sensitivity problems
488) Chlorhexidine is used as mouth wash in the concentration of

a 0 1 - 0 2%
b 1 - 2%
c %10 - 5
d 20%
489) Time for chlorhexide mouth rinse

a. seconds b 30 seconds 60
c 2minute
490) Dentine hypersensitivity is best relieved or controlled by

a. Using efficient cooling system
b. Blocking exposed tubules on the dentin surface
c. Opening tubules to permit release of intrapulpal pressure
d. Applying anti inflammatory agent to exposed dentin
491) The function of the periodontal ligament includes

a. Mechanical function
b. Formative function
c. Nutritive function
d. Sensory function e All of the above
492) How can you prevent dental hypersensitivity

a. Restoration by adhesion
b. Controlled by alcohol
c. Put sedative medication
493) Pain of short duration with hot and cold

61
a. dentin sensitivity
b. irriversible pulpitis
c. chronic pulpitis
d. apical periodontitis
494) Important factor in long term success of perio treatment

a. Skill of the operator b Perio maintenance
495) The aim of treatment maintenance is

a. Prevent secondary infection\Prevent recurrent disease
b. Check tissue response
496) Which causes gingival enlargement

a. Cyclosporines
497) Main disadvantage of chlorhexidine

a. Staining
b. Burning sensation
c. Altered taste
498) Use of miswak and toothbrush

a. Toothbrush after meals and miswak at prayer time and when out of home
b. Miswak and toothbrush must be used together
c. Use the miswak only when they can not afford to buy the toothbrush and toothpaste
d. Not use the miswak and use the toothbrush instead
499) The best method for brushing

a. vertical
b. Horizontal
c. Bass sulcular method\ Bass method
d. All of the above
500) The best method for tooth brush is bass method because It enters to interproximal area Can be used by
patient with gingival recession and it rotainary advice to all types of patients
a. The both sentences are correct
b. The first sentence is correct and the second is wrong
501) Bass brushing has the advantage of the bristles enters in the cervical area, and it is recommended
for all patients
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. first is true, second is wrong
d. first is wrong, second is true
502) Patient comes to you with edematous gingiva, inflamed, loss

?of gingival contour and recession, what's the best tooth brushing technique
a. Modified bass
b. Modified stillman Recommended for progression gingival recession
c. Charter Recommended after periodontal surgery
d. Scrub

62
503) Brushing method in which side parts of bristles are activated

a. Bass
b. Charter
c. Modified stillman
504) Isolated pocket in

a. vertical root fracture
b. palatogingival groove
c. endo origin lesion d all
505) Periodontal pocket differs most significantly from gingival pocket with respect to
a. Depth
b. Tendency to bleed on gentle probing c The location of the bone of the pocket
d All of the above
506) During clinical examination the patient had pain when the exposed root dentin is touched due to
a. Reversiple pulpitis
b. Dentine hypersensitivity
c. Irreversible pulpitis
507) During examination #34 show gingival recession buccally, the least correct reason is
a. Frenum attachment
b. Pt is right hand brusher
c. Occlusal force
d. Inadequate gingiva
508) Pt presented to u having root recession he has pain when putting probe gently on the root what is
the diagnosis
a. Dentin hypersensitivity
b. Reversible pulpitis
c. Irreversible pulpitis
d. Apical Periodontitis
509) Dr black ( GV black ) periodontal instrument classification

a. Study what the number represents in the instrument formula
510) ?For g v black classification study what the number refers to angulation
a. Number 1
b. Number 2 c Number 3
d Number 4
511) To remove a broken periodontal instrument from the gingival sulcus

a. Schwartz Periotriever

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512) Gingivitis means

a. Inflammation of the periodontal ligaments
b. Inflammation of the bone c Inflammation of the gingiva
d Inflammation of the tongue
513) What can not diagnosed by radiography

a. proximal caries
b. Abscesses
c. Severe gingivitis
514) The main cause of inflammation of gingiva/ gingivitis

a. Smoking
b. Calculus
c. Bacteria OR Bacterial plaque
d. Fluoride
515) Primary sign of gingival infection

a. Bleeding on probing
b. Colour change
c. Change in consistency
516) An 18 years old Pt presents complaining of pain, bad breath and bleeding gingiva This began over
the weekened while studying for the final exam The Pt may have which of the following conditions \ Gingival
condition occurs in young adult has good oral hygiene
a. Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis\ANUG
b. Rapidly progressive periodontitis
c. Desquamative gingivitis
d. Acute periodontal cyst
e. periodontitis
f. gingivitis
517) Student came to clinic with severe pain, interdental papilla is inflamed, student has exams, heavy
smoker, poor nutrition
a. Gingivitis b ANUG
c Periodontitis
518) Differences between ANUG Acute Necrotizing Ulcerative Gingivitis and AHGS Acute Herpetic
Gingival Stomatitis is
a. ANUG occurs in dental papilla while AHGS diffuse erythematous inflamed gingiva
b. ANUG occurs during young adult and AHGS in children c All of the above
519) Probe used to detect furcation

a. nabers probe
520) Treatment of grade 2 furcation involvement

a. Scalling

64
b. rooth planning
c. bone grafts with guided tissue regeneration GTR d All of the above
521) Proxy brush with which type of furcation

a. Furcation Grade 1
b. Furcation Grade 2 c Furcation Grade 3
d Furcation Grade 4
522) How to treat an grade 2 furcation with a non graft approach

a. Gelatinous glass b Gtr
c. Graft for the iliac
d. Autogenous graft
523) To distinguish periapical and periodontal abscess we use

a. xray
b. clinical
c. vitality
d. all of the above
524) Periodontal abscess most commonly affect

a. incisors
b. premolar
c. canine
d. molars
525) Treatment of a periodontal abscess caused by a foreign body is

a. gingivectomy
b. antibiotics
c. elimination of the pocket
irrigation of the abscess with saline, remove the foreign body, drain it through probing, compress & debride the)
(tissure & OHI
526) Which of these is used for gingival contouring ( gingivectomy )
a. PK 2
b. PK 4
c. Bard Parker
527) most accurate & less complicated technique for gingivctomy is

a. electrosurgery
b. scalpel c laser
d chemosurgery
528) Electro surgery rate

a. millions cycle per seconds 5 7 – 5 1
b. millions cycle per seconds 10 – 5 7
c. millions cycle per seconds 25 – 10

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d. millions cycle per seconds 30
529) Pt came to u with coloration bluish\ greenish & black in the gingival margins He said that he has
gasteriointensinal problem This is caused because of
a. mercury
b. lead
c. Bismuth
d. arsen
530) Main reason for surgical pocket therapy

a. Expose the roots for scaling and root planning
b. Remove supragingival calculus
531) Periodontally involved root surface must be root planed to

a. Remove the attached plaque and calculus
b. Remove the necrotic cementum
c. Change the root surface to become biocompatible
d. All of the above e a & b only
532) Best measurement of periodontitis by

a. Pocket depth
b. Bleeding
c. Attachment level\ Attachment loss
533) The tissue response to oral hygiene instructions is detected by

a. Probe pocket depth
b. Less bleeding on propping
534) After scaling and root planning healing occurs by

a. Long junctional epithelium
b. New attachment
c. New bone and connective tissue formation
d. New attached periodontal ligament fibers
535) Complete re-epithelization after surgery occurs after

a. days 5-1
b. days c 15-10 days 21-17
536) Epithelisation occur after gingivectomy

a. day 14-5
b. day 21-14
537) All of these are right ways to handle the instrument EXCEPT
a. Modified pen handle
b. Inverted pen c Pen handle
d Palm and thumb

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There are four grasps used with the hand instruments Modified pen, Inverted pen, Palm and thumb, Modified palm)
(and thumb
538) Saliva ejector is placed

a. At the side of working
b. Under the tongue
c. Opposite the working side d b+c
539) HVE/ High Volume Evacuator is placed

a. At the side of working
b. Under the tongue
c. Opposite the working side
d. b+c
540) Grasping the HVE is by

a. Thumb to nose grasp reversed palm and thumb
b. Pen grasp modified pen c a+b
d none
541) Smear layer composed of

a. Dentine debris
b. Inorganic particles
c. Bacteria
d. All the above
542) What is the name of the instrument used to diagnose halitosis

a. Halimeter
543) Each of the following is correct EXCEPT which one

a. Bad breath appears to be largely bacteria in origin
b. Bad breath originating from the gastrointestinal tract is quite common
c. Self-perceptions of bad breath appear to be unreliable
d. Fear of having bad breath may be a severe problem for some people
it’s a severe problem for many people not some people Because it's difficult to rate your own breath, many people)
(worry excessively about their breath even though they have little or no mouth odor
544) Child with late primary dentition has calculus and gingival recession related to upper molar what is
the diagnosis
a. Periodontitis
b. Local aggressive Periodontitis
c. Viral infection
545) Crater in the interdental area indicate which of the following

a. wall bone defect b 2 wall bone defect 1
c. wall bone defect 3
d. Combined 1 & 3
546) Brushing of the anterior teeth from the lingual side is

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a. Vertical
b. Horizontal
c. Oblique
d. None
547) Stephan curve for plaque

a. Rapid drop under critical ph 5 5 followed by slowlly raise
548) ?Name of injury caused by normal/abnormal occlusion on a periodontally compromised tooth

a. Fremitus
b. Primary occlusal trauma
c. Secondary occlusal trauma
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
549) prophylactic antibiotics to minimizes risk of bacterial endocarditis is needed during
a. Placement of orthodontic bands b Intraligamentary injection
c. Non ligamentary injection
d. Suture removal
e. Routine tooth brushing
550) During maxillary 3rd molar extraction the tuberosity fractured It was firmly attached to the tooth
and cannot be separated What is the management
a. Remove it with the tooth
b. Splint the tooth to the 2nd molar then re-extracted after 6 weeks
c. Suture
551) Upon opening an incision in a periapical abscess in a lower 1st molar, you open
a. The most bottom of the abscess\Intraorally
b. The most necrotic part of the abscess
c. Extraoral
552) years old pt have avulsed tooth for 60 min the management to return vascularity of the tooth 20
a. Scrap the surface of the root
b. % Place the tooth in sodium sulfide of X
c. Place it in sodium chloride then sodium sulfide
)553 Intraosseous injection of local anesthesia to lower molar

a. Perforate the bone mesial to the tooth
b. Give one with 1 50000 epinipherine c Give 1/4 to 1/5 of the cartridge
d Ask the pt if he has numbness in his lower lip after injection

68
)554 The most common immediate treatment reported for fractured teeth was
a 25%
b 50%
c %82
d 95%
)555 ?What kinds of radiographs which we do not use for TMJ movements
a. Transcranial
b. Computerized tomography
c. Conventional tomography
d. Arthrography
)556 During anathesia what's true

a. The needle should be inserted before cartridge
b. The needle cap is inserted before the stopper
c. Excessive force should be applied to allow insertion of the cartridge into the harpoon
)557 When we extract roots we start with

a. Forceps
b. Periosteal elevators c Elevators
d Needles
)558 On opg apex of teeth not visible so on repeat wat measures taken to prevent this error
a. Head tilt upward
b. Head tilt downward
c. Lip placed on bite block
)559 LA most common complication arises from

a. Drug to drug
b. Vasoconstrictor c LA drug d Stres
)560 ?after extraction of lower 8, which suture forceps is used for suturing
a. Haemostate curved forceps
b. Russian forceps c Killner's forceps
d Addisons forceps
)561 When to give antibiotics to a pt who have immunity problems

a. periapical granuloma
b. Osteitis
c. Multiple extractions d Incision and drainage
)562 For treatment of pericoronitis

69
a. Extraction of the tooth

b. Analgesic + sterility + antibiotic
c. Cleaning with concentrated phenol d None
)563 When u want to make immediate complete denture after extraction all teeth what the type of suture
u will use
a. Horizontal mattress suture
b. Vertical mattress suture
c. Interrupted suture
d. Continous locked suture
)564 What's the most difficult tooth to extract

a. mandibular third molar
b. mand first premolar
c. max first premolar
d. max canine
565) Pt has bad oral hygiene and missing the right and left lateral incisors what ttt
a. Implant b rpd
c. conventional fpd
d. Maryland bridge
566) The vertical fracture of the tooth detected by

a. periodontal pocket
b. Radiographically
c. Vertical percussion
It is recognized clinically because a periodontal pocket forms along the fracture line Fiber optic light radiographs)
(rarely show vertical fractures
567) Patient takes radiation needing implant

a. wait 6 mouth
b. cessation of smoking c None of the above
568) ?Fractured tooth to alveolar crest, what's the best way to produce ferrule effect
a. Restore with amalgam core sub-gingivally
b. Crown lengthening
c. Extrusion with orthodontics
569) Pt had undergone bypass sugery 9 mnths ago now not any major health problem but pt taking
pediatric asprin daily n he need to go extraction for tooth 35 which test u required to do before
????surdery
a. Proceed
b. PT INR
c. PTT INR

70
d. BLEEDING TEST
570) Radiograph for disk perforaon

a. MRI
b. Arthrography
c. CT
571) After giving a posterior superior alveolar nerve block what procedure could be done
a. Extraction of the 2nd molar
b. Apicectomy to the mesio-buccal root of the 2nd molar
c. Mesio-occlusal class II on 1st molar
d. Extraction of third molar
572) ?Which fibers are teared first when extraction

a Transceptal or dentogingival
b. Circular
c. Dentoalveolar
d. Cementoalveolar
573) Space infection

a. Acute with pus formation
b. Spread of anaerobic bacteria
574) All of these are ways to give L A with less pain EXCEPT
a. Give it slowly
b. Stretch the muscle
c. Topical anesthesia
d. The needle size over than 25 gaug
575) patient suffering from a submandibular gland abscess, dentist made a stab incision and is fixing a
rubber drain to evacuate the pus, the drain is sutured to
a. Intra-oral
b. From angle of the mandible
c. …Between myloid muscle and
d. Intra-oral between the myeloid muscles
e. Extraorally under the chin or
f. Extraorally from the most fluctant point they don't come together
576) Which of the following not considered type of healing of fractured root
a. healing by bone deposition in proximity
b. healing by cementium deposition in proximity
c. healing by cementium and soft tissue in proximity d healing by soft tissue inflammation in proximity
577) Bone removal during alveoplasty

a. Bone file
b. Osteotome

71
c. Rongeur
578) What is the CT scan cut for zygomatic fracture (Oblique Parasagittal View for orbital fractures)
a. 5mm 0
b 1-1 5mm
c 5mm 2-5 1
d 2 5-3 5
579) During mentoplasty/ genioplasty , doctor should take care for injury of what nerve
a. Lower branch of the facial nerve
580) After trauma a tooth becomes yellowish in color, this is due to

a. Necrotic pulp
c. Pulp is partially or completely obliterated
d. Hemorrhage in the pulp
581) years old pt , have severe pain on biting what is the diagnosis 20
a. Complete root fracture
b. Partial fracture with pulp involvement
c. Partial fracture without pulp involvement
582) Factor interferes with healing

a. Poor suturing b Infection
583) Pt presented to u with trauma of the central incisor with open apex, clinical examination revealed
cut of blood supply to the tooth what is the next step
a. extraction
b. endo
c. observe over time
584) Pt comes for surgical extraction He is under warfarin What is the correct INR
a Pt 1-1,5
b Pt 2-2,5
585) Patient with warfarin treatment and you want to do surgery, when you can do
a. When PTT is 1 – 1 5 INR on the same day
b. When PTT is 2 – 2 5 INR on the same day c When PT is 1 – 1 5 INR on the same day
d When PT is 2 – 2 5 INR on the same day
)586 pt on Warfarin & INR is 2 8 do you

72
a extract b Postpone
c extract with vitamine K
587) Contents of the Anesthesia Ampule/ Carpule

a. Lidocaine + epinephrine + Ringer’s liquid + preservative sodium bisulfate or sodium meta bisulfate
b. Lidocaine + epinephrine + distilled water
c. Lidocaine + epinephrine only
588) Adrenaline is added to local anesthesia for

a. Increasing the respiratory rate
b. Prolonging the effect of local anesthesia
c. Increasing the bleeding
d. None
589) cardiovascular symptom for lidocaine toxicity

a. tachycardia b bradycardia
c prolonged QT interval
590) Vasoconstrictors are

a. Lidocaine b Adrenaline
c. Sulpha
d. All of the above
591) Truamatized anterior teeth result in out of alignment of four teeth

a. Luxation
b. Subluxation
c. Alveolar fracture
592) pt have trauma in upper central incisor the tooth and the alveolar bone move as one piece, in
examination intraorally x-ray you will see
a. gap between the apex of root and alveolar bone b definite line of fracture
c no apear in x-ray
593) The following medical conditions may precipitate a syncope

a. Hypoglycemia
b. Mild hyperglycemia
c. Anti hypertensive drugs with ganglionic blocking agent
d. Anti depressant therapy
e. All of the above
(Also strokes, corticosteroid insufficiency, drug interactions, epileptic fit, vaso-vagal shock, heart block )

73
594) what’s the first sign of Syncope

a. Paleness
b. )Nose bleeding (epistaxis
c. Miosis
595) Most frequent cause of fainting in dental office

a. Vaso-vagal shock\ syncope
b. Diabetes
c. Fear
596) Loss of consciousness, most frequent cause

a. Syncope
b. CO2 increase
597) Pt on treatment with steroids are placed on antibiotic after oral surgical procedure because
a. The Pt is more susceptible to infection
b. Antibiotics are synergistic to steroids
c. Antibiotics inhibit herxheimer reaction
d. Antibiotics protect the Pt from steroid depletion
598) The post operative complication after the removal of impacted third molar is
a. Secondary hemorrhage
b. Swelling
c. Pain
d. Alveolar osteitis e All of the above
599) In upper 8 Impaction to avoid tear of gingival flap

a. Adequate size of flap
b. Flap include greater palatine nerve
c. Strong retraction of flap margin
600) ?After remove impacted 3rd lower molar, there is parasthesia why
a. irritating the nerve during extraction
b. broke mandible
601) Pt Came after exo Of lower 7 complaine from loss of sensation and taste in the same side of
?tongue,which nerve is
a. lingual n
b. facial n
c. Glossopharengial n
602) ?Tooth had trauma resulted in hyperemia

a. pain increased with cold

74
b. reversible condition
c. pain of short duration
d. b and c e all
603) Step deformity of the mandibular body fracture may due to

a. Forward pull of lateral pterygoid muscle b Upward pull of masseter and temporalis
c. Toward pull of medial pterygoid muscle
d. Downward pull of geniohyoid and myalohyoid
604) The antibiotic of choice in pregnant

a. Metronidazole b Penicillin
c Tetracycline
605) What would you warn patient about who is taking birth control pills and required Penicillian
a. penicillin decrease effectivenes of birth control pill
b. birth control pill decrease effectiveness of penicillian
c. they may develop allergy
606) Suture commonly used in oral cavity

a. Black silk The most commonly used suture for oral cavity is 3 - 0 black silk
b. Cat gut
c. Chromic
607) Non absorbable suture

a. Plain Catgut
b. Chromic catgut
c. Vicryl d Silk
e All the above
608) Suture after extraction of all teeth in arch

a. Interrupted
609) Tooth fracture during extraction may be occur due to

a. Non vital tooth
b. Diabetic Pt
c. Improper holding by forceps d a and c
610) What is the first sign if there is fracture in face

a. fluid paranasal
b. diastic suture

75
c. overlap of bone
d. all of above
611) Lefotr 1 injury

a. greater platine artery
b. infra orbital artery
c. maxillary artery
d. mandibukar vein
612) Pt came with fracture because of blow in the right side of his face He has ecchymosis around the
orbit in the right side only and subjunctional bleeding in the maxillary buccal vestible with limited mouth
?open what is ur diagnosis
a. le fort 1
b. le fort 2
c. lefort 3
d. zygomatic fracture
613) Moon face appearance is not present in

a. Le fort I
b. Le fort II
c. Le fort III
d. Zygomatic complex
e. Le fort II and Le fort III
614) Pt blow in the anterior maxilla has lefort 1 where to put beak rowe's disimpaction forceps
a. Zygomatic process
b. Canine eminence
c. Maxillary tuberosity
d. Hard palate along nasal floor
616) Mobility in midface with step deformity in frontzygomatic suture

Diagnosis
a. Lefort II b Lefort III
c Bilateral zygomatic complex fracture
617) Open bite is seen in

a. le fort 2
b. unilateral condyle fracture c bilateral condyle fracture
618) Bleeding of the socket following tooth extraction

1. Is always a capillary bleeding in nature
2. Takes not less than half – day in normal individual
3. Is always favorable if it is primary type

76
4. Can be due to the presence of a nutrient vessel

a. and 2 are correct 1
b. and 3 are correct c 2 ,1 and 4 are correct 3 ,1
d All are correct
619) Management of tuberosity fracture during extraction of maxillary molar is

a. Replace and suture
b. Remove and suture with primary heal
c. Replace and suture intra alveolar by wire
d. Remove and leave to heal
(If the tuberosity is fractured but intact, it should be manually repositioned and stabilized by sutures )
620) Tuberosity fracture and it was fragile & lose

a. Remove the tooth & suture
b. suture with tooth
c. remove tuberosity with tooth
621) Tooth # 36 planned to extraction on x-ray no PDL after extraction u found hard tissue lesion like
pearl at the furcation what’s the lesion
a. Enamel pearl
b. Enostosis
c. Hypercementosis
622) Upon giving a lower mandible anaesthesia, you notice the patient’s eye, cheek and corner of the lip
are uncontrolled , what’s the reason
a. Paresthesia of the facial nerve
623) Paraesthesia of lower lip after surgical removal of lower 8 is due to the irritation of inferior alveolar
nerve
a. True
b. False
624) Nerve impulse stops when injection local anesthesia

a. True
b. False
625) when you give the pt anesthesia the hand that holding the syringe should be
a. On Pt’s shoulder
b. On Pt’s hand c Away from pt

77
626) The amount of L A in 2% lidocaine with 1/100000 adrenaline is

a 0 01mg
b 0 02mg c mg 36
627) How many mg of adrenalin in cartridge 1 8 cc of 2 % Xylocine

a. mg 8 1
b. mg 18 0
c. mg 36 0
d. mg 6 3
e 0 018 mg
628) What is the amount of LA in mg in 1 8 ml of xylocain

a. mg/ml 20
b. mg/ml c 8 1 mg 36
629) The most common complication after extraction for diabetic Pt is

a. Infection
b. Severe bleeding
c. Oedema
d. All of the above
630) Tobacco should be considered a risk factor when planning treatment for Pt who require
a. Implants
b. Periodontal surgery
c. Oral surgery
d. Esthetic treatment e All of the above
631) After implant placement, an edentulous patient should

a. avoid wearing anything for 2 weeks
b. immediately have healing abutments placed over the implants
c. should wear an immediate denture to protect the implant sites
632) What are the reccommended numbers of implants for complete edentous patients
a. maxilla 1 mandibular 1
b. maxilla 3 mandibular 2 c maxilla 6 mandibular 4
d maxilla 8 mandibular 6
633) Dental implants are successfully with min failure

a. premaxilla area in the upper arch
b. Posterior area of the maxillary arch max failure c Mandible between the mental foramens
d Buccal shelf of the mandible

78
634) Contraindications of implant EXCEPT

a many dental caries poor oral hygiene is also a contraindication
b. malignancy
c. radiation therapy
635) Implant absolute not used for

a. patient takes radiotherapy
b. Smoking
636) Success of implant is 55 % in maxilla and 60 % in mandible

a. Both true
b Both false both 98%
c. first statement true and second is false
d. first statement false and second is true
637) The best x-ray before placement of implant

a. iopa
b. bitewing c opg
638) What is the new treatment approach for edentulous mandible

a. complete denture
b. overdenture with 2 implants
c. overdenture with 4 implants
639) ? Which of the following reasons can lead to implant failure

a. Infection
b. Insufficient bone mass
c. Faulty implants d All of the above
640) temprature that damage the bone during implant procedure

a. If temperature is raised in the bone to 47 C for more than 1 minute
641) What’s the best implant type allowing osseointegration

a. Root-form endosseous implant
642) The indications of implantation

a. Diabetic patient
b. Loss of one tooth only with the adjecent teeth
643) Trauma leads to fracture in the root between middle and apical thirds
a. Poor prognosis b Good prognosis
Fracture in the root between middle and apical thirds has the best prognosis Fracture between middle and cervical)
(thirds has the poorest prognosis
644) Tooth with a fracture between the apical and the middle thirds, what's your management

79
a. RCT for the coronal part only

b. RCT for both
c. Splint the two parts together
645) Trauma caused fracture of the root at junction between middle and cervical thirds
a. Do endo for coronal part only
b. RCT for both
c. Leave
d. Extraction
e. Splint the two parts together
Fracture of the apical 3rd don’t need a treatment between the middle and apical 3rd RCT for the coronal part only)
(between the middle and cervical 3rd needs RCT for the coronal part only and a splint for 4 – 6 weeks
646) pt came with class IV he had tooth trauma & he brought the fracture segment & on examination u
found that the pulp is not exposed & only u can see dentine, how u manage
a. To get rid of the fragment & fill with composite
b. To reattach the fragment with composite and later cover with veneer
c. others
647) Adult 20 years male with soft tissue & dental trauma reveals severe pain in soft tissues with loss of
epithelial layers and anterior upper centrals are intruded the diagnosis is
a. abrasion with luxation
b. errosion with sub luxation
c. traumatic ulceration\laceration with luxation
d. ulceration\laceration with subluxation
648) Reduction of mandibular fracture is defined as

a. Nonalignment and separation of the fracture segments b Realignment of fracture segments
c. Holding of the fracture segments in place fixation
d. Screw and bone places
e. Internal fixation
649) Wiring the upper and lower teeth together is called

a. Internal fixation
b. An open reduction
c. Intermaxillary fixation\ maxillomandibular fixation MMF
d. Displacement
e. External fixation
650) The size of soft wire that is used in MMF for mandible symphysis fracture in 36 old women is
a. inches & 22 gauge 4
b. inches & 20 gauge 4
c. inches & 26 gauge 6
d. inches & 28 gauge 6

80
651) The incidence of nerve damage after third molar surgery is estimated to be
a. % or less b 10 % to 15 % 5
c % to 20 % 15
% d 20 % to 25
652) The least likely mechanism for the nerve damage is

a. Direct needle trauma
b. Intraneural haematoma formation c Local anesthetic toxicity
d Stretching and binding of the nerve
653) Ankylosis
a. No PDL
b. Caused by trauma
c. Extracted surgically d All of the above
654) High rate of fractures at canine area in the mandible due to

a. Change direction of forces occruing here b Long canine root
c. Lower border is thin in this area
d. Alveolus is thin in this area
The mental foramen , long roots of the canine teeth & impacted 3rd molars create points of weakness that are)
(particularly prone to fracture
655) Radiographic examination in impacted teeth is useful to demonstrate

a. Proximity of the roots to the adjacent anatomical structures
b. Associated pathology c All of the above
656) Radiographic evaluation in extraction

a. Relationship of associated vital structures
b. Root configuration and surrounding bone condition
c. Access to the tooth, crown condition and tooth mobility
d. All of the above e A & B
657) Radiographic evaluation in extraction EXCEPT

a. Relationship of associated vital structures
b. Root configuration and surrounding bone condition
c. Access to the tooth, crown condition and tooth mobility
d. A &B
658) ?Which of the following spaces are bilaterally involved in Ludwig's angina
a. Submandibular + masticatory spaces
b. Sublingual + Lat Pha space
c. Submandibular + sublingual + submental

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659) The infection will spread cervical in infection from

a. Lower incisors
b. Lower premolars
c. Lower 2nd and 3rd molars
d. Upper incisors
660) Cavernous sinus thrombosis not manifested as

a. infra orbital syndrome
b. Syncope due to atrial obliteration
c. eye exophthalmos
(Cavernous sinus thrombosis Patients present with eye exophthalmos, orbital swelling, neurologic signs and fever)
661) Odontogenic infection can cause least complication

a. Pulmonary abscess b Peritonitis
c. Prosthetic valve infection
d. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
662) After u inject L A for 2nd max molar pt becomes colorless with external swelling it’s due to
a. facial artery b plexus vein
c Posterior alveolar nerve
Hematoma is commonly produced by inserting the needle too far posteriorly into the pterygoid plexus of veins)
(Also, the maxillary artery me be perforated
663) The choice of local anesthesia depends on

a. Diameter of the nerve
b. Structure of the bone
c. Number of branches
d Type of L A agent chemistry Chemical composition of anesthesia
664) Choice of local anesthesia technique influenced by

a. Chemical composition of anesthesia
b. The location of the nerve c Bone structure
(The maxillary bone is more porous than the mandible, so it can be infiltrated anywhere )
665) In case of infiltration anesthesia we give

a. submucosal
b. intraosseous
c. subperiosteal
d. none
666) In case of infiltration we give

a. Anti inflammatory
b. Antibiotic
c. a and b d None

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667) For the mandible we prefer

a. Infiltration b Block
c. Intraossous
d. None
668) Location to give inferior alveolar nerve block the landmarks are
a. pterygomandibular raphe
b. cronoid notch c All of the above
669) A patient that wasn’t anaesthetized well in his 1st visit, next day he returns with a limited mouth
opening (trismus) He must be anaesthized, what’s the technique to be used
a. William’s technique
b. Bercher’s technique
c. gow gates technique
d. vazirani-akinosi technique
670) akinosi technique needle size

a. 25short
b. short c 30 long 25
d 30 long
671) Gow gate technique is for

a. mand nerve block
b. inferior alveolar nerve block
c. trigeminal nerve block
d. max nerve block
672) Gow gates direction of needle after touching the pterygoid

a. upward superiorly
b. upward medially
c. upward posteriorly
d. downward medially
673) Associated with pain & anesthesia

a. epinephrine
b. norepinephrine
c. acytelcolin
d. prostagandine
674) physiolgical activity of local anesthesia

a. Lipid solubility of unionized form
b. Diffusibility
c. Affinity for rotine bendin
d. Percent ionizing at physiologic pH
e. Vasodilition properties
f. Water solubility of unionized form
g. Lipid solubility of ionized form

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h. Water solubility of ionized form
675) what is the form of local anesthesia when enters the nerve tissues
a. lipid soluble ionized form b lipid soluble non-ionized
c. water soluble ionized
d. water soluble nonionized
676) The patient who doesn't have breakfast, we never give him anesthesia because
a. hyperglycemia b hypoglycemia
c. increased heart rate
d. hypertension
678) Factors delay healing of wound

a. Infection
b. Torn wound edges
c. Strain
d. All of the above
679) Dry socket happens after

a. h 24
b. days 5 – 3
c. week 1
d. weeks 2
680) Avulsion, more important factor that affects reimplantation

a. Contaminated roots
b. Time since the avulsion
681) Most sign of fracture of mandible

a. Nose bleeding b Malocclusion
c Parasthesia
682) Mandibular fracture other complications

a. Nasal bleeding
b. Exophthalmos
c. Numbness in the infraorbital nerve distribution
Malocclusion Numbness of the inferior alveolar nerve) (paraesthesia or anaesthesia of lower lip or the chin
683) Most difficult to extract

a. Mand 3rd molar with mesioangular fused roots
b. Mand 3rd molar with distoangular angulation with divergent curved roots
Distoangular impactions the easiest in the maxilla & most difficult in the mandible Mesioangular impactions the)
(most difficult to extract in the maxilla & easiest to extract in the mandible
684) Contraindication to extraction

84
a. Cardiac pt
b. Previous recent radio therapy
685) Base of the flap should be wide for

a. Healing
b. Better blood supply to the wound
686) Best media for the avulsed tooth

a. Tap water
b. HBSS Hank's balanced salt solution
c. Saliva
d. Milk
687) Principle of elevator use all of the following EXCEPT

a. Wheel and axle
b. Wedging the socket wall
c. Wedging
d. Lever
688) Pregnant lady needs oral surgery

a. Needs prophylactic antibiotic
b. Needs under GA
c. Needs steroid cover d None of the above
689) Root most commonly pushed in max sinus

a. Buccal of 7 b Palatal of 6
c. Palatal of 7
d. Buccal of 6
e. Distal of 6 & 7
690) The most close tooth to the maxillary sinus

a. maxillary 1st molar
b maxillary 2nd molar
The distance between sinus floor and root tip was longest for the 1st premolar and shortest)
(for the 2nd molar for both right and left sides
691) The roots of the following teeth are closely related to the maxillary sinus
a. Canine and upper premolar
b. Lower molar
c. Upper molar and premolar
d. None
)692 While extraction of 16 around 4mm exposure of maxillary sinus

a. Leave
b. Put soft tissue graft
c. put gelfoam & figure of 8 suture

85
693) Patient feels severe pain upper mouth, pain is radiated to eye and ear, after you check no caries when
?you pressure on maxillry premolar he feels pain In x-ray no change what dignosis
a. Acute apical periodontits b maxilary sinusitis
c. canine space infection
d. dentoalveolar infection
694) Avulsed teeth stored in

a. Milk
b. Water
695) The best media for keeping the avulsed teeth is

a. Water in the same temperature of room
b. Milk in the same temperature of room
c. Cold water d Cold milk
696) Best media for avulsed tooth

a. cold milk
b. hot milk
c. saliva
697) best media for avulsed tooth

a. low fat milk
b. saliva
c. water
698) Factors that make impaction surgery more difficult

a. Mesioangular position, large follicle, wide periodontal ligament and fused conical roots
b. Mesioangular position, large follicle, wide periodontal ligament and curved roots
c. Distoangular position, large follicle, wide periodontal ligament and fused conical rooths
d. Distoangular position, thin follicle, narrow periodontal ligament and divergent curved roots
e. Soft tissue impaction, separated from second molar and inferior alveolar nerve
699) ?Which scalpel below is universally used for oral surgical procedures
a. Number 2 blade
b. Number 6 blade
c. Number 10 blade
d. Number 12 blade e Number 15 blade
700) Most used scalpel in oral surgery

a. Bard Parker blade #15
701) ?Angled trauma, how to diagnose if fracture favourable or non favorable fracture

86
a. reverse town b Lateroblique

c. PA view
d. OPG
702) The radiograph shows condylar head orientation and facial symmetry
a. Submentovertex b Reverse town
c. Opg
d. Transorbital
703) Pt presented with vehicle accident u suspect presence of bilateral condylar fracture what is the best
view to diagnose condylar fracture
a. Occiptomenatal b Reverse town
c Lateral oblique 30 degree
(Reverse town is used for fractures of condylar neck & ramus areas)
704) The best way of radiograph shows displacement of mandibular condyle

a. Reverse town
b. Oplaqe horizontal 30
705) To check TMJ range of movement

a. cranial imagery b Arthrography
c. Traditional tomography
d. Computerized tomography
706) To check a perforation in the desk of the TMJ we need

a. Cranial imagery
b. Arthrography CT after injection of a high contrast fluid
c. Traditional tomography
d. Computerized tomography
707) The imaging showing disk position and morphology and TMJ bone
a. MRI
b. CT
c. ARTHROGRAPHY
d. Plain radiograph
e. Plain tomography
708) Which of the following represents the classic sign or symptom of an anteriorly displaced disc with
?reduction
a. Pain
b. Closed lock
c. Reciprocal lock
d. Decreased range of motion

87
709) If tooth or root is pushed during surgical extraction into max sinus
a. Leave it and inform the Pt
b. Remove it as soon as possible
c. Follow the Pt for 3 months
710) Local contraindication of extraction

a. pt recent recived radiotheraby
b. Tooth in the malignant tumor c both c and d
711) Most impacted tooth is

a. mand 8
b. max 2
c. upper canine
d. premolars
712) Most common tooth which needs surgical extraction

a. mandibualr third molar
713) Patient came complaining of severe pain on biting, related to a certain tooth Upon examination no
pulpal or periodontal findings, and pulpal vitality is positive, your Dx
a. cracked tooth syndrome
714) Pt suffering from a cracked enamel ,his chief complain is pain on

a. hot stimuli
b. cold stimuli c a&b
d electric test
715) ?The best method to protect teeth that underwent bicuspidization procedure from fracture
a. Full crown
b. Splint with composite
c. Orthodontic splint
716) Pt have unilateral fracture of left condyle, the mandible will

a. deviate to the left side
b. deviate to the right side
c. no deviate
(The mandible will always deviate to the side of injury or fracture)
717) Pt came after 24 months of tooth replantation which had ankylosis with no root resorption It most
likely to develop root resorption in
a. reduce greatly
b. increase
c. after 2 years
d. after 4 years
718) When removing lower second molar

a. occlusal plane perpendicular to the floor

88
b. Buccolingual direction to dilate socket

c. mesial then lingual
719) For injection local anesthesia in the lower jaw we use

a. Short needle b Long needle
c None
720) Supraperiosteal injection

a. Pupal
b. During block
c. Local infiltration
721) One of the primary considerations in the treatment of fractures of the jaw is
a. to obtain and maintain proper occlusion
b. test teeth mobility
c. vitality
d. embedded foreign bodies
722) Avulsed tooth is washed with tap water, it should be replaced again
a. Immediately
b. After 2 hours
c. hr’s 24
723) An adult had an accident, maxillary central incisors intruded, lip is painful with superficial wound
what is the trauma’s classification
a. luxation
b. subluxation
c. laceration
d. abrasion
e. contusion
724) When extracting all maxillary teeth the correct order is

a 87654321
b 87542163
c 12345678
The 1st molar and canine are key pillars and most firm teeth of the arch, once their adjacent teeth are)
(removed they can be easily luxated and extracted rathar than when these are tried to be removed first
725) A 55 years old patient with multi-extraction teeth, after extraction what will you do first
a. Suturing
b. Primary closure should be obtained if there is no luntant tissue c Alveoplasty should be done in all cases
726) To drain submandibular abscess

a. Intraorally through the mylohyoid muscles
b. under the chin
c. Extraorally at the most purulent site
d. Extraorally at the lower border of the mandible

89
727) Pt came to u with sublingual space infection, change in color of mucosa of floor of the mouth The
tongue is stilly elevated haw u will do incision for drainage
a. Extra orally parallel to lower border of the mandible
b. Extra orally
c. Intraorally parallel to wharton's duct
d. Intraorally between mylo-hyoid muscle
728) Bone f material from site to another site in the same person
a. allograft graft from a donor of the same species b autograft\autotransplant
c. alloplast A graft of an inert metal or plastic material
d. Xenograft graft from a donor of a different species
729) Ester type of local anathsesia metabolized by

a. liver only Amide metabolized here
b. kidney
c. lung
d. plasma
730) where does the breakdown of lidocaine occurs

a. kidneys b Liver
731) ? pt with plasma cholinesterase deficiency , which anesthesia you use

a. procaine b prilocaine
c. procaine with vasoconstricter
d. another ester type
732) ?What anesthesia has most vasoconstrictor action

a. Cocaine
b. Tetracaine
c. Procaine
d. Articaine
)733 Onset of anesthesia depends on

a. membrane diffuse
b. Lipid solubility
c. Ca_Na canals
)734 Slowest onset LA

a. Prilocaine
b. Lidocaine c Bupivicain
)735 LA of rapid onset

a. Lignocaine (Lidocaine)
b. bupvicaine
c. pirlocaine d Articaine

90
736) Avulsed teeth with replantation, dentist evaluates prognosis with

a. flexible wire
b. ridge wire
c. in follow -up pd wire
737) Avulsed tooth

a. splint (7-14) days
b. splint (3- 14) weeks
738) Re-implant of avulsed tooth, what you do

a. Optimal reposition and fixed splint
b. Optimal reposition and flexable splint
c. Observe
d. Watch with splint periodontally
Splint tooth in position with preferably a flexible splint Have patient bite into occlusion to be certain that the)
(position is correct before applying the splint
739) Chronic pericoronitis

a. Difficult mouth opening
b. Halitosis
c. All of the above
740) ?pt with acute pericoronitis what is the management

a. Antibiotics
b. Excision and antibiotics
c. Rinsing, swap , antibiotics
d. Analgesics
741) Outline of Pericoronitis treatment may include

a. Mouth wash and irrigation
b. Extraction of the opposing tooth
c. Surgical removal of the causative tooth d All the above
742) Most comon site which drain pus is

a. Mandibular central incisors
b. Mandibular canines
c. Mandibular first molar
743) The infection will spread cervically in infection from

a. lower incisors
b. lower premolars
c. lower 2nd and 3rd molars
d. upper incsisors
744) Forceps to hold flap when suturing

a. Adson’s
745) During surgery firmly handle forceps of flap tissue

a. stillis forceps

91
b. Adison forceps
746) What is the forceps used to hold soft tissue during 3rd molar extraction
a. Allis forceps
b. Adison forceps c stillis forceps
747) The needle holder used in suturing of lower third molar

a. Curved hemostat
b. Allis forceps
c. Adson forceps
d. Regular tweezers
748) Instrument which use for grasping a tissue when remove thick epulis figuratum
a. Allis forceps
b. Adson forcep
c. Curved hemostat
d. Stilli forceps
749) After usage of sharp scalpels, needles what's the best management
a. throw in a special container of sharp instruments\ Sharp container
b. sterilize and reuse
c. through in ordinary plastic waste basket
750) For discharged sharp instrument ( blades, needle tips, wedges, … etc) put in
a. dicharged paper basket
b. designed sharp instrument special container
c. disinfectant in autoclave then throw
d. put it in multifoil
751) You extract tooth with large amalgam restoration, how to manage the extracted tooth
a. Autoclave and deep buried b Sharp container
c. Ordinary waste container
d. Office container
752) For the prevention of mercury toxicity in the clinic put it in

a. Water
b. Sodium chloride
c. The appearance of radial d Fixer of radial
753) years old Pt came to the clinic after he has an accident X-ray revealed bilateral fracture of the 9
?condyles Mandible movements are normal in all directions What is your treatment
a. Inter maxillary mandibular fixation
b. Fixed IMF for 6 weeks
c. Inter mandibular fixation

92
d. No treatment is performed only anti inflammatory drugs and observation
754) The spread of odontogenic infection is based on

a. host defense
b. virulent of microorganism
c. No of bacteria d All
755) pt taken heparin he should do surgery after

a. Hrs 1
b. Hrs 2
c. Hrs d 6 Hrs 4
756) The last sensation which disappears after local anesthisea

a. pain
b. deep pressure
c. temperature
757) which of the following materials is not a hemostatic agent

a. Oxidized cellulose
b. Gelvon\Gelfoam gelatin
c. Zinc oxide
758) The type of maxillofacial defects

a. Congenital defects
b. Acquired defects
c. Developmental defects d All
759) Cleft palate, cleft lip, missing ear, prognathism are

a. Acquired defects b Congenital defects
c. Developments defects
d. None
760) Accidents, surgery, pathology are

a. Acquired defects
b. Developments defects
c. Congenital defects
d. None
761) The lack of continuity of the roof of the mouth through the whole or part of its length in the form of
fissure extending anteroposteriorly is
a. Obturator
b. Splint
c. Stent
d. Congenital cleft palate
762) Which is most common

a. Cleft lip
b. Cleft palate

93
c. Bifid tongue
d. Cleft lip and palate
(Clefts of the upper lip and palate are the most common major congenital craniofacial abnormality)
763) Cleft lip is resulted from incomplete union of

a. Two maxillary arches
b. Maxillary arches and nasal arch
) 764 Cleft lip result of

a Malunion of medial nasal and maxillary process
) 765 The factors that influence the induction of cleft palate

a Hereditary
b Environmental
c. and 2 1
d. None
766) Arrange the steps of cleft palate management

1. Measures to adjust speech
2. Establish way for nursing and feeding
3. Cosmetic closure
4. Prevent collapse of two halves a 2 – 4 – 1 – 3
767) A prosthesis used to close a congenital or acquired opening in the palate is

a. Stent
b. Splint
c. Obturator
d. None
768) are appliances used for immobilization of fragments of broken parts of jaw bones in their ……
?original position until repair takes place
a. Splints
b. Stents
c. Obturators
d. Speech aids
769) Occlusal splint device

a used during increase vertical dimension b alleviate muscle of mastication
c. occlusal plane CR/CO
d. ALL
770) Patient positions are

a. Upright position
b. Supine position
c. Subsupine position d All of the above

94
771) For the right handed dentist seated to the right of the patient, the operator zone is between
a. and 11 o'clock 8
b. and 4 o'clock 2
c. to 2 o'clock 11
d. all of the above
772) For right handed dentist, the static zone is between

a 8 - 11 o'clock b 11 - 2 o'clock
c. o'clock 4 - 2
d. all of the above
773) For right handed dentist, the assistant's zone is between

a. o'clock 11 - 8
b. o'clock c 2 - 11 o'clock 4 - 2
d all of the above
774) For right handed dentist, the transfer zone is between

a 8 - 11 o'clock b 4 - 8 o'clock
c. o'clock 4 - 2
d. all of the above
775) Upper limb IV injection, the most likely problem is

a. Phlebitis
b. intra-arterial injection
c. vascularbreakage
776) ?pt complain of burning after giving him diazepam IV why

a. large diameter of needle
b. presence of methyl paraben c presence of propylene glycol
d inj directly into the vein
777) Pt under Aspirin therapy and had a Cardiac catheterization before 8 months ago and need extract on
of 2 molar teeth your management
a. BT
b. INR\TTP
c. consult hematologist
778) Radiation stent used to locate the proper position of implant Surgical stent makes some
modifications to use as radiation stent
a Both true b Both false
c. First true, second false
d. First false, second true
779) ?Why is the surgical stent required for an immediate denture

95
a. to give an idea of the anatomy of the region

b. prevent hematoma
c. to determine occlusion
780) pt asymptomatic diagnostic xray you find lower 8 roots near to the inferior alveolar nerve canal
?what to do
a. Surgical extraction
b. Resection
c. Observation
781) Which nerve should give anesthesia if there is pain in the mesial part of lower6 after IANB
a. lingual
b. mental
c. mylohyoid
d. auriculotempoeral
782) incisve area anethsia tchnique from whch foramen

a. incisve
b. mental
c. platline
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
783) pt with white spot on his tooth and tooth not cavitated tell pt to check up after
a. months 3
b. months 6-4
c. months 9-7
)765 We redo high copper amalgam restoration when we have

a. Amalgam with proximal marginal defect
b. Open margin less than 0 5 mm
)766 To increse retention of GIC u should use
b. i,ii
c. i,iv
d. iii,iv
e. iii f iv
For GIC, etching is better to be done by 10% polyacrylic acid for 20 seconds( note GIC contains polyacrylic acid ()
)767 Amalgam is used in extensive cavities

96
a When the cusp is supported by dentine and proper retentive preparation b When cusps lost and thin
supported wall
c When one cusp is lost and need to apply restoration to replace it
)768 Composite is used mainly for

a. Anterior teeth
b. Posterior
c. a+b
d. None
)769 ? How can remove a hard discolored dentine

a. Excavator
b. Stanlesstill burs with low speed
c. Very low speed
d. High speed carbide burs
)770 Hydrogen peroxide is the ideal bleaching agent because

a. It bleaches effectively at natural ph
b. It bleaches faster than carbamide peroxide
c. Protection for sensitive tissues can be incorporated into the hydrogen gel d All of the above
)771 Type of autoclave used

a. Hot oven outoclave
b. Class b autuclave
c. Class s autoclave
d. Class d autoclave
)772 The efficiency of the autoclave is decreased due to

a. Sterilization without cleaning the instruments
b. Over loading
c. Dry blood on the instruments d All of the above
)773 Teenager boy with occlusal wear the best ttt is

a. remove the occlusal
b. teeth capping
c. restoration
)774 Instrument used to remove dark color in dentin

a. Round stone bur w low speed
b. Round diamond bur w low speed c Large excavator
d Carbide bur with high speed
)775 ?Which one of the conditions would delay a dentist's decision of taking full mouth X-ray examination
a. pregnancy
b. patient had full mouth examination by X-ray 6 months ago
c. patient will receive radiotherapy next week
d. patient had CT examination last week

97
)776 Path of preparation depends on

a. Esthetic
b. Contour
c. Pulpal wall
)777 What kind of restoration to use for PRR, with resin fissure sealant for the rest of the teeth
a. compomer
b. glass ionomer
c. flowable composite
d. traditional composite
)778 Placing glass ionomer after amalgam filling, after a while you notice marginal the presence of
? marginal gabs what could be the reasone
a. Immediate release of fluoride from the glass b Enamel will absorb the fluoride
c. Release of copper from Amalgam
d. Wear
)779 In the preparation of cavity class II, for restoration with composite resin all cavosurface angles
should be
a. Well rounded
b. Right angles
c. Acute angles d Obtuse angles
)780 In class V design 3 cavity preparation, extension looks like

a. Y
b. Snake eye c Moustache
d. Dove-tail
e. Kidney shape
)781 ?Which tooth will the matrix band be a problem with when placing a two surface amalgam
a. mesial on maxillary first molar
b. distal on maxillary first premolar
c. mesial on maxillary second premolar
d. distal on mandibular first molar
)782 If you want to make a class V to lower canine and you want to fix the rubber dam what precautions
you will take
a. Use a bigger puncture hole to accommodate the gingival clamp
b. Punch the hole more facialy
c. punch the hole more lingual
)783 ? The strip that changes color when autoclave, what does it mean

98
a. Object subjected to steam heat

b. Object sterilized
784) Enamel caries proximally

a. Should be restored immediately
b. Should be restored when reach DEJ
c. Should be restored when reach DEJ and wide spread start
785) Instruments used for handling resins are made of

a. Stainless steel
b. Carbon steel
c. Teflon coated metal
d. Platinum
786) Diamonds are superior bur for cutting

a. Cementum
b. Dentin c Enamel
d. Soft tissues
e. Carries
787) Small caries confined to enamel

a. Preventive measure
b. Amalgam filling
c. Keep under observation
788) Mix in walking non vital bleaching

a. H2O2 with phosph
b. Superexol with sod parporate
c. Superexol with ca hydroxide
d. H2o2 with sodium perborate
789) ?Which of the followings is not an advantage of resin based GIC over water based GIC
a. better fluoride released
b. better bonding
c. better esthetic
d. easier for manipulation
790) pt during routinly chick up need preventive treatment pit & fissure sealant, upon examination the
dentist found small caries lesion & he decised to do a small preparation and do restoration for this pt these
can be called
a. pit & fissure seleant
b. Preventive restoration
c. Conservative restoration
791) difference between prr and class 1 restoration

a. Caries extent
b. Caries depth
792) Amalgam pain after restoration due to

99
a. Phase 2 gamma
b. Phase 1 gamma
c. Zinc containing alloy
d. Admix alloy
e. a+ b
793) Moisture contamination during the restoration Galvanic shock

a. Put separating medium b Wait
c put varnish
(Galvenic shock it gradually disappears in a few days)
794) Amalgam filling opposing onlay gold & the patient is experiencing pain Best treatment is
a Change the filling we should wait first
b. Extract the tooth
c. put varnish
d. Put separating medium
795) We put the pin very close to line angle because this area
a. less material of restoration need
b. Intiate dentin caries
c. need less condensation of material d Great bulk of dentin
796) Patient returned to you after 1 month from doing amalgam filling with definite severe pain, due to
a. Contamination with moisture leading to amalgam expansion
b. unidentified pulpal exposure
c. supra occlusion
d. gingival access
797) Length of post

a. root 2/1
b. root 3/2
c. root containing in bone 2/1
d. As much longer and leave 4 mm apical seal
798) An old patient came to your clinic with discomfort in his 24 tooth upon clinical examination there is
small brownish discoloration distally the surface is smooth and shiny in radiograph there is small
radiolucency
confined within enamel what’s your management
a. No treatment
b. Polishing
c. Restoration
d. Remineraliztion
799) ?Cracked tooth syndrome is best diagnosed by

100
a. Radiograph
b. Subjective symptoms and horizontal percussion
c. Palpation and vertical percussion
d. Pulp testing
800) The first step in diagnostic work up is obtaining the

a. Medical history
b. Present complaint
c. Biographical data
d. Restorative history
e. Traumatic history
801) Most biocompatible base to pulp and periodontal tissues

a. Zinc polycarboxylate
b. Zinc phosphate
c. Calcium hydroxide
d. Gic
802) Which tooth requires special attention when preparing the occlusal aspect for restoration
a. lower 2nd molar
b. lower 1st premolar because the inner cusp is longer than the outer one
c. lower 2nd premolar
d. upper 1st molar
803) provisional cement for FPD crown

a. polycarpoxylate
b. silicophosphate
c. Resin modified glass ionemor d Zoe
804) After final inlay cementation and before complete setting of cement we should
a. remove occlusal interferences
b. Burnishing of peripheries of restoration for more adaptation
c. lowering occlusal surface
805) Dentine permeability

a. Coronal less than root dentine b Coronal more than root dentine
c. increases toward DEJ
d. increases toward DCJ
806) Dental materials are classified as

a. ceramic, polymers and composite
b. ceramic, polymers and alginate
c. ceramic, polymers Cement
d. ceramics, metals, polymers,composites
807) Cavity etching before applying GIC is

a. Polyacrylic acid 10 seconds

101
b. Polyacrylic acid 60 seconds

c. Phosphoric acid 10 seconds
d. Phosphoric acid 60 seconds
808) Class 4 GIC restoration Excess material removed by

a. Carver b Knife
c. Hatchet
d. Bur
809) Sequence of treatment planning

a. Opertive, endo, perio, surgery and ortho
b. Endo, perio, operative, surgery and ortho c Perio, endo, operative, surgery and ortho
d B&C
810) Most common fracture occurring in amalgam restoration is seen at

a. Cavosurface margin
b. The contact area c The isthmus area
d. Proximal box
e. Gingival floor
811) Child came to the clinic with amalgam restoration fracture at isthmus portion, this fracture due to
a. Wide preparation at isthmus
b. High occlusal
c. shallow preparation
d. Constricted isthmus Constricted = Narrow
812) After class II amalgum fill, broken is happen in isthmus area why
a. Over high of filling vertically
b. Over flair cavosurface angle or edge
c. Unproper mixed fill
813) The cause of fracture in amalgam class II restoration is

a. Thin thickness at the marginal ridge
b. Wide flared cavity
c. Deep cavity
814) The percentage of simple caries located in the outer wall of the dentin (proximal sides of the tooth)
which left without cavitations is around
%a 10
%b 30
c % 60
%d 90
Approximately 60% of teeth with radiographic proximal lesions in the outer half of dentin are likely to be)
(noncavitated
815) ? After etch enamel and bond it with 5th generation the strength is

102
a 5- 10 Mp
b. Mp dentine 35 Mp 25
c. Mp 30
d. Mp 100
816) In case of class V provisional restoration what is factor important for locking
a. expansion of restoration %50
b. polymeriza on shrinkage c % 25 undercut
817) MOD amalgam restoration with deep proximal mesial box, PT comes with pain related to it after one
mouth due to
a. Pulp involvement
b. Supraocclusion
c. Open contact
d. Gingival recession
818) Zinc if added to amalgam

a. Increases moisture sensitivity and causes expansion
b. Increases marginal integrity and longevity than zinc free amalgam
819) When esthetic is important, posterior class I composite is done in

a. Sub gingival box
b. Bad oral hygiene
c. Contact free area
d. Class I without central contact
820) Composite can be done in

a. Conservative class one
b. Uncontrolled application class 2 proximal
c. Deep gingival margin
821) lady has clas 3 composite with white margin no pain no caires what to do
a. Repair
b. Add composite layer
c. Remove restoration and redo
822) Preparation to small occlusal cavity to premolar the width of cavity is
a. inter cuspal distance 4/1

b. inter cuspal distance 2/1
c. inter cuspal distance 5/1
d. inter cuspal distance 5/3
(inter cuspal distance for large cavities 3/1)

103
823) It has been proven that amalgam restoration has the following characteristics
a. Micro leakage decrease with aging of the amalgam restoration
b. It is the least techniques sensitive of all current direct restorations
c. High dimensional changes
d. a, b and c
e. a and c f a and b
g b only
824) In post and core preparation must be

a. extend to contrabevel
b. extend to full length tooth preparation
c. take same shape of natural tooth
d. take shape of preparation abutment
i. A & B
ii.D & C
iii. B & C iv A & D
825) initial step to do post and core in RCT tooth is

a. remove gutta bercha by hot
b. by cleaning cavity of caries and remove old filling
c. immediat insertion
d. gates glidden drill
826) Zinc phosphate cement

a. Mechanical attachment
b. Chemical attachment
827) What make glass ionomer different than composite

a. Solubility
b. Wear resistance
c. Coefficient of thermal expansion
828) Traditional Glass ionomer

a. Mechanical bonding
b. Acid-base reaction chemical bonding
c. Mechanical chemical bonding
829) The following chemically bonds to the tooth

a. Composite resin
b. Dental sealants
c. Glass ionomer cement
a All of the above

104
830) Zinc polycarboxylate cement is better than zinc phosphate cement in
a. Compressive strength
b. Low solubility
c. Film thickness
d. Adhesion to enamel
zinc polycarboxylate cement chemically \ composite resins, compomers & dental sealants micromechanically-)
(mechanically \ amalgam & zinc phosphate cement mechanically
831) Fluoride decreases dental caries by remineralization of enamel

a. True
b. False
832) A mother pregnanet taking fluoride supplement the doctor told her it is not going to prevent teeth
?caries while tooth formation why
a. Teeth are not formed intrauterine
b. Fluoride doesn't pass placenta
c. There are no studies supporting this phenomena
833) Studies show that complete remineralization of surface of an accidentally etched enamel
a. never occur
b. after hours
c. after weeks d after months
834) ,Person drinking fluoridated water, using toothbrush with fluoride, rinsing with fluoride mouthwash
then no need to put pit and fissure sealants in his permanent teeth
a. True b False
835) Dental fluorosis

a. Is indicative of systemic fluorosis
b. Can be contracted at any age
c. Becomes less noticeable with age
d. Is reversible
e. Is largely preventable
836) Molar & incisors affected by fluorosis at which age fluoride injested
a. 1
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8

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837) Fluorides are most anticaries effective when

a. Incorporated in the tooth enamel
b. Present in the blood stream
c. Present in the plaque and tissue fluids bathing the newly erupted tooth
d. Present in the ingested foods
e. Present on the intraoral mucous membranes
838) Fluoride is not taken up systemically from which of the following sources
a. Water
b. Food
c. Dentifrices
d. Topical applications of fluoride
839) Tooth paste with fluoride is

a. Systemic application b Topical application
c. a+b
d. None
840) Fluoride reduces caries activity by

a. Reduces bacterial adhesion and carbohydrate storage (antimicrobial activity)
b. Enhances the precipitation of insoluble fluoroapitite into the tooth structure
c. Fluoride enhances remineralization of the noncavitated carious lesions
d. All of the above e b & c
841) Galagan-vermilion formula used in

a. Calculation of flouride in water according to temperature
842) Optimal water fluoridation

a. mg\liter 1
b. mg\liter 5 0-2 0
c. mg\liter 3-2
d. mg\liter 5 0
843) Optima water fluoridation

a. mg\liter 8 0 – 5 0
b. mg\liter 5 0-2 0
c. mg\liter 3-2
d. mg\liter 5-1
(Cold climate 1 2ppm\Hot climate 0 7ppm\Moderate climate 1ppm)
844) Flouride amount in water should be

a. mg/liter 5 0 - 2 0

106
b. mg/liter c 5 - 1 mg/liter 2 - 1
d 0 1 - 0 2 mg/liter
845) Fluoride in water it concentrates

a. ppm 2
b 1 ppm gram of flouride dissolved in 1 million grams of water 1
c. ppm 3
d. None
846) The recommended concentration of fluoride in communal water supply is

a. ppm 1 0
b. ppm c 5 0 ppm 0 1
d. ppm 0 2
e. ppm 5
847) Acidulated phosphate fluoride

a. fluoride ions b 1 23% %1
c %2
d 2 23%
e 3%
848) Loose enamel rods at the gingival floor of a class II amalgam cavity should be removed using
a. Straight chisel
b. Hatchet
c. Gingival curetla
d. Gingival marginal trimmer
849) Removal of undermined enamel in Class II cavity is done by

a Chisel Biangled chisel
b. Angle former
c. Excavator
850) enamel chisel what for

a. Remove undermine enamel
b. Remove soft dentine
c. Smoothin the cavity walls
851) Hand instrument which we used to make internal angles retentive grooves and preparation of cavity
walls in the cavity is
a. Angle former To shape line and point angels inter a cavity giving retention
b. Chisel
c. File
d. Enamel hatched
852) To plane the facial and the lingual wall of enamel , which enamel will use
a. Enamel hatchet

107
b. Gingival trimmer
c. Chesil
d. Plane line angle
853) To plan the line-angles in the proximal cavity in a class II you use
a. Straight chisel
b. Bin-angled chisel c Enamel hatchet
d Beveled chisel
Bi-beveled hatched Enamel hatched is used for planning enamel and dentin during cavity preparation round bur is)
better All internal line angles should be rounded to reduce internal stresses Removing caries with a large diameter
(round bur automatically produces the desired shape
854) Retentive grooves

a. Always axiobuccal and axiolingual
b. Prevent lateral displacement of restoration
c. Is axiopulpal and axiogingival
855) What is the cavo-surface angle of prep for amalgam restoration

a. degree 30
b. degree c 60 degree 90
d 130 degree
856) To provide maximum strength of amalgam restoration the cavosurface angles should
a. Approach 75 with outer surface
b. with outer surface Approach
c. Be supported by sound dentine
d. Be located in area free of occlusal stress
e. a+c + d
f. a+c
g. b+c+d
h. c+d
857) When u condense the amalgam after titration

a. Immediately
b. After 3 min
858) Maximum time elapsed before condensation of amalgam after titration

a. 1minute b 3minutes
c 9minutes
859) After amalgam titrations, the mix should be placed within

a. min b 3 min 1
c. min 5
d. min 10

108
860) Clinical failure of the amalgam restoration usually occurs from

a. Improper cavity preparation
b. Faulty manipulation c Both of the above
d None of the above
861) Reduction\depth in amalgam restoration should be

a 1 - 1 5 mm
b 1 5 - 2 mm
c. mm 3 - 2
d. mm 5 - 3
862) Silicate cement

a. First tooth colored restoration
b. It can be used as permanent filling
c. It contains 15 % fluoride
i. a, b and c
ii.a and b iii a and c
iv A only
Silicate cement is the first translucent filling material & contains 13-25% fluoride ZOE,reinforced ZOE, ZOE-)
(EBA, Silicate and zinc phosphate cements are no longer used as permanently restorations
863) Permanent restoration is

a. Calcium hydroxide b Amalgam
c. Alginate
d. Zinc oxide eugenol
864) Color Stability is better in

a. Porcelain
b. Composite
c. GIC
865) A patient that had a class II amalgam restoration, next day he returns complaining of discomfort at the
site of the restoration, radiographically an overhanging amalgam is present This is due to
a. lack of matrix usage b Improper wedging
c. insufficient carving
d. no burnishing for amalgam
866) The overhanging restoration

a. Increase the microleakag of the restoration
b. Affect integrity if proximal contact c Affect on periodontal health
867) A patient that had a class II amalgam restoration, next day he returns complaining of discomfort at the
site of the restoration, radiographically an overhanging amalgam is present This is due to

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a. lack of matrix usage

b. No burnishing for amalgam
868) Overhanging restoration margins should be removed because

a. It provides ideal location for plaque accumulation
b. It tears the gingival fibers leading to attachment loss
c. Stimulate inflammatory reaction directly
d. Its removal permits more effective plaque control e a & d
869) One of these is less exposed to extensive dental caries

a. Obes, malnourished
b. Pt has xerostomia c Less plaque score
870) pt come to clinc high caries index tooth carious pits and incipitant caries which treatmnt not for this
a. rct
b. composit
c. gic
d. preventve resion restoration
e. pit and fissure
871) Length of pins must be equals in both tooth and restoration by a depth of
a. mm b 2 mm 1
c. mm 3
d. mm 4
872) The optimum depth of a self threading pin for an amalgam restoration is
a. mm 5 0
b. mm c 1 mm 2
d. mm 4
e. mm 5
873) Stainless steel pin is used in amalgam for

a. Increase retention
b. Increase resistance
c. Increase strength d a and b
874) Post length increasing will

a. increase retention
b. increase resistance
c. increase strength of restoration
875) Post retention depends on

a. Post length
b. Post diameter
c. Post texture

110
d. Core shape
e. Design of the preparation
f. a and b
g. a, b and c
h. All of the above
876) The retention of a pin

a. increases as the diameter of the pin increases
b. Increases as the diameter of the pin decreases
c. Decreases as the diameter of the pin increases
d. The retension of a pin has nothing to do with the diameter of the pin
877) The function of post

a. provides retention for a crown
b. enhances the strength of the tooth c provides retention for a core
d provides the root canal sealing
878) The best restoration for max central incisor that has received RCT through conservatively prepared
access opening would be
a. Post-retained metal-ceramic crown
b. Post-retained porcelain jacket crown c Composite resin
d None of the above
879) The x- ray of choice to detect the proximal caries of the anterior teeth is
a. Periapical x-ray
b. Bitewing x-ray
c. Occlusal x-ray
880) What is the copper ratio that eliminates gamma phase 2

a. copper %2
b. copper %4
c. copper d 13 % copper % 10
881) The main advantage in developing high copper amalgam alloy is

a. Elimination of gamma 1 phase
b. Increase the strength of amalgam
c. Decrease the flow value of amalgam d Elimination of gamma phase 2
e Reduce the conductivity of amalgam
) 882 High copper amalgam prevents
a Marginal leakage
) 883 To prevent discoloration under amalgam filling

a use Zn phosphate box
b. use cavity varnish

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c. wash the cavity with NaOCL before filling

d. use the correct amalgam-alloy ratio
884) Polishing bur have

a. Less than 6 blades
b. blades 7-6
c. blades 12-10
d. More than 12 blades
885) The test for testing the bur in which all the blades of the burs pass through 1 point called
a. Run out
b. Concentricity
c. Run out and concentricity
d. None of above
886) Burs is
a. Critical items
b. Semi critical
c. Non critical
d. All of the above
887) Mouth mirror is

a. critical items b semi critical
c. non critical
d. all of the above
888) Pt complains from pain in 45 which had gold onlay The pain could be due to
a. Chemicals from cement
b. High thermal conductivity of gold
c. Related to periodontal ligament
d. Cracked tooth or fractured surface
889) For onlay preparation, reduction of functioning cusp should be

a. mm 5 1
b. mm 2
c. mm 1
890) Class II composite resin is lined by

a. GI
b. Reinforced ZOE
c. ZOE with epoxy cement
d. Cavity varnish
891) In cavity preparation, the width of the cavity is

a. inter cuspal distance b 1/3 inter cuspal distance 2/1
c inter cuspal distance 3/2
892) Most tooth surface affected by caries

a. Pit and fissure

112
b. Root surface
c. Proximal surface
893) G V Black concluded that the following areas on tooth surface are relatively non self cleanable
a. Pits and fissures
b. Tips and cusps
c. Crests of marginal / crusing ridges
d. All inclined planes of cusps and ridges
e. Fossae
894) Caries consists of

a. Bacteria
b. Fluid
c. Epithelial cells
895) Most convenient and effective form of sterilization of dental instruments

a. Boiling
b. Autoclave
896) Test for determinig the efficiency of sterilizing agent is

a. Fungi
b. Virus
c. Bacteria
d. Bacterial spores
897) When we delay the cleaning and sterilization of instruments we put it in

a. Holding solution
b. Sodium hypochlorite
c. a+b
d. None
898) The role of good sterilization

a. Washing, inspection, autoclave, drying, storage
b. Inspection, autoclave, drying, storage
c. Autoclave, drying, storage
d. Autoclave is enough
899) Protocol of sterilization

a. Initial cleaning, inspection, cleaning, sterilization, storage
900) ?Why do we clean instruments before sterilization

a. Less time sterilization
b. Preserve instrument integrity
c. Kill protein
d. Kill spores
901) Sterilization means killing

a. Bacteria and virus
b. Bacteria, virus, fungus, protozoa and bacteria spores
c. Bacteria and fungus

113
d. Virus
e. Fungi
f. Bacteria
g. Virus, fungi & bacteria
902) Autoclave relative to 100F dry oven

a. the same time
b. slightly higher time
c. considerable higher time d less time
903) Why the moisture heat sterilization is better than dry heat sterilization
a. Makes the instruments less rusty and blunt
b. Needs more time and affects the proteins of the cell membrane c Needs less time and affects the proteins of
the cell membrane
904) AUTOCLAVE PRINCIPLE

a. Breaks the protein cell membrane at moderately low temp
b. Breaks the protein cell membrane at very high temp
905) Autoclaving technique is depending on

a. Dry heat
b. Steam/ moist heat
c. Chemicals
d. Vacuum
906) Selection of steam heat ( autoclave ) over dry hot ( oven )

a. protein cell collagen under high pressure
b. save effect on sharp instruments, no dull or corrosion
907) Sterilization in dry oven

a. one hour at 160 c one hour at 170 c
b. minutes at 160 c c 90 two hours at 160 c
d None
908) Sterilization in autoclave

a. minutes at 121 c 30-20
b. minutes at 134 c 10-2
c. a+b
d. None
909) Selection of shade for composite is done

a. Under light
b. After drying tooth and isolation with rubber dam
910) Most commonly, after placement of amalgam restoration Pt complains from pain with
a. Hot b Cold

114
c. Occlusal pressure
d. Galvanic shock
e. Sweet
911) When restoring asymptomatic healthy tooth with amalgam, the normal physiologic symptom after
that is
a. Pain on hot b Pain on cold
c. Pain on biting
d. Pain on sweet
912) Calcium hydroxide is used in deep cavity because it is

a. Simulate formation of 2nd dentine
b. Not irritant to the pulp
c. For thermal isolation
913) What can we use under composite restoration

a. Ca (oh)
b. ZOE
c. ZINC phosphate cement
d. a and c
914) what’s the best material under composite

a. caoh b GIC
c. zinc polycarboxilate
d. zinc
915) In placement of rubber dam

a. jaw contacts in teeth 4
b. Only 4 contacts 2 lingual surface and 2 buccal surface
c. Only 4 contacts 2 mesial and 2 distal
916) The retainer of rubber dam

a. Four points of contact two buccally and two lingually without rocking
b. points of contact 2 buccally and 2 lingually above the height of contour 4
c. Four points of contact two mesially and two distally
d. points 2
917) ?clamp used for partially erupted tooth

a #14 A
b #8 A c a &b
918) Dentin permeability

a. decreases with the increase of cavity preparation
b. Increase when sclerotic dentin develops under a carious lesion
c. Increase with smear layer
d. Bacterial toxins can pass through before the actual penetration of bacteria
919) Permeability of dentine

a. Bacterial product go through it

115
b. Decrease by smear layer

c. Allow bacteria to go in d All of above
920) Reparative dentine

a. Same like secondary dentine b Happen as site if irritation
921) Reparative dentine

a. 2nd dentine
b. Formed as dentine bridge above the pulp
c. Highly tubular dentine and it is detective from 1st dentine
d. Sclerosing dentine with less permeability
922) days after amalgam restoration Pt came complaining of pain during putting spoon on the restored 7
tooth because
a. Irreversible pulpitis
b. Reversible pulpitis
c. Broken amalgam d Galvanic action
923) Compomer releases fluoride as GI

a. True b False
924) Compomer restorative materials are

a. Glass ionomer with polymer components
b. Resin system with fluoride containing glass & polyacid modified monomer
c. Composite resin for cervical restorations only
925) One of the following releases fluorides

a. Composite
b. Glassionomer
c. Fluoride
d. Zinc oxide eugenol
926) In a cavity preparation cavo-surface margin will be junction between

a. Cavity wall / floor and adjacent tooth surface
b. Cavity wall and floor
c. Floor of occlusal box and proximal box
d. Proximal wall of one tooth with another
e. Axial wall and occlusal floor
927) Make the smoothest surface in enamel with less cracking

a. White stone b carbide bur
c. coarse green stone
d. diamond bur
928) A class IV composite resin restoration should be finished with a

a. No 330 Tungsten carbide bur
b. Mounted stone
c. fluted carbide bur -12

116
d. Coarse diamond point
(The 12-fluted carbide burs have traditionally been used to perform gross finishing of resin composites)
929) The best finished composite surface is achieved by

a. fluted bur 12
b. Diamond bur
c. Matrix band with no additional finish
930) The most desirable finished surface composite resin can be provided by
a. White stones
b. Hand instrument
c. Carbid finishing burs
d. Diamond finish burs
e. Celluloid matrix band
931) In class 5 composite restorations a layer of bonding agent is applied

a. Following removal of cement then cured
b. Following removal of cement and not cured
c. Cured then remove cement
932) After class V GI restoration removal of a thin flush of GI is done by

a. Scaller or knife immediately\same visit
b. Finishing stone immediately\same visit
c. Scale or knife later\next visit
d. Finishing stone later\next visit
e. a+b f a+d
g. a+c
h. d +c
933) ?Scaling in epileptic\ Elliptical motion

a. ultrasonic
b. Piezoelecrtic
c. Magnetistrictive
d. scaler
934) The final finishing of silicate / glass ionomer restorations is done after
a. minutes b 24 hours ½7
c. minutes 30
d. hour 1
e. minute 1
935) After finish class v glass ionomer cement we do finishing with

a. Pumice slurry
b. Aluminum-oxide disc
(Same is applied for composite class III)

117
936) Indirect composite inlay has the following advantages over the direct composite EXCEPT
a. Efficient polymerization
b. Good contact proximally
c. Gingival seal
d. Good retention\Price
937) Indirect composite inlay over comes the direct composite by

a. susffition polymerization
b. good contact proximaly
c. gingival seal
d. good retention
e. a-b-d f a-b-c
g c-d
938) A glossy finish is best retained on a

a. Microfilled composite resin restoration
b. Macrofilled resin restoration
c. Hybrid composite resin restoration
d. Fiber reinforced composite resin restoration
Microfill fine particle composite 0 01 - 0 1 develops the smoothest finish & can be polished to the highest luster and)
(the smoothest surface of all the resin composites
939) Composite for posterior teeth

a. Microfilled + fine filler
b. Macroflled + rough filler c Hybrid + rough filler
940) For etching 15 sec for composite restoration use

a. phosphoric acid %37
b. fluoric acid %15
c. sulfuric acid %3
941) Phosphoric acid is applied for

a. seconds 20-10
b. seconds 45-30
c. seconds 30-20
d. None
942) Dentin etching often takes

a. sec 15
b. sec for enamel 30
c. sec 45
d. sec 60
943) In enamel caries passing half of enamel

a. Leave it
b. Restoration
944) Rampant caries in adult in anterior teeth restored by

118
a. Glass ionomer
b. ZOE
c. Amalgam
945) Most of dentine bonding material need conditioning time

a. sec 15
b. sec 30
c. sec 45
d. sec 60
946) Time of curing of dentine

a. sec 10
b. sec c 15 sec 30
d 60 sec
947) Light curing time for simple shallow class III composite
a. sec 10
b. sec c 15 sec 20
948) Class III amalgam restorations are usually prepared on

a. Distal surfaces of anterior teeth
b. Mesial surfaces of canine c Distal surfaces of canine
d. Distal surfaces of incisors and mesial surfaces of canine
e. Mesial and distal surfaces of all the teeth
949) Cavity varnish should be applied at least in

a. One layer b Two layers
c. Three layers
d. Four layers
950) During placement of amalgam pins, the number of pins per cusp is
a. pin 1
b. pins 2
c. pins 3
d. pins 4
951) The most retentive pin is

a. Cemented pins b Self threaded
c Fictional type
952) Stainless steel pins are used mainly in amalgam to enhance

a. retention
b. strength
c. resistance form
d. all of the above
953) The instruments for examination are

a. Probe and tweezer

119
b. Mirror c a + b
d Amalgamator
954) Incipient caries is diagnosed by

a. Fiber optic light and dyes
b. Tactile examination
c. X-ray film
955) The spontaneous production of an electric current resulting from two dissimilar metals in the oral
cavity is called
a. Nuclear reaction b Galvanic action
c. Precipitation reaction
d. Thermodynamics
e. Fission
956) One week after filling of class II restoration, the Pt presents with a complain of tenderness on
mastication and bleeding from the gingiva The dentist should initially
a. Check the occlusion
b. Check the contract area
c. Consider the probability of hyperemia
d. Explain to the Pt that the retainer irritated the surrounding soft tissue and prescribe an analgesic and warm
oral rinse
957) Tooth surfaces involved in class II design 6 are

a. Occlusal, proximal, part of facial and lingual surfaces
b. Occlusal, facial and lingual surfaces
c. Proximal and facial / lingual surfaces design 5
d. Proximal, axial angle and facialcervical
e. Two or more surfaces of endodontically treated tooth design 8
958) The function of the anterior teeth is

a. Disarticulate the posterior teeth b Incise food
c. Prevent attrition
d. Prevent food impaction
959) when should you check amulgum filling occlusally

a. aftr one day
b. hour 2
c. immeditenly
d. before dismis
960) When you do amalgam finishing

a. Immediately b 24 hours later
961) When polishing amalgam restoration

i. Avoid heat generation by using wet polishing paste
ii.Wait for 24 hours b i & ii

120
c. i only
d. ii only
962) Marginal deterioration of amalgam restoration should be due to

a. No enough bulk of dentine
b. Corrosion
c. Over carving
d. Improper manipulation of amalgam
e. a and b
f. c and d
g. All the above
h. b, c and d
(Marginal deterioration = Marginal degradation = Marginal ditching = Marginal crevicing)
963) The powder for GI cement contains

a. Sio2, Al2o3, caF
b. Sio2, zno, barium sulphate
964) Proximal caries should be opened when

a. Confined within enamel
b. Pass DE junction
c. Dentin laterally d All of the above
965) Proximal caries confined to enamel

a. Prevention
b. Observation
c. Restore with GI
966) in dental caries is

a. Streptococcus mutant
b. Streptococcus salivarius
c. Spirochaeta
967) Streptococcus activity detected by

a. Fermentation
b. Catalase
968) The cement under MOD amalgam have this character

a. High modulus of elasticity
b. Low modulus of elasticity
c. The high modulus of elasticity prevents bonding and decreases tensile strength
d. Both a & c
969) Pins are inserted into

a. Enamel b Dentin
c. Enamel and dentin (DEJ)
d. Any of the above

121
(2mm in dentine, 1 mm away from DEJ)
970) In prefabricated twisted pin in amalgam it should go equaly into dentine alloy
a. one mm
b. two to three mm
c. five mm
d. only in enamel
971) Composite restoration that was matching in shade, after one week it became much light The
reason could be
a. Light started photoinitation
b. Absorption water
c. Shade selected after rubber dam
972) Composite restoration appears too white after one week, but it was matchingtooth pretty good after
placement, cause is
a. Over polymerization caused water absorption
b. Under polymerization due to over-thickened increments
c. shade selection prior tooth isolation d tooth desiccation
973) Progression of initial caries to cavitations takes 18 months this based on

a. streptococci mutans initiate caries b lactobacilli progress caries
974) Incipient caries

a. Surface zone is relatively unaffected
b. The surface zone is the largest portion with the highest pore volume
c. Tooth preparation and composite is the best treatment
d. Pulpal reaction is not possible
e. Caries progress in enamel faster than dentin
975) The depth of cavity prep for composite in posterior

a. Limited to enamel
b. mm in dentin 5 0
c. Depends on caries extension
d. Depends on tooth discoloration
e. mm in dentin 2 0
976) When do class I preparation of posterior tooth for Composite Restoration

a. remove caries only
b. extend 2mm in dentin
977) Decrease the polymerization shrinkage of composite by

a. Incremental placement with increase time of curing b Incremental placement with high intensity light cure

122
978) GIC compared to composite

a. Increase linear coefficient of thermal expansion
b. More wear resistant
c. Less soluble
d. Stiff
e. Less polymerization shrinkage
979) Glass ionomer

a. introduction 1970
b. needs dry field when application
c. both
980) The following cavity bases are moisture sensitive

a. Polycarboxylate
b. Zinc phosphate c GI cement
d. ZOE
e. a, c
981) Which of following restorations more likely to cause wear to opposing

a. Composite
b. Gold
c. Porcelain
d. Amalgam
982) Arrange the steps ca(oh) - varnish - base - amalgam

a. ca(oh) - base - varnish - amalgam
983) Caries progress in children more than adult due to

a. difference in ph
b. generalized dentin sclerosing by age
c. increasing in organic content of tubular dentin by age
984) Retention of amalgam depends on

a. Amalgam bond
b. Convergency of walls oclusally
c. Divergency of walls oclusally
d. Retentive pins
985) Amount of daily wear of amalgam ingested in the body

a. μgs/day of mercury 3 – 1
b. μgs /day of mercury 15 – 10
c. μgs /day of mercury 25
986) Daily wear of amalgam

a. micrograms/day 3-1
987) Cracked enamel best Dx by

a. Dye

123
988) ?How can test crack tooth

a. X-ray
b. electric test
c. ethyle dye test
d. vitality test
989) Method of detection of cracked teeth

a. Horizontal percussion
b. Vertical percussion
c. Electric pulp test
d. Transillumination Visible light test
990) Caries detection dye composed mainly of

a. acid fuschin %5
b. basic fuchsin c %5 Propylene glycol
991) Which one of the following was the most frequently reason for replacement of a molar restoration
with larger restoration
a. New caries
b. Recurrent caries
c. Faulty restoration d All of the above
992) Patient suffering from a cracked enamel,his chief complain is pain on

a. Hot stimuli
b. Cold stimuli c A &B
d Electric test
993) After bleaching a tooth, we want to restore the tooth with composite resin, we don’t want to
compromise the bonding, we wait for
a. hours b a week 24
c choose a different material
At least 7 days should be allowed between enamel bleaching and placement of adhesive bonding agents for)
(accomplishment of composite resin restorations
994) Internal bleaching with
a. hydrogen peroxide
b. sodium perboate
995) Which type of burs is the least in heat generation

a. Diamond
b. Carbide\tungsten carbide
c. titanium
d. Steel bur
996) Which of the following burs would you prefer to use preparing a slot for the relation of an extensive
amalgam restoration on maxillary molar
a. Number 5 round bur
b. Number 56 fissure bur

124
c. Number 556 fissure bur

d. Number 35 cone bur or No 33 1/2 inverted cone bur
997) How much subgingivally do you go with the band in class II restorations
a 0 5 – 1 mm
b. mm 2 – 1
c. mm 3 – 2
998) The matrix band should be above the adjacent tooth occlusal surface by
a. 2mm - 1
b. 3mm - 2
c 5mm 3 - 5 2
d below to it
999) Bitewing exam is used to diagnose EXCEPT

a. Proximal caries
b. Secondary caries
c. Gingival status
d. Periapical abscess
)1000 overlap in bitewing

a. horizontal shift
b.vertical shift
)1001 At which of the following locations on a mandibular molar do you
complete the excavation of caries first
a. axial walls
b. Pulpal floor over the mesial pulp horns c Peripheral caries
d All of the above are correct
It is advised to start excavation from the periphery to the center to minimize the risk of)
(infection in case of accidental pulp exposure Larger burs are recommended for this reason
)1002 Most elicit painful area is
a. Gingival wall
b. Proximal wall c Pulpal wall
d None of the above
)1003 Dentist provided bleaching which also known as ( home bleaching ) contains
a 35 - 50 % hydrogen peroxide b 5 - 22 % carbamide peroxide
(A solution of 10 % carbamide peroxide in a soft splint is required for home bleaching)

)1004 Father for child 12 years pt asked you about the age for the amalgam restoration of his child, you
tell him
a. years 2
b. years 9
c. decades\20 years\15 – 20 years 2

125
d. All life
(It’s reported that 72 % of amalgam restorations survived for 15 years)
)1005 Scale to measure marginal deterioration
a. Mahler scale
b. Color analogues scale for pain
)1006 One of these has no effect on the life span of handpiece

a. Air in the compressor
b. Trauma to the head of the hand piece
c. Pressure during operating
)1007 Which of the following doesn't have damage effect on hand piece
a Apply great pressure during use b Infrequent moisturization
c Fall down of the head of the hand piece
)1008 Patient un-cooperation can result in fault of operation, Technical faults only are related to patient
factor
a TRUE b FALSE
)1009 Best stress transfer under amalgam

a with thin base layer b with thick base layer
c. If put on sound dentin
)1010 The functions of cement bases are

i. To act alike a barrier against acids or thermal shocks
ii. The minimal thickness, which is required, is 0 5 mm of base
b. All
c. None of the above d 1 only
e 2 only
)1011 Old pt came to replace all old amalgam filling he had sever occlusal attriation the best
replacement is
a. composite
b. amalgam
c. cast metal restoration
d. full crowns\ ceramometal crowns
composite restorations, bonded cast metal restorations, removable partial dentures, orthodontic treatment, crown)
lengthening procedures and protective splints can be used before a more permanent solution of crowns or veneers
(is considered
)1012 Bonding agent for enamel we use
a. Unfilled resin
b. primer & adhesive bonding agent
c. Resin dissolves in acetone or alcohol
d. Primer with resin modified glass ionomer

126
)1013 Thickness of amalgam in complex restoration in cusp tip area

a 0 5 mm
b 1 - 1 5 mm
c mm 2 - 5 1
d 2 - 3 mm the cusp tip reduction is 2 5-3mm
)1014 Complex amalgam restoration when to do it

a. Weak of the cusp with undermined enamel
b. Bevel and contra bevel
c. Weak cusp should strengthen it by resin
)1015 For cavity class II amalgam restoration in a 2nd maxillary premolar, the best matrix to be used
a. Tofflemire matrix
b. Mylar matrix
c. Gold matrix
d. Celluloid strips
)1016 When removing moist carious dentin which exposes the pulp, dentist should
a. Do direct pulp cap
b. Do indirect pulp cap c Prepare for endo
)1017 Treatment of cervical caries in old patients with a temporary restoration is best done by
a. Glass ionomer
b. Composite resitn
c. Amalgam
)1018 What do we use as temporary filling material in anterior region when aesthetic is important
a. Composite
b. Glass ionemer cement
c. Zinc oxide eugenol
)1019 The divergence should be mesiodistally for an amalgam restoration

a. no it should be convergent
b. if the remaining proximal marginal ridge = 1 6 mm
c. if the remaining proximal marginal ridge > 1 6mm d if the remaining proximal marginal ridge < 1 6mm
)1020 In a class III composite with a liner underneath, what's the best to use
a. light cured GI
b. Zno eug
c. Reinforced zno eug
)1021 What is the most factor encouraging dental caries

a. Xerostomia
b. Hypocalcification

127
c. Smoking
)1022 Most common cause of caries

a. Xerostomia
b. Diet sugar consumption
)1023 Incipient caries in the old patients is MOSTLY due to

a. smoking
b. saliva
c. Xerostomia
)1024 The most common cause of dry mouth in adult patients is

a. Tranquillizer
b. Anti-histaminics
c. Insulin
d. Birth control pills
)1025 Attrition may be caused by

a. Friction due to pipe
b. Friction during sleep/ Bruxism or clenching
c. Gastric acid
d. None
)1026 A Tailor is presented to your dental office, what’s the most common feature to be found in his
teeth upon examination
a Attrition b Abrasion
c. Erosion
d. Abfarcation
)1027 v shape carries in which case

a. abrasion
b. errosion
c. attrition d abfraction
)1028 Abrasion of enamel and root surfaces may result from the long term use of
a. A hard toothbrush
b. Tooth abrasive toothpaste or powder
c. Vigorous use of the toothbrush
d. A and B only e A, B and C
)1029 Patient had bulimia and had lesion in palatal surface in upper teeth with recurrent vomiting
What is the type of lesion
a. Attrition
b. Abrasion c Erosion
)1030 What is the proper cavity preparation for V-shaped cervical erosion lesion to be restored with
glass ionomer cement

128
a. Cervical groove, incisal groove

b. Cervical groove, incisal bevel make a bevel in composite restorations
c. retention points, 90 margin 4
d. No mechanical preparation is necessary
)1031 & patient comes with severe stained anterior central left maxillary incisor with small distal caries
lost incisal edge treated by
a Full ceramic restoration
)1032 According to two digits system, 42 means

a. lower right lateral incisor
b. upper left lateral incisor
c. upper right lateral incisor
d. none
)1033 According to the universal system, 6 means

a. upper left first molar
b. lower left first molar
c. lower right first molar d None
(Number 6 refers to upper right canine)
)1034 Composite restoration follow up after 2 years showed stained margin
a. Stress from polymerization shrinkage
b. Hydrolic destruction on bond
c. Marginal leakage or micro leakage
)1035 Pt with low caries index and small discolored area which is not cavitated or catching no x- ray
change need Follow up each
a 3m b 9-12
c. month 18-12
d. month 24-18
)1036 The best and the most effective way to remove stained mottled enamel
a. home bleaching
b. microabrasion technique
c. office bleaching
d. walking bleaching
)1037 Rx of mild fluorosis

a. Micro abrasion
b. Home bleaching
c. Composite veneer
d. Porcelin veneer
)1038 Rx of tetracycline staining

a Micro abrasion b Home bleaching
c. Composite veneer
d. Porcelin veneer

129
)1039 Most conservative method to whiting teeth

a Micro abrasion b Bleaching
)1040 The walking bleach technique is

a. Use heat treatment
b. Requires patients to report in 24 hours
c. Can be done in poorly obturated canals
d. Uses mixtures of sodium perborate and 3% hydrogen peroxide
e. Tooth stain remover
)1041 Pt has high mastication forces has caries on posterior teeth and he want only esthetic restoration
a. Composite with beveled margins
b. Composite without beveled margins
c. Light cured GI
d. Zinc phosphate cement
)1042 Use of water spray during cutting procedures have following advantages
a. Dehydration of oral tissues
b. Tooth restorative material and other debris are carried away c Pulp is protected from heat
d. Clean view of cavity can be achieved
e. Bacterial contamination controlled
)1043 Senile geriatric carious lesions are most commonly found exclusively on the following areas of the
teeth
a. Pits and fissures
b. Occlusal, incisal, facial and lingual embrasures
c. Inclined planes of cusps d Root surfaces of teeth
e Interdental surfaces
)1044 ?Which smooth surface is mostly affected with high caries patient
a. Labial maxillary incisors
b. Palatal maxillary incicors c Buccal maxillary molars
d Palatal maxillary molars
)1045 Deep pit and fissure in a 25 yr pt has mild to moderate risk caries treatment
a. Preventive resin restoration
b. Class 1 restoration c Sealant
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

130
)1046 The cement material with uniform film thickness

a. Zinc oxide
b. Resin
c. GI
d. Zinc phosphate
)1047 A removable partial denture patient, Class II Kennedy classification The last tooth on the left side is
the 2nd premolar which has a distal caries
What’s the type of the clasp you will use for this premolar
a. gingivally approaching clasp
b. ring clasp
)1048 Pt with complete denture complains from tightness of denture in morning then becomes good
this due to
a. Relif of denture because there may be pressure points or areas that the tissues will try to adjust to it
throughout the day
b. Lack of cheeck elastisty
c. Poor post dam
)1049 Old pt comes with set of compelete denture with tight denture in morning and become loose
later in a day what is the cause
a. lack of posterior palatal seal
b. deflecting of occlusion
c. excessive relining of denture
d. inelasticity of cheek
)1050 A dentulous patient has a complaint that his denture becomes loose several hours after wearing
this indicate
a An improper extension of denture base b A deflective occlusal contacts
c. A high vertical dimension
d. An over extended denture flangs
)1051 Record the occlusal plane in order to

a. To determine the amount of space between the mandible and the maxilla which will be occupied by artificial
teeth
b. To determine vertical and horizontal levels of the teeth c a and b
d None
The long axis of the maxillary first molar is inclined to

a Buccal when viewed from the front
b Mesial
c Distal when viewed from the side
d Lingual
)1053 You sent shade of PFM, technician gives you different color with same shade

131
a. Non uniform thickness of porcelain

b. Thick opaque
c. Thin opaque
d. thick metal
e. thin porcelain OR
f. Increased porcelain thichness\ thick porcelain
)1054 statements true or false 2

i. RCT abutment of FPD has higher risk for fracture
ii.Abutment which has RCT in cantilever FPD has higher susceptibility to fracture
b. 1st is true,2nd is false
c. 1st is false, 2nd is true
d. Both are false e Both are true
)1055 A low sag factor in a metal-ceramic FPD causes

Flow of metal under functional load 2- High abrasion resistance -1
Less deformation of bridge spans when fired 4- Poor metal-ceramic bond strength -3
5- Contamination of porcelain
a. only 1
b. and 4 1
c. and 3 d 3 only 2
e. and 5 4
f. All of the above
)1056 Patient with 5 years old denture has a severe gag reflex, upon history he says he had the same
symptoms in the first few days of the denture delievery and it went all alone
a. patient has severe gag reflex
b. patient has underlying systemic condition c Denture is overextended
)1057 When increase vertical dimension you have to

a. increase minimal need
b. construct anterior teeth first then posterior teeth c use provisional crown for 2 months
d all
)1058 Wax patterns should be invested soon because

a. The wax exhibits shrinkage
b. Becomes brittle
c. Subjected to fracture

132
d. The wax has memory and begins to distort
)1059 In the metal-ceramic technique, the bond between porcelain and the noble-metal alloy is
dependent on the
1- Proper matching of coefficients of thermal expansion of metal and porelain
2- Formation of base-metal oxides 3- Formation of noble-metal oxides 4- Surface roughness of the alloy
a. only 1
b. and 2 1
c. and 3 d 2 and 4 1
e 1 and 4
)1060 Cement appears in radiography like caries and cannot distinguish from it
a. Calcium hydroxide include hydroxyl group
b. Zinc phosphate
c. Glass ionomer
d. Zinc polycarboxlate
e. None of above
)1061 ) Which following condition in a FPD could cause porcelain bonded to metal to loosen
(fractured/separated
i. removal of 0 7 mm of bulk from the facial surface of the abutment teeth
ii.Contamination of the metal framework ( metal coping )
iii. Baking the facing too rapidly
iv. Insufficient mechanical locks
b. i,ii
c. i,ii,iii
d. ii,iii e ii,iii,iv
f. iv only
g. all of the above
)1062 Provisional luting cement

a. Prevents restoration from dislodgement
b. Sealing
)1063 The posterior palatal bar should be placed in a relationship

a. To incorporate the hamular notch on each side
b. Which is anterior to the junction of the movable and immovable soft palate
c. Which is posterior to the junction of the movable and immovable soft palate
d. Extending from one hamular notch to the other hamular notch across the fovea palatinae

133
)1064 Most common type of porcelain in dentistry

a. High fusion
b. Medium fusion c Low fusion
d All of the above
)1065 Class III jaw relation in edentulous Pt

a. It will affect size of maxillary teeth
b. Affect retention of lower denture
c. Affect esthetic and arrangement of maxillary denture d All of the above
)1066 which systematic disease cause gagging reflex in denture wearer

a. vit D deficiency
b. diabetes c 'adenoid
)1067 The reason of separation or fracture of opaque layer in ceramo metal crown in gold
a Technique not using conditioning material on opaque layer b Contact of occlossion on opaque layer
)1068 Bone assessment of abutment teeth

a. Horizontal bone loss is more important
b. Vertical is more imp c Equally imp
d Not imp
)1069 Buccal frenum

a. the oral activities in this area are horizontal as well as vertical so wider
clearance is usually needed
b. it is usually in the areas of the first premolars
c. the center of the denture will be a little narrow in this area due to the activity of the levator anguli muscle
d. the center of the denture will be a little narrow in this area due to the activity of the depressor anguli muscle
e. a, b and d
f. a, b and c
)1070 Etiology of subpontic osseous hyperplasia/ subpontic exostosis

a. Chronic irritation
b. Exessive functional stresses
)1071 Complete denture, patient having undercuts anterior maxilla and lateral maxilla and the options
were
a. remove ant undercut surgically and leave lateral
b. remove lateral undercut surgically and leave anterior
c. remove both surgically
d. Keep both

134
)1072 The least important to check during complete denture try in

a. vertical dimension
b. adaptation of margins
c. retention
d. centric relation
Female pt comes with endo treated upper central with m & d caries and have incisal abrasion )1073
Porcelain veneer is planned with modification to cover incisal edge Veneer should end
a fourth lingualy 0 5 mm before centric occlusal b fourth 1 5 mm before centric occlusion
c fifth 1 5 mm before centric occlusion
)1074 Veneer palatal finish last line should end

a 0 5 before eccentric b 1 5 before eccentric
)1075 While making a crown for erosion of tooth substance, ideal choice of crown is
a. Porcelain crown
b. Metal crown
c. Porcelain fused metal crown
d. Acrylic crown
e. Partial crown
)1076 Impression material causes bad taste to patient

a. polysulfide
b. polyether
c. additional silicon
d. alginate
)1077 what is the most unfavorable impression material by the patient due to bad taste
a. agar
b. silicone
c. polyether d polysulfide
)1078 A good treatment plan in planning the bridge is

a. To inform the patient about present condition extent of proposed treatment
time and cost
b. Not to tell anything to the patient
c. Patients detailed past dental history
d. Patient must know about drawbacks of treatment
e. The patient should be only told the minimum possible things mainly about time and cost
)1079 ?patient came with pain after 24 hour denture wearing

135
a. high vertical dimension

b. occlusal interference
c. denture roughness
)1080 ? Last step in inserting a PFM crown

a Glazing of porcelain b Polishing of Metal
c. Staining of porcelain
d. Contouring
)1081 endo treated molar with small mesial and distal caries , what is the best option
a. gold inlay
b. gold onlay
c. gold crown
)1082 ? impression material that cause over extension of tissues

a. Alginate
b. Additional silicone c Brown compound
)1083 Missing lower six and tilted 7

a. Uprighting of molar by orthodontics
b. Proximal half crown
c. Telescope crown
d. Non rigid connector
( There should be All of the above )
)1084 Occlusal splint device

a. used during increase vertical dimension
b. alleviate muscle of mastication
c. occlusal plane CR/CO d All
pt have a complete denture came to the clinic, tell you no complaint in the talking, or in the )1085
,chewing, but when you exam him, you see the upper lip like too long, deficient in the margins of the lip
?reason is
a Deficiency in the vertical dimensional b Anterior upper teeth are short
c Deficient in vit B
)1086 Porcelain, highly esthetic, anterior maxilla area, we choose

a. Dicor
b. In ceram c Impress

136
)1087 Pt has discoloration on his max ant central, and u planning to do veneer for him Which type of
?porcelain has high easthetic
a. in ceram
b. dicor glass reinforced risen c impress
)1088 Pontic design of an FPD

a Same size buccolingually of the missing tooth b Smaller than missing tooth buccolingually
c. Wider buccolingually
)1089 Management of knife edge ridge in complete denture

a. Reline with resilient material
b. Maximum coverage of flange
c. Wide occlusal table d All of the above
) 1090 Patient with complete denture pronouncing F as a V

a Anterior teeth are upward from lip line
) 1091 Patient with complete denture pronouncing F as a V
a Maxillary anterior teeth had placed too far from superiorly and
anteriorly
Placement of maxillary anterior teeth in complete dentures too far superiorly and anteriorly may result in difficulty in)
(pronouncing F and V sounds
)1092 Edentulous pt class II kenndy classification 2nd premolar used as abutment when we serving we
found mesial undercut what is the proper clasp used
a. wrought wire with round cross section
b. wrought wire with half round cross section
c. cast clasp with round cross section
d. cast clasp with half cross section
)1093 On a central incisor receiving a full ceramic restoration, during finishing of the shoulder finish line
subgingivally
a Diamond end cutting
)1094 Pt needs complete denture, when u did the examination u notice the maxillary tubersity will
interfere with denture
a. need no 12 blade for extention
b. partial thickness flap extend buccal & palatal
c. suture under tension
)1095 The highest strength in porcelain

a ZR ( zircon ) reinforced in ceram

137
)1096 How can u repair fractured rest ( in the place where it passes over the marginal ridge of the tooth )
?in removable partial denture
a. Spot welding
b. Electric soldering
c. Industrial brazing
)1097 The lateral condylar posts should be set on the articulator at

a Zero degree b 20 degree
c. degree 40
d. None
)1098 The incisal guide should be set on the articulator at

a. Zero degree
b. degree 20
c. degree 40
d. None
)1099 It is preferable to be the length of the handle of the custom tray

a. mm 10
b. mm 20
c. mm 15
d. mm 25
)1100 years old black man wants to have very white teeth in his new denture what should the dentist 65
do
a. Put the white teeth
b. Show the patient the suitable color first then show him the white one
c. Convince him by showing him other patients photos
d. Tell him firmly that his teeth color are good
)1101 Pt needs complete denture u take impression with irreversible hydrocolloid alginate & poured
it after more than 15 min late the cast appears short & chalky the reason is
a. Dehydration of the impression
b. Expansion of the impression
c. Immerse the impression in a chemical solution
)1102 To a great extent, the forces occurring through a removable partial denture can be widely
distributed and minimized by the following methods
a. Proper location of the occlusal rests
b. Selection of lingual bar major connector
c. Developing balanced occlusion d All of the above
)1103 Wax properties are

a. expansion

138
b. internal stress
)1104 ?What is the most important advantage of resin veneer

a esthetic b cost
c tooth preservation
)1105 Compared with class II plaster, which one of the following is NOT the characteristics of die
strength
a. better compression strength
b. better tensile strength
c. require less water d higher expansion
)1106 Die is done to

a. Allow for better waxing
b. Adjust the errors in preparation
c. Make investment easier
d. Adjust correct finish line
)1107 Maximum porcelain thickness

a 1 5 – 2 mm
)1108 Upon examination of alveolar ridge of elderly Pt for construction of lower denture, easily
displaceable tissue is seen in the crest of ridge
Management
a. Minor surgery is needed
b. Inform the Pt that retention of denture will decrease c Special impression technique is required
)1109 In casting the substructure for a metal ceramic restoration, it is necessary to use
1- Gypsum -bonded investment
2- Phosphate- bonded investment 3- Gas-air torch
4- Crucible which has not been used for other gold alloy
a. and 3 1
b. and 4 c 1 only 2
d. 2and 3
e. and 4 2
)1110 Three weeks after insertion FPD, marked discomfort to heat and cold occurs there are no other
symptoms The most likely cause is
a. Gingival recession
b. Unseating of the FPD
c. Deflective occlusal contact

139
d. Torsional forces on one abutment tooth

e. Incomplete coverage of cut surfaces of prepared aboutment teeth
)1111 A permanently cemented FPD may become loose because of

i. Insufficient retention in the abutment preparation
ii.Deformation of the metal casting on the abutment
iii. Lack of embrasure space
iv. Torque
v. Passive contact of the pontic to the ridge lap
b. i,ii
c. i,ii,iv
d. ii,iv,v
e. iii,iv,v
f. iv,v
)1112 Ring liner is used as a lining in a casting to

a. Insulate against the thermal conductivity
b. Allow for expansion of the investment
c. Prevent fracture of the investment during heating
d. Facilitate removal of the investment after casting e All of the above
)1113 Cellulose ring in the investment and casting procedure function is

a. Ease of separation
b. Prevent water loss
c. Prevent shrinkage
d. Provide investment expansion
)1114 From properly mounted diagnostic casts, determination can made for fixed prosthodontic
treatment planning concerning
i. axial alignment of the abutment teeth
ii.Physical condition of the abutment teeth
iii. Gingival tissue contour and pocket depth
iv. Tentative design of abutment preparation
b. i only
c. i ,ii iii d i, ii & iv
e. ii ,iii, iv
f. all of the above
)1115 The porcelain metal bond is

a. Chemical
b. Mechanical c a &b
d None of the above
)1116 In soldering PFM FPD, greenish staining on porcelain without effect glazing this staining due to
a. over heating firing

140
b. flux
c. Investment contact
)1117 To prevent gingival injury place the margin of the retainer

a At the level of gingival crest b Above gingival crest
c. Apical to gingival crest 1 mm
d. Apical to gingival crest 0 5 mm
)1118 Metal -ceramic restorations may fail due to fracture of ceramic material This can best be avoided
if
a. occlusal forces are minimal
b. the metal is not over 0 5 mm thick
c. the ceramic material is at least 1 5 mm thick
d. The casting is designed to reduce stress concentration in the ceramic material
)1119 Casting shrinkage of gold alloy IV related to

a. Thermal expansion
b. Coefficient of thermal expansion
)1120 Before an accurate facebow transfer record can be made, it is necessary to determine
a. The axial center of opening-closing rotation peoples
b. The inclination of each condoyle
c. The physiologic rest position
d. Centric relation
e. All of the above
)1121 bizygomatic width measured by

a. gothic arch
b. willis gauge c facebow
(anthropometric slide caliper and electronic slide caliper)
)1122 With long span FPD, unit should have

a. Low strength
b. Low rigidity
c. High strength d High rigidity
)1123 The distal extention RPD receives its suppot

a From terminal abutments b Mostly from residual ridge
c. Equally from abutments and residual ridges
d. Exclusively from residual ridge
e. Denture base
)1124 How many surfaces does the pontic has

141
a Three b Four
c. Five
d. Seven
e. Two
)1125 Cast, soldered and porcelain are three types of

a. Fixed connectors
b. Movable connectors
c. Partial connectors
d. Both A and B
e. Temporary connectors
)1126 Which crown will have the maximum retention

a. Full cast crown
b. crown and no grooves ¾
c. crown and groove 5/3
d. crown and groove 8/7
e. Post retain crown
)1127 reverse bevel in inlay

a Retention b Resistance
)1128 ?Most common type of occlusion comfortable for patient and easy to fabricate
a. Mutually protected
b. Unilateral
c. Bilateral balanced
)1129 Patent with upper complete denture since 9 years complaining of falling of denture during
chewing after examination with wax bite there is slightly interocclussal space What’s the best
?management
a. Reline
b. Rebase c Remake
d Establish occlusion
)1130 Which tooth of the mandibular anterior teeth that touch the lingual surface of the maxillary
?anterior teeth in normal centric relation
a. Central incisor
b. Lateral incisor
c. Cuspid (Canine) d None
)1131 Cast post and core try in

a. Seat With pressure
b. Seat Without pressure

142
c. Rotate
)1132 Silane coupling agent

a. used with porcelain to enhance wetability of bonding
b. used with tooth and porcelain
)1133 How can I make appearance of abutment smaller without change in dimensions
a. make mesial and distal line angles near teach other
b. make cervical hight of contour more incisally
)1134 Which of the followin make abutment teeth appear narrower

a. MF & DF line angle closer
b. Horizontal link
c. MF & DF line angle far
d. Incisal mammelon
)1135 The long axis of the maxillary cuspid is inclined slightly to the
a. Mesial
b. Distal The neck of the maxillary cuspid is inclined slightly to the distal
c. Buccal
d. Lingual
)1136 patient with complete denture will only restore ------ % from mastication efficiency of natural
? dentition
a 10%
b 25%
c %45
d 65%
)1137 Important part of the distal extention RPD that maintains the stability
a. Retentive arm
b. Reciprocal arm
c. Occlusal rest d Denture base
)1138 What distribution occlusal forces

a. Indirect retainer
b. Direct retainer c Denture base
)1139 To prevent gingival injury place the margin of the pontic

a At the level of gingival crest b Above the gingival crest
c. Alical to gingival crest 1mm
d. Apical to gingival crest 0 5mm
)1140 Restoration needs glaze o prevent dehydration

143
a. GIC
b. porcelain
c. Composite
)1141 An anterior fixed partial denture is contraindicated when

a. Abutment teeth are not carious
b. An abutment tooth is inclined 15 degrees but otherwise sound c There is considerable resorption of the
residual ridges
d Crown of the abutment teeth are extremely long owing to gingival recession
)1142 Most common marginal failure of fixed prosthodontics is

a. Periodontal
b. Pulpal c Caries
d Mechanical
)1143 A reline for a complete denture is contraindicated when

a There is extreme over closure of the vertical diamention b Centric occlusion and centric relation do not
coincide
c. The denture contains a broken tooth
d. There is resorption of the ridge
)1144 The width of the lower teeth is

a. of the maxillary anterior teeth in normal jaw relationship 2/1
b. of the maxillary anterior teeth in normal jaw relationship 3/1
c. of the maxillary anterior teeth in normal jaw relationship d None 4/3
)1145 The amount of facial reduction in PFM crown

a 13
b 17
c 80
d 22
)1146 ?What name of bur used in proximal surface of laminate veneer

a. Radial
b. Dimound
c. Fissure
)1147 ?What name of bur use in facial surface of veneer

a. Dimond
b. Fissure
)1148 Cement which contains fluoride

a. GI
b. ZOE
c. Reinforced ZOE
d. Polycarboxylate cement

144
)1149 After insertion of immediate complete denture, pt removes denture at night next day he
couldn`t wearing it and came to you, why this is happened
a. relife
b. Swelling and inflammation after extraction
c. lack of skill for the patient to put the denture
)1150 Nausea is a complaint that a new denture wearer might encounter It may result from
a. Thick posterior border
b. Denture under extended
c. Denture slightly over extended d a & b are correct
)1151 To hasten Zinc Oxide cement, you add

a. Zinc sulfide
b. Barium sulfide c Zinc acetate
d Barium chloride
)1152 If we tak eugenol paste impresion if drop of water then how reaction
a slow b fast
c. delay
d. stop
)1153 The finishline 0laced on maxillary central incisor for porclain laminatr veneer prepartion should
cover approximately
a. one fourth of the lingual surface and remain 1 oo mm away from centric occlusion
b. one third of the lingual surface and remain 1 5 mm away from centric occlusion
c. one fifth of the lingual surface and remain 1 oo mm away from centric occlusion
d. one fourth of the lingual surface and remain 0 5 mm away from centric occlusion
)1154 In which of the following properties does a type IV partial denture gold alloy exceed a base- metal
partial denture alloy in numerical value
a. hardness
b. Specific gravity
c. casting shrinkage
d. Fusion temperature
)1155 PDI classification for, missing teeth in upper and lower arch including canines
a class I b II
c. III
d. IV

145
( https //www prosthodontics org/assets/1/7/PDI_Partially_Edentulous_Checklist pdf)
)1156 Kennedy divided all partial edentulous arches

a. Two main types
b. Three main types c Four main types
d Five main types
)1157 When all the teeth are missing EXCEPT the 2 canines, according to kennedy classification it is
a Class I modification 1
)1158 According to the Kennedy's classification, the bilateral edentulous areas located posterior to the
remaining natural teeth is
a. Class one
b. Class tow
c. Class three
d. Class four
)1159 According to the Kennedy's classification, unilateral edentulous area with natural teeth remaining
both anterior and posterior is
a. Class one
b. Class tow c Class three
d Class four
)1160 Contact area is in incisal/occlusal 1/3 or incisal edge in which tooth

a. Mandibular incisors\lower anterior teeth
b. Mandibular molars
c. Maxillary molars
)1161 Most common lesion associated with complete denture

a. Candida
b. Sore mouth & ulcer
c. Angular chilits
d. Resorbtion of ridge
)1162 Most common occurs due to denture

a. Sore spots Traumatic ulcers
b. Angular chelitis
)1163 Most common complete denture post insertion complaint after 24 hrs
a. Rough
b. Overextension causing laceration
c. Pt not to use new vertical dimension
( Overextension causing tissue irritation and ulceration or injury)
)1164 primary stress bearing area of mandible

a. Buccal shelf area

146
b Residual ridge
c Retromolar pad
) 1165 Best form of palate for edentulous

Square
a
b. Ovoid
c. Flat
)1166 Which palatal form is more retentive and offers better stability to complete denture
a. V shaped
b. Wide palate c U shaped
d Flat palate
)1167 During 3/4 crown preparation on premolar, bur used to add retentive grooves is
a Radial fissure b tappered fissure
)1168 The degree of taper for crown preparation

a 3-5
b 15
)1169crown short margin all around and fail to make it seat management
a. Remake
b. Cement it
)1170?Criteria of minor connector

a must be very thin cross section b 90 degree with abutment
c. degree with abutment 70
d. engage abutment curve with under cut
)1171 Orthognathic ridge relationship (class II) presents several problems which should be taken into
consideration when constructing complete denture prosthesis These include all except
a. Require minimum interocclusal distance
b. Have a great range of jaw movement
c. Require careful occlusion, usually cuspless teeth are indicated
Class II patient looks toothy, holds the mandible forward to improve appearance with TMJ problems, usually have)
a great range of jaw movements in function, require careful occlusion &needs a large interocclusal distance - Class III
(requires a minimum interocclusal distance
)1172 Orthognathic surgery , you plan to use 2mm screw , the drill size
a 1 mm b 1 5 mm
c. mm 2

147
d. mm 5 2
)1173 Planning centric occlusion for complete denture, it is advisable to have

a. mm of vertical and horizontal overlap of upper and lower anterior teeth with no contact 2-1
b. Definite tooth contact of upper and lower anterior teeth in order to facilitate the use of anterior teeth for
incision
)1174 In centric occlusion is normal but in eccentric occlusion the lower ant teeth & upper ant teeth
interfere with contact what should be do
a. reduction of mand incisors
b. reduction of lingual inclination of max incisiors
)1175 Premature contact between upper and lower ant teeth in eccentric occlusion while there is
absolutely no contact on the centric occlusion So the management is by grinding of
a. incisal edge of ant max teeth
b. Incisal edge of ant man teeth
c. Inclination of ant max teeth lingual
d. Inclination of ant man teeth
)1176 The posterior extension of maxillary complete denture can be detected by the followings except
a Hamular notch b Fovea palatine
c Vibrating line
)1177 /All are participating in the determination of the posterior extension of the maxillary denture
posterior palatal extension EXCEPT
a. vibrating line
b. Hamular notch
c. Fovae palatine
d. Retromolar (pads) areas
)1178 The distal palatal termination of the maxillary complete denture base is dictated by the
a. Tuberosity
b. Fovea palatine
c. Maxillary tori d Vibrating line
e Posterior palatal seal
)1179 Vibrating line

a. Between hard & soft palates
b. Between mobile and non mobile soft tissues

148
)1180 Oral surgeon put his finger on the nose of the patient and the patient asked to blow This done to
check
a. anterior extention of posterior palatal seal
b. lateral extension of posterior palatal seal
c. posterior extension of posterior palatal seal
d. glandular opening
)1181 Pt Presented after insertion of complete denture complaining of dysphagia and ulcers what is
?the cause of dysphagia
a. over extended
b. over post dammed
c. under extended
d. under post dammed
)1182 Pt with denture has swallowing problem and sore throat The problem is
a. Posterior over extension at distal palatal end
b. Over extension of lingual
c. Over extension of hamular notch
)1183 Overextension of a mandibular denture base in distobuccal area will cause dislodgement of the
denture during function as the result of the action of the
a. masseter muscle
b. buccinator muscle
c. pterygomandibular raphe
d. lateral tendon of temporalis muscle
)1184 An overload of the mucosa will occur if the

a teeth used for replacement are non-anatomic
b Bases covering the area are too small in outline denture bases are
c. Bases covering the area are too large in outline
d. Bases covering the area are overextended distally
After insertion of complete denture, Pt came complaining from pain in TMJ and tenderness of )1185
muscle with difficulty in swallowing, this could be due to
a. High vertical dimension
b. Low vertical dimension
c. Thick denture base
d. Over extended denture base

149
)1186 A completely edentulous patient, the dentist delivers a denture in the 1st day normally, 2nd day
the patient returns unable to wear the denture again, the cause is
a. Lack of skill of the patient
b. Lack of frenum areas of the complete denture
)1187 All relate to retention of maxillary complete denture except

a. Tongue movement
b. Type of saliva
)1188 Best instrument to locate vibrating line, it is

a T-burnisher
)1189 doctor found difficulty in locating ptergomaxillary notch , best instrument to locate it is
a. T burnisher
b. indiciple pencil
)1190 We can use for palatal posterior seal

a. Le jao carver
b. Kingsley scraper
)1191 The most frequent cause of failure of a cast crown restoration is

a. Failure to extend the crown preparation adequately into the gingival sulcus
b. Lack of attention in carving occlusal anatomy of the tooth c ,Lack of attention to tooth shape, position
and contacts
d Lack of prominent cusps, deep sulcus, and marginal ridges
)1192 Die ditching means

a. Carving apical to finish line
b. Carving coronal to finish line
c. Mark finish line with red pen
)1193 To create space for cement

a. Die space
b. Roughen of metal and tooth
c. Investment expansion
d. Electro
)1194 Best cement durable thickness

a Zn-ph b Resin
c Modified resin glass ionomer
)1195 The most important property of cement for durable restoration

a Low co-efficient of thermal expansion b Compressive strength
c Solubility in oral fluids
)1196 Crown with open margin can be due to

150
a. Putting die space on finishing line

b. Waxing not covering all crown preparation
c. Over contouring of crown prevents seating during insertion d All of the above
)1197 Open margin in crown could be due to

a. proximal contact
b. Failure to demargination of wax
c. Die spacer in the margin d All of above
)1198 The favored relationship in case of fabrication of a lower class 1 RPD opposing a natural dentition is
a prognathism b working side
c. balancing side
)1199 An examination of the edentulous mouth of an aged Pt who has wore maxillary complete
dentures
for many years against six mandibular teeth would probably show
a Cystic degeneration of the foramina of the anterior palatine nerve b Loss of osseous structure in the anterior
maxillary arch
c. Flabby ridge tissue in the posterior maxillary arch
d. Insufficient interocclusal distance
\Combination syndrome resorbtion of bone in the maxillary anterior area\ Extrusion of the lower anterior teeth)
(papillary hyperplasia\ loss of bone under the RPD bases\ over growth of the tuberosity
)1200 ??Flappy ridge which is imp Material we should use
a. plaster of Paris
b. ZnOE
c. agar agar
d. compound
)1201 If the oral tissues are inflamed and traumatized, impression for making a new denture
a Should be started immediately in order to prevent further deterioration b The occlusion of the existing denture
is adjusted, and tissue condition
material is applied, and periodically replaced until the tissues are recovered, then making impression takes place
c. The Pt is cautioned to remove the denture out at night
d. a & b are correct
e. All of the above are correct
)1202 In inflamed mucosa due to wearing denture, when do new denture

a. immediately

151
b. after week
c. Put tissue conditioning material and wait until the tissue heals and take impression after 2 weeks
)1203 The indication for the use of lingual plate major connector includes
a. For the purpose of retention
b. When the lingual frenum is high or when there is a shallow lingual sulcus
c. To prevent the movement of mandibular anterior teeth d All of the above
(Contraindications for lingual plate Crowding of lower anterior teeth)
)1204 Lingual plate

a. Shallow sulcus
b. Mobile anterior teeth
c. Deep sulcus d a+b
e All of above
)1205 mm between frenum and floor of mouth, type of major connector 6

a Lingual bar b Lingual plate
c Double plate
)1206 Lingual bar contraindication except

a. shallow lingual sulcus
b. long lingual frenum
c. Too crowded lower anterior teeth
d. Mobile anterior teeth
)1207 Contraindications of Lingual bar

a. Shallow sulcus
b. Crowded anteriors
c. High frenum
d. Deep sulcus
)1208 Lingual bar indication

a. short lingual frenum
b. deep lingual sulcus
c. too crowded lower anterior teeth d all of the above
)1209 Which will design first in the study cast of RPD with a lingual bar major connector
a. The lower border of lingual bar major connector
b. The upper border of lingual bar c Indirect rest and rest seat

152
)1210 During the designing of a partial denture ( lingual bar ) in the lower arch for a a patient what will u
?start with
a. the upper border of the bar
b. inferior border of the bar
c. designing the rest seats location
d. extension of the denture base
)1211 In class I partially edentulous lower arch, selection of major connector depends on
a. Height of lingual attachment
b. Mandibular tori
c. Periodontal condition of remaining teeth d All of the above
)1212 While u are removing impression from a cast u need to be careful not to tear it which impression
material
a. Polyether
b. Condesation silicone
c. Addition silicone
d. Polysulfide
)1213 Polyether impression materials

a. Are less stable dimensionally than polysulfide rubber
b. Are less stiff than polysulfide rubber
c. Can absorb water and swell if stored in water
(Polyether good mechanical properties, dimensional stability, short working time, very stiff & expensive)
)1214 Which of the following materials is very hard to remove from patient's mouth
a alginate b polyether
c. polysulfide
d. silicone
)1215 Impression material that can be poured more than once

a. Polyether
b. Additional silicon
c. Polysulfide
)1216 Elastic impression material is

a. Rubber
b. Plaster
c. Zinc oxide
d. Compound

153
)1217 Which one of the following impression materials is inelastic/ rigid, sets by acid base reaction
a impression plaster b zinc oxide eugenol
c. alginate
d. thiokol rubber
)1218 All these materials are used in the impression for partial denture with distal extention exept
a. plastic pearl
b. elastic
c. silicon
d. zoe
)1219 An elastic impression for a full crown would be inaccurate when

a. Free gingival obliterated a part of preparation
b. A small amount of saliva was on part of the preparation when the impression being made
c. Undercuts was present d A & B
)1220 For best impression of prepared tooth with elastic impression material, the prepared tooth should
be
a. Very dry
b. Free of surface moisture
c. A thin layer of saliva shouls be there
d. Cover with surface tension reducing agent
)1221 In recording man- max relation, the best material used without producing pressure is
a. Wax
b. Compound
c. Bite registration paste
( Zinc oxide & eugenol paste )
)1222 Best material for inter occlusal recording

a. additional silicon
b. Zno/E
c. Wax
d. Plaster paris
)1223 In registering the vertical dimension of occlusion for the edentulous patient The physiological
rest dimension
a. Equals the vertical dimension of occlusion

154
b. May be exceeded if the appearance of the patient is enhanced

c. Is of little importance as it is subject to variations
d. Must always be greater than vertical dimension of occlusion
)1224 To record the vertical dimension in order to

a. To determine the amount of space between the mandible and the maxilla which will be occupied by an
artificial teeth
b. To determine vertical and horizontal level of the teeth
c. a and b
d. None
)1225 Pt with lower complete denture, intraoral examination shows slightly elevated lesion with
confirmed border, Pt history of ill fitting denture It is treated by
a. Immediate surgical removal
b. Instruct Pt not to use denture for 3 weeks then follow up
c. Reassure Pt and no need for treatment
)1226 Patient comes to the clinic with ill-fitting denture, during examination you notice white small
elevation on the crest of the lower ridge, what will you tell the patient
a. This lesion needs no concern and he should not worry
b. The patient should not wear the denture for 2 weeks then follow up
)1227 Examination of residual ridge for edentulous Pt before construction of denture determines
stability, support and retention related to the ridge
a. True
b. False
)1228 The posterior seal in the upper complete denture serves the following functions
a. It reduces pt discomfort when contact occurs between the dorsum of the tongue and the posterior end of the
denture base
b. Retention of the maxillary denture
c. It compensates for dimensional changes which occur in the acrylic denture base during processing
d. b & c are correct
)1229 Function of post dam ( PPS )

a. Prevents tongue from palate touch increase comfort
b. increases retention
c. to compensate acrylic dimension d all
)1230 In recording jaw relation, best to use

a. Occlusal rim with record base

155
b. Occlusal rim with base wax

c. Occlusal rim with nacial frame
record base = base plate in recording jaw relation = recording maxillomandibular relation and arrangement of the )
(teeth
)1231 The most common difficulty associated with patients suffering from neuromascular disorders in
construction of complete denture is
a. recording jaw relation
b. difficult in impression making
c. difficult in arrangement of posterior teeth
d. difficult in border molding the impression
)1232 It is called ……… when the occlusal surfaces of the right and left posterior teeth are on the same
level
a. Vertical plane
b. Horizontal plane
c. Compensating curve
d. All
)1233 The vertical height of the maxillary occlusion rim from the reflection of the cast is
a 12mm
b 22mm cm 2
c. 32mm
d. 42mm
)1234 The anterior width of the maxillary occlusion rim is

a 5mm cm 5 0
b. 10mm
c. 15mm
d. 20mm
)1235 The posterior width of the maxillary occlusion rim

a 8- 10mm cm 1
b 8-15mm c 15mm d 15-20mm -10
)1236 The anterior height of the mandibular occlusion rim is

a 6mm
b 16mm 1 5 cm
c. 26mm
d. 36mm

156
)1237 The posterior height of mandibular occlusion rim is

a. Equal to the point representing 1/2 of the height of retro molar pad
b. Equal to the point representing 1/2 of the height of the frenum areas
c. Equal to the point representing 1/2 of the height of the alveolar ridge
d. None
)1238 The base plate could be made by

a. Acrylic plate
b. Ceramic plate
c. Wax plate d a and c
)1239 The goal of construction of occlusion rims is

a. To obtain the occlusal plane, vertical dimension, tentative centric relation, face low transfer & placement of
the teeth
b. To obtain the protrusive condylar guidance
c. To obtain the lateral condylar posts and incisal guide
d. None
A temporary form representing the base of a denture which is used for making maxillo-manibular )1240
( jaw ) relative record for arranging teeth or for trail insertion in the mouth is
a. Bite rims
b. Custom tray
c. Set up
d. Base plate
( record base )
)1241 To recheck centric relation in complete denture

a. Ask Pt to open and close
b. Ask Pt to place tip of tongue in posterior area and close
c. To wet his lip and tongue
d. All of the above
)1242 the heat temp for porcelain is 980 and for metal is 1500 Whats the temp to solder them together
a 750
b 980
c 1180
d 1500
)1243 space between soldered parts

a 0 02
b 02
c. 1

157
d. 2
)1244 In which of the following ways do surface characteristics of porcelain affect the perceived form of
?the final restoration
A surface smoother than normal will give the impression of a larger size 2- Horizontal highlights -1
suggest increased length
3- Vertical highlights give an illusion of width
4- Changes in contour and resulting highlights can be used to alter the apparent long axis tooth
a. and 3 1,2
b. and 4 1,3
c. and 4 only 1
d. and 4 only 3
e. All of the above
)1245 During post insertion examination of a 3 unit ceramometal fixed partial denture One of the
retainers showed chipping of porcelain at the ceramometal junction In order to avoid the problem the
dentist must
a. Reduce the metal to 0 3 mm
b. Have uniform porcelain thickness
c. Have occlusion on metal
d. Keep porcelain metal junction away from centric contacts
)1246 Most common cause of chipped porcelain in PFM

a. Thin layer of metal
b. Thin layer of porcelain
c. Centric occlusal contact at the junction of porcelain and metal
)1247 Cause of fracture porcelain bonding to metal

a. thick opaque
b. Occlusion on junction of porcelain and metal
)1248 ?What is a Pier abutment

a. Single tooth holding one pontic
b. A tooth that supports a removable partial denture
c. All of the above
)1249 A pier abutment is

a. Periodontally weak abutment
b. With edentulous space on both sides of the abutment
c. Edentulous space on one sides of the abutment
d. Abutment tooth away from the edentulous space
)1250 The least preferable abutment for FPD is

a. Rotated and tipped tooth

158
b. Endodontically treated tooth

c. A tooth with short tapered root and long clinical crown
d. A tooth with little remaining tooth structure
)1251 In order to maintain the health of the tissue beneath a pontic, it is desirable to
1- Scrape the ridge area on the cast and use gold for the ridge contact
2- Scrape the ridge area on the cast and use porcelain for the ridge contact
3- Have passive contact with ridge tissue when the restoration is placed in the mouth
4- Have slight blanching of the ridge tissue when the restoration in the mouth 5- Have minimal tissue coverage
a. and 4 1
b. and 5 1
c. and 3 2
d. and 4 e 3 and 5 2
f and 5 4
)1252 ?Which are the ways in which the proximal contacts can be checked
a. Use a pencil
b. Use a shim stock
c. Use a silicone checker
d. Use a dental floss e Only b & d
)1253 The incisal reduction for a metal ceramic restoration should be

a 1 5 mm b 2 mm
c. mm 3
d. mm 4
)1254 The occlusal reduction for an all metal veneer crown should
a Be as flat as possible to enable an easy fabrication of occlusion anatomy b Follow the occlusal morphology
with a clearance rating from 1 to 1 5 mm
with the opposing dentition
c. Follow the occlusal morphology with a clearance of no more than 0 5 mm with the opposing dentition
d. Be the last step in the tooth preparation
)1255 The occlusal reduction for an all metal veneer crown should
a Be as flat as possible to enable an easy fabrication of occlusion anatomy b Follow the occlusal morphology
with a clearance rating from 1 to 1 5 mm
with the opposing dentition
c. Follow the occlusal morphology with a clearance of no more than 0 5 mm with the opposing dentition
d. Be the last step in the tooth preparation

159
)1256 Gingival retraction is done

a. To temporarily expose the finish margin of a preparation
b. To accurately record the finish margin of a portion of uncut tooth surface apical to the margin in the final
impression
c. Even in the presence of a gingival inflammation
d. By various methods but the most common one is the use of retraction cord
e. a and b
f. a, b and c g a, b and d
)1257 Regarding gingival retraction, the following are true except one is false, the false is
a. Retraction by electro-surgery is contraindicated for patient with cardiac pacemaker
b. It can be done by chemical, mechanical, and electrosurgery
c. Retraction cord impregnated in epinephrine is the best for all cases
d. Retraction cord can't be used in severely inflamed gingival
)1258 Regarding tissue retraction around tooth

a. Short duration of retraction of gingival margin during preparation of finishing line
b. Retraction of gingival margin during taking final impression to take all details of unprepared finish line
c. Usually retracted severely inflamed gingival margin
d. Retraction of gingival margin can be done by many ways one of them is retraction cord
e. a, b and c
f. b, c and d g a and d
)1259 The retraction cord displaces the tissue

a. laterally
b. apically
c. apically and laterally
)1260 Chemomechanical tissue retraction

a. Displaces the gingival tissue laterally
b. Displaces the gingival tissue apically
c. Causes shrinkage of gingival tissue
d. Causes tearing of gingival tissue attachment
)1261 Tissue displacement for making an impression is improved by

1. Removing sufficient tooth substance subgingivally
2. Improving the health of the gingival tissue before the preparation

160
3. Using reversible hydrocolloid rather than polysulphide rubber silicon or polyether impression material
a 1+2
b 1+3
c 3+2
d All of the above
)1262 The most important criterion for a gingival margin on a crown prepration is that
a. it is dull knife edge
b. its position is subgingival
c. Its position is supragingival
d. its position be easily discernible
)1263 Reversible hydrocolloids exhibit the property of transformation from sol to gel and gel to sol as a
function of the
a. concentration of the fillers and plasticizers
b. percentage of composition by weight of water
c. concentration of potassium sulfate d Temperature
)1264 Reversible hydrocolloid properties

a. hydration
b. dehydration
)1265 Active ingredient of Hemodent

a. Ferric sulphate
b. Zinc phosphate
c. aluminum chloride
d. ferric chloride
)1266 Which is the most accurate impression material

a. Agar agar
b. Alginate
c. Compound d Silicone
)1267 The most accurate impression material for making the impression in an oral cavity
a. Impression compound
b. Condensation type silicone c Polyvinyl siloxane
d Polysulfide
)1268 The most accurate impression least distortion if poured after 24 hours

161
a Polyether
b Silicone Additional Silicone
c. Reversible hydrocolloids in humidor
d. Compound impression
)1269 The best material for taking full crown veneers impression is
a. Poly-sulphide
b. Poly-ether
c. Irreversible hydrocolloid\ Alginate the least accurate imp mat d Polyvinyl siloxane\ Additional silicone
)1270 An advantage of rubber- base impression material over reversible hydrocolloid material is that
rubber base impression material
a. will displace soft tissue
b. Requires less armamentarium c is significantly more accurate
d is more accurate if saliva, mucous or blood is present
)1271 The non-rigid connector may be used in FPD in those cases involving
a. Long span bridges replacing two or more teeth
b. Short span bridges replacing one missing tooth where the prepared abutment teeth are not in parallel
alignment
c. Long span bridges opposing a mucosa- borne partial denture where the anterior retainer of the bridge strikes
an opposing natural tooth, but the distal portion of the bridge is in occlusion with the removable partial denture
d. Long or short span bridges where one of the abutment teeth has limited periodontal support
)1272 Splinting of several teeth together as abutments for a FPD is done to

a. Distribute occlusal load
b. Facilitate plaque control
c. Improve retention of the prosthesis
d. Preserve remaining alveolar support
e. Assure optimum design of embrasure
)1273 Post fracture decreases with

a. prefabricated post
b. ready made post ccasted post
d metal post
)1274 Teeth with RCT and you want to use post, which post is the least cause to tooth fracture
a. Ready made post
b. Casted post c Fiber post
d Prefabricated post

162
)1275 During post removal the first thing to do is

a. Remove the G P
b. Remove all the old restoration, undermined enamel & caries
c. Insertion of post immediately
)1276 One of anatomical land marks ( in determining the posterior occlusal plane during denture
construction ) is
a. Ala tragus line
b. Ala orbital
c. Frank fort plane
)1277 Thickness of porcelain should be

a 0 3 - 0 5 mm
b 0 05 - 0 15 mm
c mm 5 1 - 5 0
(The necessary thickness of the metal substucture is 0 5 mm The minimal porcelain thickness is 1 0 - 1 5 mm)
)1278 Thickness of porcelain should be

a 0 3 - 0 5 mm
b 0 05 - 0 15 cm
c cm 5 1 - 5 0
( mm 5 1 – 5 0 =)
)1279 Occlusal plane is

a Above the level of the tongue b Below the level of the tongue
)the tongue rests on the occlusal surface(
)1280 Cheek biting in lower denture can occur if

a. Occlusal plane above tongue
b. Occlusal plane below tongue
c. Occlusal plane at lower lip d None of the above
)1281 You fit a newcompleted denture and the patient complains of cheek biting, what would you do
a. grind buccal of lower teeth
b. gring buccal of upper teeth
c. grind lingula of lower teeth
d. grind lingula of upper teeth
)1282 Polyvinyl siloxanes compared with polysulfide

a. Can be poured more than once
b. Can be poured after 7 days
c. Less dimensional stability d a and b

163
)1283 Polysulfide impression material

a Should be poured within 1 hour or immediately
b. Poured in the first 2 hours
c. Can be poured 6- 8 hours
d. Can be poured after 24 hours
e. Pouring in the first 12 hours
f. ……Need a special instrument for
g. Need using cooling water
)1284 Amount of reduction in PFM crown

a 1 5 -2
b 1 7 -2
c 5- 2
)1285 In distal extension pd during relining, occlusal rest was not seated
a. Remove impression and repeat it
b. Continue and seat it after relining
c. Use impression compound
)1286 The prepared surface of an abutment to receive the rest is called

a. Minor connecter
b. Major connecter c Rest seat
d None
)1287 Rest seat before guiding plane leades to

a. Indecent/ improper rest seat
b. Indecent/ improper guiding plane
c. Fracture of the clasp arm
)1288 We use I-bar instead of C clasp due to

a. better esthetics
b. more resistant to fracture
c. there is tissue undercut
d. easier for patient to put and remove
)1289 patient who has un- modified class II kennedy classification, with good periodontal condition and
no carious lesion, the best clasp to use on the other side
a. Reciprocal clasp\aker's clasp
b. Ring clasp used for tilted molars and single standing tooth
c. Embrasure clasp
d. gingivally approaching clasp

164
)1290 The part of a removable partial denture that contacts a tooth it affords primarily vertical support
is called
a. Minor connecter
b. Major connecter
c Rest
d None
) 1291 The rests are classified into

Anterior rests
a
b Posterior rests
c and 2 1
d None
) 1292 The part of a removable partial denture is

Rests
a
b Major connecters
c Retainers
d All
)1293 The surveyor instrument consists of

a. Vertical arm
b. Cast platform or table
c. Small analysis rod d All
)1294 Crowns are to be placed on abutment teeth for a PD, then

a. Wax pattern contours should be surveyed
b. Crowns should be placed prior to surveying for clasp design
c. Wax pattern should carved to the original morphology
d. All of the above
)1295 A rigid part of the partial denture casting that unites the rests and another part of the prosthesis to
the opposite side of the arch is called
a Minor connecter b Major connecter
c. Retainer
d. Rest
)1296 The principal function of an indirect retainer is to

a. stabilize against lateral movement
b. Prevent settling of the major connector
c. Minimize movement of the base away from supporting tissue
d. Restrict tissue ward movement of the distal extension base of the partial denture

165
)1297 For a removable partial denture, the lack of indirect retention would be manifested by
a. tissue ward movement of the distal extension base of the prosthesis
b. Movement away from the tissue of the extension base of the prosthesis
c. Settling of the major connector of the prosthesis
d. Lateral and medial movement of the extension base of the prosthesis
)1298 Indirect retainers mostly needed

a. Class VI
b. Class I Class I, II
c. Class III
d. Class III with modification
)1299 What's the RPD that is totally tooth supported

a. Class I
b. Class II c Class III
d Class IV
)1300 The part of a removable denture that forms a structure of

metal struts that engages and unites the metal casting with the resin forming the denture base is called
a. Minor connecter
b. Major connecter
c. Denture base connecter
d. Retainer
)1301 To fabricate a removable partial casting requires making a second cast of high-heat investment
material this cast is called
a. Study cast
b. Master cast
c. Refractory cast
d. All
)1302 Heating gypsum casting investments above 1300°F / 700° C in the presence of carbon results in
a. Fine grain size
b. Shrinkage porosity
c. Oxidation of castings
d. Sulfur gases being released
)1303 The most frequent cause of porosity in a porcelain restoration is

a. Moisture contamination
b. Excessive firing temperature
c. Excessive condensation of the porcelain d Inadequate condensation of the porcelain
)1304 Diagnostic cast wax up helps in

166
a. Predicts the result of treatment

b. Explains the treatment plan to patient c All of the above
)1305 Instrument which we use to make groove in the wax \for wax grooving for a die in FPD
a PKT no1 b PKT no3
c. Spoon excavator
d. Burnisher
)1306 After taking alginate impression

a Wash with water and spray with sodium hydrochloride for 10 sec b Same but wait 5-10 min and then put in
sealed plastic bag
)1307 Receiving the impression after removal from the mouth directly
a. It must be disinfected immediately
b. It must be poured immediately
c. It must be mounted immediately
d. It must be left for minutes
)1308 How can you alter the setting time for alginate
a. Alter ratio powder water Alter water temperature is better
b. Alter water ratio
c. We can’t alter it
d. By accelerated addition
)1309 Occlusal plane should be

a. Parallel to interpupillary line
b. Parallel to ala tragus line
c. At least tongue is just above occlusal plane d All of the above
)1310 years old male pt came with severe pain on chewing related to lower molars Intraoral 20
examination reveals no caries, good oral hygiene, no change in radiograph Pt gives history of bridge
cementation 3 days ago
Diagnosis
a. Pulp necrosis
b. Acute apical periodontitis
c. Chronic apical abscess
)1311 To enhance strength properties of ceramo metal restoration, it is important to

a. Avoid sharp or acute angles in the metal structure
b. Build up thick layer of porcelain

167
c. Porcelain should be of uniform thickness and any defect of the preparation should be compensated by the
metal substructure
d. Compensate any defect in the preparation equally by porcelain and metal substructure
e. a and b are correct f a and c are correct
g b and d are correct
)1312 Occlusal rest function

a To resist lateral chewing movement b To resist vertical forces
c. Stability
d. Retention
)1313 Artificial teeth best to be selected by

a. Pre extraction cord
b. Post extraction cord
)1314 In full gold crown, to prevent future gingival recession

a. Make the tooth form gold at gingival one third
b. Make the tooth form gold at gingival one fifth
c. Make the tooth form gold at gingival one half
)1315 Cement producing mechanicl bond with gold alloy
a. GIC
b. Zinc phosphate cement
c. Zinc polycarboxylate cement d All of the above
)1316 As the gold content of a dental solder, decreases the

a. Hardness decreases
b. Ductility increases
c. Corrosion resistance decreases
d. Ultimate tensile strength decreases
)1317 Property of material that doesn't distort with tensile stress

a. Ductility
b. Malliability
c. Solubility
)1318 The most ductile and malleable metal is

a Sliver b Gold
c. Copper
d. Platinum

168
)1319 The aim of conditioning agent on dentine before GI cement is to

remove smear layer
a. True
b. False
)1320 ?Action of smear layer in pulp protection

a. Don't allow toxins reach pulp
b. Less effect of etching on pulp
)1321 Fixed partial prosthesis is more successful in

a. Single tooth missing
b. Multiple missing teeth
)1322 The one who is supposed to give the correct design of the removable partial denture
a. Prosthodontist
b. Technician
c. Assistant
d. None
)1323 What type pontic design would you do in a patient with a high esthetic demand when preparing
teeth number 9 – 11 for a F P D
a. Ridge lap or saddle pontic
b. An ovate pontic
c. Modified ridge lap pontic
)1324 Design of anterior pontic

a. Modified ridge lab
b. saddle
c. Hygienic
)1325 modified ridge lap used in

a. Upper 1
b. Upper 7
c. Lower6
d. Lower4
)1326 Best pontic is

a Ridge lap b Hygiene
c Saddle
)1327 Check bite of retainer by

a. Paste
b. Impression
)1328 Selection of type of major connector in partial denture is determined

a. During examination

169
b. During diagnosis and planning

c. During bite registration
)1329 Cause of fracture of occlusal rest

a. Shallow preparation in marginal ridge
b. Extension of rest to central fossa
c. Improper centric relation
)1330 ? instrument to prepare occlusal rest

a. round
b. fissure
c. taper
)1331 ,Bridge returns to dentist from lab with different degree of color although the shade is the same
the cause
a. Thin metal framework
b. Different thickness of porcelain
c. Thick opaque
)1332 Correct incisal and gingival color of metal -ceramic restoration, the color may be modified by
1- Use of stains
2- Use of stained porcelain
3- Re-firing at high temperature
4- Changing the light reflection by grinding and re-polishing
a. only 1
b. and 2 only 1
c. and 3 1,2
d. only 2
e. and 3 only 2
f. only 4
)1333 Selection of shade for porcelain is done EXCEPT

a. Before preparation
b. We must rest the eye by looking to a yellow color
c. We must look to the tooth only 5 sec
)1334 ?When to decide Composite shade

a. Before rubber dam placement
b. After cavity
c. After bonding
)1335 Patient needs fixed bridge after you check in mouth of the patient see change color of bridge to
?cloudy to milky what causes
a. Excessive fired
b. Reduced fired
c. Excessive moisture

170
d. Increased poursity
(Overfired porcelain become milky or cloudy in appearance- Devitrification)
)1336 The ideal crown-to- root ratio of a tooth be utilized as abridge abutment is
a 31
b 21
c 21
d 11
)1337 Optimal crown root ratio and minimal acceptable ratio is

a. and 2 3 respictivly 1 1
b. irrelevant as long as there is no mobility
c. and 1 1 respectively d 2 3 and 1 1 respictively 2 3
e irrelevant as long as ants law satisefied
)1338 Complete denture poorly fit and inadequate interocclusal relation

a. Relining
b. Rebasing
c. New denture
)1339 ?Crown root ratio if crown 10mm and root 15mm

a 11
b 12
c 32
d 21
)1340 Diabetic Pt with ill fit denture, examination of residential ridge helps to
a. Determine the need for tissue conditioning and surgery
b. Determine occlusal height
c. Determine vertical dimension of occlusion
)1341 A tooth with 25 degrees inclination could be used as abutment

a. True
b. False
( degrees inclination of a tooth can be used as an abutment 25 - 15 )
)1342 In onlay, stopping of cusp is 1 5 - 2 mm

a. True
b. False

171
)1343 Which of the following statement about the mechanism of action for denture adhesive is not
correct
a. It depends in part on physical force and viscosity
b. Carboxyl group provides bio adhesion
c. Greater water solubility increases duration of adhesion
d. Zinc salts have been associated with stronger longer adhesion
)1344 For the ceramometal restorations, the type of finish line is

a. Chamfer
b. Beveled shoulder
)1345 The finishing line form on prepared tooth for metal ceramic crowns should be
a. sharp internal line angle f l
b. marginal step f l
c. feather edge f l
d. chamfer, shoulder, or shoulder beveld f l
)1346 Advantage of shoulder finishing line is

a. It provides enough thickness of porcelain
b. Make the margin of restoration obvious in impression
c. Assist the technician to locate the finish line on the die
)1347 Shoulder is the finish line of choice for

a full veneer b PFM
c crown ¾
(Indication of shoulder finish line all ceramic crowns & facial part of PFM)
)1348 To increase the retention of full crown for a short molar

a. Use zinc phosphate
b. Retintive vertical groove
c. Shoulder finish line
)1349 Benefits of opaque porcelain layer

a. Bonding the metal structure
b. Initiating the color c a &b
)1350 Which of the following types of base materials can be placed in contact with polymethyl
methaacrylate & not inhibit the polymerization of the resin
a. ZOE
b. GI cement
c. Zn phosphate cement

172
d. Varnish e b, c
)1351 We can use under the composite restoration

1. Varnish
2. Zinc oxide and eugenol
3. Ca (OH)2
4. Zinc phosphate cement a 1+2
b 2+3
c 4+3
d 2+4
)1352 Cause of angular cheilitis

a. Loss vertical dimension Pt have complete denture
b. Autoimmune factors
)1353 Porcelain shrinkage after firing

% a 1- 5
% b 5-10
c % 20-10
)1354 Both glass ionomer & polycarpoxylate cement contain

a. Polyacrylic acid
b. ZOE powder
)1355 Thickness of luting cement

a 100 micrometer b 40 micrometer
c. 1mm
)1356 Zinc phosphate cement thickness to be between

a 13 - 35 um
b 25 - 40 um
c um 100 - 60
d. Thickness acceptable is not specified
)1357 Rigid palatal strap major connector The material of construction is

a. cr-co or co-cr chrome-cobalt or cobalt-chromium
b. Gold alloy
c. wrought wire
)1358 we want to do a maxillary PD to a patient using anterior-posterior strap, we want it to be rigid,we

use
a. gold
b. cast gold c co-cr
)1359 Best material for major connector

a. Gold wrought wire

173
b. Chrome cobalt\ CR-CO\ Cobalt chromium\ CO-CR

c. gold palladium
d. titanium
)1360 Cobalt-chromium alloys, the constituent responsible for corrosion resistance is

a. Silver
b. Nickel
c. Cobalt
d. Chromium
e. Tungsten
)1361 Zinc phosphate cement and polycarboxylic cement both have

a. Zinc oxide particles
b. Silica quartz particles
c. Polyarcyilic acid
d. Phosphoric acid
)1362 All expect one are present in Zinc phosphate cement liquid
a Water b H2SO4
c. H3PO4
d. AIPO4
)1363 A thin application of cavity varnish over the cut surface of a prepared tooth just prior to the
cementation of a crown or a bridge with zinc phosphate cement will
a. Impede the seating of the restoration
b. Insulate the tooth against thermal change
c. Increase the possibility of thermal sensitivity d Reduce the possibility of irritation of the pulp
)1364 The strength of Zinc phosphate cement is increased by increase powder/liquid ratio
a. true
b. false
)1365 Working time of zinc phosphate cement is shortened\decreased by

a concentrating the acid b Warming of glass slab
c. Incremental mixing of powder
d. all of the above
)1366 Which material has best biocompatibility Intraorally

a Cobalt chromium b Titanium
c. Nickle chromium
d. Gold Palladium

174
)1367 Nickel-chromium allergic from dentures appears more in

a Male b Female
c Equal
)1368 Advantage of Wrought Wire in RPD over Cast Wire

a Less irritation to the abutment
)1369 Porcelain teeth in complete denture opposing natural teeth are not preferred due to
a Increase occlusal load on natural teeth b Wear of natural teeth
c Clicking during mastication
)1370 Patient had porcelain on his upper tooth, what should you put on the opposing lower tooth
a. Porcelain
b. Porcelain with gold occlusal surface
c. Acrylic with gold
d. Hard acrylic
)1371 Most abrasive contact

a. tooth to tooth
b. Porcelin to tooth
c. gold to tooth
)1372 In restoring lost tooth, which is least important

a. Esthetic
b. Pt demand
c. Function
d. Arch integrity and occlusal stability
)1373 Minimum thickness of noble metal crown

a 0 1 mm b 0 5 mm
c. mm 1
d. mm 2
)1374 Soft palate falls abruptly facilitate recording post dam, falls gradually make recording post dam
difficult
a two statements true b two false
c. first true, second false
d. first false, second true
)1375 years old patient needs to make complete denture with thick labial frenum with wide base 60
The operation
a. vestibuloplasty
b. Z-plasty
c. Subperiostum incision
d. Deep mucoperiosteum incision

175
Z-plasty is effective for narrow frenum attachments Vestibuloplasty is often indicated for frenum attachments with)
(wide base
)1376 Patient is diagnosed for ceramometal full veneer You plan to use epoxy resin, what's the best
impression material to be used
a. Polyether polyvinyl siloxane is the best then polyether
b. Polysulfide
c. Agar agar
d. Irreversible hydrocolloid Alginate
)1377 The impression material of choice when we want to take impression for epoxy resin pin is
a Polysulfide
b Polyether polyvinyl siloxane is the best then polyether
c. Agar agar
d. Irreversible hydrocolloid Alginate
polysulfide and hydrocolloid are not compatible with epoxy resin , however, good result are achieved with silicone)
(and polyether
)1378 The best material for taking impression for full veneer crowns
a polyvinyl sialoxane\additional silicone
)1379 The impression used for preliminary impressions or study casts is

a. Agar agar
b. Silicon
c. Alginate Irreversible hydrocolloid
d. None
)1380 Which of impression materials has syneresis

a. Alginate
b. Agar agar also
c. Rubber Base
d. Polyether
e. Impression Compound
)1381 Which one of the following impression materials is elastic, sets by a physical reaction, and is
?subject to syneresis and imbibition
a Irreversible Hydrocolloid b Reversible Hydrocolloid
c. Polysulfide Rubber
d. Condensation Silicone
e. Polyether
)1382 Which material undergoes to hysteresis

a Irreversible hydrocolloid b Reversible hydrocolloid
c. Impresssion plaster
d. Metallic oxide paste
)1383 What is the least accurate imperession material

a. Alginate Irreversible hydrocolloid

176
b. Plysufide
c. Polyether
d. Agar agar
e. Compound
f. Silicone
)1384 Alginate contains calcium sulfate in concentration of

% a 40
% b 50
c ( % 16 – 8 ) % 12
d None
)1385 Constituant of alginate which is insoluble is

a. calcium alginate
b. sodium alginate
c. sodium sulfate
)1386 In an alginate impression material, tri sodium phosphate is the

a. filler
b. Reactor c Retarder
d accelerator
)1387 Denture pressure on the papilla can cause

a. parathesia
b. pain
c. burning sensation
d. relief should be provided e all of the above
)1388 Pt with complete denture come to your clinic, complaint from his dry mouth, the proper
medicine is
a. Antidiabetic medicine
b. Anticholenergic
c. Steroid
d. cholinergic
)1389 Drug used to decrease saliva during impression taking is

a. Cholinergic
b. Anticholinergic Atropine
c. Antidiabetic
d. Anticorticosteroid
)1390 Minimal facial reduction when preparing for veneers

a mm 3 0
b 0 3 - 0 5 mm
c mm 5 1 - 1
)1391 Stock trays compared to custom trays for a removable partial denture impression
a. Custom trays less effective than stock trays

177
b. Custom trays can record an alginate impression as well as elastomeric impression

c. Custom trays provide even thickness of impression material
d. All of the above
)1392 ? What is the step before talking impression

a. Special tray
b. making Jaw relation
c. Surveying
)1393 The peripheries of the custom tray should be under extended to all border and clearance from
the frenum areas
a. 2mm
b. 4mm
c. 6mm
d. 8mm
)1394 The goal of making the peripheries of the custom tray under extended to all bordered clearance
from the frenum areas
a. To give enough space for the used impression materials to allow border molding the tray
b. To give enough space for the die spacer
c. To give enough space for the cementation materials
d. None
)1395 Provisional restoration for metal ceramic abutment is

a. aluminum sheet
b. stainless steel crown
c. zno
d. Tooth colored polycarbonate crown
)1396 Best provisional coverage for anterior teeth is

a. Tooth colored polycarbonate crown
b. Stainless steel crown
c. Zinc oxide engenal
)1397 The primary source of retention of porcelain veneer

a. mechanical retention from undercut
b. mechanical retention from secondary retentive features
c. chemical bond by saline coupling agent
d. micromechanical bond from itching of enamel and porcelain
)1398 ?Which of the following contribute to the bonding of dental porcelain to metal casting alloys
1- Metallic bonds
2- Chemical bonding
3- Adhesive bonds
4- Mechanical bonding
a. and 2 only 1
b. and 4 1,2
c. and 4 1,3

178
d. and 4 only 2
e. and 4 only 3
f. All of the above
)1399 In fixed Partial denture u use GIC for cemntation what best to do
a remove smear layer by acid to increase adhesion b do not varnish because it affects adhesion
c. mixed slowly on small area untill becomes creamy
d. remove excess when it in dough stage
)1400 In processing an acrylic denture in a water bath, a proper heating cycle is desired because of the
possibility of
a. warpage
b. Shrinkage of the denture
c. Porosity due to boiling of the monomer
d. crazing of the denture base around necks of the teeth
)1401 Porosity on the acrylic denture on delivery

a Reline b Rebase
c. Make a new one
d. Don’t do anything
)1402 Why we use acrylic more than complete metal palate in complete denture
a Can’t do relining for the metal
)1403 Relining of denture

a. remove all or part of fitting surface of the denture and add acrylic
b. add acrylic to the base of the denture to increase vertical dimension
)1404 Rebasing of Complete Denture means

a. Addition or change in the fitting surface
b. Increasing the vertical dimension c Change all the fitting surface
)1405 After u did upper& lower complete denture for old pt He came back to the clinic next day
complaining of uncomfort with the denture After u recheck, no pain, good occlusion, good
pronunciations, but u notice beginning of inflammation in the gum and outer margins of the lips, u will
think this is due to
a. Xerostomia
b. Vit-B deficiency
c. Scleroedema
Patient comes to your clinic with complete denture for routine visit no complaining during speech )1406
or swallowing or opening the mouth just glossitis, angular cheilitis and discomfort increasing while day
a. Vitamin B deficiency\ Vitamin B2 deficiency\Riboflavin deficiency
b. Xerostomia
c. Scleroedema

179
)1407 We should select the shade for a composite resin ( or porcelain ) utilizing a
a. Bright light
b. Dry shade guide
c. Dry tooth isolated by the rubber dam d None of the above are correct
)1408 Which the following applies when selecting a shade for metal -ceramic restoration
a. it is a better select a shade with too low a value than too high a value if staining to be improve the match
b. it is a better to select a shade with too high a value than too low a value if staining is not to be used to
improve match
c. The basic shade selected should be that of the middle third of tooth to be matched
)1409 Sequence of colour shade

a Chroma, hue, value
b Hue, chroma, value vita classic
c ,Value, chroma vita 3D
hue
)1410 Cervical third of tooth

a higher value b higher chroma
c. lower chroma
d. lower value
)1411 In esthetic dentistry, color of the tooth is

a. Hue
b. Chroma
c. Value
d. Translusency
e. Prismatic effects
)1412 To select shade of porcelain

i. one light
ii. Before preparation
iii. Wet tooth
iv. ?Shade guide must be wet Which true
b. i,ii
c. i,iii,iv d ii,iii,iv
e i,ii,iii,iv

180
Often a short informative talk using some of the tooth manufacturer's or your own before and after photos can be)
very effective in motivating patients to accept a more natural tooth selections Shade Selection guidelines
• For youthful patients, use lighter shades with a bluish incisal
• For older patients, use a darker shade with mostly body color
• If the patient has dark hair, brown eyes, and dark skin, darker shades with more yellow and brown will look more
natural
• Black patients as they often have very white teeth
• If the patient has blue eyes and fair skin, use lighter shades with more gray
• Consider the patient's desires Many patients have very definite ideas on tooth color and will often not accept the
above guidelines Don't let the patient get a hold of the shade guide; many will select the pearly white A1 !! Select a
shade that you think is suitable and let them make the final choice
• Consider the patient's old denture Do they like the color of the teeth? If they think the color of the old dentures
teeth were satisfactory, match them closely Keep in mind that teeth discolor and other manufacture's shades
( may be somewhat different
)1413 Surgical interference with edentulous ridge for
a good retention, stability and continuous uniform alveolar ridge
)1414 Surgery for ridges aims to

a. Vertical dimension
b. Speech
c. Modify ridge for stability
)1415 The aim from prosthetic surgery

a. Increase stability, retention & ridge dimension
b. Increase vertical dimension
c. Esthetic anterior
)1416 Cast with (+ve) bubbles because of

a. Mixing stone
b. Voids in impression when taken by the dentist
c. Pouring
d. Using warm water when mixing stone
)1417 Most important criteria for full ceramic FPD

a. High compressive strength
b. High tensile strength
Because ceramics are stronger in compression than in tension, this property provides increased resistance to)
(shattering
)1418 In mean of compressive strength and tensile strength which is strongest

a. resin cement
b. zinc phosphate

181
c GI
) 1419 The type of cement wich give retention to crown

Zn phosphate
a
b Zn polycarpoxylate
c. Resin Resin cement gives the best retention to crown
d. Resin modified glass ionomer
)1420 The forces action through a FPD on to the abutment tooth should
be directed
As far as possible at right angles to the long axes of the teeth 2- Parallel to the long axes of the teeth -1
By decreasing the facio-lingual dimension of the pontic 4- By decreasing the mesio-lingual dimension of the pontic -3
5- In a mesial direction so that teeth nearer the midline will offer additional support
a 1+3+4
b 1+2+5
c 5+4+1
d 2+3
e 2+4
f 5 +2
)1421 In FPD in upper posterior teeth we should have gingival embrasure space to have healthy gingival
so the contact
a. In the middle
b. Depend in the opposing occlusion
c. Occlusally As far as you can
)1422 During try in and rocking FPD, what will do

a. Gap will fill with cement
b. Adjust tooth preparation
c. Adjust metal and disconnect and soldering
)1423 Reciprocal arm in RPD helps to resist the force applied by which parts
a. retentive arm
b. guide plane
)1424 ?non retentive arm where to put it

a. Near fulcrum
b. Away from fulcrum
c. Away from edentulous
d. Near teeth
)1425 The primary guiding surface that determines the insertion for the partial denture is
a The tooth surface opposite to the edentulous areas b The tooth surface adjacent to the edentulous areas

182
c None
)1426 Material which used for flasking complete denture

a. plaster
b. Stone
c. Refractory
)1427 Within practical limits, when the water/powder ratio is increased beyond the recommended
amount in mixing plaster ( or gypsum )
a. Setting time is increased
b. Setting expansion is decreased
c. Compressive strength is decreased d All of the above
)1428 The used device in flasking procedure is called

a. Articulator
b. Separating medium c Flask
d None
)1429 We vaseline the inner surface of the flasks all rounds

a. To help in the packing procedure
b. To separate the models ( casts ) safety
c. and 2 1
d. None
)1430 The procedure that follows the flasking procedure is called

a. Polishing
b. Deflasking c Packing
d Curing the acrylic
)1431 The best method for core build up is\ Best core material receiving a crown on molar
a composite b Amalgam
c. Compomer\ Reinforced glass ionomer
d. Glass ionomer
)1432 & Pt construct for him a complete denture after few days he came to u complaining from pain
white spots on the residual ridge do relief in that area & give him ointment & after few days he came again
complaining the same but in another area the main cause is
a. Uneven pressure on the crest of alveolar ridge
b. Increase vertical dimension
)1433 Patient has a palatal torus between hard & soft palates, the major connector of choice
a anteroposterior palatal strap b u shaped
c posterior palatal strap

183
)1434 \Pt came to u needing upper partial denture class II kinnedy classification, he has palatal defect
torus palatinus preferable partial denture with
a. horseshoe large torus palatines or posteriorly positioned
contraindicated in tooth-tissue supported RPD
b. Palatal bar
c. Anterio posterior palatal bar or
d. Anterio posterior palatal strap
)1435 For recording of vertical dimention we use

a. Willis Gauge or Two dots technique
b. caliper
c. Face bow
)1436 years old patient came to your dental office, suffering from a bad odour and taste from his 32
mouth By examination patient has an anterior mandibular 3 units bridge that bubbles upon applying water
spray and slight pressure Cause
a. Broken abutment
b. Food impaction underneath the pontic
c. Separation between the abutment and the retainer\ Dissolving of cement\ microleakage
)1437 Pt have denture, after 5 years he complains of ulcer and inflammation in lower buccal vestibule
What is the diagnosis
a. Hypertrophic frenum
b. Epulis fissurment
)1438 Patient presented to you after fitting the immediate denture 5 – 10 months, complaining pain and
over tissue in the mandibular, what is the diagnosis
a. Epulis fissurment
b. Hypertrophic frenum
)1439 Immediate denture serves many of the following except one

a maintanance of the patient appearance b improving the appearance of the patient
c. restoring adequate function of proprioception
d. less ridge resorption occurs
)1440 Biological width

a 1 mm b 2mm
c. 3mm
d. 4mm
)1441 Biological depth

a Crestal bone to gingival sulcus
)1442 The kind of onlay wax used in cast

a. Paraffin

184
b. bee
)1443 ?Wax inlay which type contain in much gradient

a. Paraffin wax
b. Bee wax
)1444 What’s the reason of the wax shrinkage upon fabrication of the bridge/crown
a Solidification shrinkage
)1445 The cause of black cast which prevents pickling due to

a. over heat
b. contaminate with gas
c. incomplete casting
)1446 What is the main function of impression tray holes

a Fixing the Impression material lock it in the tray
)1447 Under perparation of occlosal surface in PMF leads to

a fracture of the functional cusp b occlusal interference
)1448 Preparation of tooth for metal ceramic restoration should be done in

a. Two planes
b. parallel to long axis
)1449 Labial reduction for porcelain metal restoration must be

a. One plane for aesthetic
b. Two planes by follow the morphology
)1450 One plane labial reduction leads to

a. Overcounterd crown
b. Improved retention
c. Occlusal disharmony
)1451 preparation for labial surface in one plane in the preparation for metal crown is
a More retentive b Less retentive
c Less cutting of tissues
)1452 A border line diabetic pt came with denture stomatitis you find abundant debris in the tissue
surface area of the denture, the proper management is
a Systemic antibiotic b Topical antifungal
c. Systemic antifungal
d. Topical antibiotic
)1453 The protrusive condylar guidance should be set on the articulator at

a 30 – 35 degree degree 40 – 30
b. degree 50

185
c. degree 60
d. degree 70
)1454 In articulator, incisal guidance represents

a. Horizontal guidance
b. Condylar guidance
c. Equivalent of horizontal and vertical overlap
)1455 The primary goal of anterior tooth selection is

a To provide good functional requirements b To satisfy aesthetic requirements
c. To let the patient feel comfortable
d. None
)1456 The primary role of the anterior teeth on a denture is

a Esthetics
)1457 The primary goal of posterior tooth selection is

a. To provide good functional requirements
b. To satisfy aesthetic requirements
c. To satisfy psychological requirements
d. None
)1458 You need…… to get the teeth shade

a. Shade guide
b. Incisal guide
c. Acrylic teeth
d. Porcelain teeth
)1459 The teeth materials are

a. Acrylic teeth
b. Porcelain teeth c a and b
d None
)1460 Generally posterior teeth are classified into

a. Anatomy (cusp) teeth there is also semi-anatomic
b. Non-anatomy (cuspless) teeth or flat monoplane c a and b
d None
)1461 The process of positioning or arranging teeth on the denture base is termed
a. Casting
b. Investing c Setting up
d Flasking
)1462 Teeth selection in setting up is based on these factors

a. Shade of the teeth
b. Size and shape of the teeth
c. Angle of the teeth d 1 and 2

186
e All the above
)1463 The incisal edge of the maxillary lateral incisor is …… above and parallel to the occlusal plane
a 1/2 mm b 1 mm
c. mm 2
d. mm 3
)1464 The ……… of the maxillary first bicuspid is raised approximately 1/2 mm of the occlusal plane
a Buccal cusp b Lingual cusp
c. Mesial surface
d. All
)1465 All maxillary posterior teeth touch the occlusal plane EXCEPT
a. First bicuspid
b. Second bicuspid
c. First molar
d. Second molar
)1466 Important functions must be considered when arranging anterior teeth

a. Aesthetics
b. Incision
c. Phonetics d All
)1467 The distance between the lingual surfaces of the maxillary anterior teeth and the labial surfaces of
the mandibular anterior teeth is
a Vertical overlap ( overbite ) b Horizontal overlap ( overjet )
c. Occlusal plane
d. All
)1468 The distance between the incisal edges of the maxillary and mandibular anterior teeth is
a Horizontal overlap ( overjet ) b Vertical overlap ( overbite )
c. Occlusal plane
d. All
)1469 The tip of cusp of the mandibular cuspid is 1mm above the occlusal plane to establish ……… of
the maxillary anteriors
a. Horizontal overlap
b. Occlusal plane c Vertical overlap
d All

187
)1470 The average distance between the lingual surface of the maxillary anterior teeth and the buccal
surface of the mandibular anterior teeth is\ Horizontal overlap overjet
a. 2mm /1
b. 1mm c 2mm
d. 3mm
(Horizontal overlap overjet and Vertical overlap overbite is 1 - 3 mm)
)1471 Placement of maxillary anterior teeth in complete dentures too far superiorly and anteriorly might
result in difficulty in pronouncing
a. f and v sounds
b. d and t sounds
c. s and th sounds
d. most vowels
)1472 In order to distribute the primary forces of mastication, to fall within the base of the denture, the
mandibular teeth are set
a. On the buccal edge of the ridge
b. On the lingual edge of the ridge c On the crest of the ridge
d All
)1473 Which surface of the central incisor that contacts the median line
a Distal b Mesial
c. Buccal
d. Lingual
)1474 The mesial surface of the mandibular lateral incisor contacts

a The mesial surface of the central incisor b The distal surface of the central incisor
c. The mesial surface of the cuspid
d. The distal surface of the cuspid
)1475 The relation involves the movement of the mandible to the side either right or left in which the act
of mastication is to be accomplished Therefore the side to which the mandible moves is called
a Balancing side b Working side
c. Compensating side
d. All
)1476 When the mandible moves to the working side, the opposite side cusp to cusp contacts in order to
balance stresses of mastication This relation is called
a. Working relation
b. Balancing relation\ Balancing side
c. Occlusal relation
d. None

188
)1477 Balanced occlusion in complete denture helps in

a retention b stability
)1478 Balanced occlusion refers to

a. The type of occlusion which allows simultaneous contact of the teeth in centric occlusion only
b. The type of occlusion which allows simultaneous contact of the teeth in centric and eccentric jaw positions
c. A type of occlusion which is similar to the occlusion of the natural teeth
)1479 The mandibular posterior tooth that has no contact with any maxillary teeth during the balancing
occlusion is
a. First bicuspid
b. Second bicuspid
c. First molar
d. Second molar
)1480 is the art and science of functional, anatomic and cosmetic reconstruction of missing or …………
defective parts in the maxilla, mandible or face by the use of non living substances
a. Complete denture
b. Maxillofacial prostheses
c. Orthodontics
d. Partial denture
)1481 Is the one that provides application and device to restore aesthetic and functional ……
requirements to patients with maxillofacial defects
a. Endodontist
b. Pedodontist
c. Maxillofacial prosthodontist
d. Peridontist
)1482 The objectives of maxillofacial prosthetics

a. Aesthetic
b. Functions
c. Protect the tissues d All
)1483 Extra-oral restorations are

a. Radium shield
b. Ear plugs for hearing
c. Missing eye, missing nose or ear
d. All
)1484 Lost part of maxilla or mandible with the facial structures is classified by
a. Intra-oral restorations
b. Extra-oral restorations
c. Combined intra-oral and extra-oral restorations
d. All

189
)1485 First step in ttt of abused tissue in patient with existing denture is to
a Educate the patient
)1486 Concentrating of acid used in etching porcelain veneer

a. hydrofluoric acid % 6 9
b. phosphoric acid % 35
c. phosphoric acid % 37
d. hydrflouric acid % 37
)1487 Early loss of anterior tooth

a. Affects phonetics
b. Affects esthetics
c. Causes space loss
d. A and b
e. All the above
)1488 Maryland bridge

a. Use with young
b. To replace single missing tooth
)1489 Maryland bridges depend upon

a. Chemical retention
b. Indirect retention
c. Micromechanical retention Cemented by acid etch & resin
d. None of the obove
)1490 Identify the macromechanical minimal preparation bridge

a. Resin bounded bridge
b. Adhesive bridge
c. Maryland bridge
d. Conventional bridge e Rochette bridge
)1491 High mylohyoid crest in patient for complete denture, the surgeon must avoid vital structure
which is/ during preproesthetic surgery of mylohyoid ridge reduction
a. Lingual nerve
b. Mylohyoid nerve
c. Long buccal
d. IAN
)1492 Inlay wax invests fast because flow and quick deformaty this due to
a relaxation of internal stress
)1493 Inlay waxs must invested fast because of flow and quickly deformity of dimension this property
due to
a. Slow flow

190
b. Internal stress
)1494 Which of the following characteristics of inlay wax is its major disadvantage
a. Flow
b. Rigidity
c. Hardness
d. High thermal expansion
)1495 Most acceptable theory of bonding porcelain and noble metal

a. formation of base metal oxide
b. formation of noble metal oxide
c. Adhesion
)1496 When porcelain is basked against metal, it should possess a

a. high fusion expansion
b. high fusion temperature
c. Linear coefficient of thermal expansion less than but close to, that of the metal
d. linear coefficient of thermal expansion greater than but close to that of metal
)1497 Fiber composite FPD used for

a. posterior teeth
b. Patient have allergic for metal
)1498 In patients showing generalized attrition, normal treatment prior to crown preparation is
a. Desensitization of crown of tooth
b. Periodontal surgery
c. Sealing
d. Conventional root canal treatment
e. Crown built up with composite
)1499 Temporary crown / bridge is made to last for short period of time to
a. Protect prepared dentin
b. To maintain appearance
c. To prevent tilting / overeruption of prepared tooth
d. Maintain occlusion
e. Improve masticatry process
)1500 Patient came for restorative work with Blood Pressure 200/160 treatment
a. Anti stress
b. Anesthesia without epinephrine

191
c. Nothing, it's just chair stress

d. Reschedule and send him for physician consult
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
)1501 Unilateral swelling and slowly progressing lesion on the left side of the mandible This could be
a. Osteoma
b. Cementoblastoma c Ossifying Fibroma
d Osteo-sarcoma
)1502 Young pt came without any complain During routine X- ray appears between the two lower
molars lesion diameter about 2mm & extend
laterally with irregular shape What’s the type of cyst
a. Dentigerous cyst
b. Apical cyst
c. Radicular cyst
)1503 ? What is uses of microscope

a. To see metaobolic
b. To see live cells
c. To see dead cells
)1504 For a patient that is on a corticosteroid therapy, upon oral surgery, the patient is given
a. mg hydrocortisone 200 - 100
b. mg prednisone 600 - 400
extraction of third molar what will you give to avoid adrenal crisis
a. Dixamethasone(4 mg/I V) better as it has a long duration of action
b. Methyl prednisolone ( 40 mg / I V)
c. Hydrocortisone sodium sulfide ( 40 – 50 mg )
d. Hydrocortisone sodium succinate ( 100 – 200 mg )
)1506 The maximum dose of x-ray exposure dose for radiographic technique
a. milli roentgens per week 100
b. roentgens per week 10
c. roentgens per week 100
d. roentgens per week 300
(Person who works near radiation can be exposed in one year to a maximum dose of 5 Rem)
)1507 The x-ray shows scattered radiopaque line in the mandible jaw, the diagnosis will be
a. Paget disease
b. Garres syndrome
c. Fibrous dysplasia
d. Osteosarcoma

192
)1508 HBV disinfection

1.
2.
3.
4.
b 1+2
c 3+2+1
d 3+4
e 2+3
(Iodophors and hypocloride, formaldahide and 80 % ethyl alcohol)
)1509 ,Pt of HBV came to ur clinic and during dental procedures have a sever Injury and bleeds alot
what is ur management
1. Squeeze the wound but don’t scrub
2. Wash the wound with water and put waterproofe plaster
3. Asset the virulent of the pt and refer him for infectous disease consltant
4. Ask him to apply pressure on the wound to stop bleeding a 1+2+3
b 1+4
c 4+2+1
d 3+4
)1510 Intraosseous cyst in radiograph appears

a. multiradiolucent may or not expand to cortical bone
b. radiopaque may or not expand to cortical bone
c. multiradiolucent may with resorption of cortical bone
d. radiopaque may with resoption of cortical bone
)1511 Ranula can be treated by

a. Excision
b. Cauterization
c. Incision
d. Marsupialization
The usual treatment is marsupialization which can be performed before a definitive excision for recurrent or)
(persistent ranula is excision of the ranula and sublingual gland
)1512 What is the test name for detecting the virulent of bacteria
a Hemolysis b Catalase
)1513 One of the main features of acute herpetic gingivostomatitis is the ulcers are confined to the
attached gingival and hard palate
a. True
b. False
(Acute herpetic gingivostomatitis= primary)
)1514 Tachyphylaxis occurs BY

a. Up regulation of the receptors
b. Decreased drug metabolism
c. Increase drug absorption

193
d. Increased drug excretion
)1515 Early squamous cell carcinoma of oral cavity presents as

a. Vesicle
b. Sessile mass c An ulcer
d. Red plaque
e. A white cauliflower like lesion
)1516 ? what is the early sign of SCC in oral cavity

a. ulcer
b. red patch
c. white patch
)1517 hypertension and diabetic pt have ulcer 1*2 cm in lateral border of tongue what the type of
incision
a External b Internal
c Punch
)1518 Three years old pt came to clinic with his parents he has asymptomatic swelling bluish in
color fluctant in midline of palatal raphe, diagnosis is
a. Bohn's nodules away from the palatal raphe on buccal and lingual surfaces of alveolar bone
b. Herps semplex virus
c. Lymphepithelial cyst
d. Gingival cyst like Bohn's but for adults
e Epstein's pearls in the midpalatal raphe
)1519 Pt on long term antibiotic came with systemic candida

a. amphotrecin treat life-threatening fungal infections
b. Fluconazole\Diflucan treating vaginal, oral, and esophageal fungal
infections caused by Candida
c. nystatin prevents fungus from growing on your skin
)1520 systemic candida in pt with aids what is the best medicine

a. amphotrecin B
b. fluconazole
)1521 ?Which is the most likely cause of periodontal cyst

a. Cell rest of Malassez
b. Cell rest of serss
c. Cell of Hertwig sheath
)1522 years old pt has submandiular space infection swelling in 36 area and 38 is missing on 21
radiograph he has radioloucency extend in 36 37 38 area with septal tubercula and root resorption
a. Keratocyst
b. Ameloplastoma
c. Dentegerous cyst

194
)1523 Head and neck nevi with multi lesion is

a. Eagle syndrome
b. Albright syndrome
)1524 Child with cleft palate and cleft lip with anodontia due to
a. Van der woude syndrome
b. Treacher Collins syndrome
c. Paget disease
)1525 Nicotine stomatitis

a. Hyperplasia
b. Prickle cell like shape prominent
)1526 Nicotinic stomatis

a. acanthosis with keratin
b. brickle cell like shape bases
)1527 Pt came with blisters even on mucous membrane, u asked for immune test
a. pemphigus
b. bullous pemphigoid
c. lichen planus
)1528 year old patient has ulcer on his attached gingival , he is under pressure & emotional stress Diagnosis 18
a. Aphthous ulcer
b. Recurrent herpes ulcer
c. Allergic stomatitis
)1529 Dentist have a pt had tuberculosis his hand want to clean it by

a. % Chlorhexidine 0 1 – 0 2
b. Antimicrobial rap
c. Non antimicrobial soap
d. Alcohol
)1530 Pt infected by anthrax, after examination, doctor should disinfect with

a. cholorihexiden % 12
b. Antibacterial hand scrub c Non antimicrobial soap
)1531 Massive blood transfusion will result in

a Hyperkalemia b Hypocalcemia
c. Hypernatremia
d. Hyponatremia
)1532 ? Pt With luckemia, all first primay molars deeply carious not reaching furcation , ttt
a. extraction

195
b. pulpotomy
c. Rct
)1533 Which of the following are effects common to pentobarbital, diazepam and meperidine
a. amnesia and skeletal muscle relaxation
b. anticonvulsant and hypnotic c analgesia and relief of anxiety
)1534 The most common type of biopsy used in oral cavity is

a Excisional biopsy b Incisional biopsy
c. Aspiration through needle
d. Punch biopsy
(Also called traditional or conventional biopsy)
)1535 HIV patient

a. have oral manifestation %70
b. of Pt with hairy leukoplakia will have active HIV in 5 yrs %50
c. Commonly have HIV thrush
d. Commonly have koplik spot activity e All of the above
)1536 & Patient complains from swelling in submandibular, swelling increase when patient eating
swallowing only , what type of x ray use to diagnosis
a. Occlusal x-ray
b. Panoramic x-ray
c. Sialography
)1537 Aphthous ulcer, compared with herbes ulcer is

a. More characteristic in histology
b. Small size
c. Leaves scar
d. Less response to stress e Occurs in lining mucosa
)1538 Radiographic diagnosis of bone destructive in the mandible without evidence of bone formation is
a Osteomyelitis b Malignancy
c. Fibro-osseous lesion
d. Fracture
)1539 Treatment of systemic fungal infection best drug

a. Penicillin
b. Tetracycline
c. Amphotericin B
d. Nystatin

196
)1540 Pt with a history of subacute bacterial endocarditis is a medical problem in a surgery because of
the possibility of
i. Bacteremia
ii. Septicemia
iii. Hypertension
iv. Mitral stenosis
v. Auricular fibrillation
b i,ii and iii c i, ii and iv
d. i,iv and v
e. ii,iii and v
f. iii,iv and v
)1541 Histopathologically, early verrucous carcinomas

a. Have characteristic microscopic features
b. Can be confused with acute hypertrophic candidiasis
c. Can be confused with lichen planus
d. Can be confused with chronic hypertrophic candidiasis
)1542 Patient with lupus erythematous and under cortisone, he needs to surgical extraction of a tooth
What should the surgeon instructs the patient
a Take half of the cortisone dose at the day of operation b Double the cortisone dose at the day of operation
c. Take half of the cortisone dose day before and at the day of operation and day after
d. Double the cortisone dose day before and at the day of operation and day after
)1543 A 45 years old patient with badly broken upper second molar which will be extracted After the
dentist injected the local anesthesia, patient complaints from nausea & blood perssure became 100 \ 70
When dentist asks the patient about his medical condition he informs dentist that he is under ttt of
?osteoarthritis What is the cause of this condition
a. Hypotension
b. Bronchial asthma
c. Adrenal insufficiency
)1544 Pt takes 40 cortisone in day of procedure

a. double the dose just day of procedure
b. double the dose day of procedure & day after
c. stop the medication
)1545 The right corticosteroid daily dose for pemphigus vulgaris is

a. g/kg/daily 2 - 1
b. mg 2 - 1
c. mg 10
d. mg hydrocortisone 100 - 50
)1546 The right corticosteroid daily dose for pemphigus vulgaris is

a. g/kg/daily 2 - 1
b. mg/kg/daily max is 120 mg daily prednisone 2 - 1
c. mg/kg/daily 10

197
d. mg/kg/daily hydrocortisone 100 - 50
)1547 Which of the following drugs is completely effective in eliminating angina episode
a. Propranolol Propranolol is a beta-blocker used to
treat tremors, angina, hypertension, heart rhythm disorders
b. Nifedipine calcium channel blockers used to treat hypertension
and angina
c. Diltiazem calcium channel blocker used to treat hypertension , angina and certain heart rhythm disorders
d Transdermal nitroglycerin used to prevent angina
e None of the above
)1548 The following drugs are given to angina patients except

a Propranolol b NSAIDs
)1549 The following have additive action for each component when used together, except for one, what
is the exception
a. Atropine & glycopyrolate Both are anticholinergic
b. aspirin & acetaminophen
c. penicillin & tetracycline Antagonism between a bactericidal
drugs penicillin or ampicillin and a bacteriostatic tetracycline, erythromycin or chloramphenicol
)1550 Antibiotic nhibit cell biosynthesis

a. Penicillin
b. Tetracycline
c. Cyclosporine
)1551?All of the following are oral features accuired immunodeficiency syndrome AIDS,EXCEPT
a. Rapidly progressing periodontitis
b. Kaposi's sarcoma
c. Hairy leukoplakia
d. Candidiasis
e. Erytema multiform
)1552 A patient came to you with multiple vesicles on the attached gingiva in the area of upper anteriors
?after having extensive dental treatment the day before, what is the possible cause of the ulcers
a. recurrent herpes gingivostomatitis
b. recurrent aphthous ulcer
c. mucositis
)1553 The majority of primary herpetic infections are

a Symptomatic b Asymptomatic

198
c. Proceeded by fever
d. Accompanied by gingival erythema
e. a, c and d
)1554 & patient came to dentist after previous stressful procedure complaining of burning
discomfort of his lip on examination u found lesions on the palate, diagnosis is
a. contact dermatitis
b. allergy
c. aphthous ulcer
d. herpes simplex ( herpetic gingivostomatitis )
(recurrent herpes ulcer if they mention that the signs & symptoms occurred last year)
)1555 Acyclovir dose for treatment of herpes

a. mg / 5 times a day orally for 5-7 days 200
b. mg / 4 times a day 200
c. mg / 4 times a day 400
d. mg / 4 times a day 800
)1556 Syphilis first appearance

a. Multiple vesicle
b. Erythematous reaction c Ulcer
d Bullae
)1557 Patient has ulcers on the cheek and lip and has bull's eye lesion/ target with surrounded odema
and erythema on the hand and foot What’s your diagnosis
a. herpetic ulcer
b. bollus pemphigoid
c. erythema multiform
d. bahget's desease
)1558 Child with vesicles on the hard palate with history of malaise for 3 days what is the possible
diagnosis
a. herpes simplex
b. erythema multiform
)1559 Child patient with painful herpes simplex the treatment is acyclovir with
a Vit C
b Local anesthesia with multivitamins vitamin C, vitamin A & vitamin E
c Local anesthesia with protein
)1560 ?Which virus is present in the patient's mouth all his Life
a. Herpes Simplex
b. Herpes zoster
c. Varecilla Virus
)1561 Calcium channel blockers cause increase saliva secretion

199
a True b False
)1562 Eruption cyst eruption hematoma can be treated by

a. No treatment
b. Immediate incision
c. Complete uncoverage
d. Observe for one week then incise
)1563 A child has a bluish swelling on his gums and there are no symptoms other than increased
salivation, diagnosis is
a Eruption hematoma
)1564 Pt with lesion in the posterior of the tongue we want to take excisional biopsy how to pull the
tongue forward
a. mennesota tongue retractor
b. mirror handle c towel clip
)1565 years old child presents with bilateral swelling of submandibular area, what could be the 10
disease
a Fibrous dysphasia b Cherubism
c Polymorphic adenoma
Cherubism the most common presenting sign is a painless, firm, bilateral enlargement of the lower face It)
(develops in early childhood
)1566 Hypercementosis
a. Occur in Pajet disease
b. Difficult to extract
c. Bulbous root
d. Easy to extract by elevator
e. a and b
f. a and d g a+b+c
h All the above
)1567 The scientific evidence in dictating that oral lichen planus is a premalignant lesion is
a. Very strong
b. Non-existent
c. Moderately strong d Weak
( Rare malignant transformation 0 5 – 3%)
)1568 Oral lesions of lichen planus usually appear as

a. White striae Wickham striae
b. Red plaque
c. Shallow ulcers
d. Papillary projections
e. Builae

200
)1569 is a white lesion ……

a. Lichen planus
b. Cancer
c. Heamatoma
d. None
)1570 The oral lesions of the lichen planus

a. Are usually painful
b. Rarely appear before lesion elsewhere on the body
c. May be part of a syndrome in which lesions also appear on the skin, conjunctiva and genitalia
d. Often appear in nervous, high-strung individuals
e. Heals with scarring
)1571 Hairy trichoglossia may be caused by

a. Broad spectrum antibiotic
b. H2o2 mouth wash
c. Systemic steroid
d. Heavy smokers e All of the above
)1572 In hairy tongue, which taste buds increase in length

a. Filli form
b. Fungi form
c. Foliate
d. Circumvallates
)1573 Verrucous carcinoma

a. Malignant
b. Benign
c. Hyperplastic
d. Non of above
Patient comes to your clinic complaining that the denture become tight, during examination you )1574
notice nothing, but when the patient stand you notice that his legs are bowing (curved) What you suspect
a Paget’s disease
)1575 Hypercementosis and ankylosis are seen in

a. paget disease
b. monocytic fibrous dysplasia
c. hyperparathirodism
)1576 Pt came with prominence in the forehead and the potassium sulfate level increased with curved
legs and enlarged mandible and maxilla
a Paget disease
)1577 Radiolucent radioopaque mass attached to vital tooth and cause expansion of jaw bone
a. Fibrous dyplaisa
b. chronic diffuse scleorsing osteomylitits
c. Periapical cyst

201
d. condensing ostitis
)1578 which of the following associated with vital teeth

a periapical granuloma b Condensing ostetits
c. Periapical scar
d. Periapical cyst
)1579 Pt comes for check up, no complaining, after radiograph u see well circumscribed radiolucent
area in relation to mandibular molar & the periphery was radiopaque which wasn't well defined border the
diagnosis is
a simple bone cyst Traumatic bone cyst & unicameral bone cyst
)1580 Solitary bone cyst management

a antiinflammatory and follow up b curettage and close
c. marsupialization and antibiotics
d. no active management
)1581 Scallopped border above inferior alveolar canal between roots of mandibular molars, this lesion is
a. solitary cyst
b. aneurysmal bone cyst
c. Traumatic bone cyst simple bone cyst ,unicameral bone cyst
)1582 Cyst between roots of mandibular molars, above the mandibular canal has Scallopped border
above inferior alveolar canal, on inspiration straw like exudate, the teeth were vital, no periodontal
involvment this lesion is
a. static bone cyst
b. tafne bone cyst
c. aneurismal bone cyst d unicameral bone cyst
= Unicameral bone cysts = traumatic bone cyst = simple bone cyst = solitary bone cyst = hemorrhagic bone cyst)
( progressive bone cyst = idiopathic bone cyst = Idiopathic bone cavity
)1583 Radiographic radioulucency in the interradicular area
a. Invasion of furcation
b. Periodontal abcess
c. Periodontal cyst radicular cyst, periapical cyst
)1584 Mental foramen appears in radiograph as radiolucent round area in the area of
a. Mandibular premolars
b. Mandibular incisors
c. Maxillary canine

202
)1585 Radiographic diagnosis of a well -defined, unilocular radiolucent area between vital mandibular
bicuspias is more likely to be
a. Residual cyst
b. The mental foramen
c. A radicular cyst
d. Osteoporosis
)1586 ?Which cyst is not radiolucent

a. Globulomaxillary cyst
b. Follicular cyst Dentigerous cyst
c. Dentigerous cyst Follicular cyst
d. Nasopalatine cyst e Non of the above
(All cysts are radiograohically radiolucent)
)1587 Cyst in x- ray

a Radiolucent with bone expansion b Radiolucent with bone resorption
Cyst growth Several mechanisms are described for cyst growth, including Epithelial proliferation, Internal)
(hydraulic pressure & Bone resorption
)1588 Radiolucent are cover the pericornal part of the 3rd molar is
a. Dentigerous cyst
b. Central
)1589 The most common type of developmental odontogenic cyst is the

a. Dentegirous cyst
b. Periapical cyst
c. Odontogenic keratocyst
d. Residual cyst
)1590 A cyst which has clear golden yellow fluid on aspiration

a Aneurismal bone cyst b Dentigerous cyst
)1591 Which of the following lesions has more tendency to show well defined multilocular radiolucency
a. Lateral periodontal cyst
b. Squamous cell carcinoma of jaw bones
c. Primordial cyst d Ameloblastoma
e Osteomylitis of the mandible
)1592 A 60-years- old man has been treated for a squamous cell carcinoma by radical radiotherapy He
has a history of chronic alcoholism and was a heavy smoker Six years after treatment, he develops a painful
ulcer in the alveolar mucosa in the treated area following minor trauma His pain

203
worsens and the bone became progressively exposed He is treated by a partial mandibular resection with
graft The diagnosis is
a. Acute osteomylitis
b. Gerre,s osteomylitis c Osteoradionecrosis
d Chronic osteomylitis
)1593 Osteoradionecrosis is more in

a. maxilla
b. mandible
c. no difference
)1594 Osterradionecrosis which condition

a. supreative osteomyltis
b. focal sclerotic osteomylts c maligancy
)1595 most sensitive cell in term of cell-killing is ( i think by term of cell killing they mean most radio-
- ( sensitive
a. Nerouns
b. epithelial basal cell
c. Acinar cell of salivary gland d PMN
)1596 Radiographic diagnosis of bilateral expansible radiopaque areas in the canine premolar region of
the mandible is
a. Hematoma
b. Remaining roots
c. Torus mandibularis
d. Internal oplique ridge
e. Genial tubercle
)1597 In radiographs, which disease causes multiple radiolucencies

a. Hypothyroidism
b. Hyperparathyroidism
c. Ricket disease
)1598 Delayed tooth eruption is seen in

a. Hypothyrodism
b. Hyperthyodism
c. Hyperparathyrodism
d. Hypofunction of adrenal cortex
)1599 The following are multilocular radiolucencies in x-ray EXCEPT

a. Ameloblastoma
b. Odontogenic keratocyst
c. Adenomatoid odontogenic cyst
d. Myxoma
)1600 years old female Pt comes with slow growing swelling in the angle of the mandible Radiograph 33
shows radiopaque with radiolucent border diagnosis

204
a. Osteoma
b. Osteosarcoma
c. Cementoblastoma
d. Ossifying fibroma
)1601 ,radio-opauqe lesion away from lower mandibular posterior molars (not attached or close to it)
patient has no complain just came for scaling
a Odontoma b Osteoma
c Periapical cemental dysplasia
)1602 Patient came to your clinic with severe pain, on x-ray the right side of the mandible has a
radiolucency with a radiopaque border that resembles the sunshine rays Your diagnosis is
a Ossifying fibroma b Osteosarcoma
c Acute osteomyelitis
)1603 The most common type of malignant bone tumor of the jaws is
a Osteochondrosarcoma b Osteosarcoma
c. Leiomyosarcoma
d. Chondrosarcoma
(Chondrosarcoma is 2nd)
)1604 On radiograph, onion skin appearance and under microscope there is glycogen
a. Osteosarcoma
b. Pindborg tumor c Ewing sarcoma
)1605 Child 12 years old with swelling in the mandibular premolars area, first premolar clinically
missing, in X-ray examination we found radiolucent is cover the pericoronal part of the 3rd molar is
a Dentigerous cyst
)1606 Osteomyelitis more common in

a Maxilla b Mandible
c. Zygoma
d. Nasal septum
e. Condyle
)1607 Diabetic patient came to clinic with pain, swelling & enlarged mandible, on radiograph it
showed moth eaten appearance, your diagnosis is
a. Acute osteomyelitis
b. Chronic suppurative osteomyelitis
c. Focal sclerosing osteomyelitis

205
d. Diffuse sclerosing osteomyelitis (cotton wool appearance)
)1608 Patient suffering from pain in the area of the mandibular molars with paresthesia ( numbness )
in the lower lip By clinical and radiographic examination your diagnosis
a Acute osteomyelitis
)1609 Complete blood count CBC is a laboratory test important in dentistry

a. True
b. False
)1610 HBV can be transmitted by transplacenta

a. True
b. False
)1611 Destruction of RBC may cause anemia and it is due to defect in cell membrane
a. True
b. False
)1612 Immunofluorecent test and biopsy are used to diagnosis pemphigus

a. True
b. False
)1613 Measuring blood pressure is one of vital signs important in medical compromised
a. True
b. False
)1614 calculate mean arterial pressure systolic 140 diastolic 80

a 100
b 3
c 110
d 80
)1615 The most prominent cell in acute inflammation is

a. Lymphocyst
b. Plasma cell c PMN
)1616 Cell of chronic inflammation

a. Lymphocyte
b. PMN
c. Neutrophil
)1617 Dentist must

a. Treat Pt medically
b. Prescribe medication to Pt with medical problem
c. Do clinical examination, take medical history and evaluate the medical state

206
)1618 After patient came to your clinic and gave an extended history and complain, what’s your next
step in treatment
a. Clinical examination
b. Start the treatment
c. Radiographic examination
)1619 Amalgam tattoo is an oral pigmentation lesion

a. True
b. False
)1620 Oral and perioral cysts formed from epithelial rests of serres
a True b False
( formed from epithelial rests of malassez )
)1621 Formation of lateral periodontal cyst is due to

a. Nasolacrimal cyst
b. Hertwig's epithelial root sheath c Epithelial rest of malassaz
d The epithelial rests or glands of serres
)1622 polycystic lateral periodontal cyst is

a Odontogenic kerato cyst b botryoid cyst
c calcified cyst
)1623 The primary direction for spread of infection in the mandible is to submental lymph node
a True b False
( submandibular lymph nodes )
)1624 ?Deep and superficial lymph node palpation

a. can be done
b. can't be done
c. done only superficially
)1625 Neoplasm that spread by lymphatic from the angle of the mouth reaches the
a. Preauricular lymph nodes
b. Mental lymph nodes
c. Submandibular Lymph nodes and submental lymph nodes
d. Pterygoid plexus
e. Jugulo-digastric nodes
)1626 DNA only infect human but RNA doesn't infect human
a True b False
)1627 Radiotherapy increases caries by decreasing salivary secration

a. True

207
b. False
)1628 The most common benign tumor in oral cavity is

a. Fibroma\Ameloblastic fibroma
b. Papilloma
c. Lipoma
)1629 Radiopacity attached to root of mandibular molar

a Ossifying fibroma b Hypercementosis
c Periapical cemental dysplasia
)1630 Insulin is a medicine for

a. Hypertension
b. Cardiac diseases c Diabetes
d Decrease in platelet count
)1631 Geographic tongue is seen in Pt with

a. Diabetes
b. Iron deficiency anemia
c. Pemphigus
)1632 Geographic tongue is always accompanied in patient with

a. Diabetes
b. Erythema multiform
c. Iron deficiency d Psoriasis
)1633 A 21 years old patient who has iron deficiency anemia, difficulty in swallowing, with examination of
barium sulphate, you found
a. Geographical tongue
b. Burning mouth syndrome
c. Plummer vinson syndrome Patterson brown Kelly syndrome
d. Diabetic patient
)1634 pt who has iron deficiency anemia ,burning mouth,barium sulphate was found after tests
a. plumer Vinson
b. burning mouth syndrome
c. Iron defeciency anemia
)1635 Pt came to the clinic complaining from soreness in the tongue and sore throat the diagnosis is
a. Burning mouth syndrome burning tongue syndrome
b. Geographical tongue
c. Fissure tongue

208
)1636 Burning mouth syndrome is a chronic disorder typically characterized by each of the following
EXCEPT
a. Mucosal lesion
b. Burning pain in multiple oral sites
c. Pain similar in intensity to toothache pain
d. Persistent altered taste perception
(It’s a mucosal pain not a mucosal inflammation or a mucosal lesion )
)1637 Which of the following is the most likely potential cause of BMS ( Burning mouth syndrome )
a. Denture allergy
b. Salivary dysfunction Decreased salivary flow = Xerostomia c Neural dysfunction
d Menopausal changes
)1638 Which of the following represents the best pharmacologic therapy for BMS
a. Antidepressant agents
b. Corticosteroids
c. Anxiolytic agents
d. There is no therapy of proven general efficacy
)1639 Handicapped Pt with lesion in central nervous system appears to have different type of disorder
in movement and procedure
a. Seizure
b. Cerebral palsy
c. Learning disability
)1640 The most common endodontic cyst is

a. Radicular cyst\periapical cyst
b. Keratocyst
c. Acute apical periodontitis
)1641 Intercellular movement of PMN leukocytes is called migration

a. True
b. False
)1642 Type I diabetes mellitus can be characterized as

a. Non-insulin-dependent
b. Adult- onset c Ketosis-prone
d Accompanied by normal cell activity
)1643 The most common form of oral ulcerative disease is

a. HSV
b. Major aphthous ulcer
c. Bahjet disease
d. Minor aphthous ulcer
)1644 What is the time between the first onset of HIV virus and the appearance of acute symptoms
a. years 5-1

209
b. years 11 - 9
c. No specific time is known
)1645 What is the estimated incubation period of HIV infection

a. weeks 4
b. months 6
c. years 3
d. years e 10 years 6
)1646 The most common cause of the angina is

a. Stress
b. Renal disease
c. Arteriosclerotic plaques of the coronary vessels
d. Hypoglycemia
e. Hypertension
)1647 CPR
a. Is best performed in the dental chair
b. Should be performed on all patients experiencing chest pain
c. Is more efficient when using a full mask, delivering 100% oxygen than with the mouth to mouth technique
d. Is beyond the medico legal responsibility of the practicing dentist
)1648 Droplet nuclei containing mycobacterium tuberculosis

a. Do not cause infection
b. Settle out of room air quickly
c. Do not spread widely in the building d Remain airborn for prolonged period
)1649 TB patient in active stage when we do treatment

a. Emergency case
b. With rupper dam
c. With mask
d. Postpone the treatment
)1650 The most common activity associated with percutaneous injury of the dentist is
a. Suturing
b. Anesthesia injection
c. Handpiece dig
d. Trimming impressions
)1651 The most common location of percutaneous injury among dentists is

a. Hand
b. Face
c. Elbow
d. Arm
)1652 needle stick injury, first thing dentist must do

a. wash with soap and water
b. recheck history
c. report the incident

210
)1653 Which of the following is the cause of immediate type allergic reaction to latex products
a. Accelerator
b. Antioxidants c Latex protein
d Nickel
)1654 Which of the following is a benign epithelial neoplasm

a. Rhabdomyoma
b. Fibroma
c. Lipoma
d. Granular cell tumor e Keratoacanthoma
)1655 pt came to ur clinc have an painless ulcer on the lip , which begin last 6 weeks as elevated border
with deep center ulcer developed very quickly during first 4 weeks then ( slowly growing or stop growing )
& have no history of truma but the pt works outside under exposure of the sun Biobsy reveals PMN
acanthotic exudate, what is the diagnosis
a squamous cell carcinoma b keratoacanthoma
c. verrucus cell carcinoma
d. mucoepidermoid carcinoma
)1656 The following are types of hamartoma EXCEPT

a. Cementoblastoma
b. Compound odontoma
c. Complex odontoma
)1657 Radiolucent structure occupied by a radioopaque structure that forms a mass of disorganized
arrangement of odontogenic tissue
a. Complex odontoma
b. Calcifying Epithelial Odontogenic Cyst
c. Compound
)1658 Odontogenic tumors

a. Arise from dental tissues
b. Can turn malignant but rarely
c. Have specific radiographic features
)1659 A child came to the clinic with continuous involuntary movement of his head and extremities
and difficulty in vocal communication The condition is described as
a. Epilepsy
b. Cerebral palsy
)1660 ?Patient develops epilepsy in clinic Best management for long term epilepsy
a. Lorazepam

211
b. ,phenytoin
c. ,promethazine
d. Benadryl
)1661 The movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane is called

a. Osmosis
b. Active transport
c. Filtration
d. Diffusion
Osmosis) is the net movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane driven by a difference in solute
(concentrations on the two sides of the membrane
)1662 Non odontogenic lesion similar to endo Lesion

a. Hyperparathyroidism
b. Initial stage of cemental dysplasia
c. Ossifying Fibroma
d. Dentigerous cyst
e. Ameloblastoma
f. Lateral periodontal cyst
g. Myxoma & hemangioma
)1663 The common disease affecting the submandibular salivary gland is

a. Salivary calculi
b. Pleomorphic adenomas
c. Viral sialoadenitis
d. Infected sialoadenitis
)1664 Pt with sialolithiasis we want to take x-ray with ordinary film in order show the stone we should
a. Take x-ray in the same way as usual
b. Increase the intensity of x-ray
)1665 Which most common salivary gland neoplasm

a Pleomorphic adenoma
)1666 Ranula is associated with which salivary gland

a submandiular gland b sublingual gland
)1667 Aplastic anemia is caused by

a. Tetracycline
b. Penicillin
c. Erythromycin d Sulfonamide
)1668 In sickle cell anemia O2 decreased in oral mucosa

a. True
b. False
)1669 Cholesterol crystals are found in

a. Keratocyst

212
b. Periodontal cyst
(It is found in many odontogenic cysts radicular cysts, dentigerous cysts and keratocysts)
)1670 The most common odontogenic cysts in the jaws are

a. Radicular cyst
b. Keratocyst
)1671 The most common type of odontogenic cyst is the/ The most common type of inflammatory
odontogenic cyst is
a Dentegirous cyst b Periapical cyst
c. Odontogenic keratocyst
d. Residual cyst
(Periapical cyst = Radicular cyst = Dental cyst )
)1672 Most commonly dentigerous cysts are associated with

a Unerupted permanent maxillary canines b Unerupted mandibular third molars
(Although dentigerous cysts may involve any tooth, the mandibular third molars are the most commonly affected)
)1673 Histopathologically, dentigerous cyst lining epithelium may be

a. Cuboidal in type
b. Stratified squamous in type
c. Reduced enamel epithelium
d. All of the above
)1674 Thyroglossal duct cysts

a. Are only found in the posterior tongue
b. Clinically present in the lateral neck tissue
c. May be found anywhere along the pathway of the embryonic thyroglossal duct
d. Are sometimes called lympho-epithelial cysts
)1675 Apical periodontal cyst arises from

a. Nasolacrimal cyst
b. Hertwig sheath
c. Epithelial cell rest of malassez
d. Peals of serres
)1676 Primary malignant melanoma of the oral mucosa

a Always originates within the surface epithelium b Mostly originates within the surface epithelium
c. Always originates from nevus cells in the connective tissue
d. Always originates from langerhans cells within epithelium
Primary malignant melanoma of the oral mucosa originates within the epithelial-CT interface within surface)
(epithelium and CT Mostly originates within the surface epithelium Or Mostly originates within the CT

213
)1677 Histopathologically, adenoid cystic carcinoma is characterized by islands of

a. Basophilic islands of tumor cells that are intermingled with areas of pseudocartilage
b. Basophilic islands of tumor cells having a Swiss cheese appearance
c. Basophilic islands of tumor cells having a Swiss cheese appearance and evidence of serous acini
d. Basophilic islands of tumor cells that contain mucin and normal acini
ACC cribriform, tubular, and solid cribriform subtype is the most frequent composed of)
(islands of basaloid cells surrounding cystlike spaces forming a Swiss cheese or sievelike pattern
)1678 parotid malignancy shows perineural spread is seen as

a. Warthon’s path
b. Ductal papilloma
c. Polymorphic adenoma
d. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
)1679 Salivary gland disease/tumor with perineural invasion

a. pleomorphic adenoma
b. Adenocyctic carcinoma Adenoid cystic carcinoma
)1680 The risk of malignant change being present in epithelium is greatest in

a Homogenous leukoplakia b Erythroplakia
c. Chronic hyperplasic candidiasis
d. Speckled leukoplakia
Erythroplakia should be viewed as a more serious lesion because of a significantly higher percentage of)
(malignancies associated with it
)1681 pt has a lesion in tongue which suffering from scar fever, the lesion when removed leave the
bleeding area under it, diagnosis is
a Leukoplaqua b Candida
c Ulser
)1682 The term acanthosis refers to

a. A decreased production of keratin
b. An increased production of keratin
c. An increased thickness of the prickle cell zone (stratum spinosum)
)1683 The most common malignant tumors of the minor salivary glands are
a. Adenoid cystic carcinoma and adenocarcinoma
b. Adenoid cystic carcinoma and acinic cell carcinoma
c. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma and adenoid cystic carcinoma
d. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma and polymorphous low grade adenocarcinoma
)1684 Examination of Pt health by the dentist

a. To know the patients health

214
b. To know what medications to give

c. To know general health data d All of the above
)1685 Most common cyst in oral cavity

a. Radicular cyst periapical cyst, apical periodontal cyst
b. Peridontal cyst lateral periodontal cyst
)1686 Dentinogenesis imperfecta have all EXCEPT

a. Broken enamel
b. Blue sclera
c. Broken bone
d. Supernumerary teeth
)1687 X- ray shows large pulp chamber, thin dentine layer and enamel
a. Dentogerous imperfect
b. Dentine dysplasia
)1688 Generalized gray discoloration in a 28 years old patient’s teeth, with blue sclera and an enlarged
pulp chambers and short roots, and multiple fractures in enamel, the diagnosis is
a. Dentinogenesis Imperfecta
b. Amelogenesis Imperfecta
)1689 years old pt came to the clinic with brownish discoloration of all his teeth (intrinsic 30
discoloration) & yellowish in U/V light, the most likely cause is
a. flourosis
b. tetracycline
c. amelogensis imperfecta
d. dentogensis imperfectea
)1690 Treatment of fungal infections

a. Penicillin
b. Tetracyclin c Nystatin
)1691 Pt has hyperventilation in clinic Most cause

a. Reduced of CO2
b. Increase CO2 c Anxiety
)1692 The least way to kill HIV

a. Ultraviolet chamber Ultraviolet light
b. Sodium hypochlorite
c. Chemoclave
d. Autoclave
)1693 To kill HIV use all of the following EXCEPT

a. Naocl
b. Ultraviolet chamber Ultraviolet light
c. Autoclave
d. Chimoclave

215
(It should be non of the above)
)1694 When do we give antibiotic

a. Widespread, rapid infection
b. Compromised host defence c a &b
)1695 Antibiotics are most used in cases of

a. Acute localized lesion
b. Diffuse, highly progressing lesion
)1696 Squamous cell carcinoma is derived from

a. Epithelial tissue
b. Connective tissue
)1697 Most common site of squamous cell carcinoma

a. Postero-lateral border of tongue
b. Floor of the mouth
c. Buccal mucosa
d. Lip
e. Skin
The posterior lateral and ventral surfaces of the tongue are the most common sites of intraoral cancer followed by)
(the floor of the mouth
)1698 The majority of introral squamous cell carcinomas are histologically

a. Poorly differentiated
b. Well moderately differentiated moderately differentiated
c. Spindle cell in type
d. Carcinoma in situation
)1699 Squamous cell carcinoma is multifactorial

a. True
b. False
)1700 Firm, fixed neck nodes are most to be detected in

association with
a. An ameloblastoma
b. A basal cell carcinoma
c. An odontogenic fibroma
d. A squamous cell carcinoma
)1701 Stage IB disease of squamous cell carcinoma

a. T1 N0 M0
b. T3 N0 M0 c T2 N0 M0
d T4 N0 M0
)1702 lesion 2 cm of oral cancer, no metastasis, no spread to regional lymph nodes what is the correct
? TNM classification
a. T0N0M0
b. T1N1M0
c. T2N1M0

216
d. T2N2M1
(I think all wrong it should be T1N0M0)
)1703 Cause of radicular cyst

a. Non vital tooth
b. Vital tooth
)1704 Healing by secondary intention causes

a. There is a space between the edges filled by fibrous tissue
b. Leading to scar formation c b and c
)1705 Atropine
a. Dries secretion such saliva
b. Depresses the pulse rate
c. Causes central nervous system depression
)1706 Drug used to increase saliva is

a anticholinergic Decreases all secretions
b cholinergic Decreases all secretions
c. antidiabetic
d. anticorticosteroid
)1707 In order to decrease the gastric secretion

a. histamine A antigen equivalent
b. histamine B antigen equivalent c anticholenergic
d adrenal steroids
)1708 Candida infection is a frequent cause of

a. Burning mouth
)1709 Lesion at junction between hard and soft palate and

surrounded with psudoepithelium and hyperplasia in salivary gland
a. Necrotizing sialometaplasia
b. Squamus cell carcinoma
)1710 Treacher collins syndrome \ mandibulofacial dysostosis characterized by

a. PROGNTHESIA OF MANDIBLE
b. NO EAR LOSS
c. UPWARD SLUTING OF EYE
d. MALAR\Zygomatic\Cheek bone NOT WELL FORMED OR ABSENCE
)1711 Treacher - collins syndrome is mainly

a Mandibular retrognathia of cases % 80
b Loss of hearing of cases % 50
)1712 Patient presents with deficiency at the malar bone, open bite, normal mental abilities
a. Treacher Collin\mandibulofacial dysostosis

217
b. Cleidocrenial dyspasia
c. Eagle syndrome
)1713 A 6 year old pt came with his father to the clinic for check up, you notice that the child has hearing
problems & zygomatic bone defects
a. Treacher Collin syndrome
b. Down's syndrome
)1714 Pt wears complete denture for 10 years & now he has cancer in the floor of the mouth What is the
first question that the dentist should ask
a does your denture is ill fitted
b smoking of the cancer in floor of the mouth is caused by smoking % 80
c. Alcohol
d. Does your denture impinge the o mucosa ( traumatic cause )
)1715 A female patient came to your clinic with dry lips and mouth and bilateral submandibular oedema
and ocular dryness Diagnosis is
a. Polymorphic adenoma
b. sialotitis
c. salivary stone
d. Sjögren's syndrome
)1716 The compression / relaxation cycle of external cardiac compression should be repeated
a. times / second 2
b. times / minute 60
c. times / second d 100 times / minute 76
)1717 ,A patient complaining from a severe oedema in the lower jaw that increases in size upon eating
diagnosis is
a Salivary gland submandibular salivary gland
)1718 All these show honeycombed bone radiographically EXCEPT

a. Ameloblastoma
b. Odontogenic myxoma cyst
c. Odontogenic keratocyst d Adenomatoid tumor
)1719 The way to remove mucocele \ the best treatment is

a Radiation b Excision
c. Chemotherapy
d. Cauterization
e. Leave it
f. Marsupialization
)1720 pt came to dental clinic having a heamological problem after lab test they found that factor VIII ( 8
is less 10 % what’s the diagnosis (
a. Heamophilia A
b. Hemophilia b

218
)1721 Which factor deficiency lead tohemophilia B

a factor VIII b factor IX
)1722 ?Patint with haemophelia what is the additional anaesthetic procedure used with him
a. Intraligmentary technique
b. Intraosseous technique
c. Intrapappillary technique d All of the above
)1723 Acute abscess is

a. Cavity lined by epithelium
b. Cavity containing blood cells c Cavity containing pus cells
d Cavity containing fluid
(Acute abscess is a pathological cavity filled with pus and lined by a pyogenic membrane)
)1724 Schick test is an intradermal test for determination of susceptibility to

a. Diphtheria hypersensitivity
b. Tuberculosis hypersensitivity
c. lepsron ???
)1725 What’s the test used for HIV

a Elisa\ EIA
)1726 Time of PT, PTT

a 11 - 15 seconds, 25 - 40 seconds
)1727 The following are indications of outpatient GA EXCEPT

a. ASA categories 1 & 2
b. The very young child c Cost
d Patient admitted and discharge the same day
Patient complains from pain in TMJ During examination you noticed that during opening of the )1728
mouth mandible is deviate to the right side with left extruded Diagnosis is
a. Condylar displacement with reduction
b. Condylar displacement without reduction
)1729 Pt Presented to u complain of click during open and close Thers is no facial asymmetry EXCEPT
when opening What is the diagnosis
a. internal derangement with reduction
b. internal derangement without reduction
c. Reumatoid arthritis

219
)1730 Cleidocranial dysostosis characteristics

a. Supernumerary of teeth
b. Clevical problems
c. Delayed closure of fontanelles d All of above
)1731 A pt came to your clinic after examination you found deformity in the neck and collarbones and
supernumerary of teeth what is the diagnosis
a. Cleidocranial dysostosis
b. Amelogensis imperfecta
)1732 Isolation period of chickenpox should be

a after appear of rach by week b untill vesicle becomes crusted
c until carter stage is last
)1733 Patient with leukemia, absolute neutrophilic count is 1700 what oral surgeon should do
a go on the manager b treat as usual pt
c. postpone another day
d. work with prophylactic antibiotic
e. platelets transfusion
)1734 Child came to your clinic have leukaemia number of neutrophils are (1400) want to extract his
?primary central incisor will you treat him
a. as usual pt
b. give prophylactic antibiotic
c. gives platelets before extraction
d. do not extract
)1735 Child came to your clinic have leukaemia number of neutrophils are less than (1500) want to
extract his primary central incisor will you treat him
a. as usual pt
b. give prophylactic antibiotic
c. give platelets before extraction
d. do not extract
The normal range for the ANC = 1 5 to 8 0 (1,500 to 8,000/mm3) In leukemia, dental treatment should only be)
performed if the absolute neutrophil count exceeds 1000 and if the platelet count at least 50000 & prophylactic
antibiotic coverage should be provided in consultation with the oncologist Dental surgical procedures and
administration of local anesthetic blocks should be avoided during periods of thrombocytopenia platelet count is less
(than 50000 & platelet transfusion may be needed
pt came to your clinic complaining from his gingiva which bleeds alot with any little pressure, on )1736
clincal examination u found pinpoint purple dots and general rash like of ecchymosis on his body laboratory
finding highly

220
decrease in platlets (slightly less than 25000 ) have a history of ecchymosis and bruising all over his body
a. thrombocytopenic purpura
(Normal platelets count is 150000 – 450000)
)1737 Generalised lymphadenopathy seen in

i. Infection
ii. Lymphocytic leukemia
iii. HIV
iv. Perncious anemia
b. i+ii
c. i+ii+iii
d. only iv
e. ii+iv
Causes of generalized lymphadenopathy Infections, Hepatitis, AIDS ( HIV ), Tuberculosis, 2ry syphilis, Malignant)
(Leukaemia, Lymphoma & carcinoma& Hyperthyroidism
)1738 ?What type of disease you can work with at clinic

a. Conjuctivitis
b. Chicken pox c Hepatitis C
d Something like chicken pox
)1739 Safe months to treat pregnant ladies

a 1–3
b 4-6
c 9- 7
)1740 In hypertension patient, the history is important to detect the severity

a. true
b. false
)1741 Which is contraindicated to the general anaesthia

a. patient with an advanced medical condition like cardiac
b. down's syndrome patient
c. child with multiple carious lesion in most of his dentition
d. child who needs dental care, but who's uncooperative, fearful…etc
)1742 The following are indications of outpatient general anesthesia, Except

a. ASA categories 1 & 2
b. Very young child c Cost increase
d Patient admitted & discharged the same day
)1743 Patient had anaphylactic shock due to penicillin injection, what's the most important in the
emergency treatment to do
a. mg hydrocortisone intravenous 200
b. mg epinephrine of 1/10000 intravenous c 5 0 adrenaline of 1/1000 intramuscular

221
)1744 Bronchial asthma epinephrine concentration subcutaneously

a 1/1000 b 1/10000 c 1/100000
)1745 Pt with renal dialysis the best time of dental ttt is

a 1 day before dialysis b 1 day after dialysis
c 1week after dialysis
)1746 pt with renal transplantation came with white elevated lesion on tongue no history of smoking or
tobacco chewing diagnosis is
a. Candidiasis
b. iatrogenic lesion
c. Hyperkeratosis
d. Stomatitis
)1747 ,Patient with renal replacement and there is an image showa white spot on his soft palate
diagnosis
a. Pseudo membranous thrush
b. Erythrematous candida
c. Bacterial infection
d. Viral infection
Oral candidiasis is a frequent oral lesion in renal transplant patients Uremic stomatitis is a rare disorder that may)
)occur in patients with undiagnosed\untreated acute or chronic renal failure
)1748 Pt came to the clinic complaining from pain related to swelling on maxillary central incisor area
?with vital tooth under percussion
a. periapical cyst
b. incisive cyst\ incisive canal cyst\ nasopalatine duct cyst
c. globulomaxillary cyst
d. aneurysmal bone cyst
)1749 Pt came to the clinic with a lesion confined to the middle of the hard palat, on the clinical
examination the lesion is fluctuant & tender On the X-ray radiolucent area between the two central incisors
roots The diagnosis will be
a. Glubulomaxillary cyst
b. Incisive canal cyst\ nasopalatine duct cyst
c. Bohn's nodule
d. Aneurysmal bone cyst
)1750 new born wtith mass in upper anterior region, diagnosis

a. Epstein’s pearls
b. Bohn’s nodules c Congenital Epulis
)1751 Early sign of sclerosis

a. trigemnal neuralgia
b. trismus

222
)1752 Trigeminal neuralgia treated by carbomizapine, the max dose per day divided in doses is
a. mg 200
b. 500mg c 1000mg d 1200mg
)1753 years child with congenital heart disease came for extraction of his lower 1st molar, the 10
antibiotic of choice for prevention of infective endocarditis is
a. Ampicelline 30 mg /kg orally 1hour before procedure
b. cephalixine 50mg/kg orally 1hour before procedure
c. clindamicine 20mg/kg orally 1hour before procedure d Amoxicilline 50mg/kg orally 1hour before procedure
)1754 Child 3 years old with congenital heart disease and

has deep caries with diffuse abscess and he is transfered to hospital for special management What they
will give the child before start
a. endocarditis prophilaxis
b. intravenous antibiotic
)1755 White lesion bilaterally on cheek & other member in the family has it
a. leukoplakia
b. white sponge nevus Hereditary disease
c. others
)1756 ?Management of epileptic patient during dental treatment attack

a. Supine position
b. MIDAZOLAM 10 mg IM
c. Restrain the patient by holding him tightly not to harm himself
d. Put anything in his mouth like tongue depressor or mouth mirror
)1757 Epiliptec patient you will not give him

a. Aspirin
b. Azoles
c. Metronidazole\ Flagyl
d. All of the above
)1758 Dylantin ( phynotoin ) don’t give with

a. Aspirin
b. Azoles
c. Metronidazole\ Flagyl
d. All of the above
)1759 Pregnant 25 years, bleeding on probing, location on papilla of anterior area of the maxilla, isolated
a. Giant cell granuloma
b. Pyogenic granuloma\ pregnancy epulis
)1760 The pregnant woman is suffering from

a. Gingival recession

223
b. Pregnant granuloma
c. Periapical abscess
d. None
Patient complaining from pain in the floor of the mouth ( beneath the lower jaw ) your diagnosis is )1761
related to the salivary glands, what’s the best x- ray to help you
a. panoramic
b. occlusal
c. Sialograph Specialized radiograph for the Salivary gland disorders
)1762 Child patient presented with swelling in the buccal and palatal maxillary anterior area two
days ago, the pathology of the lesion there is a giant cell, what is the diagnosis
a. Giant granuloma\ Giant cell granuloma
b. Hemangioma
)1763 Child with anodontia and loss of body hair, the diagnosis is
a. Down's syndrome
b. Ectodermal dysplasia
c. … Fructose
d. … Diabetic
)1764 patient came to clinic with wrinkled skin and white shiny hair, with pegged laterals teeth
a. ectodermal dysplasia
b. cleidocranial dysplasia
c. pteygz jogheurs syndrome
d. Gardner syndrome
)1765 what medical condition should prevent the dentist from practicing dentistry
a. Diabetes
b. Hypertension c Influenza
d Headache
)1766 patient complaining of Xerostomia & frequent going to the toilet at night
a Diabetes Mellitus
)1767 All these causes xerostomia except

a antidepressant agent b complete denture
c. radiotherapy
d. defect in salivary gland
)1768 Neonate 2 years old has a lesion on the centrum of the tongue with the eruption of the 1st tooth
a Riga-fede disease\ sublingual traumatic ulceration

224
)1769 Which of the following conditions is highly indicated for the short therapy of DOTS and is directly
observed once in the clinic
a. Tuberculosis
b. HIV
c. H1N1
d. Mental Illness
)1770 Child 10 years old came to the clinic with periodontitis associated with the 1ry & 2ry dentitions
with severe generalized bone destruction and calcificationon the general examination hyperkeratosis of
hands & feet is noticed the diagnosis is
a. Hypophosphotasia
b. Prepuberty periodontitis c Papillon lefevre syndrome
d Juvenile periodontitis
)1771 pt with palmar plantar keratosis and periodontitis in permanent dentition is likely to has
a. papillon-lefevere syndrome
b. down’s syndrome
c. leukemia
d. hypophosphatesia
)1772 Early exfoliation of deciduous teeth is seen in

a. papillon-lefevere syndrome
b. Peter-killy syndrome
c. Pierre robin syndrome
d. Non of the obove
)1773 Diabatic pt with multiple nevi on the neck and the scalp, and multiple jaw cysts, ur diagnosis will
be
a. Eagle syndrome
b. Gorlin – Goltz syndrome\ Basal cell nevus syndrome
c. Pierre Robin syndrome
d. Non of the above
)1774 Fordyce's spots is on

a. Tongue
b. Oral mucosa
c. Upper lip
d. Throat
)1775 is an anticoagulant agent ……

a Aspirin b Heparin
c. Paracetamol
d. Evex

225
)1776 Leukoplakia is present in

a. The mouth
b. Eye
c. Heart
d. Lungs
)1777 Deficiency of vitamin C leads to

a. Scurvy
b. Anemia Deficiency of vitamin B12 leads to pernecious anemia
c. Rickets
d. Defect in blood clotting
)1778 Deficiency of vitamin K leads to

a. Scurvy
b. Anemia
c. Rickets
)1779 Deficiency of vitamin D leads to

a. Scurvy
b. Anemia c Rickets
)1780 The following factors affect the health

1- hereditary
2- environement
3- social and economic factors 4- family welfare
a 1+2
b 1+2+4
c 3+2+1
d All of the above
)1781 Child 8 years old hearing loss, flush around his mouth upon examination you found copper color
?lesion and notches in incisors and bolbous molars What is your diagnosis
a Gardner syndrome b Congenital syphilis
)1782 symptoms of conginital syphilis

a A Deafness, notch incisor, bolbous cuspless molar and oral pigmentation
)1783 pt came with muliple cyst on his scalp and neck and osteomas on his mandible and multible on
his mandible side, what is the diagnosis
a. Gardner syndrome

226
b. cleidocranial dysplasia
c. ectodermal dystosis
d. oesteogenesis imperfecta
)1784 Parotitis with purualant exudate, what you will do

a. Immediate coverage with antibiotic 7 days
b. delay selection antibiotics until know culture result
c. antiviral drug
d. gives patient wide spectrum/ imperialic antibiotic until result of lab culture to know the bacteria & antibiotic
sensitivity
)1785 what part of the mouth are metastases seen most frequently
a. mandible
b. lateral border of tongue
c. palate
d. floor of the mouth
)1786 months baby had black-blue discolured rapid growing swelling, the x-ray shows unilocular 3
radiolucency and displaced tooth bud, is it
a. aneurysmal bone cyst
b. Melanotic neuroectodermal tumour
c. ameloblastic fibroma
)1787 Child 2 years old came to your clinic with his parents, he has bony lesion bluish-black in color, the
most probable diagnosis is
a. Melanotic neuroectodermal tumor
b. Gaint cell granuloma
c. Ameloblastic fibroma
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
)1788 Transverse fracture of developing teeth in the mixed dentition can be managed by
a. Forced eruption
b. Extraction and placement of a removable partial denture
c. Placement of single tooth
d. All of the above
)1789 yrs old child with first time dental treatment in your clinic what effects the child behaviour is 4
a. The behaviour of the child before the first visit
b. Behaviour of parents in house
c. The behaviour of sibling to dentist

227
)1790 years boy came to the clinic in the right maxillary central incisor with large pulp exposure 7
a pulpectomy with Ca(OH)2 b pulptomy with Ca(OH)2
c. Direct pulp capping
d. leave it
)1791 Child 7 years old when extrction of lower frist molar the tip of root is fracture in the socket how to
manengment
a leave it if the mother n't complaine during feeding b Should be removed by file
c take x-ray to insure if n't swallwed or in respiratory
)1792 What radiograph would you prescribe for a young patient who has no caries and where the molar
?teeth are contacting each other
a. BW and occlusal
b. FMS
c. pan
d. pan and ceph
)1793 ?After a trauma on a primary tooth what is the least possibility

a. changes in the permanent tooth enamel color
b. changes the primary tooth color
c. apex pathology on primary tooth
)1794 Fluorosis most common in

a Lower incisors b Lower bicuspid
c. Lower 6s
d. Upper incisors
)1795 years patient came with untreared truma to tooth that became yellow in colour what you 7
should tell the parents
i. pulp is dead
ii. pulp became calcified
iii. the tooth will absorb normally
b. i and ii
c. i and iii
d. all of the above
)1796 patients who have nausea and vomit during N2O sedation usually
a. are allergic to N20
b. inhale too high concentration of N20
c. eat a big meal right before the procedure
Class III crown fracture in child patient the type of pontic

a ovate
b. egg shaped
c. hygienic
d. ridge lap

228
)1798 At age of 10 years what is the permanent teeth present

a. all incisors, and 1st molar
b. all incisors, 1st molar, lower canine & maxillary 1st premolar
c all incisors, 1st molar & lower canine
)1799 The punch hole in the rubber dam for a child is

a. small
b. medium
c. large
d. the hole size isn't important
)1800 y old pt swollowed 10 ml of 1o% f, what the immediate action 8

a. Ingest milk
b. Hospitalization
)1801 Adult dose 500mg b d for cephalosporin for severe soft tissue infection Calculate the dose for
child of age 7
a 150mg b d b 175mg b d
c. 200mg b d
d. 225mg b d
)1802 Which material used in one-visit pulpectomy

a. MTA (Mineral Trioxide Aggregate)
b. Ca (OH) 2 + CMCP
c. Formocresol d Zn oxide
)1803 Dog bite question caused punched out wound, management

a. To make the wound as lacerated then close
b. Apply iodide
c. Close in layers
)1804 Pits and fissure sealants are usually derived from

a. BIS-GMA resin
b. Polyurethames
c. Zinc phosphate d Both A and B
e Ataconic acid
)1805 fatal dose of fluoride in 3 years old child and in how many hours this can happen
a 320 mg in 2-3 hours b 450 mg in 2-4 hours
c mg/kg within 24 hours 9 17
)1806 ? best feature of sealant

a. viscosity

229
b. retention
)1807 stainless steel crown for pedo pt with suitable size in lower E , there is difficulty insertion What
? is the cause
a Mesiobuccal cusp b Cervical bulge
c. Narrow occlusal table
d. wide buccolingual width
)1808 Child lives in an area with water fluorida on if 0 2 ppm What is the mostappropriate management
a. Give daily oral tablets 0 5 mg
b. Give daily oral tablets 1 mg
c. C Give daily fluoride mouthwash d Perform pits and fissure sealants
)1809 mesial and distal root fractured while extracting lower primary second molar how to manage
a. Leave it
b. Visualise carefully and remove
c. Use dentscan
d. Remove after 1 week
)1810 pedo pt incisor that has mesial distal and bucal caries with open contact treat stainless steel
crown to proceed now
a. remove caries and adapt
b. preliminary slection of crown before preparation and adapt
c. dosent not matter
)1811 pedo pt do pulpotomy which filing materail

a. zinc oxide eugenol
b. gic
c. znpolycarboxlate
trauma on upper teeth

a 90%
b 75%
)1813 pedo pt come to the dental clinic with various red skin lesion what to do
a Start the treatment then refer to a physician b Refer to physician and Delay the ttt
c Postpone treatment after 2weeks
)1814 Child has mild Tetracycline discoloration inpermanent tooth what is the proper treatment
a. Composite veneer
b. Home bleaching
c. Pumice micro abrasion
d. Porcelain venee
)1815 10y ingested 10mg fl What is the immediate management

230
a. Drink milk withe calcium

b. Go emergency c No thing to do
)1816 Rampant caries in child

a Lower incisor b Upper incisor
c Lower molar
)1817 For a newly erupted tooth, the most bacteria found around the tooth is
a. Streptococcus mutans
b. Streptococcus salivaris
)1818 y Child come with numerous carious teeth how many x ray you will take 10
a. bitewing 2 periapical and panorma 2
b. bitewing and periapical as u need 2
c. bite & periapical as you need and panorma 2
d. Periapical as u need only
)1819 new 7 y healthy pt came to you with multiple caires what is the xray for choice
a. bitwing 2
b. Selective periapical and 1 bitwing
c. Panorama
d. Selective periapical and 2 bitwing and panorama
)1820 Pits & fissure sealants least effective with

a. months old 24
b. primary molar
c. 2nd primary molar
d. years old child 5
Age range for application of pit and fissures sealants is as follows 3-4 years for the primary molars\ 6-7 years for )
(1st molar\ 11-13 for 2nd molars and the premolars
)1821 Patient 3 years old had injury in the primary teeth, the permanent teeth are rarely undergo to
a. Micro abrasion in the enamel
b. Discoloration
c. Dilaceration
d. Partially stoppage of the root formation
)1822 years child with bilateral loss of deciduous molars & the anterior teeth not erupted yet, the 6
space maintainer for choice is
a. lingual arch
b. Bilateral band and loop

231
c. Bilateral band and loop with distal shoe d Removable partial denture
)1823 The most common injuries in child is

a Avulsed tooth The most common injuries are luxation or avulsion
b. Root
c. Intrusion of the tooth inside the socket wall
)1824 Child 10 years old came to you with truma on maxillary central incisor (before 36 hours ) and has
large pulp exposure What will you do
a. pulpectomy with calcium hydroxide
b. pulpotomy with calcium hydroxide
c. direct pulp capping
d. extraction
)1825 years old patient received trauma in his maxillary primary incisor, the tooth is intruded The 6
permanent incisors are expected to have
a. Displacement
b. Malformation
c. Cracks in enamel
d. Yellowish or whitish discoloration with hypoplasia
Enamel hypoplasia due to trauma or infections of developing teeth but at 6 the tooth is already formed & will be in)
(the prossecc of eruption
Traumatically fractured crown of central incisor in an 8-years-old child with pulp exposure (more )1826
than 1 mm ) half hour ago, medical history is non- contributory and the tooth is not displaced What is your
management
a. Endodontics-pulpectomy and obturation
b. Direct pulp cap with caoh and composite c Caoh pulpotomy
d Total extirpation of pulp and caoh apexification
)1827 An 8 years old boy presents with class III fracture of tooth#11, which appeared an hour ago, the
apex is not closed Your treatment should be
a. Direct pulp capping with Ca(OH)2
b. Pulpectomy follows by RCT
c. Pulpotomy and fill with Ca(OH)2
d. Smoothening of ledges and restore with composite
e. Restoration with Glass ionomer cement
)1828 Pedo, has trauma in 11, half an hour ago, with slight pulpal exposure, open apex, treatment is
a. Pulpotomy with formacresol
b. Apexification
c. DPC (Direct pulp capping)
d. Extraction
)1829 years old child present to the clinic with a fractured crown of upper central incisor and the pulp is 8
slightly exposed and bleeds superficially, Rx
a. direct pulp cap
b. pulpectomy

232
c. pulpotomy
d. apexification
)1830 The treatment of choice for vital, wide apex tooth which shows pulp exposure is
a. Pulpotomy
b. Pulpectomy
c. Apexification d Apexogenesis
e Indirect pulp capping
)1831 ?yr old with 5mm intrusion of upper incisor what do you do 3
a. Wait and see if erupts
b. Extract + space maintainer
c. Crown lengthening
d. Reposition manually and splint
)1832 ?Child during dental treatment have Tachycardia, sweeting, speech problem
a. Insulin shock
b. Vasovegal shock
)1833 In case of traumatic intrusion of young permanent incisor, the treatment of choice is
a Surgical repositioning of intruded tooth and splinting b To wait for re eruption of the intruded tooth
c. Slow orthodontic extrusion using light force
d. Only antibiotic prescription and wait for eruption
)1834 Which fluoride can be applied professionally by dentist

a. ACT
b. Duraphat
c. Gel tin
d. Prevident
)1835 Best treatment of choice for carious exposure of a primary molar in a 3 years old child who
complains of toothache during and after food taking
a. Direct pulp capping with caoh
b. Direct pulp capping with zao paste c Formocresol pulpotomy
d Caoh pulpotomy
)1836 X-ray periapical for immature tooth is

a. Generally conclusive
b. Simply inconclusive
c. Should be compared with contralateral & adjacent teeth
)1837 Child have tooth which have no moblity but have luxation best treatment
a. Acrylic splint
b. Non rigid fixation\ physiological splinting

233
c. Rigid fixation
Luxation with immobilization treatment Non-rigid splinting should be applied for a period of no more than two)
(weeks
)1838 widening of pdl after truma

a. luxation
b. subluxation
c. avulsion
)1840 Child came to u with gray discolouration of the deciduous incisor also on radiographic exam, there
is dilation of follicle of the permanent successor what will u do
a. Extract the decidous tooth
b. Start endo
c. Observe over time
)1841 yr old kid with discolored upper incisor, had trauma 9 months ago with no change in radio 8
graph or pain treatment
a. No treatment
b. caoh pulpotomy
c. DPC
d. pulp extripation and apexifixation
)1842 pt 5 y removed his upper central what to do

a. No ttt
b. Space maintainer
c. Crown
d. Maryland bridge
)1843 Factor important in select space maintainer

a. Chronological age of patient
b. Early erruption of anterior permanent
c. Late erruption of permanent molars
)1844 years old child have 74 and 84 extracted, best space maintainer is 6
a. lingual arch
b. bilateral band and loop
c. bilateral band and loop with distal shoe
d. no need for space maintainer
)1845 Hand over mouth technique is used in management of which child

a. Mentally retarded
b. Positive resistance
c. Uncooperative
d. Hysterical
)1846 When does child should be first exposed for using tooth brush
a. Immediately after eruption of first tooth

234
b. One year old

c. Two years old
d. four years old
e. Primary school year
Brushing with fluoride toothpaste starts as soon as the teeth erupt 6 months of age & parents should supervise)
(brushing up to 7 yrs to avoid over-ingestion of toothpaste and ensure adequate plaque removal
)1847When tooth paste is used, the child is advised

a. not swallow
b. swallow a small amount
c. do not rinse
d. none
)1848 When to first introduce pedo for tooth brush

a. When primary teeth erupt
b. years 2
)1849 Fluoridated toothpaste for 3 years child is

a. Recommended
b. Not recommended
c. Common
d. Non of above
( under supervision in pea-sized amount)
)1850Fluoride which we use in the clinic doesn’t cause fluorosis because

a It's not the same fluoride that cause fluorosis b Teeth already calcified
c. Calcium in the mouth counter
d. Saliva wasn’t out
)1851 Too much ingestion of fluoride may lead to

a. Dental caries
b. Dental fluorosis
c. Gingivitis
d. None
)1852 Mentally ill child, the best way to apply fluoride

a. Acidulated phosphate fluoride
b. Natural sodium fluoride c Fluoride varnish
d Stannous fluoride
)1853 Type of professionally applied fluoride for mentally retarded pt
a. Neutral sodium fluoride

235
b. Stannous fluoride
c. Acidulated fluoride solutions
)1854 CONCENTRATION of sodium fluoride

a. 05ml daily 0
b. 5ml twice a week 0
c. daily 2
)1855 In primary teeth, pathologic changes in radiographs are always seen in

a Periapical area b Furcation area
c. Alveolar crest
d. At base of developing teeth
)1856 Pulpities in decidous teeth in radiograph seen related to

a. furcation
b. apex of root
c. lateral to root
)1857 In deciduous tooth the first radiographic changes will be seen in

a. Bifurcation area
b. Apical area
c. External root resoption
First pathological changes Bifurcation area First natural change during eruption of the permanent teeth External)
(root resorption
)1858 Pain during injection of local anesthesia in children could be minimized by

a. Slowly injection
b. Talking to the child during injection
c. Using long needle d a and b
)1859 Rubber dam is contraindicated in

a. Pt with obstructive nose
b. Mentally retarded Pt
c. Uncomparative child
d. a and b
)1860 With children rubber dam not use with

a Hyperactive patient b obstructive nose
c. patient with fixed orthoappliance
d. mildly handicapped and uncooperative
)1861 pit & fissure material

a. flowable comp
b. GIC
c. compomer

236
d. All
)1862 Pit and fissure sealants are indicated to prevent dental caries in pits and fissures
a. In primary teeth
b. In permanent teeth c a &b
)1863 Pit and fissure sealant

a. New erupted teeth
b. Deep fissure and pits in molars
c. Proximal caries d a & b
)1864 The principal feature of a sealant that is required for success is

a. High viscosity
b. Adequate retention
c. An added colorant to make the appearance slightly different from occlusal enamel
d. High strength
)1865 years child in routine examination, explorer wedges in the pit of 2nd molar, other teeth free 6
dental caries what is the management
a fluoride gel application b fissure sealant
c. restore it with amalgam restoration
d. restore it with composite restoration
)1866 The rationale for pit-and-fissure sealants in caries prevention is that they
a. Increase the tooth resistance to dental caries
b. Act as a barrier between the sealed sites and the oral environment
c. Have anti-microbial effect on the bacteria
d. None of the above answers is correct
)1867 etching before putting fissure sealant

a. makes a chalky appearance
b. demirealise enamel matrix,increase surface area, for resin tags
)1868 Teeth that have lost pits and fissure sealant show
a. The same susceptibility to caries as teeth that have not been sealed
b. Higher susceptibility than non sealed teeth c Lower susceptibility than non sealed teeth
d The same susceptibility as teeth with full retained sealant
Teeth that have been sealed and then have lost the sealant have had fewer lesions than control teeth This is)
possibly due to the presence of tags that are retained in the enamel after the bulk of the sealant has been sheared
from the tooth surface When the resin sealant flows over the prepared surface, it penetrates the finger-like
(depressions created by the etching solution These projections of resin into the etched areas are called tags

237
)1869 Patient with all 1st molars carious and suspected pit and fissure areas of the 2nd molars Treatment
plan
a. Restore all first molars and observe second molars
b. Restore all first molars and topical fluoride on second molars
c. Restore all first molars and seal pits and fissures of second molars
d. Restore first and second molars with composite
e. Restore first and second molars with amalgam
)1870 Procedure done before applying pit & fissure sealant

a. Acid etch by phosphoric acid
b. floride
)1871 Success of pit & fissure sealants is affected mainly by

a. increased time of etching
b. contamination of oral saliva
c. salivary flow rate
d. proper fissure sealant
)1872 pits and fissure restoration affected by a Contamination by saliva

b. Flow of saliva
c. Depth of cavity
d. Strength of itch
)1873 When you give a child a gift for a good behavior this is called
a. Positive reinforcement
b. Negative reinforcement
)1874 White polycarbonate are temporary crowns used for anterior teeth
a. True
b. False
(In deciduous anterior teeth )
)1875 To detect interproximal caries in primary teeth, the best film is

a Periapical b Bitewing
c Occlusal
)1876 If pedo pt want to see pulp condition which xray choice

a panaromic b periapical
c bitwing
)1877 yr old kid with discolored upper incisor, had trauma 9 months ago with no change in radio 8
graph or pain treatment
a. No treatment
b. caoh pulpotomy
c. DPC
d. pulp extripation and apexifixation

238
)1878 Which of the following would be clinically unacceptable as a primary of isolating a tooth for
sealant placement
a. Cotton roll
b. Rubber dam
c. Vac-ejector moisture control system d None of the above
)1879 Primary teeth had trauma, tooth change in color becomes white yellowish, what should you tell
the parents
a. Pulp is dead
b. Inflammation of pulp
c. Calcification of dentin d b & c
)1880 Fracture before 1 year of upper central incisor reach the pulp in 8 year old child How will you
manage this case
a. RCT
b. Apexification
c. Direct pulp capping
d. Indirect pulp capping
)1881 years old child , trauma of maxillary incisor the material used for first visit Apexcification 8
a. Ca(OH) + CMCP
b. MTA
c. ZOE
)1882 child 10 years came with trauma on the centeral incisor from year ago, and have discoloring on
it, in the examination, no vitality in this tooth, and in the x-ray there is fracture from the edge of the incisal to
? the pulp, and wide open apex the best treatment
a. Calcification\ Calcific barrier \Apexfication
b. RCT with gutta percha
c. Extraction
d. Capping
)1883 years old came with fractured maxillary incisor tooth with incipient exposed pulp after 30 8
minutes of the trauma, what’s the suitable ttt
a. Pulpatomy
b. Direct pulp capping
c. Pulpectomy
d. Apexification
e. Observe
)1884 years old child came to your clinic with trauma to upper central incisor with pulp exposure and 8
extencive pulp bleeding your treatment will be
a. direct pulp capping
b. pulpectomy with gutta percha filling
c. apexification
d. pulpotomy with calcium hydroxide

239
)1885 treatment of inflamed pulp up to 1mm what is called

a. partl pulpotomy
b. pulpotomy
c. dpc
d. indirect pulp cap
)1886 ?What is the common cause of failure of pulpotomy that employs Ca(OH)2 in primary molars
a. Pulp fibrosis
b. Pulp calcification
c. Ankylosis
d. Internal resorption
e. Profused bleeding
)1887 Infection is more dangerous in children than adult because

a. Marrow spaces are wide
b. Affect growth centre
c. Hypocalcification in enamel
)1888 When you give inferior dental block for pedo Pt the angulations for the needle
a. mm below the occlusal plane 7
b. mm below the occlusal plane 5
c. mm above the occlusal plane d At the occlusal plane 7
)1889 When you want to give inferior alveolar block for a child you have to take attention that the
mandibular foramin is
a. At level of occlusal plane
b. Above the level of occlusal plane
c. Anterior the level of occlusal plane d Below the level of occlusal plane
The mandibular foramen is 4 12 mm below the occlusal plane at 3 years It moves upward and by the age of 9, it)
reaches the same level as the occlusal plane The foramen continues to move upward to 4 16 mm above the
(occlusal plane in adults
)1890 Ugly duckling stage

a. years old 11-9
b. years old 15-13
c. years old 9-7
)1891 Eruption of primary dentition starts from

a. months 7-6
b. year 1
c. months 9
)1892 The use of low speed hand piece in removal of soft caries in children is better than high speed
because
a. less vibration
b. less pulp exposure
c. better than high speed

240
)1893 Pedo use rubber dam for

a. Improve visibility and access
b. Lowers risk of swallowing
c. Sterile field d a & b
)1894 years old child have 74 and 84 extracted best space maintainer is 6
a. Lingual arch
b. Bilateral band and loop
c. Bilateral distal shoe
d. No need for space maintainer
)1895 years old child lost his upper right 1st primary molar, arrangement 6
a. Lingual bar\arch
b. Crown and loop c Band and loop
d Nance appliance
)1896 Band and loop space maintainer is most suitable for the maintenance of space after premature
loss of
a. A single primary molar
b. Two primary molars
c. A canine and a lateral incisor
d. All of the above
)1897 Pedo, lost 75, space maintainer

a. Band and loop
b. Nance appliance
c. Crown and loop
)1898 The most affect tooth in nurse bottle feeding

a. lower molars
b. upper molars c max incisor
d mand Incisor
)1899 A child at dentition age is suffering from

a. Diarrhea
b. Sleep disorders
c. Increased salivation
)1900 Three years old pt , has anodontia ( no teeth at all ), what would you do
a. full denture
b. implant
c. space maitainer
d. no intervention
In cases of anodontia, full dentures are required from about 3 years of age, with the possibility of implant support)
(for prostheses in adulthood

241
A child patient undergone pulpotomy in your clinic in 1st primary molar Next day he returned with )1901
ulcer on the right side of the lip, your diagnosis is
a. Apthosis
b. Zonal herpes
c. traumatic ulcer
)1902 Pt came with extracted tooth & many cries & restored teeth he is
a. high risk
b. medium risk
c. low riks
)1903 For children considered to be at high risk of caries and who live in areas with water supplies
containing less than 0 3 ppm
a. mg F per day age 6 months to 3 yrs 25 0
b. mg F per day from 3 - 6 yrs 5 0
c. mg F per day more than 6 yrs d All of above 1
)1904 Amount fluoride 5 year old, 0 5ppm water fluoridation

a 0 25
b 05
c 1
d 1 25
)1905 years old pt , water fluoridation 0 2 ppm what is the preventive treatment 3
a. mg fluoride tablet 25 0
b. mg fluoride tablet 1
c. Fluoridated mouth wash
d. Sealant
)1906 yr’s old child, who is unable to differentiate the colors, and can’t tell his name, or address He 10
is acting like
a. years old 3
b. years old 4
c. years old 10
)1907 Child 3 years old came to clinic after falling on his chin, you found that the primary incisor entered
the follicle of the permanent incisor what you will do
a. Surgical removal of the follicle
b. Leave it
c. Surgical removal of the primary incisor
(If the intruded primary tooth is contanting the permenant tooth bud, the primary tooth should be extracted)
)1908 Child patient with oblitration in the centeral permenant incisor What will you do
a. RCT

242
b. pulpotomy
c. pulpectomy
d. Careful monitoring
)1909 Child with traumatized lip, no tooth mobility, what will you do first
a. Radiograph to check if there is foreign body
b. Refer to the physician for sensitivity test
)1910 A child with trauma and swollen lip for the last few days, no pain and teeth are good, what will u
?do next
a. take an x-ray of the lip to exclude any foreign object
b. cold packs to manage the swelling
c. anti inflammatory drugs
)1911 ,Child with mental disorder suffers from orofacial trauma, brought to the hospital by his parents
the child is panic and Irritable, the treatment should done under
a. Local anesthesia
b. General anesthesia
c. Gas sedation
d. Intravenous sedation
)1912 Child patient takes sedation before appointment and presents with physical volt What should
dentist do
a. conscious sedation
b. Redo sedation
c. Tie with papoose board
d. Tie in unite with bandage
)1913 Pedo pt with extremely –ve behavior, to restrain the extremity

a. use mouth prope
b. Belt
c. Papoose Board
d. Punishment
)1914 years old pt had extraction of the lower primary molar & he had fracture of the apex of the 5
tooth what is the best ttt
a. aggressive remove
b. visualization & remove c visualization & leave
)1915 Child has bruxism to be treated with

a. sedative
b. cusp capping
c. vinyl plastic bite guard
A vinyl plastic bite guard\Night Guard covers the occlusal surfaces of all teeth plus 2 mm of the buccal and lingual)
surfaces can be worn at night to prevent continuing abrasion due to bruxism The occlusal surface of the bite guard
(should be flat to avoid occlusal interferences
)1916 years old child suffered from a trauma at the TMJ region as infant complaining now from 8
limitation in movement of the mandible Diagnosis is
a. Subluxation

243
b. Ankylosis
)1917 The most technique use with children

a. TSD\ Tell - Show – Do
b. Handover mouth
c. Punishment
)1918 Child has dental caries in 3 or 4 surfaces of his first primary molar we will replace them with
a. preformed metal crown\Stainless steel crown
b. porcelane crown
c. amalgam crown
d. composite restoration
)1919 Twins came to your clinic during routine examination, you found great change behaviour
between both of them this due to
a Hereditary b Environment
c Maturation
The differences between monozygotic twins result from environmental differences whereas those between)
(dizygotic twins result from differences in both environment and heredity
)1920 Child with previous history of minor trauma with excessive bleeding we do test, the result is
& prolonged PT, slightly increase clotting time
test is +ve, the diagnosis is ……………
a. hemophelia b Hemophelia a or b unaffected PT , prolonged PTT
b. thrombocytopenia unaffected PT , prolonged bleeding time
c Vit K deficiency prolonged PT , trauma & excessive bleeding
)1921 Nitrous oxide interferences with

a. Vit B12
b. Vit B6
c. Vit A
d. Vit C
)1922 Over exposure of nitrous oxide inhibits metabolism of vitamin

a. vitamin d
b. vitamin b12
c. vitamin b6
)1923 Two weeks baby born with 2 anterior teeth which is highly mobile, and his mother have no
problem or discomfort during nursing him what is ur managemnt
a. do not do anything as the baby have no problem during feeding
b. do not do anything as the mother don`t feel discomfort
c. U must extract as soon as possible to avoid accident inhalation of them
d. Do nothing, it will shell by it self
)1924 ?After a trauma on a primary tooth what is the least possibility

a. changes in the permanent tooth enamel color
b. changes the primary tooth color

244
c. apex pathology on primary tooth
)1925 At which age will a child have 12 permanent and 12 primary teeth
a 75
b 85
c 59
d 10 5
e 9-10
f None of the above
)1926 age of the patient, upper lateral erupted a year ago, roots of central incisors and first permanent
molar are almost complete, 1/3 of lower canine root is formed
a. 7
b. c8 9
d 11
)1927 In primary tooth for restoration before putting the filling u put
a. base
b. calcium hydroxide
c. varnish
d. you put the filling after proper cleaning and drying
)1928 Patient had enamel and dentin hypoplasia your ttt

a. Porcelain crowns
b. Splinting with composite
c. Composite bridge
)1929 The organism that not/ rarly found in newborn mouth

a. streptococcus mutant
b. streptococcus salivarius
c. e-coli
d. skin bacteria
)1930 A child with caries in the incisors we call this caries

a Rampant caries b Nursing caries
c Children caries
)1931 years child came without complaint while rutine exam you found obliteration of canal in 8
maxillary central incisor what u will do
a. Extraction
b. RCT
c. Pulpotomy
d. None of above
)1932 In children pulp damage is less frequent than in adults due to

a. Minor subluxation doesn't cut the blood supply

245
b. More hemoglobin content in children

c. Less nutritional deficiences
)1933 The pulp chamber in milk teeth in proportion to that of permanent teeth is
a. Bigger in milk teeth
b. Smaller in milk teeth
c. Same in both teeth
d. Absent in milk teeth
e. Less vascular in milk teeth
)1934 years child came to your clinic complaining from white spot in all his teeth ttt should inculde 2
a. Parental counseling
b. Caries examination
c. Nutritional survey
d. Anticipatory guidance
)1935 year old comes to clinic with carious fissure of partially erupted permanent molar 7
a. Immediate restoration with GIC
b. Immediate restoration with composite
c. wait till completely erupted then GIC
d. wait till completely erupted then composite
)1936 Partially erupted molars with deep pits & fissure treatment
a. pit & fissure sealant
b. fluoride varnish
c. PRR
d. composie
)1937 years child made a bitwing from6 months (no caries) now he is following up what survey 6
required
a. bitwing + panoram 2
b. 2bitwing+ 2 periapical
c. bitwing+ ct 2
d. no extra films required
)1938 stainless steel crown ready to cement but you find small open margin from buccal what to do
a Crimbing wz plier 112 b Crimbing wz plier 114
c New crown
)1939 Hiv in pedo 1st oral sign

a. candidios

246
b. kapos sarcoma
c. hepetc gingivistomatosis
)1940 ?Fetal dosage of Flouride in adult

a 32-64 mg\kg
)1941 Child multiple white spots, inflammed gingiva, hight plaque, probing depth 2-4mm Periodontal
?diagnosis
a. Gingivitis
b. Jeuvenile periodontitis
c. High caries index
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
)1942 Max space between primary teeth that prevent crowding

a 8
b 4
c 6
) 1943 OPTIMUM space between primary teeth that prevent crowding

a 8
b 4
c 6
(Maxillary primate space 0-10 avergae 4mm Mand 0-6 average 3mm)
a. calss1
b. class1 skeletal 1
c. class 2 skeletal 2
d. class 1 skeletal
a. Canine
b. incior
c. centrl incisor
(!! I don't think we should remove anything)
Patient have impcted canine in xray show the end of root in distal of
a. remove canine
b. Surgical exposure
c. Traction to place
)1947 Child 8 years he have supernumerary tooth between Central incisor and there's 4 mm space and
? the lateral not erupt because the supernumerary what you will do
a. Extract the supernumerary tooth and put a fixed appliance
b. ? Wait for canine to erupt

247
)1948 child has protrude central upper without space without crowding
History has truma this area whats the right clasdification for him
a. Class 1 Premaxillary proclination
b. class 1
c. class 2 div 1
d. class 2 div 2
)1949 Patient going for ortho consultation, no crowding, history of trauma to

?anterior teeth Which class
a. I
b. II div 1
c. II div 2
d. Class 3
)1950 Patient with orthodontic band resorption is more likely

a. Long rooted tooth
b. Tooth with less periodontal support
c. Tooth with curved root
d. Tooth with recession
)1951 Years old child have an abscess related to lower left primary canine, arch analysis there is no 8
crowding ttt is
a. Extraction of both canines without space maintainer
b. Extraction of both canines with space maintainer
c. Extraction of the canine with space maintainer
d. Extraction of the canine without space maintainer
)1952 ?What first treatment of thump suking

a. Consult
b. Reward therapy
)1953 P A 7 years child has a habit of finger sucking what is the best way to start a therapy with
a Rewarding therapy b Counseling therapy
c. Punishment
d. Remaindering therapy
e. Adjunctive therapy
f. Nothing
)1954 What happens with intercanine distance after mixed dentition

a. increased
b. decreased
c. stable, no change
)1956 In an ideal centric occlusion, the mesio-facial cusp of the permanent maxillary first molar opposes
the

248
a. Central fossa of the mandibular first molar

b. Mesial fossa of the mandibular first molar
c. Facial embrasure between mandibular second premolar and first molar
d. Sulcus of the disto-facial groove of the mandibular first molar e Sulcus of the mesio-facial groove of the
mandibular first molar
)1957 Palatal expansion device doesn't need a labial bow because

a. labial bow is not rigid enough
b. labial bow would limit the expansion effect
c. labial bow is not functional in this case
)1958 Space loss occurs in

a. Proximal caries
b. Early extraction
c. Ankylosis
d. All of the above
)1959 The most prevalent primary molar relationship

a. Flush terminal plane
b. mesial step terminal plane
c. distal step terminal plane
)1960 In primary teeth The ideal occlusal scheme is

a Flush terminal b Mesial step
c Distal step
)1961 You examined a child and found that the distal part of the upper primary molar is located mesial
to the distal outline of the lower primary molar This is called
a. distal step
b. mesial step
)1962 What is the type of sterizliation applied on ligation/fixation wires

a Autoclave
)1963 Pt with missing lower right 1st molar for long time you'll find
a. Mesial drifting of lower right 2nd molar
b. Intrusion of upper right 1st molar
c. Over eruption of lower right 2nd molar
)1964 Over erupted upper right 1st molar will be managed by

a. Intruded easily orthodontically
b. Crowning
c. Adjustment of occlusion
d. In severe cases may be extracted
e. a, b & c f b, c & d

249
g. a, b & d
h. a, c & d
)1965 Over erupting tooth can be treated by

a. Crowning after endo
b. Ortho intrusion
c. Extraction
d. a &b
e. All the above
A patient is missing a mandibular first molar, the maxillary molar has extruded approximately 2 8 )1966
mm into the space, periodontally is acceptable Restoring satisfactory occlusion with FPD will require
a. extraction of maxillary molar
b. Reducing and restoring the maxillary molar to normal occlusal plane
c. reducing and polishing the maxillary molar to normal occlusal plane
d. none of the above no ttt indication
)1967 One of the main causes of malocclusion

a Premature loss of primary teeth
)1968 Energy absorbed by the point of fracture called

a. Ultimate strength
b. Elastic limit c Toughness
d Brittleness
)1969 Resistence of continuase perforation foce somthing like that

a. hardness
b. toughness
)1970 During the removal of orthodontic braces he noticed white hypocalcific lesion around the
brackets what to do
a. micro-abrasion and application of pumice then fluoride application
b. composite resin
c. leave and observe
)1971 Child has a habit of finger sucking and starts to show orodental changes, the child needs
a. Early appliance
b. Psychological therapy
c. Rewarding therapy
d. Punishment
)1972 A child with thumb sucking habit he will develop

a anterior open bite and posterior crossbite
)1973 ?Pacifier habit what you see in his mouth

a. Open bite
b. Cross bite

250
(Children who were pacifier users were more likely to show open bite, posterior crossbite and increased overjet)
)1974 pacifier habit what you see in his mouth 7 years old pt
a Anterior open bite with expansion max bone b Anterior open bite, posterior crossbite
c Move incsial to labial
)1975 Crossbite means

a. Upper teeth occlude inside the lower teeth
b. Upper teeth occlude outside the lower
c. a and b
d. None
)1976 unilateral posterior crossbite during erutption of laterals due to

a. functionl shift
b. improper swallowing habit
c. imbalance between tounge and cheek
d. tongue posture
)1977 After completion of orthodontic treatment he came complaining of pain in 11 tooth radiograph
show absorption in the middle third of the root of 11 what is the proper management
a. Apply caoh at the site of resorption
b. Do RCT in a single visit
c. Extract the tooth & reimplant it
d. Extract the tooth & do implantation
The etiology of external resorption excessive orthodontie forces, periradicular inflammation, dental trauma or)
impacted teeth External inflammatory root resorption is rapidly progressive and will continue if treatement is not
(started immediately The resorption process can be stopped by immeditae RCT with calcium hydroxide paste
)1978 Patient that has a central incisor with severe resorption and who's going through an ortho
treatment that is going to make him extract the premolars, which of the following won't be present in the
treatment plan
a. rpd
b. implant
c. Maryland bridge
d. autoimplant of the premolars
,During ortho treatment we can't put fixed appliances because it prevents teeth movement so we place RPD)
( implants or Maryland bridge since it's more flexible and we don't place fixed bridges whether metal or porcelain
)1979 In case of advanced upper jaw to the lower jaw this is called
a Angle class I b Angle class II
c. Angle class
d. All of the above

251
)1980 Child has protrude central upper without space without crowding
History has truma this area whats the right clasdification for him
a. Class 1 Premaxillary proclination
b. class 1
c. class 2 div 1
d. class 2 div 2
)1981 What does dolicocephalic means

a. Long skull
b. Short skull
c. Long face
d. Short face
)1982 Frankel appliance is used in

a Prevent oral habit b Prevent cross bite
)1983 ?What is the space between the lateral incisor and canine called in maxillary deciduous teeth
a Leeway space b Primate space
c. Freeway space
d. Bolton space
e. Interdental space
)1984 fuctional appliance

a. bionatar
b. ant post bite block
)1985 ??Pt With 10 mm overjet , how many mm need to correct

a. 10
b. 12
c. d 16 14
(2*)overjet of pt - 2( )
)1986 What is the purpose of leveling the curve of Spee

a correct open bite b correct deep bite
c. correct angulation of the teeth
d. change arch diameter
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
)1987 nowadys new technology instument developed for what
a. detection of enamel
b. dentection of cej
c. detection for diff between enaml and dentine
)1988 Recent years, there has been an evidence that the prevalence and intensity of the caries attack
has been diminished in the more economically developed countries, mainly because of the wide spread
use of
a. Artificial water fluoridation

252
b. Fluoride toothpaste
c. Dental health education programs
d. Individualized oral hygiene care e a & c
)1989 Medicine ethics aim to

a. The dentist should study to know patient psychology
b. Not to compromise or undermine ability to treat patient in community as professional
c. Ability to make decision d All of above
)1990 ?Hippocratic oath main component

a doctors right b confidentially
)1991 what make priority to private clinics than community clinics

a. Need of assistance
b. Insurance
)1992 In countries with higher annual population growth rates, the need for community – based
preventive programs would be greater for
a. Dental caries
b. Periodontal disease
c. Dentofacial anomalies
d. Dental fluorosis
)1993 Mutant streptococci is

a. endemic
b. epidemic
)1994 ?Streptococcus mutans cause caries & this disease is

a epidemic b endemic
c isolated
)1995 Dental carries is an endemic disease, means that the disease is

a Occurs clearly in excess of normal expectancy b Is habitually present in human population
c. Affect large number of countries simultaneously
d. Exhibit a seasonal pattern
)1996 Cost effective method to prevent dental caries

a. water fluoridation
b. flouridated tooth paste

253
)1997 A preventive agent is

a. Composite
b. Glassionomer c Fluoride
d Zinc oxide eugenol
)1998 In terms of caries prevention, the most effective and most cost effective method is
a. Community based programs Artificial water fluoridation
b. Individually based programs
c. Private based programs
)1999 The effects of natural fluoride versus added fluoride in reducing dental caries as it relates to the
concentration are
a Greater b Less
c The same
)2000 Tooth brushing and dental floss help in community prevention of periodontal disease
a. True
b. False
)2001 Dental caries

a. Is a transmissible disease
b. Is world wide in distribution but uneven in intensity
c. Can be prevented d All of the above
e None of the above
)2002 Epidemiology can be defined as

a. A study of special areas of the skin
b. The study of the distribution and determinant of disease in man
c. Study of biological animals
d. Study of disease in research laboratory
)2003 In a study, it should

a Protect you against role of the statistician b Protect you against legal risks
c Protect against physical risks
)2004 In community diagnosis and treatment program

a. Water flouridation

254
b. Diagnose, prevent and treat
)2005 In clinical research

a. Blind or double blind
b. Needs control
c. Includes intervention
d. Offers no benefits to subject at risk
e. No different between blind & double blind
)2006 In a clinical research trial we primarly need to

a. Get written subject in the patient's own native language
b. Verbally write subject briefly
c. Tell patients that they are part of study
)2007 Ethics of the study include all of the following EXCEPT

a. Privacy of all subjects
b. Informed consent may be required or not
c. Object if the subject refuse to take part of the study
)2008 In prevention of dental caries, the promotion of a healthy diet is

a. low effective measure
b. Moderately effective measure c High effective measure
d Mandatory measure
)2009 Food low cariogenic affects the following should be characteristic

a. low buffering capacity
b. ph low than 3
c. contains minerals
)2010 Reliability of the measurements reflects that property of the measurements which
a. Measures what is intended to be measured
b. Produces repeatedly the same results under a variety of conditions
c. Detects reasonably small shifts in either direction, in group condition d All of the above
)2011 ? which case need authorization from patient to breach confidality

a. Mentally adult or child disabled
b. Abused childe
c. girl dentist discover she is pregnant 13
)2012 yr pt not accept denture which typ 55

a. philospherc
b. excating c hysterical
)2013 Evidence based dentistry depends on

a. Information corrected
b. Understanding statiestics c Criteria Appraise
d Literature reading

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1

2000+ Prometic Dental Questions V.2018

Aslo visit our website www.ozident.com

www.ozident.com | mail@ozidnt.com | Special Thanks to Dr. Al-Samari

2) ?After doing apicoectomy for a tooth when can we place a crown

6) which most important action of inflammation which causes pulp necrosis ?

7) Most important sealer criteria to be success

8) Simplifill apical seal used with which system

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15) THE SUCSES OFINTRAPULPAL I NJECTION DEPENDON

19) To locate the canal orifice use

20) Positive rake

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21) What is most flexible

22) furcations and accessory canals that connect pulp to periodontium

24) Diabetic with pain and abscess and allergy to penicillin

25) The least effective irrigant against E feacalis

26) causes of post operative pain after RCT

28) Crown and root perforation

29) extra canal found in root frm whch

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31) when to use heated/ thermoplasticized GP

33) Success of rotary endo

34) After RCT, for insertion of post dowel

35) overfilling of RCT can cause an Inflammation reaction

36) When doing re-endo to remove GP , best method is

38) Extraction via rotating movement

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39) In case of bad odor in the entrance of the pulp we

40) CMCP contains phenol in concentration

41) The basic difference between K files and reamers is

42) The ideal post drill for most posterior teeth is

44) Silane coupling agent for wetting wall of pulp

45) Thermomechanical technique of obturation is

46) What are the disadvantages of mcspadden technique in obturation

• All the above

47) Continuous condensation technique in gp filling is

48) Technique of endo fill where we use continuous condensation

50) Which of the following canals in 14 is most difficult to locate

52) Broken instrument during RCT, best prognosis if broken at

54) MTA used with

55) The mineral trioxide aggregate ( MTA ) is best material for

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Root canal obturation

56) When root perforation we close it by

57) Immature tooth with external apical third resorption

58) Actual destruction of micro-organisms in the root canal is attributed mainly to

62) Which not compatible to the pulp

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64) Calcium hydroxide is best pulp capping material because

65) RCT contraindicated in

66) All these are contraindicated to RCT EXCEPT

67) Gutta percha contains mainly

68) Component of Gutta percha

69) ?Endo central minimal with mesial caries Restoration

71) othersPost crown is indicated in the following case

72) For post preparation we should leave ……mm of GP

73) Amount of GP should after post preparation