Exit Mcqs.-1
Exit Mcqs.-1
Exit Mcqs.-1
ANIMAL DIVERSITY
2. The simplest extant animal that have Hox gene that regulate formation of water channels in
the body wall are
a) Sponges
b) Cnidaria
c) Ectoprocta
d) Placozoa
3. Vertebrates made the transition to land and diversified into numerous terrestrial groups
around
a) 460 million year ago
b) 360 million years ago
c) 251 million years ago
d) 65.5 million years ago
4. A group whose members share key biological feature are called
a) Calde
b) Grade
c) Species
d) None of them
5. True tissues are absent in
a) Brachiopoda
b) Cycliophora
c) Sponges
d) Rotifer
6. The germ layer that forms the muscle and most other organs between the digestive tract and
outer covering of the animal is called
a) Ectoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d) All above
7. A pattern in many animals with protostome development is
a) Spiral cleavage
b) Determinate cleavage
c) Radial cleavage
d) Indeterminate cleavage
8. Example of deutrostome development is
a) Annelids
b) Mollusks
c) Chordates
d) Both a and b
9. A group that includes an ancestral species and all of its descendants are called
a) Grade
b) Clade
c) Population
d) Both a and b
10. Among the characteristics unique to animals is
a) Gastrulation
b) Flagellated sperm
c) Multicellularity
d) Heterotrophic nutrition
11. The distinction between sponges and other animal phyla is based mainly on the absence
versus the presence of
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a) A body cavity
b) True tissue
c) A complete digestive tract
d) Mesoderm
12. Acoelomates are characterized by
a) The absence of brain
b) A solid body without a cavity surrounding internal organ
c) The absence of mesoderm
d) Deutrostome development
13. Dinosaurs were the dominant land vertebrates during
a) Neoproterozoic Era
b) Paleoproterozoic Era
c) Coenozoic Era
d) Mesozoic Era
14. Brachiopods have a crown of ciliated tantacles that function in feeding called
a) Ammonites
b) Copepods
c) Lophophore
d) Padipalps
15. Which one is a clade of animals with true tissue
a) Eumetazoa
b) Ecdysozoa
c) Lophotrochozoa
d) Metazoan
16. The Cambrian explosion was followed by the
a) Ordovician
b) Silurian
c) Devonian
d) All above
17. Duration of Mesozoic Era is
a) 1 Billion -542 MYa
b) 542-521 MYA
c) 251-65.5 MYA
d) 65.5 MYA to present
18. All eukaryotes have genes that regulate the expression of other genes, and many of these
regulatory genes contain common sets of DNA sequences called
a) Homeoboxes
b) Hox genes
c) Genopore
d) Ampulla
19. Extant species of animals that biologists have identified to date
a) 1.2 million
b) 1.3 million
c) 1.4 million
d) 1.5 million
20. Which one of the following play important roles in the development of animal embryo,
controlling the expression of dozens or even hundreds of other genes that influence animal
morphology
a) Nervous system
b) Cardiac system
c) Homeobox
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d) Hox genes
21. The first generally accepted macroscopic fossils of animals range in age from
a) 565-550 mya
b) 565-542mya
c) 575-550 mya
d) 251-65.5 mya
(a) 600
(b) 700
(c) 750
(d) 650
22.The dorsal fin of sharks act as……..
(a) Stabilizer
(b) Byoyancer
(c) Balancer
(d) Detection
23.Sharks are……….
(a) Buoyancy
(b) Capturing prey
(c) Detoxification
(d) gaseous exchange
25. Pectoral fins of rays act as……..
a) Waterwings
(b) venomous barb
(c) claspers
(d) whiplike
26. Mammals belong to the group of amniotes known as:
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a. Anapsids
b. Synapsids
c. None of these
27. A distinctive characteristic of synapsids is:
a. Single temporal fenestra
b. Double temporal fenestra
c. Triple temporal fenestra
28. Hole behind the eye socket on each side of the skull is known as:
a. Retina
b. Optic nerve
c. temporal fenestra
29. Synapsid evolved into large herbivores and carnivores during the period:
a. Permian
b. Triassic
c. Jurassic
30. First true mammals arose in the period:
a. Jurassic
b. Triassic
c. Cretaceous
31. Three major lineages of living mammals: monotremes, marsupials and eutherians
emerged in:
a. Early cretaceous period
b. Permian
c. Carboniferous period
32. Monotremes are found only in:
a. Australia
b. New Guinea
c. Both a & b
33. Red kangaroo is about the size of:
a. Horse
b. Dog
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c. Honey bee
34. Marsupials existed worldwide during the era:
a. Mesozoic
b. Cenozoic
c. Paleozoic
35. Today no. of marsupial families live outside the Australian region:
a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
36. Eutherians are commonly called as:
a. Placental mammals
b. Egg laying mammals
c. Marsupials
37. Eutherians have pregnancy longer than:
a. Marsupials
b Monotremes
c.None
38. Humans are members of:
a. Lemurs
b. Monkeys
c. Apes
39. Primates have:
a. Large brain and short jaws
b. Short brain and short jaws
c.Large brain and large jaws
40. Monotremes diverged from other mammals:
a. 150 MYA
b. 180 MYA
c. 120 MYA
41. Marsupials diverged from eutherians:
a. 140 MYA
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b. 170 MYA
c. 120 MYA
42. Elephants belong to order:
a. Proboscidea
b. Monotremata
c. Xenarthras
43. Rabbits belong to order:
a. Rodentia
b. Lagomorpha
c. Carnivora
44. Travelling by swinging from branch to branch in trees:
a. Brachiating
b.Crawling
c.None
45. Lemurs, tarsiers, anthropoids belong to order:
a. Primates
b. Rodentia
c. Carnivora
46. Tarsiers are more closely related to:
a. Anthropoids
b. Lemurs
c. Birds
47. Apes diverged from:
a. Old World monkeys
b. New world monkeys
c.Monotremes
48. Shy apes includes:
a. Orangutans
b. Gorillas
c. Gibbons
49.Gorillas are:
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a. Largest apes
b. smaller apes
c.Shy apes
50. Homo sapiens are:
a. 200,000 years old
b. 30000 years old
c. 17000 years old
51. Human genome resembles with apes:
a.99%
b. 97%
c. 10%
52. Humans and chimpanzees differ in the expression of regulatory genes:
a. 19
b. 27
c. 30
53. Study of human origin is known as:
a. Paleoanthropology
b. Paleontology
c. Ethology
54. Hominins are more closely related to:
a. Humans
b. Chimpanzees
c. Apes
55. Hominins brain have volume:
a. 400-450cm3
b. 300 cm3
c. 250-700cm3
56. Monotremes lack
a. Nipples b. Hair c. Both
57. Life has existed on Earth for at least
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c. 4.5 billion years ago
d. 2.5 billion years ago
a. 99%
b. 95%
c. 90%
d. 98%
a. 19
b. 18
c. 17
d. 15
a. Human
b. Reptiles
c. Fossils
d. Arthropods
61. The hole at the base of the skull through which the spinal cord
a. foramen magnum
b. paramen magnum
c. hind magnum
d. thyroid magnum
a. 1300 cm³
b. 1000 cm³
c. 1500 cm³
d. 1200 cm³
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65. As a chimpanzee walks, it uses the amount of energy used by a human.
a. 2 times
b. 3 times
c. 4 times
d. 6 times
a. Africa
b. America
c. Europe
d. Asia
67. human DNA show that Europeans and ------share a relatively recent common ancestor
a. Asians
b. Africans
c. Australians
d. Americans
a. microcephaly.
b. Microrenology.
c. microanthropology.
d. Microcardiology.
69. Synapsids evolved into a large herbivores and carnivores during
a. Permian period
b. Cretaceous period
c. Jurassic period
d. periodTriassic
70. The ________ encloses a compartment of fluid that bath the embryo and act as shock absorber:
a) Allantois
b) Chorion
c)Amnion
a) Anamniotes
b)Amniotes
c) both
a) Amnion
b) Chorion
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c) Yolk sac
a) Amphibians
b) Reptiles
c) birds
a) Viviparous
b) Oviparous
c) Oviviviparous
75. The embryos of reptiles and mammals form ----------- extraembryonic membranes:
a) Three
b) four
c) Two
a)Warm blooded
b) Endothermic
c) Cold blooded
a)Parareptiles
b) Diapsids
c) Archosaurs
a)Birds
b) Reptiles
c) Dinosaurs
a) 50
b) 40
c) 45
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10
80. ------------ are the legless lepidosaurs:
a) Lizards
b) Tuataras
c) Snakes
a)Turtles
b) Alligators
c) crocodiles
82. Power for the flapping of the wings comes from the contraction of the large ------------- muscles:
a) Pectoral
b) pelvic
c) Both
a) Neck
b) Feather
c) Mouth
84. ------------- are the amniotes that have hairs and produce milk:
a) Reptiles
b) Mammals
c) Dipnoi
a) Anapsids
b) Synapsids
c) Diapsids
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
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11
a) Monotremes
b) Eutherians
c) Marsupials
2. CONSEVATION BIOLOGY
a) Beta diversity
b) Gamma diversity
c) Alpha diversity
d) None of these
a) Evenness
b) Richness
c) Abundance
d) a,b
3-The biodiversity valu that something has as a means to human’s end is called as
a) Instrumental value
b) Intrinsic valu
c) Inharent valu
d) None of these
a) Individual level
b) Community level
c) Population lavel
d) Species level
a) Enangered
b) Extinct
c) Vulnerable
d) Critically endangered
a) Data deficient
b) Not evaluated
c) Least concern
d) Near threatened
a) 1983
b) 1999
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12
c) 1963
d) 1964
a) Components
b) Evenness
c) Richness
d) All of these
a) Vulnerable
b) Extinct
c) Endangered
d) Near threatened
a) Instrumental value
b) Intrinsic valu
c) Utilitarian value
d) Anthropocentric value
a) Alpha diversity
b) Beta diversity
c) Gamma diversity
d) Genetic diversity
12-The areas where strict rules are applied about human activities and settlements are
a) National parks
b) Wildlife sanctuary
c) Zoos
d) Aquariums
13-The areas where settlements are not allowed but only few human activities are
a) Wildlife sanctuary
b) National parks
c) Zoos
d) Aquarium
14-The metho of preserving species or individuals in artificial conditions under human supervision is
a) IN-SITU Conservation
b) EX-SITU Conservation
c) Wildlife Sanctuary
d) Zoos
15-The amount of disturbance that an ecosystem could withstand without changing self-organized
processes and structures
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13
a) Ecosystem approach
b) Ecosystem resilience
c) Landscape approach
d) Biosphere reserves
16-Areas of natural habitat at varying scales that provide functional linkages between protected areas are
a) Ecosystem resilience
b) Corridors
c) National park
d) zoos
17-The diversity among the species that exist within the same ecosystem is
a) Alpha diversity
b) Beta diversity
c) Gamma diversity
d) Genetic diversity
a) Endangered
b) Extinct
c) Vulnerable
d) Critically endangered
20-Protected areas managed mainly for conservation of specific natural features are
21-Protected area managed mainly for the sustainable use of natural ecosystems is
22-Protected area managed mainly for ecosystem protection and recreation is present in
a) Category 1a
b) Category 1b
c) Category 2
d) Category 4
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23-Protected area managed mainly for the sustainable use of natural ecosystems is present in
a) Category 2
b) Category 4
c) Category 6
d) Category 5
a) Ralph Aldo
b) Gifford Pinchot
c) John Muir
d) Aldo Leopold
a) Paradigm
b) Principle
c) Rule
d) Law
a) Ecology
b) Community
c) Paradigm
d )Evolution
a) Leopold
b) Muir
c) Pinchot
d) Pickett
28-The genetic composition of most populations is likely to change over time due to ---------------------
a) Genetic drift
b) Natural selection
c) Immigration
d) All of these
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15
29-The ecological world is -----------------
a) Dynamic
b) Non-equilibrial
c) Both a and b
d )Equilibrial
a) 1970
b) 1978
c) 1973
d) 1983
31-Majority of genetic material does not appear to code for any product and is called --------------variation
a) Neutral genetic
b)Adaptive variation
d) Fundamental variation
a) Clones
b) Twins
c) Identical twins
d) Both a and c
a) Fundamental variation
b) Adaptive variation
a) Body size
b) Population size
c) Habitat area
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16
d) None of these
a) Smaller ranges
b) Big size
c) Wide ranges
d) Small size
a) Invertebrates
b) Echinoderms
c) Small plants
d) Vertebrates
a) Mainland
b) Island
c) Sea
d) All of these
a) Exotic
b) Endemic
c) Endangered
d) Non-endangered
a) Marsupial
b) Invertebrate
c) Placental
d) Egg-laying
a) Homozygous
b) Hetrozygous
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17
c) Both
d) None of these
41-Gene combinations with a long history together in a population are called ---------------
a) Sister genes
b) Homeogenes
d) None of these
a) Crossing over
b) Mutations
c) Random mating
d) Natural selection
a) Ne
b) No
c) Na
d) Ni
a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Deleterious
d) Neutral
45-In higher organisms, approximately ------- deleterious alleles may be present in each individual.
a) 200
b) 100
c) 500
d) 300
46- ------------- populations are more resistant to the accumulation of deleterious mutations.
a) Large
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18
b) Small
c) Effective
d) Both a and c
47-In small populations, mutations have a ----------- probability of being passed on to the off springs.
a) Less
b) Least
c) Both a and b
d) Higher
a) Population size
b) Genetic diversity
c) Gene pool
d) None of these
49-Decline in population size will progresively increase the probability of fixing of future mutation and
the phenomenon is termed as ------------------
a) Bottleneck effect
b) Random mating
c) Mutational meltdown
d) Natural selection
a) 50
b) 100
c) 150
d) 75
51- ----------- is the random fluctuation of gene frequencies over time due to chance alone.
a) Genetic drift
b) Random mating
c) Allelic frequency
d) Natural selection
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52- ------------- leads to a loss of variation more quickly and is of greatest conservation concern in small
populations.
a) Random mating
b) Natural selection
c) Allelic frequency
d) Genetic drift
a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Neutral
d) Random
a) Mutation
b) Bottleneck effect
c) Genetic drift
d) Random mating
55- ------------- can be defined as movement of genes from one population to other.
a) Genetic drift
b) Mutation
c) Gene flow
d) Bottleneck effect
a) Random mating
b) Genetic drift
c) Gene pool
d) Mutation
a) Gene flow
b) Genetic drift
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20
c) Gene pool
d) Natural selection
a) Epistasis
b) Outbreeding
c) Inbreeding
d) Sexual selection
a) Small
b) Isolated
c) Large
d) Both a and b
60-Inbreeding does not change allele frequencies but rather increase the frequency of ----------
a) Hetrozygous phenotype
b) Hetrozygous genotype
c) Homozygous phenotype
d) Homzygous genotype
a) Decreased fitness
b) Increased fitness
c) Loss of hetrozygosity
d) Both a and c
a) Metabolic efficiency
b) Growth rate
c) Reproductive physiology
d) All of these
63-In the domestic animal and plant literature, outbreeding enhancement is also reffered as
-------------------
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21
a) Heterosis
b) Hybrid vigor
c) Inbreeding
64- --------- lead to masking of different deleterious alleles and increase in hetrozygosity.
a) Outbreeding
b) Bottleneck effect
c) Inbreeding
d) Genetic drift
a) Inbreeding
b) Outbreeding
c) Gene flow
d) Mutation
66-Decline in fitness of hybrids or outcrossed genotypes can occur due to ------------ of locally adapted
genes due to gene flow.
a) Gene jumping
b) Genetic swamping
c) Genetic drift
d) Gene mutations
a) Inbreeding
b) Gene flow
c) Outbreeding depression
d) None of these
a) Epistasis
b) Mutation
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22
c) Drift
d) Swamping
69- ----------------------- is defined as the differential survival and reproduction of different genotypes in a
population.
a) Gene flow
b) Genetic drift
c) Natural selection
d) Random mating
a) Fertility selection
b) Sexual selection
c) Natural selection
d) Viability selection
a) Fertility selection
b) Sexual selection
c) Natural selection
d) Viability selection
a) Fertility selection
b) Sexual selection
c) Natural selection
d) Viability selection
a) Open
b) Close
c) Random
d) None of these
74- A process by which dry climate have been degraded into artificial deserts by human activites is called
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23
a)habitat destruction
b)over exploitation
c)desterification
d)a & c
75)worldwide _______arid lands have been converted into deserts by the process of desterification
a) 11 million km2
b) 9 million km2
d) 8 million km2
76-When a large area of habitat is converted into small pieces of fragments mainly human activites is
called
a)habitat fragmentation
b)desterification
c)over exploitation
d)none of these
77-Habitat fragments differ from the original habitat by the way that
d)none of these
b)species potential
c)both a & b
d)none of thessse
79-___populations are more vulnerable to inbreeding depression, genetic drift and other problems
a)large
b)small
c)both
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d)none of these
a)center
b)edge
c)corner
d)none of these
a)carnivores
b)producers
c)omnivores
d)none of these
a)natural fires
b)ground fires
c)both of these
d)none of these
83-The process by which DDT and other organochlorine pesticides become more concentated as they
ascend food
a)bioremediation
b)biomagnifications
c)biotechnical process
d)none of these
84-Industrial process often releases large amounts of nitrates and phosphates into aquatic systems, starting
a process is called
a)cultural eutrophication
b)both a & c
c)habitat eutrophication
d)none of these
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a)Lower
b)higher
c)intermediate
d)none of these
b)increased industrialization
c)both of above
d)none of these
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26
c) Globally extinct
d) Extinct in wild
93-Specie globally extinct mean
a) Locally extinct
b) Extinct
c) Wildly extinct
d) Both b & c
94-If specie is no longer found in an area that it once inhabited but is still found elsewhere in the wild
then it is considered to be
a) locally extinct
b) ecologically extinct
c) wildly extinct
d) globally extinct
95-The Bachman’s warbler is
a) Wildly extinct
b) Globally extinct
c) Ecologically extinct
d) Extinct
96-Wildly extinct specie is
a) Bachman’s warbler
b) Tiger
c) Franklin tree
d) American burying beetle
97-American burying beetle is locally extinct but once it was present throughtout
a) Eastern America
b) Northern America
c) South America
d) Eastern and central North America
98-If specie persist at such reduced numbers that its effects on the other species in its communities are
negligible then it is called
a) Ecologically extinct
b) Wildly extinct
c) Globally extinct
d) Locally extinct
99-Tiger is
a) Ecologically extinct
b) Wildly extinct
c) Globally extinct
d) Locally extinct
100-If specie has few members alive for years or decades, even reproduce but its ultimate fate would be
extinction then it is called
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27
a) Dead specie
b) Living specie
c) Endangered specie
d) Living dead specie
101-Species richness has decreased when human population
a) increased
b) decreased
c) Equilibrium
d) none
102-Advanced group of organisms insects, vertebrates and flowering plants reached their greatest
diversity about
a) 20,000 years ago
b) 30, 000 years ago
c) 40, 000 years ago
d) 50, 000 years ago
103-____% of total net primary productivity of terrestrial environment is used or wasted by people; this
represent about ____% of total primary productivity of earth
a) 30, 15
b) 40, 25
c) 50, 35
d) 60, 45
104-The first noticeable effects of human activities on extinction rates can be seen in the elimination of
a) Large mammals
b) Small mammals
c) Amphibians
d) Reptiles
105-When human arrived at Australia, North and south America then extinction of mega fauna at that
time was
a) 30 to 45%
b) 55 to 75%
c) 74 to 86%
d) 85 to 95%
106-Because of large size, extinction rates are best known for
a) Birds and Amphibians
b) Mammals and Birds
c) Amphibians and Mammals
d) Reptiles and Amphibians
107-The highest species extinction rates during historic time have occurred on
a) Island
b) Continents
c) Seas
d) All
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28
108-When species occur naturally to the location then it is called
a) Feral
b) Captive
c) Endemic
d) None
109-High rate of endemism observed in island of
a) Australia
b) Madagascar
c) Hawaiian
d) B&C
110-Extinction of even a few _____ species can represent a serious loss to global biological diversity
a) Marine
b) Terrestrial
c) Both
111-According the data of 1993 and 1994, the number of fishes threatened with extinction was _______
and percentage of fishes threatened with extinction was _____
a) 452, 2
b) 59, 2
c) I67, 3
d) 1029, 11
112-According the data of 1993 and 1994, the number of amphibians threatened with extinction was ____
and percentage of amphibians threatened with extinction was __
a) 452, 2
b) 59, 2
c) I67, 3
d) 1029, 11
113-According the data of 1993 and 1994, the number of reptiles threatened with extinction was ___ and
the percentage of reptiles threatened with extinction was ____
a) 452, 2
b) 59, 2
c) I67, 3
d) 1029, 11
114-According the data of 1993 and 1994, the number of birds threatened with extinction was ___ and
percentage of birds threatened with extinction was ____
a) 452, 2
b) 59, 2
c) I67, 3
d) 1029, 11
115- According the data of 1993 and 1994, the number of mammals threatened with extinction was ____
and percentage of mammals threatened with extinction was ___
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29
a) 452, 2
b) 59, 2
c) I67, 3
d) 505, 11
116-The island biogeography model was built to explain
a) Islands with large areas have more species than islands with small areas
b) Islands with small areas have more species than islands with large areas
c) Islands with large areas have less species than islands with small areas
d) Islands with small areas have less species than islands with large areas
118-The island biogeography model has been used to predict the number and percentage of
a) Community
b) Species
c) Population
d) Individual
119-The island biogeography model predicts that when 50% of an island ( or a habitat island) destroyed,
approximately……. of the species occurring on the island will be eliminated.
a) 10%
b) 20%
c) 30%
d) 40%
120-If deforestation continues until all of the tropical forests except those in national parks and other
protected areas are cut down, about……. of all plant and bird species will be driven to extinction.
a) One third
b) Two third
c) Half
d) none
121-The major threats to biological diversity that result from human activity are
a) Habitat destruction
b) Habitat fragmentation
c) Habitat degradation
d) All of these
122-Until the last few hundred years, the rate of human population growth was relatively slow, with the
birth rate only slightly exceeding the
a) natality rate
b) mortality rate
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c) equilibrium
d) none of these
123-Inefficient and unequal usage of natural resources is the major cause of the decline in
a) Ecological diversity
b) Biological diversity
c) Ecosystem diversity
d) None of these
a) Deforestation
b) Loss of habitat
c) Fragmentation
d) All of these
126-The primary threat to the majority of vertebrate species currently facing extinction is
a) Fragmentation
b) Deforestation
c) Loss of habitat
d) None of these
127-More than…… of the primary forest wildlife habitat has been destroyed in 47 out of 57 old world
tropical countries.
a) 50%
b) 60%
c) 70%
d) 80%
128-In the Mediterranean region, which has been densely populated by humans for thousands of years,
only……… of the original forest cover remains.
a) 10%
b) 20%
c) 30%
d) 40%
3. Economic Zoology
(a) Pest
(b) predators
(c) competitor
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31
(d) decomposers
Answer: (a)
(d) Termites
Answer: (c)
(a) Ants
(b) Mosquito
(c) Termites
Answer: (a)
(a) Diptera
(b) Orthoptera
(c) lepidotera
(d) Hymenoptera
Answer: (d)
Answer: (a)
(a) Groups
(b) Individually
(c) Colony
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32
(d) Queue
Answer: (d)
Answer: (a)
Answer: (c)
Answer: (b)
(a) Moisture
(b) Dry
(d) Air
Answer: (a)
(a) Red
(b) Brown
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33
Answer: (c)
(a) 10-15cm
(b) 15-20cm
(c) 5-10cm
(d) 5-20cm
Answer: (a)
(a) Termites
Answer: (b)
(b) Cancer
(c) Rashes
(d) a and c
Answer: (d)
(a) Teeth
(b) Poison
(c) Antenna
(d) Eyes
Answer: (b)
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34
(a) Pesticide
(b) Insecticides
(d) Poison
Answer: (b)
(b) Cockroach
(c) Ants
(d) Termites
Answer: (d)
(a) 20mm
(b) 30mm
(c) 10mm
(d) 20cm
Answer: (a)
(a) 20-25
(b) 15-20
(c) 20-30
(d) 15-25
Answer: (b)
(d) Light
Answer: (b)
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35
22. Swarmers are actually attacking
Answer: (b)
(c) Sexually
(d) Asexually
Answer: (b)
(a) 12-15mm
(b) 15-17mm
(c) 15-20mm
(d) 20-25mm
(b) 15-17mm
(a) Antenna
(b) Mandible
(c) Eyes
(d) Nails
Answer: (b)
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36
Answer: (c)
(a) 20
(b) 30
(c) 25
(d) 35
Answer: (b)
Answer: (c)
(a) 0.5cm-1cm
(b) 1cm-2.5cm
(c) 1cm-5cm
(d) 0.5mm-1mm
Answer: (a)
(a) Heteroptera
(b) Orthoptera
(c) Lepidoptera
(d) Hymenoptera
Answer: (a)
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37
(d) Human bed bugs
Answer: (d)
(b) Poison
(c) Virus
Answer: (a)
a. Diurnal condition
b. Nocturnal condition
c. Dry days
d. Rainy days
Answer: (b)
a. Mites
b. Ticks
c. Cockroach
d. Aphid
Answer: (a)
a. Rainforest habitat
b. Desert areas
c. Hilly areas
d. All of them
Answer: (d)
a. Respiratory tract
b. Vascular system
c. Nervous coordination
d. Skeletal system failure
Answer: (a)
a. Ant
b. Spider
c. Aphid
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38
d. Silkworm
Answer: (d)
a. Mulberry fruit
b. Flower
c. Juicy fruit
d. Crop
Answer: (a)
a. Rice
b. Wheat
c. Cereals
d. Maize
Answer: (a)
a. Rhyzopertha dominica
b. Karnal baut
c. Khapra beetle
d. Rice weevil
Answer: (a)
Answer: (c)
42. Use of environment friendly gels to repel the insects from the stored grains is a ……… method.
A. Rice weevil
B. Khapra beetle
C. Lesser grain borer
D. All of these
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39
Ans: (D)
A. Sitophilus oryzae
B. Trobolium castaneum
C. Rhyzopertha dominica
D. Tilletia indica
Ans: (A)
45. At what stage of wheat, the lesser grain bore effect it…….,
A. Tilletia indica
B. Trogoderma granarium
C. Sitophilus oryzae
D. Tribolium castaneam
Ans: (A)
A. Tribolium castaneum
B. Sitophilus oryzae
C. Rhyzopertha dominica
D. Tilletia indica
E. Both A and C
Ans: (E)
48. Health facilities in many developed countries are adverse with the general poor economics
particularly in,
A. Turkey
B. Brazil
C. Africa
D. Thailand
Ans: (C)
A. Soft tissue
B. Connective tissue
C. Bone tissue
D. Muscle tissue
Ans: (A)
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40
A. CaSO4
B. CaCO3
C. KCO3
D. MgCO3
Ans: (B)
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 1
Ans: (A)
53. The natural pearls are present in the special mendranous structure of the molluscs called,
A. Upper region
B. Mantle
C. Core
D. Crust
Ans: (B)
54. The cultured pearls are present in the delicate structure of oyster called as,
A. Imitating membrane
B. Hard membrane
C. Super coil membrane
D. Fragile membrane
Ans: (A)
A. India
B. Europe
C. North America
D. China
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41
Ans: (D)
57. The most reason for the failure of the pearl industry in Pakistan is the lack of,
A. Plants
B. Insects
C. Vertebrates
D. All of these
Ans: (D)
A. Soil fertility
B. Hardness
C. Soil erosion
D. Deficiency of nutrients
E. Both C and D
Ans: (E)
A. Small mammals
B. Large mammals
C. Birds
D. All of these
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42
C. Methane and phosphine
D. Methane and chlorine
Ans: (B)
64. After fumigation process the whole building is shut off from the external source and left for about …..
Years.
A. 72
B. 71
C. 70
D. 60
Ans: (A)
A. 350
B. 200
C. 220
D. 335
Ans: (A)
a. Five
b. Three
c. Six
d. Two
Answer: b
67. Pest which are present for large mammals and birds.
a. Insect pest
b. Vertebrate pest
c. Plant pest
d. Wheat insect pest
Answer: b
a. Harmful detection
b. Taxonomy detection
c. Taxonomic Knowledge
d. Knowledge detection
Answer: c
a. Punjab
b. Central Punjab
c. Sindh
d. Baluchistan
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43
Answer: b
69. Midge is the most important crop pest which effect the crops during
a. Seed stage
b. Developing stage
c. Maturity stage
d. Growth stage
Answer: d
a. Cultural measures
b. Biological measures
c. Chemical measures
d. All of them
Answer: d
71. Another important insect which is likely to affect the wheat crop in Lentil stage
a. Grass hopper
b. Tick
c. Bed bud
d. Ants
Answer: a
72. What a technique which is used for Detection of insect pest
a. Detection Technique
b. Pest Monitoring
c. Pest Scouting
d. Detection Monitoring
Answer: c
73. Transect and …..method use in pest scouting technique
a. Quadrant method
b. Line Method
c. Square method
d. None of these
Answer: a
74. Numerical occurrence of Vertebrate pest can be less as compared to……but damage profile is more
a. Plant pest
b. Insect pest
c. Wheat pest
d. Maize pest
Answer: b
75. Important Vertebrate pests are
a. House Mouse
b. House Rat
c. Bandicoot Rat
d. All of these
Answer: d
76. Scientific name of House Mouse
a. Mus musculus
b. Rattus rattus
c. Bandicota bengalensis
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44
d. Passer domesticus
Answer: a
77. Cash crop of Pakistan is
a. Wheat
b. Maize
c. Cotton
d. Rice
Answer: b
78. Bandicota bengalensis is a common name of
a. Rat
b. Mouse
c. Bandicoot Rat
d. Sparrow
Answer: c
79. Which pest damage the Maize crop
a. Insect pest
b. Plant pest
c. Vertebrate pest
d. Wheat pest
Answer: c
80. Dough and Mature stages of…. Crop effect by rodents
a. Wheat
b. Maize
c. Rice
d. Cotton
Answer: b
81. Large Mammals which damage the Maize crop
a. Fox
b. Wild boar
c. Jackals
d. All of these
Answer: d
82. Scientific name of Fox is
a. Canis aureus
b. Sus scrufa
c. Vulpes vulpes
d. Psittocula krameri
Answer: c
83. Scientific name of jackal is
a. Canis aureus
b. Sus scrufa
c. Vulpes vulpes
d. Psittocula krameri
Answer: a
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45
Answer: b
85. Most important Bird pest of Maize
a. Rose ringed parakeet
b. House sparrow
c. House crow
d. All of these
Answer: d
86. Scientific name of Rose ringed parakeet
a. Passer domesticus
b. Corvus splendens
c. Canis aureus
d. Psittocula krameri
Answer: d
87. Alpha alpha insect pest of Maize found in
a. Summer season
b. Spring season
c. Winter season
d. Rainy season
Answer: b
88. Small insect pest which damage the seedling stage of Maize crop
a. Cut worm
b. Weevil
c. Aphids
d. Beet worm
Answer: c
89. Which worm have rapid rate of breeding and appear August to september
a. Cut worm
b. Beet worm
c. Earth worm
d. Round worm
Answer: a
90. Which worm cause intensive damage during growth stage of Maize
a. Grasshopper
b. Beet worm
c. Weevil
d. Aphids
Answer: a
91. Ornamental fishes are those that are present as:
a) Reserve fishes
b) Game fishes
c) Decorative fishes
d) Healthy fishes
Answer: (b)
92. Ornamental fishes can be found in:
a) Small freshwater and large marine water
b) Brackish water
c) Large freshwater and small marine water
d) Pond water
Answer :( a)
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46
93. Ornamental fishes are sold at:
a) High prices
b) Low prices
c) Medium prices
d) Free of cost
Answer :( a)
94. The resources for the ornamental fishes are present in:
a) Peshawar harbor
b) Swat harbor
c) Karachi harbor
d) Islamabad harbor
Answer :( c)
95. How many methods are for the breeding of ornamental fishes?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer :( c)
96. Which of the following is not the method for the breeding of ornamental fishes?
a) Natural
b) Artificial
c) Stripping
d) Ornamental
Answer :( d)
97. Hypophysation occurs in the following method:
a) Natural method
b) Artificial method
c) Stripping method
Answer: (b)
98. In Hypophysation, after how many hours female brooders show response:
a) 2 to 3 hours
b) 5 to 6 hours
c) 6 to 8 hours
d) 9 to 10 hours
Answer :( c)
99. Hypophysation does not take more than…….. Hours:
a) 9
b) 10
c) 11
d) 12
Answer: (d)
100. In stripping method brooders are placed in containers for about……minutes:
a) 5 to 7
b) 7 to9
c) 9 to 11
d) 11 to 13
Answer :( a)
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47
c) 8 to 10
d) 12 to 15
Answer :( c)
102. In stripping method, brooders are stripped with chemical secretion known as:
a) Milt
b) Ethanol
c) Methanol
d) 5-hydroxy butyric acid
Answer :( a)
103. The leading country for ornamental fishes is:
a) Japan
b) America
c) Canada
d) Turkey
Answer :( a)
104. Ectoparasitic diseases are caused by:
a) Amphibians
b) Aves
c) Insects
d) Rodents
Answer :( d)
105. Salmonellosis is caused by a parasite which is known as:
a) Salmonella
b) Yersenia pestis
c) Lymph dispar
d) Liver fluke
Answer :( a)
106. Salmonella parasite is present among the gut content of ……..rodents species:
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer :( c)
107. Salmonellosis is common among children below……..years:
a) 11
b) 12
c) 13
d) 14
Answer: (b)
108. Leptospirosis is caused by the parasite known as:
a) Yersenia pestis
b) Salmonella
c) Lyme dispar
d) Spirochete
Answer :( d)
109. The destruction of red blood cells is called:
a) Anemia
b) Hemophilia
c) Hemolysis
d) Leukemia
Answer :( c)
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48
110. Plague is caused by the ectoparasite known as:
a) Yersenia pestis
b) Salmonella
c) Lyme dispar
d) Spirochete
Answer :( a)
111. Yersenia pestis is caused by the ……..species of rodents:
a) 12
b) 24
c) 36
d) all
Answer :( d)
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49
118. Leishmaniasis is caused by:
a) Yersenia pestis
b) Leishmania devoni
c) Lyme dispar
d) Spirochete
Answer: (b)
119. Boils and Rashes on hands, feet and neck occurs in which disease:
a) Lyme disease
b) Salmonellosis
c) Leptospirosis
d) Leishmaniasis
Answer :( d)
120. Which of the following disease is transferred by the saliva?
a) Lyme disease
b) Murine typhus
c) Leptospirosis
d) Leishmaniasis
Answer :( b)
121. Destruction of red and white blood cells occurs in which disease:
a) Lyme disease
b) Salmonellosis
c) Leptospirosis
d) Leishmaniasis
Answer :( d)
122. Leishmaniasis is responsible for the great infection among:
a) Rodents
b) Grazing animals
c) Birds
d) Fishes
Answer :( b)
123. Leishmaniasis is responsible for the mortality about:
a) 25
b) 50
c) 75
d) 100
Answer :( c)
124. The treatment is possible for the Ectoparasitic diseases if these are diagnosed in:
a) Mid stage
b) Last stage
c) Early stage
d) Embryonic stage
Answer :( c)
4. Animal Ecology
1) A group of individuals of one kind with no barriers to exchange of genetic material in a given area at a
given time called
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50
2) The study of dealing with structure and dynamics of individuals in a population and their interactions
with environment is known as
4) Population ecology deals with structure and ____ of individuals in a population and their instruction
with environment
8) The type of classification of population is based on their ___ and survival strategies
12) The r-selected populations exhibit the shorter life span called
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51
A) r-selected B) k-selected C) Both D) None
15) ___ slow growing and tend to be limited by carrying capacity of environment
21) The density which takes in account area of land or aquatic ecosystem under consideration called__
22) The density which takes in account abundance of individuals in actual area occupied by a population
called__
23) The manner in which individuals of a population are distributed in space and time called__
A) Pattern of dispersion B) Age structure C) Population size D) All
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52
A) Time B) Space C) Density D) Both a & b
26) In case of spatial pattern, broadly __ types of dispersion patterns are recognized
27) A population is comprised of individuals of different ___ that constitute its age structure
28) ___ of a population thus derive from the proportion of individuals in different age groups
30) ___ is a geometrical model showing the proportions of different age groups of a population
31) A Population with __ proportion of major three stages are said to be stationary populations
32) A population with high number of young individuals as compared to older organism’s called__ type
33) If number of older organisms is more than the younger ones, the population said to be__type
36) The new individuals can be formed through the birth, hatching, germination, and cell division in
__process
37) The number of offspring produced per female per unit time is known as
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53
A) Natality B) Rate of natality C) Pattern of dispersion D) none
39) ___ rate means maximum offspring’s produced under most suitable environmental conditions
40) __ rates refers to number of offspring produced under prevailing environmental conditions
42) The theoretical minimum death rate which occur under ideal conditions of environment with limiting
factors called
B) Physiological longevity
43) Under actual environmental conditions, the death rate may be more and this actual death rate is
referred to as
44) The most popular way to express mortality in a population is to prepare the __ survivorship curve
A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6
45) Higher rate of survival, low rate of mortality of younger individuals as compared to older ones occur
in__
46) __ type shows a steady death of individuals per unit time throughout the life
47) __ type shows a straight line relationship b/w age and number of survivors
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54
48) __ type called the highly concave curve
49) __ type shows the high mortality of individuals at young stage as compared to old stage
50) ___ is the inherent power of a population to grow and reproduce when environmental conditions are
favorable and resources are unlimited
A) r B) k C) B D) E
52) Population is never static and changing with time and space. These changes in population size over
the time show varied trends.
A) Population ecology
B) Population dynamic
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5
55) When population growth occurs at a place where resources are limited then it attains the __ shape
curve showing the minimum death during early stages
56) The population increase in size until it reaches an upper limit.This upper limit known as
A) r B) k C) e D) c
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55
A) Carrying capacity B) population regulation C) Population growth D) None
59) sigmoid growth is thus density dependent and can be expressed by the following equation
A) Dn/dt= rn(K-n/K)
B) dN/dt=rN(K-N/K)
60) A number of factors like availability of food, space, water, pests may regulate the population __
A) Density dependent
62) Individuals of populations release a toxic substance in the soil or water, which tend to limit growth
of their own type of plants and thus control over-crowding of a species at a particular place known as
63) A group of co-existing and interacting populations of a variety in a given space and time called
A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7
67) Number of different species in the community including both abundant and rare species called
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56
69) Species diversity very high in ___ communities
71) Species__ refers the different types of species and their numerical strength
72) Species __ refers to measure which qualifies as to how even species are in terms of their number
75) Such groups of species are not taxonomically related and influenced the energy flow and affect the
environment of other species known as
79) Plant communities keep changing with time and space in__
80) The change in community structure and composition over period until there is a formation of a stable
community known as
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57
A) Ecological Succession B) Trophic structure C) None
82) The final stable community formed at the end of succession exists for a longer period and is in
harmony with the existing environmental conditions known as
83) Communities that appear for a shorter time, and are replaced in succession are termed as__
community
84) The plant community that colonizes an area for the first time is termed as__ community
85) A___ coloration is indicated by warning colors, and is sometimes associated with other defense
86) Individuals of a species that vary in external appearance and their variations are genetically fixed and
irreversible called
A) 1 B) 2 C) Both D) None
90) Morphological races of a species that exhibit temporary variation in response to different
environmental conditions are known as
91) Ecad___ totally prostrate and grows on the dry and hard soil
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58
A) 1 B) 2 C) Both D) None
92) Ecad___ grows on footpath, in grasses, has temporary variations arise in response to grazing
A) 1 B) 2 C) Both D) None
93) The United Nation world commission on Environment and development defined the expression
sustainable development in its report “Our common future”in
94) It is anything directly used by human beings are the resources said by the
95) Types of resources that are in an intermediate stage of their possibility to renew or to deplete
called___ resources
99) Carlson, studied the growth of of yeast by centrifuging a culture and determining its ______
A) pearl (b) Evans and Frederick (c) Carlson (d) none of these
A) convex curve (b) concave curve (c) straight curve (d) none
102) Each female of one generation is expected to produce 120 offspring, of which 60 females then the
net reproductive rate is
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59
103) In a stabilized population when the net reproductive rate is 1 then r is
(a) Generation time (b) maturity time (C) environmental resistance (d ) none
r and generation time (b) body size and r (c) body size nd generation time (D) both a,b
109) A convex curve in which mortality is low initially is______ type of survivorship curve
A) Biotic potential (b) reproductive potential (c) environmental resistance (d)no of individuals
Biotic potential (b) reproductive potential (C) environmental resistance (d)no of individuals
(a) N continues to increase (b) N continues to decrease (c) if N is stable (d) none
There is immigration and migration (B) there is neither immigration nor emigration
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60
(a) There is migration and emigration (d) there is nether migration and emigration
Insects population (b) algae population (c) reptile population (D) both a,b
I16) population continues increasing at accelerating rate , precipitously decreases its rate to zero in
this initial curve has ______ shape
117) J shaped growth curve observe in the growth of those populations that have only _________
generation per yer
118) If the data of time and no of individuals are plotted and points joined the growth curve of population
120) The rapid growth portion of positive growth phase is referred as logarithmic growth phase because
__________ produce when data plotted logarithmically
A) Straight line (b) curve (c) horizontal line (d) vertical line
121) At stationary phase of growth curve there is no net change in the population at ______
A) Maximum point (b) Minimum point (c) medium point (D) Zero point
123) Amount of energy required to convert one gram of substance from solid to liquid at melting point
called….
A) Latent heat of fusion (b) evaporation (c) latent heat of evaporation (d) None
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61
(a) Hurricanes (b) earthquake (c) wind (d) tsunamis.
127) Amount of radiant energy of all the wave length that cross a unit area called…
(a) Solar distance (b) light intensity (C) solar flux (d) temperature.
(A) 5.2 17kg (b) 4.5 102 km (c) 5.5×1017 kg (d) none of these.
(a) Air (b) water (c) organic matter (D) mineral matter .
(A) Maximum leaching of mineral (b) humus (c) debris (d) parent rock.
(a) Organic nutrients (B) inorganic nutrients (c) minerals (d) proteins.
(A) Zone of accumulation (b) zone of nutrients (c) decomposed zone (d) Un weathered rock.
A) Crown fire (b) surface fire (c) litter fire (d) none of these.
(a) law of maximum (b) limiting factor (c) optimum (d) Law of toleration
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62
A) Long wave (b) short wave (c) intermediate (d) normal
147) -According to _________ view soil is a pulverized rock containing organic matter
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63
(a)soil structure (b) soil texture (C) soil profile (d) All
152) Mineral matter, air, water and organic matter are the main constituent of
156) Nutrients that constituent less than 0.2%of dry organic weight are
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64
(a) Cl, Na, k (b) Na, Cl, Mg (C) Cl, Na, Ca (d) None
(a) Growth (b) cell replacement (C) Cell division (d) None
166) _________is required in root nodules for proper functioning of nitrogen fixing bacteria
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65
(A) 13.5 (b) 13.6 (c) 13.7 (d) 13.9
179) Energy may change in form but not in amount” is the statement of
184) The movement of water from the atmosphere to the Earth surface and through a variety of pathways
back to atmosphere called___Cycles
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66
(a) Biogeochemical (B) hydrological (c) sedimentary (d) None
185) The movement of chemical elements involves biological organisms and their geological
environment , these movements called ____ cycles
186) Major reservoir is the lithosphere from which the elements are released largely by weathering
called__cycles
189) In carbon cycle the gaseous reservoir is the atmosphere , which has an average conc. Of about __%
of carbon dioxide
191) CO2 levels near the ground may rise to ____ % at night
192) CO2 level drop to below the average conc. Of ____% during days
193) In spring _____ photosynthetic activity take place that balanced conc. Of CO2
195) In northern latitudes CO2 contents which is a maximum in April & September and the winter – to-
summer- differences may vary by as much ___%
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67
(A) 0.002 (b) 0.003 (C) 0.004 (d) 0.005
196) CO2 conc. ___ m above the soil surface from march through November 1985
199) The amount of carbon in the dead organisms as ____ time larger
200) The amount of carbon in organic form is but a fraction less than ___ % of that occurring in the
geological component of environment
201) Major reservoir of carbon is inorganic with ___ % being in sedimentary form
203) 1 cc is = to
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68
(A) 40 (b) 41 (c) 42 (d) 43
212) Denitrification to molecular or gaseous nitrogen as well as to nitric oxide and nitrous oxide is
effected by ___
1) The branch which integrates information on the historical, current ecology and genetics of an organism
refers as,
a) Ecological Zoogeography
b) Historical Zoogeography
c) Zoogeography
d)Systematics
answer: c
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69
Answer: a
Answer: a
8) Rich fish fauna present in,
a) Australian Region
b) Neotropical Region
c) Ethopian Region
d) Palearctic Region
answer: c
9) Amphibians are less distinct in,
a) Palearctic Region
b) Ethopian Region
c) Australian Region
d) Neotropical Region
Answer: a
10) In oriental Region the climate is mostly,
a) Tropical
b) Temperate
c) Rain
d) Hot and Dry
Answer: a
11) The continental island are formed through,
a) Volcanic eruption
b) Due to Continental drift
c) Sinking of land
d) Through Flooding
Answer: c
12) Total number native freshwater fishes in Pakistan are,
a) 180
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70
b) 177
c) More than 200
d) 660
Answer: a
13) Lemurla land bridge present between,
a) Africa, Madagascar and India
b) Between South America and Australia
c) Between Africa and South America
d) Between South America and South Africa
Answer: a
14) According to Wegner the floor of oceans were made up slime which composed of,
Answer: c
15) Europe and northern part of Africa present in,
a) Palearctic Region
b) Oriental Region
c) Neotropical Region
d) Ethopian Region
Answer: a
b) Pacific Ocean
c) Himalayan Region
d) Amazon River Basin
Answer: c
17) Madagascar included in,
a) Palearctic Region
b) Ethopian Region
c) Neotropical Region
d) Oriental Region
Answer: b
18) Deserts are totally absent in,
a)Palearctic Region
b) Oriental Region
c) Neotropical Region
d) Ethopian Region
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71
19) Passive dispersion of living organisms occurs due to,
a) Through Locomotory organ
b) Through Human
c) Through Abiotic and biotic agents
d) Through Animals
Answer: c
20) Thickness of Mozambique Channel is about,
a) 50 km
b) 60 km
c) 40 km
d) 30 km
Answer : c
21) Distinctive fauna of Central Africa from Cape of Good Hope is due to,
a) Kalahari Desert
b) Sahara Desert
c) Mountain range
d) River
Answer: a
22) Monophagic animals feed on,
a) Different foods
b) On Insects
c) One specialized food
d) On Plants
Answer:c
23) Some insects and millipedes carried out through logs, known as,
a) Natural Rafts
b) Favoring gales
c) Driftwood
d) Migration
Answer: c
24) Vertical distribution of organism in space known as,
a) Altitudinal Distribution
b) Halobiotic Distribution
c) Limnobiotic Distribution
d) Bathymetric Distribution
Answer: d
25) Vertical distribution of organisms in freshwater habitat refers as,
a) Altitudinal Distribution
b) Halobiotic Distribution
c) Limnobiotic Distribution
d) Bathymetric Distribution
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72
Answer: c
26) Altitudinal distribution of life of land known as,
a) Geobiotic Distribution
b) Halobiotic Distribution
c) Limnobiotic Distribution
d) Bathymetric Distribution
Answer:a
27) Vertical distribution of organism in marine habitat known as,
a) Geobiotic Distribution
b) Halobiotic Distribution
c) Limnobiotic Distribution
d) Bathymetric Distribution
answer: b
c) Plants
d) Mammals
Answer: c
30) The climatic condition of north and south Pole are,
a) Different
b) Identical
c) Hot
d) Rainy
Answer: b
31) Distribution of animals do not depends upon.
a) Suitability
b) Food resources
c) Climate
d) Natural laws
Answer: a
32) Palearctic and Ethopian region grouped into,
a) Neogaea
b) Arctogaea
c) Notogaea
d) Palaeogaea
Answer: d
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73
b) Notogaea
c) Arctogaea
|d) Palaeogaea
Answer: b
35) Arctogaea is division of earth,
a) Due to presence of oceans
b) Due to climatic conditions
c) Division from southern side
d) Division from Northern side
Answer: c |
36) At the west and north Palearctic Region bounded by,
a) Desert
b) Sea
c) Mountain Range
d) Pacific ocean
Answer: b
38) Palearctic Region bounded by Himalayas to the,
a) South
b) West
c) North
d) East
Answer:a
39) At East side Palearctic region bounded by,
a) Pacific Ocean
b) Himalayas
c) Indian Ocean
d) Sahara Desert
Answer: d
40) ……. has greater diversity of surface feature,
a) Nearctic region
b) Neotropical region
c) Palearctic region
d) Ethopian region
Answer:c
41) Mammalian families of Palearctic region are about,
a) 28
b) 29
c) 30
d) 32
Answer: a
42) Two rodents species, Spalacidae and Selevinidae present in,
a) Ethopian region
b) Oriental Region
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c) Palearctic Region
d) Australian region
Answer: c
43) Large numbers of tailed amphibians are present in,
a) Ethopian region
b) Palearctic Region
c) Neotropical Region
d) Australian region
Answer: b
44) Palearctic region shares bears and deers with,
a) Nearctic and Ethopian region
b) Neotropical and Australian region
c) Nearctic and Palearctic region
d) Neotropical region Oriental region
Answer: d
45) Oriental region has no physical boundary in,
a) Southeast side
b) Southwest side
c) South side
d) West side
Answer: a
46) At Northwest side the oriental region bounded by,
a) Indian Ocean
b) Desert
c) Mountains
d) Grassy Plains
Answer: b
47) At north Oriental region bounded by,
a) Indian Ocean
b) Desert
c) Himalayas
d) Grassy Plains
Answer: c
48) 153 families of terrestrial vertebrates are present in,
a) Ethopian region
b) Oriental Region
c) Neotropical Region
d) Australian region
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c) Neotropical Region
d) Ethopian region
Answer: d
50) Oriental region shares hedgehog and porcupine with,
a) Nearctic and Ethopian region
b) Neotropical and Australian region
c) Ethopian and Palearctic region
d) Neotropical Oriental region
Answer: c
51) At Northern side Ethopian region bounded by,
a) Indian Ocean
b) Sahara
c) Himalayas
d) Grassy Plains
Answer: b
52) 161 Families of terrestrial vertebrate present in,
a) Australian region
b) Neotropical region
c) Nearctic region
d) Ethopian region
Answer: d
53) …….. families are exclusive in Ethopian region.
a) 13 Families
b) 12 Families
c) 10 Families
d) 8 Families
Answer: b
54) Of all chameleons’ species in the world …….. found in Ethopian region.
a) 45
b) 40
c) 35
d) 20
Answer: b
55) In Australian region the terrestrial vertebrates are about,
a) 134 families
b) 133 families
c) 132 families
d) 130 families
Answer: a
56) ……. birds species are present in Australian region.
a) 18
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76
b) 19
c) 17
d) 20
Answer: c
b) Ethopian region
c) Australian region
d) Nearctic region
Answer: c
d) 250 species
Answer: d
59) 100 species of tree frogs and and common frogs are present in,
a) Oriental region
b) Ethopian region
c) Australian region
d) Nearctic region
Answer: c
60) Australian region fauna, a few frogs turtles and marsupials resemble with,
a) Nearctic region
b) Neotropical region
c) Palearctic region
d) Ethopian region
Answer: b
b) Ethopian region
c) Neotropical region
d) Nearctic region
Answer: c
62) Higher number of endemic species are present in,
a) Neotropical region
b) Ethopian region
c) Australian region
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d) Nearctic region
Answer: a
63) Nearctic fauna is very similar to,
a) Palearctic region
b) Ethopian region
c) Australian region
d) Nearctic region
Answer: a
64) Terrestrial vertebrates of Nearctic region are about,
a) 121 families
b) 119 families
c) 122 families
d) 120 species
Answer: d
65) 59 birds species are present in,
a) Palearctic region
b) Ethopian region
c) Australian region
d) Nearctic region
Answer: d
66) Nearctic region joined by Central Isthmus to,
a) Neotropical region
b) Ethopian region
c) Australian region
d) Nearctic region
Answer: a
62) In Nearctic region, there present,
a) 20 reptiles and 21 amphibians
b) 14 Reptiles and 21 amphibians
c) 21 reptiles and 14 amphibians
d) 21 reptiles and 21 amphibians
Answer: c
68)The Earth has existed for _______years ago
a) 3.2 Billion
b) 4.7 Billion
c) 4.6 billion
d) 5.2 billion
answer: c
69)The largest section is called as_____
a) Eras
b) Periods
c) Epochs
d) Eons
answer: d
70) The second section is called as_____
a) Eras
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78
b) Periods
c) Epochs
d) Eons
answer: a
71) Eras are divided into_____
a) Eras
b) Periods
c) Epochs
d) Eons
answer: c
72) The death of every member of a species is_________
a) Vulnerable
b) Threaten
c) Extinction
d) Expired
answer: c
73) Extinction’s main reasons are____
a) Competition
b) Survival
c) Danger
d) Space
answer a
74) The extinction of many species at the same time______
a) Uniformitarianism
b) Mass Extinction
c) Catastrophism
d) Destruction
answer b
75) Gradual changes in climate or ocean currents result in _____
a) Uniformitarianism
b) Mass Extinction
c) Catastrophism
d) Destruction
answer a
76) Asteriods hitting the earth and of blocking
the sun_____
a) Uniformitarianism
b) Mass Extinction
c) Catastrophism
d) Destruction
answer c
77) Time from the formation of the Earth____ to _____ is called as Precambrian Time.
a) 4.9 Billion to 572 million years
b) 5.2 Billion to 592 million years
c) 4.6 Billion to 542 million years
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79
d) 4.2 billion
answer:c
79) The first organism called as_____
a) Ameoba
b) Prokaryotes
c) Eukaryotes
d) Pramecium
Answer: b
80) Prokaryotes have_____
a) No cell and many nucleus
b) Many cells and no nucleus
c) One cell and no nucleus
d) Many cells and many nucleus
answer: c
81) As oxygen began to build up, the_____ was formed.
a) Ozone
b) Oxygen
c) Hydrogen
d) Nitrogen
answer: a
82) After the formation of Prokaryotes ____ years ago Eukaryotes formed
a) 10 Millions
b) 1.5 billion
c) 1 billion
d) 2.5 billion
answer: c
83) Paleozoic Era formed ______ and ended ______ years ago.
a) 575 M and 340 M
b) 542 M and 251 M
c) 548 M and 390 M
d) 532 M and 245 M
answer: b
84) Paleozoic Era is divided into____ periods
a) 9
b) 5
c) 6
d) 2
answer: c
85) New life forms appeared during the 1 st period, the “Cambrian Period”___
a) Cambrian formation
b) Cambrian Explosion
c) Cambrian Initiation
d) Cambrian Destruction
answer: b
86) Organisms hard part firstly formed as_____
a) Shells, Endoskeleton
b) Flagella, Endoskeleton
c) Cillia, Exoskeleton
d) Shells, Exoskeleton
answer: a
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80
87) Permian Extinction occurred_____ years ago.
a) 248 M
b) 298 M
c) 251 M
d) 340
answer: c
88) Paleozoic era ends and __________Era starts.
a) Precambrian
b) Perminan
c) Cambrian
d) Mesozoic
answer: d
89) ___% of life ocean life and ____% of Life ended according to the scientists.
a) 90% and 48%
b) 74% and 56%
c) 90% and 78%
d) 56% and 67%
answer: c
90) Which of the animals group survived during Permian extinction.
a) Reptiles and Mammals
b) Mammals and Amphibians
c) Reptiles and Amphibians
d) Mammals, Amphibians and Reptiles
answer: c
91) Mesozoic Era begans _______ Millions years ago.
a) 251
b) 340
c) 560
d) 480
answer: a
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81
95) In Tertiary Extinction _____ got Extinct.
a) Mammals
b) Amphibians
c) Reptiles
d) Dinosaurs
answer: d
96) Cenozoic Era began ______ million years ago
a) 45
b) 78
c) 65
d) 89
answer: c
97) The remains of all organisms preserved in the earth is called as.________
a) Ruminants
b) Fossils
c) Specimens
d) Particles
answer: b
98) A preserved specimens is ______.
a) Ruminants
b) Fossils
c) Waste products
d) Particles
answer: b
99) The minimum age of a fossil is arbitrary date of _______ years.
a) 50,000
b) 25,000
c) 100,000
d) 10,000
answer: d
100) Fossils varied from microscopic single bacterial cells ___ in diameter.
a) 10 mm
b) 4 mm
c) 1 mm
d) 6 cm
answer: c
101) Fossiliferous (fossil-containing) rock formations and sedimentary layers (strata) is ____.
a) fossilization
b) destruction
c) fossil formation
d) fossil record
answer: d
102) There are ____ categories of fossils.
a) 1
b) 4
c) 7
d) 9
answer: b
103) Original soft parts of organisms consisted the medium of ___
a) Ice, land, water and amber
b) Ice, oil, saturated soil and amber
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82
c) Land, desserts and amber
d) Ice, land, water and soil
answer: b
104) The best known example of original parts of organisms is Wooly Mammoths of. ____
a) Siberia and America
b) Alaska and England
c) Siberia and Alaska
d) Canada and Sweden
answer: c
105) A huge elephant like mammal buried in ____
a) Iceland
b) Ireland
c) Permafrost (frozen soil)
d) Ancient Iceland
answer: c
106) Pre-historic insects became entrapped in sticky gum like yellowish resin is called ____
a) Amber
b) Saturated soil
c) Glacier
d) Poland
answer: a
107) Original hard parts of organisms are of ____ forms.
a) 1
b) 5
c) 7
d) 9
answer: b
108) ______ remains consisted of shells of foraminifera, corals, tests of echinoderms.
a) Aragonitic
b) Phosphatic
c) Siliceous
d) Calcitic
answer: d
109) _____ remains are (an unstable form of calcite) shells of gastropods, cephalopods
a) Aragonitic
b) Phosphatic
c) Siliceous
d) Calcitic
answer: a
110) _____Remains includes bones.
a) Aragonitic
b) Phosphatic
c) Siliceous
d) Calcitic
answer: b
111) ____Remains included radiolarian shells, spongs
a) Aragonitic
b) Phosphatic
c) Siliceous
d) Chitinous
answer: c
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112) Exoskeleton of arthropods are remains of _______
a) Aragonitic
b) Phosphatic
c) Siliceous
d) Chitinous
answer: d
113) Altered hard parts of organisms consisted of ______ forms.
a) 1
b) 3
c) 7
d) 9
answer: b
114) These are the remains of _____ nitrogen, oxygen and hydrogen are lost only a thin film of
carbonaceous material.
a) Carbonization or mineralization
b) Preminerlization or petrification
c) Carbonization or distillation
d) Replacement or mineralization
answer: c
115) These are the remains of _____ literally turned into stone.
a) Carbonization or mineralization
b) Preminerlization or petrification
c) Carbonization or distillation
d) Replacement or mineralization
answer: b
116) These are the remains of _____ chemical from bones or shells get dissolved only turned into light
and spongy.
a) Carbonization or mineralization
b) Preminerlization or petrification
c) Carbonization or distillation
d) Replacement or mineralization
answer: d
117) Traces of Organisms are also called as. ______
a) Recored fossils
b) Ichnofossils
c) Remains of fossils
d) Specimens
answer: b
118) Traces of Organisms includes. ________
a) Carbonization or mineralization
b) Preminerlization or petrification
c) Carbonization or distillation
d) Mold and cast
answer: d
119) Mold is _____ in surrounding.
a) depression
b) expression
c) impression
d) filling
answer: c
120) Cast is filling of ____.
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84
a) Microfilaments
b) Hollow cavity
c) Golgi bodies
d) Neurons
answer: b
121) Impression of an organisms after original material disappears is known as.____
a) Mold
b) expression
c) Cast
d) filling
answer: a
a) fossilization
b) destruction
c) fossil formation
d) fossil record
answer: a
124) Fossilization is the process by which plant and animals remains are preserved in _____
a) desserts
b) soil
c) sedimentary rocks
d) oil
answer : c
125) The study of how living organisms become fossilized is known as ________
a) Fossil record
b) taphonomy
c) fossilization
d) catatrophism
answer: b
126) Inner Core _____km.
a) 1590
b) 1409
c) 1200
d) 2250
Answer: c
127) Outer core ____ km.
a) 1590
b) 1409
c) 1200
d) 2250
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Answer: d
128) Mantel is______.
a) 1590
b) 2900
c) 1200
d) 2250
Answer: b
a) Atmosphere
b) Biosphere
c) Hydrosphere
d) Geology
Answer: c
132) Part of the Earth where life exists.
a) Atmosphere
b) Biosphere
c) Hydrosphere
d) Geology
Answer: b
133) Study of the Earth’s magnetism is called as_____.
a) Atmosphere
b) Magnetic force
c) Paleomagentism
d) Geology
Answer: c
a) 5
b) 4
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c) 3
d) 2
Answer: d
136) Temperature highest near the ground and falls all the way up to about:
a) 30,000 ft
b) 40,000 ft
c) 20,000 ft
d) 10,000 ft
Answer: a
a) Ionosphere
b)Troposphere
c)Mesosphere
d) Stratosphere
Answer: c
138) Animals that enjoy universal distribution are:
a) Cosmopoliton
b) Discontinuous
c) Derivatives
d) Endemic
Answer: a
139) The region consist of whole of Africa and South Arabia is:
a) Australian
b) Oriental
c) Ethopian
d) Neo tropical
Answer: b
140) Neotropical region is also called:
a) Reptile continent
b) Bird continent
c) Mammal continent
d) Amphibian
Answer: b
6. Developmental Biology
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87
Classification of Developmental biology based on history involve….
a) Descriptive Embryology
b) Regeneration
c) Organogenesis
d) Developmental Physiology
Embryology of most animal types are classified and compared in…
a) Descriptive Embryology
b) Comparative Embryology
c) Chemical Embryology
d) Experimental Embryology
The origin of new individual from living beings explained by….
a) Anaximander (600 B.C)
b) Aristotle (384-322 B.C)
c) Holy Hindu’s book (600 B.C)
d) None of these
Statement “Heart form first and nails at the end” said by….
a) Empedocles
b) Aristotle
c) Muller
d) Haekel
Aristotle discussed classification of animals based on mode of reproduction.
a) Reproduction without egg
b) Egg with fluid
c) Highest level big egg
d) All of above
Theory of Entelechy given by….
a) Swammerdam
b) Aristotle
c) Wolff
d) Baer
Concept “Rearrangement takes place under the guidance of architect” given in,,,
a) Theory of Epigenesis
b) Theory of preformation
c) Baer’s law
d) Biogenetic law
Who was father of embryology?
a) Swammerdam
b) Baer
c) Muller
d) Haekel
Which statement true about Preformation Theory?
a) Preformed individual is present in sex cells
b) Preformed individual only present in egg
c) Feature of ancient origin develop earlier
d) Both b and c
Mosaic theory stated that….
a) Development is pre-planned and predetermined
b) Fate is not fixed
c) Both a and b
d) Development is changing with condition
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88
In 1891 Derish proposed….
a) Theory of organogenesis
b) Mosaic theory
c) Regulative theory
d) Theory of Gradient
When embryo of amphibian cleaved equatorially and separate dorsal half, other half….
a) Failed to develop
b) Completely develop
c) Both a and b
d) None of these
Metabolic rate of egg is………. In animal pole
a) Higher
b) Lower
c) Medium
d) Metabolic rate is absent
Concentration of yolk is
a) Higher in animal pole
b) Higher in vegetal pole
c) Lower in animal pole
d) Lower in vegetal pole
The process of production and maturation of male and female gametes known as,,,,,
a) Organogenesis
b) Gametogenesis
c) Fertilization
d) None of these
Cells of sertoli are also called….
a) Somatic cells
b) Germ cells
c) Spermatogonia
d) Both a and b
In which tissue, seminiferous tubules are enclosed?
a) Connective tissues
b) Tunica albuginea
c) Somatic tissues
d) Both a and b
After meiosis, primary spermatocytes form….
a) Spermatid
b) Sperm mother cells
c) Spermatogonia
d) None of these
Conversion of spermatid into mature sperm called
a) Spermioteleosis
b) Spermatogenesis
c) Maturation phase
d) All of above
A fibrous material surrounding the nucleus of sperm makes its appearance known as….
a) Granules
b) Manchette
c) Vesicle
d) All of these
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89
Which statement correct about mature sperm?
a) Streamlined to swim through vagina
b) Have acrosomal cover
c) Haploid nucleus
d) All of these
Mitochondria of sperm present in…
a) Head
b) Middle piece
c) Tail
d) Both b and c
What is the weight of ovary in 1kg fish?
a) 200g
b) 100g
c) 300g
d) 150g
In mammal’s ovaries are present………… percent by weight.
a) 0.016%
b) 0.01%
c) 1.6%
d) 0.01%
Which statement is true about and birds?
a) Usually have single ovary
b) Ovary are elongated
c) Ovoid in structure
d) All of these
Zona radiata appeared in which process?
a) Oogenesis
b) Spermatogenesis
c) Ovogensis
d) None of these
Major component of yolk is….
a) Proteins
b) Phospholipids
c) Carbohydrates
d) Both a and b
Eggs containing small amount of yolk called…
a) Microlecithal
b) Mesolecithal
c) Macrolecithal
d) None of these
Fishes contain which type of egg?
a) Microlecithal
b) Macrolecithal
c) Mesolecithal
d) Polylecithal
Lamp brushes chromosomes are present in the nucleus of….
a) Egg
b) Ovary
c) Sperm
d) Both a and b
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90
Growth rate of oocytes in insects completed in….
a) 3 days
b) 4 days
c) 3 years
d) None of these
On which side nucleus is present in egg?
a) Animal pole
b) Vegetal pole
c) Cytoplasm
d) Mitochondria
In which type of egg yolk is equally distributed?
a) Oligolecithal
b) Homolecithal
c) Telolecithal
d) Alecithal
In phosvitin, phosphorus present up to.
a) 8%
b) 3%
c) 5%
d) 7%
Egg envelope in the form of chitinous shell are present in…
a) Fishes
b) Amphibians
c) Insects
d) Reptiles
Which statement is correct about egg membrane?
a) Prevent egg fusion
b) Inhibit polyspermy
c) Act as ecological barrier
d) All of these
Fusion of male and female gametes along with their nuclei is called….
a) Cleavage
b) Fertilization
c) Gastrulation
d) Induction
Sperm is motile while the egg is….
a) Stationary
b) Motile
c) Mobile
d) Both b and c
Maturation of sperm and egg take place at the……in the males and females of the same species.
a) At different times
b) Sperms mature early
c) Eggs mature early
d) At same times
The female genital tract support the movement of sperm in forward direction during….
a) Internal fertilization
b) External fertilization
c) Parthenogenesis
d) Not support
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A protein fertilizin is present on the surface of egg and antifertilizin is present on….
a) Egg
b) Sperm
c) Ovary
d) Genital tract
In case of internal fertilization fluid is provided by….
a) Sperm
b) Egg
c) Genital tract
d) Ovary
Mostly the encounter of sperm take place when egg is under growth period of….
a) Maturation
b) Differentiation
c) Division
d) All a, b and c
During upward movement of sperm in genital tract, sperm undergoes certain changes which gives
capacity to sperm to fertilize the egg is known as….
a) Fertilization
b) Maturation
c) Penetration
d) Capacitation
The entry of egg into sperm is facilitated by….
a) Physical processes
b) Chemical and structural changes
c) Chemical changes
d) All a, b and c
Spermatozoa has ……. nucleus.
a) Spherical
b) Oval
c) Long
d) No nucleus
The space between acrosomal membrane and nuclear membrane is filled by a material is known as….
a) Cytoplasm
b) Nucleoplasm
c) Periacrosomal material
d) None of these
The acrosomal material contain lytic enzymes, such as……. responsible for clearing the path through the
secondary envelops.
a) Amylase
b) Hyaluronidase
c) Ribonucleotide reductase
d) Both a and b
The Periacrosomal material injected into egg is responsible for….
a) Egg activation
b) Egg maturation
c) Zygote formation
d) Cleavage
After the entry of sperm nucleus, mitochondria and centrioles, into the cortex of egg, rotates at…….
Degrees.
a) 180
b) 90
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c) 360
d) None of these
The fertilization cone formation is followed by a chain of physiochemical reactions in the cortex of egg is
called….
a) Capacitation
b) Activation of egg
c) Cortical reaction
d) Penetration of sperm
The………blocks the entrance of late arriving spermatozoa.
a) Fertilization membrane
b) Fertilization cone formation
c) Periacrosomal material
d) Cortex of egg
The lamellar parts, liquefied components and globules are components of….
a) Egg
b) Sperm
c) Cortical granule
d) Acrosome
After fertilization rate of……. synthesis increase at great speed.
a) DNA
b) RNA
c) Hormone
d) Cell
After fertilization, intracellular changes occur in the concentration of….
a) Sodium, potassium
b) Chloride, sodium
c) Potassium, chloride
d) Potassium
The mixing of male and female nuclei is…….
a) Fusion
b) Fertilization
c) Amphimixis
d) Penetration
The path at which male apparatus move towards the female nuclei is called……
a) Penetration path
b) Fertilization path
c) Capacitation
d) Both a and b
The site of Amphimixis lies on…….of the active cytoplasm.
a) Right side
b) Left side
c) Both a and b
d) Centre
Gynogenesis is a type of…….
a) Cleavage
b) Gastrulation
c) Fertilization
d) Cloning
After fertilization, internal membrane potential changes…….
a) -60 mv to +5 mv to -60 mv
b) -60 mv to +2 mv to -60 mv
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93
c) 60 mv to -5 mv to 60 mv
d) 60 mv to -2 mv to 60 mv
Globular membrane fuses with plasma membrane and constitute….
a) Fertilization membrane
b) Plasma membrane
c) Nuclear membrane
d) Hyaline membrane
Denser lamellar parts arrange inner side of…….
a) Plasma membrane
b) Globular membrane
c) Vitelline membrane
d) Hyaline membrane
Liquefied components of cortical granules fill the……
a) Vitelline space
b) Perivitelline space
c) Inside the plasma membrane
d) Fertilization cone
In Gynogenesis sperm enter but nuclei……
a) Fuse
b) Do not fuse
c) Partially fuse
d) Both b and c
In polyandric situation……. male pronuclei fuse with female pronuclei.
a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1
A situation in which enucleated egg fuses with sperm is known as…….
a) Polygamy
b) Polyandry
c) Merogony
d) Polyspermy
Egg is fertilized with part of sperm (e.g. sperm aster) in……
a) Gynogenesis
b) Androgenises
c) Monospermic condition
d) Partial fertilization
After fertilization, egg undergoes a series of cell divisions from single cell to multicellular structure. The
divisions are called….
a) Mitosis
b) Meiosis
c) Cleavage
d) Mitosis or meiosis
Consecutive mitotic divisions are important characteristic of......
a) Cleavage
b) Mitosis
c) Fertilization
d) Gastrulation
During cleavage cell shows….
a) No growth
b) Faster growth
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94
c) Less growth
d) None of these
During cleavage, cytoplasmic substances changes into….
a) Organelles
b) Nuclear envelop
c) Nuclear substance
d) Cell membrane
During cleavage size of………decreases slowly and finally becomes equal to normal body size
a) Egg
b) Zygote
c) Embryo
d) Blastomere
During cleavage nucleus to cytoplasm ratio…….
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Increase or decrease
d) Remain same
In the process of cleavage, nuclear or DNA ratio…….
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remain same
d) Increase or decrease
In cleavage, chromatin material remains…….
a) Haploid
b) Diploid
c) Tetraploid
d) Diploid to tetraploid
Cytoplasm contains ribonucleotides which are converted to deoxyribonucleotide with the help of an
enzyme……
a) Carbonic anhydrase
b) Catalase
c) Ribonucleotide reductase
d) Amylase
Protein synthesis during cleavage…….
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) No protein synthesis
d) Remain same
During cleavage, the RNA synthesis……
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Decrease or blocked
d) Both a and b
Nuclear histone protein is required for…….
a) Nucleus formation
b) Protein synthesis
c) RNA synthesis
d) Chromosomes binding
The protein that is responsible for the microtubules of asters that is translated by mRNA.
a) Nuclear histone
b) Histone
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95
c) Tubulin
d) Actin
The cleavage in which egg divides completely into two cells…….
a) Meroblastic
b) Equal holoblastic
c) Unequal holoblastic
d) Holoblastic
In equal holoblastic cleavage, blastomere are of…….
a) Equal size
b) Unequal size
c) Very small size
d) Large size
In unequal holoblastic cleavage, the upper smaller blastomere is formative blastomere while lower
blastomere is known as…….
a) Lower blastomere
b) Terminal blastomere
c) Axillary blastomere
d) Central blastomere
Incomplete cleavages occur in animals are called……
a) Holoblastic
b) Meroblastic
c) Radial
d) Spiral
Incomplete cleavages occur in …….egg.
a) Oligolecithal
b) Telolecithal
c) Mesolecithal
d) Both a and blastula
The amphioxus egg is…….
a) Oligolecithal
b) Mesolecithal
c) Telolecithal
d) Macrolecithal
The first cleavage in amphioxus egg is…….
a) Meridional
b) Vertical
c) Holoblastic
d) Meridional and holoblastic
Third cleavage in amphioxus is…….
a) Equatorial and slightly unequal
b) Equatorial
c) Latitudinal
d) Meridional
The ball of cells produce because of cleavage……
a) Blastula
b) Gastrula
c) Morula
d) Blastomere
After blastula formation, a cavity appears which is called…….
a) Coelom
b) Blastocoel
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c) Periblast
d) Blastocyst
The frog egg is…….
a) Mesolecithal
b) Oligolecithal
c) Telolecithal
d) Macrolecithal
First and second cleavages in frog are………
a) Holoblastic and meridional
b) Holoblastic and equatorial
c) Meroblastic
d) Holoblastic
The third cleavage in frog is unequal equatorial and divide the egg into……….
a) 4 cells
b) 6 cells
c) 8 cells
d) 10 cells
In frog egg the cells towards the animal pole are smaller are known as….
a) Blastomeres
b) Megameres
c) Micromeres
d) Both b and c
In frog a cavity appears at four cell stage which is the beginning of……
a) Gastrocoel
b) Periblast
c) Blastocyst
d) Blastocoel
Due to the formation of blastocoel the megameres and micromeres arrange themselves in the form
of……… which is 2 to layers in thickness.
a) Blastoderm
b) Ectoderm
c) Endoderm
d) Mesoderm
Mammalian egg is…….
a) Mesolecithal
b) Oligolecithal
c) Telolecithal
d) Macrolecithal
In mammals, axillary blastomere act as…….
a) Nutritive part
b) Inactive part
c) Dividing part
d) Both a and c
Second cleavage in mammalian egg is restricted to…….
a) Formative cell
b) Axillary cell
c) Both a and b
d) None of these
In mammalian egg, because of irregular cleavage a mass of cells form is known as…….
a) Zygote
b) Embryo
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c) Blastula
d) Morula
In mammals, a layer surround the whole of the cavity is known as….
a) Trophoblast
b) Periblast
c) Blastocyst
d) Ectoblast
The bird egg is….
a) Oligolecithal
b) Macrolecithal
c) Telolecithal
d) Both b and c
In bird’s egg cleavage is……
a) Meroblastic
b) Holoblastic
c) Meroblastic and meridional
d) Holoblastic and equatorial
In birds the cleavage is restricted to the upper part of the egg due to the presence of……
a) Less amount of yolk
b) Huge amount of yolk
c) Medium amount of yolk
d) None of these
First cleavage in bird egg is……
a) Vertical and incomplete
b) Equatorial
c) Meridional
d) Holoblastic
The cavity which form in birds is known as….
a) Blastocyst
b) Blastocoel
c) Periblast
d) Coelom
Spindle elongates in the direction of least resistance is known as……
a) Belfour’s law
b) Sachs law
c) Hertwings law
d) Flugers law
The rate of cleavage is inversely proportional to the amount of yolk, this law is….
a) Flugers law
b) Belfour’s law
c) Sachs law
d) None of these
Nucleus and its spindle fibres are generally found in the centre of the active cytoplasm, this law is…….
a) Sachs law
b) Belfour’s law
c) Hertwings law
d) Flugers law
The law in which cells tend to divide into equal half. Each new plane of division tends to intersect the
previous plane at right angle is……
a) Sachs law
b) Belfour’s law
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c) Hertwings law
d) Flugers law
Spiral cleavage is found in……
a) Molluscs
b) Amphioxus
c) Reptiles
d) Birds
Equatorial cleavage occurs through Center and it is
a) Horizontal
b) Vertical
c) Longitudinal
d) Both a and b
There is no blastocoel in……
a) Amphiblastula
b) Discoblastula
c) Stereoblastula
d) Coeloblastula
Discoblastula is found in……
a) Mammals
b) Reptiles, birds
c) Amphibians
d) Amphioxus
Incomplete peripheral blastomeres, surrounds the yolk……
a) Superficial blastula
b) Amphiblastula
c) Discoblastula
d) Coeloblastula
Whole ball is no single layer and well differentiated into micro and megameres, this type of blastula
is……
a) Amphiblastula
b) Discoblastula
c) Coeloblastula
d) Stereoblastula
The characteristic feature of gastrulation?
a) Single layered blastoderm changes to three layered structure
b) Neural tube formation
c) Cell division increases
d) Metabolic rate decreases
Biochemical changes in gastrulation process
a) Nucleolus reappears, RNA synthesis starts again
b) Metabolic activity decreases
c) Cell proliferation
d) DNA synthesis
Which stains are used to study the morphogenetic movements in gastrulation?
a) Janus green, neutral red and Nile blue
b) Janus red, neutral pink
c) Nile blue and green
d) purple and pink stains
In gastrulation which type of morphogenetic movements take place?
a) Epibolic and Embolic
b) Epibolic movements
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c) Embolic movements
d) Epiblast and Hypoblast
Inward movements of cell are known as
a) Embolic movements
b) Epibolic movements
c) Tactic movements
Cells move inward in the form of layers and groups, this type of inward movement is known as
a) Invagination
b) proliferation
c) Involution
d) poly invagination
Invagination of cell occurs in
a) Amphioxus
b) Amphibian
c) Mammals
d) birds
Movement of cell from the surface of the embryo through the blastopore rolling on its margin is known
as?
a) Involution
b) Invagination
c) Delamination
d) Poly invagination
Involution takes place in which class of animals?
a) Amphibian
b) Mammals
c) Reptiles
d) Birds
In which type of movement cells separate from the blastoderm in the form of group?
a) Ingression
b) Involution
c) Invagination
d) Delamination
The differentiation of cytoplasm of egg in to different regions and the regions are clearly marked is
known as
a) fate map
b) mapping
c) markers
d) Differentiation
Presumptive endodermal area is present towards the ………..and it contains the small amount of yolk
a) vegetal pole
b) Animal pole
c) Grey crescent area
d) area pellucida
Presumptive epidermal is present towards the
a) Animal pole
b) Vegetal pole
c) Grey crescent area
d) area pellucida
First movement in gastrulation of amphioxus is shown by
a) endodermal area
b) Mesodermal area
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c) Ectodermal area
d) Epidermal area
The blastopore end in amphioxus is changes in to future
a) Posterior end (Anus)
b) Anterior end
c) Mouth
d) Mesoderm
The notochordal cell in amphioxus start invagination by rolling over the
a) Dorsal lip of the blastopore
b) Mesoderm
c) Ectoderm
In neurulation, presumptive neural area flattens and forming the
a) Neural plate
b) Neural crest
c) Neural tube
The sequence of neurulation is given as follows
a) Neural plate→ neural tube→ nerve cord →brain and spinal cord
b) Neural plate→ neural crest→ neural tube→ nerve cord →brain and spinal cord
c) Neural plate→ neural tube→ nerve cord→ neural crest →brain and spinal cord
d) Neural tube→ neural plate→ neural crest→ nerve cord →brain and spinal cord
The neural crest area will develop in to
a) Ganglion and peripheral nerves
b) Nervous system
c) Brain
d) Spinal cord
Gut tube formation takes place by the
a) Endodermal area
b) Mesodermal area
c) Ectodermal area
d) Epidermal area
Notochord formation takes place by the
a) Mesodermal area
b) Endodermal area
c) Ectodermal area
d) Epidermal area
The amphibian egg is
a) Mesolecithal
b) Endolecithal
c) Epilecithal
d) Endolecithal
Initial morphogenetic movements in amphibian takes place by
a) Involution
b) Invagination
c) Delamination
d) Poly invagination
Dorsal mesoderm in amphibian splits vertically in to segments called
a) Somites
b) vertebral column
c) Brain
d) spinal cord
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Lateral plate mesoderm in amphibian splits in to
a) somatic and splanchnic mesoderm
b) ectoderm and endoderm
c) no splitting
d) none of them
Trophoblast is formed in ………its provides the nutrition to developing embryo.
a) Mammals
b) Amphibian
c) Reptiles
d) Birds
Extra embryonic envelop consists of
a) Amnion, chorion, Allantois, yolk sac
b) calcium, phosphorus and carbon
c) two shell
Amnion and chorion develops from
a) Somatoplure
b) Splanchnic plure
c) Mesoderm
d) Ectoderm
The cavity formed btween the somatoplure and the embryo is known as
a) Amniotic cavity
b) Chorionic cavity
c) Allantois
d) Placenta
The seroamniotic connection cut and outer part of the folds moves away attaching the shall membrane
and is called as
a) Chorion
b) Amnion
c) Allantois
d) Placenta
Amnion and chorion is made up of extra embryonic
a) Ectoderm and mesoderm
b) Mesoderm and endoderm
c) Ectoderm and endoderm
d) Endoderm and mesoderm
The cavity which appears between the amnion and chorion is known as
a) Extra embryonic coelom
b) Coelom
c) Endogenous cavity
d) Placenta
Functions of amnion and chorion
a) Provide the fluid medium
b) Shock absorber
c) Protect from adhesion to the shall
d) All
Yolk sac and Allantois develops from
a) Splanchnoplure
b) Somatoplure
c) Mesoderm
Allantois develops as an outgrowth of
a) Splanchnoplure
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b) Somatoplure
c) Mesoderm
d) Ectoderm
Functions of allantois are
a) Respiration
b) Storage of excretory products
c) Nourishment
d) Both a and b
Functions of yolk sac are
a) Respiration
b) Storage of excretory products
c) Nourishment
d) Both a and b
The connection between the foetus and mother cell is known as
a) Chorion
b) Amnion
c) Allantois
d) Placenta
The foetal part that are involved in the formation of placenta
a) Yolk sac, chorion and allantois
b) Chorion
c) Amnion
d) Allantois
Choriovitelline placenta formed by the
a) Yolk sac +chorion
b) Chorion + allantois
c) yolk sac
d) allantois
Chorioallantoic placenta is formed by the
a) Chorion + allantois
b) Yolk sac +chorion
c) yolk sac
d) allantois
Diffuse placenta is present in
a) pig, horse
b) cats, dogs
c) cattle, sheep
d) man
Cotyledonary placenta is present in
a) cattle, sheep
b) pig, horse
c) cats, dogs
d) man
Zonary placenta is present in
a) cattle, sheep
b) pig, horse
c) cats, dogs
d) man
Mono discoidal placenta is present in
a) cattle, sheep
b) pig, horse
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c) cats, dogs
d) Man
Bi discoisal placenta is
a) Monkey
b) Pig, horse
c) Cats, dogs
d) Man
Based on the position of connection placenta is divided in to
a) Central
b) Eccentric
c) Interstitial
d) ALL
Central placenta is present in
a) Marsupials
b) Mouse
c) Man
d) pig
Ecentric placenta is present in
a) Mouse
b) Man
c) pig
d) Marsupials
Interstitial placenta is present in
a) Man
b) Mouse
c) pig
d) marsupials
In epitheliochorial placenta
a) All barriers are present
b) Uterine epithelium eroded
c) uterine epithelium +uterine connective tissue eroded
d) uterine epithelium +uterine connective tissue +foetal chorionic epithelium and uterine
endothelium
In Syndesmochorial placenta
a) All barriers are present
b) Uterine epithelium eroded
c) uterine epithelium +uterine connective tissue eroded
d) uterine epithelium +uterine connective tissue +foetal chorionic epithelium and uterine
endothelium
In Endotheliochorial placenta
a) All barriers are present
b) Uterine epithelium eroded
c) uterine epithelium +uterine connective tissue eroded
d) uterine epithelium +uterine connective tissue +foetal chorionic epithelium and uterine
endothelium
In hemochorial placenta
a) All barriers are present
b) Uterine epithelium eroded
c) uterine epithelium +uterine connective tissue eroded
d) uterine epithelium +uterine connective tissue +foetal chorionic epithelium and uterine
endothelium
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Epitheliochorial placenta is present in
a) pig, horse
b) cats, dogs
c) cattle, sheep
d) man
Syndesmochorial placenta is present in
a) Sheep
b) pig, horse
c) cats, dogs
d) man
Endotheliochorial placenta is present in
a) Cats, dogs
b) pig, horse
c) cattle, sheep
d) man
Hemochorial placenta is present in
a) Bats, mole
b) pig, horse
c) cattle, sheep
d) man
The study of inducing, stimulating or effecting tissue is called
a) Embryonic induction
b) Tissue interaction
c) Neural induction
When tissue B which is primarily controlled by tissue A influence the tissue C is called
a) Primary induction
b) Secondary induction
c) Exogenous
When tissue A itself modified, is called
a) Secondary induction
b) Endogenous
c) Exogenous
When the responding tissue modify in different way, is called
a) Heterotypic
b) Homotypic
c) None of these
Notochordal cells when moves under the neural cells starts modifying the neural plate and converts it’s
into neural tube, is called
a) Primary induction
b) Secondary induction
c) Neural induction
In neural induction, notochordal cells are presents on the--------lip of blastopore in the beginning
a) Dorsal
b) Ventral
c) Lateral
In dorsal lip of blastopore (notochordal plate) can only effect the epidermal tissue and convert it into
neural tube in case of------------
a) Regional specificity
b) Tissue stage specificity
c) Both of these
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In case of regional specificity, if notochordal plate is transplanted at endoderm, it will not form the
a) Neural tube
b) Neural plate
c) Both of these
The inducing and tissue intract only during limited time of developing phase, in case of
a) Regional specificity
b) Tissue stage specificity
c) Both of these
Body is not clearly divisible into head and trunk in
a) Amniotes
b) None-amniotes
c) None of these
Crown rump is
a) Sitting length
b) Standing length
c) Lateral length
Crown head is
a) Sitting length
b) Standing length
c) None of these
The process of repairing of organs or damaged cells in animals is called…
a) Organogenesis
b) Gastrulation
c) Regeneration
d) Recovery
The regeneration of limbs to a very high degree is seen in following organisms…
a) Frogs and Newts
b) Newts and Salamanders
c) Salamanders and Frogs
d) All of above
In salamanders, during wound healing epidermis grow in ……. shape
a) Square
b) Circular
c) Elliptical
d) Conical
The time of Regeneration depends on…
a) Size and stage of the development animal
b) Type of wound
c) Size of animal
d) None of these
A type of Regeneration by the renewal of limbs is called….
a) Metamorphosis
b) Epimorphosis
c) Ecdysis
d) None of these
There are ……. Types of Regeneration.
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
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Loss of 1% blood cells and ejaculation of sperms is …… type of Regeneration’
a) Reparative
b) Physiological
c) Both a and b
d) None of these
Reparative regeneration has following types…
a) Metamorphic and Epimorphic
b) Metamorphic and Morpholactic
c) Epimorphic and Morpholactic
d) All of above
Repair of minor lost part is…
a) Epimorphic or epimorphosis
b) Morpholactic or morpholoxis
c) Metamorphic or metamorphosis
d) None of these
Repair of major lost part is called….
a) Epimorphic or epimorphosis
b) Morpholactic or morpholoxis
c) Metamorphic or metamorphosis
d) None of these
In algae …… part can develop complete filament.
a) 1/25
b) 1/50
c) 1/100
d) 1/200
The ability to regenerate lost parts differ in….
a) Scope
b) Its course in group of animals
c) Both a and b
d) None of these
In coelenterates ……part can develop a new organism.
a) 1/25
b) 1/50
c) 1/100
d) 1/200
Type of regeneration in coelenterates occurring…
a) Epimorphosis
b) Morpholaxis
c) Physiological
d) All a, b, and c
Regenerative powers highest in …… forms and reduced in ….. forms.
a) Adult, polyploid
b) Larvae, adult
c) Polyploid, medusoid
d) Larvae, medusoid
In planarians individual resulting from regeneration is ....
a) Smaller than original
b) Larger than original
c) Equal to original
d) None of these
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Type of regeneration occurring in planarians ….
a) Epimorphosis
b) Morpholaxis
c) Physiological
d) Both a and b
In earthworm, typical number of regenerating segments is…
a) Two or three
b) Three or four
c) Four or five
d) Five or six
In …… segment there is no restriction of in number of segments in Earthworm.
a) Anterior
b) Median
c) Genital
d) Posterior
In Annelids, the regeneration is…
a) Epimorphic
b) Morpholactic
c) Reparative
d) Physiological
In Hirudinea type of regeneration is...
a) Epimorphosis
b) Morpholaxis
c) Physiological
d) Regeneration not occur
The regenerative ability in molluscs is…
a) Very high
b) High
c) Low
d) Very low
In nematodes, regenerative ability is limited to ….
a) Limbs regeneration
b) Organs regeneration
c) Wound healing
d) None of these
In insects regeneration occur in …. Stage.
a) Larval
b) Adult
c) In both a and b
d) None of these
In spiders and crabs shedding of legs in danger is called.
a) Regeneration
b) Protection
c) Autotomy
d) None of these
After a loss of appendage in arthropods, the wound is covered with….
a) Keratin plug
b) Fibrous plug
c) Both a and b
d) Chitinous plug
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In arthropods type of regeneration is…
a) Epimorphosis
b) Morpholaxis
c) Physiological
d) None of these
In fish regeneration is limited to
a) Fins
b) Tails
c) Scales
d) Both a and c
Regeneration is limited to larval stage of …. Class of amphibians.
a) Anurans
b) Urodeles
c) Crocodilian
d) None of these
Regeneration of tails in lizard is known as…
a) Metamorphosis
b) Ecdysis
c) Autotomy
d) Both a and c
In birds, parts of …. can be regenerated.
a) Beaks
b) Tails
c) Organs
d) Skin
Infant opossums have ability to regenerate amputated hind limbs if fragment of brain implanted in….
a) Backbone
b) Limbs
c) Arms
d) None of these
In mammals, tissue regeneration is type of ….
a) Organ regeneration
b) Wound healing
c) Regeneration don’t occur
d) None of these
The striking degree of regeneration is seen in …. Organ of mammals.
a) Stomach
b) Kidney
c) Heart
d) Liver
The animals of lower degree have ….. regenerative power than higher forms.
a) Lesser
b) Greater
c) Medium
d) None of these
More the tissue differentiation ….. would be regenerative power.
a) Lesser
b) Greater
c) No difference
d) None of these
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The stimulus for regeneration is…
a) Absence of an organ
b) Drugs
c) Wound
d) Both a and c
The development of superfluous number of organs in regeneration is called
a) Saturated regeneration
b) Extra regeneration
c) Super regeneration
d) None of these
Mechanism of regeneration include.
a) Wound healing
b) Dedifferentiation
c) Metabolic changes
d) Blastema formation
e) Redifferentiation
f) All of above
g) A b d and e
Factors which effect growth and …. also, effect regeneration.
a) Development
b) Movement
c) Weight
d) None of these
Which is not a factor affecting regeneration.
a) Temperature and food
b) Oxygen
c) X-rays
d) Specie, age and nervous control
e) Water
How many types of cloning are present ...
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Productions of medicines take place in......
a) Molecular cloning
b) Animal cloning
c) Cellular cloning
d) None of these
In molecular cloning biologist make clones of ..
a) RNA
b) DNA
c) Ribosomes
d) Mitochondria
The genetic makeup of the cloned cells is identical to that of original cell in....
a) Cellular cloning
b) Animal cloning
c) Molecular cloning
d) None of these
In cellular cloning copies are made of cells derived from...
a) DNA
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b) RNA
c) Soma
d) Ribosome
Which type of cloning occur in cloning of animals....
a) Deposition of karyoplast
b) Enucleation of egg
c) Blastomere separation
d) Both a and c
In blastomere separation developing embryo composed...............cells
a) 2-6
b) 2-8
c) 2-10
d) 2-12
When nucleus is removed from egg by aspiration, the egg is now called...
a) Cytoplast
b) Karyoplast
c) Oocyte
d) None of these
Development of blastocyst occur after fusion of ...
a) Karyoplast and oocyte
b) Cytoplast and oocyte
c) Cytoplast and karyoplast
Wilmut and his colleagues do experiments on sheep....
a) 9 years old
b) 8 years old
c) 7 years old
d) 6 years old
First time somatic cells used as a donar nuclei by...
a) Conard Gesnen
b) Wilmut and colleagues
c) Vesalius and colleagues
d) Tin berger
Somatic cells different from each other by...
a) Same set of genes
b) Different set of genes
c) Activated genes
d) Denatured genes
Transcription in xenopus starts after ..........cell stage.
a) 10000
b) 6000
c) 4000
d) 5000
Gurdon and colleagues did experiments on adult frog skin as a donar nuclei in....
a) 1962
b) 1975
c) 1989
d) 1957
Genes in the nuclei of differentiated skin cells of frog can be reactivated by..
a) Cytoplasm
b) Cytosole
c) Cytokines
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d) Cytoskeleton
Which changes in genetic material inhibit reactivity of nucleus of adult frogs....
a) Reversible changes
b) Countinued changes
c) Irreversible changes
d) Discontinued changes
Transcription involve the synthesize of ....
a) RNAs
b) DNAs
c) Ribosomes
d) None of these
Which genes produce protein ....
a) Control genes
b) Activated genes
c) Inactivated genes
d) Hox genes
Production of molecules of .....stop in reprogrammed of donar nucleus...
a) Carbohydrates
b) Lipids
c) Proteins
d) Fats
Grath and Solter showed that nuclei could be successfully exchanged in....
a) 1989
b) 1884
c) 1985
d) 1986
Successful experiments were done in mammals over last....
a) Ten years
b) Fifteen years
c) Twenty years
d) Thirty years
Yang et al., used early embryos ranging from.......cell stage in rabbits.
a) 16-32
b) 32-64
c) 64-128
d) 128-256
S- phase is the.....
a) DNA synthesis
b) RNA synthesis
c) Ribosomes
d) None of these
Which is quiescent phase ....
a) G1
b) G2
c) G0
d) S
Blastocyst transferred develop in to a live lamb.....
a) 3%
b) 11%
c) 14%
d) 16%
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Mechanism of cloning take place in ........ steps.
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
The totipotency decrease with increase in age and....
a) Differentiation
b) Multiplication
c) Starvation
d) Division
Decline in genetic materials included in ....
a) Merits of cloning
b) Demerits of cloning
c) Uses of cloning
d) Abuses of cloning
7. Ichthyology
1. Tonic ________________ reception consists of a canal leading from skin to an ampulla in which
a group of sensory cells are embedded.
a. Sensory Reception
b. Ampullary Reception
c. None of these
2. In _____________ the canals lead to ampullae are separated from each other.
a. Sharks
b. Rays
c. Teleost .
3. Resistance of the walls of the canals leading to ampullae are ___________ than that of the
nerve myelin sheath.
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8. Lateral lline neuromasts appear to be used by the fish to detect the ___________
a. Prey
b. Near field effect
c. Far field effect
9. Fish could locate their prey on at distance upto ___________
a. 32 meters
b. 31 meters
c. 31 centimeters
10. The _____________ system enables the fish to respond to variation in the water.
a. Nervous system
b. Digestive system
c. Acoustic lateralis system
11. In the cat, sensory fibers account for than ________ of axons in the nerves passing to the
muscles; most of these go to the muscle spindle.
a. 75%
b. 85%
c. 70%
12. Muscle spindles are absent in fish and _________ are known only in a few special cases, such as
myxine, teleost barbels and rays.
a. Proprioceptors
b. Sensory receptors
c. Photo receptors
13. In fish nitrogenous waste mainly passes out across the gills as _________
a. Ammonia
b. Nitric acid
c. Ammonia or ammonium ions
14. The kidney shares the responsibility for regulating _________with the gills.
a. Nervous coordination
b. Body fluid pH
c. Both of these
15. Fish generally maintain the constancy of their internal body fluid composition through a process
termed as ___________
a. Thermoregulation
b. Water retension
c. Osmoregulation
16. To achieve osmoregulation, fish employ a number of homeostatic organs that include gills,
kidneys, urinary bladder, gut and in __________ the rectal glands
a. Elasmobranchs
b. Rahu
c. Rays
17. Elasmobranch and, as far as we can tell from the sole surviving species, crossopterygians,
evolved high extra cellular urea and __________
a. ATP
b. T.M.O
c. D.M.O
18. Sodium chloride excretory organ, the __________, has evolved to assist in the elimination of
excess dietry sodium.
a. Gills
b. Rectal gland
c. Kidney
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19. Excess magnesium and ___________ ions, diffuse down their electrochemical gradients into the
fish.
a. Sodium ions
b. Chloride ions
c. Sulfate ions
20. Control of teleostean kidney function is likely to involve both neutral and ____________ factors.
a. Endocrine
b. Exocrine Endocrine
c. pituitary
21. Endocrine control of renal function may involve a number of factors including both neutron and
_____________.
a. Arginine vasotocin
b. AVT
c. Adenohypophysial
22. The volume of urine output and salt balance is regulated in fishes, as well as in other vertebrates,
by ____________.
a. Endocrine secretions
b. Hypothalamic secretins
c. Stomach secretion
23. In fishes, where gills and kineys share the osmoregulatory process, __________ also influence
filtration or absorption process at the gills.
a. Proteins
b. Hormones
c. Sodium
24. In man and in amphibians, ____________________ extracts contain fraction which directly
influence urine output by constricting the afferent glomerular arterioles.
a. Posterior pituitary
b. Adrenal gland
c. Rectal gland
25. ______________________ hormones which influence sodium and chlorine equilibrium in higher
vertebrates also play a role in the regulation of gills and kidney functions in fishes.
a. Pituitry
b. Steroids
c. Adrenal cortical
26. Blood of trout contains ____________ and corticostrone as well as other cortical hormones and
related compounds, the corticosteroids.
a. Prolactin hormone
b. Arginine vasotocin
c. Hydrocortisone
27. More recently, however, ______________ has been demonstrated in the heart of some teleost.
a. Vagus nerve
b. Sympathetic nerve
c. Spinal nerve
28. These adrenergic nerves reaching the heart via the vago-sympathetic nerve trunk and ______
spinal nerve.
a. 2nd
b. 1st
c. 4th
29. Adrenaline and nor-adrenaline may pass into the blood stream either by direct secretion from the
__________ tissue in which they are stored or by diffusion from adrenergic nerve endings.
a. Chromaffin tissue
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115
b. Muscle tissue
c. None of these
30. The increased stretching of the cardiac muscles during diastolic filling will result in a more
vigrous systolic contraction and so an increased cardiac stroke volume; this is known as
________________
a. Frank-Starling relationship
b. Relaxation
c. Contraction
a. 4.6%
b. 9.3%
c. 19.2%
31. The gill area of prionotus is ______________
a. 360mm2/g
b. 1158mm2/g
c. 188mm2/g
32. Heamoglobin in the blood raises the oxygen capacity up to ___________
a. 50 times
b. 40 times
c. 45 times
b .zooplankton
c. phytoplankton
d. none of these
a. phytoplankton
b. zooplankton
c. protozoans
d. molluscs
a. stems
b. fronds
c.leaves
d. a&b
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a. frog
b. molluscs
c. phytoplankton
d. insects
37. ____ is the key factor in determining what the fish will eat
a. Availability
b. Meat
c. Potential
d. none
38. Predatory fishes have well defined stomach with strong acid secretions and ___ intestines
a.Long
b. intermediate
c. no
d. short
39. The anglerfishes have developed an anterior ray of _____into a lure to attract their prey
40. An adult menhaden is capable of straining as much as ______of water per minute through gill rakers
a.3-4 gallons
b. 1-2 gallons
c. 4-5 gallons
d. 3 gallons
41. Adaptation for strainers is the development of close set and elongated _____
a. Fins
b. gill rakers
c. kidneys
d. operculum
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42. _______ have an inferior mouth and fleshy modification of lips
a. predators
b. herbovores
c. suctorial feeders
d. all
43.The lips of the sturgeons and suckers are mobile and described as
a. Papillose
b. modified lips
c. barbells
d. none of these
44. Suctorial feeders have______ consisting of sense organs and help to locate food
a. lips
b. lateral line
c. barbels
d. mouth
45. Among grazers and suctorial feeders mouth resembles with elongated ____
a.barbels
b. lips
c. fins
d. beak
a. Suctorial feeders
b. surface feeders
c. predators
d. grazers
47. Three kinds of teeth are found in bony fishes present in jaw,mouth and
a.phyrangral slits
b. gill rakers
c. operculum
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d. none
48. Major kinds of Jaw teeth includes _____that are short,fine and pointed
a. villiform
b. cladiforms
c. canines
d, incisors
a. villiforms
b. cladiforms
c. canines
d. incisors
a. cladiforms
b. villiforms
c. canines
d. incisors
a.cladiforms
b. villiforms
c. canines
d. incisors
a. cladiforms
b. villiforms
c. molariforms
d. incisors
a. maxillary
b. premaxillary
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119
c. both
d. none
54. Omnivores have stubby and unadorned gill rakers mainly concerned with
a.straining
b. eating
c. excretion
d. digestion
a. stomach
b. esophagus
c. intestine
d. mouth
a. short
b. wide
c. elongated
d. thin
a. elongated
b. sac shaped
c. short
d. box shaped
a. carnivores
b. herbivores
c. omnivores
d. predators
a. Carnivores
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120
b. herbivores
c. omnivores
d. predators
60. in which we study the functions in living matter it explain the physical and chemical factors that are
responsible for origin ,development and progression of life?
(a)physiology
(b) ethology
(c) evolution
(d) conservation
(a) enzymes,lipids,albumin
(b) platelets,leukocytes
(c) erythrocytes,globulin
(a) hormones,vitamins
(a) fishes
(a) 0.016
(b) 0.004
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121
(c) 0.31
(d) 0.313
(a)bony fishes
(b) sharks
(d) carp
66. what is the range of freezing point depression plasma of fresh water bony fishes?
(b) 0.5
(a) 3.06
(b) 2.17
(c) 2.08
(d) 0.6
(a) sharks
(c) mammalian
(a) protease&lipase
(a) fishes
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(b) three small Antarctic species
(c) sharks
(d) carp
(a) 7 micron
(b) 9 micron
(c) 6 micron
.10 micron
(a) 30 microns
(b) 32 microns
(c) 34 microns
(d) 36 microns
(a) 7.6
(b) 7.7
(c) 7.9
(d) 4.5
(a) 8 microns
(b) 7 microns
(c) 9 microns
(d) 10 micron
76. in which vertebrates formation of blood cells is restricted to bone marrow spleen & lymph nodes?
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123
(a) cold blooded
77. in which kind of fishes blood cells are formed in the diffused spleen ?
(b) carp&sharks
(b) spleen
79. what is the spiral valve of the intestine produce in the sturgeons?
(a) WBCs
(b) RBCs
(c) platlets
80. the appropriate muscles of the pneumatic duct wall and the blood vessels are under control of ?
81. whats is the thickness of the swim bladder of the layer of cells containing sheets of guanine crystal ?
(a) 3um
(b) 7 um
(c) 8 um
(d) 9 um
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82. what is the pure concentration percentage of oxygen in deep sea fishes?
(a) 80 percent
(b) 90 percent
(c) 70 percent
83. which acid is produce by the cells of gas gland are rich in glycogen ?
84. how much amount of oxygen unloading when a change of one pH unit occur?
(a) 60 percent
(b) 70 percent
(c) 50 percent
85. in which class of fish the filaments are joined along almost their whole length by a septum which
form external flap ?
(a) elasmobranches
(b) salmonids
86. which fishes spend all their lives in dense viscous fluid Which contain relatively little oxygen?
(a) sharks
(a) CNs
(b) medulla
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(c) PNs
(a) K
(b) X
(C) z
(d) e
89. how many lungs are present in the Australian lung fish?
90. what is the time required for the breathing of water protopterus?
91. what is the amount of concentarion of oxygen in lung fish to enable to live in water?
93. Which animals are cold blooded, typically with backbone and gills and fins..
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126
A, Fish
B, Amphibians
C, Reptiles
D, Birds
A, 29nm
B, 32nm
C, 27nm
D, 21nm
A, round
B, flat
C, angular
D, all of these
96. The grass of the water is microscopic plant life diatoms and algae collectively known
A, zooplankton
B, phytoplankton
C, diatoms
D, none of these
A, ichthyology
B, ethology
C, fisheries
D, synecology
A, 75%
B, 70%
C, 60%
D, 65%
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99. The range of fish approximately 5km above sea level and how many beneath
A, 10km
B, 14km
C, 20km
D, 11km
100. What is the accelerate rate of development of diversity of living conditions in water
A, speciation
B, species
C, population
D, diversity
A, 41,600
B, 43,500
C, 25,200
D, 18,203
102. How many time ago the presence of man on earth like ape ancestor
A, 600
B, 400
C, 500
D, 100
103. Life ways and habitats and the interaction of fish with each other and their environment
B, ecology 7 conservation
104. The long term effort to arrange all kind of living and fossil fishes into groups and taxa with their
natural relationship is called
A, anatomy
B, evolution
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128
C, genetics
D, classification
A, hag fishes
B, lampreys
C, sharks
D, both a&b
A, 3
B, 5
C, 2
D, 1
107. The basic theme of classification would be for mechanical convenience, alphabetically or by size
A, practical
B, ideal
C, theoretical
D, all of these
108. The classification on the base of evolutionary genetic or natural in character this aim is called
A, practical
B, ideal
C, mechanical
D, none of these
A, crossopteriygii
B, osteichthyes
C, pisces
D, myxini
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129
B, rays & skates
D, lung fishes
A, gnathostomous
B, teleostomi
C, holocephali
D, none of these
A, elasmobranchii
B, dipnoi
C, actinoptrygii
D,crossopterygii
A, Anguilliformes
B, clupeiformes
C, Dipterifomes
D, Osteoglossiformes
A, salmonidae
B, Denticipitidae
C, Esocoidei
D, pantodontidae
A, Muiloidei
B, percoidei
C, Gobioidei
D, Anabantoidei
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130
A, Tetraodontiformes
B, perciformes
C, lophiiformes
D, squaliformes
A, Osteichthyes
B, Chondrichthyes
C, Cephalaspidomorphi
D, none of these
8 Evolution
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131
a)Uniformitarianism b)Catastrophism c)Both d)None
15.Lamarck published his hypothesis in .
a)1813 b)1809 c)1902 d)1912
16.Darwin embarked from England on Beagle in 1831.
a)June b)September c)December d)April
17.Darwin studied on .
a)Humid jungles of Brazil b)Expensive grassland of Argentina c)Towering peaks of the andes d)All of
them
18.Galapagos,a group of volcanic islands located near the equator about .
a)500km b)700km c)900km d)1100km
19.A process in which individuals with certain inherited traits leave more offspring is called .
a)Natural selection b)Group selection c)Kin selection d)All of them
20.Darwin set his ideas on paper in .
a)1852 b)1844 c)1876 d)1849
21.Seven lineages related to elephants have become extinct over the past million years.
a)70 b)40 c)50 d)30
22. of all species that have ever lived are now extinct.
a)71% b)100% c)99% d)50%
23.Natural selection is the process in which individuals survive and reproduce at then
other individuals.
a)Higher rate bLower rate c)Normal rate d)None
24.Natural selection can the match between the organisms & their enivornment.
a)Decrease b)Normalize c)Increase d)Both a & b
25.Jhon Endler studied on .
a)Fossils b)Bettle c)Insects d)Guppies
26.Poecilia reticulate are .
a)Guppies b)Atlantic sparrow c)Seahorse d)Atlantic canary
27.The evolution of HIV resistance to the drug .
a)2TC b)3TC c)4TC d)5TC
28.3TC molecule is similar in shape to the bearing.
a)Adenine bearing b)Guanine bearing c)Uracil bearing d)Cytosine bearing
29.The early cetaceans lived million years ago.
a)50-60 b)50-70 c)50-80 d)50-90
30.Whales and other cetaceans originate from mammals.
a)Aquatic b)Land c)Terrestrial d)All of them
31.The structure of human and whale forelimb is .
a)Analogy b)Homology c)Both d)None
32.All embryos have a tail located posterior to the anus and the structure is called .
a)Pharyngeal slits b)Pharyngeal pouches c)Pharyngeal throat d)Both b & c
33.Protective embryonic layer is .
a)Allantois b)Chorion c)Amnion d)None
34.Organisms that are closely related to each other and share common characters from common descent is
called .
a)Convergent evolution b)Divergent evolution c)Experimental evolution d)Hypothetical
evolution 35.
Complete their embryonic development in the uterus.
a)Marsupials b)Birds c)Amphibians d)Eutherians
36. Are born as embryos and complete their development in external pouch.
a)Eutherians b)Amphibians c)Marsupials d)Birds
37.Sugar glider is similar to .
a)Flying squirrels b)Flying monkey c)Flying bats d)None
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38.A single large continent is .
a)Pangaea b)Gondwana c)Panthalasia d)Lauresia
39.Present-day horse species originated million years ago in North America.
a)2 b)3 c)4 d)5
40.Organisms that are not found elsewhere in the world .
a)Feral b)Cosmopolitan c)Endemic d)Exotic
41.Seed eating birds that inhabit the Galapagos islands .
a)Ground finch b)Water finch c)Rock finch d)Bull finch
42.Change in allele frequencies in a population over generation is known as .
a)Macroevolution b)Microevolution c)Genetic variation d)Mutation
43.Scientific name of house mouse is .
a)Ratus ratus b)Ravan c)Parus major d)Mus musculus
44.Graded change in a character along a geographic axis is known as .
a)Clone b)Spike c)Cline d)None of these
Long term impact of mass extinction , origin of key biochemical process “photosynthesis” and the
emergence of first terrestrial vertebrate are the examples of
The earliest evidence of life on earth cases from fossils of micro-organisms that are about -----years ago
The hypothesis that chemical physical processes on early earth aided by the emerging forces of
The hypothesis that chemical and physical processes 0n early earth could have produced very simple cells
through a sequence of main -------- stages
Earth and other planets of solar system formed about ----------years ago
Collisions generated heat enough to vaporize the water and prevent yhe seas forming , this phase likely
ended about--------- billion years ago
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a)thin b)unfavorable c)thick d)favorable
Haldane suggest that early earth were a solution of organic molecules,a---------from which life arose
The early atmosphere was made up of the nitrogen and carbon dioxide was -------------- primarily
First organic compounds formed near------and deep sea vents , where hot water and minerals gush in to
the ocean from earth’s interior
Fragments of fallen 4.5 billion years old chondrite found in Australia in 1969 cotain more than-------
amino acids
Condrite amino acids cannot be contaminates from earth because of an equal amount of------
Miller urey type experiments have yielded some of the nitrogen bases of-------
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Small membrane bounded droplet called------- can form when lipids and other molecules are added in
water
Liposome undergo other osmotic -------- when placed in solution of different solute concentration
RNA ------stranded molecules as a same varity of specific three dimensional shapes mandataed by their
nucleotide sequence
That there could have been trillions of--------------- in bodies of water on early earth
The sequence in which fossils have accumulated in sedimentary rock layers called
---------- are the valuable data for reconstructing the history of life
one of the most common technique for the determination of age of the fossils is--------
The radioactive parent isotopes decay into daughter isotopes, the rate of decay expressed by
By measuring the ratio of carbon 14 and carbon 12 in a fossil, we can determine the fossil’s age. This
method works for fossils up to aboyt-------------
Radioactive isotopes with longer half lives are used to date the
The organisms do not use radioisotopes that have long half life , such as ------- build in their bones and
shells
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135
a)uranium 238 b)uranium 237 c)uranium236 d)uraniu
During the formation of volcanic sedimentary rock, iron particals in the rock align themselves with the
earth’s
The measurement of the magnetism of various rock layers indicate that earth’s -------------magnetic poles
have reserved repeatedly in past
along with the Amphibians &------------ mammals belong to the group of animals called tetrapods
Synapsids had -----------bones in the lower jaw & single pointed teeth
synapsids also has the opening called the temporal fenestra behind -------
---------million year ago , mammals originate gradually from a group tetrapod called synapsid
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a)therapsid b)cynodont C)tetrapods d)b&c
the first two eons the Archean & Proterozoic together lasted approximately ---------
a)4 billion years b)4 million years c)4.5 million years d)4.5 billion years
The fossil record provides a ---------- over view of the history of life over geological time.
------------ are the layered rocks that form when certain prokaryotes bind thin film of sediment together
Early prokaryotes were Earth’s sole inhabitants from at least -----million years ago to about 2.1 million
years ago
Red layers of rock containing ------ that are source of iron ore today
The amount of atmospheric oxygen increased gradually from about -------- billion years ago.
The oldest widely accepted f0ssils of Eukaryotic organisms are about ----- years old.
Eukaryotic cells have cytoskeleton a feature that enables eukaryotic cell to change their
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137
a)symbiosisis b)mutulism c)endosymbiosis d)commensalism
The term refer to a cell live within other cell called ---------
Wildlife
2. Humans are present in almost every habitat because they can modify their environment according
to their need.
3. The only record about animal-habitat relationship was provided by naturalists for centuries.
4. The first best early naturalist was the Aristotle who wrote many books about cluding breeding
behavior, diets, migration and hibernation.
5. Fish are found in sea estuaries because of two reasons; firstly for food and secondly for
breeding.
6. Interest toward natural history vanished after Aristotle during the growth of Roman Empire.
7. Little new information about animal habitat was added for nearly 1700 years after the death of
Aristotle.
8. Klopfer and Ganzhorn (1985) noted painters in the medieval and pre-Renaissance period still
showed an appreciation of specific animal with particular feature of the environment.
10. Europeans collected feathers, eggs, pelts, horns and other parts of animals for collection
cabinets.
12. Theory of evolution by natural selection forms the foundation of field of ecology.
13. Merriam in 1890 identified the changes that occur in plants and animals on an elevated gradient.
14. Adams 1908 studied changes in bird species that accompany plant succession.
15. Davis lack was first to recognize the features of appropriate environment trigger the animal to
select a place to live.
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138
17. Svardson (1949) developed a general conceptual model of habitat selection and Hilden later
expressed similar ideas.
18. Svardson found that factors other than those associated with the structure of the environment
influence selection.
19. Habitat selection is a complicated process involving several levels of discrimination and spatial
scale and a number of potentially interacting factors.
21. Grinnell formerly introduced the term niche when he was attempting to identify the reason for
the distribution of a single species of birds.
22. Elton described the niche as the status of an animal in the community and focused on trophic
position and diet.
24. Odum in 1959 viewed the niche as the position or status of an organism in an ecosystem
resulting from its behavior and morphological adaptations.
25. Use of fire by Native Americans altered the ecosystem in which they lived and influenced the
number of animals they hunted.
26. Marco polo reported that in the Mongol Empire in Asia, Kublai Khan increased the number of
quail and partridge.
27. H.L.Stoddard´s work on bobwhite quail, published in 1931, and Errington and Hammerstrom
´s work on pheasants, published in 1937, exemplify early efforts.
28. In the United States in 2001, 66 million people over 16 years of age spent over $38.4 billion
observing, feeding, or photographic wildlife.
29. In Arizona non game program is funded by a fixed percentage of the funds generated by the state
lottery.
30. An effort to increase the funding base for managing non game animals and their habitats was
started in the mid-1900s.
31. Christopher D.Stone, Jermy Bentham and Peter Singer argue that animals deserve the focus of
ethical consideration.
32. Ecological concept was proposed by J.Baird Callicott and was most eloquently advanced by
Leopold in his book A County Almanac.
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139
4) At global level skin of earth on the land, the sea and air, forms the biosphere.
7) The most undisturbed forests are located mainly in our National parks and wildlife sanctuaries.
8) Grassland covers area where rainfall is low and/or soil depth and quality is poor.
9) Low rain fall in grassland prevent growth of large number of trees and shrub.
10) Desert and semi-arid lands are highly specialized and sensitive ecosystems that are easily
destroyed by human activities.
12) These ecosystems provide human beings with a wealth of natural resources.
13) The special abiotic features are its physical aspects such as the quality of water.
14) Aquatic ecosystem may be classified as stagnant ecosystem or running water ecosystems.
15) Aquatic ecosystems are classified as freshwater, brackish and marine ecosystems.
4) Our awareness of danger of chlorinated hydrocarbons pesticides was enhanced when sensitive
species of wildlife were affected.
5) For man’s understanding and management of himself affects the quality and persistence of human
life.
6) The philosophical and educational value of wildlife may b critical to developing an ecological and
evolutionary ethic.
10) Negative values of wildlife are cost of wildlife damages to crop and other property and cost of
controlling these damages.
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2) The greatest threat to wildlife in US is that this laissez-faire group will grow, resulting in declining
political support for wildlife conservation.
3) Waterfowl marshes and floodplain forests provide some of the best opportunities to preserve urban
wildlife habitat.
6) Man cannot exist without using other forms of life or without manipulating habitat.
7) Sentimentalists are sometimes attached to certain species, usually wild warm blooded species.
10) Protectionists are concerned mostly for aesthetic values and non-consumptive uses of wildlife.
13) Single-use adherents prefer one value of wildlife over all other.
17) Many people have found their religion and philosophy in their perception of nature.
CH:17
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
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6) Wild boar is
a) 4 b) 5 c) 9 d) 2
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8
a) sheep and cat b) sheep and goat c) sheep and cow d) sheep and buffalo
17) In Pakistan there are five distinct subspecies of Markhor that can be separated on the basis of…
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142
a) Marcopolo sheep b) Shapu c) Ladakh urial d) both b & c
a) Afgananistan
b) Iran
c) India
d) None of them
a) 905,678
b) 665,895
c) 803,943
d) 112,365
a) K-2
b) Nanga purbat
c) Tirich mir
d) None of them
a) 15
b) 16
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143
c) 13
d) 19
5 Most of the rain fall in the arid region of Pakistan occurs from…………….
a) July to September
b) May to June
c) August to September
d) April to may
a) 90
b) 80
c) 68
d) 10
7 The total number of vertebrate’s species found in Pakistan excluding fish only ………….
a) 9-10%
b) 11-12%
c) 7-8%
d) 4-7%
a) Present
b) Absent
c) Vulnerable
d) Endangered
a) Present
b) Absent
c) Vulnerable
d) Endangered
a) 600
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144
b) 300
c) 500
d) 900
11 Among freshwater fishes, only ………….. Species has been listed as endangered.
a) Two
b) One
c) Three
d) Five
a) 25
b) 60
c) 30
d) 35
a) Two
b) Four
c) Three
d) One
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 8
a) Red fox
b) Badger
c) Pangolin
d) Martens
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145
a) Wild dog
b) Indian fox
c) Red fox
d) Jackal
a) 3
b) 4
c) 8
d) 2
18 civets secretes a greasy substance from their anal gland called used in ……… making .
a) Soap
b) Powder
c) Paint
d) Perfumes
(a) Biological resources (b) Physical resources (c) Unaltered resources (d) None
Complex of plant, animals and micro-organisms communities, their non living environment interacting as
a functional unit.
(a)Ecosystem
(c) Extinct
Domestic plants or animals which having escaped accidentally and now live wild under natural condition.
(d) Feral
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146
(b) species
(d)1872
Ecosystem
(b) omnivore
1961
(a)1895
(b) Aesthetic
Fisheries
Nutritionally complete feeds should be used whenever ________ foods are absent:
A. Natural
B. Manmade
C. Artificial
Most requirements for nutrients that have been published focus on:
A. Juvenile fish
B. Shrimp fish
C. Adult fish
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147
D. Both A & B
__________ percent of ascorbic acid is lost in processing , half life of 2-3 months in storage:
A. 50 %
B. 60%
C. 70%
A. Particle size
B. Particle shape
C. Both
A. Shrimp
B. Labeo rohita
C. Carps
A. LYS
B. MET
C. Both of these
Fish meal also contains ________ n-6 fatty acids essential to many fish and all shrimp:
D. 1-1.5%
E. 2-2.5%
F. 1-2.5%
G. 1.5-2.5%
De-hulled soybean meal contains ______% less ME , ______% less available P, and _______% less n-3
FA’s than anchovy meal:
A. 25, 85, 90
B. 25,90,85
C. 90,85,70
A. 10=15%
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148
B. 15=20%
C. 20=30%
________ are used as energy sources, provide essential fatty acids, attractant, coating of pellet to reduce
abrasion:
A. Crustacean meal
B. Soybean meal
A. 0.5-0.8%
B. 0.1-0.2%
C. 0.8-0.7%
Chemical binders have good binding potential , for cross linkages with:
A. COH &PRO
B. Carbohydrates
C. phospholipids
In addition to essential nutrients , feeds may have ________________ that have various effect on aquatic
species:
B. protein constituents
C. carbohydrates
The most important toxins effecting animal feeding are those associated with molds. These are called as:
A. mytotoxins
B. toxins
C. aflotoxins
A. aflotoxins
B. mytotoxins
C. toxins
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149
A. 1ug/kg
B. 2ug/kg
C. 3ug/kg
A. Ochratoxin
B. Aflotoxins
C. Antimetabolites
A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Ureter
A. 4.7mg/kg
B. 3.7mg/kg
C. 4.7mg/kg
A. 20ppb
B. 10ppb
C. 75ppb
A. Histamine
B. Phytic acid
C. Hormones
A. Gossypol
B. Pellet binders
C. Diet additives
A. Monosex
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150
B. Unisex
C. Bisex
A. Pellet binders
B. Fibers
C. Hormones
A. OTC
B. BHA
C. BHT
A. 0.5-1.0%
B. 1-2%
C. 2-3%
A. Implants
B. Otplants
C. none
a) Discoloration of body
c) Folding of fins
d) all of these
a) Lymphocystis
b) VHS
c) IHN
d) IPN
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151
a) Viral
b) Bacterial
c) Autoimmune
d) Hygienic
4- A great majority fish live in PH 7.0-6.0 but if PH of water goes does ,fish shows signs of
a) Alkemia
b) Acidaemia
c) Acidosis
d) Alkalosis
5- To overcome the acidaemia , the PH level most be normalized with judicious application of powdered
a) Calcium carbonate
b) Calcium phosphate
c) Hydrogen phosphate
d) Calcium
6- Kurmar and Dey (1991) have classified therapeutic treatment of fish s under
a) External treatment
d) None of these
a) Detritus
b) Plankton
c) Neuston
d) Benthos
8- ………… is contain aminoacids together with microorganisms and organic product of decay
a) Periphyton
b) Mud
c) Benthos
d) detritus
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152
9- ……….. those feed exclusively on fish
a) piscivores
b) aerial feeders
c) benthivores
d) aerial feeders
a) fin biters
b) scale eaters
c) parasite
d) all of these
a) pop eye
b) embolism
c) anoxia
d) acidaemia
a) iodine
b) vitamin
c) Vitamin E
d) Biotin
a) Anemia
c) Dietary gills
d) Thyroid tumor
14) ……… concentration of oxygen in water is most sufficient for most fish
a) 5ppm
b) 3ppm
c) 7.5ppm
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153
d) 7 ppm
15) The concentration less then ……. May prove to be lethal for many fish species and other aquatic
animal
a) 3ppm
b) 5ppm
c) 4ppm
d)7ppm
a) dietary disease
b) Embolism
c) anoxia
d) ergailoso
a) Above 110%
c) 110%
d) 111%
b) Dietry disease
c) anoxia
d) ergailoso
(a)national challenge
(c)none of these
(b)integrated of aquaculture
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154
(c)none of these
(4) ------countries is one of the most important ecological balance sustainable technologies:
(a)Farmers
(b)Hunters
(c)Woodcutters
(a)China
(b)Japan
(c)India
(7) ------is organic-based and drives inputs from agricultural and animal husbandry:
(a)China
(b)India
(c)Japan
(b)Integrated of aquaculture
(a)aquaculture
(b) agriculture
(c)none of these
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155
(10) The integrated of fish and plants results in a:
(a)aquaculture
(b)agriculture
(c) polyculture
(11) The------products of one biological system serve as nutrient for a second biological system:
(b)Integrated of aquaculture
(c)none of these
(c)none of these
(a)One
(b)Two
(c)Three
(b)Paddy
(c)Integrated of aquaculture
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156
(a) 4-8
(b) 5-9
(c) 3-8
(a)Middle
(b)Front
(c)Backward
(a) 60-50
(b) 50-70
(c) 50-60
(20) ------are provided on either one or both sides of the moderately sloping field:
(a)perimeter type
(a) 1000Kg
(b) 2000Kg
(c) 3000Kg
(22) The-------farming system includes the culture of fruits, vegetables and flowers on the embankment of
the pond:
(a)Horticulture-cum-fish farming
(b)Paddy-cum-fish culture
(c)Aquaculture
(23) The Indian Council of Medical Research has recommended -------fruits and ------vegetables to
consume daily:
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157
(24) The system of Horticulture-cum-fish farming provides-------% more return in comparison to
aquaculture alone:
(a) 20-25%
(b) 30-35%
(c) 25-50%
(25) ---------are used for growing pulses and oil seed crops:
(a)water
(b)pond bundhs
(29)
(a)organic fertilizer
(b)biological aerator
(c)none of these
(30) The ‘Indian runner’ and ‘khaki camp bell’ varieties are found more suitable in:
(a)Duck-cum-fish culture
(c)Cattle-cum-fish farming
(31) About how many no. of ducklings are reared to fertilizer the 1 ha pond?
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158
(c) 400 no. of ducklings
(a)aquatic weed
(b)aquatic insects
(36) How many pig’s waste may produce 1 tonn of Ammonium Sulphate?
(a )30-35 pig’s
(b 35-40 pig’s
(c)20-25 pig’s
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159
(41) Which integration can provide 3500-4000Kg fish/ha/year without supplementary feeding and
fertilizer?
(a)GOAT-cum-fish integrated
(b)Rabbit-fish integrated
(c)none of these
(a)grey giant
(b)white giant
(c)both a and c
(a)nitrogen content
(b)moisture
(c)quality manure
(45) From how many rabbit would be enough for 1 ha pond fertilization:
(a)300 rabbits
(b)400 rabbits
(c)500 rabbits
(a)nitrogen (N)
(b)oxygen(O2)
(c)carbon dioxide(CO2)
(a)natural
(b)synthetic substance
(c)both of these
(48) The chemical attached to soil particles may also later be released back into the water-----
(a)slowly
(b)fast
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160
(c)normally
(a)one
(b)two
(c)three
(a)zooplankton bloom
(b)plankton bloom
(c)none of these
(51) if possible add more fertilizer as needed according to the plankton density using regularly
(a)small amounts
(b)synthetic substance
(c)large amount
(a)fish production
(b)organic fertilizer
(c)additional feedings
(a)carbon dioxide
(b)oxygen
(c)nitrogen
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161
A recent detailed account of various fish catching methods has been given by
A. Hickling 1961
B. Brandit 1972
C. Ewart 1997
A. 6
B. 10
C. 12
D. 7
A. Poisoning
C. Digging
D. Natural drawdown
A. Diffuse methods
C. Electrofishing
D. Multiple methods
B. Entangling structures
C. Indiscriminate methods
D. Investing structures
Framed dip nets, scoop nets & cast nets are part of
A. Entangling structures
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162
C. Investing structures
D. Diffuse methods
A. Basket traps
B. Purse seine
C. Trawl net
D. Drag net
B. Electrofishing
C. Entangling structures
D. Collective methods
Hook & line and fish spears & harpoons are a part of which method
A. Diffuse methods
D. Investing structures
C. Electrofishing
D. Multiple,Collective methods
Which of the following fresh water fishing method do not have have further parts
A. Diffuse methods
B. Multiple methods
C. Electrofishing
D. Entangling structures
A. Contour ponds
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163
B. Freshwater
C. Barrage ponds
D. Embankment ponds
A. Fishes
B. Food
C. Essential nutrients
D. Soil
A. Fish
B. Nutrients
C. Sand
D. Silt load
A. Common sources
B. Spring water
C. Ground water
D. Natural water
A. Stream water
B. Well water
C. Ground water
A. Insects
B. Walls
D. Ground water
Once the core trench has been filled with high quality clay soil, … should be installed
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164
A. Dam site area
B. Drain pipe
C. Spillway
D. Channel
All fills should be composed of high quality clay soil applied in thin, ….
B. Close layers
D. Layers
The pond banks should have a … slope to prevent excessive growth of rooted aquatic weeds
A. 3:1
B. 12 feet
C. 2:1
D. 14 inches
A. Pond size
B. Drainage area
C. Water body
D. Earthen dam
A. Square& rectangle
B. Oval
C. Circle
D. Hexagonal
Area of …. Is good for a family pond that can be built without machinery
A. 400m2
B. 200m2
C. 300m2
D. 500m2
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165
The water depth of pond is usually …. At shallow end
A. 4ft
B. 7ft
C. 5.3ft
D. 3ft
A. 6-7ft
B. 4-5ft
C. 1-2ft
D. 9-10ft
A. Topography
B. Weather
C. Water
D. Seasons
A. 6
B. 5
C. 7
D. 3
A. Diversion ponds
B. Embankment ponds
C. Contour ponds
D. Streams
A. Dam failure
B. Erosion
C. Flooding
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166
D. Pond damage
a) Egyptians
b) Chinese
c) Pakistani
d) British
a) Egyptians
b) Chinese
c) Pakistani
d) British
a) 2000BC
b) 3000BC
c) 2500BC
d) 4000BC
a) Big lake
b) Big pond
c) Big river
d) Sea
a) River
b) Lake
c) Sea
d) None
a) Pond
b) Lakes
c) Both
d) None
a) Wave action
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167
b) No wave action
c) Less wave action
d) Max wave action
a) Drainable
b) Non drainable
c) Both
d) None
___ponds are build across stream water course or valley above ground structures
a) Embankment
b) Excavated
c) Barrage ponds
d) Both a and c
a) Excavated
b) Contour
c) Barrage
d) Both a and b
Barrage or embankment and excavated or contour ponds are classified on basis of ___
a) Construction
b) Function
c) Both
d) None
a) Feeding fish
b) Breeding fish
c) Catching fish
d) None
a) Square
b) Rectangular
c) Oval
d) Circle
a) Spawning
b) Rearing
c) Stocking
d) Nursery
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168
On basis of function ponds are classified into __types
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
a) Stocking pond
b) Rearing pond
c) Nursery pond
d) Spawning pond
Nursing ponds are used for nursing __days old hatchling for about a month
a) 3-5 days
b) 5-10 days
c) 10-15 days
d) None
a) Spawning pond
b) Nursing pond
c) Rearing pond
d) Stocking pond
a) Stocking pond
b) Foraging pond
c) Both
d) None
__ponds are used for feeding and growing fingerlings to markable size
a) Close
b) Faraway
c) In b/w
d) None
a) Water quality
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169
b) Topography
c) Selection of site
d) Soil quality
a) Higher
b) Lower
c) Medium
d) None
a) 0.5-1%
b) 2%
c) 5%
d) None
a) 2%
b) 5%
c) 3%
d) 1%
a) Clay loam
b) Silt clay
c) Heavy clay
d) All
a) Very high
b) Very low
c) More or less
d) None
a) Botonite
b) Asphalt
c) Both
d) None
a) Mangrove areas
b) Grassy areas
c) Both
d) None
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170
Do not dry up in summer months
a) Springs
b) Artisan wells
c) Both
d) None
a) Rich
b) Deficient
c) Abundant
d) None
a) Dry land
b) Water land
c) Woodland
d) None
a) Dry ponds
b) Sky ponds
c) Both
d) None
a) Catla catla
b) Labeo rohita
c) Cirrhinus mrigala
d) Cyprinus carpio
a) Low
b) High
c) Irregular
d) None
a) Non predacious
b) Herbivore
c) Planktophagus
d) All
Page
171
Answer Key
Page
172
1) Sponge Answer key Animal Diversity
2) 360 million years ago
3) Grade
4) Sponges
5) Mesoderm
6) Spiral cleavage
7) Both a and b
8) Clade
9) Gastrulation
10) Mesoderm
11) A solid body without a cavity surrounding internal organ
12) Mesozoic Era
13) Lophophore
14) Eumetazoa
15) All above
16) 251-65.5 MYA
17) Homeoboxes
18) 1.3 million
19) Hox genes
20) 565-550 mya
21) 750
22) Stabilizer
23) Suspension feeders
24) Buoyancy
25) Waterwings
26) Synapsids
27) Single temporal fenestra
28) Temporal fenestra
29) Permian period
30) Jurassic
31) Early cretaceous
32) Both a & b
33) Honey bee
34) Mesozoic
35) Three
36) Placental mammals
37) Marsupials
38) Apes
39) Large brain and short jaws
40) 180 MYA
41) 140 MYA
42) Proboscidea
43) Lagomorpha
44) Brachiating
45) Primates
46) Anthropoids
47) Old world monkeys
48) Orangutans
49) Largest
50) 200,00 years old
51) 99%
52) 19
53) Paleoanthropolgy
54) Humans
55) 400-450 cm3
56) Nipples
57) 3.5 billion years ago
58) 99%
59) 19
60) Human
61) Foramen magnum
62) 1300 cm³
63) 4 and 2 million years ago.
64) About 10 million years ago
65) 4 times
66) Africa
67) Asians
68) microcephaly.
69) Permian period
70) Allantois
71) Amniotes
72) Chorion
73) Reptiles
74) Viviparous
75) four
76) Cold blooded
77) Parareptiles
78) Dinosaurs
79) 50
80) Snakes
81) Turtles
82) Pectoral
83) Feather
84) Mammals
85) Synapsids
ANSWERS.
1- C
2- A
3- B
4- C
5- A
6- D
7- B
8- A
9- B
10- A
11- A
12- C
13- A
14- A
15- A
16- B
17- A
18- D
19- A
20- A
21- B
22- D
23- B
24- A
25- A
26- A
27- A
28- D
29- A
30- B
31- B
32- A
33- A
34- B
35- A
36- A
37- D
38- B
39- A
40- D
41- A
42- B
43- C
44- B
45- D
46- B
47- A
48- C
49- B
50- A
51- A
52- C
53- A
54- C
55- A
56- A
57- C
58- A
59- D
60- C
61- A
62- D
63- C
64- B
65- B
66- C
67- C
68- D
69- C
70- A
71- A
72- C
73- D
74- A
75- B
76- D
77- C
78- B
79- C
80- D
81- C
82- B
83- A
84- C
85- B
86- B
87- A
88- D
89- A
90- C
91- B
92- A
93- A
94- C
95- C
96- D
97- A
98- B
99- A
100- B
101- D
102- A
103- D
104- A
105- B
106- A
107- C
108- D
109- B
110- C
111- A
112- A
113- A
114- C
115- B
116- A
117- A
118- A
119- A
120- A
121- A
122- A
123- A
124- A
125- A
126- A
127- A
128- A
129- A
130- A
131- A
132- A
133- A
134- A
135- A
136- A
137- A
138- A
139- A
140- A
141- A
142- A
143- A
144- A
145- A
146- A
147- A
148- A
149- A
150- D
151- A
152- A
153- D
154- C
155- D
156- A
157- A
158- A
159- A
160- A
161- C
162- D
163- A
164- D
165- A
166- A
167- A
168- A
169- B
170- C
171- D
172- A
173- A
174- A
175- A
176- A
177- B
178- B
179- A
180- C
181- A
182- A
183- A
184- B
185- A
186- A
187- B
188- C
189- B
190- D
191- A
192- B
193- A
194- B
195- C
196- A
197- B
198- C
199- C
200- D
201- B
202- C
203- A
204- D
205- C
206- D
207- A
208- D
209- C
210- C
211- A
212- C
213- D
214- A
215- D
216- A
217- C
218- A
219- B
220- B
221- D
222- B
223- A
224- C
225- C
226- F
227- A
228- E
229- C
230- A
231- B
232- A
233- C
234- C
235- B
236- A
237- C
238- C
239- B
240- C
241- C
242- B
243- A
244- C
245- A
246- B
247- C
248- C
249- A
250- B
251- A
252- C
253- A
254- A
255- A
256- B