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500+ HR PRACTICE QUESTIONS FOR BHEL EXECUTIVE TRAINEE EXAM
Q1. In which public sector organisation quality circles was first introduced in
India?
(a) Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd
(b) Bharat Earth Movers Ltd
(c) Bharat Heavy Electricals Ltd
(d) Hindustan Machine Tools Ltd
(e) None of these
Q2. Which of the following is not a reason for downsizing?
(a) To reduce product development time.
(b) To save labour costs.
(c) To speed up decision making.
(d) To be more responsive to customers.
(e) To increase employee morale.
Q3. What is meant by the acronym CIPD?
(a) Chartered Institute of People and Development.
(b) Chartered Institute of Personnel and Development.
(c) Chartered Institute of Performance Development.
(d) Chartered Institute of Personnel Directors.
(e) Other than those given as options
Q4. What does Boxall mean by the acronym HCA?
(a) Human Capital Assessment.
(b) Human Capital Allowance.
(c) Human Capital Advantage.
(d) Human Capital Analysis.
(e) Human Capital Appraisal
Q5. What does Boxall mean by the acronym OPA?
(a) Organisational Process Advantage.
(b) Organisational Process Appraisal.
(c) Organisational Process Assessment.

(d) Organisational Procedure Advantage.
(e) Organisational Process Analysis.
Q6. The maximum daily hours of work of an adult in a day with normal wage
allowed in factories is
(a) 11 hours
(b) 10 hours
(c) 9 hours
(d) 8 hours
(e) 7 hours
Q7. Which one is not a non-quantitative job evaluation method?
(a) Ranking method
(b) Grading method
(c) Point rating method
(d) Job-classification method
(e) paired comparison
Q8. Which of the following are the powers of conciliation officer?
(a) Enter and inspect in the organisation
(b) Summon any person as witness or compel the production of document and
rule.
(c) Grant/refuse approval/permission to petition filed by employer on disciplinary
matters during pendency of conciliation before him
(d) may do all such things as he thinks fits for the purpose for inducing the
parties to come to a fair and amicable settlement.
(e) All of the above
Q9. Which of the following act is responsible for ensuring the safety, health and
welfare of the employees?
(a) Factories Act, 1948
(b) Payment of Wages Act, 1936
(c) Equal Remuneration Act, 1976
(d) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947

(e) minimum wages Act, 1948
Q10. The centre of Indian Trade Union was founded in
(a) 1970
(b) 1980
(c) 1948
(d) 1990
(e) 1950
Q11. Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 settles the dispute between
(a) employer v/s employer
(b) employer vs workmen
(c) workmen v/s workmen
(d) none of the above
Q12. Which of the above fall under minor punishment?
(a) termination
(b) Demotion
(c) Censure
(d) Dismissal
(e) Salary reduction
Q13. Which of the following are the main objectives of the Industrial Employment
Act, 1946?
(a) To have uniform standing orders in respect to workers, factories and working
relationships
(b) To promote industrial peace and harmony by promoting fair industrial
practices.
(c) payment of subsistence allowance to the workmen who are kept under
suspension due to pending domestic enquiry.
(d) to regulate the conditions of recruitment, discharge, disciplinary action, leave,
holidays, etc. of the workers.

Q14. Human Resource Planning include
(a) training and development
(b) performance appraisal
(c) Demand and Supply forecasts of human resource
(d) welfare practices
(e) job evaluation
Q15. Which of the following is not an example of seasonal worker?
(a) Worker working in crackers factory
(b) Worker working in beedi factory
(c) Worker working in rakhi factory
(d) Worker working in sugar factory
(e) Worker working in umbrella factory
Q16. The Payment of Bonus Act, 1965 (amendment 2015) is applicable to an
employee who draws a wage or salary of
(a) 3500 in case of apprentice
(b) 5000 in case of apprentice and employee
(c) 7500 in case of employee only
(d) 10,000 in case of employee only
(e) 21,000 in case of employee only
Q17. Which one of the following is not included by Henry Mintzberg in the
depiction of managerial roles?
(a) Spokesperson
(b) Negotiator
(c) Entrepreneur
(d) Visionary
(e) Disseminator
Q18. Premature evaluation of message takes place due to
(a) Semantic barriers
(b) Psychological barriers

(c) Organizational barriers
(d) Personal barriers
(e) Professional barriers
Q19. Which of the following is the foremost element of planning process?
(a) Developing leadership abilities
(b) Selecting right people
(c) Determining objectives or goals
(d) Motivating people
(e) Training people
Q20. Companies are required to hold a meeting every year. What is this meeting
called?
(a) Extraordinary meeting
(b) Statutory meeting
(c) Committee meeting
(d) Annual general meeting
(e) board meeting
Q21. In which of the following kinds of interview, the questions are
predetermined?
(a) Panel
(b) Stress
(c) Group
(d) Structured
(e) Informal
Q22. The maximum time scale for performance appraisals is?
(a) annually
(b) biannually
(c) monthly
(d) weekly
(e) quarterly
Q23. Total training cost includes all except?
(a) participants ongoing salaries
(b) overheads during training
(c) cost of R & D in training needs analysis
(d) Training assessment cost
(e) Replacement costs
Q24. Who is associated with the “The human capital approach of HRD”
(a) T. V. Rao
(b) Rensis Likert
(c) Eric Berne
(d) T.W. Schultz
(e) Dalton McFarland
Q25. ‘Consumer Price Index’ is taken into account in connection with which of the
following:
(a) Payment of Bonus Act, 1965
(b) Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972
(c) Minimum Wages Act, 1948
(d) Payment of Wages Act, 1936
(e) Factories Act, 1948
Q26. Why is it important to ensure that HR plans are flexible
(a) To accommodate change to senior management terms.
(b) To adapt to changing skills and qualification.
(c) To accommodate the rapidly changing environments in which most
organizations operate.
(d) To ensure a diverse labour force is maintained at all times.
(e) To accommodate employee’s schemes.
Q27. Induction means
(a) The determination of the job in which an accepted candidate is to be assigned
(b) Introducing the new employee who is designated as a probationer to the job
(c) Measuring the efficiency of labour
(d) Absorbing human resource as organs of the company
(e) Providing training for the job.
Q28. Placement refers to:
(a) The determination of the job in which an accepted candidate is to be assigned
(b) Introducing the new employee who is designed as a probationer to the job
(c) Measuring the efficiency of labour
(d) Absorbing human resource as organs of the company
(e) synchronization and combination of human, physical and financial resources
Q29. Welfare Officers are to be appointed if Organisation is engaging ______ or
more employees.
(a) 500
(b) 250
(c) 600
(d) 750
(e) 100
Q30. Notice of change in registered office address should be given to the
Registrar in writing within ____ days of such change.
(a) 10
(b) 30
(c) 25
(d) 20
(e) 15
Q31. Housing is a statutory welfare under which of the following Acts ?
(a) Factories’ Act
(b) Mines Act
(c) Shops and Commercial Establishment Act
(d) Plantation Labour Act
(e) Pension Act

Q32. In an inflationary economy like ours today, which of the following
components of wages becomes more important?
(a) Overtime
(b) Incentive
(c) Bonus
(d) Dearness allowance
(e) Annual allowance
Q33. Canteen is to be provided if engaging employees more than ______ persons.
(a) 250
(b) 230
(c) 300
(d) 275
(e) 100
Q34. Leave with wages is allowed for employees if they work for _______ days in
a month.
(a) 15
(b) 25
(c) 20
(d) 28
(e) 30
Q35. BARS (Behaviorally anchored rating scale) is having ___ steps:
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 7
(e) 3
Q36. The term Sabbatical is connected with
(a) Paid leave for study
(b) Paternity leave

(c) Maternity leave
(d) Quarantine leave
(e) leave for travel
Q37. Which area Industrial Relation does not cover?
(a) Economic development
(b) Role of management, union and government
(c) Collective bargaining
(d) Machinery for resolution of industrial dispute
(e) maintaining peace and harmony in the organization
Q38. Which one of the following concept is developed on unity, individualism,
high commitment and strategic alignment and development of employees?
(a) Personnel Management
(b) Human Resource Management
(c) Industrial Relations
(d) Personnel Administration
(e) None of the above
Q39. Human Resource Planning include
(a) Scenario planning
(b) Action planning
(c) Demand and Supply forecasts
(d) All the above
Q40. The factors included in the calculation of human development index except?
(a) Life expectancy
(b) Adult literacy
(c) Decent standard of living
(d) census
(e) All the above

Q41. Which of the following statements about labour market is not true ?
(a) Labour market like commodity market is analyzed by supply, demand and
price equilibrium.
(b) Labour Market is relatively more local than commodity market.
(c) Unlike a commodity market, the relationship between a buyer and seller in a
labour market is not temporary.
(d) Monopoly in the labour market is high.
(e) Labour supply in India is high.
Q42. Which of the following is/are correct regarding coordination?
1. Coordination cannot be voluntarily produced by number of cooperating
persons.
2. Coordination is, for the most part, the result of voluntary attitudes on the part
of people in an organization.
3. Coordination is a far more inclusive term embracing the idea of cooperation.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(e) 2 and 3 only
Q43. If a situation calls for pooling the authority of two or more managers, it is
referred to as
(a) splintered authority.
(b) centralized authority.
(c) decentralized authority.
(d) recentralized authority.
(e) Pitchfork managers
Q44. Which one of the following functions is concerned with synchronizing and
unifying the actions of a group of people in an organization?
(a) Directing
(b) Controlling
(c) Coordinating
(d) Staffing
(e) organizing
Q45. Which one of the following is a motivating factor according to Herzberg?
(a) Job itself
(b) Salary
(c) Working conditions
(d) Size of organization
(e) social security
Q46. The minimum subscription rate for members of trade unions of rural
workers shall not be less than Rs.
(a) 12 per annum
(b) 3 per annum
(c) 1 per annum
(d) 5 per annum
(e) No such provision
Q47. Which of the following is not a determinant factor of industrial relations?
(a) Institutional factors
(b) Economic factors
(c) Technological factors
(d) Social stratification factors
(e) Political factors
Q48. Which of the following cannot be said to be an effect of industrial disputes?
(a) High Productivity, Peace and Profit
(b) High Labour Turnover
(c) Higher rate of Absenteeism
(d) Higher rate of Man-days lost
(e) unfair labour practices

Q49. __________ departmentalization achieves economies of scale by placing
people with common skills and orientations into common units.
(a) Functional
(b) Process
(c) Product
(d) Geographic
(e) personal
Q50. The another term for vestibule training is:
(a) Training centre training
(b) Apprenticeship training
(c) T group training
(d) Simulation training
(e) field training
Q51. According to Fiedler’s Contingency Model of Leadership, which one of the
following is a situational variable?
(a) Leader – Member relationship
(b) Organisational System
(c) Degree of task structure
(d) Leader’s position power
Q52. The right sequence of steps in Kurt Lewin’s change procedure is
(a) Unfreezing – changing – Freezing
(b) changing – Unfreezing – Freezing
(c) Unfreezing – Freezing – changing
(d) Freezing – changing – Unfreezing
(e) changing-Freezing-Unfreezing
Q53. Which of the following is a machinery for settlement of industrial disputes?
(a) Indian Labour Conference
(b) Joint Management Council

(c) Industrial Tribunal
(d) Standing Labour Committees
(e) International labour organization
Q54. Which of the following is not a feature of systems approach?
(a) A system is a combination of parts
(b) Parts and sub-parts are related to one another
(c) It is not necessary for a system to have a boundary
(d) System transforms inputs into outputs
(e) Manager can see the organization as a whole and as a part of larger external
environment.
Q55. The basic function of trade union is
(a) To protect and promote the interest of the workers.
(b) Acquiring the control of industry by workers.
(c) Imbibing sincerity and discipline in workers.
(d) To provide cultural and recreational facilities.
(e) Estimating manpower required for the organization
Q56. Moonlighting means
(a) Working simultaneously in two organisations.
(b) Working under moonlight.
(c) Working in the night.
(d) Encouraging employee to improve productivity
(e) Highlighting the flaws of employees
Q57. Which of the following is called a punitive approach?
(a) Recruitment
(b) Selection
(c) Induction
(d) Training
(e) Penalties
Q58. Which of the following cannot be said to be a type of wage differential?
(a) Occupational Wage Differential
(b) Geographical Wage Differential
(c) Inter-industry Wage Differential
(d) National Wage Differential
(e) Skill differential
Q59. There shall be delegation of authority in the welfare fields, either by election
to committees, or by proper nomination, according to
(a) Principle of Timeliness.
(b) Principle of Accountability
(c) Principle of Evaluation and Assessment
(d) Principle of Responsibility
(e) Principle of unity
Q60. Under which one of the following conditions does false positive staffing
error occur?
(a) Selection as well as performance scores are high
(b) Selection scores are low and performance scores are high
(c) Selection scores are high and performance scores are low
(d) Both selection and performance scores are low
(e) Selection scores and performance scores are equal
Q61. Unfair Labour Practices are listed in which act?
(a) the Factories Act, 1948
(b) the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946
(c) the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
(d) the Trade Unions Act, 1926
(e) workmen compensation Act, 1923
Q62. Which of the following is correct about ‘Grapevine’?
(a) It tends to exist when members of formal group know one another well.
(b) It is the result of social forces at work place.

(c) It is more common in times of high organisational excitement.
(d) Grapevine is an informal form of communication.
(e) All the above.
Q63. Which one is not a part of recruitment process?
(a) Determining requirements
(b) Planning recruitment campaign
(c) Attracting candidates
(d) Selecting candidates
(e) generating candidate pool
Q64. Money wage is otherwise called as
(a) Real wage
(b) Living wage
(c) Nominal wage
(d) Fair wage
(e) relative wage
Q65. What is the goal of ILO?
(a) not to provide social protection to the labours
(b) not just creation of jobs but the creation of jobs of acceptable quality
(c) not overcoming under employment
(d) not to provide freedom of choice in employment
(e) does not aim to eliminate child labour
Q66. What is meant by RPO?
(a) Recruitment Procedure Outsourcing.
(b) Recruitment Process Outsourcing.
(c) Recruitment Process Output.
(d) Retirement Process Outsourcing.
Q67. Since which period have management theorists and practitioners been
concerned with emotions in organisations?
(a) 1930s.
(b) 1950s.
(c) 1920s.
(d) 1940s.
Q68. Which of the following refer to a 'tight' labour market? Select all that apply.
(a) High turnover of staff.
(b) More creative recruitment.
(c) Firms offer additional incentives and benefits.
(d) Firms have difficulty finding staff.
(e) Firms find it easy finding staff.
Q69. 'Best practice' employee selection is usually associated with which model?
(a) The psychiatric model.
(b) The psychometric model.
(c) The physiological model.
(d) The psychological model.
Q70. What is meant by WERS?
(a) Worker Employer Relations Survey.
(b) Workplace Employment Relations Survey.
(c) Workplace Employment Relations Statistics.
(d) Worker Employee Relations Survey.
Q71. Which of the following are cognitive characteristics? Select all that apply.
(a) Personality traits.
(b) Academic achievements.
(c) Knowledge.
(d) Intellectual processes.
(e) Motivation.
Q72. What is meant by the acronym VET?
(a) Vocational Expertise and Training.
(b) Voluntary Education and Training.
(c) Vocational Education and Training.
(d) Vocational Experience and Training.
Q73. Which of the following problems may result due to skill gaps? Select all that
(a) Poor customer service.
(b) Increased business.
(c) Delays developing new products.
(d) Quality issues.
Q74. What is meant by the acronym VPS?
(a) Variable Pay Systems.
(b) Valuable Pay System.
(c) Voluntary Pay System.
(d) Valuable Pay Scheme.
Q75. What is meant by the acronym PRP?
(a) Performance Related Pay.
(b) Performance Registered Pay.
(c) Process Related Pay.
(d) Performance Recommended Pay.
Q76. Human resources management refers to:
(a) all managerial activities.

(b) concepts and techniques used in leading people at work.
(c) concepts and techniques for organizing work activities.
(d) management techniques for controlling people at work.
(e) the management of people in organizations.
Q77. The knowledge, education, training, skills, and expertise of a firm’s workers
is known as:
(a) physical capital.
(b) management’s philosophy.
(c) production capital.
(d) human capital.
(e) cultural diversity.
Q78. Human resources practices that support strategy include:
(a) performance management.
(b) rewards practices.
(c) staffing practices.
(d) policies and procedures.
(e) production scheduling.
Q79. A company utilizes a system to measure the impact of Human Resources
which balances measures relating to financial results, customers, internal
business processes and human capital management. This system is knows as
the:
(a) HRIS.
(b) Human Capital Index.
(c) balanced strategy.
(d) balanced scorecard.
(e) none of the above.
Q80. You have been tasked with building employee engagement at the firm you
work for. Strategic human resources initiatives you would consider implementing
include:
(a) employee recognition programs.

(b) employee recognition programs and management development programs.
(c) job design indicators.
(d) diversity programs.
(e) employee relations activity.
Q81. HR department staff members are traditionally involved in key operational
responsibilities. Which of the following is an operational responsibility?
(a) setting goals and objectives
(b) interpreting human right laws
(c) collecting metrics
(d) analyzing metrics
(e) interpreting health and safety legislation
Q82. Being completely familiar with employment legislation, HR policies and
procedures, collective agreements, and the outcome of recent arbitration
hearings and court decisions is most closely related with which of the following
HR activities?
(a) serving as a consultant
(b) formulating policies and procedures
(c) offering advice
(d) providing services
(e) serving as a change agent
Q83. The practice of contracting with outside vendors to handle specified
functions on a permanent basis is known as
(a) contract administration.
(b) payroll and benefits administration.
(c) hiring temporary employees.
(d) outsourcing.
(e) labour-management relations.
Q84. The company’s plan for how it will balance its internal strengths and
weaknesses with external opportunities and threats in order to maintain
competitive advantage is known as
(a) environmental scanning.
(b) HR strategy.
(c) policies and procedures.
(d) strategy.
Q85. Rita is the HR Director of a manufacturing company. She recently undertook
research to identify competitor compensation and incentive plans, information
about pending legislative changes and availability of talent in the labour market
for the upcoming strategic planning meeting. Rita was conducting:
(a) environmental scanning.
(b) an external market survey.
(c) an employee engagement survey.
(d) an envrionmental study.
(e) an external opportunities/threats study.
Q86. The HR manager of Reliance Telecom company was heavily involved in a
downsizing exercise of the Company’s sales force due to an economic downturn.
He was also involved in arranging for outplacement services and employee
retention programs as well as restructuring of the business following the
downsizing. This is an example of HR’s role in:
(a) environmental scanning and executing strategy.
(b) environmental scanning.
(c) executing strategy.
(d) operational activities.
(e) formulating strategy.
Q87. The core values, beliefs, and assumptions that are widely shared by
members of an organization are known as:
(a) organizational climate.
(b) organizational culture.
(c) the pervading atmosphere.
(d) the mission statement.

(e) the strategic plan.
Q88. As the HR consultant of a newly formed company, Arun has planned a
presentation for the line managers on organizational culture and the purpose it
serves. Which of the following points would Arun have included in his
presentation?
(a) increasing training levels
(b) fostering employee loyalty and commitment and providing employees with a
sense of direction
(c) fostering employee loyalty and commitment
(d) succession planning
(e) creating a worldlier atmosphere
Q89. The prevailing atmosphere or internal weather that exists in an organization
and its impact on employees is
(a) organizational climate.
(b) the need for performance appraisals.
(c) the need for a corporate culture.
(d) a myth about organizations.
(e) the importance of having a mission statement.
Q90. Reliance Jio has decided to allow its front line workers to make decisions
regarding the ordering of certain supplies that were formerly made by managers.
This initiative is an example of:
(a) job restructuring.
(b) employee empowerment.
(c) management development.
(d) a change in organizational climate.
(e) workplace incentives.
Q91. Prashant was hired by a manufacturing firm as a supervisor. During his first
few weeks as a supervisor he realised that employees who report to him expect a
lot of direction from him and expect all of the decision making to be done by him.
Prashant decided to train his employees to take on additional responsibilities and
make decisions within a specific scope. Prashant is:
(a) empowering his staff.

(b) embracing his staff.
(c) outsourcing his staff.
(d) reducing his staff.
Q92. Economic downturns are generally associated with:
(a) high turnover.
(b) lower unemployment rates.
(c) more competition for qualified employees.
(d) an overwhelming number of job applicants for vacancies.
(e) skills shortages.
Q93. The ratio of an organization’s outputs to its inputs is known as:
(a) the labour market.
(b) the equity ratio.
(c) productivity.
(d) the supply and demand equation.
(e) competitive ability.
Q94. External environmental influences having a direct or indirect influence on
HRM include which of the following:
(a) labour market conditions.
(b) increasing empowerment.
(c) organizational climate.
(d) decreasing work force diversity.
(e) organizational culture.
Q95. The ratio of an organization’s outputs such as goods and its inputs such as
capital is which of the following:
(a) productivity.
(b) outsourcing.
(c) an internal environmental influence.
(d) workforce diversity.

(e) the labour market.
Q96. When unemployment rates fall:
(a) training and retention strategies increase in importance.
(b) there is always a greater demand for services.
(c) retention strategies increase in importance.
(d) there is always a greater demand for services and training strategies increase.
(e) unions are more likely to organize workers.
Q97. Mortgage Financial needs to recruit 10 employees for a period of three
months to assist its team of underwriters during the busy season. The company
does not want to provide these 10 employees regular full-time or part-time status.
As the HR manager, what would you suggest the company do in this situation?
(a) increase the workload of staff
(b) use contingent employees
(c) outsource the underwriting function
(d) do nothing about the situation
(e) develop a retention plan
Q98. The characteristics of the work force are known as:
(a) unionization.
(b) population trends.
(c) demographics.
(d) diversity.
(e) organizational climate.
Q99. The single most important factor governing the size and composition of the
labour force is:
(a) the birth rate.
(b) population growth.
(c) diversity.
(d) immigration patterns.
(e) the death rate.
Q100. Any attribute that humans are likely to use to tell them, that person is
different from me, and thus includes such factors such as race, gender, age,
values and cultural norms, is known as
(a) differences.
(b) characteristics.
(c) minorities.
(d) diversity.
(e) perceptions.
Q101. Payment of Bonus Act was introduced in the
year______________________.
(a) 1963
(b) 1961
(c) 1965
(d) 1969
(e) 1971
Q102. Payment of Bonus Act 1965 is applicable to the establishments where
_______________ workmen are employed on any day during an accounting year.
(a) 20 ≤
(b) 50 ≤
(c) 20 ≥
(d) 30 >
(e) 50 ≥
Q103. Who is not entitled for bonus among the following under the payment of
Bonus act, 1965?
(I) Temporary employees
(II) Apprentice employees
(III) Part-time employees
(IV) Seasonal employees
(a) Only (I)
(b) Both (II) and (III)

(c) Only (II)
(d) Both (I) and (III)
(e) All are entitled
Q104. What is the wage ceiling for the eligibility of employees under Sec (8) of
Payment of Bonus Act?
(a) ≥ 7000
(b) ≤ 21000
(c) < 15000
(d) ≤ 10000
(e) ≤ 24000
Q105. The provisions of the Payment of Bonus (Amendment) Act, 2015 shall be
deemed to have come into force on the ___________________________.
(a) 31st March, 2015
(b) 30th April, 2014
(c) 1st January, 2015
(d) 30th December, 2014
(e) 1st April, 2014
Q106. Ram draws a salary of Rs.18000 per month then the bonus for Ram is
calculated on the amount:
(a) 18000
(b) 21000
(c) 10000
(d) 7000
(e) 3000
Q107. Bonus should be paid within ___________________ of an accounting year.
(a) 6 months
(b) 8 months
(c) 7 months
(d) 5 months
(e) 12 months
Q108. What is the minimum bonus (sec.10) that should be payable as bonus to
the employees?
(a) 3.67%
(b) 10%
(c) 21%
(d) 8.33%
(e) None of these
Q109. What is the minimum number of working days in an accounting year
required for an employee to be entitled for bonus?
(a) 30 days
(b) 90 days
(c) 45 days
(d) 60 days
(e) 75 days
Q110. Allocable surplus in banking industry under payment of bonus act is
______________________.
(a) 60% of the available surplus of the financial year
(b) 67% of the available surplus of the accounting year
(c) 67% of the allocable surplus of the accounting year
(d) 60% of the available surplus of the accounting year
(e) None of these
Q111. Which of the following does not constitute as a part of wages under the
payment of bonus act, 1965?
(I) Basic wage
(II) D.A
(III) HRA
(IV) Travel allowance
(a) Only (II)

(c) Both (I) and (II)
(d) Both (III) and (IV)
(e) Only (IV)
Q112. If bonus is due by an employer, within how many days an employee can file
an application with the appropriate government?
(a) 45 days from the due
(b) 2 months from the due
(c) 15 days from the due
(d) 6 months from the due
(e) 1 year from the due
Q113. If a company is running in loss and has insufficient funds to provide bonus
to its employees, then central government can provide an extension of maximum
how many days to the employer for distributing bonus?
(a) 1 year
(b) 2 years
(c) 30 days
(d) 6 months
(e) 10 months
Q114. What is the maximum bonus (Sec.11) percentage that can be provided to
the employees?
(a) 12%
(b) 15%
(c) 30%
(d) 20%
(e) 25%
Q115. If an employee draws a salary of Rs.6500 per month, then bonus is
calculated on which amount?
(a) 10000
(b) 3500
(c) 6500
(d) 7000
(e) 21000
Q116. Which and when was the first state/city that introduced Maternity benefit
Act in India?
(a) Bombay
(b) Madras
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Uttar Pradesh
(e) West Bengal
Q117. Which was the first central measure undertaken by the government for the
benefit and safety of pregnant women employees?
(a) Textiles Maternity Benefit Act, 1941
(b) Construction Maternity Act, 1932
(c) Mines Maternity Act, 1941
(d) Sugar Industry Maternity Act, 1928
(e) None of these
Q118. Which one of the followings is not covered under Maternity Benefit Act,
1961?
(I) Factory having more than 30 women but less than 50 women
(II) Mines where women are covered under ESI Act, 1948
(III) Shops having less than 10 persons
(IV) Acrobatics having 30 women
(a) Only (I)
(c) Only (II)
(d) Only (II) (III) and (IV)
(e) All (I) (II) (III) and (IV)
Q119. Under maternity Benefit Act 1961, which of the following is not included in
the definition of wages?
(a) Dearness Allowance

(b) House rent allowance
(c) Overtime Earnings
(d) Incentive Bonus
(e) Money value of the supply of food grains
Q120. What is the qualifying condition for women to be covered under maternity
benefit Act, 1961?
(a) working as an employee for at least 75 days in the past 12 months
(b) working as an employee for at least 30 days in the past 6 months
(c) working as an employee for at least 80 days in the past 6 months
(d) working as an employee for at least 80 days in the past 12 months
(e) working as an employee for at least 50 days in the past 12 months
Q121. What is the period of benefits before the date of expected delivery?
(a) 8 weeks
(b) 12 weeks
(c) 26 weeks
(d) 10 weeks
(e) 4 weeks
Q122. In the case where woman dies during or after delivery of the child
(survives), the employer shall be liable for the maternity benefit for
__________________________.
(a) Till her death
(b) Entire period
(c) 8 weeks
(d) 12 weeks
(e) 4 weeks
Q123. Medical Bonus paid under Maternity benefit (Amendment) Act 2017 is
___________________.
(a) Rs.5000
(b) Rs.10000
(c) Rs.7500
(d) Rs.4000
(e) Rs.3500
Q124. What is the maximum period of payment of medical bonus to the woman
employee after the child birth?
(a) 48 hours
(b) 24 hours
(c) 36 hours
(d) 12 hours
(e) 20 hours
Q125. What is the period of leaves provided in case of Medical termination of
Pregnancy under Maternity benefit act 1961?
(a) 12 weeks
(b) 4 weeks
(c) 6 weeks
(d) 10 weeks
(e) 8 weeks
Q126. Among the following statements, which one stands incorrect according to
the maternity benefit act, 1961?
(a) 4 nursing breaks including rest interval are provided.
(b) In case of commissioning mother, 12 weeks of maternity leave period are
provided.
(c) An employer can provide work from home facility to his employee after 26
weeks of maternity benefit.
(d) An employer must provide crèche facility if more than 50 women are
employed.
(e) An employer has no obligation to intimate the women employees regarding
the benefits of the act.
Q127. What is the maximum period to appeal if any woman is deprived of
maternity benefit or medical bonus or discharge?
(a) 30 days
(b) 60 days
(c) 45 days
(d) 75 days
(e) 90 days
Q128. For failure to pay maternity benefit as provided for under the Act, the
penalty is imprisonment of _____________________ upto ___________________
and fine of Rs.________________ upto _____________________.
(a) 3 months, 1 year, Rs.2000, Rs.5000
(b) 6 months, 1 year, Rs.5000, Rs.10000
(c) 12 months, 2 year, Rs.5000, Rs.7000
(d) 3 months, 2 year, Rs.2000, Rs.7000
(e) 6 months, 1 year, Rs.7000, Rs.10000
Q129. According to the amendments in 2017, what is the maximum period of
benefits?
(a) 18 weeks
(b) 10 weeks
(c) 12 weeks
(d) 26 weeks
(e) 8 weeks
Q130. In case where a woman is having a 3rd child, what is the maximum period
of benefits to be provided under the Maternity Benefit (amendment) act 2017?
(a) 18 weeks
(b) 10 weeks
(c) 12 weeks
(d) 26 weeks
(e) 8 weeks
Q131. HRIS stands for:
(a) Human resource information system
(b) Human regulation interface system
(c) Human resource interface service
(d) Human rights information system

(e) Human resource intelligence service
Q132. Which of the following acts is known as the first step towards the evolution
of wage policy in India?
(a) Payment of Wages Act, 1936
(b) Industrial Dispute Act, 1947
(c) Minimum Wages Act, 1948
(d) Equal Remuneration Act, 1976
(e) Workmen compensation Act, 1923
Q133. Which section of the Factories Act deals with appointment of Welfare
Officers?
(a) Section 45
(b) Section 49
(c) Section 51
(d) Section 55
(e) Section 52
Q134. Which of the following are grievances resulting from management policies
except–
(a) Overtime
(b) Lack of role clarity
(c) Hostility towards a labour union
(d) Bad physical condition of workplace
(e) Autocratic leadership style of supervisors
Q135. Which of the following is not a feature of collective bargaining?
(a) Collective process
(b) Flexible and dynamic process
(c) One-time negotiation process
(d) Participative process
(e) Give and take process
Q136. Trade unions are ______________institutions

(a) Political
(b) Non-Governmental
(c) Economical
(d) Technological
(e) Behavioural
Q137. Future positions one strives to reach as part of a career is referred as —
(a) Career path
(b) Career progression
(c) Career cycle
(d) Career goal
(e) Career planning
Q138. Following are limitations of job evaluation except —
(a) Job evaluation lacks scientific precision
(b) Job evaluation tends to be inflexible
(c) Job evaluation is seen suspiciously by trade union
(d) Job evaluation determine wage rate based on subjective evaluation
(e) Job evaluation presumes that job of equal worth will be equally attractive to
the employees
Q139. Which or the following is not a function of Indian labour conference (ILC).
(a) to promote uniformity in labour legislation
(b) to suggest ways and means to prevent disputes
(c) to lay down procedure for the settlement of industrial disputes
(d) to discuss matters of all-India importance as between employer and employee
(e) to allow workers to be consulted and have their say in the management of unit
Q140. In case the state government wants to extend the applicability of Payment
of Wages Act to any other establishment or class of employees, then it must give
a prior notice of _________ .
(a) 45 days
(b) 1 month
(c) 3 months
(d) 15 days
(e) 60 days
Q141. The section 20 of the factories Act discuss about___
(a) Lighting
(b) Drinking Water
(c) Latrines and Urinals
(d) Spittoons
(e) Overcrowding
Q142. Who advanced the concept of ‘Three tier institutional structure’ of
Industrial Relations?
(a) John T. Dunlop
(b) Allan Flanders
(c) D.T. Hall
(d) Roy Adam
(e) Kochan, Katz & Mckersie
Q143. Which one of the following methods is regarded as the most ideal for
settlement of Industrial Dispute?
(a) Adjudication
(b) Mediation / Conciliation
(c) Collective Bargaining
(d) Voluntary Arbitration
(e) Consultative machinery
Q144. Which of the following statement are correct?
(a) Performance appraisal is not used in the public sector
(b) It does not include performance planning
(c) Performance appraisal has become more widespread
(d) Performance appraisal is diminishing in importance
(e) None of these

Q145. When workers unite and take 2 to 3 times as long to do the job is a form of
strike known as:
(a) picketing
(b) go-slow
(c) check off
(d) boycott
(e) protest
Q146. For what the provisions are provided in the Trade union amendment Bill -
2018?
(a) Provisions for strikes, lockouts and layoffs.
(b) Provisions regarding the formation of trade unions.
(c) Provisions regarding the safety of trade union members.
(d) Provisions for the statutory recognition of trade unions at central and state
level
(e) None of these
Q147. Under which section particulars or rules of trade union are mentioned?
(a) section 5
(b) section 3
(c) section 2
(d) section 6
(e) section 7
Q148. Within how many days a complaint has to be made in court for cognizance
of offence?
(a) 6 months
(b) 3 months
(c) 1 month
(d) 2 months
(e) 1 year
Q149. Any trade union or the person(s) responsible continuously makes default
in giving any notice or sending any statement or other document required under
the act is fined with the maximum amount of_________________.
(a) Rs.12
(b) Rs.20
(c) Rs.7
(d) Rs.10
(e) Rs.50
Q150. In case of any alterations or changes made in the rules, within how many
days the notification of the same is sent to the registrar?
(a) 14 days
(b) 18 days
(c) 15 days
(d) 21 days
(e) 10 days
Q151. Any person willfully do false entry or omission in statement or alterations
of rules sent to registrar is punishable with a fine upto _______________
(a) Rs.500
(b) Rs.100
(c) Rs.1000
(d) Rs.750
(e) Rs.50
Q152. In case of change of name of trade union, who must sign the notice of that
change and send it to the registrar?
(a) Members and employer
(b) All members
(c) Seven members
(d) Secretary
(e) Secretary and seven members
Q153. In case of amalgamation, what is the overall minimum percentage required

for approval?
(a) 25%
(b) 75%
(c) 35%
(d) 60%
(e) 50%
Q154. Who is defined as a minor member in trade union act 1926?
(a) Adult
(b) Child
(c) Adolescent
(d) a person who has attained the age of 15 years
(e) Both (c) and (d)
Q155. A person will be disqualified for being chosen as an executive and office
bearer of trade union who has not attained the age of ___________.
(a) 15 years
(b) 18 years
(c) 21 years
(d) 14 years
(e) 25 years
Q156. Proportion of outsiders in office bearers in general case in trade unions act
1926 is ________________
(a) one-third of total number of members or 5 whichever is less.
(b) one-fifth of total number of members or 5 whichever is less.
(c) one-third of total number of office bearers or 5 whichever is more.
(d) one-third of total number of office bearers or 5 whichever is less.
(e) None of these
Q157. The payment from contribution to benefit workmen in general is subject to
a maximum of one-fourth of ___________________.
(a) Total gross income
(b) Balance of credit of preceding year

(c) Net income
(d) Both (a) and (b)
(e) None of these
Q158. Notice of any change in the address of the head office shall be given within
____________________ of such change to the Registrar in writing.
(a) 14 days
(b) 15 days
(c) 18 days
(d) 21 days
(e) 10 days
Q159. Any person aggrieved by any refusal of the Registrar to register a Trade
Union or by the withdrawal or cancellation of a certificate of registration may,
within such period as may be prescribed,
appeal______________________________
(I) High court near to its trade union head office
(II) Industrial tribunal
(III) Labour court
(IV) National tribunal
(a) Only (I)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) Only (III)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
(e) Only (I) (II) and (III)
Q160. Except under which of the following conditions, if a registrar is required to
give a notice of reason of cancellation of registration?
(a) on the application of trade union during verification in the prescribed manner.
(b) when registrar is satisfied that certificate is taken by fraud or mistake.
(c) when registrar is satisfied that trade union has ceased to have the requisite
number of members.
(d) Both (b) and (c)

(e) All (a) (b) and (c)
Q161. Which of the following has specialists from different functional
departments working on one or more projects that are led by project manager?
(a) Functional organisation
(b) Cross-functional organisation
(c) Matrix organisation
(d) Product organisation
(e) None of these
Q162. Which one of the following is related to clan control?
(a) Relies on administrative rules and regulations
(b) Employees’ behavior are regulated by the shared norms, traditions, rituals and
beliefs of the organization
(c) Emphasises organizational authority
(d) Depends on standardization activities
(e) None of these
Q163. Appointment of welfare officer is a statutory requirement according to
(b) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
(c) Trade Union Act, 1926
(d) Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923
(e) Payment of bonus Act, 1965
Q164. Which of the following act deals with the issue of complaints?
(c) Employees’ compensation Act, 1923
(d) Industrial Employment (standing order) Act, 1946
(e) All of these
Q165. Job description implies
(a) Identification of the qualities required in the job holder

(b) Performance of job in methodical way
(c) Laying down systematically the duties and responsibilities of job
(d) Determination of the performance standards of the job
(e) None of these
Q166. The main contribution of HRD AUDIT is to focus on
(a) Value Adding HRD
(b) HRD Strategy
(c) HRD Policies
(d) HRD Procedures
(e) None of these
Q167. INTUC, AITUC, HMS and UTUC adopted the code of conduct for Trade
Union Rivalry in the year
(a) 1948
(b) 1958
(c) 1968
(d) 1978
Q168. How many working days of service is required to avail bonus from an
employer?
(a) 30
(b) 45
(c) 60
(d) 100
(e) 75
Q169. Which of the following bodies is provided under the Minimum Wages Act,
1948?
(a) Standing Labour Committee
(b) Shop Level Council
(c) Advisory Board

(d) Council of management
(e) Conciliation body
Q170. Which one is not a part of recruitment process?
(a)Determining requirements
(b) Planning recruitment campaign
(c) Attracting candidates
(d) Selecting candidates
(e) generating candidate pool
Q171. Which of the following is/are correct regarding coordination?
1. voluntary co-ordination is possible in a climate of dedication and mutual co-
operation.
2. The Human Resource coordination includes planning, assessment and control
of both, the performance of the employees, as well as the staff working in Human
Resources
3. Coordination is a far more inclusive term embracing the idea of cooperation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(e) 2 and 3 only
Q172. When the career progression stagnates at a point, it is called
(a) Career Resilience
(b) Career Anchor
(c) Career Insight
(d) Career Plateau
(e) Career planning
Q173. Training Evaluation at Reaction, Learning, job behavior, result is the model
developed by
(a) Kirk Patrick
(b) Goldstein
(c) Phillips
(d) Brinkerhoff
(e) Maslow
Q174. Which of the following is not a traditional method of performance
appraisal?
(a) MBO
(b)Checklist
(c) Graphic rating
(d) Field review
(e) Critical incidents method
(b) employer v/s workmen
(d) None of the above
Q176. Which of the following statements are true?
(a) Buying may have legal costs
(b) A single approach is likely to solve workplace bullying problems
(c) Bullying may have financial costs
(d) Bullying may have reputational costs
(e) Bullying may have emotional costs
Q177. Which of the following organizational factors have been associated with
workplace bullying?
(a) Positive social environment.
(b) Leadership style

(c) Poor job design
(d) Role conflict
(e) Competitive workplaces
Q178. The term ‘mobbing’ is often used to refer to bullying in which region?
(a) Eastern Europe
(b) Latin America
(c) Asia
(d) Scandinavia
Q179. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) Research into workplace bullying grew out of Scandinavian studies into
schoolyard bullying in the 1950s.
(b) Research into workplace bullying grew out of US studies into bullying in the
military in the 1950s.
(c) Research into workplace bullying grew out of Scandinavian studies into
schoolyard bullying in the 1970s.
(d) Research into workplace bullying grew out of US studies into bullying in the
military in the 1970s.
Q180. Which of the following were concerns from the 1950s and onwards?
(a) Job rotation.
(b) Job enlargement.
(c) Knowledge management.
(d) Job enrichment.
(e) Employee motivation and satisfaction
Q181. In which countries are socio-technical ideas often associated?
(a) Scandinavia
(b) Germany
(c) Ireland
(d) France.
(e) Belgium
Q182. Which of the following aspects is not recognised as Emotional
Intelligence?
(a) A lack of self-motivations
(b) Knowing one's emotions
(c) The effective and 'proper' management of emotions
(d) Controlling one's emotions
(e) Recognizing emotions in others
Q183. Maslow and Hertzberg were part of which school of thought?
(a) Human needs school
(b) Human relations school
(c) Human resource school
(d) Humane school
Q184. When were maternity rights introduced in the UK?
(a) 2000
(b) 1960
(c) 1975
(d) 1990
Q185. Why might generous Work Life Balance policies not be used?
(a) Lack of supportiveness of managers
(b) Working time expectations
(c) Supportiveness of colleagues.
(d) Perceived career consequences
(e) Flexible workers are perceived to have greater employee commitment.
Q186. Which of the following trends are expected to affect the EU workforce over
the next 30 years?
(a) The workforce is becoming on average older

(b) To become more dominated by women.
(c) Migration of workers from new EU states
(d) To have more workers working part-time
(e) The workforce is expected on average to become younger.
Q187. When did diversity research begin to emerge in the management literature?
(a) Late 1980s
(b) Late 1960s
(c) Late 1990s
(d) Late 1970s
Q188. Which of the following is not a type of performance appraisal?
(a) 45 degree appraisal
(b) Customer appraisals
(c) Appraisal of managers
(d) Team based appraisal
Q189. What is the main reason UK employees give for joining unions?
(a) Because I believe in trade unions
(b) Free legal advice
(c) Most people at work are members
(d) Improved pay and conditions
(e) Support if I had a problem at work.
Q190. What percentage of UK workplaces are effectively union free?
(a) Around one third
(b) Around one half
(c) Around two thirds
(d) Around three quarters

Q191. Which parties are generally considered to be the main actors in the
employment relationship?
(a) Academics
(b) Unions
(c) Employees
(d) The state
(e) Managers
Q192. Which of the following is not a reason why line managers are used in HRM?
(a) Because they occupy a key role in terms of the people management aspects of
the general management job.
(b) Because most line managers are trained in HRM practices
(c) Because they are closest to customers and employees
(d) To free HR specialists to form policies and procedures
Q193. Which of the following are typically referred to as 'line managers'?
(a) Those working in finance
(b) Those who work in 'general management' roles, rather than a specific
functional area
(c) Those working in sales
(d) Those working in marketing
Q194. What is meant by the acronym PMA?
(a) Performance Management Allowance
(b) Performance Management Appraisal
(c) Performance Management Activity
(d) Performance Management Assessment
Q195. Which of the following statements is false?
(a) Culture can be viewed as a social construction and as an implicit feature of

social life
(b) Culture is central to understanding control and resistance in society,
organisations, and social groups
(c) Culture as a concept derives from the fields of organisational and industrial
psychology
(d) Culture is not a well-defined concept
Q196. Which sociologist focused upon the rationalization of Western society?
(a) Durkheim
(b) Marx
(c) Comte
(d) Weber
Q197. Which of the following concepts have been proposed to constitute aspects
of organizational culture?
(a) Beliefs
(b) Behaviors
(c) Ways of solving problems
(d) Shared values
(e) A by-product of an organization.
Q198. What is meant by the term MNC?
(a) Multi National Career
(b) Multi National Corporation
(c) Multi National Co-operation
(d) Multi National Committee
Q199. What is meant by the term TNC?
(a) Trans National Co-operation
(b) Trans National Career
(c) Trans National Corporation

(d) Trans National Consortium
(e) Trans National Committee
Q200. What is meant by the acronym EEC?
(a) European Employer Community
(b) European Economic Community
(c) European Employment Company
(d) European Employee Community
Q201. Which of the following was established by the whitely councils?
(a) Tripartite employee relations
(b) Trade unions
(c) Collective bargaining framework
(d) Employer associations
(e) None of these
Q202. Which of the following not the principle of the Industrial Relations Policy?
(a) The code of conduct
(b) Labour welfare activities
(c) The code of discipline
(d) All of the above
(e) None of these
Q203. Which of the following reiterated the faith of the parties in voluntary
arbitration?
(a) The Code of Discipline 1958
(b) The Industrial Disputes Act, 1948
(c) Factories Act, 1948
(e) None of these
Q204. Which of the following is not a main purpose of picketing?

(a) To stop workers to go to work
(b) To stop workers to take sick leaves
(c) To tell the public about the strike
(d) To persuade workers to take their union’s side
(e) None of these
Q205.. …………. And …………. are seen as the methods of addressing the
problem of boredom and other associated problems in employees.
(a) Job enrichment, Job satisfaction
(b) Job rotation, Job enrichment
(c) Job satisfaction, Relexation
(d) Job enlargement, Job enrichment
(e) None of these
Q206. ………….. is the standard of expected ethical behaviour for the company’s
employees.
(a) Code of discipline
(b) Code of conduct
(c) Rules and norms
(d) Policies
(e) None of these
Q207. …………... are the voluntary organisation of employees or employers
formed to promote and protect their interests through collective action.
(a) Society
(b) Trade Union
(c) Government
(d) International Agencies
(e) None of these
Q208. First Cotton Mill in India was established in ………. In Bombay and the first
Jute Mill in Bengal ……….
(a) 1851, 1855
(b) 1866, 1872

(c) 1899, 1995
(d) 1902, 1905
(e) None of these
Q209. The space for every worker employed in the factory after the
commencement of Factories Act, 1948 should be …………… cubic meters.
(a) 9.9
(b) 10.2
(c) 14.2
(d) 13.2
(e) None of these
Q210. Leave with wages is allowed for employees if they work for ………….. days
in month.
(a) 15
(b) 25
(c) 20
(d) 28
(e) None of these
Q211. Who introduced the concept of quality circles in India?
(a) PV Rao
(b) Udai Pareek
(c) Dharani P Sinha
(d) SR Udpa
(e) None of these
Q212. Under Alderfer’s ERG theory, the three core needs ?
(a) emotional, relational and growth
(b) emotional, rational and growth
(c) existence, reliability and gain
(d) existence, relatedness and growth
(e) None of these

Q213. What is the goal of ILO ?
(a) creation of jobs for men and women
(b) not just creation of jobs but the creation of jobs of acceptable quality
(c) not overcoming under employment
(d) not to provide freedom of choice in employment
(e) None of these
Q214. Unfair Labour Practices are listed in which act?
(a) the Factories Act, 1948
(b) the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946
(c) the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
(d) the Trade Unions Act, 1926
(e) None of these
Q215. Money wage is otherwise called as ?
(a) Real wage
(b) Living wage
(c) Nominal wage
(d) Fair wage
(e) None of these
Q216. Which of the following is not a determinant of wages?
(a) Prevailing wages
(b) Bargaining strength of unions
(c) Job evaluation
(d) Performance appraisal
(e) None of these
Q217. Who is associated with the ‘illumination experiment’ of the Hawthorne
experiment?
(a) Elton Mayo
(b) George A Pennock

(c) FJ Roethlisberger
(d) None of these
Q218. What is the meaning of the acronym HRM?
(a) Human Relations Management.
(b) Humane Resource Management.
(c) Humanistic Resource Management.
(d) Human Resource Management.
Q219. The Employee State Insurance Act enacted, the basis of which committee’s
report?
(a) BR Ambedkar Committee
(b) BP Adarkar Committee
(c) Royal Commission on Labour
(d) Labour Investigation Committee
(e) None of these
Q220. Who has started that “Collective bargaining is essentially a process in
which employees act as a group in seeking to shape conditions and relationship
in their employment”?
(a) RF Hoxie
(b) LG Reynolds
(c) Dale Yoder
(d) JF Richardson
(e) None of these
Q221. Which area Industrial Relation does not cover?
(a) Economic development
(b) Role of management, union and government
(c) Collective bargaining
(d) Machinery for resolution of industrial dispute

(e) None of these
Q222. The most important criterion in determining whether conflict is functional
or dysfunctional is …….
(a) over all morale
(b) absenteeism level
(c) performance
(d) All of these
(e) None of these
Q223. Conflict that relates to the content and goals of work is termed as ………..
(a) task conflict
(b) relationship conflict
(c) process conflict
(d) communication conflict
(e) None of these
Q224. When strike aims at disrupting the normal functioning of the enterprise, it
is called
(a) stay away strike
(b) token strike
(c) go slow strike
(d) boycott strike
(e) None of these
Q225. In India, …………. arbitration is enforced because collective bargaining was
not used for regulating wages and other condition of employment.
(a) compulsory
(b) mediation
(c) conciliation
(d) investigation
(e) None of these
Q226. ………….. is a process by which representatives of both workers and

employers are brought together before a third party with a view to persuading
them to arrive at some sort of settlement.
(a) Adjudication
(b) Conciliation
(c) Mediation
(d) Investigation
(e) None of these
Q227. Which of the following is true in case of lightening or wildcat strike?
(a) In this strike, the strikers strike the work without any prior notice or with a
shortest notice
(b) In this strike, workers intentionally reduce the speed of work
(c) In this strike, workmen stay away from the work place
(d) It aims at disrupting the normal functioning of the enterprise
(e) None of these
Q228. Generally, when individuals are categorized this leads to an
underestimations of differences within categories a process also known as
(a) contrast
(b) assimilation
(c) readiness
(d) salience
(e) None of these
Q229. Which of the following is not an extremely negative form of prejudice and
discrimination?
(a) Devaluation
(b) Tokenism
(c) Dehumanisation
(d) Underprivilege
(e) None of these
Q230. What is the main reason UK employees give for joining unions?
(a) Support if I had a problem at work

(b) Improve pay and work conditions
(c) Free legal advice
(d) Because I believe in trade unions
(e) None of these
Q231. Companies are required to hold a meeting every year. What is this meeting
called?
(a) Extraordinary meeting
(b) Statutory meeting
(c) Committee meeting
(d) Annual general meeting
(e) None of these
Q232. Common uses of information generated via performance appraisal include
all of the following except? (a) administrative/personal decisions
(b) organisational training and development programme
(c) input to job content evaluation
(d) feedback to individuals performance
(e) None of these
Q233. The ultimate goal of organisational development ?
(a) structure the organizational environment so that managers and employers can
use their developed skills and abilities to the fullest
(b) reduce the levels of uncertainty in managerial decision-making throughout the
organisation
(c) create an internal environment which is conducive to self expression
(d) change the traditional relationship between the supervisors and sub-ordinates
(e) None of these
Q234. Which of the following is not a typically used procedure to reduce the total
number of employees?
(a) Layoff
(b) Terminations
(c) Downsizing
(d) Early retirement inducements
(e) None of these
Q235. In which of the following kinds of interview, the questions are
predetermined?
(a) Panel
(b) Stress
(c) Group
(d) Structured
(e) None of these
Q236. Which one of the following is not an important feature of effective raining
plan?
(a) Shorter training plan?
(b) Lower costs per participant
(c) Reduced travel cost
(d) Going far-flung places
(e) None of these
Q237. Total training cost include?
(a) participants ongoing salaries
(b) overheads during training
(c) cost of R & D in training needs analysis
(e) None of these
Q238.Which of the following is not an integral part of training programme?
(a) Pre-training phase
(b) Post training phase
(c) Training implementation phase
(d) Training recognition phase
(e) None of these
Q239. The time scale for performance appraisals?

(a) annually
(b) biannually
(c) monthly
(d) weekly
(e) None of these
Q240. Which of the following aspect of job cannot be considered under quality of
work life?
(a) Freedom and autonomy to make decisions on the job
(b) Freedom and autonomy to leave work place without taking permission from
the superiors
(c) Satisfactory physical surroundings
(d) Job satisfaction and job safety
(e) None of these
Q241. The motion of men implicit in the classical theory leads to generate a kind
of employee psyche, which may be described as?
(a) self-development oriented
(b) aggressive
(c) submissive
(d) deficiency-oriented
(e) None of these
Q242. Effective leadership behaviour is a result of following variable?
(a) structure
(b) consideration
(c) environment
(d) All of these
(e) None of these.
Q243. Environment is synonymous with?
(a) task
(b) relations
(c) style
(d) Situational Variable
(e) None of these
Q244. Theory ‘Y’ approximates to?
(a) employee orientation
(b) employment orientation
(c) production orientation
(d) input orientation
(e) None of these
Q245. Which of the following type of leader encourages the participation of team
members in the formulation of policies and decision making?
(a) Autocratic leader
(b) Democratic leader
(c) Laissez-faire leader
(d) Benevolent leader
(e) None of these
Q246. It incorporates the relationship between perception, effort, expected reward
and satisfaction.”The reference is to the……………..of motivation?
(a) Porter and lawler Expectancy model
(b) Fiedler’s contingency model
(c) Vroom’s contingency model
(d) Vroom’s contingency model
(e) None of these
Q247.A Likert believed which of the following types of leaders to be more
effective?
(a) Production-oriented
(b) Task-oriented
(c) People oriented
(d) Job-centered
(e) None of these
Q248. Managerial-Grid model of leadership was developed by?
(a) Blake and Mouton
(b) Evans and-House
(c) Fayol and Taylor
(d) Vroom and Fiedler
(e) None of these
Q249. Ohio State Model suggests the following as the best leader behaviour?
(a) low structure and low consideration
(b) high concerns both for production and people
(c) low concern both for production and people
(d) high structure and high consideration
(e) None of these
Q250. Which one of the following is the external dimension to the leaders?
(a) Task
(b) Relations
(c) Style
(d) Attitude
(e) None of these
Q251. One who does too much work is called
(a) a rate-buster
(b) a squealer
(c) a chiseller
(d) a cheater
Q252. The most logical criterion to distinguish a line function from staff is
(a) the functional relationship
(b) the authority relationship
(c) the departmentalization

(d) the grouping
Q253. In the line relations, the authority travels directly form the top to the bottom
operating levels along this chain. This chain is known as
(a) the scalar chain
(b) the Me chain
(c) functional chain
(d) the authority chain
Q254. Which of the following is the most democratic form of organisation?
(a) Line
(b) Line and staff
(c) Functional
(d) Committee
Q255. The word administration is derived from the Latin word administration,
which means
(a) to look after people to manage affairs
(b) to advise the government
(c) to advertise ministerial efforts.
(d) to add to the resources of the ministries
Q256. Which of the following is not a phase of the job design process?
(a) The specification of individual
(b) The specification of the method of performing each task
(c) The specification of the measurement of performance of each task
(d) The combination of individual tasks into specific jobs
Q257.Which of the following human resource management activities has no utility
of the data obtained from job analysis?
(a) Job redesign
(b) Recruitment
(c) Selection
(d) Labour relations

Q258. Which of the following is not one of the potential uses of job evaluation
information?
(a) To provide for a more rational internal wage structure
(b) To provide a base for measuring individual performance
(c) To provide incentives for employees to strive for higher level jobs
(d) To provide input to job design programmes
Q259. Pay refers to
(a) the rewards that employees receive as a result of their employment
(b) all the extrinsic rewards that employees receive
(c) only the base wage or salary that employees receive
(d) the actual money that employees receive in exchange for their work
Q260. Which of the following is not a recommendation to help avoiding the
problems associated with wage and salary surveys?
(a) Generate survey data at the beginning of the calendar year
(b) Make comparisons of the participating companies for comparability
(c) Compare more than one organisation's base wage or salary
(d) Consider variations in job descriptions
Q261. ‘Johari window’ concept is associated with
(a) motivation
(b) leadership
(c) communication
(d) altitude
Q262. An autocratic leader
(a) makes decision himself
(b) use laissez-faire style
(c) encourages growth
(d) uses less directive approach

Q263. The Payment of Wages Act come into force on
(a) 29th March, 1937
(b) 29th March, 1938
(c) 29th March, 1939
(d) 29th March, 1940
Q264. The Employee Provident Fund Act came into Force in
(a) 1952
(b) 1965
(c) 1970
(d) 1971
Q265. An employee is allowed a maximum period of casual leave of…………..in a
year.
(a) 10 days
(b) 12 days
(c) 14 days
(d) 20 days
Q266. How many members can form a team of brainstorming?
(a) 8-10
(b) 10-12
(c) 10-15
(d) 10-13
Q267. ‘Role Playing’ method of training was introduced by
(a) Moreno
(b) Max Weber

(c) Karl Rogers
(d) Elton Mayo
Q268. MBTI is used to asses
(a) perception
(b) values
(c) knowledge
(d) personality
(e) None of the above.
Q269. Section-49 of the Factories Act, 1948 says about
(a) creche
(b) welfare officer
(c) rest room
(d) canteen
(e) None of the above.
Q270. Who is an Adolescent as per Factories Act, 1948?
(a) who has completed 17 years of age
(b) who is less than 18 years
(c) who has completed 15 years but less than 18 years
(d) who has completed 14 years of age
Q271. The types of benefits available to employees include-
(a) Government mandated benefits
(b) Voluntary benefits
(c) Involuntary benefits
(d) Both a and b
Q272. The kind of benefit plan in which the annual payment is made to employee
account of pension is classified as-
(a) Defined contribution plan
(b) Non contributory plan
(c) Contributory plan
(d) Defined benefits plan
Q273. The benefits that must be given to the employees according to the law is
united states are classified as
(a) Funding benefits
(b) Mandated benefits
(c) Voluntary benefits
(d) Involuntary benefits
Q274. In Pension plans for employees the special account through which the
funds are remained non-taxable until the employee retire is classified as-
(a) Keogh retirement account
(b) Vesting account
(c) Portability account
(d) Individual retirement account
Q275. The situation in which higher risk employees use and select special
benefits is classified as-
(a) Flexible selection
(b) Non contributory plan
(c) Adverse selection
(d) Contributory plan
Q276. The type of benefits which are given to those employees who got injured
on the job are classified as-
(a) Unemployment compensation
(b) Severance pay
(c) Worker’s compensation
(d) Employment compensation
Q277. The protection of organization facilities and employees is called-

(a) Adverse situation
(b) Security
(c) Safety
(d) Health
Q278. The design and study of work environment to address physical and
psychological demands of individuals is classified as-
(a) Ergonomics
(b) Cumulative trauma disorders.
(c) Tag out regulators
(d) Tag in regulators
Q279. The extra payment made to employees for not facing sick leave is
classified as
(a) Well pay
(b) Just pay
(c) Integration pay
(d) Union pay
Q280. The way of protecting individuals well being of health is classified as-
(a) Safety
(b) Health
(c) Adverse solution
(d) Security
Q281. Which aspect of employment is fairness in the management of HR linked to
(a) Recruitment and Selection
(b) Grievance and Descipline
(c) Reward Management
(d) All Auspects of HR
Q282. Which of the following is an unreasonable adjustment is light of person’s
disability?
(a) Alterations to a person working conditions

(b) Acquiring or modifying equipment
(c) Assigning a different place of work
(d) Altering hours of work or duties
(e) paying them more
Q283. Which organization provides established guidelines for disciplinary
procedures?
(a) TUC
(b) ACAS
(c) CIPD
(d) Employees
Q284. Most formal grievance raised in the workplace are related to
(a) Low pay
(b) Harassment and bullying by Managers
(c) Dislike of individual managers
(d) Employees attempting to resist being managed
Q285. What are the types of industrial action a union is most likely to engage is?
(a) unofficial action
(b) Strike action
(c) Action short of a strike
(d) Absence
Q286. A detailed step-by-step description of the company’s customary method of
handling activities is a –
(a) Policy
(b) Procedure
(c) Rule
(d) Vision
Q287. Which of the following is a written description of the work to be done?
(a) Job qualification
(b) Job Description

(c) Job Analysis
(d) Job posting
Q288. A state in which “union stops and closed shops” are considered illegal and
no-employee has to join a union is known as a ____________ state.
(a) Right-to-work
(b) Non-Union
(c) Yellow-Dog
(d) Union free
Q289. ‘Vitality’ is a method of measuring–
(a) The balance of internal promotion verses external recruitment or loss of
employees.
(b) Training and development costs.
(c) Retention of skilled staff.
(d) Levels of apprenticeships.
Q290. Why is it important to ensure that HR plans are flexible
(a) To accommodate change to senior management terms.
(b) To adapt to changing skills and qualification.
(c) To accommodate the rapidly changing environments in which most
organizations operate.
(d) To ensure a diverse labour force is maintained at all times.
Q291. Which of the following is not a characteristic of trade union?
(a) Voluntary association
(b) Intermediary
(c) Common goals
(d) Individual actions
Q292. Which union is focused on making the skills of its members valuable and
not easily replaceable in organizations?
(a) Industrial union
(b) General union
(c) Occupational union

(d) White collar union
Q293. What should be the minimum number of person required to register a trade
union?
(a) Six
(b) Seven
(c) Eight
(d) Nine
Q294. Indian National Trade Union Congress was organised in
(a) 1947
(b) 1948
(c) 1962
(d) 1990
Q295. Which of the following can be referred to the psychological contract
between an employer and an employee as an unsaid obligation between each
other?
(a) The loyalty and trust of the employees
(b) Pay and working conditions
(c) Other non-monetary benefits
(d) An assurance of training
Q296. Annualised hours refer to
(a) calculating working time on weekly basis
(b) calculating working time on an annual basis
(c) calculating working time for seasonal workers
(d) calculating working time for shift workers
Q297. Which of the following trade union could be defined as “White Collar
Unions”?
(a) ASLEF
(b) TGWU
(c) UNISON
(d) EETPU
Q298. Which factors is the most likely to have caused as shift in power away from
unions and towards management over the last decade?
(a) The existence of tacit unwritten agreements between management and unions
based on “custom and practice”
(b) The growth of “single unionism” within the workplace
(c) The introduction of schedule I of the Employment Relations Act of 1999
(d) The relatively healthy growth of the UK company
Q299. Which of the following conditions is most likely to lead to a rise in union
bargaining power?
(a) Rise in union density
(b) Increased competition in the product market
(c) Relatively high elasticity of demand for labour
(d) Monopsony in the labour market
Q300. Which of the following organization deals with both management and
employees who do not agree on the interpretation of existing written contracts?
(a) ACAS
(b) CBI
(c) NEDO
(d) TUC
Q301. Which of the following are the main objectives of the Industrial
Employment Act, 1946?
(a) To have uniform standing orders in respect to workers, factories and working
relationships
(b) To promote industrial peace and harmony by promoting fair indutrial
practices.
(c) both ‘a’ and ‘b’
(d) either ‘a’ or ‘b’
Q302. Which of the following matters are covered in the schedule of standing
orders under Section 2g and 3(2)?
(a) Classification of workers
(b) Shift working

(c) Termination , suspension, dismissal etc
Q303. Apart from the employer himself, who else is responsible for the payment
to the persons employed by him of wages required to be paid under the Act?
(a) Any person named as manager in a factory
(b) Any one who controls and supervise in an Industrial establishment
(c) Any one nominated by the Railway Administration
(d) Any one of the above
Q305. Which of the following authorities come under the Industrial Disputes Act,
1947?
(a) Workds committee and conciliation officer
(b) Courts of inquiry and Labour Courts
(c) Tribunal and National Tribunals
Q306. Which of the following are the powers of conciliation officer?
(a) Enter and inspect
(b) Summon any person as witness or compel the production of document and
rule.
(c) Grant/refuse approval/permission to petition filed by employer on disciplinary
matters during pendency of conciliation before him
Q307. “Low costs of labour turnover, low skill levels and case of direct control of
labour.” To which of the following kind of market, this statement signifies?
(a) Structured occupational labour market
(b) Industrial internal labour market

(c) Salaried internal labour market
(d) Open external labour market
Q308. Which of the following act is responsible for ensuring the safety, health
and welfare of the employees?
Q309. Which of the following is not connected with employee safety and health?
(a) The Factories Act, 1948
(b) The Payment of Bonus Act, 1965
(c) The Mines Act, 1952
(d) The Safety , Health and Welfare Act, 1986
Q310. The centre of Indian Trade Union was organised in
(a) 1970
(b) 1980
(c) 1948
(d) 1990
Q311. Which one is the first step of the process of development of pay system?
(a) Gather wage survey information
(b) Review job description
(c) Administer individual pay adjustments
(d) Conduct job evaluation
Q312. Which of the following features in Indian pay system make the wage and
salary system unscientific?
(a) Government subsidies to PSU’s and SSI’s
(b) Compulsory forms
(c) Either of them
(d) Neither of them

Q313. Which of the following factors are considered in the negotiations between
worker’s unions and management to fix up the wages?
(a) Level of skill required to complete the work
(b) Level of wages being paid in the other organizations for similar activities
(c) Paying capacity of the enterprise
Q314. Which of the following act is the most recent policy initiative undertaken by
the Central Government; aiming at protecting the interests of workers engaged in
the construction industry i.e., the informal sector?
(a) The Minimum Wages Act, 1948
(b) The Building and Construction Worker’s Act, 1996
(c) The Factories Act, 1948
Q315. Which of the following is not an example of seasonal worker?
(a) Worker working in crackers factory
(b) Worker working in beedi factory
(c) Worker working in rakhi factory
(d) Worker working in sugar factory
Q316. Which of the following are the sectors of the Indian Labour Market?
(a) Rural workers
(b) Organised sector
(c) Unorganised sector
(d) All of these.
Q317. Which of the following are the categories of labour force?
(a) Self employed workers and casual workers
(b) Unemployed and wage/salary earners
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
(d) Neither ‘a’ and ‘b’
Q318. Who of the following has given the models of the labour market?
(a) Clerk Kerr
(b) Phelps
(c) Karl Marx
(d) John Stuart Mill
Q319. Which of the following are the indicators to examine the labour supply in
India?
(a) Work participation rate
(b) Labour force participation rate
(c) Unemployment rate and employment status
Q320. Which of the following are the situations which may lead to under
employment?
(a) Immigrants
(b) New graduates
(c) High quality skills with low market demand
Q321. The main contribution of HRD AUDIT is to focus on
(a) Value Adding HRD
(b) HRD Strategy
(c) HRD Policies
(d) HRD Procedures
(e) None of these
Q322. INTUC, AITUC, HMS and UTUC adopted the code of conduct for Trade
Union Rivalry in the year
(a) 1948
(b) 1958
(c) 1968
(d) 1978

Q323. Which organization provides established guidelines for disciplinary
procedures?
(a) TUC
(b) ACAS
(c) CIPD
(d) Employees
(e) EPIS
Q324. Maternity leave available to the working women has been increased up to
(a) 26 weeks
(b) 24 weeks
(c) 18 weeks
(d) 16 weeks
(e) 20 weeks
Q325. ‘Vitality’ is a method of measuring–
(a) The balance of internal promotion verses external recruitment or loss of
employees.
(b) Training and development costs.
(c) Retention of skilled staff.
(d) Levels of apprenticeships.
(e) Effectiveness of Training Methods
Q326. The most appropriate definition of job description is that it includes
(a) Job responsibilities, duties and working conditions.
(b) Job responsibilities, duties and worth in terms of wage and salary.
(c) Job responsibilities and qualifications for performance.
(d) Job responsibilities, duties, qualifications for performance and salary range.
Q327.which of the following type of leader encourages the participation of team
members in the formulation of policies and decision making?
(a) Autocratic leader

(b) Democratic leader
(c) Laissez-faire leader
(d) Benevolent leader
(e) None of these
Q328.Match the following according to the objectives of legislations :
(A) minimum wages act
(B) payment of wages act
(C) equal remuneration act
(D) payment of bonus act
I. To ensure that wages payable are distributed within prescribed time limit.
Ii. To extend social justice by statutorily providing the remuneration legally due to
an employed person.
Iii. To allow employees to legally share in the prosperity of the establishment
contributed by capital, management and labour.
Iv. To prevent discrimination in the matter of the employment and remuneration
Codes:
A B CD
(a) iv iii ii i
(b) ii i iv iii
(c) iii ii iv i
(d) i ii iii iv
(e) none of the above
Q329. The internal wage differentials and relative worth of the job for the
organization are determined by:
(a) Job Analysis
(b) Job Design
(c) Job Enrichment
(d) Job Evaluation

Q330. Which of the following is not considered to be a legal status for a
registered union?
(a) No power to acquire and hold both movable and immovable properties
(b) Power to contract with other entities
(c) Perpetual succession and common seal
(d) A body corporate by the name under which it is registered
Q331. When the career progression stagnates at a point, it is called
(a) Career Resilience
(b) Career Anchor
(c) Career Insight
(d) Career Plateau
(e) career planning
Q332. Training Evaluation at Reaction, Learning, job behavior, result is the model
developed by
(a) Kirk Patrick
(b) Goldstein
(c) Phillips
(d) Brinkerhoff
(e) Maslow
Q333. Which one of the following methods is regarded as the most ideal for
settlement of Industrial Dispute?
(a) Adjudication
(b) Mediation / Conciliation
(c) Collective Bargaining
(d) Voluntary Arbitration
(e) consultative machinery
Q334. Which principle of management is violated by matrix organization structure

?
(a) Division of Labour
(b) Unity of Direction
(c) Unity of Command
(d) unity of diversity
(e) all of the above
Q335. Appointment of welfare officer is a statutory requirement according to
(b) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
(c) Trade Union Act, 1926
(e) payment of bonus Act, 1965
Q336. Which of the following is not a traditional method of performance
appraisal?
(a) MBO
(b) Checklist
(c) Graphic rating
(d) Field review
(e) Critical incidents method
Q337. How many working days of service is required to avail bonus from an
employer?
(a)30
(b)45
(c)60
(d)100
(e)75
Q338. Which of the following bodies is provided under the Minimum Wages Act,
1948 ?
(a) Standing Labour Committee
(b) Shop Level Council

(c) Advisory Board
(d) Joint Management Council
(e) conciliation body
(d) None of the above
Q340. Which of the following act is responsible for ensuring the safety, health
and welfare of the employees?
(e) Minimum Wages Act, 1948
Q341. The design and study of work environment to address physical and
psychological demands of individuals is classified as-
(a) Ergonomics
(b) Cumulative trauma disorders.
(c) Tag out regulators
(d) Tag in regulators
(e) Regulators
Q342. The extra payment made to employees for not facing sick leave is
classified as
(a) Well pay
(b) Just pay
(c) Integration pay
(d) Union pay

(e) Over pay
Q343. The type of benefits which are given to those employees who got injured
on the job are classified as-
(a) Unemployment compensation
(b) Severance pay
(c) Worker’s compensation
(d) Employment compensation
(e) fair wage
Q344. The kind of benefit plan in which the annual payment is made to employee
account of pension is classified as-
(a) Defined contribution plan
(b) Noncontributory plan
(c) Contributory plan
(d) Defined benefits plan
(e) Undefined benefits plan
Q345. Which of the following is not a type of test pertaining to selection
procedure?
(a) Aptitude Test
(b) Achievement Test
(c) Situational Test
(d) Statistical Test
(e) Intelligence tests
Q346. Semantic barriers in communication occur due to:
(a) Personality problems
(b) Language problems
(c) Attitude problems
(d) Emotional problems
(e) Physical disabilities
Q347. Which approach to job design has key element called the task idea to job
specialization?
(a) Engineering Approach
(b) Human Relations
(c) Socio technical Approach
(d) Job characteristics Approach
(e) Industrial relations
Q348. Which of the following is not true in case of methods of Job analysis
information?
(a) The interview
(b) Questionnaire
(c) Observations and logs of employees
(d) Manpower planning
(e) Critical Incidents
Q349. Which of the following is not a drawback of a narrow span of control?
(a) It is expensive
(b) It makes vertical communication in the organization more complex.
(c) Supervisors may lose control of their employees.
(d) It encourages overly tight supervision
(e) Excessive distance between lowest level and highest level.
Q350. Who has extended the Vroom’s Expectancy Theory of Motivation by
suggesting that motivation is not equal to satisfaction and performance and by
depicting what happens after performance?
(a) Harold Kelly
(b) Edward Tolman
(c) Alderfer
(d) Porter and Lawler
(e) Raymond Miles
Q351. Read the following statements on HRD need analysis. Identify the one
which is not true:
(a) HRD needs can be identified at strategic, organisational, operational, task and
person levels.
(b) HRD needs can be diagnostic, analytic, compliance oriented and proactive.
(c) HRD needs analysis is a very cost-effective process.
(d) Task related KSA analysis and training need analysis are integral part of HRD
need analysis.
(e) It is a process by which an organization’s HRD needs are identified and
articulated.
Q352. Match the following theories of career planning with their propagators:
Theories of career planning:
(A) Career anchor model
(B) Career path model
(C) Career choice model
(D) Career stages model
Propagators:
i. John Holland
ii. D.T. Hall
iii. Edgar Schien
iv. Mondy, Noe and Premeanx
Codes
ABCD
(a) ii iii i iv
(b) iii ii i iv
(c) iii iv i ii
(d) ii iv iii i
(e) iv iii ii i
Q353. Who advanced the concept of ‘Three tier institutional structure’ of
Industrial Relations?
(a) John T. Dunlop
(b) Allan Flanders
(c) D.T. Hall

(d) Roy Adam
(e) Kochan, Katz & Mckersie
Q354. Which approach to job design has key element called the task idea to job
specialization?
(a) Engineering Approach
(b) Human Relations
(c) Socio technical Approach
(d) Job characteristics Approach
(e) Industrial relations
Q355. In which country the trade union movement began with industrial unions ?
(a) Great Britain
(b) U.S.A.
(c) India
(d) Canada
(e) Africa
Q356. If there are ____ numbers of employees, then the employer has to provide a
canteen.
(a) 250
(b) 510
(c) 320
(d) 100
(e) 150
Q357. Leave with wages is allowed for employees if they work for _______ days in
a month.
(a) 15
(b) 25
(c) 20
(d) 28
(e) 12
Q358. Welfare Officers are to be appointed if Organisation is engaging ______ or
more employees.
(a) 500
(b) 250
(c) 600
(d) 750
(e) 300
Q359. Housing is a statutory welfare under which of the following Acts ?
(a) Factories’ Act
(b) Mines Act
(c) Shops and Commercial Establishment Act
(d) Plantation Labour Act
(e) Pension Act
Q360. The minimum subscription rate for members of trade unions of rural
workers shall not be less than Rs.
(a) 12 per annum
(b) 3 per annum
(c) 1 per annum
(d) 5 per annum
(e) No such provision
Practice Questions Part-1

1) Popularized by Frederick Taylor in the late 1800s, financial rewards paid to
workers whose production exceeds some predetermined standard came into use.
These financial rewards are commonly referred to as:
A) financial incentives.
B) perquisites.
C) group incentive plans.
D) Taylor bonuses.
E) piecework plans.
2) Today, any plan that ties pay to productivity or profitability is called:

A) competency-based pay.
B) variable pay.
C) pay-for-performance.
D) profit-sharing.
E) job-based pay.
3) Prashant is the human resources professional at a consulting engineering

company. He has been asked by the executive team to suggest incentives that
would most likely motivate the junior engineers who have recently graduated
from university and are generally in their mid to late 20’s. Which of the following
should Prashant suggest?
A) paid time off to volunteer for charitable organizations
B) a luxury cruise
C) on-site elder care
D) high-end fitness equipment
E) on-site day care

company. He has been asked by the executive team to suggest incentives that
would most likely motivate the senior engineers who have worked in their
professional capacity for at least 20 years and are generally in their early 50’s.
Which of the following should Prashant suggest?
A) a recognition program and adventure travel
B) a luxury cruise
C) on-site day care
D) paid time off to volunteer for charitable organizations
E) adventure travel
5) A term plan that refers to any plan that ties pay to productivity or to some other
measure of the Firm’s profitability is called:
A) variable pay.
B) a quality circle.
C) a profit-sharing plan.
D) a fringe benefit.
E) a supplemental pay benefit.
6) Accurate ________ are a precondition for effective variable pay plans.

A) job evaluation
B) performance appraisals
C) salary curves
D) job specifications
E) job descriptions
7) The following are types of incentive plans EXCEPT:

A) individual incentive programs.
B) group incentive programs.
C) spot bonuses.
D) profit-sharing plans.
E) straight salary and commission.
8) A type of incentive plan that gives income over and above base salary to
individual employees who meet a specific individual performance standard is
a(n):
A) individual incentive program.
B) straight commission.
C) spot bonuses.
D) cash bonus system.
E) profit-sharing plan.
9) Ankita received $2000 from her employer last week in order to recognize the
extra hours. Beyond normal work hours, that she had worked in the past month.
Which of the following did Ankita receive?
A) retirement income plan
B) profit-sharing plan
C) spot bonus
D) variable pay plan
E) individual incentive program
10) Ankita is part of a team of 4 software developers. Upon completion of a major

client project she and each of her team members received a set amount in
addition to their base salary. All received the same additional amount. Ankita
received this payment as part of a:
A) gain-sharing program.
B) individual incentive plan.
C) group incentive program.

D) spot bonus plan.
E) profit-sharing plan.
11) A type of incentive plan that generally is organization-wide and that provides
employees with a share of the organization’s profits in a specified period is a(n):
A) gainsharing plan.
B) individual incentive plan.
C) profit-sharing plan.
D) semi-variable incentive plan.
E) group incentive plan.
12) A type of incentive plan that is an organization-wide pay plan designed to

reward employees for improvements in organizational productivity is:
A) a group incentive program.
B) a gain-sharing program.
C) a profit-sharing plan.
D) variable pay.
E) a spot bonus.
13) The most commonly used and oldest type of incentive plan is this system of
pay based on the number of items processed by each individual worker in a unit
of time. It is known as a(n):
A) process plan.
B) gainsharing plan.
C) item plan.
D) standard hour plan.
E) piecework plan.
14) Under this pay system, each worker receives a set payment for each piece
produced or processed in a factory or shop. It is known as a:
A) process plan.
B) piecework plan.
C) gainsharing plan.
D) straight piecework plan.
E) guaranteed piecework plan.
15) Under this pay system, each worker receives the minimum hourly wage plus
an incentive for each piece produced above a set number of pieces per hour. It is
known as a:
A) gainsharing plan.
B) minimum hourly wage plan.
C) guaranteed piecework plan.
D) piecework plan.
E) straight piecework plan.
16) Ira, the manager of a woodworking business, is considering implementing a

piecework incentive plan for the word workers reporting to him. You are an HR
consultant he has asked for advice as to the benefits of implementing such a
plan. You advise him of all of the following EXCEPT:
A) the incentive value of piece-rate plans can be powerful since rewards are
directly tied to performance.
B) piece-rate plans appear equitable in principle.
C) since the piece rate is quoted on a per-piece basis, in workers’ minds,
production standards become tied inseparably to the amount of money earned.
D) piecework plans are simple and easily understood.
E) they are easily understood by employees.
17) The following are disadvantages of a piecework incentive plan EXCEPT:

A) new job evaluation produces a new wage rate; thus piece rates need to be
revised.
B) piece-rate plans appear equitable in principle.
C) employers arbitrarily increase the standard because of workers earning
excessive wages.
D) in workers minds production standards become tied inseparably to the amount
of money earned.
E) workers resist attempts to raise production standards.
18) When a worker is rewarded by a percent premium that equals the percent by
which his/her performance is above standard, this is known as:
A) gainsharing.
B) the percent incentive plan.
C) the bonus hour plan.
D) the standard hour plan.
E) the premium plan.
19) The piecework plan is expressed in monetary terms whereas the standard
hour plan is expressed in:
A) dollars per standard.
B) cents per hour.
C) profits.
D) cents per unit of output.
E) a premium that equals the percent by which his or her performance exceeds
standard.
20) A plan in which a production standard is set for a specific work group, and its
members are paid incentives if the group exceeds the production standard, is
known as a(n):
A) standard hour plan.
B) excess production plan.
C) team or group incentive plan.
D) work group plan.
E) gainsharing.
21) The following are ways that employers use team or group incentive plans
EXCEPT:
A) setting a production standard based on the final output of the group as a
whole.
B) setting work standards for each member of the group and maintaining a count
of the output of each member.
C) setting a standard that all members receive payment equal to the 75th
percentile of the group as a whole.
D) broad criteria such as total labour-hours per final product.
E) choosing a measurable definition of group performance or productivity that
the group can control.
22) The following are reasons to use team incentive plans EXCEPT:
A) helping ensure collaboration.
B) facilitating on-the-job training.
C) reinforcing problem solving.
D) reinforcing group planning.
E) reinforcing individual incentives.
23) The chief disadvantage of group plans is that:

A) each worker sees his/her effort leading to the desired reward.
B) a group incentive plan may not prove as effective as an individual incentive
plan in improving performance.
C) each worker’s rewards are no longer based just on his/her own efforts.
D) a group incentive plan does not facilitate on-the-job training.
E) a group incentive plan is problematic when conflict arises between group
members.
24) Because of the role managers play in determining divisional and corporate
profitability, most employers pay their managers and executives some type of:
A) gainsharing.
B) hourly wage.
C) bonus or incentive.
D) salary.
E) commission.
25) A short-term incentive plan that is designed to motivate the short-term

performance of managers and is tied to company profitability is called a(n):
A) commission plan.
B) eligibility plan.
C) gainsharing.
D) annual bonus.
E) capital accumulation program.

company. He has been asked by the executive team to implement a short term
incentive plan for senior managers. The following are basic issues he should
consider, with the exception of:
A) fund-size determination.
B) salary grade.
C) individual awards.
D) eligibility.
E) how much to pay out.
27) The following are criteria to become eligible for a short-term incentive
program:
A) key position; salary grade only.
B) industry requirements for piece rate production.
C) length of service.
D) position level.
E) key position; salary level; salary grade.
28) To determine eligibility in a short-term incentive program, a job-by-job review

is conducted to identify the key jobs (typically only line jobs) that have
measurable impact on profitability, which is called the criterion of:
A) salary grade.
B) key position.
C) industry requirements for piece rate production.
D) salary level.
E) position level.
29) When all employees earning over a threshold amount are automatically
eligible for consideration for short-term incentives, this is called the criterion of:
A) key position.
B) job evaluation.
C) salary-level cutoff point.
D) job clusters.
E) salary grade.
30) Reliance Jio has implemented a refinement of the salary cutoff approach to
short -term incentive eligibility, which assumes that all managers should be
eligible for short-term incentives. This is known as:
A) performance appraisals.
B) salary grade.
C) key position.
D) gainsharing.
E) profit-sharing plans.
31) For short term incentives, the term fund size means:
A) the company’s net income.
B) the amount each employee will receive.
C) the total amount of bonus money that will be available to be paid out.
D) average capital invested in the business.
E) the incentive bonus formula.
32) A non-deductible formula is:

A) when all employees are earning over the threshold amount.
B) a straight percentage used to create a short-term incentive fund.
C) job-by-job review to identify the key formula.
D) a short-term incentive fund that begins to accumulate only after the firm has
met a specified level of earnings.
E) none of the above
33) When a target bonus is set for each eligible position, and adjustments are
then made for greater – or less-than-targeted performance, this is called:
A) retirement income.
B) an individual award.
C) an annual bonus.
D) a lump-sum bonus.
E) gainsharing.
34) A plan that offers each person a bonus based on the company’s results,
regardless of the person’s actual effort, is called:
A) gainsharing.
B) a lump-sum bonus.
C) financial incentives.
D) profit sharing.
E) piece-rate production.
35) With a true individual incentive, it is the manager�s individual effort and
performance that are rewarded with a(n):
A) individual wage.
B) salary.
C) bonus.
D) cost-of-living adjustment.
E) perquisite.
36) In a profit-sharing plan, each participant gets a bonus based on the

company’s results:
A) regardless of the participant’s actual effort.
B) adjusted for their department’s results.
C) factored together with the participant’s actual effort.
D) combined with no other hard-and-fast rules.
E) combined with the individual effort and performance of each manager.
37) In a true individual incentive bonus plan each individual person gets a bonus
based on:
A) individual effort and performance.
B) no hard-and-fast rules.
C) group effort and performance.
D) department productivity.
E) the same amount, from year to year.
38) One drawback to the split-award approach is that it pays too much to the
marginal performer, who, even if his or her own performance is mediocre, at least
gets the second, company based bonus. One way to get around this would be to
use the:
A) lump-sum bonus method.
B) group incentive plan.
C) individual award system.
D) multiplier method.
E) individual bonus method.
39) Long-term incentives most often reserved for senior executives are called:
A) performance achievement plans.
B) capital accumulation programs.
C) stock option programs.
D) book value plans.
E) stock appreciation rights programs.
40) The following are long-term incentive plans extended to employees EXCEPT:
A) stock options.
B) phantom stock plans.

C) restricted stock plans.
D) retained earnings plans.
E) stock appreciation rights.
41) The right to purchase a specific number of shares of company stock at a

specific price during a specified period of time is called a:
A) stock appreciation right.
B) restricted stock plan.
C) phantom stock plan.
D) book value plan.
E) stock option.
42) In these long-term incentive plans, shares are usually awarded without cost to
the executive, but with certain restrictions that are imposed by the employer.
These plans are called:
A) book value plans.
B) stock appreciation rights.
C) stock options.
D) restricted stock plans.
E) phantom stock plans.
43) Long-term incentive plans whose payment or value is contingent on financial

performance measured against objectives set at the start of a multi-year period
are called:
A) multi-year plans.
B) performance plans.
C) contingent plans.
D) financial plans.
E) book value plans.
44) Executive compensation is more likely to be effective if it is appropriately

linked to:
A) external issues.
B) a cost-reduction strategy.
C) corporate strategy.
D) internal issues.
E) job evaluation.
45) Compensation experts suggest defining the strategic context for the
executive compensation plan before creating the package itself by:
A) checking for compliance with all legal requirements.
B) checking for tax effectiveness.
C) installing a process for review and evaluation whenever a major business

change occurs.
D) defining external issues that face the company and its business objectives.
E) all of the above
46) Sales compensation plans have typically relied heavily on incentives (sales
commissions), although this varies by:
A) geographic location.
B) domestic policy.
C) human resource plan.
D) industry.
E) labour contract.
47) Compensation plans for salespeople have typically relied heavily on

incentives in the form of:
A) stock appreciation rights.
B) stock options.
C) gainsharing.
D) profit sharing.
E) sales commissions.
48) The most prevalent approach to compensating salespeople is to use a

combination of:
A) commissions and profit sharing.
B) salary, commission, stock options, and profit sharing.
C) salary and commissions.
D) salary and stock options.
E) commission and stock options.
49) Future Shop, an electronics retailer, is considering removing commission for

its sales staff from their compensation plan, and compensating them on a
straight salary basis. The following is an advantage of this approach EXCEPT:
A) a long-term perspective is encouraged.
B) straight salaries make it difficult to switch territories or quotas or to reassign
salespeople.
C) the employer has fixed, predictable sales force expenses.
D) straight salaries develop a high degree of loyalty among the sales staff.
E) salespeople know in advance what their income will be.
50) Paying salespeople according to a plan that compensates them in direct

proportion to their sales is called a:
A) commission plan.
B) proportional compensation plan.
C) direct compensation plan.

D) combination plan.
E) straight salary plan.
51) There has been a definite movement away from the extremes of straight
commission or fixed salary for sales people to:
A) pay-for-performance.
B) combination plans.
C) incentive plans.
D) merit pay.
E) variable pay.
52) The term merit pay can apply to incentive raises given to any employees, but
is most often used with respect to:
A) blue-collar employees.
B) white-collar employees.
C) hourly workers.
D) salespeople.
E) executives.
53) Ankita received a salary increase based on her individual performance over
the past year. Ankita received the following type of compensation:
A) individual increases.
B) individual incentives.
C) individual bonuses.
D) merit pay.
E) special awards.
54) The following are reasons why merit pay plans can backfire EXCEPT:
A) only pay (or other rewards) tied directly to performance can motivate improved
performance.
B) supervisors often tend to minimize differences in employee performance when
computing merit raises.
C) almost every employee thinks that he or she is an above-average performer,
thus being paid a below-average merit increase can be demoralizing.
D) supervisors often tend to minimize differences in employee performance when
computing merit raises, to ensure that everyone gets a raise of at least the cost of
living.
E) the usefulness of the merit pay plan depends on the validity of the
performance appraisal system–if performance appraisals are viewed as unfair, so
too will the merit pay that is based on them.
55) One adaptation of merit pay plans is merit raises that are:
A) linked to group performance.

B) paid in quarterly installments.
C) linked to profit sharing.
D) paid in one lump sum once a year.
E) linked to annual performance appraisals.
56) Traditional merit pay plans have the following characteristics:

A) a merit raise is usually based on individual performance, although the overall
level of company profits may affect the total sum for merit raises.
B) a merit raise is based on overall level of company profits.
C) a merit raise is usually based on individual performance only.
D) a merit raise is usually based exclusively on group performance.
E) a merit raise is usually based on corporate performance.
57) Employees whose work involves the application of learned knowledge to the
solution of the Employer’s problems are referred to as:
A) hourly employees.
B) managerial employees.
C) professional employees.
D) executives.
E) supervisory employees.
58) Professional employees almost always reach their positions through

prolonged periods of:
A) reference groups.
B) political influence.
C) work experience.
D) formal study.
E) informal networking.
59) Studies in industries like pharmaceuticals and aerospace consistently show

that firms with the most productive research and development groups have
incentive pay plans for their professionals, usually in the form of:
A) merit pay.
B) hourly wages.
C) retirement income.
D) piece-rate incentives.
E) bonuses.
60) Non-salary items that professional employees need in order to do their best
work include the following EXCEPT:
A) support for professional journal publications.
B) supportive management.
C) modern equipment.
D) up-to-date facilities.
E) bonuses.
61) Many employers have incentive plans in which virtually all employees can
participate. They include the following EXCEPT:
A) Scanlon plans.
B) salary and fringe benefit programs.
C) profit-sharing plans.
D) deferred profit sharing plans.
E) employee stock ownership.
62) Omaxe Pvt. Ltd., a consulting engineering firm, has recently implemented a
type of organization –wide incentive plan whereby all full time employees share in
the company’s profits. Omaxe Pvt. Ltd. Has implemented a:
A) salary and commission plan.
B) gainsharing plan.
C) profit-sharing plan.
D) piece-rate incentive plan.
E) profit-loss plan.
63) When a predetermined portion of profits is placed in each employee’s account

under the supervision of a trustee, this is called a(n):
A) cash profit-sharing plan.
B) deferred profit-sharing plan.
C) employee trust fund plan.
D) employee trust fund.
E) predetermined account plan.
64) A type of organization-wide incentive plan which usually involves having a

corporation contribute shares of its own stock to a trust, and distributes the
stock to employees on retirement or separation from service, is referred to as
a(n):
A) employee trusteeship plan.
B) individual retirement plan.
D) profit-sharing plan.
E) employee stock ownership plan.
65) Research suggests that employee stock ownership plans encourage

employees to develop:
A) a sense of ownership in and commitment to the firm.
B) an interest in gainsharing.
C) a lack of interest in their job.

D) little interest in unions.
E) concern about their retirement plan.
66) The following are basic features of the Scanlon plan EXCEPT:
A) a formula for sharing of benefits.
B) a philosophy of cooperation.
C) competence required from all employees.
D) guaranteed minimum payouts.
E) an identity around which to focus employee involvement.
67) One feature of the Scanlon plan is a focus on employee involvement, which
means the company’s mission or purpose must be clearly articulated and
employees must fundamentally understand how the business operates in terms
of customers, prices, and costs. This is referred to as:
A) involvement system.
B) evaluation of the system.
C) entitlement.
D) competence.
E) identity.
68) The Scanlon plan has been quite successful at reducing costs and fostering a
sense of sharing and cooperation among:
A) employer associations.
B) industrial associations.
C) employees.
D) global environment associations.
E) stakeholders.
69) A type of organization-wide incentive plan that engages many or all

employees in a common effort to achieve a company’s productivity objectives by
sharing the resulting cost savings among employees and the company is referred
to as a:
A) profit-sharing plan.
B) productivity plan.
D) cost savings plan.
E) common incentive plan.
70) Reasons why incentive plans do not work include the following EXCEPT:
A) performance pay cannot replace good management.
B) rewards may undermine responsiveness.
C) rewards rupture relationships.
D) pay is not a motivator.

E) firms do not get what they pay for.
71) There are several specific common-sense considerations in establishing any

incentive plan. Of primary importance is:
A) line of sight.
B) goal setting.
C) superior business results.
D) pay-for-performance plans.
E) relationship building.
72) Sushant, the Compensation Analyst, found recent research that indicates that
there are seven principles that support effective implementation of incentive
plans. They include:
A) group incentives must be complex.
B) firms get what they pay for.
C) rewards may undermine responsiveness.
D) link incentives to measurable competencies.
73) Prashant is the human resources professional at a software development

company that has experienced high employee turnover over the past year. The
CEO has asked him to explain what the most likely primary cause of this is.
Prashant reports that recent research indicates that the number-one reason that
employees leave an organization is:
A) conflict with supervisor.
B) poor leadership.
C) low pay.
D) lack of recognition and praise.
E) unattractive benefits.
74) Employees favour recognition from their ________ by a majority of two -to-
one over recognition from other sources.
A) subordinates
B) supervisor/manager
C) customers
D) mentor
E) peers
75) Recognition is important for ________, who are driven by internal motivation.
A) management
B) high performers
C) new employees
D) low performers
Practice Questions Part-2
1) Which of the following is true about performance management?

A) The process does not involve coaching.
B) Research indicates that most companies manage performance well.
C) Better performance management represents a largely untapped opportunity to
improve company profitability.
D) It is indirectly related to achieving strategic objectives.
E) The process contains 3 steps.
2) The critical step in employees understanding of how their work makes a

contribution is:
A) the promotion decision.
B) defining performance expectations.
C) the career planning session.
D) the pay decision.
E) the appraisal session.
3) To clarify performance expectations, ________ should be developed.

A) an HR strategy
B) a business plan
C) strategic objectives
D) measurable standards
E) a list of traits
4) The following are reasons for the failure of a performance appraisal EXCEPT:
A) clearly defining performance standards.
B) arguing and poor communications which arise as problems during feedback
sessions.
C) not telling employees ahead of time exactly what is expected of them.
D) a lenient supervisor.
E) having poor measures of performance.
5) The job description often is not sufficient to clarify what employees are to do.
This lack of clarity is because:
A) managers may ask individual employees to take on additional tasks.
B) it is written only for benchmark jobs.
C) it is the same for groups of employees.
D) it is written for specific departments.
E) it is written for specific employees.
6) The simplest and most popular technique for appraising employees is the:
A) alternation ranking method.
B) forced distribution method.
C) critical incident method.
D) graphic rating scale.
E) paired comparison method.
7) A scale that lists a number of traits and a range of performance for each is
called a(n):
A) alternation ranking method.
B) behaviourally anchored rating scale.
C) graphic rating scale.
D) paired comparison scale.
E) forced distribution method.
8) Renu has been hired as the first human resources professional at a growing
landscape architecture firm, Terrastyle Inc. The firm is currently using a formal
appraisal method which lists traits such as teamwork and performance values
ranging from needs improvement to outstanding. Terrastyle is using the following
appraisal method:
A) paired comparison method.
B) graphic rating scale.
C) forced distribution method.
D) behaviourally anchored rating scale.
E) critical incident method.
9) A common method for appraising performance which involves evaluating

employees by ranking them from best to worst on some trait is called the:
C) alternation ranking method.
D) behaviourally anchored rating scale.
E) forced distribution method.
10) An example of the alternation ranking method would include the following
steps EXCEPT:
A) listing the highest-ranking employee on the first line.
B) putting the lowest-ranking employee on the last line.
C) defining the compensable factors.
D) cross off names not known well enough to rank.
E) listing all the employees to be ranked.
11) The method for appraising performance which ranks employees by making a
chart of all possible pairs of the employees for each trait and indicating which
employee is the better of the pair is known as the:
C) graphic rating scale.
D) alternation ranking method.
12) More firms today let employees anonymously evaluate their supervisors’
performance. This process is known as:
A) team appraisal.
B) anonymous evaluation.
C) supervisor appraisal.
D) 360-degree appraisal.
E) upward feedback.
13) The performance appraisal method which is similar to grading on a curve, and
which places a predetermined percentage of ratees in various performance
categories, is the:
A) graphic rating scale.
C) paired comparison method.
D) alternation ranking method.
14) Renu has been hired as the first human resources professional at a growing
landscape architecture firm, Terrastyle Inc. She is considering changing the
current performance appraisal method, the graphic rating scale, to the forced
distribution method of performance appraisal. What criticism of using this
method do you advise her about?
A) It is similar to grading on a curve.
B) A considerable proportion of the workforce is classified as less than average.
C) Predetermined percentages of employees are placed in performance
categories.
D) Employees are rated on a comparison basis.
E) Traits being appraised are decided by management.
15) The performance appraisal method which involves keeping a record of

uncommonly good or undesirable examples of an employee’s work -related
behaviour and reviewing it with the employee at predetermined times is the:
B) critical incident method.

C) alternation ranking method.
D) forced distribution method.
E) behaviourally anchored rating scales.
16) The following are advantages of the critical incident method EXCEPT:
A) ensures that the evaluator thinks about the employee’s appraisal all during the
year.
B) can be used to supplement another appraisal technique.
C) provides the evaluator with some specific hard facts for explaining the
appraisal.
D) provides concrete examples of what an employee can do to eliminate any
performance deficiencies.
E) ensures that the evaluator will only consider the employee�s most recent job
performance.
17) The following are examples of critical incidents for an assistant plant manager
EXCEPT:
A) preventing a machine breakdown by discovering a faulty part.
B) instituting a new preventative maintenance system for the plant.
C) developing a corporate strategy to implement company-wide.
D) allowing inventory storage costs to rise 15% in the prior month.
E) instituting a new production system which decreased late orders by 10%.
18) The critical incident method of performance appraisal is often used to

supplement a:
A) narrative form.
B) management-by-objectives method.
C) forced distribution method.
D) paired comparison method.
E) ranking method.
19) In a behaviourally anchored rating scale there are critical incident anchors
along the:
A) performance rating scale.
C) forced distribution scale.
D) alternation ranking method scale.
E) paired comparison scale.
20) Some employers evaluate the progress and development of their supervisory
employees via the use of a narrative form of appraisal. One example of the form
that is used is called the:
A) performance discussion plan.
B) essay form.
C) performance improvement plan.
D) critical incident method.
E) assessment method.
21) A summary performance appraisal discussion focuses on:

A) problem solving.
B) controlling.
C) planning.
D) developing people.
E) administering.
22) An appraisal method that aims at combining the benefits of narrative, critical
incidents and quantified ratings by anchoring a quantified scale with specific
narrative examples of good or poor performance is called the:
A) graphic rating scale method.
B) paired narrative-quantitative method.
C) critical incident method.
D) anchored narrative-quantitative method.
E) behaviourally anchored rating scale method.
23) The following are steps in developing a behaviourally anchored rating scale
EXCEPT:
A) scaling the incidents.
B) developing performance dimensions.
C) causing critical incidents to occur.
D) generating critical incidents.
E) developing the final instrument.
24) The step used in developing a behaviourally anchored rating scale where
persons who know thejob being appraised are asked to describe specific
illustrations of effective and ineffective performance is:
A) scaling the incidents.
B) developing the final instrument.
C) generating critical incidents.
D) reallocating incidents.
E) developing performance dimensions.
25) Typically a critical incident is retained if some percentage (usually ________%

to ________%) of the second group assigns it to the same cluster.
A) 50; 50
B) 40; 90
C) 40; 80
D) 50; 80
E) 0; 100
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26) The following are advantages of the behaviourally anchored rating scale
appraisal method EXCEPT:
A) clearer standards.
B) specific feedback for supervisors to give employees.
C) a more accurate measure.
D) specific forced behavioural dimensions.
E) consistency.
27) A method for appraising performance involving setting specific measurable

goals with each employee and then periodically reviewing the progress made is
called:
A) progress review method.
B) management by objectives.
C) critical goal method.
D) behaviourally anchored rating scale method.
E) periodic review method.
28) MBO almost always refers to a comprehensive organization -wide goal-setting

and appraisal program that consists of the following steps EXCEPT:
A) providing feedback to employees.
B) setting long-term performance targets.
C) setting the organization’s goals.
D) setting the department’s goals.
E) discussing the department’s goals.
29) The following are problems that are typically encountered when an
organization uses the MBO method of performance appraisal EXCEPT:
A) measurable objectives.
B) unmeasurable objectives.
C) unclear objectives.
D) tug of war concerning objectives between supervisor and employee.
E) time-consuming procedures.
30) When it comes to performance appraisals, most firms combine:

A) several appraisal techniques.
B) computerized techniques and BARS.
C) computerized and narrative techniques.
D) manual and subjective techniques.
E) manual techniques and MBO.
31) When using MBO, in order to avoid having the process demotivate
employees, objectives must be:
A) fair and attainable.
B) difficult to attain.
C) the same for all employees in the same job.
D) easy to attain.
E) based on the employee’s educational level.
32) Because of good results, more employers are turning to a new approach to
appraisal, namely a(n):
A) critical incidents narrative.
B) point method plan.
C) forced distribution system.
D) bell-shaped curve.
E) computerized performance appraisal system.
33) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of the behaviourally anchored

rating scale method?
A) It is relatively consistent and reliable.
B) It is generally a more accurate measure of performance.
C) It is the simplest form of performance appraisal so little supervisor time is
involved in using this performance appraisal tool.
D) The critical incidents allow for clearer standards.
E) It provides specific behavioural examples for each trait.
34) Appraisal systems must be based on performance criteria that are ________
for the position being rated, and ________ in that their application must produce
consistent ratings for the same performance.
A) valid, measurable
B) measurable, valid
C) valid, reliable
D) reliable, reliable
E) reliable, valid
35) The following are problems for managers when using performance appraisal
methods EXCEPT:
A) halo effect.
B) quota appraisals.
C) appraisal bias.
D) unclear standards.
E) central tendency.
36) When an appraisal scale is too open to interpretation, it is characterized as

having:
A) unclear performance standards.
B) translation openness.
C) critical incidents.
D) lack of appraisal specificity.
E) non-quantitative standards.
37) A graphic rating scale used with unclear standards may appear to be
objective; however, it will
probably result in unfair appraisals because the traits and degrees of merit are:
A) well defined.
B) too strict/lenient.
C) specific in nature.
D) tightly structured.
E) open to interpretation.
38) Gary is the supervisor of Mindy. He is very impressed with Mindy’s ability to
work in a team so has rated her as outstanding for this trait. Although she has
had more missed delivery deadlines than her peers over the past financial quarter
Gary rated her as above average for the trait personal effectiveness. Gary’s
actions indicate the following performance appraisal problem:
A) halo effect.
B) trait effect.
C) bias.
D) trait bias.
E) appraisal bias.
39) Kai has a tendency to rate all of his direct reports as average. Kai’s actions
indicate the following
performance appraisal problem:
A) equal rating tendency.
B) halo effect.
C) bias.
D) appraisal bias.
E) central tendency.
40) When supervisors who are engaged in a performance rating have a tendency
to rate all employees either high or low, this is a problem that is referred to as:
A) halo effect.
B) leniency/strictness.
C) central tendency.
D) appraisal bias.
E) bias.
41) When supervisors allow individual differences such as age, race, and sex to
affect the appraisal
ratings that employees receive, this problem is referred to as:
A) strictness/leniency.
B) halo effect.
C) appraisal bias.
D) central tendency.
E) trait effect.
42) When an employee’s most recent performance can affect the evaluation of
his/her overall performance, the ________ error has occurred.
A) recency
B) halo
C) similar-to-me
D) central tendency
E) appraisal bias
43) The following are ways to minimize the impact of appraisal problems such as
bias and central
tendency EXCEPT:
A) be sure to understand the problem in order to prevent it.
B) be familiar with the typical rating errors that can undermine rating scale
appraisals.
C) train supervisors to eliminate rating errors.
D) refrain from confusing the employee by including him/her in the rating and
evaluation process.
E) choose the right appraisal tool.
44) Improving appraisal accuracy calls not just for training of supervisors, but
also for:
A) a quantitative job evaluation system.
B) MBO.
C) an effective employee orientation program.
D) performance bonuses.
E) reducing outside factors such as union pressure and time constraints.
45) The following are advantages of various appraisal tools EXCEPT:

A) alternation ranking is simple to use.
B) forced distribution results depend on the adequacy of the original choice of
cutoff points.
C) MBO is tied to jointly agreed goals.
D) a graphic rating scale is simple to use.

E) BARS is very accurate.
46) The following are disadvantages of appraisal tools EXCEPT:

A) a graphic rating scale is simple to use.
B) BARS is difficult to develop.
C) the critical incident method is difficult to use to rate employees relative to one
another.
D) MBO is time-consuming.
E) the alternation ranking method can cause disagreements among employees.
47) Guidelines for developing a legally defensible performance appraisal process

include the following EXCEPT:
A) document evaluations.
B) conduct job specialization for each employee.
C) use clearly defined individual dimensions of job performance.
D) incorporate job characteristics into a rating instrument.
E) provide definitive performance standards to rater and ratees.
48) The individual ratings that are still the heart of most appraisal systems are
the:
A) supervisor’s ratings.
B) self-paced ratings.
C) customer ratings.
D) individual ratings.
E) peer ratings.
49) A potential problem with peer appraisal occurs when all the peers get
together to rate each other highly. This is called:
A) preferential evaluation.
B) appraisal bias.
C) logrolling.
D) halo error.
E) leniency error.
50) In a study involving more than 200 industrial managers, the type of
performance rating that predicted who would be promoted was the:
A) committee appraisal.
B) self-appraisal.
D) peer appraisal.
E) customer appraisal.
51) The following are advantages of using rating committees in the performance
appraisal process EXCEPT:
A) the composite ratings tend to be more fair than those of individual raters.
B) variations in raters’ ratings usually stem from the fact that raters often observe
different facets of an employee’s performance.
C) appraisal is generally more biased because of personality clashes.
D) the composite ratings tend to be more reliable and valid than those of
individual raters.
E) several raters can help cancel out problems like bias and halo effect on the
part of individual raters.
52) Rating committees are usually composed of the employee�s immediate

supervisor and:
A) that supervisor’s boss.
B) three or four peers.
C) three or four other supervisors.
D) that supervisor’s boss and a customer.
E) other supervisors and peers.
53) The basic problem with employee self-ratings is:

A) employee reluctance to self-rate.
B) peers rate themselves lower than they are rated by supervisors or peers.
C) lack of anonymity.
D) supervisor distrust of employee self-ratings.
E) employees rate themselves higher than they are rated by supervisors or peers.
54) More firms today let employees anonymously evaluate their supervisors’
performance. This process is known as:
A) team appraisal.
B) anonymous evaluation.
D) 360-degree appraisal.
E) upward feedback.
55) The 360-degree appraisal approach supports the following activities EXCEPT:
A) leadership development.
B) recognition.
C) succession planning.
D) job evaluation.
E) coaching.
56) 360-degree feedback was originally used only for training and development
purposes, but has
rapidly spread to being used in the management of:

A) job evaluation.
B) performance and pay.
C) customer service.
D) rating errors.
E) employee orientation.
57) The 360-degree appraisal approach fits closely with the goals of organizations
committed to:
A) employment equity.
B) continuous learning.
C) pay equity.
D) MBO.
E) hierarchical chain of command.
58) An employee’s 360-degree appraisal usually involves the following appraisers

EXCEPT:
A) peers.
B) any employees reporting to the person being appraised.
C) competitors.
D) customers.
E) supervisors.
59) Organizations that have implemented 360 -degree appraisal have the
following advice for those considering it EXCEPT:
A) plan to evaluate the system for fine tuning.
B) be clear about who will have access to reports.
C) use standard questionnaires.
D) assure all raters that their comments will be kept anonymous.
E) provide training for supervisors, raters and ratees.
60) An interview with an employee to make development plans, to maintain

satisfactory performance if promotion is not indicated, or to correct
unsatisfactory performance, is called a(n):
A) appraisal interview.
B) exit interview.
C) evaluation interview.
D) job interview.
E) development interview.
61) The easiest appraisal interview to conduct is ________ performance,

________ employee.
A) satisfactory, promotable.
B) unsatisfactory, correctable.
C) unsatisfactory, uncorrectable.
D) satisfactory, unpromotable.
E) unsatisfactory, unpromotable.
62) When preparing for the appraisal interview, there are three things to do. First,
assemble the data; second, prepare the employee; and finally:
A) choose the time and place.
B) prepare the appraisal examination.
C) lay out an action plan.
D) do the performance appraisal.
E) document all information to be discussed in the interview.
63) When conducting the appraisal interview the following should be kept in mind
EXCEPT:
A) encourage the person to talk.
B) develop an action plan.
C) be direct and specific.
D) talk in generalities.
E) don’t get personal.
64) When a person is accused of poor performance, research indicates that the
first reaction that he/she
may have is often:
A) anger.
B) denial.
C) changing the subject.
D) ignoring the accusation.
E) aggression.
65) Best practices when dealing with defensive employees include:

A) never back down.
B) using intimidation to convince.
C) solve all problems quickly.
D) recognize that defensive behaviour is normal.
E) explain the person’s behaviour to them.
66) Rules for constructive criticism include the following EXCEPT:

A) criticize in private.
B) a once-a-year critical broadside can be effective.
C) provide suggestions about what could be done to change behaviour.
D) ensure criticism is free of bias.
E) let the employee maintain their sense of dignity and self-worth.
67) The following steps are important to ensure that the appraisal interview leads
to improved performance EXCEPT:
A) set improvement goals and a schedule for attaining them.
B) the supervisor should be in firm control of the interview.
C) ensure employees don�t feel threatened during the interview.
D) give employees the opportunity to present their ideas and feelings.
E) the supervisor should be helpful and constructive.
68) A written warning to an employee with poor performance should include the
following EXCEPT:
A) indicate that the employee had an opportunity to correct their behaviour.
B) identify standards under which the employee is judged.
C) specify any violation of the standards.
D) make it clear the employee was aware of the standards.
E) specify that 360-degree appraisal will be used in future.
69) A performance appraisal system that does not force managers to give false or
misleading measurements and instead facilitates open, job-related discussions
between the supervisor and the employee is:
A) behaviourally anchored rating scales.
B) total quality control.
C) management by objectives.
D) a performance management system.
E) self-managed teams.
70) Susan, the HR Director, is developing performance management training

sessions for junior managers. She wants to be sure to emphasize the key
success factor for effective performance appraisal that most often leads to
optimum employee performance. The factor she emphasizes is:
A) the quality of the performance appraisal dialogue between the manager and
employee.
B) linking pay with performance.
C) legally compliant policies.
D) effective career development discussions.
E) none of the above.

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500+ HR PRACTICE QUESTIONS FOR BHEL EXECUTIVE TRAINEE EXAM

(c) Organisational Process Assessment.

(d) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947

(e) All of the above

(b) Psychological barriers

(e) Pension Act

(b) Paternity leave

(e) All the above

(e) unfair labour practices

(b) Joint Management Council

(b) It is the result of social forces at work place.

(a) all managerial activities.

(a) employee recognition programs.

(d) the mission statement.

(a) empowering his staff.

(d) workforce diversity.

(b) Both (II) and (III)

(b) Both (II) and (III)

(a) Dearness Allowance

(d) Human rights information system

Q136. Trade unions are ______________institutions

(e) None of these

Q153. In case of amalgamation, what is the overall minimum percentage required

(b) Balance of credit of preceding year

(d) Both (b) and (c)

(a) Identification of the qualities required in the job holder

(c) Advisory Board

(b) Leadership style

(a) The workforce is becoming on average older

(e) Other than those given as options

(a) Culture can be viewed as a social construction and as an implicit feature of

(c) Trans National Corporation

Q204. Which of the following is not a main purpose of picketing?

(b) 1866, 1872

(e) None of these

(b) George A Pennock

(d) Machinery for resolution of industrial dispute

Q226. ………….. is a process by which representatives of both workers and

(a) Support if I had a problem at work

Q239. The time scale for performance appraisals?

(c) the departmentalization

(d) Labour relations

(e) None of the above

(b) Max Weber

Q277. The protection of organization facilities and employees is called-

(a) Alterations to a person working conditions

(b) Job Description

(c) Occupational union

(b) Shift working

(b) Industrial internal labour market

(d) Neither of them

(e) None of the above

(a) Autocratic leader

(e) None of the above

Q334. Which principle of management is violated by matrix organization structure

(b) Shop Level Council

(d) Union pay

(c) D.T. Hall