PHARMACON

PHARMACEUTICAL JURISPRUDENCE

1. The drugs and cosmetics act was passed in the year

a. a. 10th April 1940 b. 20th May 1940
b. c. 10th April 1947 d. 20th April 1940

2. The main objective of drugs and cosmetics act 1940 is

a. To regulate education in pharmacy
b. To regulate pharmacy profession
c. To regulate manufacture, import, distribution and sale of drugs and cosmetics.
d. To regulate drugs and cosmetics

3. The rules for drugs and cosmetics act were framed in the following year.
a. a. 1940 b. 1945
b. c. 1960 d. 1972
PHARMACON
4. How many schedules are present in Drugs & Cosmetics act 1940?
a. a. 23 b. 10
b. c. 5 d. 2

5. The drugs and cosmetics act 1940 is passed by

a. a. Central government b. Central legislative assembly
b. c. Governor d. None of the above

6. Match the chapter as per the drugs and cosmetics act 1940.
a. i. Chapter - I ii. a. Drugs technical advisory board
b. Chapter – II iii. b. Manufacture, sale , distribution of drugs & cosmetics
c. Chapter – III c. Ayurvedic, siddha & Unani drug
d. iv. Chapter – IV d. Miscellaneous
e. v. Chapter – V e. Import of drugs and cosmetics
f. vi. Chapter – V f. Introduction

7. Match the schedules of drugs and cosmetics act 1940.

a. Schedule-I a. Standards for manufacture, sale, stock, exhibition of drugs
b. Schedule –II b. List of cosmetics
c. List of Ayurvedic, siddha, unani books.

8. As per the drugs and cosmetics act & rules 1945 the biological and special products are
a. classified in following schedule
b. a. Schedule – A b. Schedule – M
c. c. Schedule – C d. Schedule – P

9. Match the schedules as per the drugs and cosmetics act rules.
a. i. Schedule – M a. Drugs to be taken under supervision of registered medical practitioner
b. ii. Schedule – G b. Minimum equipment for pharmacy
c. iii. Schedule – J c. Life period for drugs
d. iv. Schedule – N d. List of diseases does not claim to cure
e. v. Schedule – P e. Good manufacturing practices

10. Drug as per the drugs and cosmetics act 1940 is defined as per the schedule of
a. a. 3-b b. 3-c
b. c. 122- e d. 3-aaa
11. The constitution of drugs and cosmetics act consist of
a. a. Drugs technical advisory board b. Ayurvedic and unani drugs technical board
b. c. Central drugs laboratory d. Both a & b

12. Match the following as per the drugs and cosmetics rule if the drug contains
a. i. Putrid or decomposed substance a. Spurious drug
b. ii. Manufactured under another name b. Misbranded drug
c. iii. Coloured, coated to conceal damage c. Misbranded cosmetic
d. iv. Cosmetic not labeled in prescribed manner d. Adulterated drug

13. A drug which contain harmful or toxic substance which render to be injurious to health is denoted as
a. a. Adulterated drug b. spurious drug
b. c. Misbranded drug d. New drug
14. As per the drugs and cosmetics act the drug Inspector ( for drugs and cosmetics) appointed
a. under section of
b. a. 32 – L b. 33- G
c. c. 42 d. 21
15. The selection of Government analyst is under the section of
a. a. 21 b. 32
b. c. 33- F d. 77- F
 PHARMACON
16. The following are the advisory body for drugs and cosmetics act 1940
a. a. Drugs technical advisory board b. Drugs consultative committee
b. c. Government analyst d. Both a & b

17. The executive body of drugs and cosmetics act consists of following members.
a. a. Government analyst b. Drug Inspector
b. c. The central king laboratory d. All the above

18. The diseases like blindness, cancer covered under the schedule of
a. a. Schedule – J b. Schedule – G
b. c. Schedule – B d. Schedule – C

19. Match the following

a. i. Schedule – S a. Standards for surgical dressings
b. ii. Schedule - F b. Good manufacturing practices.
c. iii. Schedule – V c. Standard for cosmetics
d. iv. Schedule – M d. Factory premises for ayurvedic
e. v. Schedule – T e. Standards for patent and proprietary medicines

20. The constitution of drugs technical advisory board consists following as ex – officio members
a. a. Drug controller of India b. The president, India
b. c. Government general d. None of the above

21. Which of the following are the nominated members for Drugs and Technical Advisory Board?
a. Government analyst
b. One teacher in pharmacy, pharmaceutical chemistry, pharmacognsy
c. One person elected by Indian pharmaceutical Association
d. All the above

22. The elected and nominated members for drugs technical advisory hold position for a
a. period of
b. a. 5 years b. 2 years
c. c. 1 years d. 3 years.

23. The main objective of drugs consultative committee

a. To secure uniformity throughout India in administration of drugs and cosmetics act 1940
b. To regulate pharmacy education
c. To regulate manufacture of drugs
d. All the above

24. The central drugs laboratory is located in

a. a. New Delhi b. Mumbai
b. c. Lucknow d. Kolkata

25. The main objective of central drug laboratory is

a. To manufacture drugs and cosmetics
b. To inspect pharmaceutical laboratories
c. To analyse samples sent by the customs collectors
d. All the above

26. The oral polio vaccine is analysed in PHARMACON

a. Central research Institute, Kasauli
b. National Institute of Communicable Diseases, Delhi
c. Central Indian pharmacoepial laboratory
d. None of the above

27. Match of the followings

a. i. Central drug research Institute a. Lucknow
b. ii. Central Indian pharmaceutical laboratory b. Izatnagar, Mukteshwar
c. iii. Central research institute c. Ghaziabad
d. iv. Indian veterinary research Institute d. Kasauli

28. Match the testing laboratory as per drugs and cosmetics act for following products
a. i Antisera for veterinary use 1 Indian veterinary research Institute
b. ii. Homeopathic medicine a. 2Homeopathic pharmacopeia Laboratory
c. iii. Sera, vaccines 3Central research Institute
d. iv. VDRL antigen 4 Laboratory of serologist, Govt. of India
e. v. Intra uterine devices 5 Department of biochemical engineering institute, of technology

29. Match the drugs as per schedule

a. i. Tolbutamide a. Schedule H
b. ii. Atenelol b. Schedule C
c. iii. Pituitory harmone c. schedule G

30. Match the applications to be made to obtain licence for the following
 PHARMACON
a. i. Import of drugs for personal use a. Form -12
b. ii. Testing or analysis of drug b. 12 – A
c. iii. Import of drug for govt hospital c. 20AA
d. 11

31. Match the applications to be made to obtain licence for the manufacturing
a. i. Manufacturing of schedule XB a. 25 – C
b. ii. Manufacturing of blood products b. 32
c. iii. Manufacturing of homeopathic drug c. 28 – c
d. iv. Repacking license d. 25 – F
e. v. Manufacturing of cosmetics e. 25 – B

32. Match the application form to obtain license for sale of drugs.
a. i. Retail sale of drugs other than schedule C, C1 &X a. 21
b. ii. Retain sales of schedule c & c1 b. 21 – BB
c. iii. Wholesale or distribution from motor vehicle of schedule c & c1 c. 20- B
d. iv. Wholesale of drugs other than c, c1 & x d. 20

33. The wholesale or distribution of schedule – x drugs from motor vehicle is given under
a. licence form of
b. a. 20 – BB b. 20
c. c. 22 d. No licence

34. Sale of drugs specified in schedule H and x are given in accordance with
a. a. Government analyst b. Prescription of registered medical practitioner
b. c. Prescription of pharmacist d. All the above.

35. The licence for manufacture, sale, distribution and storage of drugs are not given for
a. Misbranded drug
b. Patent and proprietary drug with incomplete formula
c. Sub standard quality, purity of drug.
d. All the above.

36. The drugs marketed under generic name are covered under schedule of
a. a. A b. W
b. c. Y d. X

37. The date for drugs on label are specified as per schedule
a. a. B b. M
b. c. Q d. P

38. The label of drugs under schedule H should contain

a. To be sold retail on prescription of R.M.P only
b. For internal use only
c. Not for sale
d. All the above
PHARMACON
39. Match the symbol to displayed on left top corner of following drugs
a. i. Schedule- H a. NRx
b. ii. Schedule – X b. HRx
c. iii. Schedule – H narcotic drugs c. XRx
d. Rx

40. The narcotics and psychotropic act is constituted in the year of

a. a. 1948 b. 1940
b. c. 1985 d. 1925

41. The label for paediatric drugs should contain

a. a. For pediatric use b. Age of child / infant
b. c. Sex of child d. a & b

42. The name and concentration of preservative are specified in the label of
a. a. Schedule – X drugs c. Opthalmic preparation.
b. b. External products d. All the above.

43. The disinfectant label should contain

a. a. Name of product c. Method of use
b. b. Grade, type, Riedel walker coefficient d. All the above

44. The pack size for eye/ ear / Nasal drops should be in the range of
a. a. 5 ml b. 3 ml
b. c. 10 ml d. All the above

45. The licence for the manufacture of drugs cosmetics is valid for a period of
a. a. 24 yr b. 5 yr
 PHARMACON
b. c. 10 yr d. 9 yr

46. Mechanical contraceptives should bear the label as per the for following schedule
a. a. Schedule R b. Schedule B
b. c. Schedule G d. Schedule H

47. The duties of drug inspector is to

a. a. Inspect premises licenses for sale b. Inspection of manufactured drugs
b. c. Analyse the manufactured samples d. Both a & b

48. Sterile disposable devices for single use are covered under schedule of
a. a. C b. H
b. c. R d. G

49. Which of the following all diseases and ailments cannot be claimed to prevent or cure except
a. a. AIDS b. Obesity
b. c. Diabetis d. Malaria
50. The specified condition for the storage of whole human blood is
a. a. 300 c b. 100 c
b. c. 4 – 60 c d. 4 – 80 c

51. The specified condition for the storage of Insulin preparation is

a. a. 2 – 40 c & freeze b. 2 – 80 c do not allow to freeze
b. c. 2 – 40 c d. 4 – 15o c

52. The drugs which should be marketed under generic name as per schedule-W except.
a. a. Anaglin b. Aspirin
b. c. Ferrous Sulphate d. Ibuprofen

53. When the conditions for the storage of medicines are not specified they should be stored at
a. a. cool place b. cold place
b. c. More Than 300c d. Normal room temperature

54. Match the following

a. i. Cool place a. NMT 80 c
b. ii. Cold place b. 250 c
c. iii. Ambient temp c. 8 – 250 c
55. Match the following
a. i. The Indian patent and design act a. 2002
b. ii. Pharmaceutical policy b. 1995
c. iii. Drugs price control order c. 1919
d. iv. Poisons act d. 1970

56. The manufacture of alcoholic preparation is under the control of

a. a. Medical and toilet preparations act b. Alcoholic preparations act
b. c. Excise duty act d. All the above

57. As per the narcotics and psychotropic act the cultivation, manufacture, production of narcotic and psychotropic drugs is
supervised by.
a. a. Narcotic analyst b. Narcotic commissioner
b. c. Narcotic consultative d. All the above

58. From which of the following date, The SPC has to submit their registers to PCI every year
a. a. 1st, March b. 1st. April
b. c. 1st, May d. 1st, June

59. The following classes of drugs are prohibited to be imported

a. a. Misbranded drugs b. Adulterated drugs
b. c. Spurious drugs d. All the above

60. The license for the import of drugs is valid up to for the year following the year in which it is granted.
a. a. September 30 b. December 31
b. c. June 30 d. December 1

61. Repacking licenses are granted for drugs other than those specified in
a. a. Schedule X b. Schedule C & C1
b. c. Schedule M d. Schedule Z
62. The tests for sterility of specified substances in Schedules C & C1 should be carried out
a. For the absence of living aerobic and anaerobic microorganisms
b. For the absence of coloured particles
c. To detect bad odour PHARMACON
d. All the above

63. The pharmacy act is passed in the year of

a. a. April 1940 b. April 1947
 b. c. March 1948 d. Jan 1948

64. The act before to pharmacy act for the control of pharmacy profession is
a. a. Drugs act 1940 b. Pharmacy act 1920
b. c. Drugs act 1950 d. None of the above

65. The main objective of pharmacy act 1948 is

a. a. To regulate education of pharmacy b. To regulate manufacture of drugs
b. c. To regulate sale of drugs d. All the above

66. The register of pharmacist maintained by central pharmacy council is

a. a. Pharmacy register c. Central register
b. b. Pharmacist register d. None of the above

67. The pharmacy council of India is constituted every time for a period of
a. a. 2 years b. 3 years
b. c. 1 year d. 5 years

68. Education regulations are framed by

a. a. PCI b. State Pharmacy Council
b. c. Joint State Pharmacy Council d. All the above

69. The central pharmacy council of India is located at

a. a. Hyderabad b. Lucknow
b. c. New Delhi d. Mumbai

70. The president for the pharmacy council of India is

a. a. Kokate b. Dr. B.Suresh
b. c. M.L Schroff d. CVS subrahmanyam

71. The following are ex – officio members of Pharmacy council of India except
a. a. Director general of health services b. Director general of central drugs laboratory
b. c. The drug controller of India d. All the above

72. The president and members of central pharmacy council of India holds position for a period of
a. a. 1 year b. 3 years
b. c. 2 years d. 5 years

73. The educational requirements for registration of pharmacist are framed as per
a. a. Education regulations – 91 b. Pharmacy act 1948
b. c. Education regulations – 2000 d. Drugs and cosmetics act 1940

74. The Pharmacy act has following Number of chapters

a. a. 12 b. 22
b. c. 10 d. 5

c. ii. Number of sections

d. a. 46 b. 20
e. c. 12 d. 5

75. As per the ER – 91 to register as pharmacist the candidate must undergo training for a actual dispensing for a period of
a. a. 250 hr b. 500 hr
b. c. 100 hr d. 1000 hr

76. Two or more state join to enter in to an agreement to form

a. a. state pharmacy council b. joint pharmacy council
b. c. Central pharmacy council d. None of above

77. The first central pharmacy council of India is constituted in the year of a.
a. 1948 b. 1949
b. c. 1942 d. 1942

78. The pharmacy act extend to whole of India except

a. a. Jammu & Kashmir b. Jammu & Srinagar
b. c. Goa d. All the above

79. The year during which the pharmacy act amended twice for social needs is
a. a. 1959 and 1920 b. 1950 & 1970
b. c. 1959 and 1976 d. 1990 and 1920
PHARMACON
 ALKALOIDS
1. Aconitine on hydrolysis yields……. And…….
(a) Benzoicacid (b) Benzaldehyde
(c) Aconine , Formicacid (d) Benzyl aconine, acetic acid

2. Morphine and heroin differ from each other in respect of

(a) Methyl group nitrogen
(b) Acetyl group at C3 and C6
(c) Absence of double bond between C4 and C6 of D- ring
(d) All

3. Vibcristine and Vinblastine act by

(a) Binding with the protein tubuline ad arrest at metaphase
(b) Inhibiting the protein synthesis
(c) Acting as antimetabolite
(d) Inhibiting the enzyme system

4. Papaverine is an alkaloid which is used for

(a) Cough suppression (b) Analgesia
(c) Skeletal muscle contraction (d) Vasodilation

5. Atropine on hydrolysis with barium hydroxide given

(a) Tropanol and tropicacid (b) Scopine and tropic acid
(c) Ecgonine ad benzoicacid (d) Benzylecgonine ad methanol

6. Given below in A to E are the list of drugs.

Appropriate test are given below for the drugs. Match them correctly
a. Alcoholic solution of  naphtha And sulphuric acid a) carbohydrate
b. Murexide test b) ergot
c. para- dimethyl amino benzal dehyde c) Caffeine
d. Ninhydrin d) Gelatin

7. Reserpine on hydroolyesis gives

(a) Reserpic acid + Methly alcohol + trimethoxy Cinnamic acid
(b) Reserpic acid + Aceticacid + trimethoxy benzaldehyde
(c) Reserpic acid + Ethyl alcohol + trimethoxy – benzoic acid
(d) Reserpic acid + elethyl alcohol + trimethoxy cinnamal dehyde

8. Powdered ergot when treated with sodium hydroxide solution develops

(a) A strong odour of ammonia
(b) A strong odour of trimethyl amine
(c) A strong odour of indole
(d) A strong odour if urea
PHARMACON
9. Alkaloids in cinhona bark are detected by
(a) Iodine test (b) Thalleiquin test
(c) Liebermann-burchard test (d) Nesslers test

10. Given below are some important drugs

Appropriate test are listed in A TO E . Match them correctly
1) Ergot alkaloids a) p- dimethyl amino benzaldelyde
2) Quinine sulphate b) fluorescence test with dil H2SO4
3) steroidal & triterpenoids c) Liebermann buchard test
d) 2,4 – dinitro phenyl hydrazine
e) Bendicts test
11. Ergot is the sclerotium of
(a) Fungus claviceps purpurea (b) strychnus nuxpotatorum
(c) Fungus claviceps notatum (d) Fungus penicillin chrysogenum

12. Dragend orffs reagent used in testing alkaloids in chemically

(a) Potassium mercuriciodide
(b) Picricacid
(c) Potassium bismuth iodide
(d) Sodium nitro preside

13. Tryptophan are involved in the biogenesis of

(a) Lysergic acid (b) Reserpine
(c) L- Hyoscyamine (d) Papaverine

14. Match the following terms with the phyto constituents mentioned below
1 opium a) Tropane alkaloid
2 ergometrine b) saponin glycoside
3 Scopolamine c) Latex of poppy capsules
4 Ginsenosides d) oxytocic effect
 15. The opium alkaloid in papaver somniferum is present as one of the following .Identify
(a) Free alkaloids (b) As salt of citric acid
(c) As salt of meconicacid (d) None of these

16. Which one of the following is true for alkaloidal bases

(a) water solubility ad organic solvent insolubility
(b) water insolubility ad organic solvent insolubility
(c) water solubility ad organic solvent solubility
(d) water insolubility ad organic solvent solibility
17. Starting material for the synthesis of ephedrine is
(a) phenylalamine (b) Ornithine
(c) tyrosine (d) Tryptophan
18. Pilocarpine belong to which type of alkaloid
(a) pyrrolzidine (b) Tropane
(c) Iroquinoline (d) Imidazole
19. Iobeline belong to which type of alkaloid
(a) Pyrrole (b) Qwnoline
(c) Iroquinoline (d) Piperidive

PHARMACEUTICS

1. HLB value of wetting agent is

a) 16 to 18 b) 1 to 3 c) 7 to 9 d) 13 to 16
2. Talc is used in tablet dosage form as
a) Glident b) Lubricant c) Opaquant extender d) Plasticizer
3. Angle of repose for free-flowing materials is
a)  30 b)  40 c)  30 d)  40
4. Potency of a drug is related to
a) Dose of a drug b) Bioavailability c) Effect of a drug d) Plasma concentration of drug
5. Requirement of higher dose to produce effect is known as
a) Tolerance b) Intolerance c) Tachyphylaxis d) Idiosyncratic
6. Sterile product manufacturing area is considered to be
a) Class 1,000 clean room b) Class 10,000 clean room c) Class 100 clean room d) None of these
7. Main drawback of asparteme as sweetener is
a) Lack of stability in presence of moisture b) Carcinogenic c) Bitter after taste d) Less sweet
8. If a drug is sensitive to environmental moisture. It is should be coated with
a) Sugar coating b) Enteric coating c) Film coating d) Coating is not required
9. Which one of the given is used for the measurement of particle volume?
a) Anderson pipette b) Coulter counter c) Microscopy d) Sieving
10. pH of the lacrymal fluid is
a) 6.0 b) 7.4 c) 8.0 d) 10.0

11. Zeta potential is determined by

a) Shear box b) Coulter counter c) Nephalometer d) Zeta meter
12. Carr’s index is related to
a) Flow properties b) Particle volume c) Density d) Surface area
13. Convertion of w/o emulsion into o/w emulsion and vice versa is known as
a) Creaming b) Inversion c) Breaking d) Opalescence
14. Rotofill is a
a) Tablet machine b) Ampoule filling machine c) Capsule filling machine d) Seal coating machine
15. Particle density is determined by
a) Psychnometer b) Hygrometer c) Coulter counter d) Anderson pipette

16. Flash point of aerosol product is determined by

a) Pycnometer b) Rheometer c) Sotprtometer d) Tag open cup apparatus
17. The DOP test used for checking the efficacy of
a) HEPA filter b) Membrane filter c) Centrifuge d) Leaf filter

18. The statement “Store in cold place” as per I.P. Means store at
0 0 0
a) Room temperature b) Between 2 to 8 C c) Between 8 to 25 C d) 30 to 40 C
19. Coalescence in emulsion is identified by
a) Non-uniform size of dispersed globules b) Aggregation of dispersed globules
c) Fusion of dispersed globules d) Floating of dispersed globules
20. From which of the given dosage form a drug is most bioavailable
a) Suspension b) Controlled release c) Solution d) Tablet
21. True density is determined by
 a) Helium psychnometer b) Liquid displacement psychnometer
c) Mercury psychonometer d) Bulk density apparatus
22. Cap-loacking problem is associated with the
a) Suspension b) Sustain release c) Syrup d) Emulsion
23. Sealing of soft gelatin capsule is achieved at
o o o
a) 37-40 C b) 10-20 C c) 57-60 C d) None of these
24. Bulking agent used for parentral preparation is
a) Sodium metasulphite b) Benzyl alcohol c) Carbolic acid d) Sorbitol
25. Efficacy of the HEPA filter should be checked in every
a) One Year b) Three months c) 5 Years d) Six months
26. The shells of soft gelatin capsules made elastic or plastic like, by addition of
a) Castor oil b) Explotab c) CMC d) HPMC
27. Accogel is a
a) Tablet sorting machine b) Seal coating machine c) Ampoule sorting machine d) Capsule filling machine
28. Actuator is used in aerosol product to
a) Dispense the product in desired form b) Dispense accurate dosage c) Retain the product d) Increase
delivery rate

Mission Pharmacist
Best of luck