Anatomy Final Exam Questions: CS. An Osteon Is
Anatomy Final Exam Questions: CS. An Osteon Is
Anatomy Final Exam Questions: CS. An Osteon Is
A. Hyaline cartilage
B. Fibrous cartilage
C. Periosteum
D. Metaphysis
E. Fasciae
B. Periosteum
C. Articular cartilage
D. Metaepiphyseal cartilage
E. Perichondrium
B. Spongy
C. Flat
D. Mixed
E. Pneumatic
B. Flat bones
C. Sutural bones
E. Sesamoid bones
B. Flat bones
C. Sutural bones
E. Sesamoid bones
8. CS. Which of the cervical vertebrae does not have spinous process?
A. C3
B. C2
C. C6
D. C1
E. C7
B. Cervical vertebrae
C. Lumbar vertebrae
D. Sacral vertebrae
E. Coccygeal vertebrae
B. Axis
E. Lumbar vertebrae
11.CS. The vertebra that has the superior costal fossa and inferior costal
hemifossa is the:
A. Atlas
B. Axis
12.CS. The vertebra that has the superior articular surfaces on its body is the:
A. Atlas
B. Axis
B. Axis
14.CS. The vertebra that has only a half of the costal fossa on its body is:
A. T1
B. T12
C. T11
D. T10
E. T8
E. The T6 and T7
16.CS. The functional role of the spinal curvatures:
A. Shock absorption
C. Support
E. Protection
B. Clavicle
C. Humerus
D. Radius
E. Ulna
B. Clavicle
C. Humerus
D. Radius
E. Ulna
B. Clavicle
C. Humerus
D. Radius
E. Ulna
B. Clavicle
C. Humerus
D. Radius
E. Ulna
B. Clavicle
C. Humerus
D. Radius
E. Ulna
B. Clavicle
C. Humerus
D. Radius
E. Ulna
B. Tuberculum pubicum
D. Spina ischiadica
E. Tuberositas glutea
24.CS. Which of the following is the sesamoid bone of the lower limb?
A. Talus
B. Patella
C. Cuboid bone
E. Navicular bone
B. Occipital bone
C. Sphenoid bone
D. Frontal bone
E. Parietal bone
C. Sphenoid bone
D. Frontal bone
E. Parietal bone
B. Temporal bone
C. Frontal bone
D. Sphenoid bone
E. Occipital bone
B. Temporal bone
C. Frontal bone
D. Sphenoid bone
E. Occipital bone
B. Temporal bone
C. Frontal bone
D. Sphenoid bone
E. Occipital bone
B. Temporal bone
C. Frontal bone
D. Sphenoid bone
E. Occipital bone
D. Canalis pterygoideus
E. Canalis hypoglossalis
C. Foramen stylomastoideum
D. Fissura petrosquamosa
E. Foramen spinosum
B. Occipital bone
C. Sphenoid bone
D. Frontal bone
E. Parietal bone
B. Incisive canal
C. Musculotubal canal
D. Tympanic canalicle
E. Carotid canal
C. Infraorbital groove
D. Optic canal
E. Trochlear fossa
D. Condylar canal
E. Carotid canal
38.CS. The orbit communicates with the pterygopalatine fossa through the:
A. Round foramen
E. Pterygoid canal
39.CS. The pterygopalatine fossa communicates with the orbit through the:
A. Superior orbital fissure
C. Optic canal
D. Pterygomaxillary fissure
E. Petrosquamous fissure
B. Musculotubal canal
D. Tympanic canalicle
E. Choanae
C. Round foramen
D. Jugular foramen
E. Pterygopalatine canal (greater palatine canal)
43.CS. The nasal cavity communicates with the oral one through the:
A. Mastoid canalicle
B. Incisive canal
C. Musculotubal canal
D. Tympanic canalicle
E. Carotid canal
44.CS. The pterygopalatine fossa communicates with the nasal cavity through
the:
A. Foramen rotundum
B. Foramen sphenopalatinum
C. Foramen ovale
D. Fissura pterygomaxillaris
E. Canalis pterygoideus
45.CS. The pterygopalatine fossa communicates with the oral cavity through
the:
A. Foramen sphenopalatinum
B. Canalis pterygoideus
C. Foramen rotundum
E. Canalis condylaris
46.CS. The nasal cavity communicates with the pterygopalatine fossa through
the:
A. Foramen sphenopalatinum
C. Canalis pterygoideus
D. Foramen rotundum
C. Ethmoid infundibulum
E. Nasolacrimal canal
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B. Synelastosis
C. Synsarcosis
D. Synfibrosis
E. Synostosis
B. Adductio et abduction
C. Rotatio
D. Circumductio
E. Pronatio et supination
B. Adductio et abductio
C. Rotatio
D. Circumductio
E. Pronatio et supination
52.CS. Which of the following joints has more than two articular surfaces?
A. Simple joint
B. Compound joint
C. Combined joint
D. Complex joint
E. Enarthrosis
B. Compound diarthrosis
C. Combined diarthrosis
D. Complex diarthrosis
E. Amphyarthrosis
B. Compound diarthrosis
C. Combined diarthrosis
D. Complex diarthrosis
E. Enarthrosis
B. Synelastoses
C. Synchondroses
D. Synfibroses
C. Synostoses
B. Synchondroses
C. Synfibroses
D. Synelastoses
E. Membranes
B. Articulatio ellipsoidea
C. Articulatio bicondylaris
D. Articulatio plana
E. Articulatio trochoidea
B. Supraarcuate ligaments
C. Intervertebral ligaments
D. Yellow ligaments
E. Interarcuate ligaments
61.CS. What is the type of the joints of the heads of the ribs?
А. Articulatio plana
B. Articulatio spheroidea
C. Articulatio trochoidea
D. Articulatio ellipsoidea
E. Articulatio cotylica
62.CS. What kind of articulation/junction is formed between the first rib and
the sternum?
А. Syndesmosis
B. Synchondrosis
C. Synostosis
D. Symphysis
E. Synsarcosis
B. Articulatio composita
C. Articulatio combinata
D. Articulatio simplex
E. Articulatio ellipsoidea
64.CS. The supraspinal ligament in the region of the neck is named the:
A. Inferior occipital ligament
D. Nuchal ligament
B. Synelastoses
C. Synchondroses
D. Synostoses
E. Symphyses
B. Synelastoses
C. Synchondroses
D. Synostoses
E. Synfibroses
B. Synelastoses
C. Synchondroses
D. Syndesmoses
E. Synsarcoses
B. Synelastoses
C. Synchondroses
D. Synostoses
E. Symphyses
B. Articulatio sellaris
C. Articulatio trochoidea
D. Articulatio spheroidea
E. Articulatio cotylica
B. Articulatio trochoidea
C. Ginglymus
D. Articulatio spheroidea
E. Articulatio cotylica
72.CS. What is the type of the radiocarpal joint?
А. Articulatio trochoidea
B. Articulatio sellaris
C. Ginglymus
D. Articulatio ellipsoidea
E. Articulatio spheroidea
B. Articulatio spheroidea
C. Articulatio sellaris
D. Articulatio ellipsoidea
E. Articulatio cotylica
B. Articulatio sellaris
C. Articulatio ellipsoidea
D. Articulatio trochoidea
E. Articulatio bicondylaris
B. Axis sagittalis
C. Axis verticalis
D. Axis obliquus
E. Axis horizontalis
B. Articulatio sellaris
C. Articulatio spheroidea
D. Articulatio plana
E. Articulatio ellipsoidea
B. Articulatio cotylica
C. Articulatio ellipsoidea
D. Articulatio sellaris
E. Articulatio trochoidea
B. Articulatio sellaris
C. Articulatio bicondylaris
D. Articulatio ellipsoidea
E. Articulatio cotylica
79.CS. On which of the following axes are movements of the knee joint
possible?
А. Axis transversalis et sagittalis
80.CS. What type of joints does the talocrural joint belong to?
A. Articulatio simplex
B. Articulatio composita
C. Articulatio combinata
D. Articulatio complexa
E. Articulatio sellaris
B. Articulatio trochoidea
C. Articulatio cotylica
D. Ginglymus
E. Articulatio ellipsoidea
C. Axis verticalis
D. Axis obliquus
E. Axis horizontalis
B. Ginglymus
C. Articulatio ellipsoidea
D. Articulatio plana
E. Articulatio bicondylaris
84.CS. What kinds of movements are in the interphalangeal joints of the foot
possible?
А. Flexio et extensio
B. Adductio et abduction
C. Rotatio
D. Circumductio
E. Oppositio et reppositio
B. Tendons
C. Synovial folds
D. Muscular bellies
E. Synovial sheaths
86.CS. Which of the following is the anatomic term for a broad tendon?
А. Fascia.
B. Aponeurosis
C. Tendo.
D. Intersectio tendinea.
E. Caput
B. Sternocostal space
C. Caval opening
D. Esophageal hiatus
E. Lumbocostal triangle
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89.CS. The place of the insertion of the musculus pectoralis major is the.
А. Acromion.
E. Spina scapulae.
B. M. subscapularis
C. M. supaspinosus
D. M. teres major
E. M. teres minor
F. Мusculus supraspinatus.
91.CS. Which of the following lodges under the extensor retinaculum in the
carpal region:
A. Canals for nerves
D. Synovial bursae.
D. Мusculus coracobrachialis.
D. Мusculus coracobrachialis.
E. Мusculus brachialis.
D. Мusculus coracobrachialis.
D. Мusculus subscapularis.
B. Fascia transversalis.
E. Lig. Inguinale
B. Fascia transversalis.
E. Lig. inguinale.
99.CS. Which of the following belongs to the medial group of the thigh
muscles:
A. Semimembranosus m.
B. Biceps femoris m.
C. Semitendinosus m.
D. Gracilis m.
E. Sartorius m.
100. CS. The place of insertion of the musculus triceps surae is:
А. Maleolus medialis.
B. Maleolus lateralis.
D. Tuber calcanei.
E. Os naviculare
101. CS. Which of the following muscles passes through the greater
sciatic orifice:
A. M. obturator internus
B. M. obturator externus
C. M. gluteus minimus
D. M. piriformis
E. M. iliopsoas
102. CS. Which of the following muscles passes through the lesser sciatic
orifice:
A. M. piriformis
B. M. obturator internus
C. M. obturator externus
D. Mm. gemeli
E. M. psoas minor
103. CS. The vascular space is separated from the muscular one by:
A. Lig. lacunaris
B. Lig. inguinale
C. Lig. reflexus
D. Iliopectineal arch
E. Fascia transversa
104. CS. The superior border of the trigonum femorale is formed by:
А. Мusculus iliopsoas
B. Мusculus sartorius
D. Ligamentum inguinale
105. CS. The medial border of the trigonum femorale is formed by:
А. Мusculus adductor longus
D. Ligamentum inguinale
106. CS. The lateral border of the trigonum femorale is formed by:
А. Мusculus rectus femoris
B. Мusculus sartorius
107. CS. Which of the following canals opens into the femoral triangle:
A. The inguinal canal
108. CS. The lateral wall of the canalis adductorius is formed by.
А. Мusculus adductor magnus
E. Мusculus Sartorius
109. CS. The anterior wall of the canalis cruropоpliteus is formed by.
А. Мusculus soleus B. Мusculus gastrocnemius
E. Мusculus semimembranosus
C. Musculus omohyoideus.
D. Musculus sternothyroideus.
E. Musculus platysma.
112. CS. The site of insertion of the facial expression (mimic) muscles is:
A. In the superficial fascia
B. In the aponeurosis
C. In the skin
D. In the ligaments
C. In the mandible
B. Suprapterygoidian space.
C. Pterygomaxilar space.
D. Temporo-pterygoidian space.
E. Infrapterygoidian space
115. CS. Choose the true statement about the fascia of the back:
A. There are 3 fasciae of the back: nuchal, thoracolumbar and intermediary fasciae of the
serratus muscles.
B. The thoracolumbar fascia is located in the lumbar and inferior thoracic region.
C. The intermediate aponeurosis of the serratus muscles is inserted medially into the
vertebral transvers processes, laterally – into the ribs..
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117. SC. Which embryonic layer does the primary gut develop from:
A. Endoderm
B. Ectoderm
C. Sclerotome
D. Mesoderm
E. Splanchnopleura
B. Systems of organs that realize the connection of the body with the external
environment
C. Organs or systems of organs located in the body cavities, which realize the metabolic
functions necessary to sustain the life
B. M. mylohyoideus
C. M. buccinator
D. M. orbicularis oris
E. M. geniohyoideu
B. Parotid papilla
C. Sublingual caruncles
D. Incisive papilla
E. Lingual tonsi
122. SC. Which of the muscles listed below takes part in the formation of
the oral floor:
A. Mm. digastrici
B. M. stylohyoideus
C. M. mylohyoideus
D. M. genioglossus
E. M. palatoglossus
123. SC. The inferior wall (or floor) of the oral cavity is formed by the:
A. Genioglossus muscles.
B. Diaphragm of mouth
C. Sublingual region.
D. Tongue.
E. Hyoglossus muscles.
C. Enamel
D. Dental pulp
E. Tooth cavity
127. SC. The following teeth are absent in children of 2,5 years old:
A. Incisors
B. Canines
C. Molars
D. Premolars
D. The roots are connected with the dental alveoli by the periosteum
E. The chemical and physical features of teeth are similar to those of bones
129. SC. All the following statements regarding the esophagus are
correct, except:
A. It has three portions
D. It reaches the abdominal cavity through the hiatus esophageus of the diaphragm
B. Its muscular coat (or tunic) contains the uniformly arranged striated and smooth
muscular fibers
C. The striated musculature is located only in the lower part of the esophagus
B.The partition into the storeys is done by the linea bicostarum and the linea bispinarum
C. The hypogastrium is subdivided into pubic, right and left hypochondriac regions
D. The vertical lines are traced along the lateral margins of rectus abdominis muscles
C. Extraperitoneal
D. Mesoperitoneal
E. Retroperitonea
B. Gastroduodenal ligament
C. Gastrocolic ligament
D. Gastrolienal ligament
E. Gastrophrenic ligament
B. Grater curvature
C. Cardiac part
135. SC. The muscular coat (or tunic) of the stomach consists of three
layers:
A. External - circular layer, middle - longitudinal layer, internal - oblique fibers
E. The hepatopancreatic ampulla (of Vater) empties into the lumen of the duodenum
137. SC. Through which duct does bile flow in the duodenum:
A. Common hepatic duct
B. Cystic duct
C. Segmental duct
E. Interlobular duct
B. Ascending part
C. Descending part
D. Mesenteric part
E. Horizontal par
139. SC. Choose the variant which shows the consecutive parts of the
large intestine:
A. Vermiform appendices, coecum, ascending colon, descending colon, transverse colon,
sigmoid colon, rectum
B. Coecum, ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, rectum
C. It is covered by peritoneum
D. It has no mesentery
141. SC. Choose the incorrect affirmations regarding the sigmoid colon:
A. It is located in the left iliac fossa
E. Urachus
145. SC. The inferior nasal meatus communicates (connects) with the:
A. Lacrimal sac
B. Maxillary sinus
C. Frontal sinus
D. Sphenoid sinus
E. Oral cavity
147. SC. The skeleton of the larynx consists of the following cartilages:
A. Thyroid, cricoid, corniculate, hyoid, arytenoid, cuneiform
148. SC. The inferior margin of the larynx is located at the level of the :
A. C5
B. C6
C. C4
D. hyoid bone
E. T1
150. SC. The following muscles are the tensors of the vocal cord
A. Lateral cricoarytenoid muscle
C. Cricothyroid muscles
E. Thyroepiglottic muscle
151. SC. In adults the trachea is located in front of the:
A. VIth cervical vertebra (its inferior margin) – Vth thoracic vertebra (its superior margin)
E. Intervertebral discs located between the VIth and VIIth cervical vertebra and
intervertebral discs located between the Vth and VIth thoracic vertebrae
152. SC. The most sensitive zone of the tracheobronchial tree (the last
defense line) is located at the level of the:
A. Origin of the first order bronchi
153. SC. The morphofunctional (or structural) unit of the lung is:
A. Primary pulmonary lobule
C. Pulmonary acinus
D. Bronchopulmonary segment
E. Alveolar tree
C. They continue with alveolar sacs and end with respiratory alveoles
D. In inspiration the inferior margin of the left lung on the medioclavicular line attains the
Xth rib
B. Primary gut
C. Endoderm
D. Somites
E. Mesoderm
158. SC. On the posterior wall of the left atrium there are:
A. Orifice of the inferior vena cava
D. Oval fossa
159. SC. The transverse sinus of the pericardium is the space bordered by:
A. The inferior vena cava and the left pulmonary veins
B. The aorta and the pulmonary trunk, and the anterior wall of the atria
161. SC. The process underlying the formation of the primary urine:
A. Ultrafiltration (or glomerular filtration)
C. Metabolic process
B. Glandular organ
C. Parenchymatous organ
D. Cavitary organ
E. Mixed organ
B. Renal segment
C. Renal lobule
D. Renal corpuscle
E. Nephron
166. SC. Deep layer of the renal parenchyma is formed by:
A. Renal cortex
B. Visceral peritoneum
C. Serous capsule
D. Renal medulla
E. Fibrous capsule
B. Renal segment
C. Renal lobule
D. Nephron
E. Renal lobe
172. SC. Secretory and excretory processes occurring in the kidney may
be examined by
A. Urography
B. Cystography
C. Pneumoperitoneum
D. Sonography
E. Scintigraphy
173. SC. Which way is the full urinary bladder located in relation to the
peritoneum:
A. Intraperitoneally 679
C. Extraperitoneally
D. Retroperitoneally
E. Mesoperitoneally
174. SC. Which way is the empty urinary bladder located in relation to
the:
A. In the peritoneal cavity
B. Extraperitoneally
C. Retroperitoneally
D. Mesoperitoneally
E. Intraperitoneally
175. SC. The mucous tunic of the urinary bladder adheres intimately to
the muscular tunic at the level of the:
A. Apex
B. Anterior wall
E. Body
B. Neck
C. Fundus
D. Apex
E. Bladder trigone
D. Is of variable length in male; it depends on the condition of the penis (flaccid or erect)
E. Is straight males
B. Internal
C. External
D. Glandopenile
E. Intravesical
B. Adrenalin
C. Insulin
D. Renin
E. Erythropoietin
D. All the components of the muscular tunic, except the m. sphincter vesicae
C. Tunica albuginea
E. Cremaster fascia
B. Aberrant ductules
C. Tunica albuginea
D. Lobules of epididymis
C. 10 aberrant ductules
187. SC. The pathway of sperm (semen-conveying ducts) starts with the:
A. Convoluted seminiferous tubules
C. Testicular network
D. Efferent ducts
E. Duct of epididymis
188. SC. Which of the following structures starts from the testicular
network:
A. Straight seminiferous tubules
B. Efferent ductules
E. Duct of epididymis
B. Rete testis
C. Efferent ductules
D. Afferent ductules
B. Retrocecal fossa
C. Retrorectal fossa
C. Seminal vesicles
E. Urinary bladder
B. Muscular organ
C. Cavitary organ
D. Tubular organ
E. Musculoglandular organ
C. Retrocecal
E. Retrovesical
B. Ovary
C. Fallopian tube
D. Vagina
E. Clitoris
C. The parametrium
D. The vagina
D. The vagina
E. The uterus
198. CS. The position of the Fallopian tube in relation to the peritoneum
is:
A. Extraperitoneal
B. Retroperitoneal
C. Mesoperitoneal
D. Intraperitoneal
199. CS. What kind of shape does the cavity of the uterus have on the
radiogram:
A. Rhombus
B. Triangular
C. Oval
D. Square
E. Irregular
B. Vaginal part
C. Infravaginal part
D. Uterine isthmus
E. Extravaginal part
C. The vagina
B. The lax connective tissue from the region of the fundus of the uterus
C. The lax connective tissue from the region of the body of the uterus
E. The lax connective tissue between two peritoneal layers, forming the broad ligament
C. The prostate
D. The uterus
208. CS. The perineum occupies the region delimited anteriorly by the:
A. Superior margin of the pubic symphysis
E. Ischial rami
B. Orbit
C. Sphenoidal sinus
D. Frontal sinus
B. Zygomatic bone
C. Sphenoid bone
D. Parietal bone
E. Temporal bone
B. Posterior lobe
C. Tuberal part
D. Epiphysis
E. Hypothalamus
B. Epithalamus
C. Striate body
D. Cerebral hemispheres
E. Spinal cord
B. Hypothalamo-hypophyseal tract
C. Epithalamo-hypophyseal tract
E. Olfactory tract
B. Stores hormones
B. Epiphysis
C. Pituitary gland
D. Thyroid gland
E. Hypothalamus
B. Melanocyte-stimulating hormone
C. Melatonin
D. Aldosterone
E. Calcitonin
B. Epithalamus
C. Metathalamus
D. Spinal cord
E. Cerebellum
B. Cord
C. Cartilaginous disc
D. Tendon
E. Isthmus
B. Pyramidal lobe
C. Quadrate lobe
D. Rhomboid lobe
E. Auricular lobe
B. 2 - 4
C. 4
D. 7 – 8
E. 12
B. Protein metabolism
C. Carbohydrate metabolism
D. Water-solt metabolism
B. Endocrine
C. Mixed
D. Alveolar
E. Alveolar-tubular
B. Two in number on the posterior surface of each lobe of the thyroid gland
A. Facies medialis
B. Facies lateralis
C. Facies anterior
D. Facies posterior
E. Epicondylus lateralis
230. CS. The structural elements of the femur are the:
A. Tuberositas glutea
B. Labium mediale
C. Linea pectinea
D. Labium laterale
E. All above mentioned
231. CS. The occipital bone takes part in the formation of the following
orifices:
A. Round foramen
B. Greater occipital foramen
C. Jugular foramen
D. Oval foramen
E. Lacerate foramen
232. CM. The frontal sinus opens into the:
A. Maxillary sinus
B. Middle nasal meatus
C. Inferior nasal meatus
D. Superior nasal meatus
E. Temporal fossa
233. CS. The bones that take part in the formation of the lateral nasal wall are
the:
A. Lacrimal bone
B. Maxilla (nasal surface of the body and frontal process)
C. Ethmoid labirynth (its medial surface)
D. Palatine bone (its perpendicular plate)
E. All above mentioned are right
234. CS. Itraarticular cartilage contains:
A. Simple diarthrosis
B. Compound diarthrosis
C. Combined diarthrosis
D. Complex diarthrosis
E. Amphyarthrosis