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Answer ALL of The Following Questions (2 Points Each) .: Solution: Taylor Equation For Tool Life

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King Saud University – College of Engineering – Industrial Engineering Dept.

IE-352
Section 1, CRN: 5022
Section 2, CRN: 32997
Second Semester 1432-33 H (Spring-2012) – 4(4,1,1)
MANUFACTURING PROCESSES - 2
Sunday, Apr 29, 2012 (08/06/1433H)
Homework 3 Answers

Name: Student Number: Section:


Ahmed M. El-Sherbeeny, PhD 4 Su-8:00 / Su-10:00

Answer ALL of the following questions [2 Points Each].


1. Let 𝑛 = 0.5 and 𝐶 = 90 in the Taylor equation for tool wear. What is
percent decrease in cutting speed is required to cause a (a) 2-fold
(i.e. 200%) and (b) 10-fold (i.e. 1000%) increase in tool life?
Solution:
Taylor Equation for tool life:
𝑽𝑻𝒏 = 𝑪

𝑛 = 0.5; 𝐶 = 90
⇒ 𝑉𝑇 0.5 = 90 ⇒ 𝑉1 𝑇1 0.5 = 𝑉2 𝑇2 0.5
a) 𝑇2 = 𝑇1 + 200%𝑇1 = 3𝑇1
⇒ 𝑉1 𝑇1 0.5 = 𝑉2 (3𝑇1 )0.5
⇒ 𝑉1 = √3𝑉2

𝑉2 1
= = 0.577
𝑉1 √3

⇒ = 1 − 𝑉2 = 1 − 0.577 = 0.423 ⇒ decrease in cutting speed = 𝟒𝟐. 𝟑%


𝑉1 −𝑉2 𝑉
𝑉1 1

Note, less than half speed reduction is required for tool life to triple
a) 𝑇3 = 𝑇1 + 1000%𝑇1 = 11𝑇1
⇒ 𝑉1 𝑇1 0.5 = 𝑉3 (11𝑇1 )0.5
⇒ 𝑉1 = √11𝑉3

𝑉3 1
= = 0.302
𝑉1 √11

⇒ = 1 − 𝑉3 = 1 − 0.302 = 0.698 ⇒ decrease in cutting speed = 𝟔𝟗. 𝟖%


𝑉1 −𝑉3 𝑉
𝑉1 1

El-Sherbeeny, PhD Apr 29, 2012 IE 352 (01,02) - Spring 2012 HW 3 Answers Page - 1
King Saud University – College of Engineering – Industrial Engineering Dept.

2. In an orthogonal cutting operation, spindle speed is set to provide a


cutting speed of 1.8 m/s. The width and depth of cut are 2.6 mm and
0.30 mm, respectively. The tool rake angle is 8°. After the cut, the
deformed chip thickness is measured to be 0.49 mm. Determine (a)
shear plane angle, (b) shear strain, and (c) material removal rate.
Given:
𝑚
cutting speed: 𝑉 = 1.8
𝑠
width: 𝑤 = 2.6 𝑚𝑚
thicknesses: 𝑡0 = 0.30 𝑚𝑚, 𝑡𝑐 = 0.49 𝑚𝑚
rake angle:  = 8°
Required:

a)  =?
b)  =?
c) 𝑅𝑀𝑅 =?
Solution:

a)  can be obtained from:


𝑟 cos 
tan  =
1 − 𝑟 sin 
𝑡𝑜 0.30 𝑚𝑚
𝑟= = = 0.612
𝑡𝑐 0.49 𝑚𝑚
0.612 cos 8°
⇒ = tan−1 [ ] = tan−1 0.663
1−0.612 sin 8°

⇒ = 𝟑𝟑. 𝟓°
b)  can be obtained from:
 = cot  + tan( − )
⇒ = cot 33.5° + tan(33.5° − 8°)
⇒ = 𝟏. 𝟗𝟖𝟕
c) 𝑅𝑀𝑅 (material removal rate) is the volume of material removed (i.e.
cut) every second which can be obtained from:
𝑅𝑀𝑅 = 𝑤𝑡𝑜 𝑉 = (2.6 𝑚𝑚)(0.30 𝑚𝑚)[(1.8 𝑚⁄𝑠)(1000 𝑚𝑚⁄𝑚)]
𝒎𝒎𝟑
⇒𝑹𝑴𝑹 = 𝟏𝟒𝟎𝟒
𝒔

El-Sherbeeny, PhD Apr 29, 2012 IE 352 (01,02) - Spring 2012 HW 3 Answers Page - 2
King Saud University – College of Engineering – Industrial Engineering Dept.

3. Assume that, in orthogonal cutting, the rake angle is 25° and the
coefficient of friction is 0.2. Use the cutting ratio equation to determine
the percentage increase in chip thickness when the friction is
doubled.
Given:

rake angle:  = 25°


coefficients of friction: µ1 = 0.2, µ2 = 2µ1 = 0.4
Required:
percentage increase in chip thickness
𝑡𝑐 −𝑡𝑐 𝑡𝑐
i.e. 2 1 = 2 − 1 =?
𝑡 𝑐1 𝑡 𝑐1

Solution:

 cutting ratio equation:


𝑡𝑜 sin 
𝑟= =
𝑡𝑐 cos( − )
cos(−)
Rearranging: ⇒𝑡𝑐 = 𝑡𝑜
sin 

 Assuming rake angle () and depth of cut (𝑡𝑜 ) are kept constant⇒
cos(2 − )
𝑡𝑜
𝑡𝑐2 sin 2 cos(2 − ) sin 1
= =
𝑡𝑐1 cos(1 − ) cos(1 − ) sin 2
𝑡𝑜
sin 1
 We lack the values for the shear angles(1 and 2 ), so we use:
𝛽 
 = 45° + −
2 2
Note how we use this equation since µ1 and µ2 < 0.5
Also, note:
𝛽1 = tan−1 µ1 = tan−1 0.2 = 11.31°
𝛽2 = tan−1 µ2 = tan−1 0.4 = 21.80°

𝛽1  25° 11.31°
1 = 45° + −
= 45° + − = 51.85°
2 2 2 2
 𝛽2 25° 21.80°
2 = 45° + − = 45° + − = 46.60°
2 2 2 2

El-Sherbeeny, PhD Apr 29, 2012 IE 352 (01,02) - Spring 2012 HW 3 Answers Page - 3
King Saud University – College of Engineering – Industrial Engineering Dept.

 Substituting in chip thickness formula we generated⇒


𝑡𝑐2 cos(46.60° − 25°) sin 51.85°
= = 1.13
𝑡𝑐1 cos(51.85° − 25°) sin 46.60°


𝑡 𝑐2
increase in chip thickness= − 1 = 1.13 − 1 = 𝟏𝟑%
𝑡 𝑐1

El-Sherbeeny, PhD Apr 29, 2012 IE 352 (01,02) - Spring 2012 HW 3 Answers Page - 4
King Saud University – College of Engineering – Industrial Engineering Dept.

4. A turning operation is performed on stainless steel with hardness 200


HB (with specific energy of 2.8 J/mm3), cutting speed = 200 m/min,
feed = 0.25 mm/rev, and depth of cut = 7.5 mm. How much power will
the lathe draw in performing this operation if its mechanical efficiency
is 90%?
Given:
𝐽
total specific energy: 𝑢𝑡 = 2.8
𝑚𝑚3
𝑚
cutting speed: 𝑉 = 200
𝑚𝑖𝑛
𝑚𝑚
feed: 𝑓 = 0.25
𝑟𝑒𝑣
depth of cut: 𝑡0 = 7.5 𝑚𝑚
mechanical efficiency: 𝜂𝑚𝑒𝑐ℎ = 90%
Required:

Total power drawn from source: 𝑃𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟𝑠𝑜𝑢𝑟𝑐𝑒 =?


Solution:

 cutting power is related to power from source through:


𝑃𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟𝑐 = 𝑃𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟𝑠𝑜𝑢𝑟𝑐𝑒 ∗ 𝜂𝑚𝑒𝑐ℎ
or
𝑃𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟𝑐
𝑃𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟𝑠𝑜𝑢𝑟𝑐𝑒 =
𝜂𝑚𝑒𝑐ℎ
 also, total specific energy:
𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑐𝑢𝑡𝑡𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 𝑃𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟𝑐
𝑢𝑡 = =
𝑚𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑎𝑙 𝑟𝑒𝑚𝑜𝑣𝑎𝑙 𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑒 𝑅𝑀𝑅
o Since turning operation is involved ⇒
𝑅𝑀𝑅 = 𝑓𝑡0 𝑉
𝑚 𝑚𝑚 𝑚𝑖𝑛
= (0.25 𝑚𝑚)(7.5 𝑚𝑚) [(200 ) (1000 )( )]
𝑚𝑖𝑛 𝑚 60 𝑠𝑒𝑐
𝑚𝑚3
= 6250
𝑠
o Thus,
𝐽 𝑚𝑚3 𝐽
𝑃𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟𝑐 = 𝑢𝑡 ∗ 𝑅𝑀𝑅 = (2.8 ) (6250 ) = 17500
𝑚𝑚3 𝑠 𝑠
= 17.5 𝑘𝑊
 Substituting into the source power equation:
𝑃𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟𝑐 17.5 𝑘𝑊
𝑷𝒐𝒘𝒆𝒓𝒔𝒐𝒖𝒓𝒄𝒆 = = = 𝟏𝟗. 𝟒𝟒 𝒌𝑾
𝜂𝑚𝑒𝑐ℎ 0.9

El-Sherbeeny, PhD Apr 29, 2012 IE 352 (01,02) - Spring 2012 HW 3 Answers Page - 5
King Saud University – College of Engineering – Industrial Engineering Dept.

5. With a carbide tool, the temperature in a cutting operation is


measured as 650°C when the speed is 90 m/min and the feed is 0.05
mm/rev. What is the approximate temperature if the speed is
doubled? What speed is required to lower the maximum cutting
temperature to 480°C?
Given:

 first operation:
o cutting temperature: 𝑇1 = 650 °𝐶
𝑚
o cutting speed: 𝑉1 = 90
𝑚𝑖𝑛
𝑚𝑚
o feed: 𝑓 = 0.05
𝑟𝑒𝑣
Required:
a) second operation:
o 𝑉2 = 2𝑉1
o 𝑇2 =?
b) third operation:
o 𝑇3 = 480 °𝐶
o 𝑉3 =?
Solution:

 equation for mean temperature in orthogonal cutting (note, it is


mentioned if it is turning on a lathe or not):

0.000665𝑌𝑓 3 𝑉𝑡0
𝑇= √
𝜌𝑐 𝐾

 since, 𝑌𝑓 , 𝜌𝑐, 𝐾 are material dependent, and assuming constant


depth of cut (𝑡0 ) and rearranging equation above:

𝑇 0.000665𝑌𝑓 3 𝑡0
3 = √ =𝐶
√𝑉 𝜌𝑐 𝐾

Thus,
𝑇1 𝑇2
3
= 3
√𝑉1 √𝑉2

El-Sherbeeny, PhD Apr 29, 2012 IE 352 (01,02) - Spring 2012 HW 3 Answers Page - 6
King Saud University – College of Engineering – Industrial Engineering Dept.

a) second operation:
3
√𝑉2 3 2𝑉
1 3
𝑇2 = 𝑇1 = √ 𝑇1 = √2𝑇1 = (1.26)(650 °𝐶)
3
𝑉
√ 1 𝑉1

⇒𝑻𝟐 = 𝟖𝟏𝟗 °𝑪
b) third operation:
3 𝑇3 3 480 °𝐶 3
√𝑉3 = √𝑉1 = √90 = 3.309
𝑇1 650 °𝐶

⇒ 𝑉3 = 3.3093
𝒎
⇒ 𝑽𝟑 = 𝟑𝟔. 𝟐
𝒎𝒊𝒏

Alternative Solution:

 assuming this was a turning operation, and using equation for


mean temperature in turning on a lathe

𝑇𝑚𝑒𝑎𝑛  𝑉 𝑎 𝑓 𝑏

or: 𝑇𝑚𝑒𝑎𝑛 = 𝐶 𝑉 𝑎 𝑓 𝑏

assuming constant feed (𝑓), and using 𝑎 = 0.2, 𝑏 = 0.125 (since


given that this is carbide tool)

⇒𝑇𝑚𝑒𝑎𝑛 = 𝐶 𝑉 𝑎 𝑓 𝑏
𝑇𝑚𝑒𝑎𝑛 1 𝑇𝑚𝑒𝑎𝑛 2
=
𝑉10.2 𝑉20.2

a) second operation:
𝑉20.2 2𝑉1 0.2
𝑇𝑚𝑒𝑎𝑛 2 = 0.2 𝑇𝑚𝑒𝑎𝑛1 = ( ) 𝑇𝑚𝑒𝑎𝑛1 = (20.2 )(𝑇𝑚𝑒𝑎𝑛 1 )
𝑉1 𝑉1
= (1.15)(650 °𝐶)

⇒𝑻𝟐 = 𝟕𝟒𝟕 °𝑪
b) third operation:
𝑇3 480 °𝐶 0.2
𝑉30.2 = 𝑉10.2 = 90 = 1.816
𝑇1 650 °𝐶

El-Sherbeeny, PhD Apr 29, 2012 IE 352 (01,02) - Spring 2012 HW 3 Answers Page - 7
King Saud University – College of Engineering – Industrial Engineering Dept.

1
⇒ 𝑉3 = 1.8160.2 = 1.8165
𝒎
⇒ 𝑽𝟑 = 𝟏𝟗. 𝟖
𝒎𝒊𝒏

Note that the second solution did not produce a significantly large
difference in final temperature, and yet a large difference in cutting
speeds.

El-Sherbeeny, PhD Apr 29, 2012 IE 352 (01,02) - Spring 2012 HW 3 Answers Page - 8

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