EMC by Test-King: Number: E10-002 Passing Score: 800 Time Limit: 120 Min File Version: 14.0
EMC by Test-King: Number: E10-002 Passing Score: 800 Time Limit: 120 Min File Version: 14.0
EMC by Test-King: Number: E10-002 Passing Score: 800 Time Limit: 120 Min File Version: 14.0
Number: E10-002
Passing Score: 800
Time Limit: 120 min
File Version: 14.0
Version 14.0
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
What is a function of the control layer of a cloud infrastructure?
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which layer of a cloud infrastructure includes tools that optimize resource utilization?
A. Virtual layer
B. Physical layer
C. Orchestration layer
D. Service layer
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Which EMC product offers customers a choice of hypervisor, compute system, and network technology?
A. VSPEX
B. Vblock
C. VPLEX
D. VNX
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Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
An organization plans to migrate an application that has loosely coupled components.
A. Hybrid
B. Forklift
C. Functional
D. Compatible
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
In which chargeback model do consumers commit up-front on their required cloud resources for the committed period?
A. Fixed cost
B. Pay-as-you-go
C. Subscription by peak usage
D. User-based
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Which role in a cloud provider organization is responsible for understanding consumer needs and industry trends to drive an effective product strategy?
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A. Service manager
B. Account manager
C. Cloud architect
D. Service operations manager
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
An organization wants to leverage the infrastructure resources in their existing data center and transform it to a cloud infrastructure.
A. Brownfield
B. Private cloud
C. Public cloud
D. Greenfield
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Which encapsulation function is performed by an iSCSI Host Bus Adapter?
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
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Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
In a FC SAN, which FC port type does an N_Port connect to?
A. F_Port
B. N_Port
C. E_Port
D. G_Port
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
What describes the operation of the write-through cache in a block-based storage system?
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 11
A compute system is configured to access data from a block-based storage system over a network.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
What is a capability of an object-based storage system?
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Which encapsulation function is performed by a Fibre Channel Host Bus Adapter?
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Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
An organization is using a shared file system to manage virtual machine (VM) files.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
What is provided by an uplink NIC used in a virtual machine network on a physical compute system running a hypervisor?
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
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When virtual machines (VMs) are running on a compute cluster, what functionality is provided by a hypervisor's native file system?
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
What is enabled by cache tiering?
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Which resource management technique identifies and eliminates redundant copies of memory pages?
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
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Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
When using a memory page sharing technique, what happens when a virtual machine tries to update the shared memory page?
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
What is a benefit of server-flash cache technology?
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
Which solution would improve the performance of an application with a high number of read requests to SAN storage systems?
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D. Hyper-threading
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
What is the effect of network broadcast traffic reaching the configured network storm control threshold on a switch port?
A. Broadcast traffic is blocked. Subsequent broadcast frames are dropped for a specific interval.
B. Broadcast traffic is allowed partially, maintaining the traffic rate below the threshold level.
C. Switch port bandwidth increases automatically to accommodate the traffic.
D. The switch port is disabled. Administrator intervention is required to enable it.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23
An administrator has configured storage pool rebalancing on a storage system.
A. Data is restriped across all the disk drives in the storage pool.
B. Data on the old drives is completely copied to the new drives.
C. Data is restriped, but only across the old drives in the storage pool.
D. Data is rebalanced across the old drives in the storage pool.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 24
Dynamic virtual machine (VM) load balancing across storage volumes is enabled.
Which parameter is used to intelligently place newly created VMs on a storage volume?
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 25
Consider a virtual machine (VM) with 2 GB memory capacity and 1200 MHz processing power as its lower bounds, and 4 GB memory capacity and
2400 MHz processing power as its upper bounds.
What is the effect on the VM if the memory capacity or processing power available to the VM is less than 2 GB and 1200 MHz respectively?
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 26
Which EMC product provides a solution for software-defined storage?
A. ViPR
B. Vblock
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C. VMAX
D. VSPEX
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 27
What is used to prioritize the latency-sensitive network traffic in order to provide better network service in comparison to less critical network traffic?
A. Quality of Service
B. Traffic shaping
C. Network storm control
D. Multipathing
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
What is a benefit of hyper-threading?
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 29
Which statement characterizes the software-defined approach for managing resources?
A. Abstracts the underlying infrastructure components and separates the management functions from the infrastructure components
B. Provides a framework to list services, attributes of services, service-level commitments, terms and conditions for service provisioning, and prices of
services
C. Provides the automated arrangement, coordination, and management of various system functions in a cloud infrastructure to manage cloud services
D. Specifies a set of component functions that can be called from a software component to interact with other software components
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 30
What is a benefit of personalizing a cloud portal?
A. Meets the security and compliance needs to order and manage services
B. Optimizes the utilization and deployment time of cloud services
C. Enhances the portability and interoperability across clouds
D. Eliminates the possibility of manual errors during portal configuration
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 31
What principle is supported by Representational State Transfer (REST)?
Correct Answer: A
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Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 32
What operation is supported by Representational State Transfer (REST)?
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 33
What information is included in the service request issued by a cloud portal to the orchestration layer?
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 34
What is a function of the management interface of cloud services?
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B. Presents functional content of a service for computing
C. Provides a standard to develop a service enablement roadmap
D. Sequences system functions programmatically
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 35
What is a benefit of defining a service template?
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 36
What is included in service templates?
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 37
What is a service contract?
A. An agreement between provider and consumer that states the terms of service usage
B. An agreement between provider and supplier that describes the service template specifics
C. An agreement between provider and consumer that lists the conditions for greenfield service deployment
D. An agreement between provider and supplier that states the terms and conditions of a balanced scorecard
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 38
What is a benefit of the discovery operation in a cloud?
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 39
Which activity is carried out during the service operation phase of the cloud service lifecycle?
Correct Answer: A
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Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 40
Which activity is carried out during the service termination phase of the cloud service lifecycle?
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 41
In which phase of the cloud service lifecycle are service instances de-provisioned?
A. Service termination
B. Service creation
C. Service operation
D. Service planning
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 42
What is a benefit of service orchestration?
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B. Enhanced service portability across clouds
C. Improved conformity to service contract
D. Automated service portfolio management
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 43
What could be a reason for a consumer-initiated service termination?
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 44
What needs to be considered before performing the discovery activity in a cloud?
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 45
In which step of the service enablement roadmap is the existing IT infrastructure transformed to deliver the required cloud services?
A. Build
B. Plan
C. Understand
D. Enable
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 46
Which activity is carried out during the `Plan' step of the service enablement roadmap?
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 47
Which factors should be considered when establishing a billing policy for cloud services?
Correct Answer: A
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Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 48
Which statement describes the service portfolio management function?
A. Defining the suite of service offerings that aligns to the provider's strategic business goals
B. Maintaining deployed services to ensure that service levels are delivered as committed
C. Creating an inventory of service assets that provides information about asset configurations
D. Meeting the required capacity demands for all services in a cost effective and timely manner
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 49
What is a function of financial management?
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 50
What is a function of supplier management?
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B. Plan for investments and IT budget
C. Map consumers to service assets
D. Correct problems in supplied products
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 51
Which management process involves approving requests for expanding resource pools in a cloud?
A. Change management
B. Capacity management
C. Configuration management
D. Incident management
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52
What helps in analyzing the utilization and the consumption of resources by service instance?
A. Monitoring
B. Personalizing
C. Service catalog management
D. Availability management
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 53
What is a characteristic of cloud service management?
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 54
What is a function of service asset and configuration management?
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 55
Which VMware product automates performance, capacity, and configuration management?
Correct Answer: A
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Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
Which EMC product discovers infrastructure components and detects changes in component status?
A. Smarts
B. VSPEX
C. RecoverPoint
D. Mozy
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 57
What is an accurate statement about reporting?
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 58
A service is offered to a consumer from 9 A.M. to 6 P.M. Monday through Saturday. The service experiences four hours of downtime during one week.
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A. 90.52%
B. 92.59%
C. 95.26%
D. 97.28%
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 59
What is an accurate statement about an active/active service availability zone configuration?
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 60
What is the role of a proxy server in an image-based backup solution?
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 61
A cloud service provider plans to implement data deduplication in their backup environment. The service provider has a network bandwidth and storage
space constraint.
A. Source-based
B. Target-based
C. Post-process
D. In-line
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 62
Which statement is true about virtual machine (VM) snapshots?
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 63
What is an advantage of asynchronous remote replication?
A. Replicates data across any geographic location without impacting response time
B. Provides near zero recovery point objective
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C. Saves network bandwidth by replicating only deduplicated data
D. Ensures source LUN and replica have identical data at all times
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 64
A provider offers a 24x7 online service to consumers. The service experiences three hours of downtime during one week.
A. 90.5%
B. 92.5%
C. 95.2%
D. 98.2%
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 65
What is the correct sequence of steps in asynchronous remote replication?
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Step 4: Data is transmitted to the replica (target).
D. Step 1: Compute system writes data to source.
Step 2: Data from source is replicated to replica (target).
Step 3: Target acknowledges back to source.
Step 4: Source acknowledges write complete to the compute system.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 66
What is the correct sequence of steps in synchronous remote replication?
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 67
Which EMC product enables the backing up of data directly from VMAX storage to a Data Domain system?
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A. ProtectPoint
B. SRDF
C. RecoverPoint
D. ViPR
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 68
Which product can automatically restart virtual machines on another hypervisor in a cluster when a physical compute system in the cluster fails?
A. VMware HA
B. VMware Storage vMotion
C. VMware vMotion
D. VMware FT
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 69
What could be a possible cause for the degradation in the performance of virtual machines (VMs) during a guest-level backup operation?
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
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Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 70
What is graceful degradation of an application?
A. Application maintains limited functionality even when some of the modules are not available.
B. Application can accept all requests from users but responds to only high priority requests.
C. Application retries the service that is temporarily down and makes it available to users.
D. Application automatically restarts on another virtual machine and provides full functionality.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 71
An administrator plans to perform scheduled maintenance of a computer system in a cluster. There are multiple virtual machines (VMs) running a cloud
service on the computer system.
Which solution enables the administrator to perform maintenance without service interruption?
A. VM live migration
B. VM backup
C. VM hardening
D. VM template
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 72
A storage system is configured with erasure coding. The data is divided into 10 data fragments and three coding fragments. Each fragment is stored on
a different disk drive in the storage system.
What is the maximum number of disk drive failures the storage system can tolerate without data loss in this implementation?
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A. 3
B. 7
C. 10
D. 13
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 73
A storage system is configured with erasure coding. The data is divided into eight data fragments and four coding fragments. Each fragment is stored
on a different disk drive in the storage system.
What is the maximum number of disk drive failures the storage system can tolerate without data loss in this implementation?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 12
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 74
What is a benefit of stretching a compute cluster across service availability zones in a cloud environment?
Correct Answer: A
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Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 75
Which process ensures that users are who they claim to be?
A. Authentication
B. Authorization
C. Auditing
D. Phishing
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 76
When configuring an authentication mechanism using Challenge-Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP), where should the CHAP secret be
configured?
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 77
What does CHAP use to enable initiators and targets to authenticate each other?
A. A secret code
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B. OpenID
C. OAuth
D. Permissions
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 78
Which technique of an intrusion detection and prevention system relies on a database that contains known attack patterns, and scans events against it?
A. Signature-based detection
B. Anomaly-based detection
C. Device-based detection
D. Plug-in-based detection
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 79
Which Fibre Channel switch mechanism logically segments node ports within a fabric into groups and enables communication with each other within the
group?
A. Zoning
B. LUN masking
C. Fabric binding
D. Port binding
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 80
Which type of zoning reduces the risk of WWPN spoofing on a Fibre Channel network?
A. Port-based
B. WWPN-based
C. Mixed
D. eui-based
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 81
A cloud service provider is concerned about the security risks due to velocity-of-attack.
What can the cloud service provider deploy to mitigate the impact of this attack?
A. Containment mechanisms
B. Role-based access control
C. Multi-factor authentication
D. Shredding data-at-rest
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 82
Who maintains the credential information of consumers when an OpenID mechanism is deployed?
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D. Service provider and identity provider
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 83
What is an OpenID mechanism?
A. An open standard for authentication in which a service provider uses authentication services from an identity provider
B. An open authorization mechanism that allows a client to access protected resources from a resource server on behalf of a resource owner
C. A network authentication protocol that provides strong authentication for client/server applications by using secret-key cryptography
D. A mechanism that examines data packets traversing a network and compares them to a set of filtering rules
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 84
An organization has a private cloud infrastructure. They want to leverage the capabilities of a public cloud by using the hybrid cloud model.
Which virtual private network (VPN) connection method will enable them to establish a secure connection to the public cloud?
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 85
A cloud service provider is concerned about an attacker gaining access to consumers' confidential information by compromising the password
database.
Which security mechanism should the cloud service provider deploy to mitigate the risk due to this attack?
A. Multi-factor authentication
B. Data shredding
C. Strong authorization
D. Malware protection software
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 86
Which process enables a cloud service provider to ensure that external laws and regulations are being adhered to and that the adherence can be
demonstrated?
A. Compliance management
B. Governance
C. Auditing
D. Risk management
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 87
What enables a cloud service provider to determine if a requirement to keep the data of consumers segregated from each other is being met?
A. Security audit
B. Authentication
C. Authorization
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D. Privacy control
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 88
Which mechanism in a Fibre Channel SAN prohibits a disabled switch port from being used, even after a switch reboot?
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 89
Which mechanism in a Fibre Channel SAN prevents illegitimate host connections by rejecting WWPN logins?
A. Port binding
B. Fabric binding
C. Persistent port locking
D. Port-type locking
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 90
An attacker eavesdrops on a network to capture a consumer's credentials, which can be used to hijack the consumer's account.
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Which mechanism should the cloud service provider deploy to mitigate the risk of an account hijacking attack?
A. Multi-factor authentication
B. Firewall
C. Access control list
D. Encrypting data-at-rest
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 91
Which image represents the correct sequence of steps in an OAuth mechanism?
A.
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B.
C.
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D.
A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 92
Which entities are involved in the OAuth mechanism?
Correct Answer: A
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Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 93
Which image represents the correct sequence of steps in a Kerberos mechanism?
A.
B.
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C.
D.
A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
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Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 94
Which RAID type uses parity to protect against data loss?
A. RAID 3
B. RAID 0
C. RAID 1
D. Nested
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 95
Which protocol is most commonly used for compute-to-computer communication?
A. TCP/IP
B. FC
C. FCIP
D. iSCSI
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 96
Which document specifies the quality and reliability of Cloud services?
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D. Service Termination Agreement
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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