Cisco 300-101
Cisco 300-101
Cisco 300-101
QUESTION NO: 1
A.
There is no default gateway.
B.
The IP address of the router on FastEthernet is 209.168.201.1.
C.
The gateway of last resort is 192.168.201.1.
D.
The router will listen for all multicast traffic.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The 0.0.0.0/0 route is the default route and is listed as the first CEF entry. Here we see the next
hop for this default route lists 192.168.201.1 as the default router (gateway of last resort).
QUESTION NO: 2
A network administrator checks this adjacency table on a router. What is a possible cause for the
incomplete marking?
A.
incomplete ARP information
B.
incorrect ACL
C.
dynamic routing protocol failure
D.
serial link congestion
Answer: A
Explanation:
To display information about the Cisco Express Forwarding adjacency table or the hardware Layer
3-switching adjacency table, use the show adjacency command.
No ARP Entry
When CEF cannot locate a valid adjacency for a destination prefix, it punts the packets to the CPU
for ARP resolution and, in turn, for completion of the adjacency.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/express-forwarding-cef/17812-cef-
incomp.html#t4
QUESTION NO: 3
A network engineer notices that transmission rates of senders of TCP traffic sharply increase and
decrease simultaneously during periods of congestion. Which condition causes this?
B.
tail drop
C.
random early detection
D.
queue management algorithm
Answer: A
Explanation:
TCP global synchronization in computer networks can happen to TCP/IP flows during periods of
congestion because each sender will reduce their transmission rate at the same time when packet
loss occurs.
Routers on the Internet normally have packet queues, to allow them to hold packets when the
network is busy, rather than discarding them.
Because routers have limited resources, the size of these queues is also limited. The simplest
technique to limit queue size is known as tail drop. The queue is allowed to fill to its maximum
size, and then any new packets are simply discarded, until there is space in the queue again.
This causes problems when used on TCP/IP routers handling multiple TCP streams, especially
when bursty traffic is present. While the network is stable, the queue is constantly full, and there
are no problems except that the full queue results in high latency. However, the introduction of a
sudden burst of traffic may cause large numbers of established, steady streams to lose packets
simultaneously.
Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/TCP_global_synchronization
QUESTION NO: 4
Which three problems result from application mixing of UDP and TCP streams within a network
with no QoS? (Choose three.)
A.
starvation
B.
jitter
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 4
Cisco 300-101 Exam
C.
latency
D.
windowing
E.
lower throughput
Answer: A,C,E
Explanation:
It is a general best practice not to mix TCP-based traffic with UDP-based traffic (especially
streaming video) within a single service provider class due to the behaviors of these protocols
during periods of congestion. Specifically, TCP transmitters will throttle-back flows when drops
have been detected. Although some UDP applications have application-level windowing, flow
control, and retransmission capabilities, most UDP transmitters are completely oblivious to drops
and thus never lower transmission rates due to dropping. When TCP flows are combined with
UDP flows in a single service provider class and the class experiences congestion, then TCP
flows will continually lower their rates, potentially giving up their bandwidth to drop-oblivious UDP
flows. This effect is called TCP-starvation/UDP-dominance. This can increase latency and lower
the overall throughput.
Granted, it is not always possible to separate TCP-based flows from UDP-based flows, but it is
beneficial to be aware of this behavior when making such application-mixing decisions.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/warp/public/cc/so/neso/vpn/vpnsp/spqsd_wp.htm
QUESTION NO: 5
Which method allows IPv4 and IPv6 to work together without requiring both to be used for a single
connection during the migration process?
A.
dual-stack method
B.
6to4 tunneling
D.
NAT-PT
Answer: A
Explanation:
Dual stack means that devices are able to run IPv4 and IPv6 in parallel. It allows hosts to
simultaneously reach IPv4 and IPv6 content, so it offers a very flexible coexistence strategy. For
sessions that support IPv6, IPv6 is used on a dual stack endpoint. If both endpoints support Ipv4
only, then IPv4 is used.
Benefits:
Native dual stack does not require any tunneling mechanisms on internal networks
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/web/strategy/docs/gov/IPV6at_a_glance_c45-625859.pdf
QUESTION NO: 6
A.
Tunneling is less secure than dual stack or translation.
B.
Tunneling is more difficult to configure than dual stack or translation.
C.
Tunneling does not enable users of the new protocol to communicate with users of the old protocol
without dual-stack hosts.
D.
Tunneling destinations are manually determined by the IPv4 address in the low-order 32 bits of
IPv4-compatible IPv6 addresses.
Answer: C
Using the tunneling option, organizations build an overlay network that tunnels one protocol over
the other by encapsulating IPv6 packets within IPv4 packets and IPv4 packets within IPv6
packets. The advantage of this approach is that the new protocol can work without disturbing the
old protocol, thus providing connectivity between users of the new protocol.
Users of the new architecture cannot use the services of the underlying infrastructure.
Tunneling does not enable users of the new protocol to communicate with users of the
old protocol without dual-stack hosts, which negates interoperability.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/ios-nx-os-software/enterprise-ipv6-
solution/white_paper_c11-676278.html
QUESTION NO: 7
A network administrator executes the command clear ip route. Which two tables does this
command clear and rebuild? (Choose two.)
A.
IP routing
B.
FIB
C.
ARP cache
D.
MAC address table
E.
Cisco Express Forwarding table
F.
topology table
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Command
Purpose
prefix/length}[next-hop interface]}
[vrf vrf-name]
Example:
10.2.2.2
Clears one or more routes from both the unicast RIB and all the module FIBs. The route
options are as follows:
*All routes.
prefix/lengthAny IP prefix.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/unicast/5_0_3_N1_1/Cis
co_n5k_layer3_ucast_cfg_rel_503_N1_1/l3_manage-routes.html
QUESTION NO: 8
Which switching method is used when entries are present in the output of the command show ip
cache?
A.
fast switching
B.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 8
Cisco 300-101 Exam
process switching
C.
Cisco Express Forwarding switching
D.
cut-through packet switching
Answer: A
Explanation:
Fast switching allows higher throughput by switching a packet using a cache created by the initial
packet sent to a particular destination. Destination addresses are stored in the high-speed cache
to expedite forwarding. Routers offer better packet-transfer performance when fast switching is
enabled. Fast switching is enabled by default on all interfaces that support fast switching.
To display the routing table cache used to fast switch IP traffic, use the show ip cache EXEC
command.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2/switch/command/reference/fswtch_r/xrfscmd5.html
#wp1038133
QUESTION NO: 9
Which two actions must you perform to enable and use window scaling on a router? (Choose two.)
A.
Execute the command ip tcp window-size 65536.
B.
Set window scaling to be used on the remote host.
C.
Execute the command ip tcp queuemax.
D.
Set TCP options to "enabled" on the remote host.
E.
Execute the command ip tcp adjust-mss.
Answer: A,B
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 9
Cisco 300-101 Exam
Explanation:
The TCP Window Scaling feature adds support for the Window Scaling option in RFC 1323, TCP
Extensions for High Performance. A larger window size is recommended to improve TCP
performance in network paths with large bandwidth-delay product characteristics that are called
Long Fat Networks (LFNs). The TCP Window Scaling enhancement provides that support.
The window scaling extension in Cisco IOS software expands the definition of the TCP window to
32 bits and then uses a scale factor to carry this 32-bit value in the 16-bit window field of the TCP
header. The window size can increase to a scale factor of 14. Typical applications use a scale
factor of 3 when deployed in LFNs.
The TCP Window Scaling feature complies with RFC 1323. The larger scalable window size will
allow TCP to perform better over LFNs. Use the ip tcp window-size command in global
configuration mode to configure the TCP window size. In order for this to work, the remote host
must also support this feature and its window size must be increased.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipapp/configuration/12-4t/iap-12-4t-
book/iap-tcp.html#GUID-BD998AC6-F128-47DD-B5F7-B226546D4B08
QUESTION NO: 10
Which three TCP enhancements can be used with TCP selective acknowledgments? (Choose
three.)
A.
header compression
B.
explicit congestion notification
C.
keepalive
D.
time stamps
E.
TCP path discovery
F.
MTU window
Answer: B,C,D
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 10
Cisco 300-101 Exam
Explanation:
The TCP Selective Acknowledgment feature improves performance if multiple packets are lost
from one TCP window of data.
Prior to this feature, because of limited information available from cumulative acknowledgments, a
TCP sender could learn about only one lost packet per-round-trip time. An aggressive sender
could choose to resend packets early, but such re-sent segments might have already been
successfully received.
The TCP selective acknowledgment mechanism helps improve performance. The receiving TCP
host returns selective acknowledgment packets to the sender, informing the sender of data that
has been received. In other words, the receiver can acknowledge packets received out of order.
The sender can then resend only missing data segments (instead of everything since the first
missing packet).
Prior to selective acknowledgment, if TCP lost packets 4 and 7 out of an 8-packet window, TCP
would receive acknowledgment of only packets 1, 2, and 3. Packets 4 through 8 would need to be
re-sent. With selective acknowledgment, TCP receives acknowledgment of packets 1, 2, 3, 5, 6,
and 8. Only packets 4 and 7 must be re-sent.
TCP selective acknowledgment is used only when multiple packets are dropped within one TCP
window. There is no performance impact when the feature is enabled but not used. Use the ip tcp
selective-ack command in global configuration mode to enable TCP selective acknowledgment.
Refer to RFC 2018 for more details about TCP selective acknowledgment.
The TCP time-stamp option provides improved TCP round-trip time measurements. Because the
time stamps are always sent and echoed in both directions and the time-stamp value in the header
is always changing, TCP header compression will not compress the outgoing packet. To allow
TCP header compression over a serial link, the TCP time-stamp option is disabled. Use the ip tcp
timestamp command to enable the TCP time-stamp option.
The TCP Explicit Congestion Notification (ECN) feature allows an intermediate router to notify end
hosts of impending network congestion. It also provides enhanced support for TCP sessions
associated with applications, such as Telnet, web browsing, and transfer of audio and video data
that are sensitive to delay or packet loss. The benefit of this feature is the reduction of delay and
packet loss in data transmissions. Use the ip tcp ecn command in global configuration mode to
enable TCP ECN.
The TCP Keepalive Timer feature provides a mechanism to identify dead connections.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipapp/configuration/xe-
3s/asr1000/iap-xe-3s-asr1000-book/iap-tcp.html#GUID-22A82C5F-631F-4390-9838-
F2E48FFEEA01
QUESTION NO: 11
A network administrator uses IP SLA to measure UDP performance and notices that packets on
one router have a higher one-way delay compared to the opposite direction. Which UDP
characteristic does this scenario describe?
A.
latency
B.
starvation
C.
connectionless communication
D.
nonsequencing unordered packets
E.
jitter
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco IOS IP SLAs provides a proactive notification feature with an SNMP trap. Each
measurement operation can monitor against a pre-set performance threshold. Cisco IOS IP SLAs
generates an SNMP trap to alert management applications if this threshold is crossed. Several
SNMP traps are available: round trip time, average jitter, one-way latency, jitter, packet loss,
MOS, and connectivity tests.
Here is a partial sample output from the IP SLA statistics that can be seen:
Latest RTT: 1 ms
RTT Values:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/technologies/tk648/tk362/tk920/technologies_white_paper09186a008
02d5efe.html
QUESTION NO: 12
A.
when TCP traffic is in the same class as UDP
B.
when UDP flows are assigned a lower priority queue
C.
when WRED is enabled
D.
when ACLs are in place to block TCP traffic
Answer: A
Explanation:
When TCP flows are combined with UDP flows within a single service-provider class and the class
experiences congestion, TCP flows continually lower their transmission rates, potentially giving up
their bandwidth to UDP flows that are oblivious to drops. This effect is called TCP starvation/UDP
dominance.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/WAN_and_MAN/QoS_SRND/QoS-
SRND-Book/VPNQoS.html
QUESTION NO: 13
Prior to enabling PPPoE in a virtual private dialup network group, which task must be completed?
A.
Disable CDP on the interface.
B.
Execute the vpdn enable command.
C.
Execute the no switchport command.
D.
Enable QoS FIFO for PPPoE support.
Answer: B
Perform this task to enable PPPoE in a virtual private dial-up network (VPDN) group.
Restrictions
This task applies only to releases prior to Cisco IOS Release 12.2(13)T.
SUMMARY STEPS
1. enable
2. configure terminal
3. vpdn enable
4. vpdn-group name
5. request-dialin
6. protocol pppoe
DETAILED STEPS
Command or Action
Purpose
Step 1
enable
Example:
Router> enable
Step 2
configure terminal
Example:
vpdn enable
Example:
Step 4
vpdn-group name
Example:
Step 5
request-dialin
Example:
Router(config-vpdn)# request-dialin
Step 6
protocol pppoe
Example:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_2t/12_2t2/feature/guide/ftpppoec_support_TSD_Island_o
f_Content_Chapter.html
QUESTION NO: 14
A network engineer has been asked to ensure that the PPPoE connection is established and
authenticated using an encrypted password. Which technology, in combination with PPPoE, can
A.
PAP
B.
dot1x
C.
Ipsec
D.
CHAP
E.
ESP
Answer: D
Explanation:
With PPPoE, the two authentication options are PAP and CHAP. When CHAP is enabled on an
interface and a remote device attempts to connect to it, the access server sends a CHAP packet
to the remote device. The CHAP packet requests or challenges the remote device to respond.
The challenge packet consists of an ID, a random number, and the host name of the local router.
When the remote device receives the challenge packet, it concatenates the ID, the remote
devices password, and the random number, and then encrypts all of it using the remote devices
password. The remote device sends the results back to the access server, along with the name
associated with the password used in the encryption process.
When the access server receives the response, it uses the name it received to retrieve a
password stored in its user database. The retrieved password should be the same password the
remote device used in its encryption process. The access server then encrypts the concatenated
information with the newly retrieved password if the result matches the result sent in the
response packet, authentication succeeds.
The benefit of using CHAP authentication is that the remote devices password is never
transmitted in clear text (encrypted). This prevents other devices from stealing it and gaining
illegal access to the ISPs network.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2/security/configuration/guide/fsecur_c/scfathen.html
A corporate policy requires PPPoE to be enabled and to maintain a connection with the ISP, even
if no interesting traffic exists. Which feature can be used to accomplish this task?
A.
TCP Adjust
B.
Dialer Persistent
C.
PPPoE Groups
D.
half-bridging
E.
Peer Neighbor Route
Answer: B
Explanation:
To configure a dialer interface as persistent, use the following commands beginning in global
configuration mode:
Command
Purpose
Step 1
Step 2
Step 3
Step 4
Specifies the remote destination to call and the map class that defines characteristics for calls to
this destination.
Step 5
Step 6
Step 7
Specifies an access list by list number or by protocol and list number to define the interesting
packets that can trigger a call.
Step 8
(Optional) Specifies the authentication name of the remote router on the destination subnetwork
for a dialer interface.
Step 9
Forces a dialer interface to be connected at all times, even in the absence of interesting
traffic.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/dial/configuration/guide/12_4t/dia_12_4t_book/dia_dialer
QUESTION NO: 16
A.
MS CHAP
B.
CDPCP
C.
CHAP
D.
PAP
Answer: D
Explanation:
PAP authentication involves a two-way handshake where the username and password are sent
across the link in clear text; hence, PAP authentication does not provide any protection against
playback and line sniffing.
CHAP authentication, on the other hand, periodically verifies the identity of the remote node using
a three-way handshake. After the PPP link is established, the host sends a "challenge" message
to the remote node. The remote node responds with a value calclated usig a one-way hash
function. The host checks the response against its own calculation of the expected hash value. If
the values match, the authentication is acknowledged; otherwise, the connection is terminated.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wan/point-to-point-protocol-ppp/10241-ppp-
callin-hostname.html
QUESTION NO: 17
Which protocol uses dynamic address mapping to request the next-hop protocol address for a
specific connection?
B.
static DLCI mapping
C.
Frame Relay broadcast queue
D.
dynamic DLCI mapping
Answer: A
Explanation:
Dynamic address mapping uses Frame Relay Inverse ARP to request the next-hop protocol
address for a specific connection, given its known DLCI. Responses to Inverse ARP requests are
entered in an address-to-DLCI mapping table on the router or access server; the table is then
used to supply the next-hop protocol address or the DLCI for outgoing traffic.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2/wan/configuration/guide/fwan_c/wcffrely.html
QUESTION NO: 18
A.
PPP options are negotiated and authentication is not performed. Once the link setup is completed,
PPPoE functions as a Layer 3 encapsulation method that allows data to be transferred over the
PPP link within PPPoE headers.
B.
PPP options are not negotiated and authentication is performed. Once the link setup is completed,
PPPoE functions as a Layer 4 encapsulation method that allows data to be transferred over the
PPP link within PPPoE headers.
C.
PPP options are automatically enabled and authorization is performed. Once the link setup is
completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 2 encapsulation method that allows data to be encrypted
over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
D.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/asa/asa92/configuration/vpn/asa-vpn-
cli/vpn-pppoe.html
QUESTION NO: 19
A.
Active Authentication Phase and PPP Session Phase
B.
Passive Discovery Phase and PPP Session Phase
C.
Active Authorization Phase and PPP Session Phase
D.
Active Discovery Phase and PPP Session Phase
Answer: D
Explanation:
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/asa/asa92/configuration/vpn/asa-vpn-
cli/vpn-pppoe.html
A.
Traffic from the 172.16.0.0/16 network will be blocked by the ACL.
B.
The 10.0.0.0/8 network will not be advertised by Router B because the network statement for the
10.0.0.0/8 network is missing from Router B.
C.
The 10.0.0.0/8 network will not be in the routing table on Router B.
D.
Users on the 10.0.0.0/8 network can successfully ping users on the 192.168.5.0/24 network, but
users on the 192.168.5.0/24 cannot successfully ping users on the 10.0.0.0/8 network.
E.
Router B will not advertise the 10.0.0.0/8 network because it is blocked by the ACL.
Answer: E
Explanation:
You can filter what individual routes are sent (out) or received (in) to any interface within your
EIGRP configuration.
One example is noted above. If you filter outbound, the next neighbor(s) will not know about
anything except the 172.16.0.0/16 route and therefore wont send it to anyone else downstream. If
you filter inbound, YOU wont know about the route and therefore wont send it to anyone else
downstream.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 23
Cisco 300-101 Exam
QUESTION NO: 21
A router with an interface that is configured with ipv6 address autoconfig also has a link-local
address assigned. Which message is required to obtain a global unicast address when a router is
present?
A.
DHCPv6 request
B.
router-advertisement
C.
neighbor-solicitation
D.
redirect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Once the node verifies that its tentative address is unique on the link, it assigns that link-local
address to the interface. At this stage, it has IP-connectivity to other neighbors on this link.
The autoconfiguration on the routers stop at this stage, further tasks are performed only by the
hosts. The routers will need manual configuration (or stateful configuration) to receive site-local or
global addresses.
The next phase involves obtaining Router Advertisements from routers if any routers are present
on the link. If no routers are present, a stateful configuration is required. If routers are present, the
Router Advertisements notify what sort of configurations the hosts need to do and the hosts
receive a global unicast IPv6 address.
QUESTION NO: 22
An engineer has configured a router to use EUI-64, and was asked to document the IPv6 address
of the router. The router has the following interface parameters:
subnet 2001:DB8:0:1::/64
A.
2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FF:FE0F:7
B.
2001:DB8:0:1:FFFF:C601:420F:7
C.
2001:DB8:0:1:FE80:C601:420F:7
D.
2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FE:800F:7
Answer: A
Explanation:
Extended Unique Identifier (EUI), as per RFC2373, allows a host to assign iteslf a unique 64-Bit IP
Version 6 interface identifier (EUI-64). This feature is a key benefit over IPv4 as it eliminates the
need of manual configuration or DHCP as in the world of IPv4. The IPv6 EUI-64 format address is
obtained through the 48-bit MAC address. The Mac address is first separated into two 24-bits, with
one being OUI (Organizationally Unique Identifier) and the other being NIC specific. The 16-bit
0xFFFE is then inserted between these two 24-bits to for the 64-bit EUI address. IEEE has chosen
FFFE as a reserved value which can only appear in EUI-64 generated from the EUI-48 MAC
address.
Here is an example showing how the Mac Address is used to generate EUI.
Next, the seventh bit from the left, or the universal/local (U/L) bit, needs to be inverted. This bit
identifies whether this interface identifier is universally or locally administered. If 0, the address is
locally administered and if 1, the address is globally unique. It is worth noticing that in the OUI
portion, the globally unique addresses assigned by the IEEE has always been set to 0 whereas
the locally created addresses has 1 configured. Therefore, when the bit is inverted, it maintains its
original scope (global unique address is still global unique and vice versa). The reason for
inverting can be found in RFC4291 section 2.5.1.
Reference: https://supportforums.cisco.com/document/100566/understanding-ipv6-eui-64-bit-
address
QUESTION NO: 23
For security purposes, an Ipv6 traffic filter was configured under various interfaces on the local
router. However, shortly after implementing the traffic filter, OSPFv3 neighbor adjacencies were
lost. What caused this issue?
A.
The traffic filter is blocking all ICMPv6 traffic.
B.
The global anycast address must be added to the traffic filter to allow OSPFv3 to work properly.
C.
The link-local addresses that were used by OSPFv3 were explicitly denied, which caused the
neighbor relationships to fail.
D.
Ipv6 traffic filtering can be implemented only on SVIs.
Answer: C
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 26
Cisco 300-101 Exam
Explanation:
OSPFv3 uses link-local Ipv6 addresses for neighbor discovery and other features, so if any Ipv6
traffic filters are implemented be sure to include the link local address so that it is permitted in the
filter list.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/nx-
os/unicast/configuration/guide/l3_cli_nxos/l3_ospfv3.html
QUESTION NO: 24
A.
It sets the EIGRP autonomous system number in a VRF.
B.
It sets the BGP autonomous system number in a VRF.
C.
It sets the global EIGRP autonomous system number.
D.
It sets the global BGP autonomous system number.
Answer: A
Explanation:
To configure the autonomous-system number for an Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol
(EIGRP) routing process to run within a VPN routing and forwarding (VRF) instance, use the
autonomous-system command in address-family configuration mode. To remove the
autonomous-system for an EIGRP routing process from within a VPN VRF instance, use the no
form of this command.
Autonomous-system autonomous-system-number
no autonomous-system autonomous-system-number
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/iproute_eigrp/command/reference/ire_book/ire_a1.html#
wp1062796
QUESTION NO: 25
What is the default OSPF hello interval on a Frame Relay point-to-point network?
A.
10
B.
20
C.
30
D.
40
Answer: A
Explanation:
Before you troubleshoot any OSPF neighbor-related issues on an NBMA network, it is important to
remember that an NBMA network can be configured in these modes of operation with the ip ospf
network command:
The Hello and Dead Intervals of each mode are described in this table:
Network Type
Point-to-Point
10
40
Point-to-Multipoint
30
120
Broadcast
10
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 28
Cisco 300-101 Exam
40
Non-Broadcast
30
120
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/open-shortest-path-first-ospf/13693-
22.html
QUESTION NO: 26
Which command only announces the 1.2.3.0/24 network out of FastEthernet 0/0?
A.
distribute list 1 out
B.
distribute list 1 out FastEthernet0/0
C.
distribute list 2 out
D.
distribute list 2 out FastEthernet0/0
Answer: D
Explanation:
Access list 2 is more specific, allowing only 1.2.3.0/24, whereas access list 1 permits all 1.0.0.0/8
networks. This question also asks us to apply this distribute list only to the outbound direction of
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 29
Cisco 300-101 Exam
the fast Ethernet 0/0 interface, so the correct command is distribute list 2 out FastEthernet0/0.
QUESTION NO: 27
Which prefix is matched by the command ip prefix-list name permit 10.8.0.0/16 ge 24 le 24?
A.
10.9.1.0/24
B.
10.8.0.0/24
C.
10.8.0.0/16
D.
10.8.0.0/23
Answer: B
Explanation:
With prefix lists, the ge 24 term means greater than or equal to a /24 and the le 24 means less
than or equal to /24, so only a /24 is both greater than or equal to 24 and less than or equal to 24.
This translates to any prefix in the 10.8.x.0/24 network, where X is any value in the 0-255 range.
Only the choice of 10.8.0.0.24 matches this.
QUESTION NO: 28
Router A and Router B are configured with IPv6 addressing and basic routing capabilities using
oSPFv3. The networks that are advertised from Router A do not show up in Router B's routing
table. After debugging IPv6 packets, the message "not a router" is found in the output. Why is the
routing information not being learned by Router B?
A.
OSPFv3 timers were adjusted for fast convergence.
B.
The networks were not advertised properly under the OSPFv3 process.
C.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 30
Cisco 300-101 Exam
An IPv6 traffic filter is blocking the networks from being learned via the Router B interface that is
connected to Router A.
D.
IPv6 unicast routing is not enabled on Router A or Router B.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Field
Description
source-routed
truncated
format errors
Errors that can result from checks performed on header fields, the version number, and packet
length.
not a router
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/ipv6/command/reference/ipv6_book/ipv6_16.html
QUESTION NO: 29
After you review the output of the command show ipv6 interface brief, you see that several IPv6
addresses have the 16-bit hexadecimal value of "fFFE" inserted into the address. Based on this
information, what do you conclude about these IPv6 addresses?
A.
IEEE EUI-64 was implemented when assigning IPv6 addresses on the device.
C.
IPv6 addresses containing "FFFE" indicate that the address is reserved for multicast.
D.
The IPv6 universal/local flag (bit 7) was flipped.
E.
IPv6 unicast forwarding was enabled, but IPv6 Cisco Express Forwarding was disabled.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Extended Unique Identifier (EUI), as per RFC2373, allows a host to assign iteslf a unique 64-Bit IP
Version 6 interface identify them EUI-64). This feature is a key benefit over IPv4 as it eliminates
the need of manual configuration or DHCP as in the world of IPv4. The IPv6 EUI-64 format
address is obtained through the 48-bit MAC address. The Mac address is first separated into two
24-bits, with one being OUI (Organizationally Unique Identifier) and the other being NIC specific.
The 16-bit 0xFFFE is then inserted between these two 24-bits to for the 64-bit EUI address. IEEE
has chosen FFFE as a reserved value which can only appear in EUI-64 generated from the
EUI-48 MAC address.
Here is an example showing how the Mac Address is used to generate EUI.
Next, the seventh bit from the left, or the universal/local (U/L) bit, needs to be inverted. This bit
identifies whether this interface identifier is universally or locally administered. If 0, the address is
locally administered and if 1, the address is globally unique. It is worth noticing that in the OUI
portion, the globally unique addresses assigned by the IEEE have always been set to 0 whereas
the locally created addresses have 1 configured. Therefore, when the bit is inverted, it maintains
its original scope (global unique address is still global unique and vice versa). The reason for
inverting can be found in RFC4291 section 2.5.1.
Once the above is done, we have a fully functional EUI-64 format address.
Reference: https://supportforums.cisco.com/document/100566/understanding-ipv6-eui-64-bit-
address
QUESTION NO: 30
A packet capture log indicates that several router solicitation messages were sent from a local
host on the Ipv6 segment. What is the expected acknowledgment and its usage?
A.
Router acknowledgment messages will be forwarded upstream, where the DHCP server will
allocate addresses to the local host.
B.
Routers on the Ipv6 segment will respond with an advertisement that provides an external path
from the local subnet, as well as certain data, such as prefix discovery.
C.
Duplicate Address Detection will determine if any other local host is using the same Ipv6 address
for communication with the Ipv6 routers on the segment.
D.
All local host traffic will be redirected to the router with the lowest ICMPv6 signature, which is
statically defined by the network administrator.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Router Advertisements (RA) are sent in response to router solicitation messages. Router
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 33
Cisco 300-101 Exam
solicitation messages, which have a value of 133 in the Type field of the ICMP packet header, are
sent by hosts at system startup so that the host can immediately autoconfigure without needing to
wait for the next scheduled RA message. Given that router solicitation messages are usually sent
by hosts at system startup (the host does not have a configured unicast address), the source
address in router solicitation messages is usually the unspecified Ipv6 address (0:0:0:0:0:0:0:0). If
the host has a configured unicast address, the unicast address of the interface sending the router
solicitation message is used as the source address in the message. The destination address in
router solicitation messages is the all-routers multicast address with a scope of the link. When an
RA is sent in response to a router solicitation, the destination address in the RA message is the
unicast address of the source of the router solicitation message.
One or more onlink Ipv6 prefixes that nodes on the local link can use to automatically configure
their Ipv6 addresses
Sets of flags that indicate the type of autoconfiguration (stateless or stateful) that can be
completed
Default router information (whether the router sending the advertisement should be used as a
default router and, if so, the amount of time (in seconds) the router should be used as a default
router)
Additional information for hosts, such as the hop limit and MTU a host should use in packets that
it originates
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/ipv6/configuration/guide/12_4t/ipv6_12_4t_book/ip6-
addrg_bsc_con.html
Route.com is a small IT corporation that is attempting to implement the network shown in the
exhibit. Currently the implementation is partially completed. OSPF has been configured on routers
Chicago and NewYork. The SO/0 interface on Chicago and the SO/1 interface on NewYork are in
Area 0. The loopback0 interface on NewYork is in Area 1. However, they cannot ping from the
serial interface of the Seattle router to the loopback interface of the NewYork router. You have
been asked to complete the implementation to allow this ping.
The routing protocol must be enabled for each interface using the most specific wildcard mask
possible.
The serial link between Seattle and Chicago must be in OSPF area 21.
Network Information
Seattle
Chicago
Password: cisco
NewYork
Loopback0 172.16.189.189
Answer:
Here is the solution below:
Explanation:
Note: In actual exam, the IP addressing, OSPF areas and process ID, and router hostnames may
change, but the overall solution is the same.
Seattles S0/0 IP Address is 192.168.16.5/30. So, we need to find the network address and
wildcard mask of 192.168.16.5/30 in order to configure the OSPF.
Here subtract 252 from 2565, 256-252 = 4, hence the subnets will increment by 4.
Now we configure OSPF using process ID 10 (note the process ID may change to something else
in real exam).
Seattle>enable
Password:
Seattle#conf t
Seattle(config)#router ospf 10
One of the tasks states that area 21 should not receive any external or inter-area routes (except
the default route).
Seattle(config-router)#area 21 stub
Seattle(config-router)#end
Chicago Configuration:
Password: cisco
Chicago#conf t
Chicago(config)#router ospf 10
Again, area 21 should not receive any external or inter-area routes (except the default route).
In order to accomplish this, we must stop LSA Type 5 if we dont want to send external routes. And
if we dont want to send inter-area routes, we have to stop LSA Type 3 and Type 4. Therefore we
want to configure area 21 as a totally stubby area.
Chicago(config-router)#end
The other interface on the Chicago router is already configured correctly in this scenario, as well
as the New York router so there is nothing that needs to be done on that router.
JS Industries has expanded their business with the addition of their first remote office. The remote
office router (R3) was previously configured and all corporate subnets were reachable from R3. JS
Industries is interested in using route summarization along with the EIGRP Stub Routing feature to
increase network stability while reducing the memory usage and bandwidth utilization to R3.
Another network professional was tasked with implementing this solution. However, in the process
of configuring EIGRP stub routing connectivity with the remote network devices off of R3 has been
lost.
Currently EIGRP is configured on all routers R2, R3, and R4 in the network. Your task is to identify
and resolve the cause of connectivity failure with the remote office router R3. Once the issue has
been resolved you should complete the task by configuring route summarization only to the
remote office router R3.
You have corrected the fault when pings from R2 to the R3 LAN interface are successful, and the
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 39
Cisco 300-101 Exam
R3 IP routing table only contains 2 10.0.0.0 subnets.
Answer:
Here are the solutions as below:
Explanation:
First we have to figure out why R3 and R4 can not communicate with each other. Use the show
running-config command on router R3.
Notice that R3 is configured as a stub receive-only router. The receive-only keyword will restrict
the router from sharing any of its routes with any other router in that EIGRP autonomous system.
This keyword will also prevent any type of route from being sent. Therefore we will remove this
command and replace it with the eigrp stub command:
R3# configure terminal R3(config)# router eigrp 123 R3(config-router)# no eigrp stub receive-only
R3(config-router)# eigrp stub
R3(config-router)# end
Now R3 will send updates containing its connected and summary routes to other routers. Notice
that the eigrp stub command equals to the eigrp stub connected summary because the connected
and summary options are enabled by default.
Next we will configure router R3 so that it has only 2 subnets of 10.0.0.0 network. Use the show ip
route command on R3 to view its routing table:
Because we want the routing table of R3 only have 2 subnets so we have to summary sub-
networks at the interface which is connected with R3, the s0/0 interface of R4.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 42
Cisco 300-101 Exam
There is one interesting thing about the output of the show ip route shown above: the 10.2.3.0/24,
which is a directly connected network of R3. We cant get rid of it in the routing table no matter
what technique we use to summary the networks. Therefore, to make the routing table of R3 has
only 2 subnets we have to summary other subnets into one subnet.
In the output if we dont see the summary line (like 10.0.0.0/8 is a summary) then we should use
the command ip summary-address eigrp 123 10.2.0.0 255.255.0.0 so that all the ping can work
well.
In conclusion, we will use the ip summary-address eigrp 123 10.2.0.0 255.255.0.0 at the interface
s0/0 of R4 to summary.
Now we jump back to R3 and use the show ip route command to verify the effect, the output is
shown below:
Note: Please notice that the IP addresses and the subnet masks in your real exam might be
different so you might use different ones to solve this question.
Just for your information, notice that if you use another network than 10.0.0.0/8 to summary, for
example, if you use the command ip summary-address eigrp 123 10.2.0.0 255.255.0.0 you will
leave a /16 network in the output of the show ip route command.
But in your real exam, if you dont see the line 10.0.0.0/8 is a summary, Null0 then you can
summarize using the network 10.2.0.0/16. This summarization is better because all the pings can
work well.
Finally dont forget to use the copy run start command on routers R3 and R4 to save the
configurations.
R3(config-if)# end
R4(config-if)# end
If the copy run start command doesnt work then use write memory.
ROUTE.com is a small IT corporation that has an existing enterprise network that is running Ipv6
0SPFv3. Currently OSPF is configured on all routers. However, R4s loopback address (FEC0:4:4)
cannot be seen in R1s Ipv6 routing table. You are tasked with identifying the cause of this fault
and implementing the needed corrective actions that uses OPSF features and does not change
the current area assignments. You will know that you have corrected the fault when R4s loopback
address (FEC0:4:4) can be seen in RTs Ipv6 routing table.
Special Note: To gain the maximum number of points you must remove all incorrect or unneeded
configuration statements related to this issue.
Answer:
Here is the solution below:
Explanation:
To troubleshoot the problem, first issue the show running-config on all of 4 routers. Pay more
attention to the outputs of routers R2 and R3 The output of the show running-config command of
R2:
R2>enable
R2#configure terminal
R2(config-rtr)#end
(Notice that we have to use neighbor router-id 3.3.3.3, not R2s router-id 2.2.2.2) + Configure
virtual link on R3 (from the second output above, we learned that the OSPF process ID of R3 is 1
and we have to disable the wrong configuration of area 54 virtual-link 4.4.4.4):
R3>enable
R3#configure terminal
R3(config-rtr)#end
You should check the configuration of R4, too. Make sure to remove the incorrect configuration
statements to get the full points.
R4(config-router)#end
After finishing the configuration doesnt forget to ping between R1 and R4 to make sure they work.
You are a network engineer with ROUTE.com, a small IT company. ROUTE.com has two
connections to the Internet; one via a frame relay link and one via an EoMPLS link. IT policy
requires that all outbound HTTP traffic use the frame relay link when it is available. All other traffic
may use either link. No static or default routing is allowed.
Choose and configure the appropriate path selection feature to accomplish this task. You may use
the Test Workstation to generate HTTP traffic to validate your solution.
Answer:
We need to configure policy based routing to send specific traffic along a path that is different from
the best path in the routing table.
First create the access list that catches the HTTP traffic:
2) Configure the route map that sets the next hop address to be ISP1 and permits the rest of the
traffic:
R1(config-route-map)#exit
3) Apply the route-map on the interface to the server in the EIGRP Network:
R1(config-route-map)#exit
R1(config)#int fa0/1
R1(config-if)#exit
R1(config)#exit
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 50
Cisco 300-101 Exam
Explanation:
First you need to configure access list to HTTP traffic and then configure that access list. After that
configure the route map and then apply it on the interface to the server in EIGRP network.
You are a network engineer with ROUTE.com, a small IT company. They have recently merged
two organizations and now need to merge their networks as shown in the topology exhibit. One
network is using OSPF as its IGP and the other is using EIGRP as its IGP. R4 has been added to
the existing OSPF network to provide the interconnect between the OSPF and EIGRP networks.
Two links have been added that will provide redundancy.
The network requirements state that you must be able to ping and telnet from loopback 101 on R1
to the OPSF domain test address of 172.16.1.100. All traffic must use the shortest path that
provides the greatest bandwidth. The redundant paths from the OSPF network to the EIGRP
network must be available in case of a link failure. No static or default routing is allowed in either
network.
A previous network engineer has started the merger implementation and has successfully
assigned and verified all IP addressing and basic IGP routing. You have been tasked with
completing the implementation and ensuring that the network requirements are met. You may not
remove or change any of the configuration commands currently on any of the routers. You may
add new commands or change default values.
Answer:
First we need to find out 5 parameters (Bandwidth, Delay, Reliability, Load, MTU) of the s0/0/0
interface (the interface of R2 connected to R4) for redistribution:
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 51
Cisco 300-101 Exam
R2#show interface s0/0/0
Write down these 5 parameters, notice that we have to divide the Delay by 10 because the metric
unit is in tens of microsecond. For example, we get Bandwidth=1544 Kbit, Delay=20000 us,
Reliability=255, Load=1, MTU=1500 bytes then we would redistribute as follows:
R2#config terminal
R2(config-router)#exit
Note: In fact, these parameters are just used for reference and we can use other parameters with
no problem.
If the delay is 20000us then we need to divide it by 10, that is 20000 / 10 = 2000)
For example we get Bandwidth=10000 Kbit, Delay=1000 us, Reliability=255, Load=1, MTU=1500
bytes
R3#config terminal
R3(config)#router ospf 1
R3(config)#exit
Finally you should try to show ip route to see the 172.16.100.1 network (the network behind R4)
in the routing table of R1 and make a ping from R1 to this network.
Note: If the link between R2 and R3 is FastEthernet link, we must put the command below under
EIGRP process to make traffic from R1 to go through R3 (R1 -> R2 -> R3 -> R4), which is better
than R1 -> R2 -> R4.
This command sets the Administrative Distance of all EIGRP internal routes to 90 and all EIGRP
external routes to 105, which is smaller than the Administrative Distance of OSPF (110) -> the link
Note: The actual OPSF and EIGRP process numbers may change in the actual exam so be sure
to use the actual correct values, but the overall solution is the same.
QUESTION NO: 36
You have been asked to evaluate how EIGRP is functioning in a customer network. Access the
device consoles to answer the questions.
Traffic from R1 to R6s Loopback address is load shared between R1-R2-R4-R6 and R1-R3-R5-
R6 paths. What is the ratio of traffic over each path?
A.
1:1
B.
1:5
C.
6:8
Answer: D
Explanation:
We see that it is 150.1.6.6, so we issue the show ip route 150.1.6.6 command from R1 and see
this:
Notice the traffic share count shows 19 for the first path, and 80 for the second path.
QUESTION NO: 37
You have been asked to evaluate how EIGRP is functioning in a customer network. Access the
device consoles to answer the questions.
A.
Distribute-list using an ACL
B.
Distribute-list using a prefix-list
C.
Distribute-list using a route-map
D.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 61
Cisco 300-101 Exam
An ACL using a distance of 255
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 38
You have been asked to evaluate how EIGRP is functioning in a customer network. Access the
device consoles to answer the questions.
Which key chain is being used for authentication of EIGRP adjacency between R4 and R2?
A.
CISCO
B.
EIGRP
C.
KEY
D.
MD5
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 39
You have been asked to evaluate how EIGRP is functioning in a customer network. Access the
device consoles to answer the questions.
A.
333056
B.
1938688
C.
1810944
D.
307456
Answer: C
Explanation:
The numbers after the route specify the administrative distance of the route (90 for EIGRP) and
the distance metric of that particular route, which is shown as 1810944 for the 192.168.46.0 route.
QUESTION NO: 40
You have been asked to evaluate how EIGRP is functioning in a customer network. Access the
device consoles to answer the questions.
A.
10
B.
20
C.
30
D.
40
Answer: B
Explanation:
ip bandwidth-percent eigrp 1 20
1 = the EIGRP AS
QUESTION NO: 41
Scenario:
You have been asked to evaluate an OSPF network setup in a test lab and to answer questions a
customer has about its operation. The customer has disabled your access to the show running-
config command.
How old is the Type 4 LSA from Router 3 for area 1 on the router R5 based on the output you
have examined?
A.
1858
B.
1601
C.
600
D.
1569
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 42
Scenario:
You have been asked to evaluate an OSPF network setup in a test lab and to answer questions a
customer has about its operation. The customer has disabled your access to the show running-
config command.
Which of the following statements is true about the serial links that terminate in R3?
A.
The R1-R3 link needs the neighbor command for the adjacency to stay up
B.
The R2-R3 link OSPF timer values are 30, 120, 120
C.
The R1-R3 link OSPF timer values should be 10,40,40
D.
R3 is responsible for flooding LSUs to all the routers on the network.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 43
Scenario:
You have been asked to evaluate an OSPF network setup in a test lab and to answer questions a
customer has about its operation. The customer has disabled your access to the show running-
config command.
A.
1
B.
5
C.
9
D.
20
E.
54
F.
224
Answer: C
Explanation:
This can be found using the show ip ospf command on R4. Look for the Area 1 stats which
shows this:
QUESTION NO: 44
Scenario:
You have been asked to evaluate an OSPF network setup in a test lab and to answer questions a
customer has about its operation. The customer has disabled your access to the show running-
config command.
Areas of Router 5 and 6 are not normal areas. Inspect their routing tables and determine which
statement is true?
A.
R5's Loopback and R6's Loopback are both present in R5's Routing table
B.
R5's Loopback and R6's Loopback are both present in R6's Routing table
C.
Only R5's loopback is present in R5's Routing table
D.
Only R6's loopback is present in R5's Routing table
E.
Only R5's loopback is present in R6's Routing table
Answer: A
Explanation:
Here we see R5s loopbacks in the routing table shown as connected, and the 6.6.6.6 loopback IP
address of R6 is also seen as an OSPF route in R5s routing table.
A company has just opened two remote branch offices that need to be connected to the corporate
network. Which interface configuration output can be applied to the corporate router to allow
communication to the remote sites?
A.
interface Tunnel0
bandwidth 1536
B.
interface fa0/0
bandwidth 1536
C.
interface Tunnel0
bandwidth 1536
tunnel-mode dynamic
D.
interface fa 0/0
bandwidth 1536
tunnel-mode dynamic
Answer: A
The configuration of mGRE allows a tunnel to have multiple destinations. The configuration of
mGRE on one side of a tunnel does not have any relation to the tunnel properties that might exist
at the exit points. This means that an mGRE tunnel on the hub may connect to a p2p tunnel on the
branch. Conversely, a p2p GRE tunnel may connect to an mGRE tunnel. The distinguishing
feature between an mGRE interface and a p2p GRE interface is the tunnel destination. An mGRE
interface does not have a configured destination. Instead the GRE tunnel is configured with the
command tunnel mode gre multipoint. This command is used instead of the tunnel destination
x.x.x.x found with p2p GRE tunnels. Besides allowing for multiple destinations, an mGRE tunnel
requires NHRP to resolve the tunnel endpoints. Note, tunnel interfaces by default are point-to-
point (p-p) using GRE encapsulation, effectively they have the tunnel mode gre command, which
is not seen in the configuration because it is the default.
interface Tunnel0
bandwidth 1536
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/WAN_and_MAN/DMVPDG/DMVPN_2_
Phase2.html
QUESTION NO: 46
A network engineer executes the show crypto ipsec sa command. Which three pieces of
information are displayed in the output? (Choose three.)
A.
inbound crypto map
B.
remaining key lifetime
C.
path MTU
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 99
Cisco 300-101 Exam
D.
tagged packets
E.
untagged packets
F.
invalid identity packets
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
This command shows IPsec SAs built between peers. The encrypted tunnel is built between
12.1.1.1 and 12.1.1.2 for traffic that goes between networks 20.1.1.0 and 10.1.1.0. You can see
the two Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) SAs built inbound and outbound. Authentication
Header (AH) is not used since there are no AH SAs.
This output shows an example of the show crypto ipsec sa command (bolded ones found in
answers for this question).
interface: FastEthernet0
current_peer: 12.1.1.2
PERMIT, flags={origin_is_acl,}
IV size: 8 bytes
inbound ah sas:
spi: 0x3D3(979)
IV size: 8 bytes
outbound ah sas:
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security-vpn/ipsec-negotiation-ike-
protocols/5409-ipsec-debug-00.html
QUESTION NO: 47
What does the authoritative flag mean in regards to the NHRP information?
A.
It was obtained directly from the next-hop server.
B.
Data packets are process switches for this mapping entry.
C.
NHRP mapping is for networks that are local to this router.
D.
The mapping entry was created in response to an NHRP registration request.
E.
The NHRP mapping entry cannot be overwritten.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The IP address and its network mask in the IP-to-NBMA address cache. The mask is always
255.255.255.255 because Cisco does not support aggregation of NBMA information through
The interface type and number and how long ago it was created (hours:minutes:seconds).
The time in which the positive and negative authoritative NBMA address will expire
(hours:minutes:seconds). This value is based on the ip nhrp holdtime command.
Type of interface:
Flags:
authoritativeIndicates that the NHRP information was obtained from the Next Hop
Server or router that maintains the NBMA-to-IP address mapping for a particular
destination.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_4/ip_addr/configuration/guide/hadnhrp.html
QUESTION NO: 48
A.
a routing neighbor reachability issue
B.
a suboptimal routing table
C.
interface bandwidth congestion
D.
that the GRE tunnel to hub router is not encrypted
Answer: A
Explanation:
Problem
Solution
When DMVPN tunnels flap, check the neighborship between the routers as issues with
neighborship formation between routers may cause the DMVPN tunnel to flap. In order to resolve
this problem, make sure the neighborship between the routers is always up.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security-vpn/ipsec-negotiation-ike-
protocols/29240-dcmvpn.html#Prblm1
QUESTION NO: 49
A.
802.1Q
B.
ISL
C.
PPP
D.
Frame Relay
E.
MPLS
F.
HDLC
Answer: A
Explanation:
An EVN trunk is allowed on any interface that supports 802.1q encapsulation, such as
Fast Ethernet, Gigabit Ethernet, and port channels.
If an EVN trunk is configured on an interface, you cannot configure VRF-Lite on the same
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/evn/configuration/xe-3s/evn-xe-3s-
book/evn-overview.pdf
QUESTION NO: 50
Which three characteristics are shared by subinterfaces and associated EVNs? (Choose three.)
A.
IP address
B.
routing table
C.
forwarding table
D.
access control lists
E.
NetFlow configuration
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
runk interface can carry traffic for multiple EVNs. To simplify the configuration process, all the
subinterfaces and associated EVNs have the same IP address assigned. In other words, the trunk
interface is identified by the same IP address in different EVN contexts. This is accomplished as a
result of each EVN having a unique routing and forwarding table, thereby enabling support for
overlapping IP addresses across multiple EVNs.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios-xml/ios/evn/configuration/xe-3sg/evn-
overview.pdf
QUESTION NO: 51
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 105
Cisco 300-101 Exam
A user is having issues accessing file shares on a network. The network engineer advises the user
to open a web browser, input a prescribed IP address, and follow the instructions. After doing this,
the user is able to access company shares. Which type of remote access did the engineer enable?
A.
EZVPN
B.
Ipsec VPN client access
C.
VPDN client access
D.
SSL VPN client access
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Cisco AnyConnect VPN Client provides secure SSL connections to the security appliance for
remote users. Without a previously installed client, remote users enter the IP address in their
browser of an interface configured to accept SSL VPN connections. Unless the security appliance
is configured to redirect http:// requests to https://, users must enter the URL in the form
https://<address>.
After entering the URL, the browser connects to that interface and displays the login screen. If the
user satisfies the login and authentication, and the security appliance identifies the user as
requiring the client, it downloads the client that matches the operating system of the remote
computer. After downloading, the client installs and configures itself, establishes a secure SSL
connection and either remains or uninstalls itself (depending on the security appliance
configuration) when the connection terminates.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/asa-5500-x-series-next-
generation-firewalls/100936-asa8x-split-tunnel-anyconnect-config.html
QUESTION NO: 52
Which Cisco IOS VPN technology leverages Ipsec, mGRE, dynamic routing protocol, NHRP, and
Cisco Express Forwarding?
A.
FlexVPN
C.
GETVPN
D.
Cisco Easy VPN
Answer: B
Explanation:
Dynamic Multipoint Virtual Private Network (DMVPN) is a dynamic tunneling form of a virtual
private network (VPN) supported on Cisco IOS-based routers and Unix-like Operating Systems
based on the standard protocols, GRE, NHRP and Ipsec. This DMVPN provides the capability for
creating a dynamic-mesh VPN network without having to pre-configure (static) all possible tunnel
end-point peers, including Ipsec (Internet Protocol Security) and ISAKMP (Internet Security
Association and Key Management Protocol) peers. DMVPN is initially configured to build out a
hub-and-spoke network by statically configuring the hubs (VPN headends) on the spokes, no
change in the configuration on the hub is required to accept new spokes. Using this initial hub-
and-spoke network, tunnels between spokes can be dynamically built on demand (dynamic-mesh)
without additional configuration on the hubs or spokes. This dynamic-mesh capability alleviates
the need for any load on the hub to route data between the spoke networks.
Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dynamic_Multipoint_Virtual_Private_Network
QUESTION NO: 53
line vty 0 4
B.
only ssh traffic to vty 0 4 from source all
C.
only ssh traffic to vty 0 4 from source 2001:DB8:0:4::32
D.
all traffic to vty 0 4 from source all
Answer: C
Explanation:
Here we see that the Ipv6 access list called cisco is being applied to incoming VTY connections
to the router. Ipv6 access list has just one entry, which allows only the single Ipv6 IP address of
2001:DB8:0:4::32 to connect using SSH only.
QUESTION NO: 54
For troubleshooting purposes, which method can you use in combination with the debug ip
packet command to limit the amount of output data?
A.
You can disable the IP route cache globally.
B.
You can use the KRON scheduler.
C.
You can use an extended access list.
D.
You can use an IOS parser.
E.
You can use the RITE traffic exporter.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The debug ip packet command generates a substantial amount of output and uses a substantial
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 108
Cisco 300-101 Exam
amount of system resources. This command should be used with caution in production networks.
Always use with the access-list command to apply an extended ACL to the debug output.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/dynamic-multipoint-vpn-
dmvpn/111976-dmvpn-troubleshoot-00.html
QUESTION NO: 55
After applying the access list on a Cisco router, the network engineer notices that the router CPU
utilization has risen to 99 percent. What is the reason for this?
A.
A packet that matches access-list with the log keyword is Cisco Express Forwarding switched.
B.
A packet that matches access-list with the "log" keyword is fast switched.
C.
A packet that matches access-list with the "log" keyword is process switched.
D.
A large amount of IP traffic is being permitted on the router.
Answer: C
Explanation:
ging-enabled access control lists (ACLs) provide insight into traffic as it traverses the network or is
dropped by network devices. Unfortunately, ACL logging can be CPU intensive and can negatively
affect other functions of the network device. There are two primary factors that contribute to the
CPU load increase from ACL logging: process switching of packets that match log-enabled access
control entries (ACEs) and the generation and transmission of log messages.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/web/about/security/intelligence/acl-logging.html#4
Which address is used by the Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding protocol to validate a packet
against the routing table?
A.
source address
B.
destination address
C.
router interface
D.
default gateway
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Unicast RPF feature helps to mitigate problems that are caused by the introduction of
malformed or forged (spoofed) IP source addresses into a network by discarding IP packets that
lack a verifiable IP source address. For example, a number of common types of denial-of-service
(DoS) attacks, including Smurf and Tribal Flood Network (TFN), can take advantage of forged or
rapidly changing source IP addresses to allow attackers to thwart efforts to locate or filter the
attacks. For Internet service providers (ISPs) that provide public access, Unicast RPF deflects
such attacks by forwarding only packets that have source addresses that are valid and consistent
with the IP routing table. This action protects the network of the ISP, its customer, and the rest of
the Internet.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_2/security/configuration/guide/scfrpf.html
QUESTION NO: 57
A.
strict mode, loose mode, and VRF mode
B.
strict mode, loose mode, and broadcast mode
C.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 110
Cisco 300-101 Exam
strict mode, broadcast mode, and VRF mode
D.
broadcast mode, loose mode, and VRF mode
Answer: A
Explanation:
Network administrators can use Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding (Unicast RPF) to help limit the
malicious traffic on an enterprise network. This security feature works by enabling a router to verify
the reachability of the source address in packets being forwarded. This capability can limit the
appearance of spoofed addresses on a network. If the source IP address is not valid, the packet is
discarded. Unicast RPF works in one of three different modes: strict mode, loose mode, or
VRF mode. Note that not all network devices support all three modes of operation. Unicast RPF in
VRF mode will not be covered in this document.
When administrators use Unicast RPF in strict mode, the packet must be received on the interface
that the router would use to forward the return packet. Unicast RPF configured in strict mode may
drop legitimate traffic that is received on an interface that was not the router's choice for sending
return traffic. Dropping this legitimate traffic could occur when asymmetric routing paths are
present in the network.
When administrators use Unicast RPF in loose mode, the source address must appear in the
routing table. Administrators can change this behavior using the allow-default option, which
allows the use of the default route in the source verification process. Additionally, a packet that
contains a source address for which the return route points to the Null 0 interface will be dropped.
An access list may also be specified that permits or denies certain source addresses in Unicast
RPF loose mode.
Care must be taken to ensure that the appropriate Unicast RPF mode (loose or strict) is
configured during the deployment of this feature because it can drop legitimate traffic. Although
asymmetric traffic flows may be of concern when deploying this feature, Unicast RPF loose mode
is a scalable option for networks that contain asymmetric routing paths.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/web/about/security/intelligence/unicast-rpf.html
QUESTION NO: 58
What does the following access list, which is applied on the external interface FastEthernet 1/0 of
the perimeter router, accomplish?
A.
It prevents incoming traffic from IP address ranges 10.0.0.0-10.0.0.255, 172.16.0.0-
172.31.255.255, 192.168.0.0-192.168.255.255 and logs any intrusion attempts.
B.
It prevents the internal network from being used in spoofed denial of service attacks and logs any
exit to the Internet.
C.
It filters incoming traffic from private addresses in order to prevent spoofing and logs any intrusion
attempts.
D.
It prevents private internal addresses to be accessed directly from outside.
Answer: C
Explanation:
10.0.0.0 10.255.255.255
172.16.0.0 172.31.255.255
192.168.0.0 192.168.255.255
These IP addresses should never be allowed from external networks into a corporate network as
they would only be able to reach the network from the outside via routing problems or if the IP
addresses were spoofed. This ACL is used to prevent all packets with a spoofed reserved private
source IP address to enter the network. The log keyword also enables logging of this intrusion
attempt.
QUESTION NO: 59
A.
The router will listen on port 4433 for HTTPS traffic.
B.
The router will listen on port 4433 for HTTP traffic.
C.
The router will never accept any HTTP and HTTPS traffic.
D.
The router will listen to HTTP and HTTP traffic on port 4433.
Answer: A
Explanation:
To set the secure HTTP (HTTPS) server port number for listening, use the ip http secure-port
command in global configuration mode. To return the HTTPS server port number to the default,
use the no form of this command.
no ip http secure-port
Syntax Description
port-number
Integer in the range of 0 to 65535 is accepted, but the port number must be higher than 1024
unless the default is used. The default is 443.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios-xml/ios/https/command/nm-https-cr-cl-
sh.html#wp3612805529
QUESTION NO: 60
A network engineer is configuring a routed interface to forward broadcasts of UDP 69, 53, and 49
to 172.20.14.225. Which command should be applied to the configuration to allow this?
B.
router(config-if)#udp helper-address 172.20.14.225
C.
router(config-if)#ip udp helper-address 172.20.14.225
D.
router(config-if)#ip helper-address 172.20.14.225 69 53 49
Answer: A
Explanation:
To let a router forward broadcast packet the command ip helper-address can be used. The
broadcasts will be forwarded to the unicast address which is specified with the ip helper command.
When configuring the ip helper-address command, the following broadcast packets will be
forwarded by the router by default:
Reference: http://www.cisco-faq.com/163/forward_udp_broadcas.html
QUESTION NO: 61
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 114
Cisco 300-101 Exam
A network engineer is configuring SNMP on network devices to utilize one-way SNMP
notifications. However, the engineer is not concerned with authentication or encryption. Which
command satisfies the requirements of this scenario?
A.
router(config)#snmp-server host 172.16.201.28 traps version 2c CISCORO
B.
router(config)#snmp-server host 172.16.201.28 informs version 2c CISCORO
C.
router(config)#snmp-server host 172.16.201.28 traps version 3 auth CISCORO
D.
router(config)#snmp-server host 172.16.201.28 informs version 3 auth CISCORO
Answer: A
Explanation:
Most network admins and engineers are familiar with SNMPv2c which has become the dominant
SNMP version of the past decade. Its simple to configure on both the router/switch-side and just
as easy on the network monitoring server. The problem of course is that the SNMP statistical
payload is not encrypted and authentication is passed in cleartext. Most companies have decided
that the information being transmitted isnt valuable enough to be worth the extra effort in
upgrading to SNMPv3, but I would suggest otherwise.
Like IPv4 to Ipv6, there are some major changes under the hood. SNMP version 2 uses
community strings (think cleartext passwords, no encryption) to authenticate polling and trap
delivery. SNMP version 3 moves away from the community string approach in favor of user-based
authentication and view-based access control. The users are not actual local user accounts, rather
they are simply a means to determine who can authenticate to the device. The view is used to
define what the user account may access on the IOS device. Finally, each user is added to a
group, which determines the access policy for its users. Users, groups, views.
Reference: http://www.ccnpguide.com/snmp-version-3/
QUESTION NO: 62
When using SNMPv3 with NoAuthNoPriv, which string is matched for authentication?
A.
username
C.
community-string
D.
encryption-key
Answer: A
Explanation:
The following security models exist: SNMPv1, SNMPv2, SNMPv3. The following security levels
exits: noAuthNoPriv (no authentiation and no encryption noauth keyword in CLI),
AuthNoPriv109thernet109ationre authenticated but not encrypted auth keyword in CLI),
AuthPriv (messages are authenticated and encrypted priv keyword in CLI). SNMPv1 and
SNMPv2 models only support the noAuthNoPriv model since they use plain community string to
match the incoming packets. The SNMPv3 implementations could be configured to use either of
the models on per-group basis (in case if noAuthNoPriv is configured, username serves as
a replacement for community string).
Reference: http://blog.ine.com/2008/07/19/snmpv3-tutorial/
QUESTION NO: 63
After a recent DoS attack on a network, senior management asks you to implement better logging
functionality on all IOS-based devices. Which two actions can you take to provide enhanced
logging results? (Choose two.)
A.
Use the msec option to enable service time stamps.
B.
Increase the logging history
C.
Set the logging severity level to 1.
D.
Specify a logging rate limit.
E.
Disable event logging on all noncritical items.
The optional msec keyword specifies the date/time format should include milliseconds. This can
aid in pinpointing the exact time of events, or to correlate the order that the events happened. To
limit syslog messages sent to the routers history table and to an SNMP network management
station based on severity, use the logging history command in global configuration mode. By
default, Cisco devices Log error messages of severity levels 0 through 4 (emergency, alert,
critical, error, and warning levels); in other words, saving level warnings or higher. By increasing
the severity level, more granular monitoring can occur, and SNMP messages will be sent by the
less sever (5-7) messages.
QUESTION NO: 64
A network engineer finds that a core router has crashed without warning. In this situation, which
feature can the engineer use to create a crash collection?
A.
secure copy protocol
B.
core dumps
C.
warm reloads
D.
SNMP
E.
NetFlow
Answer: B
Explanation:
When a router crashes, it is sometimes useful to obtain a full copy of the memory image (called a
core dump) to identify the cause of the crash. Core dumps are generally very useful to your
technical support representative.
Four basic ways exist for setting up the router to generate a core dump:
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/internetworking/troubleshooting/guide/tr19aa.html
QUESTION NO: 65
A network engineer is trying to implement broadcast-based NTP in a network and executes the ntp
broadcast client command. Assuming that an NTP server is already set up, what is the result of
the command?
A.
It enables receiving NTP broadcasts on the interface where the command was executed.
B.
It enables receiving NTP broadcasts on all interfaces globally.
C.
It enables a device to be an NTP peer to another device.
D.
It enables a device to receive NTP broadcast and unicast packets.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The NTP service can be activated by entering any ntp command. When you use the ntp broadcast
client command, the NTP service is activated (if it has not already been activated) and the device
is configured to receive NTP broadcast packets on a specified interface simultaneously.
Command
Description
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/bsm/command/bsm-xe-3se-3850-cr-
book/bsm-xe-3se-3850-cr-book_chapter_00.html
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 118
Cisco 300-101 Exam
QUESTION NO: 66
A.
It interferes with encryption of the full IP payload.
B.
It maintains a per-node state.
C.
It is checksum-neutral.
D.
It rewrites transport layer headers.
Answer: C
Explanation:
RFC 6296 describes a stateless Ipv6-to-Ipv6 Network Prefix Translation (NPTv6) function,
designed to provide address independence to the edge network. It is transport-agnostic with
respect to transports that do not checksum the IP header, such as SCTP, and to transports that
use the TCP/UDP/DCCP (Datagram Congestion Control Protocol) pseudo-header and checksum
NPTv6 provides a simple and compelling solution to meet the address-independence requirement
in Ipv6. The address-independence benefit stems directly from the translation function of the
network prefix translator. To avoid as many of the issues associated with NAPT44 as possible,
NPTv6 is defined to include a two-way, checksum-neutral, algorithmic translation function, and
nothing else.
Reference: http://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc6296
QUESTION NO: 67
Ipv6 has just been deployed to all of the hosts within a network, but not to the servers. Which
feature allows Ipv6 devices to communicate with Ipv4 servers?
A.
NAT
C.
NAT64
D.
dual-stack NAT
E.
DNS64
Answer: C
Explanation:
NAT64 is a mechanism to allow Ipv6 hosts to communicate with Ipv4 servers. The NAT64 server
is the endpoint for at least one Ipv4 address and an Ipv6 network segment of 32-bits (for instance
64:ff9b::/96, see RFC 6052, RFC 6146). The Ipv6 client embeds the Ipv4 address it wishes to
communicate with using these bits, and sends its packets to the resulting address. The NAT64
server then creates a NAT-mapping between the Ipv6 and the Ipv4 address, allowing them to
communicate.
Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/NAT64
QUESTION NO: 68
A network engineer initiates the ip sla responder tcp-connect command in order to gather statistics
for performance gauging. Which type of statistics does the engineer see?
A.
connectionless-oriented
B.
service-oriented
C.
connection-oriented
D.
application-oriented
Answer: C
The following example shows how to configure a TCP Connection-oriented operation from Device
B to the Telnet port (TCP port 23) of IP Host 1 (IP address 10.0.0.1), as shown in the TCP
Connect Operation figure in the Information About the IP SLAs TCP Connect Operation section.
The operation is scheduled to start immediately. In this example, the control protocol is disabled
on the source (Device B). IP SLAs uses the control protocol to notify the IP SLAs responder to
enable the target port temporarily. This action allows the responder to reply to the TCP Connect
operation. In this example, because the target is not a Cisco device and a well-known TCP port is
used, there is no need to send the control message.
configure terminal
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipsla/configuration/15-mt/sla-15-mt-
book/sla_tcp_conn.html
QUESTION NO: 69
A network engineer executes the ipv6 flowset command. What is the result?
A.
Flow-label marking in 1280-byte or larger packets is enabled.
B.
Flow-set marking in 1280-byte or larger packets is enabled.
C.
Ipv6 PMTU is enabled on the router.
D.
Ipv6 flow control is enabled on the router.
Answer: A
Explanation:
SUMMARY STEPS
1. enable
2. configure terminal
3. ipv6 flowset
4. exit
DETAILED STEPS
Command or Action
Purpose
Step 1
enable
Example:
Device> enable
Step 2
configure terminal
Example:
Step 3
ipv6 flowset
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipv6_basic/configuration/15-mt/ip6b-
15-mt-book/ip6-mtu-path-disc.html
QUESTION NO: 70
A network engineer executes the show ip flow export command. Which line in the output indicates
that the send queue is full and export packets are not being sent?
A.
output drops
B.
enqueuing for the RP
C.
fragmentation failures
D.
adjacency issues
Answer: A
Explanation:
Field
Description
Specifies the export destinations and ports. The ports are in parentheses.
The total number of export packets sent, and the total number of flows contained within them.
The packet could not be processed by CEF or by fast switching, possibly because another feature
requires running on the packet.
Indicates that CEF was unable to switch the packet or forward it up to the process level.
Indicates that the packet was dropped because of problems constructing the IP packet.
Indicates that there was a problem transferring the export packet between the RP and the line
card.
Indicates that the send queue was full while the packet was being transmitted.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_0s/feature/guide/oaggnf.html
QUESTION NO: 71
A network engineer is asked to configure a site-to-site Ipsec VPN tunnel. One of the last things
that the engineer does is to configure an access list (access-list 1 permit any) along with the
command ip nat inside source list 1 int s0/0 overload. Which functions do the two commands
serve in this scenario?
B.
The command ip nat inside source list 1 int s0/0 overload disables many-to-one access for all
devices on a defined segment to share a single IP address upon exiting the external interface.
C.
The command access-list 1 permit any defines only one machine that is allowed through the
tunnel.
D.
The command ip nat inside source list 1 int s0/0 overload provides many-to-one access for all
devices on a defined segment to share a single IP address upon exiting the external interface.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Configuring NAT to Allow Internal Users to Access the Internet Using Overloading
NAT Router
interface 116thernet 0
ip nat inside
Interface 116thernet 1
ip nat inside
Interface serial 0
ip nat outside
!--- Indicates that any packets received on the inside interface that
Note in the previous second configuration, the NAT pool ovrldonly has a range of one address.
The keyword overload used in the ip nat inside source list 7 pool ovrld overload command
allows NAT to translate multiple inside devices to the single address in the pool.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk648/tk361/technologies_tech_note09186a0080094e77.shtml
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 126
Cisco 300-101 Exam
QUESTION NO: 72
A network engineer is configuring a solution to allow failover of HSRP nodes during maintenance
windows, as an alternative to powering down the active router and letting the network respond
accordingly. Which action will allow for manual switching of HSRP nodes?
A.
Track the up/down state of a loopback interface and shut down this interface during maintenance.
B.
Adjust the HSRP priority without the use of preemption.
C.
Disable and enable all active interfaces on the active HSRP node.
D.
Enable HSRPv2 under global configuration, which allows for maintenance mode.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The standby track command allows you to specify another interface on the router for the HSRP
process to monitor in order to alter the HSRP priority for a given group. If the line protocol of the
specified interface goes down, the HSRP priority is reduced. This means that another HSRP
router with higher priority can become the active router if that router has standby preempt
enabled. Loopback interfaces can be tracked, so when this interface is shut down the HSRP
priority for that router will be lowered and the other HSRP router will then become the active one.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/hot-standby-router-protocol-hsrp/13780-
6.html
QUESTION NO: 73
A network engineer is notified that several employees are experiencing network performance
related issues, and bandwidth-intensive applications are identified as the root cause. In order to
identify which specific type of traffic is causing this slowness, information such as the
source/destination IP and Layer 4 port numbers is required. Which feature should the engineer
use to gather the required information?
A.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 127
Cisco 300-101 Exam
SNMP
B.
Cisco IOS EEM
C.
NetFlow
D.
Syslog
E.
WCCP
Answer: C
Explanation:
A network flow is identified as a unidirectional stream of packets between a given source and
destination--both are defined by a network-layer IP address and transport-layer source and
desnation port numbers. Specifically, a flow is identified as the combination of the following key
fields:
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios-xml/ios/netflow/configuration/12-4t/cfg-nflow-
data-expt.html
QUESTION NO: 74
An organization decides to implement NetFlow on its network to monitor the fluctuation of traffic
that is disrupting core services. After reviewing the output of NetFlow, the network engineer is
unable to see OUT traffic on the interfaces. What can you determine based on this information?
A.
Cisco Express Forwarding has not been configured globally.
B.
NetFlow output has been filtered by default.
C.
Flow Export version 9 is in use.
D.
The command ip flow-capture fragment-offset has been enabled.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 128
Cisco 300-101 Exam
Answer: A
Explanation:
We came across a recent issue where a user setup a router for NetFlow export but was unable to
see the OUT traffic for the interfaces in NetFlow Analyzer. Every NetFlow configuration aspect
was checked and nothing incorrect was found. That is when we noticed the no ip cef command
on the router. CEF was enabled at the global level and within seconds, NetFlow Analyzer started
showing OUT traffic for the interfaces. This is why this topic is about Cisco Express Forwarding.
What is switching?
A Router must make decisions about where to forward the packets passing through. This decision-
making process is called switching. Switching is what a router does when it makes the following
decisions:
1. Whether to forward or not forward the packets after checking that the destination for the packet
is reachable.
2. If the destination is reachable, what is the next hop of the router and which interface will the
router use to get to that destination.
What is CEF?
CEF is one of the available switching options for Cisco routers. Based on the routing table, CEF
creates its own table, called the Forwarding Information Base (FIB). The FIB is organized
differently than the routing table and CEF uses the FIB to decide which interface to send traffic
from. CEF offers the following benefits:
1. Better performance than fast-switching (the default) and takes less CPU to perform the same
task.
3. Overall, CEF can switch traffic faster than route-caching using fast-switching
CEF is disabled by default on all routers except the 7xxx series routers. Enabling and Disabling
CEF is easy. To enable CEF, go into global configuration mode and enter the CEF command.
Router# config t
Router(config)# ip cef
Router(config)#
To disable CEF, simply use the no form of the command, ie. no ip cef.
CEF is a prerequisite to enable NetFlow on the router interfaces. CEF decides through which
Reference: https://blogs.manageengine.com/network-2/netflowanalyzer/2010/05/19/need-for-cef-
in-netflow-data-export.html
QUESTION NO: 75
A network engineer has left a NetFlow capture enabled over the weekend to gather information
regarding excessive bandwidth utilization. The following command is entered:
A.
configuration of the specified flow exporter
B.
current status of the specified flow exporter
C.
status and statistics of the specified flow monitor
D.
configuration of the specified flow monitor
Answer: B
Explanation:
Example:
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios-xml/ios/fnetflow/configuration/15-mt/cfg-de-
fnflow-exprts.html
QUESTION NO: 76
A companys corporate policy has been updated to require that stateless, 1-to-1, and Ipv6 to Ipv6
translations at the Internet edge are performed. What is the best solution to ensure compliance
with this new policy?
A.
NAT64
B.
NAT44
C.
NATv6
D.
NPTv4
E.
NPTv6
Answer: E
Explanation:
NPTv6 provides a mechanism to translate the private internal organization prefixes to public
globally reachable addresses. The translation mechanism is stateless and provides a 1:1
relationship between the internal addresses and external addresses. The use cases for NPTv6
outlined in the RFC include peering with partner networks, multi homing, and redundancy and load
sharing.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/solutions/SBA/August2012/Cisco_SBA_BN_IPv6Addre
ssingGuide-Aug2012.pdf
Which two functions are completely independent when implementing NAT64 over NAT-PT?
(Choose two.)
A.
DNS
B.
NAT
C.
port redirection
D.
stateless translation
E.
session handling
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Work Address Translation IPv6 to IPv4, or NAT64, technology facilitates communication between
IPv6-only and IPv4-only hosts and networks (whether in a transit, an access, or an edge network).
This solution allows both enterprises and ISPs to accelerate IPv6 adoption while simultaneously
handling IPv4 address depletion. The DnS64 and NAT64 functions are completely separated,
which is essential to the superiority of NAT64 over NAT-PT.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/ios-nx-os-software/enterprise-ipv6-
solution/white_paper_c11-676278.html
QUESTION NO: 78
Which two methods of deployment can you use when implementing NAT64? (Choose two.)
A.
stateless
B.
stateful
C.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 132
Cisco 300-101 Exam
manual
D.
automatic
E.
static
F.
functional
G.
dynamic
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
While stateful and stateless NAT64 perform the task of translating IPv4 packets into IPv6 packets
and vice versa, there are important differences. The following table provides a high-level overview
of the most relevant differences.
Stateless NAT64
Stateful NAT64
1:1 translation
1:N translation
Requires either manual or DHCPv6 based address assignment for IPv6 hosts
Free to choose any mode of IPv6 address assignment viz. Manual, DHCPv6, SLAAC
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 133
Cisco 300-101 Exam
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/ios-nx-os-software/enterprise-ipv6-
solution/white_paper_c11-676277.html
QUESTION NO: 79
Which NetFlow component is applied to an interface and collects information about flows?
A.
flow monitor
B.
flow exporter
C.
flow sampler
D.
flow collector
Answer: A
Explanation:
Flow monitors are the NetFlow component that is applied to interfaces to perform network traffic
monitoring. Flow monitors consist of a record and a cache. You add the record to the flow monitor
after you create the flow monitor. The flow monitor cache is automatically created at the time the
flow monitor is applied to the first interface. Flow data is collected from the network traffic during
the monitoring process based on the key and nonkey fields in the record, which is configured for
the flow monitor and stored in the flow monitor cache.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/fnetflow/command/reference/fnf_book/fnf_01.html#wp13
14030
QUESTION NO: 80
Which statement about the output of the show flow-sampler command is true?
A.
The sampler matched 10 packets, each packet randomly chosen from every group of 100 packets.
B.
The sampler matched 10 packets, one packet every 100 packets.
C.
The sampler matched 10 packets, each one randomly chosen from every 100-second interval.
D.
The sampler matched 10 packets, one packet every 100 seconds.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The sampling mode determines the algorithm that selects a subset of traffic for NetFlow
processing. In the random sampling mode that Random Sampled NetFlow uses, incoming packets
are randomly selected so that one out of each n sequential packets is selected on average for
NetFlow processing. For example, if you set the sampling rate to 1 out of 100 packets, then
NetFlow might sample the 5th, 120th, 199th, 302nd, and so on packets. This sample configuration
provides NetFlow data on 1 percent of total traffic. The n value is a parameter from 1 to 65535
packets that you can configure.
Field
Description
Sampler
id
packets matched
mode
sampling interval is
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_0s/feature/guide/nfstatsa.html#wp1084291
QUESTION NO: 81
A.
It configures the router to export cache flow information to IP 10.10.10.1 on port UDP/5858.
B.
It configures the router to export cache flow information about flows with destination IP 10.10.10.1
and port UDP/5858.
C.
It configures the router to receive cache flow information from IP 10.10.10.1 on port UDP/5858.
D.
It configures the router to receive cache flow information about flows with destination IP 10.10.10.1
and port UDP/5858.
Answer: A
Explanation:
To enable the exporting of information in NetFlow cache entries, use the ip flow-export
destination command in global configuration mode.
Syntax Description
ip-address
IP address of the workstation to which you want to send the NetFlow information.
Udp-port
QUESTION NO: 82
A.
discover messages
B.
DHCP messages where the source MAC and client MAC do not match
C.
traffic from a trusted DHCP server to client
D.
DHCP messages where the destination MAC and client MAC do not match
Answer: B
Explanation:
The switch validates DHCP packets received on the untrusted interfaces of VLANs with DHCP
snooping enabled. The switch forwards the DHCP packet unless any of the following conditions
occur (in which case the packet is dropped):
The switch receives a packet on an untrusted interface, and the source MAC address and
the DHCP client hardware address do not match. This check is performed only if the DHCP
snooping MAC address verification option is turned on.
The switch receives a DHCPRELEASE or DHCPDECLINE message from an untrusted host with
an entry in the DHCP snooping binding table, and the interface information in the binding table
does not match the interface on which the message was received.
The switch receives a DHCP packet that includes a relay agent IP address that is not 0.0.0.0.
To support trusted edge switches that are connected to untrusted aggregation-switch ports, you
can enable the DHCP option-82 on untrusted port feature, which enables untrusted aggregation-
switch ports to accept DHCP packets that include option-82 information. Configure the port on the
edge switch that connects to the aggregation switch as a trusted port.
QUESTION NO: 83
Which two commands would be used to troubleshoot high memory usage for a process? (Choose
two.)
A.
router#show memory allocating-process table
B.
router#show memory summary
C.
router#show memory dead
D.
router#show memory events
E.
router#show memory processor statistics
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 84
dns-server 2001:DB8:1:B::1
dns-server 2001:DB8:3:307C::42
domain-name example.com
!
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 138
Cisco 300-101 Exam
If IPv6 is configured with default settings on all interfaces on the router, which two dynamic IPv6
addressing mechanisms could you use on end hosts to provide end-to-end connectivity? (Choose
two.)
A.
EUI-64
B.
SLAAC
C.
DHCPv6
D.
BOOTP
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 85
The enterprise network WAN link has been receiving several denial of service attacks from both
IPv4 and IPv6 sources. Which three elements can you use to identify an IPv6 packet via its
header, in order to filter future attacks? (Choose three.)
A.
Traffic Class
B.
Source address
C.
Flow Label
D.
Hop Limit
E.
Destination Address
F.
Fragment Offset
Answer: A,C,D
QUESTION NO: 86
A network engineer has set up VRF-Lite on two routers where all the interfaces are in the same
VRF. At a later time, a new loopback is added to Router 1, but it cannot ping any of the existing
interfaces. Which two configurations enable the local or remote router to ping the loopback from
any existing interface? (Choose two.)
A.
adding a static route for the VRF that points to the global route table
B.
adding the loopback to the VRF
C.
adding dynamic routing between the two routers and advertising the loopback
D.
adding the IP address of the loopback to the export route targets for the VRF
E.
adding a static route for the VRF that points to the loopback interface
F.
adding all interfaces to the global and VRF routing tables
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 87
Refer to the exhibit. The network setup is running the RIP routing protocol. Which two events will
occur following link failure between R2 and R3? (Choose two.)
A.
R2 will advertise network 192.168.2.0/27 with a hop count of 16 to R1.
B.
R2 will not send any advertisements and will remove route 192.168.2.0/27 from its routing table.
C.
R1 will reply to R2 with the advertisement for network 192.168.2.0/27 with a hop count of 16.
D.
After communication fails and after the hold-down timer expires, R1 will remove the
192.168.2.0/27 route from its routing table.
E.
R3 will not accept any further updates from R2, due to the split-horizon loop prevention
mechanism.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 88
Which three benefits does the Cisco Easy Virtual Network provide to an enterprise network?
(Choose three.)
A.
simplified Layer 3 network virtualization
B.
improved shared services support
C.
enhanced management, troubleshooting, and usability
D.
reduced configuration and deployment time for dot1q trunking
F.
decreased BGP neighbor configurations
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 89
Which technology was originally developed for routers to handle fragmentation in the path
between end points?
A.
PMTUD
B.
MSS
C.
windowing
D.
TCP
E.
global synchronization
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 90
Which traffic characteristic is the reason that UDP traffic that carries voice and video is assigned to
the queue only on a link that is at least 768 kbps?
A.
typically is not fragmented
B.
C.
causes windowing
D.
causes excessive delays for video traffic
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 91
A network administrator is troubleshooting a DMVPN setup between the hub and the spoke.
Which action should the administrator take before troubleshooting the IPsec configuration?
A.
Verify the GRE tunnels.
B.
Verify ISAKMP.
C.
Verify NHRP.
D.
Verify crypto maps.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 92
To configure SNMPv3 implementation, a network engineer is using the AuthNoPriv security level.
What effect does this action have on the SNMP messages?
A.
They become unauthenticated and unencrypted.
B.
They become authenticated and unencrypted.
D.
They become unauthenticated and encrypted.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 93
A network engineer is investigating the cause of a service disruption on a network segment and
executes the debug condition interface fastethernet f0/0 command. In which situation is the
debugging output generated?
A.
when packets on the interface are received and the interface is operational
B.
when packets on the interface are received and logging buffered is enabled
C.
when packets on the interface are received and forwarded to a configured syslog server
D.
when packets on the interface are received and the interface is shut down
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 94
Refer to the exhibit. The command is executed while configuring a point-to-multipoint Frame Relay
interface. Which type of IPv6 address is portrayed in the exhibit?
A.
link-local
B.
C.
global
D.
multicast
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 95
An engineer executes the ip flow ingress command in interface configuration mode. What is the
result of this action?
A.
It enables the collection of IP flow samples arriving to the interface.
B.
It enables the collection of IP flow samples leaving the interface.
C.
It enables IP flow while disabling IP CEF on the interface.
D.
It enables IP flow collection on the physical interface and its subinterfaces.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 96
What is the primary service that is provided when you implement Cisco Easy Virtual Network?
A.
It requires and enhances the use of VRF-Lite.
B.
It reduces the need for common services separation.
D.
It introduces multi-VRF and label-prone network segmentation.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 97
How does an IOS router process a packet that should be switched by Cisco Express Forwarding
without an FIB entry?
A.
by forwarding the packet
B.
by dropping the packet
C.
by creating a new FIB entry for the packet
D.
by looking in the routing table for an alternate FIB entry
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 98
A.
Dual stack translates IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses.
B.
Dual stack means that devices are able to run IPv4 and IPv6 in parallel.
C.
Dual stack translates IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 99
A.
MS CHAP
B.
CDPCP
C.
CHAP
D.
PAP
Answer: D
Explanation:
A router receives a routing advertisement for the same prefix and subnet from four different routing
protocols. Which advertisement is installed in the routing table?
A.
RIP
B.
OSPF
C.
iBGP
D.
EIGRP
Refer to the exhibit. When summarizing these routes, which route is the summarized route?
A.
OI 2001:DB8::/48 [110/100] via FE80::A8BB:CCFF:FE00:6F00, Ethernet0/0
B.
OI 2001:DB8::/24 [110/100] via FE80::A8BB:CCFF:FE00:6F00, Ethernet0/0
C.
OI 2001:DB8::/32 [110/100] via FE80::A8BB:CCFF:FE00:6F00, Ethernet0/0
D.
OI 2001:DB8::/64 [110/100] via FE80::A8BB:CCFF:FE00:6F00, Ethernet0/0
Answer: A
Explanation:
A.
a private AS number
B.
a public AS number
C.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 148
Cisco 300-101 Exam
a private 4-byte AS number
D.
a public 4-byte AS number
Answer: A
Explanation:
Refer to the exhibit. After configuring GRE between two routers running OSPF that are connected
to each other via a WAN link, a network engineer notices that the two routers cannot establish the
GRE tunnel to begin the exchange of routing updates. What is the reason for this?
A.
Either a firewall between the two routers or an ACL on the router is blocking IP protocol number
47.
B.
Either a firewall between the two routers or an ACL on the router is blocking UDP 57.
C.
Either a firewall between the two routers or an ACL on the router is blocking TCP 47.
D.
Either a firewall between the two routers or an ACL on the router is blocking IP protocol number
57.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A.
DMVPN
B.
GETVPN
C.
Cisco Easy VPN
D.
FlexVPN
Answer: A
Explanation:
Which Cisco VPN technology uses AAA to implement group policies and authorization and is also
used for the XAUTH authentication method?
A.
DMVPN
B.
Cisco Easy VPN
C.
GETVPN
D.
GREVPN
Answer: B
Explanation:
B.
noauth
C.
priv
D.
secret
Answer: C
Explanation:
A.
The router acts as an authoritative NTP clock and allows only 10 NTP client connections.
B.
The router acts as an authoritative NTP clock at stratum 10.
C.
The router acts as an authoritative NTP clock with a priority number of 10.
D.
The router acts as an authoritative NTP clock for 10 minutes only.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Refer to the exhibit. The DHCP client is unable to receive a DHCP address from the DHCP server.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 151
Cisco 300-101 Exam
Consider the following output:
hostname RouterB
Which configuration is required on the Router B fastethernet 0/0 port in order to allow the DHCP
client to successfully receive an IP address from the DHCP server?
A.
RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 172.16.1.2
B.
RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 172.16.1.1
C.
RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 172.31.1.1
D.
RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 255.255.255.255
Answer: A
Explanation:
A.
It is used to translate IPv4 prefixes to IPv6 prefixes.
B.
It is used to translate an IPv6 address prefix to another IPv6 prefix.
C.
It is used to translate IPv6 prefixes to IPv4 subnets with appropriate masks.
D.
It is used to translate IPv4 addresses to IPv6 link-local addresses.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Two aspects of an IP SLA operation can be tracked: state and reachability. Which statement about
state tracking is true?
A.
When tracking state, an OK return code means that the track's state is up; any other return code
means that the track's state is down.
B.
When tracking state, an OK or over threshold return code means that the track's state is up; any
other return code means that the track's state is down.
C.
When tracking state, an OK return code means that the track's state is down; any other return
code means that the track's state is up.
D.
When tracking state, an OK or over threshold return code means that the track's state is down;
any other return code means that the track's state is up.
Answer: A
A.
20 packets are being sent every 30 seconds.
B.
The monitor starts at 12:05:00 a.m.
C.
Jitter is being tested with TCP packets to port 65051.
D.
The packets that are being sent use DSCP EF.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the command output is true?
A.
The router exports flow information to 10.10.10.1 on UDP port 5127.
B.
The router receives flow information from 10.10.10.2 on UDP port 5127.
C.
The router exports flow information to 10.10.10.1 on TCP port 5127.
D.
The router receives flow information from 10.10.10.2 on TCP port 5127.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A network engineer is trying to modify an existing active NAT configuration on an IOS router by
using the following command:
Upon entering the command on the IOS router, the following message is seen on the console:
%Dynamic Mapping in Use, Cannot remove message or the %Pool outpool in use, cannot destroy
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 155
Cisco 300-101 Exam
What is the least impactful method that the engineer can use to modify the existing IP NAT
configuration?
A.
Clear the IP NAT translations using the clear ip nat traffic * " command, then replace the NAT
configuration quickly, before any new NAT entries are populated into the translation table due to
active NAT traffic.
B.
Clear the IP NAT translations using the clear ip nat translation * " command, then replace the NAT
configuration quickly, before any new NAT entries are populated into the translation table due to
active NAT traffic.
C.
Clear the IP NAT translations using the reload command on the router, then replace the NAT
configuration quickly, before any new NAT entries are populated into the translation table due to
active NAT traffic.
D.
Clear the IP NAT translations using the clear ip nat table * " command, then replace the NAT
configuration quickly, before any new NAT entries are populated into the translation table due to
active NAT traffic.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Which IPv6 address type is seen as the next-hop address in the output of the show ipv6 rip RIPng
database command?
A.
link-local
B.
global
C.
site-local
D.
anycast
E.
multicast
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 156
Cisco 300-101 Exam
Answer: A
Explanation:
Which three items can you track when you use two time stamps with IP SLAs? (Choose three.)
A.
delay
B.
jitter
C.
packet loss
D.
load
E.
throughput
F.
path
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
If the total bandwidth is 64 kbps and the RTT is 3 seconds, what is the bandwidth delay product?
A.
8,000 bytes
B.
16,000 bytes
C.
24,000 bytes
D.
E.
62,000 bytes
Answer: C
Explanation:
A.
Update: 30 seconds Expire: 180 seconds Flush: 240 seconds
B.
Update: 20 seconds Expire: 120 seconds Flush: 160 seconds
C.
Update: 10 seconds Expire: 60 seconds Flush: 80 seconds
D.
Update: 5 seconds Expire: 30 seconds Flush: 40 seconds
Answer: A
Explanation:
A.
It extends the IP address to identify which VRF instance it belongs to.
B.
It enables multicast distribution for VRF-Lite setups to enhance IGP routing protocol capabilities.
C.
It manages the import and export of routes between two or more VRF instances.
D.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A network engineer has configured a tracking object to monitor the reachability of IP SLA 1. In
order to update the next hop for the interesting traffic, which feature must be used in conjunction
with the newly created tracking object to manipulate the traffic flow as required?
A.
SNMP
B.
PBR
C.
IP SLA
D.
SAA
E.
ACLs
F.
IGP
Answer: B
Explanation:
A route map uses an ACL, if the required matching is based on which criteria?
A.
addressing information
B.
route types
D.
metrics
Answer: A
Explanation:
Various employees in the same department report to the network engineer about slowness in the
network connectivity to the Internet. They are also having latency issues communicating to the
network drives of various departments. Upon monitoring, the engineer finds traffic flood in the
network. Which option is the problem?
A.
network outage
B.
network switching loop
C.
router configuration issue
D.
wrong proxy configured
Answer: B
Explanation:
Which type of handshake does CHAP authentication use to establish a PPP link?
A.
one-way
B.
two-way
D.
four-way
Answer: C
Explanation:
A.
WAP
B.
PAP
C.
CHAP
D.
EAP
E.
RADIUS
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
A.
Multiple PPPoE clients can use the same dialer interface.
B.
Multiple PPPoE clients can use the same dialer pool.
D.
A PPPoE session can be initiated only by the access concentrator.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A.
This configuration is incorrect because the MTU must match the ppp-max-payload that is defined.
B.
This configuration is incorrect because the dialer interface number must be the same as the dialer
pool number.
C.
This configuration is missing an IP address on the dialer interface.
D.
This configuration represents a complete PPPoE client configuration on an Ethernet connection.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A company has their headquarters located in a large city with a T3 frame relay link that connects
30 remote locations that each have T1 frame relay connections. Which technology must be
configured to prevent remote sites from getting overwhelmed with traffic and prevent packet drops
from the headquarters?
A.
traffic shaping
B.
IPsec VPN
C.
GRE VPN
D.
MPLS
Answer: A
Explanation:
On which two types of interface is Frame Relay switching supported? (Choose two.)
A.
serial interfaces
B.
Ethernet interfaces
C.
fiber interfaces
D.
ISDN interfaces
E.
auxiliary interfaces
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
In IPv6, SLAAC provides the ability to address a host based on a network prefix that is advertised
from a local network router. How is the prefix advertised?
A.
routing table
B.
router advertisements
C.
routing protocol
D.
routing type
Answer: B
Explanation:
Which option prevents routing updates from being sent to the access layer switches?
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 164
Cisco 300-101 Exam
A.
DWS1(config-router)# passive-interface default DWS2(config-router)# passive-interface default
B.
ALS1(config-router)# passive-interface default ALS2(config-router)# passive-interface default
C.
DWS1(config-router)# passive-interface gi1/1 DWS1(config-router)# passive-interface gi1/2
DWS2(config-router)# passive-interface gi1/1 DWS2(config-router)# passive-interface gi1/2
D.
ALS1(config-router)# passive-interface gi0/1 ALS1(config-router)# passive-interface gi0/2
ALS2(config-router)# passive-interface gi0/1 ALS2(config-router)# passive-interface gi0/2
Answer: C
Explanation:
Which option prevents routing updates from being sent to the DHCP router, while still allowing
routing update messages to flow to the Internet router and the distribution switches?
A.
DHCP(config-router)# passive-interface default DHCP(config-router)# no passive-interface Gi1/0
Internet(config-router)# passive-interface Gi0/1 Internet (config-router)# passive-interface Gi0/2
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 165
Cisco 300-101 Exam
B.
Core(config-router)# passive-interface Gi0/0 Core(config-router)# passive-interface Gi3/1
Core(config-router)# passive-interface Gi3/2 DHCP(config-router)# no passive-interface Gi1/0
C.
Core(config-router)# passive-interface default Core(config-router)# no passive-interface Gi0/0
Core(config-router)# no passive-interface Gi3/1 Core(config-router)# no passive-interface Gi3/2
D.
Internet(config-router)# passive-interface default Core(config-router)# passive-interface default
DSW1(config-router)# passive-interface default DSW2(config-router)# passive-interface default
Answer: C
Explanation:
A network engineer is considering enabling load balancing with EIGRP. Which consideration
should be analyzed?
A.
EIGRP allows a maximum of four paths across for load balancing traffic.
B.
By default, EIGRP uses a default variance of 2 for load balancing.
C.
EIGRP unequal path load balancing can result in routing loops.
D.
By default, EIGRP performs equal cost load balancing at least across four equal cost paths.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The OSPF database of a router shows LSA types 1, 2, 3, and 7 only. Which type of area is this
router connected to?
A.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 166
Cisco 300-101 Exam
stub area
B.
totally stubby area
C.
backbone area
D.
not-so-stubby area
Answer: D
Explanation:
An engineer is configuring a GRE tunnel interface in the default mode. The engineer has assigned
an IPv4 address on the tunnel and sourced the tunnel from an Ethernet interface. Which option
also is required on the tunnel interface before it is operational?
A.
tunnel destination address
B.
keepalives
C.
IPv6 address
D.
tunnel protection
Answer: A
Explanation:
A.
B.
LLDP
C.
EIGRP
D.
NHRP
Answer: D
Explanation:
Which two routing protocols are supported by Easy Virtual Network? (Choose two.)
A.
RIPv2
B.
OSPFv2
C.
BGP
D.
EIGRP
E.
IS-IS
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
A.
B.
RADIUS encrypts the entire body of the packet.
C.
TACACS+ encrypts only the password portion of a packet.
D.
TACACS+ separates authentication and authorization.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Which two statements about AAA implementation in a Cisco router are true? (Choose two.)
A.
RADIUS is more flexible than TACACS+ in router management.
B.
RADIUS and TACACS+ allow accounting of commands.
C.
RADIUS and TACACS+ encrypt the entire body of the packet.
D.
RADIUS and TACACS+ are client/server AAA protocols.
E.
Neither RADIUS nor TACACS+ allow for accounting of commands.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
A.
B.
allow default route
C.
allow based on ACL match
D.
source reachable via both
Answer: D
Explanation:
Which option represents the minimal configuration that allows inbound traffic from the
172.16.1.0/24 network to successfully enter router R, while also limiting spoofed 10.0.0.0/8 hosts
that could enter router R?
A.
(config)#ip cef
(config)#interface fa0/0
B.
(config)#ip cef
(config)#interface fa0/0
C.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 170
Cisco 300-101 Exam
(config)#no ip cef
(config)#interface fa0/0
D.
(config)#interface fa0/0
Answer: A
Explanation:
Which outbound access list, applied to the WAN interface of a router, permits all traffic except for
http traffic sourced from the workstation with IP address 10.10.10.1?
A.
ip access-list extended 200
B.
ip access-list extended 10
C.
ip access-list extended NO_HTTP
D.
ip access-list extended 100
Answer: D
Which two statements indicate a valid association mode for NTP synchronization? (Choose two.)
A.
The client polls NTP servers for time.
B.
The client broadcasts NTP requests.
C.
The client listens to NTP broadcasts.
D.
The client creates a VPN tunnel to an NTP server.
E.
The client multicasts NTP requests.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
A.
ip nat inside source list 10 interface FastEthernet0/1 overload
B.
ip nat outside source static 209.165.200.225 10.10.10.0 overload
C.
ip nat inside source list 10 interface FastEthernet0/2 overload
D.
ip nat outside source list 10 interface FastEthernet0/2 overload
Answer: A
Explanation:
Which statement describes what this command accomplishes when inside and outside interfaces
are correctly identified for NAT?
A.
It allows host 192.168.1.50 to access external websites using TCP port 8080.
B.
It allows external clients coming from public IP 209.165.201.1 to connect to a web server at
192.168.1.50.
C.
It allows external clients to connect to a web server hosted on 192.168.1.50.
D.
It represents an incorrect NAT configuration because it uses standard TCP ports.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Which technology can be employed to automatically detect a WAN primary link failure and failover
to the secondary link?
A.
HSRP
B.
VRRP
C.
IP SLA
D.
multicast
Answer: C
Explanation:
A.
CLI
B.
NetFlow
C.
built-in GUI
D.
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 174
Cisco 300-101 Exam
syslog server interface
E.
web interface
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Drag and drop the Cisco Express Forwarding adjacency types from the left to the correct type of
processing on the right.
Answer:
Explanation:
Drag and drop the BGP states from the left to the matching definitions on the right.
Answer:
Explanation:
Drag and drop the IPv6 NAT characteristic from the left to the matching IPv6 NAT category on the
right.
Answer:
Explanation:
An engineer is asked to monitor the availability of the next-hop IP address of 172.16.201.25 every
3 seconds using an ICMP echo packet via an ICMP echo probe. Which two commands
accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A.
router(config-ip-sla)#icmp-echo 172.16.201.25 source-interface FastEthernet 0/0
B.
router(config-ip-sla-echo)#timeout 3
C.
D.
router(config-ip-sla-echo)#frequency 3
E.
router(config-ip-sla)#udp-echo 172.16.201.25 source-port 23
F.
router(config-ip-sla-echo)#threshold 3
Answer: A,D